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Solutions For Math 311 Assignment #10
Solutions For Math 311 Assignment #10
and
∞
1 X (n + 1)(n + 2)
= z n (|z| < 1).
(1 − z)3 n=0
2
Solution. We have
0 X ∞
1 1
2
= = (z n )0
(1 − z) 1−z n=0
∞
X ∞
X ∞
X
n−1 n−1
= nz = nz = (n + 1)z n
n=0 n=1 n=0
and
0 ∞
1 1 1 1X
= = ((n + 1)z n )0
(1 − z)3 2 (1 − z)2 2 n=0
∞ ∞
1X 1X
= (n + 1)nz n−1 = (n + 1)nz n−1
2 n=0 2 n=1
∞
X (n + 2)(n + 1)
= zn
n=0
2
for |z| < 1.
1
2
Proof. At z = π/2,
cos(z) = cos(z − π/2 + π/2) = − sin(z − π/2)
∞
X (−1)n π 2n+1
=− z−
n=0
(2n + 1)! 2
∞
X (−1)n+1 π 2n+1
= z−
n=0
(2n + 1)! 2
Since
∞
X (−1)n+1 π 2n+1
z−
n=0
(2n + 1)! 2
converges for |z − π/2| < ∞,
∞
X (−1)n+1 π 2n
z−
n=0
(2n + 1)! 2
converges for |z − π/2| < ∞. Therefore, g(z) is analytic at
π/2. Hence g(z)/(z + π/2) is analytic at π/2. Notice that
g(z) = cos z/(z − π/2) for z 6= π/2 by the Taylor series of
cos z/(z −π/2). Therefore, g(z)/(z +π/2) = f (z) for z 6= ±π/2.
And since g(π/2) = −1, g(π/2)/(π/2 + π/2) = −1/π and hence
g(z)/(z + π/2) = f (z) for all z 6= −π/2. Therefore, f (z) is
analytic at π/2. Similarly, we can show that f (z) is analytic at
−π/2. So f (z) is entire.
1
(a) 2
;
z + z
1
(b) z cos ;
z
sinh z
(c) 4 .
z (1 − z 2 )
Solution. (a) Since
∞
1 1 1 1X
= = (−z)n
z + z2 z1+z z n=0
∞
1 X (−1)n
= + ,
z n=1 z n−1
Resz=0 1/(z + z 2 ) = 1.
(b) Since
∞
(−1)n
1 X
z cos =z
z n=0
(2n)!z 2n
∞
X (−1)n
=
n=0
(2n)!z 2n−1
X (−1)n ∞
1
=z− + ,
2z n=2 (2n)!z 2n−1
Resz=0 z cos(1/z) = −1/2.
(c) Since
∞ ∞
! !
sinh z ez − e−z 1 X zn X zn X
4 2
= 4 2
= 4 − (−1)n z 2n
z (1 − z ) 2z (1 − z ) 2z n=0
n! n=0 n! n=0
∞
! !
1 X 2z 2n+1 X
= z 2n
2z 4 n=0
(2n + 1)! n=0
∞
! !
2n
1 X z X
= z 2n
z3 n=0
(2n + 1)! n=0
z2
1
+ ... 1 + z 2 + ...
= 1+
z3 6
we obtain
sinh z 1 7
Resz=0 = 1 + =
z 4 (1 − z 2 ) 6 6
7
(8) Evaluate the integral of each of these functions around the circle
|z| = 3 oriented counterclockwise:
exp(−z)
(a) ;
z2
z+1
(b) 2 .
z − 2z
Solution. (a) By Cauchy Integral Theorem,
Z Z
exp(−z) exp(−z) exp(−z)
dz = dz = 2πi Res z=0 .
|z|=3 z2 |z|=r z2 z2
And since
∞ ∞
exp(−z) 1 X (−z)n X (−1)n z n−2
= 2 =
z2 z n=0 n! n=0
n!
Resz=0 exp(−z)/z 2 = −1 and hence
Z
exp(−z)
dz = −2πi.
|z|=3 z2
(b) By Cauchy Integral Theorem,
Z Z Z
z+1 z+1 z+1
2
dz = 2
+ 2
|z|=3 z − 2z |z|=r z − 2z |z−2|=r z − 2z
z+1 z+1
= 2πi Resz=0 2 + 2πi Resz=2 2 .
z − 2z z − 2z
And since
z+1 1 3
= − +
z 2 − 2z 2z 2(z − 2)
z+1 1 3
Resz=0 2 = Resz=0 − + Resz=0
z − 2z 2z 2(z − 2)
1 1
= Resz=0 − =−
2z 2
and
z+1 1 3
Resz=2 2 = Resz=2 − + Resz=2
z − 2z 2z 2(z − 2)
3 3
= Resz=2 = .
2(z − 2) 2
Therefore,
Z
z+1 3 1
2
dz = 2πi − = 2πi.
|z|=3 z − 2z 2 2