IES-ME-2017-Objective - 2 PDF

ESE-2017 |ME| Objective Paper-II
Each question carries two marks FH =ρghA

1. A section of a dam made of concrete,
=1000 × 9.81 × 16.5 × ( 33 × 1)
ρ = 2.6, total height = 35m, with top
walkway width of 6m, is shown. The
FH = 544.5K kgf [∵1kgf = 9.81N ]
upstream bottommost point is called the Weight of dam ( Fg ) = mg
Heel of the dam. The sloped part on Fg =ρ.∀.g
downstream side is 3 vertical on 2
1 
horizontal. Water stands till 2 m short of the ∀ = ( 6 × 35 ) +  × 20 × 30 
top of the dam section. The net resultant 2 
force acting on the base level of the dam is ∀ = 510m 3
nearly. So Fg = 2600 × 510 × 9.81=1326K kgf

6m (1326 ) + ( 544.5 )
2 2
FR = Fg2 + FH2 =
2m ∇ =1433K kgf
5m
2. A Spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter

splits up in air incvbto 64 smaller drops of
Water on
upstream side 2 equal size. The surface tension coefficient of
30m water in air is 0.073 N/m. The work required
3
in splitting up the drop is
(A) 0.96×10-6 J (B) 0.69×10-6 J
(C) 0.32×10-6 J (D) 0.23×10-6 J
Key: (B)
Base width Sol: Given,
D =1mm ⇒ R = 1 2 mm
(A) 1370 k kgf (B) 1385 k kgf n = 64
(C) 1400 k kgf (D) 1433 k kgf σ = 0.073
Key: (D)
Volume before splitting = volume after splitting
Sol: Horizontal force act on vertical surface
4 3 4
πR = n × πr 3
3 3
2m
5m R 3 = n × r3
R R
3
So, n =   ⇒ r = 1 3 =
(1 2 )
2
( 64 )
13
Water on θ r  n
upstream
θ
3
30m r =1 8mm
FH Surface Energy before splitting, E1 = σ.4πR 2
Fg FR
Surface Energy after splitting, E 2 = 64 × ( σ.4πr 2 )
BaseWidth So, work require in splitting = E2–E1
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1
So, work require in splitting = E 2 − E1 P1 V12 P V2

+ + Z1 = 2 + 2 + Z2
= σ × 4π  64r 2 − R 2  ρg ρg ρg ρg
= 0.073 × 4 × 3.14 P1 = P2 = Patm , V1 = 2 m s, Z1 − Z2 = 0.5m
 − (1 2 ) 2 + 64 (1 8 ) 2  × (10−3 )
2  V22   4 
    =  + ( 0.5 )
−6
 2 × 10   2 × 10  V1 = 2m / s
= 0.68 × 10 J V2 = 3.74 m s
1 D1 = 20mm
apply continuity
3. Consider the following statements pertaining 0.5m
equation between (1)&(2)
to stability of floating bodies:
A1V1 = A 2 V2 2 D2
1. A floating body will be stable when the
centre of gravity is above the centre of D12 V1 = D22 V2 V2
buoyancy. V1 2
2. The positions of metacentres D 2 = D1 = 20
V2 3.74
corresponding to different axes of
D 2 =14.6mm
rotation are generally different for the
same floating object.
5. Consider the following statements regarding
3. For cargo ships, the metacentric height
Bernoulli’s equation:
varies with loading.
1. It is assumed that no energy has been
Which of the above statements are correct?
supplied.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only
2. The velocity of a steady stream of fluid
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only
flow will depend on the cross-sectional
Key: (D)
area of the stream.
Sol: Statement 1 is incorrect because stability of
3. Consider two sections 1 and 2 along a
floating body is measured by metacenter
flow stream. In this reach, if q is work
w.r.t center of gravity.
done by a pump, w is work absorbed by
turbine, ρ is density of water and g is
4. Water is coming out from a tap and falls
vertically downwards. At the tap opening, acceleration of gravity, with p, v and z
the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform carrying standard meanings, Bernoulli’s
velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid equation will read
flow, constant pressure atmosphere p1 ν12 p ν2
+ + z1 = 2 + 2 + z 2 + w + g
everywhere, and neglecting curvature and ρ 2g ρ 2g
surface tension effects, the diameter of the Which of the above statements are correct?
stream 0.5m below the tap opening is nearly. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(A) 11.7 mm (B) 14.6 mm (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 17.5 mm (D) 20.4 mm Key: (A)
Key: (B) Sol: Given that q is work done by a pump & also
Sol: Apply Bernoulli’s equation between (1) & in third statement Bernoulli equation is
(2) wrong.
2
6. An oil flows through a pipe at a velocity of Key: (D)

1.0 m/s. The pipe is 45m long and has Sol: Head loss, in a steady laminar flow, for a
150mm diameter. What is the head loss due given discharge
to friction, if ρ = 869 kg / m3 and 128µQL
hf =
µ = 0.0814 kg / m s ? πD 4
(A) 0.61 m (B) 0.51 m So, h f ∝ D −4
(C) 0.41 m (D) 0.31 m
Key: (A) 9. A two dimensional flow field is defined as

VρD 869 ×1 × 0.15 V = ix − jy. The equation of the stream line
Sol: Reynolds no. ( Re ) = =
µ 0.0814 passing through the point (1, 2) is
=1601 < 2000 so laminar flow (A) xy + 2 =0 (B) x2y+2=0
Head loss due to fluid friction inpipe (C) xy–2=0 (D) x2y–2=0
32µ uL Key: (C)
( hf ) = Sol: Given,
D2 .ρ.g
32 × 0.0814 ×1 × 45 v = xi − yj
hf = = 0.61m So, u = x
( 0.15)
2
× 869 × 9.81
v=− y
h f = 0.61m
dx dy
Streamlineequation, =
7. Consider the following statements: u v
dx dy
1. At low Reynolds numbers of any flow, =
viscous forces dominate over inertial x ( −y)
forces. Intergrateequation, ln x = − ln y + lnc
2. Transition from laminar to turbulent xy = c
flow occurs over a range of Reynolds given x = 1, y = 2
numbers depending on the surface s o,c = 2 or xy = 2
presented to the flow.
so equation is xy − 2 = 0
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 10. The centre – line velocity in a pipe flow is
Key: (C) 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in
Sol: ∵ At low Reynold no. flow is laminar & the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow
depending upon the surface of flow, flow is 800?
changes from laminar to Turbulent for (A) 2 m/s (B) 1.5 m/s
higher Reynold no. (C) 1 m/s (D) 0.5 m/s.
Key: (C)
8. In a steady laminar flow of a given Sol: Given that centerline velocity = 2m/sec
discharge through a circular pipe of diameter i.e., v max = 2m sec
D, the head loss is proportional to ∵Re = 800 < 2000 (∴Laminar flow )
(A) D–1 (B) D–2 (C) D–3 (D) D–4
3
v max 2 Isothermal work = P1V1n ( P1 P2 )

So, mean velocity v = =
2 2 = 2.3 × 2 ×105 ×10 × log10 ( 2 15 )
v = 1m sec
= 2.3 × 2 × 105 ×10 log 10 2 − log 10 5 − log 10 3
11. During a constant pressure expansion of a = 2.3 × 2 × 105 × 10 [ 0.301 − 0.698 − 0.475]
gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work = 4030kJ
while the temperature rises by 20K. The
specific heat of the gas at constant pressure 13. A system of 100 kg mass undergoes a
as a proportion of work, W is process in which its specific entropy
(A) 8% (B) 10% (C) 12% (D) 15% increases from 0.3kJ/kg K to 0.4 kJ/kg K. At
Key: (D) the same time, the entropy of the
Sol: Given, surroundings decreases from 80kJ/kg K to
Work ( W ) = 0.33Q 75 kJ /kg K. The process is
Temperatura rise ( ∆T ) = 20K (A) reversible and isothermal
(B) irreversible
So Q = Cp ( ∆T )
(C) reversible only
W
= Cp ( 20 ) (D) isothermal only
0.33 Key: (B)
Cp = 0.15W Sol: Given, m =100kg
i.e., specific heat of the gas at constant Entropy of process
pressure is 15% of the work. s1 = 0.3kJ kg K, s 2 = 0.4 kJ kg K
Entropy of surrounding
12. A cylinder contains 10m3 of an ideal gas at a
s1 = 80kJ / kg.K, s 2 = 75kJ / kg.K
pressure of 2 bar. This gas is compressed in
a reversible isothermal process till its So,for a process ( ∆S) process
pressure increases to 15 bar. What quantum = ( ∆S)sys + ( ∆S)surr
of work will be required for this process?
(You can use the table given herewith.) = ( s1 − s 2 )sys + ( s1 − s 2 )Surr
Number 2 2.5 3 5 7 = ( 0.3 − 0.4 ) + ( 80 − 75 )
= 5 − 0.1= 49 kJ kgK
Log10 0.301 0.397 0.475 0.698 0.845
( ∆S) process > 0
(A) 4500 kJ (B) 4030 kJ i.e.,irreversible process
(C) 450 kJ (D) 403 kJ
Key: (B) 14. A reversible heat engine rejects 80% of the
Sol: Given, V1 = 10m3 heat supplied during a cycle of operation. If
P1 = 2bar the engine is reversed and operates as a
P2 =15bar refrigerator, then its coefficient of
performance shall be
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3
4
Key: (C) Sol: T(K)
Sol: TH TH 700
QH QH
HE → 0.2QH ⇒ ref ← 0.2QH 300
0.8Q H 0.8Q H
TL TL 1 3 5 S ( kJ K )
( Heat Engine ) ( Refrigertor ) Wnet = area enclosed by curve
QL QL =1 2 × 4 × 400 = 800kJ
C.O.P = =
Win QH − Q L Incycle Wnet = Q net = Qin − Q out
=
( 0.8) Q H Q out = Heat rejection at lowest temper
( 0.2 ) QH aturein cycle
C.O.P = 4 = T ( ∆S)
Q out = 300 ( 5 − 1) =1200kJ
15. For the same efficiency of the Brayton cycle
and the Carnot cycle working between So,Qin = Q out + Wn et = (1200 + 300 ) kJ
temperature limits of Tmax and Tmin, the power Q in = 1500kJ
contribution of the Brayton cycle will be Wnet
(A) zero So, Efficiency of cycle ( η) =
Qin
(B) maximum
300
(C) minimum = = 0.4
2000
(D) 50% of the Carnot cycle
Key: (A) 17. A heat engine working on the Carnot cycle
Sol: If efficiency is same then power contribution receives heat at the rate of 50 kW from a
of Brayton cycle will be zero. source at 1300K and rejects it to a sink at
400K. The heat rejected is
16. The thermal efficiency of the hypothetical (A) 20.3 kW (B) 15.4 kW
cycle shown is (C) 12.4 kW (D) 10.8 kW
Key: (B)
T(K)
Sol: Given, Carnot cycle
400K
700 TL Wnet
ηcarnot = 1 − =
TH Q H QL
400 Wnet →W
300 =1 − =
1300 50kW
QH = 50kW
Wnet = 34.6kW
300K
Wnet = Q H − Q L
1 3 5 S ( kJ / K )
34.6 = 50 − Q L
(A) 0.6 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.3 Q L = ( 50 − 34.6 ) kW = 15.4kW
Key: (C) Q L = 15.4kW
5
18. An ideal gas is flowing through an insulated 20. A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of
pipe at the rate of 3.3 kg. There is a pressure 1.5m2 and is made up of material of thermal
drop of 15% from the inlet to the outlet of conductivity 0.4W/m K. If the temperatures
the pipe. What is the rate of energy loss on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and
because of this pressure drop due to friction, 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is
given that Rgas=0.287 kJ/kg K and the (A) 1.8 K/W (B) 1.8 W/K
reference temperature T0 is 300K? (C) 1 K/W (D) 1 W/K
(A) 42.62 kW (B) 40.26 kW Key: (D)
(C) 38.14 kW (D) 35.13 kW Sol: Given,
Key: (A) Thickness ( L ) = 0.6m
Sol: Given,
Area (A) =1.5m 2
R gas = 287 J Kg K
m = 3.3kg Conductivity ( K ) = 0.4 W mK
To = 300K
Temperature difference ( ∆T ) = 200
Work done = V(∆P)
(1) ( 2) Thermal resistanceof wall(R th ) = L AK
= V(P1 − P2 )
P 0.85P 0.6
mRT = = 1W K
= ( 0.25) P 1.5 × 0.4
P
= 0.25 × 3.3 × 287 × 300 = 42.62kW
21. Heat is lost from a 100mm diameter steam
pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at
19. A furnace is provided with an insulating
30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the
refractory lining. The overall thermal
thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03W/m
conductivity of the material is 0.03W/m K.
K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be.
The thickness of the lining is 100mm. The
(A) 7.5 W/m2K (B) 15 W/m2K
inner and outer temperatures are 250°C and
(C) 25 W/m2K (D) 35 W/m2K
50°C, respectively. The heat loss the the
Key: (A)
surroundings will be
Sol: Given,
(A) 30 J/m2/s (B) 60 J/m2/s
D=100mm
(C) 60 J/s (D) 30 J/s
Key: (B) ambient temperature ( T∞ ) = 30°C
Sol: Conductivity ( K ) = 0.03W mK N ν = 25
Thickness ( L ) =100mm Thermal conductivity ( K ) = 0.03W mK
Ti = 250°C,To = 50°C So, N ν = h Lc K ( here Lc = D )
∆T h ( 0.1)
heat loss to surrounding Qloss = 25 =
(L K) 0.03
200 h = 7.5 W m 2 K
=
 100 ×10−3 
  22. Air at 1 atmospheric pressure and 27°C
 0.03 
blows across a 12mm diameter sphere at a
Qloss = 60 J ( m 2 s ) free stream velocity of 4 m/s. A small heater
6
inside the sphere maintains the surface F12 = 1

temperature at 77°C. With k = 0. 0.026 W/m by reciprocal theorm A1F12 = A 2 F21 (1)
(Kelvin) and with (Nu) = 31.4, the heat loss =d
4π ( d 2 ) 1 = 6.d 2 .F21
2
by the sphere would be (2)
(A) 1.93J/s (B) 1.76J/s [ F21 = π 6]
(C) 1.65J/s (D) 1.54J/s
Key: (D) 24. Knocking in a spark ignition engine can be
Sol: Given, reduced by
T∞ = 27°C, K = 0.026 W mK 1. retarding the spark
D =12mm, N ν = 31.4 2. supercharging
V∞ = 4 m s 3. increasing the engine speed
4. using a fuel of long straight chain
Ts = 77°C
structure
Qloss = h.As ( ∆T ) Select the correct answer using the code
hLc given below.
∵N ν = ( here Lc = D )
K (A) 1 and 4 (B) 1 and 3
N .K 31.4 × 0.026 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
h= ν =
D 0.012 Key: (B)
h = 68.03W m K 2
Sol: To reduce knocking in spark ignition engine
we need to reduce the combustion chamber
Qloss = 68.03 × 4 × 3.14 × ( 6 ×10−3 ) × ( 77 − 27 )
2
temperature.
Qloss =1.54J sec So, retarding the spark and increasing the
engine speed helps to reduce combustion
23. The view factors F12 and F21, for the sphere chamber temperature.
of diameter d and a cubical box of length
l = d as shown in the figure, respectively, are 25. A 4-cylinder diesel engine running at 1200
A1 r.p.m. developed 18.6 kW. The average
torque when one cylinder was cut out was
=d A2 105 Nm. If the calorific value of the fuel
was 42000 kJ/kg and the engine used 0.34
kg of diesel/kW hr, the indicated thermal
π π efficiency was nearly.
(A) 1 and (B) and 1
3 3 (A) 29% (B) 26% (C) 31% (D) 23%
π π Key: (A)
(C) 1 and (D) and 1
6 6 Sol: 4 cylinders:
Key: (C) N = 1200RPM, C.V = 42000 kJ/kg
Sol: P =18.6 kW, bsfc = 0.34kg/kWhr
Tavg=105N-m
18.6
B.P cylinder = = 4.65kW
4
7
2πNT B.P 9kW

B.P when one cylinder is cut off = ηm = = = 0.9
60 I.P 10kW
2 × 3.14 ×1200 ×105 ηm = 90%
= =13.188kW
60
So, ( I.P )1cylinder = ( B.P )4cylinder − ( B.P )1cylinder 27. The ordinates and abscissae of the diagram
given for the vapour-compression
= (18.6 − 13.18 ) kW
refrigeration cycle represent
( I.P )1cylinder = 5.412kW (A) pressure and volume
( I.P )1cylinder = 4 × 5.412 = 21.648kW (B) temperature and entropy
(C) enthalpy and entropy
m ( kg hr )
So, bsfc = 0.34 = f (D) pressure and enthalpy
B.P(kW) Key: (D)
mf
0.34 =
(18.6 ) 28. Consider the following statements for
m f = 6.324 kg hr refrigeration and air-conditioning :
I.P 1. In a refrigerating machine, the heat
S, ηi th = exchanger that absorbs heat is connected
mf × C.V
to a conditioned space.
21.6 × 103
= = 0.2938 2. A refrigerating cycle operating
6.3
× 42000 × 103 reversibly between two heat reservoirs
3600 has the highest coefficient of
ηi th ≈ 29.38% performance.
3. The lower the refrigeration required and
26. In a Morse test on a 2-cylinder, 2-stroke SI the higher the temperature of heat
engine, the brake power is 9kW and the rejection to the surroundings, the larger
BHP of individual cylinders with spark the power consumption.
cutoff are 4.25kW and 3.75kW, Which of the above statements are correct?
respectively. The mechanical efficiency of (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
the engine is (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
(A) 90% (B) 80% Key: (D)
(C) 52.5% (D) 45.5% Sol:
P
Key: (A)
Sol: Given, Morse Test
2cylinder, 2stroke SI engine Increase
Wi p
B.P = 9kW R.E' work i p
(B.P)I = 4.25kW
(B.P)II = 3.75kW R.E
I.P = (n × B.P) – [(B.P)I +(B.P)II] h
= [(2 × 9) – (4.25+3.75)]kW All three statements are correct.
I.P = 10kW Statements -3
8
[ R.E > R.E '] 31. Consider the following statements:

So, Power requirement will increase if The presence of air inside condensers
temperature of heat rejection increases. 1. remains as a non-condensable gas
2. reduces the condensing coefficient
29. In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser 3. tends to cling to the surface
coil temperatures are -33°C and 27°C, 4. introduces large thermal resistance
respectively. Assuming that the maximum Which of the above statements are correct?
COP is realized, the required power input for a (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
refrigerating effect of 4 kW is (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 4 only
(A) 8 kW (B) 4 kW (C) 2 kW (D) 1 kW Key: (A)
Key: (D)
Sol: Given, 32. The refrigeration system of an ice plant
TL=240K, TH=300K and R.E=4kW. working between temperatures of -5°C and
25°C produces 20kg of ice per minute from
TL 240
C.O.P = = =4 water at 20°C. The specific heat of water is
TH − TL 300 − 240
4.2 kJ/kg and latent heat of ice is 335 kJ/kg.
R.E
also C.O.P = The refrigeration capacity of the
Win refrigeration plant is
R.E 4kW (A) 9040 kJ/min (B) 8750 kJ/min
so Win = = = 1kW.
C.O.P 4 (C) 8380 kJ/min (D) 8010 kJ/min
Key: (C)
30. Consider the following statements: Sol: TH = 25°C,TL = − 5°C
The volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating •
compressor can be improved by mice = 20 kg min

1. decreasing the clearance volume Tinitial = 20°C
2. cooling the intake air (Cp ) water = 4.2 kJ kg
3. heating the intake air L = 335kJ kg
Which of the above statements is / are
Refrigeration Capacity
correct?
• •
(A) 2 only (B) 3 only (
Q = m Cp W Tinitial − T0o C + m L )
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1 and 3
=  20 × 4.2 × ( 20 − 0°C )  + ( 20 × 335 )
Key: (C)
1 1 Q = 8380 kJ min
Sol: ηv ∝ ∝
C ( Pr.ratio )
33. Consider the following statements in respect
If clearance volume ( C ) ↓ , ηv ( ↑ ) of a vapour – absorption refrigeration cycle:
If cooling of air is done. It increase the 1. The absorption refrigeration cycle is
density of air due to that large amount of air generally used when waste heat is
in small volume enters in compressor. So available from an existing source or
ηv increases. when free energy like solar energy is to
be used.
9
2. There are no moving parts in the 35. Consider the following statements in respect
absorption refrigeration plant except a of an evaporative cooling process:
small liquid pump. 1. The wet-bulb temperature remains
3. The value of the coefficient of constant.
performance is nearly the same in both 2. The dew-point temperature remains
vapour – absorption and vapour – constant.
compression refrigeration plants. 3. The enthalpy remains constant.
Which of the above statements are correct? Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only
Key: (B) Key: (D)
Sol: Statement ‘3’ is not correct because Sol:
TW1 = TW2
( C.O.P ) vapour absorption ≈ 1 • ω2
( C.O.P ) vapour compression >1 2
1 • ω1
34. Air at 30°C and 1 bar has a specific
DBT
humidity of 0.016 kg/kg of dry air. By
considering the saturation pressure of water For process 1 to 2
vapour at 30°C as 4.246kPa, the relative Cooling and humidification
humidity of the air will be TW1 = TW2 (Wet bulb temperature)
(A) 66.1% (B) 60.2% h1 = h2
(C) 58.8% (D) 56.8% ∵Dew point Temperature ∝ ω
Key: (C) ∴ω ↑ DPT ↑
Sol: Given,
ω= 0.016 kg kg of Dry air
36. For a steady process, the conditions at stage
Ps = 4.246kPa 1 and stage 2 are, respectively, h1=300
PV kJ/kg, h2=150 kJ/kg, S1=1.25 kJ/kg K and
Relativedensity φ =
PS S2=0.8 kJ/kg K. The ‘availability’ at the
 P  ambient temperature 300K will be
∴We known ω= 0.622  V  (A) 15 kJ (B) 20 kJ (C) 25 kJ (D) 35 kJ
 P − PV 
Key: (A)
 P  Sol: Given,
0.016 = 0.622  V 
 1 − PV  h1 = 300 kJ kg
PV = 0.025bar h 2 = 150 kJ kg
0.025 ×105 S1 = 1.25kJ kg.K
So, Relative humidity φ =
4.246 ×103 S2 = 0.8kJ kg.K
= 0.59 ≈ 59.14% To = 300K
10
Availability = ( h1 − h 2 ) − To ( S1 − S2 ) 1. The specific speed of a turbine is the

speed at which a homologous turbine
= ( 300 − 150 ) − 300 (1.25 − 0.8 )
develops 1 mhp under unit head at its
=15kJ
maximum efficiency.
2. The specific speed is a dimensionless
37. If the maximum pressure in both air parameter used for the selection of
standard Otto and Diesel cycles is the same, turbines.
then the relations for compression ratio r and 3. The function of guide vanes in reaction
the efficiency η between the two cycles are turbines is to minimize shock at entry of
(A) rDiesel > rOtto and η Diesel > η Otto the fluid onto the runner blades.
(B) rOtto > rDiesel and η Diesel > η Otto Select the correct answer using the code
(C) rDiesel > rOtto and η Otto > η given below.
Diesel
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
(D) rOtto > rDiesel and η Otto > η Diesel
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only
Key: (A) Key: (A)
Sol: For same maximum pressure
1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – Otto cycle 39. A centrifugal pump lifts 0.0125 m3/s of
1 – 2' – 3' – 4' – Diesel cycle water from a well with a static lift of 30m. If
P the brake power of the driving electric motor
3 3'' 3' is 5 kW, what is the overall efficiency of the
Pmax
pump-set?
(A) 57.6% (B) 63.9%
2
4'
(C) 65.3% (D) 73.6%
2'
4
Key: (D)
1
Sol: Given,
1
V Discharge ( Q ) = 0.0125m3 sec
V1 V1 H m = 30m
So, <
V2 V '2
S.P = 5kW
rotto < rDiesel
ρ.g.Q.H m
∵η Diesel > η otto Overallefficiency ( ηo ) =
S.P
∵( Heat rejection ) Diesel > ( Heat rejection )otto 1000 × 9.81× 0.0125 × 30
=
W.D = H.A − H.R = const 5 × 103
H.A = Const + H.R ηo = 0.736 ≈ 73.6%
if H.R ↑ so H.A ↑ 40. Two rods, one of length l and the other of
W.D
( ↓ ) η= H.A length 2l, are made of the same material and
(↑) have same diameter. Both ends of the longer
rod are maintained at 100°C. One end of the
38. Which of the following statements are shorter rod is maintained at 100°C while the
correct? other end is insulated. Both rods are exposed
11
to the same environment at 40°C. The efficiency and the maximum work done
temperature at the insulated end is measured occur at a same pressure ratio.
to be 55°C. The temperature at the midpoint Which of the above statements are correct?
of the longer rod would be. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(A) 45°C (B) 50°C (C) 55°C (D) 60°C (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Key: (C) Key: (A)
Sol: For insulated tip temperature distribution Sol: Statement ‘3’ is wrong because maximum
Cosh m ( L − x ) efficiency occurs at (rp)max, and maximum
θ θ0 = work done occurs at (rp)opt
CoshmL
at x = L,T = 55°C ( given ) η
Wnet
ηmax
1 T − T∞
So, = L
CoshmL To − T∞
rp
=
55 − 40
⇒ ( CoshmL = 4 ) (r )
p max
rp
(r )
p opt
100 − 40
42. A jet of water issues from a sharp-edged
T0 = 100°C vertical orifice under a constant head of
2
0.51m. At a certain point of the issuing jet,
the horizontal and vertical coordinates
T0 = 100°C 100°C measured from vena contracta are 0.406 m

and 0.085m, respectively. What is the value
T= ? of the coefficient of velocity?
For second case (A) 0.975 (B) 0.925 (C) 0.875 (D) 0.825
T − 40 1 1 Key: (A)
= =
100 − 40 cosh mL 4 Sol:
T = 55°C
H = 0.51m
41. Consider the following statements in respect x

of ideal and practical gas turbine cycles: y
1. In the ideal cycle case, the cycle
efficiency depends on the pressure ratio Vact
only. Coefficient of velocity CV =
Vth
2. In the practical cycle case (with
irreversibilities in the compression and Vth = 2gH = 2 × 9.81 × 0.51 = 3.16 m s
expansion processes), the cycle g  9.81 
Vact = x = ( 0.406 )  
efficiency depends on the maximum 2y  2 × 0.085 
temperature as well as on the pressure
= 3.08m s
ratio.
3.08
3. In the practical cycle case, at a given So,CV = = 0.974
3.16
maximum temperature, the maximum
12
43. In the working of a vapour-compression P

2' 2
refrigeration plant, the following enthalpies Work save
are recorded at salient points in the cycle: PV γ
1. Enthalpy at inlet to compressor ( Isothermal )
Isentropic
PV = C
(saturated vapour), h1=300kJ/kg. 1
2. Enthalpy at outlet of compressor (after V

isentropic compression), h2=330kJ/kg. ∵W.D cycle
3. Enthalpy at exit of condenser (saturated  n −1

η  P  n
liquid), h3=150 kJ/kg. = P1 ( V1 − V4 )   − 1
 2
What is the COP of the plant? η −1  P1  

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6  
Key: (C) So work done is independent of clearance
Sol: Given, P volume
3 2
3 2
h1 = 300 kJ kg 4 1 1
h 2 = 330 kJ kg h
4
h 3 = h 4 = 150 kJ kg VC VS = V1 − V3
Wc = h 2 − h1 = 330 − 300 = 30 kJ kg 1
∵ηv ∝ ∵η= 1 + C − C ( P2 P1 )1 n 
R.E = h1 − h 4 = 300 − 150 = 150 kJ kg ( Pr.ratio )  
R.E 150 So, all three statements are correct.
C.O.P = = =5
Wc 30
44. Consider the following statements for of regenerative Rankine cycle:
single-stage reciprocating compressors: 1. Regeneration increases the efficiency of
1. Isothermal process is the most desirable the cycle.
process for compression. 2. The boiler capacity is increased for a
2. The size of clearance volume provided given output.
in the compressor has no effect on work 3. The capacity of the condenser is
done per kg of air delivered. reduced.
3. The Volumetric efficiency of the Which of the above statements are correct?
compressor decreases with increasing (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only
pressure. (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above statements are correct? Key: (D)
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only Sol: -Due to regeneration efficiency of cycle
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 increases because of increase in mean
Key: (D) temperature of heat addition.
Sol: Isothermal process require less work input -For same power O/P steam flow rate
requires bigger boiler.
13
-Because of steam flow rate to condenser 0.8

= × 5 ×105
decreases so, small condenser is required. 1
PN 2 = 400 kN m 2
of (l) the temperature of the medium, (m)
48. Consider the following statements:
the refrigerant and (n) the condenser and
1. The efficiency of heat transfer in a
absorption system – in a refrigeration unit:
condenser will improve by increase of
1. Temperature of the medium being
the overall heat transfer coefficient.
cooled must be below that of the
2. The efficiency of heat transfer in a
evaporator.
condenser will improve by increase of
2. Refrigerant leaves the condenser as
the velocity of flow of water in the tube.
liquid.
3. The difference between the temperature
3. Any solar thermally operated absorption
of steam entering the condenser and the
system is capable only of intermittent
inlet water temperature should be
operation.
maximum for maximum efficiency.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Key: (C)
Key: (A)
Sol: Statement ‘1’ is wrong because it is not
Sol: Statement ‘3’ is wrong, because efficiency
possible to cool the medium below
of condensor
evaporator temperature i.e., l can’t be less
than m. ( ∆T )act Two − Twi
η= =
( ∆T )max TS − Twi
47. Volumetric analysis of a certain flue gas if ( Ts − Twi ) ↑ η↓
gave CO2 15%, O2 5% and rest as N2. The
gas was at a temperature of 200°C and a 49. The total power developed by a three-stage
pressure of 5 bar. The partial pressure of N2 velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
in the flue gas is is 900 kW. The power magnitudes
(A) 250 kN/m2 (B) 300 kN/m2 developed in the first and the second stages
(C) 350 kN/m2 (D) 400 kN/m2 are, respectively.
Key: (D) (A) 500 kW and 300 kW
Sol: x co2 = 0.15 (B) 100 kW and 300 kW
x o2 = 0.05 (C) 500 kW and 100 kW
(D) 100 kW and 100 kW
x N2 = 0.8
Key: (A)
Total pressure ( P ) = 5bar Sol: ∴ for three stage velocity compounded
x N2 impulse turbine work done is in ratio of
So, Partial pressure of N 2 PN2 = ( ) xT
.P 5:3:1 so, in 1st stage 500kW & in 2nd stage
300 kW.
14
50. Consider the following statements in respect (A) Direct methanol fuel cell
of natural draft cooling towers: (B) Proton exchange membrane fuel cell
1. Theoretically the water can be cooled to (C) Alkaline fuel cell
even below the dry – bulb temperature (D) Phosphoric acid fuel cell
of the induced air flow. Key: (C)
2. Natural – draft cooling towers are 100 m
or more in height. 53. A flywheel on a motor speeds up from rest
3. The inner and outer surfaces are surfaces to 1000 r.p.m. in 6 seconds. The number of
of revolution of a segment of a revolutions made thereby is nearly.
hyperbola about the vertical axis – (A) 200 (B) 100 (C) 50 (D) 20
affording improved strength rather than Key: (C)
any thermodynamic augmentation. Sol: Given
Which of the above statements are correct? ωo = 0 rad sec
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only
2π (1000 )
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only ω= = 104.71 rad sec
Key: (B) 60
t = 6secs
51. Consider the following statements: ω = ωo + αt
1. Wind velocity at about 20m height
104.71
above the ground is taken as the rated α= = 17.4 rad sec 2
6
velocity for design of wind mills.
2. The total power of a wind stream is ω2 − ω02 = 2αθ
(104.71)
2
directly proportional to the cube of
θ= = 49.99 rev or 50 approx
average velocity. 2 × 17.4
3. Wind turbine operates with variable load
over a narrow range between cut – in 54. Two steel balls of 2 kg and 4 kg mass,
and cut – out velocities. respectively, are pressed on the two ends of
4. Vertical wind machine operates in all a spring, all pre – placed on a smooth
wind directions, but it needs yaw surface. When released, the smaller ball
adjustment. moves with an acceleration of 2 m/s2. The
Which of the above statements are correct? simultaneous acceleration of the bigger ball
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 4 will be
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 2 and 3 (A) 0.5 m/s2 (B) 1 m/s2
2
Key: (D) (C) 2 m/s (D) 4 m/s2
1 Key: (B)
Sol: P = cρAV3
2 Sol: m1 = 2kg, m 2 = 4kg
cut in speed − 5m / sec 
 narrow range
cut out speed − 25m / sec  1 2
m1 = 2kg
52. Which fuel cell is suitable for spacecraft m 2 = 4kg
a1 = 2 m sec 2 a2 = ?
applications?
15
Spring force on each mass F = m1a1 = m 2 a 2 its Young’s modulus. The Poisson’s ratio
2 µ of the material is nearly
a 2 = × 2 = 1m sec2
4 (A) 0.28 (B) 0.30 (C) 0.33 (D) 0.35
Key: (B)
55. A bullet of mass 0.03kg moving with a G
Sol: = 0.385
speed of 400 m/s penetrates 12 cm into a E
fixed block of wood. The average force E = 2G (1 + ν )
exerted by the wood on the bullet will be G 1
= = 0.385
(A) 30 kN (B) 20 kN (C) 15 kN (D) 10 kN E 2 (1 + ν )
Key: (B)
1
Sol: m = 0.03 kg = (1 + ν )
2 × 0.385
V = 400 m sec
(1 + ν ) = 1.297
K.E of bullet = work done
ν = 1.297 − 1 = 0.297
1
m ( v 2 ) = Force × d
2
58. A bar produces a lateral strain of magnitude
1 × 0.03 × 4002 60×10-5 m/m when subjected to a tensile
Force = = 20 kN
0.12 × 2 stress of magnitude 300 MPa along the axial
direction. What is the elastic modulus of the
56. A ball of weight 100N is tied to a smooth material if the Poisson’s ratio is 0.3?
wall by a cord making an angle of 30° to the (A) 200 GPa (B) 150 GPa
wall. The tension in the cord is (C) 125 GPa (D) 100 GPa
200 Key: (B)
(A) 200N (B) N
3 Sol: Lateral strain = 60 × 10−5 m m
(C) 100N (D) 50 3N σ = 300 MPa
Key: (B) ν = 0.3
Sol: −lateral strain
θ = 30o T 120ο ν=
30ο
linear strain
60 × 10−5
90 ο
R
0.3 =
150o linear strain
W ∈= linear strain = 2 × 10−3
T W R σ 300
= = E= = = 150 GPa
sin 90o sin120o sin150o ∈ 2 × 10−3
100sin 90 100 × 2 200
T= = = N 59. In the design of beams for a given strength,
sin120 3 3
consider that the conditions of economy of
57. The modulus of rigidity of an elastic used of the material would avail as follows:
material is found to be 38.5% of the value of
16
1. Rectangular cross-section is more 60. Which one of the following statements is

economical than square section of the correct?
same cross-sectional area of the beam. (A) The strain produced per unit volume is
2. Circular section is more economical than called resilience.
square section. (B) The maximum strain produced per unit
3. I-section is more economical than a volume is called proof resilience.
rectangular section of the same depth. (C) The least strain energy stored in a unit
Which of the above are correct? volume is called proof resilience.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (D) The greatest strain energy stored in a
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only unit volume of a material without permanent
Key: (D) deformation is called proof resilience.
Sol: Area M.I Key: (D)
bd 3 Sol: The greatest strain energy stored in a unit
for rectangle = b × d I = volume of a material with permanent
12
4 deformation is called proof resilience.
a
square = a 2
12
61. A beam of rectangular section (12 cm wide
π 2 π 4
circle = d d × 20 cm deep) is simply supported over a
4 64
span of 12 m. It is acted upon by a
Equating area of rectangle and square.
concentrated load of 80kN at the midspan.
a = bd The maximum bending stress induced is.
bd 3 (A) 400 MPa (B) 300 MPa
I rectangle bd 3 d (C) 200 MPa (D) 100 MPa
= 124 = 2 2 = > 1
Isquare a bd b Key: (B) 80kN
12 Sol: b = 12 cm = 120 mm
Hence Rectangle is more economical than d = 20cm = 200 mm
square cross-section. 6m 6m
π 2 π WL 80 × 103 × 12 × 103
a2 = d , a= d M max = =
4 2 Lp 4
4
 π 4 = 240 × 106 N − mm
a4 64 ×   d
Isquare  2  bd 3 120 × 2003
= 12 = I= = = 80 × 106
Icircle π 12 × π × d 4 12 12
d4
64 d 200
y= = = 100 mm
64 × π2 4π 2 2
= = >1
12 × π × 16 12 240 × 106
σ= × 100 = 300 MPa
Square is economical than circular cross- 80 × 106
section.
I-section is more economical than 62. A uniform bar, simply supported at the ends,
rectangular section. carries a concentrated load P at mid-span. If
the same load be, alternatively, uniformly
17
distributed over the full length of the bar the pD

σh2 =
maximum deflection of the bar will decrease 4t
by. pD
(A) 25.5% (B) 31.5% σ h1
= 2t = 2
(C) 37.5% (D) 50.0% σh 2 pD
Key: (C) 4t
Sol: W
64. A boy walks up a stalled escalator in 90
2 2
seconds. When the same escalator moves, he
is carried up in 60 seconds. How much time
WL3 would it take him to walk up the moving
δA =
48EI escalator?
w (A) 48 seconds (B) 36 seconds
(C) 30 seconds (D) 24 seconds
Key: (B)
Sol: Escalation at rest escalator
5WL4 5 ( WL ) L 5 W
3 v1 = d t1
δB = = =
384EI 384EI 384 E v1 = d 90 = 0.011d
d
% of decrease Escalator during running
δ − δB d d
= A × 100 v2 = = = 0.01667d
δA t 2 60
 1 5  WL3 1 Walking on moving escalator
−
 48 384  EI
= × 2
= 128 v1 + v 2 =
d
+
d
= 0.011d + 0.01667d
 1  WL 1 90 60
 48  EI 48 d
= 0.375 = 37.5% v = 0.02767 d =
36
t = 36sec
63. A thin cylindrical pressure vessel and a thin
spherical pressure vessel have the same mean 65. A 10 mm diameter bar of mild steel of
radius, same wall thickness and are subjected elastic modulus 200×109 Pa is subjected to a
to same internal pressure. The hoop stresses tensile load of 50000N, taking it just beyond
set up in these vessels (cylinder in relation to its yield point. The elastic recovery of strain
sphere) will be in the ratio. that would occur upon removal of tensile
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1 load will be
Key: (C) (A) 1.38×10–3 (B) 2.68×10–3
Sol: Cylindrical vessel (C) 3.18×10 –3
(D) 4.62×10–3
pD Key: (C)
σ h1 =
2t Sol: E = 200 GPa = 200 × 103 MPa
Spherical vessel P = 50000 N = 50kN
d =10 mm
18
P 50 × 103 Key: (C)

σ= = = 636.94 MPa
A π × 102 Sol: In iron carbon phase diagram, addition of
4 carbon to iron produced various phases and
σ = E∈ it is infinite slow cooling where as in T – T
σ 636.94 – T curve if do not produce a distinct phase.
∈= = = 3.14 × 10−3 Based on its rate of cooling the phase
E 200 × 103
formation will change w. r. t time.
66. On completion of heat treatment, the
austenite structure would be retained if 68. The correct order of increasing resistivity
(A) The rate of cooling is greater than the among the following materials is
critical cooling rate. (A) nickel, doped silicon, sodium silicate,
(B) The rate of cooling is less than the pure silica
critical cooling rate (B) doped silicon, nickel, pure silica, sodium
(C) The initiating temperature of martensite silicate
formation is above the room temperature (C) nickel, pure silica, sodium silicate,
(D) The finishing temperature of martensite doped silicon.
formation is below the room temperature. (D) sodium silicate, nickel, pure silica,
Key: (D) doped silicon.
Sol: Key: (A)
Sol: Nickel – Doped silicon – sodium – pure
silicate silica
Ms
Retained 10−7 − 10−4 − 2 − 104 → Resistivity
Austenite
appears here
Mf
If the finishing Temperature is below the On heating an elastomer under tensile load,
room temperature total Austenite will not be its shrinkage
corrected to martensite there will be refined 1. maximizes the enthalpy
Austenite. 2. maximizes the entropy
3. minimizes the free energy
67. Which one of the following statements is 4. avoids breaking
correct? Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) Iron – carbon and TTT diagrams are (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
both equilibrium diagrams. (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4
(B) Iron – carbon and TTT diagrams are Key: (D)
both non-equilibrium diagrams.
(C) Iron – carbon diagram is an equilibrium 70. Which of the following properties will be
diagram but TTT diagram is a non- the meaningful indicator / indicators of
equilibrium diagram. uniform rate of elongation of a test piece of
(D) Iron – carbon diagram is a non a structural material before necking happens
equilibrium diagram but TTT diagram is an in the test piece?
equilibrium diagram.
19
1. Ductility 2. Toughness number of degrees of freedom of the

3. Hardness mechanism is
Select the correct answer using the code (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4
given below. Key: (B)
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Sol: n = 10
(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 j1 = 12
Key: (A) j2 = 0
71. Which one of the following alloying DOF = 3 ( n − 1) − 2 j1 − j2

elements increases the corrosion resistance = 3 (10 − 1) − 2 (12 ) = 27 − 24 = 3
of steel?
(A) Vanadium (B) Chromium 74. The displacement and velocity diagrams of a
(C) Nickel (D) Copper cam and follower mechanism are shown:
Key: (B)
Sol: Chromium when alloyed with steel increases Displacement
B1 C1
corrosion resistance.
72. Which of the following mechanisms are A B C D E

examples of forced closed kinematic pairs?
1. Cam and roller mechanism One revolution of cam
2. Door – closing mechanism Velocity
3. Slider – crank mechanism
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Angular displacement
Key: (A) Which of the following statements is / are
Sol: Cam and roller mechanism correct?
1. The acceleration of the follower at the
beginning and at the end of each stroke
will be zero.
2. The follower remains at rest in the dwell
period.
3. During period DE, the motion of the
follower is retarding.
Door-closing mechanism consist of Select the correct answer using the code
Torsional spring. given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 only
73. A planer mechanism has 10 links and 12 (C) 2 only (D) 3 only
rotary joints. Using Grubler’s criterion, the Key: (C)
20
Sol: 77. A car of mass 1450 Kg is constructed on a

Dwell C′ chassis supported by four springs. Each
Displacement spring has a force constant of 40000 N m.
rise fall
Dwell The combined mass of the two people
A B C D E occupying the car is 150 kg. What is the
period of execution of two complete
vibrations?
Velocity
(A) 0.63 s (B) 1.59 s
(C) 4.96 s (D) 1.26 s
Key: (D)
Sol: m = 1450 kg, K = 40000 N/m
∞ ∞ ∞ k Total = 4 × 40000 = 160000 N m
m Total = 1450 + 150 = 1600 kg
k 160000
ωn = = = 100 = 10 rad sec
Follower remains at rest in the dwell period. m 1600
2π 1
ωn = 2πf = , f=
75. The number of instantaneous centers of T T
2π 2 × π 6.28
rotation in a slider-crank quick-return T= = = = 0.628 sec
mechanism is ωn 10 10
(A) 10 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 4 For 2 oscillation = 2 × 0.628 = 1.26 sec.
Key: (C)
Sol: No. of instantaneous centres 78. Consider the following statements:
n ( n − 1) Artefacts to prevent harmful effects
= resulting from vibrations of an unbalanced
2
4 ( 4 − 1) machine fixed on its foundation include.
12
= = =6 1. mounting the machine on springs
2 2
thereby minimizing the transmission of
forces
76. A simple spring-mass vibrating system has a
2. using vibration isolating materials to
natural frequency of N. If the spring
prevent or reduce the transmission of
stiffness is halved and the mass doubled,
forces
then the natural frequency will be
3. moving the foundation so as to have
(A) 0.5N (B) N (C) 2N (D) 4N
only one degree of freedom towards
Key: (A)
reducing the transmission of forces.
k k
Sol: N = k = , m = 2m. Which of the above statements are correct?
m 2 (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
N=
( k 2) = 1 k 1
= ωn = 0.5N
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
( 2m ) 2 m 2 Key: (D)
21
Steel wire
79. Two heavy rotors are mounted on a single B D
shaft. Considering each of the rotors Steel wire
1.0m
separately, the transverse natural frequencies
are 100 cycles/s and 200 cycles/s, 0.6m
respectively. The lower critical speed will be
A C
(A) 12000 r.p.m. (B) 9360 r.p.m
(C) 8465 r.p.m (D) 5367 r.p.m.
0.8m O
Key: (D)
1 1 1 20kN
Sol: 2 = 2 + 2
ω ω1 ω2 (A) 15.2 kN and 7.1 kN
1 1 1 (B) 11.8 kN and 7.1 kN
= + (C) 15.2 kN and 5.0 kN
f f12 f 22
(D) 11.8 kN and 5.0 kN
1 1 1
2
= 2
+ Key: (D)
f 100 2002
Sol:
f = 8000 = 89.44 B D
1.0m
N = 89.44 × 60 = 5366.6 rpm
0.6m

A C
In the case of gears of involute profiles,
0.8m
increase in the centre to centre distances
20kN
between the mounting shafts
ΣM C = 0
1. increases the pressure angle
TA (1) + TC ( 0.6 ) = 20 ( 0.8 )
2. will not affect the law of gearing
3. shortens the path of contact TA + 0.6TC = 16 ...(1)
4. increases the contact ratio 1.0m
0.6m
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 δC
δ
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 δ A δC A
=
Key: (B) 1 0.6
Sol: If the distance between centre is increased TA . A 1 T
then pressure angle also increases and path = × C B
E A .A A 0.6 E B .A B
of contact decreases and law of gearing will
0.6TA = TB ...(2)
be unaffected.
TA + ( 0.6 )( 0.6TA ) = 16
81. A rigid bar ACO as shown is hinged at O 16
TA = = 11.76 kN
and is held in a horizontal position by two 1.36
identical vertical steel wires AB and CD. A TB = 4.24 kN
point load of 20 kN is hung at the position
shown. The tensions in wires AB and CD 82. An epicyclic gear train has 3 shafts A, B and
are C. A is the input shaft running at 100 r.p.m.
22
clockwise. B is the output shaft running at 2

250 r.p.m. clockwise. The torque on A is 50
3
kNm (clockwise), C is a fixed shaft. The
torque needed to fix C is 4
(A) 20 kN m (anti-clockwise) RA
(B) 20 kN m (clockwise) N B = y + x.
TB
(C) 30 kN m (anti-clockwise)
TB
(D) 30 kN m (clockwise) NA = y − x =0
TA
Key: (C)
y − 0.25x = 0
Sol: TA = 50kN − m ( CW )
y = 1 rpm
N B = 250 rpm ( C.W )
x = 4 rpm
N A = 100rpm ( C.W )
N B = 1 + 4 = 5rpm
NC = 0
TA .N A + TB .N B + TC .N C = 0 84. Consider the following statements:
( 50 )(100 ) + ( TB )( 250 ) + ( TC )( 0 ) = 0 1. Balancing of several masses rotating in
the same plane can be effected by a
TB = −20kN − N ( A.C.W )
single mass.
TA + TB + TC = 0 ⇒ TC 2. Balancing of several masses in different
= −TA − TB = −50 − ( −20 ) planes can be done by 2 masses in 2
= −30 kN − m ( A.C.W ) planes on either side of the reference
plane or on the same side.
3. Reciprocating masses cannot be
83. A fixed gear having 200 teeth is meshed
completely balanced by rotating masses.
with a smaller gear having 50 teeth. The two
4. Secondary unbalanced forces will be
gears are connected by an arm. The number
negligible compared to primary
of turns made by the smaller gear for one
imbalance forces.
revolution of the arm about the centre of the
bigger gear is
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 4 only
Key: (D)
Key: (A)
Sol:
85. A body of mass 10 kg with its CG 200 mm
from the axis of rotation is to be completely
TA = 200 TB = 50
balanced by another mass B of 5 kg placed
in the same plane. The radius at which the
N arm = 1 rpm
CG of mass B should be is
Np = ? (A) 500 mm (B) 400 mm
S.No Arm Gear A Gear B (C) 300 mm (D) 200 mm
Key: (B)
1 0 +1
23
Sol: m A = 10 kg Sol: V = 360 kmph

rA = 200 mm r = 100 m
m B = 5 kg m = 500 kg
rB = ? K = 25cm = 0.25 m
m A rA = m B rB N = 2000 rpm
10 × 200 = 5 × rB 360 ×
5
V 18 = 1 rad sec
10 × 200
2
ωp = =
rB = = 400 R 100
5
C = Iωωp
86. Consider the following statements:  2π × 2000 
C = ( 500 )( 0.25) ×   × ( 0.1)
2
1. In stationary constant speed engines, the  60 

spring-loaded governor mechanism is = 6.55 kN − m
fitted on the cam-shaft of the engine.
2. Hunting occurs when the governor is 88. The maximum shearing stress induced in the
not sensitive. beam section at any layer at any position
3. Isochronous governors have the same along the beam length (shown in the figure)
speed over a wide range of governor is equal to 2000 kgf
action.
4. A governor is said to be unstable if the 200 mm
radius of rotation falls as the speed
1m
increases.
Which of the above statements are correct? 50 mm
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 only Cross − section of beam
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 2 and 3 only (A) 30 kgf/cm2 (B) 40 kgf/cm2
Key: (C) (C) 50 kgf/cm2 (D) 60 kgf/cm2
Key: (A)
87. An aircraft cruising at 360 kmph takes a Sol: 2000 kgf
right turn on an arc of 100 m radius. The
turbines and propellers have a total mass of
500 kg with radius of gyration of 25 cm. The 200mm
engine rotates at 2000 r.p.m. The magnitude

of the gyroscopic couple generated is
(A) 6.55 kN m (B) 7.65 kN m 50mm
(C) 9.81 kN m (D) 13.1 kN m 50mm
Key: (A)
100mm
V
τmax = Ay
Ib
24
V = 200 kgf (A) 1100 MN/m2 (B) 1075 MN/m2

5 × 203 (C) 1050 MN/m2 (D) 1025 MN/m2
I= = 3333.33 cm 4 Key: (C)
12
 100  Sol: σ max = 300 MPa
Ay = (100 × 50 )  
 2  σ min = −150 MPa
= 250000mm3 = 250cm3 σmax + σ min 300 − 150
σ min = = = 75 MPa
2000 × 25 2 2
τ= = 30kgf / cm 2
( 3333.33) × 5 σmax − σmin 300 − ( −150 )
σv = = = 225 MPa
2 2
σm σv 1
89. Consider the following statements: + =
For a component Made of ductile material, σut σe ( F.S)
the failure criterion will be σm σv 1
+ =
1. endurance limit, if the external force is σut σe F.S
fluctuating. 75 225 1
2. fatigue, if the external force is + =
σut 0.5 σ ut 2
fluctuating.
1 1
3. yield stress, if the external force is ( 75 + 450 ) =
σut 2
static.
Which of the above statements are correct? σ ut = 2 × ( 525 ) = 1050 MPa
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 91. In a Hartnell governor, the mass of each bell
Key: (*) is 4 kg. The maximum and minimum
Sol: 3. Ductile material fails by yielding if the centrifugal forces on the balls are 1800 N
load is static and 100 N at radii 25 cm and 20 cm,
2. Fatigue is failure of material when respectively. The lengths of vertical and
subjected to cyclic load. horizontal arms of the bell-crank levers are
1. Ability of material to withstand the same. What is the spring stiffness?
maximum stress when subjected to cycle (A) 780 N/cm (B) 740 N/cm
loading is called endurance limit. (C) 720 N/cm (D) 680 N/cm
Key: (D)
90. A machine component is subjected to a Sol: Given that, for a Hartnell governor,
flexural stress, which fluctuates between 300 Mass of each ball (m) = 4kg
MN/m2 and -150 MN/m2. Taking the yield Maximum centrifugal force (f2) = 1800N
strength = 0.55 of the ultimate strength, Minimum centrifugal force (f1) = 100N
endurance strength = 0.50 of the ultimate Max. radius of ball (r2) = 25cm
strength and factor of safety to be 2, the Min. radius of ball (r1) = 20cm
value of the minimum ultimate strength and lengths of vertical and horizontal arms
according to modified Goodman relation of the bell-crank levers are the same i.e., a=b
will be
25
Spring stiffness (K) for a Hartnell governor T τ Gθ

2
Sol: = =
a  f −f  J R
is = 2    2 1  T T
 b   r2 − r1  τ= R =
J Z
2  1800 − 100 
= 2 (1)   T GJ
 25 − 20  q= =
θ
 1700  τ, q to same then both should have same
= 2  = 680N / cm
 5  polar moment of Inertia.
92. Consider the following statements regarding
the ends of the pressure vessels flanged by 94. A solid shaft is to transmit 20 kW at 200
pre-tensioned bolts: r.p.m. The ultimate shear stress for the shaft
1. Pre-tensioning helps to seal the material is 360 MPa and the factor of safety
pressure vessel. is 8. The diameter of the solid shaft shall be
2. Pre-tensioning reduces the maximum (A) 42 mm (B) 45 mm
tensile stress in the bolts. (C) 48 mm (D) 51 mm
3. Pre-tensioning countermands the Key: (C)
fatigue life of the bolts. Sol: P = 20 × 103 W
4. Pre-tensioning helps to reduce the
N = 2000 rpm
deleterious effect of pressure pulsations
τ = 360 MPa
in the pressure vessel.
Which of the above statements are correct? F.O.S = 8
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only P × 60 20 × 103 × 60
T= = = 954.9 N − m
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only 2πN 2π × 200
(C) 2 and 4 only τ 16T 360 16 × 954.9 × 103
τsafe = ut = 3 ⇒ =
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 F.O.S πd 8 π × d3
Key: (B) 16 × 954.9 × 103 × 8 
1/3
Sol: Statement 2 is incorrect. d=  = 48 mm

 π × 360 
1, 3, 4 are correct.
93. Two shafts, one solid and the other hollow, 95. In the 4-bar mechanism as shown, the link
made of the same material, will have the PQ measures 30 cm and rotates uniformly at
same strength and stiffness, if both are of the 100 rev/min. The velocity of point Q on link
same PQ is nearly
(A) length as well as weight R
(B) length as well as polar modulus
(C) weight as well as polar modulus 50cm
60cm
(D) length, weight as well as polar
modulus Q
Key: (*)
70cm
P S
26
(A) 2.54 m/s (B) 3.14 m/s (A) 989 units/order and Rs. 20,065.80/
(C) 4.60 m/s (D) 5.80 m/s week
Key: (B) (B) 912 units/order and Rs. 20,065.80/
Sol: rPQ = 30cm week
N = 100 rpm (C) 989 units/order and Rs. 18,574.50/
week
 2 × π × 100 
VPQ = rPQ .N = 0.3 ×   (D) 912 units/order and Rs. 18,574.50/
 60  week
= 3.14 m sec Key: (B)
Sol: Annual Demand D = 52×400=20800 units
96. The rim of a flywheel is subjected to Unit cost = Rs. 50
(A) direct tensile stress and bending stress Ordering cost F = Rs. 75/ order
(B) torsional shear stress and bending stress Unit Carrying cost C = Rs. 50 × 7.5 %
(C) direct shear stress and bending stress C= Rs. 3.75 /unit/year.
(D) compressive stress and bending stress 2DF 2 × 20800 × 75
Key: (A) EOQ = =
C 3.75
Sol: Due to rotation centrifugal stresses are EOQ = 912units
setup.
& Total cost = 2DFC + D × unit cost
Considering the differential element of
= 2 × 20800 × 75 × 3.75 + 20800 × 50
flywheel.
= Rs. 20065
The bending stresses will be set for the
differential element segment.
98. Consider just only the following parameters:
M1 1. Grinding wheel diameter
2. Regulating wheel diameter
3. Speed of grinding wheel
4. Speed of regulating wheel
M2 Which of the above parameters will
influence the axial feed rate in centre-less
mrω 2 grinding?
97. A stockiest has to supply 400 units of a (A) 2 and 4 (B) 2 and 3
product every Monday to his customers. He (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4
gets the product at Rs. 50 per unit from the Key: (A)
manufacturer. The cost of ordering and
transportation from the manufacturer to the 99. A metric thread of pitch 2 mm and thread
stockist’s premises is Rs. 75 per order. The angle 60o is inspected for its pitch diameter
cost of carrying inventory is 7.5% per year using the 3-wire method. The indicated
of the cost of the product. What are the diameter of the wire will be nearly
economic lot size and the total optimal cost (A) 0.85 mm (B) 1.05 mm
(including capital cost) for the stockist? (C) 1.15 mm (D) 2.05 mm
Key: (C)
27
P Q substantial amount of fund is either released

Sol: Wire Diameter = sec  
2 2 from, or gets additionally invested in,
2 inventory. Which one of the following
= sec ( 30° )
2 statements is correct?
= 1.15mm (A) Rs. 1, 60,000 is released.
(B) Rs. 1, 60,000 is additionally invested.
100. Consider the following statements with (C) Rs. 60,000 is released.
reference to NC machines: (D) Rs. 60,000 is additionally invested.
1. Both closed-loop and open-loop Key: (C)
systems are used. cos t of goods sold
Sol: Inventory turnover =
2. Papers, tapes, floppy tapes and Avg. inventory cos t
cassettes are used for data storage. 800000
3. Digitizers may be used as interactive Old Avg. inventory cost = = 160000.
5
input devices. 800000
New Avg. inventory cost = = 100000.
4. Post-processor is an item of hardware. 8
Which of the above statements are correct? So, Rs. 60000 fund will be released.
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3 103. An 8-hour measurement study in a plant
Key: (D) reveals that 320 number of units were
Sol: Post processor is used in CNC machines produced. If idle time = 15% and
only & not is NC machines. performance rating = 120%, with allowance
So, Statement 4 is wrong. = 12% of normal time, the standard time per
unit produced will be
101. Consider the following benefits of CIM: (A) 1.823 minutes (B) 1.714 minutes
1. Less direct labour (C) 1.645 minutes (D) 1.286 minutes
2. Less scrap and rework Key: (B)
3. Higher machine use Sol: Observed Time per unite
Which of the above are correct? 8 × 0.85 × 60
OT = = 1.275 min
(A) 1, 2 and 3 320
(B) 1 and 2 only Normal time, NT=OT× Performance Rating
(C) 1 and 3 only = 1.275 × 1.2
(D) 2 and 3 only = 1.53 min
Key: (A) Standard time, ST = NT×1.12
Sol: With CIM, less direct labour & less rework =1.72 min.
& scrap & utilization of machine is
maximum. 104. An organization’s sales during a financial
year is Rs. 6,00,000 with 90% of it on credit.
102. A firm’s inventory turnover of Rs. 8,00,000 At the end of the year, the receivables
is 5 times the cost of goods sold. If the turnover was found to be 5. Considering 365
inventory turnover is improved to 8 with the days to a year, the average collection period
cost of goods sold remaining the same, a and receivables are, respectively.
28
(A) 81 days and Rs. 1, 08,000 programmable electronic components

(B) 73 days and Rs. 1, 08,000 that perform control functions.
(C) 81 days and Rs. 1, 20,000 (C) Digital circuits for data handling and
(D) 73 days and Rs. 1, 20,000 computation.
Key: (B) (D) The primary computation and system
600000 control operations.
Sol: Inventory cost = = Rs.120000
5 Key: (A)
Received inventory = 1200000×0.9
=Rs. 108000 107. Which one of the following statements is
1 correct?
Avg. collection period = × 365 = 73days
5 Seismic transducer working in the
displacement mode should have
105. A particular item has a demand of 9000 (A) weak springs and heavy mass
units/year. The cost of one procurement is (B) stiff springs and light mass
Rs. 108 and the holding cost per unit is Rs. (C) weak springs and light mass
2.40/year. The replacement is instantaneous (D) stiff springs and heavy mass
and no shortages are allowed. What is the Key: (A)
optimum number of orders/year?
(A) 7 orders/year 108. What will be the velocity of piston
(B) 8 orders/year movement for a single-acting hydraulic
(C) 9 orders/year actuator, when the fluid pressure is 100 bar,
(D) 10 orders/year the diameter of the piston is 50 mm and the
Key: (D) flow rate is 0.3 m3/min?
Sol: D = 9000 units/year (A) 2.41 m/s (B) 2.55 m/s
F = Rs. 108/order (C) 2.67 m/s (D) 2.84 m/s
C= Rs. 2.4 / unit/year Key: (B)
2DF 2 × 9000 × 108 Sol: Given, D = 0.05m
∴ EOQ = = = 900units Q = 0.3m3/min
C 2.4
Optimum No. of orders per year ∵ Q = A.V
π 2
=
D
=
9000
= 10 orders / year. Q= D .V
EOQ 900 4
4Q 4 × 0.3
so, V = = = 2.55m / s
πD 3.14 × ( 0.05 )
2 2
106. Which one of the following is correct with

respect to microcontrollers? 109. A stepper motor is to be used to drive the
(A) Integration of a microprocessor with I/O linear axis of a certain Mechatronics system.
interfaces and memory and other The motor output shaft is connected to a
peripherals in a single IC chip screw thread with a 30 mm pitch. Linear
(B) A single very large scale integrated resolution of 0.5 mm is stipulated. What is
(VLSI) chip that contains the needed step angle?
(A) 9o (B) 8o (C) 7o (D) 6o
29
Key: (D) (C) B-C-D-F; 50 weeks and 2 weeks

Sol: Pitch on screw thread = 30mm (D) A-C-E-F; 50 weeks and 0 week
Linear resolution required = 0.5mm Key: (A)
For one rotation of screw, it advances by Sol: ∵ Critical path is longest path of network
30mm & its length is equal to project duration.
For getting 0.5mm resolution, the motor So, A – C – E – F is critical path with
 0.5  duration 16 + 8 + 6 + 12 = 42 Weeks
shaft has to rotate =   rotations
 30  & ∵ Float for critical Activity is zero.
1 So, free Float of Activity A is zero.
= rotations
60
Step angle 112. Consider the following statements with
1 reference to SCARA Robot:
⇒ × 360 = 6 (∵1Rotation = 360 ) 1. It has four degrees of freedom.
60
110. Consider the following statements regarding 2. It has only one forward kinematic
a stepper motor: solution.
1. The rotation angle of the motor is 3. It has two inverse kinematic solutions.
proportional to the input pulse. Which of the above statements are correct?
2. The motor has full torque at standstill. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
3. Speed and electric control signal of the (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
motor vary mutually linearly. Key: (D)
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only 113. Consider the following statements regarding
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 the laws of Robotics:
Key: (D) 1. A Robot shall not injure a human being
or, through inaction, allow a human
111. The following table lists the tasks in a being harmed.
project and the time duration for each task: 2. A Robot must obey orders given by
humans except when such orders
Preceding Normal duration conflict with first law.
Task
Task (in weeks) 3. A Robot must always protect its own
A -- 16 existence.
B -- 20 Which of the above statements are correct?
C A 8 (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
D A 10 (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
E B, C 6 Key: (A)
F D, E 12 Sol: The Robot should obey l and 2.
The critical path, the project duration and
114. The number of degrees of freedom in a 3D
the free float for activity A are, respectively.
Robot of TRL : R type configuration is
(A) A-C-E-F; 42 weeks and 0 week
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
(B) B-E-F; 42 weeks and 1 week
Key: (A)
30
115. Which of the following are the basic (A) 225 kJ (B) 450 kJ
differences between vibration signature and (C) 900 kJ (D) 1800 kJ
noise signature? Key: (C)
1. Vibration signature is essentially in the Sol: m = 500 kg
frequency range zero to 100 cps whereas k = 300 mm
noise signature is in the range 20 cps to T = 900 N − m
3000 cps.
T = Iα
2. Vibration signature has well-defined
900 = 500 × 0.32 × α
peaks whereas the noise signal is
900
smeared. α= = 20 rad sec 2
3. The intensities of noise signatures are 500 × 0.32
much less than that of vibration ω = ω0 + αt
signatures. ω
α=
4. Detection of vibration signature calls for t
a microphone whereas that of noise can ω = 20 × 10 = 200 rad sec2
do with a pickup. 1 1
K.E = Iω2 = × ( 500 × 0.32 ) × ( 200 )
2
Select the correct answer using the code 2 2
given below. = 900 kJ
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3
118. In a counterflow heat exchanger, hot gases
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 3 and 4
enter at 250oC and leave at 100oC.
Key: (B)
Atmospheric air enters at 50o C and leaves at
80oC. The effectiveness of the heat
116. Consider the following features relating to
exchanger will be
Robot kinematics with reference to SCARA
(A) 0.20 (B) 0.25
Robot:
(C) 0.30 (D) 0.35
1. Shoulder and elbow rotational axes are
Key: (*)
vertical.
Sol: Given, hot gases
2. The Robot could perform insertion
Thi = 250°C
tasks along the vertical direction.
3. Its general configuration is analogous Tho = 100°C
to that of a human arm. atmospheric air TCi = 50°C
Which of the above features are correct? TCo = 80°C
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only Qact
So,∈=
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Q max = Cmin ( Thi − Tci )
Key: (D)
here,Ch < Cc
117. A flywheel fitted to a steam engine has a ∵ large temperature variation takes placein
mass of 500 kg and radius of gyration hot gases
300mm. The starting torque is 900 N m.
What is the kinetic energy after 10 s?
31
So,Cmin = Ch WC1 = WC2

Ch ( Thi − Tho ) ( 250 − 100 ) = 0.75 For perfect intercooling ( T1 = T3 )
∈= =
Ch ( Thi − TCi ) ( 250 − 50 ) P2 = P3 = P1P4
∈= 0.75 5
T
119. Two air streams with mass flow rates of 36
4
kg/min and 14 kg/min with respective
WC2 2
enthalpies of 36 kJ/kg da and 50 kJ/kg da 6
WC1
are mixed. The enthalpy of the mixture is 3 1
nearly
(A) 64 kJ/kg da (B) 55 kJ/kg da S
(C) 46 kJ/kg da (D) 40 kJ/kg da
Directions:
Key: (D)
Each of the following thirty (30) items
Sol: Given
•
consists of two statements, one labelled as
m1 = 36 kg min ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement
• (II)’. Examine these two statements
m 2 =14 kg min
carefully and select the answers to these
h1 = 36 kJ kg items using the code given below:
h 2 = 50 kJ kg Code:
after mixing Enthalpy of mixture (A) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
• • individually true and Statement (II) is
m1 h + m 2 h
(h)= •1 • 2 the correct explanation of Statement (I)
  (B) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
 m1 + m 2 
  individually true but Statement (II) is
=
( 36 × 36 ) + (14 × 50 ) not the correct explanation of Statement
36 + 14 (I).
h = 40 kJ kg D.A (C) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II)
120. Consider the following statements in respect is false.
of maximum efficiency of a two-stage (D) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II)
reciprocating compressor: is true.
1. The pressure ratios are same for each
stage. 121. Statement (I):
2. The work done is same in each stage. Depth of centre of pressure of any immersed
3. The intercooling is perfect. surface is independent of the density of the
Which of the above statements are correct? liquid.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only Statement (II):
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Centre of area of the immersed body lies
Key: (D) below the centre of pressure.
Sol: In two-stage reciprocating compressor, for Key: (C)
maximum efficiency.
32
Sol: ∵ Distance of centre of pressure from free 124. Statement (I):

surface is A homogeneous mixture of gases that do not
Icc1 sin 2 θ react within themselves can be treated as a
y cp = y +
Ay pure substance.
So, centre of Pressure is independent of Statement (II):
density of liquid & C.P is below centroid of Flue gases can be treated as a homogeneous
Area. mixture of gases.
Key: (A)
122. Statement (I):
In flow through a pipeline, the nature of the 125. Statement (I):
fluid flow depends on the velocity of the Air-blast injection in diesel engines could
fluid. reduce engine efficiency.
Statement (II): Statement (II):
Reynolds number of the flow depends on the Air-blast injection in diesel engines is not
velocity, the diameter of the pipe and the instantaneous but happens when the piston
kinematic viscosity of the fluid. moves outward with the injection valve
Key: (A) remaining open for whatever reason.
Sol: ∵ Nature of flow depends on Reynolds No. Key: (C)
(Re)
126. Statement (I):
VD
& Re = Use of non-azeotropic mixtures used as the
ν
refrigerant in a vapour-compression system
Where V = Velocity of fluid
improves the coefficient of performance.
D = Dia. of pipe
Statement (II):
ν =Kinematic viscosity.
The increase in this coefficient is
attributable to reduction in volume.
123. Statement (I):
Key: (C)
The specific heat at constant pressure for an
ideal gas is always greater than the specific
127. Statement (I):
heat at constant volume.
Sub-cooling of a refrigerant liquid increases
Statement (II):
the coefficient of performance of a
Heat added at constant volume is not
refrigeration cycle.
utilized for doing any external work.
Statement (II):
Key: (A)
Sub-cooling reduces the work requirement
Sol: C P > CV (always)
of the refrigeration cycle.
∵W = ∫ Pdv Key: (C)
If constant volume then, W = 0 (∵ V1 = V2 ) Sol: In sub-cooling it doesn’t affect the work
requirement
3-31-subcooling
1-2-compressor work i/p.
33
P Statement (II):
3' 3 Air that has been compressed to clearance
2 volume expands to larger volumes during
the suction stroke.
4' 4 1
Key: (A)
h
Sol: Statement is correct because of scavenging
128. Statement (I): effect.
In vapour-absorption system, larger the
value of specific solution circulation, more 132. Statement (I):
the pump work. Providing reheat in a Rankine cycle would
Statement (II): increase the efficiency of the cycle.
Higher solution circulation rates of poor as Statement (II):
well as rich solutions need larger pressure Reheat in Rankine cycle reduces specific
drops in the system. steam consumption.
Key: (A) Key: (A)
Sol: As circulation rate increases, the pressure 1
Sol: ∵ Specific Steam Rate (S.S.C) =
drop increase during flow in pipe. Wnet
Due to reheating Wnet ↑ so steam
129. Statement (I):
Outward radial flow turbines do race consumption decreases.
inherently.
Statement (II): 133. Statement (I):
In outward radial flow turbines, the Heat carried away by hot gases in chimney
centrifugal head impressed upon the exiting draught is much greater than the work
water leads to flow increase. required for lifting the same gases through
the height of the chimney. Yet artificial
Key: (A)
draught is not preferred.
130. Statement (I): Statement (II):
Regarding the power transmitted by a Artificial draught involves large initial cost
clutch, greater the speed, lower the torque to as well as large maintenance cost.
be transmitted for fixed power rating. Key: (D)
Statement (II): Sol: In most of power plant artificial draught is
The clutch is placed on the low-speed side to use.
transmit larger torque.
134. Statement (I):
Key: (C)
The overall combustion efficiency of a fuel
131. Statement (I): oil based plant is less as compared to that of
The volume of air taken into the cylinder of a coal burning plant.
a reciprocating air compressor is less than Statement (II):
the stroke volume of the cylinder.
34
Fuel oils contain comparatively larger Diffuse radiation measured by pyrometer.

percentage of hydrogen, which produce
more moisture per kg of fuel burnt. 138. Statement (I):
Key: (D) Directionally solidified materials have good
Sol: Due to high ash contain combustion creep resistance.
efficiency of coal burning plant is less Statement (II):
compared to fuel oil based plant. Directionally solidified materials may be so
loaded that there is no shearing stress along,
135. Statement (I): or tensile stress across, the grain boundaries.
Proximate analysis of coal is done to Key: (A)
determine its calorific value.
Statement (II): 139. Statement (I):
In proximate analysis of coal, the The ideal material for shafts transmitting
percentages of moisture, volatile matter, power is CI.
fixed carbon and ash are determined. Statement (II):
Key: (D) CI resists compression well.
Sol: Calorific value is achieved by calorimetric Key: (D)
analysis.
140. Statement (I):
136. Statement (I): Hardenability curves are developed based on
Water entering into a condenser from the the fact that any given steel item always
cooling tower has much dissolved develops the same microstructure under a
impurities. standardized cooling rate.
Statement (II): Statement (II):
In a closed cooling system, the water is Industry employs Jominy hardenability test
continuously aerated, therefore, there is to measure hardenability.
abundant dissolved oxygen in this water. Key: (B)
Key: (C)
Sol: In a closed cooling system there are chances 141. Statement (I):
of deaeration due to the presence of vaccum. Cams used in high-speed application should
have displacement, velocity and acceleration
137. Statement (I): curves of the follower in continuity.
Pyranometer is used to measure diffuse solar Statement (II):
radiation by blocking the direct radiation Abrupt changes in these curves will cause
with a shadow band. high contact stresses at the bearings and
Statement (II): make the operation noisy.
Pyrheliometer is used to measure diffuse Key: (A)
radiation.
Key: (C)
Sol: Pyrheliometer is used to measure direct
component of solar radiation.
35
142. Statement (I): Key: (D)

Resonance is a special case of forced Sol: Statement-I is incorrect because density is
vibration in which the natural frequency of different, masses will be different even
the body is the same as the impressed though both the disc have same size. Even if
frequency of the external periodic force the masses are made same then radius of
whereby the amplitude of the forced gyration will be different.
vibration peaks sharply. mR 2
Statement (II): I=
2
The amplitude of forced vibration of a body m = ρ.v = ρ.A.t
increases with increase in the frequency of m1 = m 2
the externally impressed periodic force.
R12 π
Key: (C) I1 = ρ1A1t1 × = ρ1 R14 t1
2 2
R 2
π
143. Statement (I): I 2 = ρ2 A 2 t 2 × 2 = ρ2 R 24 t 2
2 2
All worm drives (worm and worm wheel) t1 = t 2
are reversible.
Say ρ1 < ρ2 then R 1 > R 2
Statement (II):
The worm and worm wheel are made of I 2 > I1
different materials. 146. Statement (I):
Key: (D) The speed of a governed water turbine will
Sol: Statement-I is incorrect remain constant irrespective of load.
It cannot be reversible because the drive is Statement (II):
used to increase the torque. In governing, the water supply is regulated
to maintain the speed constant.
144. Statement (I): Key: (A)
There is no balancing methodology in the
case of reciprocating engines. 147. Statement (I):
Statement (II): In sugarcane crushing rollers, the fit
Balancing of dynamic forces is achieved between the cast roll and the forged steel
mostly by resorting to multi-cylinder engine shaft is of interference type.
concept. Statement (II):
Key: (C) This helps in removing the roll from the
shaft whenever not needed.
145. Statement (I): Key: (A)
Two circular discs of equal masses and
148. Statement (I):
thickness made of different materials will
Thicker sections of casting take longer to
have same moment of inertia about their
solidify than thinner sections.
central axes of rotation.
Statement (II):
Statement (II):
Thicker sections of casting carry residual
Moment of inertia depends upon the
stresses.
distribution of mass within the body.
36
Key: (B)
149. Statement (I):

Sand with grains of uniform round shape is
preferred for preparing moulds.
Statement (II):
If grains are large and regular in shape, the
air-venting property of the mould prepared
with them would be better.
Key: (D)
150. Statement (I):

Bar chart plots in the time dimension the
planned performance of various activities of
a project.
Statement (II):
One advantage of a bar chart is that the inter
sequence and linkage of all activities is
indicated there in.
Key: (C)
37

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ESE-2017 |ME| Objective Paper-II

Each question carries two marks FH =ρghA

nearly. So Fg = 2600 × 510 × 9.81=1326K kgf

2. A Spherical waterdrop of 1 mm in diameter

BaseWidth So, work require in splitting = E2–E1

So, work require in splitting = E 2 − E1 P1 V12 P V2

6. An oil flows through a pipe at a velocity of Key: (D)

v max 2 Isothermal work = P1V1n ( P1 P2 )

Key: (C) Sol: T(K)

Thickness ( L ) =100mm Thermal conductivity ( K ) = 0.03W mK

Ti = 250°C,To = 50°C So, N ν = h Lc K ( here Lc = D )

inside the sphere maintains the surface F12 = 1

2πNT B.P 9kW

[ R.E > R.E '] 31. Consider the following statements:

compressor can be improved by mice = 20 kg min

Availability = ( h1 − h 2 ) − To ( S1 − S2 ) 1. The specific speed of a turbine is the

41. Consider the following statements in respect x

43. In the working of a vapour-compression P

2. Enthalpy at outlet of compressor (after V

What is the COP of the plant? η −1  P1  

-Because of steam flow rate to condenser 0.8

1. Rectangular cross-section is more 60. Which one of the following statements is

distributed over the full length of the bar the pD

P 50 × 103 Key: (C)

1. Ductility 2. Toughness number of degrees of freedom of the

71. Which one of the following alloying DOF = 3 ( n − 1) − 2 j1 − j2

72. Which of the following mechanisms are A B C D E

Sol: 77. A car of mass 1450 Kg is constructed on a

80. Consider the following statements:

clockwise. B is the output shaft running at 2

Sol: m A = 10 kg Sol: V = 360 kmph

1. In stationary constant speed engines, the  60 

engine rotates at 2000 r.p.m. The magnitude

V = 200 kgf (A) 1100 MN/m2 (B) 1075 MN/m2

Spring stiffness (K) for a Hartnell governor T τ Gθ

Sol: Statement 2 is incorrect. d=  = 48 mm

P Q substantial amount of fund is either released

(A) 81 days and Rs. 1, 08,000 programmable electronic components

106. Which one of the following is correct with

Key: (D) (C) B-C-D-F; 50 weeks and 2 weeks

So,Cmin = Ch WC1 = WC2

Sol: ∵ Distance of centre of pressure from free 124. Statement (I):

Fuel oils contain comparatively larger Diffuse radiation measured by pyrometer.

142. Statement (I): Key: (D)

149. Statement (I):

150. Statement (I):

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v max 2 Isothermal work = P1V1n ( P1 P2 )