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CHAPTER # 12 11. Unit of electric flux is
ELECTROSTATIC
a) V.m b) N/C
2 2 2
1. One coulomb is that unit of charge which when c) V.m d) N /C
placed at 1m form an equal and similar charge
repels it with a force 12. Gauss’s law can be applied to
9 9
a) 5 X 10 dyn b) 5 x 10 N a) Plane surface b) Curved surface
9 9
c) 9 x 10 dyn d) 9 x 10 N c) Any surface d) Closed surface

2. The minimum charge on an abject is 13. Objects may acquire an excess or deficiency of
charge by
a) 1 coulomb b) 1 state coulomb
-19
c) 1.6 x 10 d) None a) Electric force b) Heating
c) Striking d) By rubbing
3. Which of the following is correct
14. Coulomb’s law is only applicable for
a) J = C/V b) J = V x A
c) J = V/A d) J = C x V a) Big charges b) Small charges
c) Point charges d) Any charges
4. One electron volt is
15. The force per unit charge is known as
-12 -10
a) 1.6 x 10 ergs b) 4.8 x 10 ergs
c) 300 ergs d) None a) Electric flux b) Electric potential
c) Electric intensity d) Electric current
5. Polarization of matter is possible only for
16. Electric field intensity is also known as
a) Conductors b) Insulators
c) Gases d) S. conductors a) Electric potential b) Electric flux
c) Potential gradient d) None
6. The charge on the electron was calculated by
17. A basic technique when applying gauss’s law is
a) Faraday b) J.J. Thomson to
c) Millikon d) Einstein
a. Assume the field is constant in direction
7. The ink used in the photocopy machine b. Assume the field is constant is magnitude
c. Assume the field is constant in both
a) Black b) Blue magnitude and direction
c) Red d) Tonar d. Construct and imaginary surface
about the charge
8. There are two charges 1 uc and 6 uc, the ratio
of forces acting on them will be 18. The work done in moving a charge along an
equipotential surface is
a) 1:25 b) 1:6
c) 1:1 d) 6:1 a. Depends on the path taken
b. Greater then zero
9. An electric field lines provides information c. Equal to zero
about ________ d. Negative

a) Electric Force b) Direction 19. In the region where the electric field is zero, the
c) Medium d) All of them electric potential is always

10. If two charges are experiencing a force of 10 N, a) Positive b) Negative


when medium is Air, if the medium is change c) Constant d) Zero
whose permittivity is ‘2’ then force will be
20. The electric intensity is expressed in unit of N/C
a) 3 N b) 5 N or
c) 10 N d) 0.3 N a) Volts b) Walt
c) Joules d) V/m
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21. The energy stored in the capacitor is 31. One giga electron volt
2 2 6 9
a) ½ CV b) ½ C V a) 10 ev b) 10 ev
2 2 12 15
c) ½ QV d) ½ Q V c) 10 ev d) 10 ev

22. A charge of 0.01c accelerated through a p.d of 32. Gravitational force does not depends on
1000v acquires K-E
a) Force b) Masses
a) 10 J b) 100 J c) Distance d) Medium
c) 200 J d) 400 eV
33. Charge to mass ratio was firsts found by
23. If the charge on the particle is double then
electric field is a) Millikon b) J.J. Thomson
c) Newton d) None
a) Half b) Double
c) Unchanged d) None 34. The medium used b/w the plates of capacitor is
called
24. The electric potential at a point of distance 1 m
from 2 uc charge is a) Polarization b) Dielectric
c) Insulators d) Medium
6 6
a) 1.8 x 10 V b) 1.8 x 10 N/C
4 5
c) 1.8 x 10 V d) 1.8 x 10 V 35. The automobiles wind shield wipers works on

25. Capacity of a capacitor depends upon a. Electricity


b. Cell
a. Size of plate c. Charging and discharging of capacitor
b. Distance b/w plates d. None
c. Nature of dielectric b/w plates
d. All of above 36. Selenium is a conductor material which when
exposed to ________
26. The area of plates of 1 farad capacitor
separated 8.85mm placed in the air is a) Light b) Dark
c) Mono chromatic light d) None of these
9 2 5 2
a) 10 m b) 0 m
-9 2 -15 2
c) 10 m d) 10 m 37. When capacitors are connected in parallel the
net capacitance will
27. The equation for the stokes law is
a) Increase b) Decrease
a) 6 b) 6  c) Constant d) None

c) 6 rv d) 8  38. When two capacitors of same capacitance are


connected in parallel and then in service, the
28. A capacitor acts as blocking elements when capacitance in these two cases are in ratio of
applied signal is
a) 1:4 b) 4:1
a) A.C b) D.C c) 6:1 d) 1:2
c) Digital d) None
39. S.I unit of permittivity of free space is
29. Inkjet printers works on the principle of
a) Farad b) Weber
2 2 2
a) Electrostatic b) Electro dynamics c) c /N.m d) c /N.m
c) Electro magnetism d) Electronics
40. A capacitors may be considered as a device for
30. The surface consider for gauss’s law is called
a. Storing energy
a) Closed surface b) Spherical surface b. Increasing resistance
c) Gaussian surface d) None c. Decreasing resistance
d. None

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41. If a 10MF and 2000MF capacitors are 49. A unit of electric charge is
connected in parallel the net capacitance will
be a) Volt b) Hennery
c) Ampere d) Coulomb
a) 6.7 uF b) 1990 uF
c) 2010 uF d) None 50. Potential gradient is defined as

42. A method for charging a conductor without E E


bringing a charge body in contact with it is a. b. 
called V V
r V
c. d. 
a. Magnetization V r
b. Electrification
c. Electrostatic induction 51. Large CR (Time constant) value has
d. Electromagnetic induction
a. Small time constant
43. The field inside the hollow conductor will be b. Large time constant
c. Equal time constant
a) Zero b) Greater than zero d. None of these
2
c) E = kq/r d) Infinite
52. A Capacitor of 2μF is connected with a
44. One volt is battery of 12 Volts, the charge stored in
capacitor
a. One joule per coulomb
b. One dyne per coulomb a. 2.5 × 10 C
-5
b. 2.4 × 10 C
-6
c. One Newton per coulomb -5
c. 2.4 × 10 C
-6
d. 2.4 × 10 C
d. One watt per second
53. An electric field can deflect
45. If the potential difference on a surface is equal
to zero b/w any two points, then surface is said a. Neutron b. x – rays
to be c.  – rays d. α – rays
a. A dielectric
b. An equipotential surface 54. The relative permittivity  r for germanium is
c. Polarized
d. None a. 16 b. 17
c. 18 d. 22
46. The electric flux through the surface of hollow
sphere containing a point charge at its center 55. Xerography means
depends upon
a. Type writing b. Wet writing
a. Radius of sphere c. Dry writing d. None of these
b. Surface area
c. Magnitude of charge 56. A 25eV electron has a speed of
d. None of these
6 6
a. 2 × 10 m/sec b. 3 × 10 m/sec
6 6
47. A charge of 2c is in a field of intensity 2N/C, the c. 5 × 10 m/sec d. 4 × 10 m/sec
force on the charge is
57. If mica sheet is place between the plates,
a) 1 N b) 4 N the capacity will
c) 4  N d) 0 N
a. Increase b. Decrease
48. A line whose tangent at each point is in the c. Remain same d. None of these
direction of electric intensity at that point is
called a line of

a) Voltage b) Electric force


c) Charge d) Potential field

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58. The force exerted by two charged bodies 66. How many electrons are in one Coulomb?
on one another, obeys Coulomb’s law
-23 -21
provided that a) 6.2 × 10 b) 6.2 × 10
-19
c) 1.6 × 10 d) Zero
a. The charges are not too small
b. The charges are in vaccum 67. The force between two charges in 8N. now
c. The charges are not too large placed a mica of relatively 4 between two
d. The linear dimension of charges are much charges as a medium, the force then reduced to
smaller than distance between them
a) 2N b) 4N
59. Coulomb Law is also known as c) 6N d) 8N

a. Electrostatic Law b. Force Law 68. Selenium is an


c. Inverse Square Law d. None
a) Insulator b) Conductor
60. The ratio of Cvac and Cmed is equal to c) Semiconductor d) Photoconductor

1 69. Find the potential at a point, where a charge of


a. r b. -3
1 × 10 coulomb is placed at a distance of 10m is
r
1 1 a) 1mV b) 1.9KV
c. d.
 o c) 1.6KV d) 0.15KV

61. The ratio of the force between two small spheres 70. In Milikan’s experiment, we find the e/m for
with constant charges A) in air, B) in a medium
of dielectric constant K is a) Atom b) Electron
c) Proton d) Neutron
2
a) K : 1 b) 1 : K
c) K : 1 d) 1 : K
2 71. The charge determined by the Milikan’s
experiment is
62. The force of proton in electric field of magnitude qvd qvd
6 a) q b) q
10 N/c is m g
-15
a) 1.6 × 10 N b) 1.6 × 10 N
9 mgd
13 13 c) g  d) None
c) 1.6 × 10 N d) 1.6 × 10 N v
63. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a 72. The ratio of electrostatic force to the gravitational
uniform electric field E parallel to the cylindrical force between them is of the order of
axis. The total flux for the surface of the cylinder
is: a) 10
36
b) 10
38
40 42
c) 10 d) 10
a) R 2 / E b) Zero
73. The magnitude of the electric field on the surface
c) 2R 2 / E d) 2R 2 E
of a sphere of radius ‘r’ having a uniform surface
charge density  is
64. In an inkjet printer the charged ink drops are
diverted by the deflection plates
 
a) b)
a) Towards the charging electrodes  2 
b) Towards the gutter
c) Towards a blank paper on which the print is to  
c) d)
be taken  r 2  r
d) In inkjet printer ink can not be charged
74. Of the following quantities, the one that is vector
65. The constant K in Coulomb’s Law depends upon
in character is an electric
a) Nature of medium b) System of units
a) Charge b) Field
c) Intensity of charge d) a & b
c) Energy d) Potential Difference
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75. Dielectric has the charge of the type inside it CHAPTER # 13
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
a) Moving charge b) Static charge
c) Both a & b d) None of these 1) If the length and diameter of conductor is double, the
resistance is
76. The Coulomb’s force between two charges q1
and q2 separated by distance ‘r’ is F. If the a) Remain same b) Double
separation between two charges is doubled c) Half d) Four time
keeping charges constant, then Coulomb’s force
becomes 2) The expression for the co-efficient of receptivity is

a) 4F b) F/4 R R2  R1
c) F/2 d) 2F a. b.
Ro  R2 
77. The dimensions of relative permittivity are R1  R2 R2  R1
c. d.
2 4 -3
a) [A T ML ]
-3
b) [ML A T ]
2 4 R1 R
3 2 2
c) [ML A T ] d) None
3) The reciprocal of resistivity is called
78. An alpha particle has twice the charge of a
proton. Two protons separated by a distance ‘d’ a) Resistance
exert a force ‘F’ on each other. What must be the b) Conduction
separation between the alpha particles so that c) Conductivity
they also exert a force ‘F’ on each other? d) None

d 4) One coulomb per second is equal to


a) 2d b)
2 a) Joule
d b) Volt
c) 2d d) c) Ampere
2 d) Walt
79. The ratio of instantaneous charge and maximum
charge on plates of capacitors at t = RC is 5) In the metallic conductor the current is due to flow
of charge
a) 36.8% b) 63.2%
c) 20% d) 30% a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Proton
d) None

6) Conventional current flow from

a) Positive to negative
b) Negative to positive
c) Negative to negative
d) None

7) The main source for the current are

a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
o
8) The drift velocity of electron at 0 C is

a) zero
b) Maximum
c) 1 cm/sec
d) 10 cm/sec
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9) In the thermocouple the heat energy is converted 17) At null point the current through the galvanometer
into is

a) Mechanical energy a) Zero


b) Electric energy b) Maximum
c) Magnetic energy c) Minimum
d) None d) None

10) An electric heater 220V, 440W has a resistance 18) A current of 10A flows in a conductors of 10 Ω
resistance for 1 mint the heat produce will be
a) 2Ω
2
b) 110 Ω a) 10 J
2
c) 0.5 Ω b) 6 x 10 J
3
d) 20 Ω c) 6 x 10 J
4
d) 6 x 10 J
11) The heating effect of current utilized in
19) The unit of conductivity is
a) Iron
b) Tube light a. Ω. M
-1
c) Fan b. (η.m)
-1
d) Motor c. Ω.m
d. None
12) Mathematical form of ohm’s law is
20) When the bulb is turned on, ohm’s law is
a) I = VR applicable
b) I = V/R
c) I = R/V a) Yes
d) R = IV b) No
c) May or may not
13) Ohm’s law is valid for only current flowing in d) None

a) Conductors 21) In series circuit the net resistance is


b) Transistors
c) Diodes a. Increase
d) Electric Areas b. Decrease
c. Remain constant
14) Through an electrolyte electric current is passed d. None
due to drift of
22) Joule law can be expressed as
a. Free electrons
2
b. Positive and negative ions a) I Rt
2
c. Free electrons and holes b) IR t
2
d. Protons c) IRt
2
d) V /R
15) The e.m.f. of two cells can be compared by
23) The graph b/w V and I in case of ohm law is
a. AVO meter
b. Voltmeter a) Parabolic
c. Potentiometer b) Curve
d. Galvanometer c) Slope
d) Straight line
16) The post office box is based on the principle of

a. Galvanometer 24) Resistance of supper conductor is


b. Wheat-stone bridge
c. Voltmeter a) Finite
d. None b) Infinite
c) Zero
d) Changes with material
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25) The e.m.f. of a cell or battery is the voltage b/w its 33) A variable resistors is called
terminals, when
a. Resistance
a. It is closed circuit b. Rheostat
b. It is open circuit c. Amplifier
c. Its internal resistance is zero d. None
d. None
34) A heat sensitive resistor is called
26) The S.I unit of e.m.f. is same as
a. Amplifier
a. Work b. Diode
b. Energy c. Thermistor
c. Power d. Conductor
d. Voltage
35) The temperature co-efficient of thermistor is
27) The main type of resistors are
a. Positive
a. Two b. Negative
b. Three c. Zero
c. Four d. None
d. Five
36) Thermistor can be used for the accurate
28) In the carbon resistor their value can be find by measurement of
their
a. Voltage
a. Wires b. Resistance
b. Terminals c. Temperature
c. Color d. Heat
d. Spots
37) A circuit which has only one voltage source is
29) The third band is written in the form of power of called

a. 2 a. Network
b. 6 b. Simple circuit
c. 8 c. Complex circuit
d. 10 d. None

30) Tolerance color means 38) The circuit who has more than one voltage source
is called
a. Greater
b. Less a. Network
c. Greater-less b. Simple circuit
d. None c. Complex circuit
d. None
nd
31) If the first color red and 2 band is green and
third band is orange, then value of resistance is 39) The algebraic sum of all the current at junction is
zero, is Kirchoff’s
a. 20000
st
b. 24000 a. 1 law
nd
c. 25000 b. 2 law
rd
d. None c. 3 law
th
d. 4 law
32) If the tolerance color is gold then it value is 40) The algebraic sum of voltages changes around a
closed circuit or loop is zero, is Kirchoff’s
a. ± 2%
st
b. ± 4% a. 1 law
nd
c. ± 5% b. 2 law
rd
d. ± 6% c. 3 law
th
d. 4 law
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41) If the resistance of a certain length wire, diameter 48) Which one gives pure nature of the material
5mm is 10Ω if the diameter is charge to 10mm,
then new resistance is a. Resistively
b. Conductivity
a. 40 c. Temperature co-efficient
b. 5 d. None
c. 20
st
d. 2.5 49) Kirchoff’s 1 law is also called law of conservation
of
42) The unit for the consumption of electrical energy
commonly used is a. Charge
b. Mass
a. Joule c. Energy
b. Watt sec d. None
c. K. watt. hr
d. Watt. hr 50. The resistivity of copper in Ω.m is
-8 -8
43) Heat generated by 40 watt bulb is one hour is a. 1.52 × 10 b. 1.54 × 10
-8
c. 1.56 × 10 d. None
a. 24000 J
b. 48000 J 51. The wire used in Rheostate is made from
c. 144000 J
d. 14400 J a. Constanton b. Nichrome
c. Manganin d. Tungston
44) The principle of potentiometer
52. An ideal voltmeter would have an infinite
a. P.d  length
b. P.d  resistance a. Current b. Voltage
c. P.d.  area c. Resistance d. None of these
d. None
53. Open electric transmission lines
45) A fuse is placed in series with circuit to protect
against a. Obey Ohm’s law
b. Obey at high temperature
a. High power c. Do not obey Ohm’s law
b. High voltage d. None of these
c. High current
d. Over heating 54. If three resistances of equal resistance R are
connected in parallel, the net resistance will
46) If the resistor is traversed apposite to the direction
of current, then potential is R
a. 3R b.
3
a. Positive
b. Negative 3
c. d. R + 3
c. Zero R
d. None 55. The fractional change in resistivity per Kelvin

47) When electricity passes through the liquid then a. co-efficient in resistance
process is called b. co-efficient of resistivity
c. Resistance
a. Electro late d. None
b. Electrolysis
c. Electro-conductor 56. An electric bulb rated at 220V 140watt is
d. None connected to 110v power line, the current that
flows in it is

a. 1.27 A b. 1.83 A
c. 2.27 A d. 2.83 A

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57. Which one is non-ohmic? 65. The value of resistance depends upon

a. Diode b. Carbon resistance a) Nature b) Dimension


c. Copper wire d. Tungston wire c) Physical state d) All of them

58. Magnetic effect of current is utilized in 66. Conductance is a quantity used to describe the

a. Iron a) Physical state of the conductor


b. Thermocouple b) Electrical properties of material
c. Measurement of current c) Dimension of the conductor
d. None d) All of them

59. The unknown e.m.f can be 67. The resistivity  of Aluminium in Ωm is


determined by
-8 -8
a) 2.59 × 10 b) 2.60 × 10
-8
R L c) 2.63 × 10 d) None of these
a. Ex  E b. Ex  E
r l
68. The resistivity of Germanium in Ωm is
l R
c. E x  E d. Ex  lE -8 -8
L r a) 0.7 × 10 b) 0.5 × 10
-8
c) 0.59 × 10 d) None of these
60 Three two ohm resistors are connected to
form a triangle. The resistance b/w any two 69. The colour code for the colour Grey is
corner is
3 4 a) 7 b) 8
a. Ohm b. Ohm c) 9 d) 5
4 3
c. 4 × 3 Ohm d. 4 + 3 Ohm 70. A zero ohm resistor is indicated by

61. The resistivity of a material is  . If the area of a) A single silver colour band
cross-section of material is doubled and length is b) A single black band
halved then the resistivity of material is: c) A silver black band
d) None of these
a)  b) 4 
c) 2  d)  / 4 71. Thermo couples convert heat energy into

a) Mechanical energy b) Chemical energy


62. Four bulbs of 10W, 20W, 30W and 40W are c) Electrical energy d) None of these
connected in parallel, the bulb that will shine
more is 72. An accurate measurement of emf of a cell is
made by
a) 10W b) 20W
c) 30W d) 40W a) A voltmeter b) An ammeter
c) A potentiometer d) All of them
63. A source of 200V provides a current of 10.0
Amperes to a house. The power delivered by the 73. The unknown emf can be determined and given
source is by
a) 20 watt b) 40 watt
c) 2000 watt d) 200 watt R L
a) Ex  E b) Ex  E
r l
64. When the battery is connected at its ends, an l R
electric field is set up at c) E x  E d) Ex  lE
L r
a) Its ends b) Every point
c) Middle d) All of them 74. Do bends in a wire affect its electrical resistance

a) Yes b) No
c) Affects a little d) None of these
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4. A photon while passing though a magnetic
75. A 50 volt battery is connected across a 10 ohm field are deflected towards
resistor. The current is 4.5A. The internal
resistance of the battery is: a. North pole
b. South pole
a) 1.1 Ω b) 1.2 Ω c. Are ionized
c) 1.3 Ω d) 1.4 Ω d. None

76. A 25 watt and 40 watts bulbs were connected an 5. Iron is what type of magnetic material, it is
a series to a 220V line. Which electric bulb will
grow more brightly? a. Diamagnetic
b. Paramagnetic
a) 25 watts bulb b) Neither will give light c. Ferromagnetic
c) Both will have same incandescence d. Non-magnetic
d) none
6. Magnetism is related to
77. A 100 watt bulb and a 200 watt bulb are designed
to operate at 110V and 220V respectively. The a. Stationary charges
ratio of their resistance is b. Moving charges
c. Stationary and moving charge
1 d. Law of motion
a) 1 b)
2 
7. if the angle b/w v and B is zero then
1 1 magnetic force will be
c) d)
3 4
a. Max
b. Min
c. Zero
d. None

CHAPTER # 14 8. when charge particle enter perpendicular to


ELECTROMAGNETISM magnetic field, the path followed by it is

1. The origin of magnetism is a. A helix


b. A circle
a. Iron c. Straight line
b. Steel d. Ellipse
c. Moving charge
d. None of these 9. The S.I. unit of magnetic flux is

2. The poles of magnet are similar to a. Tesla


b. Weber
a. Geo poles c. Joule
b. Opposite to geo poles d. Newton
c. Perpendicular to geo poles
d. None 10. Tesla is the unit of

3. A moving charge is surrounded by a. Electric field


b. Magnetic field
a. 2 fields c. Magnetic field intensity
b. 3 fields d. Electric field intensity
c. 4 fields
d. None 11. It is possible to set a charge at rest into
motion with magnetic field

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a. Yes 18. The magnetic flux will be max, for an angle of
b. No
o
c. Some Time a. 0
o
d. None b. 60
o
c. 90
o
12. A current carrying conductor carries current d. 180
away from you the direction of magnetic field
with respect to you is 19. The Weber and Maxwell are unit of measure
of
a. Away from you
b. Towards you a. Conductance
c. Clock wise b. Electric current
d. Anti clockwise c. Magnetic flux
d. Electric flux
13. The shape of magnetic field around a long
straight current carrying wire is 20. One weber is equal to
2
a. Electrical a. N.A /A
2
b. Squire b. N.m /A
c. Varies with current c. N.A/m
d. Circular d. N.m/A
2
14. one Tesla is equal to 21. An electron moves at 2x10 m/sec
perpendicular to magnetic field of 2T what is
4
a. 10 G the magnitude of magnetic force
-4
b. 10 G
6 -6
c. 10 G a. 1 x 10 N
-6 -17
d. 10 G b. 6.4 x 10 N
-24
c. 3.6 x 10 N
6
d. 4 x 10 N

2
15. The flux through an area of 1 m in x -y plane 22. The waveform of sinusoidal voltage, its
in a magnetic filed of 1T directed along Z - frequency and phase can be found by
axis will be
a. CRO
a. Zero b. Diode
b. 1 wb c. Transistor
c. 0.5 web d. Radio
d. None
23. The force on a charge particle moving
16. The toque in the coil can be increased by parallel to magnetic field is
increasing
a. Maximum
a. No, of tarns b. Minimum
b. Current and magnetic field c. Zero
c. Area of coil d. None
d. All of above
24. The presence of magnetic field around a
17. A current carrying loop, when placed in a current carrying conductor was detected by
uniform magnetic field will experience
a. H. orested
a. Electric flux b. Ampere
b. Torque c. Weber
c. Magnetic flux d. Henry
d. Force
25. Ampere’s law is applicable to
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qb
a. Circular path b. f =
b. Rectangular path 2rm
c. To any path qb
c. f =
d. None 2
26. The unit of permiability of free space is qb
d.
mr
a. T.m/A
2
b. T.m /A 32. the e/m value of electron is
2
c. T.m/A
11
d. None a. 1.7588 x 10
12
b. 1.75599 x 10
9
27. The value of  o is c. 1.7588 x 10
14
d. 1.7559 x 10
a. 4  x 10-6 33. F = Fe + Fm is
b. 4  x 10-7
c. 4  x 10-8 a. Electric force
d. 4  x 10-9 b. Magnetic force
c. Lorentz force
28. The magnetic induction of solenoid is d. None

a.  o NI 34. The main part of C.R.O is

b.  o NL a. Two
b. Three
c. o N c. Four
d. None d. Five

29. A solenoid of length 500m is wonded into 100 35. In C.R.O. the deflecting plats are
turns. A current of 10 A flows in it, the
magnetic field intensity is a. Two
b. Three
a. 20 o c. Four
d. None
b. 200  o
c. 2000  o 36. The material used in fluorescent screen is
d. None
a. Electric
b. Magnetic
30. When charge particle enters in the uniform c. Phosphors
magnetic field, the magnetic force will be
d. None
balance by
37. The value of restoring torque in galvanometer
a. Electric force
is
b. Magnetic force
c. Centripetal force
d. None a.   r
b.   c
31. The frequency of cyclotron is given by c.   m
d. None
qb
a. f = 38. In the galvanometer the current is
2m proportional to
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a. Magnetic field a. Very large
b. Electric field b. Very small
c. Angle c. Unaltered
d. None d. None

39. When a small resistance is connected in 45. To increase the scale of galvanometer to
parallel to the galvanometer it is called twice of its initial value we need to connect a
shunt
a. Ammeter
b. Voltmeter a. Rs = Rg
c. AVO meter b. Rs < Rg
d. None c. Rs > Rg
d. None
40. To find the shunt resistance we used
equation 46. Which of the following is a hard magnet?

IgRg a. Iron
a. Rs = b. Nickel
I  Ig c. Steel
IsRg d. All of them
b. Rs =
I  Ig 47. Ammeter and galvanometer
IgRs
c. Rs = a. Are always connected in series
R  Ig
b. Are always connected in parallel
IsRs c. Both in series and parallel
d. Rs =
I  Ig d. None

48. The sensitivity of galvanometer is directly


depends on
a. Magnetic field
b. Area of coil
c. Number of turns
d. All of above
41. To convert a galvanometer into voltmeter we
49. One Tesla is also equal to
connect a resistance in
2
a. web.m
a. Series -2
b. web.m
b. Parallel
c. web.m
c. Series or parallel
d. None
d. None
50. The dot product of magnetic field are area is
42. AVO-meter is used to find
called
a. Current
a. Electric flux
b. Voltage
b. Magnetic flux
c. Resistance
c. Ampere law
d. All of above
d. None
43. An ideal voltmeter has
51. One Henry is equal to
a. Small resistance
a. V. sec/A b. V.A/sec
b. High resistance
c. A.sec/V d. None
c. Infinite resistance
d. None
52. The S.I unit of Magnetic Permeability is
44. an ammeter can be more sensitive if C/BAN 2
a. web/m b. web A/m
is made
c. web m/A d. None of these
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61. When the number of turns in a solenoid is
53. Shunt resistor is also called doubled without any change in the length of the
solenoid its self induction will be:
a. By pass resistor b. Specific resistor
c. Reactance d. None a) Four times b) Doubled
c) Halved d) None
54. Synchronization controls of CRO are used to
synchronize 62. The potential difference across the shunt resistor
Rs is
a. Frequency b. Current
c. Voltage d. All of them a) V  I g Rs b) V  ( I  I g ) Rs
55. In C.R.O the anode are at positive potential c) V  ( I g  I ) Rs d) V  I g Rg
with respect to cathode is
63. In multi range ammeter
a. very high b. high
c. low d. very low a) Resistances of different values are connected in
series with galvanometer
56. The e/m value for an electron is b) Different resistances are connected in parallel with
galvanometer
4v Zv c) Some resistances are connected in parallel and
a. b.
Br Br some of them are connected in series
d) None
2v 2v
c. 2 d. 2 2
B r B r 64. The S.I unit of magnetic permeability is
-2 -1
57. C.R.O is same as a) TmA b) TmA
-1
c) Fm d) None of these
a. Radio
b. TV Picture tube 65. A solenoid is a cylindrical, long and tightly wound
c. Transistor coil of wire. When a current pass through it
d. None behaves like a

a) Source of emf b) Magnet


c) Electromagnet d) None of these
58. Heating a magnet will
66. The brightness of the spot formed on the screen
a) Weaken it in controlled by the
b) Strength it
c) Reverse its polarity a) Electron b) Proton
d) Demagnetize completely c) Potential d) None of these

59. Minimum current require to produced a 67. Due to radial field, a moving coil galvanometer is
deflection of 1mm on a scale at a distance of
1mm is a) Comes to rest quickly
b) Magnetic field becomes strong
a) 0.1A c) Movement is frequent
b) 1A d) None of these
c) current sensitivity
d) 1mA 68. A very high resistor Rh is connected in series with
the galvanometer in order to convert it into
60 1 weber = _______ voltmeter
6
a) 10 Maxwell V V
b)
8
10 Maxwell a)  Rg b)  Rg
c)
10
10 Maxwell I Ig
d) none Ig I
c)  Rg d)  Rg
V V

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Ig
69. Magnetic flux passing normally, through a unit c) R s  d) None
area is called I  Ig

a) Magnetization 77. A vertical solenoid has 200 turns in a length of


b) Magnetic field intensity 0.4m and carries a current of 3A in anticlockwise.
c) Magnetic flux density The flux density in the middle in Tesla is about
d) All of these

70. The relation between Tesla ( T ) and Gauss (G) is


a) 6 10 4 b) 6 10 5
4
given as c) 60 10 d) None
4 6
a) 1T = 10 G b) 1T = 10 G
-4 -6
c) 1T = 10 G d) 1T = 10 G

71. Couple necessary to produce unit twist is

a) Deflecting couple b) Restoring couple


c) Torsion couple d) None of these

72. In velocity selector method, the velocity of an


electron is given by

2V 3 Ve
a) v b) v
m m
2V 2 Ve
c) v d) v 
me m

73. The beam of the electrons is provided by

a) Ionization of atoms b) Photoemission


c) Electron gun d) None of these

74. The resistance of a voltmeter should have a very CHAPTER # 15


high resistance ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

a) It does not disturb the circuit 1. The induced e.m.f. is produce due to
b) It draws some current
c) It same the galvanometer coil a. Motion of coil
d) None of these b. Motion of magnet
c. The rate of change of flux
75. The wave form of sinusoidal voltage, its d. None
frequency and phase can be found by
2. Induced electric current can be explained
a) CRO b) Diode using which law
c) Transistor d) Radio
a. Gauss’s law
b. Faraday’s law
76. The shunt resistance connected to a c. Ohm’s law
Galvanometer to convert it into a desired level d. Ampere law
current measuring ammeter is
3. In the motional e.m.f. the mechanical energy
Vg consumed is converted into
V
a) Rs  Rg b) Rs 
I I  Ig a. Heat energy
b. Internal energy
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c. Steam energy 11. If we increase the resistance of coil, the
d. None induced e.m.f. will be

4. Generator works on the principle of a. Increase


b. Decrease
a. Torque on rectangular coil c. Remain same
b. Motional e.m.f. d. None
c. Question is wrong
d. None 12. The self-inductance may be defined by

5. Lenz’s law is consistent with law of a) L =
conservation of  / t
  / t
b) L =
a. Mass 
b. Energy
c. Charge 
c) L =
d. None  / t

6. An inductor is a circuit element that can store d) L =
energy in the form of  / t
a. Magnetic field 13. The mutual inductance b/w two coil is
b. Electric flux
c. Electric field a. M = -  / p
d. None

b. M =
7. The induced e.m.f. can also be increase by p / t
increasing
c. M = -  /  / t
a. Current d. None
b. Voltage
c. No. of turns 14. Inductance are measured by
d. None
a) Coulombs b) Amperes
c) Volt d) Henry

8. The negative sign with induced e.m.f. is due 15. The self inductance in case of D.C circuit is
to
a. Maximum
a. Faraday’s law b. Minimum
b. Lenz’s law c. negligble
c. Ampere law d. None
d. None
16. An over loaded motor draws
9. The best way to find the direction of induced
e.m.f. in the circuit is a. Max. current
b. Min. current
a. Faraday’s law c. Half
b. Lenz’s law d. None
c. Ampere’s law
d. Right hand rule 17. The self inductance of a solenoid is

10. The relation of motional e.m.f. is 


a) L =  n 2

a. E=BLV 2
b. E=qBl  
b) L =   n 2
c. E=Blq 
d. E=qVB 2
c) L =  nlA
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2 n  c.  tp d. none
d) L =  

24. Mutual inductance is numerically equal to the
18. A current of 7Amp/sec flows a steady rate, e.m.f. induced in the secondary coil when the
through a inductor of inductance 25mh, what is rate of change of
the induced e.m.f?
a. One ampere in secondary coil
a) 3.57mv b. Magnetic flux
b) 175mv c. Current in one ampere in secondary
c) 350mv d. None
d) None
25. Mutual inductance exists
19. The energy stored in the inductor is
a. Within coil
a) ½LI
2 b. Out of coil
b)
2
½L I c. B/w two coil
c)
2 2
½L I d. None
d) None
26. Alternating current changes
20. The energy stored in the inductor per unit
volume is a. Its magnitude as well as direction
b. Only direction but not magnitude
c. Only magnitude but not direction
 2  d. None
a. b.
2 0 2o
27. The coil in A.C generator rotates with
  2 rotational speed of 10rad/sec its frequency is
c. d.
4 0 4o
a. 2  rad/sec
b. 5  rad/sec
5
c. rad/sec

d. None

28. The instantaneous value of A.C. voltage is


21. What energy is stored in an inductor of
40mH, when a current of 8A passing through
it a. V = Vo sin 2  ft
b. V = Vo sin 2 ft
a. 160 mJ c. V = Vo sing 2  wt
b. 1.28 J d. None
c. 1.6 mJ
d. None 29. In case of A.C. generator the slip rings

22. Lamination of lamina core of transformer is to a. Move parallel to coil


decrease its b. Are stationary
c. Move along the direction of coil
a. Eddy current d. None
b. Hysteresis
c. Electric resistance 30. The induced e.m.f. in A.C. generator is
d. Inductance
a. VBL sin 
23. The co-efficient of mutual inductance is equal
to b. NESN sing 
c. NAB sin 
 p   t  d. NIAB sin 
a.    b.   
 t   p 
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31. In Pakistan the frequency of A.C. is b. Motor
c. Transformer
a. 50 Hz d. None
b. 100 Hz
c. 150 Hz 39. The principle of transformer is
d. 220 Hz
a. Amperes law
32. The difference b/w A.C. and D.C. generator b. Mutual induction
in due to c. Motional e.m.f.
d. None
a. Slip rings
b. Commutators 40. A transformer is a device which step up or
c. Slip – chip stop down
d. None
a. Energy
33. Two parallel conducting wires placed closer b. Power
to each other carry current in the same c. Voltage
direction will. d. All of above

a. Attract each other 41. The coil which is connected to input is called
b. Repel each other
c. No effect a. Primary
d. None of these b. Secondary
c. Middle
34. The back motor effect exist in the d. None

a. Generator 42. In the actual transformer, the output is always


b. Mater
c. A.C. Meter a. Equal to input
d. None b. Less then input
c. More than input
d. None

35. The coil used in the generators is called 43. A transformer changes 12V to 1800V and
there are 6000 turns in secondary coil, the no
a. Commutaters of turn on primary coil is
b. Slip rings
c. Armature a. 40
d. None b. 20
c. 10
36. The back ward generator is called d. 2

a) Electric motor 44. In ideal transformer when p.d. in double the


b) A.C. generator current is
c) Reverse generator
d) None a. Doubled
b. Tripled
37. Electric mo0ter are used in c. Halved
d. Same
a. Television
b. Radar 45. Power is effectively supplied to primary coil of
c. Tape recorder step up transformer by
d. All of above
a. A.C. generator
38. The back e.m.f. exist in the b. D.C. generator
c. Battery
a. Generator d. Motor
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46. An adopter is an example of a. Output voltage = Input voltage
b. Output current = Input current
a. Step up transformer c. Output power = Input power
b. Step down transformer d. Output energy = Input energy
c. For both
d. None 54. The ratio of e.m.f’s of two cells is equal to

a.
2 b. 1 : 2
47. The eddy current produced 1
a. Power loss 1
c. d. 2 : 1
b. Heating 2
c. Both a and b
d. None 55. If a 3cm of wire is moved at right angle to the
magnetic field with a speed of 2 miles/sec and if
48. To over come the eddy current, the core is flux density is 5 Tesla, what is the magnitude of
induced e.m.f?
a. Laminated with insulation
b. With magnetic a. 0.03v b. 0.3v
c. With plastic c. 0.6v d. 10v
d. None
56. When a transformer is connected to 120 volt A.C
49. For a good transformer the hysterics loop are it supplies 3000 volt to device, the current
_______ in size. through secondary winding is 0.6 amp and
current through primary is 2 amp, the no. of turns
a. Small on primary is 400. what is the efficiency of
b. Large transformer?
c. Zero
d. None a. 75% b. 80%
c. 85% d. None of these

57. A.C and D.C have same


50. To minimize the heating effect in the
transmission lines a. Effect in charging a capacitor
b. Effect in charging a battery
a. High current low voltage in used c. Effect while passing through an inductor
b. High voltage low current in used d. Heating effect through a resistor
c. Same voltage and current in used
d. None 58. Magnetic compass needle will be deflecting, if it
is kept near
51. Load is a device which consume
a. Static charge b. Soft iron
a. Mechanical energy c. Semi conductor d. Accelerating charge
b. Electrical energy
c. Frictional energy 59. When motor is at its Max. speed the back e.m.f
d. None will be

52. Induced e.m.f is a. Maximum b. Zero


c. Cannot tell d. None of these
a. Directly proportional to change in flux
b. Directly proportional to rate of change 60. Non inductive resistances are used in decreasing
of flux
c. Inversely proportional to change of flux a. Mutual inductance b. Self inductance
d. None of these c. Magnetic field d. Heating effect

53. A transformer is said to be efficient if


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61. Self induction is greater in
70. The application of mutual induction is a
a) AC circuits b) DC circuits
c) Both in AC & DC d) None a) Television b) Radio
c) D.C. motor d) Transformer
2
62. A solenoid of area of cross section 2.0cm and
length 100cm stores energy. When current of 71. If the emf across the conductor of length 1m
5.0A flowing in it produces B = 0.1T then the moving with a uniform speed at right angles to a
stored energy is magnetic field of 0.5T is 2V, the velocity of the
conductor is
-6 6
a) (10 μo)J b) (10 /μo)J
-6 -1 -1
c) (10 /μo)J d) None a) 1 ms b) 2 ms
-1 -1
c) 4 ms d) 8 ms
63. If the speed of rotation of AC generator is made
four times of its initial value, the percentage 72. What is the self inductance of a coil when a
increase in an induced emf is change of current from 0 to 2A in 0.05sec
induces an emf of 40V in it?
a) 100% b) 400%
c) 300% d) None a) 1H b) 2H
c) 3H d) 4H
64. In mutual induction, the mutual inductance of the
two coils depends upon 73. A pair of coils has a mutual inductance of 2H. If
the current in the primary changes from 10A to
a) Number of turns zero in 0.1sec, the induced emf in the secondary
b) Area of cross section of coil will be
c) The distance between the two coils
d) All of them a) 100V b) 200V
c) 300V d) 400V
65. The devices in the circuit that consume electrical
energy are known as

a) Inductor b) Capacitor
c) Load d) None of these

66. The back emf effect in motors changes due to


74. A copper ring is held horizontally and bar magnet
a) Inductance of coils b) Current is dropped through the ring with its length along
c) Voltage d) None of these the axis of the ring. The acceleration of the falling
magnet is
67. In an ideal transformer, the following factors are
used a) Equal to that due to gravity
b) Less than that due to gravity
a) Input and output power is same c) More than that due to gravity
b) Currents are inversely proportional to voltage d) Depends on the diameter of the ring and the
c) Currents are directly proportional to voltage length of the magnet
d) None of these
75. An emf of 0.003V is induced in a wire when it
68. Radio frequency (R.F.) shielding of a coil means moves at right angles to uniform magnetic filed
to protect from external circuit with a speed of 4m/sec if the length of the wire in
the field is 15cm, what is the flux density in
a) Varying magnetic field Tesla?
b) Magnetic field
c) Dust and heat a) 0.003
d) Electric field b) 0.005
c) 6
69. The Jerks are created by the use of d) 12
e) 2000
a) Commutator b) Armature
c) Torques d) None of these
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d. None

4. In pure resistive A.C. circuit the voltage and


current are

a. In phase
b. Voltage leads the current
c. Current leads the voltage
d. None

5. The waves which can also pass through the


vacuum are

a. Matter wave
b. Mechanical wave
c. Electromagnetic wave
e. Transverse wave

6. A battery can pass only steady current


through

a. Resistors
b. Capacitors
c. Inductors
d. All of above

7. The quality which is called argument of sine


or cosine function is

a) t b) 2T
c) 2 d) 
 2

8. The unit used for capacitive reactance is


CHAPTER # 16
ALTERNATING CURRENT CIRCUITS a. Volt
b. Ampere
1. The A.C. e.m.f. can be represented by the c. Joule
wave form called d. Ohm
a. Sinusoidal 9. If the frequency of A.C in large the reactance
b. Cosine wave of capacitor is
c. Tangent wave
d. None a. Large
b. Small
2. The mean value of A.C. over a complete c. Zero
cycle in d. None
a. Maximum 10. In case of capacitor, the voltage lage- behind
b. Minimum the current by
c. Zero
d. None a. 90
o
o
b. 60
3. The r.m.s. value of A.C current in c. 30
o
o
d. 180
a. 0.707 Io
b. 0.707 Vo
c. 0.708 Ro
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11. If the capacitance of capacitor is 1µF and the
frequency of A.C is 50Hz then reactance will 19. By increasing the frequency of A.C. through
be an inductor the reactance will be

a. 3184 a. Increases
b. 3190 b. Decreases
c. 3140 c. Remain same
d. 3150 d. None

12. In the pure inductor the resistance is 20. In case of phasor diagram the vector rotates

a. Zero a. Clockwise
b. Maximum b. Anti clockwise
c. Minimum c. Remain stationary
d. None d. None

13. The magnitude of back e.m.f. in the inductor 21. In case of phasor diagram the velocity vector
is is called
 p
a.  L b.  L a. Null vector
t t b. Unit vector
 c. Phasor
c.   L d. None
t d. None

14. In pure inductive circuit the voltage 22. The combine opposition of resistor capacitor
and inductor is called
o
a. Lead the current by 90
b. Ledge the current by 90
o a. Reactance
c. Remain same with current b. Resistor
d. None c. Impedance
d. None
15. The resistance of inductor is represented by
23. The S.I unit of impedance is called
a) Xc b) XL
c) RL d) None a) Joule b) Weber
c) Ampere d) Ohm
16. If the frequency of A.C. is double inductor the
reactance will be 24. When A.C. flow through RC series circuit the
magnitude of voltage is
a. Half
b. Same a. V =  R 2  Xc 2
c. Double
2
d. Triple b. V =  R2  X L
c. V = IR
17. The average power dissipated in a pure d. None
inductor is
25. The impedance of RC – series circuit is
a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Zero
V
a. R =
d. None I
V
18. The device which is used for controlling A.C. b. Z =
without dissipation of energy is called I
Z
a. Inductor c. V =
I
b. Capacitor d. None
c. Resistor
d. Choke

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26. The magnitude of voltage in case of RL – a. Maximum
service circuit b. Minimum
c. Can not explain by give data
d. None
a. V = I R 2  XL2
b. V = I R 2  Xc 2 35. In parallel circuit of A.C. there will be
c. V = IR maximum
d. None
a) Power b) Voltage
27. The average power in case of A.C. series c) Impedance d) None
circuit is
36. The electrical oscillators are used in
a) P = VI b) P = VI cos 
a) Metal detectors b) Amplifier
c) P = VI sin  d) None c) Diode d) None

28. In equation P = VI cos  , the factor cos  is 37. The current which is produce due to changing
called electric flux is called

a) Cosine b) Cos  a. Displacement current


c) Power factor d) None b. Conduction current
c. Eddy current
29. At what frequency will a 1H inductor have d. None
reactance of 500 ohms
38. The fundamental requirement for the
a) 80 Hz b) 60 Hz generation of electromagnetic wave is
c) 40 Hz d) 20 Hz
a. Oscillation of electric charge
30. In case of RLC series circuit the impedance b. Motion of electric charge
of circuit is c. Motion of electron
d. None
2
a. Z = R +
2
Xc 2  X L
39. The speed of light was found by formula
2
b. Z = R 2  X L  Xc 2 1
a) c = b) c = s/t
c. Z=
2
R  ( XL  Xc) 2 o o
d. None c) c = 2  rt d) None

31. The behavior of resistance is frequency 40. The super position of sonic wave on EM
waves that causes a change in vertical shape
a) Dependent b) Independent of EM waves is
c) No, response d) None of these
a. Frequency Modulation
32. At resonance frequency the power factor is b. Amplitude Modulation
c. No, effect
a) One b) Zero d. None
c) Two d) Three
41. For the reception of electromagnetic wave we
33. The frequency at which XL is equal to Xc in use a variable
called
a) Resistor b) Capacitor
a. Resonance frequency c) Inductor d) None
b. Threshold frequency
c. Non-frequency 42. A.M stands for
d. None
a. Amplitude Modulation
34. At resonance frequency the impedance of b. Applied Metal
A.C series circuit is c. Accurate Measurement
d. None

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43. F.M stands for c. 2H d. 0.5volt
52. When coil of high inductance is used for
a. Frequency Modulation controlling A.C without dissipation of energy
b. Frequency Metal is called
c. Frequency Member
d. None a. Inductor b. Choke
c. Impedance d. None
44. The process of combing the low frequency
signal with high frequency radio-wave is 53. An A.C choke is a coil consist of thick
called copper wire, wound closely over a

a) Modulation b) Amplification a. Soft iron core


c) Rectification d) None b. Hard iron core
c. Soft iron laminated core
45. Which one give more quality transmission d. None

a) A.M b) F.M 54. The power consumption in A.C choke is


c) S.W d) M.W
a. Small b. High
46. An A.C voltmeter reads 250volts, its peak c. Zero d. Maximum
voltage is
55. The reciprocal of impedance is called
a) 250v b) 350.5v
c) 353.5v d) None of these a. Conductance b. Inductance
c. Admittance d. None
47. The types of modulations are
56. Which one is prefer for transmission of
a) One b) Two radio signal.
c) Three d) Four
a. X – rays
48. In A.C. parallel resonance circuit branch b. Infra red rays
current may be granter then c. Larger than infra red
d. Smaller than infra red
a. Source current
b. e.m.f. current
c. Applied voltage
d. None

49. The angular frequency of resonance circuit is 57. Television programs are carried away by

1 1 a. Low frequency waves


a) W = b) W = b. High frequency waves
LC L C c. Microwaves
c) W = LC d) None d. None

58. When a radio station is broadcasting a


50. Natural or Resonant frequency of an LC
musical program, the antenna of its
circuit is
transmitter
radiates
1
LC b) 2 LC
4 a. R.F electromagnetic waves
1 1 b. A.F electromagnetic waves
c) d) LC c. R.F longitudinal waves
2 LC 2 d. A.F longitudinal waves

51. What is the self inductance of a coil in which 59. An A.C varies as a function of
an induced e.m.f of 2 volt is setup when
current changes at the rate of 4 A/sec. a. Voltage
b. Current
a. 0.5 m H b. 0.5H c. Voltage and current
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d. Time c) XL = XC d) None of these

60. During each cycle A.C voltage reaches 69. The phase difference between coils of three
its peak value phase A.C is
o o
a. One time b. Two times a) 60 b) 45
o o
c. Four times d. None of these c) 90 d) 120

61. At resonance, the value of the power factor in an 70. Since there are three coils, the generator has the
LCR series is terminals

a) Zero b) ½ a) Two b) Four


c) 1 d) Not defined c) Six d) Eight

62. In an LCR circuit, if V is the effective value of the 71. Modulation is the process in which
applied voltage, VR is the voltage across R, VL is
the effective voltage across L, VC is the effective a) Amplitude is change b) Frequency is change
voltage across C, then: c) Both a & b d) None of these
2 2 2 2
a) V = VR + VL + VC b) V = VR + VL + VC 72. The frequency of modulated carrier waves is
2 2 2 2 2
c) V = VR + (VL – VC) d) V = VL + (VR – VC) lowest when signal amplitude is

63. The alternating current transmission for long a) Maximum negative value
distances has b) Maximum positive value
c) Amplitude zero
a) Expensive b) Low cost d) None of these
c) Sometimes both a & b d) None of these
73. In a FM broadcast in VHF band channel width is
64. At high frequency the reactance of the capacitor
is a) 75 b) 25
c) 88 d) 200
a) Low b) Large
c) Very large d) None of these

65. The behaviour of resistance is frequency 74. Find the impedance of an AC circuit when the
current flowing in it is 100mA and 10 volts are
a) Dependent b) Independent applied to the circuit.
c) No response d) None of these
a) 500 Ω b) 100 Ω
66. In an inductor the phase difference between the c) 23 Ω d) 20 Ω
current and voltage is
75. How many times per second will an incandescent
o
a) Current lags voltage by 90 lamp reach maximum brilliance when connected
o
b) Voltage lags current by 180 to a 50Hz source?
o
c) Current leads voltage by 90
d) None of these a) 50 times b) 100 times
c) 200 times d) None of these
67. The combined effect a resistance R, an
inductance L, a capacitance C is known as 76. The peak value of sinusoidal voltage in an AC
circuit is 50V. The rms value of voltage is roughly
a) Resistance b) Reactance equal to
c) Impedance d) None of these
a) 70V b) 40V
68. The condition of resonance reached when c) 35V d) 45V

a) XC > XL b) XL < XC
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77. The magnetic field intensity at appoint due to rate
of change of electric flux is 4. Which one of the following physical quantities
does not have the dimensions of force per unit?
1  B 1  e
a) B b) B a) Stress b) Strains
2 r t 2 r t c) Young’s modulus d) Pressure
    e 1 t 2
c) B   d) B  5. A rubber cord of cross-sectional area 2cm has a
2 r t 2 r  e length of 1m. when a tensile force of 10N is
applied, the length of the cord increases by 1cm.
78. In RLC series AC circuit, when XL = XC then what is the young’s modules of rubber?
impedance is
8 -2
a. 2 x 10 Nm
6 -2
a) Minimum b) Maximum b. 5 x 10 Nm
-6 -2
c) Zero d) None c. 0.5 x 10 Nm
-6 -2
d. 0.2x10 Nm

6. A wire of length L is stretched by a length L when


a force F is applied at one end. If the elastic limit
is not exceeded, the amount of energy stored in
the wire is _____________

a) FL b) ½ (FL)
2 2
c) FL /L d) ½ FL /L

7. When a force is applied at one end an elastic


wire, it produce a strain E in the wire If “y” is
young’s modules of the material of the wire, the
amount of energy stored per unit volume of the
wire is given by ________

a) YE b) ½ YE
2 2
c) YE d) ½ YE

CHEPTER # 17 8. A wire, suspended vertically from on end, is


PHYSICS OF SOLIDS stretched by attaching a weight of 20N to the
lower end. The weight stretches the wire by
1. Which of the following substances possesses the 1mm. how much energy is gained by the wire?
highest elasticity?
a) 0.01J b) 0.02J
a) Rubber b) Steel c) 0.04J d) 1.0J
c) Glass d) Copper
9. A certain stress applied to an elastic materials
2. What is the S.I unit of modules of elasticity of produces a certain strain in it. If the elastic limit
substances? is not exceeded, the energy gained per unit
volume of the material is given by_________
-2
a. Nm
-2
b. Jm a) Stress/strain b) ½ (stress × strain)
-1
c. Nm c) Stress x strain d) (stress x strain)
d. Being number, its has no unit
10. A uniform steel wire of length 4m and area of
-6 2
3. What are the dimensions of stress? cross section 3 x 10 m is extended by 1mm
by the application of a force. If the young’s
-2 -2 -1 11 -2
a) MLT b) ML T modules of steel is 2x10 Nm , the energy
-1 -2 o -1
c) ML T d) ML T stored in the wire is ____________
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_______
a) 0.025J b) 0.050J
c) 0.075J d) 0.100J a. High voltage A.C
b. Low voltage A.C
11. The ratio stress to strains in young’s modules of c. Alternating current at its peak value
the materials then tension is _______ d. D.C current is peak value

a) Directly proportional to extension 19. Coercion force is the force which opposes
b) Directly proportional to strains
c) Directly proportional square of a. Demagnetization b. Breakage
amplitude c. Extension d. Surface cracking
d) Inversely proportional to extension
20. Materials in which valence electrons are tightly
12. Materials that undergo plastic deformation before bound to their atoms at low temperature are
breaking are called ___________ called _________

a) Brittle b) Ductile a. Semi conductors b. Super conductors


c) Amorphous d) Polymers c. Insulators d. Conductors

13. A wire is stretched by a force F which causes an 21. The bulk properties of materials such as their
extension 1. the energy stored in wire is ½ FL mode of fracture, can be related to their
only if _________
a. Polymerization b. Cleavage
a. The extension of the wire is proportional to the c. Microstructure d. Dislocation
force applied.
b. The weight of the wire is negligible 22. The angular position of cells remains the same
c. The wire is not stretched beyond its elastic limit for a sample of a crystal this property is called
d. The cross sectional area of the wire remains
constant a. Isotropy
b. Cleavage
14. Formation of large molecule by joining c. Homogeneity
small molecules is __________ d. The external symmetry of form

a. Fusion b. Polymerization 23. The breaking of a crystal along definite direction


c. Crystallization d. Subtraction is called

a. Cleavage b. Symmetry
c. Isotropy d. Homogeneity

15. Any alteration produced in shapes, length or 24. If the density of atoms remains the same along
volume when a body is subjected to same any direction in a crystal is called
internal force is called __________
a. Symmetry b. Homogeneity
a. Stiffness b. Ductility c. Isotropy d. Clearage
c. extension d. deformation
25. In simple cube, one atom or molecule leis at its
16. The energy band occupied by the valence
electrons is called ________ a. Four corners b. Nine corners
c. Eight corners d. Six corners
a. Energy state b. Valence band
c. –ve energy state d. Conduction band 26. The band theory of solids explains satisfactorily
the nature of
17. The curie temperature is that at which ______
a. Electrical insulators alone
a. Semi conductor becomes conductors b. Electrical conductors alone
b. Ferromagnetic becomes paramagnetic c. Electrical semi conductors alone
c. Paramagnetic becomes diamagnetic d. All of the above
d. Metal becomes super conductor
27. A vacant or partially filled band is called _____
18. A ferromagnetic will become fully magnetized at
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a. Conduction band b. Valence band b. Magnetic resonance imaging
c. Forbidden band d. Empty band c. Magnetometer
d. Oscilloscope
28. A completely filled band is called _______
37. Energy needed to magnetic and demagnetize is
a. Conduction band b. Valence band represented by
c. Forbidden band d. Core band
a. Hysterics curve b. Hysterics loop area
29. The electrons in conduction band are free to c. Hysterics loop d. Straight line
___________
38. Pentavalent impurities are called
a. Transport vibrations b. Transport signals
c. Transport charge d. Transport impulses a. Donor impurities
b. Acceptor impurities
30. Which one has the greatest energy gap _______ c. Some times donor and some times
acceptors
a. Semi-conductors b. Conductors d. None of these
c. Metals d. Non-metals
39. Minority carriers in N-type materials are
31. many of the semi conductors are crystals of the
type ________ a. Electrons b. Protons
c. Neutrons d. Holes
a. Face centered cubic
b. Body centered cubic 40. According to free electron theory the only energy
c. Simple cubic possessed by electron is
d. All of the above
a. K.E b. P.E
32. With increase in temperature, the electrical c. Gravitational d. Electrical
conductivity of intrinsic semi conductors ______
41. The area under stress – strain graph is
a. Decreases
b. Increases a. Power b. Energy
c. Remain the same c. Momentum d. Impulse
d. First increases, then decreases

33. Holes can exists in_________ 42. Polymers are usually

a. Conductors b. insulators a. Organic compounds


c. semi conductors d. all of the above b. Non-organic compounds
c. Acidic
34. In a semi conductors, the charge carriers d. Alkaline
are __________
43. The resistance against any distortion by solid is
a. Holes only
b. Electrons only a. Toughness b. Ductility
c. Electrons and holes both c. Stiffness d. None
d. All of the above
44. Solid material that are brittle are
35. The net charge on N-type material is ________
a. Toughness b. Ductile
a. Positive b. Negative c. Stiffness d. None
c. Both a & b d. Neutral
45. The temperature at which conductors lose its
36. Very weak magnetic fields are detected by _____ resistivity is called

a. Squids a. Supper temperature b. Kelvin temperature


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c. Critical temperature d. None
o o
a. 600 C b. 650 C
o o
46. The magnetic domains are the small regions of c. 700 C d. 750 C
the order of
58. The examples of diamagnetic are
a. Millimeter b. Micrometer
c. Micron d. None a. Water b. Copper
c. Antimony d. All of them
47. A bullet train move with max the speed of
59. Strain is dimensionless and has
a. 400 km/hr b. 450 km/hr
c. 500 km/hr d. 550 km/hr a. Units b. No units
c. S.I units d. None
48. The first supper conductor was discovered by
60. How many types of strain are there
a. Fermi b. Kmaerling
c. Weinberg d. None a. One b. Two
c. Three d. Four
49. Examples of brittle substances are
61. The ability of a material to be hammered,
a. Glass b. Copper pressed, bent, rolled, cut, stretched into useful
c. Lead d. None shape is

50. Polymers have chemical combination with a) Toughness b) Ductility


c) Stiffness d) None
a. Carbon b. Nitrogen
c. Hydrogen d. All of them 62. The Young modulus of elasticity is Y. If the forces
is increased such that the extension produced
51. Crystalline solids are also becomes double of its initial value then Young
Modulus is
a. Metals b. Ionic compounds
c. Ceramics d. All of them a) Double b) Halved
c) Unchanged d) None
52. Young’s Modulus for copper is

a. 25 b. 55
c. 100 d. 110

53. When an atom is isolated its energy lavels are 63. A hydraulic press contains 0.25m3 oil of bulk
7
modulus 5.0 × 10 Pa. The change in volume of
a. Distinct b. Very close oil when subjected to pressure increase of 1.6 ×
7
c. Very very close d. None 10 Pa is
-4 3 -4 3
54. The valence energy band can never be a) – 8.0 × 10 m b) 4.0 × 10 m
-4 3 -4 3
c) 2.0 × 10 m d) 10 m
a. Filled b. Partially filled
c. Empty d. None of these 64. The resistivities of conductors, semiconductors
and insulators are of the respective orders of
55. When semiconductor is doped by trivalent, it has
8 -4
a) 10 Ω.m, 10 Ω.m
-4 4 8
a. More electrons b. More holes b) 10 Ω.m, 10 Ω.m, 10 Ω.m
-4 8 4
c. + ive charge d. – ive charge c) 10 Ω.m, 10 Ω.m, 10 Ω.m
4 -4 8
d) 10 Ω.m, 10 Ω.m, 10 Ω.m
56. The field of long bar magnet is like a
65. Diamagnetic needle when placed between the
a. Solenoid b. Toroid poles of a magnet align itself in the direction
c. Pieces of magnet d. None
a) Parallel to B b) Anti parallel to B
57. The curie temperature of Iron is c) Perpendicular to B d) None
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66. Crystalline solids are also a) MRI
b) Magnetic levitation trains
a) Metals b) Ionic compounds c) Faster computer chips
c) Ceramics d) All of them d) All of them

67. With the rise of temperature the amplitude of 77. The magnetism produced by electrons within an
atoms atom is due to

a) Slow down b) Fixed a) Spin motion b) Orbital motion


c) Increases d) None of these c) Spin & orbital motion d) None of these

68. Crystal lattice is a repetition of 78. The combination of solenoid and a specimen of
iron inside it make a powerful magnet called
a) Atoms b) Molecules
c) Unit cell d) All of them a) Horse shoe magnet b) Bar magnet
-10 18
c) Electromagnet d) 10 to 10
69. Polymers have chemically combinations with
79. In the phenomenon of hysteresis, the magnetism
a) Carbon b) Nitrogen and magnetizing current behaves as
c) Hydrogen d) All of them
a) 1 lags b) 1 leads B
70. If the stress increased on a material is beyond c) 1 & B becomes equal d) None of these
the yield strength of the material is called
80. A current which demagnetize the material
a) Plasticity b) Elasticity completely is called
c) Still in elasticity d) None of these
a) Applied current b) Coercive current
71. Examples of brittle substances are c) Maximum current d) None of these

a) Glass b) Copper 81. The energy need to magnetize and demagnetize


c) Lead d) None of these the specimen during the each cycle of
magnetizing current is
72. Semiconductor materials have the conductivities
generally lies between a) Value of current
b) Value of demagnetizing current
-5 -6 -1 -6 -4 -1
a) 10 to 10 (Ω.m) b) 10 to 10 (Ω.m) c) Value of magnetic flux density
-7 -3 -1
c) 10 to 10 (Ω.m) d) None of these d) Area of the loop

73. The electrons occupying the outermost shell of 82. The strain energy density is given by
an atom and the electrons occupying in the
energy band are called 1
a) U ( Stress  Strain)
a) Energy band b) Valence band 2
c) Forbidden energy band d) None of these 1
b) U  ( Stress  Strain)
3
74. Conductors are those materials in which the free
electrons c) U  Stress  Strain
1
3
a) Very large b) Very small d) U  ( Stress  Strain)
c) Plenty of d) None of these
83. When the conductivity of a semiconductor is only
75. Doping is the process in which the small amount due to breaking of the covalent bonds, the
of impurity is added into the pure semiconductor semiconductor is called
lattice in the ratio
a) Donor b) Acceptor
3 4
a) 1 to 10 b) 1 to 10 c) Intrinsic d) Extrinsic
5 6
c) 1 to 10 d) 1 to 10
84. What is the S.I unit of magnetic permeability?
76. The technological uses of super conductors are
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a) Ampere per meter input AC
b) Ampere meter d) Either positive or negative half cycle of input AC
c) Henry per meter
d) Being a dimensionless number, it has no unit 3. A bridge rectifier is preferable to an ordinary
two diodes full ware rectifies because

a) It uses four diodes


b) Its transforms has no counter tap
c) It needs much smaller transformer
d) It has higher safety factor

4. The color of light emitted by LED depends on

a) Its forward biased


b) Its reversed biased
c) The amount of forward current
d) The type of semi conductor material used

5. A PN junction photodiode is

a) Operated in forward direction


b) Operated in reversed direction
c) A very fast photo detector
d) Dependent on thermally generated
minority carriers

6. The emitter of a transistor is generally doped


the heaviest because it

a) Has to dissipate maximum power


b) Has to supply the charge carriers
c) Is the first region of transistor
d) Must posses law resistance

CHAPTER # 18 7. For proper working of a transistor in normal


ELECTRONICS circuits

1. A semi – conductor can be used as a rectifier a) Emitter base junction is reversed biased, collector
because base junction is forward biased
b) Emitter base junction is forward biased and
a) It has low resistance to the current flow when collector base junction is forward biased
forward biased c) C-B junction is reversed biased, E-B junction is
b) It has high resistance to the current flow when forward biased
reversed biased d) C-B junction is reversed biased and E-B
c) It has low resistance to the current flow when junction is reversed biased
forward biased and high resistance when reversed
biased 8. In a properly biased NPN transistor most of
d) None of the above the electrons from the emitter

2. In half ware rectification, the output DC a) Recombine with holes in the base
voltage is obtained across the load for b) Recombine in the emitter itself
c) Pass through the base to the collector
a) The positive half cycle of input AC d) Are stopped by the junction barrio
b) The negative half cycle of input AC
c) The positive and negative half cycles of 9. The current gain of a transistor is given by
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IC IC 18. An XOR gate produces an output only when


a. b. its two inputs are
IE IB
IB I a) High b) Low
c. d. B c) Different d) Same
IE IE
19. An AND Gate
10. When the E-B junction of a transistor is
reversed – biased, collector current a. Implement logic addition
b. Is equivalent to a series switching circuit
a) Is reversed b) Increased c. Is any or all gate
c) Decreased d) Stops d. Is equivalent to a parallel switching circuit

11. An op-AMP has 20. The only function of a NOT gate is to

a) Infinite AV b) Infinite Ri a. Stop a signal


c) Zero Ro d) All the above b. Re-complement a signal
c. Invert an input signal
12. An inverting amplifier has Rf = 2mл and Ri = d. Acts as a universal gate
2Kл, its scalar factor is
21. A NOR gate is ON only when all its input are
a) 1000 b) -1000
-13 -6
c) 10 d) -10 a) ON b) OFF
c) Positive d) High
13. A diode characteristic curve is a graph
between 22. Which of the following are electromagnetic
waves
a) Current and time
b) Voltage and time a. Sound waves
c) Voltage and current b. Water waves
d) Forward voltage and reverse current c. Light waves
d. Waves along a stretched string
14. A NOR Gate is ON only when all its input are

a) ON b) OFF
c) Positive d) High

15. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which 23. The EM waves travel is free space with the
velocity
a. Makes logic decision
b. Work on binary algebra a. Equal to the velocity sound
c. Alternates between 0 and 1 b. Equal to the velocity light
d. None of these c. More than the velocity of light
d. Less than the velocity of light
16. In positive logic, logic state 1 correspond to
24. A changing electric flux develops in the
a) Positive voltage surrounding space
b) Higher voltage level
c) Zero voltage level a. An electric field
d) Lower voltage level b. A magnetic field
c. An electromotive force
17. The output of a 2-input OR gate is zero only d. Gravitational field
when its
25. EM waves transport
a. Both input are zero
b. Either input is 1 a) Matter b) Wavelength
c. Both input are 1 c) Energy d) Charge
d. Either input is 0
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26. Waves emitted from the antenna are
a) Bismuth b) Arsenic
a. Longitudinal waves c) Antimony d) Silicon-dioxide
b. EM waves
c. Sound waves 35. Specially designed semi conductor diodes
d. Radio waves used as fast counters in electronic circuits are

27. EM waves emitted from antenna are a. Photo diodes


b. LED
a. Stationary c. Solar cell
b. Longitudinal d. Photo voltaic cell
c. Transverse
d. All of the above 36. The specially designed semi conductor
diodes used as indicator lamp in electronic
28. The waves from the antenna are circuit are

a. Expanding plane wave fronts a) Photo diodes b) Solar cell


b. Concentric spheres c) LED d) Photo voltaic cell
c. Expanding curves
d. None of the above 37. The term transistor stands for

29. EM waves have frequency of the range of a. Transfer of current


b. Transfer of voltage
4 5
a. 10 Hz b. 10 Hz c. Transfer of resistance
6 12
c. 10 Hz d. 10 Hz d. Transfer of charge

30. Maxwell derived mathematically that velocity 38. The thickness of depletion region is of the
of EM-waves is order of
-7 -6
I I a) 10 cm b) 10 cm
a. b. -5 -4
c) 10 cm d) 10 cm
o uo
o I 39. In amplitude modulation, the wave
c. d. superimposed on EM waves are
uo  o uo
a) Water waves b) Sound waves
c) Light waves d) Matter waves

31. A junction between P and N materials forms


40. A junction diode when forward biased
a. A rectifier behaves as a device of
b. An amplifier
c. A semi conduction a. Zero resistance
d. An oscillator b. Infinite resistance
c. Low resistance
32. The forward current through a semiconductor d. High resistance
diode circuit is due to
41. The P.d across the depletion region of silicon is
a) Minority carriors b) Majority carriors
c) Holes d) Electrons a. 0.5v b. 0.67v
c. 0.7v d. 0.8v
33. The device used for conversion of AC into
DC is 42. A Transformer used in rectification acts as

a) An oscillator b) A detector a. Step-up b. Step-down


c) An amplifier d) A rectifier c. Center trapped d. None

34. A photo diode is a semi conductor device 43. The ratio of β shows the
usually made from
a. voltage gain b. current gain
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c. input resistance d. None
56. The Boolean expression X = A + B represents
44. The alarm requires a voltage for its activation is the logic operation of

a. low b. high a. NAND gate b. NOR gate


c. Very High d. None c. OR gate d. NOT gate

45. What is the gain of op – amplifier if R1 = infinity 57. A diod can not be used as
and R2 = 0Ω
a. Rectifier b. Detector
a. 15 b. 1000 c. Oscilator d. Amplifier
c. 1 d. Cannot tell
58. XOR gate is combination of
46. The resistance between + ive and – ive
inputs of op – amplifier is a. AND, OR and NOT gate
b. NAND, OR and NOT gate
a. 100 Ω b. 1000 Ω c. NOT, AND and OR gate
6
c. 10 Ω d. None of these d. NOT, AND and NOR gate

47. Photo – voltic cell have 59. The open loop gain of op – amplifier is

a. Battery input b. No external bias a. Zero b. High


c. No internal bias d. None c. Very high d. Low

49. In NOR gate 1 + 1 = ________ 60. The width of depletion region of a diode

a. 0 b. 2 a. Increases under forward bias


c. 1 d. 3 b. Is independent of applied voltage
c. Increases under reverse bias
50. Transistor can be used as d. None of these

a. Oscilators b. Switches 61. A LED emits lights only


c. Memory unit d. All of them
a. Forward biased b. Reverse Biased
51. NOT gate has only c. Un biased d. None of these

a. One input b. Two inputs


c. Many inputs d. None

52. The efficiency of half wave rectifier is roughly 62. In a pn junction, the barrier potential offers
opposition to only
a. 40% b. 60%
c. 70% d. 90% a) Majority carriers in both regions
b) Minority carriers in both regions
53. A photo – diod can switch its current ON and c) Electrons in n – region
OFF in d) Holes in P – region

a. Milli seconds b. Micro seconds 63. In the use of a transistor as an amplifier


c. Nano seconds d. None
a) The emitter-base junction is forward biased
54. A transistor is a circuit basically act as and the collector-base junction is reverse
biased
a. Voltage amplifier b. Current amplifier b) The emitter-base junction is reverse biased
c. Power amplifier d. None and the collector-base junction is forward
biased
55. Transistor is a device which has ________ c) Both the junctions are forward biased
terminals. d) Any of the two junctions may be forward
biased
a. One b. Two
c. Three d. Four 64. NAND gate is a combination
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a) AND gate and NOT gate a) Both halves of the input cycle
b) AND gate and OR gate b) A portion of the positive half of the input cycle
c) OR gate and NOT gate c) A portion of the negative half of the input cycle
d) NOT gate and NOT gate d) One half of the input cycle

65. The reverse or leakage current of the diode is of 74. The output of a two inputs OR gate is O only
the order of when its

a) Microampere b) Milli-ampere a) Both inputs are O b) Either input is 1


c) Both d) None of these c) Both inputs are 1 d) Either input is zero

66. How many diodes are used for the full wave 75. For typical transistor as an amplifier
rectification is
Vout R Vout
a) Two b) Three a)  C b) 
c) Four d) None of these Vin Rie Vin
Vout R Vout R
67. A photodiode can turn its current ON and OFF in c)   ic d)   ie
Vin Rc Vin Rie
a) Microsecond b) Millisecond
c) Nanosecond d) None of these 76. The resistance between (+) and (-) of ideal
Op-Amp is
68. The base of the transistor is very thin of the order
of a) High b) Low
c) Infinity d) Moderate
-2 -4
a) 10 m b) 10 m
-6 -8
c) 10 m d) 10 m 77. Temperature, pressure etc are converted into
electronic informations by devices called
69. The gain A of the amplifier is
a) LEDs b) Sensors
Vin V c) Vacuum tubes d) None
a) A  b) A 
V Vi
c) A  V Vin d) None of these

70. The positive sign of the gain indicates that


CHAPTER 19
DAWN OF MODERN PHYSICS
a) Input and output signals are not in phase
b) Input and output signals are in phase
c) May be in phase or not
1. An observer shoots parallel to a meter stick at
d) None of these
very high speed (relativistic) and finds that the
length of meter stick is __________
71. The electronic circuits which implement the
various logic operations are known as
a) Greater than one meter
b) Less than one meter
a) Digital gates b) Logic gate
c) One meter
c) Voltage operated gate d) All of them
d) None of these
72. A diode characteristic curve is a plot between
2. 0.001 Kg mass will be equivalent to
a) Current and time
a) 2.5 GWh b) 25 GWh
b) Voltage and time
c) 0.26 GWh d) 250 GWh
c) Voltage and current
d) Forward voltage and reverse voltage
3. Which of the following radiations has the greatest
photon
73. In a half-wave rectifier the diode conducts during

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a) TV waves b) Microwaves 12. A photon is a ____________
c) X-rays d) γ - rays
a. Unit of energy
4. Linear momentum of a photon is b. Positively charged particle
c. Quantum of electromagnetic radiations
2
a) Zero b) Hf/c d. Unit of wavelength
2
c) hf/c d) c /hf
13. Which one of the following has the largest energy
5. The linear momentum of an x-ray photon of content?
o
wavelength 0.1A is
3
a. 10 photons of wavelength 2pm (Y-rays)
-23 2
a) 6.625 x 10 NS b. 10 photons of wavelength 1mm (X-rays)
23 6
b) 66.25 x 10 NS c. 10 photons of wavelength 50mm
23
c) 662.5 x 10 NS (Infrared)
6
d) Data is insufficient d. 10 photons of wavelength 200mm (UV)

6. Stopping potential for a metal surface incase of 14. A transmitting station emits radio waves of
photo electric emission depends on wavelength  at power p. if h is plank’s constant
C the speed of light, what is the rate of emission
a) The threshold frequency for the metal surface of photon?
b) The intensity of incident light
c) The frequency of incident light and the work a) pc/h  b) hc/p 
function for metal surface
d) None of these c) p  /hc d) ph/ck

7. Select an alternative form of uncertainty principle 15. After traveling through a vacuum, a photon of
from the following light entering into some transparent denser
medium. Thus the energy of light _________.
a. h/moca b. E. t  h a. Increase because wave light decrease
2
c. mc = hf d. any of the above b. Decease because speed decrease
c. Remains same
8. The existence of ether wind was experimentally d. Increase then decrease
rejected by

a) HeisenbergEinstein b) Michelson and Morely


d) De-Broglie d) None

9. As the temperature of black body is 16. In a photo electronic effect, monochromatic


raised, the wavelength corresponding to light, is incident on a metal surface. If the
maximum intensity incident light of twice the intensity but the
same wave length, the kinetic energy of the
a) Shifts towards longer wavelength emitted electron ______
b) Shifts towards shorter wavelength
c) Remains the same a) Becomes double
d) Shifts towards shorter as well as longer b) Remains same
wavelength c) Becomes half
d) First increase then decreases
10. Rest mass of photon is because curvilinear graph.

a) Infinite b) Zero 17. If the wave length of incident radiation is


c) Very small d) Very large increase in photo emission, then _________

11. The name of photon for quantum of light was a) The minimum kinetic energy of the photo
proposed by electrons increase
b) The minimum kinetic energy of the
a) Ampere b) Planck’s photoelectrons decrease
c) Thomson d) Einstein c) The minimum kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons increase
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d) The average kinetic of the photoelectrons d. Converging source of electrons
decrease
25. A three dimensional image is obtained by
18. If a photon is reflected from the mirror, then ______________
the change in momentum of each photon is
________ a. Electron microscope
b. Scanning electron microscope
h c. Magnetic imaging
a) Zero b) 2 d. None of the above

h 26. The uncertainty in momentum and position is
c) d) Ft
 due to its ___________

19. If n number of photon are striking on a metal a. Property of matter and radiation
surface, then the total momentum exerted is b. Two dimensional motions
______ c. Emotion of certain wave length
d. Very high velocity
nh 2nh 27. For confinement of electron in a box of radius
a. b. -14
  10 m. the electron speed should be ____
c. Zero d. nft
7
a. 10 m/sec
20. A photon of wave length 900mm behaves like b. Should be greater than speed of light
a particle of mass ________ c. Be zero
d. Not be wave link
-36
a. 5.53 x 10 kg
b. 0 Kg 28. The energy radiated is directly proportional to
-36
c. 2.46 x 10 kg fourth power of Kelvin’s temperature is _____
-44
d. 1.84 x 10 kg
a. Karl-wein’s laws
21. The velocity of particle of mass m of de- b. Raleigh jeans law
Broglie wave length  is ________ c. Stephens law
d. Planck’s
2h mSc 2
a. b.
m h
2mc 2 h
c. d.
h m
22. In Davison – Germer experiment, the 29. Compton effect proves the _______
diffracted proton from crystal shows
____________ a. Photon theory of light
b. Deal nature of light
a) Particle property b) Wave property c. Wave nature of light
c) Light property d) Quantum property d. Uncertain nature of light

23. If a diffracted grating is placed in the path of a 30. Electron moves in the orbit as ______
light beam, it revels ______
a. Simple vibratory motion
a. Wave property b. Standing wave motion
b. Particle property c. Vibratory motion like up and down
c. Energy particle d. S.H.M like sound
d. Electromagnetic wave property
31. The mass of an object will be doubled
24. In electron microscope, electric and magnetic at speed
field are used as _______
8 8
a. 1.6 × 10 m/sec b. 2.6 × 10 m/sec
7
a. Electromagnetic gun c. 2.6 × 10 m/sec d. None
b. Source of electromagnetic waves
c. Deflected charged particle 32. The anti-particle of electron is
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th
a. Proton b. Position 42. According to special theory of relatively the 4
c. Meson d. Neutron variable is

33. The reverse process of pair-production is a. Time b. Space


c. Speed of light d. None
a. Annihilation b. Materialization
c. Fission d. Fussion 43. Pair production cannot possible in

34. The decrease in length with speed was explained a. Air b. Water
by c. Glass d. Vacuum

a. Einstein b. Lorentz 44. The wavelength of photon with energy of 16 × 10


-19
c. Bohr d. None J is
o o
35. The famous Michel-son-Morely experiment a. 12.4 A b. 1.24 A
o
proves that c. 124 A d. None

a. Light is energy 45. The concept of antimatter was predicted


b. Earth rotates about its axis theoretically by Dirac in
c. Ether medium does not exist
d. None a. 1928 b. 1930
c. 1935 d. None
36. All the motion in this universe are
46. The anti-particle of earth is
a. Absolute b. Uniform
c. Variable d. Relative a. Sun b. Moon
c. Black hole d. None
37. On a hot day white clothes are cold because they
are 47. The minimum energy required for pair production
is
a. Reflective b. Absorbers
c. Radiators d. None a. 10.2 Mev b. 1.02 Mev
c. 102 Mev d. None

38. The radiation emitted by human body lies in the 48. Photo electric effect for visible light can be obtain
range of from

a. Infrared region b. U.V region a. Sodium – Potassium b. Carbon – oxygen


c. Visible region d. None c. Helium – Neon d. None

39. The energy emitted is directly proportional to 49. Sound tracks of movies can be controlled by
fourth power of temperature is
a. Diode b. Rectifier
a. Lummer Law b. Stephen – Boltzman Law c. Amplifier d. Photo – cell
c. Wein’s Law d. None
50. The relation  Max T  Contt. is
40. Wein’s displacement law holds good for
a. Wein’s Law b. Plank’s Law
a. Short wavelength b. Large wavelength
c. Stephen Law d. None
c. All wavelength d. None

41. Plank’s theory is hold good for 51. A. H Compton was awarded Nobel Prize in
Physics in
a. Short wavelength b. Large wavelength
a. 1927 b. 1923
c. All wavelength d. None
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c. 1921 d. 1919
-4
61. The threshold frequency of metals is 2 × 10 Hz.
52. The life time of an electron in an excited state is The work function of metal is
-6
10 sec. What is uncertainly in energy for this
-38 -38
time? a) 13.26 × 10 ev b) 13.26 × 10 J
c) 13.26 ev d) None
-20 -20
a. 2.35 × 10 J b. 1.09 × 10 J
-26
c. 1.05 × 10 J d. None 62. The wavelength associated with electron moving
6
with speed 5.6 × 10 m/s is
53. The photograph taken by electro-microscope is
called a) 12nm b) 0.12nm
c) 1.2nm d) 120nm
a. Photograph b. Electron micrograph
o
c. Chronograph d. None 63. The uncertainty in position of electron is 6.63A .
The uncertainty in momentum of electron is
54. At stopping potential current passing through
-24 -48
circuit is a) 10 N-S b) 10 N-S
-16 -20
c) 10 N-S d) 10 N-S
a. Mini b. Very low
c. Zero d. None 64. The concept of position is purely

55. The value of Wein’s Constant is a) Specific b) Relative


c) Ordinary d) None of these
3 -3
a. 2.9 × 10- mol .k b. 1.38 × 10 m.k
-3
c. 3.51 × 10 m.k d. None
v2
65. A quantity 1  2 is always
56. The reverse process of Photo-electric effect is c
a. Compont Effect b. Pair-production a) Greater than one b) Less than one
c. Annihilation d. None c) Equal to one d) None of these

57. If work function is 4.14ev, the threshold frequency 66. At higher temperature, the body emits long
of incident light is wavelength in the region
12 13
a. 10 Hz b. 10 Hz a) Infra red b) Ultraviolet
14 15
c. 10 Hz d. 10 Hz c) Far-infra red d) None of these

58. Each quantum is associated with radiation of 67. The Stefen-Boltzmann has the value

a. Intensity b. Energy -5
a) 5.67 × 10 Wm K
-2 -4

c. Frequency d. None -6 -1 -4
b) 5.67 × 10 Wm K
-6 -2 -4
c) 5.67 × 10 Wm K
59. Loius Broglie give the idea of Matter – wave in -8 -2 -4
d) 5.67 × 10 Wm K

a. 1924 b. 1925 68. The energy of photon of radio waves is only


c. 1926 d. 1928 about
-6 -4
C a) 10 eV b) 10 eV
60. A passenger passes a clock with a speed . -10
c) 10 eV
-12
d) 10 eV
2
The time period observed by him is:
69. The stopping potential when intensity is kept
constant is
3
a) t  t b) t a) Same b) Different
2
c) Both a & b d) None of these
2 2
c) t t d) t  t
3 5
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70. The idea of quantization of energy was proposed
by a) Energy b) Momentum
c) Momentum & Energy d) None of these
a) Einstein b) Max Planck
c) Compton d) None of these 80. Which of the following has the same dimension
as h/moc?
71. Application of photoelectric effect is
a) Length b) Time
a) Photo diode b) Photo transistor c) Mass d) None
c) Photocell d) None of these
81. Photon ‘A’ has twice the energy of photon ‘B’.
72. In Compton effect, the law/laws are conserved What is the ratio of the momentum of ‘A’ to that of
‘B’?
a) Energy b) Momentum
c) Both d) None of these a) 4 : 1 b) 2 : 1
c) 1 : 2 d) None
73. The equations of pair production is
82. An electron accelerated through a P.D, V has a
2 - +
a) hf = 2moc – KE(e ) + K.E (e ) wave associated with it of wavelength
2 - +
b) hf = 2moc + KE(e ) + K.E (e )
2 2 - +
c) hf = 2mo c + KE(e ) + K.E (e ) a) 12.3 V A  b) 12.3 / VA 
2 - +
d) hf = 2mo c + KE(e ) + K.E (e ) 2 
c) 12.3 / V A d) None
74. Louis De Broglie received Nobel prize in physics
in

a) 1926 b) 1922
c) 1925 d) 1929

75. The high energy electrons penetrate the


specimen to reasonable thickness and acquire
sufficient energy due to its

a) Short wavelength
b) Extremely short wavelength
c) Long wavelength
d) None of these

76. The best optical resolution is made by the CHAPTER # 20


microscope is ATOMIC SPECTRA

a) 0.1 μm b) 0.2 μm 1. Ratio of the weight of H-atom to that of


c) 0.3 μm d) None of these an electron is approximately ________

77. In Compton effect  is always a. 183.336 b. 1836


c. 18360.00 d. 183.60
a) Less than  b) Greater than 
2. Photon of high frequency will be
c) Equal to  d) None of these absorbed when transisation takes place
from _________
78. Who discovered the idea of Ether?
st th nd th
a. 1 to 5 orbit b. 2 to 5 orbit
a) Schrodinger b) De-Broglie rd th
c. 3 to 5 orbit
th th
d. 4 to 5 orbit
c) Michelson and Morley d) None of these
3. In Hydrogen spectrum, which one of the
79. Can pair production takes place in vacuum following series lies in the ultraviolet
because of conservation of region?
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c. 0.85eV d. -1.51eV
a. Ballmer series b. Pfund series
c. Lyman series d. Bracket series 11. Total number of series in hydrogen
spectrum is _____________
4. In obtaining an x-ray photograph of our
hand, we use the principle of _______ a. Three b. Four
c. Five d. Six
Photo electric effect
Ionization 12. The radiations emitted from hydrogen
Shadow photograph filled discharge tube show _________
Any of above
a. Bound spectrum b. Line spectrum
5. Excited atoms return to their ground stat c. Continuous spectrum d. Absorption spectrum
in __________
13. The electric P.E of an electron is an orbit
-10 -8
a) 10 S b) 10 S at a distance from the positive charge
-6 -9
c) 10 S d) 10 S ________
2 2 2
6. When we excite some atoms by heat a. Ke /rn b. Ice /rn
2 2 2
collusion or electrical discharge, they will c. –ke /rn d. –ke /rn
______
14. Radiation with wavelength longer than
a. radiate electromagnetic energy with a red light________
continues distribution of wavelength
b. Absorb particular wavelengths when a. Ultraviolet rays b. X-rays
white light is incident an them c. Infrared radiation d. Visible radiations
c. Radiate electromagnetic energy of
discrete charactristic wavelength 15. Bracket series is obtained when all
d. Emit either invisible or visible light transition of electron terminate on _____
th th
7. Hydrogen atom does not emit x-rays a. 4 orbit b. 5 orbit
rd nd
because __________ c. 3 orbit d. 2 orbit

a. Its energy level are too close to each 16. In an electronic transisation, atom cannot
other emit _________
b. Its energy level are too far apart
c. It is too small in size a. γ - rays b. Infrared radiation
d. It has a single electron c. Visible light d. Ultraviolet rays

8. Which one of following postulate is in 17. Reverse process of photo electric effect
accordance with the Rutherford’s model? is __________

a. Continues spectra for atoms a. Pair production b. Compton effect


b. Discrete spectra for atoms c. Animation of matter d. X-rays production
c. Either continues for atoms
d. No spectrum 18. X - rays are similar in nature to _______

9. X-rays are ___________ a. Cathode rays b. Positive rays


c. γ - rays d. α - rays
a. Unknown nature
b. High energy electrons 19. The penetrating power of X-ray depends
c. High energy photon on their ____________
d. Radioisotopes
a. Applied voltage b. Frequency
th
10. Ground state energy of the 4 orbit in a c. Source d. All of the above
H-atom is ________
20. When X-rays are passed through
a. 13.60eV b. 3.40eV successive aluminum sheets, what
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happens to their thickness? 27. The minimum wavelength of X-rays
produced by the bombardment of
a. In increases electron on the screen of a T.V. set
b. It decreases where the accelerating potential is 2.0
c. Remains same K,V will be ________
d. Sometimes increase sometimes
-10 -18
decreases a. 6.2 x 10 m b. 9.1 x 10 m
-10 -10
c. 3.11 x 10 m d. 4 x 10 m
21. The penetrating power of X-rays is
comparable with that of __________ 28. Maximum frequency in the spectrum
from x-rays tube is directly proportional to
a. α - rays b. β - rays the ___________
c. γ - rays d. All of above
a. Number of electron i.e. filament current
22. Quality of X-rays depends upon _______ b. The kinetic energy of incident electron
c. The soft target which can easily emit electron
a. Filament current d. All the above are correct
b. Accelerating voltage
c. Material of the target 29. X-rays are diffracted by a crystal but not
d. b and c by a diffraction grating because ______

23. Radiation produced from T.V. picture a. The ions in a crystal are well arranged
tube is _________ b. The lines in a diffraction grating cannot
reflect X-rays
a. γ - rays b. X - rays c. The perpetrating power of x-rays is
c. Far infrared d. Infrared which in a diffraction grating
d. The wavelengths of x-rays are of same
24. In an X - ray tube, electrons each of order of magnitude as the separation
charge e are accelerated through V between atoms in a crystal
potential difference allowed to hit a metal
target, the wavelength of the X-rays 30. UV radiation can be produced by
emitted is ____ __________

a. hc/ev b. he/vc a. Heating the filament


c. ev/h d. impossible to predict b. Ionization of atoms
c. Electron excitation in the gas
d. All the above

25. The minimum wavelength of X-rays can 31. What is the velocity of a particle of mass
further be reduced by _________ m and de-Broglie Wavelength?

a. Reducing the pressure of cooling the target a. h/mλ b. 2h/mλ


½
b. Increasing the temperature of the filament c. Mh/h d. (2hc/mx)
c. Using a target element of higher atomic
number 32. Wave like characteristic of electron is
d. Increasing the potential difference b/w demonstrated by _________
the cathode and the target
a. Line spectrum of atoms
26. The characteristic X-rays spectrum is due to ____ b. Production of X-rays
c. Diffraction by crystalline solids
a. The illumination of the target metal by d. Photo electric effect
ultraviolet radiation
b. The bombardment of the target by proton 33. Electron cannot exist in the nucleus, it is
c. The bombardment of target by electron confirmed by observing that __________
d. The absorption of Y-radiation by the target
metal a. At does emit Y-radiation
b. Its size as compare to proton and neutron is
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very small 42. Bremsstrahlung is phenomenon in which
c. No antiparticle of electron is present the rate of slowing down of electron is
d. The velocity of electron must by very high
according to uncertainly principle a. small b. large
c. very large d. None
34. In normal state of energy, the incident
high energy photons will be _________ 43. The value of Rydberg’s constant is
7 -1 7 -1
a. Stimulated a. 1.0974 × 10 m b. 1.0794 × 10 m
-7 -1
b. Absorbed c. 1.0974 × 10 m d. None
c. Cause X-rays emission
d. Cause laser production 44. The shortest wave length radiation in
Bracket series has wavelength
35. In laser production, the state in which more 16 RH
atoms are in the upper state then in the lower one a. b.
is called _________ RH 16
c. 16 RH d. None
a. Metal stable state b. Normal state
c. Inverted population d. All the above 45. Bohr’s theory is failed to explain

36. The meta stable state for an atom in laser light is a. H – spectrum b. He – spectrum
_____________ c. Complex atoms spectrum d. None
-4 -5
a. 10 sec b. 10 sec 46. The ionization energy of H – atom is
-3 -8
c. 10 sec d. 10 sec
a. – 13.6ev b. 13.6ev
37. In He – Ne laser, the lazing action is c. ±13.6ev d. none
produced by __________
47. Which one of the following is more coherent
a. Ne only b. He – Ne both
c. Electrons of He d. Electrons of Ne a. X – rays b. Normal light
c. Laser d. γ – rays
38. Reflecting mirrors in laser is used to ________
48. Sunlight spectrum is
a. Further stimulation
b. Lasing more a. Discrete b. Line spectrum
c. For production more energetic laser c. Continuous spectrum d. none
d. All the above

49. Optical pumping exist in


39. The velocity of laser light is __________
a. X – rays b. Laser
a. Less than ordinary light c. Spectrum d. None
b. More than ordinary light
c. Equal to ordinary light 50. A common He – Ne gas laser contain,
d. Different for different colors or frequency He – Ne ration

40. Laser beam can be used to generate a. 85 – 15 % b. 80 – 20%


c. 70 – 30% d. None
a. One dimensional images
b. Two dimensional images 51. The total energy of electron in an orbit
c. Three dimensional images around the nucleus is
d. None of these
a. + ive b. – ive
41. X – rays is also know as c. zero d. None

a. photon b. γ – rays 52. According to Bohr’s theory the outer orbit


c. breaking radiation d. none Electron has ________ energy than inner

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orbits. 62. Continuous spectra is an example of

a. Greater b. Smaller a) Atomic b) Molecular


c. Equal d. None of these c) Black body radiation d) None of these

53. The name of electron was suggested by 63. Line spectra is an example of

a. Rutherford b. Chadwick a) Atomic b) Molecular


c. Thomson d. Stony c) Black body radiation d) None of these

54. X – rays was discovered by 64. The quantized energy of first Bohr orbit of
hydrogen atom is
a. Bacquerel b. Mari – curie
c. Roentgen d. Lane a) 13.04 eV b) – 13.6 eV
c) 13.6 eV d) 13.5 eV
55. The idea of laser was first introduced in
1958 by 65. Bremsstrahlung are those in which radiations are
produced of
a. Frank – white b. C.H.Towner
c. Dr. Gilbert Young d. C.H.Towner a) Long wavelength
b) Short wavelength
56. The ratio of volume of an atom to the c) Wavelength in X-rays region
volume of nucleus is d) None of these
3 6
a. 10 b. 10 66. In LASER principle, a photon produce another
9 12
c. 10 d. 10 photon by the process of

57. The value of Plank’s constant is a) Excitation b) De-excite


c) Ionization d) None of these
-34 -34
a. 6.63 × 10 J.sec b. 6.63 × 10 J/sec
-34
c. 6.63 × 10 sec/J d. None 67. Characteristic X – rays are the X – rays which
have
58. Laser is a device which can produce
a) High energy photons
a. an intense beam of light b) Specific wavelengths
b. Coherent light c) Specific frequencies
c. Monochoromatic light d) All of these
d. All

59. The total energy of electron in state n = α 68. X – rays can penetrate into a solid matter upto
is
a) Few millimeter b) Several millimeter
a. + ive b. – ive c) Few centimeter d) Several centimeter
c. zero d. None
69. Computerized axial tomography (CAT-scanner) is
60. When magnetic field is applied in the path X – a system in which X – rays are
rays , they will be moving in
a) Maximum through the subject
a) Straight line b) Circular path b) Minimum absorptions through the subject
c) Parabolic path d) None c) Depending upon the subject
d) None of these
61. With the help of laser beam we can produce
70. X – rays can cause cancer in living cells due to
a) Fusion reaction radiation exposure which is
b) Holograms
c) Fragment of kidney stone a) Small b) Large
d) All of these c) Excessive d) None of these

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71. In Laser a Meta-stable state is

a) An excite state
b) In which an electron is usually stable
-3
c) In which an electron reside 10 sec
d) None of these

72. The Meta-stable state of Helium and Neon is

a) Different b) Identical
c) Nearly identical d) None of these

73. Laser beam can be used for

a) Wilding of detached retinas


b) Destroy tissues in a localized area
c) Sealed off capillaries for prevention of disease
d) All of them

74. In Balmer series the shortest wavelength


radiations have wavelength equal to

 RH   4 
a)  m b)   m
 4   RH 
 RH 
c)  m d) (9 R H ) m
 9 

75. The longest wavelength radiations in Braket


series have wavelength equal to

25 16
a)  RH b) RH
16 25
135
c) d) None
27 R H

76. The wavelength of X – rays produced due to Chapter 21


declaration of electrons is NUCLEAR PHYSICS

V e he 1. In nucleus of uranium the number of neutrons will


a)  b)  be ___________
m V e
h V e a. 92
c)   d)   b. 235
V e h c. 143
d. Different for different isotopes

2. During fusion of hydrogen into helium _______

a. Energy is absorbed
b. Energy is released
c. Mass is increased due to energy absorption
d. Mass is reduced due to energy absorption

3. One a.m.u is equal to _________


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c) Self disintegration property
-27 -25
a) 1.66 x 10 kg b) 1.66 x 10 kg d) Both a and c
-20
c) 1.66 x 10 kg d) All of above
12. Energy liberated when one atom of U-235
4. According to which one of following law, undergoes fission reaction is ______
the density of atom is uniform ?
a) 200 Mev b) 40 Mev
a) J.J. Thomson b) Rutherford’s Model c) 30 Mev d) 20 Mev
c) Bohr’s Model d) All of above laws
13. Transuranic elements have atomic number ____
5. For chain reaction to buildup, the size of
the radio active target should be ______ a) Greater than 72 b) Greater than 82
c) Greater than 92 d) Greater than 102
a. 90
b. Greater than the critical size 14. Nuclear force exist between
c. Less than the critical size
d. Equal to critical size a) Proton – proton b) Proton – Neutron
c) Neutron – Neutron d) All of the above
6. Antimatter consists of _____________
15. Mass defect per nucleons is _________
a) Antiproton b) Antineutron
c) Positron d) All of above a. Binding energy of nucleus
b. Packing fraction
7. Neutron and proton are commonly known as c. Average energy of nucleus
____________ d. All of above are one & same thing

a) Nucleons b) Meson 16. Tick the correct statement


c) Boson d) Quartz
a) Moderator slow down the neutron
8. Half life of Radium is 1590 years. In how b) Moderator bring the neutrons to rest
many years shall the earth loss all his c) Moderator absorb the neutron
radium due to radioactive decay ? d) Moderator reflect the neutron
6 12
a) 1590 x 10 years b) 1590 x 10 years 17. The bombardment of nitrogen with α - particles
25
c) 1590 x 10 years d) Never will produce ________

a) Neutron b) Proton
c) Electron d) Positron

9. Which one of the following radiation 18. Diameter of an atom is approximately _______
possesses maximum penetrating power?
-12 -11
a) 10 m b) 10 m
-10 -14
a) α - rays c) 10 m d) 10 m
b) β - rays
c) γ - rays 19. Radioactive decay obeys which one of the
d) All have equal penetrating power following data?
-λt xt
10. Electrons a) N = Noe b) N = Noe
xt/2 xt
c) N = Noe- d) No = N(Ie )
a) Can exist inside the nucleus
b) Cannot exist inside the nucleus 20. Average energy required to remove one nucleon
c) Can exist both inside and outside the nucleus from the nucleus is called _____
d) Don’t know
a) Binding energy per nucleon
11. Radioactivity is a ______________ b) Energy of decay
c) Destruction energy
a) Spontaneous activity d) All of above
b) Chemical property
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21. Fission chain reaction in a nuclear reactor can be
226
controlled by introducing ________ 30. An α - particle is emitted from 88Ra ,
what is the mass and atomic number of
a) Iron rod b) Graphite rods the daughter nucleus?
c) Cadmium rods d) Platinum rods
Mass Number Atomic Number
22. Which one of the following possesses a. 224 84
maximum velocity? b. 220 80
c. 222 86
a) α - rays d. 226 87
b) β - rays
c) γ - rays 31. The unit of Radioactivity “Curie” is equal to
d) All of the above have same speed ___________
9
23. Charge on an electron was determine by ______ a) 3.74 x 10 disintegration per sec
10
b) 3.70 x 10 disintegration per sec
10
a) Ampere b) Maxwell c) 3.55 x 10 disintegration per sec
10
c) Milliken d) Thomson d) 3.60 x 10 disintegration per sec

24. Charge on neutron is _____________ 32. During fission process, a large amount of
_____________
-19
a) +1.6 x 10 c
-19
b) -1.6 x 10 c a) Heat energy is released
c) Zero b) Nuclear energy is released
d) No definite charge c) Chemical energy is released
d) Light energy is released
25. A particle having the mass of an electron and the
charge of a proton is called 33. In liquid metal fast breeder reactor, the type
of uranium used is _______
a) Antiproton b) Positron
235 238
c) Gamma rays d) Photon a) 92U b) 92U
234 239
c) 92U d) 92U
26. Mass of neutron is ____________
34. Radioactive materials can be identified by
-13 -27
a) 1.67 x 10 Kg b) 1.67 x 10 Kg measuring their_______
-31 -19
c) 9.1 x 10 Kg d) 1.67 x 10 Kg
a) Hardness b) Density
c) Mass d) Half life

27. Nuclei having the same mass number but 35. If one or more of the neutrons emitted during
different atomic number are ______ fission can be used to build up further fission
then the reaction is self sustained and is
a) Isotopes b) Isobars known as ________
c) Isotones d) Isomers
a) Fission reaction b) Fusion reaction
28. A mass spectrograph sorts out _______ c) Chain reaction d) Chemical reaction

a) Molecules b) Ions 36. Pair production takes place in the vicinity of


c) Elements d) Isotopes heavy nucleus so that __________

29. Sum of the masses of constituent nucleons as a) Net energy is conserved


compared to the mass of the resultant nucleus is b) Net charge is conserved
_______ c) Net momentum is conserved
d) All of the above
a) Smaller
b) Greater 37. During an encounter with an atom α - particle
c) Same knocks out _______
d) Some times smaller some times greater
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a) Protons b) Electrons 46. Strontium -90 is used as _________
c) Neutrons d) Nothing
a) β - particle source b) α - particle source
38. The path of B-particle is_________ c) γ - particle source d) Neutrons source

a) Rectilinear b) Carved 47. The penetration power of β - particle as


c) Zigzag or erratic d) Elliptical compared to a-particle is_______

39. Which one of the following radiations are a) 10 times more b) 100 times more
suitable for the treatment of an infection in c) 100 times less d) 10 times less
the interior body?
48. Geiger counter is suitable for ______
a) α - rays b) β - rays
c) γ - rays d) X - rays a) Fast counting b) Extremely fast counting
c) Slow counting d) All situations
40. Various types of cancer are treated by
___________
49. A α - particle can produce fluorescence in
a) Cobalt 60 b) Strontium – 90 ___________
c) Carbon 14 d) Nickel – 63
a) Zns b) Barium Palatino cyanide
c) Calcium tunzstate d) All of above

41. Sterilizations of surgical instrument, medical 50. Pair production cannot take place in vacuum
supplies and bandages can be done by as ______ is not conserved
exposing them to a beam of _________
a) Energy b) Charge
a) α - rays c) Mass d) Momentum
b) β - rays
c) γ- rays 51. CFC is used in ____________
d) ‘b’ & ‘c’ have equal antiseptic properties
a) Refrigerator b) Aerosol spray
42. Charge on α - particle is _________ c) Plastic foam industry d) All of above

a) +1 b) +2 52. Average distance covered by α - particle in


c) -2 d) -1 air before its ionizing power ceases is called
its __________

a) Trajectory b) Range
c) Firing level d) Limit

43. B-particle ionizes an atom ________ 53. Which one of the following possesses greater
penetrating power?
a) Through direct collision
b) Through electrostatic attraction a) α - rays b) β - rays
c) Through electrostatic repulsion c) X-rays d) Neutron
d) All of above
54. The most useful tracer is ________
44. T.V. sets and microwave oven emit ______
a) Sr -90 b) I -131
a) X - rays b) α - rays c) Ca -41 d) C -14
c) β - rays d) γ - rays
55. γ - rays are electromagnetic waves like
45. A β - particle in a single encounter _______ ____________

a) Loses a small fraction of its energy a) Normal light b) Heat waves


b) Loses most of its energy c) Micro waves d) X - rays
c) Loses no energy at all
d) Loses energy at all 56. Charge on B-particle is __________

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a) +1 b) -1 65. Strong nuclear force
c) +2 d) -2
a) Increase with magnitude of increasing
57. Why γ - rays are used to kill bacteria, to charge
sterilize surgical equipments etc? b) Decreases with magnitude of increasing
charge
a) Chargless b) Massless c) Is independent of charge
c) Highly penetrating d) All of above d) None

58. B-particle ionizes an atom ________ 66. Complete the reaction


Z X A  X      .......  Q
a) Due to electrostatic force of attraction Z 1
b) Due to electrostatic force of repulsion
c) Due to direct collision a) Neutrino b) Antineutrino
d) Due to gravitational force c)  - particle d) None

59. B-particles possess greater penetration 67. Both Xenon and Cesium each have isotopes
power then that of a-particle due to its
____________ a) 12 b) 33
c) 36 d) 39
a) Smaller ionization power
b) Energy is not conserved 68. Marie Curie and Pierre Curie discovered two new
c) Neither greater nor smaller ionization power radioactive elements which
d) Same ionization power
a) Uranium and Polonium
60. Pair production can take places only with b) Polonium and Radium
______________ c) Radium and Uranium
d) Uranium and Plutonium
a) X-rays b) γ - rays
c) UV-rays d) IR-rays 69. The half of uranium – 238 is
8 9
61. A device for producing high velocity nuclei is a) 1.67 × 10 years b) 3.3 × 10 years
8 9
___________ c) 4.5 × 10 years d) 4.5 × 10 years

a) Cloud chamber b) Linear acceleration 70. The  - particle ionizes the particles in its way and
c) A mass spectrograph d) Wilson cloud adopt the path which is

a) Curved b) Straight
c) Zig – Zag d) None of these

62. Which one of the following will be better 71.  - particles can be deflected by collisions than the
shield against γ - rays?
 -particles is
a) Ordinary water b) Heavy water
a) Difficult b) Very easily
c) Lead d) Aluminum
c) Easily d) None of these
63. The maximum safe limit does for persons
72. Neutron interact with materials containing hydrogen
working in nuclear power station are
atoms and knock out
__________
a) Electron b) Proton
a) 1 rem per week b) 5 rem per week
c) Photon d) None of these
c) 4 rem per week d) 3 rem per week
73. Neutron produce ionization by knocking out proton
64. Radiations are used for the treatment of skin
which is
of a patient is __________
a) Direct ionization b) Indirect ionization
a) α - rays b) β - rays
c) Both d) None of these
c) X - rays d) γ – rays

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o o
74.  - rays are absorbed by a sheet of a) 1000 C b) 1100 C
o o
c) 1200 C d) 1300 C
a) 1 ~ 5 mm of lead b) 1 ~ 10 mm of lead
c) 5 ~ 10 mm of lead d) None of these 84. Plutonium can be fissioned by

75. Tracks obtained by  - particles in Wilson Cloud a) Slow neutron b) Fast neutron
c) Very slow neutron d) None of these
Chamber is
85. Ultraviolet radiation cuase
a) Strong Continuous
b) Discontinuous, not straight thin a) Sum burn b) Blindness
c) Weak and no definite tracks c) Skin Cancer d) All of them
d) None of these
86. Neutrons are particularly more damaging to
76. The mixture of gas filled in a Geiger-Muller tube at
atmospheric pressure at about a) Legs b) Heart
c) Eyes d) Brain
a) 0.01 mm of Hg b) 0.1 mm of Hg
c) 10.00 mm of Hg d) None of these 87. Radio isotopes can be made easily by
bombardment with
77. The quenching of gas by a quenching gas is called
a) Electrons b) Protons
a) Quenching b) Self quenching c) Neutrons d) None of these
c) Forced quenching d) None of these
88. Subatomic particles are divided into
78. The dead time of Geiger Muller counter is of the
order of a) Photons b) Leptons
c) Hadrons d) All of these
a) Micro second b) Miilli second
c) More than millisecond d) None of these 89. Hadrons are the particle included
79. As the solid state detector absorbs so less energy a) Protons b) Neutrons
of the incident particle and junction become from c) Mesons d) All of these
surface. So it is called the detector as
90. Lepton’s particles which experience no strong
a) Surface contact b) Surface barrier nuclear force are
c) Surface dependent d) None of these
a) Electrons b) Muons
c) Neutrinos d) All of these

91. The charges on the quarks are


80. The solid state detector operated at
a) One unit b) Half unit
a) Low b) High c) Fraction d) None of these
c) Very High d) None of these
235
92. Meson is made from
81. The breakage of U produces the fragments as
92
a) A pair of quarks
a) Kr and Ba b) Sn and Mo b) A pair of anti quarks
c) Xe and Sr d) All of them c) A pair of quarks and anti quarks
d) None of these
82. The fuel / fuels used in the reactor are nowadays
93. Fission nuclear reaction leads to a _____ stability.
a) Plutonium – 239 b) Uranium – 233
c) Uranium – 235 d) All of these a) Lesser b) Greater
c) Medium d) None
83. The temperature of the core of the reactor rises to
about

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94. If a radioactive isotope of silver have a half life of
about 7.5 days. After 15 days the remaining isotope
of its original is

a) 25% b) 50%
c) 7.5% d) 15%

95. A nuclide 86 R 220 decays to a new nuclide by two


 -emissions, the nuclide S is

a) 84 S 212 b) 82 S 212
c) 80 S 220 d) None

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