1. An aircraft is at position A (49°10'S 178°22'W).

It flies due North for 2,950

nm and then due West for 382nm to position B. Where is position B?

(a) 81°40'S 175°16'E

(b) 81°40'S 171°50'E
(c) 00°00'S 175°16'E
(d) 00°00'S 171°50'E

2. What is the Local Mean Time at 65°30'N 123°45'W at 22:00 UTC on

th
6 September?
th
(a) 02:22 on 7 th
(b) 06:15 on 7th
(c) 17:38 on 6
th
(d) 13:45 on 6
3. The magnetic equator is best defined as:

(a) Latitude 00°00'N/S

(b) an aclinic line
(c) a line where deviation is zero
(d) an agonic line

4. An Inertial Navigation System is used to navigate an aircraft from waypoint

1 (45°N 030°W) to waypoint 2 (45°N 020°W). The DSRTK readout approaching
waypoint 2 will be:
(a) more than 090°T
(b) 090°T
(c) 090°T or 270°T depending on the coupling selection
(d) less than 090°T

5. What is an advantage of a gyro-magnetic compass over a direct reading

compass ?

(a) the gyro will always indicate the vertical

(b) turning and acceleration errors are as large but more
predictable
(c) there is a significant reduction in
lag
(d) there is a significant reduction in turning and acceleration errors

6. What is the most common use for an oblique mercator chart ?

(a) polar routes

(b) selected great circle routes
(c) topographical maps of the British Isles
(d) maps of equatorial areas only
7. Track 348°T, drift 17° left (port), variation 32°W, deviation 4°E. What is
the required compass heading ?

(a) 329°
(b) 339°
(c) 344°
(d) 033°

8. With a groundspeed of 135 kts and a distance to go of 433 nm the time to

go is ?

(a) 3 hrs 21 mins

(b) 3 hrs 12 mins
(c) 31 mins
(d) 19 mins

9. An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 minutes. How long will it take
to travel 215 nm?

(a) 37.4 mins

(b) 43.0 mins
(c) 49.5 mins
(d) 72.1 mins

10. What is the approximate latitude of the Antarctic Circle ?

(a) 23°N
(b) 23°S
(c) 66°N
(d) 66°S

11. The surface wind is given by Air Traffic Control as 300°/40 kts and
variation at the airfield is 20°W. Runway 24 is in use; what is the headwind
component and the direction of the crosswind component ?
(a) 20 kts right to left
(b) 35 kts right to left
(c) 31 kts left to right
(d) 20 kts left to right

12. 13 litres of oil is added to an oil tank and the specific gravity of the oil is
0.90. The weight of the oil added is:

(a) 25.8 lbs

(b) 11.7 lbs
(c) 3.43 Imp. gall.
(d) 2.86 USG
13. The scale of a Mercator chart is 1:4,000,000 at 56°N. What is the chart
length in centimetres between 065°W and 055°W at the equator?

(a) 8.9
(b) 16.7
(c) 10.9
(d) 6.4

14. If the wind is 230°T/50 kts variation is 20°W and the TAS is 230 kts.
What true heading is required to fly a true track of 025°?

(a) 018°
(b) 029°
(c) 020°
(d) 044°

15. If the TAS is 90 kts, the aircraft heading is 044°T (variation is 20°W), drift
is 8°S and groundspeed is 70 kts, the wind is:

(a) 038°T/23kts
(b) 025°T/30kts
(c) 018°T/23kts
(d) 004°T/30kts

16. If the wind is 010°T/100kts, variation is 30°W, the TAS is 400 kts and the
aircraft is flying a heading of 100°M. What is the track and groundspeed ?

(a) 084° 350 kts

(b) 057° 340 kts
(c) 086° 340 kts
(d) 084° 360 kts

17. TAS 330 kts, heading 300°M, drift 6°P, groundspeed 270 kts, variation
30°E. The true wind velocity is:

(a) 325°T/65kts
(b) 340°T/90kts
(c) 010°T/80kts
(d) 355°T/70kts

18. A straight line is plotted on a Lambert's chart from A (35°N 145°W) to B

(47°N 125°W) which measures 044°T at A. What is the rhumb line track
from A to B measured at B ?
(a) 217°
(b) 037°
(c) 231°
(d) 051°
19. A straight line track is drawn on a polar stereographic chart from P (80°S
145°E) to Q (80° 112°W). At what longitude will the track reach its highest
latitude ?
(a) 060.5°W
(b) 093.5°E
(c) 163.5°W
(d) 158.5°W

20. An aircraft is at 75°N 140°W steering 330°T. For a grid aligned with the
Prime meridian the grid track on a polar stereographic chart will be:

(a) 010°
(b) 110°
(c) 190°
(d) 290°

21. An inertial navigation system is used to navigate from waypoint 1 (45°N

030°W) to waypoint 2 (45°N 020°W). The distance flown will be:

(a) 424.25 nm
(b) more than 424.25 nm
(c) less than 424.25 nm
(d) approximately 600 nm

22. An aircraft is heading 090°M at 45°S and accelerates. The needle of its
direct reading compass will:

(a) turn clockwise and indicate a turn to south

(b) turn clockwise and indicate a turn to north
(c) turn anticlockwise and indicate a turn to south
(d) turn anticlockwise and indicate a turn to north

23 What is the convergence factor of a polar stereographic chart ?

(a) zero
(b) n = 1
(c) sine mean lat
(d) sine parallel of origin

24. The duration of civil twilight is:

(a) the time between the sun being 6° below the horizon and 12° below
the horizon
(b) the time between sunset and the sun being 12° below the horizon

(c) the time between the sun being 6° below the horizon and 18°
below the horizon
(d) the time between sunset and the sun being 6° below the horizon
 th
25. An aircraft leaves Guam (13°N 144°E) at 23:00 ST on 30 April to fly to
Los Angeles, California, USA. If the flight time is 11 hrs 15 mins what is the
Standard Time and date of arrival in Los Angeles ?
st
(a) 04:15 1 st May
(b) 17:15 1 thMay
(c) 09:45 30 thApril
(d) 17:15 30 April
26. What is the distance in kilometres from 49°S 180°E/W to 58°S 180ºE/W?

(a) 540
(b) 621
(c) 1000
(d) 1112

27. What is the definition of compass deviation ?

(a) the angle between compass north and magnetic north measured in
degrees east (-) or west (+) from magnetic north
(b) the angle between the horizontal component of the earth's field and
the total component which increases with latitude
(c) the angle between compass north and magnetic north measured in
degrees east (+) or west (-) from magnetic north
(d) the angle between the horizontal component of the earth's field and
the total field which decreases with latitude

28. An aircraft leaves 60°N 030°W and flies 3,600 nm due south, then 3,600
nm due east then 3,600 nm due north and 3,600 nm due west. What is its
final position ?
(a) 60°N 090°W
(b) 60°N 060°W
(c) 60°N 030°W
(d) 60°N 000°E/W

29. An airfield has two runways, 05/23 and 30/12. The surface wind is given
as 250°/30. The headwind component on 23 and the crosswind component
on runway 30 will be:
(a) 10 head 19 across
(b) 10 head 23 across
(c) 28 head 19 across
(d) 28 head 23 across

30. Required track 070°T, variation 30°W, deviation +1°, drift 10°S. What is
the required compass heading ?

(a) 079°
(b) 089°
(c) 048°
(d) 058°
31. TAS 285 kts, groundspeed 236 kts, distance to go 354 nm. What is the
time to go ?

(a) 74.5 minutes

(b) 48.0 minutes
(c) 90.0 minutes
(d) 40.0 minutes

32. Required track 300°T, drift 8°right, variation 10°W, deviation -4°. What is
the required compass heading ?

(a) 306°
(b) 314°
(c) 310°
(d) 298°

33. Which of the following statements is correct for a Mercator projection?

(a) Scale is correct at the equator and expands as the cosine of the
latitude
(b) Chart convergency is correct at the equator and increases as the
sine of the latitude
(c) Scale is correct at the equator and expands as the secant of the
latitude
(d) Convergency is correct at the equator and increases as the secant of
the latitude

34. The length of daylight changes with the declination of the sun. In mid-
latitudes (45°N/S) when is the rate of change greatest ?

(a) the equinoxes (March and September)

(b) the solstices (June and December)
(c) Perihelion (January)
(d) Aphelion (July)

35. What is the angle between the plane of the Ecliptic and the plane of the
Equator ?

(a) 90°
(b) 0°
(c) 23°
(d) 45°

th
36. What is the time (UTC) of sunrise on 6 December at Vancouver, British
Columbia, Canada (50°N 123°W) ?
th
(a) 23:30 on 5 th
(b) 23:42 on 5th
(c) 15:42 on 6 th
(d) 15:54 on 6
 37. From position A (04°N 030°W) an aircraft flies 600 nm due south, then 600
nm due east, the 600 nm due north, then 600 nm due west. What is the
aircraft's final position in relation to A ?
(a) overhead A
(b) due east of A
(c) due west of A
(d) due south of A

38. What is variation at the magnetic equator ?

(a) 180°E/W
(b) less than 90°
(c) zero
(d) between 45° and 90°

39. An aircraft accelerates on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere.

The direct reading compass will:

(a) indicate a turn to north

(b) indicate a turn to south
(c) indicate 270°
(d) indicate less than 270°

40. An aircraft accelerates on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere.

The needle of the direct reading compass will:

(a) turn clockwise

(b) turn anticlockwise
(c) not be deflected
(d) turn clockwise or anticlockwise depending on the rate
of acceleration

Question 1 of 188
Question: A radio signal loses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called:
1. refraction
2. attenuation
3. ducting
4. propagation

Question 2 of 188
Question: Comparing a parabolic reflector with a flat plate antenna of the same size
1. the flat plate antenna has a considerably smaller beam width.
2. the parabolic reflector has a considerably smaller beam width.
3. the parabolic reflector generates less side lobes than the flat plate antenna.
4. the flat plate antenna generates less side lobes than the parabolic reflector.

Question 3 of 188
Question: The skip distance of HF-transmission will increase with:
1. lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.
2. higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.
3. lower frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.
4. higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer.
Question 4 of 188
Question: Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground
speed?
1. An ADF sited on the flight route
2. A DME station sited on the flight route
3. A DME station sited across the flight route
4. A VOR station sited on the flight route

Question 5 of 188
Question: What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a
3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM?

1. 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline
2. 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline
3. 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the
localiser centreline
4. 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the
localiser centreline

Question 6 of 188
Question: ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:

1. ground returns ahead of the antennas

2. multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane
3. spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles
4. back-scattering of antennas

Question 7 of 188
Question: An RMI indicates aircraft heading and bearing. To convert the RMI bearings of
NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic
variation is:
1. NDB: beacon position VOR: beacon position
2. NDB: aircraft position VOR: aircraft position
3. NDB: beacon position VOR: aircraft position
4. NDB: aircraft position VOR: beacon position

Question 8 of 188
Question: An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the
equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.
The aircraft is on VOR radial:
1. 262°
2. 278°
3. 285°
4. 255°

Question 9 of 188
Question: Given: Magnetic heading 280° VOR radial 090° What bearing should be selected
on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a "TO"
indication?

1. 090°
2. 270°
3. 100°
4. 280°
Question 10 of 188
Question: A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals
32°W. An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation
equals 28°W. The aircraft is on VOR radial:

1. 208
2. 212
3. 180
4. 360

Question 11 of 188
Question: In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic
variation:

1. at the aircraft location

2. at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station
3. at both the VOR and aircraft
4. at the VOR

Question 12 of 188
Question: A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight
level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:

1. 6 NM
2. 11 NM
3. 8 NM
4. 7 NM

Question 13 of 188
Question: During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication
from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:

1. range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM

2. aeroplane is circling around the station
3. altitude is too high
4. aeroplane is below the 'line of sight' altitude

Question 14 of 188
Question: A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370 in
ISA conditions which is 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:

1. 16 NM
2. 15 NM
3. 17 NM
4. 14 NM

Question 15 of 188
Question: A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at
position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B
is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:

1. 195°
2. 185°
3. 180°
4. 190°
Question 16 of 188
Question: Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
1. 200 - 2000 kHz
2. 255 - 455 kHz
3. 190 - 1750 kHz
4. 300 - 3000 kHz

Question 17 of 188
Question: Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally
situated?
1. On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the
extended centreline
2. At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the centreline

3. At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from
touchdown
4. At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m along the
extended centreline

Question 18 of 188
Question: There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the
coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations,
the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water

1. greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland

2. the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090° and
270°
3. greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland
4. the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180° and
360°

Question 19 of 188
Question: The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM
represents a width of:

1. 2.0 NM
2. 3.0 NM
3. 3.5 NM
4. 2.5 NM

Question 20 of 188
Question: An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of
zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
1. left drift
2. right drift
3. a wind from the west
4. zero drift

Question 21 of 188
Question: In its basic type, a dipole antenna adapted for a frequency of 110MHz will have a
wire length of:

1. 136cm
2. 205cm
3. 273cm
4. 91cm
Question 22 of 188
Question: What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at
a groundspeed of 90 kt?

1. 600 FT/MIN
2. 450 FT/MIN
3. 700 FT/MIN
4. 400 FT/MIN

Question 23 of 188
Question: In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?
1. EHF
2. UHF
3. SHF
4. VHF

Question 24 of 188
Question: What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHZ?
1. 800 m
2. 80 m
3. 8m
4. 8000 m

Question 25 of 188
Question: In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?
1. VHF
2. EHF
3. SHF
4. UHF

Question 26 of 188
Question: Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?

1. Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night

2. Mutual interference between aircraft aerials
3. Frequency drift at the ground station
4. Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day

Question 27 of 188
Question: Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit
display, what does each of the dots represent approximately ?:
1. 2.0 degrees
2. 2.5 degrees
3. 1.5 degrees
4. 0.5 degrees

Question 28 of 188
Question: Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:

1. 3000 Hz
2. 2000 Hz
3. 1300 Hz
4. 400 Hz
Question 29 of 188
Question: The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of
phase on magnetic:

1. east
2. west
3. south
4. north

Question 30 of 188
Question: An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270°
with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the
VOR ground station?
1. NE
2. SE
3. SW
4. NW

1. The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure
near the source is known as:

A – instrument error
B – hysteresis effect
C – position pressure error
D – barometric error

2. VFE is the maximum speed:

A – with the flaps extended for each approved flap position

B – with the flaps extended in landing position
C – at which the flaps can be operated in turbulence
D – with the flaps extended in take-off position

3. The airspeed indicator of a twin-engine aircraft comprises different sectors and

colour marks. The blue line corresponds to the:

A – minimum control speed, or VMC

B – maximum speed in operations, or VMO
C – optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vy
D – speed not to be exceeded, or VNE

4. VLE is the maximum:

A – speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety
B – flight speed with landing gear down
C – speed with flaps extended in a given position
D – speed authorised in flight

5. At a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the Mach number:

A – increases when the altitude increases

B – decreases when the altitude increases
C – remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases
D – remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases
6. The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate
than the simple pressure altimeter is the use of:

A – combination of counters/pointers
B – more effective temperature compensating leaf springs
C – an induction pick-off device
D – a sub-scale logarithmic function

7. The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of:

A – the static pressure

B – the outside temperature
C – the total pressure
D – the differential pressure measurement

8. The QNH is by definition the value of the:

A – altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of
the location for which it is given
B – atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given
C – altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on
ground at the location for which it is provided
D – atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground over-flown by the aircraft

9. VNO is the maximum speed:

A – which must never be exceeded

B – not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution
C – at which the flight controls can be fully deflected
D – with flaps extended in landing position

10. A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following
instrument(s):

A – altimeter only
B – airspeed indicator only
C – vertical speed indicator only
D – airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator

1. In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained

through the concentration of the mass:

A – on the periphery and with a high rotation speed

B – close to the axis and with a high rotation speed
C – on the periphery and with a low rotation speed
D – close to the axis and with a low rotation speed

2. Concerning the directional gyro indicator, the latitude at which the apparent
wander is equal to 0 is:

A – the equator
B – latitude 30o
C – latitude 45o
D – the North pole
3. The heading information originating from the gyro-magnetic compass flux
valve is sent to the:

A – error detector
B – erector system
C – heading indicator
D – amplifier

4. A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on:

A – an artificial horizon
B – a directional gyro
C – a turn indicator
D – a gyro-magnetic compass

5. A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn depends
upon:

1) bank angle
2) aeroplane speed
3) aeroplane weight

The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

A – 2 and 3
B – 1, 2 and 3
C – 1 and 2
D – 1 and 3

6. A failed RMI rose is locked on 090o and the ADF pointer indicates 225o. The
relative bearing to the station is:

A – 135o
B – Impossible to read, due to failure RMI
C – 315o
D – 225o

7. An aircraft is flying at a 120 kt true airspeed (VV), in order to achieve a rate 1

turn, the pilot will have to bank the aircraft at an angle of:

A – 30o
B – 12o
C – 36o
D – 18o

8. On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates:

A – needle to the right, ball to left

B – needle to the right, ball to right
C – needle in the middle, ball to right
D – needle in the middle, ball to left

9. An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a

horizontal spin axis is:
(Note: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor
spin axis)
 A – an artificial horizon
B – a directional gyro
C – a turn indicator
D – a fluxgate compass

10. A laser gyro consists of:

A – a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom

B – 2 electrodes (anodes + cathodes)
C – a laser generating two light waves
D – two moving cavities provided with mirrors

11. The flux valve in a RIMC:

A – is supplied with AC current

B – is fed with DC current
C – is made of hard-iron magnetic steel
D – has its own self exciter unit

12. When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant altitude and bank, the
pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon:

A – too much nose up and bank to low

B – too much nose up and bank correct
C – turn too much nose up and bank to high
D – altitude and bank are correct

13. If the needle and the ball of a Turn & Slip indicator both show right, what does it
indicate:

A – turn to left & too much bank

B – too much nose up and bank correct
C – too much nose up and bank to high
D – turn to right and too little bank

14. What is the Schuler period?

A – 21 minutes
B – 84 minutes
C – 1 oscillation in azimuth
D – 63 minutes

15. The gyro-magnetic compass torque motor:

A – causes the directional gyro unit to precess

B – causes the heading indicator to precess
C – feeds the error detector system
D – is fed by the flux valve
16. An aeroplane takes off as normal on a scheduled flight however, shortly after take-
off the aeroplane is diverted to another airfield

Max Structural TOM 14000 kg

Performance Limited TOM 12690 kg
Max Structural LM (MSLM) 9600 kg
Trip Fuel to original destination 6000 kg
Contingency fuel 200 kg
Alternate fuel 200 kg
Final reserve fuel 750 kg
Expected landing mass at original destination 4600 kg
Actual flight duration 2 hour
Fuel consumption 1500 kg per hour
Performance Limited LM
At diversion airfield (PLLM) 9000 kg

A – The aeroplane can land safely as it is below its MSLM

B – The aeroplane can land safely because it is below its PLLM
C – The aeroplane cannot land safely because it is above the MSLM
D – The aeroplane cannot land safely because it is above its PLLM

17. The basic empty mass of an aircraft is 30000 kg. The masses of the following items
are:

Catering: 300 kg
Safety and rescue material nil
Fly away kit: nil
Crew (inclusive crew baggage): 365 kg
Fuel at take-off: 3000 kg
Unusable fuel: 120 kg
Passengers, baggage, cargo: 8000 kg

The Dry Operating Mass is:

A – 30300 kg
B – 30665 kg
C – 38300 kg
D – 30785 kg

18. A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane
structural limits:

Maximum Ramp Mass: 69900 kg

Maximum Take Off Mass: 69300 kg
Maximum Landing Mass: 58900 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52740 kg
The performance limited take off mass is 67450 kg
Performance limited landing mass is 55470 kg
Dry Operating Mass: 34900 kg
Trip Fuel: 6200 kg
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1300 kg
Alternate Fuel: 1100 kg

The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:

 A – 25800 kg
B – 18170 kg
C – 13950 kg
D – 17840 kg

19. A twin-engine aeroplane is certified for a Max Structural TOM and a Max LM of
58000 kg and 55000 kg respectively. Given the information below, what is the limiting
take-off mass for the aeroplane?

Performance Limiting TOM 61000 kg

Performance Limiting LM 54000 kg
Operating mass 55000 kg
Trip fuel 3000 kg
Contingency fuel 5% of trip fuel
Alternate fuel 500 kg
Final reserve 500 kg
Flight duration 3 hours
Fuel consumption 500 kg per hour per engine

A – 58000 kg
B – 61000 kg
C – 57000 kg
D – 56545 kg

20. The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2000 kg. The maximum take-off mass
landing and zero fuel mass are identical at 3500 kg. The block fuel mass is 550
kg, and the taxi fuel mass is 50 kg. The available mass of payload is:

A – 1500 kg
B – 950 kg
C – 1000 kg
D – 1450 kg