Problem 12077 Let f (x) be a monic polynomial with distinct zeros a1 , . . . , an .

Prove
n
X an−1
i
= 1.
i=1
f 0 (ai )

Proof. Denote bi := an−1

i . Recall that there is a unique polynomial P of order
at most n − 1 that fulfills P (ai ) = bi . Indeed, if there were at least 2 such
polynomials, then their difference would have degree < n and n distinct zeros,
so it is zero. The polynomial P is the Lagrance interpolation polynomial. It is
defined as
n
X (x − a1 ) . . . x − ai . . . (x − an )
P (x) = bi
i=1 (ai − a1 ) . . . (ai − ai ) . . . (ai − an )

where the overlined terms are omitted. This can of course be rewritten as
n
X (x − a1 ) . . . x − ai . . . (x − an )
P (x) = bi
i=1
f 0 (ai )

as f 0 can easily be computed. On the other hand the polynomial x 7→ xn−1 also
maps ai 7→ bi . Thus, by uniqueness
n
X (x − a1 ) . . . x − ai . . . (x − an )
xn = bi .
i=1 (ai − a1 ) . . . (ai − ai ) . . . (ai − an )

Now please observe that the coefficient of the xn−1 has to be the same in both
sides of the equality, and this is what we were supposed to prove.