1 – Who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?

R: Pilot in command

2 – When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished when the aircraft is to
fly under IFR?
R: with in the preceding 30 days.

3 – Refer to figure. Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D space?
R: 2500ft

4 – Refer to figures…. What is the approximate level off pressure altitude after drift down operating
conditions D1.
R:

5 – Before take-off the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all passengers
have been orally briefed on the normal and emergency use of oxygen.
R: If the flight involves operations above 12000 feet MSL

6 – How may a pilot satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in
IMC in powered aircraft:
R: Six instrument approaches and 3 hours under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 6 months,
3 of the approaches must be in the category of the aircraft involved.

7 – Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication systems
may not be operated on a civilian aircraft registered in a EAC sate being flown.
R: In air carrier operations

8 – While you are flying in FL250 you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92hg in your area. At what
pressure altitude are you flying?
R: 24000ft

9 – An instrumented rated pilot has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as pilot
in command unless the pilot
R: Passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved CAA
examiner.

10 – Refer to figure…. What indication should you get when it´s time to turn inbound while in the procedure
turn at LABER.
R: 4 DME miles from LABER

11 – Refer to figure…If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 17R at Lincoln Municipal and crossed
the Lincoln VOR at 5000ft MSL, at what point in the tear-drop could a descend to 3000 ft commence?
R: Immediately.

12 – The pilot in command has the emergency authority any and all persons from admittance to flight deck.
R: Except a CAA inspector doing enroute checks

13 – Refer to figure 113. What type of entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern at
riverside municipal.
R: Direct.

14 – What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flights at 10.500 ft in Class E
airspace, with a VFR on top clearance during day-light hours?
R: 5 statute miles, 1000 feet above, 1000 feet below and 1 mile horizontal.
15 – Which report should be made to the ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
R: When leaving final approach inbound on final approach.

16 – The tendency of a helicopter to drift in the direction of the tail rotor thrust during a hover is called
R: Translating tendency

17 – Witch limitation is imposed on the holder of a commercial pilot license if that person does not hold an
instrument rating
R: That person is limited to private pilot privileges by night.

18 – An ATC instruction
R: Is a directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a specific action

19 – A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receives

R: Required maintenance and inspections

20 – Wish airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a
prescribed IAP
R: The class E airspace extending upward 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of
the overlying controlling airspace.

21 – Refer to Fig 129. As you approach LABER during a straight-in RNAV RWY 36 approach in a
helicopter, little rock approach control advices you that the ceiling is 400 feet and visibility is ¼ mile. Do
regulations permit you to continue the approach and land?
R: No, you may not reduce the visibility prescribed for Category A airplanes by more than 50 percent.

22 – Figure 120… The symbol on the plan view of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a
minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of
R: Denver VORTAC

23 – Acceptable navigation signal coverage at the MOCA is assured from a distance from the VFR only
R: 22NM

24 – Who is responsible for collision avoidance in a Minimum Operating Altitude MOA?

R: Each Pilot.

25 – For purpose of testing the flight recording system

R: A total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data can be deleted

26 – How long does a pilot meet the regency of experience requirements for IFR flights after successfully
completing a instrument competency check if no further IFR flights are made
R: 6 calendar months

27 – At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern
R: Abeam the holding fix , or wings level whichever occurs latter

28 – The information required in the flight release for commercial flight operators that is not required in the
dispatch release for domestic flights
R: Minimum fuel Supply

29 – Refer to figure 126….Which altitude (Box 2) is applicable to the base of the outer circle
R: 1200 AGL

30 – The required pre-flight action relative to weather reports a fuel requirements is applicable to
R: Any flight conducted for compensation or hire
31 – The appropriate ATS unit has to be informed:
R: If the average TAS at cruising level varies, or expected to vary 5% from that given in the flight plan

32 – When not flying over high terrain or mountainous areas and no minimum flight altitude has been
established flights in accordance with IFR shall be flown at a level which is at least
R: 1000 feet above the highest obstacle located in the 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft.

33 – How can you determine if another aircraft is in a collision course with your aircraft ?
R: The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate

34 – An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if
the flight will be:
R: Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route

35 – When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:
R: At all times during flight regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is
used for ATS purposes

37 – To perform a flight in airspace classification E

R: Two way radio communication is not necessary

38 – When is ATIS broadcast updated?

R: Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported value

39 – An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the fallowing elements:

R: AIP including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin PIB,
Checklists and summaries.

40 – A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or
legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
R: AIRAC

41 - What is a barrett
R: 3 or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.

EXAM Questions:
In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using:
R:1. a dry powder fire extinguisher
2. a water spray atomizer

Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

R: The ILS localiser works in the VHF band from 108 MHz to 111.95 MHz.

Definition of VY
R: Speed that will allow for the best rate of climb.

Flight recorder (An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be
equipped with FDR)
R: The FDR must record at least the last 25hrs of operation.
Has a MCTOM over 5700 kgs.
Aircraft which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped Cockpit voice
recorder.
R: 30 minutes or 2 hours of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its individual
Certificate of Airworthiness.
For Certificate of Airworthiness issued on or after 1 April 1998: Multi-engine turbine powered with a
Maximum Approved Passenger Seating Configuration of more than 9 or has a MCTOM over 5700 kgs must
have a CVR which records for 2 hours. If 5700 Kg or less than the time ins 30 minutes.

ILS Approaches to Parallel Runways

R: Pilots should notify ATC immediately in the event of loss or degradation of aircraft or navigation
systems.

Lead lag in tail rotor blades.

R: There is no lead lag in tail rotor blades

When to use powder type extinguisher?

R: A, B, C, D and electrical. Paper, petrol, gas, electrical

At least one of the following hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located on the flight deck:
R: a halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent.

A class B fire is a fire of:

R: Liquid or liquefiable solid

ICAO Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft

ICAO Annex 17 - Security

During a straight steady climb, Lift is less than weight

An airplane performs a continuous descent at constant IAS. In this condition weight is greater than lift.

How is the camber line of an asymmetrical airfoil?

R: Curved

The term BOOTSTRAP when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to
the cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.

What counter-measure can be used against a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)?
R: Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby increasing the pressure in the mouth and
throat. At the same time try to swallow or move lower jaw

Presbycusis is the loss of hearing ability with age. High tones are affected first and the effect can combine
with Noise Induced Hearing Loss to produced serious problems for pilots as they approach middle age.
R: Presbycusis causes loss of High tones.

4 stroke piston Engine

R: Admission, compression, power and exhaust .

How to control the macho type of personality in aviation

R: Fallowing checklists. Fallow the rules take no riscs

80% of accidents related with human factors

As cabin altitude increases, what happens to the differential pressure?
R: Decreases

In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve allows two possible sources of pressure to operate one unit.

Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern transport aircraft are synthetic/phosphate ester base fluids.
They are irritating to eyes and skin. Purple in color.

The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a non return check valve.

CAT ILS Approach:

• Decision height is not lower than 200 ft.
• RVR is not less than 550m.

Co-pilot flight time:

R: 50% of co-pilot time to be credited towards the issuance of a higher class pilot licence.

If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the
authority must be informed:
R: after 21 days of consecutive illness.

You receive an IFR en-route clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean?
R: If not airborne until 0920, a new clearance has to be issued.

Repetitive flight plans are used for IFR flights with which of the following properties:
• Operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks, and on at least 10 occasions.
• Or for flights on at least 10 consecutive days.

An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements:

R: AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin
(PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries.

Advancing blade.
R: Dissymmetry is countered by "blade flapping": rotor blades are designed to flap: the advancing blade
flaps up and develops a smaller angle of attack.

The Outer Marker, which normally identifies the final approach fix (FAF) Blue indication Cockpit

Middle marker alerts the pilot that the CAT I missed approach point (typically 200 feet (60 m) above the
ground level on the glideslope) has been passed and should have already initiated the missed approach if one
of several visual cues has not been spotted. Yellow indication cockpit.

A bomb alert is received at cruise altitude, fuel is not a problem that needs to be considered, what do you
do?
R: Descend to cabin pressure altitude or safety altitude whichever is the higher, and go to landing
configuration as a safety measure.

Runway threshold lights green lights

Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: Flashing white

Airport beacon:
R: Two quick white flashes alternating with a green flash identifying a military airport