Physics

for Cambridge O Level

Answer Book

Pauline Anning

I
Published by
PEAK PUBLISHING LIMITED
London
UK

© Peak Publishing Limited 2016

Text © Pauline Anning 2016

First published 2016

ISBN: 1 845222 14 8

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Printed in Pakistan

II
 Contents
1 Physical Quantities, Units and Measurement .............................................. 2
2 Kinematics .................................................................................................... 3
3 Dynamics ...................................................................................................... 4
4 Mass, weight and density ............................................................................. 5
5 Deformation and turning effects of forces ................................................... 6
6 Pressure ........................................................................................................ 9
7 Energy sources and transfer of energy ....................................................... 10
8 Transfer of thermal energy ......................................................................... 11
9 Temperature ............................................................................................... 13
10 Thermal properties of matter .................................................................... 15
11 Kinetic model of matter ............................................................................. 16
12 Waves ......................................................................................................... 18
13 Light ........................................................................................................... 20
14 Electromagnetic Spectrum ......................................................................... 22
15 Sound ......................................................................................................... 23
16 Magnetism and electromagnetism ............................................................ 24
17 Static electricity ......................................................................................... 26
18 Current electricity ...................................................................................... 27
19 D.C. Circuits ................................................................................................ 29
20 Practical electricity ..................................................................................... 31
21 Electromagnetism and electromagnetic induction .................................... 32
22 Introductory electronics and electronic systems ....................................... 34
23 Radioactivity .............................................................................................. 35
24 The nuclear atom ....................................................................................... 37

1
 Chapter 1: Physical Quantities, Units and Measurement

Self – Assessment Answers

1. b
2. c
3. a
4. c
5. a
6. b
7. c
8. d
9. c
10. d
11. a) measuring tape
b) metre rule
c) micrometer screw gauge
12. a) mass
b) force
c) length
d) area
e) volume
f) speed or velocity
13. a)
Quantity Scalar Vector
mass 
force 
displacement 
acceleration 
distance 
speed 

14. a) The resultant of two vectors is the single vector that has the same effect as both the
original vectors acting together.
b) Resultant velocity of 1.8 m s–1 at 34° west of north
c) Resultant force of 7.9 N at 19° to the 6.0 N force.
15. a) This is a safety precaution to stop the stand toppling over.
b) 1 complete oscillation is from the centre position to one side of the motion, back
through the centre to the other side of the motion and back to the centre.
c) 0.01 s
d) The reaction time of the student is about 0.2 seconds. If she measures the time for
10 oscillations the reaction time is small compared to the total time measured. If she
measures the time for 1 oscillation only the reaction time is large compared to the
total time measured, so the error in the final result is greater.

2
 e) The student should add her 3 measured times and divide by 3 to give a mean time for
10 oscillations. She should divide this by 10 to give the period for 1 oscillation.

Chapter 2: Kinematics

Self – Assessment Answers

1. b
2. d
3. b
4. b
5. a
6. b
7. a
8. c
9. b
10. b
11. a) b) ii)

ii) i)

distance i) iii)
velocity

iii)

time time

12. a) i) 2 m/s2
ii) The change in speed is unlikely to be exactly the same during each second.
b) i)
30

velocity
in m/s

time 120 132

in s
ii) Area under graph up to 132 s.
13. a) 10 m/s
b) i) 48 m
ii) 5 m/s2
14. a) Speed is distance travelled per unit time.
b) Velocity is speed in a given direction.
c) Acceleration is the change in speed divided by the time taken for the change.
d) The ball will accelerate downwards at 9.81 m/s2.

3
15. a) Measure the distance with a tape along a stretch of road as straight and as long as
possible, mark the distance clearly at the side of the road. One student should stand
next to the first mark and wave a flag as the front of a car passes the mark. A second
student should stand next to the second mark. When the first student waves the flag
the second student should start a stopwatch. When the front of the car passes the
second mark the second student stops the stopwatch.
b) The students should stand next to the road, not on the road. They should wear bright
clothing. They should do their investigation on a day with good visibility, not when it is
dark or raining.
c) If the students carry out their investigation on a school day at a time when students
are entering and leaving the school cars are likely to be travelling fairly slowly. At the
weekend or during a part of the day when students are in school there are likely to be
more cars travelling faster.

Chapter 3: Dynamics

Self – Assessment Answers

1. d
2. a
3. c
4. d
5. d
6. d
7. c
8. b
9. b
10. a
11. a) If body A exerts a force on body B, then body B exerts and equal and opposite force on
body A.
b) Rocket Engine Thrust

Gases pushed backward

Engine pushed forward

The gas exerts an equal and opposite force on the rocket.

12.
Lift

Constant Speed

Drag Thrust

Weight

4
13. a) 4 m/s2
b) 2 400 N
14. a) As he accelerates drag increases, resultant force downwards decreases, so acceleration
decreases. Eventually drag becomes equal to weight, resultant force is zero, so travels
at steady speed.
b) 700N upwards
c) Large increase in surface are when parachute opens, so drag increases causing a
resultant force upwards in the opposite direction to the motion.
15. a) They are directly proportional. If you double the speed the thinking distance doubles.
b) i) tiredness, drugs, alcohol
ii) poor condition of; road, brakes, road surface icy/wet roads
16. a) electrostatic force
b) towards the nucleus
c) it would decrease

Chapter 4: Mass, weight and density

Self – Assessment Answers

1. c
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. c
6. d
7. c
8. b
9. c
10. d
11. Volume of water displaced = 5.5 cm3
Density of granite = 15.6 / 5.5 = 2.84 g/cm3
12. a) Jupiter
b) Mercury
c) Venus or Uranus
d) i) 150 × 9.8 = 1470 N
ii) Mass would remain the same while weight would increase
iii) 150 × 14.1 = 2115 N
13. a) Mass is the amount of matter an object contains. Weight is the force that an object
exerts downwards due to the pull of gravity.
b) Volume = πr2h
i) π × 102 × 40 = 4000 π = 12566 cm3
ii) π × 0.102 × 0.40 = 0.004 π = 0.012566 m3
c) i) Mass = 650 × 0.012566 = 8.2 kg
ii) Weight = 8.2 × 9.8 = 80.4 N
5
14. Accounts should include details of the following:
The mass of the pebble is measured on a balance in grams.
A known volume of water is placed in a measuring cylinder.
The pebble is dropped into the water and totally submerged.
The combined volume of the water and pebble is taken.
The volume of the pebble in cubic centimetres is found by subtracting the volume of the
water from the combined volume of water and pebble.
The density of the pebble, in g/cm3, is found by dividing the mass of the pebble by its
volume.
15.
Mass Length Width Height Volume Density
Metal
g cm cm cm cm 3
g/cm3
Calcium 76.50 5 5 2 50 1.53
Magnesium 83.04 8 6 1 48 1.73
Nickel 213.6 4 3 2 24 8.90
Platinum 171.6 2 2 2 8 21.45
Silver 472.5 5 3 3 45 10.50
Tin 262.44 6 3 2 36 7.29

Chapter 5: Deformation and turning effects of forces

Self – Assessment Answers

1. a
2. d
3. b
4. d
5. b
6. c
7. b
8. b
9. c
10. d
11. a) Suspend the lamina at one of the holes so that it can move freely and hang a line
and bob from the same hole. Mark the position of the line on the lamina. Repeat the
procedure using one of the other holes.

centre of mass

The centre of mass is where the lines cross.

b) If the centre of mass is above the base of an object, the object is stable. If the centre of
mass is outside the base the object is unstable and will topple over.
6
12. a) Lever
b) The edge of the can
c) 25 × 10 = 250 Ncm
d) F × 1 = 25 × 10 therefore F = 250 N
e) i) Increase the value of the effort force
ii) Use a longer screw driver and exert the same effort force
13. a) Weight = 1.8 × 10 = 18 N
b) Moment of the force = 18 × 0.10 = 1.8 Nm
c) F × 0.48 = 1.8 therefore F = 1.8 / 0.48 = 3.75 N
d) Adding a metal weight to the base lowers the centre of mass. The lamp would need to
topple further before the centre of mass moved outside the base.
14. a)
Load /N Length of spring /mm Extension /mm
0.0 20 0
0.5 30 10
1.0 39 19
1.5 49 29
2.0 58 38
2.5 68 48
3.0 78 58
b)

60

50

40
Extension / mm

30

20

10

0
0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0
Load / N

7
 c) Gradient = 58 / 3 = 19.3 mm /N. The force per unit extension is given by the inverse of
the gradient which is 1/19.3 = 0.052 N/mm
d)

limit of proportionality
extension

load

15. a) 0.02 kg
b) 0.2 x 8 = 1.6 Ncm anticlockwise
c) Equal in size / magnitude and opposite in direction
d)
Value of d / cm Anticlockwise moment Clockwise moment
about Z / Ncm about Z / Ncm
0 0.0 2.0
2 0.8 1.6
4 1.6 1.2
6 2.4 0.8
8 3.2 0.4
10 4.0 0.0
e)

4.0

anticlockwise
moments
3.0
Moment (Ncm)

2.0

1.0
clockwise
moments

0
0 2 4 6 8 10
d (cm)

f) At the intersection of the lines where d = 3.3 cm. At this point the anticlockwise and
clockwise moments are equal.
8
 Chapter 6: Pressure

Self – Assessment Answers

1. b
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. d
6. b
7. d
8. A
9. B
10. c
11. a) 100 000 N
b) 4 times greater
c) i) The pressure inside the tyre is greater than atmospheric pressure.
ii) No. Air only comes out of the punctured tyre until the pressure in the tyre becomes
equal to atmospheric pressure.
12. a) This is the pressure due to the atmosphere
b) 550 kPa
c) An equal pressure pushes outwards from his lungs due to the air in them
d) i) 0.045 g
ii) As the diver rises the pressure decreases. Less nitrogen dissolves in the blood. If
the diver rises quickly his body doesn’t have sufficient time to lose the nitrogen gas
by breathing it out.
13. a) i) It moves down the cylinder
ii) It increases
iii) They move up the cylinder
b) i) Pressure = 100 / 4 = 25 N/cm2
ii) 25 N/cm2
iii) Total force = 2 × 50 × 25 = 2500 N
c) It is transformed into heat energy in the brake discs/pads
14. a) i) 4 × 3 = 12 m3
ii) Pressure = 4800 / 12 = 400 N/m2 or Pa
b) Feet should have a larger surface area in order to spread the weight out more. This
would prevent the spaceship sinking too deeply into the ground.
c) Pressure = 400 x 6 = 2400 N/m2 or Pa
d) i) Greater
ii) Same
iii) Greater
e) Gases are easily compressed but liquids are not

9
15. a)
Volume of dry air in Pressure exerted on dry air pV / mm Hg 1
/ cm–3
burette / V cm3 in the burette / p mm Hg cm3 V
29.6 678 20068.8 0.0338
27.2 739 20100.8 0.0368
26.4 760 20064.0 0.0379
25.4 789 20040.6 0.0394
24.1 833 20075.3 0.0415

b) The value of pV is constant within the limits of experimental error.

c) i) ii)

850 850

800 800
pressure / p mm Hg

pressure / p mm Hg
750 750

700 700

650 650
24 25 26 27 28 29 30 0.0300 0.0350 0.0400 0.0450
volume of dry air / V cm­
3
1 cm­3
V

d) The first graph is a curve showing that as p increases V, decreases therefore p is

inversely proportional to V. The second graph is a straight line showing that p is directly
proportional to 1/V.

Chapter 7: Energy sources and transfer of energy

Self – Assessment Answers

1. c
2. a
3. b
4. a
5. d
6. d
7. d
8. b
9. b
10. a

10
11. a) e.g. Electric drill
b) e.g. Electric cell/battery
c) e.g. Combustion
d) e.g. Ascending lift
e) e.g. Photosynthesis
12. a) Gravitational potential energy ⇒ kinetic energy ⇒ electrical energy
b) i) 4 × 100 000 = 400 000 watts
ii) 400 000 joules
c) 1 × 10 × 400 = 4000 joules
d) The kinetic energy of the water entering the lake will be converted into heat energy.
13. a) Renewable because the Sun will not run out of energy for millions of years
b) i) The curved surface allows the mirrors to reflect the Sun’s rays in one place so the
heat can be concentrated.
ii) The structure follows the motion of the Sun across the sky so the maximum
amount of sunlight is gathered each day.
14. a) 160 m2
b) i) 90 × 10 = 900 J
ii) 900 × 160 × 0.417 = 60 048 J = 60 kJ
c) 60 kW
d) 720 000 / 60 = 12 000
e) e.g. Wind turbines do not release pollutant gases to the atmosphere / the energy
source for wind turbines is free / renewable
15. a) Gravitational potential energy
b) i) 1000 × 10 = 10 000 N
ii) 10 000 × 7 = 70 000 J
c) 200 000 000 × 5 = 1 000 000 000 m3
d) 1 000 000 000 × 70 000 = 70 000 000 000 000 J = 70 000 000 MJ
e) 70 000 000 ÷ 20 000 = 3500 MW
f) Advantages: e.g. no pollutants released into the environment / barrage would provide
another bridge across the river / energy is free / renewable
Disadvantages: would alter the area behind the barrage so might lose habitants /
feeding grounds for birds / fishermen and other boat users would not have easy access
up the river

Chapter 8: Transfer of thermal energy

Self – Assessment Answers

1. a
2. b
3. b
4. c
5. D
6. d
11
7. a
8. a
9. d
10. b
11. a) Conduction
b) Metal / brass / copper
c) Convection
d) Shiny and light. Heat will be lost from these parts by radiation. Shiny light surfaces are
the poorest emitters of heat radiation so least heat will be lost to the surroundings.
12. a) i) Conduction
ii) Metal is a good conductor and glass is a poor conductor
b) Glass is a poor conductor so the coffee will stay hot longer
Plastic is a poor conductor so it will not burn your hand when you pick up the jug to
pour some coffee
c) Water around the element gets hot and expands. As the water gets hotter its density
decreases and it rises. Colder water falls and is heated in turn. Eventually all of the
water is heated.
13. a) Aluminium is a good conductor of heat so his drinks would warm up very quickly. An
aluminium box would be heavy to carry.
b) i) Polystyrene is a non-metal and a poor conductor. Expanded polystyrene contains
many tiny air bubbles and air is also a poor conductor.
ii) The aluminium foil reflects heat radiation away from the box.
c) e.g. It melts at a convenient temperature i.e. between -20 and 0 0C. Absorbs a large
amount of energy when it changes from a solid to a liquid. It is cheap and readily
available.
d) e.g. They absorb a large amount of heat from the drinks. They can be used every day.
14. a)
Method of reducing Cost of Annual saving Time taken to repay
heat loss installation on energy installation cost in years
Loft insulation £240 £30 8
Draught excluders £35 £5 7
Cavity wall insulation £1300 £65 20
Double glazing £1620 £54 30

b) i) Draught excluders
ii) Cavity wall insulation
iii) Double glazing
c) The foam prevents convection currents in the air between the walls. This reduces the
heat transfer from the inner to the outer wall.
15. a) Distance between can and heater / type of can / volume of water / initial temperature
b) Radiation

12
 c)

40

35 B

A
30

25
temperature / °C

20

15

10

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Time / minutes

d) The temperature of the water in can B rises more quickly because a matt black surface
is a better absorber of heat radiation that a shiny metal surface.
e) i) The water in can B would cool down more quickly.
ii) A matt black surface is a better emitter of heat radiation than a shiny metal
surface.

Chapter 9: Temperature

Self – Assessment Answers

1. d
2. c
3. b
4. a
5. c
6. b
7. d
8. b
9. a
10. c
11. a) i) This shape magnifies the thread of mercury so it can be seen more easily.
ii) The white background makes it easier to read the scale.
iii) The function of the thermometer is to measure human body temperature, which is
likely to be around 36.9 0C.
iv) The constriction prevents the thread of mercury running back into the bulb until
the level of mercury has been read off the scale.
13
12. a) & b)

100
10

20

30

40

50
60 70 80 90

0
M B
c) Liquid
d) e.g. easy to see / responds to temperature change quickly
13. a) e.g The bore of the tube is too wide:
the liquid level would not change very much as the temperature changed. The bore
of the tube is not uniform: it is not possible to draw a linear scale between two fixed
points.
b) Ethanol boils at 78 °C / below 100 °C
c) Place thermometer bulb in melting ice and when constant level mark as 0 °C. Place
thermometer bulb in steam above boiling water and when constant level mark as
100 °C
d) Measure the distance between the two fixed points and divide this into 100 equal
parts. Mark the scale in suitable increments.
14. a) Water is a poor conductor of heat. The water around the bulb of the thermometer will
be higher than the water in the rest of the beaker.
b) Stir the water as it is being heated.
c) i) 9 °C and 34.5 °C
ii) 34.5 – 9 = 25.5 °C
d) i) The temperature rise would be greater
ii) The temperature rise would be less
15. a)
10

7
Potential difference / mV

0
10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
Temperature / 0C

14
 b) From the graph 66 0C
c) From the graph 3.50 mV
d) The voltmeter would show a negative potential difference between the two junctions.

Chapter 10: Thermal properties of matter

Self – Assessment Answers

1. a
2. a
3. C
4. d
5. b
6. b
7. d
8. b
9. a
10. c
11. a) The specific heat capacity of ethanol is less than the specific heat capacity of water.
b) The nut expands when it is heated.
c) Liquids expand with temperature. In the summer the tank will have the same volume
of fuel but a lower mass.
d) Water is at its densest at 4 0C so there may be water at the bottom of a pond even
when the top is covered by ice.
12. a) 0.000 017 × 5 = 0.000 085 m
b) As the temperature increases the copper strip will increase in length more than the
iron strip. The top of the bimetallic strip and ratchet will bend to the left. The cog
would rotate clockwise so the pointer would show the temperature increase on the
scale.
c) For any given temperature increase, the length of a strip of aluminium will increase
more than an equal strip of copper. If the iron strip was replaced by a strip of
aluminium, as the temperature increased the top of the bimetallic strip and ratchet
would bend to the right. The cog would rotate anticlockwise, incorrectly showing a fall
in temperature on the scale.
d) e.g. limited temperature scale.
13. a) 6.5 minutes = 6.5 × 60 = 390 seconds
Heat supplied by heater = 50 × 390 = 19 500 J
b) i) Temperature increase = 47 – 23 = 24 0C
Heat capacity of the metal block = 19 500 / 24 = 812.5 J 0C–1
ii) Specific heat capacity of the metal = 812.5 / 2.125
= 382.35 = 382 J kg–1 0C–1

c) Heat energy supplied = 50 × 60 × 10 = 30 000 J
Temperature increase = 30 000 / 812.5 = 36.9 0C
Final temperature = 23 + 36.9 = 59.9 0C

15
14. a) 0.05 × 334 = 16.70 kJ
b) 0.05 × 4.2 × (6 – 0) = 1.26 kJ
c) 16.70 + 1.26 = 17.96 kJ
d) 17.96 = 0.25 × c × (25 - 6) = 0.25 × c × 19
c = 17.96 = 3.8 kJ kg–1 K–1
0.25 × 19
15. a)
Time, t / min 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Temperature, T2 / 0C 23.2 29.1 35.3 41.4 47.7 54.1 59.4 65.9
Temperature increase, ∆T / 0C 0 5.9 12.1 18.2 24.5 30.9 36.2 42.7

b)

50

40

30
Temperature / 0C

20

10

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Time / minutes

c) Slope = 42.7 / 7 = 6.1

d) c = 12 000 / 6.1 = 1967 J kg–1 K–1
e) 61 0C
f) The slope of the line for liquid Y will be less as the temperature will increase less for
the same amount of heat energy

Chapter 11: Kinetic model of matter

Self – Assessment Answers

1. b
2. d
3. c
4. A
5. b
6. c
7. b
16
8. D
9. C
10. d
11. a) The molecules move more slowly
b) The size of the molecules does not change
c) The molecules will hit the inside of the test tube less often per unit time
d) The number of molecules does not change
e) The total energy of the particles decreases because the average kinetic energy of the
particles increases
f) The pressure will decrease because the molecules will hit the walls of the test tube less
frequently and with less force
12. Water seeps through the porous clay from the inside to the outside of the pot. The water
on the outside of the pot evaporates. Heat energy needed for evaporation. The evaporating
water cools the pot which, in turn, cools the remaining water.
13. a) When steam comes into contact with skin it will be cooled and condense. When
steam changes state to become water heat is given out. This heat will cause additional
damage to skin.
b) The boiling point of a liquid varies with external pressure. The boiling point of water is
only exactly 100 0C when atmospheric pressure is exactly one atmosphere.
c) Gas particles are in constant random motion. Pressure in the tube is the result of gas
particles colliding with the inner surface. When gas is heated the particles move more
rapidly. The pressure in the tube increases as gas particles hit the surface of the tube
more often and with more force. The tube will eventually break.
d) Wet clothing dries because water evaporates from it. Spreading washing out on a
clothes line provides a much greater surface area than leaving wet clothes in a pile
therefore evaporation will take place more quickly.
e) Energy is needed to change a solid into a liquid at its melting point. This is called the
latent heat of fusion or melting. While the heat energy supplied is used to bring about
this change of state there will be no increase in the temperature of the solid.
14. a) Even on a sunny window ledge the temperature would not get as high as the melting
point of iodine.
b) The iodine must have changed from a solid to a vapour at the bottom of the jar and a
vapour to a solid at the top of the jar.
c) As a solid the iodine particles are held in a lattice. They can vibrate but cannot change
position. As a vapour the iodine crystals are separated from each other and moving
very quickly.
d) Most solids first become liquids and then gases. They do not change directly from a
solid to a vapour or gas.
15. a) i) C or D because A and B would both boil before the melting point of salicylic acid
ii) The observer needs to be able to see through it
b) i) Salicylic acid melts above the range of thermometer A
ii) Thermometer C will give a more accurate reading as there will be more distance
between the graduations
c) i) Melted at a lower temperature and melted over a wider range
ii) Melting over a wide range indicates a substance is impure. Recrystallizing is a
method of removing impurities.
17
 d) It takes time for heat to pass from the oil to the thermometer. If the oil is heated too
quickly it will be hotter than shown on the thermometer

Chapter 12: Waves

Self – Assessment Answers

1. c
2. c
3. a
4. d
5. b
6. a
7. b
8. a
9. a
10. a
11. a) A wave is a disturbance that travels through matter or space as a series of oscillations,
carrying energy.
b) i) For a transverse wave the oscillation of the particles is perpendicular to the
direction in which the wave travels.

wavelength

transverse
wave

ii) For a longitudinal wave the oscillation of the particles is parallel to the direction in
which the wave travels.

compression expansion

wavelength
longitudinal wave

c) i) e.g. a wave on a rope, a light wave

ii) e.g. a wave on a spring, a sound wave
18
12. a) Wavelength on diagram is 0.8 cm. Actual wavelength is 0.8 × 4 = 3.2 cm
b) frequency = 24/3.2 = 7.5 Hz
c) The waves slow down as they pass over the glass. The wavelength of the waves is
reduced, the frequency is unchanged.
13.
wavelength
crest

amplitude

trough

14.
wavelength

compression rarefaction

15. a) & b)
incident
wavefronts

incident
waves i
r
plane reflector

normal reflected
wavefronts
reflected
waves

c) i = r
d) speed = 2.0 × 0.75 = 1.5 cm/s
e) frequency and wavelength of the incident waves are the same as the frequency and
wavelength of the reflected waves.

19
 Chapter 13: Light

Self – Assessment Answers

1. b
2. a
3. c
4. a
5. d
6. b
7. c
8. a
9. b
10. b)
11. a)

b) angle of incidence = angle of reflection

c) The image is laterally inverted and is the same size as the object. It is an equal distance
from the mirror as the object. It is upright and virtual.
12. a) r = 15°
b) The light will be totally internally reflected because c = 24°. So, the angle of incidence is
greater than the critical angle.
13. a)

F F

diverging lens
converging lens

b) The principal focus will be close to the lens as the refraction will be greater.
20
14. a) A diverging lens always produces an image that is diminished.

observer

principal axis
F object virtual
image

b) A diverging lens (concave lens) diverge the rays causing the image to not be erect, but
upside down.
c) m = 0.125
15. a)

The rays of light are focused behind the retina because the lens is not thick enough.
(not powerful enough)
b)

The converging lens refracts the rays, so they can be focused clearly onto the retina.

21
 Chapter 14: Electromagnetic Spectrum

Self – Assessment Answers

1. b
2. a
3. c
4. c
5. c
6. a
7. c
8. b
9. b
10. d
11. a)

red
white light orange
yellow
green
glass prism blue
indigo
violet

b) Violet, because it has the highest frequency.

12. a) Red
b) They all travel at the same speed (300 000 000 m/s)
c) Violet, because it has the highest frequency.
13. a) A continuous range of frequencies and wavelengths
b) Gamma rays, X-rays, Ultra-violet.
c) Gamma-rays, because they have the highest frequency, so are the most energetic.
14. a) 0.12 m
b) Radio wave (or microwave)
15. a) The Gamma ray source is injected into the body, X-ray source is external.
Gamma rays can be used to image soft tissue, X-ray mainly used for imaging bones.
b) Both gamma rays and X-rays are harmful to living tissue, can cause cells to die, or
mutate causing cancer.

22
 Chapter 15: Sound

Self – Assessment Answers

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. b
6. a
7. c
8. c
9. a
10. d
11.
compression wavelength

wavelength rarefac�on

12. a) Sound waves are caused by vibrations. These vibrations must be carried by particles.
There are no particles in a vacuum.
b) fastest – Solid
slowest - Gas
c) 34m
13. a) D
b) A
c) C
d) D
14. a) 20 – 20 000 Hz
b) Sound waves are caused by vibrations. The frequency of the vibration matches the
frequency of the sound wave. Different frequency sounds are created by objects
vibrating at different frequencies.
c) Sound waves are caused by vibrations. The greater the amplitude of the vibration the
greater the amplitude of the sound wave, and the louder the sound will be.
15. a) answer > 20 000 Hz.
b) Ultrasound waves have a shorter wavelength than audible frequencies. The frequency
is higher and they travel at the same speed, so the wavelength must be shorter
c) Pre-natal scanning, cleaning, fault finding.

23
 Chapter 16: Magnetism and electromagnetism

Self – Assessment Answers

1. b
2. d
3. c
4. b
5. a
6. d
7. c
8. a
9. a
10. c
11. a) i) Stronger
ii) Weaker
iii) No effect
b)
Switch Bulb X Bulb Y Bulb Z
Open On off off
Closed Off on on

c) Bulb X on – the electromagnet is not strong enough to attract the hammer without the
iron core
Bulb Y on – the circuit containing the bulb is complete
Bulb Z off – wood is not a conductor
12. a) X – insulator such as plastic
Y – copper or some other metal for the contacts
Z – iron
b) When the switch is closed current flows through the coil. The iron core becomes a
magnet. The armature is pulled towards the iron core and the contacts close. Current
flows through circuit A and the bulb lights.
13. a) When the bell push is pressed the circuit is complete. The electromagnet attracts the
soft iron armature. As the armature moves towards the electromagnet the hammer
strikes the gong. When the soft iron armature moves the circuit is broken. The springy
metal strip pulls the soft iron armature back into place. The circuit is complete and the
cycle repeats until the bell push is no longer pressed.
b) i) As a varying electrical current
ii) Steel would retain some magnetism
iii) Aluminium is not a magnetic material so it would not be attracted to the coil and
permanent magnet.
iv) As the current in the coil varies, so does the magnetic field surrounding the coil.
Changes in the combined magnetic fields of the permanent magnet and coil cause
the iron diaphragm to move in and out or vibrate. The movement of the diaphragm
creates sound waves.

24
14. a) Iron/steel
b) The metal bar is pulled in / attracted by the magnet
c) i)
1.2

1.0

0.8
Current / A

0.6

0.4

0.2

0.0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70

Maximum mass held / g

ii) The maximum mass is directly proportional to the current

d) i) 35-36 g
ii) 0.92-0.94 A
15. a) e.g. iron / steel loaded and aluminium / copper / brass remains
b)
1000

900

800
1000 turns
of wire
700

600
Lifting force / N

500

400

500 turns
300 of wire

200

100

0
0 2 4 6 8 10
Current / A

c) i) Quadruples the lifting force

ii) Quadruples the lifting force
d) 50 – 55 N
25
 Chapter 17: Static electricity

Self – Assessment Answers

1. A
2. d
3. b
4. d
5. D
6. C
7. C
8. c
9. b
10. a
11. a) As a result of friction between the balloon and the sweater, electrons are transferred
to the balloon.
b) The wall is initially neutral but when the charged balloon is placed near the wall this
causes charges on the wall to separate.

Negative charge is repelled by the charge on the balloon leaving that small area of the
wall positively charged. Opposite charges attract so the balloon is held on the wall.
12. a) Electrons are removed and the insecticide becomes positively charged.
b) Each small drop of insecticide formed will carry positive charge. Like charges repel
so the positive charge will cause the insecticide to divide and form tiny droplets. The
droplets will spread out away from each other as they leave the nozzle forming a very
fine mist in the air. This makes it possible to cover a large area and it is less likely that
areas of the target crop will remain unsprayed.
13. Air is drawn through the device by an electric fan.
As the air passes through the negatively charged grid, dust and any other particles, such as
pollen, become negatively charged.
As the air passes between the positively charged plates, the negatively charged particles of
dust are attracted to them and stick to the surface.
Eventually the dust particles fall from the plates into a tray. The dust tray is removed from
the device and cleaned at regular intervals.
14. a) A metal comb earths through the person. Electrons can flow to and from earth so no
charge builds up on the metal comb.
b) Some electronic components are damaged by electrostatic charge. The bag prevents
the build-up of charge and so protects the components.

26
 c) Electrons are transferred between items of clothing as they rub past each other.
Charge builds up on some items. The charge is earthed as the items are pulled apart
and the crackling is due to tiny sparks of electricity.
d) The surface of the helicopter becomes charged as it flies through the air. Some of the
charge is transferred to the person on the rope.
e) The screen of a television set becomes charged with static when the set is switched on.
This static remains for some time when the set is switched off and attracts particles of
dust from the air.
15. a) i) Repulsion
ii) Repulsion
iii) Attraction
b) Like charges repel. As the droplets form they repel each other so the paint spreads out.
c) The netting is earthed so it will be at 0 V. This will be negative relative to the paint
droplets.
d) The paint separates into tiny droplets so that only a thin layer is applied to the wire.
The wire attracts the positively charged paint droplets so they are not wasted to the
surroundings.

Chapter 18: Current electricity

Self – Assessment Answers

1. c
2. c
3. a
4. b
5. c
6. c
7. B
8. a
9. A
10. c
11. a)
I

V
ohmic conductor

27
 b) As the filament heats up its resistance increases.
c) The p.d. on open circuit is the value obtained when a voltmeter is connected across
the cell when it is not part of a circuit. The p.d. on closed circuit is the value obtained
when a voltmeter is connected across the cell when it is part of a circuit and connected
to other components.
d) This is due to the internal resistance of the cell.
12. a) b) & c)

Line X

resistance
A Line Y

resistor 0 0.1 0.2

current / A

d) The resistance of the resistor is constant provided its temperature remains constant
therefore lines X and Y are horizontal.
Line Y is half way between 0 and line x as the total resistance of two identical resistors
connected in parallel is only half on one of the resistors.
13. a) i) 3 + 3 = 6 Ω
ii) 6 + 6 = 12 Ω
iii) 12/3 = 4 Ω
b) Current = potential difference / resistance = 6 / 4 = 1.5 A
c) Power = current × potential difference = 1.5 × 6 = 9 W
14. a)

b) Changing the value of the variable resistor

c)
4
Potential difference / V

0.0 0.02 0.04 0.06 0.08 0.10 0.12

Current / A

28
 d) i) 0.034 A
ii) 2.6 V
e) The ratio is constant because the graph is a straight line
15. d) i) Increases
ii) Decreases
b)
300

250

200
Current / mA

150

100

50

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
Length of wire / cm

c) i) 85 mA
ii) 18 cm
d) i) 300 mA
ii) 0.3 A

Chapter 19: D.C. Circuits

Self – Assessment Answers

1. a
2. b
3. a
4. b
5. d
6. c
7. b
8. d
9. c
10. d
11. a) The potential difference across R1, R2 and R3 is the same. The current in R1 and R2 must
be twice that in R3.
A1 = A2 = 2 × 120 = 240 mA
A3 = 240 + 240 + 120 = 600 mA

29
 b) The total resistance R, of R1, R2 and R3 is given by:
1 = 1 + 1 + 1 = 1 + 1 + 1 = 5
R R1 R2 R3 10 10 20 20
R = 20 ÷ 5 = 4 Ω
V = I × R = 0.6 × 4 = 2.40 V
12. a) i) Cell
ii) Along wires that form complete circuits
iii) Switch
b)

c) Yes. The components are connected in parallel so the failure of one component will not
affect the supply of electricity to the others.
13. a) Less than Ai, equal to Vi
b) Greater than Ai, equal to Vi
c) Less than Ai, Less than Vi
14. a) Decreases exponentially
b) 24 Ω at 20 0C and 6 Ω at 80 0C
c) At 20 0C total resistance = 24 + 8 = 32 Ω
Current = 9.0 / 32 = 0.28 A
At 80 0C total resistance = 6 + 8 = 14 Ω
Current = 9.0 / 14 = 0.64 A
d) Resistance of T at 40 0C = 16 Ω
Let R = total resistance of the resistors connected in parallel
1 = 1 + 1 = 24
R 8 16 128
24
R= = 5.3 Ω
128
Current = 9.0 / 5.3 = 1.70 A
Note:
The maximum current corresponds to the minimum resistance, which is when the temperature is
highest. If the temperature varies between 20°C and 80°C, the minimum resistance of the thermistor
is 6 Ω (read from the graph). At this temperature if the total resistance is R:
1/R = 1/8 + 1/6 = 14/48   R = 48/14 = 3.4 Ω   Maximum current = 9.0 / 3.4 = 2.6 A

30
 Chapter 20: Practical electricity

Self – Assessment Answers

1. d
2. c
3. d
4. a
5. d
6. a
7. d
8. a
9. b
10. B
11. a) Earthing protects the person using an appliance from receiving a large electric shock in
the event of a fault causing the casing of the appliance to become live.
b) A fuse protects the wiring inside an appliance and in mains circuits. In the event of a
fault, the fuse melts and cuts off the supply of electricity. This prevents the circuit from
being damaged.
c) Double insulation prevents the wiring inside an appliance from coming into contact
with the outer casing so it cannot become live even in the event of a fault.
d) A modern socket has a cover over the holes for the live and neutral pins so nothing can
be pushed into these holes so there is no chance of receiving an electric shock. The
earth pin is larger and longer than the live and neutral pins. When the plug is inserted
into the socket the earth pin opens the cover so that the live and neutral pins can slide
into their holes.
12. a) To stop shorting across the wires.
b) i) On the live wire
ii) On the live wire between the supply and the switch
c) It is connected to the metal body of the lamp. In the event of a fault resulting in the
live or neural wire touching the body, the metal body would become live. Most of the
current will flow to earth through the earth wire thus preventing anyone who touches
the metal body from receiving a severe electric shock.
d) Current = power / potential difference = 60 / 230 = 0.26 A
e) Energy used = power × time = 60 × 3 = 180 watt hours = 0.180 kilowatt-hours
13. a) i) Kettle
ii) Table lamp
b) i) Kinetic energy and some heat and sound energy
ii) Heat energy
iii) Light and sound and some heat energy
c) Units of electricity used = 1500 × 6 / 60 = 150 Wh = 0.15 kWh
Cost = 0.15 × 4 = Rs 0.60

31
14. a)
Compact fluorescent bulb Filament bulb
Power / kW 0.02 0.10
Hours of light 8000 1000
Cost of one unit of electricity / Rs 4.00 4.00
Cost of electricity per bulb / Rs 640 400
Number of bulbs needed to give
1 8
8000 hours of light
Cost of one bulb / Rs 1000 40
Total cost / Rs 1640 3600

b) e.g. High initial cost to replace all of the bulbs in a house; people may not believe the
claims made about compact fluorescent bulbs
c) Less of the electricity becomes heat / it is more efficient
15. a) i) Yellow/green
ii) Earth
b) Current = power / potential difference = 720 / 230 = 3.13 A
c) i) 5A
ii) This is the next size above the current used by the heater so it will melt quickest in
the event of a malfunction.
d) On the low setting switches only S2 is closed so the two heating coils are connected in
series.
On the high setting only switch S1 and S3 are closed so the heating coils are connected
in parallel.

Chapter 21: Electromagnetism and electromagnetic induction

Self – Assessment Answers

1. a
2. b
3. a
4. d
5. d
6. c
7. a
8. a
9. b
10. b
11. a) When the switch is closed current flows through the primary coil. The soft iron core
becomes a magnet. The soft iron core attracts the contact. The circuit is broken.
The contact moves back to its original position. The circuit is complete and the cycle
repeats.
b) Every time the primary coil turns on and off a magnetic field grows and collapses
around the soft iron core. This induced a current in the secondary current. If there are

32
 many turns of wire on the secondary coil a high voltage would be produced and this
would be enough to send a spark across a small gap.
12. a)

current

wire

current

b) i) A magnet around the rotor

ii) The commutator reverses the direction of the current through the coil every half
turn. This reverses the polarity of the magnetic field around the coil so that it is
always being repelled by the external magnetic field as it rotates.
13. a) i) Soft iron
ii) An alternating magnetic field is produced
iii) An alternating current is induced in the secondary coil
b) i) The coil are connected in series in the same circuit
ii) There is no effect on coil R as the alternating magnetic fields produced by coils P
and Q cancel each other out.
iii) Some current will leak to earth. The currents in coils P and Q will no longer be the
same. A magnetic field will be produced in the core which will induce a current in
coil R. The current in coil R will open the mains switch.
14. a) i) 240 V
ii) Transformer
iii) Step-up transformer
Secondary turns
b) = 11
4000 400
11 × 4000
Secondary turns = = 110
400
c) i) Transformers do not work with direct current
ii) The amount of electrical energy converted to heat energy as a current passes along
a conductor varies according to the square of the current. A step-up transformer
increases the voltage but decreases the current. Minimising the current also
minimises the heat losses
15. a) i) The galvanometer would deflect in one direction
ii) The galvanometer would deflect in the same direction but not as much
iii) The galvanometer would deflect in the opposite direction
b) It has a commutator in place of slip rings

33
 c)
+

e.m.f.
no. of
0 1 1 3 1 rotations
4 2 4

d) The commutator reverses the direction of the induced current in each half of the coil
each half turn. The current generated if therefore direct. The current is a maximum
when the coil is horizontal because at this time the rate at which it cuts magnetic
field lines is greatest. The current is zero when the coil is vertical as it is parallel to the
magnetic field lines.

Chapter 22: Introductory electronics and electronic systems

Self – Assessment Answers

1. c
2. b
3. a
4. d
5. c
6. d
7. c
8. b
9. a
10. a
11. a) i) 6 V
ii) 125 Hz
b) i) accelerates the electrons
ii) deflects the beam
iii) emits light when stuck by electrons
12. a) 270 Ω +/- 5%
b) It gives the uncertainty in the value of the resistance so the range of possible
resistances can be calculated.
c) The maximum amount of energy the resistor can dissipate each second.
13. a) Circuit that turns a thermostat on and off. Circuit that turns a fire alarm on and off.
b) It will decrease. As temperature increases the resistance of the thermistor decreases,
so it is a lower proportion of the total resistance of the circuit, and there is a lower p.d.
across it.

34
 14. a) b)
AND NOT NOR NAND AND NOR OR AND OR
A A A A A A A
A X X X X X X X X X

B B B B B B B

B X A X A B AX B X A B A X B X A B AX B X A B X
0 1 0 1 0 0 01 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 0 0 1 00 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 1
0 1 1 0 10 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1
1 0 1 1 10 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

15. a)
Collector

Base

Emitter

A small current between the base and emitter causes a large current between the
collector and emitter. The transistor is used as a switch in electronic circuits.
b) Bistables have two stable states, astables have none.

Chapter 23: Radioactivity

Self – Assessment Answers

1. c
2. d
3. c
4. d
5. c
6. b
7. c
8. a
9. d
10. b
11. Low-level waste – c) Liquid and gas waste may be released to the environment where it is
rapidly diluted. Solid waste is buried in clay-lined trenched which are subsequently filled
and grassed over.
Intermediate-level waste – a) Liquid and solid waste is sealed in steel drums and stored in
silos.
35
 High-level waste – b) Liquid waste is sealed in steel drums and placed cooled stainless steel
tanks or converted into waste glass blocks and stored for at least 50 years.
12. a) A Geiger counter
b) A stream of fast-moving electrons
c) Beta radiation could not travel through 3 metres of soil to the detector but would be
absorbed.
Organic material in the soil would also contain carbon-14.
d) A gamma emitter. This would be the only type of radiation that could pass through 3
metres of soil.
13. a) Fire produces hot air and smoke which rise. A smoke detector at the bottom of a wall
would only sound an alarm after smoke had filled the whole room. By this time a
serious fire may have developed. The best location for a smoke detector is on a ceiling
in the middle of a room.
b) Alpha particles are absorbed by the plastic casing of the alarm.
c)

60

50
Activity / counts per minute

40

30

20

10

0 500 1000 1500 2000

Time / years

From the graph: Activity 40 counts per minute after 320 years
Activity 20 counts per minute after 745 years
Half-life from graph = 745 – 320 = 425 years (actual value 432 years)
d) The half-life of this radioisotope is far too short. By the time the alarm was sold the
activity of californium-241 would be too low to be of any practical use.
14. a) Nuclear fusion. Hydrogen nuclei join together to form helium nuclei with the loss of a
small amount of matter. The lost matter is converted into energy.
b) The Sun started out as a cloud of gas and dust. This collapsed together under its own
gravity to form a protostar.
At some point the temperature of the protostar became hot enough for nuclear
reactions to start. At present hydrogen atoms are undergoing nuclear fusion to form
helium atoms.
Eventually all of the hydrogen on the Sun will be used up and other nuclear fusion
reactions involving large atoms will take place. The Sun will expand and cool to become
a red giant.
Finally, when all of the fuel is used up the Sun will collapse to become first a white

36
 dwarf, and then a black dwarf.
c) Black holes are formed from stars which are formed from a very large mass of material.
When all of the nuclear fuel is used up, the star collapse and the outer layers are blown
off by a mighty explosion called a supernova. If there is sufficient mass remaining, the
core of the star shrinks to form a black hole.
15. a) Paper, aluminium, steel, lead
b) A Geiger counter
c) The detector measures the amount of radiation passing through the paper and sends
the information to the pressure control. If the amount of radiation falls this indicated
the paper is too thick and more pressure is applied. If the amount of radiation rises this
indicates the paper is too thin and the pressure is reduced.
d) The activity of the radioactive source decreases over time. The machine will interpret
the fall in radioactivity to the paper being too thick and so more pressure will be
applied to the rollers. The result will be thinner paper.
e) The radioactive source will ionise the air immediately above it. As the paper passes
over the source, any charge will be neutralised by the ions in the air.
f) All of the radiation from strontium-90 would be absorbed so there would be no
reading on the detector and the pressure control would not work.

Chapter 24: The nuclear atom

Self – Assessment Answers

1. d
2. d
3. c
4. b
5. a
6. b
7. a
8. c
9. a
10. d
11.
Name Proton number Nucleon number Neutron number
Carbon 6 12 6
Magnesium 12 24 12
Silicon 14 28 14
Helium 2 4 2
Uranium 92 238 146
Phosphorus 15 31 16

12. a) Statements 1 and 5 were found to be correct.

b) Statements 2, 3 and 4 need some modification.
1. Elements are made of small particles called atoms
37
 2. Atoms cannot be created of destroyed during chemical reactions
3. All atoms of the same element have the same charge (atomic number) but may
vary slightly in mass (mass number) due to the presence of different isotopes
4. Atoms of different element have different charges (atomic numbers)
5. Atoms combine in small whole numbers to form compounds
13. a) Nitrogen-14, 147N
b) Bromine-81, 81 35Br

c) Hydrogen-1, 10H
d) Copper-63, 36 29Br

e) Plutonium-244, 244 94Pu

f) Lead-207, 82Pb
207

14. a)
Particle Approximate Charge Position in the atom
relative mass
Proton 1 +1 in the nucleus
Electron 0 -1 surrounding the nucleus
Neutron 1 0 in the nucleus

b) i) 4
ii) 5
c) i) 127
53I

ii) 8O
18

iii) 90Th
232

iv) 17Cl
37

15. a) non-deflected
fluorescent particles
screen

gold foil
B
C

deflected particles

radioactive source

b) Nuclei of helium-4 atoms consisting of two protons and two neutrons.

c) i) There are large spaces between the nuclei of atoms.
ii) Some alpha particles came close enough to the nucleus of an atom to be deflected
slightly off course.
iii) Some alpha particles were aiming directly for nuclei of atoms and repulsed by the
like charge.
d) Thompson’s model of the atom was a positively charged mass and electrons contained
within it like the plums in a pudding. Rutherford’s experiment showed that the atom
had a positively charged nucleus and there were large gaps between the nuclei
therefore the electrons must be in orbit around the nucleus rather than within it.
38
39
 Physics
for Cambridge O Level

Physics for Cambridge O Level has been written to provide up-to-date coverage of
the material required for the latest Cambridge International Examinations O Level
Physics syllabus 5054.
Important features include:
• A comprehensive text covering all of the material needed for Cambridge O
Level Physics
• Full colour illustrations, engaging photographs and clear diagrams
• Learning objectives at the start of each chapter to get the student thinking
about the chapter content
• Definitions of key terms
• Chapter summaries in the form of ‘Key Points’ to help students review their
learning and identify where additional work might be needed
• ‘Check your Understanding’ exercises within the text that are focused on
particular parts of the chapter content
• Worked examples of different calculations
• A full range of experiments covering the requirements of the syllabus
• Cambridge O Level style questions at the end of each chapter to allow students
to check their understanding as they work through the book.
• Past examination questions at the end of each chapter show the students how
they might expect the chapter content to be examined.
Pauline Anning is a highly experienced teacher, examiner and consultant in science.
She has been writing science learning and teaching materials for over 15 years.

40