Professional Documents
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CE199-1L CORREL 1
Remainder Theorem
1. Calculate the remainder when (3𝑥 5 − 5𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 − 7) is divided by (2𝑥 − 1)
Binomial Theorem
3. Determine the 5th term of the expansion (2x+3y)12
4. Determine the middle term of the expansion of (3a – b)8
5. What is the coefficient of the term containing x4 in the expansion of (x – 2y)10
Sum of Coefficients
6. Find the sum of the coefficients in the expansion (2x+3y)9
7. Find the sum of the coefficients in the expansion (2x+2)3(x+1)4
Age Problem
12. A father is three times as old as his son. Four years ago, he was four times as old as his
son. How old is his son?
13. A mother is now three times as old as her daughter. In 4 years, the mother will be four
times as old as the daughter was, two years ago. How old is the daughter?
Motion Problem
14. A boat can go 12 kph in still water. Going full speed, it goes 25 km upstream in the same
time it takes to go 35 km downstream. What is the rate of the current?
15. A woman drives home at 50 kph and she is 3 minutes early for dinner. If she drives at
home at 45 kph, she is 3 minutes late. How far does she drive?
16. A boy started one hour and twenty minutes earlier than a man. If the man ran at 6 kph
faster than the boy and overtook the boy in 40 minutes, find the speed of the boy?
Mixture Problem
17. How much of a 7% solution should be mixed with appropriate amount of 12% solution to
get 5 litres of a 10% solution?
Work Problem
18. Felipe can do a piece of job in 4 hrs. Ben can do the same job in 6 hrs. If they work
together, how long will it take them to finish the job?
19. Anna can finish her differential equations homework in 30 minutes while Annie can do
the same homework for 26 minutes. If Anna did the homework for 12 minutes until
Annie helped her, after how many minutes will they finish the homework?
Arithmetic Progression
20. The 4th term of an arithmetic sequence is 67/28 and the 16th term is 307/28. Find the 12th
term of the sequence.
21. Find the sum of the sequence: 3, 6, 9, …, 300.
22. There are 9 arithmetic means between 23 and 54. Find the middle term.
Geometric Progression
23. The 3rd term of geometric progression is 7/12 and the 5th term is 3/7, find the second
term.
24. There are 6 geometric means between 4 and 8748. Find the 3rd term of GP.
25. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 27 m. Each time that it hits the ground it
bounces to a height 2/3 of that from which it fell. Find the total distance travelled by the
ball until it comes to rest?
Angle Relationships
Trigonometric Functions
4. The sides of a triangle measure 3, 4, and 5. What is the smallest interior angle of this
triangle?
a) 36.87 c) 53.13
b) 16.26 d) 41.81
Trigonometric Identities
8. There exists a value x such that the tangent of the expression 2x + 18 is equal to the
cotangent of the expression 4x – 12. Find the value of x.
A. 15 B. 14 C. 13 D. 12
𝑦 = 𝐴 cos(𝐵𝑥 + 𝐶) + 𝐷
i. Amplitude: a = A
ii. Period: p = 2π/B
iii. Frequency: f = 1/p = B/(2π)
iv. Phase Shift: PS = C/B
v. Vertical Shift: VS = D
𝑦 = 𝐴 cot(𝐵𝑥 + 𝐶) + 𝐷
i. Amplitude: a = ∞ (none)
ii. Period: p = π/B
iii. Frequency: f = 1/p = B/π
iv. Phase Shift: PS = C/B
v. Vertical Shift: VS = D
𝑦 = 𝐴 csc(𝐵𝑥 + 𝐶) + 𝐷
i. Amplitude: a = none
ii. Period: p = 2π/B
iii. Frequency: f = 1/p = B/(2π)
iv. Phase Shift: PS = C/B
v. Vertical Shift: VS = D
Sample Problems:
9. Given the function: y=3sin(2x+π)+5, determine the following: (a) amplitude, (b) period,
(c) frequency, (d) phase shift, (e) vertical shift.
10. Given the function: y=3cot(2x+π)+5, determine the following: (a) period, (b) frequency,
(c) phase shift, (d) vertical shift.
Conditional Trigonometric Equations
11. Determine which quadrant the angle terminates given the conditions: secθ < 0 and tanθ >
0.
A. I B. II C. III D. IV
12. If secx=5/3 and x is in the fourth quadrant, what is the value of cscx?
A. -5/3 B. 5/4 C. -5/4 D. 5/3
Triangles in General
Properties:
Laws:
Sine Law:
𝑎 𝑏 𝑐
= =
sin 𝐴 sin 𝐵 sin 𝐶
Cosine Law:
𝑐 2 = 𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 − 2𝑎𝑏 cos 𝐶
𝑏 2 = 𝑎2 + 𝑐 2 − 2𝑎𝑐 cos 𝐵
𝑎2 = 𝑏 2 + 𝑐 2 − 2𝑏𝑐 cos 𝐴
Sample Problems:
14. Triangle ABC has the following data: a=23, b=19 and A=50°. How many triangles may
be formed?
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. insufficient data
15. A tree growing on hillside casts 10.2 meters shadow straight downhill. Find the vertical
height of the tree if, relative to the horizontal, the hill slopes 15o and the angle of
elevation of the sun is 62°.
A. 5.62 m B. 15.89 C. 19.18 D. 5.42
16. From a building across, the angle of depression of the base of the front edifice is 23.5°
and the angle of elevation to the top is 52.78°. The height of observation is 14 m. What
is the height of edifice?
A. 56.4 m B. 76.6 m C. 68.8 m D. 42.4 m
PLANE GEOMETRY
Parts of Polygons:
o Sides/Edge
o Vertex
o Interior Angle
o Exterior Angle
o Apothem
o Central Angle
o Diagonal
Types of Polygons:
o Simple and Complex Polygons
o Concave and Convex Polygons
o Regular and Irregular Polygons
o Formula in Polygons:
1. The sum of interior angles of a regular polygon is 1260 degrees. Find the area of the
polygon if its perimeter is 45 centimeters.
2. Determine the area of a regular polygon whose number of diagonals is 5 and its apothem
measures 4.
Similar Polygons
3. The corresponding sides of two similar polygons are 20 and 18. If the area of the larger
polygon measures 360 cm2, find the sum of the areas of two similar polygons.
Triangles
-3-sided polygon
4. Two sides of a triangle measure 8 m and 12 m and the angle opposite the 8-m side is 30
degrees, determine the area of the triangle.
5. Given two similar triangles whose one triangle has sides 10 cm, 24 cm and 26 cm. Find
the area of the other triangle given that its smallest side measure 6 cm.
6. The ratio of the interior angle of a triangle is 3:4:5, if its perimeter measures 30 cm. Find
its area.
7. Triangle ABC has the following data: AB=16, BC=24 and CA=20. Find the length of the
following: (a) Median from vertex A, (b) Angle Bisector to shortest side and (c) Longest
altitude.
Quadrilaterals
-4-sided polygon
Types of Quadrilaterals:
ii. Trapezoid
iii. Trapezium
General Formula for Area of Quadrilaterals:
PARALLELOGRAM
8. If the sides of the parallelogram and an included angle are 8m, 12m, and 120°,
respectively. Find the length of the shorter diagonal and the area of the parallelogram.
9. The sides of a rectangle have a ratio of 4:5 determine the area of the rectangle if the
diagonal measures 12 cm.
10. The area of a rhombus is 156 m2. If its shorter diagonal measures 13 m, find the length
of the longer diagonal, the side of a rhombus and the angle opposite the longer diagonal.
11. The side of a square is x meters. The midpoints of its sides are joined to form another
square whose area is 16 m2. Find the area of the larger square.
12. An isosceles trapezoid has an area of 40 m2 and an altitude of 2 m. Its two bases have a
ratio of 2 is to 3. What are the lengths of the bases and one of the diagonal of the
trapezoid?
13. A vacant lot has sides 8m, 12 m, 18 m and 20 m. If the sum of the opposite angles is
230°, find the area of the lot.
Circles
-It is the plane enclosed by a set of points, each of which is equidistant from a fixed point
called center.
Parts of Circles:
i. Radius
ii. Chord
iii. Arc
Plane Figures Based on Circle:
i. Sectors
ii. Segments
iii. Annulus
THEOREMS ON CIRCLES:
14. The circle of radius 18 cm is unbent to form an arc subtending a central angle of 300°.
Find the radius of the arc.
15. Find the area of a circular segment if the diameter of the circle is 16 and its central angle
is 120⁰.
16. The chord that cuts the circle into two segments is 5 cm from the center. The area of the
circle is 1018 cm2. Find the ratio of the segments formed.
17. A circle has two chords AB and CD which intersects at E. If AB measures 15 cm, and
EC and ED measure 5cm and 6 cm respectively, determine length AE.
18. The line segments BD and BA are secant and tangent lines of a circle respectively. BD
intersects the circle at C. If BC=18 and BA=31, find CD.
19. Two points on a circle is subtended by another point on a circle with an angle of 40°. If
the radius of the circle is 5, what is the distance between the two points along the circle
and what is the shortest distance between them?
20. The sides of a triangle are 10, 24 and 26. Determine the radius of the circumscribing
circle.
21. The sides of a triangle are 10, 24 and 26. Determine the radius of the inscribed circle.
22. A triangle has sides equal to 10m, 24m and 26m, respectively. Find the radius of the
circle which is escribed outside the triangle if it is tangent to the 26 m side.
23. A triangle is inscribed in a circle whose one side coincides with the diameter of the
circle, and the other side is 3. If the diameter of the circle is 5. Determine the area of the
triangle.
24. Find the area of a regular pentagon that is inscribed in a circle if the area of the circle is
314m2..
25. A circle having an area of 224 m2 is inscribed in a octagon. Find the area of the octagon.
SOLID GEOMETRY
POLYHEDRA
A polyhedron is a solid which is bounded by polygons joined at their edges.
EXAMPLE:
1. The areas of two similar tetrahedrons are 24 sq. in. and 96 sq. in. Find the ratio of
their volumes.
2. An icosahedron have a total surface area of 40 sq. m, determine the side and its
volume.
PRISMS
-it is defined as a polyhedron with two congruent bases that lie in parallel planes, and whose
every section that is parallel to a base has the same area as that of the base.
3. A trough has triangular ends. The top of the through is a horizontal rectangle 50 cm
by 80 cm having 50 as the base of the triangle. The depth of the trough is 40 cm,
determine the capacity of the trough. If it contains water at a depth of 30 cm
determine the wet portion of the trough.
4. The volume of a regular triangular prism is 90√3. If the radius of the inscribed
circle in the base is 3 cm, determine the altitude of the prism.
5. A regular octagonal prism has its axis inclined at 75° from horizontal. The length of
this axis is 5 ft and the sides are 3 ft. What is its volume?
6. A closed right cylindrical tank 8 m high and 4 m in diameter is ¼ full of water.
What is the height of the water when it is lying in horizontal position?
7. An open top and bottom cylinder is to be made from a rectangular piece of paper of
sides 10 and 12. Determine the largest volume it can hold.
8. In a rectangular parallelepiped, the lengths and width of the base are 12 in. and 9 in.,
respectively. Find the volume of the solid if the length of the diagonal of the solid is
25 inches.
9. The total surface area of a cube is 150 in2. Find the measure of an edge and a
diagonal of the cube.
10. Determine the volume of the cube if its diagonal measures 8√2.
PYRAMIDS/CONE
-a polyhedron containing triangular lateral faces with common vertex and a polygon base.
FRUSTUM
-is a solid figure created by slicing the tip of a pyramid or a cone with a plane parallel to the
base.
1
𝐿𝑆𝐴 = (𝑃𝐴 + 𝑃𝐵 )𝑙
2
1
𝑉 = ℎ 𝐴𝐴 + 𝐴𝐵 + 𝐴𝐴 𝐴𝐵
3
11. A regular pentagonal pyramid has an altitude of 20 cm and a slant height of 25 cm.
Determine the volume of the pyramid and its lateral area.
12. A circular piece of cardboard with diameter of 25 cm will be made into a conical
hat of 10 cm high by cutting a sector and joining the edges to for a cone. Determine
the angle subtended by the sector which was removed and the volume of the conical
hat.
13. The base edges of a frustum of a regular square pyramid are 4 in and 8 in., and its
altitude is 10 in. Find the volume and the total area of the frustum.
14. The inside diameters of the bases of a flowerpot are 10 cm and 7 cm, and the slant
height is 9cm. How many cubic meters of soil it can contain if it is completely filled
and determine its lateral surface area.
PRISMATOID
-a polyhedron having two parallel bases which are polygons and lateral faces which are
triangles and quadrilaterals with one side lying in one base and the opposite vertex or side
lying in the other base.
1
𝑉 = ℎ(𝐴𝐴 + 𝐴𝐵 + 4𝐴𝑚 )
6
15. A wedge is cut out of a cylindrical log of radius 4’’ by two planes. One is
perpendicular to the axis of the cylinder and the other intersects the first at an angle
of 30 degrees along the diameter of the cylinder. Find the volume of the cylindrical
wedge.
TRUNCATED PRISM
-is a portion of a prism lying between two nonparallel planes which cut the prism and have
their line of intersection outside the prism.
16. A truncated right prism has an equilateral triangular base with one side measures 3
cm. The lateral edges have lengths 5 cm, 6 cm and 7 cm. Find the volume of the
solid and its lateral surface area.
SPHERE
-is a solid bounded by a closed surface whose set of all points is equidistant from a fixed
point called center.
SPHERICAL SEGMENT
-is a solid formed by passing two parallel cutting planes through a sphere.
𝜋ℎ2
Volume of one base: (3𝑅 − ℎ)
3
𝜋ℎ
Volume of two bases: 6 (3𝑎1 2 + 3𝑎2 2 + ℎ2 )
Area of zone: 𝑍 = 2𝜋𝑅ℎ
17. The surface area of a sphere is 314.16 cm2, determine its volume.
18. A sphere is cut by a plane which is 3 cm from the center of the sphere. If the
diameter of the plane area cut is 8 cm. determine the volume of the sphere.
19. A sphere is cut by a plane, if the radius of the plane cut is 4 cm and the diameter of
the great circle is 10 cm, determine the volume of the spherical segment and the
total surface area of the smaller segment.
20. The radii of parallel circular sections of a sphere are 4 in. and 4.8 in., while the
radius of the sphere is 5 in. Find the volume of the portion included between these
sections and determine the lateral area of this section.
SPHERICAL CONE
21. A spherical sector has a central angle of 60° and the radius of the sphere is 15 cm.
Find the volume of the spherical sector.
SPHERICAL PYRAMID
22. The base of spherical pyramid is a spherical polygon whose angles are 165, 75, 115,
160 and 85. All measurements are in degrees. If the diameter of the sphere is 18 cm,
find the volume of the pyramid.
23. Find radius of the spherical wedge whose volume is 12m3 with a dihedral angle of
1.8 radians.
24. Find the area of the lune from the previous problem.
ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
Complex Numbers
Area by Coordinates
1. Find the area of a polygon whose vertices are (3, 5), (-1, -7), (-2, 4) and (5, -6).
A. 124 B. 62 C. 1 D. 1/2
2. The two vertices of a triangle are (2,4) and (-2,3). If the area is 2 square units, find the
locus of the third vertex.
A. x-4y+10=0 C. x-4y-10=0
B. x+4y+10=0 D. x+4y-10=0
Distance Formula
3. If A is at point (-2, 5) and B is at point (3, 9), what is the length of the line segment AB?
A. 5.5 B. 5.7 C. 6.4 D. 7.1
Slope
4. What is the slope of a line passing through (1, 2) and (4, 6)?
A. 1/2 B. 4/3 C. 2 D. 1
5. Consider points M, N and P with coordinates (3, -4), (1, p) and (-5, 4) respectively. If M,
N and P are collinear, what is value of p?
A. 1 B. 2 C. -1 D. -2
6. What is the angle made by the line passing through (5, -1) and (2, 3) with the x-axis?
A. 53.13 B. 46.17 C. 91.52 D. 88.63
Equation of Lines
7. Determine the equation of the line passing through the points (-5, 3) and (4, 2).
A. x-9y+22=0 C. x+9y-22=0
B. x+9y+22=0 D. x-9y-22=0
8. What is the equation of the line having a slope of 2 and passing through the point (-4, -
3)?
A. 2x+y-5=0 C. 2x+y+5=0
B. 2x-y+5=0 D. 2x-y-5=0
9. Find the equation of the line with x and y intercepts -1 and 7 respectively.
A. 7x+y-7=0 C. 7x-y+7=0
B. 7x+y+7=0 D. 7x-y-7=0
Parallel and Perpendicular Lines
10. Find the equation of the line perpendicular to x-4y=3 and passing through the point (2, -
5)
A. 4x-y-3=0 B. 4x+y+3 C. 4x-y+3 D. 4x+y-3=0
11. Determine the distance from the point (5, -3) to the line 2x-4y+10=0
A. 6.93 B. 7.16 C. 3.45 D. 4.69
12. Find the distance between the parallel lines x-2y+10=0 and x-2y-2=0.
A. 4.5 B. 5.4 C. 4.4 D. 4.7
13. Determine the acute angle between the lines 4x-3y+9=0 and 3x-8y+1=0.
A. 32.57 B. 33.51 C. 30.21 D. 31.17
Circle
15. Determine the equation of the circle passing through the points (-3, 1), (0, 4) and (3, -6).
A. 13x^2+13y^2+49x-23y-300=0
B. 13x^2+13y^2-49x+23y-300=0
C. 13x^2+13y^2-49x-23y-300=0
D. 13x^2+13y^2+49x+23y-300=0
Parabola
16. Where is the vertex of the parabola x^2-4y+8=0?
A. (1,0) B. (0,1) C. (0,2) D. (2,0)
17. An arch 18 m high has the form of parabola with a vertical axis. The length of a
horizontal beam placed across the arch 8 m from the top is 64m. Find the width of the
arch at the bottom.
A. 48 B. 96 C. 32 D. 64
Ellipse
18. Determine the length of the latus rectum of the curve 25x^2+9y^2-300x-144y+1251=0.
A. 3.2 B. 3.4 C. 3.6 D. 3.8
19. The arch of a bridge is on the shape of a semi-ellipse having a horizontal span of 90 m
and a height of 30 m at its center. How high is the arch 25 m to the right or left of the
center?
A. 24.94 m B. 28.81 m C. 27.65 m D. 24.10 m
Hyperbola
20. What is the eccentricity of the equation 9x^2 – y^2 – 2y – 10 = 0?
A. 1.15 B. 2.61 C. 3.16 D. 3.14
Translation of Axes
21. Find the new equation of the line 5x + 4y + 3 = 0, if the origin is translated to the point
(1, 2).
A. x’ + 3y’ + 12 = 0 C. 2x’ + 3y’ + 16 = 0
B. 4x’ + 3y’ + 15 = 0 D. 5x’ + 4y’ + 16 = 0
Rotation of Axes
22. Eliminate the xy term of the equation 4x^2 – 4xy + 7y^2 – 24 = 0 by rotating the axis.
Which of the following is the angle of rotation?
A. 26.56ᵒ C. 45ᵒ
B. 53.13ᵒ D. 90ᵒ
Implicit Differentiation
Partial Derivatives
12. Find the partial derivative with respect to y of the function 𝑧 = 3𝑥𝑦 + 3𝑥 2 − 2𝑦 3 +
15𝑥 2 𝑦.
Slope Of A Curve
21. What is the equation of the tangent line to the curve x^2+y^2-6x+10y+5=0 at (5, 0).
Maxima / Minima
24. A cylindrical can is to contain 2000 in^3 of liquid. What height will minimize the cost of
metal to be used in the construction of the can?
A. 8.60 B. 13.66 C. 6.83 D. 17.20
25. A rectangular poster, which contain 50 in^2 of print, must have a margin of 2 in on each
side and 4 in on top and bottom. What height will minimize the amount of material used?
A. 18 B. 16 C. 15 D. 12
26. A wall h meters high is 2 m away from a building. The shortest ladder that can reach the
building with one end resting on the ground outside the wall is 6 m. How high is the
wall?
A. 2.24 m B. 2.44 m C. 2.14 m D. 2.34 m
28. From the same starting point, a snail and a turtle run at the same time in perpendicular
directions for 3 kph and 4 kph respectively. How fast is their distance changing after 2
hours?
A. 4.5 kph B. 5 kph C. 5.5 kph D. 6 kph
29. A man, 1.6 m tall is walking on a horizontal street at 3 kph away from a vertical street
light, 3 m high. How fast is the length of his shadow increasing when he is 2 m from the
street light?
30. A battle ship is 1.5 km from a straight shore. It is targeting an enemy troop running along
the shore at 4 kph. How fast is the gun of the battle ship rotating when the troop is 500 m
from the point on the shore nearest to the battle ship in revolutions per hour?
31. A 3 m long steel pipe has its upper end leaning against a vertical wall and lower end on a
level ground. The lower end moves away at a constant rate of 2 cm/s. How fast is the
upper end moving down when the lower end is 2 m from the wall?
A. 1.81 cm/s B. 1.79 cm/s C. 1.66 cm/s D. 1.98 cm/s
32. The legs of a right triangle are 70 cm. If one of the legs starts to shrink at the rate of 5
cm/min and the other increases at the same rate, how fast is the length of the hypotenuse
of the triangle changing 2 min later?
A. 1 cm/min B. 2 cm/min C. 5 cm/min D. 7 cm/min
Flow Rates
33. There is a constant inflow of liquid into a conical vessel 15 ft deep and 7.50 ft in diameter
at the top. Water is flowing at the rate of 6 ft3/min. When the water is 4 ft deep, determine
the rate of water rise.
A. 1.68 B. 1.78 C. 1.84 D. 1.91
ft/min ft/min ft/min ft/min
34. Water is flowing at constant rate of 125.664 cm3/min in a hemispherical bowl with radius
20 cm. If the height of water is increasing at 0.196 cm/s, what is the height of the water at
this instant?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
35. A spherical snowball is melting in such a way that its surface area decreases at the rate of
1 in2/min. How fast is its radius shrinking when it is 3 in?
36. The sand pouring at the bottom of an hour glass is conical in shape such that the radius is
always 1/3 of the height. When the height is 2 inches, the height is increasing at 0.1 in/s.
Find the rate at which the sand is pouring in cubic in/s.
Circle Of Curvature
Integration Of Powers
1. Evaluate:
1 2
∫ (3𝑥 2 + 𝑥 + 3 + 5) 𝑑𝑥
4 𝑥
2. Evaluate:
∫(𝑥 2 + 3𝑥)2 (2𝑥 + 3)𝑑𝑥
3. Evaluate:
∫ 𝑒 3𝑥 𝑑𝑥
4. Evaluate:
∫ 25𝑥 𝑑𝑥
5. Evaluate:
∫ sec 𝑥 tan 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
6. Evaluate:
∫ sin 3𝑥 cos4 3𝑥 𝑑𝑥
Equation Of Curves
7. The slope of a curve at any point is represented by 3.5 – 0.019x. If the curve passes to
the point (1, 2), find the equation of the curve.
8. A curve is represented by the equation y=ax2+bx+c. The slope of this curve at point
(2, 15) is 13. This curve also passes through (-5, 12). Find the equation of the curve.
9. What is the area bounded by the curve y=2 – x2 and the line y = 1?
10. Find the area of a plane such that it is bounded at the top by y=sinx and at the bottom
by y=cosx.
1 3 9
11. Determine the area bounded by the curves 𝑦 = √3𝑥−𝑥 2 , 𝑥 = 2 , 𝑥 = 4 and the x-axis.
12. Find the centroid of the area bounded by the curves x2 = 4y and y = 4.
Moment Of Inertia Of Plane Areas
13. Find the moment of inertia of the area bounded by the curve x2 = 4y, the line x – 4 =
0, and the x-axis, with respect to the y-axis.
14. Find the moment of inertia about line x=10 of the area bounded by y2 = 4x and x2 =
4y.
16. Find the volume generated when 𝑦 = √sin 𝑥 in the interval 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 𝜋 and x-axis is
revolved about the x-axis.
17. The area bounded by the curve 𝑦 = √𝑥 and 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 is revolved about the x-axis.
What is the volume generated?
18. The area bounded by the first quadrant of the curve 𝑥 2 = 𝑦 − 1, 𝑥 = 0 and 𝑥 = 1 is
revolved about x-axis. Find the volume generated.
19. The area bounded by the first quadrant of the curve 𝑥 2 = 𝑦 − 1, 𝑥 = 0 and 𝑥 = 1 is
revolved about y-axis. Find the volume generated.
20. Find the volume of solid formed by rotating the region bounded by the graphs of 𝑦 =
𝑥 3 + 𝑥 + 1, 𝑦 = 1 and 𝑥 = 1 about 𝑥 = 2.
22. A 250-m tunnel is in a form of parabola with height 6 m and 12 m wide at the bottom.
The surface inside the tunnel is to be painted, estimate the amount of paint required in
square meters.
25. Find the surface area generated by rotating the first quadrant portion of the curve 𝑦 =
9 − 𝑥 2 about the y-axis.
26. Find the total surface area of the solid generated by revolving the region bounded by
𝑦 = 2√𝑥, 𝑥 = 4 and 𝑥 = 9 and x-axis about the x-axis.
SURVEYING
TAPE CORRECTIONS/DISTANCE OF LINES
1. Using a 100 m tape that is 0.02 m too short, the measured distance from A to B is
160.42 m, what is the correct distance from line AB?
2. 30-m steel tape, known to be 30.006 (under standard conditions) was used to record
a measurement of 119.898 m. What is the correct distance for erroneous tape length?
3. The correct distance between two points is 220.45 m. Using a 100 m tape that is ‘x’
m too long, the length to be laid on the ground should be 220.406 m. Find the value
of ‘x’.
4. A tape has a standard length at 20°C, a line was measured at a temperature of 3°C. If
the coefficient of thermal expansion is 0.0000116 m/°C and its true horizontal
length is 865.30, what us the measured length in meters?
5. A steel tape is 100 m long at a standard pull of 65 N. Compute the pull correction in
mm if during measurement the applied pull is 40 N. The tape has a cross-sectional
area of 3.18 mm2 and E=200 GPa. If the measured length of the line is 865.30, what
is the corrected distance?
6. A 50-m steel tape weighing 1.75 kg is constantly supported at mid-length and at its
end points, and is used to measure a line AB with steady pull of 6.5 kg. If the
measured length of AB is 1349.6 m, determine the correct length of line AB.
7. A line 100 m long was paced by a surveyor for four times with the following data
142, 145.5, 145 and 146. Then another line was paced for four times again with 893,
893.5, 891 and 895 paces. Determine the length of the line
ACCIDENTAL ERRORS
8. Number of measurements was tabulated in the table shown, determine the most
probable error of the mean.
Distance 612.12 612.14 612.16 612.18 612.20
9. Given the table, determine the most probable value in the difference in elevation.
∆Elevation Distance
62.12 2.8
62.85 3.8
63.16 3.0
10. Number of measurements was tabulated in the table shown, determine the most
probable value of the distance.
Distance Measurements
612.12 4
612.14 2
612.16 3
612.18 5
612.20 6
11. Number of measurements as tabulated in the table shown, determine the most
probable value of the distance.
Distance Probable Error
612.12 0.2
612.14 0.4
612.16 0.3
612.18 0.5
612.20 0.6
12. Assume that a line is measured in three sections, with errors in the individual parts
equal to ±0.012, ±0.028, ±0.020 ft respectively. Determine the anticipated error of
the total length.
13. For a rectangular lot, observations of sides A and B with their 95 % errors are
(252.46, ± 0.053) ft and (605.08, ± 0.072) ft, respectively. Calculate the expected
error in area.
EARTH’S CURVATURE
14. An observer standing on the shoreline of a lake can just see the op of a tower on an
island if the eye of the observer is 1.655 m above lake level and the op of the tower
is 15.220 m above lake level, how far is the tower form the observer?
15. Point A is in between points B and C, the distances of B and C from point A are
1000 m and 2000 m respectively. Measure from point A, the angle of elevation of
point B is 18°13’ while that of C as ø. The difference in the elevations of B and C is
44.4 m provided that B has higher elevation. Considering the effects of curvature
and refraction, what is the value of ø?
LEVELING
16. With the use of an engineer’s level, the reading on a rod 80 m away was found to be
2.82 m. The bubble was leveled through 5 spaces on the level tube and the rod
reading increased to 2.884 m. What is the radius of curvature of the level tube if one
space on the tube is 0.6 mm long?
17. The horizontal axis of a transit was inclined at 4’ with the horizontal due to non-
adjustment. The first sight had a vertical angle of 50ᵒ, the next had -30ᵒ. Determine
the error in the measured horizontal angle.
18. In the two peg test of dumpy level, the following observations are taken. What is the
true difference in elevation between A and B?
Inst. at A Inst. at B
Rod rdg. on A 1.508 0.938
Rod rdg. on B 2.024 1.449
TACHYMETRIC SURVEYING
SITUATION: A transit with a stadia constant equal to 0.30 is used to determine the
horizontal distance between points A and B, with a stadia intercept reading of 1.85 m. The
distance AB is equal to 182.87 m.
1. Compute the stadia interval factor.
2. Using the same instrument, it was used to determine the difference in elevation
between A and C having a stadia intercept reading of 2.42 m at C at a vertical angle
of +6ᵒ30’. Compute the difference in elevation between A and C.
3. Compute the horizontal distance between A and C.
Profile Leveling
1. Using the following notes, what is the elevation of BM14? Find the difference in
elevation between BM13 and BM14.
Station BS FS Elevation
BM12 4.64 209.65
1 5.80 5.06
2 2.25 5.02
BM13 6.02 5.85
3 8.96 4.34
4 8.06 3.22
5 9.45 3.71
6 12.32 2.02
BM14 1.98
Traversing
2. A traverse has he following data:
SIT UATION: Given are the notes for the perpendicular offsets of a certain curved boundary
line:
Station Offset Station Offset
(m) (m)
0+100 2.0 0+136 5.0
0+109 3.2 0+145 4.5
0+118 4.0 0+154 6.0
0+127 3.5 0+163 7.0
4. Approximate the area using Trapezoidal rule.
5. Approximate the area using Simpson’s rule.
Omitted Measurements/Missing Data
6. A closed traverse has the following data. Find the missing data.
Course Bearing Distance
(m)
1-2 N9.27°E 58.7
2-3 S88.43°E 27.3
3-4
5-6 S5.3°E 35
6-1 S72.07°W 78.96
7. A closed traverse has the following data. Find the missing data.
Course Bearing Distance
(m)
1-2 S15°36’W 24.22
2-3 S69°11’E 15.92
3-4 N57°58’E
5-6 S80°43’W
Horizontal Curves
A. Simple
8. A 3° curve has an angle of intersection of 24°, what is the length of the long chord
and the length of the curve.
9. A simple curve with tangents AV and VE have azimuths of 260°48’ and 285°40’
respectively. Point B is taken along AV and C along VE. The azimuth and distance of
BC are 272°16’ and 61.22 m respectively. The degree of curve is 5°. If the stationing
of point B is 8+126.3, determine the stationing of PT.
B. Compound
10. A long chord from PC to PT of a compound curve is 180 m long and the angle it
makes with the longer and shorter tangents are 12° and 18° respectively. Find the
difference in radius of the compound curve if the common tangent will be parallel to
the long chord.
11. A compound curve has a common tangent equal to 140 m. The first curve has a radius
equal to 194 m and has a subtended angle of 24ᵒ while the second curve has a central
angle of 34ᵒ. What is the degree of second curve?
C. Reverse
12. A reverse curve has the following properties:
Degree of curve, D1 = 3ᵒ
Central angle, I1 = 24ᵒ
Degree of curve, D2 = 4ᵒ
Central angle, I2 = 38ᵒ
Stationing of PC = 67 + 345.23
Determine the stationing of PRC. Use arc basis.
D. Spiral
13. The degree of curve of the central curve of a spiral easement curve is equal to 6ᵒ. If
the maximum design velocity of the car passing thru the spiral curve is 75 kph,
determine the required length of spiral.
14. The length of spiral is 80 m with a radius of the central curve equal to 200 m.
Compute the spiral angle at the end point SC.
15. What is the appropriate radius of the central curve if an 80m spiral curve has a
distance along the tangent of 59.46 m at its third quarter point?
16. An 80 m spiral curve has an external distance of 20.5 m. Determine the radius of
central curve if the angle of intersection of spiral tangents is 40ᵒ.
Earthworks
SIT A. At station 10+100, the center height of the road is 4.5 m cut, while at station
10+180, it is 2.6 m fill. The ground from station 9+220 to the other station has a
uniform slope of -6%.
1. What is the grade of the road?
2. How far in meters, from station 10+180 toward station 10+100 will the filling extend?
3. At what station will the filling extend?
Station 1 + 120
2.25 1 0.8
9 0 5.6
4. If the width of the base is 8 m, compute the volume between stations using average
area method.
5. Compute the volume of between stations using prismoidal formula.
6. Compute the prismoidal correction.
SIT C. The areas in cut of two irregular sections 40 m apart are 32 m 2 and 68 m2. The base
width is 10 m and the side slope is 1:1. Find the corrected volume of cut in m3 using
the prismoidal correction formula.
SIT D. A parabolic curve has a descending grade of -0.80% which meets an ascending
grade of 0.40% at station 10+020. The maximum allowable change of grade per 20-
m station is 0.15. Elevation at station 10+020 is 240.60 m.
7. What is the length of the curve?
8. Compute the elevation of the lowest point of the curve.
9. Compute the elevation at 10+000.
SIT E. A vertical summit parabolic curve has a vertical offset of 0.375 m from the curve to
the grade tangent at station 10+050. The curve has a slope of +4% and –2% grades
intersecting at the PI. The offset distance of the curve at PI is equal to 1.50 m. If the
stationing of the PC is at 10+000, determine the following:
10. Compute the required length of curve.
11. Compute the horizontal distance of the vertical curve turning point from the point of
intersection of grades.
12. Compute the elevation of the vertical curve turning point if the elevation of PT is
86.42 m.
Design of Pavements
SIT F. Determine the thickness of the different types of pavement using the given data.
13. A rigid pavement has a wheel load capacity of 54 kN. The allowable tensile stress of
concrete is 1.6 MPa. Neglect the effects of dowels.
14. A flexible pavement has a wheel load of 54 kN and an allowable bearing pressure on
the base of the pavement of 0.15 MPa. Use the principle of cone distribution. Assume
the equivalent radius of the contact area of the tires is 165 mm.
15. A pavement is subjected to an expansion pressure of 0.50 kg/cm2 with an average
pavement density of 0.05 kg/cm3.
SOIL MECHANICS
SOIL PROPERTIES
1. A sample of wet silty clay soil has a mass of 125 kg. The following data were
obtained from laboratory tests on the sample: wet density, ρt = 2.3 g/cm3, Gs = 2.65,
water content, w = 16%. Determine (i) dry density, (ii) porosity, (iii) void ratio and
(iv) degree of saturation.
2. A soil sample in its natural state has, when fully saturated, a water content of 32.5%.
Determine the void ratio, dry and total unit weights. Calculate the total weight of
water required to saturate a soil mass of volume 15 m3. Assume Gs= 2.70.
3. A soil specimen having a volume of 0.011 m3 has a specific gravity of 2.65. It has a
moist mass of 21 kg and a dried mass of 16 kg.
a. Determine its void ratio
b. Determine its degree of saturation
c. Determine the dry unit weight.
4. The field unit weight of the soil sample is 1960 kg/m3, and the unit weight of the soil
particle is 2700 kg/m3. If void ratios at loosest and densest state are 0.69 and 0.44
respectively, determine the following.
a. Dry unit weight if water content is 11%.
b. Void ratio.
c. Relative Density.
5. The moist unit weight and degree of saturation of a soil are given in the following
table:
γ (kN/m3) Degree of Saturation (%)
16.55 45
17.60 70
Determine the following:
a. Void ratio.
b. Specific Gravity.
c. Saturated unit weight.
6. A dry soil is mixed with 17% by mass with water and compacted. Volume of wet soil
is 0.001 m3 and has a mass of 1.6 kg. If the specific gravity of soil is 2.70.
a. Compute the dry unit weight of soil.
b. Compute the void ratio
c. Compute the degree of saturation.
7. The dry unit weight of soil at zero air voids is equal to 19 kN/m3. The soil has a water
content of 12% and degree of saturation of 58%. Compute the following:
a. Specific gravity.
b. Void ratio.
c. Porosity.
Atterberg Limits
SIT A. The following data shows the results of the liquid limit, and plastic limit test.
Liquid Limit:
TEST NO. 1 2 3 4
No. of Blows 35 21 16 11
Wt. of Wet soil + 22.46 g 21.33 g 21.29 g 26.21 g
container
Wt. of Dry soil + 19.44 g 18.75 g 18.78 g 22.10 g
container
Wt. of container 12.76 g 13.06 g 13.26 g 13.27 g
Plastic Limit:
TEST NO. 1 2
Wt. of Wet soil + container 22.10 g 21.77 g
Wt. of Dry soil + container 20.42 g 20.19 g
Wt. of container 13.07 g 13.18 g
SIT B. In a liquid limit test, using cone penetrometer, the following readings were recorded.
Moisture Content Cone Penetration
(%) (mm)
32.1 14.4
41.6 16.4
51.8 18.2
64.2 21.1
72.6 22.3
Plastic Limit Test
Weight of wet soil + container = 22.12 g
Weight of dry soil + container = 21.42 g
Weight of container = 13.07 g
AASHTO Method:
SIT D.
a. Classify soil A using AASHTO method.
b. Classify soil B using AASHTO method
c. Classify soil C using AASHTO method
Permeability
Temperature correction: RT = 2.42 – 0.475lnT
SIT E. A sample of coarse grained soil 50 mm in diameter and 150 mm long was tested in a
constant-head apparatus. The soil sample was prepared at a void ratio of 1.5. The
total head was kept constant at 300 mm and the amount of water collected in 4 sec
was 50 cm3. The test was made at 22°C.
a. Compute the coefficient of permeability in cm/s at the test temperature.
b. Compute the coefficient of permeability in cm/s at 20°C.
c. Compute the interstitial velocity.
𝑟
𝑄𝑙𝑛( 1 )
𝑟2
Coefficient of Permeability in Confined Aquifers: 𝑘 = 2𝜋𝑡(ℎ
1 −ℎ2 )
Transmissivity: T=kt
SIT H. A 300 mm diameter well penetrates 27 m below the static water table. After 24
hours of pumping at 96 L/s, the water level in an observation well at a distance of 95
m from the test well is lowered 0.50 m and the other observation well at a distance
of 35 m from the test well, the drawdown is 1.10 m.
a. What is the rate of flow in m3/day.
b. Compute the coefficient of permeability of the aquifer in m/day.
c. Compute the transmissivity of the aquifer in m2/day.
Stresses in Soils
SIT I. A ground profile consists of 2 m of silty sand underlain by 3 m of clay. The ground
water table is 3 m below the ground surface. The sand has a unit weight of 14
kN/m3. The clay has unit weight of 16 kN/m3 above the water table and 20 kN/m3
below the water table.
a. Determine the total stress at bottom of the clay layer.
b. Determine the pore water pressure at the bottom of the clay layer.
c. Determine the effective stress at the bottom of the clay layer.
SIT J. 50 ft thick sand is underlain by 25 ft clay. The ground water table, initially at the
ground surface, was lowered to a depth of 25 ft below the ground. After such
lowering, the degree of saturation of the sand above water table was lowered to
20%. Saturated and dry unit weight of sand are 135 pcf and 116 pcf respectively.
The saturated unit weight of clay is 120 pcf.
a. What is the vertical effective pressure at the midheight of the clay layer before
lowering of the water table in psf?
b. What is the vertical effective pressure at the midheight of the clay layer after
lowering of the water table in psf?
c. What is the vertical effective pressure at the midheight of the clay layer when
there is no water in the sand layer in psf?
Capillarity
𝐶
Capillary rise, ℎ = 𝑒𝐷
10
SIT L. A soil profile is shown in the figure. From original ground water table at C, a zone
of capillary rise of 2.5 m is on the sand layer overlying clay. In this zone, the
average degree of saturation is 60%. The soil above capillary action is dry sand.
A
e=0.54
4m
Gs=2.67
B
2.5 m e=0.70 Gs=2.70
C
3.5 m e=0.96
Gs=2.73
D
a. Compute the effective stress right above B.
b. Compute the effective stress right below B.
c. Compute the effective stress at C.
d. Compute the effective stress at D.
Compressibility of Soils
SIT M. A 2.1 m layer of clay is buried beneath a 3 m stratum of very compact granular soil.
Compact sand underlies the clay. The layer of granular soil is composed of material
having a dry unit weight of 18.46 kN/m3. The clay dry unit weight is 16.52 kN/m3.
A laboratory compression test on a sample of the clay indicates a compression index
of 0.40 and a natural void ratio of 1.30. A planned building loading will cause a
26.38 kPa stress increase at the middle of the clay layer.
a. What amount of primary compression occurs in the clay for the indicated
conditions?
b. How much primary compression of the clay layer would result if the ground
water table was at the ground surface? The specific gravity granular soil is 2.65.
c. How much clay layer compression would occur if clay was an overconsolidated
material, the past maximum pressure was 95.94 kPa and Cs=0.10? The water
table is very deep.
SIT N. Assume a buried stratum of clay 1.83 m thick will be subjected to a stress increase
of 33.6 kPa at the center of clay. The magnitude of the preconstruction soil
overburden pressure Po=48 kPa at the center of the clay layer. A laboratory
compression test indicates that the clay has a preconsolidation pressure of 72 kPa.
Compression index is 0.30 and swell index is 0.05. Void ratio of clay is 1.50.
a. Compute the settlement due to primary consolidation.
b. If full consolidation settlement will require approximately 8 years, compute the
settlement due to secondary compression of clay over a period of 20-year time
span. Assume secondary compression index is 0.008.
c. Estimate the total settlement to be expected over a 20-year time span considering
effects of secondary compression.
SIT O. A square footing 3 x 2 m carries a column load of 3500 kN resting 0.60 m below the
ground on the sand layer. The sand layer is 2.4 m thick with a 1.2 m clay layer
underneath it. The ground water table is 1.2 m below the ground surface. The sand
has dry and saturated unit weights 17.31 kN/m3 and 18.10 kN/m3 respectively. The
clay has Gs=2.50, LL=49% and w=68%.
a. Compute the preconsolidation pressure if the overconsolidated ratio is 2.0.
b. Compute the total effective stress at the center of the clay layer.
c. Calculate the settlement due to consolidation of the overconsolidated clay layer.
Tri-axial Test
SIT Q. A consolidated drained tri-axial test was conducted on a normally consolidated clay.
The results were as follows:
Chamber confining pressure = 300 kPa
SIT S. The results of two-drained tri-axial tests on a saturated clay are recorded as follows:
Specimen A:
Chamber-confining pressure = 104 kPa
Deviator stress at failure = 201 kPa
Specimen B:
Chamber-confining pressure = 170 kPa
Deviator stress at failure = 324 kPa
a. Compute the angle of friction.
b. Compute the cohesion of soil.
c. If the clay specimen above is tested in a tri-axial apparatus with a chamber-
confining pressure of 248 kPa, compute the major principal stress at failure.
SIT T. A specimen of saturated sand was consolidated under on all around confining
pressure of 414 kPa. The axial stress was then increased and drainage of pore water
was prevented. The soil specimen failed with the deviator stress reached 346 kPa.
The pore water pressure at failure was measured from a pore water supply line
connected at the base of the soil specimen was found to be 286 kPa.
a. Compute the consolidated undrained angle of shearing resistance.
b. Compute the drained friction angle.
c. What would be the deviator stress at failure if a drained test was conducted with
the same chamber all around pressure of 414 kPa?
0.3𝐵 0.2𝐵
Rectangular Footing: 𝑞𝑢𝑙𝑡 = (1 + ) 𝑐𝑁𝑐 + 𝑞1 𝑁𝑞 + 0.5 (1 − ) 𝑞2 𝑁𝛾
𝐿 𝐿
∅
𝑁𝑞 = tan2 (45 + ) 𝑒 𝜋tan ∅
2
𝑁𝑐 = 𝑁𝑞 − 1 cot∅
𝑁𝛾 = 2 𝑁𝑞 + 1 tan ∅
Local Shear Failure Ultimate Bearing Capacities: (For Loose Sand and Soft Clay)
2 2
𝑐′ = 𝑐; tan ∅′ = tan ∅
3 3
SIT U. A square footing has a dimension of 1.2 m and has its bottom 1 m below the ground
𝑘𝑔 𝑘𝑔
surface. The soil has the following properties: 𝜌 = 1846 𝑚3 , 𝑐 = 1605 𝑚2 , ∅ =
𝑘𝑔
30° , 𝜌𝑠𝑎𝑡 = 1965 𝑚3 . Use Terzaghi’s bearing capacity constants: Nc=35, Nq=22
and Nγ=19.
a. If the ground water table is located at a depth of 1.2 m below the ground
surface, compute the allowable load that the footing could carry if it has a factor
of safety of 3.
b. Find the ultimate bearing capacity of the soil if the ground water table is at the
bottom of the footing.
c. Find the ultimate bearing capacity of the soil if the ground water table is 0.5 m
above the bottom of the footing.
Piles on Clay
SIT V. A 0.3 square prestressed concrete pile is to be driven at a site where soil conditions
are as indicated in the figure.
c=28 kPa
γ=15.7 kN/m
6m
α=1.0
c=96 kPa
γ=19 kN/m
8m
α=0.50
SIT Z. A retaining wall 8 m high supports a cohesionless soil having a dry density of 1600
kg/m3, angle of shearing resistance is 33° and void ratio of 0.68. The surface of the
soil is horizontal and level with the top of the wall. Neglect wall friction and use
Rankine’s formula for active pressure of cohesionless soil.
a. Determine the nearest value to the total earth thrust on the wall in kN per linear
meter if the soil is dry.
b. Determine the nearest value of the thrust on the wall in kN per linear meter if
owing to inadequate drainage, it is waterlogged to a level 3.5 m below the
surface.
c. Determine the nearest value to the height above the base of the wall where the
thrust acts during the waterlogged condition.
SIT AA. A cantilever sheet pile is 8.2 m long with depth of embedment of 3.2 m. Angle
of friction of the soil supported by the sheet pile is 34° and has a unit weight
of 1.91 g/cc. There is water table below the base of the sheet pile.
a. Compute the active force acting on the sheet pile.
b. Compute the passive force acting on the sheet pile.
c. Compute the theoretical passive force that must be mobilized to ensure
stability.
Braced Sheeting
Cuts in Sand
Assumes a uniform pressure with magnitude 𝑃𝑎 = 0.65𝐾𝑎 𝛾𝐻
SIT BB. A braced cut in sand 10 meters deep is shown in the figure. In the plan, the struts
are spaced 2 meters center to center, the dry soil has a unit dry unit weight of
15.5 kN/m3 and ø=35°. Use Peck’s empirical pressure diagram. Used a = 1.0 m,
b = c = d, and L = 6 m.
a. Determine the strut load at A.
b. Determine the strut load at C.
c. Determine the strut load at B.
FLUID MECHANICS
m
Mass Density, [ slug/ft3 or kg/m3]
V
W
Specific Weight (Unit Weight), [ lb/ft3 or kN/m3 ]
V
L L L SL w
Relative Density (Specific Gravity), S L
w w L S L w
Absolute Pressure, Pabs – pressure measured above absolute zero, always positive (+)
Pabs Patm Pg
HYDROSTATIC PRESSURE, P h – pressure acted by liquid (gauge pressure) plus any
pressure acting on the surface of the liquid
P
PRESSURE HEAD, h – the vertical height h of any liquid of specific weight, which
γ
can be converted to a gauge pressure P
EQUIVALENT HEIGHT – height of another liquid which gives the same amount of
pressure as a certain liquid
P1 P2
1h1 2 h2
SIT A. The cylindrical tank with hemispherical ends shown in the following figure contains
a volatile liquid and its vapor. The liquid density is 800 kg/m3. The pressure in the
vapor is 120 kPa (abs), and the atmospheric pressure is 101 kPa (abs).
I CG sin
LOCATION, eccentricity, e
hA
SIT C. A rectangular gate 2 m wide and 4 m high is pivoted at its center of gravity.
a. Determine the hydrostatic force acting on the gate.
b. What is the location of the force measured from the G?
c. Determine the required force F needed to maintain the gate closed.
SIT D. A vertical gate 1.6 m wide and 2 m high has water on one side and is inclined 45°
with the horizontal. Water is 1.50 m above the top of the gate. With the gate hinged
at B, determine:
a. the hydrostatic force acting on the gate
b. the location of the force measured from the hinge
c. the force F needed to open the gate
SIT E. The crest gate shown consists of a cylindrical surface which AB is the base,
supported by a structural frame hinged at C. The length of the gate perpendicular to
the paper is 10 m.
a. Determine the hydrostatic force on the gate.
b. Determine the position of the line of action of the force.
c. Determine the depth of center of pressure
SIT F. In the figure, surface AB is a circular arc with a radius of 2 m and a depth of 1 m
into the paper. The distance EB is 4 m. The fluid above surface AB is water, and
atmospheric pressure prevails on the free surface of the water and on the bottom side
of surface AB.
a. The horizontal component of the hydrostatic force acting on the curve is
b. The vertical component of the hydrostatic force acting on the curve is
c. The resultant force acting on the curve is
SIT G. A 1.2 m diameter steel pipe, 6 mm thick, carries oil of specific gravity 0.822 under a
head of 120 m of oil.
a. Determine the maximum tensile stress in the pipe wall.
b. If the allowable steel tensile stress is 124 MPa, calculate the maximum pressure
the pipe can sustain.
c. Compute the thickness of the steel required to carry a pressure of 1700 kPa if the
allowable steel stress is 124 MPa.
ARCHIMEDES’ PRINCIPLE OF BUOYANCY-upward pressure exerted by the fluid in
which a body is immersed
SIT A. An object weighs 75 N when submerged in oil (S = 0.80), and a force 100 N is
required to hold it submerged in mercury
a. Determine its weight.
b. Determine its volume.
c. Determine its specific gravity.
SIT B. The uniform 5-m-long round wooden rod in the figure below is tied to the bottom by
a string. The unit weight of water is 9.79 kN/cu.m. Determine the tension in the
string and the specific gravity of the wood.
In the figure below, the concrete dam has dimensions shown with b=10 m. The specific
weight of concrete is 24 kN/m^3, and the coefficient of friction between the base of the
dam and the foundation is 0.42. Assume there is no hydrostatic uplift.
LIQUIDS IN RIGID BODY MOTION–the fluid will move as a rigid mass with each
particle having the same acceleration.
SIT E. An open cubical tank of dimension 1m has oil with specific gravity of 0.8 is
accelerated upward at 6 m/s2.
a. Determine the pressure at 0.2 m from the liquid surface.
b. Determine the force at the bottom of the tank.
c. If the container is accelerated downward, determine the required acceleration to
reduce the pressure at the bottom to zero.
SIT F. An open tank has a square base with side 1 m contains 1.5 m of water is accelerated
horizontally to the right at 4m/s2.
a. Determine the height of the tank so that no water will be spilled.
b. If the acceleration is increased to 7m/s2, determine the stvolume of water spilled.
c. If the tank was closed initially and accelerated at 7m/s2, determine the
hydrostatic force on the left wall.
SIT G. An open tank having a radius of 0.6 m and height of 4 m contains 3.5 m of water is
rotated at 100 rpm.
a. Determine the volume of water spilled.
b. At what angular speed should be imposed to the vessel so that there will be no
water at the bottom center of the tank?
c. If the container is closed, determine the maximum pressure at the side of the
wall.
FLUID DYNAMICS – the natural science of fluids in motion
HYDRODYNAMICS – study of liquids in motion
HYDRAULICS – concerned with the practical applications of fluids, primarily liquids in
motion. It deals with such matters as the flow of liquids in pipes, rivers, and channels.
FLUID FLOW – continuous deformation of fluid upon the application of shear force
CLASSIFICATIONS OF FLOW:
A. REAL FLOW – considers energy losses in the flow
B. IDEAL FLOW – neglects the effects of viscosity and friction in fluid flow, thus no
energy losses are considered
C. UNIFORM FLOW - flow velocity and cross-sectional area of flow at a given instant
do not change with distance
D. NON-UNIFORM FLOW – flow velocity and cross-sectional area of flow varies with
distance
E. STEADY FLOW – flow velocity and area of flow do not change with time, a0
F. UNSTEADY FLOW – flow velocity and area of flow varies with time, a 0
FLOW VELOCITY
FLOW MEASUREMENT:
1. PITOT TUBE – a small open, bent tube with its open end pointing upstream used to
measure velocity of flow of liquids
2. VENTURIMETER – uses a rapidly converging section (gradually increases the
velocity of flow to reduce the pressure), thus measuring fluid flow
2 gH
v2 4
d2
1
d1
3. ORIFICE METER – abruptly contracts the area of flow using a small opening,
increasing velocity with corresponding drop in pressure
2 gH
vo 4
do
1
d
p
4. WEIR – is a notch on a larger scale - usually found in rivers used as a flow measuring
device and a device to raise water levels
RECTANGULAR WEIR
H 1
Q L 2g h 2dh
0
2 3
Q 2gLH 2 theoretical
3
2 3
Qa Cd 2gLH 2 actual
3
Qa 1.84 L' H 3 / 2 m3 /s
Francis’ Formula,
Qa 3.33L' H 3 / 2 ft 3 /s
0
b 2 H h tan
2
H
Q 2 2g tan
2
0
H h h1/ 2dh
8 5/2
TRIANGULAR WEIR (V-NOTCH)
Q 2g tan H theoretical
15 2
8
Qa Cd 2g tan H5 / 2 actual
15 2
Qa 2.36 tan CdH5 / 2 m3 /s
2
Qa 4.28 tan CdH5 / 2 ft 3 /s
2
Q 3.367LH1.5 ft /s
3
1
3”
2
x
7”
a. Taking the coefficient of the meter as 0.97 find the velocity of flow at the throat when
the inlet gauge reads 15170 Pa higher than the throat gauge.
b. Calculate the measured flow rate.
c. Calculate the velocity of flow at the throat when the flow is up the vertical pipe.
SIT L. A 2-in circular orifice ( not standard ) at the end of the 3-in-diameter pipe shown in
the figure discharges into the atmosphere a measured flow of 0.60 cfs of water when
the pressure in the pipe is 10 psi. The jet velocity is determined by a pitot tube to be
39.2 fps.
djet
3 in 2 in
vo 2 gH
vo 2 gh (theoretical)
v j Cv vo (actual)
Q Cd Ao vo
SUBMERGED ORIFICE
v o 2 g h
10.67LQ1.85 4.72LQ1.85
HAZEN WILLIAMS hf hf
C1.85D 4.87 C1.85D 4.87
SIT P. For the pipe system shown in the figure below, n = 0.015 for all pipes and the flow
in pipe 4 is 12 cfs.
a. Which of the following is closest to the head lost in pipe 1?
b. Which of the following is closest to the flowrate in pipe 2?
c. Which of the following is closest to the total head lost?
2
18” – 4000 ft
Q 1 4
3
SIT Q. A 300 mm pipe 2400 m long is connected with a reservoir whose surface is 75 m
above the pipes discharging ends. If the last 1200 m, a second pipe of the same
diameter be laid besides the first and connected to it. f=0.02
,
a. Determine the flow in the first pipe before connecting the other pipe.
b. Determine the flow in the second pipe after connecting the pipes.
c. What would be the increase in discharge?
SIT R. In a fire fighting system a pipeline with a pump leads to a nozzle as shown in Figure
B.
a. Find the flow rate in ft3/s when the pump develops a head of 80 ft.
b. Find the pressure in psi at the suction side of the pump.
c. Find the power delivered to the water by the pump.
El. 120 m
El. 80’ A
D = 4” El. B
3” dia jet
B
El. 70’ L = 156.6 ft
El. 28 m
C = 110 El. 50’ 1
P 2
D = 6” C
3
L = 93 ft
P
C = 110
SIT S. Three reservoirs A, B and C are connected with pipes 1, 2 and 3 joining at a
common junction at P. The properties of each pipe are as follows.
L1 = 2000 m, D1 = 1 m, f1 = 0.013;
L2 = 2300 m, D = 0.6 m, f2 = 0.02;
L3 = 2500 m, D3 = 1.2 m, f3 = 0.023
a. If the flow from reservoir A is 4.39 m3/s, calculate the head loss in pipe 1.
b. Calculate the flow in pipe 3 in cu.m/s.
c. Calculate the elevation of water surface in reservoir B for the flow conditions to
occur.
OPEN CHANNEL FLOW- flow by gravity
1 1/ 6 1.49 1/ 6
C R C R
Manning’s: n (Metric) , n (English)
Manning’s Formula:
1 2 / 3 1/ 2 1.49 2 / 3 1/ 2
v R S (m/s), v R S (fps)
n n
v2
SPECIFIC ENERGY: E d
2g
Q 2T
FROUDE NUMBER, FN – ratio of inertia forces to gravity forces
A3 g
SIT T. Water flows uniformly in a 4.5-m-wide, 1.2 m deep rectangular channel. The
channel slope is 0.0028 and roughness coefficient, n = 0.014.
a. Calculate the flow rate capacity of the channel.
b. Calculate the alternate depth.
c. Calculate the average boundary shear stress in Pa.
d. Calculate the critical depth.
e. Calculate the critical velocity.
f. Calculate the minimum specific energy in m
g. Calculate the depth of most efficient proportion.
h. How much will the excavation of the channel be reduced if the channel is of
most efficient proportion carrying the same capacity?
i. With the most efficient proportion, how much will the lining of the channel be
reduced?