Miller 7th Ed.

Reviewer

b. The square wave has an infinite number of harmonics,

Chapter 1. Introductory Topics whereas the sinewave has only one.
c. The square wave is much easier to cover by noise.
d. The square wave must also include an offset (dc) voltage,
1. Which part of the sinewave expression cannot be varied in whereas the sinewave does not.
accordance with the low-frequency intelligence to create
a modulated signal? 9 The relationship between information and bandwidth is called

a. Phase
b. Frequency a. Information theory
c. Time b. Fourier analysis
d. Amplitude c. FFT
d. Hartley's law
2. Communication systems are most often categorized by
what characteristic? 10 Aliasing can be defined as errors occurring when

a. Modulation frequency a. The input frequency exceeds the sample rate.

b. Carrier frequency b. The bandwidth is less than the input frequency.
c. Transmission distance c. The type of modulation has been incorrectly identified.
d. Information transmitted d. The sampling signal has been incorrectly identified.

3 Voltage gain in decibels is 11 Which of the following does not hold true for a parallel
resonant circuit?

a. At the resonant frequency the impedance of the circuit is a

a. 10 ln minimum.
b. If Q>10, the resonant frequency is the same as it would be if
it were a series.
b. 10 log c. It is commonly referred to as a tank circuit.
d. At the resonant frequency, the circuit draws minimum current
from the constant-voltage source.
c. 20 ln
12 The oscillator design that uses a third capacitor in the tank
circuit for swamping out the effect of the
d. 20 log transistor's internal capacitances is the

4 Which expression indicates a measurement using a 1-W a. Hartley design

reference b. Clapp design
c. Colpitts design
a. dBm(1) d. Crystal design
b. dB1
c. dBW 13 The ability of a crystal to oscillate at its resonant frequency is
d. dB(W) due to

5 An amplifier operating over a 2-Mhz bandwidth has a 75 a. The flywheel effect

input resistance. If it is operating at 22° C and b. Barkhausen criteria
has a voltage gain of 300, the noise produced at the output c. The piezoelectric effect
of this amplifier would be approximately d. Frequency synthesis

a. 14 The Barkhausen criteria has to do with

b. a. Receiver noise
b. Fourier analysis
c. c. Oscillation
d. Troubleshooting
d.
15 Which of the following can be called a troubleshooting plan?
6 Which of the following is not an example of external noise

a. Fluorescent light a. Symptoms as clues to faulty stages

b. Solar emission b. Signal tracing and signal injection
c. Resistor noise c. Voltage and resistance measure
d. Lightning d. Substitution
e. All the above
7 An amplifier's output signal has 25 mV p-p of desired
signal mixed in with 45 V rms of undesired noise. The load Chapter 2. Amplitude Modulation: Transmission
impedance is 50 . What is the amplifier's output S/N level
in dB?
1. In a modulated system, the low-frequency intelligence signal is
a. 22.9 dB not called the
b. 54.9 dB
c. 45.9 dB a. Modulating signal
d. 51.9 dB b. Information signal
c. Modulating wave
8 Why does a 5-kHz square wave require a greater d. Carrier
bandwidth than a 2-kHz sinewave?
2. A 7.0-Mhz carrier is modulated by a voice signal that has three
a. The square wave has a larger frequency than the frequency components of 100 Hz,
sinewave. 200 Hz, and 300 Hz. What three frequencies comprise the
lower sideband?
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

a. Match the output impedance of the transmitter with the

a. 6.9997 Mhz, 6.9998 Mhz, and 6.9999 Mhz antenna's impedance to provide maximum
b. 100 Hz, 200 Hz, and 300 Hz power transfer.
c. 6.9999 Mhz, 7.0000 Mhz, and 7.0001 Mhz b. Allow the transmitter to be connected to several antennas at
d. 7.0001 Mhz, 7.0002 Mhz, and 7.0003 Mhz the same time.
c. Filter out the carrier frequency from the transmitter's AM
3. The total output power of an AM transmitter is measured output signal.
to be 850 W. What is the total output sideband d. Cause the transmitter to operate at more than one carrier
power if it has a percent modulation of 100%? frequency at the same time.

a. 425 W 12. The main reason for using a dummy antenna is to

b. 850 W
c. 283.3 W a. Prevent damage to output circuits.
d. 141.65 W b. Minimize damage to the regular antenna.
c. Prevent overmodulation.
4. A 100-kHz carrier is modulated by a 20-Hz – 2kHz signal. d. Prevent undesired transmissions.
The upper sideband is
13. A spectrum analyzer is
a. 102 kHz
b. 100.02 kHz to 102 kHz a. An instrument that displays amplitude versus frequency on a
c. 101 kHz CRT.
d. 100.002 kHz to 102 kHz b. Often used to determine if a transmitter's output signal is
free from any spurious signals.
5. One full revolution of a phasor generates which c. Can be thought of as a radio receiver with broad frequency
percentage of a full sinewave? range.
d. All the above.
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 100% 14.The strategy for repair of electronic equipment includes the
d. 200% following.

6. An AM waveform at maximum is 100 V p-p and at a. Verify that a problem exists.

minimum is 40 V p-p. The modulation percentage is b. Isolate the defective stage.
c. Isolate the defective component.
a. 250% d. Replace the defective component and hot check.
b. 40% e. All the above.
c. 25%
d. 37.5% 15. A technique that helps you understand how a carrier and
sideband combine to form the AM waveform
is
7. A transmitter having a 900-W carrier transmits 1188 W
when modulated with a single sinewave. If the carrier is a. The tangential method.
simultaneously modulated with another sinewave at 60% b. Phasor representation.
modulation, calculate the total transmitted power. c. Keying.
d. None of the above.
a. 1084 W
b. 1170 W
c. 1350 W
d. 1224 W Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation: Reception

8. Low-level modulation is
1. The main problem with the TRF design is
a. The most economic approach for low-power
transmitters. a. Lack of selectivity in receiving all AM stations
b. Characterized by the use of "linear" power amplifiers to b. Poor demodulation of an AM station
amplify the AM signal. c. Frustration in tuning to receive more than one station
c. Characterized by having the carrier and the intelligence d. Lack of sensitivity in receiving all AM stations
signals mix at low power levels
d. All the above. 2. The sensitivity of a receiver has to do with its ability to

9. The main advantage of a high-level modulation system a. Withstand shock

compared to a low-level system is that it
a. Allows more efficient amplification.
b. Allows use of low-powered intelligence signal.
c. Provides higher modulation percentage.
d. Is more economical.
10. What is the purpose of a buffer amplifier stage in a
transmitter?
a. It prevents transmitters from producing spurious
frequencies in the output signals.
b. It provides power amplification with high efficiency.
c. Its high input impedance prevents oscillators from
drifting off frequency.
d. It amplifies audio frequencies before modulation occurs.
11. The purpose of an antenna coupler is to
b. Receive one station versus another
c. Receive weak stations
d. All the above
3. When the input to an ideal nonlinear device is an AM waveform
consisting of a carrier and its
sidebands, the output of nonlinear mixing produces the original
intelligence because
a. The intelligence signal is one of its inputs.
b. A dc component is also produced.
c. The difference between the carrier and its sidebands is the
original intelligence frequency.
d. The intelligence frequencies are the upper and the lower
sideband frequencies.
4. An AM signal having a carrier frequency of 940 kHz is to be
mixed with a local oscillator output signal in
order to produce an intermediate frequency of 455 kHz. At what
should the L.O. frequency be set?
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

14. If no stations are picked up on the lower half of the AM band,

a. 455 kHz the likely problem is
b. 1395 kHz
c. 910 kHz a. Low RF gain
d. 1850 kHz b. Poor AGC operation
c. IF selectivity
5. Diodes that have been specially fabricated to produce a d. LO tracking
capacitance that varies inversely proportional to
the amount of reverse bias are called 15. If no sound is heard from a receiver, the most likely problem
area is the
a. Varactor diodes
b. Varicap diodes a. Power supply
c. VVC diodes b. RF section
d. All the above c. Audio amplifier
d. AGC diode
6. The image frequency for a standard broadcast receiver
using a 455-kHz IF and tuned to a station at 680
kHz would be
Chapter 4: Single-Sideband Communications
a. 1135 kHz
b. 225 kHz
c. 1590 kHz 1. An SSB signal with a maximum level of 200 V p-p into a 50
d. 1815 kHz load results in a PEP rating of

a. 200 W
7. Double conversion is used to overcome the problem of b. 50 W
c. 100 W
a. Image frequency d. 800 W
b. Tracking
c. Diagonal clipping 2. State the chief advantage(s) of a standard SSB system.
d. Poor sensitivity
a. Maximum signal range with minimum transmitted power
8. An auxiliary AGC diode b. Easy carrier reinsertion
c. Elimination of carrier interference
a. Reduces selectivity d. a and c
b. Increases sensitivity
c. Decreases sensitivity 3. The noise advantage of SSB over AM is
d. All the above
a. 3–5 dB
9. Which of the following would occur in a receiver not having b. 5–7 dB
AGC? c. 8–10 dB
d. 10–12 dB
a. The speaker output level would drastically change while
tuning from a weak signal to a strong signal. 4. What is the difference between a balanced modulator and a
b. Local stations would easily produce distorted signals in regular modulator?
the speaker.
c. There would be a constant need to readjust the volume a. There is no carrier produced in the output of a balanced
control as the weather and ionosphere change. modulator.
d. All the above b. In a balanced modulator, there is 180º phase shift between
the upper and lower sidebands.
10. The only roadblock to having a complete receiver c. In a balanced modulator, only one sideband is produced.
manufactured on an integrated circuit is d. In a balanced modulator, harmonics of the sidebands are
suppressed.
a. Tuned circuits and volume controls
b. Cost 5. In a balanced-ring modulator, the carrier suppression is
c. Phase-locked loops accomplished by
d. Ceramic filters
a. A dual-gate FET having symmetry
11. The decibel difference between the largest tolerable b. Center-tapped transformers causing canceling magnetic
receiver input signal and its sensitivity is called fields
c. The nonlinearity of the diodes that are used
a. The decibel power gain of the receiver d. Symmetrical differential amplifier stages
b. Automatic gain control (AGC)
c. The dynamic range of the receiver 6.Which cannot be used successfully to convert DSB-SC to SSB?
d. The IF amplifier gain
a. Crystal filter
12. The simplest AM detector is the b. Ceramic filter
c. Mechanical filter
a. Synchronous detector d. Tank circuit
b. Product detector
c. Heterodyne detector
d. Diode detector 7. Another term for ripple amplitude for a ceramic filter is

13. Tracking in a superhet receiver is accomplished using a a. The shape factor

b. The peak-to-valley ratio
a. Trimmer capacitor c. The insertion loss
b. Padder capacitor d. The quality factor
c. Varicap diode
d. a and b 8. Which of the following is not an advantage of the phase method
e. All the above over the filter method in producing SSB?
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

a. The design of the 90º phase-shift network for the 2 The amount of frequency increase and decrease around
intelligence frequencies is simple. the center frequency in an FM signal is called the
b. Lower intelligence frequencies can be economically
used, because a high-Q filter is not necessary.
a. Index of modulation
c. Intermediate balanced modulators are not necessary,
because high-Q filters are not needed. b. Frequency deviation
d. It is easier to switch from one sideband to the other. c. Phase deviation
d. Bandwidth of the FM signal
9. Once an SSB signal has been generated, it must be
amplified by
3 The amount of frequency deviation is dependent on the
a. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve bandwidth intelligence frequency in
b. A nonlinear amplifier to conserve energy
c. A linear amplifier to conserve bandwidth
a. An FM signal
d. A linear amplifier to avoid distortion
b. A PM signal
10. The advantages provided by carrier elimination in SSB c. Both FM and PM signals
do not apply to transmission of d. Neither FM nor PM signals
a. Code
b. Music 4 An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 2 kHz and
c. Noise a maximum deviation of 10 kHz. If its carrier frequency is
d. All the above set at 162.4 Mhz, what is its index of modulation?

11. Provide the approximate "outside-of-passband" a. 10

attenuation of a Butterworth filter.
b. 5
a. 3-dB slope per octave c. 2
b. 3-dB slope per decade d. 20
c. 6-dB slope per octave
d. 6-dB slope per decade
5 The amount an FM carrier frequency deviates for a given
12. An SSB receiver recreates the original intelligence signal modulating input voltage level is called the
by
a. Frequency deviation
a. Mixing the USB with LSB signals and filtering out the
resulting different frequencies b. Index of modulation
b. Filtering out the difference between either sideband and c. Deviation constant
the internally generated carrier signal d. Deviation ratio
c. Filtering out the harmonics of the received sideband
signal frequencies
d. Amplifying the dc term produced by mixing action 6 Standard FM broadcast stations use a maximum
bandwidth of
13. Common types of balanced modulators include
a. 150 kHz
a. Ring modulator
b. Phase modulator b. 200 kHz
c. Lattice modulator c. 75 kHz
d. All the above d. 15 kHz

14. Describe the oscilloscope waveform of an SSB 7 Carson's rule is used to approximate the necessary
transmitter's balanced modulator if it exhibits carrier
leakthrough. a. Frequency deviation
a. Trapezoidal wave b. Bandwidth
b. Sinewave c. Capture ratio
c. FM wave d. Modulation index
d. AM wave

15. The two-tone test is used to 8 An FM transmitter has an output power of 500 W when it
is not modulated. When intelligence is added, its
a. Test carrier suppression modulation index is 2.0. What is its output power with a
b. Test filter ripple modulation index of 2.0?
c. Test amplifier linearity
d. None of the above a. 250 W
b. 500 W
Chapter 5: Frequency Modulation Transmission c. 1000 W
d. 2000 W
1 Angle modulation includes the following types of
modulation:
9 Another way to describe the modulation index is using
the
a. FM
b. PM a. Deviation ratio
c. AM b. Deviation constant
d. All the above c. Capture ratio
e. a and b d. Maximum deviation
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

10 The inherent ability of FM to minimize the effect of
undesired signals operating at the same or nearly the
same frequency as the desired station is known as the
a. Capture effect
b. Signal-to-noise ratio
c. Noise figure
d. Bessel function
11 In a Crosby FM transmitter, an FM signal having a center
frequency of 2.04 Mhz and a deviation of 69 Hz is
passed through four cascaded frequency multiplier
stages: two triplers, one doubler, and one quadrupler.
What type of signal appears at the output of the last
multiplier stage?
c. Deemphasis network
d. All the above
2 An FM receiver rarely works satisfactorily without
an RF amplifier because
a. FM receivers typically work with smaller input
signal levels due to thei noise
characteristics
b. FM receivers have a narrower bandwidth.
c. FM receivers do not have very much gain in
their IF amplifier stages.
d. FM receivers need RF amplifier stages to be
able to decode stereo signals.
3 A certain FM receiver provides a voltage gain of
113 dB prior to its limiter. The limiter's quieting
voltage is 400 mV. Its sensitivity is approximately

a. Center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and deviation of 4.96 a.

kHz b.
b. Center frequency of 146.88 Mhz and deviation of 4.96
c.
kHz
c. Center frequency of 2.04 Mhz and deviation of 69 Hz d.
d. Center frequency of 146.88 Mhz and deviation of 69 4 The use of dual-gate MOSFETs in RF amplifier
Hz stages

12 The circuitry used to increase the operating frequency of a. Offers increased dynamic range over those of
a transmitter up to a specified value is called the JFETs
b. Produces higher-frequency responses than do
JFETs
a. Multiplier c. Produces higher values of voltage gain than do
b. Expander JFETs
c. Pump chain d. Is not compatible with AGC
d. All the above 5 The Foster-Seely detector design is superior to
the ratio detector in that it
13 The purpose of the matrix network in a stereo FM
broadcast transmitter is to a. Does not respond to any undesired amplitude
variations
b. Also provides an output AGC signal
a. Mix the 38-kHz pilot carrier with the L – R audio c. Offers superior linear response to wideband FM
b. Convert the L and R channels to L + R and L – R deviations
channels d. Does not need a limiter stage
c. Separate the left channel from the right channel
6 Local oscillator reradiation refers to radiation
d. Modulate the L + R and L – R signals with the carrier
through the
signal
a. Receiver's wiring
14 An FM signal has an intelligence frequency of 5 kHz and b. IF transformer
a maximum deviation of 25 kHz. Its index of modulation c. Antenna
is d. All the above

7 Which is not one of the three stages in which a

a. 125
PLL can be operated?
b. 0.2
c. 5 a. Free-running
b. Capture
d. 6
c. Locked/tracking
d. Searching
15 Frequency multipliers
8 A PLL is set up so that its VCO free-runs at 8.9
Mhz. The VCO does not change frequency unless
a. Are used to multiply the frequency of the carrier signal
of an FM signal its input is within 75 kHz of 8.9 Mhz. After it
does lock, the input frequency can be adjusted
b. Consist of a class C amplifier followed by a tank circuit within 120 kHz of 8.9 Mhz without having the
that filters out a single harmonic PLL start to free-run again. The capture range of
c. Are used to multiply the frequency deviation of an FM the PLL is
signal
d. All the above a. 75 kHz
b. 120 kHz
Chapter 6: Frequency Modulation Reception c. 150 kHz
d. 240 kHz
1 A difference between AM and FM receiver block
diagrams is that the FM version includes a 9 Slope detection is seldom used due to

a. Limiter a. Nonlinearity
b. Discriminator b. Attenuation
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

c. Complexity d. All the above

d. All the above

10 In an FM stereo receiver, what is the purpose of 3 The signal-strength meter that shows the relative signal-
the 23–53-kHz filter? strength level is called the ________ .

a. To filter out the SCA signal at the output of the a. S meter

discriminator b. Signal meter
b. To filter out the L – R signal at the output of the
discriminator c. Strength meter
c. To filter out the L + R signal at the output of the d. All the above
discriminator
d. To produce separate L and R signals from the L
+ R and L – signals 4 An AM broadcast receiver has two identical tuned circuits
with a Q of 50 prior to the IF stage. The IF frequency is
11 A dual audio amplifier is rated to provide 65 dB of 460 kHz and the receiver is tuned to a station on 550
channel separation. If the right channel has 4 W of kHz. The image-frequency rejection is
output power, how much of this power could be
due to the left channel intelligence? a. 41 dB
b. 36.2 dB
a. 4 W
b. 79 nW c. 72.4 dB
c. 1.26 W d. 82 dB
d. 2.25 mW
5 An AGC that causes a step reduction in receiver gain at
12 The hold-in range for a PLL concerns the some arbitrarily high value of received signal in order to
prevent overloading the receiver is known as
a. Range of frequencies in which it will remain
locked
b. Allowable range of dc voltage a. Arbitrary AGC
c. Allowable range of ac input voltage b. Auxiliary AGC
d. Satisfactory range of operating temperatures c. Delayed AGC

13 The input signal into a PLL is at the

6 Up-conversion offers the following advantage(s):
a. VCO
b. Low-pass filter
c. Comparator a. Less expensive filters
d. Phase detector b. Good image-frequency rejection
c. Minimized tuning range for the LO
14 The square-law relationship of the FETs input
versus output d. .b and c

a. Allows for greater sensitivity in an FM receiver 7 The range over which the input to a receiver or amplifier
b. Provides improved noise performance provides a usable output is called the
c. Reduces shot noise
d. Minimizes cross-modulation
a. Level of acceptability
15 When troubleshooting a stereo demodulator, the b. Dynamic range
input signal should be abouto c. Degree of usefulness
d.Specified input
a.
b. 8 A receiver has a 30-dB noise figure, a 1.5 Mhz
c. 1 mV rms bandwidth, a 6-dBm third intercept point, and a 3-dB
d. 100 mV rms signal-to-noise ratio. Its sensitivity is

a. –94 dB
Chapter 7 Communication Technique b. –82.2 dB
c. –79.2 dB
d. –81 dB
1 Why are image frequencies somewhat less of a problem
in FM receivers than they are in SSB or AM receivers?
9 Two-modulus dividers are used in the synthesis of
frequencies into the VHF band due to
a. SSB uses less bandwidth than does FM.
b. FM signals have a capture effect characteristic. a. Its ability to work at practical power consumptions
c. FM mixer stages are square-law devices. b. Its ability to work at practical speeds
d. FM receivers do not use the superheterodyne design. c. The insufficient speed and power of the basic
programmable divider designs
2 The tuned circuits prior to the mixer in a superheterodyne d. All the above
receiver are called the
10 The disadvantage of direct digital synthesizers (DDS)
a. Front end over analog frequency synthesizers is
b. Tuner
c. Preselector a. Its complexity and cost
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

b. Its limited maximum output frequency

c. Its higher phase noise a. Foldover distortion
d. All the above b. Aliasing
c. Nyquist rate
11 The G.E. Phoenix radio is an example of d. a and b

a. An HF amateur transceiver using AM and SSB 4 Which of the following is not a common RZ code?
modulation modes
b. A VHF commercial transceiver using the FM a. RZ-unipolar
modulation mode and a channel guard function
b. RZ-bipolar
c. A military transceiver using all modes on HF
frequencies c. RZ-M
d. A cellular telephone transceiver d. RZ-AMI

12 The type of radio transmission that uses pseudorandomly 5 In an asynchronous data system
switched frequency or time transmissions is known as
a. Both sender and receiver are exactly synchronized to
a. Synthesizing the same clock frequency.
b. Facsimile b. Each computer word is preceded by a start bit and
followed by a stop bit to frame the word.
c. Spread spectrum
c. The receiver derives its clock signal from the received
d. Compression data stream.
d. All the above.
13 The acronym CDMA refers to ________.
6 A CD audio laser-disk system has a frequency bandwidth
a. Carrier-division multiple-access systems of 20 Hz to 20 kHz. The minimum sample rate to satisfy
b. Capture-division multiple-access systems the Nyquist criteria is
c. Code-division multiple-access systems
d. Channel-division multiple-access systems a. 20 Hz
b. 20 kHz
14 A typical problem encountered when troubleshooting a c. 40 Hz
frequency synthesizer is d. 40 kHz

a. A small frequency error 7 With respect to converter circuits

b. A large frequency error
c. No output a. DACs include an ADC
d. All the above b. ADCs include a DAC
c. DACs and ADCs are virtually identical
15 A transceiver is d. All the above.

a. A transmitter that can be tuned to several bands of 8 The type of modulation that uses sampling on one of the
frequencies parameters of the transmitted and received signal is
b. A transmitter that transmits digital data known as
c. A receiver that receives digital data
d. A transmitter and receiver in a single package a. Phase modulation
b. Pulse modulation
Chapter 8 Digital Communication : Coding Technique c. Amplitude modulation
d. Frequency modulation

1 The advantage(s) of digital and/or data communications

over analog include 9 An alphanumeric code for representing the decimal
values from 0 to 9 that is based on the relationship that
only one bit in a binary word changes for each binary step
a. Noise performance
is known as
b. Regeneration
c. Digital signal processing a. ASCII
d. All the above b. EBCDIC
c. Baudot code
2 In a S/H circuit, the time that it must hold the sampled d. Gray code
voltage is

10 The quantizing error of PCM systems for weak signals

a. Aperture time
can be made less significant by
b. Acquisition time
c. Flat-top time a. Companding
d. Dmin b. Using time-division multiplexing
c. Using frequency-division multiplexing
3 Error signals associated with the sampling process are
d. Filtering out the alias frequency
called
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

11 When the message and the BCC are transmitted as a. Delta modulation
separate parts within the same transmitted code, it is b. Pulse-coded modulation (PCM)
called a(n)
c. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM)
a. Systematic code d. Pulse amplitude modulation (PAM)
b. CRC
c. (n,k) cyclic code 4 FSK systems are much superior to two-tone amplitude-
modulation systems with respect to
d. Interleaved code
a. Noise performance
12 The value left in the CRC dividing circuit after all data b. Bandwidth requirements of the channel
have been shifted in is the
c. Ionospheric fading characteristics
a. Quantile interval d. Power consumption
b. Codec
c. BCC 5 Which is not a type of pulse modulation?
d. Syndrome
a. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM)
b. Pulse-width modulation (PWM)
13 Which of the following is not an example of code error
detection and correction in a data communication c. Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM)
channel? d. Pulse-position modulation (PPM)

a. Parity 6 PPM and PWM are superior to PAM systems in

b. Frequency-shift keying
c. Block-check character a. Noise characteristics
d. Hamming code b. Bandwidth characteristics
c. Simplicity in design
14 Error-correcting techniques that allow for correction at the d. Frequency response of the intelligence signal
receiver are called
7 Half-duplex operation involves communication
a. Cyclic redundancy checks (CRC)
b. Block-check characters (BCC) a. In one direction only
c. Forward error correcting (FEC) b. In both directions, but only one can talk at a time
d. Parity c. Where both parties can talk at the same time
d. All the above
15 Codes producing random data that closely resemble
digital noise are
8 A procedure that decides which device has permission to
transmit at a given time is called
a. Systematic codes
b. PN codes a. Line control
c. Pseudonoise codes b. Protocol
d. b and c c. Flow control
d. Sequence control
Chapter 9 Digital Communications Transmission
9 The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to
generate an output with logical 0s and 1s determined by
1 Using an oscilloscope to display overlayed received data comparing the phase of two successive data bits is
bits that provide information on noise, jitter, and linearity
is called a(n)
a. CSU/DSU
b. TDM
a. Constellation pattern
c. CVSD
b. Loopback
d. DPSK
c. Statistical Concentration
d. Eye pattern
10 Using radio to transmit gathered data on some particular
phenomenon without the presence of human monitors is
2 Why isn't Morse code well suited to today's telegraphic known as
equipment?
a. Radio teletype
a. It uses an automatic request for repetition. b. Radio multiplexing
b. It has excessive redundancy built into the code. c. Radio facsimile
c. The parity bit is difficult to detect. d. Radio telemetry
d. Differing between various widths of the pulses is an
extremely complicated process.
11 The bit error rate is

3 A special digital modulation technique that achieves high a. The number of bit errors that occur for a given number
data rates in limited-bandwidth channels is called of bits transmitted
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

b. The most common method of referring to the quality of
a digital communication system
c. Virtually the same as the error probability
d. All the above
12 The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is
a. Excessive noise producing errors
b. Slope overload
c. Insufficient frequency response of the intelligence
signal
d. Complexity of design
13 The capacity of a telephone channel that has an S/N of
2047 if its bandwidth is 3.5 kHz is
a. The use of shorter transmission lines
b. The use of computers in finding unused portions of
multiplex systems to maximize use
c. The application of digital switching theory to increase
channel capacity
d. Sharing of communication links by voice and data
signals
4 The advanced mobile phone services (AMPS) is an
example of
a. A cellular telephone system
b. A telephone system that uses frequency reuse
c. A cell-splitting telephone system
d. All the above

a. 30,000 bits per second 5 Which is not a major function of a protocol?

b. 33,000 bits per second
c. 38,500 bits per second a. Framing
d. 35,000 bits per second b. Line control
c. Flow control
14 The AT&T T1 lines d. Topology
e. Sequence control
a. Use 16-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels
b. Use delta modulation and include 48 voice channels 6 The LAN that was developed by Xerox, Digital Equipment
c. Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels Corporation, and Intel in 1980 is called
d. Use delta modulation and include 24 voice channels
a. IEEE-488
b. Ethernet
15
A digital transmission has an error probability of c. OSI
and is long. Its expected number of error bits is d. CSMA/CD

7 A device interconnecting two networks that use different

a. protocols and formats is called a
b.
a. Bridge
c. b. Gateway
c. Router
d.
d. Node

8 A device interconnecting LANs together that usually have

Chapter 10 Network Communications identical protocols at the physical and data link layers is
called a

1 An interconnection of users that allows communication a. Bridge

with one another is known as a
b. Gateway
c. Router
a. Modem
d. Node
b. UART
c. Network
9 In telephony, traffic is defined in
d. Protocol

a. Hundred-call seconds
2 A complex LC filter that removes delay distortion from
b. Average number of calls in a specific period of time
signals that are traveling down long transmission lines is
called a(n) c. Erlang
d. All the above
a.. Delay equalizer
b. UART 10 The Internet and the WWW are
c. Attenuation distortion filter
d. Trunk switcher a. The same thing
b. Completely different
3 Which of the following is not a way that designers of c. Related
telephone equipment are adapting to the increasing use d. Local area networks
of computers and digital coding in telephone
communication links?
11 In a telephone system, the grade of service is
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

a. The ratio of calls lost to calls offered 4 In a balanced line, the same current flows in each line but
b. The ratio of traffic lost to traffic offered is
c. The ratio of calls offered to calls lost
a. 45º out of phase
d. The ratio of traffic offered to traffic lost
b. 90º out of phase
e. a and b
c. 180º out of phase
d. 270º out of phase
12 The following term is not a major concept in cellular
phone systems.
5 What is the length of a quarter-wavelength section of RG-
a. Frequency reuse 8A/U coaxial cable at a frequency of 144.2 Mhz if its
velocity factor is 0.69.
b. Cell reuse
c. Cell splitting a. 52.1 cm
d. Handoff b. 35.9 cm
c. 143.6 cm
13 In local area networks, the following topology or d. 2.08 m
topologies are seldom used.

a. Star 6 A nonlossy transmission line that is terminated with a

resistive load that is equal to the characteristic
b. Ring impedance of the line
c. Bus
d.a and b a. Has the same impedance at all points along the line
b. Has a VSWR of 1:1
14 The following numeric describing data rates for copper c. Has the same voltage at points along the line
coax and twisted pair is rarely used d. Has a reflection coefficient at the load equal to zero
e. All the above
a. 10 Base 2
b. 10 Base 5
7 A flat line indicates
c. 10 Base T
d. 100 Base FX a. No reflection
e. a and b b. VSWR = 1
c. No physical imperfections
15 The xDSL service with the highest projected data rate is d. a and b

a. VDSL
8 A nonlossy transmission line terminated with a short
b. SDSL circuit has an
c. HDSL
d. IDSL a. In-phase reflected voltage that is equal in magnitude to
e. ADSL the incident voltage
b. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is equal in
Chapter 11 Transmission Lines magnitude to the incident voltage
c. In-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in magnitude
than the incident voltage
1 The chief advantage of coaxial cable over open-wire line d. Opposite-phase reflected voltage that is smaller in
is magnitude than the incident voltage

a. Minimized radiation losses

9 A manufacturer's specification dealing with crosstalk and
b. Low cost attenuation is
c. Low noise pick up
d. Low resistive losses a. ACR
b. CAS
2 Unshielded twisted-pair cable is c. CAA
d. AAC
a. Seldom used due to noise problems
b. Increasingly used in computer networking 10 A 50- transmission line that has a load impedance of
c. More costly than coaxial cable 300 has a VSWR of
d. All the above
a. 6:1
3 The ratio of actual velocity to free-space velocity is called b. 1:6
c. 0.666:1
a. Velocity factor d. 1.5:1
b. Relative dielectric constant
c. Velocity of propagation 11 The input impedance of a quarter-wavelength section of a
d. Delay time 50- transmission line that is terminated with a short is
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

a. 50 d. Diffraction

b. 0 (a short)
4 A point in space that radiates electromagnetic energy
c. Infinite (open)
equally in all directions is called
d. 100
a. Transverse
12 A device that is used to match an unbalanced b. Isotropic point source
transmission line to a balanced transmission line is called c. Omnisphere
a
d. Shadow zone
a. Quarter-wavelength matching transformer
b. Balun 5 The process of waves, which traveling in straight paths,
bending around an obstacle is
c. Shorted-stub section
d. Slotted line a. Radiation
b. Reflection
13 A 50- transmission line with a 300- load impedance c. Refraction
has a reflection coefficient of d. Diffraction

a. 6
6 Which is not one of the basic modes of getting a radio
b. 0.166 wave from the transmitting to receiving antenna?
c. 0.714
d. 1.4 a. Ground wave
b. Shadow wave
14 A cable has an inductance of 1 nH/ft and capacitance of 1 c. Space wave
nF/ft. The delay introduced by a 1-ft section is d. Satellite link
e. Sky wave
a. Not able to be calculated with the given information

b. 7 The type of wave that is most affected by the D, E, and F

layers of the ionosphere is:
c.
a. Ground wave
d.
b. Space wave
c. Sky wave
15 A transmission line can be used as a(n)
d. Satellite
a. Inductor
b. Capacitor 8 The largest frequency that will be returned to earth when
transmitted vertically under given ionospheric conditions
c. Filter is called the
d. Matching section
e. All the above a. Critical frequency
b. Maximum usable frequency (MUF)
c. Optimum working frequency (OWF)
Chapter 12 Wave Propagation
d. Skip zone

1 An antenna can be thought of as a(n) 9 The characteristic impedance of free space is

a. Oscillator a. Not known

b. Capacitor b. Infinite
c. Transducer
c. 50
d. Frequency multiplexer
d. 377

2 A wave that is characterized by having its direction of

propagation perpendicular to its oscillation is known as 10 The area between the point where the ground wave ends
and first sky wave returns is called the
a. Isotropic
a. Quiet zone
b. Transverse
b. Skip zone
c. Polarized
c. Null Zone
d. Refractive
d. All the above
e. a and b
3 Which is not an effect of our environment on wave
propagation?
11 The refraction and reflection action of a skywave between
a. Radiation the ionosphere and ground is known as
b. Reflection
a. Space diversity
c. Refraction
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

b. Skip a. Bandwidth
c. Tropospheric scattering b. Front-to-back ratio
d. Fading c. Lobe distribution
d. Beamwidth
12 A satellite communication system used by companies
such as K-Mart to quickly verify credit cards and check 5 The input impedance at the center of a dipole antenna is
inventory data is called approximately

a. VSAT
a. 36.6
b. MSAT
b. 50
c. SATCOM
d. WESTAR c. 73
d. 300
13 A common type of radio wave interference is
6 As the height of a half-wavelength antenna is reduced
a. EMI below a quarter-wavelength, the radiation resistance
b. Fading
c. Reflections a. Increases
d. All the above b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
14 Diversity reception does not include: d. All the above

a. Space diversity 7 A dipole antenna is being fed with a 300 transmission

b. Time diversity line. If a quarter-wave matching transformer is to be used
c. Frequency diversity as the non-resonant matching section, what must be the
characteristic impedance of the cable used in the
d. Angle diversity matching transformer?

15 When installing a receiving antenna, you can often a. 186.5

overcome diffraction problems by finding a
b. 103.9
a. Null zone c. 122.5
b. Downlink d. 147.9
c. Hot spot
d. Skip zone 8 An impedance-matching device that spreads the
transmission line as it approaches the antenna is called a

Chapter 13 Antennas a. Delta match

b. Quarter-wave matching device
1 The process of interchangeability of receiving and c. Director
transmitting operations of antennas is known as d. Counterpoise

a. Polarization 9 A loading coil is often used with a Marconi antenna in

b. Reciprocity order to
c. Efficiency
d. Counterpoise a. Tune out the capacitive reactance portion of the input
impedance of the antenna
b. Tune out the inductive reactance portion of the input
2 A half-wave dipole antenna is also known as impedance of the antenna
c. Raise the input impedance of the antenna
a. Marconi antenna
d. Decrease the losses of the antenna
b. Hertz antenna
c. Vertical antenna
10 Standard AM broadcast stations usually use what type of
d. Phased array transmitting antennas?

3 An antenna that is a quarter-wavelength long connected a. Driven collinear array

such that the ground acts as a reflecting quarter- b. Marconi array
wavelength section is called a
c. Yagi-Uda
a. Hertz antenna d. Log-periodic
b. Dipole antenna
c. Marconi antenna 11 The type of antenna often found in small AM broadcast
receivers is a
d. All the above
a. Ferrite loop antenna
4 The angular separation between the half-power points on b. Folded dipole antenna
an antenna's radiation pattern is the
c. Slot antenna
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

d. Log-periodic antenna a. larger

b. smaller
12 The folded dipole antenna has c. the same velocity
d. either b or c
a. Greater bandwidth than a half-wave dipole
b. A 288- input impedance 5 Ridged waveguides are advantageous over rectangular
c. Less bandwidth than a half-wave dipole waveguides in their
d.. a and b
a. cost
e. b and c
b. attenuation
c. ability to work at lower frequency
13 The Yagi-Uda antenna consists of
d. ease of construction
a. A driven director and parasitic reflector
b. A driven reflector and parasitic director 6 A circular waveguide is used for
c. A parasitic director and reflector
a. Efficiency reasons
d. All the above
b. Ease of manufacture
c. Rotating section applications
14 A grid-dip meter measures the resonant frequency of
tuned circuits d. Greater bandwidth

a. By connection in series with the inductance 7 Variable attenuators are used in waveguides to
b. By connection in parallel with the inductance
c. Without power being applied to the tuned circuit a. Isolate a source from reflections at its load so as to
preclude frequency pulling.
d. By connection in series with the capacitance
b. Adjust the signal levels.
c. Measure signal levels.
15 When troubleshooting antennas, the level of VSWR that
indicates a problem is d. All the above.

a. Greater than 1 8 The coupling in dB of a directional coupler that has 85

b. Less than 1 mW into the main guide and 0.45 mW out the secondary
guide is
c. Greater than 1.5
d. Less than 0.5 a. 22.8
b. 18.9
c. 188.9
Chapter 14 Waveguides & RADAR d. 45.6

1 At a frequency of 1 Ghz and transmitter-receiver distance 9 The resonant frequency of a cavity may be varied by
changing the cavity's
of 30 mi, which is the most efficient device for energy
transfer?
a. Volume
a. Transmission lines b. Inductance
b. Waveguides c. Capacitance
c. Antennas d. All the above
d. None of the above
10 The guide wavelength is
2 The most efficient means of transmitting a 1-Ghz signal
1500 ft would typically be a. Greater than free-space wavelength
b. Equal to free-space wavelength
a. Transmission lines c. Less than free-space wavelength
b. Waveguides d. All the above
c. Antennas
d. None of the above 11 The process of employing radio waves to detect and
locate physical objects is known as
3 The dominant mode for waveguide operation is
a. The Doppler effect
a. TE10 b. Radar
b. TE01 c. Directional coupling
c. TM10 d. Cavity tuning
d. TM01
12 The use of two grounded conductors that sandwich a
4 The propagation velocity of the signal in a waveguide, smaller conductive strip with constant separation by a
when compared to the speed of light is dielectric material on a printed circuit board for use at
frequencies above 500 Mhz is known as
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

a. Artwork traces characteristics, and wide bandwidth?

b. Dielectric waveguide
c. Microstrip/stripline a. Traveling wave tube oscillator
d. MICs or MMICs b. Gunn Oscillator
c.Klystron oscillator
13 Second return echoes are d. Magnetron oscillator

a. Echoes produced when the reflected beam makes a 6 Which is not an advantage of the Gunn gallium arsenide
second trip oscillator?
b. Echoes that arrive after the transmission of the next
pulse a. Ease of removing heat from the chip
c. Echoes caused by the PRT being too long b. Small size
d. All the above c. Ruggedness
d. Lack of filaments
14 The characteristic wave impedance for waveguides is e. Low cost of manufacture

a. 75 7 The i in P-I-N diode refers to

b. 377
a. Indium
c. Dependent on frequency
b. Impact
d. Dependent on waveguide shape
c. Integrated
e. c and d
d. Intrinsic

15 A dielectric waveguide is
8 Which is not a typical application of a ferrite in a
microwave system?
a. Enclosed by a conducting material
b. A waveguide with just a dielectric
a. attenuator
c. Dependent on the principle that two dissimilar
b. amplifier
dielectrics can guide waves
c. isolator
d. b and c
d. circulator

Chapter 15 Microwaves & Lasers 9 A low noise microwave amplifier that provides
amplification via the variation of a reactance is known as
a
1 Which is not a type of horn antenna design for microwave
frequencies? a. Maser
b. Laser
a. Parabolic horn
c. Yig
b. Circular horn
d. Parametric amplifier
c. Pyramidal horn
d. Sectoral horn
10 The major difference between a laser and a maser is the

2 Cassegrain feed to a paraboloid antenna involves a a. Frequency of the signal being amplified
b. Amplitude of the signal being amplified
a. Dipole antenna
c. Bandwidth of the signal being amplified
b. Point-source antenna
d. Phase of the signal being amplified
c. Secondary reflector
d. Any of the above
11 Lasers are useful in

3 Calculate the beamwidth of a microwave dish antenna a. Industrial welding

with a 6-m mouth diameter when used at 5 Ghz.
b. Surgical procedures
a. 0.49° c. Distance measuring
b. 4.9° d. Compact disc players
c. 7° e. All the above
d. 0.7°
12 The following semiconductor is not used as a microwave
device:
4 Zoning refers to
a. PIN diode
a. A method of producing a radome
b. Baritt diode
b. Changing a spherical wavefront into a plane wave
c. Zener diode
c. Creating a polar radiation pattern
d. Tunnel diode
d. Fading into nonreality

13 Which of the following represent typical failure mode(s)

5 Which microwave oscillator has high gain, low-noise
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

for a TWT amplifier?

a. 204.5 Mhz
a. Low gain
b. 205.25 Mhz
b. Spurious modulation
c. 211.25 Mhz
c. Poor frequency response
d. 211.75 Mhz
d. Low RF output
e. All the above
6 The length of time an image stays on the screen
after the signal is removed is termed
14 Which of the following is not used as a microwave
antenna? a. Retention
b. Flicker
a. Patch antenna
c. Persistence
b. Marconi antenna
d. Back porch
c. Lens antenna
d. Horn antenna
7 Which is not part of the tuner section of a TV
receiver?
15 Compared to linear power supplies, switching power
supplies are a. The rf amplifier stage
b. The mixer stage
a. Less efficient
c. The local oscillator stage
b. More efficient
d. The video-detector stage
c. Simpler
d. Heavier
8 The stage in a TV receiver that filters out the vertical
and horizontal retrace pulses from the video signal is
Chapter 16 Television
the

1 A television transmitter actually transmits two signals a. Video detector

at once. They are b. Video IF amplifier
c. Sync separator
a. An amplitude-modulated video signal and d. Sound detector
frequency-modulated audio signal
b. Two amplitude-modulated signals: video and
9 The winding around the CRT yoke that deflects the
audio
electron beam with its magnetic field is called the
c. An amplitude-modulated audio signal and
frequency-modulated video signal
a. Coil
d. Two frequency-modulated signals: video and
b. Yoke
audio
c. Deflector
d. Magneto
2 The most widely used type of TV camera is the

a. Charge couple device 10 A cumbersome series of adjustments to a color TV

receiver in order to make sure that the three electron
b. Vidicon
beams of the picture tube are positioned exactly on
c. Image orthicon their respective color dots on the face of the picture
d. Iconoscope tube is called

3 Synchronizing pulses that consist of equalizing a. Alignment

pulses, followed by serrations, followed by more b. Convergence
equalizing pulses at a rate of 60 times per second c. Interleaving
are called
d. Interlacing

a. Color synchronizing pulses

b. Horizontal retrace pulses
11 A faulty TV receiver having symptoms of normal
c. Vertical retrace pulses sound and raster but no picture must have a problem
d. Eight-cycle back-porch pulses in the

4 The frame frequency for U.S. television broadcasts is a. Horizontal or vertical oscillator or high-voltage
approximately power supply
b. Main power supply
a. 30 frames per second c. Video amplifiers following the sound takeoff
b. 40 frames per second d. RF, IF, or video amplifiers prior to the sound
c. 60 frames per second takeoff

d. 100 frames per second

12 Raster refers to

5 Channel 12 on U.S. television extends from 204 to

210 Mhz. The channel 12 carrier frequency is a. CRT illumination by scan lines when no signal is
Approximately being received
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

b. CRT resolution
c. CRT aspect ratio a. Total internal reflection
d. All the above b. Numerical aperture
c. Dispersion
13 The high voltage for the anode of the CRT is d. Step index
obtained from the low-voltage power supply using

a. Its power-line transformer 6 A technique that is used to minimize the pulse

b. The yoke coil dispersion effect is to
c. The vertical oscillator
d. The flyback transformer a. Use a higher frequency light source
b. Use plastic cladding
14 The introduction of digital television in the United c. Minimize the core diameter
States has been hampered by d. All the above

a. Delays in chip designs 7 The loss (attenuation) of signal in optical fiber is due
b. Shortages of appropriate chips to
c. Customer rejection
d. Less than ideal regulatory climate a. Scattering
b. Absorption
15 When a digital picture freezes even when there is c. Macrobending
motion in the video, it is d. Microbending
e. All the above
a. due to bandwidth problems
b. Called a pixelate 8 Calculate the optical power 100 km from a 0.5 mW
c. Due to noise source on a single mode fiber that has 0.10 dB per
d. b and c km loss.

Chapter 17 Fiber Optics a. 50 nW

b. 500 nW
c. 5 uW
1 Which is an advantage of optical communication
d. 50 uW
links over using transmission lines or waveguides?

a. Small size 9 Which is not an important characteristic of a light

detector?
b. Extremely wide bandwidths
c. Immunity to electromagnetic interference (EMI)
a. Responsitivity
d. Lower cost
b. Dark current
e. All the above
c. Power consumption
d. Response speed
2 The most common light used in fiber-optic links is
e. Spectral respons

a. Infra-red
10 The dispersion in fiber optics is termed
b. Red
c. Violet
a. Modal
d. Ultraviolet
b. Chromatic
c. Polarization mode
3 The optical band designation(s) include
d. All the above
e. a and b above
a. S
b. C
c. L
11 Fiber optic connections suffer high loss due to
d. a and b above
e. All the above a. Air gaps
b. Rough surfaces
4 In the telecommunications industry, the most c. Axial misalignment
commonly used fiber(s) are
d. Angular misalignment
e. All the above
a. 50 micron
b. 62.5 micron
12 Fiber optic technology is used in applications of
c. 50 and 62.5 micron
d. 125 micron
a. Local area networks (LANs)
b. Cable TV (CATV) systems
5 The abrupt change in refractive index from core to
c. Telephone networks
cladding of fiber-optic cable is called the
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

d. All the above

13 The dispersion of light in fiber-optic cable caused by

a portion of the light energy traveling in the cladding
is called

a. Modal dispersion
b. Material dispersion
c. Waveguide dispersion
d. Cable dispersion

14 Recent laser developments for fiber optic

communication include

a. Distributed feedback (DFB)

b. Heterojunction
c. Vertical cavity surface emitting (VCSEL)
d. a and b above
e. a and c above

15 The following consideration is important when

deciding between using a diode laser or an LED

a. Response time
b. Power levels
c. Temperature sensitivity
d. Failure characteristics
e. All the above
 Miller 7th Ed. Reviewer

ANSWER KEY

CHAPTER 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17

1 C D C C E D B D D C A C B C A A E

2 B A C D B A C A D A B B B B C A A

3 D C C D B C A D C A A A C A D C E

4 C B B A B A D C C D C B D B B A C

5 D C D B C C B B C D B D C C A B D

6 C D C D B C D D A B E B B C A C C

7 C C A B B D B B B B D C D D D D E

8 B D C A B C C B A A B A A A B C D

9 D A D D A A D D D D A D A D D B C

10 A C A B A B D A D C A E B A A B D

11 A A C C B C B A D E C B A B E C E

12 B D D B C A C D B B B A D C C A D

13 C D D A B D C B C C C D C B E D C

14 C D D D C D D C C E B B C E B D E

15 E B A C D D D D A A E C C D B D A