Professional Documents
Culture Documents
NOTE:-
1. Questions are collected from the appeared students.
2. The solutions are prepared by the expert faculty team of Resonance Pre-medical division,
Kota.
3. Questions may not be in the order or sequence as asked in the actual examination paper.
4. The questions collected may not have all the options similar to the actual paper. Students
are advised to see the question and answer / solutions.
5. Actual AIIMS Paper has 200 questions but we have included only those many questions
which have been collected from the students as per following table:-
Physics 60 32
Chemistry 60 49
Biology 60 47
2. In a LCR oscillatory circuit find the energy stored in inductor at resonance. If voltage of source is 10 V
and resistance is 10 and inductance = 1H.
(1) 0.5J (2) 2 J (3) 4 J (4) 10 J
Ans. (1)
Sol. At resonance current
V V 10
I= = = = 1A
z min R 10
1 2 1 2
Energy of inductor = LI = (1) (1) = 0.5 J
2 2
– th
3. 15 eV is given to e in 4 orbit then find it's final energy when it comes out of H-atom
(1) 14.15 eV (2) 13.6 eV (3) 12.08 eV (4) 15.85
Ans. (1)
th 1
Sol. Energy of 4 orbit of H-atom = – 13.6× = –0.85 eV
16
th
So energy release = total energy – ionization energy of 4 orbit
= 15 – 0. 85
= 14.15
2
4. For a toroid N = 500, radius = 40 cm, and area of cross section = 10 cm . Find inductance
(1) 125 H (2) 250 H (3) 0.00248 H (4) zero
Ans. (1)
i
Sol.
If we flow a current i, then
0Ni
B
2R
Ni N2 A
self (B A ) N 0 A N self 0 i and self = Li
2R 2R
0N2 A 0 2N2 A 2 (500)2 10 (10 –2 )2
L L (10 – 7 ) 125H
2R 4 R 0 .4
0.1kg
6. A string wave equation is given y = 0.002 sin (300t – 15x) and mass density is . Then find
m
the tension in the string
(1) 30N (2) 20 N (3) 40 N (4) 45 N
Ans. (3)
Sol. In string wave speed is
T
V=
2
T = mV
T = .1 × 20 × 20 = 40 N
300
V= = = 20 M/S
k 15
7. If maximum energy is stored in capacitor at t = 0 then find the time after which current in the circuit will
be maximum.
L = 25 mH
C = 10 f
(1) ms (2) ms (3) ms (4) 2 ms
2 4
Ans. (2)
Sol. In L-C oscillation total time in one complete cycle.
T = 2 LC
T = 2 25 10 –3 10 10 –6
T = 2 25 10 –8
–4
T = 2 × 5 × 10
–3
T = × 10 sec
T
after time capacitor is fully closed
4
T 10 –3
then = = ms
4 4 4
9V 2k 3k
0 x
Find angular momentum of ring about origin if it is in pure rolling
2 2 2 2
(1) 32 kgm /s (2) 24 kgm /s (3) 16 kgm /s (4) 8 kgm /s
Ans. (1)
Sol. L = CM. + mVCMr1 d
v 2
= = 0.5 rad /sec
R 4
2
L = MR . + MVCM.R
= 2 × 16 × 0.5 + 2 × 2 × 4 = 16 + 16
kg m 2
L = 32
s
10. If voltage across zener diode is 6V then find out value of maximum resistance in this condition.
1 k i = 6mA
– +
Vz = 6V
R
30V
(1) 2k (2) 2k (3) 5k (4) 4k
Ans. (4)
30
Sol. i= mA
R 1
30 30
voltage across 1 k = .1 = = v2
R 1 R 1
30
=6
R 1
30 = 6R + 6
24
24 = 6R R= = 4k
6
10 cm P
–4 –4 –4
(1) 10 m (2) 10 N/m (3) 3 × 10 N/m (4) 0.3 N/m
Ans. (2)
Sol. Let length of wire element at P is dl.
Magnetic field at B,
0i i
B= 0 0
4r 4r
0 5
B= 2
4 5 10 2
B = 0 200
4
–5
B = 2 × 10 T
F = iBdl
F –5 –4
= iB = 5 × 2 × 10 = 10 N/m
dl
13. Find magnetic field at centre P if length of side of square loop is 20 cm.
3Amp
(1) 12 2 10 –6 T (2) 12 10
–6
T (3) 6 10 T
–6
(4) 6 2 10 –6 T
7
15. Two circular loops having same radius [R = 10 cm] and same current A are placed along same axis
2
as shown. If distance between their centre is 10 cm, find net magnetic field at of point P.
10 cm
10 cm
P
5 cm
N0 .e –10 N0 e –11
= N 100
1
N0 .e –10 N0 e –11
= N e 10 100
0
1
= 1 100
e
1
= 1 ln 2 / T1/ 2 100
e
T1/2 = 69.3 hrs.
1
= 1 0.01 100
e
% decay = 1% Ans.
17. Initially spring in its natural length now a block at mass 0.25 kg is released than find out maximum force
by system on floor?
.25kg
2kg
(1) 15 N (2) 20 N (3) 25 N (4) 30 N
Ans. (3)
N
2kg
Sol. Kx 2g
Work – energy theory on (25)kg
1 2
Kx mgx
2
Kx = 2mg
Kx = 2 × .25 × 10
= 5N
= 25 N
N = kx + 2g
= 5 + 20 = 25 N
19. If f0 = 5 cm, = 6000Å, a = 1 cm for a microscope, then what will be its resolving power.
5 5 4 3
(1) 11.9 × 10 /m (2) 10.9 × 10 /m (3) 10.9 × 10 /m (4) 10.9 × 10 /m
Ans. (2)
2 sin
Sol. R.P =
1.22
a
f
=1
a 1 2 1 0.2 4 106
tan ~
sin = 0.2 R.D. = =
f 5 1.22 6 10 7 3.66
5
RP. = 10.9 × 10 /m
th
20. Distance of 5 dark fringe from centre is 4 mm. If D = 2 m, = 600 nm, then distance between slits is :
(1) 1.35 mm (2) 2.00 mm (3) 3.25 mm (4) 10.35 mm
Ans. (1)
th
Sol. Distance of 5 dark
9
Fringe from centre =
2
9 D 9 6 10 7 2
4 10 3 d= = 1.35 mm
2d 2 4 10 3
Sol.
The gas is taken out at the rate of 5 lit/sec. The volume of gas ejected in 'dt' time is d(vol) = 5 dt
n
Moles of gas ejected = (5dt)
v
n
PV = nRT (dp)V = (dn) RT (dp)V = 5dt RT
V
nRT
(dp)V = 5dt (5dt)P
V
dp 5 dp 5 1
= dt = dt = dt
p V p 100 20
p pf tt t t
dp 1
20
pi
dt p f pi e pie 20
p pi
p 20 t 0 100
T = 20 ln 100 = 20 ×2 ln10 = 92 sec.
3
27. Assertion : 1 H isotope does not undergo fusion of the type 13 H 12 H as it is rarely found in nature.
3
Reason : 1 H has half life of 12 years.
Ans. (2)
28. Assertion : Macro properties of gas are affected with increase in height.
Reason : These properties of gases depend on thermodynamic parameters.
Ans. (4)
29. Assertion : Vrms and Vmean of gaseous molecules is nearly of the order of velocity of sound.
Reason : The sound travels in air because of vibrational molecular motion.
Ans. (2)
30. Assertion : The kinetic energy does not change when a particle moves in uniform magnetic field.
Reason : The velocity of the particle is not affected by magnetic field.
Ans. (1)
31. Assertion : For revolving electron, direction of angular momentum and magnetic moment are opposite.
Reason : Charge of electron is negative.
Ans. (1)
32. Assertion : A metallic surface is moved in and out in magnetic field then emf is induced in it.
Reason : Eddy current will be produced in a metallic surface moving in and out of magnetic field.
Ans. (1)
PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
Total Number of Questions (49)
33. Correct order of electrophilic substitution reaction is :
CH3 OCH3 Cl CHO
Ph –SO Cl
2 5 KOH C H I
34. A
2
B
C D
‘C’ is water soluble
Correct structure of A and D are
+ –
(1) R–NH2, , Ph–SO2–NR–(C2H5)2 I
(2) R–NH–R , Ph–SO2–NR2–C2H5
(3) R–NH2 , Ph–SO2–NR–I
+ –
(4) R2NH , Ph–SO2–NR2–(C2H5) I
Ans. (1)
CH3
35. Assertion : CH3 O–CH3 React with HBr to for (CH3)3CBr and CH3OH
CH3
Reason : It follows SN1 mechanism
Ans. (1)
2–HBr
36. H Product is :
H
O
O
(3) (4)
Br Br
Ans. (2)
Cl
Br Br
(a) (b) (c) Br (d)
(1) a > b > c > d (2) a > c > b > d (3) d > b > c >a (4) a > d > b > c
Ans. (2)
O
Conc.NaOH
38. H—C—H + CH3–CH=O Find out the products of reaction
(1) CH3CO2Na & CH3OH (2) CH3CH2OH + CH3OH
(3) CH3CH2OH & HCO2Na (4) CH3CO2Na + HCO2Na
Ans. (3)
CHO COOH
40. —
CH=CH2 CH2CH2–Br
Suitable reagent for following conversion
+
(1) CH3MgBr, H3O , I2/NaOH, H–Br/R2O2
(2) KMnO4/NaOH, HBr/R2O2
(3) CH3MgBr, KMnO4, HBr
+
(4) CH3MgBr, H3O , H–Br, I2/NaOH
Ans. (1)
HBr (1eq.)
43.
–80ºC (1,2 addition )
A
Br
(1) (2) Br (3) Br (4) Br
Ans. (1)
(1) (2)
H H H H
OH H
OH OH
OH H
(3) (4)
H H H OH
H H H H
Ans. (2)
45. Assertion : Tert. Butyl amine can be formed by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
Reason : It follow SN1 mechanism
Ans. (4)
47. C7H10O reacts with CH3MgBr to give a compound C8H10O which gives the test with iodoform, than fine
out structure of A
O O
O
(1) H (2) (3) CH3 (4)
O
Ans. (1)
50. Assertion : Tertbutyl methyl ether React with HBr to form tert. butyl (CH3)3 C-Br and CH3–OH methonal
Reason : It follows SN1 mechanism.
Ans. (1)
O O O O
Sol. O–—S—O—S—O– & O–—Cr—O—Cr—O–
O O O O
Both having same structure and same valance electrons
55. MnO is :
(1) Ferromagnetic (2) Antiferromagnetic
(3) Ferrimagnetic (4) Dimagnetic
Ans. (2)
56. Assertion : Pure N2 is obtained from Ba(N3)2 but not from (NH4)2Cr2O7
Reason : On decomposition (NH4)2Cr2O7 gives O2 gas.
Ans. (3)
Sol. (NH4)2Cr2O7 N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
Ba(N3)2
Ba + 3N2
(pure)
63. Which of the following reacts most slowly with nitric acid.
(1) Phosphorus (2) Chlorine (3) Sulphur (4) Iodine
Ans. (2)
3+
69. Correct increasing order for the wavelength of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co
is:
3– 3+ 3+ +2
(1) [Co(CN)6] , [Co(NH3)6] , [Co(NH3)5(H2O)] [Co(NH3)5Cl]
3– 3+ +2 3+
(2) [Co(CN)6] , [Co(NH3)5(H2O)] [Co(NH3)5Cl] [Co(NH3)6] ,
3+ 3– 3+ +2
(3) [Co(NH3)6] , [Co(CN)6] , [Co(NH3)5(H2O)] [Co(NH3)5Cl]
+2 3+ 3+ 3–
(4) [Co(NH3)5Cl] , [Co(NH3)5(H2O)] , [Co(NH3)6] , [Co(CN)6]
Ans. (1)
3+ – –
Sol. Strength of ligands attached with Co ion is in the order of CN > NH3 > H2O > Cl . So order of spliting
(value of 0 ) will be in the same order.
1
Wave length absorbing light
0
71. If Boiling point of water is 100ºC. How much gram of NaCl is added in 500 g of water to increase its
boiling point of water by approx 1ºC. K b H O = 0.52 K x kg/mole.
2
73. A bulb is emitted electromagnetic radiation of 660 nm wave length. The Total energy of radiation is 3 x
–18 –34 8
10 J The number of emitted photon will be : (h = 6.6 × 10 J×s, C = 3×10 m/s)
(1) 1 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) 1000
Ans. (2)
Sol. Number of photons = n
hc
E=
–18 6.6 10 34 3 108 n
3 x 10 =
660 109
30
n= = 10
3
–4
75. The decomposition of NH3 on Pt surface is a zero order reaction. If the value of rate constant is 2 x 10
–1 –1
mole liter sec . The rate of appearance of N2 and H2 are respectively:
N2 H2
–4 –1 –1 –4 –1 –1
(1) 1 x 10 mol l sec
, 3 x 10 mol sec
–4 –1 –1 –4 –1 –1
(2) 3 x 10 mol l sec , 1 x 10 mol sec
–4 –1 –1 –4 –1 –1
(3) 2 x 10 mol l sec , 6 x 10 mol sec
–4 –1 –1 –4 –1 –1
(4) 3 x 10 mol l sec , 3 x 10 mol sec
Ans. (3)
77. What is the activation energy (KJ/mol) for a reaction if its rate constant doubles when the temperature is
raised from 300 K to 400 K ? (R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1)
(1) 68.8 (2) 6.88 (3) 34.4 (4) 3.44
Ans. (2)
K2 Ea 1 1
Sol. log =
K1 2.3R T1 T2
2 Ea 1 1
log =
1 2.33 8.31 300 400
= 0.3 x 2.3 x 8.31 x 3 x 400 = Ea
Ea = 6.88 kJ
78. When 0.05 M dimethyl amine is dissolve in 0.1 M NaOH solution then the percentage dissociation of
–4
dimethyl amine is : K b CH = 5 x 10
3 2 NH
–5 –3 –1 –2
(1) 5 x 10 (2) 5 x 10 (3) 5 x 10 (4) 5 x 10
Ans. (3)
–4
Sol. 0.05 M dimethyl amine (weak base), Kb = 5 x 10
0.1 M NaOH
–
(OH ) = 0.1 + 0.05 0.1
C OH -4 x 0.1
Kb = 5 x 10 = = 5 x 10-1 %
C C 1
80. A chemical reaction : A + B AB , B is acting as limiting reagent then choose the correct option.
The limiting reagent is :
A B
(1) 50 atom 100 atom
(2) 100 atom 200 atom
(3) 50 atom 30 atom
(4) 50 atom 200 atom
Ans. (3)
PART - C (BIOLOGY)
A B C D
84.
a b c
Select the correct option w.r.t. Age pyramids.
(1) a - Expanding, b - stable, c – Declining (2) a - stable, b - Expanding, c - Declining
(3) a - stable, b - Declining, c – Expanding (4) a - Declining, b - stable, c - Expanding
Ans (1)
(b)
(c)
Identify a, b and c
(1) (a) Elongation, (b) Termination, (c) Initiation (2) (a) Initiation, (b) Termination, (c) Elongation
(3) (a) Initiation, (b) Elongation, (c) Termination (4) (a) Termination, (b) Elongation, (c) Initiation
Ans (2)
99.
102. Assertion : Down syndrome, Klinfelter syndrome and Turner syndrome are chromosomal disorders.
Reason : In Klinfelter syndrome females are sterile.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
Ans (3)
104. Assertion : Biofortified crop is a source of higher protein, minerals and healthier fats.
Reason : Azolla is biofertilizer.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
Ans (2)
106. Assertion : Heterospory and retention of female gametophyte are responsible for origin of seed habit in
Selaginella
Reason : Psilotum is a living fossil
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
Ans (2)
107. Assertion : Archaebacteria are more similar to eukaryotes rather than eubacteria.
Reason : Archaean genome is more similar to eukaryotic genome rather than bacterial genome
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
Ans. (1)
108. Amylopectin is
(1) Soluble in H2O and have -1-4 and - 1,6 glycosidic bond
(2) Insoluble in H2O and have -1-4 and - 1,6 glycosidic bond
(3) Soluble in H2O and have - 1,6 glycosidic bond
(4) Soluble in H2O and have -1-4 glycosidic bond
Ans (2)
109. In cockroach
(1) Ejaculatory duct opens in phallic gland (2) Phallic gland stores sperms
(3) Vas deferens opens in phallic gland (4) Phallic gland opens in left phallomere
Ans (4)
110. Plasmid of which bacterium was first time used in recombinant DNA technology?
(1) E.coli (2) Salmonella typhimurium
(3) Haemophilus influenzae (4) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Ans (2)
Ans (1)
116. Glucose on reacting with benedict solution may give the following precipitates except
(1) Violet precipitate (2) Orange red precipitate
(3) Brick red precipitate (4) Green/yellow precipitate
Ans (1)
119. Given below are the life span of the organisms. Find the correct option :
(1) Fruitfly – 1 week
(2) Dog – 20-30 year
(3) Butterfly – 1-2 months
(4) Cat – 1 year
Ans (2)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
(1) A & B (2) C & D (3) A & D (4) B & C
Ans (1)
126. Assertion : Gastrin is a hormone that is released from the gastrointestinal tract and helps in digestion
Reason : It promotes secretion of HCl and trypsinogen
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
Ans (3)
128. Assertion : Pituitary gland releases a hormone which is helpful in child birth.
Reason : Pituitary gland releases vasopressin and anti diuretic hormone which helps in child birth.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
Ans (3)
131. Which country has not yet conducted Anti Satellite missile test?
(1) India (2) US (3) Russia (4) France
Ans. (4) France
135. Ram is the brother of Seema & Ram is married to Radhika. Seema has two Sons Raushan & Manu.
What is Raushan to Radhika.
(1) Niece (2) Nephew (3) Cousin (4) None of These
Ans. (2) Nephew
136. Which of the following states is odd one out in terms of International border?
(1) Rajasthan (2) Gujarat (3) Punjab (4) Himachal Pradesh
Ans. (4) Himachal Pradesh
th
137. A, B, C, D, E, F & G are sitting in a row facing northwards. F is sitting immediate right of E. G is 4 left
of E. B & D are next to C. Third left to D is a corner. Who is in the middle of row?
Ans. D
139. A Barrel is completely filled with acetone. 20% of the acetone is replaced by Water. This is done 2 more
times. What is the final % of acetone remaining in the barrel?
Ans. 51.2%
Ans. (4)
142. A Seller sells his product on 14% profit of the market price. If the selling price is 3420 then find the
market price.
Ans. 3000
143. In a class of 140 students, those who opted Science, Social Science & languages were represented by
4:2:1 ratio. If a batch of 20 new students come & opt Science then what will be the new ratio?
Ans. 5:2:1
144. The 4 letters in a box have certain relationship then what will replace question mark
D E
G J
K L
N Q
G H
? M
Ans. J
The following paper is folded and cut as shown. Find the pattern on unfolded paper
Ans. (2)
146.