MCQs in Periodontology PDF

Contents
1. Historical Events in Periodontology .......................... 1

Gingiva ................................................................................ 3
3. Natural Protective Mechanisms for Gingiva ............ 8
4. Periodontal ;Ligament, Cementum and
Alveolar Bone ................................................................... 10
5. Effect of Aging on Periodontium .............................. 17
6. Classification of Periodontal Problems .................... 18
7. Epidemiology. of Periodontal Diseases .................... 22,
8. Clinical Features of ................................. 26
9. Histopathology of Gingivitis ..................................... 30
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11. Gingival Enlargements and Their Treatment ........ 35

12. Gingival Diseases --in Children .................................... 41
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13. Ch·ronic Pe.riodontitis .................................................... 43

14. Aggressive Periodontitis ............................................... 45 ·
15. Role of Systemic Diseases in the Aetiology of
Periodontal Diseases ...................................................... 47
16. Periodontal Diagnostic Pro_cedures ...........•............... 61
17. Prognosis ............................................................................ 64
18. Treatment Plan and Its Rationale ........................... 67
19. Plaque Control ................................................................ 69
20. Instruments Used in Periodontal Treatment .......... 74
21. Instrumentation ............................................................... 80
x MCQs in Periodontology
22. Phase-1-Periodon{!tl Therapy ....................................... 84

23. Role of Antimicrobials in Periodontal Therapy ... 87
24. Periodontal Aspects of Dental Implants ................. 93
25. Periodontal Management of Medically
Compromised Patients ......................................... ..... 109
I
Historical Events
in Periodontology
1. 'f.he most common disease found in the embalmed

bodies of ancient Egyptians:
A. Rickets
B. Arthritis
C. Periodontal disease
D. Dental caries
2. Which ancient medical book recommended cleaning
the teeth twice a day with an astringent stick that has
A. Eberus papyrus
B. Edwin Smith surgical papyrus
C. Sushrutha Sarnhita
D. Charaka Sarnhita
3. Who described scaling of teeth with a sophisticated
set of instruments in 10th century itself:
A. Plato B. Etruscans
C. Ibn Sina D. Abul-Qasim
4. Who was the first person to describe oral bacterial flora
from a sample of material taken from his own gingival
tissue:
A. Anton Von Leuwenhoek
B.· Eustachius
C. Pierre Fauchard
D. Glickman
1 c 2 D 3 D 4 A
2 MCQs in Periodontology
5. Levi Spear Parmly is:

A. The father of oral hygiene
B. Inventor of dental floss
C Both of the above.
D. None of the above
6. Who was the first dentist to practice only periodontics:
A. Glickman B. Carranza
C John W Riggs D. Pierre Fauchard
5 c 6 c
Gingiva
1. The main function of gingiva is:

A. Attaching the tooth to alveolar bone
B. Protection: of underlying tissues
C. Providing blood supply to teeth
D. Taking the brunt of mastication·
2. Cases that show free gingival groove are:
A.· 20°/o B. 30°/o
C. 40°/o D. 50°/o
3. Under absolutely normai . conditions, the depth of
gingival sulcus is about:
A. 0 mm B.·l mm
C. 2 mm D. 3 mm
4. The attached gingiva is attached -to:
A. Root
B. Periosteum
c. Both of the. above
5. The width of attached gingiva is the distance between:
A. Bottom of gingival sulcus to MG junction
B. Bottom of periodontal pocket to MG junction
C. Both of the above are correct
D. None of the above are correct
1 B 2 D 3 A 4 c 5 c
6. The width of attached gingiva is greatest in:

A. Maxillary anterior region
B. Mandibular molar region ·
C. Maxillary premolar region
D. Mandibular premolar region
7. The width of attached gingiva is least in:
A. Mandibular. anterior region
B. Mandibular canine region
C. Maxillary/ anterior region
D. Mandibular premolar region
8. The width of attached gingiva:
A. Increases with age
B. Decreases with age
C. Is stationary throughout life
D. Is the distance between gingival margin and
mucogingival junction
9. The junction is seen on:
A. Facial side B. Palatal side
C. Both of the above D. None of the ab9ve
10. Interdental papilla is formed by: .
A. Marginal gingiva B. Attached gingival
C. Both of the above D. None of the above
11. Which of the following gingival cell is nota clear cell:
A. Melanocyte B. Keratinocyte ·
C. Langerhan's cell D. Merkle cell
12. Proliferation of Keratinocytes takes place from:
A. Basal cell layer B.· layer
13. Which of the following are seen less commonly in the
superficial layers of gingival epithelium:
A. Lipid droplets Keratohyalin granules
C. Tonofibrils D. Mitochondria
6 A 7 D 8 A 9 A 10 C 11 B 12 C 13 D
Gingiva 5
14. Which of the following is absent in parakeratinized

gingiva:
A. Stratum corneum B. Stratum grati.ulosum
C. Stratum spinosum D. Stratum basale ·
15. · Which of the following does not contain cytokenitins:
A. Keratinized epithelium
B. epithelium
C. Nonkeralinized epithelium .
D. None 9f the above
16. The main keratin found irt -stratum corneum is:
C. K19 D. K40
I
I 17. Keratinosomes are abundantly found in:
I
A. Stratum corneum . B. Stratum granulosurn
C. Stratum spinosum D. Stratum basale
18. Lamina densa of gingival basal lamina is made up of:
A. Type I collagen B. Type II. collagen
C. Type III coHagen u. Type IV coHagen
19. Gingival basal lamina is permeable to:
A. Fluids
B. Particulate matter
C. Both of the above
20. The more · common surface presentation of outer
gingival epithelium is:
A. Keratinized B. Parakeratini:z;ed
C. Nonkeratinized D. None of the above
21. The degree of keratinization does not diminish with:
A. Age
r B. Onset.of menopause
C. Onset of menstruation
f 14 8 15 D 16 A 17 C 18 D 19 A ·20 8 21 C
22. The keratin polypeptide, K19, is expressed by:

A. Oral gingival epithelium
B. Palatal epithelium
C. Junctional epithelium
D. All of the above
23. Type IV collagen is absent in:
A. Basal lamina of endothelium
B. External basal lamina of junctional epithelium
C. Internal basal lamina of junctional epithelium
D. Basal lamina of oral gingival epithelium
24. The glycoprotein found in gingival connective tissue
is:
A. Hvaluronic acid ·
J .. B. Chondroitin sulfate
C. Fibronectin D. Laminin
. }
25. Laminin is found in gingival:

A. Basal lamina · B. Connective tissue
26. The major component of gingival connective tissue is:
A .. Type I collagen B. Type II collagen
C. Type III collagen D. Type IV collagen
27. Which of the following cells is· not found in the
gingival connective tissue:
A. · Fibroblast ·. B. Mast cell
C. Histiocyte D. None of the above
28. The temperature receptors of gingiva are:
A. Argyrophilic fibres
B. Meissner-type corpuscles
C. Kause-type end bulbs
D. All of the above·
29. Melanin· pigmentation of gingiva starts appearing:
A. In
1st trimester B. In second trimester
C. In third trimester D. Afterbirth i
i
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22 C 23 C 24 . C 25 A 26 A 27 D 28 C 29 D
Gingiva 7
30. Which. of the following is stippled:

A. Attached gingiva B. Marginal gingiva
C. Both .of the above D. None of the above
31. The distance between apical end of junctional
epithelium and crest of alveolar bone:
C. Is stationary throughout life
D. Depends 1 0n health of periodontium
!I
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l
30 A 31 C
,,
Natural Protective
Mechanisms for
Gingiva
I
1. The amount of crevicular fluid that can be collected 'l
in a strictly .·normal gingiva is: '·

A. Nil 1 pl
C. 2 pl D. 3 pl
2.- Which of the .following is not used for collecting j
gingival crevicular fluid: I
\
A. Micropipettes B. Absorbing paper strips
C. Twisted threads D. Periochips
3. What is a periopaper?
A. The paper used for periodontal charting
B. The paper used in bleeding points index
C. The paper used to collect crevicular fluid
D.
,I
None of the ab¢veI ;
4. The source of collagenase in GCF can be:

A. Fibroblast B. PMN leukocyte
C. Bacteria D. All of the above
5. Which of the following leukocytes is not found in
crevicular fluid: ·
A. PMN B. Macrophage
C. Lymphocyte D. Basophil
6. When compared to blood glucose levels, GCF glucose
levels are:
A. Almost same B. Less
C. Very less D. High
1 A 2 D 3 c 4 D 5 D 6 D
, Natural Protective Mechanisms for Gingiva 9
7. When compared to serum, the total protein content in

GCF is:
A. Almost same B. Less
C. Slightly high D. Very high
8. Which of the following does not increase the flow of
crevicular fluid:
A. Inflammation B. Trauma from occlusion
C. Smoking D. Brushing
9. The majority of leukocytes found in gingival sulcus
are:
A. Dead
B. Not having phagocytic capacity
C. Not having killing capacity
D. None of the above are correct
10. The main route of entry of leukocytes into oral cavity
is through:
A. Saliva B. GCF
C. Pharynx D. Larvnx
-./
7 8 8 8 9 D 10 8
Periodontal Ligament,
Cementum and .'
)·
Alveolar Bone
1. Type III collagen is mainly found in:

A. Principal fibres B. Reticular fibres
C. Sharpey's fibres D. None of the above
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extrusion of teeth are:

A. Trans-septal fibres .,
B. Alveolar crest group
C. Horizontal fibres
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3. Oxytalan fibres in periodontal ligament run:

A. Perpendicular to root surface
B. Parallel to root surface
C. At 45° angle to root surface
D. At 70° angle to root surface
4. Indifferent fibre plexus in the periodontal ligament is
.formed by:
A. Collagen fibres Oxytalan fibres
C. El uanin fibres D. Elastic fibres
5. · The most common cells in periodontal ligament are:
A. Fibroblasts
B. Epithelial rests
C. Osteoblasts
D. Neutrophils
1 8 2 8 3 8 . 4 A 5 A
Periodontal Ligament, Ce.mentum and Alveolar Bone 11
6. The orientation of fibroblasts in periodontal ligament

is:
A. Parellel to the root
B. Parallel to alveolar bone
C.· Along the principal fibres
D. Along the blood vessels
7. The function of fibroblast in periodontal ligament:
A. Synthesis of collagen
B. Degradation of old collagen
D. None of the above.
8. Epithelial rests in periodontal ligament are usually
located close to:
A. Cribriform plate
B. Blood vessels
C. Intermediate plexus
D. Cementum
. 9. Epithelial rests in periodontal ligament are relatively
.I less. common in which of the following areas:
A. Cervical areas
B. Apical areas
C. Midroot level
D. Fundus of socket
\.
10. Which of the following is not correct about epithelial
\ rests of Malassez:
A. They can become cementicles
B. They are surrounded by basal lamina
C. They increase with age
D. They contain tonofilaments
11. The glycosaminoglycon found in the ground substance
of periodontal ligament is:
A. Laminin B. Fibronectin
C. Hyaluronic acid D. All of the above
6 c 7 c 8 D 9 c 10 c 11 c
r
12. Which of the following is not correct about periodontal

ligament:
A. It is shaped like hourglass
B. It ·is thicker on mesial side of root
C. It is narrow at axis of rotation
13. Which of the following does not get nutrient supply
from periodontal ligf1m.ent:
A. Cementum · B. Alveolar bone
C. Gingiva D. ·None of the above
14. Cemental repair occurs in areas of root that are:
A. Exposed to pocket environment
B. Not exposed to pocket environment
15. Which of the following is -"incorrect about cementum:
A. It is mesenchymal
B. It is avascular
C. It covers clinical root
16. Which of the following are the pressure perceptors of
periodontal ligament:
A. Free nerve endings
B; Ruffini-like receptors
C. Meissner's corpuscles
D. Spindle like nerve endings
17. The major component of· acellular cementum:
A. Intrinsic Collagen B. Sllarpey's fibres
C. Cementum matrix D. Cementoblasts
18. Acellular afibrillar cementum is found on:
A. Cervical third of root B. Middle third of root
C. Apical third of root D. Enamel
12 8 13 D 14 8 15 C 16. D 17 8 18 D
Periodontal Ligament, Cementum and Alveolar Bone 13
19. Which of the following is found in acellular afibrillar

cementum:
A. Cells Extrinsic collagen
C. Intrinsic collagen D. None of the above
20. Intermediate cementum is found over the surface of:
A. Enamel B. Dentin
C. Cementum D. Cementoenamel junction
21. Which of the
I
following is correct about permeability
.
of cementum:
A. It increases with age
B. It decreases with age
C. It is not altered by age
D. It doesn't exist
22. The most common presenht.tion of cementoenamel
junction is:
A. Butt-joint
B. to meet each other
,.., ,...... 1 1 •
L. enamel ovenaps cementum
D. Cementum overlaps enamel
23. Cementum formation is more rapid· in:
· A. -Cervical area
B. · Midroot area
C. Apical area
D. Developmental grooves
24. Which of the following is not a cause for
hypercementosis:
A. Paget's disease B. Periapical infection
C. _Missing antagonist .D. Scleroderma
25. The line that demarcates newly formed cementum from
previous resorption
A. Burtonian line B. Reversal line
C. Resorption line D. Incremental line
19 D 20 8 21 8 22 0 23 C 24 D 25 8
26. The lifespan of a tooth that undergoes ankylosis is

around:
A. 5 years B. 10 years
C .. 15 years D. 20 years
27. Cementum is permeable to:
A. Endotoxins B. Bacteria
28. Periodontal 11igament fibres that mainly bear the brunt
of vertical masticatory forces:
A. Trans-septal fibres B. Alveolc;tr crest group
C. Horizontal fibres D. Oblique. fibres
29. Largest fibre group· in periodontal ligament:
A. Trans:..septal B. Oblique
C. Horizontal D. Apical
30. Which of the following disappears after the tooth is
removed:
A. Alveolar bone B: Periodontal
.
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31. The major component of facial and lingual plates of
alveolar bone:
A. Cortical bone B. Cancellous bone
C. Bone marrow D. Neurovascular bundle
32. The organic component of alveolar bone is around:
A. 22 °/o ·B. 33 °/o
C. 44 °/o D. 55 °/o
33. Which of the following parts of alveolar bone does not
show Haversian system:
A. Cancellous trabeculae B. Bundle bone
C. Lamellated bone D. External cortical plate
34. The periosteum is attached to alveolar bone by:
A. Collagen bundles B. Basement lamina
C. Mucoprotein layer J). Hemidesmosomes
26 A 27 C 28 D 29 8 30 C 31 A 32 8 33 8
34 A
Periodontal Ligament, Cementum and Alveolar Bone 15
35. The number of layers of osteoblasts found in

endosteum:
A. One B. Two
C. Three D. Four
The average distance between . crest of interdental
septum and cementoenamel junction in young adults
is:
.! A. 1.08 mm B. 2.08 mm
I c. 3.08 fill) D. 4.08 mm
. 37. In· areas of fenestration, the· root is covered by:
A. Gingiva · B. Periosteum
38.
A. Labial side B. Lingual side
C. Mesial side D. Distal side
39. Teeth that show dehiscences of alveolar bone:
A. 10°/o B. 20°/o
C. 30°/o D. 40°/o
40. The least stable periodontal tissue:
A. Gingiva B. Periodontal ligament
C. Cementum D. Alveolar bone
41. Epithelial rests of Malassez are formed from:
A. Stratum intermedium B. Stellate reticulum
C. Enamel epithelium D. Dental sac
42. Which of the following are the first ones to develop:
A. Trans-septal fibres B. Gingivodental group
C. Oblique fibres D. Alveolar crest group
43. Periodontal ligament forms from:
A. Enamel organ B. Hertwig's root sheath
C. Dental sac D. Dental follicle
35 A 36 A 37 C 38 A 39 8 40 D 41 C 42 8
43 D
44. The first bone to be formed during development of

alveolar bone is called:
A. Lamellar bone B. Compact bone
C. Woven bone D. Bundle bone
45. The alveolar bone of a permanent tooth develops from:
A. Basal bone
B. Dental follicle
C. Endomesenchyme
D. Alveolar bone of deciduous tooth
46. The width of periodontal ligament is around:
A. 0.2 ll B. 0.2 A
C. 0.2 mm D .. 0.2 em
47. Change that does not occur in the periodontium of a
.· nonfunctional tooth:
A. Reduced trabeculae
B. Periodontal fibres becoming parallel to root
C. Thinned cementum
D. Increase of distance bet-ween CEJ and alveolar crest
48. Periodontal ligament derives its blood supply from:
A. Gingiva B. Bone marrow .
49. Vascular plexus in periodontal ligament runs closer to:
A. Gingiva B. Alveolar bone
C. Cementum D. Epithelial rests
50. The blood supply of periodontal ligament in single
rooted teeth is greatest at:
. A. Gingival third B. Middle third
C. Apical third D. Axis of rotation
44 C 45 B 46 C 47 C 48 C 49 B 50 A
Effect of Aging on
. Periodontium
•.
1. In old age the gingival conn.ective tissue becomes:

A. Thin B. Dense degenerated
C. Degenerated D. Aqueous
T4Tt...!-1.. _.£. Ll..- ,:., _.,.,. .......... ......... : ........... ............................. .....
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periodontal ligament:
A. Decreased ntip1.ber of fibroblasts
B. Decreased ephithelial rests
C. Decreased elastic fibres
3. The i!lcrease in thickness of cementum with aging is

greater:
A. Coronally B. Apically
c. Labially D. At midroot level
4. Which of the following is not a significant risk factor
for periodontal disease:
A. Diabetes B. Smoking
C. Aging D. Poor oral hygiene
1 8 2 c 3 B 4 c
r
Classification of
Periodontal Problems
1. Which of the following drugs can cause drug-

influenced gingivitis:
A. Dilantin sodium B. Nefidipine
C. Cvclosoorin
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D. Oral contraceptives
..
2. Which of the following is a relatively more common
infection of ginigiva:
A. Gonorrhoea B. Syphilis
C. Streptococcal gingivitis D. Pseudomonas infection
3. Streptococcal _gingivostomatitis -is usually preceeded
by:
A. Diarrhoea B. Gastritis
C. Tonsillitis D. Sinusitis
4. The organisms associated with streptococcal
gingivostomatitis:
A. a.-Haemolytic streptococci
B. streptococci
C. y-Haemolytic streptococci
D. Non-haemolytic streptococci
5. Candida! infection of gingiva in HIV-Positive patients,
presents as erythema of: ·
Marginal gingival B. Attached gingiva
C. Interdental papilla D. Gingival crevice
1 D 2 A 3 c 4 B 5 B
Classification of Periodontal Problems 19-
6. An example of factitial traumatic lesion of gingiva:

A. Toothbrush trauma
B. Iatrogenic trauma
C. Thermal injury
D. Chemical injury
7. Which of the following is not a clinical feature of
necrotizing periodontitis:
A. Pocket formation
B. Spontaneous bleeding
C. Pain
D. Exposure of alveolar bone
8. In endodontic-periodontal lesions, periapical infec-
tion reaches the oral cavity through:
A. Sinus opening
B. -Periodontal ligament
C. Sinus that forms between gingival and alveolar bone
D. Intragingival route
· 9. lVhich of the following can cause pulpal necrosis:
A. Trauma B. Periodontal pocket
10. Which of the following is not associated with loss of
attachment:.
A. groove B. Enamel pearl
C. Enamel projection D. Supernumerary cusp
11. Which of the following does not promote periodontal
destruction:
A. Cementa! tear B. Cervical resorption
C. Root fracture D. Dilaceration
12. Loss of attachment rules out the diagnosis of:
A. Gingivitis B. Periodontitis
6 A 7 A 8 B 9 C 10 D 11 0 12_ D
r
13. Which of the following dose not have modifying effect

on gingivitis:
A.· Pregnancy B. Puberty
C. Diabetes ·D. Hypertension .
14. Whic.h of the following drug- intake, cannot lead to
gingival enlargement:
A; Phenytoin B. Cyclosporin
C. Oral contraceptives D. None of the above
,15. Chronic periodontitis occurs in:
-A. Adults B. Children ·
16. To be diagnosed as . localized form of chronic
periodontitis, the number of sites· invoived shouid be
less than:
A. 10°/o . B. 20°/o
17. To be called 'Severe chronic periodontitis', the

attachment loss should be more than:
A. 5 mm B. 6 mm
C. 7 mm D.B mm
18. Aggressive periodontitis occurs in patients who are:
A. Healthy
B. Having systemic disease like diabetes
C. Smokers
D. HIV-Positve
19. Which of the following, is not a characteristic of
aggressive periodontitis:
A. Familial tendency
B. Infection with actinobacillus-.actinomycetemco-
mitans
C. Hyperactivity of mactophages
D. Abundant microbial deposits
13 D 14 D 15 C 16 C 17 A 18 A 19 D
Classification of Periodontal Problems 21
20. Significant serum antibody response to specific plaque

organisms is found in:
A. Localized form of chronic periodontitis
B. form of chronic periodontitis
C. Localized form of aggressive periodontitis
D. Generalized form of aggressive periodontitis
21. Which of the following' systemic diseases does not
show 'periodontitis' as its· manifestation:
A. Hypophosphatasia B. Down's syndrome
C. Leukaemia D. Lichen planus
22. Episodic periodontal destruction is a pronounced
feature of:
A. Localized chronic periodontitis
B. Generalized chronic periodontitis
C. Localized. aggressive periodontitis
D. Generalized aggressive periodontitis
20 C 21 D 22 D
Epidemiology of
Periodontal Diseases
1. Example for composite index:·

A. DMF B. OHI
C. PMA D. Gingi.val bone count
2.- For periodontal disease, smoking is a:
· A. Risk factor B. Prognostic factor
3. When there is bleeding on probing, the score of
gingival is:
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
4. Modified. gingival
A. Is an invasive index
.B. Is a noninvasive index
C. ·Assesses attachment loss
D. Assesses bleeding on probing
5. The total number of periodontal sites that are
examined in NIDCR method:
A. 32 B. 28
C. 14 D. 7
6. The ·prevalence of gingivitis is higher in:
A. Prepubertal children B. Adolescents
C. Young adults D. Older adults
1 D 2 c 3 8 4 8 s a· s a
Epidemiology of Periodontal Diseases 23
7. Which of the following groups is more likely to have

gingivitis: .
A. Adolescent males B. Adult males
C. Adolescent females D. Adult females
8. The direct cause of gingivitis:
A. Calculus B.· Plaque
C. Faulty restoration D. Malocclusion
Equipment required for periodontal index:
A. Light I .
B. light and mouth mirror ·

C. Light,mouth mirror and explorer
D. Light,mouth mirror and graduated prope
10. The prevaience of periodontitis:
A. Increases with increase in age
B. Decreases with increase in age
C. Is.same.. in all age groups
D. -Is the risk of developing_ disease
11. The number of quadrants of that are examined
for gingival bleeding in NIDCR protocol for gingival
assessment:
A. One B. Two
C. Three D. Four
12. The periodontal index score when the teeth are
depressible in the sockets:
A. 2 B. 4
C. 6 D. 8
13. Which of the following is not a "Ramjford's tooth":
·A. 16 B. 36
c. 14 D.21
14. The indirect method for measuring attachment loss:
A. Russel's method B. Ramjford' s method
C. Lobene' s method 0 .. Loe' s method
7 A 8 8 9 C 10 A 11 8 12 D 13 C 14 8
15. The tooth to be examined in PDI when 21 is missing:

A. 11 B. 22
C. 31 D.None
16. An ESI score of (20,3.0), has to be interpreted as:
A. 20 teeth examined show 3 mm attachment loss
B. 20 sites examined show 3 mm attachment loss
C. 20o/o of sites examined have disease and 3 mm is the
average attachment loss
D. 20 sites have gingival inflammation and 3 sites have
1
attachment loss
17. The NIDCR probe has markings separated by:
A. 1 mm B.·2 mm .
C. 3 rr. nl n L1 ..._, e --:1:
YnYn
.L.I.LL.I.L
18. The NIDCR method for furcation assessment of

maxillary posteriors uses:
A. Naber's probe B. No.17 explorer
C. No.23 explorer D. William's probe
19. The prevalence of which of the following increases
with age:
A. Attachment loss B. Periodontal pocketing
20. Which of the following is· not a risk factor for
periodontal disease:
A. Smoking B. Nutritional deficiency
C. Type I diabetes D. Type II diabetes
21. The primary pathogen for localized aggressive
periodontitis is:
A. Bactericides forsythus
B. ·Prevotella inb?rmedia
C. Actinobacillus
D. Spirochaetes actinomycetem comitans
15 D 16 C 17 B 18 B 19 A 20 B 21 C
Epidemiology of Periodontal Diseases 25
22. The periodontal pathogenicity of Actinobacillus

actinomycetemcomitans is primarily attributed to its
production of:
A. Collagenase
B.· Hyluronidase
C. Leukotoxin
D. Platelet aggregation factor
·23. Depressed neutrophil chaemotaxis is seen in:
A. Localized. aggressive periodontitis
B. Generalized aggressive periodontitis
D. None ·of the above
22 c 23 c
Clinical Features of
Gingivitis
1. The tissue change seen in chronic gingivitis:

A. Reparative B. Destructive
C. Both of the above None of the above
2. Leathery consistency of gingiva is caused by:
A. Fibrosis of connective tissue
B. Epithelial proliferation
3. Vesicle formation in gingiva is caused by:
A. Degeneration of collagen
B. Degeneration of ground substance
C. Rupture of epithelial cell walls
D. Vascular degeneration in connective tissue
4. The severity of recession is measured as the distance
between: ,
A. Gingival margin and cementoenamel-junction
B. Cementoenamel junction and bottom of pocket·
C. Bottom of the pocket and gingival margin
D. Gingival margin and bottom of pocket
5. The earliest · clinical sign of chronic gingival
inflammatiol).: ·
A. Erythema B. Loss of stippling
C. Oedema D. Bleeding on probing
1 c 2 c 3 c 4 B 5 D
Clinical Features of Gingivitis 27
6. The predominant inflammatory cell in gingival sites

that bleed on probing:
A. PMN cell B. Lymphocyte
C. Plasma cell D. Macrophage
7. Clinical sign of active tissue destruction in
periodontitis:
A. Colour change B. Loss of
C. Mobility D. Bleeding on probing
. I
8. Abnormal gingival bleeding can be caused by all of
the following except:
A. Uremia B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hypoprothrombinemia D. Leukaemia
9. nnich of the foiiowing components of gingiva does
not affect its colour:
A. Vascularity B. Ground substance
C. Fibrosis D. Keratinization
10. The gingival colour change · in herpetic P'ina1vnco:.
o--·o ... ··_"...,
tomatitis is:
A. Marginal B. Diffuse
C. Patch-like D. Papillary
11. Whitish gray discolouration of gingival is seen in:
A. Subacute inflammation "
B. · Acute inflammation
C. Severely acute inflammation
D. Chronic inflammation
12. Metallic pigmentation of gingival is treated by:
A. Gingivectomy
B. Gingivoplasty
C. Discontinuing the metal containing drug
D. Reducing inflammation
6 8 7 D 8 8 9 8 10 8 11 C 12 D
13. Endogenous gingival pigmentation can be caused by

all of the following except:
A. Iron B. Bilirubin
C. Melanin D. Tetracycline
14. All of the following can. be induce colour changes in
the gingival except:
A. Diabetes B. Uraemia
C. Pregnancy D. Leukaemia .
15 .. All of the' exogenous factors can cause gingival colour
changes except:
A. Coal dust B. Tobacco·
C. Alchohol D.. Amalgam
16. The prevaience of gingivai recession in people who are
older than 50 years:
· A. 40°/o
17. Which of the following is not an established cause for

gingival recession:
A. Physiologk aging process
B. Cumulative effect of pathological processes
C. Repeated trauma
D. Periodontal disease
18. Gingival abrasion ·is caused by:
A. Faulty 11rushing B. Soft tissue friction
C. Tooth malposition D. High frenal attachment
19. Which of the following is usually not caused by
gingival recession:
A. Hypersensitivity
B. Root caries
C. Periodontal abscess
D. Pulpal hyperaemia
13 D 14 B 15 C 16 D 17 A 18 A 19 C
Clinical Features of Gingivitis 29
20. Alterations of gingival contours are mostly associate.d

with:
A. Recession B. Atrophy
C. Enlargement D. Desquamation
21. Stillman's .clefts are caused by:
A .. Inflammation B. Trauma from occlusion
C. Genetic factors D. Developmental defects
20 C 21 A
Histopathology I
of Gingivitis
1. The preponderant inflammatory cell in severe chronic

· gingivitis:
A. Neutrophil B. Lymphocyte
C. Plasma cell D. Macrophage
2. Which one of the following is decreased in chronically .
inflamed gingiva:
A. P-glucuronidase
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. Acid phosphatase
D. Neutral mucopolysaccharides
3. Vasoactive substances in gingivitis are produced by:
A. Polymorphs B. Basophils
C. Lymphocytes D. Monocytes
4. First cells to be activated in gingivitis:
A. Endothelial cells B. Leukocytes
C .. Fibroblasts D. Epithelial cells.
5. "Subclinical gingivitis" occurs in:
A. Initial lesion B. Early lesion
C. Established lesion D. Advanced lesio.n
6. Junctional epithelium shows formation of retepegs in:
A. Stage I gingivitis B. Stage II gingivitis
C. Stage III gingivitis D. Stage IV gingivitis
1 c 2 D 3 D 4 B 5 A 6 B
Histopathology of Gingivitis 31
7. The predominant inflammatory cell in early lesion:

A. Neutrophil B. T""lymphocyte
C. B-lymphocyte D. Plasma cell
8. In plaque induced gingivitis, vascular proliferatj.on is
seen in:
C. Established lesion D. Advanced lesion
9. Predominant inflammatory cell in stage III gingivitis:
'
A. Neutrophil_ B. T-lymphocyte
C. B-lymphocyte D. Plasma cell
10. Perivascular collagen loss occurs initially in:
A. Stage I gingivitis B. Stage II gingivitis
C. Stage III gingivitis D. Advanced lesion
11. Gingival texture changes are seen in:
C. Established lesion D. Advanced lesion
12. Bleeding on probing starts in:
A. Stage I gingivitis - B. Stage II gingivitis
C. Stage III D. Stage IV gingivitis
7 B 8 B 9 D 10 A 11 C 12 B
Desquamative
Gingivitis
1. The majority of desquamative gingivitis cases are

caused by:
A. Harmonal problems B. Dermatological problems
C. -Drue: eruotions
-'-' .L
D. Traumatic lesions
2. Majority of patients with oral ·lichen planus are:
A. Young females
B. Young males
C. Middle aged and older females
D. Children
3. The proportion of oral lichen planus cases that are run
in dental practice who show cutaneous manifestations:
A. ¥2 B. 1/3 rd
C. JA th D. 2/3 rds
4. The percentage of oral lichen planus cases that are
restricted to gingiva:
A. 10°/o B. 20°/o
C. 30°/o D. 40°/o
5. Gingival lic.hen planus presents as:
A. Vesicular lesions
B. Bullous lesions
C. Erosive lesions
D. All of the above
1 8 2 c 3 .B 4 A 5 D
Desquamative Gingivitis 33
6. If a case of desquamative gingivitis on histological

examination presents with replication of basal lamina
with subepithelial vesicle formation, the causative·
disease could be:
A. Lichen planus
B. Pemphigus
C. Bullous pemphigoid
D. All of the above
7. Which of the following is used· in the treatment for
localized lesions· of pemphigoid:
A. Topical steroids
B. Tetracycline
C. Nicotinamide
D. All of the above
8. Desquamative gingivitis is unusual in:
A. Lichen planus
B. Erythema multiforme
C. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
9. In maintainance phase of oral pemphigus, oral
prophlaxis should be preceeded by intake of:
A. Antibiotics
B. Prednisone
C. Vitamins
D. Analgesics
10. If a patient with erosions surrounded by erythema of
gingiva and lateral borders of the tongue is positive
for SES-ANA on immunofluorescent test, the probable
diagnosis is:
A. Erythema multiforme
B. Lichen planus
C. Chronic ulcerative stomatitis
D. Pemphigoid .
6 c 7 0 8 8 9 8 10 c
11. When a patient with desquamative gingivitis presents

with plaques that are surrounded at the borders by
white radiating lines on buccal mucosa and diffuse
.deep inflammatory infiltrate with perivascular pattern
in lamina propria, the probable diagnosis is:
A. Chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
B. Pemphigus
C. Pemphigoid
I

with haemorrhagic crusting the 'tips and negative
immunofluorescent test, the possible diagnosis is:
A. Erythema multiforme B. Pemphigus
C. Pemphigoid u SLE
with poikiloderma, Photosensitivity and acral atrophy,
the possible diagnosis is:
A. Wegener's granulomatosis
B. Kindler syndrome
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Tuberous sclerosis
14. All of the following can clinically present as
desquamative gingivitis except:
A. Lichen planus
Cicatricial pemphigoid
C. Dermatitis herpetiformis
D. Psoriasis
11 A 12 A 13 B 14 D
Gingival Enlargements
and Their Treatment
1. The recurrence rate of pyogenic granuloma is around:

A. 5°/o B. 15°/o
C. 25°/o D. 50o/o
2. True leukaeiuic gingival enlargement occurs commoniy
in:
A. Acute leukaemia B.· ·Chronic leukaemia
3. Pathognomonic clinical feature of gingival peripheral
giant cell granuloma:
A. Sessile lesion
B. Multilobulated appearance
C. Ulceration
4. Gingival cysts occur most often on:
A. Buccal surface
B. Labial surface
C. Lingual surface
D. Interdental areas
5. Gingival cysts occur in which of the following areas:
A. Maxillary canine
B. Mandibular premolar
C. Maxillary molar
D. Mandibular third molar
1 8 2 A 3 D 4 c 5 8
6. The most common malignant tumor of gingiva:

A. Squamous cell carcinoma
.B. Malignant melanoma ·
C. Sarcoma
D. Angiosarcoma
7. The pe.rcentage of gingival cancers among oral cancers:
A. 6°/o B. 16°/o
C. 26°/o D. 36°/o
8. Malignanf melanoma of oral cavity tends to occur in:
A. Children B. Adolescents
C. Adults D. Old persons
9. Developmental gingival enlargement is:
A. Idiopathic
B. Familial
C. Seen during tooth eruption
D. Disease of tooth follicle
10. Which of the following can cause gingival enlarge-
ment as· a sole factor:
A. · Pregnancy B. Puberty
C. Leukaemia D. All of the above
11. When the gingival enlargement covers three quarters
of the crown, it is scored as:
A. Grade I· B. Grade II
C. Grade III D. Grade IV
12. Chronic discrete inflammatory gingival enlargement
occurs on:.
A. Interproximal gingiva B. Marginal gingiva
C. Attached gingiva D. Any of the above
13. Drug induced gingival enlargement starts in:
A. Interdental papilla B. Marginal gingiva
C. Attached gingiva D. Any of the above
6 A 7 A 8 D 9 C 10 C 11 C 12 D . 13 A
Gingival Enlargements and Their Treatment 37
14. Drug induced gingival enlargement is more severe in:

A. Anterior region B. Premolar region
. C. Molar· region D. areas
15. After discontinuation of causative drug, the gingival
enlargement undergoes spontaneous disappearance.
within few:
A. Days B. Weeks
C. Months . D .. Years
16. Lobulated mulberry-shaped gingival enlargement is
characteristic of: · ·
A. Inflammatory gingival enlargement
B. Drug-induced gingival enlargement
C. Combined gingival enlargement
D. All of the above
17. In drug-induced gingival hyperplasia
occurs in:
A. Connective tissue
R
-. Rn1thol1t1r.n
.......t'.&.,ll,..&.
D. None of. the above
18. Phenytoin-induced gingival enlargement frequently
occurs in patients who are:
A. Young B. Young old
C. Old D. Old old
19. The daily dose of cyclosporin that can cause gingival
enlargement is greater than:
A. 200 mg B. 300 mg
C. 400 mg D. 500 mg·
20. Cyclosporin-induced gingival enlargement, is more
frequent in:
C. Adults D. Old people
14 A 15 C 16 B 17 C 18 A 19 D 20 A
'·,.'
... ,
[·l
p
I
I
38 MCQs in Perio.dontology
21. The gingival enlargement caused by which of the

following drugs is dose dependent:
A. Phenytoin. B. Cyclosporin
C. E thotoin D. All of the above
22. All the parts of gingiva are enlarged in:
A. Inflammatory enlargement
B. Drug-induced enlargement
C. Combined enlargement
D. Idiopathic enlargement
23. Projection of gingival enlargement into vestibule is
seen in severe cases of:
A. Inflammatory enlargement
B. Drug-induced enlargement
C. Combined enlargement
D. Idiopathic enlargement
24. Which of the following increase in subgingival plaque
of pregnant women:
A. .Actinobacillus
B. Prevotella intermedia
C. Eiknella corrodens
D. Fusobacterium nucleatum
25. Pregnancy tumor usually appears after which month
of pregnancy:
A. 3rd B. 4th
C. 5th D. 6th
26. Gingival enlargement in pregnancy is called:
A. Angioma B. Fibroma
C. Angiofibroma D. Giant cell granuloma
27. Puberty associated gingival enlargement occurs in:
A. Male adolescents B. Female adolescents
21 8 22 D 23 D 24 8 25 A 26 C 27 C ·
Gingival Enlargements and Their Treatment 39
28. Pseudomembrane formation and spontaneous bleeding

are commonly seen in:
A. ANUG
B. Vitamin C deficiency gingivitis
29. Scarcity of collagen fibres and fibroblasts is a charac-
teristic feature of gingival enlargement associated with:
A. Vitamin1 C deficiency B. Phenytoin
C. Nifidipine D .. Sodium valproate
30. Plasma cell gingivitis involves:
A. Marginal gingiva B. Attached gingiva
31. · Fibromas of gingiva arise from:
A. Gingival connective tissue
B. Periodontal ligament
C. Any of the above
32. Gingival papilloma arises from:·
A. Epithelial cells B. Connective tissue
C. Ground substance D. All of. the above
33. The B.P. blade used for removal of tumor-like gingival
enlargements:
A. No. 11 B. No. 12
C. No. 15 D. No. 21
34. Minimum time required for possible resolution of
· gingival · enlargement, after discontinuation of
causative drug:
A. 6 days B. 6 weeks
C. 6 months D. 6 years
28 C 29 A 30 C 31 C 32 A 33 8 34 C
35. The prevalence of Nifidi pine-induced . gingival

enlargement is up to:
A. 44o/o B. 54o/o
c. 64°/o D. 74°/o
36. The maximum number of teeth that can be treated by
gingivectomy in drug-induced enlargement:
A. 3 B. 6
C. 9 D. 12
37. The minimum distance to be maintained between
internal level incision and· mucogingival junction
while treating drug-induced enlargements . is:
A. lmm B. 2 mm
C. 3 mm 0.4 mm
38. Leukaemic gingival enlargement is treated by:
A. Flap surgery
B. Gingivectomy
C. Scaling and root planning
D. Electrosurgery
35 A 36. 8 37 C 38 C
Gingival Diseases
in Children
1. The width of attached gingiva:

C. Doesn't alter with age
D. Initially decreases and later increases with age
2. The gingiva in children shows all of the following
except:
A. Fibrillar connective tissue
B. Well forrned retepegs
C. Well· for.med collagen bundles
D. Nonkeratinized epithelium covering the col
3. Which of . the following is not correct about
periodontium .in children:
A. It is wider than in adults
B. The lamina dura is more prominant
C. The marrow spaces are wider
D. The trabeculae are thinner
4. The gingival sulcus develops:
A. When the crown penetrates oral mucosa
B. When 1h of the crown has erupted
C. When 3A of the crown. has erupted
D. When the complete crown has erupted
1 A 2 c 3 D 4 A
5. Which of the following is a more common expression

of gingivitis in children:
A. Colour change
B. Bleeding
C. Increased ROCket depth
D,. Mobility. .
The gingival response to plaque is markedly less in:
A. Preschool children B. Puberty period
C. Adolescence D. Pregnancy
I
7. Calculus formation is more common and severe

in children with:
A. Hypophosphatasia
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Tuberous sclerosis ·
D. Lazy leukocyte syndrome
8. ·Eruption gingivitis is caused by:
A. Plaque B. Pressure
C. Trauma . D. Harmonal changes
9. The inflammatory infiltrate of chronic gingivitis in
children consists mostly of:
A. Neutrophils B. Lymphocytes
C. Plasma cells D. Mast cells
10. Pubertal gingivitis occurs in:
A .. Males B. Females
C. B6-th of the above D. None of the above
11. Incidence of ANUG in childhood is:
A. Low B. Moderate
C. High D. Very high
·s A 6 A 7 8 8 A 9 8 10 C 11 A
Chronic
Periodontitis
1. Chronic periodontitis occurs· in:.

C. Adults D. All of the above
2. Chronic periodontitis is:
A. Infectious B. Contagious
C. Transmissible D. None of the above
3. Bone loss that is seen in chronic periodontitis:
A. Horizontal B. Vertical
n....., • 1\.T,-,.....,.,.. ,-,.C 4-hn. ..,.J.,.,..,..n,.,.
J. VJ. auv v
4. Chronic periodontitis is:

A. Tooth specific B. Area specific
C. Site specific D. Mouth specific
5. The onset of chronic periodontitis occurs at:
A. Childhood B. Adolescence
C. Adulthood D. Anytime
6. Inflammatory periodontal disease is caused by plaque
accumulation on the surface of:
A. Tooth B. Gingiva
7. B.forsythus, B.gingivals and T.denticola are together
called as:
A. White complex B. Red complex
C. Green complex D. Yellow complex
1 D 2 A 3 c 4 c 5 D 6 c 7 B
·8. Which of the following is incorrect about smokers

when compared to nonsmokers:
A. They develop deeper pockets
B. Furcation involvements are more
C. Subgingival calculus formation is less in them
D. They show less bleeding on probing
8 D
Aggressive
Periodontitis
1. The HLA that is consistently associated with

aggressive periodontitis:
A. A7 B. B7
c.· A9 D. B9
2. Aggressive periodontitis is more prevalent in:
A. American whites B. American brunnets
C. Indo-Americans D. African-Americans
3. Permanent teeth, other than incisors and first molars,
that are affected in localized aggressive periodontitis,
should not ·be more than: -
A. One B. Two
C. Three D. Four
4. Strong antibody· response to infecting organisms is a
characteristic of:
A. Chronic periodontitis
B. Localized_ aggressive periodontitis
C. Generalised aggressive periodontitis
D. Gingivitis
5. Hypoplastic cementum is seen in:
A. Chronic gingivitis
B. Chronic periodontitis ·
C. Localized aggressive periodontitis
D. Generalised aggressive periodontitis
1 c 2 D 3 8 4 8 5 c
46 ·McQs in Periodontology
6. Deep pockets without clinical inflammation is a

striking feature of:
B. Localized aggr.essive periodontitis
C. Leukaemia
D. Diabetes
7. Mineralization of subgingival plaque is rare in:
A. Gingivitis
B. Chronic periodontitis
C. Localized aggressive periodontitis
D. Diabetes
8. The prevalence of localized aggressive periodontitis is
less than:
A. 1% B.2%
C. 3°/o D. 4o/o
6 B 7 c 8 A
Role of Systemic
Diseases in the
Aetiology of
Periodontal Diseases
1. Which of the following systemic diseases can initiate

destructive periodontitis:
A. Diabetes B. Vitamin C deficiency
C. Both of the above . D. None of the above
NUTRITIONAL DEFICIENCIES
2. Carbohydrates in the diet may influence plaque
bacterial:
A. Growth B. Attachment
C. Colonization D. All of the above
3. Keratinizing metaplasia of epithelium is caused by:
A. Vitamin A deficiency B. Vitamin B deficiency
C.· Vitamin C deficiency D. None of the above
4. Which of the following is in high content in human
diets and favours formation of thick plaque:
A. Glucose B. Sucrose
C. Fructose D. Mannose
5. Which of the following nutritional deficiency can
aggravate periodontitis in humans:
A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin E
1 D 2 D 3 A 4 8 5 D
6. Which of the following changes in I.O.P.A radiograph

can caused by vitamin D deficiency:
A. Less prominent trabeculae
B. Loss of Lamina dura
C. Increased number of trabeculae
D. Both A and B
7. Which of the following vitamin deficiency can have
modifying effect on gingivitis:
A. ·vitamin1 A B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin D D·. None of the above
8. Which of the following vitamin deficiency can explai:p
oedema in systemic examination: ·
A. Thiamine B. Riboflavin
C. Pyridoxin D. Folic acid
9. If Minute herpetic-like vesicles are 'formed on buccal
mucosa, under the tongue and palate during intraoral
examination, which vitamin deficiency is to be consi-
dered in differentiai diagnosis of such uicers:
A. Thiamin B. Riboflavin
C. Pyridoxin D. Niacin
10. The cause for an angular cheilitis could be:
A. Riboflavin deficiency
.
B. Perleche
C. Both of the above D. None of the ·above
11. ANUG in areas of irritation is a most frequent finding
in:
A. Thiamin deficiency B. Riboflavin deficiency
C. Aniacinosis D. Pyridoxin deficiency
12. Scurvy is more commonly seen in ali of the following
categories except:
A. Infants B. Smokers
C. Alcoholics D. The every elderly
6 8 7 8 8 A 9. A 10 C 11 C 12 8
Role of Systemic Diseases in the Aetiology of PD 49
13. Vitamin C deficiency can effect:

A. Collagen formation B. Osteoid formation
14. Optimal levels of Vitamin C are required to maintain:
A. Integrity of periodontal microvasculature
B. Epithelium's barrier function to endotoxins
15. All the following statements are correct about Vitamin
C deficiency except: · ·
A. These patients do not necessarily 'have gingivitis
B. Gingivitis's is not caused byvitamin_C deficiencyperse
C. Periodontal pockets are caused by Vitamin C deficiency
D. Vitamin C deficiency may worsen the signs of
gingivitis
16. Defensive delimiting connective tissue barrier reaction
to gingival inflammation is reduced in deficiency of:
A. Vitarnin A B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D
ENDOCRINAL PROBLEMS
17. The effect of .hormonal imbalance on periodontal
tissues is:
A. They show manifestations
B. They modify the tissue response to plaque
C. Produce anatomic changes that favour trauma from
occlusion
D. All of the above
18. Periodontal change .that occurs in hypothyroidism:
A. Increased tooth mobility
B. Gingival inflammation
13 C 14 C 15 C 16 C 17 D 18 D
19. Periodontal change in acromegaly:

A. Manifestation of food
B. Hypercementosis impaction
20. Abundant haemosiderin containing macrophages and
giant cells are seen in alveolar bone of:
A. Hyperthyroid patients
B. Hyperp.a;rathyroid patients
C. Luckaemia patients
D. Diabetic patients
21. Radiographic change in the alveolar bone of hyper-
parathyroid patients:
A. Loss of lamina dura
B. Cyst like spaces
C. Widening of periodontal ligament space
D. All of the above
,, !-e
"'-"'-• J._.oss 0.a.f. 1UI
.... ......,.:...,.,..,
..I.I.I..I.J.lCI.
,:1 ..... ..,.,..
U.U..I.CI.
.... -1"1:
U\,.;\,.;UI.;:) J.llo
A. Paget's disease B. Hyperparathyroidism

. C. Osteomalacia D. All of the above
23. Intraoral clinical sign of hyperparathyroidism is:
A. Tooth mobility B. Malocclusion
24. Nonspecific oral change seen in diabetics:
A. Cheilosis B. Burning sensation
C. Xerostomia D. All of the above
25. Periodontal change that may be seen in diabetics with
poor oral hygiene:
A. Periodontal abscess
B. Gingival enlargement
C. Polypoid growths
D. All of the above
19 C 20 8 21 D 22 D 23 C 24 D 25 D
26. How many times higher chance of having periodontal

disease is there in diabetics who are older than 45 years
and are also smokers:
A. 2 times B. 5 times
C. 10 times D. 20 times
27. Which micro-organism in subgingival plaque increases
the risk of periodontitis in diabetic smokers:
A. Bacteroides forsyth us
B. Porphyromonas gingivalis
28. First molars and incisors are the c·ommonly affected
teeth in adolescents in:
A. Juvenile diabetics B. Juvenile periodontitis
· 29. Which of the following statement about diabetics is
incorrect:
A. Poor oral hygiene predisposes to rapid periodontal
destruction
B. Postsurgical healing is retarded
C. Oxygen consumption of gingival is more
30. Microscopic change in gingiva of diabetics is:
A. Thickening of basement lamina in capillaries and pre-
capillary arterioles with narrowing of lumen
B. Increased fuschinophaelia of blood vessels
C. PAS positive reaction of blood vessels
D. All the above
31. When compared to nondiabetics, the nutrient supply
to gingiva in diabetics is:
A. Increased B. Decreased
C. Not altered D. Selective
26 D 27 C 28 C 29 C 30 0 31 8
·52 MCQs in Periodontology
1
32. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
diabetics:
A. Crevicular fluid glucose levels increase
B. Crevicular fluid cyclic AMP levels decrease
C. Salivary glucose increases
33. Severity of gingival inflammation in diabetics can be
explained by:
A.· Decreased AMP levels in crevicular fluid
B. Thickening of basement lamina of capillaries
C. Increased fuschinophaelia of blood vessels
D. PAS positive reaction of blood vessels·
34. Commonlv found stib2iiudval
J ·-·-o o .- nlaoue organisms in
diabetics:
A. Capnocytophaga B. Vibrios
C. _Actinomyces D. All of the above
35. Reason for increased susceptibility to infections in
. . . .. .
ataoencs ts:
A. Defective chaemotoxis :of PMN leukocytes
B. Reduced phagocytic capability of PMN leukocytes
C. Reduced adhesion capability of PMN leukocytes
D. All of the above
36. Exaggerated response to· local irritants is seen:
A. Preceding puberty B. Accompanying puberty
C. 1 year after puberty D. At 19 years of age
37. Gingival changes during the menstruation are:
A. Common B. Occasional
C. Always present D. Not seen
38. Gingival changes during menstruation may be related
to history of:
A. Pregnancy B. Ovaripn dysfunction
C. Epilepsy D. Respiratory infection
32 D 33 A 34 D 35 D 36 8 37 8 38 · 8
39. Prevalence of gingivitis increased during:

A. Pregnancy
B. Puberty
C. Menstruation
D. All the above
·- --
40. Which of the following · will increase during
menstruation:
A. Exudate from inflamed gingiva
B. Salivary bacterial count
C. Both the -above
41. Which of the following statements is incorrect
regarding pregnancy:
A. Pregnancy itself will not cause gingivitis
B. It accentuates the gingival response to plaque
C. Notable changes occur in the gingiva in the absence
of local factors
D. Gingivitis in pregnancy is caused by bacterial plaque
42. Select the most appropriate answer. In pregnancy the
severity of gingivitis starts increasing during:
A. First month B. Second month
C. 4th month D. 6th month
43. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
pregnancy:
A. The severity of gingivitis is greatest between 2nd
and 3rd trimesters.
B. The severity of gingivitis decreases during 9th
month
C. Plaque accumulation is more severe during 8th
month than 9th month
D. The Correlation between plaque accumulation and
gingivitis is more during pregnancy than after
parturition.
39 0 40 C 41 C 42 B 43 0
l
54 MCQsin Periodontology
44. Which of the following is not increased during

pregnancy:
A. Crevicular fluid flow B. Tooth mobility
C. Incidence of gingivitis D. Pocket depth
45. The time gap required after pregnancy for the gingival
condition to come back to a position comparable to
that of patients who .have not been pregnant is:
A. 1 month B. 3 months
C. 6 months D. 1 year
46. Most striking clinical feature in pregnancy gingivitis
is:
A. Colour change
B. Pronounced ease of bleedin2:
v
C. Loss· of stippling
D. Oedematous appearance
47. The gingival changes in pregnancy are usually:
A. Painful
n -,: r.,.,. .....,T :_£. •1
u, V t:J. J pct11UU1
C. Excruciatingly painful
D. Painless
48. Raspberry like appearance of gingiva . is sometimes
present in:
A. Leukemia B. Puberty
C. Pregnancy D. Dilantin enlargement
49. Histopathological feature of pregnancy gingivitis:
A. Nonspecific, vascularising and proliferative inflam-
mation
B. Oedema and degeneration of epithelium and
connective tissue
C. Reduced keratinization and hyperplastic epithelium
with accentuated rete pegs
D. ·All the above
44 C 45 D 46 8 47 D 48 C 49 D
50. Which of the following subgingival microorganisms

increase significantly during pregnancy:
A. Prevotella intermedia B. Streptococci
C. Staphylococci D. Actinomyces species
51. The aggravation of gingivitis in pregnancy is princi-
pally attributed to increased .levels of:
A. Oestrogen B. Oestradiol
C. Progesteron I D. Prolactin
52. The severity ;of gingivitis in pregnancy:
A. Is indirectly proportional to· hormone levels
B. Varies with hormonal levels
·C. Does not correlate with hormone levels
D. Poorly correlated with hormone levels
53. Which of the following is a target organ for female sex
harmones:
A. Genital tract B. ·Gingiva
C:Ll
"""""
Tn ...,. ...
.L.LL
........... T
Y.L'-o.LLA..I.L"- J on-: .... on-: . . T: ..:....
5.1..1.15.1. y .I.I..Lo, r
.. p-.u"'-J.tP
o-"' - -
WJ.!1J.1J.
-
.... -u-;;:;.iO];-.-
... d.
""""
A. Vascular dialatation
B. Vascular stagnation
C. Increased vascular susceptibility to injury
D. All of the above
55. Destruction of which of the following gingival cells
by sex hormones explains the exaggerated inflamma-
tory response in pregnancy gingivitis:
A. Neutrophils B. Basophils
C. Mast cells D. Oesinophils
56. Which of the following statements is correct about
hormonal contraceptives:
A. They cause gingivitis
.B. They aggravate gingival response to irritants
C. They have no effect on gingivitis
50 A 51 C 52 8 53 C 54 D 55 C 56 8
56. MCQs in Periodontology
57. Harmonal contraceptives can increase periodontal

destruction after using for:
A. 1 month B. 6 months
C. 1 year D. 1lh year
58. In menopause the gingival epithelium shows:
A. Atrophy . B. Hypertrophy
C. Hyperplasia D. Neoplasia
59. When compared to control subjects gingival inflam-
mation in renal transplant patients on immunosup-
pressive therapy is:
A. More B. Less ··
C. Same D. Very severe
· HAEMA TOLOGICAL DISORDERS

60. Leukaemic gingival enlargement is caused by:
A. Fibrosis
B. Hyperplasia of fibroblasts
C. Leukaemic cell infiltration
D. Hypertrophy of fibroblasts
·61. Highest" incidence of leukaemic gingival proliferative
lesions are . found. in:
A .. Acute myelocytic leukemia
B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia ·
C. Acute monocytic leukemia
D. Chronic monocytic leukemia
62. Leukemia infiltration enlargement is not found in:
A. Edentulous patients B. Chronic leukemia
63. In leukemia infiltration of immature leukocytes may
be found in:
A. Marginal gingiva B. Attached gingiva.
57 D 58 A 59 B 60 C 61 C 62 C 63 C
64. In leukaemic gingival involvement the cellular

accumulation is denser in:
A. Reticular layer B. Papillary layer
C. Basal lamina D. Prickle cell layer
65. In leukaemia infiltration of immature leukocytes may
be seen in:
A. Gingiva B. Periodontal ligament
C. Alveolar bone D. All of the above
I
66. Cause for increased gingival .bleeding ·in leukaemic
patients can be:
A. Decreased platelets due to replacement of bone
marrow by leukaemic cells
B. Inhibition of normal stem cell function
C. Both of ·the above
67. Pronounced infiltration of immature leukocytes in
addition to usual inflammatory cells in areas of
gingivai infiammation is seen in:
A. Leukemia B. TJlrombocytopaenia
C. Megaloblastic anaemia D. Agranulocytosis
68. Inflammed gingiva in leukaemic patients is:
A. Spongy B. Firm
C. Fibrotic D. Fibro-oedematous
69. Microscopic change· in gingiva in chronic leukaemia
may consist of of:
A. Immature polymorphs B. Lymphocytes
C. Blast cells D; Plasma cells
70. The absence of leukaemic involvement of. gingiva rules
out:
A. leukemia B. Anaemia
C. Thrombocytopaenia D. None of the above
64 A 65 D 66 C 67 A 68 .A 69 8 70 D
71. Which of the following is not a feature of

thrombocytopaenia:
A. Swollen, soft and friable gingiva
B. Spontaneous or easily provoked gingival bleeding
C. Petichae or haemorrhagic vesicles on palate and
buccal mucosa
D. Gingival condition not relieved by removal of local
factors
CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASE
72. Which of the following changes are common in the
blood vessel walls of inflamed periodontal tissues in
·A. Thickening of intima

B. Thickening of media
C. Hyalinization · and calcification of media and
adventitia
D. ..L\11 of the above
73. Which of the following oral changes are seen in
Tetrology of Fallot :
A. Purplish red discolouration of gingva and lips .
B. Coated and fissured tongue ·with extreme
reddenging of papillae
C. Severe marginal gingivitis and periodontal
destruction
D. All of the above
74. Marked inflammation of gingiva in anterior part of the
mouth is seen in:
A. Mouth breathing
B. Coarctation of aorta
71 D 72 D 73 D 74 C
METAL INTOXICATION
75. Bluish black linear pigmentation of inflamed marginal
gingiva with ulcerative gingivostomatitis suggests:
A. Lead intoxication . B. Bismuth intoxication
C. Gold salts intoxication D. Benzene intoxication
76. Ulceration of gingiva with recrosis of alveolar bone
and exfoliation of teeth occurs in intoxication with:
A. Arsenic I
B. Phosphorous
C. Chromium D. AU of the above
77. Which of the following can reduce periodontal tissue
resistance:
A. Syphilis B. Tuberculosis
C. Chronic nephritis D. All of the above
78. In patients with leprosy, Mycobacterium leprae:
A. Has not been found in gingiva
B. Sometimes found in gingiva
C. Always- found in ......g:in2:ival
......
D .. Veryfrequently found in gingiva
79. Periodontal !lora _can be a source of origin for:
A. Pulmonary tuberculosis
B. Leproma to us leprosy
C. Pulmonary actinomycosis
D. Syphilis
80. Way by which psychosomatic disorders can· be induced
in oral cavity:
A. Through development of habits that are harmful to
periodontal health like Bruxism
B. By direct affect of autonomic nervous system on
physiological tissue balance
75 8 76 D 77 D 78 A 79 C ·ao C
Note:
Explanation for bit 31
It is decreased due to narrowing of lumen of blood vessels.
Explanation for bit 33

Cyclic AMP reduces gingival inflammation.
Periodontal
Diagnostic Procedures
1. ·The minimum number of intraoral periapical radio-

graphs to be. taken for radiographic survey of perio-
dontium:
A. 10 B. 14
c. 17 D. 21
2. In UCLA periodontal chart blue colour is used to
indicate:
A. Bleeding on probing B. Defective restorations
C. Caries D. Existing restorations
3. Periodontal screening and recording method is
designed for:
A. General dental practitioners
B. Periodontists
C. General medical practitioners
D. All of the above
4. The gingival abscess is seen in:
A. Marginal gingival B. Attached gingiva
5. The number of sites that are examined for each "tooth
in PSR:
A. One B. Two
C. Four D. Six
1 8 2 D 3 A 4 A 5 D
6. Code 4 in PSR indicates the need for:

A. Oral hygiene improvement
B. Scaling
C. Periodontal surgery
D. Periodontal charting
7. Which of the following radiographs is essential for
periodontal diagnosis and treatment planning:
A. ·Intraoral full mouth series
B. Orthopantomograph
C. Panoramic radiograph·
D. Any of the above
8. Halitosis is caused by putrifaction of:
A. Carbohvdrates
j
B. Proteins
C. Lipids D. All of the above
9. Which of the following doesn't cause lymph nodal
enlargement:
A. Plaque induced gingivitis
B. ANUG
C. Herpetic gingivostomatitis .
D. Pericoronitis
10. Physiological tooth mobility is greatest in:
A. Mornings B. Afternoons
C. Evenings D. Nights
11. Teeth that show highest mobility:
A. Incisors B. Canines
C. Premolars D. Molars
12. Abnormal tooth mobility most often occurs in:
A. Mesiodistal direction B. Faciolingual direction
C. Vertical direction D. None of the above
13. Tooth mobility is increased during:
A. Puberty B. Pregnancy
C. Ovulation D. Menopause
6 D 7 A 8 8 9 A 10 A .11 A 12 8 13 8
Periodontal Diagnostic Procedures 63
14. Biological depth of a pocket is the distance between:

A. CEJ and base of the pocket
B. Gingival margin and coronal end of J.E
C. Gingival margin and apical end of J.E
D. Gingival margin and CEJ
15. Accurate probing force is:
A. 0.25N B. O.SN
C. 0.75N D. lN
I
16. Bleeding more readily on probing is an indicator _of
active destruction in:
A .. Chronic periodontitis B. Aggressive periodontitis
17. The stain that can be used in measuring the width of
gingiva:
A. Bismark brown B. Ninhydrin
C. Schiller's potassium D. Erythrocin
18. The percentage of periodontal sites that show purulent
exudates is around:
A. So/o ·B. 10°/o
19. Which of the following is not a good indicator of

progressive periodontal lesions:
A. Easily bleeding on probing
B. Increased fluid exudate
C. Purulent exudate from pockets
D. Increased spirochaete count in plaque
14 8. 15 C 16 A 17 C 18 A 19 C
Prognosis
I
1. Prognosis for a smoker with severe periodontitis, when

he stops smoking:
A. Good B. Fair
c. Poor D. Questionable
2. When surgical periodontal treatment is required but
cannot be done due to patients disease, the
prognosis is:
A. Fair ,B. Poor
C. Questionable .D. Hopeless
3. Genetic factors play a role in the aetiology of:
B. Aggressive periodontitis
4. The risk for severe chronic periodontitis is more in
patients with genetic polymorphism of:
A. Interleukin-I gene B. Interleukin-2 gene
C. Complement-1 gene D. Complement-2 gene
5. Which of the following does not affect periodontal
prognosis:
A. Enamel pearl · B. Enamel projection
C. ridge D. Telon's cusp
1 8 2 c 3 c 4 A 5 D
Prognosis 65
6. Cervical enamel projections are most commonly found

on buccal surfaces of:
A. Maxillary first molars
B. Maxillary second molars
C. Mandibular first molars
· D. Mandibular second molars .
7. Access to furcation is most difficult for:
A. Maxillary first premolar
B. Maxillary second premolar
C. Maxillary first molar
D. Maxillary second molar
8. Tooth mobility caused by which of the following is
not likely to be corrected:
A. Trauma from occlusion
B. Inflammation in periodontal ligament
C. Loss of alveolar bone
D. All of the above
9. New attachment is possibie for:
A. Vital teeth
B. Non-vital teeth
D. None of the above ·
10. Provided· inflammation can be controlled, the prognosis
for moderate periodontitis is generally:
A. Good
B. Fair
C. Poor
D. · Questionable
11. When treated properly, the prognosis for localized
aggressive periodontitis is:
A. Good B. Fair
C. Poor D. Hopeless
6 B 7 A 8 c 9 C 10 A 11 A
12. Which of the following conditions can lead to

development of periodontitis without affecting host
response:
A. Neutropaenia
B. Down's syndrome
C. Hypophosphatasia
D. Papillon-Lefevre syndrome
13. The primary predisposing factor in ANUG:
A. Plaque 1 B. Malnutrition
C. Psychological stress D. Smoking
12 e 1a A
Treatment Plan and
Its Rationale·
1. Which of the following drugs has been shown to slow

down the alveolar bone. loss in periodontitis:
A. Nimesulide B. Rofecoxib
C. Ibuprofen D. Valecoxib
2. The most common factor that defects healing after
periodontal treatment:
A. Plaque
B. Excessive manipulation of tissue
r_. .L.LL""""'""""""''ill,A.f.A.'-""" hln.n.rl couoolJ.
V.I.\J\J\,..1.. CJ l.- .I.-
,T
...
D. Foreign bodies
3. Which of the following does not improve healing after
A. Pressure B. Debridement
C. Immobilization D. Oxygen insufflation
4. Which of the following is not one of the factors that
delay wound healing:
A. Vitamin C deficiency B. Protein deficiency
C. Oestrogen deficiency D. Aging
5. By definition growth of new cells and intercellular
substances to form new tissues is called:
Regeneration B. Repair
C. New attachment D. Reattachment
1 c 2 A 3 D 4 c 5 A
6. Local.treatment procedure that accelerates regeneration

is:
A. Scaling B. Root planning
C. Curettage D. None of the above
7. Repair that occurs after treatment of periapical lesions
is called:
A. Reattachment B. New attachment
C. Epithelial adaptation D. Repair·
8. The cells ftom which of the following should reach
the healing area first for new attachment to occur:
A. Gingival B. Periodontal ligament
C. Alveolar bone D. Cementum
9. l"v1aintainance phase should start after:
A. Preliminary phase B. Phase I
C. Phase II D. Phase III
10. Periodontal disease is an important risk factor for all.
of the following except:
A. Diabetes B. Stroke
C .. Premature delivery D. Hypertension
6 D 7 A 8 8 9 8 10 D
Plaque Control
1. To prevent periodontal inflammation in a periodon-

tally healthy patient, complete plaque removal should
be done every:
A. 12 hours R 'JLl. holl'rc
._, • .,_ .&.L'-'....._..&.L.)'
C. 48 hours D. 6 hours
2. Periodontal lesions are predominantly:
A. Inter dental B.. Buccal
C. Labial D. Lingual
3. Least amounts of dental plaque form on:
A. Labial surfaces B. Lingual surfaces
C. Proximal surfaces D. Buccal surfaces
4. In healthy subjects, dental plaque formation begins
on:
C. Proximal surfaces D. Occlusal surfaces
5. Highest amounts of dental plaque are retained by:
C. Proximal surfaces D. Occlusal surfaces
6. Natural bristles used in toothbrushes are extracted
from:
A. Horses B. Hogs
C. Hares D. Dogs
1 c 2 A 3 8 4 c 5 c 6 8
7. Powered brushes are more beneficial for patients with:

A. ·Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Chronic periodontitis
C. Fixed orthodontic appliances
D. All of the above
s·. Polyvinyl chlorides are used in:
A. Mouthwashes B. Dentifrices
C. Periodontal packs D. Disclosing agents
I
9. The percentage compositiQn of abrasives in a tooth

powder:
· A. 65°/o
c. 85°/o.
10. Which one of the following does not provide
significant therapeutic value when incorporated in a
toothpaste:
A. Fluorides B. Pyrophosphates
C. Chlorhexidine D. All of the above
11. Pyrophosphates incorporated in a toothpaste provide
.(lpticalculus effect on:
A. Supragingival calculus B. Subgingival calculus
.12. The percentage to which supragingival calculus
formation is reduced by pyrophosphates incorporated
into a toothpaste:
A. 20°/o B. 30°/o ·
C. 40°/o D. 50°/o
13. Vibratory pattern of toothbrush bristle movement is
used in:
A. Fone' s technique
B. Leonard technique
C. Bass method
D. Modified· Stillman's technique
7 c 8 B 9 D .10 C 11 A 12 B 13 C
Plaque Control 71
14. The least effective brushing method:

A. Roll technique B. Bass method
C. Scrub technique D. Charter's method
15. The angle that should be established between long
axis of the tooth and bristles in Bass method:
A. 45° B. 55°
C. 65° D. 75°
16. The approximate number of brushing strokes to be
given in each position, in Bass method is:
A. 5 B.. lO
C. 20 D. 25
17. The brushing technique that· should be recommended
for patients with exposed roots: .
A. Fone' s technique
B. Modified Still man's method
C. Bass method
D. Leonard's technique
18. The sides of the bristles take active part while
brushing with:
A. Bass method
- .
B. Modified Still man's method
C. Scrub technique
D. Fone's method
19. The bristles are pointed towards the crown in:
A. Bass method B. Stillman's method
C. Charter's method D. Fone' s method
20. While using powered toothbrush, the bristle should
be placed:
A. At the gingival margin
B. Coronal to gingival margin
C. Apical to gingival margin
D. Under the gingival margin
14 A 15 A 16 C 17 B 18 B 19 C 20 A
21. Brushing technique that completely removes

interdental plaque:
A. Bass method B. Leonard's method
C. Charter's method D. None of the above
22. The percentage of alcohol present in chlorhexidine
mouth rinse:
A. 2°/o
23. Which of 1the following is stained by disclosing

agents:
A. Plaque · B. Pellicle
C. Both of the above D .. None of the above
24. The inter dental aid to be used when the embrassure
is filled with inter dental papilla:
A. Dental floss · B. Wooden tip·
Plastic tip D. None of the above
25. The diameter of bristle in a soft toothbrush is:
A. 0.1 mm B. 0.2 mm
C. 0.3 mm D. 0.4 mm
26. The number of rows· of tufts toothbrush
recommended by Bass:
A. 2 B. 3
c. 4 D. 5
27.. The inter dental aid that has to be used with circular
motion:
A. Dental floss B. Inter dental brush
C. Wooden tip D. Rubber tip
28. Complete plaque removal with toothbrush and other
inter ·dental aids for a periodontal patient requires
around:-
A. 10 minutes B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes D. 40 minutes
21 D 22 D 23 C 24 A 25 8 26 8 27 D 28 C
Plaque Control 73
29. Debris from orthodontic appliances and fixed

prostheses is more effectively removed by:
A. Manual toothbrush B. Rinsing
C. Oral irrigation device D. Powered brush
30. The tip of oral irrigation device recommended for home
use by patients: ·
A. Cannula tip B. Soft rubber tip
(.
31. '0' leary index deals with:

A. Plaque B.· Calculus
C. Stains D. Materia alba
32. Reasonable goal for '0' leary plaque index score:
l\.. lOo/o B. 20°/o
C. 30°/o D. 0°/o
29 C 30 B 31 A 32 A
Instruments· Used in
Periodontal Treatment
1. Instrument used for detection of subgingival deposits:

A. Explorer B. Probe ·
2. The diameter of dental endoscope is:
A. 0.66 mm B. 0.77 mm
C. 0.88 mm D. 0.99 mm
3. Bristle brushes are used for polishing the:
A. Crown B. Root
4. The chemical used in air powder abrasive systems is:
A. Sodium chloride· Sodium bicarbonate
C. Sodium fluoride D. Sodium citrate
5. Air powder abrasive system can be used safely without
causing abrasion on:.
A. Amalgam B. Composites
C. Titanium D. All of the above
6. Air powder abrasive system should not be used in all
of the following patients except:
A. Diabetics
B. Hyperte.nsives
C. Haemodialysis patients
D. Patients with respiratory infections
1 c 2 D 3 A 4 8 5 c 6 A
Instruments Used in Periodontal Treatment 75
7. Which one of the following blades has cutting edges

on both sides:
A. No. 15 B. No: 15C
C. No. 12D D. None of the above
8. Which one of the following. blades can be used with
both pulling and pushing cutting motion in narrow
areas:
A. # 15 B. # 15C
c. # 11 D.# 12D
9. Which one of the following blades is more useful for
giving scalloped incision:
A. No. 11 B. No.12
C. No.15 D. No.15C
10. The electrodes used for planning tissues:
A. Single-wire B. Loop
C. Bulky D. None of the above
11. When one of the following is a natural sharpening
stone:
A. Ruby B. Ceramic
C. Arkansas D. Carborandum
12. In procedure used for sharpening the scalers with
unmounted stone:
A. Stone stabilized and instrument is drawn across it
B. Instrument stabilized and stone is drawn across it
C. Either of the above
13. 'Wire edge' is produced in instruments by sharpening
strokes that are:
A. Away from cutting edge
B. Towards cutting edge
7 c 8 D 9 D 10 B 11 C 12 C 13 A
14. While sharpening instruments with synthetic stones,

the lubricant that has to be used is:
A. Water· B. Oil
C. Any of the above D. None of the above
15. The angle between shank and face in Gracey curette
is:
B. 70°
D. 90°
16. The angle between face and lateral surface of blade is
70° to 80° in:
A. Sickle B. Curette
17. The grasp to be used l-vhile sharpening a sickle with
· a flat stone:
A. Pen grasp B. Modified pen grasp
C. Palm and thumb grasp D. None of the above
18. Instrument for visualization of deposits present in deep
periodontal pockets and furcations:
A. Periotran B. Periochip
C. Perioscope D. Prism Ioupe
19. Morquis colour coded probe has calibrations separated
by:
A. 1 mm B. 2 mm
C. 3 mm D.4 mm
20. The coloured areas in UNC-15 probe are separated by:
A. 2 mm B. 3 mm
C. 4 mm D.S mm
21. The millimeter markings that are missing in William's
probe are:
A. 1 and 3 B. 4 and 6
C. 7 and 9 D. 10 and i2
14 A 15 8 16 C 17 8 18 C 19 C· 20 D 21. 8
22. The second millimeter calibration in WHO probe is

located at:
A. 3.5 mm · B. 5.5 mm
C. 8.5 mm D. 11.5 mm
23. Which of the following sickles can be inserted several
millimeters subgingivally for scaling:
A. Universal B. Jaquette
C. Ball D. NEVI-2
24. Which of the following is not a large sickle:
A. Jaquette B. Indiana university sickle
C. Ball sickle D. Universal sickle
25. Which of the following is not included in reduced set
of Gracey curettes:
A. # 7-8 B. # 9-10
- C. # 11-12 D.# 13-14
26. Which of the following _Gracey curettes is meant for
facial and line:ual surface of. oosterior teeth:
A. # 9-10 B. # 11-12
C. # 13-14 D.# 15..;16
· 27. Which one of the following _Gracey curettes has better
access to mesial surfaces of posterior teeth from front
position with intraoral finger rest:
A. # 11-12 I B. # 13-14
C. # 15-16 D.# 17-18
28. Example of extended shank curette:
A. Barnhart B. Columbia
C. After five D. Standard Gracey
29. Which one of the following curettes has better
adaptation to line angles:
A. Gracey B. Mini five
C. After five D. Langer
22 C 23 D 24 A 25 8 26 A 27 C 28 C 29 D
30. Which one of the following has shank design of

Gracey and blade design of universal curettes:
A. Barnhart B. Mini five
C. After Five D. Langer
31. Example of mini bladed sickle:
A. Morse . B. u·niversal
C. Jaquette D. Ball
32. Periotl'iever is used for:
A. Periosted elevation
B. Removal of broken tips of curettes
C. Measuring crevicular fluid
D. Local drug delivery
33. Two ooint contact is essential for:
&
C. Hoe D. Chisel
34. The blade of a Hoe is bent at an angle of:
A. 45° B. 66°
r
'-•
of\o
7V
D. ggo
35. Which of the following scaler is used for crushing of
calculus:
C. Hoe D .. File
36. Which one o·f the following scalers is activated with
push motion:
C. Hoe D. Chisel
37. 'Cavitation' is a term used in relation to:
A. Osseous surgery B. Curettage
C. Ultrasonic scaling D. Furcation treatment
38. Linear action of the tip is feature of:·
A. Sonic scaler B. Piezo scaler
C. Magnetostrictive D. All of the above
30 D 31 A 32 8 33 C 34 D 35 D 36 D 37 C
38 8
39. Orbital tip action is present in:

A. Sonic scaler B. Magnetostrictive scaler
C. Piezoelectric scaler D. EVA system
40. Elliptical tip . action is present in:
A. Sonic scaler B. Magnetostrictive scaler
· c: Piezoelectric scaler D. All of the above
41. Merrifield knife is used for. giving:
A. Internal bevel incision B. Crevicular incision
C. Interdental incision D. Bevelled incision
42. Active haemorrhage has to be first by:
A. Pressure application B. Electro coagulation
C. Any of the-·above D. None of the above
43. Example for surgical curettes:
A. Barnhart B. Gracey
C. Columbia D. Kramer
44. Which one of the following is a surgical sickle:
A. Morse B" 'J aquette
C. Ball D. NEVI-2
45. The sharpness of an instrument is tested· by drawing
it lightly across:
.A. An acrylic rod B. A carborandum rod
C. Nickle-chrome rod D. A candle
46. Chisels are sharpened with:
A. Pull stroke B. Push stroke
47. Surface of Kirkland knife that has to be sharpened is:
A. Front surface B. Back surface
39 A 40 8 41 C 42 A 43 D 44 C 45 A 46 8
47 8
1. While adapting a curette to 'root surface, the portion
of the blade where pressure has to be concentrated:
A. Toe B. Terminal few millimeters
C. Middle-third D. Upper third
2. Correct tooth-blade angulation for curettage is:
A. 0° B. 45°-goo
C. Less than 45° D. More than goo
3. Ideal angulation for insertion of a curette into sub-
gingival arc is:
A. 0° B. 45°
C. 60° D. goo
4. Horizontal strokes of scaling are selectively used on:
A. Cementoenamel junction
.B. Line angles
C. Abraded areas
D. Eroded areas
5. The scaling motion should preferably be initiated in:
A. Forearm B. Wrist .
C. Palm D. Fingers
6. The blade ·of a Gracey curette curves in:
'A. One plane B. Two planes
C. Three planes D:. Four planes
1 B 2 D 3 A 4 B 5 A 6 B
Instrumentation 81
7. Gracey curettes have:

A .. Push design B. Pull design
8. Which one of the following organisms increase in
number in the subgingival plaque after scaling and
root plann.ng:
A. Actinobacillus B. Prevotella
C. Porphyro:t,nonas D. Coccoids
9. When working without assistant, suction can be
achieved through:
A. Saliva ejector B. Aspirator
The most stable grasp for periodontal instruments:
A. Palm and thumb- grasp B. Pen grasp
C. Modified pen grasp D. Fork grasp
11. While using modified pen grasp, the index finger is
bent at:
A. First joint B. Second joint
C. Both at the above D. None of the above
12. The term 'built up' fulcrum refers to:
A. Thumb and index finger
B. Index finger and middle .finger
C. Middle finger and ring finger
D. Ring finger and little finger
13. While using Gracey curette, parallelism should be
maintained between surface to be scaled and:
A. Lower shank B. Upper shank
14. Extraoral fulcrums are used for scaling of:
A. Maxillary anteriors B. Maxillary posteriors
c. Mandibular anteriors D. Mail.dibular posteriors
7 c 8 D 9 A 10 C 11 8 12 C 13 A 14 8
15. The difference in shank lengths of Gracey and after

five curettes is:
A. 1 mm B. 2 mm
C. 3 nun D.4 mm
16. The amplitude of oscillation in sonic scaler tip:
A. 10 J.Im B. 100 J.Im
C. 1000 J.Im D. 10000 J.Im
17. Good adaptation of instrument to root surface is
relatively less important in:
A. Hand scaling
B. Root planning with hand instruments·
C. Ultrasonic scaling
D. Sonic scaling
18. The insert of magnetostrictive scaler is made up of:.
A. Quartz crystal
B. Ferrite
C. Nickle
D. ChrowiuwL
19. Which one of the following is altered by increasing
power setting in ultrasonic scaler:
'A. Frequency_of vibration
B. Amplitude of vibration
C. Pattern of tip motion
D. All of the above
20. Sonic scalers can be used safely if the forces applied
do not ·exceed:
A. 1 N B. 2 N
C. 3 N D. 4 N
21. The scaler that can interfere with cardiac pacemakers:
A. Piezo B. Magnetostrictive ·
C. Sonic D. All of the above
15 C 16 C 17 D 18 8 19 8 20 8 21 8
Instrumentation 83
22. While doing ultrasonic· scaling for mandible, the

approximate angle between back rest and floor should
be:
A. 90° B. 45°
c. 60° D. 70°
23. Ultrasonic scaling is done with:
A. Nonoverlapping vertical strokes
B. Overlapping vertical strokes
C. Nonoverlapping horizontal strokes
D. Overlapping horizontal strokes
24. The side of the ultrasonic scaler tip that should be used
for scaling:
A. Convex side
\
B. Concave side
25. Instrument used for supragingival scaling is:
C. Hoe D. All of the above
22 8 23 D .24 A 25 D
Phase-I -Periodontal
.Therapy
SCALING AND ROOT PLANNING

1. Scaling process removes:
A. Calculus B. Plaque
2. Instrument used for detection of subgingival calculus:
A. Probe B. Explorer
. 3. lhe distance between apicai edge of caicuius and
bottom of the pocket is usually less than:
A. 1 mm B. 2 mm
C. 3 mm D.4 mm
4. Which one for the following instruments is not used
for subgingival scaling:
A. Sickle B. Hoe
C. Chisel D. All of the above
5. Instrument used for crushing of subgingival calculus:
A. After five curette · B. Oschenbein chisel
C. Hirsch field- file D. Ball- sickle
6. The portion of tooth covered by calculus or altered
cementum is called:
A. Pathologic zone B. Toxic zone
C. Deposit zone D. Instrumentation zone
1 c 2 c 3 A 4 c 5 c 6 D
Phase-1-Periodonta/ Therapy 85
7. Ultrasonic scaler can be used for all of the following

purposes except:
A. Scaling
· B. Curettage
C. Gingivoplasty
D. Correction of overhanging margins of restorations
8. Before ultrasonic scaling chlorhexidine rinsing should
be done for:
A. 20 Seconds
I
B. 30 Seconds
C. 40 Seconds D .. 60 Seconds
9. Aerosol is produced by:
A. Ultrasonic scaler B. Sonic scaler
10. Aerosol produced by ultrasonic scaling remains in the
air for a minimum period:
A. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes
C. 20 minutes D. 30 minutes
11. Fulcrum used for ultrasonic scaling of maxillary teeth:
A. Extraoral
B. Intraoral
12. Clinical evaluatio.n of ·soft tissue response to scaling
should not be done earlier than:
A. 1 week B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks D. 4 weeks
13. The ultimate evaluation of scaling and root planning
is done by checking:
A. Smoothness of root surface
B. Tissue response
C. Patient's response
D. With microsurgical loupes
7 c 8 D 9 C 10 D 11 A 12 8 13 8
14. Anti-infective .periodontal treatment involves:

A. Debridement
B. Antimicrobial therapy
15. The standard probing depth, which requires referral to
periodontist, at the time of evaluation of phase 1:
A. 5 mm B. 6 mm
C. 7 mm D. 8 mm
14 C 15 A
Role of Antimicrobials
in Periodontal Therapy
1. Which of . the following conditions require

antimicrobials as adjunctive therapy:
A. Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease
B. Aggressive periodontitis
.............. .L
C. Advanced chronic periodontitis

D. All of the above
2. Which of the following methods will provide greater
concentrations of antimicrobia-ls in periodontal
pockets:
A. SystemiC administration orally
B. Systemic administration parenterally
C. Local. administration inside the pocket
D. Topical application on gingiva
3. Tetracyclines are very useful in controlling periodontal
destruction because they reduce:
A. Bone and coilagen destruction
B. Periodontal pathogens
4. Which of the follQwing drugs .is not used locally in
treating periodontal disease:
A. Tetracycline B. Doxycycline
C. Chlorhexidine D. Amoxycillin
1 D 2 c 3 c 4 D
5. Augmentin is more effectively used against:

A. Anaerobic organisms
, B. Gram-negative organisms
C. Penicillinase producing organisms
Fungi
6. Which of the following drugs is used for host
modulation in treating periodontal disease:
A. Doxycycline B. Amoxycillin
C. D. Metronidazole
7. Which .of the following antibiotics is .usually used, in
the form of subgingivally placed· fibres, in the
treatment of periodontitis:
A. Clindamycin B. Tetracycline
C. Metronidazole . D. Augmentin
8. Which of the following can be used both systemically
and locally in treating periodontitis:
A. Doxycycline B. Minocycline
C.. Metronidazole n ....t\11 of the above
9. Which of the following antibiotics is· more effective
against gram- negative organisms and promotes health
associated flora in the treatment of periodontal disease:
· A. Amoxycillin B. Tetracyline
C. Metronidazole D. Ciprofloxacin
10. Which of the following can concentrate at
sites of periodontal inflammation:
A. Amoxycillin B. Azithromydn
C. Metronidazole D. Clindamycin
11. Which of the following antibiotics is effective against
anaerobic periodontal pathogens:
A. Clindamycin B. Metronidazole
C. Both of the above D. None of the above·
5 c 6 A 7 8 8 D 9 D 10 8 11 C
Role of Antimicrobials in Periodontal Therapy 89
12. Ideal antibiotic for treatment of periodontal disease:

A. Tetracycline
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Combination of Amoxycillin· and Metronidazole
D. Does not exist
13. All periodontal pathogens can be inhibited by:
A. Amoxycillin B. Azithromycin
C. Tetracycline D. No single antibiotic
14. How many usage of is advocated in
the treatment of periodontitis:
. A. 3 days B. 5 days
C. 8 days D. 10 days
15. \\"nich of the foHowing is commoniy not used for
single agent therapy in periodontitis:
A. Metronidazole B. Clindamycin
C. Ciprofloxacin D. Amoxycillin
16. Which of the following antibiotic- combinations is
used in treating periodontal disease:
A. Amoxycillin+ Metronidazole
B. Ciprofloxacin+Metronidazole
C .. Both of the above
17. Which of the following is an indication microbial
analysis of plaque:
A. Continuing pocket depth
B. Continuing purulent exudate
C. Persistence of pockets of more than 5 mm depth
D. All of the above
18. The subgingival plaque sample is usually obtained
with the help of:
A. Endodontic paper point .
B. Curette
C. Sickle
D. Probe
12 D 13 D 14 C 15 D 16 C 17 D 18 A
19. Which of the following is a clinical indication for

microbial analysis of plaque:
A. Aggressive periodontitis
B. Refractory periodontitis .
C. Periodontitis associated with systemic conditions
D. All of the above
20. Which of the following agents is recommended for
ultrasonic irrigation. during subgingival scaling as a
chemotherapeutic adjunct:
A. Chlorohexidine B. · Iodophor$...
C. Normal saline D. Hydrogen peroxide
21. Which of the following is more effective as
antimicrobial agent when used for subgingival scaling,
as a chemotherapeutic adjunct:
A. Chlorhexidine B. Pividone iodine
C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Sodium chloride
22. Rinsing and · subgingival iJ;rigation with pividone
iodine must be done with caution in patients who are:
A. Sensitive to iodine B. Pregnant
C. Lactating D. All of the above
23. Tetracyclines are frequently used in:
A. Refractory periodontitis
B. Localized aggressive periodontitis
C: Both of the above
24. Tetracyclines have the ability to:
A. Concentrate in periodontal tissues
B. Inhibit the growth of actinobacillus actinomycetem-
comitants
C. Exert anticollagenase effect that can inhibit
periodontal destruction
D. All of the above
19 D 20 8 21 8 22 D 23 C 24 D
Role of Antimicrobials in Periodontal Therapy 91
25. Doxycycline is preferred to other types of tetracyclines

in the treatment of certain periodontal diseases
because:
A. It is more compliant
B. Its absorption from· GIT is not affected by antacids
or calcium
Recommended dose of D.oxycycline for anticollagenase
activity and tissue modulation is:
A .. 100 mg once daily B. 50 mg twice daily
C. 20 mg twice daily D. 200 mg twice daily
27. Metronidazole is not the drug of choice for treating:
A. Actinobacillus actinomycetem comitans
B. Siprochaetes
C. Porphyromonas gingivalis
D. Prevotella intermedia
28. The antibiotic to which aU strains of Actinobacillus
are susceptible is:
A. Tetracycline B. Metronidazole
C. Clindamycin D. Ciprofloxacin
29. When the _patient is allergic to Penicillin, which of the
following is used as substitute for Amoxycillin in the
treatment of periodontal disease:
A. Erythromycin B. Clindamycin
30. When both Tetracycline and Amoxycillin are required
as part of antimicro.,ial therapy in periodontal disease,
they are best given:
A. Simultaneously
B. Serially
C. On alternate days
D. One in morning and one in evening
25 C 26 C 27 A 28 D 29 8 30 8
31. Which of the following drugs is commonly used for

. host modulation to reduce collagen breakdown and
improve periodontal regeneration:
A. Tetracycline hydrochloride
B. Minocycline
C. Doxycycline hyclate
D. All of the above
· 32. The collagenase produced by which of the following
is suppressed by Doxycycline hyclate:
A. Bacteria B.. Fibroblasts ·
C. Polymorphs D. Macrophages
33. Which of the following is used in nonresorbable fibre
form for local delivery into periodontal pockets:
A. Tetracycline. B. Doxycycline
Chlorhexidine D. Metronidazole
34. The disadvantage of Tetracycline· fibre therapy is:
A. The length of time required for placement of a fibre
is more than ten minutes
B. The considerable learning time is required to gain
proficiency in placement ·
C. The need for a second appointment, ten days after
placement, for removal of the fibre
D. All of the above
35. Minocycline for local drug delivery into periodontal
pockets is ·used as:
A. 2°lo gel B. S0lo gel
C. 10°lo liquid D. 20o/o solution
36. Doxycycline is used in local drug delivery system into
periodontal pockets as:
A. 10°lo gel B. S0lo gel
C. 1S 0Io gel D. 20°lo gel
37. The active ingradient in periochip is:
A. Metronidazole B. Chlorhexidine
C .. Tetracycline D. Minocycline
31 C 32 C 33 A 34 D 35 · A 36 A 37 B
Periodontal Aspects of
Dental Implants
1. The present in use of implants was initiated by:

A. Carranza B. Newmann
C. Loe D. Branemark
2. The structural and functional relation between bone
and implant is called:
A. Ankylosis
B. Osseointegration
C. Gumphosis
D. Periodontal ligament
3. The most widely used dental implant materials is:
A. Composite B. Carbon
C. Titanium D. Ceramic
4. Titanium alloy used in dental implants is made-up of
Titanium, Vanadium and:
A. Aluminium. 6. Nickle .
C. Chromium D. Gold
· 5. Which of the following is not a dental implant
material:
A. Aluminium oxide ceramic
B. Carbon
C. Hydroxyapatite
1 D 2 8 3 c 4 A 5 D
6. The term biological width is generally used to describe:

A. Soft tissue dimensions around the implant
B. Bone height.around the implant
D. None ofthe above
7. The epithelial cells of mucosa attach to
the Titanium implant with the help of:
A. Desmosomes
B. Hemidesfllosomes
C. Desmosomes and basal lamina
D. Hemidesmosomes and basal lamina
8. The .sulcular ephithelium continues as junctional
epithelium around:
A. Natural teeth B. Dental implants
9. When compared to gingival tissue the marginal portion
of peri-implant tissue contains:
A. More collagen · B. ·Less fibroblasts
10. When the bone is in intimate but not ultrastructural
contact with implant it is called:
A. Osseointegration B. Fibrosseousintegration
C. Ankylosis D. None of the above
11. Which of the following is interposed between bone
and implant in fibrosseousintegration: ·
A. Fibres B. Cells
· 12. Osseointegration refers to direct contact of bone and
implant at:
A. Electron microscope level
B. Light microscope leyel
6 A 7 D 8 c 9 C 10 A 11 C 12 8
Periodontal Aspects of l)entallmplants 95
13. The amorphous cell free layer that is interposed

between bone and Titanium is made up of:
A. Glycosaminoglycans
B. Proteoglycans
.14. In vitro studies demonstrate that the highest number
of bone colonies form on petridishes coated with:
A. Titanium 1
B. Titanium alloy
C. Chrome-cobalt alloy
D. Plasma sprayed hydroxyapatite
15. Increasing the surface area of implant would increase:
A. The stability of implant
B. The instability of implant
C. The chance of failure of implant
D. The chance of fracture of an implant
16. Which of the follolAJing techniques is used to increase
implant surface area:
A. Acid etching
B. Grit blasting
17. Osseointegration between hydroxyapatite surface of an
implant and bone:
A. Does not occur
B. Is rarely seen
C. Occurs uniformly along the length of an implant
D. Occurs in a macular fashion with areas of connective
tissue in intervening areas
13 C 14 D 15 A 16 C 17 D
CLINICAL ASPECT
18. To achieve osseointegrated implant with good results
the implant must be:
A. Sterile
B. Inserted with atraumatic technique without
producing heat
C. Made-up of highly biocompatible material like
Titanium
D. All of the above·
19. The implant should not be functionally loaded during
the initial healing period of:
A. 1 to 2 months B. 2 to 3 months
C. 3 to 6 months D. 6 to 8 months
·-·-.,. __
20. The success of osseointegration depends on:

A. Drilling of bone with proper cooling
B. Denseness of bone
. C. Good contact of bone and implant at the time of
placement
D. All of the above
21. The treatment indications for dental implants:
A. Patients with partially edentulous arches
B. Patie11:ts with fully edentulous arches
C. Patients with maxillofacial defornlities
D. All of the above
22. Good candidates for dental implants are: ·
A. Those who are not able to wear removable dentures
B. Those who have adequate bone to accommodate an
implant
C. Those who have both of the above situations
D. Those with either of the clinical situations mentioned
in A and B
18 D 19 C 20 D 21 D . 22 C
Periodontal Aspects of Dental Implants 97
23. Important criteria for selecting a patient for dental

implants:
A. Oral hygiene B. Periodontal health
C. Jaw relationship D. All of the above
24. The occurrence of implant complications are increased
in:
A. Diabetics
B. Patients on chronic steroid therapy
C. Smokers and alcoholics
D. All of the above
25. Which of the following is a negative factor for
placement of dental implants:
A. Periodontal inflammation
B. · Pathological lesions in jaws and soft tissue
C. Lack of keratinized attached mucosa at implant site
D. All of the above ·
26. The minimum width of jaw "bone for implant
piacement needs to be:
A. 2 mm B. 3 mm
C. 8 mm D. 6 mm
27. The minimum height of jaw bone for implant
placement needs to be:
A. 4 mm B. 6 mm
C·. 8 mm D.lO mm
28. The success rate of implants placed in extraction sockets
is increased by placing:
A. Bone graft
B. Barrier membrane under the flap and covering the
implant
23 D 24 D 25 D 26 D 27 D 28 C
29. Probing the soft tissue at the proposed surgical site

to assess its thickness, before planning dental
implants called:
A. Transgingival probing
B. Intraoral bone mapping
C. Sounding
30. What are the/vital structures to be taken care of while
placing the/ dental ill!-plants:
A. Nasal cavity and maxillary sinus
B. Mandibular canal
C. Mental foramen
D. All of the above
31. ·Which ·of the following radiographs help in identi-
fying vital structures before placement of implants:
A. Lateral cephalometric view
B. Orthopantomograph and panoramic radiograph
C. Intraoral oeriaoical radiograph.·
.&. .&. '-' .&.
D. All of above
32. The height, thickness and angulation of mandible in
a totally edentulous patient is assessed with:
A. Lateral cephalometry
B. Orthopantomograph
C. Intra oral periapical radiograph
D. Panoramic radiograph
33. The often used implant biomaterials are:
A. Pure titanium
B. Plasma sprayed pure titanium
C. Plasma sprayed hydroxyapatite
D. All of the above
34. The main implant designs are:
A. Screw-shaped form B. Tapered screw-shaped
C. Cylinder-shaped form D. All of the above
29 B 30 D 31 D 32 A 33 D . 34 D
Periodontal Aspects .of Dental Implants 99
35. An implant system includes:

A. Implant
B. Irrigated drill set
C. Precisely matched components for surgical and
prosthetic needs
D. All of the above
36. The most .extensively researched implant system is:
A. Branemark
B. Astra 1
C.· Integral
·o. Friaderit
37. The term functional ankylosis is used in relation to:
A. Two-stag:e imolant svstems
........ -.J __ _
B. One-stage implant systems

38. The risk associated with one-stage implant systems is:
A. Premature loading during healing period
B. Titanium showing in marginal areas leading to
aesthetic problems
39. Biological instability and resorption changes in the
long run have been reported with:
A. Titanium
B. Hydroxyapatite
40. Implant supported prosthetic designs in completely
edentulous patients can restore function up· to:
A. 20°/o B. 30°/o
C. 50°/o D. Almost normal levels
35 D 36 A 37 8 38 C 39 8 40 D
41. Which of the following is a more stable prosthesis for

completely edentulous patients:
A. Conventional complete denture
B. Over denture constructed over a bar attached to
implants
C. Bone anchored bridge that uses implants
D. Conventional.complete denture that is trimmed
physiologically
42. The major advantage of implant supported restorations
in partially edentulous patients is:
A. They are less invasive to adjascent teeth
B. Larger edentulous areas can be restored with fixed
bridges
43. The difficult problem with implant supported restora-
tion is:
A. Retention B. -Construction
C. Fixation D. Obtaining aesthetics
44. The advantage of replacement of single missing tooth
with implant is:
I
A. Adjacent teeth need not be prepared
B. Ridge will be maintained by implant
. 45. The primary teeth for single-tooth replacement by
implants are:
A. All molars B." All anteriors
C.· Only first molars D. Only second molars
46. The potential for bone resorption is more when single
implants are used to 'replace:
A. Incisors B. Canines
C. Premolars D. Molars I
41 C 42 C 43 D 44 C 45 8 46 D
I
47. What is the percentage of implants that show some

form of complications over their life:
A. 10°/o B. 20°/o
C. 40°/o D. 60°/o
48. When a dental implant shows any degree of mobility
after healing period, it is considered as:
A. Success B. Failure
C. Physiological adoption D. Either B or C
49. When a deittal implant becomes mobile after the
healing period:
A. Antimicrobials-should be given
B. Anti-inflammatories should be given
C. It should be removed
D. It should .be removed along with fibrous capsule
50. What complications can arise during maintenance
phase of implants:
A. Mucosal inflammation leading to bone loss
B. Fracture of component parts
C. Loosening of screws
D. All the above
51. Long-term function of dental implants depends on:
A. Proper oral hygiene B. Proper occlusal forces
C. Loosening of screws D. All of the above
SURGICAL ASPECT
52. The advantage of threaded implants is that:
A. They are fracture resistant
B. They have better initial stability in bone
C. The chance of peri-implantitis is less
D. All of the above
47 A 48 B 49 D 50 D 51 C 52 B
102 MCQs in Periodontology ·
53. The implants that are placed into anterior sockets

immediately after extraction are preferably:
A. Cylindrical B. Basket-like
C. Blade-shaped D. Conical
54. Tapping of the bone before placement of implants may
be necessary if the bone is:
A. Resorbed
B. Dense
C. Dimineralised
D. Osteoporosed
55. Bacterial contamination of bone is relatively less in:
A. Titanium plasma· sprayed implants
B. Medium textured implants
.c. Hydroxyapatite implants
D. Smooth surface implants
56. When osseous grafts are used along with implant
placement, a relatively low success rate occurs with:
A. Smooth surface inlplants
B. Hydroxyapatite implants
· C. Plasma sprayed titanium implants
Medium textured implants
57. Stronger bonding capacity and minimal marginal bone
loss is seen with:
A. Highly textured implants
B. Medium textured implants
C. Hydroxyapatite implants
D. Plasma-sprayed titanium surfaces
58. During the osseointegration period in two-stage
implant surgery, the top of the implant is completely
submerged under the:
A. Gingiva B. Bone
. 53 D 54 B 55 D 56 A 57 B 58 A
59. Two-stage implant surgeries are recommended for

patients who have:
.A. Abundant bone at implant site
B. Good quality bone at implant site
C. The need for bone grafting
D. All of the above
60. In two-stage implant surgery in mandible the implant,
after initial placement, should not be uncovered for:
A. 3 months; B. 4 months
61. In two-stage implant surgery in maxilla, the implant
should be uncovered after:
A. 2 months B. 3 months
'C. 6 months D. 1 year
62. Implant surgery is generally done under:
A. General anaesthesia B. Local anaesthesia
C. Inhalation analgesia D. None of the above
63. The generally preferred incision for reflecting the flap
in implant surgery is:
A. Remote incision
B. Crestal incision
C. Crevicular incision
D. Bevelled incision
64. The preferred type of incision when bone grafting is
done along with implant placement is:
A. Crestal incision
B. Remote incision
C. Reverse bevel incision
D. Crevicular incision
65. The spiral drill, is. used at an approximate speed of:
A. 100 RPM B. 1000 RPM
C. 10000 RPM D. 100000 RPM
59 C 60 A 61 C 62 8 63 8 64 8 65 8
66. Correct alignment of multiple implants is done with

the help of:
A. Thread
B. Scale·
C. Directio!l indicating pin
D. Compass
67. The minimum distance to be maintained between
implants is:
A. 3 mm B. 4 mm
C. 5 mm D.6 mm
68. The first drill used for preparation of implant site
should be of a diameter of:
A. 1 mm B. 2 mm
C. 3 mm D.4 mm
69. Tapping of the bone before placing the implants is not
recommended in:
A. Anterior mandible
B. Posterior mandible
C. Anterior maxilla · ·
D. Posterior Maxilla
70. The suturing material preferred for closure of flaps after
implant placement is:
A. 3.0 black silk
B. 5.0 black silk
C. 4.0 chromic gut
D. 2.0 chromic gut
71. When can the construction of suprastructure be started
after the exposure of osseointegrated implant by
surgery:
A. 1 week B. 2 weeks
C. 1 month D. 2 months
66 C 67 A 68 8 69 C 70 C 71 8
72. What is the type of second-stage surgical procedure to

be used in maxillary anterior region, if there is
sufficient amount of keratinized gingiva:
A. Gingivectomy
B. Partial thickness gingivectomy
C. Punch-biopsy
D. Apically positioned flap
·73. The sinus lift-augmentation procedures for facilitating
implant plac;ement are: ·
A. Failures
B. Generally successful
C. Rarely successful
D. No more used
PERI-IMPLANT DISEASE
74. Inflammatory changes confined to the soft tissue!
surrounding an implant is called:
A. Periodontitis
B. Gingivitis
C. Peri-implant mucositis
D. Peri-implantitis
75. When an implant becomes mobile during the
maintenance phase, the possible amount of bone loss
surrounding the implant is around:
A. 10°/o B. 20°/o
C. 50°/o D. 100°/o
76. Which of the following are at high risk for
overloading: .
A. Splinted implants in mandible
B. Nonsplinted implants in· maxilla
C. Splinted implants in maxilla
D. Implants in low stress. zones
72 C 73 8 74 C 75 D 76 8
106 MCQs in:Periodontology
77. When plaque induced inflammation occurs, the

amount of bone loss:
A. Is larger around implants than that aroimd natural
teeth
B. Is larger around natural teeth than that around
implants '
C. That occurs around either natural teeth or implants
is same
D. That occurs around implants is negligible
I
78. Absolute diagnostic criteria for lack of osseointegration

of an implant is:
A. Radiographic marginal bone loss
B. Pocket formation
C.. Mobility
D. Bleeding on probing
79. Indication for removal of an implant:
A. More than 33°/o bone loss
B. Bone loss involving the vents of an implant
80. How many days of systemic antimicrobial therapy is
required for peri-implantitis:
A. 3 .days B. 5 days
C. 8 days · D. 10 days
81. While treating peri-implantitis, the plaque deposits on
the implant surface are removed with:
A. Hand scalers B. Ultrasonic scaler
C. Plastic instruments D. Micrometer
82. Detoxification of implant surface is done by:
A. Ultrasonics
B. Dental floss
C. Hand curettes
D. Air powder abrasive system
77 A 78 C 79 8 80 D 81 C 82 D
83. The antibiotic that is frequently us:ed in treatment

of peri-implantitis:
A. Doxycycline B. Clindamycin.
C. Ciprofloxacin D. Amoxycillin
84. Resorption of implant surface by inflammatory
phagocytosis is observed with:
A. Titanium implants
B. Titanium alloy implants
C. Hydro'Syapatite ·implants
D. All of the above
85. One-wall osseous defects around ·the implants are
corrected with:
A. Gingivectomy
Curettage
C. Osseous reconstructive surgery
D. Osseous resective surgery
86. The citric acid used in the treatment of peri-implantitis
should be:
A. Unsaturated
B. Under saturated
C. Super saturated
87. How long should the barrier membrane not be removed
after submerged regenerative therapy:
A. 4 days · B. 4 weeks
C. 4 months D. 4 years
88. Regenerative procedures around the implants are done
only when:
A. Detoxification of implant surface is possible
B. Mildperiodontitis is present
C. One-wall osseous defects are present
D. Crestal bone loss is present
83 A 84 C 85 D 86 C 87 C 88 A
89. Which of the following graft material is ideal for

treating osseous defects around implants:
A. Autogenous graft
B. Allograft
C. Xenograft
D. Plastic materials
89 A
Periodontal
Management of
Medically
Compromised Patients
1. Surgical periodontal therapy should not be done when

the patients blood pressure is more than:
A. 160 mmHg systolic B. 100 mmHg diastolic
2. Oral prophylaxis, with minimal stress, can be done if
the patient's blood pressure is less than:
A. 180 mmHg systolic B. 110 mmHg diastolic
C. Both of the above D. none of the above
3. In hypertensive patients periodontal procedures are
preferably_ done at:
A. Afternoons B. Early mornings
C. Mid-mornings D. Night-times
4. In hypertensive patients, local anaesthesia without
epinephrine may be used for procedures shorter than:
A. 1 Hour B. 10 Minutes
C. 30 Minutes D. 15 Minutes
5. Which of the following is contraindicated in
hypertensive patients while giving local anaesthesia:
A. Intravascular injection
B. Intraligamentary injection
1 c 2 c 3 A 4 c 5 c
6. Inadvertent use of epinephrine containing local anaes-

thetic can be more dangerous and fatal in patients
taking:
A. Selective B. Nonselective P-blockers
· C. Vitamin preparations D. Antibiotics
7. Administering large amounts of epinephrine contain-
ing local anaesthesia in hypertertsive patients who are
on nonselective J3-blocker therapy can lead to:
A. Increase. I in• blood pressure
B. Brad ycard1a .
C. Decreased vascular perfusion and,·death
D. All of the above
8. Which of the following treatments· can be done in
patients with unstabie_ angina:
A. Scaling B. Periodontal surgery
C. Emergency treatments D. All of the above
9. Which of the following is essential while doing oral
prophylaxis in patients with· stable angina:
A. Less stress
B. Profound anaesthesia
C. Cautious sedation in anxious patients
D. All of the above
10. Local anaesthesia containing. epinephrine should be
used cautiously and in minimal amounts in:
A. Hypertension
B. Ischemic heart disease
11. Following an attack of myocardial infaretion dental
treatment procedures can be done only after:
A. One month B. 3 months
6 8 7 D 8 c 9 D 10 C 11 C
Periodontal Management 111
12. Which of· the following dental treatments can cause

disruption of unipolar cardiac pacemakers:
A. Ultrasonic scaling B. Electrocauterization
13. Which of the following micro-organisms that are
commonly found in periodontal pockets are implicated
as causing infective endocarditis:
A. Actinobacillus actinomycetem comitans
B. Eiknella1 corrodens ·
C. Capnocytophaga
D. All of the above
14. Which of "the following can be a potential source of
bacteraemia and can lead to infective endocarditis in ·
susceptibie patients:
A. Invasive dental procedures
B. Bad oral hygiene
C._ Gingival inflammation
D. All of the above
15. In patients with significant gingival inflammation and
who are also prone for infective endocarditis the oral
hygiene maintenance should consist of:
A. Gentle brushing
B. Brushing and flossing
C. Usage of oral irrigators ·
16. Which of the following patients need not be given
antibiotic prophylaxis before periodontal invasive
procedures:
A. Those with prosthetic valves
B. Those with mitral valve prolapse and valvular
regurgitation
C. Those with rheumatic heart disease
D. Those who give previous history of coronary artery.
bypass surgery -
12 C 13 D 14 D 15 A 16 D
112 . MCQs in Periodontology
17. In patients who are prone for infective endoc;arditis,

antibiotic prophylaxis should be given for which of the
following procedures:
A. Scaling
B. Probing
C. Flap surgery
D. All of the above
18. In patients who are prone for infective endocarditis,
if two dental procedures have to be accomplished
with less than 1 week time gap, the antibiotic
prophylaxis for the second procedures·:
A. Is not necessary
B. Should be same as first procedure with enhanced
dose
C. Should consist of alternative regimen
D. Should be same as first procedure with reduced dose
19. The preferable time gap between appointments for
periodontal treatment for patients prone for infective
endocarditis is:
A. 10-i4 days B. Less than 1 week
C. 1 month D. One day
20. In patients who are affected with cerebrovascular
accidents, dental procedures should be done only after:
A. 15 days
B. 1 month
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
21. The primary test used to assess long-term blood sugar
control in a known diabetic is estimation of:
A. Fasting blood glucose
B. Random blood glucose
C. Postprandial blood glucose
D. Glycated haemoglobin
17 D · 18 C 19 A 20 C 21 D
22. If a diabetic patient has to undergo periodontal surgery

the glycated haemoglobin assay should preferably be
less than:
B. 6o/o
D. 10°/o
23. Prophylactic antibiotic therapy before periodontal
surgical procedures are needed in:
A. All diabetics
B. Diabetics 1With poor glycemic control
C. Diabetics· only if they are obese
D. Diabetics; only if they are
24. The most common dental clinic.- complication seen in
diabetics on insulin is:
A. Hypoglycemia B. Heart attack
C. Hyperglycemia D. Drug allergy
25. The greatest risk of hypoglycemia is se.en in diabetics
who take:
A. Sulfonylureas B. Insulin
C. Metformin D. Phenylalanine
26. Which of the following should be limited in patients
with hyperthyroidism:
A. Infection
B. Stress
27. Acute adrenal crisis can develop while undergoing
dental therapy in patients who are under
therapy .due to:
A. Physical stress
B. Psychological stress
22 D 23 8 24 A 25 8 26 C 27 C
28. Acute adrenal insufficiency during dental procedures

can be prevented by:
A. Steroid prophylaxis before the procedure
B. Reducing steroid doses before the procedure
C. Antibiotic prophylaxis
D. None of the above·
29. In a patient who needs renal transplant or dialysis
treatments, when is periodontal treatm_ent preferably
done: I
Before the treatment
B. 1 year after treatment
C. Six months after treatment
D. 1 month after treatment
30. In patients with chronic renal·· disease periodontal
treatment should aim at elimination of:
A. Infection B. Inflammation.
C. Questionable teeth D. All of the above
31. Which of the following drugs should not be given to
patients with renal disease:
A. Tetracycline B. Acetaminophen
C. Diazepam D. Lidocaine
32. Which of the following patients require special
precautions while doing dental treatment:
A. Intermittent peritoneal dialysis
B. Chronic ambulatory peritoneal dialysis
C. Haemodialysis
D. All of the above
33. Haemodialysis patients have high incidence of:
A. Viral hepatitis
B. Prolonged haemorrhage
C. Anaemia
D. All of the above
28 A 29 A 30 D 31 A 32 C 33 D
34. The risk of haemorrhage in dialysis patients is related

to:
A. Anticoagulants used
B. Platelet trauma from dialysis
C. Uremia·
D. All of the above
35. Which of the following precaution has to be taken in
haemodialysis patients, who are undergoing dental
invasive treatment to prevent endarteritis:
A. Antibiotic prophylaxis
B. Anticoagulant therapy
C. Less traumatic procedures
D. All of the above
36. In patients .-who are .. undergoing haemodialysis
periodontal treatment should preferably be done:
A. On the day of dialysis
B. On the day after dialysis
C. 3 days after dialysis
D. 4 days after dialysis
37. Cause for excessive bleeding after
. treatment in renal transplant patients can be:
A. Drug induced thrombocytopaenia
. B. Anticoagulation
38. A periodontal abscess is a potentially life-threatening
situation in: ·
A. Diabetic patients
B. Hypertensive
C. Renal transplant patients
D. All of the above
34 D 35 A 36 8 37 C 38 C
39 .. Periodontal treatment in hepatic failure patients can

lead to:
A. Halitosis B. Delayed healing
C. Excessive bleeding D. All of the above
40. Reason for excessive bleeding after periodontal
treatment in hepatic failure is a deficiency of:
A. Proteins B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin C D. Clotting factors
41. Dental treatment for emphysema patients should
preferably be done in:
A. Morning B. Afternoon
C. Evening D. Night-time
42. Which of the following dru.gs has to be avoided in
patients with pulmonary disease:
A. Narcotics
B. Sedatives
43. Which of the following to be avoided in patients with
respiratory disease:
A. Bilateral mandibular block
B. Excessive periodontal packing
C. Pooling up of water in the mouth
D. All of the above
44. Which of the following groups of patients are at life-
threatening risk, for dissemination of periodontal
infection:
A. Patients on chemotherapy
B. Patients on immunosuppressive therapy
39 c (o o . 41 e 42 c 43 o 44 c
45. If periodontal therapy is required for a patient who is

about undergo chemotherapy, it is best done:
A. On the days of chemotherapy
B. On the day before chemotherapy
C. Two days after- completion of chemotherapy
D. 10 days of chemotherapy
46. In patients who are on chemotherapy, dental
treatments can be done when the white cell count is
more than:
A. 1000/mrrP B. 2000/mm3
C. 4000/mm3 D."7000/mm3
47. Pefiodontal infection can be a precipitating in:
A. Submucous fibrosis .. B. Herpes zoster
C. Osteoradionecrosis D. Rampant caries
48. Which of the following procedures are to be generally
discouraged after and neck radiation therapy:.
A. Extractions B. Periodontal flaps
49. For patients requiring head and neck radiation,
periodontal therapy should preferably be done:
A. Before radiation B. 1 month after radiation
C. During radiation D. 1 year after radiation
50. In patients requiring head and neck radiation
extraction of hopeless teeth should ideally be done:
·A. 1 week before radiation
B. 2 weeks before radiation
. I .
C. 4 days before radiation

D. After radiation
51. During head and radiation therapy, patients should
receive oral prophylaxis and oral hygiene reinforce-
ment:
A. Everyday B. Weekly
C. Monthly D. Bi-monthly
45 8 46 8 47 C 48 C 49 A 50 8 51- -8
52. In patients who have undergone radiation therapy, the

periodontal recall programme should ideally be ·at
intervals of:
A. 3 months B. 6 months
C. 1 year D. 18 months
53. Antibiotic prophylaxis for . dental procedures is
required in patients who have undergone prosthetic
joint replacement, within first:
A. 6 months B. 1 year
C. 2 years D. :? years
54. Which of the following are high-risk group for pros-
thetic joint infections and need antibiotic prophylaxis:
·A. Type I diabetics
B. Patients with rheumatoid arthritis
C. Patients; with severe infections
D. All of the above
55. Which of the following can be performed in
pregnancy:
A. Scaling, root planning and polishing
B. Periodontal surgery
56. Which is the safest period for . performing oral
prophylaxis in pregnant ladies:
A. First trimester B. 2nd trimester
C. 3rd trimester D. 9th month
57. Which of the following positions in dental chair are
advised for pregnant ladies during 2nd and 3rd
trimesters:
A. Placing the patient on her left side
B. Slightly elevating the right hip
52 A 53 .·c 54 D 55 A 56 8 57 C
58. Supine hypotensive syndrome in pregnancy will lead

to:
A. Syncope
B. ·Decreased placental perfusion
59. Spontaneous gingival bleeding occurs in thromb.o-
cytopaenia if the platelet count is less than:
A. 3 lakhs 1 B. One lakh
C. 80000 D. 20000
60. Which of the following procedures should not be done
without physician's consultation in patients with
coagulation disorders:
A. Probing B. Scaling
C. Root planning D. All of the above
61. Coagulation problems leading to increased gingival
bleeding tendencies are seen in:
A. Alcoholics
B. Patients with chronic hepatitis
C. Patients on prolonged antibiotic therapy
D. All of the above
62. For patients who are taking more than 325 mg of
Asprin per day, the drug has to be discontinued for
how many days prior to invasive periodontal therapy:
A. 2-3 days B. 1 day
C. 7-10 days D. 30 days
63. What should be the ideal prothrombin time for doing
scaling and root planning in patients who are on
anticoagulant therapy:
A. INR less than 3 B. INR less than 5
C. INR less than 4 D. INR less than 6
58 C 59 D 60 C 61 D 62 C 63 A
lI
I
64. Thrombocytopaenia leading to uncontrolled gingival
bleeding can be anticipated in patients:
I
A. Undergoing chemotherapy
B. Undergoing radiation therapy
C. With leukaemia
D. All of the above
65. Scaling and root planning can be done in
thrombocytopaenia if the platelet count is more than: t
A. 30000 I . B. 60000 I
C. 40000 D .. 20000
66. Uraemia. will cause increased · gingival bleeding
tendencies due to:
A. Thrombocytopaenia B. Thromboasthenia
C. Vitarnin C deficiency D. Vascular fragility
67. Which of the following problems may be encountered
in leukaemia patients, while doing periodontal
treatment:
A. Bleeding tendencies
B. Increased susceptibility to infections
68. In leukaemia patients, all hopeless teeth should
preferably be extracted:
A. 2 days before chemotheraphy
B. 10 days before chemotherapy
C. During chemotherapy
D. 10 days after chemotherapy
69. Which of the following treatments can be done during
acute phases of leukaemia:
A. oral prophylaxis B. Emergency treatments
C. Both of the above D. None of the above .
64 D 65 B 66 B 67 C 68 B 69 C
70. Which.of the following treatment should preferably be

avoided in chronic leukaemia:
A. Scaling B. Periodontal surgery
C. Both of the above D:-None of above
71. Which of the following is a manifestation in
agranulocytosis:
A. Early periodontitis B. Severe periodontitis
·C." Both of the above D. None of the above
72. Routine periodontal care can be provided to
who have recovered from:
A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis E
73. of the following patients can be given routine
A. Anti-hepatits B surface-antibody positive
B. Hepatitis B surface antigen-negative
I
!
74. Which of the following is a must for giving dental
treatment to patients who have taken treatment for
I tuberculosis:
A. Medical clearance B. Sputum culture
II C. Both of the above D. None of the above
!g
Il
I
70 8 71 c 72 c 73 c 74 c
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Contents

1. Historical Events in Periodontology .......................... 1

11. Gingival Enlargements and Their Treatment ........ 35

13. Ch·ronic Pe.riodontitis .................................................... 43

22. Phase-1-Periodon{!tl Therapy ....................................... 84

1. 'f.he most common disease found in the embalmed

5. Levi Spear Parmly is:

1. The main function of gingiva is:

6. The width of attached gingiva is greatest in:

14. Which of the following is absent in parakeratinized

22. The keratin polypeptide, K19, is expressed by:

25. Laminin is found in gingival:

30. Which. of the following is stippled:

1. The amount of crevicular fluid that can be collected 'l

in a strictly .·normal gingiva is: '·

4. The source of collagenase in GCF can be:

7. When compared to serum, the total protein content in

1. Type III collagen is mainly found in:

extrusion of teeth are:

3. Oxytalan fibres in periodontal ligament run:

6. The orientation of fibroblasts in periodontal ligament

12. Which of the following is not correct about periodontal

19. Which of the following is found in acellular afibrillar

26. The lifespan of a tooth that undergoes ankylosis is

35. The number of layers of osteoblasts found in

44. The first bone to be formed during development of

1. In old age the gingival conn.ective tissue becomes:

3. The i!lcrease in thickness of cementum with aging is

1. Which of the following drugs can cause drug-

6. An example of factitial traumatic lesion of gingiva:

13. Which of the following dose not have modifying effect

17. To be called 'Severe chronic periodontitis', the

20. Significant serum antibody response to specific plaque

1. Example for composite index:·

7. Which of the following groups is more likely to have

B. light and mouth mirror ·

15. The tooth to be examined in PDI when 21 is missing:

18. The NIDCR method for furcation assessment of

22. The periodontal pathogenicity of Actinobacillus

1. The tissue change seen in chronic gingivitis:

6. The predominant inflammatory cell in gingival sites

13. Endogenous gingival pigmentation can be caused by

17. Which of the following is not an established cause for

20. Alterations of gingival contours are mostly associate.d

1. The preponderant inflammatory cell in severe chronic

7. The predominant inflammatory cell in early lesion:

1. The majority of desquamative gingivitis cases are

6. If a case of desquamative gingivitis on histological

11. When a patient with desquamative gingivitis presents

12. When a patient with desquamative gingivitis presents

1. The recurrence rate of pyogenic granuloma is around:

6. The most common malignant tumor of gingiva:

14. Drug induced gingival enlargement is more severe in:

21. The gingival enlargement caused by which of the

28. Pseudomembrane formation and spontaneous bleeding

35. The prevalence of Nifidi pine-induced . gingival

1. The width of attached gingiva:

5. Which of the following is a more common expression

7. Calculus formation is more common and severe

1. Chronic periodontitis occurs· in:.

4. Chronic periodontitis is:

·8. Which of the following is incorrect about smokers

1. The HLA that is consistently associated with