CSSGB 1st Ed Questions Base I PDF

Certified Sixsigma Greenbelt Handbook
Practice Questions
(Selected from the past ASQ Exam questions and Study guide to match the BOK and Cognitive levels)
1. The following is a sample data set.

10 8 8 6 5
What is the variance of this data set?
a. 3.0
b. 3.8
c. 7.3
d. 7.4
Ref: CCT Study Guide Q7
2. An auditor should use a histogram in a quality audit to do which of the following?
a) Provide objective evidence that the auditee uses statistical process control (SPC)
b) Expose patterns that are normally difficult to detect
c) Interpret data for a trend chart
d) Create a stratified tally diagram
Ref: CBA Study Guide Q2
3. Comparing how a process is actually performed against the documented work

instruction for that process is an example of which of the following techniques?
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
c. Statistical
d. Random sampling
Ref: CBA Study Guide Q4
4. Attribute sampling should be used when
a. the data are measurements in metric units.

b. a yes-or-no decision is to be made.
c. the population has variability.
d. a multi-stage sampling plan is needed.
Ref: CHA Study Guide Q10.
5. Scatter diagrams are best described as

a. histograms.
b. correlation analysis.
c. Pareto analysis.
d. Ishikawa diagrams.
Ref: CMQOE Study Guide Q9
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Practice Questions
6. In which of the following diagrams does the input variable X have the highest positive
correlation with the output variable Y?
Ref: CMQOE Study Guide Q13
8. If data are plotted over time, the resulting chart will be a

(A) run chart
(B) histogram
(C) Pareto chart
(D) Poisson distribution
Ref: Detailed CMQOE Study Guide Q5
9. To determine who are or might be customers for a specific

process, it would be most useful to create a
(A) Pareto chart
(B) flow diagram
(C) cause and effect diagram
(D) scatter diagram
10. A production line uses signs at specific points on the line to

indicate when components or raw materials need to be
replenished. This practice is an example of
(A) kanban
(B) poka-yoke
(C) checkpoints
(D) hoshin
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Practice Questions
11. Which of the following is a good tool for planning cycletime

reduction and concurrent operations?
(A) A timeline
(B) A Pareto diagram
(C) An X and R chart
(D) A PERT chart
12. Attribute and variable data are best described as which of

the following?
Attribute Variable
(A) Counted values Measured values
(B) Counted values Visual features
(C) Measured values Counted values
(D) Visual features Counted values
13. All of the following are common ways for people to react
to conflict EXCEPT
(A) competing
(B) collaborating
(C) avoiding
(D) sabotaging
14. A quality manager has chosen to survey customer

satisfaction by taking samples based on the categories of
frequency of use, categories of use, and demographics.
This technique is known as
(A) random sampling
(B) data collection
(C) stratification
(D) customer classification
15. Which of the following actions is NOT used to reduce

process cycle time?
(A) Analyzing current processes
(B) Reducing queue times
(C) Setting priorities
(D) Implementing activity-based costing
16. A company’ s accounts payable department is trying to

reduce the time between receipt and payment of invoices
and has recently completed a flowchart. Which of the
following tools would be the best for them to use next?
(A) Fishbone diagram
(B) Scatter diagram
(C) Box and whisker plot
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Practice Questions
(D) Histogram
17. In a manufacturing company, the machine shop is what

kind of customer in relation to the human resource
department?
(A) Intermediate
(B) Hidden
(C) External
(D) Internal
18. The primary purpose of a project charter is to

(A) subdivide the project into smaller, more manageable
components
(B) provide management with a tool for selecting a project
that addresses business needs
(C) provide management with a tool to ensure that project
deadlines are met
(D) provide the project manager with authority to apply
organizational resources to project activities
19. Sample selection of parts for inspection must be selected at random to ensure
a) a minimum sample size.

b) the probability of not rejecting the lot.
c) the probability of accepting the lot.
d) finding typical characteristics of the lot.
Ref: CQI Study Guide Q12
20. Which of the following are bases for establishing calibration intervals?
I. Stability
II. Purpose
III. Degree of usage
a. I and II only
b. I and III only
c. II and III only
d. I, II, and III
21. In a normal curve, approximately what percentage of the area is included within 3
standard deviations of the mean?
a. 50.0%
b. 66.6%
c. 95.0%
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Practice Questions
d. 99.7%
22. Specification limits are derived from which of the following?
a. Process capability studies

b. Process control charts
c. Customer requirements
d. Historical data
23. The primary purpose of a control chart is to
a. set specifications and tolerances.

b. compare operations.
c. determine the stability of a process.
d. accept or reject a lot of material.
24. When a control chart is used on a new process, capability

can be assessed at which of the following times?
(A) Before the chart is first started
(B) After the first ten points are plotted
(C) When the plotted points hug the centerline
(D) After the process is shown to be in control
Ref: CQI Pdf Study Guide Q02
25. Precision is best described as

(A) a comparison to a known standard
(B) the achievement of expected outgoing quality
(C) the repeated consistency of results
(D) the difference between an average measurement and
the actual value
26. The overall ability of two or more operators to obtain

Consistent results repeatedly when measuring the same set
of parts and using the same measuring equipment is the
definition of
(A) repeatability
(B) precision
(C) reproducibility
(D) accuracy
27. Which of the following conditions must be met for a

Process to be in a state of statistical control?
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Practice Questions
(A) Most of the product output by the process is in

specification.
(B) All subgroup averages and ranges are within control
limits.
(C) All variation has been completely removed.
(D) Previously optimal process settings are used.
28. Which of the following measures of dispersion is equal to

the sum of deviations from the mean squared divided by
the sample size?
(A) Range
(B) Standard deviation
(C) Variance
(D) Mode
29. An X and R chart is used to

(A) indicate process variation
(B) specify design limits
(C) interpret costs
(D) identify customer expectations
30. Which of the following is the most useful graphical tool for promoting an
understanding of process capability?
a. A flowchart
b. A histogram
c. An affinity diagram
d. An Ishikawa diagram
Ref: CQA Study Guide Q5
31. The type of chart that presents the value of items in descending order is a
a. histogram
b. Pareto chart
c. u chart
d. cusum chart
32. Measures of which of the following provide attributes data?
a. Temperature in degrees
b. Attendance at meetings
c. Weight in pounds
d. Length in metric units
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Practice Questions
33. A cause and effect diagram is a useful tool for doing which of the following?
a. Determining the flow of a process

b. Detecting shifts in a process
c. Developing theories based on symptoms
d. Arranging theories by defect count
34. The fraction of nonconforming products is plotted on

which of the following types of control charts?
(A) p chart
(B) u chart
(C) np chart
(D) c chart
Ref: CQA pdf Study Guide Q07
35. Which of the following statistics would best describe the

central tendency of a sample of data?
(A) Mode
(B) Mean
(C) Standard deviation
(D) Range
36. Which of the following types of tools or techniques is

considered qualitative?
(A) Histograms
(B) Frequency distributions
(C) Pareto charts
(D) Process observations
37. The process information shown in the graph above is

indicative of a
(A) cycle
(B) run
(C) trend
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Practice Questions
(D) shift
38. Which of the following techniques is most useful in

narrowing issues and limiting discussion?
(A) Brainstorming
(B) Quality function deployment
(C) Cause and effect analysis
(D) Multivoting
Ref: CSQE pdf Study Guide Q03
39. Quality function deployment (QFD) is a methodology for

(A) removing bugs from code
(B) identifying and defining key customer demands
(C) measuring the reliability of a software product
(D) training employees in quality issues
40. Which of the following is the critical path in the activity

network above?
(A) A, B, C, F, G, I, J
(B) A, B, D, E, F, G, I, J
(C) A, B, D, E, F, H, I, J
(D) A, K, L, M, J
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Practice Questions
41. On the basis of the control chart above, which of the

following statements is true?
(A) Components 1, 2, 3, and 5 should be reinspected
because they are below the mean.
(B) Only component 4 should be investigated because it
is closest to the upper control limit.
(C) Components 4, 6, 7, 8 and 9 should be investigated
because they are above the mean.
(D) No action is required; all data points are within
acceptable statistical variance.
42. A customer satisfaction survey used the following rating

scale:
1 = very satisfied
2 = satisfied
3 = neutral
4 = dissatisfied
5 = very dissatisfied
This is an example of which of the following
measurement scales?
(A) Nominal
(B) Ordinal
(C) Ratio
(D) Interval
43. Which of the following techniques is used in identifying

underlying problems?
(A) Cause and effect analysis
(B) Prioritization matrix
(C) Force field analysis
(D) Pareto analysis
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Practice Questions
44. For a normal distribution, two standard deviations on each side of the mean would
include what percentage of the total population?
a. 47%
b. 68%
c. 95%
d. 99%
Ref: CSSBB Study Guide Q01
45. In measurement system analysis, which of the following pairs of data measures is
used to determine total variance?
a. Process variance and reproducibility

b. Noise system and repeatability
c. Measurement variance and process variance
d. System variance and bias
46. Process data being used in the initial set-up of a process are assumed to have a
normal distribution. If the nominal (target) is set at the center of the distribution, and the
specification limits are set at ± 3 from the center, the Cpk is equal to
a. -0.25
b. 1.00
c. 1.33
d. 1.67
47. A green belt is going to monitor the number of defects on different size samples.
Which of the following control charts would be most appropriate?
a. u
b. np
c. c
d. p
48. Correction, over-production, inventory, and motion are all examples of
a. waste
b. 5S target areas
c. noise
d. value-added activities
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Practice Questions
49. The primary factor in the successful implementation of six sigma is to have
a. the necessary resources

b. the support/leadership of top management
c. explicit customer requirements
d. a comprehensive training program
50. Which of the following types of variation is LEAST likely to occur in sequential
repetitions of a process over a short period of time?
a. Cyclical
b. Positional
c. Temporal
d. Seasonal
51. The primary reason that most companies implement six sigma is to
a. reduce defects
b. improve processes
c. improve profit
d. increase customer satisfaction
52. The term used to describe the risk of a Type I error in a test of hypotheses is
a. power
b. confidence level
c. level of significance
d. beta risk
53. One characteristic of attributes data is that it is always
a. continuous
b. discrete
c. expensive to collect
d. read from a scale of measurement
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Practice Questions
54. Which of the following tests may be used to determine whether a sample comes from a
population with an exponential distribution?
a. t
b. F
c. Chi-square
d. ANOVA
Ref: CQE Study Guide Q02
55. Which of the following tools are appropriate for a quality engineer to use in qualifying a
process that has variable data?
I. An and R control chart

II. A histogram
III. A c chart
IV. A p chart
a. I and II only
b. II and III only
c. III and IV only
d. I, II, and IV only
56. The correlation coefficient for the length and weight of units made by a process is
determined to be 0.27. If the process were adjusted to reduce the weight of each unit by
0.5 ounce, the correlation coefficient of the length and weight of the units made by the new
process would be equal to
a. 0.50
b. 0.27
c. 0.23
d. -0.23
57. A form, in either diagram or table format, that is prepared in advance for recording data
is known as a
a. cause-and-effect diagram
b. Pareto chart
c. flowchart
d. check sheet
58. A major drawback of using histograms in process control is that they
a. do not readily account for the factor of time
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Practice Questions
b. are relatively difficult to construct and interpret

c. require too many data points
d. require too many intervals
59. Which of the following tools would be of the greatest use for finding the most efficient
path and realistic schedule for the completion of a project?
a. Interrelationship digraph
b. Activity network diagram
c. Tree diagram
d. Affinity diagram
60. A control plan is designed to do which of the following?
a. Supplement information contained in operator instructions

b. Support the production scheduling system
c. Provide a documented system for controlling processes
d. Provide a method for tracking the design review process
61. To determine the average number of nonconforming parts over time, which of the
following attribute control charts would be most appropriate?
a. c chart
b. np chart
c. p chart
d. u chart
62. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for

generating continuous improvement ideas?
(A) Tree diagram
(B) Brainstorming
(C) Prioritization matrix
(D) Interrelationship digraph
Ref: CQE pdf Study Guide Q01
63. Which of the following tools is used extensively in

quality function deployment (QFD)?
(A) Affinity diagram
(B) Matrix diagram
(C) Cause and effect diagram
(D) Activity network diagram
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Practice Questions
64. Which of the following tools is most likely to be used to

organize a list of ideas generated during a brainstorming
session?
(A) Activity network diagram
(B) Affinity diagram
(C) Histogram
(D) Process control chart
65. Which of the following tools would be most appropriate

for collecting data to study the symptoms of a problem?
(A) A check sheet
(B) A flow diagram
(C) A force field analysis
(D) An activity network diagram
66. Kaizen is defined as

(A) re-engineering
(B) lean manufacturing
(C) continuous improvement
(D) error-proofing
67. Legal requirements specify that a bottled product must

contain no less than the volume printed on the label. A
bottling company wants to reduce the amount of
overfilled bottles.
On the basis of the data above, what is the most effective

strategy to accomplish this task?
(A) Decrease the target fill volume only
(B) Decrease the target fill variation only
(C) First decrease the target fill volume, then decrease the
target fill variation
(D) First decrease the target fill variation, then decrease
the target fill volume
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Practice Questions
69. The LEAST informative of the four measurement scales

is the
(A) ratio
(B) nominal
(C) ordinal
(D) interval
70. Which of the following can be used to determine the

goodness-of-fit of a distribution to a data set?
(A) t test
(B) ANOVA
(C) F test
(D) Chi square test
71. When σ = 10, what sample size is needed to specify a

95% confidence interval of ±3 units for the mean?
(A) 7
(B) 11
(C) 32
(D) 43
73. A process capability analysis is NOT used to

(A) determine the ability of a process to meet
specifications
(B) maintain a process in a state of statistical control
(C) establish new specifications
(D) prioritize competing processes
Ref: CQE pdf Study Guide e Q31
74. A type of line graph used to assess the stability of a

process is called a
(A) control chart
(B) Pareto chart
(C) check sheet
(D) cause and effect diagram
75. A process produces nonconformities according to a

Poisson distribution. If the mean of the nonconformities
is 25, what is the standard deviation?
(A) 2.5
(B) 5.0
(C) 12.5
(D) 25.0
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Practice Questions
76. Five six-sided dice are rolled together 100 times. Two
histograms are constructed: one for the 500 individual
results and one for the 100 averages of five results. In this
situation, the individual results follow a uniform
distribution, while the averages follow which of the
following distributions?
(A) Normal
(B) Student’ s t
(C) Binomial
(D) Uniform
77. A calibrated micrometer was used to take 10 replicated

measures of a reference standard. If X m = 0.073, and the
true value of the reference standard is 0.075, what is the
bias of the micrometer?
(A) 0.001
(B) 0.002
(C) 0.073
(D) 0.075
78. The power of a test for the difference between means is

measured by
(A) α
(B) 1 - α
(C) β
(D) 1 - β
79. A process is stable and its output is normally distributed.

The process has a specification of 16.73 ± 0.01. What is
the maximum process standard deviation if the Cp must
be ≥1.5 ?
(A) 0.0011
(B) 0.0022
(C) 0.0041
(D) 0.0133
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Practice Questions
81. Which of the following figures is labeled correctly?
82. A quality improvement team that was assigned to

decrease the number of pinholes in milk jugs presented
the following Pareto diagrams during a management
briefing.
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Practice Questions
The best interpretation of these data is that the project

was
(A) not successful in reducing pinholes, since causes B, C,
and D now occur more frequently than cause A
(B) successful in removing the primary cause of pinholes,
and no further improvements are necessary
(C) successful, and tracking pinholes by cause A is no
longer necessary
(D) successful in decreasing pinholes, and the team should
work on cause B to further improve the process

84. The main advantage of a matrix diagram is that it
(A) displays all the possible causes related to a problem
(B) displays the strength of relationships between each
paired combination of variables
(C) identifies, analyzes, and classifies the cause and effect
relationships that exist among all critical issues
(D) identifies a sequence of actions and materials entering
a process
85. Poka-yoke is best defined as

(A) improving machine efficiency
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Practice Questions
(B) reducing field failures to virtually zero

(C) capturing the voice of the customer
(D) preventing controllable defects
86. Which of the following describes the 95% confidence

interval of a 20% absentee rate in a department with
30 people?
(A) 6% to 34%
(B) 8% to 32%
(C) 13% to 27%
(D) 17% to 23%
Ref: CSSBB pdf Study guide Q20.
87. Which of the following are needed to calculate the

process capability index, Cp?
(A) The specification limits and the mean
(B) The specification limits and σ^ (Sigma Cap)
(C) The process mean and σ^ (Sigma Cap)
(D) The upper and lower specification limits
88. Repeatability and reproducibility are terms that

operationally define
(A) bias
(B) accuracy
(C) discrimination
(D) precision
89. A method that classifies data without significantly reducing

accuracy or precision is known as
(A) bias adjustment
(B) statistical efficiency
(C) blocking
(D) coding
90. If a process has a variance of 4 units and a specification

of 96 ± 4, what is the process performance index (Pp)?
(A) 0.33
(B) 0.66
(C) 1.00
(D) 1.50
92. If a histogram has a distribution that is bimodal

this indicates that the
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Practice Questions
a. process is in control
b. distribution is abnormal
c. data collected is accurate
d. data has two points
Ref: CQIA Study Guide Q03
93. Which of the following best describes how an affinity diagram is used?
a. Grasping organizational performance relative to contrasting data

b. Prioritizing data from most significant to least significant
c. Grouping ideas that are created during brainstorming
d. Identifying when a process is in control
94. Warranty claims are classified in which of the following cost of quality groups?
a. Internal failure
b. External failure
c. Appraisal
d. Prevention
95. At what stage of the problem-solving process would a team most likely use a cause-
effect diagram?
e. Description of the process associated with the problem

f. Definition of the problem and its scope
g. Organization of possible problem causes
h. Collection of data to identify actual causes
Ref: CQT Study Guide Q01
96. Steel bars are cut to cylindrical shafts by means of a lathe. The diameter and allowable
tolerance of the shaft is 2.000 ± .001 inch. A control chart is used to monitor the quality
level of the process. Which of the following plots on the control chart might indicate a
problem of wear on the lathe?
a. The diameter of a single shaft above 2.001 inch

b. The diameter of a single shaft below 1.999 inch
c. An apparent increasing trend in the shaft diameters
d. Erratic in-tolerance or out-of-tolerance diameter measurements
97. A sample consists of one or more units of product drawn from a lot or batch on the
basis of
a. defect of the product
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Practice Questions
b. random selection
c. size of the product
d. when the inspection process was completed
98. What is the percent yield for a normally distributed

process in which the item length specification is
5.750 ±0.004, X is 5.752, and the standard deviation is
0.002 ?
(A) 15.73%
(B) 19.15%
(C) 47.72%
(D) 83.99%
Ref: CQT pdf Study Guide Q09
99. In preparation for construction of a cause and effect

diagram, it is important to
(A) plot separate charts for each source
(B) focus only on what makes things go wrong
(C) record everything people suggest
(D) validate possible root causes
100. A quality technician uses a c chart to monitor the number

of defects in a square foot of material. After the initial
startup period, the mean number of defects is calculated
at 13.5. What should the control limits be for the c chart?
LCL UCL
(A) 0.00 54.00
(B) 0.00 27.00
(C) 2.48 24.52
(D) 9.83 17.17
101. The shape of the distribution above is best described as

(A) normal
(B) multi-modal
(C) positively skewed
(D) negatively skewed
102. If a distribution is normal, with µ= 50 and σ= 15, what
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Practice Questions
percentage of data will be less than 30 ?

(A) 59.18%
(B) 40.82%
(C) 9.18%
(D) 1.33%
103. A company is receiving an unusually high number of

returns from various customers. The first step in
investigating the problem would be to
(A) check the inspection records
(B) establish the correlation of the returns to shipments
(C) brainstorm the potential causes
(D) classify the returns by type and degree of seriousn
104. Which of the following activities would NOT contribute to

the effective functioning of a team?
(A) Eliminating unnecessary activities
(B) Developing team performance measures
(C) Defining processes in detail
(D) Monitoring each member’s performance
105. Which of the following is the best definition of a

flow chart?
(A) A diagram used to structure ideas into useful categories
(B) An illustration used to analyze variation in a process
(C) A picture used to separate steps of a process in
sequential order
(D) An analytical tool used to clarify opposing aspects of a
desired change
106. What is the standard deviation of the population below?

10, 4, 16, 12, 8
(A) 4.00
(B) 4.47
(C) 16.00
(D) 20.00
107. The extent to which an instrument replicates its result

when measurements are taken repeatedly on the same
unit is called
(A) real bias
(B) precision
(C) accuracy
(D) true value
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Practice Questions
109. On the basis of the control chart sample above, what is the
upper control limit (UCL) for the average?
(A) 1.23
(B) 3.21
(C) 3.43
(D) 7.25
110. Which of the following measures is a sufficient statistic

for the parameter µ?
(A) Median
(B) Mid-range
(C) Mean
(D) Mode
111. What is the recommended minimum number of subgroups

necessary to calculate the limits for a control chart?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 25
(D) 35
112. The distribution above most likely implies that the
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Practice Questions
elements measured represent

(A) the extremes of a single process
(B) a collection of two processes with normal distributions
(C) random variations
(D) the modes of a single process
113. Which of the following describes the Deming method for

continuous improvement?
(A) Cost of quality analysis
(B) Process map
(C) Tree diagram
(D) Plan-do-check-act cycle
114. Which of the following is the formula for calculating the

number of permutations of x units taken y at a time?
115. In an analysis of variance, which of the following distributions is the basis for
determining whether the variance estimates are all from the same population?
a. Chi square
b. Student's t
c. Normal
d. F
Ref: CRE Study Guide Q05
116. Which of the following statements best describes the set

of all values of a random variable?
(A) It is finite.
(B) It is an interval.
(C) It can be discrete or continuous.
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Practice Questions
(D) It can be tracked by using control charts or

scatter plots.
Ref: CRE pdf Study Guide Q14
117. Which of the following is the best description of

randomization?
(A) A technique used to increase the precision of an
experiment
(B) A means of assuring representative sampling
(C) The repetition of an observation or measurement
(D) The relationship between two or more variables
118. When the order of items is not important, which of the

following is the method to use to determine the number of
sets and subsets of items?
(A) Combination
(B) Permutation
(C) Factorization
(D) Simulation
119. A fair coin is tossed 10 times. What are the expected mean
and variance of the number of heads?
Mean Variance
(A) 0.5 0.025
(B) 5.0 2.500
(C) 5.0 5.000
(D) 10.0 5.000
120. In statistics, an estimation error that is persistent or

systematic is called
(A) bias
(B) sensitivity
(C) random
(D) shift
121. Which of the following is the most effective technique

for prioritizing critical factors for problem-solving?
(A) Venn diagram
(B) Scatter diagram
(C) Pareto diagram
(D) Cause and effect diagram
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Practice Questions
122. Which of the following tools should be used when a team

is generating and prioritizing a list of options that include
highly controversial issues?
(A) Brainstorming
(B) Affinity diagrams
(C) Nominal group technique
(D) 5 whys
Ref: CSSBB pdf Study guide Q01
124. Which of the following tools would be most appropriate

for collecting data to study the symptoms of a problem?
(A) Check sheet
(B) Flow diagram
(C) Force-field analysis
(D) Activity network diagram
125. Positional, cyclical, and temporal variations are most

commonly analyzed in
(A) SPC charts
(B) multi-vari charts
(C) cause and effect diagrams
(D) run charts
127. Which of the following is most important in evaluating

and understanding design intent?
(A) Identifying the functional requirement
(B) Brainstorming failure modes
(C) Conducting computer simulations
(D) Developing FMEA
128. Which of the following activities is value-added?

(A) Setup
(B) Process
(C) Storage
(D) Inspection
129. A Green belt plans to test the performance of workers

before and after training. Which of the following
hypothesis tests should be used to determine whether the
training actually improved the workers’ performance?
(A) 2-sample z test
(B) 2-sample t test
(C) Paired t test
(D) F test
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Practice Questions
Ref: CSSBB pdf Study guide Q10- minor change
130. The purpose of using control charts is to determine

(A) if the process is performing within specifications
(B) the process capability
(C) how to re-create the process
(D) the cause of nonconformities
132. Which of the following is defined as continuous,

incremental improvement?
(A) Kanban
(B) Kaizen
(C) JIT
(D) Kaikaku
133. Which of the following is the best way to enhance the

long-term availability of a machine?
(A) Machine repair
(B) Total productive maintenance
(C) Computerized SPC systems
(D) Increased operator training
134. Typically, which of the following activities is done

earliest in the formation of a project team?
(A) Select the team
(B) Identify the objective
(C) Identify the sponsor
(D) Allocate the resources
135. A Green belt is developing a failure mode and effects

analysis (FMEA) for the hamburger preparation station in
a fast-food restaurant. The following ratings were
developed for the low-heat temperature failure mode.
Severity = 9
Occurrence = 2
Detection = 1
What is the risk priority number (RPN) for this FMEA?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 18
Ref: CSSBB pdf Study guide Q18- minor change
136. Which of the following statements is true about the

theory of constraints?
Page 27 of 32
Practice Questions
(A) It views a system in terms of discrete processes

(B) Most constraints are physical
(C) Most constraints are the result of policies
(D) It focuses on continuous improvement
139. A measurement system analysis is designed to assess the

statistical properties of
(A) gage variation
(B) process performance
(C) process stability
(D) engineering tolerances
140. For a process, X double bar = 35.0 and σ = 5.00. If the subgroup
size is n = 5, what is the value for the upper control limit
for the process?
(A) 37.24
(B) 37.89
(C) 41.71
(D) 52.50
142. A six sigma project to reduce billing statement expenses

has shown the need to hire two additional mailroom
clerks. Based on this information, which of the following
metrics should be used to measure the financial benefits
of the project?
(A) Cost of poor quality
(B) Return on investment
(C) Net present value
(D) Internal rate of return
144. Which of the following is a component of a visual

factory?
(A) Product specifications
(B) Zero defect policies
(C) Just-in-time policies
(D) Equipment service manuals
146. Which of the following is the best technique for

improving the precision of a designed experiment when
the experimental material is not homogeneous?
(A) Blocking
(B) Confounding
(C) Randomization
(D) Fractionalizing
Page 28 of 32
Practice Questions
147. A six sigma team has been formed to improve an existing

process. Which of the following tools should the team use
first to gain a clear understanding of the current process?
(A) Flowchart
(B) Pareto chart
(C) Process FMEA
(D) Latin square DOE
151. A company’s accounts payable department is trying to

reduce the time between receipt and payment of invoices.
If the team has just completed a flowchart of the process
and identified the critical steps, which of the following
tools should be used next?
(A) Fishbone diagram
(B) Scatter diagram
(C) Box and whisker plot
(D) Histogram
152. When a team consists of five black belts and eight quality
engineers, how many unique meetings could be held
consisting of one black belt and two quality engineers?
(A) 40
(B) 80
(C) 140
(D) 280
155. A six sigma team has been chartered to improve the way
in which a company takes orders for its products. Which
of the following tools should the team use to determine
all of the potential pitfalls and the actual defects that
occur?
(A) Process failure mode and effects analysis
(B) Process map
(C) Design for six sigma
(D) Supplier input process output control
156. According to Juran, anyone is a customer of a product or

service if that person
(A) purchases it
(B) uses it
(C) is affected by it
(D) produces it
Page 29 of 32
Practice Questions
157. For an F-test to be inferentially valid, all of the following

assumptions must be true EXCEPT the
(A) populations must be discrete distributions
(B) populations must be normally distributed
(C) samples must be independent
(D) samples must be randomly selected from the
population
158. “Forming, Storming, Norming, and Performing” are

terms that describe
(A) process variation reduction and improvement phases
(B) root cause identification and corrective action
(C) stages of team growth
(D) steps of the brainstorming process
159. The process of having a six sigma team develop a

problem statement helps the team
(A) agree on key dates associated with completing major
project phases
(B) achieve consensus and ownership of the process
(C) determine solutions
(D) determine how often it should meet
160. Which of the following is an element of standard work?

(A) Takt time
(B) Product cost
(C) Product value
(D) Maximum inventory
161. An important aspect of data collection is that the data

collector should
(A) determine the dispersion of the data
(B) know how the data are to be used
(C) use a control chart to analyze the data
(D) use a stratified sampling plan
163. Which of the following charts plots the mean of a set of

values and recalculates the mean with each new value?
(A) Moving range
(B) Moving average
(C) X and s
(D) c
Page 30 of 32
Practice Questions
164. In order for a problem to be solved correctly, which of

the following must occur first?
(A) The problem must be defined.
(B) Relevant data must be gathered.
(C) The measurement system must be validated.
(D) The process must be mapped.
165. In comparison to a full-factorial design of experiment

(DOE), a traditional, one-at-a-time approach will
(A) miss interactions
(B) gain efficiencies
(C) save time
(D) cost less
167. Which of the following techniques is NOT effective

when a team leader is giving feedback to the team?
(A) Describing the behavior in context
(B) Describing the reasons for giving feedback
(C) Giving feedback when it is convenient
(D) Providing actionable guidance
168. Which of the following methods is used to develop an

exhaustive list of ideas about a subject?
(A) Benchmarking
(B) Brainstorming
(C) Goal-setting
(D) Problem-solving
169. Which of the following techniques would help increase

process stability when the cause of variation is a cluttered
work station?
(A) 5S
(B) SMED
(C) Preventive maintenance
(D) Visual factory
170. Which of the following tools is commonly used in the

define phase of a project?
(A) Affinity diagram
(B) Control chart
(C) Failure mode and effects analysis
Page 31 of 32
Practice Questions
(D) Data collection checklist
172. Which of the following best describes internal failure

costs?
(A) The economic costs associated with a catastrophic
failure of an internal subsystem.
(B) The unavoidable quality system costs associated with
the production of any product or service.
(C) The opposite of external failure costs.
(D) The costs resulting from a nonconformance detected
before a product or service is provided.
173. According to Juran, when a major quality improvement

project is launched, which of the following describes the
desired change in performance level?
(A) Six sigma
(B) Continuous
(C) Breakthrough
(D) Sporadic
174. According to Deming, which of the following is NOT a

key element of quality leadership?
(A) Established organizational goals to meet or exceed
customer needs
(B) The use of displays and awards to promote employee
motivation
(C) Continual education and training that elevate the level
of technical and professional expertise
(D) Elimination of barriers and distrust to create an
organizational culture that fosters teamwork
Page 32 of 32

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Certified Sixsigma Greenbelt Handbook

1. The following is a sample data set.

Ref: CCT Study Guide Q7

2. An auditor should use a histogram in a quality audit to do which of the following?

Ref: CBA Study Guide Q2

3. Comparing how a process is actually performed against the documented work

Ref: CBA Study Guide Q4

4. Attribute sampling should be used when

a. the data are measurements in metric units.

Ref: CHA Study Guide Q10.

5. Scatter diagrams are best described as

Ref: CMQOE Study Guide Q9

Ref: CMQOE Study Guide Q13

8. If data are plotted over time, the resulting chart will be a

Ref: Detailed CMQOE Study Guide Q5

9. To determine who are or might be customers for a specific

Ref: Detailed CMQOE Study Guide Q13

10. A production line uses signs at specific points on the line to

Ref: Detailed CMQOE Study Guide Q16

11. Which of the following is a good tool for planning cycletime

Ref: Detailed CMQOE Study Guide Q23

12. Attribute and variable data are best described as which of

Ref: Detailed CMQOE Study Guide Q28

Ref: Detailed CMQOE Study Guide Q29

14. A quality manager has chosen to survey customer

Ref: Detailed CMQOE Study Guide Q50

15. Which of the following actions is NOT used to reduce

Ref: Detailed CMQOE Study Guide Q59

16. A company’ s accounts payable department is trying to

Ref: Detailed CMQOE Study Guide Q60

17. In a manufacturing company, the machine shop is what

Ref: Detailed CMQOE Study Guide Q66

18. The primary purpose of a project charter is to

Ref: Detailed CMQOE Study Guide Q71

a) a minimum sample size.

Ref: CQI Study Guide Q12

Ref: CQI Study Guide Q13

Ref: CQI Study Guide Q17

22. Specification limits are derived from which of the following?

a. Process capability studies

Ref: CQI Study Guide Q17

23. The primary purpose of a control chart is to

a. set specifications and tolerances.

Ref: CQI Study Guide Q19

24. When a control chart is used on a new process, capability

Ref: CQI Pdf Study Guide Q02

25. Precision is best described as

Ref: CQI Pdf Study Guide Q14

26. The overall ability of two or more operators to obtain

Ref: CQI Pdf Study Guide Q39

27. Which of the following conditions must be met for a

(A) Most of the product output by the process is in

Ref: CQI Pdf Study Guide Q43

28. Which of the following measures of dispersion is equal to

29. An X and R chart is used to

Ref: CQI Pdf Study Guide Q48

Ref: CQA Study Guide Q5

Ref: CQA Study Guide Q18

32. Measures of which of the following provide attributes data?

Ref: CQA Study Guide Q20

a. Determining the flow of a process

Ref: CQA Study Guide Q23

34. The fraction of nonconforming products is plotted on