Weekly Premix Compilation 3

PREMIX
COMPILATION FOR
2020
WEEK – 3
th th
(18 June to 24 June)
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www.YouTube.com/SleepyClases
www.SleepyClasses.com
2
INDEX
Topics Page No.
1. HISTORY 4–6
2. POLITY 7 – 10
3. ECONOMY 11 – 13
4. ENVIRONMENT 14 – 18
5. INTERNATIONAL 19 – 21
RELATIONS
6. GEOGRAPHY 22 – 25
3
HISTORY
Questions
1) Welby Commission is famous in Modern Indian History for which of the following reasons?
a) Educational reforms
b) Relations between British crown and Indian princely states
c) Police reforms
d) To enquire into the Drain theory
2) Which of the following is/are correct about Charter Act 1813?
1. It completely abolished the monopoly of East India Company in trade with India
2. It completely abolished the monopoly of East India Company in trade with China
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3) In political matters the East India Company was subordinated to the British government directly.
By which act did this happen?
a) Regulating Act, 1773
b) Pitt‟s India Act, 1783
c) Charter Act, 1793
d) None of the above
4) Which of the following newspapers is/are correctly matched with their editors?
1. Swadesamitran : G. Subramaniya Iyer
2. Bengalee : Surendranath Banerjea
3. Sudharak : NN Sen
Choose the correct option:-
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
5) Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Dadabhai Naoroji put forward the „drain of wealth‟ theory in his book Economic History in
India.
2. R. C. Dutt promoted the same theory in his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
https://youtu.be/Q1nOq-2xMv8?list=PLYSuG-KZy7JB0ntaozbKLnni_iYiKGOPk
4
Explanations
1) D
Dadabhai Naoroji in his famous book Poverty and UnBritish Rule in India wrote his Drain
Theory.
He showed how India‟s wealth was going away to England in the form of:
(a) salaries,
(b)savings,
(c) pensions,
(d) payments to British troops in India and
(e) profits of the British companies.
In fact, the British Government was forced to appoint the Welby Commission, with Dadabhai as
the first Indian as its member, to enquire into the matter.
2) D
Charter Act 1813
The Charter Act of 1813 In England, the business interests were pressing for an end to the
Company's monopoly over trade in India because of a spirit of laissez faire and the continental
system by Napoleon by which the European ports were closed to Britain.
The 1813 Act sought to redress these grievances
• The Company's monopoly over trade in India ended, but the Company retained the trade with
China and the trade in tea.
• The Company was to retain the possession of territories and the revenue for 20 years more,
without prejudice to the sovereignty of the Crown. (Thus, the constitutional position of the
British territories in India was defined explicitly for the first time.)
• Powers of the Board of Control were further enlarged.
• A sum of one lakh rupees was to be set aside for the revival, promotion and encouragement of
literature, learning and science among the natives of India, every year. (This was an important
statement from the point of state's responsibility for education.)
3) B
East India Company Act 1773 (Regulating Act, 1773)
By the Regulating Act of 1773 (later known as the East India Company Act 1773), the
Parliament of Great Britain imposed a series of administrative and economic reforms; this clearly
established Parliament's sovereignty and ultimate control over the company.
The Act recognized the company's political functions and clearly established that the "acquisition
of sovereignty by the subjects of the Crown is on behalf of the Crown and not in its own right".
East India Company Act 1784 (Pitt's India Act)
The bill differentiated the East India Company's political functions from its commercial
activities.
In political matters, the East India Company was subordinated to the British government directly
To accomplish this, the Act created a Board of Commissioners for the Affairs of India, usually
referred to as the Board of Control.
4) A
1 and 2 are correctly matched. 3 is incorrect.
Sudharak : Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Indian Mirror : N.N. Sen.
5) D
The Drain of Wealth theory was systemically initiated by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1867 and further
analysed and developed by R.P. Dutt, M.G Ranade etc
5
In 1867, Dadabhai Naoroji put forward the „drain of wealth‟ theory in which he stated that the
Britain was completely draining India. He mentioned this theory in his book Poverty and Un-
British Rule in India.
Further in his book , he stated the loss of 200-300 million pounds of revenue to Britain.
On the footsteps of Dadabhai Naoroji, R. C. Dutt also promoted the same theory by keeping it as
a major theme of his book Economic History in India.
Dadabhai Naoroji gave several factors that caused external drain.
These are:
•Home charges refer to the interest on public debt raised in England at comparatively higher
rates; expenditure incurred in England by the Secretary of State on behalf of India;
•Annuities on account of railway and irrigation works;
• Indian office expenses including pensions to retired officials who had worked in India or
England, pensions to army and navals etc.
•Remittances to England by Europeans to their families
•Remittances for purchase of British Goods for consumption of British employees in India.
• Interest charges on public debt held in Britain
•Trade as well as Indian labour was deeply undervalued.
6
POLITY
Questions
1) Which of the following statements are correct?

1. There is a Panel of 10 Chairpersons in case the office of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker
falls vacant in LokSabha
2. The Speaker resigns from his Office by submitting his resignation to the Deputy submitting
his resignation to the Deputy Speaker
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2) Which of the following is correct about clause 6 of the Assam Accord?
a) Promote speedy all round economic development of Assam, so as to improve the standard of
living of the people
b) Government will arrange for the issue of citizenship certificates in future only by the
authorities of the Central Government
c) Safeguards shall be provided to protect, preserve and promote the cultural, social, linguistic
identity and heritage of the Assamese people
d) All persons who came to Assam prior to 1.1.1966, including those amongst them whose
name appeared on the electoral rolls used in 1967 elections, shall be regularized
3) Which of the following are to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article
368?
1. Laws made for admission or establishment of new states
2. Cessation of Indian territory to a foreign state
3. Settlement of boundary dispute between India and another country
4. Change in representation of states in the RajyaSabha
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 2,3 and 4 only
4) Which of the following statements are correct about Metropolitan areas?
1. Metropolitan areas have a population of ten lakhsor more
2. They comprise of one or more districts, consisting of two or more municipalities but no
Panchayats
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
5) Which of the statements are correct about elections to RajyaSabha?
1. Elections to RajyaSabhaare held through proportional representation with single transferable
vote
2. When casual vacancies, each vacancy from a state is filled by a separate election
a) 1 only
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b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
https://youtu.be/ANJlWI2XclA?list=PLYSuG-KZy7JB0ntaozbKLnni_iYiKGOPk
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Explanations
1) A
When the Offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant, the duties of the
Office of the Speaker are performed bysuchMember of the Lok Sabhaas the President may
appoint for the purpose. The person so appointed is the purpose. The person so appointed is
known as the Speaker pro tem. In case of resignation, Speaker submits his resignation to Deputy
Speaker while the Deputy Speaker submits it to the Speaker.
2) C
• Clause 6 of the Assam Accord provides for constitutional, legislative and administrative
safeguards, as may be appropriate, shall be provided to protect, preserve and promote the
cultural, social, linguistic identity and heritage of the Assamese people. The Union Cabinet in
January approved the setting up of a High Level Committee for implementation of Clause 6 of
the Assam Accord and measures envisaged in the Memorandum of Settlement, 2003 and other
issues related to Bodocommunity.
• The Committee shall examine the effectiveness of actions since 1985 to implement Clause 6 of
the Assam Accord. The Committee 1985 to implement Clause 6 of the Assam Accord. The
Committee will holddiscussions with all stakeholders and assess the required quantum of
reservation of seats in Assam Legislative Assembly and local bodies for Assamese people. The
Committee will also assess the requirement of measures to be taken to protect Assamese and
other indigenous languages of Assam, quantum of reservation in employment under Government
of Assam and other measures to protect, preserve and promote cultural, social, linguistic identity
and heritage of Assamese people.
3) C
Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new
states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names
of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution
under Article 368. Change in representation of seats of states in Rajya Sabharequires both an
amendment and ratification by half the states as provided under Article 368. The Supreme Court
in the BerubariUnion case held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under
Article 3) does not cover Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under Article 3) does not
cover cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. Hence, Indian territory can be ceded to a
foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368. However, the Supreme Court
in 1969 ruled that, settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country does not
require a constitutional amendment. It can be done by executive action as it does not involve
cession of Indian territory to a foreign country.
4) A
• Indian census considers an area as urban only if it fulfillsthefollowingcriteria: (a) The
population of the settlement should be 5000 or more (b) Densityofatleast400personspersq.km (c)
Atleast 75% of the male workers engaged in non agriculturaloccupations
• By the 74th Amendment Act, 1992, Article
• By the 74th Amendment Act, 1992, Article 243P(c) of the Constitution defines „metropolitan
areas‟ as those having “population of ten lakhs [a million] or more, comprised in one or more
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districts and consisting of two or more municipalities/panchayats/ other contiguous areas,
specified by the governor through public notificationtobeametropolitanarea”.
5) C
• Indirect elections are held to fill seats in RajyaSabha through proportional representation via
Single Transferable Vote. A single election for a number of seats in a state is held when these
MPs have completed their RajyaSabhaterms. When a seat falls vacant in circumstances such as
now (casual vacancies), each vacancy is filled by a separate election.
• In its press note announcing the separate vacancies, the Election Commission said this is “in
conformity with provisions of Sections 147 to 151 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
and has been Representation of the People Act, 1951 and has been consistent practice of the
Commission in such cases.” It also referred to two Delhi High Court rulings in favour of separate
elections, in 1994 and 2009.
• The cases cited by the EC were A K WaliavsUnion of India & Others, andSatyaPal
MalikvsEC.The High Court upheld the EC decision in both. In the former case in 1994, the court
dismissed a petition by a Congress MLA from Delhi who had argued that if one election was
held for three seats, the possibility could not be ruled out that the result could be different from
the outcome from three different elections.
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ECONOMY
Questions
1) Consider the following statements regarding kimberley process.

1. India is hosting this year‟s inter-sessional meeting of Kimberley Process in Delhi
2. Kimberley is a city situated in South Africa
3. Kimberley Process is open to all countries
Which of these options is/are incorrect:
a) 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
2) Which of the statements is true in the context of WTO?
1. Kazakhstan is organizing the Twelfth Ministerial Conference (MC12) to be held in 2020.
2. The previous Ministerial Conference (MC11) was held in Geneva in December 2017.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both are correct
d) None is correct
3) Which of the following statements are true about kaladan multimodal transit transport project?
1. India, Myanmar and Bangladesh are involved in this project.
2. Sea and Railways are the only modes of transport proposed under this project
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both are correct
d) None is correct
4) Which of the following statements is incorrect:
a) The APEDA was established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and
Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the by the Parliament in
December 1985.
b) APEDA has been entrusted with the responsibility to monitor import of sugar
c) APEDA comes under the ambit of Ministry of Agriculture
d) APEDA replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC)
5) Which of the following given statements is/are correct:
1. The Shanghai Five mechanism created in 1996 had China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia
and Tajikistan as its members.
2. The declaration of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation was signed in 2001 with Uzbekistan as
its member.
3. India and Pakistan became SCO‟s full members in the year 2017.
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
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https://youtu.be/JzkAPhSfqXI?list=PLYSuG-KZy7JB0ntaozbKLnni_iYiKGOPk
Explanations
1) C
KIMBERLEY PROCESS
India is hosting this year‟s inter-sessional meeting of Kimberley Process in Mumbai.
We discussed this in today‟s PreCure.
2) A
ABOUT WTO
1) Kazakhstan is organizing the Twelfth Ministerial Conference (MC12) to be held in 2020.
2) The previous Ministerial Conference (MC11) was held in Buenos Aires in December 2017.
3) D
KALADAN MULTIMODAL TRANSIT TRANSPORT PROJECT India & Myanmar are
involved in this project. It involves all the modes of transport,that is,road,rail,waterways and sea.
Discussed in today‟s PreCure.
4) C
APEDA
It comes under the ambit of Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The Agricultural and Processed
Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) was established by the Government of
India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act
passed by the Parliament in December, 1985.
APEDA
APEDA is mandated with the responsibility of export promotion and development of the
following scheduled products:
• Fruits, Vegetables and their Products.
• Meat and Meat Products.
• Poultry and Poultry Products.
• Dairy Products.
• Confectionery, Biscuits and Bakery Products.
• Honey, Jaggery and Sugar Products.
• Cocoa and its products, chocolates of all kinds.
• Alcoholic and Non-Alcoholic Beverages.
• Cereal and Cereal Products.
• Groundnuts, Peanuts and Walnuts.
• Pickles, Papads and Chutneys.
• Guar Gum.
• Floriculture and Floriculture Products.
• Herbal and Medicinal Plants. In addition to this, APEDA has been entrusted with the
responsibility to monitor import of sugar.
5) D
SCO Founded in 2001 in Shanghai 8 members: China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia,
Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, India and Pakistan
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Started as Shanghai Five (First Five mentioned above)
HQ : Beijing, China
2015 - SCO decided to admit India and Pakistan as full members They joined as full members in
2017 in Astana, Kazakhstan, June 2017
Main activities Cooperation on security, military activities, and economic and cultural
cooperation, Regional Antiterrorism Structure (RATS)
Latest Summit: Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan.
13
ENVIRONMENT
Questions
1) The IUCN Status of Dugong is :-

a) Endangered
b) Critically Endangered
c) Vulnerable
2) Which of the following correctly defines microplastics?
a) Particles smaller than 5 millimetres in length
b) Particles smaller than 10 millimetres in length
c) Particles smaller than 5 centimetres in length
d) Particles smaller than 5 centimetres in length
3) Consider the following
1. Solar Energy
2. Wind Energy
3. Bio Energy
4. Small Hydro Energy
Arrange the above in descending order with respect to their installed capacities in the country.
a) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4
b) 2 >1 > 3 > 4
c) 1 > 2 > 4 > 3
d) 2 >1 > 4 > 3
4) The IUCN status of African subspecies of chimpanzee (Pan troglodytes verus) is:-
a) Critically Endangered
b) Endangered
c) Vulnerable
d) Near Threatened
5) Consider the following statements about Ocean deoxygenation or oxygen decline :-
1. Hypoxic areas are defined as regions where oxygen below 60 umol/kg.
2. Climate change reduces the ability of ocean to hold oxygen, leading to an oxygen decline.
3. Warmer ocean temperatures increase oxygen demand from organisms further leading to oxygen
decline.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
6) Renewable 2019 Global Status Report (GSR) has been released by:-
a) International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)
b) REN21
c) European Solar Thermal Electricity Association (ESTELA)
d) Renewable Energy Association (REA)
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https://youtu.be/6AxfLCQJ1oQ?list=PLYSuG-KZy7JB0ntaozbKLnni_iYiKGOPk
Explanations
1) C
The dugong is a species of marine mammal similar to the American manatee and can grow to
about 3.4 meters (11 feet) in length. Its conservation status is listed as vulnerable by the
International Union for the Conservation of Nature. https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-
and-environment/thai-vets-nurturelost-baby-dugong-with-milk-and-grass/article27951038.ece
The dugong is a medium-sized marine mammal. It is one of four living species of the order
Sirenia, which also includes three species of manatees. It is the only living representative of the
once-diverse family Dugongidae; its closest modern relative, Steller's sea cow, was hunted to
extinction in the 18th century. The dugong is the only sirenian in its range, which spans the
waters of some 40 countries and territories throughout the Indo-West Pacific. The dugong is
largely dependent on seagrass communities for subsistence and is thus restricted to the coastal
habitats which support seagrass meadows.
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2) A
Plastic is a versatile, multi-utility substance used throughout the world. It is susceptible to
disintegration into smaller particles and particles smaller than 5 millimetres are termed
microplastics. Microplastics are omnipresent: they are in the water, soil and even air. However,
there is very little information on the source of different type of microplastics. For instance, one
study has reported that certain cosmetics containing micro-beads is a major source of granular
plastic, while another study has found that a single shirt made of polyester releases
approximately 1900 microplastic fibres during every wash. At present, there is no
internationally accepted method for estimation of microplastic content in the soil.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/science/microplasticpollution-load-on-seashore-
linked-with-coastal-cities-populationsize-study/article27149810.ece
3) B
A total of 74.79 GW of renewable energy capacity has been installed in the country as on
31/12/2018 which includes 25.21 GW from Solar, 35.14 GW from Wind, 9.92 GW from Bio
power, 4.52 GW from Small Hydro Power.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1573837
A target of installing 175 GW of renewable energy capacity by the year 2022 has been set, which
includes 100 GW from solar, 60 GW from wind, 10 GW from bio-power and 5 GW from small
hydro power.
4) A
In 2016, the International Union for Conservation of Nature listed the western African
subspecies of chimpanzee (Pan troglodytes verus) as “Critically Endangered”. It had previously
been listed as “Endangered”. This change of status reflected dramatic declines in population
numbers, of 80% over 24 years. And the outlook for this ape subspecies‟ future is not good. The
IUCN predicted declines of 6 per cent per annum if threats to the chimpanzees weren‟t urgently
averted. These threats are complex. Most of the species lives outside protected areas in West
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Africa. This means they are susceptible to extinction because of rapid land conversion that‟s
driven especially by large-scale development projects. Chimpanzees need wild resources for
food and nesting; they mostly eat fruit and typically make a new nest in a tree every night to
sleep in. Although chimpanzees are highly intelligent and adaptable, their ability to survive in
environments impacted by humans depends on several important factors.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/action-is-needed-to-save-westafrica-
s-critically-endangered-chimpanzees-65031
5) D
Ocean deoxygenation refers to the loss of oxygen from the oceans due to climate change. Long-
term ocean monitoring shows that oxygen concentrations in the ocean have declined during the
20th century, and the new IPCC 5th Assessment Report (AR5 WG1) predicts that they will
decrease by 3-6% during the 21st century in response to surface warming. While 3-6% doesn‟t
seem like much, this decrease will be felt acutely in hypoxic and suboxic areas, where oxygen is
already limiting. “Hypoxic” areas are defined as regions where oxygen limitation is detrimental
to most organisms. This threshold differs across the world, but is usually defined as anything
below 60 umol/kg. Hypoxic zones have oxygen concentrations 70-90% lower than the mean
surface concentrations. “Suboxic” areas are areas where oxygen is so low (less than 5 umol/kg)
that most life cannot be sustained and significant biogeochemical changes occur due to altered
water chemistry. Suboxic zones have oxygen concentrations 98% lower than the mean surface
concentrations. A recent study found that a 1°C warming throughout the upper ocean will result
in the increase of hypoxic areas by 10% and a tripling of the volume of suboxic waters. To put
this in context, a highly optimistic emissions scenario of atmospheric CO2 levels of 550 ppm by
2100 would lead to a 1.2°C warming of the upper ocean.
Oxygen content in the water is dependent on photosynthesis (produces oxygen), animal

respiration (uses oxygen), and physical mixing. Ocean warming is reducing global ocean oxygen
content through several key mechanisms including - Stratification impacts: Anthropogenic
warming causes surface waters to become warmer and thereby less dense, leading to a more
stratified (layered) water column, which reduces mixing. Other impacts of climate change to the
water cycle can also lead to a more stratified water column. These include inputs of freshwater to
the ocean from rain, river runoff, or melting ice.
Warming effects: As a physical rule, warmer water holds less oxygen. As the surface waters
warm due to climate change, the ocean loses its ability to hold oxygen, leading to an oxygen
decline.
Biological effects: Changes to the biological use and production of oxygen can lead to changes
in oxygen content in the water. Warmer ocean temperatures increase oxygen demand from
organisms. Increased nutrient inputs (either through coastal runoff or through upwelling) also
lead to more oxygen depletion at mid-depths (100-1000m).
Circulation changes: Changes in ocean circulation are also implicated with some of the observed
declines in dissolved oxygen (Grantham et al. 2004). Slowing circulation and increased
upwelling of oxygen-poor deep-water can lead to reductions in oxygen.
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https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/largermarine-invertebrates-more-
vulnerable-to-ocean-deoxygenation65114
6) B
Renewable energy‟s share in power consumption is increasing undoubtedly, but people would
have consumed more had policy makers prioritised the sector, according to REN21‟s Renewable
2019 Global Status Report (GSR) released on June 18, 2019. Erratic policy decisions kept the
world from using the sector to its potential in meeting climate change targets, added the report. In
India, which ranked fourth globally for new investment in renewable energy in 2018, the
investment decreased 16 per cent compared to 2017, read the report by the think tank that focuses
on renewable energy policy. REN21 is made up of a worldwide community of players from
governments, intergovernmental and non-governmental organisations, industry, science and
academia, REN21 is a global network providing high-quality, up-to-date information to shape the
energy debate.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/energy/bad-policy-decisions-in-2018impacted-renewable-
energy-growth-report-65137
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INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
Questions
1) “Windrush Scheme‟ for citizenship has been proposed by which of the following countries?
a) Saudi Arabia
b) United Arab Emirates
c) United Kingdom
d) United States of America
2) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in the context of Global Peace Index (GPI)?
1. India‟s ranking has improved significantly over the previous 5 years.
2. Afghanistan is declared as the least peaceful country
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3) In the context of G20 Summit, which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
1. India is going to host the G20 summit in 2020.
2. G20 economies account for nearly 90% of the gross world product and two thirds of the world
population.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
4) Kimberley Process is related to which of the following?
a) Peace in Afghanistan
b) Conflict diamonds
c) Illegal trade of endangered animals
d) Climate Change
5) In the context of CICA, which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
1. India has been one of the founding member of the conference.
2. The decisions in CICA are taken by the majority vote.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
https://youtu.be/POl0SIis0JI?list=PLYSuG-KZy7JB0ntaozbKLnni_iYiKGOPk
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Explanations
1) C
Windrush Generation refers to citizens of former British colonies who arrived in the UK before
1973, when the rights of such Commonwealth citizens to live and work in Britain were
substantially curtailed
Indians emerged as one of the largest groups affected, after Caribbean nationals, in the scandal
involving Commonwealth nationals wrongly denied their citizenship rights in Britain
The immigrants referred to under the bracket of 'Windrush Generation' relates to a ship named
'Windrush', which brought Jamaican workers to the UK shores in 1948
Windrush Scheme ensures that members of this generation, their children born in UK and those
who arrived in the UK as minors will be able to apply for citizenship, or other immigration
products free of charge
2) B
India has slipped by four points in annual global index on peacefulness, finishing at 141 among
163 countries, released by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP)
GPI presents the most comprehensive data driven analysis to date on peace, its economic value,
trends, and how to develop peaceful societies
India‟s rank has moved down to 141 in 2019 from 136 in 2018
In 2019 report, the average level of global peacefulness improved for the first time in five years.
However, despite improvement, the world remains considerably less peaceful now than a decade
ago
The report also includes new research on the possible effects of climate change on peace
Afghanistan is now the least peaceful country, replacing Syria

3) B
G-20 is a grouping of the world‟s 20 major economies. Collectively, they account for nearly 90%
of the gross world product, 80% of world trade, twothirds of the world population, and
approximately half of the world land area.
India will host the G-20 summit in 2022. Italy was to host the international forum in 2022, but
since the year marks the 75th anniversary of India‟s Independence, so Italy allowed India to play
the host
G-20 members comprise Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, the European Union, France,
Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea,
Turkey, the UK and the U.S.
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Spain is a permanent guest invitee
4) B
The Kimberley Process (KP) unites administrations, civil societies, and industry in reducing the
flow of conflict diamonds - „rough diamonds used to finance wars against governments‟ - around
the world
India holds currently the chair of KP, which oversees the implementation of KPCS
KP members are responsible for stemming 99.8% of the global production of conflict diamonds
5) A
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GEOGRAPHY
Questions
1) Which of the following is matched incorrectly?

1. GOLDEN TRIANGLE : Myanmar, Laos, and Thailand
2. GOLDEN CRESCENT: Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2) Whic of the following are true with regard to Krem Puri?
1. It is the longest limestone cave in the world
2. It is located in the state of Meghalaya
3. It is located in the district of Mawsynram which is the wettest place on earth
4. Krem Puri cave system also has fossils of dinosaurs, especially Mosasaurus, a giant reptile that
lived 66-76 million years ago
a) 1,2 and 3 only
b) 2,3 and 4 only
c) None of the above
d) All of the above
3) Kalahari Desert lies in :
1. Angola
2. Namibia
3. South Africa
4. Botswana
5. Zambia
a) 1,4 and 5 only
b) 1,2,3 and 4 only
c) 2,3 and 4 only
d) 1,2 and 3 only
4) Consider the following statements:
- This layer of earth‟s crust makes up about 85% of the volume of the earth
- Its density varies between 3.4-3.5 g/cubic cm to 5.5 g/ cubic cm
- It contains dense, coarse grained igneous rocks mostly made of minerals like olivine and
Pyroxene
Which layer of earth is explained here?
a) Crust
b) Mantle
c) Outer Core
d) Inner Core
5) Match the following:
a. San or Bushman tribe i. Sahara desert
b. Tuaregs ii. Central Asia
c. Tatars iii. Kalahari desert
22
a) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
b) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
c) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
d) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
https://youtu.be/kiW0VJq7rBw?list=PLYSuG-KZy7JB0ntaozbKLnni_iYiKGOPk
23
Explanations
1) D
GOLDEN TRIANGLE
• It is the region between the borders of Myanmar, Laos, and Thailand; a famous region for its
opium production.
GOLDEN CRESCENT:
• It is the second major area of illicit opium production in Asia spanning across three nations;
Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan. It is located at the crossroads of Central, South and Western
Asia.
2) B
• The world‟s longest sandstone cave named Krem Puri was discovered near Laitsohum village
in Mawsynram area in East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya. The cave is 24,583 metres (24.5
km) in length and is known for its complex cave systems hidden under its undulating hills. Krem
Puri underground cavern is more than 6,000 metres longer than world record-holder Cueva Del
Saman in Edo Zulia, Venezuela, a quartzite sandstone cave measuring 18,200 metres (18.2km).
This sandstone cave is also India‟s second longest cave in general category after limestone Krem
Liat Prah-Umim-Labit system measuring little over 31 km in Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya. Krem
Puri cave system also has fossils of dinosaurs, especially Mosasaurus, a giant reptile that lived
66-76 million years ago.
3) C
4) B
24
The mantle extends from Moho‟s discontinuity (35 km) to a depth of 2,900 km (Moho-
Discontinuity to the outer core).
The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from
10-200 km. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere. It is in solid state. The density
of mantle varies between 2.9 and 3.3. The density ranges from 3.3 to 5.7 in the lower part. It is
composed of solid rock and magma. It forms 83 per cent of the earth‟s volume. The outer layer
of the mantle is partly simatic while the inner layer is composed of wholly simatic ultra-basic
rocks.
5) C
a.San or Bushman tribe iii. Kalahari desert
b. Tuaregs i. Sahara desert
c. Tatars ii. Central Asia
25

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