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1000 GK Questions RRB NTPC 2019 PDF
1000 GK Questions RRB NTPC 2019 PDF
40. In the field of religion Akbar’s greatest 56. Tamerlane invaded India during the reign of
contribution was in his 1) Firoz Tughlak 2) Mahmud Tughlak
1) founding of a new religion 3) Muhammad-bin –Tuglak 4) Daulat Khan
2) expansion of his father’s religion 57. When did Sher Shah Suri overthrow Humayun?
3) the building of temples and mosques 1) 1540 2) 1539
4) none of the above 3) 1526 4) 1556
41. Who constructed the Baoli at Goindwal? 58. From Delhi Muhammad-bin-Tughlak
1) Guru Arjun Dev 2) Guru Amar Das transferred his Capital to
3) Guru Angad Dev 4) Bahi Gurdas 1) Warrangal 2) Daultabad
3) Fatehpur Sikri 4) Ahmednagar
59. Who founded the city of Amritsar? 73. Who, amongst the following saints of ‘Bhakti
1) Guru Ramdas 2) Mian Mir Cult,’ hailed from Bengal?
3) Guru Arjun Dev 4) Shahjahan 1) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu 2) Kabir
60. When was the holy Guru Granth Sahib 3) Ramanand 4) Ramanujacharyulu
compiled? 74. The Slave Dynasty Sultans were
1) 1604 2) 1606 1) Afghans 2) Arabs
3) 1696 4) 1675 3) Ilbari Turks 4) Persians
61. Who built Humayun’s mausoleum at Delhi? 75. ‘Buland Darwaza’ was built by Akbar to
1) Haji Begum 2) Akbar commemorate his victory over
3) Sher Shah Suri 4) Jahangir 1) Gujarat 2) Bengal
62. Who was the most distinguished Hindi poet of 3) Orissa 4) None of these
Akbar’s court? 76. Who was the founder of the first Sufi order in
1) Birbal India?
2) Abdur Rahim Khan-I-Khana 1) Khwaja Qutub-ud-din Bakhtiar Kaki
3) Raja Bhagwan Das 4) Raja Man Singh 2) Sheikh Nizam-ud-din Auliya
63. Who united all Sikhs to form a Sikh Kingdom in 3) Khwaja Muinud-din Chisti
Punjab? 4) Sheikh Nasir-ud-din Mahamud
1) Banda Bahaur 2) Guru Gobind Singh 77. The correct chronological order of the four
3) Nawab Jassa Singh dynasties is
4) Maharaja Ranjit Singh 1) Lodhi, Tughlak, Slave and Khilji
64. Which was the capital of Shivaji’s kingdom? 2) Tughlak, Slave, Khilji and Lodhi
1) Raigad 2) Pune 3) Slave, Khilji, Tughlak and Lodhi
3) Surat 4) Purandhar 4) Khilji, Slave, Lodhi and Tughlak
65. The G.T. Road was built during the reign of 78. The name of Jahangir as a prince was
1) East India Company 2) British Government 1) Shahjahan 2) Salim
3) Sher Shah Suri 4) Hasan Khan Sur 3) Dara 4) Mirza
66. Lachman Das, Lachman Dev and Madho Das 79. The Mughal Emperor in India who gave Surat
are the name variants of which person? to the British East India Company was
1) Ranjit Singh 2) Maha Singh 1) Babar 2) Akbar
3) Banda Singh Bahadur 4) Nawab Kapur Singh 3) Jahangir 4) Aurangzeb
67. The Mughal dynastry in India was founded in 80. Ranthambhor was
1) 1556 2) 1536 1) A Mughal palace 2) A Rajpur fort
3) 1526 4) 1546 3) Capital of the Khiljis
68. The Battle of Plassey was won by the English 4) A Buddhist pilgrimage centre
due to the 81. Tansen, the greatest musician of Akbar’s court,
1) Valour of Robert Clive belonged to
2) Treachery of Mir Jaffar 1) Gwalior 2) Kannauj
3) Superiority of the English troops 3) Delhi 4) Agra
4) Withdrawal of the French support 82. During whose reign was Moti Masjid built at
69. Who was the first Muslim ruler of Delhi? Agra?
1) Iltutmish 2) Qutab-ud-din Aibek 1) Iltutmish
3) Babar 4) Ala-ud-din Khilji 2) Akbar
70. Who, among the following dynasties, had their 3) Aram Shah 4) Shaha Jahan
capital at Madurai? 83. Sir Thomas Roe was sent by the British to
1) Cholas 2) Pallavas India during the reign of
3) Pandyas 4) Rashrakutas 1) Akbar 2) Humayun
71. Who amongst the following Mughals, is 3) Jahangir 4) Aurangzeb
regarded more as an adventurer than a real 84. Which of the following is the correct
ruler? chronological order of the Slave dynasty
1) Jahangir 2) Akbar rulers?
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3) An enzyme which can only act in acidic medium is 14) ATP formation during photosynthesis is known
a) pepsin b) trypsin as
c) rennin d) amylase a) phosphorylation b) photophosphorylation
c) oxidative phosphorylation
4) The part of digestive system where no digestion d) substrate level phosphorylation
occurs
a) duodenum b) esophagus 15) Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so
c) stomach d) mouth because
a) it does not require light energy
5) Which of the following animals has no need for a b) cannot occur during daytime
gall bladder? c) occurs more rapidly at night
a) horse b) lion d) it can also occur in darkness
c) dog d) human
16) Which of the following is connected with
6) About how much saliva does a person produce transport of water in plants?
each day? a) phloem b) xylem
a) 100 ml b) 250 ml c) epidermis d) cambium
c) 500 ml d) 1500 ml
17) The ultimate cause for movement of water
7) Saliva has the enzyme against gravity in a tree is
a) pepsin b) ptyalin a) osmosis b) imbibitions
c) trypsin d) rennin c) transpiration d) photosynthesis
8) Curdling of milk in the stomach is due to the 18) Which of the following is not an example of a
action of selectively permeable membrane?
a) pepsin b) rennin a) plasma lemma b) cell Wall
c) HCL d) rennin c) mitochondrial membrane
d) chloroplast membrane
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9) Pepsinogen is secreted by
a) gastric glands b) intestinal glands 19) Which of the following is responsible for
c) chief cells d) parietal cells guttation?
a) root pressure b) transpiration
10) Pancreas has c) photosynthesis d) osmosis
a) only endocrine cells
b) only one type of cell, the same functioning both in an 20) Phenyl mercuric acetate
exocrine and endocrine fashion a) reduces transpiration rate
c) two types of cells-exocrine and endocrine b) reduces photosynthesis
d) only exocrine cells c) kills the plant d) reduce respiration
11) Largest gland in human body is 21) Which of the following has no blood but
a) liver b) pancreas respires?
c) pituitary d) thyroid a) earthworm b) hydra
c) cockroach d) fish 35) Mountain sickness results due to
a) anaemic hypoxia b) arterial hypoxia
22) Which type of respiratory organs are present in c) lack of sufficient RBCs d) lack of sufficient WBCs
spiders and scorpions?
a) book lungs b) gill books 36) Which one of the following is the most common
c) gills d) lungs type of transpiration?
a) stomatal b) lenticular
23) At high altitude, RBCs of human blood will c) foliar d) cuticular
a) increase in number b) decrease in number
c) decrease in size d) increase in size 37) The process of the escape of liquid from the tip
of uninjured leaf or through hydathodes is called
24) Vocal cords occur in a) transpiration b) guttation
a) pharynx b) glottis c) evapo-transpiration d) evaporation
c) bronchial tube d) larynx
38) In a closed circulatory system, blood is
25) Which one of the following structures closes the completely enclosed within
respiratory passage during ingestion of food? a) the skeleton b) sinuses
a) larynx b) epiglottis c) vessels d) hearts
c) hard palate d) soft palate
39) The smallest blood vessel in the body is a
26) The covering of lungs is called a) capillary b) artery
a) pericardium b) pleural membrane c) vena cava d) vein
c) perichondrium d) peritoneum
40) Both erythrocytes and leucocytes are formed in
27) The narrowest and most numerous tubes of the
lungs are termed as a) bone marrow b) thymus
a) bronchus b) alveoli c) arterial walls d) lymph nodes
c) bronchioles d) hilum
41) An erythrocyte lives for approximately
28) The exchange of gases in a mammal takes place a) one week b) one month
is c) four months d) one year
a) trachea b) bronchioles
c) bronchi d) alveoli 42) The abnormal increase in the total RBC count is
referred to as
29) Volume of air inspired and expired with each a) pneumonia b) polycythemia
normal breath is called c) leucopenia d) anaemia
a) tidal volume b) inspiratory capacity
c) total lung capacity d) residual volume 43) The life span of human WBC is normally
a) 12–13 days b) 80-90 days
30) Tidal volume of air in a normal healthy man c) 100-120 days d) 20-30 days
during inspiration is about
a) 300 – 400 ml b) 500 – 700 ml 44) The function of vitamin K is in
c) 900 – 1000 ml d) 100 – 250 ml a) regulation of calcium and phosphorus metabolism
b) blood clotting c) respiration
31) The maximum possible volume of air, which can d) carbohydrate metabolism
be inspiration, is called as
a) tidal air volume b) vital lung capacity 45) Oxygenated blood is carried by
c) complemental air volume a) pulmonary vein b) pulmonary artery
d) total lung capacity c) hepatic portal vein d) renal vein
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32) Percentage of O2 present in inhaled air in man is 46) In mammals, oxygenated blood enters the heart
about at the
a) 21% b) 78% a) right atrium b) left atrium
c) 1% d) 43% c) right ventricle d) left ventricle
33) Oxygen is transported in blood mainly by 47) Which chamber of the heart has the thickest
a) leucocytes b) erythrocytes muscular walls
c) thromobocytes d) blood plasma a) right atrium b) left atrium
c) right ventricle d) left ventricle
34) Asthma is a respiration disease caused due to
a) infection of trachea b) infection of lungs 48) When the right ventricle of heart contracts, the
c) bleeding into pleura cavity blood goes to
d) spasm in bronchial muscles a) all parts of the body b) Pulmonary arteries
c) aorta d) lungs c) left kidney at a higher level than the right one
d) right kidney at a higher level than the left one
49) The tricuspid valve occurs between the
a) right auricle and right ventricle 61) Function of glomerulus in mammalian kidney is
b) pulmonary aorta a) reasbsorption of salts
c) carotico-systemic aorta and left ventricle b) urine formation through blood filtration
d) left ventricle c) urine collection d) all of the above
50) Typical ‘lub-dub’ sound heard in heartbeat are 62) The reabsorption of glucose in a nephron occurs
due to in
a) closing of bicuspid and tricuspid valves a) loop of Henle
b) closing of semilunar valves b) first half of proximal tubule
c) closure of bicuspid-tricuspid valves followed by semilunar c) distal convoluted tubule
valves d) proximal part of collecting ducts
d) blood under pressure through aorta
63) Strongest cartilage is
51) What is blood pressure? a) hyaline cartilage b) fibrous cartilage
a) the pressure of blood on the heart muscle c) elastic cartilage d) none of the above
b) the pressure of blood exerted on the walls of arteries and
veins 64) Striated muscles are found in
c) the pressure of blood on the walls of veins only a) gallbladder b) wall of bladder
d) the pressure of blood on the walls of arteries only c) leg muscles d) lungs
52) Which one of following is called pace maker of 65) Strongest muscle in the body is present in
the heart? a) arm b) jaw
a) SA node b) AV node c) thigh d) neck
c) Chordae tendianae d) AV septum
66) Axial skeleton in man is made up of
53) Blood groups in man were discovered by a) 126 bones b) 100 bones
a) Mendel b) Francis Nelson c) 103 bones d) 80 bones
c) S. Miller d) Landsteiner
67) Skull of man is made up of
54) Rh factor was discovered by a) 10 bones b) 22 bones
a) William Harvey b) Landsteiner c) 30 bones d) 24 bones
c) Robert Hook d) C. De Duve
68) Longest bone is that of
55) Rh factor is named after a) humerus b) stapes
a) Drosophila b) a Monkey c) femur d) radio-ulna
c) a Rat d) a Man
69) In man ribs are attached to
56) Excretion means a) calvicle b) ileum
a) removal of substances present in excess c) sternum d) scapula
b) formation of those substances that have some role in the
body 70) The smallest bone in mammals is
c) removal of such substances that have never been part of a) septomaxillary b) dentary
the body c) femur d) stapes
d) all of the above
71) The longest cell in the body of an animal is
57) A mammal excretes nitrogen in the form of a) osteocytes b) neuron
a) ammonium ions b) amino acids c) chromatophores d) lymph corpuscles
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78) Pituitary gland is found in 90) Bark of which plant yields famous drug of
a) around trachea b) gonad malaria?
c) pancreas d) brains a) cinchona b) quercus
c) betula d) eucalyptus
79) Which of the hormones is responsible for the
emotional state such as fear and anger and causes 91) Deficiency of vitamin C causes
rise of blood pressure and rate of heartbeat? a) rickets b) beriberi
a) insulin b) adrenaline c) scurvy d) night blindness
c) progesterone d) thyroxine
92) If there were no ultraviolet rays reaching the
80) The main function of plasma membrane is to earth, human should suffer from deficiency of
a) maintain cell shape and size a) fatty acids b) essential amino acids
b) control of all cellular activity c) vitamin D d) vitamin E
c) regulate the flow of materials into and out of the cell
d) store cell material 93) Smog is a combination of
a) fire and water b) smoke and fog
81) Function of a Centriole is c) water and smoke d) air and water
a) formation of spindle fibers
b) formation of nucleolus 94) Sound becomes a hazardous noise pollution if its
c) initiation of cell division level is a above
d) formation of cell plate a) 30 Db b) 120 dB
c) 80 dB d) 150 Db
82) Functional activities of a cell are controlled by
a) nucleus b) nucleolus 95) Maximum threat to the world is from (among the
c) mitochondria d) cytoplasm following)
a) global warming b) ozone hole
83) Study of Algae is called c) water pollution d) soil erosion
a) phycology b) mycology
c) dendrology d) mycology 96) Which of the following is the symbol of the metal
that occurs in liquid form at ordinary temperature?
84) Which of the following is a non-poisonous a) Na b) Sn
snake? c) Pb d) Hg
a) cobra b) python
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101) Random Movement of particles was discovered 114) Which of the following acid is used by
by goldsmiths for cleaning gold and silver ornaments?
a) Robert Brown b) E. Goldstein a) HCL b) H2SO4
c) James Chadwick d) Wilhein Weins c) HNO3 d) H3PO4
102) Scattering of light by colloidal particles is 115) Which order of relative size amongst the
known as following is incorrect?
a) Tyndall effect b) Brownian motion a) Li < Na < K b) C < Si < Al
c) reflection d) rectilinear propagation c) Mg > Al < Na d) F < Cl < Br
103) Which of the following non-metals occur in 116) Which one of the following has the smallest
liquid form at room temperature? size?
a) bromine b) carbon a) Al b) Al+
c) sulphur d) chlorine c) Al+2 d) Al+3
104) Brass is an example of a ______ 117) Which of the following is an example of fossil
a) homogenous compound fuel?
b) homogenous mixture a) coal gas b) coke
c) heterogeneous mixture c) natural gas d) producer gas
d) heterogeneous compound
118) When steam is passed over hot coke, it
105) Which of the following is not a noble gas? produces
a) helium b) neon a) producer gas b) synthesis gas
c) argon d) hydrogen c) tear gas d) coal gas
106) Which of the following acids is present in sour 119) Producer gas is a mixture of
milk? a) carbon monoxide and nitrogen gas
a) glycolic acid b) lactic acid b) carbon monoxide and hydrogen gas
c) citrus acid d) tartaric acid c) carbon monoxide and water vapour
d) carbon monoxide and nitrous oxide
107) Which of the following acids is called the king
of the acids? 120) Water gas consists of
a) acetic acid b) phosphoric acid a) water vapour and coal dust
c) oxalic acid d) sulphuric acid b) a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
c) a mixture of carbon monoxide and the nitrogen
108) The sharp pain caused by the sting of an ant is d) water vapour and methane.
due to
a) malic acid b) nitric acid 121) The gas used in the welding and cutting of
c) formic acid d) lactic acid metals is
a) ethane b) ethene
109) Vitamin C is an organic acid known as c) ethyne d) propene
a) ascorbic acid b) citrus acid
c) glycolic acid d) acetic acid 122) Coal with largest C content is
a) anthracite b) peat
110) Soaps are sodium salts of c) lignite d) bituminous
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130) The most abundant metal on the earth is 143) Glass used for making wind screens of
a) iron b) gold automobiles is
c) aluminium d) copper a) hard glass b) photo chromatic glass
c) safety glass d) optical glass
131) Aluminium is extracted from
a) hematite b) bauxite 144) Annealing is done to
c) calamine d) magnetite a) increase brittleness b) increase Transparency
c) decrease brittleness d) increase refractive index
132) Metallurgy is the process of
a) extracting metals from the Ore 145) Steel is preferred over iron in construction of
b) roasting the Ore c) liquefaction of nitrogen ships because
d) adding carbon to the Ore in blast furnace a) melting point of steel is higher than Iron
b) steel is more uniform than Iron
133) A metal, which melts on the palm c) steel does not rust
a) potassium b) sodium d) tensile strength of steel is not high
c) gallium d) zinc
146) The carbon content in steel is
134) The process of protecting iron by coating with a) 0.1 – 5.0% b) 2.0 – 2.5%
Zinc. c) 0.1 – 1.5% d) less than 0.1
a) smelting b) galvanising
c) rusting d) corrosion 147) Permanent magnets can be made from
a) Ni steel b) cobalt steel
135) A lustrous non-metal is c) stainless steel d) wrought iron
a) diamond b) iodine
c) sulphur d) phosphorus 148) The main constituents of cement are:
a) calcium oxide, silicon dioxide, Aluminium oxide
136) Sodium is a b) calcium oxide, Iron oxide, Sulphur dioxide
a) silvery white and very soft metal c) magnesium oxide, Silicon dioxide, Aluminium oxide
b) colourless and hard metal d) none of these
c) silvery white and very hard metal
d) colourless and very soft metal 149) A thick paste of cement, sand and water is
called
137) Which of the following is used for making a) concrete b) mortar
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207) The frequency of a wave is 5 Hz. It refers to 221) Which of the following is a non-luminous body?
(type of wave) a) fire b) sun
a) ultrasonics b) microwaves c) stars d) earth
c) infrasonics d) radio waves
222) A body which allows most of the light to pass
208) A pulse is a wave through it is called a
a) of high duration b) of short duration a) transparent body b) opaque body
c) which travels in vacuum only c) translucent body d) none of these
d) which travels in solids only
223) During the 19th century, light was considered to
209) Sound travels fastest in be a stream of particles called
a) water b) steel a) atoms b) electrons
c) air d) kerosene oil c) corpuscles d) quantas
210) Which of the following types of waves is 224) Who first proposed that light was wave-like in
different from others? character?
a) Light waves b) X-rays a) Huygens b) Newton
c) Radio waves d) Sound waves c) Young d) Maxwell
211) Waves produced by supersonic jet planes are 225) The screen behind the eye lens is called the
a) shock waves b) seismic waves a) iris b) ciliary muscle
c) infrasonics d) none of these c) retina d) pupil
212) Echo is produced due to 226) The middle vascular coat that darkens the eye
a) reflection of sound b) refraction of sound chamber and prevents refraction by absorbing the
c) resonance d) none of these light rays is
a) choroid b) sclera
213) SONAR is based on the principle of c) retina d) cornea
a) echo b) resonance
c) reverberation d) any one of the above 227) The amount of light entering the eye is
controlled by the
214) The audible range of frequency is a) sclera b) cornea
a) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz b) 40 Hz to 40,000 Hz c) iris d) crystalline lens
c) 60 Hz to 60,000 Hz d) 10 Hz to 20,000 Hz
228) The eye lens is a
215) Which of the following frequencies of sound a) transparent double-convex lens
cannot be heard by human beings? b) transparent double-concave lens
a) 5 Hz b) 20 Hz c) transparent concavo-convex lens
c) 400 Hz d) 1000 Hz d) none of these
216) The mirror used in automobiles to see the rear 229) The eye lens contains a watery liquid called the
field of view is a) aqueous humour b) peroxide
a) concave b) convex c) vitreous humour d) none of these
c) plane d) none of these
230) Long-sightedness is caused by the eyeball
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217) The mirror used in search lights is being too short. It can be corrected by the use of a
a) concave b) convex a) convergent lens b) plane mirror
c) plane d) none of these c) divergent lens d) none of these
218) Shaving mirrors are 231) A lens which is thicker in the middles and
a) convex mirrors b) concave mirrors thinner at the edges is called a _____ lens.
c) plane mirrors d) none of these a) convex b) concave
c) cylindrical d) none of these
219) The laws of reflection are true for
a) the plane mirror only b) the concave mirror only 232) A lens which is thinner at the middles and
c) the convex mirror only d) all reflecting surfaces thicker at the edges is called a _____ lens.
a) convex b) concave
c) cylindrical d) none of these
233) Which of the following lens is used to minimise 246) Trypanosoma is
hypermetropia? a) bacteria b) fungus
a) convex lens b) concave lens c) algae d) protozoa
c) cylindrical lens d) none of these
247) Seeds are called the products of sexual
234) Most of the refraction of light takes place in the reproduction due to
a) iris b) cornea a) it gives rise to new plants
c) pupil d) retina b) formation by fusion of pollen tubes
c) it can survive for longer periods
235) When the light is very bright, d) are formed by fusion of gametes
a) the iris makes the pupil expand
b) the iris makes the pupil contract 248) The most essential organ for fertilization is
c) the iris and the pupil remain as they are a) juicy fruit b) green sepals
d) none of these c) coloured petals d) mature ovule
236) Who discovered by his experiments with glass 249) BCG vaccine is used to protect a child from
prisms that white light consists of seven colours? a) polio b) plague
a) Newton b) Faraday c) dengue d) tuberculosis
c) Maxwell d) Young
250) Bulliform cells are present in
237) Autosomes in humans are paired in a) lower epidermis of monocot leaves
a) 21 pairs b) 24 pairs b) upper epidermis of monocot leaves
c) 22 pairs d) 16 pairs c) dicot stem
d) upper epidermis of dicot leaves
238) The light which refracts most while passing
through a prism is 251) Sebaceous glands are found in
a) red b) violet a) dermis of skin of mammals
c) indigo d) yellow b) epithelium of intestine of frog
c) epithelium of stomach of frog
239) The planet having the largest number of d) epidermis of skin mammals
satellites amongst the following is
a) Jupiter b) Saturn 252) One of the most resistant known biological
c) Uranus d) Mars material is
a) lignin b) hemicelluloses
240) In the absence of his tone proteins in c) sporopollenin d) lignocelluloses
prokaryotes, the an ioinic charges of each inter
nucleotide phosphate in DNA is neutralized by 253) Parthenogenesis is a type of
a) phospholipids b) polyamines a) sexual reproduction b) asexual reproduction
c) polysaccharides d) glycelipids c) budding d) regeneration
241) Phagocytosis and pinocytosis are collectively 254) Which one of the following is not correct about
termed as cathode rays?
a) endocytosis b) suspension feeding a) They are deflected to the positive plate of
c) omnivores d) mucous trap electromagnetic field
b) The nature of cathode rays does not depend upon the
242) Which one of the following is called pacemaker nature of gas taken in the discharge tube
of the heart? c) The nature of cathode rays depends upon the nature of
a) SA node b) AV node gas taken in the discharge tube
c) Chordae tendinae d) AV septum d) Cathode rays are made up of material particles
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243) The life span of human WBCs is normally 255) Cathode rays are produced when high electric
a) 12-13 days b) 80-90 days voltage is applied to the gas held in a discharge tube
c) 100-120 days d) 20-30 days at a pressure of about
a) 10-3 atm b) 10-5 atm
244) Oxygenated bold is carried by c) 1 atm d) 100 atm
a) pulmonary vein b) pulmonary artery
c) hepatic portal vein d) renal vein 256) The electronic configuration of chlorine with
atomic number 17 is
245) The reserve food in fungal cell is a) 2, 8, 7 b) 2, 9, 6
a) glucose b) fructose c) 2, 10, 7 d) 2, 9, 9
c) glycogen d) starch
257) A divalent cation has 10 electrons and 12
neutrons. The atomic number and mass number of
the elements are
a) 12, 24 b) 10, 12 a) Sound travels in straight line
c) 11, 25 d) 8, 12 b) Sound travels in the form of waves
c) Sound is a form of energy
258) Isotopes differ in the number of d) Sound travels faster in vacuum than in air
a) electrons b) protons
c) neutrons d) nucleons 270) A body is thrown vertically upwards with a
velocity ս. Find the true statement from the
259) The only elements having no neutron is following.
a) protium b) deuterium a) Both velocity and acceleration are zero at its highest
c) tritium d) All of these point
b) Velocity is maximum and acceleration is zero at the
260) -particle are highest point.
a) double positive helium nucleus c) Velocity is maximum and acceleration is of downwards at
b) single positive helium nucleus its highest point
c) neutral helium atom d) Velocity is zero at the higher point and maximum height
d) None of these
u2
reached is
261) Neutron was discovered by 2g
a) J J Thomson b) James Chadwick
c) Goldstein d) Rutherford 271) The process of respiration is concerned with
a) liberation of oxygen b) liberation of carbon dioxide
262) Man made synthetic fibre is c) liberation of energy d) intake of oxygen
a) wool b) rayon
c) nylon d) cotton 272) Cyanobacteria are
a) bacteria b) virus
263) Which one of the following statements is not c) algae d) fungi
correct?
a) All metals are solid at room temperature 273) Which one of the following statements is
b) All metals are good conductor of heat and electricity wrong?
c) All metals from basic oxides a) Voltmeter should have high resistance
d) All metals possess luster when freshly prepared b) Ammeter should have low resistance
c) Ammeter is placed in parallel
264) Among metals, the poorest conductor of heat is d) Voltmeter is placed in parallel across the conductor in a
a) lead b) tin circuit
c) bismuth d) mercury
274) A. The resistance of super conductor is zero.
265) The correct order of electrical conductivity is B. The super conductor are used for the transmission
a) Al > Au > Cu > Ag b) Cu > Ag > Al > Au of electric power.
c) Au > Ag > Al > Cu d) Ag > Cu > Au > Al a) A and B are true b) A and B are false
c) A is true and B is false d) A is false and B is false
266) Beakers A, B and C contain zinc sulphate, silver
nitrate and iron (II) sulphate solutions, respectively. 275) The resistivity of a wire
copper pieces are added to each beaker. Blue colour a) increase with the length of the wire
will appear to in case of b) decreases with the area of cross-section
a) beaker A b) beaker B c) decreases with the length and increases with the cross-
c) beaker C d) All the beakers section of a wire
d) None of the above
267) A particle is projected up with an initial velocity
of 80 ft/s. The ball will attain height of 96 ft/s from 276) Ohm’s law is true
the ground after
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a) for gases at low temperature
a) 2.0 and 3.0 s b) Only at 3.0s b) for metallic conductor
c) Only at 2.0 s d) After 1 and 2 s c) for electrolytes when current passes through them
d) for diode when current flows
268) A stone is dropped into water from abridge 44.1
m above the water. Another stone is thrown 277) Which of the following is not an endocrine
vertically downward 1 s later. Both strike the water gland?
simultaneously. What was the initial speed of the a) Salivary gland b) Pituitary gland
second stone? c) Thyroid gland d) Adrenal gland
a) 12.25 m/s a) 14.75 m/s
c) 16.23 m/s d) 17.15 m/s 278) Two rods of same material and length have
their electric resistance to ratio 1 : 2. When both
269) Which one of the following statements is rods are dipped in water, the correct statement will
wrong? be
1) A has more loss of weight b) increasing the temperature
2) B has more loss of weight c) increasing the pressure
3) Both have same loss of weight d) increasing the pressure and lowering the temperature
4) Loss of weight will be in the ratio 1 : 2
289) The term ‘rancidity’ represents
279) The temperature of the Sun is measure with a) acid rain b) oxidation of fatty food
a) platinum thermometer b) gas thermometer c) rottening of fruit
c) pyrometer d) vapour pressure thermometer d) fading of coloured clothes in the sun
280) In case of uniform circular motion, which of the 290) Evaporation of liquid occur at
following physical quantity do not remain constant? a) boiling point
a) Speed b) Momentum b) fixed temperature lower than the boiling point
c) Kinetic energy d) Mass c) all temperature
d) None of the above
281) Inertia is that property of a body by virtue of
which the body is 291) The basic unit of a vertebrate kidney is the
a) unable to change by itself the state, the rest a) ureter b) nephron
b) unable to change by itself the state of uniform motion c) malpighian tubule d) islets of langerhans
c) unable to change by itself the direction of motion
d) unable to change by itself the state of rest and of 292) Largest part of the brain of human being is
uniform linear motion called
a) olfactory lobe b) cerebral hemisphere
282) A rider on horse back falls when horse starts c) corpus callosum d) optic nerve
running all of a sudden because
a) rider is taken back 293) Which part of human brain is more developed
b) rider is suddenly afraid of falling in comparison to others?
c) inertia of rest keeps the upper part of body at rest a) Cerebrum b) Cerebellum
whereas lower part of the body moves forward with the c) Optic lobes d) Medulla oblongata
horse
d) None of the above 294) Hearing is controlled by
a) tyemporal lobes b) cerebrum
283) A person is standing in a elevator. In which c) hypothalamus d) parietal lobe
situation, he finds his weight less than actual when
a) the elevator moves upward with constant acceleration 295) The two kidneys lie
b) the elevator moves downward with constant acceleration a) at the level of ovaries
c) the elevator moves upward with uniform velocity b) at the same level
d) the elevator moves downward with uniform velocity c) left kidney at a higher level than the right one
d) right kidney at a higher level than the left one
284) When the speed of a moving body is doubled
a) its acceleration is doubled 296) Example of analogy is
b) its momentum is doubled a) wings of bird and butterfly
c) its kinetic energy is doubled b) limbs of horse and man
d) its potential energy is doubled c) wings of bat
d) None of the above
285) Which of the following is not a chemical
reaction? 297) Removal of anthers from flowers is the process
a) Souring of milk b) Rusting of iron which is known as
c) Dissolution of sugar in water a) emasculation b) breeding
d) Digestion of food in our body c) manuring d) fallowing
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286) The physical state of water at 100°C is 298) Improved variety of paddy (rice) is
a) solid b) liquid a) Ranjit b) Sonalika
c) gas d) plasma c) Ganga 101 d) Pusa 215
287) Which of the following characteristics are 299) Which one of the following crop doesn’t
associated with gaseous state? required more nitrogen fertilizers?
a) Definite shape, compressible, fixed volume a) Maize b) Paddy
b) Incompressible, fixed shape and size c) Clover (Berseem) d) Sugarcane
c) No fixed shape and size, highly compressible
d) Fixed shape, incompressible, closely packed 300) Which one is used for weeding?
a) Insecticides b) Weedicides
288) A gas can be liquefied by c) Herbicides d) Pesticides
a) lowering the temperature
ANSWER KEY 181
186
C
C
182
187
C
A
183
188
B
B
184
189
B
B
185
190
C
D
191 D 192 D 193 A 194 A 195 A
Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. Q. A. 196 C 197 A 198 D 199 B 200 B
1 B 2 D 3 A 4 B 5 A 201 B 202 A 203 A 204 D 205 B
6 D 7 B 8 B 9 C 10 C 206 D 207 C 208 B 209 B 210 D
11 A 12 C 13 A 14 B 15 A 211 A 212 A 213 A 214 A 215 A
16 B 17 C 18 B 19 A 20 A 216 B 217 A 218 B 219 D 220 D
21 A 22 A 23 A 24 D 25 B 221 D 222 A 223 C 224 A 225 C
26 B 27 C 28 D 29 A 30 B 226 A 227 C 228 A 229 A 230 A
31 B 32 A 33 B 34 D 35 B 231 A 232 B 233 A 234 B 235 B
36 A 37 B 38 C 39 A 40 A 236 A 237 C 238 B 239 B 240 B
41 C 42 B 43 A 44 C 45 A 241 A 242 A 243 A 244 A 245 C
46 B 47 D 48 D 49 A 50 C 246 D 247 D 248 D 249 D 250 A
51 B 52 A 53 D 54 B 55 B 251 A 252 C 253 B 254 C 255 A
56 A 57 C 58 A 59 B 60 C 256 A 257 A 258 C 259 A 260 A
61 B 62 B 63 B 64 C 65 C 261 B 262 C 263 A 264 A 265 D
66 D 67 B 68 C 69 C 70 D 266 B 267 A 268 A 269 D 270 D
71 B 72 D 73 A 74 A 75 B 271 D 272 C 273 C 274 C 275 D
76 D 77 B 78 D 79 B 80 C 276 B 277 A 278 C 279 C 280 B
81 A 82 A 83 A 84 B 85 C 281 D 282 C 283 B 284 B 285 C
86 B 87 C 88 B 89 D 90 A 286 C 287 C 288 D 289 B 290 C
91 C 92 C 93 B 94 C 95 B 291 B 292 B 293 A 294 C 295 C
96 D 97 C 98 B 99 C 100 B 296 A 297 A 298 B 299 C 300 B
101 A 102 A 103 A 104 B 105 D
106 B 107 D 108 C 109 A 110 B
111 B 112 C 113 B 114 C 115 C
116 D 117 C 118 B 119 A 120 B
121 C 122 A 123 D 124 C 125 D
126 B 127 D 128 A 129 B 130 C
131 B 132 A 133 B 134 B 135 B www.exampundit.in
136 A 137 D 138 D 139 C 140 B
141 C 142 A 143 C 144 C 145 C
146 C 147 D 148 A 149 B 150 B
151 A 152 B 153 A 154 B 155 C
156 A 157 A 158 B 159 C 160 D
161 B 162 A 163 B 164 A 165 C
166 D 167 B 168 C 169 B 170 D
171 A 172 C 173 C 174 C 175 C
176 B 177 A 178 B 179 D 180 A
200 QUESTIONS ON INDIAN POLITY
1) Which of the following exercised the most 2. To establish diarchy in the provinces
profound influence in framing the India 3. The extension of provincial government
Constitution? Which of these statements are correct?
1) British Constitution 2) US Constitution 1) 1 and 2 2) 1 and 3
3) Irish Constitution 3) 2 and 3 4) 1, 2 and 3
4) The Government of India Act, 1935 9) Consider the following with reference to the
2) The first attempt to introduce a representative provisions of ‘Government of India Act, 1935’:
and popular element in the governance of India 1. Establishment of an all-Indian Federation
was made through: 2. Provincial autonomy, with a Government responsible
1) Indian Council Acts, 1861 to an elected legislature
2) Indian Council Acts, 1892 3. Redistribution of provinces and the creation of two
3) Indian Council Acts, 1909 new provinces
4) Government of India Act, 1919 Which of these were embodied in the Government India
3) Which of the following acts introduced communal Act, 1935?
electorate in India? 1) 1, 2, and 3 2) 1 and 2
1) Indian Council Act, 1909 3) 2 and 3 4) 1 and 3
2) Indian Council Act, 1892 10) Consider the following statements with reference
3) Indian Council Act, 1892 to the provisions of Morley-Minto Reform Act in
4) Government of India Act, 1935 the Colonial India:
4) By virtue of which Act, diarchy was introduced in 1. The Morley- Minto Reform Act raised the number of
India? additional number of the Central Legislature
1) Indian Council Act, 1909 2. It introduced the principle of communal
2) Government of India Act, 1919 representation in the Legislature
3) Government of India Act, 1935 3. It empowered the Legislation to discuss the budget
4) Indian Independence Act, 1947 and to move resolutions on it
5) The Instrument of instructions contained in the Which of these statements are correct?
Government of India Act, 1935 ha been 1) 1 and 2 2) 2 and 3
incorporated in the Constitution of India in the 3) 1, 2 and 3 4) 1 and 3
year 1950 as – 11) Two independent states of India and Pakistan
1) Fundamental Rights were created by:
2) Directive Principles of the State Policy 1) The Simla Conference 2) The Cripps proposal
3) Fundamental Duties 4) Emergency Provisions 3) The Cabinet Mission Plan
6) The Government of India Act, 1935 was based 4) The Indian Independence Act
on: 12) In the Federation under the Act of 1935
1) the principle of federation and parliamentary system residuary powers were given to the:
2) the principle of succession of the British Indian 1) Federal Legislature 2) Provincial Legislature
provinces 3) Governor General 4) Provincial Governor
3) acceptance of the idea of a Constituent Assembly to 13) Who was the Chairman of the Union Power
draft a constitution Committee of Constituent Assembly of India?
4) None of these 1) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
7) Consider the following Acts: 2) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
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1. The Regulating Act, 1773 2. Pitt’s India Act, 1784 3) Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
3. The Charter Act, 1793 4. Indian Council Act, 4) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
1861 14) What was the basis for constituting the
What is the correct chronological sequence of these Constituent Assembly of India?
Acts? 1) The resolution of Indian National Congress
1) 1, 2, 3, 4 2) 2, 1, 3, 4 2) The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
3) 4, 3, 2, 1 4) 3, 4, 2, 1 3) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
8) Consider the following statements – 4) The resolution of the Provincial / State legislature of
The objective of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of the Dominion of India
1919 was: 15) The Constitution of India was adopted by the
1. To give power to the local government Constituent Assembly of India on –
1) 26th January, 1950 2) 26th January, 1949 2) Sovereignty, territorial Integrity and parliamentary
3) 26th November, 1949 4) 15th August, 1947 system of Government
16) Who presided over the first meeting of the Indian 3) Judicial review and the federal system
Constituent Assembly? 4) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system,
1) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 2) Sachchidananda Sinha judicial review and parliamentary system of government
3) B.R. Ambedkar 4) Jawahar Lal Nehru 27) The Unitary system of Government possesses
17) Who among the following was the advisor to the which of the following advantages?
Drafting Committee of Constituent Assembly? 1) Greater adaptability 2) Strong State
1) B. Shiva Rao 2) B.R. Ambedkar 3) Greater participation by the people
3) Sachchidananda Sinha 4) B.N. Rau 4) Lesser chances of authoritarianism
18) The Constituent Assembly of India held its first 28) Which of the following countries enjoys a federal
meeting on: form of Government?
1) 9th December, 1946 2) 1st January, 1947 1) China 2) USA
th
3) 26 January, 1947 4) 15th August, 1947 3) Cuba 4) Belgium
19) Who among the following was not a member of 29) The English Crown is an example of:
the Constituent Assembly? 1) Real executive 2) Quasi-real executive
1) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 3) Nominal Executive 4) Nominated executive
2) Acharya J.B. Kripalani 30) The declaration that Democracy is a Government
3) Jai Prakash Narayan 4) K.M. Munshi of the people, by the people, for the people’s was
20) Who was the Chairman of the Provincial made by:
Constitution Committee of the Constituent 1) Abraham Lincoln 2) George Washington
Assembly? 3) Theodre Roosevelt 4) Winston Churchill
1) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 2) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru 31) What is Gandhi’s definition of Ram Raj?
3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 4) Sardar Patel 1) Sovereignty of the people based on pure moral
21) The number of members included in the authority
Constitution Drafting Committee was: 2) The rule as it was during the time of Rama
1) Seven 2) Nine 3) The greatest good of all
3) Eleven 4) Thirteen 4) The absolute power concentrated in the hands of a
22) Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting king
Committee of the Constitution? 32) Statement: I. The constitution of India is a liberal
1) Jawahar Lal Nehru 2) B.R. Ambedkar constitution.
3) B.N. Rau 4) Mahatma Gandhi Statement: II. It provides fundamental rights to
23) The Presidential Government operates on the individuals
principle of – Codes: 1) Both the statements are individually true and
1) Division of powers between centre and states statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
2) Centralization of Powers 2) Both the statements are individually true but
3) Balance of Powers 4) Separation of powers statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement
24) Match List-1with List – II and select the correct I.
answer from the codes given below the lists – 3) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
List – I List – II 4) Statement I is false but statement II is true.
(Forms of Government) (Principles) 33) At which of its session, did the Congress officially
A. Presidential system 1. Seperation of powers accept the Socialistic Pattern of Society?
B. Parliamentary system 2.Close relationship 1) Bombay Session of 1953 2) Avadi Session of 1955
between executive and 3) Calcutta Session of 1957 4) Nagpur Session of
legislature 1959
C. Federal System 3. Concentration 34) In Indian Polity which one is Supreme?
D. Unitary System 4. Division of power 1) The Supreme court
Code: A B C D 2) The Constitution
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68) Although union list, state list and concurrent list implicit in the article –
cover the entire legislative business yet there 1) 19 (i) a 2) 19 (i) b
may be an item not mentioned anywhere. Who 3) 19 (i) c 4) 19 (i) d
will legislate on that item? 81) Which article of the constitution of India deals
1) Parliamentary only 2) State legislature only with the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme
3) Both a and b 4) Neither a nor b Court in connection with constitutional cases?
69) Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with 1) Article 131 2) Article 132
Fundamental Rights? 3) Article 132 read with Article 134 A
1) Part I 2) Part II 4) Article 133 read with Article 134 A
3) Part III 4) Part IV 82) The Tenth Schedule of Indian Constitution deals
70) Part IV of constitution of India deals with: with –
1) Fundamental Rights 2) Citizenship 1) Anti-defection Legislation
2) Panchayati Raj 3) Land Reforms 93) Which commission made the recommendations
4) Distribution of powers between the Union and States which formed the basis for the Punjab
83) Which of the constitutional provision lays down Reorganization act which created the states
that taxes can neither be levied nor collected Punjab and Haryana?
without authority of law? 1) Dhar commission 2) Dass commission
1) Article 265 2) Article 266 3) Shah Commission 4) Mahajan Commission
3) Article 300 4) Article 368 94) Article I of the constitution of India declares
84) Functions to be assigned to Panchayats by 73rd India as –
Amendments of the Constitution are mentioned 1) Federal State 2) Quasi-Federal State
in – 3) Unitary state 4) Union of States
1) Tenth Schedule 2) Eleventh Schedule 95) The Number of Union Territories in India is –
3) Twelfth Schedule 4) Thirteenth Schedule 1) 5 2) 6
85) Match List – I (parts of the Indian Constitution) 3) 7 4) 9
with List – II (provisions) and select the correct 96) Which of the following states is a member of the
answer using the codes given below – Seven sisters?
List – I List – II 1) West Bengal 2) Tripura
a) Party IV A 1. The Fundamental Duties 3) Orissa 4) Bihar
b) Party VIII 2. The Union Territories 97) Among the following states, which one was
c) Part IX 3. The Panchayats formed last?
d) Part IX A 4. The municipalities 1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Gujarat
Code: A B C D 3) Karnataka 4) Punjab
1) 1 2 3 4 98) Which one of the following is the first state to
2) 2 1 3 4 have been formed on linguistic basis?
3) 4 3 1 2 1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Gujarat
4) 4 3 2 1 3) Karnataka 4) Punjab
86) Which provision relating to the Fundamental 99) How many states and Union territories are there
Right is directly related to the exploitation of in India:
children? 1) 25 states and 7 Union territories
1) Article 17 2) Article 19 2) 28 states and 7 union territories
3) Article 23 4) Article 24 (Including national capital Territory- 1)
87) The article of Indian Constitution related to 3) 24 states and 6 union territories
Abolition of Untouchability is – 4) None of the above.
1) Article 15 2) Article 16 100) The power to curve out a new state is vested
3) Article 17 4) Article 18 in -
88) “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to 1) The Parliament 2) The President
protect and improve the natural environment”. 3) The Council of Ministers
This statement refers to which of the following 4) State’s reorganization Commission
Articles of the constitution of India? 101) Andhra Pradesh was created as a linguistic
1) Article 21 2) Article 48 A state in –
3) Article 51 A 4) Article 56 1) 1950 2) 1953
89) By which name/names is our country mentioned 3) 1956 4) 1961
in the Constitution? 102) Which of the following is NOT a union
1) India and Bharat 2) India and Hindustan territory?
3) Bharat Only 1) Goa 2) Lakshadweep
4) India, Bharat and Hindustan 3) Dadar and Nagar Haveli
90) The Finance Commission is constituted under 4) Chandigarh
Article …. of the Constitution of India? 103) Which one among the following has the power
1) 275 2) 280 to regulate the right of citizenship in India?
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3) 282 4) None of these 1) The Union Cabinet 2) The Parliament
91) Which one of the following schedules of the 3) The Supreme court 4) The Law commission
Indian Constitution lists the names of states and 104) With what subject do the articles 5 to 11 of
specific their territories? the Constitution of India deal?
1) First 2) Eighth amendment 1) Indian Union and its territory
3) Third 4) Fourth 2) Citizenship
92) How does the Constitution of India describe 3) Fundamental Duties
India as ? 4) Union Executive
1) A Federation of States and Union Territories 105) The brand name of 16 digit unique
2) A Union Of States identification number to be assigned to each
3) Bharatvarsh individual in the country will be –
4) A Federated Nation 1) Pehchan 2) Maadhyam
3) Aadhar 4) Aabhar 117) Which one of the following is the guardian of
106) AADHAR is a programme – fundamental right?
1) To help senior citizens 1) Legislature 2) Executive
2) To provide nutritional support to adolescent 3) Political parties 4) Judiciary
woman 118) Which of the following are covered under the
3) To train people for social defence Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of
4) To provide identity to Indian residents India?
107) Which country accepted the policy of Dual I) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced
citizenship? labour
1) India 2) Canada II) Prohibition of employment of children in factories
3) Australia 4) U.S.A III) Freedom of conscience and free profession,
108) Which of these is NOT included as a practice and propagation of religion.
Fundamental Right in the Indian Select the correct answer using the code given
Constitution? below:
1) Right to freedom to speech 1) I and II only 2) I and III only
2) Right to equality before law 3) II and III only 4) I, II and III
3) Right to Constitutional Remedies 119) All the following are fundamental rights
4) Right to equal wages for equal work guaranteed by the Indian Constitution except
109) Which of the following can a court issue for –
enforcement of fundamental Rights? 1) Right to equality
1) A decree 2) An ordinance 2) Right against exploitation
3) A writ 4) A notification 3) Right to adequate means of livelihood
110) Which of the following writs/orders of the 4) None of these
High court/supreme court is brought to get an 120) Which part of the Indian Constitution has
order of an authority quashed? been described as the soul of the
1) Mandamus 2) Certiorari Constitution?
3) Quo Warranto 4) Habeas Corpus 1) Fundamental Rights
111) Point out which from the following is NOT a 2) Directive Principles of state policy
right enumerated in the Constitution of India 3) The Preamble
but has been articulated by the Supreme 4) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Court to be a fundamental right? 121) The 44th Amendment in the Constitution of
1) Right to life India removed the following right from the
2) Equality of opportunity in matters of public category of Fundamental Rights–
employment 1) Freedom, of speech
3) Protection of personal liberty 2) Constitutional remedies
4) Right to permanent liberty 3) Property 4) Freedom of religion
112) Who considered the right to constitutional 122) Which of the following rights does Indian
remedies as very ‘heart and soul’ of the Indian Constitution NOT guarantee?
Constitution? 1) Right of equal home 2) Right to equality
1) M.K.Gandhi 2) J.L. Nehru 3) Right to freedom of religion
3) B.R. Ambedkar 4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 4) Right to freedom of speech
113) Which of the following is a bulwark of 123) Separation of the judiciary from the executive
personal freedom? has been provided in one of the following
1) Mandamus 2) Habeas corpus parts of the Indian constitution?
3) Quo Warranto 4) Certiorari 1) The Preamble
114) Which of the following rights is NOT granted 2) The Fundamental Rights
by the constitution of India at present as a 3) The Directive Principles of state policy
fundamental right? 4) The seventh schedule
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1) Right to equality 2) Right to freedom 124) Under the directive principles of state policy
3) Right to property upto what age of children they are expected
4) Right against exploitation to be provided free and compulsory
115) Which part of the Indian Constitution deals education?
with Fundamental rights? 1) 14 years 2) 15 years
1) Part I 2) Part II 3) 16 years 4) 18 years
3) Part III 4) Part IV 125) Equal pay for equal work has been ensured in
116) Fundamental Rights are NOT given to – the Indian constitution as one of the –
1) Bankrupt persons 2) Aliens 1) Fundamental Rights
3) Persons suffering from incurable diseases 2) Directive Principles of state policy
4) Political sufferers 3) Fundamental Duties 4) Economic Rights
126) The Directive principles of state policy is a 138) The President of India is elected by the –
cheque which his paid on Bank’s convenience, 1) Members of the Lok Sabha
Who told it? 2) Members of Both Houses of the Parliament
1) B.R. Ambedkar 2) K.M. Munshi 3) Members of the state legislature
3) Rajendra Prasad 4) K.T. Seth 4) By an electoral college consisting of the elected
127) The directive principles of state policy are: members of both Houses of the Parliament and state
1) justicable 2) non-justicable Assemblies.
3) Only some of the provisions are justicable 139) To be eligible for election as President of
4) None of the above India a person must have completed the age
128) Under the Constitution of India, which one of of –
the following is NOT a fundamental duty? 1) 25 years 2) 30 years
1) To vote in public elections 3) 35 years 4) 40 years
2) To develop the scientific temper 140) The President of India is elected by the
3) To safeguard public property numbers of an electoral college which does
4) To abide by the Constitution and respect its deals NOT include –
129) Where is Raisina Hill? 1) The elected members of the Rajya Sabha
1) Where Rashtrapati Bhavan is situated 2) The elected members of the Rajya Sabha
2) The Hill feature in Srinagar, otherwise known 3) The elected members of the state assemblies
as Shankaracharya Hill 4) The elected members of the state legislative
3) The place where the Dogra rulers Jammu and councils
Kashmir built their fort in Jammu 141) Which one of the following offices is held
4) The Rock feature at Knayakumari where Swami during the pleasure of the President of India?
Vivekanad’s stature was erected. 1) Vice-president 2) Chief Justice of India
130) The President of India enjoys emergency 3) Goveror of a state 4) Chairman of UPSC
powers of 142) The Union Executive of India consists of –
1) two types 2) three types 1) The President, Vice-President and the Council of
3) four types 4) Five types Ministers only
131) How many times the President of India can 2) The President and council of Ministers only
seek reelection to his post? 3) The President, Vice president council of Ministers
1) Once 2) 2 times and Lok Sabha
3) 3 times 4) any number of times 4) The President, Prime Minister, Deputy Chairman
132) Which of the following appointment is NOT of Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha speaker
made by the President of India? 143) Who was the President of India at the time of
1) Speaker of the Lok Sabha proclamation of emergency in the year 1975?
2) Chief Justice of India
3) Chief of Air Staff 4) Chief of Army 1) V.V. Giri 2) Giani Zail Singh
133) In case of President wishes to resign, to 3) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad 4) Shakar Dayal Sharma
whom is he to address his resignation letter? 144) Under which article of the constitution of
1) Chief Justice of India India can the President of India be
2) Secretary of Lok Sabha impeached?
3) Vice President 4) Prime Minister 1) Article 61 2) Article 75
134) What is the maximum age limit prescribed for 3) Article 76 4) Article 356
the post of the President of India? 145) Who holds the power to appoint the nominees
1) 58 years 2) 60 years from Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok
3) 62 years Sabha?
4) There is no maximum age limit 1) Minorities Commission 2) President of India
135) Rashprapati Bhawan was desgined by – 3) Prime Minister 4) Vice-President
1) Edward Stone 2) Le Corbusier 146) Who is the executive head of state in India?
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1) Who among the following can participate in 3) Jawahar Lal Nehru 4) Rajendra Prasad
the proceedings of both the houses of 11) The vice-President is the ex-officio chairman
parliament? of the–
1) Vice-President 2) Solicitor General 1) Rajya Sabha 2) Lok Sabha
3) Chief Justice 4) Attorney General 3) Planning Commission
2) What can be the maximum interval between 4) National Development council
two sessions of parliament? 12) The Rajya Sabha is dissolved after –
1) 3 months 2) 4 months 1) Every five years 2) Every six years
3) 6 months 4) 9 months 3) On the advice of the Prime minister
3) How are legislative excesses of parliament 4) None of these
and state assemblies checked? 13) The upper house of Indian Parliament is
1) Intervention from President/Governor known as –
2) No-Confidence motions 1) The Rajya Sabha 2) The Lok Sabha
3) Judicial review 3) The national Assembly 4) The Indian Parliament
4) General elections 14) Who is the chairman of Rajya Sabha –
4) Which of the following non-member of 1) The President 2) The Vice-President
Parliament has the right to address it? 3) Legislative Council 4) Legislative assembly
1) Attorney General of India 15) Which is the House where the chair person is
2) Solicitor General of India not the member of that House?
3) Chief Justice of India 1) Rajya Sabha 2) Lok Sabha
4) Chief Election Commissioner 3) Legislative Council 4) Legislative Assembly
5) In order to be recognized as an official 16) How many members are nominated by the
Opposition Group in the parliament, how President in the Rajya Sabha?
many seats should it have? 1) 2 2) 10
1) 1/3rd of the total strength 3) 12 4) 15
2) ¼ of the total strength 17) The speaker of Lok Sabha can resign his office
3) 1/6th of the total strength by addressing his resignation to –
4) 1/10th of the total strength 1) The president 2) The prime Minister
6) Which functionary can be invited to give his 3) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
opinion in the parliament? 4) The chief justice of India
1) Attorney General of India 18) A money bill passed by the Lok Sabha is
2) Chief Justice of India deemed to have been passed by the Rajya
3) Chief Election commission of India Sabha also when no action is taken by the
4) Comptroller and auditor General of India Upper House (Rajya Sabha ) within –
7) Age of a candidate to contest parliamentary 1) 10 days 2) 14 days
election should not be lesser than: 3) 20 days 4) 30 days
1) 18 years 2) 21 years 19) What can be maximum interval between
3) 25 years 4) 26 years two sessions of Parliament?
8) The most important feature of the Indian 1) 3montsh 2) 4 months
Parliament is that: 3) 6 months 4) 9 months
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1) It is the union legislature in India 20) Bill of which of the following categories can
2) It also comprises of the President be initiated only in Lok Sabha?
3) It is bicameral in nature 1) Ordinary Bill 2) Private Members bill
4) The upper house of the parliament is never 3) Money bill
dissolved 4) Constitution Amendment bill
9) Japan’s Parliament is known as – 21) Who decides whether a bill is a money bill
1) Diet 2) Dail or not?
3) Yuan 4) Shora 1) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
10) Who said, Parliamentary system provides a 2) The President
daily as well as a periodic assessment of the 3) The Prime Minister
Government? 4) The parliamentary select committee
1) B.R. Ambedkar 2) B.N. Rau
22) By which bill the Government propose 34) Which is the upper chamber of state
collection of revenues for a year? legislature in India?
1) Economic Bill 2) Finance Bill 1) Legislative Council 2) Legislative Council
3) Supplementary Bill 4) None of these 3) Governor’s Office 4) None of these
23) Who calls the joint session of the two Houses 35) The Maximum number of members that the
of the Parliament? legislative assembly of a state in India can
1) The President 2) The Prime Minister have is:
3) The Lok Sabha Speaker 1) 400 2) 450
4) The vice President 3) 500 4) 600
24) What is Zero Hour? 36) The Chief justice of a high court is appointed
1) When the proposals of the opposition are raised by:
2) When matters of utmost importance are raised 1) President 2) Governor
3) Interval between the morning and afternoon 3) Chief Justice of India
sessions 4) President and the chief Justice of India
4) When a money bill is introduced in Lok Sabha 37) To which of the following state the special
25) Which of the following Ministries prepares its Marriage Act 1954 does not apply?
own budget and presents in the Parliament 1) Meghalaya 2) Nagaland
every year? 3) Tripura 4) Jammu and Kashmir
1) Finance Ministry 2) Railway Ministry 38) Which article of the constitution of India
3) Ministry of Defence accords special status to the state of Jammu
4) Ministry of Home affairs and Kashmir?
26) The Governor of a state in India is – 1) 311 2) 324
1) Directly elected by the people of India 3) 356 4) 370
2) Appointed by the state chief Minister 39) Which one of the following states has a
3) Appointed by the Prime Minister separate constitution?
4) Appointed by the President 1) Arunachal Pradesh 2) Assam
27) Which one of the following offices is held 3) Jammu and Kashmir 4) Sikkim
during the pleasure of the President of India? 40) In Indian constitution, article 370 is related
1) Vice-President 2) Chief Justice of India with which?
3) Governor of a State 4) Chairman of UPSC 1) Jammu and Kashmir
28) The Chief Minister is appointed by – 2) Reservation of Scheduled castes and Scheduled
1) The Governor 2) The President 3) Punjab and Haryana States
3) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court 4) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu States
4) The Chief justice of High court 41) Who appoints the Governor of Jammu and
29) Who among the following was the first Kashmir?
woman chief minister in independent India? 1) The Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir
1) Amrit Kaur 2) Sarojini Naidu 2) The Chief Minister of High court of Jammu and
3) Sucheta Kriplani 4) Vijaya lakshmi Pandit Kashmir
30) Who was the first Chief Minister of 3) The Prime Minister of India
Uttarakhand State? 4) The President of India
1) Bhagat Singh Koshyari 2) Nityanand Swami 42) Which of the following states can nominate
3) N.D. Tiwari 4) None of these two women members to the Legislative
31) Which Indian State had the first woman chief assembly?
Minister? 1) Himachal Pradesh 2) Uttar Pradesh
1) U.P. 2) Bihar 3) Jammu and Kashmir 4) Kerala
3) Tamil Nadu 4) Delhi 43) Where was the first Municipal Corporation in
32) The total number of members of the India set up?
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a) Federal, Unitary. b) Unitary, Federal. the village, block and district levels.
c) Unitary, Unitary. 33) Panchayati Raj, as introduced in 1959,
d) Unitary, Quasi-federal. operates at:
24) ‘The Constitution establishes a System of a) Samiti and Block Levels.
Government which is almost quasi-federal’. b) Block and District Levels.
This was a statement of:
c) Samiti and District Levels.
a) Sir Jennings. b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
d) Village, Block and District Levels.
c) Prof. K.C. Wheare. d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
34) Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the
25) The Constitution of India describes India as: two States; one was Rajasthan, the other was:
a) A federation. b) Quasi-federal. a) Maharashtra. b) Gujarat.
c) A Union of States. d) None of these. c) Andhra Pradesh. d) Tamil Nadu.
35) The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 c) Twelve. d) Eleven.
refers to the: 45) Match List I and List II and select the correct
a) Generation of gainful employment for the answer by using the codes given below the
unemployed and the under-employed men and lists:
women in rural area.
b) Generation of employment for the able bodied List-I List-II
adults who are in need and desirous of work during (Features of the Indian Constitution) (Borrowed from)
the lean agricultural season.
I. Fundamental Rights. A. UK.
c) Laying the foundation for strong and vibrant
II. Parliamentary System of
Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country.
Government. B. USA.
d) Guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of
III. Emergency provisions. C. Ireland.
person, equality before law and equal protection
without discrimination. IV. Directive Principles of State Policy.
D. German Reich.
36) In whose time period, the Panchayats were E. Canada.
given the constitutional status? a) I-B, II-D, III-E, IV-A. b) I-E, II-A, III-D, IV-C.
a) Rajiv Gandhi. b) Chandrashekhar. c) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C. d) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C.
c) V.P. Singh. d) P.V. Narsimha Rao. 46) The Constitution of India borrowed the
37) The 73rd Amendment provides a __ tier system scheme of Indian Federation from the
of Panchayats: Constitution of:
a) Three. b) Four. a) USA. b) Canada.
c) Two. d) One. c) USSR. d) UK.
38) How Many seats are reserved in all Panchayats 47) The framers of the Constitution borrowed the
at all levels for women? idea of judicial review from the Constitution
of:
a) One-fourth. b) One-third.
a) France. b) USA.
c) One-half. d) None of the above.
c) United Kingdom. d) None of the above.
39) The tenure of all Panchayats at all levels is:
48) Which one of the following feature was not
a) One year. b) Two years.
borrowed by the Indian Constitution from the
c) Four years. d) Five years. British Constitution?
40) If a new State of the Indian Union is to be a) Parliamentary system of Government.
created, which one of the following Scheduled
b) Rule of Law. c) Election provisions.
of the Constitution must be amended?
d) None of the above.
a) First. b) Second.
49) Which part of the Constitution of India talks
c) Third. d) Fifth.
about the Municipalities?
41) Which one of the following statements
a) Part IX. b) Part IX (A).
correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution of India? c) Part X. d) Part X (A).
a) It lists the distribution of powers between the 50) It is often said that the key to the minds of the
Union and the States. makers of our Constitution lies in the:
b) It contains the languages listed in the a) Preamble. b) Fundamental Rights.
Constitution. c) Fundamental Duties.
c) It contains the provisions regarding the d) Directive Principles of State Policy.
administration of tribal areas. 51) The aims and objectives of the Constitution
d) It allocates seats in the Council of States. have been enshrined in
42) The Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution a) the Preamble.
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contains the: b) the Chapter of Fundamental Rights.
a) Fundamental Rights. b) Directive Principles. c) the Chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy.
c) A list of languages recognized by the Constitution. d) all of the above.
d) Number of States and Union Territories. 52) Preamble to the Constitution of India
43) Which one of the following Schedules of the a) is not a part of the Constitution.
Constitution of India contains provisions
regarding Anti-Defection Act? b) indicates the objectives to be achieved.
a) Second Schedule. b) Fifth Schedule. c) indicates the source from which the Constitution
derives its authority.
c) Eighth Schedule. d) Tenth Schedule.
d) is a source of authority of the Constitution of
44) When Constitution was framed, the number of India.
Schedules were:
53) The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is
a) Eight. b) Ten.
a) not a part of the Constitution. c) Belief in one God.
b) a part of the Constitution; but it neither confers d) Practising different religions.
any powers not impose any duties not can it be of 61) The term “socialist” used in the Preamble
any use in interpreting other provisions of the means a State whose basic policy is to
Constitution.
a) prohibit concentration of wealth.
c) a part of the Constitution and can be of use in
b) distribute equitably the natural resources.
interpreting other provisions of the Constitution in
cases of ambiguity. c) prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the
living standards of people.
d) a part of the Constitution and it confers powers
and imposes duties as any other provision of the d) prohibit concentration of wealth and distribute
Constitution. equitably the natural resources.
54) The source of “we the people” in the Preamble 62) The term “Social Justice” used in the Preamble
is: to the Constitution of India means:
a) United States. b) United Kingdom. a) Removal of economic inequality.
c) United Nations. d) None. b) Provision for decent standard of living and
removal of social inequality.
55) The following are enshrined in the Preamble to
the Constitution of India: c) Removal of inequality, raising standard of living
and protection of interests of weaker sections.
1. Equality of status and opportunity.
d) Protection of interests of weaker sections and
2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith
removal of economic inequality.
and worship.
63) The word ‘Sovereign’ in the Preamble of the
3. Justice-social, economic and political.
Constitution of India emphasizes that India is:
4. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the
a) A democratic and republic country.
individual.
b) No more dependent upon any outside authority.
5. Unity and integrity of the Nation
c) Internally empowered to rule within the State
Which one of the following is the correct
territory.
order in which they appear in the preamble?
d) Not bound by external commands and the
a) 5 – 1 – 2 – 4 – 3. b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4 – 5.
Government of India is equipped with the power to
c) 3 – 1 – 2 – 5 – 4. d) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5. rule within India.
56) Which one of the following is in correct order 64) ‘Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’ is a slogan
in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution? associated with
a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, a) American war of Independence.
Republic.
b) Chinese Revolution. c) French Revolution.
b) Sovereign, Secular, Socialist, Democratic,
d) Russian Revolution.
Republic.
65) The Preamble to the Constitution of India
c) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Secular, Republic.
secures Justice, Liberty, Equality and
d) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Socialist, Fraternity to
Republic.
a) all persons.
57) The text of the preamble of the Constitution of
b) those who reside within the territory of India.
India aims to secure
c) all citizens.
a) fundamental rights to all individuals.
d) those citizens who reside within the territory of
b) fundamental duties of citizens of India.
India.
c) dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of
66) Which one of the following pairs is correctly
the nation.
matched?
d) security of service to government servants.
a) Republic: Head of the State is hereditary
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