1.Consider the following statements.

1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children.

2. To minimize inequalities in income status, facilities and opportunities.
3. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguards forests and wild life.

Which of the above DPSPs is/are added to the Constitution through 42 nd Amendment Act 1976
?

a) 1,2 & 3
b) 2,3 & 4
c) 1,3 & 4
d) 1,2,3 & 4

Answer – C (1,3 & 4)

Explanation - The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the
original list. They require the State:

1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).

2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article
43 A).
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle, which requires the State
to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
Again, the 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject-matter of Article 45 and made
elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A. The amended directive requires
the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the
age of six years.

2. Bengal, Madras and Bombay were placed under the direct control of Governor General
Council through which of the following acts ?
a) Indian Council Act 1892
b) Charter Act of 1813
c) Charter Act of 1833
d) Pitts India Act

Answer – C (Charter Act of 1833)

Explanation – Charter Act of 1833 –

1. This Act is considered the final Step towards the centralization in British India. The company
was asked to close its all commercial activities.
2. The Governor The General in Council was given the power to control, superintend and direct
the civil and military affairs of the company. Lord Willam Bentick became the first Governor
General of India.
3. Bombay, Madras, Bengal and other territories were placed under the complete control of the
Governor-General-in- Council.
4. Now, all revenues were to be raised under the authority of the Governoer-General-in Council
who was to have complete control over the expenditure also.
5. The act also brought about legislative centralization. Now the Governments of Madras and
Bombay were drastically deprived of their powers of legislation and left only with the right of
proposing to the Governor-General-in-council projects of the laws which they thought
expedient.
6. Also, the act enlarged the executive council of the Governor General by the addition of Law
Member for legislative purposes. He was entitled to sit and vote at the meetings of the council
only for the purpose of law making. Also a law commission was constituted with the purpose of
consolidating, codifying and improving India laws. Lord Macaulay was the first Law Member of
the council.

3. Consider the following statements .

1. Laws made for State by Parliament after Rajya Sabha resolution remains in operation for
perpetuity.
2. Laws made by Parliament on resolution from two or more states can be amended by State
legislature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct regarding Parliamentary legislation on State List
?

a). 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None

Answer – D (None)

Explanation - Laws made by Parliament on resolution passed by Rajya Sabha remain operational
for a period of 6 months from the expiry of resolution. The resolution itself has life of 1 year,
though it can be renewed any number of times but for 1 year at once. When Parliament makes
laws on State list when requested by two or more states, in such cases these laws
cannot be amended by State Legislature. Requesting Parliament to legislate on State subjects
tantamount to submission of legislative powers on the said subject to Parliament.

4. Consider the following statements.

1. Suggesting enactment of new legislations as may be necessary to implement the Directive

Principles and to attain the objectives set out in the Preamble of the Constitution
2. Considering and conveying to the Government its views on any subject relating to law and
judicial administration that may be specifically referred to it by the Government through
Ministry of Law and Justice.
3. Considering the requests for providing research to any foreign countries as may be referred
to it by the Government through Ministry of Law & Justice.
4. Preparing and submitting to the Central Government, from time to time, reports on all issues,
matters, studies and research undertaken by it and recommending in such reports for effective
measures to be taken by the Union or any State.

Which of the above statement is/are the functions of Law Commission ?

a) 1,2 & 3
b) 2,3 & 4
c) 1,3 & 4
d) 1,2,3 & 4

Answer – D (1,2,3 & 4)

Explanation - The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the
Government of lndia from time to time. The Commission was originally constituted in 1955 and
is re-constituted every three years. The tenure of 21st Law Commission is 1st September 2015 to
31st August 2018.
The 21st Law Commission consist of:-

(i) a full-time Chairperson;

(ii) four full-time Members (including a Member-Secretary);
(iii) Secretary, Department of Legal Affairs as ex off do Member;
(iv) Secretary, Legislative Department as ex offcio Member; and
(v) not more than five part-time Members.

The functions of the Law Commission shall, inter-alia, include:-

a) identification of laws which are no longer relevant and recommending for the repeal of
obsolete and unnecessary enactments;
b) suggesting enactment of new legislations as may be necessary to implement the Directive
Principles and to attain the objectives set out in the Preamble of the Constitution;
c) considering and conveying to the Government its views on any subject relating to law and
judicial administration that may be specifically referred to it by the Government through
Ministry of Law and Justice (Department of Legal Affairs);
d) considering the requests for providing research to any foreign countries as may be referred
to it by the Government through Ministry of Law & Justice (Department of Legal Affairs);
e) preparing and submitting to the Central Government, from time to time, reports on all
issues, matters, studies and research undertaken by it and recommending in such reports for
effective measures to be taken by the Union or any State; and
f) performing such other functions as may be assigned to it by the Central Government from
time to time.

4. Consider the following statements.

1. A Cut motion can relate to one or more demands.

2. It can make suggestions for amendment or repealing of any existing laws.
3. It should be confined to specific matter.
4. It can be related to the expenditure charged on Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect with respect to Cut motion ?

a) 1,2 & 3
b) 2,3 & 4
c) 1,2 & 4
d) 1,2,3 & 4
Answer – C (1,2 & 4)

Explanation - A cut motion, to be admissible, must satisfy the following conditions:

(i) It should relate to one demand only.

(ii) It should be clearly expressed and should not contain arguments or defamatory statements.
(iii) It should be confined to one specific matter.
(iv) It should not make suggestions for the amendment or repeal of existing laws.
(v) It should not refer to a matter that is not primarily the concern of Union government.
(vi) It should not relate to the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
(vii) It should not relate to a matter that is under adjudication by a court.
(viii)It should not raise a question of privilege.
(ix) It should not revive discussion on a matter on which a decision has been taken in the same
session.
(x) It should not relate to a trivial matter.

5. Consider the following statements.

1. Policy Cut Motion - It represents the disapproval of the policy underlying the demand. It
states that the amount of the demand be reduced to Rs 100. The members can also advocate
an alternative policy.
2. Economy cut Motion - It represents the economy that can be affected in the proposed
expenditure. It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount (which
may be either a lumpsum reduction in the demand or ommission or reduction of an item in the
demand).
3. Token cut Motion - It ventilates a specific grievance that is within the sphere of responsibility
of the Government of India. It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by Re 1.

Which of the above statements is/are matched correctly ?

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) 3 Only
d) 1,2 & 3

Answer – B (2 Only)
Explanation - While the General Budget has a total of 109 demands (103 for civil expenditure
and 6 for defence expenditure), the Railway Budget has 32 demands. Each demand is voted
separately by the Lok Sabha. During this stage, the members of Parliament can discuss the
details of the budget. They can also move motions to reduce any demand for grant. Such
motions are called as ‘cut motion’, which are of three kinds:
(a) Policy Cut Motion - It represents the disapproval of the policy underlying the demand. It
states that the amount of the demand be reduced to Re 1. The members can also advocate an
alternative policy.
(b) Economy Cut Motion - It represents the economy that can be affected in the proposed
expenditure. It states that the amount of the demand be reduced by a specified amount (which
may be either a lumpsum reduction in the demand or ommission or reduction of an item in the
demand).
(c) Token Cut Motion - It ventilates a specific grievance that is within the sphere of
responsibility of the Government of India. It states that the amount of the demand be reduced
by Rs 100.

6. Consider the following statements.

1. It redraws the boundary of various assemblies and Lok Sabha constituencies.

2. the orders issued by the Delimitation Commission become final and cannot be challenged in
any court.
3. Delimitation Commission has been set up four times in the past .

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

a) 1 & 2
b) 2 & 3
c) 1 & 3
d) 1,2 & 3

Answer – D (1,2 & 3)

Explanation - Delimitation commission’s main task of the commission is to redraw the

boundaries of the various assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies based on a recent census. The
representation from each state is not changed during this exercise. The Constitution declares
that the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of
seats to such constituencies cannot be questioned in any court. Consequently, the orders
issued by the Delimitation Commission become final and cannot be challenged in any court. The
orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the respective State Legislative Assemblies. However,
modifications are not permitted Delimitation commissions have been set up four times in the
past - In 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002.

7. The concept of ‘Due process of law’ was introduced in which of following cases?
(a) AK Gopalan case
(b) Minerva mills case
(c) Kesavananda Bharathi case
(d) Menaka Gandhi case

Answer – D (Meneka Gandhi Case)

Explanation - In the famous Gopalan case11 (1950), the Supreme Court has taken a narrow
interpretation of theArticle 21. It held that the protection under Article 21 is available only
against
arbitrary executive action and not from arbitrary legislative action. This means that the State
can deprive the right to life and personal liberty of a person based on a law. This is because
of the expression 'procedure established by law' in Article 21. But, in Menaka case12 (1978),
the Supreme Court overruled its judgement in the Gopalan case by taking a wider
interpretation
of the Article 21. Therefore, it ruled that the right to life and personal liberty of a person can be
deprived by a law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair and
just. In other words, it has introduced the American expression 'due process of law'.

8. Which of the following has the power to appoint any other place as the Seat of Supreme
Court ?

a) Chief Justice of India

b) President
c) Parliament
d) Union Cabinet

Answer – A (Chief Justice Of India)

Explanation - The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court. But, it also
authorises the chief justice of India to appoint other place or places as seat of the Supreme
Court. He can take decision in this regard only with the approval of the President. This provision
is only optional and not compulsory. This means that no court can give any direction either to
the President or to the Chief Justice to appoint any other place as a seat of the Supreme Court.

9. Consider the following statements regarding Public Serivice Commission .

1. The Chairman and Members of State Public Service Commission are removed by the
President.
2.Union Public Service Commission can serve any or all the needs of state with approval of the
President of India.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None

Answer – D (none)

Explanation-The UPSC performs the following functions:

(a) It conducts examinations for appointments to the all-India services, Central services and
public services of the centrally administered territories.
(b) It assists the states (if requested by two or more states to do so) in framing and operating
schemes of joint recruitment for any services for which candidates possessing special
qualifications are required.
(c) It serves all or any of the needs of a state on the request of the state governor and with the
approval of the president of India.
Although the chairman and members of a SPSC are appointed by the governor, they can be
removed only by the president (and not by the governor). The president can remove them on
the same grounds and in the same manner as he can remove a chairman or a member of the
UPSC. Thus, he can remove him under the following circumstances:
(a) If he is adjudged an insolvent (i.e., has gone bankrupt); or
(b) If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his
office; or
(c) If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of
mind or body3.
In addition to these, the president can also remove the chairman or any other member of SPSC
for misbehaviour. However, in this case, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme
Court for an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and
advises so, the president can remove the chairman or a member. Under the provisions of the
Constitution, the advise tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the
president. However, during the course of enquiry by the Supreme Court, the governor can
suspend the concerned chairman or member, pending the final removal order of the president
on receipt of the report of the Supreme Court. Further, the Constitution has also defined the
term ‘misbehaviour’ in this context. The Constitution states that the chairman or any other
member of a SPSC is deemed to be guilty of misbehaviour, if he
(a) is concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by the Government of India
or the government of a state, or
(b) participates in any way in the profit of such contract or agreement or in any benefit
therefrom otherwise than as a member and in common with other members of an
incorporated company.

10. Who is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of india.

a) President
b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
c) Chief Election Commissioner
d) Vice President

Answer -B ( Speaker of Lok Sabha)

Explanation- The Speaker is the head of the Lok Sabha, and its representative. He is
the guardian of powers and privileges of the members, the House as a whole and its
committees. He is the principal spokesman of the House, and his decision in all Parliamentary
matters is final. He is thus much more than merely the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. In
these capacities, he is vested with vast, varied and vital responsibilities and enjoys great
honour, high dignity and supreme authority within the House.
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties from three sources, that is, the
Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and
Parliamentary Conventions (residuary powers that are unwritten or unspecified in the Rules).
Altogether, he has the following powers and duties:
1. He maintains order and decorum in the House for conducting its business and regulating its
proceedings. This is his primary responsibility and he has final power in this regard.
2. He is the final interpreter of the provisions of (a) the Constitution of India, (b) the Rules of
Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and (c) the parliamentary precedents,
within the House.
3. He adjourns the House or suspends the meeting in absence of a quorum. The quorum to
constitute a meeting of the House is one-tenth of the total strength of the House.
4. He does not vote in the first instance. But he can exercise a casting vote in the case of a tie. In
other words, only when the House is divided equally on any question, the Speaker is entitled
to vote. Such vote is called casting vote, and its purpose is to resolve a deadlock.
5. He presides over a joint setting of the two Houses of Parliament. Such a sitting is summoned
by the President to settle a deadlock between the two Houses on a bill.
6. He can allow a ‘secret’ sitting of the House at the request of the Leader of the House. When
the House sits in secret, no stranger can be present in the chamber, lobby or galleries except
with the permission of the Speaker.
7. He decides whether a bill is a money bill or not and his decision on this question is final.
When a money bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for recommendation and presented to the
President for assent, the Speaker endorses on the bill his certificate that it is a money bill.
8. He decides the questions of disqualification of a member of the Lok Sabha, arising on the
ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. In 1992, the Supreme Court
ruled that the decision of the Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review10.
9. He acts as the ex-officio chairman of the Indian Parliamentary Group of the Inter-
Parliamentary Union. He also acts as the ex-officio chairman of the conference of presiding
officers of legislative bodies in the country.
10. He appoints the chairman of all the parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha and
supervises their functioning.

11. The institutions of Speaker and Deputy speaker of Lok Sabha has its origin under the
provisions of -
a) Government of India Act 1909
b) Government of India Act 1919
c) Government of India Act 1935
d) Government of India Act 1947

Answer – B (Government of India Act 1919)

Explanation -The office of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the
provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montague–Chelmsford Reforms). At that
time, the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were called the President and Deputy President
respectively and the same nomenclature continued till 1947. Before 1921, the Governor-
General of India used to preside over the meetings of the Central Legislative Council. In 1921,
the Frederick Whyte and Sachidanand Sinha were appointed by the Governor-General of India
as the first Speaker and the first Deputy Speaker (respectively) of the central legislative
assembly. In 1925, Vithalbhai J. Patel became the first Indian and the first elected Speaker of
the central legislative assembly. The Government of India Act of 1935 changed the
nomenclatures of President and Deputy President of the Central Legislative Assembly to the
Speaker and Deputy Speaker respectively. However, the old nomenclature continued
till 1947 as the federal part of the 1935 Act was not implemented. G V Mavalankar and
Ananthasayanam Ayyangar had the distinction of being the first Speaker and the first Deputy
Speaker (respectively) of the Lok Sabha. G V Mavalankar also held the post of Speaker in the
Constituent Assembly (Legislative) as well as the provisional Parliament. He held the post of
Speaker of Lok Sabha continuously for one decade from 1946 to 1956.

12. Consider the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha.

1) Rajya Sabha can remove the Council of ministers by passing a No Confidence motion.
2) Rajya Sabha can vote on demand for grants.
3) Rajya sabha can authorise the Parliament to make a law on Subject enumerated in state list.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?

a) 1 & 2
b) 2 & 3
c) 1 & 3
d) 1 only

Answer – A (1 & 2 0nly)

Explanation - Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for
grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha).
-The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion.
This is because the Council of ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha.
But, the Rajya Sabha can discuss and criticise the policies and activities of the government.
-It can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List (Article
249)

13. . Consider the Following statements regarding Disqualifications under 10 th Schedule.

1. The question of disqualifications under 10 th schedule is decided by Speaker of Lok

Sabha/Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. The decision of Speaker/Chairman in this regard is not subjected to judicial review.

which of the above atatements is/are true ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None

Answer – A ( 1 only)

Explanations - Disqualification on Ground of Defection The Constitution also lays down that a
person shall be disqualified from being a member of Parliament if he is so disqualified on the
ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. A member incurs
disqualification under the defection law:
1. if he voluntary gives up the membership of the political party on whose ticket he is elected to
the House;
2. if he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary to any direction given by his political
party;
3. if any independently elected member joins any political party; and
4. if any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months.
The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Chairman in the
case of Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha (and not by the president of India). In
1992, the Supreme Court ruled that the decision of the Chairman/Speaker in this regard is
subject to judicial review.

14. Consider the following statements regarding Estimates Committee.

1) The Chairman of the Esmites Committee is the Ex-Officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2) A minister can be elected as a member of Estimate Committee.

Which of the following statement is/are true ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both
d) None

Answer- D (None)
Explanation - Originally, Estimates Committee had 25 members but in 1956 its membership was
raised to 30. All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. The Rajya Sabha has no
representation in this committee. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from
amongst its members, according to the principles of proportional representation by means of a
single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it. The term of office is one
year. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. The chairman of the
committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members and he is invariably from
the ruling party.
15. The disqualifications of Members of Parliament according to Representation of People’s act
is decided by-

a) President
b) Speaker of Lok Sabha/ Chairman of Rajya Sabha
c) Election Commissioner
d) Chief Justice of india.

Answer – A (President )

Explanation- The Parliament has laid down the following additional disqualifications in the
Representation of People Act (1951):
1. He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the
elections.
2. He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more
years. But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification.
3. He must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time.
4. He must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.
5. He must not be a director or managing agent nor hold an office of profit in a corporation in
which the government has at least 25 per cent share.
6. He must not have been dismissed from government service for corruption or disloyalty to the
State.
7. He must not have been convicted for promoting enmity between different groups or for the
offence of bribery.
8. He must not have been punished for preaching and practising social crimes such as
untouchability, dowry and sati.
On the question whether a member is subject to any of the above disqualifications, the
president’s decision is final. However, he should obtain the opinion of the election commission
and act accordingly.