Ir Questions

IR ALL QUESTION
1. PANS-OPS means:
A – Procedures for Air Navigation Systems – Airfield operations

B – Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Aircraft operations
C – Pilots Alternate Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures
D – Primary and Alternate Navigation Systems and Operations
Ans: B
2. What is the meaning of DER:
A – dead end of runway

B – departure end of runway
C – dead reckoning
D – displaced end of runway
Ans: B
3. What is DER?
A – Direct entry routing

B – Descent rate
C – Departure end of runway
D – Dead end of runway
Ans: C
4. The minimum height to which an aircraft may safely continue a precision approach, without visual
reference is known as the:
A – minimum break-off altitude

B – minimum descent altitude
C – decision altitude
D – decision height
Ans: D
5. What is a STAR?
A – Standard arrival
B – Standard instrument arrival
C – Special terminal arrival
D – Supplementary terminal arrival
Ans: B
6. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are
made is called:
A – Final approach segment

B – Initial approach segment
C – Intermediate approach segment
D – Arrival segment
Ans: A
7. What is the meaning of OCA?
A – Oceanic control area

B – Obstacle clearance altitude
C – Oceanic control area or obstacle clearance altitude
D – Occasional
Ans: C
8. OCH for a precision approach is defined as:
A – The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establishing compliance with
appropriate obstacle clearance requirements
B – The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing compliance
with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements
C – The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold, at which a missed
approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria
D – The lowest altitude at which an aircraft can perform a safe flight
Ans: C
9. What does the abbreviation OIS mean?
A – Obstruction in surface
B – Obstacle in surface
C – Obstacle identification slope
D – Obstacle identification surface
Ans: D
10. What is the meaning of MEHT?
A – Mean height over threshold

B – Maximum eye height
C – Minimum elevation height
D – Minimum eye height
Ans: D
11. What does the abbreviation DER mean?
A – Departure end of runway

B – Distance end of route
C – Departure end of route
D – Distance end of runway
Ans: A
12. A “precision approach” is a direct instrument approach…
A – using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance
information
B – using bearing, elevation and distance information
C – using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an
autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft
D – carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method
Ans: B
13. What does AAL mean?
A – Above aerodrome level

B – Angle of attack limitation
C – Acknowledge
D – Aerodrome altitude level
Ans: A
14. A visual approach is:
A – An instrument approach where the pilot has the option to continue the approach visually,
providing that he has the necessary visual criteria
B – an approach made under VFR using height and track guidance
C – Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in VMC
D – The circling part of a precision approach to a runway other than the runway on which the landing is
to be made
Ans: A
15. What does the abbreviation DER mean?
A – Dead reckoning
B – Departure end routing
C – Departure end of runway
D – Distance error rectification
Ans: C
16. Runway visual range is reported when it falls below:
A – 1500m
B – 1000m
C – 800m
D – 1200m
Ans: A
17. Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision approach.
The result is then called:
A – DH
B – MDA
C – MDH
D – DA
Ans: B
18. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring
an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach is:
A – Contact approach
B – Visual approach
C – Visual manoeuvring (circling)
D – Aerodrome traffic pattern
Ans: C
19. A radial is:
A – a magnetic bearing to a VOR station

B – a magnetic bearing extending from a VOR station
C – a magnetic bearing to or from a VOR station, depending on whether the
aircraft is inbound or outbound to or from the VOR
D – a QDM
Ans: B
20. The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called…
A – the Air Pilot

B – PANS OPS Doc 8168
C – the Air Navigation bulletin
D – the Convention of Chicago
Ans: B
21. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite
direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is
called a:
A – Procedure turn
B – Base turn
C – Race track
D – Reversal track
Ans: A
22. Which of the following defines transition altitude?
A – The altitude above which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to
local QHN
B – The flight level below which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to
1013 mb
C – The altitude below which the vertical position of an aircraft is determined by reference to QFE
D – The altitude at which 1013 mb is set and vertical position then reported as a flight level
Ans: D
23. The Transition Level:
A – shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude
B – shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established
C – is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP
D – is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in-command
Ans: A
24. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or
legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
A – Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)

B – Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC)
C – AIRAC
D – NOTAM
Ans: B
25. The approach categories of aircraft are based upon:
A – 1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at maximum certified landing mass
B – 1.3 times the stalling speed in clean configuration at minimum certified landing mass
C – 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at maximum certified landing mass
D – 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration at minimum certified landing mass
Ans: C
26. NOZ is:
A – Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS glide path course and/or MLS
initial approach track centre line
B – Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localiser course and/or MLS initial
approach track centre line
C – Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS glide path course and/or MLS final
D – Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localiser course and/or MLS final
Ans: D
27. A circling approach is:
A – A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring

B – A contact flight manoeuvre
C – A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight
D – A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC
Ans: C
28. The “estimated total time” in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:
A – of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day
B – required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport
C – required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the
flight (block time)
D – required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing
Ans: B
29. VORTAC is:
A – A combined VOR and TACAN combination where the bearing is from the VOR element and the
range from the TACAN element
B – A combined VOR and TACAN combination where the bearing is from the TACAN and the range from
the VOR
C – Range and bearing are supplied from the TACAN element and the VOR is a switch on device
D – TACAN refined for missed approach positioning
Ans: A
30. A racetrack is:
A – a right hand circuit pattern

B – taking off and landing traffic the same runway
C – traffic landing and taking-off again within 1 hour and returning to the same airport of the original
departure
D – a procedure used for descent; resembling a holding pattern (including the entry)
Ans: D
31. A precision Approach Procedure is defined as:
A – An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information

B – An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations
C – An instrument approach procedure utilising azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR
D – An approach using bearing, elevation and, optionally, distance information
Ans: C
Departure Procedures
1. What is a low visibility take-off?
A – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 400m

B – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 200m
C – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 125m
D – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 50m
Ans: A
2. In the event of a delay of 30 minutes in excess of the estimated EOBT for a controlled flight, which of
the following actions is required?
A – The flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan should be submitted and the old flight plan
cancelled, whichever is applicable
B – No action required because the air traffic system accommodates delays of up to 60 minutes
C – None, because ATC will automatically amend the current flight plan
D – A new flight plan must be submitted if required by ATC
Ans: A
3. If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is published, the
pilot is expected:
A – To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace

B – To request from ATC different heading for wind correction
C – To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track
D – To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction
Ans: A
4. A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather conditions are
prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours away. The take-off minima to be
observed at departure airfield are:
A – VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or equal to
ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
B – VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be used
C – ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required
for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with one engine out
D – ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH required
for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
Ans: D
5. Turning departures provide track guidance within:
A – 20 km
B – 5 km
C – 15 km
D – 10 km
Ans: D
6. Which of the following factors is least likely to be considered in the design of an Instrument Departure
Procedure?
A – Terrain
B – The transition altitude
C – ATC requirements
D – Airspace restrictions
Ans: B
7. Which of the following standard instrument departures is not a straight departure?
A – A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 20 o from the runway alignment
B – a departure where the initial departure track differs more than 15 o from the runway alignment
C – A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 10o from the runway alignment
D – A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 5 o from the runway alignment
Ans: B
8. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of
runway equals:
A – 0 ft
B – 394 ft
C – 35 ft
D – 50 ft
Ans: A
9. when can the required noise abatement procedure be disregarded?

A – At PIC’s discretion where safety is an issue
B – If there is work in progress on the aerodrome
C – If the RVR isles than 1500m
D – Never, it must always be complied with
Ans: A
10. 1658. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the alignment of the runway centre line
within:
A – 45o
B – 30o
C – 15o
D – 12.5o
Ans: C
11. As a standard rule, while establishing the instrument departure procedures, the procedure assumes
that the aeroplane has a climb gradient of:
A – 3.3% with all engines operating

B – 5% with all engines operating and a climb gradient margin respectively of 0.8%, 0.9%, 1% with two,
three and four engines, taking into account one engine inoperative
C – 2.4% with all engines operating and 1.5% with one engine inoperative
D – 2.4% with two engines, 2.7% with three engines, 3% with four engines
Ans: A
12. Who is responsible for the development of the contingency procedures required to cover the case of
engine failure during an instrument departure, which occurs after V1?
A – The designer of the procedure (normally the State)

B – ATC will provide radar vector for obstacle clearance
C – The operator of the aircraft
D – The pilot in close co-operation with ATC
Ans: C
13. The procedure design gradient (PDG) consists of:
A – 2.3% OIS and 1% increasing obstacle clearance margin

B – 3.3% OIS
C – 2.5% OIS and 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance margin
D – 2.7% OIS and 0.6% increasing obstacle clearance margin
Ans: C
14. For an instrument departure (SID) what is the procedure design gradient (PDG)?
A – 2.5%
B – 5%
C – 3.5%
D – 3.3%
Ans: D
15. In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of
runway equals:
A – 35 ft
B – 3.3% gradient
C – 0 ft
D – 0.8% gradient
Ans: C
16. During an omni-directional departure, what height are you required to climb to before turning onto
the desired track?
A – 1000 ft
B – Transition altitude
C – 150 m
D – 120m (394 ft)
Ans: D
17. Who is responsible for establishing contingency procedures for engine failure after take off?
A – The PIC
B – The Operator
C – The Authority
D – ATC
Ans: B
18. The main factor that dictates in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is:
A – the terrain surrounding the aerodrome

B – ATC availability and requirements
C – availability of navigation aids
D – airspace restrictions applicable and in force
Ans: A
19. A turning departure is constructed if a departure route requires a turn of more than:
A – 10o
B – 15o
C – 20o
D – 25o
Ans: B
20. Departure routes are based upon track guidance acquired within:
A – 20 km after completion of turns on departures requiring turns

B – 20 nm after completion of turns on departures requiring turns
C – 10 km after completion of turns on departures requiring turns
D – 10 nm after completion of turns on departures requiring turns
Ans: C
21. For a turning departure turns may be specified at:
A – An altitude or height
B – At a fix
C – At a facility
D – All of the above
Ans: D
22. For an omni-directional departure the procedure ensures that:
A – At least 90m of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 30 o can be specified
B – At least 90 ft of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 30o can be specified
C – At least 90m of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 15o can be specified
D – At least 90 ft of obstacle clearance will be provided before turns greater than 15o can be specified
Ans: C
23. When constructing a turning area departure the temperature used is:
A – ISA + 15oC corresponding to the altitude

B – JSA + 15oC corresponding to the altitude
C – ISA – 15oC corresponding to the altitude
D – JSA – 15oC corresponding to the altitude
Ans: A
24. We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the initial departure
track is within:
A – 5o of the alignment of the runway centre-line

B – 10o of the alignment of the runway centre-line
C – 15o of the alignment of the runway centre-line
D – 25o of the alignment of the runway centre-line
Ans: C
25. The PDG is made up of:
A – 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification

B – 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance
C – 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification plus 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance
D – 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification minus 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance
Ans: C
26. A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of
the extended runway centre line by more than:
A – 15o
B – 30o
C – 45o
D – 12.5o
Ans: A
27. The maximum distance from the DER that track guidance for a turning departure must be acquired is:
A – 5 km after the completion of the turn

B – 10 km after the completion of the turn
C – 15 km before the initiation of the turn
D – 20 km before the initiation of the turn
Ans: B
28. When taking off in IMC an aircraft should report to Departure Control:
A – when advised to do so by the Tower

B – before entering cloud
C – immediately after the aircraft is airborne
D – when established on the first heading and clear of the aerodrome
Ans: C
Approach Procedures
1. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument
approach procedure?
A – At least 300m (984 ft)

B – 150m (492 ft)
C – 300m (984 ft)
D – At least 150m (492 ft)
Ans: A
2. What action should be taken if contact is lost with the aerodrome on the downwind leg?
A – Request an amended clearance
B – descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude
C – Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome
D – Initiate a missed approach
Ans: D
3. Which of the following approach speed ranges (Vat) is applicable for Category B aircraft?
A – 224 km/h to 261 km/h

B – 121 kts to 141 kts
C – 261 km/h to 307 km/h
D – 91 kts to 120 kts
Ans: D
4. During circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight track), the maximum allowed airspeed for a
Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope is:
A – 125 kt
B – 120 kt
C – 135 kt
D – 150 kt
Ans: C
5. The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of:
A – 30 NM
B – 10 NM
C – 15 NM
D – 25 NM
Ans: D
6. How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure?
A–3
B – Up to 5
C–4
D – Up to 4
Ans: B
7. The ILS glide path is normally intercepted between:
A – 5 and 10 NM
B – 3 and 7 NM
C – 4 and 8 NM
D – 3 and 10 NM
Ans: D
8. The optimum descent gradient in the final approach should not exceed:
A – 6.5 percent
B – 3 percent
C – 5 percent
D – 7.5 percent
Ans: C
9. If you lose the necessary visual references while “circling visual”, you should:
A – turn towards the airport maintaining the visual circling altitude/height

B – start the missed approach procedure
C – make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and when overhead the airport climb on
the missed approach track
D – climb straight ahead to MSA
Ans: C
10. In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway
elevation from:
A – 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft)

B – 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft)
C – 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft)
D – 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft)
Ans: C
11. For a circling approach, the minimum OCH above aerodrome level is:
A – 200 ft
B – depends on aircraft category
C – 394 ft
D – 591 ft
Ans: B
12. On a non-precision approach a so-called “straight-in-approach is considered acceptable, if the angle

between the final approach track and the runway centre line is:
A – 40 degrees or less
B – 30 degrees or less
C – 20 degrees or less
D – 10 degrees or less
Ans: B
13. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance
(MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is:
A – 90m (295 ft)

B – 50 m (164 ft)
C – 30 m (98 ft)
D – 120m (384 ft)
Ans: C
14. A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and
the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a:
A – Procedure turn
B – Base turn
C – Reversal procedure
D – Race track
Ans: B
15. Minimum sector altitudes are determine by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are
established for a distance from the IAF of:
A – 5 NM
B – 20 NM
C – 10 NM
D – 25 NM
Ans: D
16. During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach
segment primary area is equal to:
A – 150m (492 ft)

B – 210m (690 ft)
C – 300m (984 ft)
D – 120m (394 ft)
Ans: C
17. The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is:
A – ±12.5 NM
B – ±10 NM
C – ±5 NM
D – ±2.5 NM
Ans: C
18. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made
until:
1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight
2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained
3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made
The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:
A – 2, 3
B – 1, 2
C – 1, 2, 3
D – 1, 3
Ans: C
19. The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the
assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
A – 25o or the bank angle giving a 3o/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach
instrument procedures, 25o for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15o for missed
approach procedures
B – 25o or the bank angle giving a 3o/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach
instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15o for missed approach procedures
C – The bank angle giving a 3o/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeedlimitation related to
aeroplane categories
D – 25o or the bank angle giving a 3o/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed
approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks)
Ans: D
20. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
A – Arrival, intermediate and final

B – Arrival, initial, intermediate and final
C – Initial, intermediate and final
D – Initial and final
Ans: C
21. Which is the minimum obstacle clearance within the primary area of an intermediate approach
segment?
A – 150 m
B – 150 ft
C – 300 m
D – 300 ft
Ans: A
22. If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected that the
pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
A – Landing runway
B – MAP
C – FAF
D – Final missed approach track
Ans: A
23. Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches?
A – The appropriate authority of the State of the aerodrome

B – The State of Registry of the aircraft
C – The operator
D – The appropriate authority of the State of the aircraft operator
Ans: A
24. An instrument approach procedure consists of:
A – 5 segments
B – 4 segments
C – 6 segments
D – 3 segments
Ans: A
25. During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance
(MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is:
A – 120m (384 ft)

B – 30m (98 ft)
C – 90m (295 ft)
D – 50m (164 ft)
Ans: D
26. What is the normal procedure design climb gradient for a missed approach procedure?
A – 3o
B – 2.5%
C – 3.3%
D – 2.5o
Ans: B
27. In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least:
A – decreasing from 984 to 492 ft

B – 1476 ft
C – 492 ft
D – 984 ft
Ans: D
28. The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:
A – the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully
B – a defined area symmetrically disposed about the normal flight track in which full obstacle clearance
is provided
C – the first part of the segment
D – the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from 0 ft to the
appropriate minimum
Ans: B
29. Under what circumstances would an ILS glide path in excess of 3o be used?
A – Where other means of obstacle clearance are impracticable

B – For aircraft with STOL capabilities
C – Where noise abatement restrictions make a less steep approach impracticable
D – Parallel runway operations
Ans: A
30. Where does the initial section of a missed approach procedure end?
A – When a height of 50 m has been achieved and maintained

B – When established in the climb
C – At the missed approach point
D – When en-route either to hold or departure
Ans: B
31. Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?
A – At the IF
B – At the IAF
C – At the FAF
D – At the final en-route fix
Ans: B
32. Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning
segment from a fix to the localiser. The DR track will:
A – Intersect the localiser at 30o and will not be more than 10 NM in length
B – Intersect the localiser at 30o and will not be more than 5 NM in length
C – Intersect the localiser at 45o and will not be more than 5 NM in length
D – Intersect the localiser at 45o and will not be more than 10 NM in length
Ans: D
33. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

A – Aerodrome elevation
B – Aerodrome reference point
C – Relevant runway threshold
D – Mean sea level
Ans: D
34. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
A – FAF
B – MAP
C – FAP
D – IF
Ans: C
35. Descend below MDA/H is only allowed when…
A – the cross-wind component is less than 25 kts

B – the published time from the outer marker to the MAP has elapsed
C – visual reference with the runway is established and can be maintained
D – the pilot is familiar with the published procedure
Ans: C
36. In a procedure turn (45o/180o), a 45o turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of
turn for categories A and B aircraft for:
A – 1 minute
B – 1 minute 15 seconds
C – 1 minute 30 seconds
D – 2 minutes
Ans: A
37. The factors considered in the calculations of DA/DH are:
A – The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the approach or missed approach paths including an
allowance for aircraft speed and height loss on any go around, plus a margin for operational factors
B – The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the final approach path only, plus a margin for height
loss on any go around
C – The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the final approach path including an allowance for
aircraft speed plus a margin
D – The OCA/H based on the highest obstacle in the missed approach path only plus an allowance for
height loss on any go around
Ans: A
38. Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach procedure?
A – the “flight operations” of the company
B – the operator
C – the pilot-in-command
D – the state
Ans: D
39. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
A – at the point where the climb is established

B – at the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated
C – at the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained
D – at the missed approach point
Ans: A
40. When determining the OCA/OCH for a precision approach, obstacle height is referenced to:
A – MSL
B – aerodrome reference point
C – threshold
D – highest obstacle within 25 nm of aerodrome
Ans: C
41. When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance
altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:
A – Only for categories A and B aircraft

B – For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them
C – Only for categories C, D and E aircraft
D – For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them
Ans: B
42. What is the most important factor when designing an instrument departure procedure?
A – navigation aids
B – terrain
C – ATC requirements
D – weather
Ans: B
43. The NTZ extends from ___ to ___
A – the nearer runway threshold, the point at which both aircraft are established on the centre line of
the runways
B – the threshold of the nearer runway, the point at which 1000 ft vertical separation is reduced
between aircraft
C – the final approach fix, the end of the nearest runway
D – the start of the approach, the touchdown point of the first runway
Ans: B
44. Which of the following is not shown on an approach plate?
A – OCA/OCH
B – DME frequency
C – NDB location
D – field elevation
Ans: B
45. What is the normal minimum missed approach gradient?
A – 2.5%
B – 0.9%
C – 3.3%
D – 4.2%
Ans: A
46. For a category 1 precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than:
A – 150 ft
B – 250 ft
C – 200 ft
D – 100 ft
Ans: C
47. In a precision approach (ILS) obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally
deviate from the centre line, after being established on track, more than:
A – One and a half of scale deflection

B – One scale deflection
C – A quarter of scale deflection
D – Half a scale deflection
Ans: D
48. Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of:
A – 0.8%
B – 2.5%
C – 3.3%
D – 5%
Ans: B
49. If, during a visual circling, visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach,
the pilot shall:
A – Make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and follow the missed approach
procedures
B – Require immediate assistance from ATC which is obliged to provide radar vectors in order to
maintain obstacle clearance
C – Descend further in order to reach an altitude where visual reference can be maintained
D – Climb straight ahead to the minimum sector altitude
Ans: A
50. When performing a circling approach, descent below MDA/H should not be made until:
A – the pilot has visual reference and the required obstacles clearance can be maintained
B – required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to execute a safe
landing
C – Visual reference is established and can be maintained, the landing threshold is in sight, the
required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be executed
D – You are clear of clouds
Ans: C
51. Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the
required minimum obstacle clearance, is:
A – 8%
B – 5%
C – 7%
D – 6.5%
Ans: D
52. During a visual circling, descent below MDA/H shall not be made until:
A) Visual reference has been established and can be maintained

B) The pilot has the landing threshold in sight
C) The required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to carry out a
landing
D) A landing clearance has been received by ATC
A – A, B and D
B – A and B
C–
D – A, B and C
Ans: D
53. Where does the missed approach procedures start:
A – At DH/MDH
B – At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost
D – Over the threshold of the instrument runway
Ans: C
54. If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be
taken?
A – Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling altitude
B – Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual contact
C – If you have other visual cues, continues with ground contact
D – Initiate a missed approach
Ans: D
55. How many aircraft approach categories are applicable to the new ICAO instrument approach
procedures:
A–3
B–4
C–5
D–6
Ans: C
56. For the construction of precision approaches, which is the operationally preferred glide path angle?
A – 3o
B – 3.8o
C – 3%
D – 6.5%
Ans: A
57. Minimum sector altitudes published on approach charts provide at least the following obstacle
clearance:
A – 300m within 25 km of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that
aerodrome
B – 300m within 25 nm of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that
aerodrome
C – 300m within 25 km of the FAF or FAP
D – 300m within 25 nm of the initial approach fix
Ans: B
58. Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from
the centre line more than:
A – half scale deflection of the glide path indicator and horizontal 35o off the centre line
B – full scale deflection of the localiser indicator
C – half scale deflection of the localiser indicator
D – full scale deflection of the localiser indicator and half scale deflection of the glide path indication
Ans: C
59. The initial approach segment starts at the ___ and the obstacle clearance (MOC) provided in the
primary area is ___
A – initial approach fix, 300m

B – initial approach fix, 600m
C – intermediate fix, 150m
D – final approach fix, 150m
Ans: A
60. For precision approaches, the Final Approach Point (FAP) is set at a specified distance from the
threshold of the instrument runway. What is the maximum this distance can be?
A – 9 km (5 nm)
B – 19 km (10 nm)
C – 28 km (15 nm)
D – 38 km (20 nm)
Ans: B
61. Where 2 aircraft are established on adjacent parallel ILS localisers, what is the minimum radar
separation permitted under mode 2 operations?
A – 2 NM
B – 3 NM
C – 4 NM
D – 5 NM
Ans: A
62. Where does the intermediate missed approach segment end?
A – At the point where the climb is established

B – Where the turn towards the IAF is made
C – Where 50m obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained
D – At 394 ft AGL
Ans: C
63. What obstacle clearance is guaranteed in the initial segment?
A – 150m (492 ft)

B – 300m (984 ft)
C – 200m (656 ft)
D – Reducing from 300m to 150m
Ans: B
64. Where ends the initial missed approach segment?
A – At the IAF
B – At the point where the climb is established
C – At the point where a turn is executed
D – When an obstacle clearance of 164 ft is obtained
Ans: B
65. The obstacle clearance surfaces of an ILS approach assumes a pilot localiser accuracy of:
A – ¼ scale
B – ½ scale
C – Full scale
D – On localiser centre line only
Ans: B
66. For a 45/180 procedure turn, what is the outbound leg time for a cat B aircraft?
A – 45 sec
B – 1 min
C – 1 min 15 sec
D – 1 min 30 sec
Ans: B
67. A missed approach procedure consists of:
A – 2 phases
B – 3 phases
C – 4 phases
D – 5 phases
Ans: B
68. What is the steepest descent path permitted for a non-precision approach?
A – 5%
B – 6.5%
C – 4.5%
D – 3.5%
Ans: B
69. What is the maximum gradient for the final approach segment of a non-precision approach?
A – 5.0%
B – 3.5%
C – 3.0%
D – 6.5%
Ans: D
70. In a procedure turn (45o/180o), a 45o turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of
the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for:
A – 1 minute 30 seconds
B – 1 minute
C – 1 minute 15 seconds
D – 2 minutes
Ans: C
71. What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR/DME non-precision approach?
A – 350 ft
B – 250 ft
C – 200 ft
D – 125 ft
Ans: B
72. In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
A – the OCH
B – 200 ft
C – 350 ft
D – 400 ft
Ans: A
73. A CAT 1 operation is a precision approach and landing using an ILS, MLS or PAR with a DH not lower
than ___ ft and with a RVR not less than ___ m.
A – 250, 800
B – 200, 550
C – 150, 1200
D – 75, 350
Ans: B
74. If a step-down fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to:
A – pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory
B – follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path
C – pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude
D – leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPT
Ans: C
75. What is the obstacle clearance in the intermediate approach segment?
A – 150m (492 ft)

B – 300m (984 ft)
C – 200m (656 ft)
D – Reducing from 300m to 150m
Ans: D
76. In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a
vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:
A – 6m
B – 3m
C – 9m
D – 12m
Ans: A
77. The initial missed approach segment:
A – Begins at the MAPT and ends where the climb is established

B – Begins at the threshold and ends at the point where the climb is established
C – Begins where the pilot loses the guidance criteria and ends when OCH is passed
D – Begins at MDH and ends when 50m OCH is obtained and can be maintained
Ans: A
78. During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument procedure, what is the obstacle clearance
provided (not in mountainous areas)?
A – 300m
B – Not less than 300m
C – 300m reducing to 150m
D – It depends upon the MSA
Ans: B
79. In a category A aircraft, what reversing turn manoeuvre takes 2 minutes in still air?
A – 80/260 procedure turn

B – 45/180 procedure turn
C – Base turn
D – Racetrack
Ans: A
80. Where does the initial sector of a missed approach procedure end?
A – When a height of 50m has been achieved and can be maintained

B – When the climb is established
D – When en-route either to the hold or to the point of joining route to the alternate
Ans: B
81. The obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment is at least:
A – 750 ft
B – 500 ft
C – 1500 ft
D – 984 ft
Ans: D
82. Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts are based on
a minimum climb gradient of:
A – 2%
B – 2.5%
C – 5%
D – 3.3%
Ans: B
83. Which of the following correctly defines the NOZ for parallel runway operations:
A – The NOZ extends from runway threshold to the point where aircraft are normally established on
the localiser
B – the NOZ is the aerodrome ground area where movement of aircraft does not interfere with landing
operations
C – The NOZ is the airspace in the vicinity of the control tower where ILS operations are conducted
D – Both A and B are correct
Ans: A
84. Within how many degrees of the published approach track would the aircraft be “established” for an
NDB procedure?
A - +/- 10 deg
B - +/- 5 deg
C – Half scale deflection of the track guidance display instrument
D - +/- 7.5 deg
Ans: B
85. Where does the final approach segment for a precision approach start?
A – FAF
B – IAF
C – FAH
D – FAP
Ans: D
86. It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists
in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When
this option is exercised, the published procedure:
A – Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists
B – Permits circling only in VMC
C – Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists
D – Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway
Ans: A
87. A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases:
A – Initial and final

B – Arrival, intermediate and final
C – Arrival, initial, intermediate and final
D – Initial, intermediate and final
Ans: D
88. One of the conditions to descend below the MDA on a circling approach is:
A – The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight
B – The required visual references have been established and can be maintained
C – The ceiling is 1500 ft or higher
D – The horizontal visibility is at least 5 NM and the ceiling is 1500 ft or higher
Ans: B
89. What is the correct name for a turn from the outbound to the inbound section of an approach?
A – a procedure turn
B – a reverse procedure turn
C – a racetrack
D – a base leg turn
Ans: A
90. On an instrument approach – when may the pilot descend below MSA?
i) When the terrain below the aircraft and the destination airfield is in sight and is likely to remain
so
ii) When under radar control
iii) When visual with the underlying terrain but not the airfield
iv) When commencing a published approach procedure
A – all of the above

B – i and iv
C – i, ii and iv
D – ii and iii
Ans: C
91. What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR non-precision approach?
A – 250 ft
B – 300 ft
C – 350 ft
D – 450 ft
Ans: B
92. What is the lowest possible MDH for an NDB non-precision approach?
A – 250 ft
B – 300 ft
C – 350 ft
D – 500 ft
Ans: B
93. What is the lowest possible MDH for an ILS (without glide slope) non-precision approach?
A – 100 ft
B – 200 ft
C – 250 ft
D – 300 ft
Ans: C
94. What is the lowest possible MDH for an ILS back-beam (localiser back-course) non-precision approach?
A – 100 ft
B – 200 ft
C – 300 ft
D – not approved
Ans: D
95. What is the lowest possible MDH for a SRA non-precision approach terminating at 1 NM?
A – 200 ft
B – 250 ft
C – 300 ft
D – 350 ft
Ans: C
96. What is the primary area during the intermediate section of an instrument approach?
A – ¼ of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the
approach
B – ½ of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the
approach
C – ¾ of the total width of the airspace used to determine the minimum obstacle clearance for the
approach
D – 10 NM either side of the approach path
Ans: B
97. What is the distance on final approach within which the controller should suggest that the aircraft
executes a missed approach if the aircraft either disappears from the radar for a significant time or the
identity of the aircraft is in doubt?
A – 0.5 NM
B – 1 NM
C – 2 NM
D – 3 NM
Ans: C
98. An MSA Provides:
A – 300m obstacle clearance within 46 km of the homing facility associated with the approach
procedure for that aerodrome
B – 300 ft obstacle clearance within 46 km of the homing facility associated with the approach
C – 300 ft obstacle clearance within 25 NM of the homing facility associated with the approach
D – 300m obstacle clearance within 20 km of the homing facility associated with the approach
Ans: A
99. Normally, a procedure will be designed to provide protected airspace and obstacle clearance for
aircraft up to and including:
A – Category A
B – Category B
C – Category C
D – Category D
Ans: D
100. For a non-precision approach, the elevation of the relevant runway threshold is used for OCA/H
reference if:
A – The threshold elevation is more than 2m below the aerodrome elevation

B – The threshold elevation is less than 2m below the aerodrome elevation
C – The threshold elevation is more than 2m above and below the aerodrome elevation
D – The threshold elevation is less than 2m above and below the aerodrome elevation
Ans: A
101. When constructing an instrument approach, the accuracy of a VOR providing track guidance is
assumed to be:
A – ±5.2o
B – ±2.4o
C – ±6.9o
D – ±4.5o
Ans: A
102. When constructing an instrument approach, the overall tolerance of an intersecting facility is assumed
to be:
A – ±4.5o, for a VOR where less than 300m obstacle clearance prevails the accuracy is considered to be ±7.8o
B – ±4.5o for an NDB where less than 300 ft obstacle clearance prevails the accuracy is considered to be ±7.8o
C – ±6.2o for a VOR where less than 300m obstacle clearance prevails the accuracy is considered to be ±10.3o
D – ±4.5o for a VOR where less than 300 ft obstacle clearance prevails the accuracy is considered to be ±10.3o
Ans: A
103. For an ASR, within 40 nm of the radar, fix tolerance is assumed to be:
A – ±1.5 km
B – ±1.5 nm
C – ±3.1 km
D – ±3.1 nm
Ans: C
104. When constructing a turning missed approach the pilot reaction time taken into account is:
A – 0-3 seconds
B – 0-5 seconds
C – 3-5 seconds
D – 3 seconds
Ans: A
105. The climb gradient of a missed approach can be reduced to:
A – 2% if the necessary survey and safeguarding can be provided with the approval of the
appropriate authority
B – 0.8% if the necessary survey and safeguarding can be provided with the approval of the
C – 1.5% if the necessary survey and safeguarding can be provided with the approval of the
D – 3.3% if the necessary survey and safeguarding can be provided with the approval of the
Ans: A
106. If a turn of greater than 15o is required during a missed approach the turn is not allowed:
A – Until at least 50 ft vertical clearance has been ensured

B – Until at least 50 m vertical clearance has been ensured
C – Until at least 100 ft vertical clearance has been ensured
D – Until at least 100 m vertical clearance has been ensured
Ans: B
107. If a dead reckoning segment is used in a STAR to intercept a localiser, what is its maximum angle of
intersect and length?
A – 30o and 10 NM
B – 30o and 5 NM
C – 45o and 10 NM
D – 45o and 5 NM
Ans: C
108. A category 1 precision approach (CAT 1) has:
A – a decision height equal to at least 50 ft

B – a decision height equal to at least 100 ft
C – a decision height equal to at least 200 ft
D – no decision height
Ans: C
109. Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its
descend below the OCA?
A – When it seems possible to land

B – When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight
C – When the aircraft has the control tower in sight
D – When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet
Ans: B
110. Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an
instrument approach procedure?
A – 150m (492 ft)

B – 300m (984 ft)
C – 450m (1476 ft)
D – 600m (1968 ft)
Ans: A
111. A so called VISUAL APPROACH can be performed:
A – during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground
B – during IFR and VFR flights in VMC
C – during IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that
procedure
D – as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5.5 km or more
Ans: A
112. During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC condition, traffic
avoidance is the responsibility of:
A – the airport controller

B – the pilot-in-command
C – the approach controller
D – the radar controller
Ans: B
113. Minimum sector altitudes are established for each aerodrome and provide at least ___ ft obstacle
clearance within ___ NM of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure at the
aerodrome.
A – 984,25
B – 1000,25
C – 300,46
D – 300,25
Ans: A
114. In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:
A – Base turn
B – Racetrack pattern
C – Procedure turn
D – Shuttle
Ans: D
115. Where independent parallel runway operations are in progress, what is the maximum permitted
interception angle to intercept the localiser (centre line)?
A – 20o
B – 25o
C – 30o
D – 45o
Ans: C
116. What is the lowest DH for a CAT-1 ILS?
A – 100 ft above the threshold

B – 100 ft above the aerodrome elevation
C – 100 ft above MSL
D – 200 ft above the threshold
Ans: D
117. In case of a non-precision approach, the angle between the extended runway centre line and the final
approach track is ___ degrees or less.
A – 30o
B – 20o
C – 15o
D – 10o
Ans: A
118. Which of the following would be regarded as “established” on the localiser of an ILS approach?
A – Within 10 deg of the published track

B – Within 5 deg of the published track
C – Within half-scale deviation of the CDI
D – Not specified until the OM has been passed
Ans: C
119. What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach procedure?
A – Arrival, initial, intermediate, final and missed approach

B – Arrival, primary, intermediate, final and missed approach
C – Arrival, primary, secondary, final and missed approach
D – Arrival, initial, intermediate, final and landing
Ans: A
120. The holding direction of a holding pattern is 052o(M). You are flying inbound to hold on a track of
232o(M). What type of joint should you make?
A – Direct
B – Parallel
C – Offset
D – Pilot choice (B or C)
Ans: D
121. Under which circumstances may a pilot deviate from a published instrument approach procedure?
A – If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure
B – Under no circumstances a pilot may deviate from a published instrument approach procedure
C – If visual reference is established before the completion of the instrument approach procedure and
the aircraft is cleared for a visual approach
D – None of the above is correct
Ans: C
122. EAT is the time that an aircraft:
A – is expected to join the holding pattern

B – is expected to leave the hold and commence its approach
C – is expected to land
D – is expected to cross the FAF of FAP
Ans: B
123. What is the minimum visibility for a visual circling approach for a Category B aircraft?
A – 1500m
B – 1900m
C – 2800m
D – 3500m
Ans: A
124. What is the minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the end of the primary area of the
intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?
A – 300m (984 ft) reducing to 150m (492 ft)

B – 150m (492 ft) reducing to 0m
C – 450m (1476 ft) reducing to 150m (492 ft)
D – 300m (984 ft) reducing to 0m
Ans: A
125. For a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than:
A – 200 ft
B – the Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH)
C – 350 ft
D – 400 ft
Ans: B
126. Minimum Sector Altitudes are established for each aerodrome. The MSA provides an obstacle
clearance of at least 300m (984 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach
procedure. The radium of this circle is:
A – 25 NM
B – 20 NM
C – 10 NM
D – 5 NM
Ans: A
127. What are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure?
A – Initial, intermediate, final

B – Arrival, holding, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach
C – Descend, holding, arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach
D – Arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach
Ans: D
128. On an instrument approach, what is the maximum permissible descent gradient in the final approach?
A – 3o
B – 5%
C – 6.5%
D – 4.5o
Ans: C
129. The obstacle clearance in the primary area of an intermediate approach is:
A – Not more than 150m

B – Reduces from 300m to 150m
C – Equal to or greater than 300m
D – 500m in mountainous terrain
Ans: B
130. Name the criteria for descent below MDH on a VMC approach?
A – Threshold in view, able to keep visual reference to terrain, clear of cloud

B – Clearance from ATC, threshold in view, inside aerodrome traffic zone
C – Runway visual, 5 km visibility and clear of cloud
D – Visual glide path indication of ‘on glide path’ and VMC exists
Ans: A
131. When two aircraft are following the same localizer approach course the minimum radar separation
between them required for wake turbulence must be:
A – 2 NM
B – 3 NM
C – 4 NM
D – 5 NM
Ans: C
Holding Procedures
1. In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a:
A – rate of 3o per second

B – rate of 3o per second or at a bank angle of 25o, which ever requires the lesser bank
C – maximum bank angle of 25o
D – rate of 3o per second or at a bank angle of 20o, which ever requires the lesser bank
Ans: B
2. Standard airway holding pattern below 14000 ft?
A – Left hand turns/1 minute outbound

B – Right hand turns/1.5 minutes outbound
C – Right hand turns/1 minute outbound
D – Left hand turns/1.5 minutes outbound
Ans: C
3. What is the deviation allowed either side of track between entry sectors when joining a hold?
A – 5 degrees
B – 2.5 degrees
C – 100 degrees
D – 20 degrees
Ans: A
4. Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the
sectors boundaries of:
A – 20 degrees
B – 15 degrees
C – 5 degrees
D – 10 degrees
Ans: C
5. What is the minimum obstacle clearance guaranteed at the edge of the buffer area (5 nm outside of
the holding area) of a holding pattern?
A – 300m (1000 ft) (2000 ft in mountainous areas)

B – 150m (500 ft)
C – 90m (300 ft)
D – 0m (0 ft)
Ans: D
6. You are flying inbound on radial 232 towards VOR EDI. When you are required to hold overhead the
VOR on radial 052, what type of entry will you perform?
A – A direct entry
B – A parallel or offset entry
C – An offset entry
D – A reciprocal entry
Ans: B
7. In an offset entry into an omni-directional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30o offset track is
limited to:
B – 1 minute
C – 2 minutes
D – 3 minutes
Ans: A
8. An expected approach time is given:
A – when an aircraft is instructed to hold

B – on all flights
C – once an aircraft has been holding for 20 minutes
D – on request
Ans: A
9. What will be your action if you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern?
A – Follow the radio communication failure procedure

B – a non-standard holding pattern is permitted
C – it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilot’s discretion
D – inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance
Ans: D
10. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern below FL 140 (no wind)?
A – 1.5 minutes
B – 1 minute
C – 2 minutes
D – 1 minute or 2 minutes, depending on the actual IAS
Ans: B
11. In a holding pattern, the pilot should attempt to maintain the ___ by making allowance for wind by
applying corrections to ___ during entry and while flying the holding pattern.
A – track, heading
B – heading, time
C – track, heading and time
D – heading, track and time
Ans: C
12. You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is: All turns to
the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052o. You are approaching the fix on an inbound magnetic
Track 232o. Select the available entry procedure:
A – Either “offset” or “parallel”

B – Offset
C – Parallel
D – Direct
Ans: A
13. In a standard holding pattern turns are made:
A – in a direction depending on the entry

B – to the left
C – to the right
D – in a direction depending on the wind direction
Ans: C
14. Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding pattern
shall be made into which direction?
A – Teardrop to the left and then to the right
B – To the left
C – First right and then to the left
D – To the right
Ans: D
15. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
A – 30 seconds
B – 2 minutes
C – 1.5 minutes
D – 1 minute
Ans: D
16. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
A – 2 minutes 30 seconds
B – 1 minute
C – 1.5 minutes
D – 1 minute
Ans: D
17. The maximum angle of bank to be used in a holding pattern is:
A – 15o
B – 25o
C – 30o
D – 35o
Ans: B
18. In a holding pattern all turns should be made:
A – to the right
B – to the left
C – to the right except otherwise described by the appropriate authority
D – left or right depending on the entry procedure
Ans: C
19. Which is the normal still air outbound time in a holding pattern?
A – One and one half minute for altitudes above 14000 ft

B – One and one half minute for altitudes above 10000 ft
C – One minute for altitudes above 14000 ft
D – None of the above is correct
Ans: A
20. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according to:
A – Bearing
B – Course
C – Heading
D - Track
Ans: C
21. In the hold at FL 60, what is the normal holding speed in a CATEGORY C aircraft?
A – 170 kts
B – 210 kts
C – 230 kts
D – 150 kts
Ans: C
22. You are flying towards a VOR on the 320 radial and have been told to hold on the 045 radial at FL 60.
What type of entry to the holding pattern is required?
A – Direct
B – Parallel
C – Offset
D – Either B or C
Ans: B
23. When holding at F 110, what is the normal outbound leg time?
A – 30 secs
B – 1 min 30 secs
C – 1 min 15 secs
D – 1 min
Ans: D
24. The minimum permissible holding level provides a clearance above the obstacles of at least ___ in the
holding area:
A – 984 ft
B – 492 ft
C – 394 ft
D – 197 ft
Ans: A
25. In a holding pattern, turns are to be made:
A – At a bank angle of 20o or at a rate of 3o per second, whichever requires the lesser bank
B – At a bank angle of 15o or at a rate of 3o per second, whichever requires the lesser bank
C – At a bank angle of 30o or at a rate of 3o per second, whichever requires the lesser bank
D – At a bank angle of 25o or at a late of 3o per second, whichever requires the lesser bank
Ans: D
26. The still air time for flying the outbound heading should not exceed ___ if above 14,000 ft:
A – 1.5 minutes
B – 2 minutes
C – 2.5 minutes
D – not specified
Ans: A
27. When you are asked to hold on a non-standard holding fix (eg en route) what direction are the turns
made?
A – Right
B – Left
C – At pilot’s discretion
D – It depends upon the inbound holding track
Ans: A
28. How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area?
A – 3 km
B – 3 NM
C – 5 km
D – 5 NM
Ans: D
29. What obstacle clearance is guaranteed at a range of 5 nm from the edge of the holding area?
A – 100m
B – 250m
C – 300m
D – Nil
Ans: D
30. What is the rate of turn/bank angle required for turns in a holding pattern?
A – 30 deg bank angle minimum

B – 3 degrees per second
C – 15 degrees bank angle maximum
D – 5 degrees per second
Ans: B
31. What is the name of a climb or descent in a holding pattern?
A – Base turn
B – Shuttle
C – Procedure turn
D – Vertical manoeuvre
Ans: B
32. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for
any particular holding pattern, he should:
A – advise ATC as early as possible

B – execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his aeroplane
C – remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding
D – follow the radio communication failure procedure
Ans: A
33. You are required to carry out an offset joining procedure to enter a holding pattern. What is the
required track divergence from the reciprocal inbound track from on top of the fix towards the
outbound leg?
A – 20o
B – 30o
C – 45o
D – 60o
Ans: B
34. Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft which will be the maximum speed?
A – 230 KT TAS
B – 240 KT IAS
C – 240 KT TAS
D – 230 KT IAS
Ans: D
35. The entry into a holding pattern shall be according to:
A – Magnetic heading in relation to the three entry sectors

B – Magnetic track in relation to the three entry sectors
C – True heading in relation to the three entry sectors
D – True track in relation to the three entry sectors
Ans: A
36. You are flying towards a VOR on the 230 radial and have been told to hold on the 043 radial at FL60.
What type of entry to the holding pattern is required?
A – Direct
B – Parallel
C – Offset
D – Either B or C
Ans: B
37. You are required to carry out a teardrop entry into a holding pattern. Having reached the fix, the
aircraft is turned onto a heading to make good a track making an angle of ___ degrees from the
reciprocal of the inbound track on the holding site.
A – 20
B – 30
C – 45
D – 60
Ans: B
38. Which of the following defines standard holding procedure?
A – Right turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14000 ft

B – Left turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14000 ft
C – Right turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes below 14000 ft
D – Left turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes below 14000 ft
Ans: A
39. In a standard holding pattern, all turns should be made ___

A – to the right at a bank angle of 25 degrees or at a rate of 3 degrees per second, whichever requires
the lesser bank
B – to the left at a bank angle of 25 degrees or at a rate of 3 degrees per second, whichever requires
the lesser bank
C – to the right at a bank angle of 25 degrees or at a rate of 3 degrees per second, whichever requires
the highest bank
D – to the left at a bank angle of 25 degrees or at a rate of 3 degrees per second, whichever requires
the highest bank
Ans: A
40. What kind of entry into a holding pattern is made if the aircraft is approaching the holding fix in sector
one?
A – Offset
B – Parallel
C – Direct
D – Either A or B at pilot’s discretion
Ans: B
41. An Expected Approach Time (EAT) will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft
when it is expected that it has to hold:
A – for 30 minutes or more

B – for 10 minutes or more
C – for 15 minutes or more
D – for 20 minutes or more
Ans: A
42. The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is:
B – 1 minute
C – 2 minutes
D – 2 minutes 30 seconds
Ans: A
43. The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions is:
A – 2 minutes
B – 1 minute
C – 1.5 minutes
D – 30 seconds
Ans: B
44. What is the longest periodof time that you can fly the 30o leg of a teardrop procedure when joining a
holding pattern?
B – 2 minutes 30 seconds
C – 3 minutes
D – 30 seconds
Ans: A
45. An aircraft is inbound to the hold on a track of 190oM. The inbound hold track is 010oM. The correct
entry type would be:
A – parallel or direct
B – offset or direct
C – parallel or offset
D – reciprocal or direct
Ans: C
IFR (AIRWAYS) FLIGHT PLANNING
Meteorological considerations
1. Given the following TAF/METAR: What are the lowest cloud conditions (oktas/feet) forecast for
JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0300 UTC?
JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS FAJS/JNB FT0900 120900Z 121212 36010KT 9999 FEW030CB FEW035 PROB40
TEMPO 1318 VRB15KT 3000 TSRA SCT030CB BKN080 FM2000 03005KT CAVOK BECMG 0204 SCT008 SCT100
PROB30 0305 3000 BCFG BKN004 FM0800 34012KT 9999 SCT025 T25/12Z T15/03Z T27/12Z=
A – 5 to 7 at 800
B – 3 to 4 at 800
C – 5 to 7 at 400
D – 3 to 4 at 400
Ans: C
2. Given the following TAF/METAR: Which best describes the weather, if any, at Lyon/Satolas at 1330
UTC?
LYONS/SATOLAS LFLL/LYS SA1330 121330Z 14007KT 9000 –TSRA FEW020CB SCT033TCU BKN046 09/07 Q1003
NOSIG=
FC1100r 121100Z 121221 VRB03KT 9999 FEW010 SCT020 BKN040 BECMG 1821 33006KT TEMPO 1221
VRB15G20KT 4000 SHRA SCT008 BKN015=
FT1000 121000Z 121812 33004KT 9999 SCT025 BKN060 BECMG 2224 VRB02KT 8000 SCT010 SCT020
BECMG 0204 1500 BR BKN003 TEMPO 0407 0800 FG OVC002 BECMG 0810 33006KT 9999 SCT015 BKN030=
A – nil
B – Frequent rain showers
C – Fog
D – Light rain associated with thunderstorms
Ans: D
3. Refer to weather information for Birmingham. What is the total time for which the weather is
forecast?
BIRMINGHAM EGBB/BHX SA0850 280850 18014KT 9999 SCT024 BKN030 BKN045 12/08 Q1011=
FC0600 280600Z 280816 190015G27KT 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 0812 5000 –

DZ BKN012 BECMG 1214 19022G37=
FT0400 280434Z 281212 19022G37 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 1902 5000 RA BKN010 BECMG 2201 25007 KT
FT0400 280434Z 281212 19022G37 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 1902 5000 RA BKN010 BECMG 2201 25007 KT
A – 9 hours
B – 18 hours
C – 24 hours
D – 28 hours
Ans: D
4. G11iven the following TAF/METAR: What maximum windspeed (kt) is forecast for
BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC AT 1600 UTC ?
5. Bordeaux/MerignacLFBD/BOD SA1330 121330Z 21005KT 9000 FEW030TCU FEW 033CB SCT040
BKN100 09/08 Q1005 TEMPO 25015G25KT 3000 TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB= FC1100R 121100Z 121221
28010KT 9999 –RA SCT020 FEW025CB SCT040 TEMPO 1218 25015G25KT 6000 SHRA SCT008 SCT020CB
BKN033 PROB30 TEMPO 1218 28020G(30)KT 3000 TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB BECMG 1821 22004KT
8000 NSW FEW006 BKN030= FT1000 121000Z 121812 30010KT 9999 SCT020 FEW025CB BKN040
BECMG 1822 22004KT 8000 FEW006 BKN030 BECMG 0306 24005KT 6000 SCT007 SCT015 BKN090
BECMG 1012 –RA=
A – 10
B–5
C – 30
D – 25
Ans: C
6. A METAR reads: SA1430 35002KY 7000 SKC 21/03 Q1024=

Which of the following information is contained in this METAR?
A – temperature/dewpoint
B – runway in use
C – day/month
D – period of validity
Ans: A
7. Refer to the TAF below: What are the lowest cloud conditions forecast for 1900 UTC at HAMBURG
(EDDH)? TAF EDDH ISSUED AT, EDDH 0624 21010KT CAVOK, BECMG 0810 9999 SCT025 SCT040
PROB30 TEMPO 1218 7000 –RADZ BKN012, BECMG 1620 7000 BKN020
TEMPO 1824 4000 RADZ BKN005
A – 5 to 7 at 1200 ft
B – 3 to 4 at 500 ft
C – 5 to 7 at 500 ft
D – 5 to 7 at 2000 ft
Ans: C
8. Refer to weather information at Birmingham.What is the lowest visibility forecast at 280800Z?

BIRMINGHAM EGBB/BHX SA0850 280850 18014KT 9999 SCT024 BKN030 BKN045 12/08 Q1011=
FC0600 280600Z 280816 190015G27KT 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 0812 5000 –DZ
BKN012 BECMG 1214 19022G37= FT0400 280434Z 281212 19022G37 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 1902 5000
RA BKN010 BECMG 2201 25007KT
A – 50 km
B – 5000m
C – 10 km or more
D – 2500m
Ans: B
9. Given the following TAF/METAR: What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that thunderstorms are
forecast for Tunis/Carthage? TUNIS/CARTHAGE DTTA/TUN SA1330 121330Z 24008KT 9999 FEW023
BKN200 24/08 Q1007= FC1200 121200Z 121322 28012KT 9999 FEW030 SCT200 BECMG 1518
30014KT SCT026 BKN200 TEMP9O 1722 32014G25KT 6000 =SHRA FEW023CB =FT1020 121020Z
121212 26012KT 9999 FEW030 SCT 200 BECMG 1619 30014KT 8000 SCT020 BKN100 TEMPO 1802
32014G25KT 6000 SHRA OR – TSSHRA FEW023CB BECMG 0406 28019KT 6000 BECMG 0810 8000
SCT020 SCT026 TEMPO 5000 –SHRA FEW026CB=
A – 0800
B – 1300
C – 1800
D – nil
Ans: C
10. A METAR reads: SA 1430 35002KT 7000 SKC 21/03 Q1024

Which of the following information is contained in this report?
A – Day month
B – Runway in use
C – Temperature, dewpoint
D – Period of validity
Ans: C
11. (Refer to figure 10-1) Which best describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL 150 in the
vicinity of BUCHAREST (45oN 026oE)?
A – Severe
B – Nil
C – Moderate
D – Light
Ans: C
12. (Refer to figure 10-1) Which describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL180 in the vicinity
of Casablanca (N33 W008)?
A – Severe
B – Moderate
C – Light
D – Nil
Ans: A
13. (Refer to figure 10-2) What is the temperature deviation (oC) from ISA over 60oN 000oE?
A - -9
B - -55
C - +2
D - +9
Ans: A
14. (Refer to figure 10-1) What is the maximum wind speed over Italy?
A – 100 kt at FL380
B – 110 kts at FL380 but the maximum not shown on the chart
C – 110 kts at FL380
D – 130 kts at FL340
Ans: C
15. (Refer to figure 10-2) What mean temperature (C) is likely on a course 360 (T) from N40 to N50 at
E020?
A - -47
B - -46
C - -49
D - -50
Ans: C
16. (Refer to figure 10-2) The approximate mean wind component (kt) along the true course 180 from 50N
to 40N at 020E is:
A – 55 kt tailwind
B – 40 kt tailwind
C – 70 kt tailwind
D – 55 kt headwind
Ans: A
17. (Refer to figure 10-1) At position 38oN 15oE what is the worst hazard which could be expected?
A – Engine flame-out and windscreen damage

B – Turbulence
C – Reduced visibility
D – Nil
Ans: A
18. (Refer to figure 10-1) What is the wind associated with Munich (N50 E010)?
A – Maximum wind of 160 kt from 360T

B – Maximum wind of 120 kt from 260M
C – Maximum wind of 100 kt from 360T
D – Maximum wind of 140 kt from 290T
Ans: D
19. (Refer to figure 10-1) Which of the following flight levels, if any, is forecast to be clear of significant
cloud, icing and CAT along the marked route from SHANNON (53N 10W) to BERLIN (53N 13E)?
A – None
B – FL290
C – FL210
D – FL250
Ans: D
20. (Refer to figure 10-2) The approximate mean wind component at Mach 0.78 along the true course 270 o
at N50 from 000o to 010W is?
A – 25 kt tailwind component
B – 55 kt headwind component
C – 35 kt tailwind component
D – 40 kt headwind component
Ans: D
21. (Refer to figure 10-1) In the vicinity of WARSAW (52N 020E) the tropopause is at approximate FL:
A – 400
B – 370
C – 350
D – 330 Ans: D
22. (Refer to figure 10-1) The surface system over London (51N 000E) is a/an:
A – cold front moving west

B – warm front moving north
C – stationary occluded front
D – occluded front moving east
Ans: D
23. (Refer to figure 10-1) In the vicinity of Paris (N49 E003), the tropopause is at approximately:
A – FL340
B – FL400
C – FL350
D – FL380
Ans: B
24. (Refer to figure 10-1) Over PRAGUE (50N 014E) the lowest FL listed which is unaffected by CAT is:
A – 350
B – 300
C – 270
D – 400
Ans: C
25. (Refer to figure 10-1) The surface weather system over England (53oN 002oW) is:
A – a warm front moving south east

B – a cold front moving east
C – an occluded front moving east
D – a depression moving north
Ans: C
26. (Refer to figure 10-1) Which best describes the significant cloud, if any, forecast for the area south west
of BODO (67oN 014oE)?
A – 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100, tops FL180

B – 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base FL100, tops FL180
C – 3 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100, tops FL180
D – Nil
Ans: A
27. (Refer to figure 10-1) Which best describes the maximum intensity of CAT, if any, forecast for FL330
over BENGHAZI (32oN 020oE)?
A – Light
B – Moderate
C – Severe
D – Nil
Ans: D
28. (Refer to figure 10-1) The wind velocity over ITALY is:
A – a maximum of 110 kt at FL380

B – 130 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart
C – a maximum of 160 kt at FL380
D – 110 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart
Ans: A
29. (Refer to figure 10-2) The wind direction and velocity (o/kt) at 50oN 040oE is:
A – 200/70
B – 020/80
C – 020/70
D – 350/70
Ans: C
30. (Refer to figure 10-2) The wind direction and velocity (o/kt) at 60oN 015oW is:
A – 290/155
B – 320/155
C – 110/155
D – 290/185
Ans: A
31. (Refer to figure 10-2) What is the mean temperature deviation (oC) from the ISA over 50oN 10oW?
A - +2
B - +9
C - +13
D - -2
Ans: D
32. (Refer to figure 10-2) The wind direction and velocity (o/kt) at 40oN 040oE is:
A – 150/75
B – 300/75
C – 330/75
D – 330/85
Ans: C
33. (Refer to figure 10-7) What minimum visibility (m) is forecast for 0600 UTC at LONDON LHR
(EGLL)?
A – 2200
B – 5000
C – 10,000
D – 1500
Ans: D
34. (Refer to figure 10-7) Which affects the visibility for 1330 UTC at TUNIS (DTTA)?
A – Haze
B – Mist
C – Smoke
D – Dust
Ans: C
35. (Refer to figure 10-7) What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that thunderstorms are forecast for
DUBAI (OMDB)?
A – 1000
B – 1200
C – 1400
D – Nil forecast
Ans: C
36. (Refer to figure 10-2) What mean temperature (oC) is likely on a course of 360o(T) from 40oN to 50oN
at 040oE?
A - -49
B - -50
C - -47
D - -46
Ans: C
37. (Refer to figure 10-2) The W/V (o/kt) at 50oN 015oW is:
A – 100/75
B – 175/90
C – 310/85
D – 355/90
Ans: D
38. (Refer to figure 10-2) What mean temperature (oC) is likely on a true course of 270o from 025oE to
010oE at 45oN?
A - -48
B - -52
C - -54
D - -50
Ans: D
A – 185/65
B – 005/65
C – 185/60
D – 005/60
Ans: B
A - +10
B - -10
C - -55
D - +2
Ans: B
A – 290/40
B – 110/40
C – 280/20
D – 100/20
Ans: A
42. (Refer to figure 10-4) Which best describes the significant cloud forecast for the area over Warsaw
(52oN 021oE)?
A – 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL120

B – 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL120
C – 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL120
D – 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL120
Ans: A
43. (Refer to figure 10-4) Which best describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL100 overhead
Warsaw (52oN 021oE)?
A – severe
B – moderate
C – light
D – nil
Ans: B
44. (Refer to figure 10-1) Which describes the intensity of icing, if any, at FL180 in the vicinity of the
Canary Islands (29oN 015oW)?
A – moderate or severe
B – moderate
C – light
D – nil
Ans: A
45. (Refer to figure 10-4) The surface system over ZURICH (48oN 008oE) is:
A – Occluded front moving east
B – Quasi-stationary front moving east
C – Quasi-stationary front moving south
D – Occluded front moving north east
Ans: A
46. (Refer to figure 10-4) In the vicinity of Paris (49oN 002oE) the tropopause is at about FL:
A – 340
B – 350
C – 400
D – 450
Ans: B
47. (Refer to figure 10-4) Which best describes the significant cloud forecast over ZURICH (48oN 008oE)?
A – broken AC/CU base below FL100 tops FL190, embedded isolated CB base below FL100 tops FL300
B – well separated CB base FL100 tops to FL300
C – isolated CB embedded in layer cloud, surface to FL300
D – 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops to FL300
Ans: A
48. (Refer to figure 10-1) Which describes the maximum intensity of turbulence, if any, at FL 210 in the
vicinity of the Canary Islands (29oN 015oW)?
A – nil
B – light
C – moderate
D – severe
Ans: D
49. (Refer to figure 10-4) The maximum wind velocity (o/kt) over ATHENS (37oN 024oE) is:
A – 300/90
B – 270/320
C – 250/110
D – 270/90
Ans: C
50. (Refer to figure 10-4) Over LONDON (51oN 000oE/W), the lowest FL listed which is unaffected by
CAT is:
A – 360
B – 230
C – 280
D – 310
Ans: B
51. (Refer to figure 10-6) The forecast period covered by the PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE TAFs totals
(hours):
A – 27
B–9
C – 18
D – 20
Ans: A
52. (Refer to figure 10-6) The lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) at BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1330
UTC were:
A – 3 to 4 at 2000
B – 3 to 4 at 800
C – 1 to 2 at 3000
D – 1 to 4 at 3000
Ans: C
53. (Refer to figure 10-6) The surface wind velocity (o/kt) at PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE at 1330
UTC was:
A – 270/04
B – 300/05
C – 270/08
D – 180/12
Ans: A
54. (Refer to figure 10-6) Which is the heaviest type of precipitation, if any, forecast for
BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1000 UTC?
A – nil
B – light rain
C – rain showers
D – heavy rain associated with thunderstorms
Ans: B
55. (Refer to figure 10-6) What minimum visibility is forecast for PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE at 2100
UTC?
A – 2000 m
B – 6000 m
C – 10 km
D – 8000 m
Ans: B
56. (Refer to figure 10-7) Which best describes the weather, if any, forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JAN
SMUTS at 0400 UTC?
A – CAVOK
B – mist and/or fog
C – patches of fog
D – rain associated with thunderstorm
Ans: C
57. (Refer to figure 033_10-7) What affects the visibility forecast for TUNIS (DTTN)?
A – Haze
B – Mist
C – Smoke
D – Dust
Ans: C
58. (Refer to figure 10-24) The maximum wind velocity (o/kt) immediately north of TUNIS (36oN 010oE) is:
A – 250.85
B – 180/105
C – 190/95
D – 280/110
Ans: C
59. (Refer to figure 10-24) Which describes the maximum intensity of turbulence, if any, forecast for FL260
over TOULOUSE (44oN 001oE)?
A – light
B – nil
C – severe
D – moderate
Ans: C
60. (Refer to figure 10-24) Which best describes the significant cloud forecast over TOULOUSE (44oN
001oE)?
A – broken AC/CU base below FL100 tops FL150, embedded isolated CB base below FL100 tops FL270
B – well separated CB base FL100 tops to FL 270
C – isolated CB embedded in layer cloud, surface to FL270
D – 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops to FL270
Ans: A
A – 334/40
B – 310/40
C – 135/40
D – 155/40
Ans: B
A – 310/85
B – 290.75
C – 310/75
D – 100/75
Ans: B
63. (Refer to figure 10-25)The W/V (o/kt) at 60oN 015oW is:
A – 115/60
B – 300/70
C – 320/60
D – 300/60
Ans: D
64. (Refer to figure 10-24) In the vicinity of SHANNON (52oN 009oW) the tropopause is at about FL:
A – 270
B – 350
C – 300
D – 360
Ans: D
65. (Refer to figure 10-24) The surface system over VIENNA (48oN 016oE) is a:
A – cold front moving west

B – warm front moving north
C – stationary occluded front
D – cold front moving east
Ans: D
66. (Refer to figure 10-24) Which best describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL160 in the
vicinity of BERLIN (53oN 013oE)?
A – moderate
B – severe
C – light
D – nil
Ans: A
67. (Refer to figure 10-24) Which best describes the significant cloud forecast for the area east of Tunis
(36oN 010oE)?
A – 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL180

B – 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL180
C – 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL180
D – 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL160
Ans: A
68. (Refer to figure 10-24) Which describes the intensity of icing, if any, at FL150 in the vicinity of
TOULOUSE (44oN 01oE)?
A – moderate or severe
B – moderate
C – light
D – nil
Ans: A
69. (Refer to figure 10-3) The lowest height of the tropopause on the whole chart is:
A – FL240
B – FL250
C – FL220
D – FL200
Ans: C
70. (Refer to figure 10-3) On a flight from Cairo to Madrid at FL350 when Mt Etna is not active, what sort
of in-flight weather hazard might you encounter?
A – None
B – Severe icing and turbulence within any CB
C – Light CAT
D – Moderate CAT
Ans: D
71. (Refer to figure 10-3) The strongest wind and its level associated with any jet stream on the chart is:
A – 160 kt at FL320
B – 100 kt at FL340
C – 150 kt at FL310
D – 130 kt at FL300
Ans: A
72. In a METAR report the abbreviation “NOSIG” means:
A – No significant change
B – No significant cloud
C – No significant weather
D – No significant problems
Ans: A
73. (Refer to figure 10-23) The approximate mean wind velocity expected en-route at FL300 from
Oslo(position O) to London (position L) is:
A – 056/45
B – 236/45
C – 236/51
D – 056/51
Ans: B
74. (Refer to figure 10-23) The approximate mean temperature expected en-route at FL260 from Oslo
(position O) to London (position L) is:
A - -59oC
B - -51oC
C - -56.5oC
D - -43oC
Ans: D
75. (Refer to figure 10-23) The W/V over position S in Ireland is:
A – 330/20
B – 330/50
C – 330/60
D – 150/20
Ans: C
76. (Refer to figure 10-3) Over PALMA (39oN 003oE) the lowest FL listed which is unaffected by CAT is:
A – 265
B – 380
C – 260
D – 270
Ans: C
77. (Refer to figure 10-05) The approximate mean wind component along the true course 180 o from 50oN
to 40oN at 005oW is:
A – 345/75
B – 325/65
C – 145/75
D – 165/60
Ans: B
A - -58
B - -6
C - +2
D - +10
Ans: C
Selection of routes to destination and alternates

1. According to the chart the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8500 ft. The
meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of -20oC at FL85. The QNH, given by a
meteorological station at an elevation of 4000 ft, is 1003 hPa. What is the minmum pressure altitude
which should be flown according to the given MOCA?
A – 8500 ft
B – 8800 ft
C – 12800 ft
D – 8200 ft
Ans: B
2. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)4 or figure HI-29) The radio navigation aid at ZURICH (47o36N
008o49E) is:
A – a NDB , frequency 115.0 KHz

B – a VOR, frequency 115.0 MHz
C – a VOR/DME, frequency 115.0 MHz
D – a TACAN on channel 11
Ans: B
3. On a given path, it is possible to choose between four flight levels (FL) each associated with a
mandatory flight Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static air temperature (SAT) and headwind
component (HWC) are given below:
FL370 l M = 0.80 l Ts = -60oC l HWC = -15 kt
FL270 l M = 0.76 l Ts = -43oC l HWC = 0
The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is:
A – FL 270
B – FL 290
C – FL 330
D – FL 370
Ans: A
4. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)4 or figure HI-01) The radio aid at STAD (N5145 E00415) is:
A – a NDB, frequency 386 KHz

B – a VOR frequency 386 MHz
C – a VOR/DME on channel 386
D – a TACAN on channel 386
Ans: A
5. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(LO)1 or figure LO-01) From SHANNON (N5243.3 W00853.1) by W13 to
KORAK. What is meant by 5000 by the route centreline?
A – MORA 5000 FT
B – MAA 5000 FT
C – MOCA 5000 FT
D – MEA 5000 FT
Ans: D
6. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(LO)1 or figure LO-01) What radio navigation aid is at SHANNON (52 43N
008 53W)?
A – VOR SHA 113.3 MHz only

B – VOR DME SHA 113.3 MHz
C – NDB frequency 353 KHz
D – TACAN frequency 113.3 KHz
Ans: B
7. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(LO)5 or figure LO-03) See DENKO (N52 49 E015 50). What does 440 DRE
mean?
A – 440 KHz plus ident

B – 440 KHz plus ident only when BFO switched on
C – 440 KHz plus ident only when BFO switched off
D – 440 MHz plus ADF only when BFO off
Ans: B
8. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(LO)1 or figure LO-02) The radio navigation aid at TOPCLIFFE (54o12N
001o22W) is a:
A – TACAN only, channel 84 (frequency 113.7 MHz)

B – TACAN, channel 84, and a VOR frequency 113.7 MHz only
C – TACAN, channel 84, and an NDB frequency 92 KHz only
D – VORTAC, frequency 113.7 MHz, and an NDB frequency 92 KHz
Ans: A
9. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(HI)4 or figure HI-02) The magnetic course and distance from SALZBURG
SBG 113.8 (N48 00 E012 54) to STAUB (N48 44E 012 38) on airway UB5 is:
A – 346/43 nm
B – 166/64 nm
C – 346/64 nm
D – 346/45 nm
Ans: D
10. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(HI)4 or figures HI-03 _a & _b) Of the following, the preferred airways
routing from FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50 03N 008 38E) to KOKSY (51 06N 002 39E) above FL245, on a
Wednesday is:
A – UR10 NTM UB6 BUB ATS

B – UG108 SP1 UG1
C – UB69 DINKI UB6 BUB ATS
D – UG1
Ans: A
11. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(HI)5 or figure HI-05) Given Leg MOULINS (N46 42 E003 38.0) / DIJON (N47
16.3 E005 05.9) Find route designator and distance
A – UG12, 69 nm
B – UG 21, 70 nm
C – D, 44 nm
D – Direct route, 69 nm
Ans: D
12. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(HI)S or figure HI-06). What radio navaids are shown at CHIOGGIA
(45o04N 012o16E)?
A – VOR/DME freq 114.1 NDB freq 408

B – VOR freq 114.1, TACAN freq 408
C – VOR freq 114.1, TACAN channel 408
D – VOR/DME 114.1, DME freq 408
Ans: A
13. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(HI)5 or figure HI-07) Of the following, the preferred airways routing from
AMBOISE AMB 113.7 (47o 26’N 001o 04’E) to AGEN AGN (43o 53o’N 000o52’E) above FL200 is:
A – UB19 PO1 UB195

B – UH40 FOUCO UH20 PERIG UA34
C – UA34
D – UB19 CGC UA25
Ans: C
14. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)4 or figure HI-08) The magnetic course and distance from ST
PREX SPR 113.9 (N4628 E00627) to FRIBOURG FRI 115.1 (N4647 E00714) on airway UG60.
A – 048/46 nm
B – 061/37 nm
C – 061/28 nm
D – 041/78 nm
Ans: B
15. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(LO)5 or figure LO-06) The airway intersection at RONNEBY (N5618
E01516) is marked by:
A – a fan marker callsign LP

B – a TACAN callsign RON
C – a NDB callsign N
D – a NDB callsign LF
Ans: C
16. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual STAR charts PARIS (Charles-de-Gaulle 20-2) or figure AP-04)
The route distance from CHEVRES (CIV) to BOURSONNE (BSN) is:
A – 73 nm
B – 83 nm
C – 88 nm
D – 96 nm
Ans: D
17. An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that:
A – the minimum en-route altitude (MEA) is 3500 ft

B – the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 3500 ft
C – the airway base is 3500 ft MSL
D – the airway is a low level link route 2100 ft – 3500 ft MSL
Ans: B
18. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart NAP or figure HI-23) The initial magnetic course from A (64oN 006oE)
to C (62oN 020oW) is:
A – 275o
B – 267o
C – 271o
D – 262o
Ans: A
19. An aircraft, following a 215o true track at variation 3oW, must fly over a 10 600 ft obstacle with a
minimum obstacle clearance of 1500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport close by, which is
almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the temperature is ISA -15oC, the minimum flight level will be:
A – 140
B – 120
C – 130
D – 150
Ans: A
20. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E (LO) 5 or figure LO-04) The magnetic course/distance from EELDE
EEL 112.4 (N5310 E00640) to WELGO (N5418 E00725) on airway A7 are:
A – 024o/73 nm
B – 023o/73 nm
C – 024o/87 nm
D – 023o/47 nm
Ans: A
21. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)5 or figure HI-04) An appropriate FL for flight along airway UG5
from MENDE-NASBINALS MEN 115.3 (N4436 E00310) to GAILLAC GAI 115.8 (N4357 E00150) is:
A – FL280
B – FL290
C – FL300
D – FL310
Ans: B
22. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(HI)4 or figure HI-15) The magnetic course/distance from DINKESBUHL
DKB 117.8 (49 09N 010 14E) to ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49 39N 011 09E) on airway UR11 are:
A – 052/97 nm
B – 050/47 nm
C – 133/85 nm
D – 230/97 nm
Ans: B
23. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)4 or figure HI-15) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway
UG1 from ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (4939N 01109E) to FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (5003N 00838E) is:
A – FL300
B – FL290
C – FL310
D – FL320
Ans: C
24. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(HI)4 or figure HI-16) What is the best route from CLACTON CLN (N51 50.9
E001 09.0) to MIDHURST MID (N51 03.2 W000 37.4)?
A – UR12
B – TRIPO UR1 LAM UR1
C – UR123
D – UB29 LAM UR1
Ans: D
25. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(LO)1 or figure LO-07) The magnetic course/distance from WALLASEY
WAL 114.1 (N53o23 W003o28) to LIFFY (N53o29 W005o30) on airway B1 are:
A – 279o/114 NM
B – 279o/85 NM
C – 311o/114 NM
D – 311o/85 NM
Ans: B
26. Using the following information, what is the minimum flight level considering the temperature?
True track: 215o

Mountain elevation: 11,600 ft
Local airfield gives QNH as 1035 mb
Required terrain clearance: 1500 ft
Temperature: ISA – 15C
A – FL150
B – FL140
C – FL120
D – FL110
Ans: B
27. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart 5AT(HI) or figure HI-17) On airway PTS P from VIGRA (62o34N
006o02E), the initial great circle grid course is:
A – 353o
B – 344o
C – 347o
D – 350o
Ans: B
28. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(HI)4 or figure HI-11) Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle
(N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9). Find the average true course from
aris to London.
A – 330o
B – 142o
C – 322o
D – 343o
Ans: C
29. An IFR flight is planned outside airways on a course of 235o magnetic. The minimum safe altitude is
7800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 995 hPa, the minimum flight level you must fly is:
A – 80
B – 90
C – 85
D – 100
Ans: D
30. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(HI)4 or figure HI-09) An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50o08.1N
001o51.3E) to Biggin (51o19.8N 00o00.2E) What is the first FL above FL295 that can be flown on an IFR
flight plan?
A – FL330
B – FL310
C – FL320
D – FL300
Ans: B
31. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)5 or figure HI-21) The magnetic course and distance from
LIMOGES LMG 114.5 (N45.49 E001.02) to CLERMONT FERRAND CMF 117.5 (N45.47 E003.11) on airway
UG22 are:
A – 046/70 nm
B – 067/122 nm
C – 113/142 nm
D – 094/90 nm
Ans: D
32. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual 5AT(HI) or figures HI-18_a & HI-18_b) Flying from 80N 170E to 75N 11E.
Initial track is 177 grid. What is the initial true track?
A – 177
B – 357
C – 347
D – 167
Ans: C
33. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(HI)4 or figure HI-14) An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48o00.2N
012o53.6E) to Klagenfurt (46o37.5N 014o33.8E). Which statement is correct?
A – The minimum en-route altitude (MEA) is 13400 ft

B – The minimum grid safe altitude on this route is 13400 ft above MSL
C – The minimum sector altitude (MSA) is 13400 ft
D – The minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA) on this route is 10800 ft above MSL
Ans: B
34. You must fly IFR on an airway orientated 135o magnetic with a MSA at 7800 ft. Knowing the QNH is
1025 hPa and the temperature is ISA + 10o, the minimum flight level you must fly at is:
A -75
B – 80
C – 90
D – 70
Ans: C
35. For an IFR flight using ICAO semi-circular cruising levels on a magnetic track of 200, which is a suitable
level?
A – FL290
B – FL300
C – FL310
D – FL320
Ans: C
36. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(HI)4 or figure HI-09) An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50o08.1N
001o51.3E) to Biggin (51o19.8N 000o00.2E). What is the distance of this leg?
A – 62 NM
B – 38 NM
C – 64 NM
D – 100 NM
Ans: D
37. An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height rules on a magnetic
course of 200o is:
A – FL320
B – FL310
C – FL290
D – FL300
Ans: B
38. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(LO)2 or figure LO-11) The minimum en-route altitude (MEA) that can be
maintained continuously on airway G4 from JERSEY JSY 112.2 (49o14’N 002o03’W) to LIZAD (49o35’N
004o20’W) is:
A – FL 140
B – 1000 ft MSL
C – FL60
D – 2800 ft MSL
Ans: A
39. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(LO)5 or figure LO-09) The minimum en-route altitude that can be
maintained continuously on airway B65/H65 from DOXON (55o27’N 018o 10’E) to RONNE ROE 112.0
(55o 04’N 014o 46’E) is:
A – FL100
B – 1000 ft
C – FL60
D – 2500 ft
Ans: A
40. An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height rules on a course of
180o magnetic is:
A – FL105
B – FL90
C – FL95
D – FL100
Ans: D
41. Unless otherwise stated on charts for standard instrument departures the routes shown are given
with:
A – magnetic headings
B – true course
C – magnetic course
D – true headings
Ans: C
42. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual STAR 10-2 and instrument approach chart 11-4 ILS/DME Rwy 27R for
London Heathrow or figures AP-08 & AP-09) Planning an IFR flight from Paris to London (Heathrow)
Name the identifier and frequency of the initial approach fix (IAF) of the BIGZA arrival route:
A – EPM; 316 KHz

B – BIG; 115.1 KHz
C – BIG; 115.1 MHz
D – OCK; 115.3 MHz
Ans: C
43. An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is the:
A – base of the airway (AGL)

B – maximum authorised altitude (MAA)
C – minimum holding altitude (MHA)
D – minimum en-route altitude (MEA)
Ans: D
44. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(HI)4 or figure HI-11) Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles-de-Gaulle
(N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9). Determine the pre-planning distance
by calculating the direct distance plus 10%. The pre-planning distance is:
A – 188 NM
B – 207 NM
C – 308 NM
D – 218 NM
Ans: B
45. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual MADRID BARAJAS 10-2B STAR or figure AP-13) For runway 33 arrivals from
the east and south, the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) inbound from airway UR10 is:
A – VTB
B – CJN
C – CENTA
D – MOTIL
Ans: A
46. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(HI)5 or figure HI-22) The minimum en-route altitude available on airway
UR160 from NICE NIZ 112.4 (43 46N 007 15E) to BASTIA BTA 116.2 (42 32N 009 29E) is:
A – FL250
B – FL260
C – FL210
D – FL200
Ans: A
47. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM ARNEM (10-3B) or figure AP-14)
The route distance from DER 27 to ARNEM is:
A – 67 NM
B – 35 NM
C – 59 NM
D – 52 NM
Ans: A
48. (For this question use Route Manual chart E(HI)4 or figure HI-14) An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg
(48o00.2N 012o53.6E) to Klagenfurt (46.37.5N 014o33.8E). Which statement is correct?
A – The airway UB5 is closed for southbound traffic above FL200

B – The airway UB5 cannot be used, there is one way traffic to the north
C – The airway UB5 can be used for flights to/from Klagenfurt and Salzburg
D – The airway UB5 is closed in this direction except during the weekends
Ans: C
49. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(LO)1 or figure LO-08) The minimum en-route altitude that can be
maintained continuously on airway G1 from STUMBLE 113.1 (5200N 00502W) to BRECON 117.45
(5143N 00316W) is:
A – FL80
B – FL110
C – 4100 ft AMSL
D – 2900 ft AMSL
Ans: B
50. On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1o quadrant of longitude and latitude, appears the following
information: 80 This means that within this quadrant:
A – the minimum safe altitude is 8000 ft

B – the minimum flight level is FL80
C – the altitude of the highest obstacle is 8000 ft
D – the floor of the airway is at 8000 ft
Ans: A
51. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart 5 AT(HI) or figure HI-20) What is the initial grid track from Stornoway
(N5812.4 W00611.0) to Keflavik (N6400 W02240)?
A – 320
B – 140
C – 313
D – 133
Ans: A
52. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(HI)4 or figure HI-14) An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48o00.2N
012o53.6E) to Klagenfurt (46o37.5N 014o33.8E). At Salzburg there is stated on the chart D 113.8 SBG.
That means:
A – VOR/DME with identification SBG frequency 113.8 MHz can be used

B – Only the DME with identification SBG can be used for which frequency 113.8 MHz should be tuned,
VOR is not available
C – VOR/DME SBG will be deleted in the future and cannot be used for navigation
D – ILS/DME 113.8 MHz of Salzburg airport can be used for navigation
Ans: A
53. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual Munich STAR charts for MUNICH 10-2A,B or figures AP-17, AP-18 & AP-19)
With an easterly surface wind, approaching from the west, to Munich via the TANGO VOR. Which is
the best STAR and its associated IAF (Initial Approach Fix).
A – Kempten 2T/BETOS
B – NDG 1T/ROKIL
C – RODING 1R/MOOSBURG
D – AALEN 1T/ROKIL
Ans: D
180o (M) is:
A – FL100
B – FL90
C – FL95
D – FL105
Ans: A
55. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(LO)5 or figure LO-10) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway G9
from SUBI SUI 116.7 (52o23N 014o35E) to CZEMPIN CZE 114.5 (52o08N 016o44E) is:
A – FL50
B – FL60
C – FL70
D – FL80
Ans: C
56. On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio
navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance, this altitude is valid to:
A – 20 NM
B – 25 NM
C – 15 NM
D – 10 NM
Ans: B
57. An airway is marked FL80 1500 a.This indicates that:
A – 1500 ft MSL is the minimum radio reception altitude (MRA)

B – the airway base is 1500 ft MSL
C – the airways extends from 1500 ft MSL to FL80
D – the minimum en-route altitude (MEA) is FL80
Ans: D
58. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(HI)4 or figure HI-13) The minimum en-route altitude that can be
maintained continuously on airway UA34 from WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53o 23’N 003o 08’W) to
MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51o 03’N 000o 37’W) is:
A – FL245
B – FL290
C – 5300 ft
D – 16800 ft
Ans: B
59. (Refer to SID chart Paris Charles-de-Gaulle 20-3 or figure AP-03) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris
Charles-de-Gaulle to London, SID is ABB 8A. Assume:
Variation 3oW
TAS 430 kts
W/V 280/40 Distance to top of climb 50 NM
Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind correction angle from top of
climb to ABB 116.6.
A – MC 169o, GS 450 kt, WCA +4o

B – MC 349o, GS 414 kt, WCA +5o
C – MC 169o, GS 414 kt, WCA +5o
D – MC 349o, GS 414 kt, WCA -5o
Ans: D
60. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition, STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4 ILS
DME Rwy 27R for London Heathrow or figures HI-09; AP-08 & AP-09) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris
to London (Heathrow). Assume:
STAR is BIG 2A
Variation 5oW
En-route TAS 430 kts
W/V 280/40
Descent distance 76 NM
Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind correction angle from ABB 116.6 (N50 08.1
E001 51.3) to top of descent.
A – MC 319o, GS 396 kt, WCA -3o

B – MC 141o, GS 396 kt, WCA -3o
C – MC 321o, GS 396 kt, WCA -3o
D – MC 141o, GS 396 kt, WCA +3o
Ans: C
61. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition or figure HI-30) An appropriate flight level for flight on
airway UR1 from ORTAC (50o 00N 002o00W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51.03N 000o37W) is:
A – FL230
B – FL250
C – FL260
D – FL240
Ans: B
62. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition or figure HI-36) An appropriate flight level for flight on
airway UR24 from NANTES NTS 117.2 (47o09N 001o37W) to CAEN CAN (49o10N 000o27W) is:
A – FL270
B – FL310
C – FL290
D – FL300
Ans: B
63. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(LO)2 or figure LO-13) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway B3
from CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49o08N 003o35E) to CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50o14N 003o09E) is:
A – FL50
B – FL170
C – FL80
D – FL60
Ans: B
64. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(LO)6 or figure LO-16) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway
W37 from CHEB OKG 115.7 (50o04N 012o24E) to RODING RDG 114.7 (49o02N 012o32E) is:
A – FL80
B – F:40
C – FL50
D – FL70
Ans: A
65. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(LO)6 or figure LO-17) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway R10
from MONTMEDY MMD 109.4 (49o24N 003o08E) to CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49o08N 003o35E) is:
A – FL40
B – FL60
C – FL70
D – FL50
Ans: B
66. (Refer to Route Manual Instrument approach charts for ZURICH (10-2, 10-2A, 10-2B) or figures AP-21,
AP-22 & AP-23) Aeroplane arriving via route BLM 2Z only, should proceed via which route to
EKRON Int?
A – TRA R247 outbound to EKRON int

B – WIL R018 outbound to EKRON int
C – HOC R067 via GOLKE to EKRON int
D – BLM R111 to GOLKE int then TRA R-247 inbound to EKRON int
Ans: D
67. (Refer to Route Manual STAR chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10-2D) or figure AP-25) The minimum
holding altitude (MHA) and maximum holding speed (IAS) at MHA at OCKHAM OCK 115.3 are:
A – 7000 ft and 250 kt

B – 9000 ft and 250 kt
C – 7000 ft and 220 kt
D – 9000 ft and 220 kt
Ans: C
68. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition or figure HI-37) Of the following, the preferred
airways routing from MARTIGUES MTG 117.3 (43o23N 005o05E) to ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46o28N
006o27E) above FL245 is:
A – UA6 LSA UG52

B – UB282 DGN UB46
C – UB284 VILAR UB28
D – UB28
Ans: B
69. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition or figure HI-31) Of the following, the preferred
airways routing from CLACTON CLN 114.55 (51o51N 001o09E) to DINARD DIN 114.3 (48o35N 002o05W)
above FL245 is:
A – UR12 MID UR8 SAM UB11 BARLU UW115

B – UB29 LAM UR1 MID UA34 LILAN UR9
C – UB29 LAM UR1 ORTAC UR14
D – UR12 MID UA47 DPE UA475 SOKMU UH111
Ans: C
70. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition or figure HI-32) The magnetic course/distance from
DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49o09N 010o14E) to ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49o39N 011o09E) on airway UR11
is:
A – 050o/47 NM
B – 230o/97 NM
C – 133o/85 NM
D – 052o/97 NM
Ans: A
71. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(LO)6 or figure LO-14) The magnetic course/distance from
GROSTENQUIN GTQ 111.25 (49o00N 006o43E) to LINNA (49o41N 006o15E) on airway R7 is:
A – 337o/31 NM
B – 337o/58 NM
C – 337o/46 NM
D – 157o/58 NM
Ans: C
72. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(LO)5 or figure LO-15) The magnetic course/distance from ELBE LBE
115.1 (53o39N 009o36E) to LUNUD (54o50N 009o19E) on airway H12 is:
A – 352o/72 NM
B – 352o/96 NM
C – 339o/80 NM
D – 339o/125 NM
Ans: A
73. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(LO)2 or figure LO-13) The magnetic course/distance from CAMBRAI
CMB 112.6 (50o14N 003o 09E) to TALUN (49o33N 003o25E) on airway B3 is:
A – 349o/42 NM
B – 169o/42 NM
C – 349o/26 NM
D – 169o/68 NM
Ans: B
74. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition or figure HI-34)The magnetic course/distance from
TRENT TNT 115.7 (53o03N 001o40W) to WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53o23N 003o08W) on airway UR3 is:
A – 297o/70 NM
B – 117o/71 NM
C – 297o/57 NM
D – 117o/57 NM
Ans: C
TANGO TGO 112.5 (48o37N 009o16E) to DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49o09N 010o14E) on airway UR11 is:
A – 052o/50 NM
B – 007o/60 NM
C – 105o/105 NM
D – 132o/43 NM
Ans: A
ELBA ELB 114.7 (42o44N 010o24E) to SPEZI (43o49N 009o34E) on airway UA35 is:
A – 332o/76 NM
B – 152o/42 NM
C – 322o/60 NM
D – 332o/118 NM
Ans: A
77. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(LO)5 or figure LO-05) The VOR and TACAN on airway G9 at OSNABRUCK
(52o12N 008o17E) are:
A – NOT frequency paired, and have the same identifier

B – frequency paired, and have the same identifier
C – NOT frequency paired, and have different identifiers
D – frequency paired, and have different identifiers
Ans: C
78. (Refer to Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition or figure HI-33) Aeroplanes intending to use airway
UR14 should cross GIBSO intersection (50o45N 002o30W) at or above:
A – FL140
B – FL160
C – FL200
D – FL250
Ans: D
79. (Refer to Route Manual SID chart for ZURICH (10-3) or figure AP-20) Which is the correct ALBIX
departure via AARAU for runway 16?
A – ALBIX 7S
B – ALBIX 7A
C – ALBIX 6H
D – ALBIX 6E
Ans: A
80. (Refer to Route Manual chart AMSTERDAM JAA MINIMUMS (10-9X) or figure AP-26)
The Radio Altimeter minimum altitude for a CAT 2 ILS DME approach to Rwy 01L is:
A – 100 ft
B – 88 ft
C – 300 ft
D – 188 ft
Ans: A
81. (Refer to Route Manual chart PARIS CHARLES-DE-GAULLE ILS Rwy 27 (21- 2) or figure AP-24)
The crossing altitude and descent instruction for a propeller aircraft at COULOMMIERS (CLM) are:
A – Cross at FL80 descend to FL70

B – Cross at FL60 and maintain
C – Cross at FL60 descend to 4000 ft
D – Cross at FL70 descend to 4000 ft
Ans: C
82. (Refer to figure 10-1) The maximum wind velocity (o/kt) shown in the vicinity of MUNICH (48oN
012oE) is:
A – 290/110
B – 300/140
C – 300/100
D – 300/160
Ans: B
83. The Final Reserve Fuel for aircraft with reciprocating engines should be:
A – fuel to fly for 30 minutes
B – fuel to fly for 60 minutes
C – fuel to fly for 45 minutes
D – 5 minutes fuel at the holding speed at 1500 ft above the aerodrome in standard conditions
Ans: C
84. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual E(LO)5 or figure LO-03 The NDB at DENKO (52o49’N 015o50’E) can be
identified on:
A – Channel 440, BFO on

B – Channel 440, BFO off
C – Frequency 440 KHZ, BFO off
D – Frequency 440 KHz, BFO on
Ans: D
85. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual Munich STAR charts for MUNICH 10-2A,B or figures AP-17, AP-18 & AP-19)
The correct arrival route and Initial Approach Fix (IAF) for an arrival from the west via TANGO for
runway 08 L/R is:
A – NDG 1T, IAF ROKIL

B – DKB 1T, IAF ROKIL
C – AALEN 1T, IAF ROKIL
D – AALEN 1T, IAF MBG
Ans: C
86. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart NAP) On a direct great circle course from REYKJAVIK
(64o10’N 020o00’W) to AMSTERDAM (52o32’N 004o50’E) the
(a) average true course, and (b) distance, are:
A – (a) 118o (b) 1095 NM

B – (a) 31o (b) 1824 NM
C – (a) 131o (b) 1095 NM
D – (a) 140o (b) 1824 NM
Ans: C
87. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(LO)1) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway
A2 from TALLA 113.8 TLA (55o30’N 003o21’W) to DEAN CROSS 115.2 DCS (54o43’N 003o20’W) is:
A – FL100
B – FL80
C – FL90
D – FL50
Ans: C
88. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(LO)1) The distance on airway B4 from POLE HILL
112.1 POL (53o45’N 002o06’W) to SHAPP (54o30’N 002o38’W) is:
A – 30 NM
B – 31 NM
C – 51 NM
D – 49 NM
Ans: D
89. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(LO)1) The magnetic course from DEAN CROSS 115.2
DCS (54o43’N 003o20’W to NEWCASTLE 114.25 NEW (55o02’N 001o41’W) on airway W911D is:
A – 077o
B – 083o
C – 257o
D – 263o
Ans: A
90. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(LO)1) The magnetic course/distance from TALLA
113.8 TLA (55o30’N 003o21’W) to DEAN CROSS 115.2 DCS (54o43’N 003o20’W) on airway A2 is:
A – 185o/18 NM
B – 185o/47 NM
C – 005o/47 NM
D – 005o/18 NM
Ans: B
91. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(LO)1) The minimum en-route altitude (MEA) that can
be maintained continuously on advisory route W9110 from NEWCASTLE 114.25 NEW (55o02’N
001o24’W) to DEAN CROSS 115.2 DCS (54o43’N 003o20’W) is:
A – 4520 ft
B – FL150
C – 4700 ft
D – FL50
Ans: D
be maintained continuously on airway B226 from TALLA 113.8 TLA (55o30N 003o21’W) to reporting
point ANGUS (56o42’N 003o03’W) is:
A – FL70
B – FL80
C – 5000 ft
D – 5500 ft
Ans: A
be maintained continuously on airway L602 from TALLA 113.8 TLA (55o30N 003o21’W) to NEWCASTLE
114.25 new (55o02’N 001o24’W) is:
A – 3100 ft
B – FL100
C – 3900 ft
D – FL200
Ans: D
94. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(LO)1) The radio navigation aid at LEEDS BRADFORD
(53o52’N 001o39’W) is:
A – an NDB, frequency 402.5 KHz, NOT continuous operation

B – a TACAN, channel 402.5
C – a fan marker, frequency 402.5 KHz
D – an NDB, frequency 402.5 KHz, continuous operation
Ans: A
95. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(LO)1 The radio navigation aid at ST. ABBS (55o55’N
002o12’W) is:
A – a VOR only, frequency 112.5 MHz

B – an NDB, frequency 112.5 MHz
C – a TACAN, channel 112.5
D – a VORDME, frequency 112.5 MHz
Ans: D
96. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(LO)1) What is the Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA)
on airway W911D from DEAN CROSS 115.2 DCS (54o43’N 003o20’W to NEWCASTLE 114.25 NEW
(55o02’N 001o41’W)?
A – FL50
B – FL150
C – 4700 ft
D – 4200 ft
Ans: A
97. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(LO)1) The magnetic course/distance from DEAN
CROSS 115.2 DCS (54o43’N 003o20’W to POLE HILL 112.1 POL (53o45’N 002o06’W) on airway A2 is:
A – 329o/53 NM
B – 143o/53 NM
C – 155o/73 NM
D – 149o/73 NM
Ans: D
98. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(LO)1) What is the Maximum Authorised Altitude
(MMA) on airway W911D from DEAN CROSS 115.2 DCS (54o43’N 003o20’W to NEWCASTLE 114.25 NEW
(55o02’N 001o41’W)?
A – 4200 ft
B – FL50
C – 4700 ft
D – FL 150
Ans: D
99. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1 The initial magnetic course from INVERNESS
109.2 INS (57o32’N 004o03’W) direct to TIREE 117.7 TIR (59o30’N 006o53’W) is:
A – 230o
B – 237o
C – 218o
D – 244o
Ans: D
100. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1) The initial magnetic course from TIREE 117.7
TIR (59o30’N 006o53’W) direct to INVERNESS 109.2 INS (57o32’N 004o03’W) is:
A – 236o
B – 056o
C – 048o
D – 064o
Ans: D
101. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1) The initial magnetic course from TIREE 117.7
TIR (59o30’N 006o53’W) direct to STORNOWAY 115.1 STN (58o12’N 006o11’W) is:
A – 003o
B – 192o
C – 011o
D – 019o
Ans: D
102. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1) The initial true course from INVERNESS 109.2
INS (57o32’N 004o03’W) direct to TIREE 117.7 TIR (59o30’N 006o53’W) is:
A – 244o
B – 237o
C – 218o
D – 230o
Ans: B
103. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1) The initial true course from TIREE 117.7 TIR
(59o30’N 006o53’W) direct to INVERNESS 109.2 INS (57o32’N 004o03’W) is:
A – 062o
B – 054o
C – 048o
D – 236o
Ans: B
104. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1) The initial true course from TIREE 117.7 TIR
(59o30’N 006o53’W) direct to STORNOWAY 115.1 STN (58o12’N 006o11’W) is:
A – 192o
B – 011o
C – 019o
D – 003o
Ans: B
105. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1) The direct distance from TIREE 117.7 TIR
(59o30’N 006o53’W) to INVERNESS 109.2 INS (57o32’N 004o03’W) is:
A – 204 NM
B – 112 NM
C – 192 NM
D – 360 km
Ans: B
106. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – TRM, Esbjerg Aerodrome chart (19-2) or figure AP-32)
What are the dimensions of runway 08/36 at Esbjerg?
A – 8530 ft x 45 ft
B – 8530 m x 45 m
C – 2600 m x 45 m
D – 2600 ft x 148 ft
Ans: C
107. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – TRM, Esbjerg Aerodrome chart (19-2) or figure AP-32)
What is the position of the Aerodrome Reference Point at Esbjerg?
A – 55o31.6’N 008o33.1’W
B – 55o31.6’N 008o33.1’E
C – 55o32.2’N 008o34.9’E
D – 55o32.2’N 008o34.9’W
Ans: B
108. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – TRM, Esbjerg Area chart (19-1) or figure AP-33)
What is the course and distance from Locator HP to the threshold of Runway 08?
A – 080o (T)/4.2 km
B – 080o (T)/4.2 nm
C – 080o (M)/4.2 km
D – 080o (M)/4.2 nm
Ans: D
109. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – TRM, Esbjerg Area chart (19-1) or chrt E(LO)5).What is the track
and distance shown on the chart from VOR/DME SKR (N55 o13.8 E009o12.90 to overhead Esbjerg
(N55o31.6 E008o33.2)?
A – 308o (T) /29 NM

B – 308o (M)/29 Km
C – 308o (M)/29 NM
D – 308o (T)/29 Km
Ans: C
110. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1) An aircraft has to fly from TALLA (55o30’N
003o21’W) to FINDO (56o22’N 003o28’W). Excluding RVSM, what is the first flight level above FL400
that can be flown on this leg?
A – FL410
B – FL400
C – FL430
D – FL420
Ans: C
111. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1) An aircraft has to fly from TIREE (56o29’N
006o53’W) direct to ABERDEEN (57o19’N 002o16’W). What is the minimum grid safe altitude for this
route?
A – 5700 ft
B – 4400 ft
C – 3600 ft
D – 5600 ft
Ans: A
112. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1)An aircraft is flying Northbound on the direct
route from DEAN CROSS that passes through position 57o00’N 003o10’W. Excluding RVSM, what is the
first flight level above FL400 that can be flown on this route?
A – FL420
B – FL440
C – FL430
D – FL450
Ans: D
113. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1) An aircraft is flying towards GOW (55o52’N
004o27W) on airway UN615 prior to an arrival in the London FIR. According to the information on the
chart, what is the most appropriate radio frequency to obtain the latest meteorological information
for the London area?
A – 115.4
B – 129.22
C – 126.60
D – 133.67
Ans: C
114. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1) What is the average magnetic course from
ABERDEEN (57o19’N 002o16’W) to TIREE (56o30’N 006o53’W)?
A – 267o
B – 253o
C – 247o
D – 260o
Ans: D
115. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1) What navigation aid(s) is/are available to civil
aircraft at the military airfield of Kinloss (57o40’N 003o32’W)?
A – VOR and DME on frequency 109.8

N – TACAN range and bearing on Channel 35
C – The bearing element only of TACAN on VOR frequency 109.8 MHz
D – The range element only of TACAN on DME frequency 109.8 MHz
Ans: D
116. (For this question, use Annex 033-006 or Route Manual chart E(HI)1) An aircraft has to fly from
Glasgow (55o52’N 004o27’W) to Benbecula (57o29’N 007o22’W), cruising at 320 kt TAS. Assuming a
headwind of 40 kt and cruise fuel consumption of 2300 kg/h, what is the fuel consumption for this
sector?
A – 978 kg
B – 1117 kg
C – 889 kg
D – 2300 kg
Ans: B
117. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1) An aircraft has to fly from GOW (55o52’N
004o27’W) to INS (57o33’N 004o03’W) routing via FINDO (56o22’N 003o28’W). For Flight Planning
purposes, what is the track distance?
A – 117 NM
B – 44 NM
C – 73 NM
D – 102 NM
Ans: A
118. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1) An aircraft has to fly from beacon BWN
(57o29’N 007o22’W) to beacon ADN (57o19’N 002o16’W). What is the average True course for this
route?
A – 109o
B – 101o
C – 281o
D – 093o
Ans: D
119. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) An aircraft has to fly from ALMA (55o25’N
013o34’E) to BACKA (57o33’N 011o59’E) on airways UB45 UH40 and UA9. What is the total track
distance for this flight?
A – 119 NM
B – 143 NM
C – 105 NM
D – 146 NM
Ans: B
120. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) An aircraft has to fly from the beacon TNO
(55o46’N 011o26’E) on a direct route to the beacon HAR (57o50’N 012o42’E). What is the magnetic
track and distance for this flight?
A – 007o/131 NM
B – 029o/69 NM
C – 013o/117 NM
D – 018o/129 NM
Ans: D
121. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) An aircraft has to fly from Aalborg (57o06’N
010o00’E) to Bottna (57o45’N 013o48’E) on airway UR46. What is the track distance for this flight?
A – 260 NM
B – 70 NM
C – 130 NM
D – 60 NM
Ans: C
122. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) An aircraft has to fly on airways from ODIN
(55o35’N 010o39’E) to BOTTNA 57o45’N 013o48’E). Which of the following is an acceptable route for
this light?
A – ODN UR156 SKA UH42 BTD

B – ODN UR12 PER UG5 SHG UH42 BTD
C – ODN UR156 LAVD17 CINDY UR46 BTD
D – ODN UR12/UN872 HIL UV30 BTD
Ans: A
123. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) An aircraft has to fly on airways from SKARA
(58o23’N 013o15’E) to SVEDA 56o10’N 012o34’E). Which of the following is an acceptable route for this
light?
A – SKA UR156 LAV UB45 SVD

B – SKA UB44 BAK UA9 PAPER UH40 SVD
C – SKA UH42 BTD UV30 HIL UR1 SVD
D – SKA DCT SVD
Ans: C
124. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) An aircraft is flying from BACKA (57o33’N
011o59’E) to BOTTNA (57o45’N 13o48’E) on airway UR46. Which of the following would be a useful
cross- reference to check the airway intersection CINDY?
A – BAK078/BTD258
B – HAR161/LAV092
C – LAV D17
D – BTD D60
Ans: B
125. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2 What is the meaning of the chart information
for the beacon(s) at position 55o59’N 014o06’E?
A – NDB, ident OE and VOR, ident VEY

B – NDB only, ident OE
C – VOR only, ident VEY
D – Doppler VOR, ident SUP and NDB, ident OE
Ans: B
126. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) An aircraft hs to fly from ALMA (55o25’N
013o34’E) to PETER (56o50’N 013o35’E). Excluding RVSM, what is the lowest Flight Level above FL400
that can be flown on an IFR flight on this leg?
A – FL430
B – FL410
C – FL420
D – FL440
Ans: A
127. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) An aircraft has to fly from ODIN (55o35’N
030o39’E) to LANDVETTER (57o39’N 012o17’E). What is the magnetic course on this route?
A – 204o
B – 024o
C – 052o
D – 156o
Ans: B
128. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) An aircraft has to fly from SHILLING (57o33’N
014o00’E) to ALMA (55o25’N 013o34’E). What is the minimum grid safe altitude for this route?
A – 2700 ft
B – 3200 ft
C – 2500 ft
D – 2900 ft
Ans: B
129. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) An aircraft has to fly on airways from ALMA
(55o25’N 013o34’E) to SHILLING (57o33’N 014o00’E). What is the distance between these two points?
A – 86 NM
B – 131 NM
C – 45 NM
D – 60 NM
Ans: B
130. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) An aircraft has to fly on airways from SVEDA
(56o10’N 012o34’E) to SKARA (58o23’N 013o15’E). Which of the following is the correct route?
A – SVD UB45 LAV UR156 SKA
B – SVD UH40 PAPER UA9 BAK UB44 SKA
C – UR1 HIL UV30 BTD UH42 SKA
D – SVD UH40 PAPER UA9 BAK UR156 SKA
Ans: B
131. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) What is the meaning of the chart information
for the navaid(s) LANDVETTER (57o39’N 012o17’E)?
A – VORDME with identification LAV available on frequency 114.6 MHz

B – DME only with identification LAV available on frequency 114.6 MHz
C – Doppler VOR only with identification LAV available on frequency 114.6 MHz
D – VORDME and NDB with identification LAV available on frequency 114.6 MHz
Ans: A
132. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)1) The radio navigation aid(s) at (57o32’N
004o03’W) is/are:
A – VORDME, frequency 109.2 KHz

B – VOR, frequency 109.2 MHz, for INS update only
C – VOR, frequency 109.2 MHz, no DME available
D – VORDME, frequency 109.2 MHz
Ans: D
133. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) The identifier of the radio navigation aid at
56o06’N 012o15’E) is:
A – WX
B – NOA
C – SVD04
D – NORA
Ans: B
134. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) The identifier of the radio navigation aid at
(56o07’N 012o58’E) is:
A – SVD03
B – SVD
C – AOR
D – ASTOR
Ans: C
135. (Refer Jeppesen Student Route Manual chrt E(HI)2) The radio navigation aid at (57o45’N 013o48’E) is a :
A – VOR, frequency 355 MHz
B – NDB, frequency 355 MHz
C – VOR, frequency 355 KHz
D – NDB, frequency 355 KHz
Ans: D
136. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) The radio navigation aid(s) at (55o26’N
011o38’E) is/are:
A – NDB, frequency 112.8 KHz

B – VORDME, frequency 128.15 MHz
C – VORDME, frequency 128.75 MHz
D – VORDME, frequency 112.8 MHz
Ans: D
137. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2)The radio navigation aid(s) at (56 o09’N
013o14’E) is/are:
A – VOR-DME, frequency 116.2 MHz

B – VOR-DME, frequency 116.9 MHz
C – VOR, frequency 116.2 MHz
D – VOR, frequency 116.9MHz
Ans: D
138. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2) The radio navigation aid(s) at (56o17N
010o47’E) is/are:
A – VORDME, frequency 374 KHz

B – NDB, frequency 374 KHz, for Temporary Use (TU)
C – VOR, frequency 374 MHz
Ans: D
139. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Route Manual chart E(HI)2 The radio navigation aid(s) at (55o59’N
014o06’E) is/are:
A – VOR-DME, frequency 116.9 MHz

B – NDB, frequency 116.9 KHz
C – VOR, frequency 363 KHz
Ans: D
140. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual, London Heathrow, pages 10-2, 11-4 or figures AP-08, AP-09)
Using STAR Biggin Two Alfa for ILS DME Rwy 27R. What is the Initial Approach Fix?
A – Epsom, 316
B – Biggin, 115.1
C – IRR, 110.3
D – Ockham, 115.3
Ans: B
141. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual chart 5AT(HI) Route PTS P from VIGRA (N62o33 E006o02) to ADOBI
(N68o30 E003o00). What is the grid track?
A – 353o
B – 344o
C – 173o
D – 349o
Ans: B
142. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)4 What is the mean true course from Paris – Charles-de-Gaulle to
London Heathrow?
A – 321 T
B – 312 T
C – 322 M
D – 142 T
Ans: A
143. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – MADRID, BARAJAS page 11-1 or figure AP-15)
ILS DME Rwy 33. What is the minimum altitude for glide slope interception?
A – 3500 ft
B – 4000 ft
C – 2067 ft
D – 1567 ft
Ans: B
144. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – Paris Charles-de-Gaulle – SID chart 20-3 or figure AP-03)
What is the distance to Abbeville on SID ABB 8A?
A – 72 nm
B – 74 nm
C – 72.5 nm
D – 74.5 nm
Ans: D
145. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – AMSTERDAM SCHIPOL 11-6 or figure AP-07)
ILS DME RWY 22. Complete the blanks for the missed approach:
“Turn _____ on track _____ “climbing to _____”
A – left, 005, 2000’ (2012’)
B – left, 266, 2000’ (2102’
C – right, 240, 2000’ (2011’)
D – left, 160, 2000’ (2014’)
Ans: D
146. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(H)3) Are the VOR and TACAN navaids at OSNABRUCH (N52 12 E008
17) co- located?
A – Yes
B – VOR/DME only
C – VOR/NDB only
D – No
Ans: D
147. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)4) For a flight from Paris Charles-de-Gaulle to London Heathrow,
what is the average true course?
A – 320
B – 300
C – 120
D – 140
Ans: A
148. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(LO)5) OSNABRUCH VOR and TACAN (52 12N 008 17E). What can be
said about the VOR and TACAN?
A – They are frequency paired

B – They are not frequency paired
C – They are frequency paired and have the same ident
D – They are not frequency pai4red and have different idents
Ans: D
149. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart 5 AT (HI) The initial true course from A (65oN 006oE) to C (62oN
020oW) is:
A – 272o
B – 266o
C – 256o
D – 246o
Ans: B
150. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(LO)5) This chart is a ___ projection with a scale of ___
A – Lambert Conformal Conic, 1 cm = 14.60 km
B – Transverse Mercator, 1 inch = 15 NM
C – Mercator, 1 inch = 20 NM
D – Lambert Conformal Conic, 1 cm = 10.95 km
Ans: A
151. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(LO)6) Position NESLA at (N49o48.6 E002o44.4) is a ____
A – Compulsory reporting point on both G40 and A5

B – Non-compulsory reporting point on both G40 and A5
C – Compulsory reporting point G40 only
D – Non-compulsory reporting point on G40 only
Ans: C
152. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(LO)5) On what frequency could you expect to receive plain language
in-flight weather information for Amsterdam?
A – 123.70 MHz
B – 126.20 MHz
C – 113.95 MHz
D – 124.30 MHz
Ans: B
153. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(LO)6 While flying IFR on A5 between PERON (N49o54.8 E002o50.4)
and CAMBRAI (N50o13.7 E003o09.1) the highest suitable ICAO cruising level would be?
A – FL120
B – FL150
C – FL180
D – FL190
Ans: A
154. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(LO)6 You plan to fly at FL180 from DRESDEN (N51o00.9 E013o35.9)
to BAROM (N50o02.5 E010o43.9) when ED(R)-208 is active, your expected routing is:
A – DRN Z715 BAROM

B – DRN Z715 DCT BAROM
C – As directed by ATC
D – DRN A19 BAROM
Ans: D
155. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(LO)5) Flying westbound overhead DOXON (N55o26.9 E018o10.) you
fly from ___ into ___
A – Warsaw FIR (ICAO code EPWW), Riga FIR (ICAO code EVRR)
B – Latvia, Poland
C – Riga FIR (ICAO code EVRR), Malmo FIR (ICAO code ESMM)
D – Riga FIR (ICAO code EVRR), Warsaw FIR (ICAO code EPWW)
Ans: D
156. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(LO)5) To positively identify the DENKO (N52o49.0 E015o50.1) NDB
you must ensure the following radio/navigation equipment is on:
A – The ADF with the Beat Frequency Oscillator (BFO) off

B – The VOR/DME
C – Radio tuned to 134.22 MHz
D – The ADF with the Beat Frequency Oscillator (BFO) on
Ans: D
157. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(LO)6) Overhead STRASBOUORG (N48 30.4 E007 34.4) the Grid
MORA is?
A – FL57
B – 5500’
C – 5700’
D – 5700m
Ans: C
158. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(LO)6) Overhead PRAGUE (N50 05.8 E014 15.8) you should expect to
communicate with Prague Control/Radar on:
A – 112.60 MHz
B – 127.90 MHz
C – 120.47 MHz
D – 134.00 MHz
Ans: D
159. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(LO)5) You are flying along R12 on track heading 030o (M) towards
HELGOLAND (N54 11.1 E007 54.6) and you have 30 NM to run, your RMI indicates a QDM of ___ to
HELGOLAND
A – 030o
B – 045o
C – 225o
D – 054o
Ans: B
160. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)4) Your aircraft registered in the UK is outbound from London
towards New York via UG1 and Shanwick CTA/FIR, prior to crossing W002 what should you have
obtained:
A – Airways clearance from London on 133.60 MHz

B – Oceanic entry clearance on 133.80 MHz
C – Oceanic entry clearance on 123.95 MHz
D – Oceanic entry clearance on 127.65 MHz
Ans: D
161. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)4) You are cleared to route LANDS END (N50o08.1W 005o38.2)
direct to HONILY (N52o21.4 W001o39.7) you estimate LANDS END at 09:57.
TAS is 500 kt
W/V is 270o (M)/50 kt
What is your mean magnetic track and estimate for HONILY:
A – 055o, 1019
B – 048o, 1019
C – 053o, 1005
D – 048o, 1021
Ans: A
162. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – LONDON AREA chart) You are required to hold at BOVINGDON
(N51 43.6 W000 33.0) however, the VOR is unserviceable what procedure should now follow?
A – Enter the BOVVA alternate hold which is on the 141o radial at 37 DME BIGGIN
B – Enter the BOVVA alternate hold which STARTS AT 32 DME BIGGIN on 141o QDM
C – Enter the BOVVA alternate hold which starts at 37 DME BIGGIN on 131o QDM
D – Ask ATC for radar vectors instead
Ans: B
163. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)4 What navigation aids are available at CLACTON (N51o50.9
E001o09.0)?
A – VOR/DME and NDB always

B – NDB only
C – VOR/DME and NDB only when the VOR/DME is unserviceable
D – VOR/DME when the NDB is unserviceable
Ans: C
164. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(LO)6) Regarding GUTERSLOH (N51o55 E008o18) it is a ___ airport
within class ___ airspace, with an airfield elevation of ___ AMSL
A – Military/E/236 ft
B – Civil/E/236 ft
C – Military/A/236 ft
D – Military/E/236 ft
Ans: A
165. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)4) Regarding restricted airspace EG(D)-056 at (N50o05 W000o50)
it is a:
A – Permanently active danger area from sea level up to FL550

B – Danger area from sea level up to 55,000 ft activated by NOTAM
C – Restricted area from sea level up to 55,000 ft activated by NOTAM
D – Permanently active danger area from sea level up to 55,000 ft
Ans: B
166. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)4) How could you confirm your position at SKESO (N49o49.5
W003o02.0) if BHD is unserviceable?
A – 339o QDR at 122 DME DIN

B – 331o QDR at 29 DME GUR
C – 339o QDM at 122 DME DIN
D – 331o QDM at 29 DME GUR
Ans: B
167. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)4) The initial magnetic track and total distance from
ROLAMPONT (N47o54.4 E005o15.0 to MONUR (N49o51.6 E002o47.3) along UB4 are:
A – 322o and 99 nm
B – 328o and 53 nm
C – 321o and 69 nm
D – 322o and 152 nm
Ans: D
168. (Refer to Jeppesen Manual chart E(HI)5) Flying eastbound between BOLOGNA (N44o32.2 E011o17.5)
and ANCONA (N43o35.2 E013o28.3) what is the minimum ICAO IFR cruising level?
A – FL250
B – FL310
C – FL260
D – FL330
Ans: D
169. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – MADRID BARAJAS 10-3H or figure AP- 34) You are cleared on a
NAVAS THREE DELTA departure after passing ARGAS what is the maximum IAS in the turn to NVS and
at what level should you be by NVS:
A – 230 kt, 4000 ft
B – 250 kt, 4000 ft
C – 230 kt, FL80 or above
D – 250 kt, FL80 or above
Ans: C
170. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – chart E(LO)5) The solid green symbol 10 NM south west of EELDE
(N53 09.8 E006 40.0) is:
A – A VOR/DME with a Morse ident of EEL

B – An NDB with a Morse ident of VZ
C – A fan marker with a Morse ident of VZ
D – A fan marker with a Morse ident of DN
Ans: D
171. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – MUNICH 10-2B or figure AP-19) Standard arrival AALEN ONE
TANGO with runway 25R in use, therefore your route and track miles to the IAF are expected to be:
A – AALEN – WLD – ROKIL – MBG, 90 nm

B – AALEN – WLD – ROKIL, 51 nm
C – AALEN – WLD – ROKIL, 124 nm
D – WLD – ROKIL, 10 nm
Ans: A
172. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – ZURICH 11-2 or figure AP-11) The MSA is based on the ___ and is
___ to the south east of the reference point:
A – Aerodrome reference point, 8600 ft

B – KOLTEN VOR, 8600 ft
C – Aerodrome reference point, 5300 ft
D – KLOTEN VOR, 4400 ft
Ans: B
173. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – AMSTERDAM SCHIPOL 11-3A or figure AP-36)
The touchdown elevation for runway 27 is:
A – 12 ft above mean sea level

B – 11 ft above mean sea level
C – 11 ft below mean sea level
D – 12 ft below mean sea level
Ans: D
174. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – LONDON 11-4 or figure AP-09) The frequency, identification and
localiser final approach QDM for runway 27R are:
A – 110.3 MHz, IRR, 274o

B – 109.5 MHz, ILL, 274o
C – 110.3 MHz, IRR, 094o
D – 113.6 MHz, LON, 094o
Ans: A
175. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – charts E(LO)5 and 6) It is August and you are flying overhead
Latvia at 02.00 Latvia standard time. What is the correct UTC time?
A – 0500 hrs
B – 1400 hrs
C – 2300 hrs
D – 2400 hrs
Ans: C
176. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – MADRID BARAJAS 11-1 or figure AP-15)
The final approach fix is ___ from the runway 33 displaced threshold:
A – D 1.1
B – D 10.7
C – D 7.1
D – D 4.7
Ans: D
177. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – AMSTERDAM SCHIPOL 13-5 or figure AP-37)
When carrying out the procedure turn in a category A aeroplane what outbound QDR should you fly:
A – 122o
B – 140o
C – 266o
D – 091o
Ans: A
178. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – MUNICH 11-4 or figure AP-01)If the glide scope was out while
carrying out an ILS approach to runway 26R when 4.0 DME your recommended altitude is:
A – 1001 ft
B – 2660 ft
C – 2450 ft
D – 1211 ft
Ans: C
179. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – chart E(HI)4) You are flying overhead TANGO (N48o37.2
E009o15.6) at 09.47 maintaining TAS of 480 kt experiencing a 50 kt headwind component while routing
UG313 KPT UG60 BRENO UA12 BZO. Your estimate for the LOVV/LIMM FIR boundary is?
A – 0958 hrs
B – 0956 hrs
C – 1005 hrs
D – 1015 hrs
Ans: C
180. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – chart E(LO)5)

The airspace ED(R)-74 centered on N52o25 E011o30 is usually active:
A – From ground to 39000 ft AMSL, Monday 0700 to Friday 1800 UTC

B – From MSL to FL39, Monday to Friday 0700 – 1900 LT
C – From ground to 3900 ft AMSL, Monday 0700 to Friday 1800 LT
D – Activated only by NOTAM
Ans: C
181. (Refer to figure 10-3) Flying north bound just out of Moscow at FL120. What sort of in-flight weather
hazard might be encountered?
A – None
B – Moderate icing and turbulence
C – Moderate icing and severe turbulence
D – Severe icing and moderate turbulence
Ans: B
182. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – chart (LO)5) Regarding airway G5 between HAMBURG (N53 41.1
E010 12.3) and GEDSER (N54 37.1 E011 56.0) it is true to say:
A – The total distance is 82 nm, FL 180 is a suitable IFR level

B – The total distance is 82 nm, FL 170 is a suitable IFR level
C – The total distance is 60 nm, FL 180 is a suitable IFR level
D – The total distance is 60 nm, FL 170 is a suitable IFR level
Ans: A
183. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – chart E(HI)5) Who should you make your position report to on
passing LYON (N45 43.5 E005 05.4) if you are maintaining FL350 northwest bound along UA2:
A – Marseille control on 132.25 MHz

B – Marseille control on 133.42 MHz
C – Marseille control on 134.10 MHz
D – Marseille control on 125.85 MHz
Ans: A
184. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – chart E(LO)6) The symbol at BOULOGNE (N50 37.5 E001 54.5) has
the meaning:
A – VOR/DME ON 113.80 MHz and a compulsory point

B – VOR on 113.80 MHz and a compulsory reporting point
C – VOR on 13.80 MHz and on request reporting point
D – A compulsory reporting point with no associated navigation aid
Ans: B
185. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – chart E(HI)4) To the east of Koksy (51o06N 002o39E):
A – Airway UJ 34 is available not below FL300

B – A plain language inflight weather service is available on 127.8 MHz
C – Maastricht Control/Radar is the Control Service for use within the portrayed boundaries
below FL245
D – Brussels Control is the Control Service for use within the portrayed boundaries at FL245 and above
Ans: B
186. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – chart E(LO)1) The altimeter setting to be used is:
A – QNE
B – QNH until above transition level thereafter QNE
C – QNH until above transition altitude thereafter QNE
D – QNE until below transition altitude thereafter QNH
Ans: C
187. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – chart E(HI)4) Airway UL3 at GIBSO intersection (50o45N
002o30W):
A – Is available east bound only

B – Is available at 1000 LT on a public holiday
C – Is available west bound to Gibso routing thereafter via UR14 below FL245
D – Is a Diversionary Route only
Ans: B
188. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – MADRID BARAJAS (10-2B) or figure AP-13) The IAF for runway 33
arrivals from Airway A869 is:
A – CJN
B – ADUXO
C – A frequency paired VOR and DME
D – Both A and C are correct
Ans: C
189. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – Munich SID (10-3D) or figure AP-10) Pilots departing Munich via a
KPT 5S departure:
A – When airborne should contact Munich Departure on 127.95
B – Should climb to FL70
C – May climb to FL110
D – Should remain below transition altitude 5000 feet until otherwise instructed by ATC
Ans: B
190. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – Paris Charles-de-Gaulle – STAR chart (20-2) or figure AP-04)
Turboprop aircraft arriving via Chievres should expect :
A – A CIV 1P arrival crossing the IAF at FL110

B – A CIV 1P arrival crossing the IAF at FL60
C – A CIV 1W arrival crossing the IAF at FL110
D – A CIV 1W arrival crossing the IAF at FL80
Ans: B
191. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – chart E(HI)4)

An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR106 from Rambouillet (N48o39.2 E001o59.7) is:
A – FL310
B – FL290
C – FL300
D – FL320
Ans: B
360o (M) is:
A – FL 200
B – FL 210
C – FL 220
D – FL 240
Ans: B
193. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – MUNICH ILS Rwy 26R (11-4) or figure AP-01)
The height of the aircraft at the Final Approach Fix (FAF) for the ILS runway 26R is:
A – 1649 feet
B – 1850 feet
C – 3551 feet
D – 5000 feet
Ans: C
194. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – MUNICH ILS Rwy 26R (11-4) or figure AP-01) DMN is a:
A – NDB facility
B – ILS facility with paired DME reading zero nm at runway threshold
C – VOR facility with paired DME reading zero nm at runway threshold
D – DME facility reading 1 nm at runway threshold
Ans: D
195. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – AMSTERDAM SCHIPOL ILS/DME Rwy 22 (11-6) or figure AP-07)
The intermediate fix is shown at:
A – D 6.0 SPL VOR

B – D 6.2 SCH ILS
C – D 9.9 SPL VOR
D – 11.7 SPL VOR
Ans: C
196. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09R (11-1A) or figure AP-39)
The height indicated by the radio altimeter at DA for a CAT II equipped aircraft is:
A – 100 ft
B – 175 ft
C – 150 ft
D – 225 ft
Ans: A
197. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – Munich NDB DME RW 26L (16-3) or figure AP-02)
The frequency and identifier of the NDB for the published approach are:
A – 400 MSW
B – 338 MNW
C – 108.6 DMS
D – 112.3 MUN
Ans: A
198. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – Munich NDB DME RW 26L (16-3) or figure AP-02)
The missed approach procedure should be executed at or before:
A – 0.5 nm from runway 26L threshold

B – 1.5 nm from runway 26L threshold
C – D1.5 DMS
D – Both A and C are correct
Ans: D
199. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – MUNICH ILS Rwy 08R (11-2)/ figure AP-35)The lowest published
authorised RVR for an ILS approach, glide slope out, all other aids serviceable, aeroplane category A, is:
A – 1500 m
B – 600 m
C – 800 m
D – 720 m
Ans: D
200. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – MUNICH ILS Rwy 08R (11-2) or figure AP-35) The highest
Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) providing 1000 feet clearance from obstructions within a radius of
25 nm centred on the MNW locator is ___, while the highest portrayed terrain high point or man-made
structure in the chart plan view is ___.
A – 3200 feet, 2631 feet

B – 3200 feet, 3700 feet
C – 3700 feet, 2631 feet
D – 3700 feet, 3200 feet
Ans: C
201. (Refer to Jeppesen Student Manual – chart NAP) Given an initial true heading at Shannon of 270o and a
compass deviation of +3o the corresponding compass heading would be:
A – 265o
B – 273o
C – 275o
D – 281o
Ans: C
General flight planning tasks

1. An aircraft is flying at MACH 0.84 at FL 330. The static air temperature is -48oC and the headwind
component 52 kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests the pilot to cross the meridian of 030W at 1500
UTC . Given the distance to go is 570 NM, the reduced MACH No. should be:
A – 0.72
B – 0.78
C – 0.76
D – 0.80
Ans: D
2. A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating engines is flying from PARIS to LYON. The final reserve
corresponds to:
A – 45 minutes at holding speed

B – 2 hours at cruise consumption
C – 1 hour at holding speed
D – 30 minutes at holding speed
Ans: A
3. A turbine engined aircraft burns fuel at 200 gals per hour (gph) with a Fuel Density of 0.8. What is the
fuel flow if Fuel Density is 0.75?
A – 213 gph
B – 208 gph
C – 200 gph
D – 188 gph
Ans: A
4. Given:
True course (TC) 017o
W/V 340o/30 kt
True air speed (TAS) 420 kt
Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS):
A – WCA -2o, GS 426 kt

B – WCA +2o, GS 396 kt
C – WCA -2o, GS 396 kt
D – WCA +2o, GS 416 kt
Ans: C
5. Flight planning chart for an aeroplane states that the time to reach the cruising level at a given gross
mass is 36 minutes and the distance travelled is 157 NM (zero-wind). What will be the distance
travelled with an average tailwind component of 60 kt?
A – 193 NM
B – 128 NM
C – 157 NM
D – 228 NM
Ans: A
6. An aeroplane flies at an airspeed of 380 kt. It flies from A to B and back to A. Distance AB = 480 NM.
When going from A to B, it experiences a headwind component = 60 kt. The wind remains constant.
The duration of the flight will be:
A – 3h 00 min
B – 2h 35 min
C – 2h 10 min
D – 2h 32 min
Ans: B
7. A multi engined AC on IFR flight. Given the following data, and assuming fuel consumption is
unchanged, which of the following is correct?
Given:
Trip fuel 65 US Gal
Contingency 5% trip
Alternate fuel including final reserve 17 US Gal
Useable fuel at departure 93 US Gal
At a point halfway to destination, fuel consumed is 40 US Gal.
A – At departure Reserve Fuel was 28 US Gal

B – At destination required reserves remain intact
C – Remaining fuel is insufficient to reach destination with reserves intact
D – Remaining fuel is insufficient to reach destination
Ans: C
8. The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0.80. If the density is 0.75 the fuel
burn will be:
A – 235 l/h
B – 206 l/h
C – 220 l/h
D – 176 l/h
Ans: A
9. An aircraft in cruising flight at FL095, GS 155 kt. The pilot intends to descend at 500 ft/min to arrive
overhead the MAN VOR at 2000 FT (QNH 1030 hPa). The TAS remains constant in the descent, wind
is negligible, temperature standard. At which distance from MAN should the pilot commence the
descent?
A – 41 NM
B – 48 NM
C – 38 NM
D – 45 NM
Ans: A
10. An executive pilot is to carry out aq flight to a French aerodrome, spend the night there and return the
next day. Where will he find the information concerning parking and landing fees?
A – in the FAL section of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)

B – in the AGA chapter of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
C – in the GEN chapter of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
D – by telephoning the aerodrome’s local chamber of commerce, this type of information not being
published
Ans: A
11. Where would you find information regarding Customs and Health facilities?
A – ATCC broadcasts
B – NOTAMs
C – NAV/RAD supplements
D – AIP’s
Ans: D
12. Where would you find information regarding Search and Rescue procedures?
B – NOTAM
C – SIGMET
D – AIP
Ans: D
13. 1268. A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt tailwind.
What is the still air distance?
A – 414 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
B – 499 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
C – 406 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
D – 511 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
Ans: C
14. The still air distance in the clib is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30 minutes. What ground
distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?
A – 188 NM
B – 203 NM
C – 174 NM
D – 193 NM
Ans: C
15. The fuel burn – off is 200 kg/hr with a relative fuel density of 0.8. If the relative fuel density is 0.75, the
fuel burn will be:
A – 267 kg/hr
B – 213 kg/hr
C – 200 kg/hr
D – 188 kg/hr
Ans: C
16. From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known short
unserviceability of VOR, TACAN and NDB?
A – NOTAM
B – AIP (Air Information Publication)
C – SIGMET
D – ATCC broadcasts
Ans: A
17. (Refer to CAP 697 figure 2-1)

Aerodrome elevation 2500 ft, OAT +10oC
Initial weight: 3500 lbs
Climb to FL140, OAT -5oC
What is the climb time, fuel, and NAM?
A – 22 min, 6.5g, 46 nam

B – 24 min, 7.5g, 50 nam
C – 2 min, 1.9g, 4 nam
D – 26 min, 8.5g, 54 nam
Ans: A
18. From which of the following would you expect to find the dates and times when temporary danger
areas are active?
A – Only AIP (Air Information Publication)

B – NOTAM and AIP (Air Information Publicatin)
C – SIGMET
D – RAD/NAV charts
Ans: B
19. From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and Rescue organisation
and procedures (SAR)?
B – AIP (Air Information Publication)
C – NOTAM
D – SIGMET
Ans: B
20. From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information (FAL) regarding customs
and health formalities?
A – NOTAM
B – NAV/RAD charts
C – ATCC
D – AIP (Air Information Publication)
Ans: D
21. You are flying a constant compass heading of 252o. Variation is 22oE, deviation is 3oW and your INS is
showing a drift of 9o to the right. True track is?
A – 242o
B – 262o
C – 280o
D – 224o
Ans: C
22. Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane.
Given:
Estimated Landing Mass: 49700 kg FL 280 W/V 280o/40 kt
Average True Course: 320o
Procedure for descent: .74 M/250 KIAS
Determine the time from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft)
A – 10 min
B – 17 min
C – 8 min
D – 19 min
Ans: D
23. True Air Speed: 170 kts Wind in the area: 270o/40 kts According to the attached the navigation log, an
aircraft performs a turn overhead BULEN to re-route to ARD vioa TGJ. The given wind conditions
remaining constant. The fuel consumption during the turn is 20 litres. The total fuel consumption at
position overhead ARD will be:
A – 1545 litres
B – 1182 litres
C – 1326 litres
D – 1600 litres
Ans: A
24. (Refer to Route Manual chart NAP or figure HI-24) On a direct great circle course from Shannon
(52o43N 008o53W) to Gander (48o54N 054o32W) the
(a) average true course, and
(b) distance are:
A – (a) 281o (b) 1877 NM

B – (a) 262o (b) 1720 NM
C – (a) 281o (b) 2730 NM
D – (a) 244o (B) 1520 NM
Ans: B
25. (Refer to Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI) or figure HI-25) The initial great circle true course from Keflavik
(64o00N 022o36W) to Vigra (62o33N 006o02E) measures 084o. On a polar en-route chart where the
grid is aligned with the 000o meridian the initial grid course will be:
A – 080o
B – 096o
C – 066o
D – 106o
Ans: D
26. (Refer to Route Manual chart 5 (AT(HI) or figures HI-18_a & HI-18_b) The initial great circle course from
position A (80oN 170oE) to position B (75oN011oE) is 177o (G). The final grid course at position B will be:
A – 353o (G)
B – 177o (G)
C – 194o (G)
D – 172o (G)
Ans: B
27. (Refer to Route Manual chart NAP or figure HI-23) The average magnetic course from C (62oN 020oW)
to B (58oN 004oE) is:
A – 099o
B – 118o
C – 119o
D – 109o
Ans: C
28. (Refer to Route Manual chart NAP or figure HI-23) The average true course from C (62oN 020oW) to B
(58oN 004oE) is:
A – 199o
B – 099o
C – 120o
D – 109o
Ans: D
29. (Refer to Route Manual chart NAP or figure HI-23) The initial magnetic course from C (62oN 020oW) to
B (58oN 004oE) is:
A – 098o
B – 113o
C – 116o
D – 080o
Ans: C
30. (Refer to Route Manual chart NAP or figure HI-23) The initial true course from C (62oN 020oW) to B
(58oN 004oE) is:
A – 116o
B – 080o
C – 278o
D – 098o
Ans: D
31. (Refer to Route Manual chart NAP or figure HI-23) The distance (NM) from C (62oN 020oW) to B (58oN
004oE) is:
A – 775
B – 760
C – 725
D – 700
Ans: B
32. (Refer to Route Manual chart NAP or figure HI-23)

The distance (NM) from A (64oN 006oE) to C (62oN 020oW) is:
A – 1440
B – 720
C – 690
D – 1590
Ans: B
33. (Reer to Route Manual chart NAP or figure HI-23) The average magnetic course from A (64oN 006oE) to
C (62oN 020oW) is:
A – 259o
B – 247o
C – 279o
D – 271o
Ans: D
34. (Refer to Route Manual chart NAP or figure HI-23) The average true course from A (64oN 006oE) to C
(62oN 020oW) is:
A – 259o
B – 247o
C – 271o
D – 079o
Ans: A
35. The initial true course from A (64oN 003oE) to C (62oN 020oW) is:
A – 271o
B – 275o
C – 267o
D – 246o
Ans: A
36. A twin-jet aeroplane carries out the WASHINGTON – PARIS flight. When it eaches point K (35oN –
048oW) a non-mechanical event makes the Captain consider re-routing to one of the three following
fields. The flight conditions are:
 from K to BERMUDAS (distance 847 NM, headwind component = 18 kt)
 from K to SANTA MARIA (distance 1112 NM, tailwind component = 120 kt
 from K to GANDER (distance 883 NM, wind component = 0
With an aeroplane true airspeed of 460 kt, the field elected will be that more rapidly reached:
A – BERMUDAS, GANDER or SANTA MARIA

B – SANTA MARIA
C – BERMUDAS
D – Either GANDER or BERMUDAS
Ans: A
37. An aircraft has to fly from the airport at Aberdeen (57o19’N 002o16’W) to the airport at Benbec:
Given:
Time to climb: 11 min
Time to descend: 9 min
TAS: 170 kts W/V: 230/50
What is the flight time during the cruise?
A – 16 min
B – 47 min
C – 28 min
D – 54 min
Ans: D
1. A vertical spacing of 1000 ft, is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of
cold air advection (ISA -15oC), what would the true vertical separation be?
A – More than 1000 ft

B – It remains 1000 ft
C – Less than 1000 ft
D – Without QNH information, it cannot be determined
Ans: C
2. The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018 hPa. The air temperature
is 10oC higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
A – More than 1018 hPa

B – Less than 1018 hPa
C – 1018 hPa
D – It is not possible to give a definitive answer
Ans: A
3. You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a minimum altitude of 12000
feet above mean sea level. The air mass you will be flying through is an average 10 oC warmer than ISA.
Your altimeter is set to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will the
altimeter show when you have reached the recommended minimum altitude?
A – 12210 feet
B – 11520 feet
C – 11250 feet
D – 11790 feet
Ans: B
4. You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to
the aviation chart, 15000 ft/AMSL. The air mass that you will fly through is on average 15oC warmer
than the standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH (1023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will
you effectively be at the recommended minimum flight altitude?
A – 15900 ft
B – 13830 ft
C – 14370 ft
D – 14100 ft
Ans: D
5. QNH is defined as:
A – The pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphere

B – The pressure at MSL, obtained using the actual conditions
C – QFE reduced to MSL using the actual conditions
D – QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosphere
Ans: D
6. 10124. At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the
minimum usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe altitude?
A – In a cold low pressure region

B – At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is greater than or
equal to 1013 hPa
C – At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is less than 1013 hPa
D – In a warm high pressure region
Ans: B
7. The QNH is equal to the QFE if:
A – T actual < T standard

B – T actual = T standard
C – T actual > T standard
D – the elevation = 0
Ans: D
8. The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from ISA is -15oC below FL
100. What is the true altitude of FL 100?
A – 9740 ft
B – 10160 ft
C – 8640 ft
D – 11460 ft
Ans: C
9. The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1013.2 hPa. The aircraft has to
land on a point with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is 1023 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa
corresponds to 27 ft, the reading on the altimeter on the ground will be:
A – 20 ft
B – 11 ft
C - -10 ft
D – 560 ft
Ans: A
10. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true altitude is 9100 feet; local QNH is unknown. What
assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
A – It is colder than ISA

B – There is insufficient information to make any assumption
C – It is warmer than ISA
D – Its average temperature is the same as ISA
Ans: B
11. An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a very cold winters day. The regional QNH is 1013 hPa. During
the flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid
altimeter give, compared to the elevation of the summit?
A – The same altitude as the elevation of the summit
B – A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit
C – A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit
D – There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion
Ans: C
12. An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a warm summers day. The weather is fine, and there is a high
pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What
reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the summit’s elevation?
A – There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion

B – A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit
C – The same altitude as the elevation of the summit
D – A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit
Ans: D
13. The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10oC
lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
A – It is not possible to give a definitive answer

B – More than 1016 hPa
C – 1016 hPa
D – Less than 1016 hPa
Ans: D
14. In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known?
A – Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield

B – Temperature at the airfield
C – Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
D – Elevation of the airfield
Ans: D
15. After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 ft), the altimeter indicates an altitude of
1310 ft. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome?
A – 1015 hPa
B – 1028 hPa
C – 1013 hPa
D – 998 hPa
Ans: B
16. What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest usable flight level?
A – Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA
B – Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA
C – Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISA
D – Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA
Ans: A
17. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH is 1003 hPa.
What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
A – There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion

B – Its average temperature is about ISA
C – It is colder than ISA
D – It is warmer than ISA
Ans: D
18. Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a position where
flight over mountains could be dangerous?
A – Cold high
B – Warm depression
C – Cold low
D – Warm high
Ans: C
19. An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1006 hPa)
experiences no change to true altitude. The reason for this is that:
A – the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested

B – the air at Palma de Mallorca is colder than that at Marseille
C – the air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that at Marseille
D – one of the two QNH values may be incorrect
Ans: C
20. During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet; local QNH is 1019 hPa. What
information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
A – Its average temperature is the same as ISA

B – It is colder than ISA
C – It is warmer than ISA
D – There is insufficient information to make any assumption
Ans: B
21. If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature deviation is ISA 10oC in the lower
troposphere up to 18000 ft, what is the actual layer thickness between FL 60 and FL 120?
A – 6240 ft
B – 6000 ft
C – 5900 ft
D – 5760 ft
Ans: A
22. For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the
airfield is:
A – 120 metres
B – 600 metres
C – 540 metres
D – 160 metres
Ans: D
23. If the QFE at Locarnho (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?
A – 1015 hPa
B – 1000 hPa
C – 1005 hPa
D – 1010 hPa
Ans: C
24. If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?
A – 985 hPa
B – 1025 hPa
C – 990 hPa
D – 1035 hPa
Ans: B
25. An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 ft. Should this altimeter be adjusted to
the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be:
A – 2922 ft
B – 3006 ft
C – 4278 ft
D – 4194 ft
Ans: B
26. You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27oC and the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa.
What is the true altitude?
A – 15630 feet
B – 15100 feet
C – 16370 feet
D – 16910 feet
Ans: B
27. During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012
hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, if any, should be taken?
A – None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer than the air around
Marseille
B – Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrong
C – Re-check the QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrong
D – Compensate by heading further to the left
Ans: A
28. During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an
aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this is that:
A – the air at Marseille is colder than that at Palma de Mallorca

B – the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested
C – the air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca
D – one of the two QNH values may be incorrect
Ans: C
29. During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1016 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1016
hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is the probable reason for this?
A – One of the QNH values must be wrong

B – The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca
C – The altimeter is faulty
D – The aircraft is being blown off track to the left
Ans: B
30. You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude of 15000 ft/AMSL. The air is on an average
15oC colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What indication must the altimeter (setting
1013.2 hPa) read?
A – 15690 ft
B – 16230 ft
C – 14370 ft
D – 13830 ft
Ans: B
31. An aircraft is flying at FL 75 over point A where the QNH is 1013 hPa,enroute to B where the QNH is
979 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa equals 30 ft and that point B is 823 metres AMSL the terrain clearance
over B is:
A – 6480 ft
B – 4280 ft
C – 3780 ft
D – 5680 ft
Ans: C
32. An aircraft is to fly at an indicated altitude of 5000 ft from X (elevation 850 ft, QNH 984 hPA) to Y
(elevation 2300 ft QNH 1024 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-scale is set to 984 mbs and 1 hPa =
30 ft, the height of the aircraft over X and Y will be:
A – 5000 ft; 3900 ft

B – 4150 ft; 3900 ft
C – 4150 ft; 1500 ft
D – 5000 ft; 1500 ft
Ans: B
33. The barometric reading of pressure must be corrected for the following errors:
A – temperature, index, instrument

B – index, temperature, pressure
C – instrument, gravity, temperature
D – instrument, temperature, pressure
Ans: D
34. An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is
1013.2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
A – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A

B – The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
C – Wind speed at A is higher than at B
D – Wind speed at A and at B is the same
Ans: B
A – Wind speed at B is higher than at A

C – Wind speed at Madrid is higher than at A
D – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
Ans: D
A – Wind speed at B is higher than at A
C – Wind speed at A and at B is the same
D – The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
Ans: D
37. An aeroplane flies at flight level 40, Elevation of the aerodrome 990 ft, QNH 976 hPa, The tower clears
the pilot to fly at 3000 ft QNH, Which of the following statements is correct?
A – Only a small change of altitude is necessary

B – The aeroplane has to climb about 1000 ft
C – The aeroplane has to descend about 1000 ft
D – The aeroplane has to descend about 2000 ft
Ans: A
38. An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6oC) obtains a reading of 1860 ft on its radio altimeter (ground elevation
3090 ft). What is the value of the QNH, to the nearest hPa, at that point?
A – 1042
B – 996
C – 1013
D – 1030
Ans: D
39. An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 4500 ft from A (360 ft/AMSL – QNH 986 hPa) to B
(690 ft/AMSL –QNH 1011 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-scale setting remains unchanged at
986 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface is:
A – 4815 ft
B – 3135 ft
C – 4485 ft
D – 5175 ft
Ans: C
40. An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 5500 ft from A (1050 ft/AMSL – QNH 968 hPa) to
B (650 ft/AMSL – QNH 1016 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-scale setting remains unchanged at
A – 4854 ft
B – 6796 ft
C – 6146 ft
D – 7446 ft
Ans: C
B (930 ft/ALMSL – QNH 977 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-scale setting remains unchanged at
A – 4625 ft
B – 6515 ft
C – 5555 ft
D – 5225 ft
Ans: A
B (1650 ft/AMSL – QNH 983 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-scale setting remains unchanged at
1021 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface:
A – 6204 ft
B – 4824 ft
C – 6876 ft
D – 6474 ft
Ans: B
43. Given:
Altimeter setting: 1013.2 hPa
Altimeter reading: 5000 ft
Outside air temperature at 5000 ft: +5oC
QFE: 958 hPa
QNH: 983 hPa
What is the true height of the aeroplane above the aerodrome?
A – 4325 ft
B – 4190 ft
C – 3515 ft
D – 4865 ft
Ans: C
1. Super-cooled droplets can occur in:
A – clouds but not in precipitation

B – clouds, fog and precipitation
C – precipitation but not in clouds
D – clouds but not in fog
Ans: B
2. The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as:
A – super cooling
B – sublimation
C – super saturation
D – radiation cooling
Ans: B
3. In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?
A – Liquid to gas
B – Solid to liquid
C – Solid to gas
D – Gas to liquid
Ans: D
4. When water evaporates into unsaturated air:
A – relative humidity is decreased

B – heat is released
C – relative humidity is not changed
D – heat is absorbed
Ans: D
5. A super cooled droplet is:
A – a water droplet that is mainly frozen

B – a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing
C – a small particle of water at a temperature below 50oC
D – a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent
Ans: B
6. Super cooled droplets can be encountered:
A – only in winter at high altitude

B – in winter only in high clouds
C – only in winter above 10,000 ft
D – at any time of the year
Ans: D
7. Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:
A – relative humidity reaches 98%

B – water vapour is present
C – water vapour condenses
D – temperature and dew point are nearly equal
Ans: C
8. A super cooled droplet is one that:
A – is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air

B – has frozen to become an ice pellet
C – has a shell of ice with water inside it
D – remains liquid at a below freezing temperature
Ans: D
9. How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft?
A – Only through un-burnt fuel in the exhaust gases

B – Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing tips
while flying through relatively warm but humid air
C – Through water vapour released during fuel combustion
D – In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases
Ans: C
10. Super cooled droplets are always:
A – large and at a temperature below freezing

B – small and at a temperature below freezing
C – at a temperature below freezing
D – at a temperature below -60oC
Ans: C
11. Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?
A – Solid direct to liquid

B – Solid direct to vapour
C – Liquid direct to solid
D – Liquid direct to vapour
Ans: B
Adiabatic processes
1. What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 ft?
A – 1.5oC
B – 2.0oC
C – 3.0oC
D – 3.5oC
Ans: C
2. If the surface temperature is 15oC, then the temperature at 10000 ft in a current of ascending
unsaturated air is:
A – 5oC
B – 0oC
C - -15oC
D - -5oC
Ans: C
3. A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and then returned to its
original level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air?
A – Lower than the starting temperature

B – Higher than the starting temperature
C – The same as the starting temperature
D – It depends upon the QFE
Ans: C
4. A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to adiabatic effects. Which of the following changes?
A – Specific humidity
B – Absolute humidity
C – Mixing ratio
D – Relatie humidity
Ans: D
5. A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by:
A – expanding it adiabatically
B – raising the temperature
C – lowering the pressure, keeping temperature constant
D – compressing it adiabatically
Ans: A
6. The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is:
A – 0.65oC
B – 2oC
C – 1oC
D – 0.5oC
Ans: C
7. The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated
air because:
A – water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sun
B – moist air is heavier than dry air
C – water vapour does not cool as rapidly as dry air
D – heat is released during the condensation process
Ans: D
8. If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases at:
A – the same rate as if the air mass were dry

B – a lower rate than in dry air, as evaporation absorbs heat
C – a lower rate than in dry air, as condensation gives out heat
D – a higher rate than in dry air, as it gives up latent evaporation heat
Ans: B
9. Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct?
A – Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcels

B – Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcels
C – Unsaturated parcels cool at a rate of 0.65oC per 100m
D – Saturated parcels always cool at a rate of 0.65oC per 100m
Ans: B
10. The stability in a layer is increasing if:
A – warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part
B – warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
C – warm and moist air is advected in the lower part
D – cold and dry air is advected in the upper part
Ans: B
11. What can be said about this weather situation?
A – Air mass thunderstorms may develop during summertime

B – Strong gradient winds may occur over Central Europe
C – Foehn conditions lead to severe weather south of the Alps
D – No ground fog will be present in Paris and Zurich during the winter
Ans: A
12. A layer in which the temperature increases with height is:
A – conditionally unstable
B – absolutely unstable
C – absolutely stable
D – neutral
Ans: C
13. Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer?
A – The wet adiabatic lapse rate is 0.65oC/100m

B – The environmental lapse rate is less than 0.65oC/100m
C – The layer is unstable for unsaturated air
D – The environmental lapse rate is less than 1oC/100m
Ans: D
14. In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than 1oC. This
layer can be described as being:
A – conditionally stable
B – absolutely stable
C – conditionally unstable
D – absolutely unstable
Ans: D
15. What does this picture depict?
A – A westerly wave over Central Europe

B – A high pressure area over Central Europe
C – Uniform pressure pattern
D – North foehn
Ans: C
16. An inversion is:
A – an absolutely stable layer

B – a conditionally unstable layer
C – an unstable layer
D – a layer that can be either stable or unstable
Ans: A
17. Rising air cools because:
A – it becomes more moist

B – surrounding air is cooler at higher levels
C – it expands
D – it contracts
Ans: C
18. If in a 100m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10 oC and at the top of the layer is
8oC then this layer is:
A – absolutely unstable
C – conditionally unstable
D – neutral
Ans: A
19. A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated by:
A – lowering the parcel to a lower level

B – lifting the parcel to a higher level
C – moving the parcel to an area with lower pressure and equal temperature
D – moving the parcel to an area with higher pressure and equal temperature
Ans: B
20. A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is:
A – neutral
B – unstable
C – absolutely stable
D – conditionally unstable
Ans: C
21. During an adiabatic process heat is:
A – neither added nor lost

B – added
C – lost
D – added but the result is an overall loss
Ans: C
22. A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is:
A – between 1oC per 100m and 0.65oC per 100m

B – more than 1oC per 100m
C – 0.65oC per 100m
D – less than 0.65oC per 100m
Ans: B
23. The height of the lifting condensation level is determined by:
A – temperature and dew point at the surface

B – temperature at surface and air pressure
C – wind and dew point at the surface
D – wet adiabatic lapse rate and dew point at the surface
Ans: A
24. The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air at lower level of the
atmosphere is approximately:
A – 1.5oC
B – 1oC
C – 0.6oC
D – 0.35oC
Ans: C
25. A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1oC per 100m is:
A – absolutely unstable
C – neutral for dry air
Ans: C
26. What is the final temperature of unsaturated surface air at 12oC, which rises to 6000 ft?
A - +30oC
B - +18oC
C - +30oC
D - -06oC
Ans: D
27. The average value of the ELR is:

A – 1.5oC / 1000 ft
B – 2.0oC / 1000 ft
C – 3.0oC / 1000 ft
D – It varies daily
Ans: B
28. An ELR of 2.9oC per 1000 ft, is by definition:
A – stable
B – conditionally stable
C – unstable
Ans: D
CLOUDS AND FOG

Cloud formation and description
1. Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land?
A – Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind
B – Unstable air
C – Convection during the day
D – The release of latent heat
Ans: A
2. What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS, AS and ST cloud coverage?
A – Convection process
B – Sinking
C – Lifting
D – Radiation
Ans: C
3. What type of cloud is being described? A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and
uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud,
the outline is clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.
A – Stratus
B – Altostratus
C – Nimbostratus
D – Cirrostratus
Ans: A
4. Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions?
A – C1, CC
B – SC, NS
C – AS, AC
D – CS, ST
Ans: C
5. Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?
A – ST, CS
B – CU, CB
C – SC, NS
D – C1, SC
Ans: B
6. Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus castellanus?

A–B
B–D
C–A
D–C
Ans: D
7. Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds?
A – Frontal lifting within stable layers

B – Radiation
C – Subsidence
D – Convection
Ans: D
8. Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud?
A – ST
B – CS
C – AS
D – SC
Ans: C
9. A cumulonimbus cloud at mid latitudes in summer contains:
A – only water droplets

B – ice crystals, water droplets and super cooled water droplets
C – only ice crystals
D – ice crystals and water droplets but never super cooled water droplets
Ans: B
10. Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?
A – SC
B – C1
C – AS
D – CU
Ans: B
11. Which of the following are medium level clouds?
A – Altostratus and altocumulus

B – Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus
C – Cumulonimbus
D – All convective clouds
Ans: A
12. A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500m (1600 ft) above sea level is covered with a
uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of
this cloud to be expected?
A – 7000 – 15000 ft above ground

B – 100 – 1500 ft above ground
C – 1500 – 7000 ft above ground
D – 15000 – 25000 ft above ground
Ans: C
13. What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?
A – Average horizontal visibility more than 1000m; light to moderate rime ice
B – Average horizontal visibility less than 500m; nil icing
C – Average horizontal visibility less than 500m; light to moderate icing
D – Average horizontal visibility more than 1000m; nil icing
Ans: D
14. Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from:
A – 500 to 1000 ft
B – 1000 to 2000 ft
C – the surface to 6500 ft
D – 100 to 200 ft
Ans: C
15. Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high cloud levels?
A – CB
B – AC
C – ST
D – C1
Ans: A
16. Altostratus clouds are classified as:
A – convective clouds
B – low level clouds
C – high level clouds
D – medium level clouds
Ans: D
17. Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?
A – Stratus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Altocumulus
D – Cirrus
Ans: B
18. Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud?
A – ST
B – CS
C – AS
D – CC
Ans: A
19. Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?
A – ST, AS
B – CU, CB
C – NS, CU
D – CB, CC
Ans: A
20. Fall-streaks or virga are:
A – water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground
B – strong down draughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
C – gusts associated with a well developed Bora
D – strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation
Ans: A
21. Convective clouds are formed:
A – in stable atmosphere
B – in unstable atmosphere
C – in summer during the day only
D – in mid latitudes only
Ans: B
22. Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus capillatus?
A–D
B–A
C–B
D–C
Ans: A
23. Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of:
A – the presence of a low level inversion

B – instability in the atmosphere
C – the presence of warm air aloft
D – poor surface visibility
Ans: B
24. Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus lenticularis?
A–2
B–1
C–4
D–3
Ans: A
25. In an unstable layer thee are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends on the:
A – air pressure at the surface

B – wind direction
C – thickness of the unstable layer
D – pressure at different levels
Ans: C
26. A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500m (1600 ft) above sea level is covered with a
uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of
this cloud to be expected?
A – 15000 – 35000 ft above the terrain

B – 7000 – 15000 ft above the terrain
C – 1500 – 7000 ft above the terrain
D – 100 – 1500 ft above the terrain
Ans: A
27. What is the main composition of clouds classified as high level clouds?
A – Super cooled water droplets

B – Ice crystals
C – Water droplets
D – Water vapour
Ans: B
28. What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?

A – Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice
B – Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain
C – Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice
D – Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice
Ans: C
29. A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 500m (1600 ft) above sea level is covered with
a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base
of this cloud to be expected?
A – 1500 – 7000 ft above the terrain

B – 100 – 1500 ft above the terrain
C – 7000 – 15000 ft above the terrain
D – 15000 – 25000 ft above the terrain
Ans: C
30. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the:
A – presence of valley winds

B – risk or orographic thunderstorms
C – development of thermal lows
D – presence of mountain waves
Ans: D
31. In which of following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered?
A – Within cloud of any type

B – Below the freezing level in clear air
C- In clear air above the freezing level
D – In Nimbostratus cloud
Ans: D
32. Cumulus clouds are an indication for:
A – stability
B – up and downdrafts
C – the approach of a cold front
D – the approach of a warm front
Ans: B
33. The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates:
A – stability in the higher troposphere

B – strong convection at low height
C – instability in the middle troposphere
D – subsidence in a large part of the troposphere
Ans: C
34. Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
A – Cumulonimbus
B – Cirrostratus
C – Altocumulus
D – Altostratus
Ans: A
35. Which of the following is most correct regarding the cloud types Stratus and Nimbostratus?
A – Neither cloud type may give precipitation

B – Stratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grains and Nimbostratus may give rain showers
C – Stratus may give rain showers and Nimbostratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grains
D – Stratus may give drizzle, ice prisms or snow grains and Nimbostratus may give continuously falling
rain or snow
Ans: D
36. Altostratus (AS) and Nimbostratus (NS) are easily confused. How do you distinguish between them?
A – The cloud base is higher in AS and precipitation, if any, is light

B – Precipitation falls from AS but not from NS
C – Steady precipitation from AS
D – The sun can be seen through NS
Ans: A
37. Which one of the following cloud types gives steady rain or snowfall?
A – Altostratus
B – Nimbostratus
C – Cirrostratus
D – Cumulonimbus
Ans: B
38. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is a sign of:
A – severe instability
B – anabatic winds
C – katabatic winds
D – lee waves
Ans: D
1. While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white and rough powder like
contamination is detected along the leading edge of the wing. This contamination is called:
A – Clear ice
B – Rime ice
C – Mixed ice
D – Frost
Ans: B
2. In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing?
A – Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero degrees C
B – Flying in dense cirrus clouds
C – Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer
D – Flying in heavy drizzle
Ans: A
3. Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is most correct?
A – Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below minus 12 degrees C
B – Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds
C – A cloud consisting of both super cooled cloud droplets and ice crystals produces aircraft icing
D – Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud
Ans: C
4. Hoar frost is most likely to form when:
A – flying inside convective clouds

B – taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion
C – flying inside stratiform clouds
D – flying in super cooled drizzle
Ans: B
5. Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on
an aircraft?
A – Relative humidity inside the cloud

B – Aircraft speed and size of cloud droplets
C – Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoil
D – Cloud temperature and droplet size
Ans: D
6. Freezing fog exists if fog droplets:
A – are frozen
B – are super cooled
C – are freezing very rapidly
D – freeze when temperature falls below zero
Ans: B
7. Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through
the same cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small super cooled droplets. Which of
the following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion?
A – Aircraft T experiences more icing than S

B – Aircraft S experiences more icing than T
C – Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing
D – Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets
Ans: B
8. A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and temperature close to
zero degrees C at ground level, you can expect:
A – Reduced visibility and light icing in clouds

B – Decreasing visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light icing in clouds
C – A high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing in the upper part due to accumulation of large
droplets
D – Turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing because clouds consist of ice crystals
Ans: C
9. Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing when they are
not subject to orographic lifting and consist of super cooled cloud droplets?
A – Stratocumulus and cirrostratus

B – Altocumulus and altostratus
C – Stratus and cumulonimbus
D – Altostratus and cirrocumulus
Ans: B
10. At what degree of icing should ICAOs change course and/or altitude immediately instruction be
followed?
A – Light
B – Severe
C – Moderate
D – Extreme
Ans: B
11. Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of:
A – water vapour
B – large super cooled water drops
C – small super cooled water drops
D – snow
Ans: B
12. Clear ice is dangerous because it:
A – spreads out and contains many air particles

B – is translucent and only forms at the leading edges
C – is not translucent and forms at the leading edges
D – is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces
Ans: D
13. The most dangerous form of airframe icing is:
A – rime ice
B – hoar frost
C – dry ice
D – clear ice
Ans: D
14. In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?
A – Cirrus clouds
B – Freezing rain
C – Stratus clouds
D – Snow
Ans: B
15. At what degree of icing should ICAOs change of course and/or altitude desirable recommendation be
followed:
A – Light
B – Moderate
C – Severe
D – Extreme
Ans: B
16. Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile: 3000 ft 15oC 6000 ft 8oC 10000 ft 1oC
14000 ft -6oC 18000 ft -14oC 24000 ft -26oC. At which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft
icing, in cloud, greatest?
A – FL 80
B – FL 150
C – FL 180
D – FL 220
Ans: B
17. Clear ice forms as a result of:
A – super cooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process

B – water vapour freezing to the aircraft
C – ice pellets splattering on the aircraft
D – super cooled droplets freezing on impact
Ans: A
18. Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of:
A – water vapour
B – large super cooled water drops
C – small super cooled water drops
D – snow
Ans: C
19. How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 ft/AGL, when he is unable to de-ice nor land?
A – He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability

B – He descends to the warm air layer below
C – He ascends to the cold air layer above
D – He continues to fly at the same altitude
Ans: A
20. Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a CB?
A – Close to the freezing level

B – Between -20oC and -30oC
C – Between -2oC and -15oC
D – Between -30oC and -40oC
Ans: C
21. Glaze or clear ice is formed when super cooled droplets are:
A – small and at a temperature just below freezing

B – large and at a temperature just below freezing
C – small and freeze rapidly
D – of any size at temperatures below -35oC
Ans: B
22. The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large super cooled drops that have a temperature of
-5oC is most likely to be:
A – clear ice
B – hoar frost
C – rime ice
D – cloudy ice
Ans: A
23. At what degree of icing can ICAO (no change of course and altitude necessary) recommendation be
followed?
A – Moderate
B – Light
C – Severe
D – Extreme
Ans: B
24. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of:
A – water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
B – freezing rain striking the aircraft
C – droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing
D – small super cooled droplets striking the aircraft
Ans: A
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe airframe icing?
A – It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation

B – It always occurs in altostratus cloud
C – It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
D – It will not occur in clear sky conditions
Ans: D
26. Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe airframe icing?
A – It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation

B – It always occurs in altostratus cloud
C – It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
D – It will occur in clear sky conditions
Ans: C
27. During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze:
A – rapidly and do not spread out

B – slowly and do not spread out
C – slowly and spread out
D – rapidly and spread out
Ans: A
28. A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when the temperature profile:
A – coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rate

B – indicates temperatures below -40oC
C – indicates temperatures above 3oC
D – intersects the 0oC isotherm twice
Ans: D
29. The icing in cloud which forms over hills is likely to be more severe than in the same type of cloud over
level terrain because:
A – orographic lifting causes the freezing level to rise and increases the free water content of the cloud
B – increases the temperature inside the cloud by forcing the release of latent heat so causing the air
to hold more water vapour
C – enforced ascent of air releases more water, which is retailed in the cloud by the increased upward
components
D – adiabatic cooling lowers the freezing level and the water content of the cloud
Ans: C
30. Which one of the following statements concerning icing in freezing rain is correct?
A – A coating of clear ice forms when water vapour sublimates

B – Rime ice forms when large water drops freeze
C – Clear ice forms when large water drops freeze
D – Hoar frost form when small water droplets freeze
Ans: C
31. One of the most serious consequences of icing on the wings of an aircraft is?
A – The wing construction being unable to bear the increased load

B – Lift becoming too great as the aircraft becomes heavier
C – The lift co-efficient increasing as the aircraft becomes heavier
D – The stalling speed increasing substantially
Ans: D
32. Icing on the wings of an aircraft normally causes:
A – the stalling speed to increase

B – the stalling speed to decrease
C – the interference drag to increase
D – the interference drag to decrease
Ans: A
33. A thin coating of hoar frost on the airfoil surface:
A – does not affect take-off performance

B – has deleterious effects on the lift of the wing
C – affects the aspect ratio of the wing
D – only affects stability
Ans: B
34. Which one of the following precipitation types gives the most severe icing?
A – Snowfall
B – Mixed rain and snow
C – Freezing rain
D – Ice pellets
Ans: C
35. After a prolonged VMC descent in very cold air, you penetrate a humid air mass. What type of icing
will you encounter?
A – Hoar frost
B – Rime ice
C – Clear ice
D – Smooth icing
Ans: A
36. An aircraft descends in layered clouds; the freezing level is situated at FL 60. At what levels is the
probability for airframe icing the highest?
A – Between FL 120 and FL 60

B – Between FL 120 and FL 180
C – Between FL 60 and Fl 20
D – At FL 140
Ans: A
37. An aircraft flies into super cooled rain in an area with a temperature below 0oC. The type of icing it will
most likely encounter is
A – granular frost
B – hoar frost
C – rime ice
D – clear ice
Ans: D
1. A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down to:
A – the surface of the runway

B – less than 50 ft
C – less than 100 ft
D – less than 200 ft
Ans: A
2. The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of:
A – 300 MHz and is modulated by Morse at two dashes per second

B – 200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in Morse
C – 75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in Morse
D – 75 MHz and is modulated by Morse at two dashes per second
Ans: D
3. An aircraft carrying out a 3o glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in ground speed from 150
kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in ground speed on the
aircrafts rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately:
A – 150 FT/MIN
B – 250 FT/MIN
C – 50 FT/MIN
D – 100 FT/MIN
Ans: C
4. Every 10 kt decrease in ground speed, on a 3o ILS glide path, will require an approximate:
A – increase in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

B – decrease in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
C – decrease in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
D – increase in the aircraft’s rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
Ans: B
5. The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25o glide slope at a ground speed of 140 kt is
approximately:
A – 850 FT/MIN
B – 800 FT/MIN
C – 670 FT/MIN
D – 700 FT/MIN
Ans: B
6. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from
both the localiser and glide path transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
A – Fly right and fly down

B – Fly left and fly down
C – Fly right and fly up
D – Fly left and fly up
Ans: A
7. Using the 1 in 60 rule calculate the height on a 3 degree glide path of an aircraft 4.5 NM from
touchdown.
A – 1480 ft
B – 1420 ft
C – 1370 ft
D – 1230 ft
Ans: C
8. The visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker are:
A – A blue light and 2 dashes per second of a 1300 Hz modulated tone

B – An amber light and alternate dots and dashes of a 1300 Hz modulated tone
C – A white light and 6 dots per second of a 30 Hz modulated tone
D – A blue light and 2 dashes per second of 400 Hz modulated tone
Ans: D
9. The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by
a series of:
A – alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing

B – two dashes per second and a blue light flashing
C – dots and a white light flashing
D – dashes and an amber light flashing
Ans: A
10. What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3o glide path at a ground speed of
120 kt?
A – 550 FT/MIN
B – 600 FT/MIN
C – 800 FT/MIN
D – 950 FT/MIN
Ans: B
11. The heading rose of HSI is frozen on 200o. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localiser needle will be:
A – right of centre
B – left of centre
C – centred
D – centred with the fail flag showing
Ans: C
12. The sensitive area of an ILS is the area aircraft may not enter when:
A – ILS operations are in progress

B – category 1 ILS operations are in progress
C – category II/III ILS operations are in progress
D – the ILS is undergoing calibration
Ans: C
13. Using the 1 in 60 rule, calculate the rate of descent (in ft/min) for a 3.3 degree glide path at a ground
speed of 115 kts.
A – 172 ft/min
B – 325 ft/min
C – 641 ft/min
D – 522 ft/min
Ans: C
14. ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
A – back-scattering of antennas
B – spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles
C – multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane
D – ground returns ahead of the antennas
Ans: C
15. For a category one ILS glide path of 3.3 degrees the coverage is:
A – 1.49 to 5.77 degrees

B – 1.49 to 5.94 degrees
C – 1.65 to 5.77 degrees
D – 1.65 to 5.94 degrees
Ans: A
16. What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
A – white – amber – blue

B – amber – white – green
C – blue – amber – white
D – blue – green – white
Ans: C
17. The coverage of the ILS glide slope with respect to the localiser centreline is:
A - +/- 10 deg to 8 nm
B - +/- 10 deg to 25 nm
C - +/- 8 deg to 10 nm
D - +/- 35 deg to 17 nm
Ans: C
18. The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS
Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is:
A – heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals

B – aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals
C – to increase distance from the runway during offset approach operations
D – to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility conditions
Ans: B
19. The coverage of the ILS localiser at 17 nm is guaranteed up to an angle either side of the extended
centreline of:
A – 30 degrees
B – 25 degrees
C – 35 degrees
D – 10 degrees
Ans: C
20. Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit
display represent:
A – 2.0 degrees
B – 1.5 degrees
C – 2.5 degrees
D – 0.5 degrees
Ans: D
21. Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) each side of the localiser
centreline to a distance of (ii) NM from the threshold.
A – (i) 8o (ii) 10
B – (i) 25o (ii) 17
C – (i) 35o (ii) 25
D – (i) 5o (ii) 8
Ans: A
22. In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?
A – VHF
B – UHF
C – SHF
D – EHF
Ans: B
23. On an ILS approach you receive more of the 90 Hz modulation than the 150 Hz modulation. The action
you should take is:
A – fly left and up

B – fly left and down
C – fly right and up
D – fly right and down
Ans: D
24. A HSI compass rose is stuck on 200 deg. When the aircraft is lined up on the centreline of the ILS
localiser for runway 25, the localiser needle will be:
A – left of the centre

B – centred
C – right of the centre
D – centred with the fail flag showing
Ans: B
25. An aircraft on an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz modulation than 150 Hz modulation in both
localiser and glide path. The correct action to regain the centreline and glide path would be to:
A – increase rate of descent and fly left

B – reduce rate of descent and fly right
C – increase rate of descent and fly right
D – reduce rate of descent and fly left
Ans: C
26. What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3 o ILS glide path out
to a distance of 10 NM?
A – 0.45o above the horizontal to 1.75o above the glide path and 8o each side of the localiser centreline
B – 1.35o above the horizontal to 5.25o above the horizontal and 8o each side of the localiser centreline
C – 0.7o above and below the glide path and 2.5o each side of the localiser centreline
D – 3o above and below the glide path and 10o each side of the localiser centreline
Ans: B
27. Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated?
A – On the non-approach end of the runway about 300m from the runway on the extended centreline
B – At the approach end of the runway about 300m from touchdown on the centreline
C – At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300m along the extended
centreline
D – At the approach end about 150m to one side of the runway and 300m from touchdown
Ans: A
28. An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach
side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
A – will receive signals without identification coding

B – will not normally receive signals
C – may receive false course indications
D – can expect signals to give correct indications
Ans: C
29. Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:
A – 1300 Hz
B – 400 Hz
C – 2000 Hz
D – 3000 Hz
Ans: B
30. At 5.25 nm from the threshold an aircraft on an ILS approach has a display showing it to be 4 dots low
on a 3 degree glide path. Using an angle of 0.15o per dot of glide slope deviation and the 1 in 60 rule
calculate the height of the aircraft from touchdown.
A – 1280 ft
B – 1325 ft
C – 1375 ft
D – 1450 ft
Ans: B
31. The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
A – 400 Hz, blue

B – 3000 Hz, blue
C – 1300 Hz, blue
D – 400 Hz, amber
Ans: A
32. Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
A – 112,10 MHz
B – 108,25 MHz
C – 110,20 MHz
D – 109,15 MHz
Ans: D
33. The outer marker of an ILS with a 3o glide slope is elevated 4.6 NM from the threshold. Assuming a
glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer
marker is:
A – 1,400 FT
B – 1,450 FT
C – 1,350 FT
D – 1,300 FT
Ans: B
34. The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are
transmitted on (i) frequencies and carry different (ii).
A – (i) the same; (ii) modulation frequencies

B – (i) the same; (ii) phases
C – (i) different; (ii) modulation frequencies
D – (i) different; (ii) phases
Ans: A
35. A Cat III ILS glide path transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:
A – the surface of the runway

B – a maximum height of 200 ft above the runway
C – a maximum height of 100 ft above the runway
D – a maximum height of 50 ft above the runway
Ans: A
90 kt?
A – 450 FT/MIN
B – 400 FT/MIN
C – 500 FT/MIN
D – 600 FT/MIN
Ans: A
37. What frequency is assigned to all ILS marker beacons?
A – One chosen from between 108-112 MHz at odd tenths

B – 75 MHz
C – 90 Hz
D – 150 Hz
Ans: B
38. Which of the following statements is true, in respect of an ILS?
A – If the glide path is not operating, the ILS will be switched off
B – An ILS cannot be used if either of the outer or middle markers is switched off
C – The glide path frequency is paired with the marker frequency
D – The glide path transmits on UHF
Ans: D
39. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A – A localiser back beam should only be used for approaches if there is a published procedure
B – All localisers have back beams. They provide guidance in the event of a missed approach
C – Localiser back beams are never checked for accuracy
D – A localiser back beam will always provide reversed steering signals
Ans: A
40. An ILS category II ground installation is one that is capable of providing guidance to a height of:
A – 15m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold

B – 60m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold
C – 15m on QNH
D – 60m on QNH
Ans: A
41. A localiser must provide horizontal coverage to a distance of:
A – 17 nm all around
B – 10 nm all around
C – 17 nm over a sector of 35o each side of centre line
D – 25 nm over a sector of 15o each side of centre line
Ans: C
42. On a localiser the modulations are at 150 Hz and 90 Hz. Which of the following statements is correct?
A – The 90 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line

B – The 150 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line
C – If the 150 Hz modulations predominates, the needle on the CDI moves to the right of centre
D – When both modulations are received, the aeroplane will be on the centre line
Ans: B
43. The upper limit of the vertical coverage of the localiser must be:
A – not less than 300 m above the highest point on the approach
B – not less than 7o above the horizontal (drawn from the localiser)
C – not less than 600 m above the horizontal
D – not less than 35o above the horizontal
Ans: B
44. The glide path signals must be received to a range of 10 nm over a sector:
A – 10o each side of the localiser centre line

B - 10o wide centred on the localiser centre line
C – 8o each side of the localiser centre line
D – 8o wide centred on the localiser centre line
Ans: C
45. In order to maintain a 3o glide path at an approach speed of 150 kts, the rate of descent required is
approximately:
A – 600 feet per minute

B – 300 feet per minute
C – 450 feet per minute
D – 750 feet per minute
Ans: D
46. Which of the following is TRUE in respect of using ILS?
A – When using a CDI you must set the OBS to the localiser course
B – When using a CDI in the overshoot sector you must disobey the needles
C – When using an HSI you must set the course arrow to the localiser course
D – When using an HSI the glide path must be set before approach
Ans: C
47. A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides accurate guidance from
coverage limit down to:
A – runway surface
B – 200 feet above the inner marker
C – 200 feet above the runway threshold
D – 50 feet above ILS reference point
Ans: C
48. What is the heading bug selected to?
A – 260o (M)
B – 272o (M)
C – 280o (M)
D – 300o (M)
Ans: A
49. According to ICAO 8168, what is regarded as the maximum safe deviation below the glide path during
ILS approach?
A – Half scale deflection

B – One quarter scale deflection
C - Three quarter scale deflection
D – Full scale deflection
Ans: A
50. Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit display, what does each
of the dots represent approximately?
A – 2.5 degrees
B – 1.5 degrees
C – 0.5 degrees
D – 2.0 degrees
Ans: C
51. Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular
displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centre line when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
A – 1.0o to the right

B – 2.0o to the left
C – 2.0o to the right
D – 1.0o to the left
Ans: D
52. Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is:
A – 2.5o above or below the correct glide path

B – 0.7o above or below the correct glide path
C – 0.5o above or below the correct glide path
D – 1.25o above or below the correct glide path
Ans: B
53. Full scale deflection of the localiser needle indicates that the aircraft is approximately:
A – 10o offset from the localiser centre line

B – 5o offset from the localiser centre line
C – 1.25o offset from the localiser centre line
D – 2.5o offset from the localiser centre line
Ans: D
54. On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit?
A – Same frequency as the localiser

B – 75 MHz
C – Same frequency as the glide path
D – 3000 Hz
Ans: D
55. What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are used on an ILS approach?
A – 75 kHZ 135 kHZ

B – 90 HZ 150 HZ
C – 328 mHZ 335 mHZ
D – 63 mHZ 123 mHZ
Ans: B
56. What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localiser beam on an ILS?
A – The difference in phase between the 90 Hz modulation and the 150 Hz modulation
B – The difference in depth between the 90 Hz modulation and the 150 Hz modulation
C – The bearing to the localiser antenna found by means of a loop antenna
D – The difference in time between the 90 Hz modulation and the 150 Hz modulation
Ans: B
57. What is the audio frequency of the inner marker?

A – 400 Hz
B – 1300 Hz
C – 3000 Hz
D – 75 MHz
Ans: C
58. Which of the following alternatives is correct regarding audio and visual signals in cockpit when passing
overhead a middle marker?
A – Audio: 400 Hz, 2 dashes per second. Visual: Blue light flashes
B – Audio: 1300 Hz, alternating dots and dashes. Visual: Amber light flashes
C – Audio: 75 MHz, 2 dashes per second. Visual: Blue light flashes
D – Audio: 3000 Hz, alternating dots and dashes. Visual: Amber light flashes
Ans: B
59. Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation
pattern?
A – Two overlapping lobes on the same UHF carrier frequency

B – Two overlapping lobes on the same VHF carrier frequency
C - pencil beam comprising a series of smaller beams each carrying a different modulation
D – Two overlapping lobes on different radio carrier frequencies but with the same modulation
Ans: B
60. Which of the following is correct regarding false beams on a glide path?
A – False beams will only be found more than 10 degrees

B – False beams will only be found above the correct glide path
C – False beams are only present when flying a back beam ILS approach
D – False beams will only be found below the correct glide path
Ans: B
61. Which range facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter identification group?
A – Locator
B – Inner marker
C – Outer marker
D – Glide path
Ans: A
62. Which of the following elements of an ILS transmit in the VHF band?
A – Localiser only
B – Market beacons only
C – Glide path and marker beacons
D – Localiser and marker beacons
Ans: D
63. Which of the following is true with respect to marker beacons?
A – An airway marker and an ILS inner marker carry the same modulation
B – Airway markers and ILS middle markers have the same modulations
C – Airway markers and ILS outer markers have the same modulations
D – No two markers have the same modulations
Ans: A
64. ILS marker beacons do not interfere with each other because:
A – They operate on different modulations

B – They operate at different frequencies
C – They transmit in narrow vertical beams
D – They transmit low power signals, which cannot be detected by the aeroplane’s receiver
Ans: C
65. ILS markers are identified in the aeroplane by colour light and audio signal. The identification of the
outer marker is:
A – High-pitched dashes; amber light

B – Low-pitched dots and dashes; amber light
C – High-pitched dots and dashes; blue light
D – Low-pitched dashes; blue light
Ans: D
66. The azimuth and area coverage of a Cat I ILS localiser is:
A – 8o at 10 nm, 25o at 25 nm
B – 35o at 17 nm, 10o at 25 nm
C – 8o at 35 nm, 25o at 10 nm
D – 8o at 10 nm, 10o at 25 nm
Ans: B
67. The rate of descent required to maintain a 32.5o glide slope at a ground speed of 140 kt is
approximately:
A – 850 fpm
B – 670 fpm
C – 800 fpm
D – 700 fpm
Ans: C
68. ILS back beams may be received:
A – When flying outside the area of coverage

B – Never
C – When approaching the ILS from behind the glide path aerial
D – When approaching the ILS from behind the localiser aerial
Ans: D
69. An ILS localiser can give reverse sense indications on the approach side and outside the protected
coverage:
A – Beyond 25 nm
B – Beyond 35o azimuth either side of the approach
C – Beyond 10o azimuth either side of the approach
D – At anytime
Ans: D
70. The emission characteristics of the ILS and a typical localiser frequency are:
A – A9W 329.30 MHz

B – A8W 110.30 MHz
C – A9W 110.70 MHz
D – A8W 113.30 MHz
Ans: B
71. The ILS glide path coverage in elevation is accurate to:
A – An angle 1.35o to an angle of 5.25o above the horizontal for a 3o glide path
B – An angle 1.35o to an angle of 5.25o above the horizontal for a 3.25o glide path
C – An angle 0.45o to an angle of 1.75o above the horizontal for a 3o glide path
D – An angle 0.45o to an angle of 1.75o above the horizontal for a 3.25o glide path
Ans: A
72. The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS approach are:
A – white, blue, amber

B – blue, white, amber
C – blue, amber, white
D – amber, blue, white
Ans: C
73. The ILS localiser is normally positioned:

A – 300 m from the downwind end of the runway
B – 300 m from the threshold
C – 300 m from the upwind end of the runway
D – 200 m abeam the threshold
Ans: C
74. An aircraft is flying downwind outside the coverage of the ILS. The CDI indications will be:
A – unreliable in azimuth and elevation

B – reliable in azimuth, unreliable in elevation
C – no indications will be shown
D – reliable in azimuth and elevation
Ans: A
75. The frequency band of the ILS glide path is:
A – UHF
B – VHF
C – SHF
D – VLF
Ans: A
76. In which band does the ILS glide path operate:
A – Metric
B – Centimetric
C – Decimetric
D – Hectometric
Ans: C
77. The minima for a CAT 1 ILS are:
A – Height: 100 ft ; RVR: 550 m

B – Height: 100 ft ; RVR: 700 m
C – Height: 200 ft ; RVR: 550 m
D – Height: 200 ft ; RVR: 700 m
Ans: C
78. The minima for a CAT II ILS are:
A – Height: 100 ft ; RVR: 300 m

B – Height: 100 ft ; RVR: 400 m
C – Height: 50 ft ; RVR: 300 m
D – Height: 50 ft ; RVR: 400 m
Ans: A
79. According to the diagram of the ILS display, the aircraft is:
A – High on the approach and to the left of the centre line

B – Low on the approach and to the left of the centre line
C – High on the approach and to the right of the centre line
D – Low on the approach and to the right of the centre line
Ans: D
80. ILS glide path transmits lobes which are:
A – On the same frequency and are separated by phase comparison

B – On different frequencies which are then phase compared
C – On different frequencies and have different modulations
D – On the same frequency and have different modulations
Ans: D
81. An aircraft is flying an ILS glide path of 2.8o. What height should it be passing as it approaches the
outer marker at 3.9 nm from the ILS touchdown point.
A – 950 ft
B – 1000 ft
C – 1100 ft
D – 1200 ft
Ans: C
82. The middle marker of an ILS has an aural and visual identification of:
A – Alternating dots and dashes (3 per second) with an amber light

B – Alternating dots and dashes (3 per second) with a blue light
C – Continuous dashes (3 per second) with an amber light
D – Continuous dashes (3 per second) with a blue light
Ans: A
83. An aircraft on a 3o ILS approach is flying a ground speed of 150 knots. At the outer marker (4.5 nm
from the threshold) the speed must be reduced to 120 knots. The ROD should be reduced by:
A – 120 fpm
B – 150 fpm
C – 170 fpm
D – 190 fpm
Ans: B
84. The errors of an ILS localiser beam are due to:
A – Emission side lobes

B – Ground reflections
C – Spurious signals from objects near the runway
D – Interference from other systems operating on the same frequency
Ans: B
85. The coverage of the ILS localiser at 17 nm for a CAT 1 ILS is guaranteed up to an angle either side of the
extended centreline of (i) using the signal outside the coverage limits on the approach side of the
localiser aerial (ii) result in reverse sense indications.
A – (i) 35o ; (ii) can

B – (i) 25o ; (ii) cannot
C – (i) 35o ; (ii) cannot
D – (i) 25o ; (ii) can
Ans: A
86. The maximum safe ‘fly-up’ indication on the glide path needle (assuming a 5-dot indicator) is:
A – 2 dots
B – 1.5 dots
C – 2.5 dots
D – 1 dot
Ans: C
87. Use the 1 in 60 rule to determine the approximate height of an aircraft 3 nm from touch down on a
2.9o glide slope:
A – 880 ft
B – 765 ft
C – 840 ft
D – 825 ft
Ans: A
88. The rate of descent (in ft/min) for a 3o glide-slope at a GS of 140 kt is:
A – 325
B – 640
C – 710
D – 520
Ans: C
89. The ILS localiser transmits VHF frequencies between:

A – 108 and 117,95 MHz
B – 112 and 117,95 MHz
C – 108 and 111,95 MHz
D – 118 and 136,95 MHz
Ans: C
90. The ILS localiser signal provides azimuth guidance. The signal is made up of two lobes:
A – on the same frequency with the same modulation

B – on different frequencies with the same modulation
C – on different frequencies with different modulations
D – on the same frequency with different modulations
Ans: D
91. The amplitude modulation of the ILS outer marker is and it illuminates the light in the cockpit:
A – 400 Hz; blue

B – 1300 Hz; amber
C – 400 Hz; amber
D – 1300 Hz; blue
Ans: A
92. The principle of operation of the ILS localiser transmitter is that it transmits two overlapping lobes on:
A – different frequencies with different phases

B – the same frequency with different phases
C – the same frequency with different amplitude modulations
D – different frequencies with different amplitude modulations
Ans: C
93. The middle marker is usually located at a range of ___, with an audio
frequency of ___ and illuminates the ___ light:
A – 4-6 nm, 1300 Hz, white

B – 1 km, 400 Hz, white
C – 1 km, 1300 Hz, amber
D – 1 km, 400 Hz, amber
Ans: C
94. The audio frequency of the outer marker is:
A – 3000 Hz
B – 400 Hz
C – 1300 Hz
D – 1000 Hz
Ans: B
95. In which band does the ILS glide path operate?
A – metric
B – centmetric
C – decimetric
D – hectometric
Ans: C
96. For a 2.7o glide path on a Category I ILS the vertical coverage is:
A – 1.22o – 4.73o
B – 2.05o – 5.55o
C – 1.85o – 4.75o
D – 1.35o – 5.25o
Ans: A
97. For reliable navigation information the approximate coverage of a 3o ILS glide slope is:
A – 0.7o above and below the glide path and 8o either side of the localiser centre line
B – 0.45o from the horizontal to 1.75o above the glide path and 8o either side of the localiser centre line
C – 1.5o to 5o from the horizontal and 8o either side of the localiser
D – 3o above and below the glide path and 10o either side of the localiser centre line
Ans: C
98. Accurate glide path signals cannot be guaranteed above a certain angle relative to the horizontal. That
angle is:
A – 0.45 x the glide path angle

B – 5.25 x the glide path angle
C – 1.75 x the glide path angle
D – 1.35 x the glide path angle
Ans: C
(micro landing system)
1. Which of the following is an advantage of MLS?
A – Can be used in inhospitable terrain

B – Uses the same aircraft equipment as ILS
C – Has a selective access ability
D – Is not affected by heavy precipitation
Ans: A
2. The coverage of MLS is ___ either side of the centre line to a distance of ___
A – 40 deg ; 40 nm
B – 40 deg ; 20 nm
C – 20 deg ; 20 nm
D – 20 deg ; 40 nm
Ans: B
3. Which answer correctly completes the following statement? The characteristics of an MLS installation
are that it uses:
A – an azimuth transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an elevation transmitter at the upwind
end of the runway and two frequencies
B – one transmitter for both elevation and azimuth and two frequencies
C – one transmitter for both elevation and azimuth and a single frequency
D – an elevation transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an azimuth transmitter at the upwind
end of the runway and a single frequency
Ans: D
4. Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an
Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
A – It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth) transmitter
B – It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to use an
ILS
C – The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker beacons or DME) to
determine range
D – There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated because there is
an unlimited number of frequency channels available
Ans: B
5. In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
A – EHF
B – SHF
C – VHF
D – UHF
Ans: B
6. The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal
approach zone which is usually:
A - + or – 50o of the runway centre-line

B - + or – 40o of the runway centre-line
C - + or – 60o of the runway centre-line
D - + or – 30o of the runway centre-line
Ans: B
7. Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance
from the runway threshold?
A – Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from the MLS
station to the aircraft
B – Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar pulses from the
aircraft to MLS station
C – Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation transmissions
D – A DME co-located with the MLS transmitters
Ans: D
8. The principle of operation of MLS is:
A – time referenced scanning beams

B – phase comparison directional beams
C – lobe comparison of scanning beams
D – frequency comparison of reference beams
Ans: A
9. Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing
System (MLS)?
A – Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, outer and inner marker beacons
B – Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and middle marker beacons
C – Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, DME facility
D – Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility
Ans: D
10. MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise stated, provide azimuth coverage of:
A - + or – 20o about the nominal courseline out to a range of 10 NM

B - + or – 20o about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM
C - + or – 40o about the nominal courseline out to a range of 30 NM
D - + or – 40o about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM
Ans: D
11. The MLS utilises a:
A – clock referenced scanning beam system

B – phase referenced scanning beam system
C – time referenced scanning beam system
D – magnetic referenced scanning beam system
Ans: C
12. In a MLS the time that elapses between the passage of the TO scan and the FROM scan at the aircraft
position is:
A – not related to the angular position of the aircraft

B – indirectly proportional to the angular position of the aircraft
C – directly proportional to the angular position of the aircraft
D – none of the above are correct
Ans: C
13. Microwave Landing Systems use guidance signals formed from:
A – time referenced scanning beams

B – radar beams
C – intersecting modulated signals transmitted on very narrow beams
D – phase differences between an amplitude modulated reference signal and a frequency modulated
variable signal
Ans: A
14. A microwave landing system operates:
A – on one of 200 channels in the band 5030 to 5090 GHz

B – on one of 200 channels in the band 5.03 GHz to 5090 GHz
C – on one of 400 channels in the band 5030 GHz to 5090 GHz
D – on one of 400 channels in the band 5.03 GHz to 5.09 GHz
Ans: B
15. The scanning beam of the MLS system is called:
A – frequency reference scanning beam (FRSB)

B – phase reference scanning beam (PRSB)
C – time reference scanning beam (TRSB)
D – angle reference scanning beam (ARSB)
Ans: C
16. In an MLS system, the azimuth coverage is:
A - +/- 10o
B - +/- 8o
C - +/- 35o
D - +/- 40o
Ans: D
17. Distance on MLS is measured by:
A – measuring the time taken for the primary radar pulse to travel from the MLS transmitter to the
aircraft receiver
B – measuring the time taken for the secondary radar pulse to travel from the MLS transmitter to the
aircraft receiver
C – phase comparison between the azimuth and elevation beams
D – co-located DME
Ans: D
18. The frequency band of MLS is:
A – UHF
B – VHF
C – SHF
D – VLF
Ans: C
19. MLS consists of:
A – a common azimuth and elevation transmitter

B – overlapping centre-line lobe transmission in azimuth angled to provide glide slope information
C – an azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter on separate frequencies and a DME
D – an azimuth transmitter and an elevation transmitter operating on a shared frequency and a DME
Ans: D
20. Microwave Landing Systems allow the aircraft to fix its position accurately in three dimensions by
means of:
A – timing the interval between pulses in azimuth and elevation and timing the delay for pulses to
reach the aircraft to define range
B – information from four satellites transmitting microwaves
C – timing the passage of two scanning beams integrated with DME
D – directional aerials and DME
Ans: C
BASIC RADAR PRINCIPLES
Pulse Techniques and Associated Terms
1. With regards to radio waves, which statement is true?
A – They are reflected by metallic objects with a size compatible to the 1wavelength
B – The longer the wavelength the greater the surface attenuation
C – They travel at 186,000 nm a second in a vacuum
D – High frequencies need large aerials
Ans: A
2. The main factor which affects the maximum range of a pulse radar is:
A – the pulse repetition frequency

B – the size of the radar screen
C – the frequency of the radar transmission
D – the aerial system size
Ans: A
3. In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR) signifies
the:
A – ratio of pulse period to pulse width

B – delay after which the process re-starts
C – the number of cycles per second
D – number of pulses per second
Ans: D
4. The advantages of CW radar systems over pulse radar systems are:
A – they are more reliable

B – the transmitter/receiver aerial system is smaller and less complex
C – there is no minimum range
D – they offer better long range performance
Ans: C
5. The main advantage of a slotted scanner is:
A – reduces side lobes and directs more energy into the main beam
B – removes the need for azimuth slaving
C – side lobe suppression
D – can produce simultaneous map and weather information
Ans: A
6. For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power
output must be increased by a factor of:
A–2
B – 16
C–4
D–8
Ans: B
7. The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the:
A – pulse recurrence rate

B – power output
C – size of parabolic receiver aerial
D – height of the transmitter above the ground
Ans: A
8. Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary
radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
A – 375 pps
B – 782 pps
C – 308 pps
D – 405 pps
Ans: D
9. The interval in time between the commencement of two consecutive pulses is:
A – pulse rate
B – pulse width
C – pulse recurrence frequency
D – pulse recurrence period
Ans: D
10. The main advantage of a continuous wave radar over a pulsed radar is:
A – more complex equipment but better resolution and accuracy

B – removes the minimum range restriction
C – smaller more compact equipment
D – permits measurement of Doppler in addition to improved range and bearing
Ans: B
11. The maximum range of primary radar depends on:
A – a pulse recurrence frequency

B – wave length
C – frequency
D – pulse length
Ans: A
12. A Primary radar operates on the principle of:

A – transponder interrogation
B – pulse technique
C – phase comparison
D – continuous wave transmission
Ans: B
13. The speed of a radio wave in nm/sec is:
A – 300,000
B – 161,842
C – 163,842
D – 186,000
Ans: B
14. A radio wave with a horizontal magnetic component would be best received by a ___ aerial.
A – magnetic
B – parabolic
C – horizontal
D – vertical
Ans: D
15. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the use in primary radar of continuous
wave transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions?
A – A smaller common transmitter and receiver aerial can be used

B – It eliminates the minimum target reception range
C - It is less effective in short range radars but more effective in long range radars
D – The equipment required is more complex in continuous wave radar but this is offset by greater
reliability and accuracy
Ans: B
16. The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is
pulse:
A – repetition rate
B – amplitude
C – length
D – frequency
Ans: C
17. A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a
maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
A – 135 NM
B – 69 NM
C – 270 NM
D – 27 NM
Ans: B
18. The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined by the (i); the
maximum unambiguous range by the (ii)
A – (i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

B – (i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output
C – (i) pulse length (ii) length of the time-base
D – (i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
Ans: D
19. The term Doppler shift refers to:
A – the change in depression angle measured at the receiver

B – the change in the speed measured at the receiver
C – the change in phase angle measured at the receiver
D – the change in frequency measured at the receiver
Ans: D
20. hich combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar?
A – Short pulse length and narrow beam

B – Long pulse length and wide beam
C – Long pulse length and narrow beam
D – Short pulse length and wide beam
Ans: A
21. In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:
A – target discrimination
B – maximum measurable range
C – beam width
D – minimum measurable range
Ans: D
22. In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR)
determines:
A – minimum range
B – beam width
C – maximum theoretical range
D – target discrimination
Ans: C
23. The pulse recurrence frequency of a signal having a pulse interval (pulse recurrence period) of 5
microseconds is:
A – 6 MHz
B – 200 KHz
C – 60 MHz
D – 2000 KHz
Ans: B
24. What is the maximum theoretical range for a primary radar with a PRF of 324 pps?
A – 250 nm
B – 500 nm
C – 463 nm
D – 463 sm
Ans: A
25. The beam width from a parabolic reflector aerial is:
A – dependant on the transmitted pulse length

B – dependant on the transmitted pulse repetition frequency
C – dependant on the transmitted pulse repetition interval
D – dependant on the transmitted frequency
Ans: D
26. In a Cathode Ray Tube the grid is used to:
A – control the focus

B – control the brilliance
C – drain electrons from the tube
D – deflect the electron stream to form a time-base
Ans: B
27. A primary pulse radar system operates with a pulse repetition frequency of 400 pps. The maximum
theoretical range of the system is:
A – 202 nm
B – 303 nm
C – 404 nm
D – 505 nm
Ans: A
28. In a cathode ray tube the grid potential is:
A – negative with respect to the cathode

B – the same as the cathode
C – zero
D – the same as the second anode
Ans: A
29. In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency signify?
A – The radar frequency used

B – The number of revolutions performed by the radar antenna per minute
C – The number of pulses transmitted per second
D - The time between each transmission of pulses
Ans: C
30. What most determines a primary radars’ ability to accurately determine target range:
A – Aerial rpm
B – Beam width
C – Transmitter power
D – Pulse length
Ans: D
31. What technique is employed by primary radar employing a single aerial dish:
A – Pulse technique
B – Continuous wave
C – Phase comparison
D – Pseudo random noise
Ans: A
32. What is the PRF given 50µS pulse width and a range of 30 nm:
A – 1620 pps
B – 810 pps
C – 3240 pps
D – 3086 pps
Ans: A
33. If a radar has a pulse length of 2.0 ms and it transmits 330 pulses per second, its maximum non-
ambiguous range is:
A – 450 km
B – 2250 metres
C – 225 km
D – 4500 metres
Ans: A
34. If the pulse length used in a radar is 4µs, ignoring receiver recovery time, the minimum range at which
a target can be detected is:
A – 1200 metres
B – 2400 metres
C – 600 metres
D – 0 metres
Ans: C
35. If a radar has a beam width of 3o and a pulse length of 4µs, the target azimuth resolution at a range of
60 NM will be approximately:
A – 4 NM
B – 3 NM
C – 2 NM
D – 1 NM
Ans: B
36. Disregarding pulse width and the fly-back period of a radar, if the maximum range is 139 nm, the PRF
will be:
A – 582 pps
B – 1164 pps
C – 1718 pps
D – 2328 pps
Ans: A
37. Short range aerodrome radars will have ___ wave lengths
A – millimetric
B – centimetric
C – decimetric
D – metric
Ans: B
38. What does pulse recurrence rate refer to:
A – the number of cycles per second

B – the number of pulses per second
C – the ratio of pulse width to pulse repetition period
D – the delay known as fly-back or dead time
Ans: B
39. Which is the most suitable radar for measuring short ranges:
A – millimetric pulse
B – continuous wave primary
C – centimetric pulse
D – continuous wave secondary
Ans: B
40. The definition of a radar display will be best with:
A – Narrow beam width and narrow pulse width

B – Narrow beam width and wide pulse width
C – Wide beam width and narrow pulse width
D – Wide beam width and wide pulse width
Ans: A
41. Attenuation of radio waves means:
A – the weakening of the radiated waves

B – the atmospheric bending of the waves
C – only the scattering of the waves by the tropopause
D – only the absorption of radio energy by the sea
Ans: A
42. The factor which determines the minimum range of a radar is:
A – PRF
B – Pulse interval
C – Pulse length
D – Radio frequency of transmission
Ans: C
43. A monochrome radar operating in the contour mode ___ and indicates them as hollow centres:
A – adjusts the gain to exclude returns above the iso-echo level

B – is incapable of painting returns above the iso-echo level because of the limitations of the system
C – cancels returns above the iso-echo level
D – adjusts the gain to exclude returns below the iso-echo level
Ans: C
44. On what principle does primary ATC radar work?

A – pulse technique
B – pulse comparison
C – continuous wave
D – transponder interrogation
Ans: A
Ground radar
1. An SRA may be flown to:
A – 0.5 nm using QNH unless the pilot advises the controller the approach is to be flown on QFE
B – 2.0 nm using QFE unless the pilot advises the controller the approach is to be flown on QNH
C – 0.5 nm using QNH only
D – 2.0 nm using QFE only
Ans: B
2. In a primary radar system:
A – the radar is primarily used for range-finding

B – all radio frequency energy is produced by the radar located at the radar site
C – the aircraft plays the secondary role, just listening to the radar signals from the ground radar
D – the radar is the primary aid for ATC
Ans: B
3. In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and ground based ATC, radar systems operate?
A – SHF
B – UHF
C – EHF
D – VHF
Ans: A
4. A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range
of approximately:
A – 270 NM
B – 135 NM
C – 67 NM
D – 27 NM
Ans: C
5. A radio facility transmits on a wave length of 2.22 cm. The facility could be a ___ operating on a
frequency of ___
A – VDF; 135 MHz
B – DME; 1350 MHz
C – Doppler; 13500 MHz
D – radio altimeter; 13500 MHz
Ans: C
6. The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
A – 100 NM
B – 200 NM
C – 300 NM
D – 400 NM
Ans: C
7. DME is having difficulties in obtaining a “lock-on” while interrogating a ground station. The PRF is:
A - 150 pps for 100 secs then reduces to 60 pps until locked on
B – 150 pps for 15,000 pulse pairs then reduces to 60 pps until locked on
C – 150 pps until locked on
D – 24 pps until locked on
Ans: B
8. To double the range of a primary radar, the power must be increased by a factor of:
A–2
B–4
C–8
D – 16
Ans: D
9. A saw tooth voltage is used to generate the time-base of a simple non-rotating radar because:
A – a linear time base is required to correctly represent range and the fly-back period is short
B – range resolution is optimised
C – this achieves the maximum range
D – bearing resolution is optimised
Ans: A
10. The maximum unambiguous (theoretical) range for a PRF of 1200 pps is:
A – 134 nm
B – 180 nm
C – 67 nm
D – 360 nm
Ans: C
11. The maximum PRF required for a range of 50 nm is:
A – 300 pulses per second (pps)

B – 600 pps
C – 1620 pps
D – 3240 pps
Ans: C
12. Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates on frequencies in the (i)
band employing an antenna that rotates at approximately (ii) revolutions per minute; it is (iii) possible
to determine the type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen.
A – (i) SHF (ii) 10 (iii) always

B – (i) EHF (ii) 30 (iii) never
C – (i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimes
D – (i) EHF (ii) 100 (iii) never
Ans: C
13. What is the maximum theoretical range, in nm, of a radar whose PRF is 750 pps?
A – 132 NM
B – 218 NM
C – 200 NM
D – 108 NM
Ans: D
14. What is the range of long range ground radar?
A – 200 nm
B – 50 nm
C – 1000 nm
D – 300 nm
Ans: D
15. An aerodrome ground movement radar is likely to operate in the ___ band with a scan rate of ___
revolutions per minute.
A – EHF, 1000
B – EHF, 20
C – UHF, 200
D – SHF, 60
Ans: D
16. Why does surface movement radar use a frequency in the SHF band and not EHF?
A – SHF gives better definition of aircraft type than EHF

B – EHF is absorbed and scattered by moisture in the air. Switching to SHF reduced the problem
C – The power requirements of EHF were unsustainable in the UK
D – EHF is potentially hazardous to personnel on the area. This was completely overcome by switching
to SHF
Ans: B
17. The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to
detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is: (pps = pulses per second)
A – 610 pps
B – 3240 pps
C – 1620 pps
D – 713 pps
Ans: C
18. A radar has a PRF of 800 pps. What is the maximum theoretical range and the PRP?
A – 325 nm, 0.0125 micro seconds
B – 325 nm, 1250 micro seconds
C – 187.5 km, 0.0125 micro seconds
D – 187.5 km, 1250 micro seconds
Ans: D
19. Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition
frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300,000 km/second)
A – 150 km
B – 666 km
C – 1333 km
D – 333 km
Ans: D
20. The maximum range of a ground radar is limited by:
A – pulse width
B – peak power
C – average power
D – pulse recurrence rate
Ans: D
21. Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of
50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
A – 330
B – 6000
C – 167
D – 3000
Ans: D
22. The PRF of a primary radar is 500. Its maximum range is:
A – 300 km
B – 150 km
C – 200 km
D – 250 km
Ans: A
23. Which of the following types of radar systems are most suited for short range operation?
A – Primary continuous wave

B – Centimetric pulse
C – Millimetric pulse
D – Secondary continuous wave
Ans: A
24. In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a
factor of:
A – pulse length
B – beam width
C – aerial rotation rate
D – Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)
Ans: B
25. On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape and to some
extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?
A – Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar

B – Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
C – Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR)
D – Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
Ans: C
26. What is a typical range for an EN-route surveillance radar (RSR)?

A – Up to 25 nm
B – Up to 80 nm
C – Up to 250 nm
D – Up to 2.500 nm
Ans: C
27. What is the typical range for a Terminal Area surveillance Radar (TAR)?
A – Up to 25 nm
B – Up to 80 nm
C – Up to 250 nm
D – Up to 2.500 nm
Ans: B
28. Which of the following radar equipments operate by means of the pulse technique?
1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar

2. Airborne Weather Radar
3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
A – 1, 2, 3 and 4
B – 1, 2 and 4 only
C – 2, 3 and 4 only
D – 2 and 4 only
Ans: A
29. Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?
A – One directional antenna both for transmitting and for receiving

B – A directional antenna for transmitting, and an omni-directional antenna for receiving
C – One directional antenna for transmitting and one for receiving
D – An omni-directional antenna for transmitting, and a directional antenna for receiving
Ans: A
30. When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller’s
presentation gives information regarding the aircraft’s indicated flight level in increments of:
A – 200 FT
B – 100 FT
C – 250 FT
D – 150 FT
Ans: B
31. Which one of the following is an advantage of a secondary radar system when compared to a primary
radar system?
A – The relatively small ground antenna transmits no side lobes, thus eliminating the danger of false
replies from the airborne transponder
B – The required power of transmission from the ground equipment is reduced
C – Possibility of obtaining speed information for aircraft within range
D – Is not limited to line of sight
Ans: B
32. What is the minimum PRI for a radar with a design range of 200 NM?
A – 1333 microseconds
B – 667 microseconds
C – 1235 microseconds
D – 2470 microseconds
Ans: D
33. When in tracking mode, the airborne interrogator operates at:
A – A PRR variable between 24 and 30 pulses per second

B – A PRR fixed at a rate selected from the range 24 to 30 PPS
C – A PRR of 150 PPS
D – A PRR of 2700 PPS
Ans: A
34. An ATC radar unit, which is used in the approach, has a high aerial rotation rate. This is so that:
A – Target information is rapidly refreshed

B – Compensation can be made for the long PRI
C – Compensation is made for the narrow beam width
D – The rigidity of the aerial can be improved by inertia
Ans: A
35. A surveillance radar element (SRE) used to provide approach guidance:
A – Does not have a height determination capacity

B – Can be used to give guidance both horizontally and vertically
C – Can only be used to a point 3 miles from threshold
D – May not be used in heavy rain because of the high levels of signal loss
Ans: A
36. PAR at a military airfield has both azimuth and an elevation element. It must be able to provide an
accuracy within:
A – ±30 feet elevation, ±20 feet azimuth
B – ±30 feet azimuth, ±20 feet elevation
C – ±30 feet elevation and azimuth
D – ±20 feet elevation and azimuth
Ans: A
37. Surface movement radars operate mainly in the SHF band as opposed to the EHF band because:
A – The EHF band does not provide sufficient frequency spacing

B – EHF radiated power is more dangerous to the user’s health
C – EHF is more expensive
D – EHF is likely to detect more moisture in the atmosphere
Ans: D
38. A radar has a PRF of 1200 pps. The theoretical maximum range is:
A – 134 nm
B – 134 km
C – 67 nm
D – 67 km
Ans: C
39. An airfield surface movement radar operates in the (i) and rotates at (ii) rpm:
A – (i) SHF; (ii) 120

B – (i) EHF; (ii) 60
C – (i) UHF; (ii) 120
D – (i) SHF; (ii) 60
Ans: D
40. The size of a target on a primary radar screen is governed in azimuth by 9i) and in range by (ii):
A – (i) Beam width; (ii) Pulse length

B – (i) Pulse width; (ii) Pulse length
C – (i) Pulse length; (ii) Beam width
D – (i) Pulse width; (ii) Beam width
Ans: A
41. The best radar for measuring very short ranges is:
A – a continuous wave primary radar

B – a pulsed secondary radar
C – pulsed primary radar
D – a continuous wave secondary radar
Ans: A
42. A high resolution surveillance radar will be terminated at a range from touchdown of:
A – 0.25 nm
B – 0.5 nm
C – 1 nm
D – 2 nm
Ans: B
43. The best picture on a primary radar will be obtained using:
A – Low frequency, narrow beam

B – Short wavelength, narrow beam
C – High frequency, wide beam
D – Long wavelength, wide beam
Ans: B
44. The PRF of a primary radar is 500. Its maximum range in nm is approximately:
A – 300
B – 160
C – 320
D – 600
Ans: B
45. The max theoretical range of a radar whose PRF is 750 pps is:
A – 218 nm
B – 132 nm
C – 200 nm
D – 108 nm
Ans: D
46. In order to be able to penetrate cloud, a primary radar signal must have:
A – a short pulse length

B – a high frequency
C – a long wavelength
D – a high PRF
Ans: C
47. In a primary pulsed radar the ability to discriminate in azimuth is a factor of:
A – Pulse width
B – Beam width
C – Pulse recurrence rate
D – Rate of rotation
Ans: B
48. The PRF of a radar is 450 pps. If the speed of light is 300,000 kps, what is the maximum range of the
radar?
A – 150 km
B – 333 km
C – 666 km
D – 1326 km
Ans: B
49. Which of the following is a primary radar system?
A – SSR
B – DME
C – GPS
D – AWR
Ans: D
Airborne Weather Radar

1. In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate?
A – SHF
B – UHF
C – EHF
D - VHF
Ans: A
2. On switching on the AWR a single line appears on the display. This means that:
A – the transmitter is unserviceable

B – the receiver is unserviceable
C – the CRT is not scanning
D – the antenna is not scanning
Ans: D
3. In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and
turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:
A – green to yellow to red

B – yellow to amber to blue
C – green to red to black
D – yellow to orange to red
Ans: A
4. Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
A – Roll, pitch and yaw

B – Roll and pitch
C – Pitch and yaw
D – Roll and yaw
Ans: B
5. Typical Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) is gyro stabilised within limits in:
A – pitch and yaw

B – yaw and turn
C – pitch and roll
D – pitch, roll and yaw
Ans: C
6. In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation pattern?
A – MAPPING
B – CONTOUR
C – WEATHER
D – MANUAL
Ans: A
7. If the AWR transmitter is required to be switched on before take-off the scanner should be tilted up
with:
A – either of these modes selected

B – the mapping mode selected
C – the weather mode selected
D – none of these
Ans: C
8. The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud are:
A – the size of the water droplets and the diameter of the antenna reflector
B – the scanner rotation rate and the frequency/wavelength
C – the size of the water droplets and the wavelength/frequency
D – the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud
Ans: C
9. A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50 NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM,
the return on the radar screen should:
A – decrease in area and move to the top of the screen

B – increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen
C – decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
D – increase in area and move to the top of the screen
Ans: D
10. Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to:
A – detect the larger water droplets

B – transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range
C – obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam
D – detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large
Ans: A
11. Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the
weather beam?
A – Stratus
B – Cirrocumulus
C – Cumulus
D – Altostratus
Ans: C
12. In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:
A – fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range

B – fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM
C – pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM
D – pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM
Ans: A
13. The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for
the determination of ground features:
A – when approaching coast-lines in polar regions

B – beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with the mapping mode
C – beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better definition
D – beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam
Ans: D
14. In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in Mapping mode enables:
A – better reception of echoes on contrasting terrain such as ground to sea

B – scanning of a large ground zone producing echoes whose signals are practically independent of
distance
C – a greater radar range to be achieved
D – higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer picture
Ans: B
15. In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the
height of the aircraft, the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a beam width of 5 o)
A – 2.5o up
B – 5o up
C – 0o
D – 2.5o down
Ans: A
16. The ASMR operates in the ___ band, the antenna rotates at ___ rpm can ___ distinguish between
aircraft types.
A – UHF; 120; sometimes

B – SHF; 60; always
C – UHF; 120; never
D – SHF; 60; sometimes
Ans: D
17. In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected:
A – size of the water drops and diameter of radar scanner

B – range from cloud and wavelength/frequency used
C – size of the water drops and wavelength/frequency used
D – rotational speed of radar scanner and range from cloud
Ans: C
18. When switching on the weather radar, after start-up a single very bright line appears on the screen.
This means that the:
A – scanner is not rotating

B – transmitter is faulty
C – scanning of the cathode ray tube is faulty
D – receiver is faulty
Ans: C
19. When using the AWR to detect long range ground features the most suitable mode of operation or
beam selected would be:
A – the manual mode

B – the fan shaped beam
C – the mapping mode
D – the contour mode
Ans: A
20. A frequency of airborne weather radar is:
A – 9375 MHz
B – 9375 GHz
C – 9375 kHz
D – 93.75 MHz
Ans: A
21. On the AWR display the most severe turbulence will be shown:
A – in flashing red
B – by a black hole
C – by a steep colour gradient
D – alternating red and white
Ans: C
22. The frequency of AWR is:
A – 9375 MHz
B – 937.5 MHz
C – 93.75 GHz
D – 9375 GHz
Ans: A
23. The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
A – give an indication of cloud tops

B – detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud
C – inhibit unwanted ground returns
D – extend the mapping range
Ans: B
24. In an AWR with a 5 deg beam width, how do you orientate the scanner to receive returns from clouds
at or above your level?
A – 0 deg tilt
B – 2.5 deg uptilt
C – 2.5 deg downtilt
D – 5 deg uptilt
Ans: B
25. The AWR transmitter is not normally selected on the ground because:
A – it can interfere with radars and approach aids

B – its radiated energy can damage people and equipment
C – it can overload the electrical system
D – none of these answers are correct
Ans: B
26. Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather radar?
A – Dry hail; clear air turbulence

B – Snow; clear air turbulence
C – Clear air turbulence; turbulence in cloud with precipitation
D – Snow; turbulence in clouds with precipitation
Ans: B
27. A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system
because:
A – the larger water droplets will give good echoes and the antenna can be kept relatively small
B – greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets
C – static interference is minimised
D – less power output is required in the mapping mode
Ans: A
28. The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
A – simultaneously transmit weather and mapping beams

B – virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence concentrate more energy in the main beam
C – have a wide beam and as a consequence better target detection
D – eliminate the need for azimuth slaving
Ans: B
29. The tilt angle on the AWR at which an active cloud just disappears from the screen is 4 degrees up. If
the beam width is 5 degrees and the range of the cloud is 40 NM use the 1 in 60 rule to calculate the
approximate height of the cloud relative to the aircraft.
A – 4000 above
B – 6000 above
C – 4000 below
D – 6000 below
Ans: B
30. The colours used on a conventional AWR to indicate increasing intensity of returns are:
A – blue, green and red

B – green, yellow and orange
C – blue, amber and red
D – green, amber and red
Ans: D
31. AWR in the ___ mode progressively ___ as distances ___ to equalise screen brightness
A – weather, decreases gain, increase

B – mapping, decreases power, decrease
C – weather, increases power, decrease
D - mapping, increases gain, decrease
Ans: B
32. In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) the areas of greatest
turbulence are indicated on the screen by:
A – large areas of flashing red colour

B – iso-echo areas which are coloured black
C – colour zones being closest together
D – blank iso-echo areas where there is no colour
Ans: C
33. In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:
A – unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas

B – only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to protect
equipment
C – permitted anywhere
D – totally prohibited
Ans: B
34. Which of the following equipment uses primary radar principles?
A – Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)

B – Global Positioning System (GPS)
C – Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
D – Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
Ans: C
35. The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the:
A – pulse recurrence frequency

B – transmission power
C – size of the aerial
D – transmission frequency
Ans: A
36. Before commencing a flight the weather radar should:
A – be switched to stand-by but not used until airborne

B – not be switched on until clear of buildings
C – be switched to a range function after push back to make sure it is functioning
D – be kept at stand-by until line up with the runway
Ans: D
37. Weather radar is used by the pilot to assist in the:
A – detection and avoidance of all turbulence

B – detection and avoidance of potentially turbulent cloud cells
C – detection and determination of a route through active cloud formations
D – detection of other aircraft through clouds
Ans: B
38. An airborne weather radar unit transmits a 5o beam from a parabolic dish aerial reflector assembly. If
the wavelength is 4 cm, the diameter of the dish is:
A – 20 cm
B – 87.5 cm
C – 87.5 ins
D – 56.0 cm
Ans: D
39. A height ring can be used:
A – to determine that the weather radar is functioning

B – to determine the aeroplanes height above the surface
C – as a range marker
D – as the zero point for range measurement
Ans: A
40. The airborne weather radar is using a 5o beam. A cloud is detected at a range of 60 miles. If the
scanner is tilted up to 5o the cloud echo disappears. Using the tangent formula to determine the
height of the top of the cloud, in relation to the aeroplanes cruising level and select the nearest answer
from the following:
A – 31,900 ft above the level

B – 15,900 ft below the level
C – 15,900 ft above the level
D – 31,900 ft below the level
Ans: C
41. On a colour radar, the greatest turbulence is likely in an area where the targets:
A – coloured red
B – coloured magenta
C – show a clearly defined hole
D – show a rapid gradient of change from magenta to yellow
Ans: D
42. AWR in the contour mode is used for:
A – identifying areas of maximum turbulence within a cloud

B – identifying rain bearing clouds
C – long range mapping
D – short range mapping
Ans: A
43. While using the AWR in the weather mode, the strongest returns on the screen indicate:
A – areas of high concentration of large water droplets

B – areas of probable wind shear
C – areas of severe turbulence
D – areas of severe icing
Ans: A
44. What wavelength is typically chosen for AWR systems?
A – 9.375 MHz
B – 93.75 MHz
C – 9.375 GHz
D – 93.75 GHz
Ans: C
45. Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of:
A – primary radar in the UHF band

B – primary radar in the SHF band
C – secondary radar in the SHF band
D – secondary radar in the VHF band
Ans: B
46. In an Airborne Weather Radar the areas of greatest turbulence are usually indicated on the screen by:
A – colour zones of green and yellow

B – blank areas where there is no colour
C – colour zones of red and magenta
D – areas which are coloured black
Ans: C
47. Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by radar?
A – turbulence in cloud that has precipitation
B – precipitation
C – clear air turbulence
D – wet snow and turbulence in cloud that has precipitation
Ans: C
48. Which of the following wavelengths would give the best penetration of weather?
A – 25 cm
B – 50 cm
C – 10 cm
D – 3 cm
Ans: B
49. An airborne weather radar unit transmits a 4o beam from a parabolic dish aerial reflector assembly. If
the wavelength is 3 cm, what is the diameter of the dish?
A – 20 cm
B – 20 ins
C – 52.5 ins
D – 52.5 cms
Ans: D
50. A side lobe from the aerial of a weather radar may produce an echo on the screen known as A ‘height
ring’. The pilot can use this:
A – to determine that the weather radar is functioning

B – to determine the aeroplane’s height above the surface
C – as a range marker
D –as the zero point for range measurement
Ans: A
51. An airborne weather radar is using a 3o beam. A cloud is detected at a range of 40 miles. If the
scanner is tilted up to 3o the cloud echo disappears. The top of the cloud, in relation to the aeroplane’s
cruising level is approximately:
A – at the same level

B – 6000 ft above the level
C – 12000 ft above the level
D – 18000 ft above the level
Ans: B
52. On a colour radar, a bright red echo indicates:
A – An area of strong wind shear

B – An area of extreme turbulence
C – Strong rising air currents
D – Heavy concentrations of liquid/solid water
Ans: D
53. An airborne weather radar, with a beam width of 4o in azimuth, is used in mapping mode. At what
maximum range would it be able to detect a 1 NM wide opening in a facing sea cliff?
A – 15 NM
B – 4 NM
C – 60 NM
D – 45 NM
Ans: A
54. Ground checks of an AWR are:
A – Prohibited at all times

B – Unrestricted
C – Allowed under specific health and safety regulations
D – Allowed only when the aircraft has undergone major servicing
Ans: C
55. The airborne weather radar (AWR) cannot detect:

A – snow
B – moderate rain
C – dry hail
D – wet hail
Ans: A
56. The use of the AWR on the ground is:
A – not permitted
B – permitted provided reduced power is reduced
C – permitted provided special precautions are taken to safeguard personnel and equipment
D – only permitted to assist movement in low visibility conditions
Ans: C
57. On an AWR colour display, the sequence of colours indicating increasing water droplet size is:
A – Blue, green, red

B – Green, yellow, red
C – Black, amber, red
D – Blue, amber, red
Ans: B
58. The iso-echo feature of an airborne weather radar can be used to detect:
A – Wake turbulence
B – CAT
C – Turbulence in clouds
D – Areas of possible turbulence in clouds
Ans: D
59. Weather Radar uses (i) radar in the (ii) band:
A – (i) Primary; (ii) EHF

B – (i) Primary; (ii) SHF
C – (i) Secondary; (ii) EHF
D – (i) Secondary; (ii) SHF
Ans: B
60. An aircraft flying at 25,000 ft is equipped with AWR. The beam width is 5o with the radar tilted up at
3.5o. The radar is showing the top of a cloud return at 105 nm. The approximate height of the cloud is:
A – 14,300 ft
B – 25,600 ft
C – 30,300 ft
D – 35,600 ft
Ans: D
61. The frequency band of most ATC radars and weather radars is:
A – UHF
B – SHF
C – VHF
D – EHF
Ans: B
62. The ISO-ECHO circuit is incorporated in the AWR:
A – To allow ground mapping

B – To alert pilots to the presence of cloud
C – To display areas of turbulence
D – To allow simultaneous mapping and cloud detection
Ans: C
63. With the AWR set at 100 nm range a large cloud appears at 50 nm. If the range is reduced to 50 nm:
A – The image will decrease in area and remain where it is

B – The image will decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
C – The image will increase in area and move to the bottom of the screen
D – The image will increase in area and move to the top of the screen
Ans: B
64. Which axes is the AWR stabilised in:
A – Pitch, roll and yaw

B – Roll and yaw
C – Pitch and roll
D – Yaw and pitch
Ans: C
65. The AWR can be used on the ground provided:
i. The aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles

ii. The conical beam is selected
iii. Maximum uplift is selected
iv. The AWR must never be operated on the ground
A – iv
B – i, ii
C – i, ii, iii
D – ii, iii
Ans: C
66. The tilt angle on Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) at which an active cloud just disappears from the
screen is 4o. If the beam width is 5o and the range of the cloud is 40 nm, the height of the cloud above
the aircraft is approximately:
A – 3000 ft
B – 6000 ft
C – 4000 ft
D – 9000 ft
Ans: B
67. Is it permissible for weather radar to be operated on the ground?
A – No, never
B – Yes, always
C – Yes, if operating within regulations and guidelines
D – Only whilst taxying
Ans: C
68. In an AWR with a colour CRT areas of greatest turbulence are indicated by:
A – iso-echo areas coloured black
B – large areas of flashing red
C – iso-echo areas with no colour
D – most rapid change of colour
Ans: D
69. Which type of cloud does the AWR detect?
A – Cirro-cumulus
B – Alto-stratus
C – Cumulus
D – Stratus
Ans: C
70. The Cosecant squared beam is used for mapping in the AWR because:
A – a greater range can be achieved

B – a wider beam is produced in azimuth to give a greater coverage
C – a larger area of ground is illuminated by the beam
D – it allows cloud detection to be effected whilst mapping
Ans: C
71. Airborne weather radar’s use a frequency of approximately 9 GHz because:

A – It has a short wavelength so producing higher frequency returns
B – The short wavelength allows signals to be reflected from cloud water droplets of all sizes
C – The wavelength is such that reflections are obtained only from the larger water droplets
D – The frequency penetrates clouds quite easily enabling good mapping of ground features in the
mapping mode
Ans: C
General philosophy
1. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured:
A – magenta
B – flashing red
C – white or magenta
D – high colour gradient
Ans: C
2. Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in green on an electronic Flight Instrument System
(EFIS) indicate:
A – engaged modes
B – cautions, abnormal sources
C – the earth
D – the ILS deviation point
Ans: A
3. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS) a selected heading is
coloured:
A – white
B – green
C – magenta
D – yellow
Ans: C
4. The JAR OPS colour for selected heading is:
A – red
B – magenta
C – green
D – cyan
Ans: B
5. Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument
Systems (EFIS), indicate:
A – the sky
B – engaged modes
C – the flight director bar(s)
D – flight envelope and system limits
Ans: A
6. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS) increasing intensity of
precipitation are coloured in the order:
A – green, amber/yellow, red, magenta

B – green, red, magenta, black
C – black, amber/yellow, magenta, red
D – amber/yellow, magenta, black
Ans: A
7. Positions on a Flight Management Computer are updated with information from:
A – DME/VOR
B – DME/DME or DME/VOR
C – DME/DMe
D – VOR/ADF
Ans: B
8. The colour recommended in JAR OPS for armed AFCS modes is:
A – green
B – yellow
C – white
D – magenta
Ans: C
9. According to JAA JTSOs the colour red is used on an EFIS screen for:
(i) Warnings
(ii) Flight envelope and system limits
(iii) Cautions, abnormal sources
(iv) Scales and associated figures
Which selection of the above answers is correct?
A – (ii), (iii) and (iv)
B – (i) and (iii)
C – (i) and (ii)
D – (i) only
Ans: C
10. Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in amber/yellow on an Electronic Flight Instrument
System (EFIS) indicate:
A – cautions, abnormal sources

B – flight envelope and system limits
C – warnings
D – engaged modes
Ans: A
11. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), current data and values
are coloured:
A – red
B – cyan
C – white
D – magenta
Ans: C
12. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), armed modes are
coloured:
A – white
B – green
C – magenta
D – amber/yellow
Ans: A
13. ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft
operation on any desired flight path:
A – within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of
self-contained aids, or a combination of these
B – outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a
minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid
C – within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a
minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid
D – outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a
minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids
Ans: A
14. The colour recommended in JAR OPS 1 for the active route is:
A – cyan
B – magenta
C – green
D – amber
Ans: B
15. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured:
A – cyan
B – red
C – black
D – white or magenta
Ans: D
16. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), selected data and
values are coloured:
A – green
B – white
C – magenta
D – yellow
Ans: A
17. A wavelength of 8.5 mm corresponds to a frequency of:
A – 2833.3 MHz
B – 35294 MHz
C – 3529.4 MHz
D – 28333 MHz
Ans: B
18. Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
A - +/- 5 NM or better for 95% of the flight time

B - +/- 3 NM or better for 90% of the flight time
C - +/- 2 NM or better for 75% of the flight time
D - +/- 5 NM or better throughout the flight
Ans: A
19. Attenuation of a radio wave is the:
A – increase of its power by the combination of multi-path signals

B – change of its frequency by use of sidebands
C – change of its amplitude by use of sidebands
D – reduction of its power by absorption, scattering or spreading
Ans: D
20. The limits of the VHF band are:
A – 300 – 3000 MHz

B – 30 – 300 MHz
C – 300 – 3000 KHz
D – 3 – 30 MHz
Ans: B
21. The JAR-25 recommended colour for a downpath waypoint is:
A – white
B – green
C – magenta
D – cyan
Ans: A
22. As a storm intensifies, the colour sequence on the AWR display will change:
A – black, yellow, amber

B – green, yellow, red
C – blue, green, orange
D – green, yellow, amber
Ans: B
23. Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), the active route/flight
plan is coloured:
A – cyan
B – magenta
C – green
D – yellow
Ans: B
24. What is the period of validity of the navigational database for a Flight DATA Storage Unit?
A – 7 days
B – 14 days
C – 21 days
D – 28 days
Ans: D
25. To increase the maximum theoretical range of a pulse radar system:
A – reduce the PRF and increase the power

B – increase the PRF and reduce the power
C – reduce the PRF and increase the PRF
D – maintain the PRF and increase the power
Ans: A
26. Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
A – ±10.0 nm for 95% of the flight time

B – ±1.0 nm for 95% of the flight time
C – ±5.0 nm for 95% of the flight time
D – ±8.0 nm for 95% of the flight time
Ans: B
27. Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV system?
A – It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme

B – It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance indications to
chosen Phantom Station/waypoint
C – It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav-Mode and continues
working by memory in case one of the two necessary stations goes off the air
D – It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches
Ans: B
28. Which combination will give the greatest accuracy in an RNAV system:
A – VOR/DME
B – DME/DME
C – VOR/ADF
D – VOR/Loran C
Ans: B
29. What is the accepted accuracy of PRNAV:
A – 0.5 nm
B – 1 nm
C – 1.5 nm
D – 2 nm
Ans: B
30. On a 5 dot HSI in the RNAV approach mode (APR RNAV) what does one dot indicate?
A – 0.25 nm
B – 0.5 nm
C – 1.0 nm
D – 2.0 nm
Ans: A
31. In an RNAV system which combination of external reference will give the most accurate position?
A – GPS/rho
B – Rho/theta
C – Rho/rho
D – GPS/theta
Ans: C
Typical Flight deck Equipment and Operation

1. Radar returns, on a B737-400, can be displayed on all Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI)
screen modes of an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) WITH THE EXCEPTION OF :
A – EXP VOR/ILS, PLAN and MAP

B – FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN
C – FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN
D – FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP
Ans: B
2. The FMC position is:
A – the average of the IRS positions

B – the average of the IRS and radio navigation positions
C – computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions
D – computer generated from the radio navigation positions
Ans: C
3. Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route
waypoints from a RNAV equipment?
A – Elapsed time on route

B – ETD
C – ATA
D – ETO
Ans: D
4. In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at destination calculated by the Flight
Management Computer (FMC) be correct?
A – When the ETOs and ETA are based on the forecast winds calculated from the actual take-off time
B – When the FMC computes each ETO and ETA using the correct GS
C – When the FMC positions and GS are accurate
D – When the actual winds match the forecast winds, and the actual cruising Mach number is equal to
the FMC calculated Mach number
Ans: D
5. In an Electronic flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation is provided by:
A – Inertial Reference Systems, Aircraft Mapping Radar, Navigation radios

B – Navigation radios, Flight Management Computer, Inertial Reference Systems
C – Flight Management Computer, Aircraft Mapping Radar, Navigation radios
D – Inertial Reference Systems, Navigation radios, True airspeed and drift inputs
Ans: B
6. The databases on a FMC:
A – can be read or written on to at any time

B – can be modified by the pilot
C – are read only
D – are updated once every 28 weeks
Ans: C
7. Which of the following can be input manually to the FMC using a maximum of 5 alphanumerics?
A – Waypoints, latitude and longitude, SIDs and STARs

B – ICAO aerodrome designators, navigation facilities, SIDs and STARs
C – Waypoints, airways designators, latitude and longitude
D – Navigation facilities, reporting points, airways designators
Ans: D
8. Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays
on the EADI and EHSI?
A – Flight Control Computer

B – Flight Management Computer
C – Symbol Generator
D – Navigation database
Ans: C
9. The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way that the pilot can:
A – modify the database every 28 days

B – only read the database
C – insert navigation data between two updates
D – read and write at any time in database
Ans: C
10. The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an
Electronic Flight Instrument System:
A – indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown

B – corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns
C – indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection
D – represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it coincides with the desired track, wind
influence is compensated for
Ans: D
11. When is the IRS position updated:
A – at VOR beacons on route by the pilots

B – continuously by the FMC
C – at significant waypoints only
D – on the ground only
Ans: D
12. The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
A – another source of aircraft position; it is independent of other position sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, etc)
B – the actual position of the aircraft at any point in time
C – the same as that given on the No. 1 IRS
D – the computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, GPS, etc)
Ans: D
13. When is the FMS position likely to be least accurate?

A – TOD
B – TOC
C – Just after take-off
D – On final approach
Ans: A
14. The FMS database can be:
A – altered by the pilots between the 28 day updates

B – read and altered by the pilots
C – only read by the pilots
D – altered by the pilots every 28 days
Ans: C
15. Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained and obtains no external information?
A – VOR/DME radial/distance
B – Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
C – Pressure altitude
D – Magnetic heading
Ans: B
16. With regard to FMS, what are the possible modes of operation for dual FMC installations?
A – Dual
B – Dual and single
C – Dual, independent, and single
D – None of the above
Ans: C
17. What is Back Up FMS navigation mode?
A – When only one FMS is operational

B – When one FMS is a Master and the other is a Slave
C – When one FMS operates independently from the other
D – When the FMC is suffering from some failure but there is still lmited FMS function
Ans: D
18. Why is gate number requested by the FMC?
A – So that pilots can choose as an option this gate for the return flight
B – So that the FMS can convert the gate position into a WGS 84 co-ordinate for the inertial navigation
system
C – To inform the company of departure gate by date link
D – None of the above
Ans: B
19. Why is an IRS known as a self-contained system?
A – Because it is contained in one area in the aircraft

B – Because it only depends on input from global navigation satellite systems
C – Because it derives navigational data from relative movement via in-built sensors
D – Because it only depends on input for VOR/DME facilities
Ans: C
20. The FMS is composed of:
A – the command display unit and the flight management computer

B – the automatic flight control system and the power management controls system
C – the flight management computer only
D – the EFIS and EICAM displays
Ans: A
21. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
A – Figure 4
B – Figure 3
C – Figure 1
D – Figure 2
Ans: B
22. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
A – Figure 2
B – Figure 3
C – Figure 4
D – Figure 1
Ans: A
23. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS
mode with a VOR frequency selected?
A – Figure 1
B – Figure 4
C – Figure 5
D – Figure 6
Ans: A
A – Figure 6
B – Figure 3
C – Figure 4
D – Figure 2
Ans: D
25. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
A – Figure 4
B – Figure 3
C – Figure 5
D – Figure 2
Ans: B
26. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP)
VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
A – Figure 1
B – Figure 5
C – Figure 6
D – Figure 4
Ans: D
VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
A – Figure 3
B – Figure 6
C – Figure 2
D – Figure 5
Ans: D
28. In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation in the FMC is
provided by:
A – Navigation radios GPS Inertial Reference Systems

B – Inertial Reference Systems Aircraft Weather Radar Navigation radios
C – GPS Aircraft Weather Radar Navigation radios
D – Inertial Reference Systems Navigation radios Terrain Collision Alerting System
Ans: A
29. In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to
aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the:
A – auto flight computers

B – air data computer
C – navigation database
D – performance database
Ans: D
cruising speeds is stored in the:
A – navigation database
C – performance database
D – auto flight computers
Ans: C
flight plans is stored in the:
A – air data database

B – navigation database
D – auto flight database
Ans: B
STARs and SIDs is stored in the:
A – navigation database
Ans: A
V1, VR and V2 speeds is stored in the:
A – air data computer

B – performance database
D – auto flight computer
Ans: B
waypoints is stored in the:
A – performance database
Ans: C
35. The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that:
A – the main navigation database of the FMC is created by the pilot

B – the pilot is able to modify the main navigation database in the FMC between two updates
C – the main navigation database of the FMC is valid for one year
D – the main navigation database is read only to the pilot
Ans: D
36. Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in red on an electronic flight Instrument System
(EFIS) indicate:
A – cautions and abnormal sources; engaged modes

B – flight envelope and system limits; engaged modes
C – warnings; cautions and abnormal sources
D – warnings; flight envelope and system limits
Ans: D
37. Which of the following lists all the stages of flight when it is possible to change the route in the active
flight plan on an FMS equipped aircraft?
A – Only once the aircraft is airborne

B – Only before take-off
C – Only before the flight plan is activated
D – At any time before take-off and throughout the flight
Ans: D
38. The ETA generated by the FMS will be most accurate:
A – when the forecast W/V equals the actual W/V and the FMS calculated Mach No. equals the actual
Mach No.
B – If the ground speed and position are accurate
C – If the forecast W/V at take-off is entered
D – If the ground speed is correct and the take-off time has been entered
Ans: B
39. For position fixing the FMC uses:
A – DME/DME
B – VOR/DME
C – DME/DME or VOR/DME
D – Any combination of VOR, DME and ADF
Ans: C
40. The inputs the pilot will make to the FMC during the pre-flight initialisation will include:
A – ETD, aircraft position, and planned route

B – Planned route, aircraft position, and departure runway
C – Navigation database, aircraft position and departure aerodrome
D – Departure runway, planned route and ETD
Ans: B
41. In the NAV and EXP NAV modes one dot on the EHSI represents:
A – 2 nm
B – 2o
C – 5 nm
D – 5o
Ans: A
42. The colour recommended in JAR OPS 1 for engaged modes is:
A – green
B – magenta
C – cyan
D – white
Ans: A
43. The colour recommended in JAR OPS for the display of turbulence is:
A – red
B – black
C – white or magenta
D – amber
Ans: C
44. In accordance with JAR 25, which features of an EFIS display are coloured CYAN:
A – Engaged moes
B – The sky
C – The flight director bars
D – System limits and flight envelope
Ans: B
45. In an EHSI the navigation information comes from:
A – INS, weather mapping, radio navigation

B – FMC, radio navigation
C – IRS, radio navigation, TAS and drift
D – FMC, weather mapping, radio navigation
Ans: B
46. Which EHSI modes cannot show AWR information:
A – FULL VOR/ILS/NAV and MAP

B – PLAN, CTR MAP and EXP VOR/ILS/NAV
C – CTR MAP and PLAN
D – PLAN and FULL VOR/ILS/NAV
Ans: D
47. The colour recommended in JAR OPS 1 for engaged AFCS modes is:
A – green
B – magenta
C – cyan
D – white
Ans: A
48. For position fixing the B737-800 FMC uses:
A – DME/DME
B – VOR/DME
C – DME/DME or VOR/DME
D – Any combination of VOR, DME and ADF
Ans: A
49. According to JAR 25, for what type of message is the colour red used?
A – warnings, cautions, abnormal sources

B – flight envelope, system limits, engaged mode
C – cautions, abnormal sources, engaged mode
D – warnings, flight envelope, system limits
Ans: D
50. Which of the following is independent of external inputs?
A – INS
B – Direct reading magnetic compass
C – VOR/DME
D – ADF
Ans: A
51. The track line on an EFIS display indicates:
A – that a manual track has been selected

B – that a manual heading has been selected
C – the actual aircraft track over the ground, which will coincide with the aircraft heading when there is
zero drift
D – the aircraft actual track which will coincide with the planned track when there is zero drift
Ans: C
Instrument Indications
1. The EHSI is showing 5 deg fly right with a TO indication. The aircraft heading is 280(M) and the
required track is 270(M). The radial is:
A – 275
B – 265
C – 085
D – 095
Ans: D
2. The track from TBX to YTB is:
A – 180o (T)
B – 097o (T)
C – 073o (M)
D – 045o (T)
Ans: B
3. the navigation database in the FMC:
A – is read only for the pilots

B – can be modified by the pilots to meet route requirements
C – can be amended by the pilots to update navigational data
D – is inaccessible to the flight crew
Ans: A
4. An aircraft flies from a VOR at 61N 013W to 58N 013W. The variation at the beacon is 13W and the
variation at the aircraft is 5W. What radial is the aircraft of?
A – 013
B – 005
C – 193
D – 187
Ans: C
5. The EHSI in display 1 (figure 1) is in ___ mode
A – FULL NAV
B – FULL VOR
C – EXP VOR
D – ILS
Ans: B
6. Which EFIS diagram is in the MAP mode?
A – Figure 3
B – Figure 2
C – Figure 4
D – Figure 1
Ans: A
7. The aircraft is:
A – left of the localiser and above the glide path

B – right of the localiser and below the glide path
C – left of the localiser and below the glide path
D – right of the localiser and above the glide path
Ans: B
8. How does the electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF
navigation (VOR) receiver?
A – The deviation bar and/or pointer change colour to red and flash intermittently
B – The pointer rotates around the display and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
C – It removes the associated magenta deviation bar and/or pointer from the display
D – The pointer flashes and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
Ans: C
9. You are maintaining a track of 315oM on a heading of 299oM. The variation at the aircraft is 12oE. The
true heading is ___ the true track is ___ and the drift is ___
A – 287o, 303o, 16o port

B – 326o, 311o, 16o starboard
C – 311o, 327o, 16o starboard
D – 311o, 327o, 16o port
Ans: C
10. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)Display in MAP mode?
A – Figure 2
B – Figure 3
C – Figure 4
D – Figure 5
Ans: B
VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
A – Figure 4
B – Figure 5
C – Figure 6
D – Figure 1
Ans: A
12. Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)
display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
A – Figure 2
B – Figure 3
C – Figure 5
D – Figure 6
Ans: D
13. What is the manually selected heading?
A – 272o (M)
B – 280o (M)
C – 300o (M)
D – 260o (M)
Ans: D
A – Figure 2
B – Figure 3
C – Figure 4
D – Figure 6
Ans: A
15. What is the instantaneous aircraft track?
A – 280o (M)
B – 272o (M)
C – 300o (M)
D – 260o (M)
Ans: B
16. Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in red on an Electronic Flight Instrument System
(EFIS), indicate:
A – warnings; cautions and abnormal sources

B – cautions and abnormal sources; engaged modes
C – warnings; flight envelope and system limits
D – flight envelope and system limits; engaged modes
Ans: C
17. The ‘O’ followed by the letters ‘KABC’ indicates:
A – the destination airport

B – an off-route airport
C – a designated alternate airport
D – an off-route VOR/DME
Ans: B
18. What wind velocity is indicated?
A – 030o (M) / 20 KT
B – 255o (M) / 20 KT
C – 285o (M) / 20 KT
D – 105o (M) / 20 KT
Ans: D
display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
A – Figure 4
B – Figure 5
C – Figure 6
D – Figure 1
Ans: D
90 kt?
A – 450 ft/min
B – 400 ft/min
C – 600 ft/min
D – 700 ft/min
Ans: A
display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
A – Figure 1
B – Figure 2
C – Figure 3
D – Figure 4
Ans: D
display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
A – Figure 4
B – Figure 1
C – Figure 2
D – Figure 3
Ans: B
23. What drift is being experienced?
A – 20o Right
B – 20o Left
C – 12o Right
D – 8o Left
Ans: D
24. (Refer to figure 062-10)
What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
A – 097o (T)
B – 170o (M)
C – 140o (M)
D – 280o (T)
Ans: A
25. In which screen modes of an Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) on a B737-400 will radar
returns not be shown?
A – EXP VOR/ILS PLAN and MAP

B – FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN
C – FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP
D – FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN
Ans: B
26. If range indications are screen/hidden, this means:
A – The transponder is out of service

B – The aeroplane is out of range
C – The aeroplane’s equipment is in search mode
D – The DME unit is in memory mode
Ans: B
27. A Moving Target Indicator:
A – Rejects all moving targets

B – Is only effective if the target moves directly towards the ground unit
C – Rejects all stationary targets
D – Is not effective if the target moves directly towards the ground unit
Ans: C
28. In the NAV message, the ‘ephemeris’ refers to the exact:
A – Position and orbit of all the satellites in the constellation

B – Position and orbit of all the satellites in the same orbit
C – Position and orbit of the observed satellite
D – The observed satellite clock corrections
Ans: C
29. For the diagram below the aircraft is on an airway 80 nm from the beacon. What radial is the aircraft
on and is it inside or outside the airway?
A – 181 inside
B – 191 outside
C – 001 outside
D – 011 inside
Ans: C
30. The AWR uses the cosecant squared beam in the ___ mode:
A – WEA
B – CONT
C – MAP
D – MAN
Ans: C
31. In the approach phase with a two dot lateral deviation HSI display, a one dot deviation from track
would represent:
A – 5 nm
B – 0.5 nm
C – 5o
D – 0.5o
Ans: D
32. When using a two dot HSI, a deviation of one dot from the computed track represents:
A – 2o
B – 5o
C – 5 nm
D – 2 nm
Ans: D
33. The JAR OPS recommended colour for the present track line in the expanded mode is:
A – white
B – green
C – magenta
D – cyan
Ans: A
34. The range arcs in the expanded and map modes are recommended by JAR OPS to be coloured:
A – white
B – green
C – magenta
D – cyan
Ans: A
35. When midway between two waypoints how can the pilot best check the progress of the aircraft:
A – by using the ATD at the previous waypoint
B – by using the computed ETA for the next waypoint
C – by using the ATA at the previous waypoint
D – by using the ETA at the destination
Ans: B
36. The inputs to the EHSI display during automatic flight include:
A – auto-throttle, IRS and FMC

B – FCC, FMC and ADC
C – IRS, FMC and radio navigation facilities
D – IRS, ADC and FCC
Ans: C
37. The JAR OPS recommended colour for an active waypoint is:
A – white
B – magenta
C – green
D – cyan
Ans: B
38. The JAR OPS recommended colour for an off route waypoint is:
A – White
B – Magenta
C – Green
D – Cyan
Ans: D
39. The JAR OPS recommended colour for the aircraft symbol is:
A – white
B – magenta
C – green
D – cyan
Ans: A
40. The JAR OPS recommended colour for on active route in the PLAN mode is:
A – white
B – magenta
C – green
D – cyan
Ans: B
41. A CDI indicates 275/TO with the needle showing 2.5 dots fly right. The aircraft is 20 nm from the
beacon on a heading of 330 M. The radial that the aircraft is on and the correct way to turn after
intercepting the required track to fly to the facility is:
A – 092 right
B – 100 left
C – 272 right
D – 280 left
Ans: B
42. The needle of a Course Deviation Indicator is showing 3 dots right on a 5 dot OBI, with 268o set and
FROM showing. What radial is the a/c on?
A – 082
B – 094
C – 262
D – 274
Ans: C
43. The colour recommended in JAR 25 for armed modes is:
A – green
B – yellow
C – white
D – magenta
Ans: C
44. On the Boeing 737-400 EFIS EHSI, on which modes is a Weather Radar Display available:
A – MAP, PLAN, FULL VOR/ILS

B – MAP, PLAN, EXP VOR/ILS
C – MAP, EXP VOR/ILS, EXP NAV
D – MAP, FULL VOR/ILS, FULL NAV
Ans: C
45. You are homing to overhead a VORTAC and will descent from 7500 QNH to be 1000 AMSL by 6 nm
DME. Your ground speed is 156 knots and the ROD will be 800 fpm. At what range from the VORTAC
do you commence the descent?
A – 27.1 nm
B – 15.8 nm
C – 11.7 nm
D – 30.2 nm Ans: A
Types of Area Navigation Systems Input
1. Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV)
fixes?
A – VOR/DME
B – DME/DME
C – NDB/VOR
D – VOR/VOR
Ans: B
VOR/DME Area Navigation (RNAV)
1. In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV) which of the following is an Air Data input?
A – Doppler drift
B – VOR/DME radial/distance
C – Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
D – True airspeed
Ans: D
2. The phantom station in a 2D RNAV system may be generated by:
A – VOR/DME
B – twin VOR
C – twin DME
D – any of the above
Ans: A
3. The operation of a 2D RNAV system may be seriously downgraded:
A – because the computer cannot determine if the aircraft is within the DOC of the programmed
facilities
B – because the computer cannot determine if the heading and altitude input are in error
C – because the pilot cannot verify the correct frequency has been selectged
D – if the selected navigation facility is in excess of about 70 nm
Ans: A
4. What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot basic RNAV system in the en-route mode?
A – 1 NM
B – 5 NM
C – 2 NM
D – 10 NM
Ans: B
5. What is the maximum off-track error permitted on P-RNAV systems?
A – ±5 nm
B – ±2 nm
C – ±1 nm
D – ±0.5 nm
Ans: C
6. In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR into an RNAV, the VOR:
A – has to be positively identified by one of the pilots

B – does not have to be in range when entered or used
C – must be in range
D – does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used
Ans: D
7. In order that a waypoint designated by a VOR can be used by a RNAV system:
A – the VOR must be identified by the pilot

B – the VOR must be within range when the waypoint is input
C – the VOR need not be in range when input or used
D – the VOR need not be in range when input but must be when used
Ans: D
8. Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System?
A – Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance; angular course deviation

B – Aircraft position in latitude and longitude
C – Wind velocity
D – True airspeed; drift angle
Ans: A
9. According to ICAO (Annex 11), the definition of an RNAV system is:
A – one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of
appropriate ground based navigation aids only
B – one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the specified limits of
self-contained on-board systems
C – one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of
appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified lmits of self-contained on-board
systems but not a combination of the two
D – one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of
appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified limits of self-contained on-board
systems or a combination of the two
Ans: D
10. Which of the following is one of the functions of the Course-Line-Computer in a basic Area Navigation
(RNAV) system?
A – It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches

B – It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme
C – It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav- Mode and continues
working by memory in case one of the two necessary stations goes off the air
D – It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance indications to
any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint
Ans: D
11. What are the primary navigation inputs used by RNAV system?
A – INS, Mapping Radar, FMC database

B – INS, Nav Aids, TAS and Drift
C – Nav Aids, INS, FMC database
D – Nav Aids, Mapping Radar, FMC database
Ans: C
12. Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation
System Phantom Station:
A – because, under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the Phantom Station other than 180o/360o)
it takes the computer more time to calculate the necessary information
B – when operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from the reference station
C – when in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Station
D – when the Phantom Station is out of range
Ans: B
13. The required accuracy of a precision RNAV (P-RNAV) system is:
A – 0.25 nm standard deviation or better

B – 0.5 nm standard deviation or better
C – 1 nm standard deviation or better
D – 1.5 nm standard deviation or better
Ans: C
14. What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot RNAV system in the approach mode?
A – 10 NM
B – 0.5o
C – 10o
D – 0.5 NM
Ans: B
15. Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not
on-board, system?
A – Magnetic heading
B – Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
C – Pressure altitude
D – VOR/DME radial/distance
Ans: D
16. RNAV routes are:
A – usually specified by waypoints co-incident with point source aids such as VOR, DME or NDB
facilities
B – specified by waypoints defined as a position in latitude and longitude based on the WGS 84 system
C – selected according to TCAS inputs
D – none of the above are correct
Ans: B
17. With regard to RNAV, what are gybrid navigation systems?
A – RNAV systems which use and merge information from a selection of self-contained and externally
referenced navigation system
B – VOR/DME system
C – Loran C system
D – GNSS
Ans: A
18. What is an example of a self contained RNAV system?
A – GPS
B – DME/DME
C – VOR/DME
D – INS
Ans: D
19. With VOR/DME basic area navigation, the displacement of the CDI needle represents:
A – angular displacement from the course line (eg. 5 dots = 5o off track)
B – angular displacement from the course line (eg. 5 dots = 10o off track)
C – distance of track (eg. 5 dots = 5 nm off track)
D – distance of track (eg. 5 dots = 10 nm off track)
Ans: C
20. With regard to RNAV, what are phantom or ghost stations?
A – Waypoints defined by radials and ranges from suitable VOR/DME facilities

B – Spurious waypoints produced by the system when the aircraft exceeds the maximum theoretical
range from the VOR facility
C – Waypoints which have been lost from the command display unit memory
D – Temporary waypoints which are produced when the aircraft is over the cone of confusion of a VOR
facility
Ans: A
21. The range to a required waypoint presented by RNAV system is:
A – plan range or slant range depending on RNAV settings

B – plan range
C – slant range
D – neither plan range nor slant range
Ans: A
22. (Refer to figure 062-13) Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME bsed
Area Navigation Equipment when using a ‘Phantom Station’ at position ‘X’?
A – 11 NM
B – 14 NM
C – 8 NM
D – 9 NM
Ans: D
23. Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment
when using a ‘Phantom Station’?
A – 12 NM
B – 21 NM
C – 10 NM
D – 11 NM
Ans: A
24. Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment
when using a ‘Phantom Station’ at position ‘X’?
A – 8 NM
B – 11 NM
C – 14 NM
D – 9 NM
Ans: D
25. Apart from radials and distances from VOR/DME stations, what information is required by the
VOR/DME Area Navigation computer in order to calculate the wind?
A – Heading from the aircraft compass system and true airspeed from the air data computer
B – True airspeed from the air data computer
C – Heading from the aircraft compass system
D – Vertical speed from the air data computer
Ans: A
26. In an FMS, how does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information?
A – the pilot tunes the closest VOR/DME stations within range on the VOR/DME Area navigation
control panel
B – The VOR/DME Area Navigation system has its own VHF NAV tuner and the system itself tunes the
DME stations providing the best angular position lines
C – The VOR/DME Area Navigation system uses whatever stations are tuned on the aircraft’s normal
VHF NAV selector
D – The VOR/DME Area Navigation System has its own VHF NAV tuner and it always tunes the DME
stations closest to the aircraft position
Ans: B
27. In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designed by a VOR/DME simple RNAV system, the
VOR/DME
A – has to be positively identified by one of the pilots

B – does not have to be in range when entered or used
C – must be in range
D – does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used
Ans: D
28. On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead reckoning mode?
A – Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs; TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from
the aircraft compass
B – TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass
C – Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs
D – TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass; the last computed W/V
Ans: D
29. Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead
Reckoning mode?
A – VOR/DME Area Navigation Computer is not receiving information from the Air Data Computer
B – VOR/DME Area Navigation Computer is receiving neither radial nor distance data information from
VOR/DME stations
C – VOR/DME Area Navigation Computer is not receiving information from the aircraft compass system
D – When ‘DR’ is selected by the pilot
Ans: B
30. Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead
Reckoning mode?
A – The system is receiving information from only one VOR

B – The system is receiving information from one VOR and one DME
C – The system is receiving information from one VOR and two DMEs
D – The system is receiving information from the two DMEs
Ans: A
31. Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System
when tracking inbound to a phantom waypoint?
A – Wind velocity
B – Aircraft position in latitude and longitude
C – Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance
D – True airspeed; drift angle
Ans: C
32. When operating in an RNAV mode using multiple DME, inaccuracy can be due to :
A – Sky wave interference

B – Mutual interference between the DMEs
C – Inability to confirm the aircraft is within the DOC of the DMEs because of identification problems
D – The DMEs locking onto each other’s returns
Ans: C
33. An aircraft, using 2D RNAV computer, is 12 nm from the phantom station, 25 nm from the VOR/DME
designating the phantom station and thephantom station is 35 nm from the VOR/DME. The range read
out in the aircraft will be:
A – 12 nm
B – 25 nm plan range
C – 35 nm
D – 25 nm slant range
Ans: A

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IR ALL QUESTION

A – Procedures for Air Navigation Systems – Airfield operations

2. What is the meaning of DER:

A – dead end of runway

A – Direct entry routing

A – minimum break-off altitude

A – Final approach segment

7. What is the meaning of OCA?

A – Oceanic control area

8. OCH for a precision approach is defined as:

9. What does the abbreviation OIS mean?

10. What is the meaning of MEHT?

A – Mean height over threshold

A – Departure end of runway

12. A “precision approach” is a direct instrument approach…

13. What does AAL mean?

A – Above aerodrome level

14. A visual approach is:

15. What does the abbreviation DER mean?

19. A radial is:

A – a magnetic bearing to a VOR station

A – the Air Pilot

22. Which of the following defines transition altitude?

23. The Transition Level:

A – Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)

25. The approach categories of aircraft are based upon:

27. A circling approach is:

A – A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring

29. VORTAC is:

30. A racetrack is:

A – a right hand circuit pattern

31. A precision Approach Procedure is defined as:

A – An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information

1. What is a low visibility take-off?

A – A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 400m

A – To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace

5. Turning departures provide track guidance within:

7. Which of the following standard instrument departures is not a straight departure?

9. when can the required noise abatement procedure be disregarded?

A – 3.3% with all engines operating

A – The designer of the procedure (normally the State)

13. The procedure design gradient (PDG) consists of:

A – 2.3% OIS and 1% increasing obstacle clearance margin

A – the terrain surrounding the aerodrome

A – 20 km after completion of turns on departures requiring turns

21. For a turning departure turns may be specified at:

22. For an omni-directional departure the procedure ensures that:

A – ISA + 15oC corresponding to the altitude

A – 5o of the alignment of the runway centre-line

25. The PDG is made up of:

A – 2.5% gradient of obstacle identification

A – 5 km after the completion of the turn

A – when advised to do so by the Tower

A – At least 300m (984 ft)

A – 224 km/h to 261 km/h

6. How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure?

A – turn towards the airport maintaining the visual circling altitude/height

A – 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft)

12. On a non-precision approach a so-called “straight-in-approach is considered acceptable, if the angle

A – 90m (295 ft)

A – 150m (492 ft)

20. Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

A – Arrival, intermediate and final

A – The appropriate authority of the State of the aerodrome

43. The NTZ extends from _ to _