SR N40+LT N40 (PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-4 Date: 24-04-2018

BOTANY
91. Dried plant specimens are preserved in 1) Hibiscus, silk cotton 2) Alstonia, Silk cotton
1) Botanical garden 3) Silk cotton, Nerium 4) Nerium, Alstonia
2) Herbarium 99. Special mycelium developed during asexual
3) Museum reproduction of sac fungi is
4) Both 2 and 3 1) Sporongiophore 2) Conidiophore
92. Moneran with blue green photosynthetic 3) Basidophore 4) Ascophore
pigment 100. Select the incorrect statement among the
1) Chlorobium 2) Euglena following
3) Spirulina 4) Chlamydomonas 1) In phylogenetic system of classifications
93. Match the following List – I with List – II by numerical taxonomy, cytotaxonomy, or chemo
considering vegetative phase taxonomy become more important when there
List – I is no supporting fossil evidence
I. Protistan without cell wall and flagella 2) Photosynthetic organs are fronds in
II. Protistan with cell wall and flagella phaeophyceae; Rhodophyceae and ferns
III. Protistan without cell wall and with 3) In mosses more number of adult
flagella gametophytes are developed from single
IV. Protistan without cell wall and gametophytic initial cell
with/without flagella 4) The gametophyte of Sphagnum is dioecious
List – II 101. Photosynthetic aquatic plant which decrease
A. Dino flagellates dissolved oxygen in water.
B. Slime mould 1) Aquatic Algae 2) Dinoflogellates
C. Euglenoids 3) Eichhornia 4) Chrysophytes
102. Match the following
D. Protozoans List – I
1) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D I. Terrestrial free living gametophyte
2) I-A., II-C, III-D, IV-B II. Terrestrial free living sporophyte
3) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A III. Aquatic free living gametophyte
4) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D IV. Aquatic free living sporophyte
94. Adult sporophyte retained on gametophyte in List – II
A. Hydrilla
1) Heterosporous pteridophytes
B. Spirogyra
2) Gymnosperms C. Pteris
3) Bryophytes D. Pinus
4) More than one option is correct 1) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
95. Epidermis is absent in 2) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
1) Root hair zone 2) maturation zone 3) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
3) Elongation zone 4) more than one option 4) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
103. Outer part of the cortex and stele are made up
96. Terminal electron acceptor in lactic acid
of mechanical tissues in
fermentation is 1) Monocot stem 2) Dicot stem
1) Lactic acid 2) O2 3) Monocot root 4) Dicot root
3) Acetaldehyde 4) Pyruvic acid 104. Sclerenchymatus component of phloem
97. Aerial branches donot involve in vegetative 1) Sieve cells 2) Sieve tubes
propagation unless it tuches the soil in 3) Companion cells 4) flax
105. Binary fission involves in multiplication of cell
1) Chrysanthemum 2) Pistia
and cell organells of
3) Pineapple 4) Jasmine 1) monera 2) protista
98. more number of leaves, leaf lets are present at 3) plantae 4) animalia
a point respectively in__________, ________
SR N40+LT N40 (PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-4
106. Select correct statement from the given below
1) Algae and fungi shift to sexual reproduction
just before the onset of adverse condition
2) Asexual as well as sexual mode of
reproductions are exhibited by higher plants
3) Only sexual reproduction is present in most
of animals
4) All are correct
107. Pollination agent is not required for seed set in
1) Cleistogamous flowers 2) Apomixis
3) Diclinous flowers
4) more than one option is correct
108. What is the number of meiotic divisons occur
in each microspore mother cell if
microsporangium of anther produces 800
malegametes
1) 800 2) 100 3) 400 4) 1
109. S-I: Pollen consumption has been claimed to
increase the performance of Athelets
S-I: Vegetative cells of pollen are rich in
nutritive materials
1) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect
2) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct
3) S-I and S-II are correct
4) S-I and S-II are incorrect
110. Match the following
List – I
I. Adventitious root formation
II. Adventitious shoot formation
III. Root hair formation
IV. Increase in length of ascending axis
List – II
A. Gibberellins
B. Ethylene
C. Auxins
D. Cytokinins
1) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
2) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
3) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
4) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
111. Match the following
List – I
I. Formation of fruit with out fertilisation
II. Formation of seed with out fertilisation
III. Formation of embryo with out fertilisation
IV. Formation of seed with more than one
embryo
List – II
A. Apomixis
B. Parthenocarpy
C. Parthenogenesis
D. Polyembryony
Date: 24-04-2018
1) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
2) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
3) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
4) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
112. Select the incorrect statement
1) Phenotype is always visible
2) Genotype is always invisible
3) Alleles segregation during gametogenesis is
random
4) Gametic fusion is random
113. S-I: In the experiment conducted by Morgan
on Drosophila. F1 males resembles with
parental female and F1 female resembles with
parental male
S-II: Characters studied by Morgan in
Drosophila are present on ‘X’ chromosome
1) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect
2) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct
3) S-I and S-II are correct
4) S-I and S-II are incorrect
114. Sexual reproduction process results in
recombination but not increase number of
individuals in
1) Monera 2) Protista 3) Plantae 4)Animaliae
115. Oogamy takes place between non motile male
and female gametes, with out the formation of
pollen tube in
1) Phaeophyceae 2) Rhodophyceae
3) Gymnosperms 4) Angiosperms
116. Select the incorrect statement among the
following
1) Multiple alleles can be found only when
population studies are made
2) IA, IB alleles are complete dominance over i
allele
3) IA, IB alleles are Co-dominance with each
other
4) B, and b alleles are incomplete dominance
with reference to size of seed
117. 1 : 2 : 1 ratio is applicable to
1) Dihybrid test cross (double Homozygous;
Monohybrids; Dihybrids)
2) Dihybrid back cross (double Homozygous;
Monohybrids; Dihybrids)
3) Dihybrid cross during F2 generation (double
Homozygous; Monohybrids; Dihybrids)
4) All are correct
SR N40+LT N40 (PROG-1) NEET GRAND TEST-4 Date: 24-04-2018
118. Types of DNA polymerases in prokaryotes and 4) Lenticular transpiration is absent in
types of RNA polymerases in nucleus of monocots
eukaryotes respectively 126. Number of oxygen molecules utilised to
1) 3, 5 2) 5, 3 3) 3, 3 4) 5, 5 oxidise one molecule of ammonia into nitrate
119. Select the correct with reference to bacterial 1) 4 2) 2 3) 1 4) 5
transcription 127. First action spectrum of photosynthesis was
1) Elongation = (RNA polymerase – sigmafactor) described by
2) Termination = (RNA polymerase + sigma 1) Emerson 2) Hill
factor + Rhofactor) 3) Engelmann 4) Calvin
3) Elongation = (RNA polymerase+Sigmafactor) 128. Size and shape of cambial ring changes during
4) Initiation = (RNA polymerase–Sigmafactor) 1) Intrastelar changes in dicot stem
120. Untranslated regions are present on mRNA at 2) Intrastelar changes in dicot root
| | 3) Extrastelar changes in dicot stem
1) Before AUG at 5 and after UAA at 3
|
2) After AUG at 5 and before UAA at 3 | 4) Intrastelar changes in monocot stem
| | 129. The recombinant cells growing in continous
3) Before UAA at 5 and after AUG at 3
culture system are present in
4) Before AUG at 5| and before UAA at 3| 1) lag phase 2) log phase
121. Match the following 3) stationary phase 4) senesant phase
List – I List – II 130. S-I: Recognition sequences of restriction
I. Replication initiates at A. AUG endonuclease are made up of even number
II. Transcription initiates at B. UAA base pairs
III. Translation initiates at C. Terminator S-II: Recognition sequences for REN shows
complementarily
IV. Transcription ends at D. Ori
1) S-I is correct and S-II is incorrect
V. Translation ends at E. Promoter
2) S-I is incorrect and S-II is correct
1) I-D, II-E, III-B, IV-A,V-C
3) S-I and S-II are correct
2) I-D, II-E, III-A, IV-C, V-B
4) S-I and S-II are incorrect
3) I-A, II-B, III-C,IV-D, V-E
131. Number of ATP produced in cytoplasm from
4) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-E, V-D
one molecule of glucose during complete
122. Spliciosome is not require for transcription in
oxidation
1) Chlorella 2) Chlorobium
1) 8 2) 6 3) 4 4) 2
3) Chlamydomonas 4) Chara
132. Template independent processes is/are
123. Disease resistance depends mainly on 1) Capping 2) Tailing
1) Genotype of pathogen 3) polynucleotide chain synthesis by using
2) Genotype of Host ochoa enzyme
3) Phenotype of pathogen 4) All the above
4) Phenotype of Host 133. RNA interference is a
124. By adding solvent to a solution 1) Transcriptional inactivation
2) Translational inactivation
1) osmatic potential – increases 3) Replicational inactivation
2) water potential – decreases 4) post transcriptional inactivation
3) osmatic pressure – increases 134. Pioneer species during primary succession in
4) Wall pressure – increases water are
125. Incorrect statement among the following 1) Lichens 2) Phytoplanktons
1) Guttation causes loss of water and salts 3) Bryophytes 4) Sedges
135. Green houses are not require to increase
2) Transpiration causes loss of water only
productivity of
3) Cuticular transpiration is more in 1) Capsicum 2) Wheat
xerophytes 3) Rice 4) Maize