DAHİLİYE'DETUS SORULARI Eng PDF

EXIT IN THE INTERNAL TASS QUESTIONS
'HEMATOLOGY
GENERAL INFORMATION
- reaction ... Which of the following transplanted Graft-Versus-Hosted bone marrow T cells react to the recipient is an
example of GVHD. Type IV is an example of a cellular immune response.
Which is the most appropriate treatment for an 18-year-old male patient diagnosed with aplastic anemia ...Stem cell
transplantation as soon as possible if an appropriate donor HLA is detected.
does not change the structure.
The most obvious change in exposure to chronic benzene is in the following organ: Patients exposed to chronic
benzene may develop acute leukemia and aplastic anemia.
Which of the following acts on the multipotent stem cell. .. IL-3; It is produced by activated T helper cells. Stem cell
factor and IL-3 are the broadest spectrum growth factors.
- Blood group antigen system with natural antibodies ... ABOU
'In a patient who has only thrombocytopenia in the blood count but does not describe bleeding, the test that should be
requested in the next stage ... Peripheral smear
Anemia in
Which of the following is not the cause of hypochrome microcytic anemia. .. Iron deficiency, thalassemia, chronic
disease anemia, sideroblastic anemia makes microcytic anemia. Nineteen years old male patient had 5 cm
splenomegaly, reticulocyte indirect concentration of bilirubin 3%, 38%, 4.5 mg / dl Hb 12 and gr / dl, direct
erythrocyte direct bilirubin hemoglobin Coombs 0.5 mg / dl (-).
Your diagnosis is: .. Spleen large, hemolytic anemia, MCHC high hereditary spherocytosis. D. Coombs positive
autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
Iron is put with a lack of which ...The definite diagnosis of definite anemia is made by bone biopsy of the bone
marrow. The first laboratory finding was a reduction in the level of serum ferritin.
Direct Coombs (-) Which of the following may be positive in all autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Negative in PNH.
'If you have low hemoglobin and low iron binding capacity, your diagnosis is as follows: If serum iron is low and iron
binding capacity is low, the only possibility is chronic disease anemia.
- Quinine
Hemolytic anemia may be the cause of the following. .. Glucose-hem-phosphate— anemia dehydrogenase is
considered if drug history and hemolysis were given. Methyl (G6PD) dopa deficiency makes autoimmune and
hemolytic autoimmune anemia, other hemolytic drugs 66PD deficiency.
- Which of the following is not seen in aplastic anemia ...
Organomegaly, normoblast, uric lymphadopathy, acidic reticulocyte, does not. I. Bilirubin, LDH, Child with
microcephaly, microphthalmia, no thumb, 'pale, dark, history of sibling death with the same findings, and no
hematological findings were detected at the first examination.
In this patient, you would consider ...The table described is Fanconi (OR) aplastic anemia.
Which of the following is not a diagnostic criterion for aplastic anemia ...There is no reticulocytosis in aplastic anemia.
There is reticulocytopenia.
- Nutrition
Which of the following is not seen in Fe deficiency anemia due to impaired ... Iron deficiency anemia does not cause
reticulocytosis. The reticulocyte count is usually normal.
- Osmotic erythrocytes in which
fragility test increases fragility ...Put with hereditary.
spherocytosis diagnosis osmotic
Which of the following is used in the diagnosis of anemia ... has no place. Liver Serum 560T is used in the diagnosis
of diseases of the heart level and anemia.
Megaloblastic gijcilmg ...In ineffective anemia, intramedullary hemolysis due to hematopoiesis is low due to
reticulocyte. In hemolytic anemia, which of the following ...Haptoglobulin, hemopexin and erythrocyte half-life is
shortened in hemolysis. Others increase.
It is characterized by an increase in erythrocyte fragility, obstruction of isometric vessels in low O2 conditions, and a
change in configuration and anemia.Hypoxia and infections become sickles. In vascular cell anemia, occlusions infarct
on erythrocytes, resulting in sickle infarction, causing leg ulcers.
A child with indirect hyperbilirubinemia has anemia and reticulocytosis. Examination of the patient revealed a 2 cm
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spleen and gallbladder stone. Most of the diagnosis is m ... Anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly and gallstones are among
the most important findings of hereditary spherocytosis.
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If abundant hypersegmentation is detected in the peripheral smear of leukocytes, which is the most likely diagnosis,
hypersegmentation in leukocytes, especially neutrophils, is typical of megaloblastic anemias.
In a patient with congenital hemolytic anemia, frequent pulmonary infection and no splenomegaly, the most likely Igni
is one of the following ... Otosplenectomy occurs in Turkish cell anemia. Encapsulated bacterial infections are
common.
Which of the following does not cause immune hemolytic anemia, jooley anemia is thalassemia major. Immune
hemolytic anemia is not seen.
Primoline, aspirin, sul onamides, .nitrofurantoin, phenacetin, naphthodene, some vitamin K analogs, methylene blue,
antipyrine, fenhidrazine, acetanilide, chlorokine and chloramphenicol hemolysis.
In beta thalassemia major, hemolytic anemia is one of the following. . For the globulin, a? 4 Hbs are formed and
erythrocytes are broken down.
- Large, anemia of liver and spleen in a baby born with edema
It is available.
Direct Coombs (+) can not be one of the following ___Thalassemias coombs (-) are anemia.
One patient had hepatosplenomegaly, subcutaneous, deep pallor, reticulocytosis and low hemoglobin.
Which of the following is considered first ... Extravascular hemolytic anemias include hepatomegaly, splenomegaly,
indirect bilirubin increase, anemia, reticulocytosis.
- Forty-eight year old man has glossitis and limping while walking. Hb 8 g / dl, hematocrit 24%, MCV 112 micron
cubes measured.
In this patient, you would consider ...In a patient with anemia, Hunter's tongue and neurological findings, the first
diagnosis should be a lack of diagnosis.
Vapid: the disease caused by the emergence of a base, the addition of a base or the displacement of the base occurs in
which ... In sickle cell anemia, Hbs occurs as a result of valine replacing glutamic acid, the 6th amino acid of the
globulin beta chain.
Peripheral smear shows hypochromic-microcytic, target cell and basophilic punctuation. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is
the most reliable diagnostic method in hemoglobinopathies such as thalassemia and sickle cell anemia. Other causes of
basophilic punctuation include lead poisoning, thalassemia and chronic hemolysis. Hematogenic clonal stem cell
disease Mnn Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is a stem cell disease.
Indications for transfusion in patients with anemia are:Hemoglobin is less than 7 g / dl and is indicated for blood
transfusion in symptomatic patients. Symptoms include angina, heart failure, acute myocardial infarction,
cerebrovascular events, and syncope.
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_ In a person with anemia, which of the following was not a sign of hemolysis ...Poikylocytosis and anisocytosis are
not specific to any anemia. It can happen in all anemia.
The patient with autoimmune hemolytic anemia is the first one of the following: Treatment of: steroids, splenectomy,
immunosuppressive drugs. The first choice is steroids.
In microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, gm. . . There is no hemolysis in immune thrombocytopenia. It is an unrelated
answer.
Which of the following changes the compensation mechanism of anemia? ___ Diphosphoglycerate 2-3 does not
decrease but increases in anemia. Other options are true.
A patient with thalassemia major underwent blood transfusion once every 3-4 weeks and had to be performed every 7
days.
The mn option for this patient is the following: _, _plenectomine indications; Splenectomy is recommended for patients
with ipersplenism, patients over the age of 9, and those whose transfusion needs have doubled compared to the
previous year or who have more than 200 ml / kg.
Which of the following is the iron deficiency anemia il_k mm bulgudur___ Iron deficiency anemia is the first falling
and the last parameter is the storage iron.
Complement sensitive erythrocyte destruction is one of the following ...Par0kSismal is a disease with complement
lysis in nocturnal hemoglobinuria.
In hemoglobin H disease, the subgroups forming the inclusion body in the erythrocytes are: HbH as a precipitate in the

form of beta4. Hb Barts occur.
If reticulocytosis is also detected in a patient with anemia, the most likely diagnosis is ... Anemia The first diagnosis
that comes to mind is hemolytic anemia. .
Which of the following in pernicious anemia hugging. .. There is no massive splenomegaly in pernicious anemia.
Macrocytosis in which M m. .. B6 deficiency does not cause macrocytic anemia.
In the pre-treatment peripheral smear of a patient with iron deficiency, which is Mame; Polychromasia is seen in
hemolytic anemia. It is the staining of erythrocytes in different colors.
The patient has had jaundice for the past year and does not have abdominal pain. Minimal splenomegaly is detected.
Gallstones are observed. In laboratory tests, hemoglobin amount was 12.19, hematocrit value was 38%, MCV: 78 fl,
MCHC: 38 g / dl. reticulocyte count was 8%, total serum bilirubin level was 2.8 mg / dl and direct serum bilirubin
level was 0.4 mg / dl.
Sar Jaundice observed in this patient may be due to which of the following. . .All the signs of heretider spherocytosis
are listed.
Which is the microangiopathic hemolytic anemia mm. . . Hypersplenism is an example of extravascular hemolysis.
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A 40-year-old woman presented with complaints of progressive fatigue, yellowing of the eyes, numbness in the hands
and feet. In laboratory tests, hemoglobin level was 7 g / dL, hematocrit value was 21%, MCV (mean erythrocyte
volume) was 112 fL, platelet count was 96 OOO / mm3, leucocyte count was 4100 / mm3 and reticulocyte count was
1%. Anisocytosis, poikylocytosis, macroovalocytes and basophilic punctuation are observed in peripheral smear.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient...Macrocytic anemia + neurological finding can not
be anything else in vitamin 812 deficiency there.
- A 17-year-old male patient was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of infarction in the distribution area of the
middle cerebral artery. It is learned from her history that there are repeated, severe abdominal, arm, leg and bone pains.
Physical examination showed pallor. Laboratory tests revealed that the number of leukocytes was 1400 / mm3,
hemoglobin amount was 9 g, hematocrit value was 28%, coagulation tests were normal, urine density was 1010 and
blood biochemistry was normal.
The first test for diagnosis in this patient is: 1 (sucking pain and anemia sickle cell anemia is considered, the diagnosis
is made by hemoglobin electrophoresis).
A 39-year-old female patient presented with complaints of fatigue and pallor. Physical examination revealed that the
patient was normal. In laboratory tests, hemoglobin level was 8.2 g / dl, hematocrit level was 26%, MCV 66 fL, MCH
26 pg, MCHC 26 g / dL and reticulocyte count were 0.8%.
In order to diagnose this patient, which of the following is not necessary ... In this patient with hypochrome,
microcytic anemia and reticulocyte, hemosiderin test with hemolysis findings is not necessary.
- A 25-year-old female patient with anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia and abdominal pain had a physical
examination of Budd-Chiari syndrome and splenomegaly. In laboratory examinations, hemoglobin amount is 7.2 9%,
hematocrit value is 26%, reticulocyte number is 7.5% ...Abdominal pain + intravascular hemolysis + pancytopenia:
PNH.
- A 75-year-old male patient admitted to hospital with fatigue and paleness was found to have a hemoglobin level of
9.8 g / dL and a fecal occult blood test positive.GIS in iron deficiency anemia and etiology
malignancy, especially colon ca should be investigated.
- A 60-year-old male patient presented with complaints of long-standing weakness, stomatitis, ataxia and
disorientation. In laboratory tests, hemoglobin level is 6.0 g / dL, leukocyte count is 4000 / mm3, platelet count is 80
OOO / mm3 and mean erythrocyte volume (MCV) is 140 33.
In this patient with bone marrow hypersellularity, the serum level of one of the following should be checked for
diagnosis ... Anemia + neurological signs, + Hunter language: BIZ deficiency is considered. Serum b12 level is
checked.
Which of the following laboratory values is compatible with iron deficiency anemia ...Iron binding capacity is high,
others are low.
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I. Neutrophil count: 4OO / mm3 II. Number of platelets: 15 OOO / mm3 III. Number of reticulocytes: 50 OOO / mm3
IV. Cellular density in bone marrow (cellularity): 50%
Which of the above laboratory findings is expected in a patient with severe aplastic anemia at the age of virmi ... Ive II
In a patient with microcytic anemia, hematocrit value was 32%, serum iron level, transferrin saturation and ferritin
level were normal.

This patient should be considered primarily in the differential diagnosis. . .Carrier of Mediterranean anemia
- Conditions leading to vitamin 812 deficiency ... Gastrectomy, Pancreatic insufficiency, Crohn's disease, Blind
intestine
syndrome
'Typical findings of megaloblastosis in cobalamin deficiency ... Thrombocytopenia, Giant metamyelocytes in bone
marrow, Hypersegmentation in neutrophils, Macroovalocytes
- The most probable diagnosis for a patient with micromegakaryocytes and erythroid dysplasia in bone marrow
aspiration of a female patient with anemia and thrombocytosis ... 5q syndrome
'Routine examinations for differential diagnosis of anemia in chronic hemodialysis patients ...C — reactive protein
level, BIZ vitamin level, Parathormone level, Ferritin level
- The most likely diagnosis in a patient with increasing forgetfulness, long-standing gastric complaints and numbness
in the extremities ... Vitamin 812 deficiency
A 20-year-old female patient presented with the complaint of fatigue. Laboratory tests revealed hemoglobin 9.6 g / dL,
MCV 73 fL, MCH 33 pg, ferritin 370 ng / mL, serum iron 190 yg / dL transferrin saturation 60% and reticulocyte
1.5% The most likely diagnosis for the patient ... Sideroblastic anemia
__ LEUKOCYTE DISEASES, _ (LOSEMILES, _ LYMPHPROLIFERATIVE AND MYELOPROLIFERATIVE
DISEASES)
A twelve year old patient with membrane tonsilitis had hyperplasia in the cervical lymph nodes. Peripheral blood
leukocyte count 18.000 / mm3 leukocyte formula: Neutrophil: 20%, lymphocyte: 62%, Monocyte: 16%, Eosinophil:
2%
The infection that this patient is experiencing is probably one of the following ... Skin rash, tonsillitis, atypical
lymphomononuclear cell increase should consider EMN.
- The distinction between primary and secondary polycythemia can be done by ...Erythropoietin level is low in
polycythemia vera. It is high in secondary polycythemias.
'Bone marrow biopsy is not performed on ...Diagnosis of bone marrow in hematologic malignancies
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biopsy. It is not necessary for the diagnosis of osteopetrosis.
Spleen large, white sphere 120,000 / mm ', peripheral smear: 4% myeloblast, 6% promyelocyte, 30% metamyelocyte,
28% ...More large, leukocytes too high, platelets high, hemoglobin normal. If PY is like a bone marrow, the diagnosis
is CML.
The differentiation between IMLomoid reaction with KML is:Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) level is high in
leukomoid reaxoyin. It is low in CML and PNH.
- Which leukomoid reaction is not seen in all leukomoid reactions, leukocytosis occurs, no leukopenia.
Which of the following does not occur in polycythemia vera.Oxygen saturation is> 92%. No hypoxia
Which has a good prognosis in CML Ph chromosome positive, basophil and eosinophil counts have a better prognosis.
In a patient with fever, diffuse lymphodenopathy and hepatospienomegaly and atypical Iymphocytosis, which is not
considered ...In case of Ienfadenopathy and organomegaly, aplastic anemia cannot be given.
Which of the following is not expected in myelofibrosis. . .I think the Jones protein is an example of overflow-type
proteinuria in paraproteinemias such as myeloma.
A 32-year-old female patient presented with complaints of swelling, pain and redness of her right leg. Her history
revealed that she used oral contraceptives and her father died of myocardial infarction at a young age. Which of the
following tests is not required at this stage to diagnose this patient ...
_ Neccessary things:
- Protein C determination - Protein S determination - Antithrombin determination - Factor V Leiden mutation (most
common) - Fifty years old person with plethoric face; leukocyte 18,000 / mms, platelet 550,000 / mm3, hematocrit
62%, Hb 19.2, arterial P02 95 mmHg, hepatospienomegaly if you have one of the following ... Major criteria of
polycythemia vera are given. A typical case of polycythemia vera. A 30-year-old patient with splenomegaly extending
to pelvis had low alkaline phosphatase, leukocyte 47,000 mm / mL, 2% blast in bone marrow, 5% promyelocyte, 20%
myelocyte, 10% metamyelocyte, 15% band, 16% neutrophil, 8% lymphocyte.
In this patient, you would consider ...Leukocytosis and myeloid series increased in a large spleen patient. Leukocyte
alkaline phosphatase is low. In this case, the diagnosis is CML.
Which is one of the major diagnostic criteria of polycythemia vera ...There is no relationship between polycythemia
vera and Ienfocytosis. Others are the major diagnostic criteria.
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A 50-year-old female patient with leukocytosis, peripheral leukocyte shift, left-sided basophil and splenomegaly
findings showed increased cellularity and myeloid hyperplasia in bone marrow aspiration.
The following examination should be performed for diagnosis in this patient. . .The definitive diagnosis in CML is
made by Philadelphia chromosome positivity, ie by cytogenetic examination.
The giant cell seen in Hodgkin's disease is: . .Hodgkin is diagnosed by lymph node biopsy. The most important finding
in biopsy is the presence of Reed-Stenberg cell.
During the 4th cure of a patient receiving chemotherapy for Hodgkin, numbness, burning and tingling occur in the
hands and feet.
The drug that causes these symptoms can be: Vincristine is the most antineoplastic drug that causes neuropathy.
A 65-year-old male patient presented with mobile fever and axillary lymphadenopathies. In physical examination,
rales are heard in the basal lungs, liver is 2 cm palpable and spleen is palpable. In complete blood count, platelets were
reported as 210.000 / mm3, leukocyte 96.000 / mm3, 90% of which were small lymphocytes, 8% neutrophils and 2%
monocytes.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient. . . In the patient who is over 60 years with diffuse
lymphadenopathy and Iymphocytosis, the first thought that comes to mind is KLL / small notched lymphocytic
lymphoma.
To diagnose this patient, you would first ask ... Diagnosis is made by complete blood count and bone marrow
aspiration in CLL.
Which is expected in chronic granulomatosis in a child? ..
The disorder is caused by the inability of phagocytes to kill with H202 and superoxide production.
Extranodal non-Hodgkin lymphomas of B lymphocyte origin are the following. . .The most common extranodal
lymphoma is malt-type Iymphoma.
Which is not a clonal pluripotent stem cell disorder ... Leukomoid reaction is not stem cell disease. Myeloid is the
increase in the series. Others are clonal diseases.
Sixty-one years old male patient had pre-cholecystectomy laboratory tests for leukocyte = 486OO / mm3, hemoglobin
12.5 g / dl, hematocrit 38, platelet = 183000 / mm, and 90% mature lymphocytes, 10% neutrotil, erythrocyte
normochrome normocytes and thrombocytes in normal count. .
Physical examination of the patient is normal and the most likely diagnosis is which of the following. . .A typical CLL
case has been described clinically and laboratoryly. A similar question asked before.
A 68-year-old male patient presented with complaints of weight loss, fatigue, and paleness. Physical examination
revealed splenomegaly. In laboratory tests, hemoglobin level 8.5% g / dl, hematocrit value 27%, platelet count
98.OOO / mm3, leukocyte count is 9.6OO / mm3. Tear in peripheral smear
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cells, schistocytes, myelocytes, bands, metamyelocytes and normoblasts are observed.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient. . .The diagnosis is primary myelofibrosis if the
patient is middle and old age, splenomegaly + tear cell + Icoerythroblastic blood table + 30-40.000 mm3. In primary
myelofibrosis, leukocyte count may be low and normal.
AII-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) is used to treat any of the following types of leukemia:ATRA is used to treat AML
M3.
A 43-year-old man presented with headache, tinnitus, numbness in his hands and feet. In the physical examination,
blood pressure is measured as 170/85 mmHg. Pleatorrhea and splenomegaly are detected. In laboratory examinations,
hemoglobin level was 19% g / dl, hematocrit value was 55%, leukocyte count was 14.500 / mm3, platelet count was
552.000 / mm3 and peripheral smear was normal.
as.
Which is the most likely diagnosis for this patient ...The most important clue in this case is plethoric facial appearance
and hemoglobin elevation. A typical case of polycythemia vera.
A 43-year-old male patient presented with itching, headache, tinnitus and visual impairment. In laboratory tests,
hemoglobin level is 16 g / dL, hematocrit value is 53%, leukocyte count is 16 OOO / mm3 and platelet count is 513
OOO / mm3.
Which of the following tests is not required for differential diagnosis in this patient ... Cytogenetic examination has no
place among the diagnostic criteria of P. vera.
When planning treatment in a patient diagnosed with Hodgkin lymphoma by lymph node biopsy, which of the
following should be taken into consideration first, pre-treatment staging is performed in HH. Ann-Arborr staging
classification is used for staging. The most reliable staging method in staging is positron emission tomography.

Which of the following is the most common secondary cancer due to alkylating drugs used in the treatment of
Hodgkin's lymphoma ...The most important side of the alkylating agents is secondary leukemia. How many places are
said. That's an easy question.
In a 44-year-old male patient with a leukocyte count of 50,000 / mm3 during routine controls, which of the following
findings strongly suggests chronic myelocytic leukemia. .. Philadelphia chromosome positive and low neutrophil LAP
score suggest CML.
In a 70-year-old patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, one of the following is not one of the criteria to determine the
prognosis of the disease.
A 48-year-old male patient with no previous complaints had a hemoglobin level of 13.8 g / dL, a leukocyte count of
45 OOO / mm3 and a platelet count of 510 OOO / mm3. Peripheral blood smears show cells ranging from myeloblasts
to mature neutrophils. Physical examination revealed 7 cm painless splenomegaly.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient. . . If splenomegaly is 45 years old, leukocytes are
very high and platelets are high, CML should be considered.
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- A 68-year-old male patient with anemia and massive splenomegaly showed peripheral blood smear with
erythrocytes, poikilocytosis, tear cells and normoblasts.Primary myelofibrosis is identified. Fibrosis and reticuline
increase are seen in bone spindle.
Extranodal Iymphomas in adults are most commonly seen in ...The most common extranodal lymphoma is malt-type
Iymphoma and the most common is Iocalized stomach.
Fatigue, fatigue, weight loss, right and left submandibular, preauricular Iymphadenopathy and paraaortic
Iymphadenopathy in the abdomen were diagnosed as non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Stage 3D
The presence of ALL worsens prognosis ... Philadelphia chromosome positive
- 8 in the etiology. Lymphoma type with myc oncogen on chromosome ... Burkitt lymphoma
A Hodgkin lymphoma patient undergoing chemotherapy should not be recommended ... Varicella-zoster vaccine
PLASMA CELL DISEASES
Serum viscosity increases in any of the following situations ...Monoclonal gamopathies may develop due to
amyloidosis, polycythemia vera, leukemia and dehydration.
A 70-year-old male patient presented with complaints of fatigue, weight loss, fatigue, nosebleeds and severe low back
pain and inability to walk for 2 months. Upper compression fractures, diffuse osteoporosis, and cranial radiographs
show staple-like lesions.
Sixty years + low back pain + Hypercalcemia, infections, renal failure should suggest myeloma.
Which of the following is used in the definitive diagnosis of the above patient ...Myeloma is diagnosed by bone
marrow + immune electrophoresis.
Immediate treatment of symptomatic hyperviscosity in plasma cell dyscrasias is:It is based on the reduction of
viscosity with plasmapheresis.
- Sixty-seven-year-old patient with generalized Iymphadenopathy and splenomegaly who complained of fatigue does
not consider which of the following ...Myeloma may be lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. But it is more rare than
other diseases.
Plasma cell dyscrasias, which are not formed by the effect of monoclonal proteins, are: Hypercalcemia occurs as a
result of lytic lesions in the bones.
'A fifty year old patient comes with low back pain. 4 cm hepatomegaly detected. 7 g Hb, 4000 mm3 leukocytes,
185000 platelets, sedimentation 125 detected in the laboratory
It is.
Which of the following can be seen in this patient. .. Sedimentation rate is over 100 and roll formation is seen.
Untreated female patient diagnosed with multiple myeloma ten days ago
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polyuria anorexia, mental confusion and constipation complaints. Shortened QT distance is detected in E KG taken.
Which of the following examinations should be requested first. .. QT shortening, digital intoxication, acidosis and
hypercalcemia. '
A fifty-one year old male patient presented with complaints of increasing fatigue, drowsiness, low back and headache.
As a result of investigations in this patient, hemoglobin 7.6 9: hematocrit 24%; sedimentation 112 mm / h total protein
10 g / dL; albumin 2.5 g / dL; globulin 8 g / dL: calcium is measured as 12.5 mg / L and two lytic lesions are detected
on two-way head radiographs. '.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient...Male patient, low back pain + high sedimentation

rate, albumin globulin ratio reversed: Mylelom think.
The laboratory results of a 65-year-old male patient who had received two consecutive pneumonia treatments in recent
months were as follows: Hemoglobin: 14 g / dL, leukocyte: 6000 / mm3, platelet: 250 000 / mm3, BUN: 15 mg / dL,
creatinine: 0.8 mg / dL; monoclonal band in the gamma region in serum protein electrophoresis: serum IgG: 20 g / L,
IgA: 2.5 g / L, IgM: 1.0 g / L; plasma cell rate in bone marrow is 8%; bone scan normal.
The most likely diagnosis for this patient ... Benign monoclonal gammopathy
Clinical features of multiple myeloma ... Pathological fracture, Anemia, Renal failure, Hypercalcemia
The use of bortezomib as targeted therapy is indicated for malignancy ... Multiple myeloma
The first step in a patient with multiple myeloma findings should be requested examination ... Protein electrophoresis
Bleeding diathesis
Which of the following is included in the fibrinolytic system ...Plasmin is the main molecule that breaks down fibrin
networks.
Lumbar puncture is contraindicated in which of the following diseases. . .Hemorrhagic diathesis; LP is not performed
in thrombocytopenia, coagulation disorders and platelet dysfunction.
Dikumarol, an antagonist of vitamin K, does not affect which factor follows. . . Factors related to vitamin K are
Factor-II, VII, IX, X and protein C, S, Z.
Which of the following causes the clot to melt and cause many coagulation factors to be destroyed. . . It is the plasmid
that performs fibrinolysis.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation is most common in which ...DIC is seen in acute promyelocytic leukemia.
Bleeding, gingival hypertrophy, intolerable pain in the joints and frog hospitalization are seen in the following ...
subperiostal hemorrhage in the scurvy, abnormal osteoid, dentin formation is a disease that causes.
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In a girl with epistaxis, if the partial thromboplastin time is long and the bleeding time is prolonged, which of the
following is considered. .. Bleeding time, APTT long, P'IZ normal in von Willebrand disease.
Afibrinogenemia happens in the lack of which factor follows ... Factor 1 is fibrinogen.
Post-infection factors I, V and VIII have 50,000 missing platelets, which is considered ... Bleeding diathesis may also
occur due to DIC microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia and lack of coagulation factors.
subendothelial platelet adhesion. . .Platelet adhesion requires collagen, glycoprotein IB-IX and von Willebrand factor
complexes.
The patient was diagnosed with idiopathic thrombocytopenia for the first time, and the treatment is firstly done
...Corticosteroids are the first choice of treatment.
Which of the following causes an increase in antihemophilic factor. . . Desmopressin and Danazol increase the
secretion of factor 8 and vWF stored in the endothelium.
In a child with acute petechiae, purpura, hemoglobin, leukocyte count and formula were found to be normal.
The most likely diagnosis in this child is:Petechia, purpura, ecchymosis +, spleen are normal, hemoglobin and
leukocyte counts are normal. Low platelet count: ITP
Post-synthesis modification of the protein following which results in the lack of bile secretion in the small intestines
remains incomplete ...The synthesis of factors II, VII, IX and X requires vitamin vitamin K. Prothrombin factor II is
one of these factors.
Which of the following factors catalyzes the formation of bonds between fibrin monomers ...Factor XIIIa stabilizes the
fibrin polymer by cross-linking the fibrin monomers.
The most appropriate treatment for steroid-resistant ITP is: . . Splenectomy is performed in ITP which does not
respond to steroid.
The following increase in blood product in DİC helps diagnosis. . .Fibrin degradation products are increased.
The patient with diffuse intravascular coagulation does not have any of the following ... D — Dimer level is very high,
low.
Prothrombin time elongation at 9mm; ..In factor VIII deficiency, factor aPTT is prolonged. Prothrombin time is
normal.
The most probable diagnosis for a patient with a prolonged PTT after dilution (1: 1 mixture of the patient's plasma and
normal plasma) after prolonged partial thromboplastin time (P'l ') was investigated in a patient who was investigated
for susceptibility to bleeding. Presence of factor inhibitors
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OTHER (Blood transfusion, KIT, Hemacromatosis, - Anticoagulant is not used in any of the following cases .. Since

thrombocytopenia is present in ITP, there is a tendency for bleeding to spleen diseases v, b). The use of anticoagulants
is contraindicated. - The most important of using long-waited blood - oay thromboembolism in the following
deficiencies | Protein-C, pure bee t. coagulation does not increase, recurrent bleeding factor S and antitrmobin III
deficiencies increase thromboembolic events. Due to the pending complication occurs hemolysis of hyperkalemia in
the blood. Long potassium period - which often occurs Transfusion caused | | ___ Hepatic coagulation by the
mechanism by which Heparin follows - the relationship between the development of antibodies against bleeding and
leukocytes following the erythrocytes:
They do not. Prevents ...Heparin increases the activity of antithrombin III, which causes diabetes, hyperpigmentation
and hepatomegaly. which is ...Bronze diabetes, impotence,. Dose adjustment in anticoagulation with heparin is
impaired in liver function tests
The most suitable laboratory test for the following is the hemochromatosis shower. Which is. . .In laboratory
monitoring of heparin, the activated time should be evaluated partially.
thromboplastin time and / or clotting - Splenectomy with clinical improvement
Hemolytic Splenectomy anemia is H. spherocytosis. Clinical dose of the drug in a patient using sodium warfarin
need to follow the following). . .Which of the prothrombin time is followed by tests. monitoring - Which is
splenectomy. does not benefit. . .Because Go-P is not performed dehydrogenase erythrocytes in the splenectomy area
of the intravascular following lack of disease - a thirty-nine-year-old single female patient is demolished right.
referring to the lower acute artery. myocardial thrombosis in the extremity It is learned from the history of the patient
due to infarction that the pain was caused by surgery and swelling 3 years ago with the complaints of 49 years and the
death of his mesenteric father. As a result of the examinations of the patient __ 'JM Ş'qda Permanent "complication is
a soft nobet hepatosplenomegaly. In the case of VIA malaria (Hemozoin), the following spleen is usually filled with
pigment, which is usually full, "i: -_ u Doppler ultrasonography may show deep vein thrombosis and rupture. The
platelet count is 350 OOO / mm3. first of all, which should be considered in patients who develop 1 - 4 months after
cell transplantation ...Title The most common deficiency, why hereditary factor thrombophilia V Leiden s_ils and
mortality ... high CMV is the most common infection after pneumonia from all interstitial tissue transplants.
Ganciclovir in treatment 'first in life. times in the lower extremities. deep, vein thrombosis is used. A 35 - year - old
woman with a diagnosis of etiology was found to have normal levels of prothrombin, in a female patient with safe
blood homocysteine from healthy donors in blood banks: PTT, activated fibrinogen protein and C supply is not
recommended. to. .Which of the following delta tests routinely do not need to look for antigen. Leiden Bli resistance
has been described in a patient with mutation. "The skill is ...Factor V - Ectopic tumors ... hemangioblastoma, hormone
Renal secretion due to pheochromocytoma cell cancer, Hepatoma, erythrocytosis Cerebellar expected - treatment This
patient is given 6 months prior to treatment, the most appropriate approach ...Thrombotic attack after anticoagulant.
Immunio hemolytic france-fusion jik blood transfusion reaction reaction ... If acute recurrence is given for life.
- Clopidogrel's platelet structure ... P2Y12
impact
- Major criteria ... infiltrates criterion Mast cell diagnosis of intense mastocytosis considered multifocal in the marrow
as bone - Causes of tendency to thrombosis ... The use of oral contraceptives, prothrombin Nephrotic syndrome,
thrombocytopenic use of complex thrombotic concentrate purpura, - A 30-year-old female patient presented 3 days
ago in the abdomen, unable to fully localize, persistently and severely changing pain and constipation history of
abdominal pain for the first time 5 years ago, fever, limb rash, and short-term non-speaking 2-3 months intervals in the
form of attacks with a few days each examination of the two legs of the body widespread emergency temperature,
petechia 39.206 and physical examination of the patient was brought to the service and purpura determined Abdominal
head pain, pain after nausea, attacks vomiting completely, during palpitations, anxiety, learned urine insomnia, while
doing and patient 7,000 / mm3, and complete blood count leukocyte, 7,000 / mm 'hemoglobin 7.3 g / dL, and platelet
peripheral Plum burning is indicated and the body darkening temperature in the physical color examination of urine
and urine is 36.8 “6 smear and time, platelets partial schistocytes in each thromboplastin area and nucleated singleton
time, the observed level of erythrocytes fibrinogen and prothrombin measured in the arms and sedimentation of 6,000 /
mm3 C-reactive weakness protein detected rate of 0.8 to 6 mm / h, and the most likely diagnosis for a patient with a
laboratory of mg / L (normal leukocyte and D-dimer tests detected and coombs test 0-5 mg / L) ... The most likely
diagnosis for a patient with an acute negative ... Thrombotic intermitant porphyria thrombocytopenic purpura
Tu $ HwRLIK CENTERS '
. 'ONCOLOGY _
GENERAL INFORMATION ONCOLOGY
- Which of the following drugs is myelosuppressive? . . Bleomycin, vincristine and L asparaginase are antineoplastic

drugs with the lowest bone marrow suppression.
MeTasTaTik is an alkylating agent which is used in the treatment of breast cancer ... cyclophosphamide
Chemotherapy with alkylating ...cyclophosphamide
The most common chromosomal abnormality in germ cell TesTis tumors ... (12p) 'Predisposing factors for squamous
cell cancer UlTravioe radiation, Chronic scores, Human Papilloma virus infection, Immunosuppression
Human papilloma virus (HPV) related to the head and neck concerts ... It usually occurs at a young age, primary tumor
is small, lymph node metastasis is frequent, ET is often HPV-16, has a good prognosis.
PARANEOPLASTIC SYNDROMS
In inappropriate ADH syndrome, which is gLr'ulmg. . . Does not make urea and kreaTin height.
Diagnosed with small cell lung cancer, serum Na is low, osmolari is low, urine osmolari is high. In patients with
normal renal, hepatic and thyroid functions, the most likely diagnosis is: . . Low serum sodium and osmolarity, high
urine sodium and osmolarity: inappropriate ADH syndrome
Which of the following diseases may present as a paraneoplasic syndrome? .. Adma cancers such as stomach and
ovarian cancer should be investigated if dermaTomyosis is detected in an adult patient. A 45-year-old man presented
with complaints of cough, shortness of breath, weight loss, hemoptysis, back and low back pain. Physical examination
revealed vena cava superior syndrome. Chest X-ray shows an enlargement of the mediasTen. In the laboratory studies,
hemoglobin amount is 8.1 g / dL, hematocriT value is 25 ° / o, MCV (mean erTrosiT volume) is 83 f, leukocyte count
is 7800 / mm3. In peripheral smear, 32 lymphocytes, 40% neutrophils, 4% monocytes, and several normoblasts were
observed in each area.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient...Vena cava superior syndrome +
LeukoeriTroblasTic blood Table: Bone marrow meTasTasis is lung cancer.
In breast cancer patients receiving Tamoxifen Therapy, which of the following cancers has the risk of developing. . .
Tamoxifen is an antithiotic agent of the nonsTeroid structure used in breast cancer, is an antidiuretic hormone
syndrome. Plasma renin activity is high (Volum increase due to renin activity azahr)
©
ONCOLOGICAL EMERGENCIES
- The frequency of infection caused by the following microorganisms is not specifically associated with decreased T
cell immunity ... The most common infections in neutropenic patients are P. aerognosa. - Empirically Treated with
amikacin + cefTazidime aTherent neutropenic and acute myeloblastic leukemia patient after chemoTherapy is
determined that the number of peripheral ambiguous neutrophils is 1200 / mm3. The fever does not drop to 39 ° C, and
laboratory tests show that the alkaline phosphatase level in the serum is two fold higher than normal. Abdominal
ultrasound and computerized tomography examinations revealed multiple abscesses in the liver and spleen.
The following microorganisms are most likely to grow in the culture of aspiration material made from these lesions ...
Hepatosplenic candidiasis was diagnosed in neutropenic patients.
- The patient with leukemia and severe neutropenia (<100) does not drop to 38.5 sub-spite despite 5-day imipenem +
amikacin treatment. In the tests, infection focus
It has not been demonstrated.
This hasTada which way should be followed ... If the fever does not fall on day 5, empirical antifungal amphotericin B
is started.
~ Chemotherapy and radiotherapy due to lung malignancy in a patient who developed sudden chest pain 40 ° C
aThese, dyspnea, PaO2 value of 50 mmHg diffusion deterioration and chest X-ray bilaTarel interial infilTration
detected.
The clinical picture of this patient is most likely to be ...There is a question to ask this question. Duration not
specified. How long after radiotherapy and chemotherapy is important. Immediately afterwards, P. karini answered
correctly. Radiation pneumonia is the correct response between 6 weeks and 12 weeks.
'Adjuvant drugs involved in the treatment of chronic cancer pain ... AmiTripTilin, Prednisone, Carbamazepine,
GabapenTin.
- Laboratory findings of a patient with a diagnosis of acute Iymphoblastic leukemia, who had a leukocyte count of
168,000 / mm3 and who had chemoTherapy started on the 2nd day of treatment, and who had blurred convulsions and
oliguria on the 2nd day of treatment. Hyperphosphaphemia, Hyperkalemia, MeTabolic acidosis, Hyperuricemia
NEPHROLOGY
INTRODUCTION TO NEPHROLOGY
. Which of the following does not show aminoaciduria
Fanconi aplasTik anemia does not show aminoaciduria. -_ Which of the following proTein level is high. .. In case of

dehydration, hyperproTeinemia occurs due to increased concentration. The endogenous substance which shows the
glomerular filtration rate is: .. Glomeruli are inulin which shows the best filtration.
TUS PREPARATION CENTERS "
- The most sensitive method for determining glomerular filtration rate. .. Inulin clearance
In order to diagnose hypertonic hyponatremia, the serum level of which should be measured ... Glucose (Every 100 mg
/ dl increase in blood glucose decreases serum sodium concentration by 1.6 meg / lt.
- If BUN is 40 mmol / L, the blood urea nitrogen is mg / dL in this patient (Urea molecular weight: 60, Nitrogen: 14)
mmol / L =% mgx10 / mol weight formula; 40: x.10 / 14 if the result is 56
Plasma osmolality of a patient with plasma Na + level of 150 mEq / L, K + level of 5 mEq / L, blood glucose level of
90 mg / dL, blood urea level of 28 mg / dL, which is as follows: Osm: 2 (Na + K) + glucose / 18 + BUN / 2.8: 2.150 +
5) + (90/18 + 28 / 2.8: = 325
Note: | <is no longer used in the formula.
Hypertension is not seen because of salt loss in Bartter syndrome.
- Which inhibits renin release is:Low Na, K, renal blood flow
reduction increases renin release.
Which of the following reduces plasma renin release. . .NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin / prostacyclin synthesis in the
kidney. It makes salt and water retention. They reduce renin release.
~ Daily urine volume 4 lt. The free water clearance of a patient with plasma osmolality of 270 mOsmL and urine
osmolality of 100 mOsml is given in ml / min. ..
Free water clearance: (24-hour urine volume / 1440) x (1-urine osm / serum osm)
: (4000/1440) x (1-100 / 270): 1.7
Increase in urea synthesis is the main factor in which of the following conditions are observed in the increase in blood
urea level ... Multiple trauma increases urea synthesis to muscle destruction.
A 35-year-old male patient with no complaints had undergone laboratory tests for urine examination and 12-14
erythrocytes and 0.6 g / day proteinuria were detected in each area under microscopy and urinary system
ultrasonography was normal. The most appropriate approach for this patient evaluated and measured blood pressure
110/80 mmHg ... Monitor with controls every 6-12 months
LIQUID, ELECTROLITE BALANCE AND DISORDERS
The most common cause of hypertension associated with a decrease in renin levels is: Blood pressure is high and renin
is low in primary hyperaldosteronism. Hypopotasemia occurs in the following diseases: Bartter syndrome makes salt
loss all electrolytes low in blood, high in urine.
,, _ s PREPARATION CENTERS
In the treatment of cirrhosis, which does not improve acidity despite the salt-free diet, which of the following is used
in the treatment of cirrhosis, spironolactone, the aldosterone antagonist, is selected for diuretic treatment.
A chronic alcoholic patient with convulsions is brought to the emergency department. The patient has low serum
calcium and high phosphorus, and has nystagmus and atetoid movements.
In this patient, you first consider which of the following ... Hypomagnesemia is very common in alkalis.
Hypocalcemia, hypopotasemia and hyperphosphatemia are observed in these patients.
Which of the following increases urinary potassium excretion. .. In hyperaldosteronism, water and sodium are retained
and potassium is excreted.
- Which of the following is not seen in hypercalcemic nephropathy ... In hypercalcemic nephropathy, decrease in
nephrotic pH (which forms an acidic environment) Which of the following increases renin release ... Hypokalemia
increases renin release.
Which of the following diuretics may cause metabolic alkalosis. . .Acetonolamide and scavengers -> cause metabolic
acidosis.
- Which of the following is not used in the treatment of hyperkalemia ...Beta blockers have no place in the treatment.
In the physical examination of a patient who was severely dehydrated; 124 mEq / L, potassium: 3.7 mEq / L, urine
sodium: 43 mEq / L and urine density of 1011.
The most probable diagnosis in this patient is the following: 1011 density (isostenuria) is a sign of chronic renal
failure. In CRF, sodium is low and potassium is high.
Which of the following is not one of the signs of Bartter syndrome ... Fanconi syndrome is Bartter, Gitelman salt loss
nephropathy. Does not cause hypertension.
- Which of the following is not one of the symptoms of chronic severe hypopotasemia. Low potassium, high PR
prolongs the distance. - The priority approach in the emergency treatment of severe hyperkalemia ... Calcium gluconate

10%
Conditions where malignant hypercalcemia is expected ... Multiple myeloma, Squamous cell lung cancer, Breast
cancer, Renal cancers
A 45-year-old female patient presented to the emergency department with complaints of nausea, vomiting,
constipation, fatigue, and tendency to sleep. hypercalcemia
ACID - BASE BALANCE AND DISORDERS
Urine pH: 7, 1 and diagnosis in a patient with rickets and aminoaciduria Which of the following is compatible with
Fanconi syndrome.
gı tus PREPARATION CENTERS
In a patient with urine pH 6.5 and nephrocalcinosis, your diagnosis is: It is seen in distal tubular acidosis.
In a patient with anionic deficit without metabolic acidosis, your diagnosis is: Chlorine excess and HCO3 loss cause
metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap. Hypochloremic ız in a patient with hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis, your
diagnosis occurs as a side effect of which diuretic is: . .It occurs as a side effect of thiazides. 'Na: 139 mg / dl K' 2.9
mg / dl, HCOS: 38 mg / dl and pH: 7.51 urine Na: 10 CI ': 85 K *: 60 urine density 1017 Consider which of the
following. ..Metabolic alkalosis due to vomiting. - Electrolyte excretion from kidneys in respiratory alkalosis is:
Persistent hypocapnia leads to loss of HCOa in urine. In patients with hypertension and thiazide diuretics, pH: 7.49,
PCOZ: 40 mmHg, P02: 75 mmHg were found.
Which is true in this patient ... Thiazide group diuretics increase the introduction of salt and water into the collecting
channels, which increases the renal secretion of K + and H *, causing hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis.
In which of the following metabolic acidosis conditions, the anion gap is normal ...Anion gap is normal in rena tubular
acidosis.
Anion gap of a patient with a serum sodium level of 140 mg / L chlorine: 103 mEq / L and a serum bicarbonate value
of 13 mEq / L is the following as mEq / L ... Anion gap: Na- (HCOa1-CI): Anion gap: 140- (103 + 13) = 24 Which
acid-base disorder is expected in a patient with excessive nausea and vomiting ...Potassium and chlorine are lost due to
vomiting. This results in hypochloremic and hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis.
Which of the following is not one of the signs of classical distal (type 1) renal tubular acidosis, there is loss of calcium
and citrate. Blood citrate and calcium levels decrease Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap (6-12 meq)
Diarrhea and bicarbonate losses from GIS
- Eancreatic drainage, small bowel drainage, jejunal and ileal loops, ureterosigmoidostomy
- Acetazolamide - Renal tubular acidosis (RTA Type I, II and IV) - Potassium-sparing diuretics - Hyperkalemic drugs
- NSAID, ACEI, Trimetoprim Respiratory alkalosis in arterial blood gas examinations ... Aspirin poisoning,
Hyperventilation syndrome, Pulmonary embolism, Heart failure
KIDNEY FAILURE
The most effective treatment for hyperkalemia in acute renal failure is: Dialysis. If cardiac findings are present, Ca ++
gluconate IV is used as an antagonist. Which of the following is not an indication for dialysis ... In the treatment of
hypoalbuminemia, albumin is given. Dialysis treatment has no efficacy.
The most recent renal function of acute renal failure is: .. Therefore, the first improvement is the dilution ability of
renal function and the last improvement is the concentration ability.
Which of the following does not increase in BUN ...In hepatic insufficiencies, NH3s cannot be converted to urea and
NH3 increases, not urea.
Which does not improve despite dialysis. . . Osteodystrophy by dialysis does not improve. The main cause of renal
osteodystrophy in KBV is the following. . . The reason is that PO4, which cannot be discarded and started to
accumulate, stimulates PTH.
A 42-year-old female patient with numbness and muscle cramps in her hands and feet for the past year was found to
be positive for Trousseau sign. In laboratory examinations, hemoglobin level was 9.8 g / dL, serum calcium level was
7.1 mg / dL, serum phosphorus level was 5.6 mg / dL and serum parathyroid hormone level was 140 pg / ml (normal:
10—65 pg / ml). What is the appropriate diagnostic approach ... Determination of serum creatinine level
Which of the following is the cause of prerenal urea increase ... $ teroid | direct proteolytic effects increase the renal
load. After a certain level urea increases and prerenal azotemia occurs.
Which of the following is not a sign of prerenal acute renal failure ... In prerenal azotemia, the kidneys initially absorb
the electrolytes the body needs. Therefore, urine sodium is low. The cause of carbohydrate intolerance in chronic renal
failure is one of the following. . . It is due to insulin resistance. Which is a sign of prerenal azotemia ...Prerana |
fractional sodium excretion in renal insufficiency due to formula is less than 1%.
In uremic patients, which is one of ...The level of apoprotein CZ decreases. Thus, the lipoprotein lipase A2 level is

also reduced. Renal osteodystrophy is not one of the following laboratory findings ... The most common cause of
secondary hyperparathyroidism is renal failure. Does not cause hypoparathyroidism. Acute tubular necrosis is one of
the following ...ATN is the most common renal cause of acute renal failure. Can cause oliguria or anuria. Plasma-
decreasing hormone in CRF is one of the following. . . Erythropoietin and 1.25 dihydroxycholecalciferol are reduced in
renal failure. Which is not seen in renal osteodystrophy ...CRF is the most common cause of hypermagnesemia in the
community. Hypomagnesemia is not seen.
TUS PREPARATION CENTERS
'Thirty-year-old male patient with hypertension treatment captopril is given after a while the patient develops renal
failure.
The possible diagnosis in this patient is: ACE and A'II antagonists are contraindicated in bilateral renal artery stenosis.
If given, it results in acute renal failure.
Which of the following causes prerenal acute renal failure ...Prerenal renal failure develops in hypovimia.
- Metabolism of uremic disease
'.; ms PREPARATION CENTERS
- In which cases of acute renal failure is the least likely to develop anuria ... Radiocontrast nephrotoxicity
Nephrototoxicity due to aminoglycosides ... Single dose per day leads to less nephrotoxicity than repeated use,
Nephrotoxicity risk is higher in patients with underlying kidney disease, Usually occurs 5-10 days after initiation of
treatment
- Typical silene in the urine of patients with acute tubular necrosis. Brown granular silene
Lp (a) increase is not expected from the following.
Which
- A 24-year-old female patient was admitted with bloody urine and small red spots on her extremities. His history
revealed abdominal pain for 3 days. Laboratory tests revealed erythrocyte, 1.5 g / day proteinuria in urine, serum urea
level of 68 mg / dl and serum creatinine level of 3.5 mg / dl.
Which is. This is the most for the patient. . Henoch-Schönlein is a case whose possible diagnosis was given the
following findings of Purpura (also known as anaphylactoid purpura).
- Which of the following conditions is acute kidney
is the most common cause of insufficiency ... However, in general, the most common cause of ARF is hypovolemia,
which is among the prerenal causes.
In patients with acute renal function loss, which suggests that a glomerular pathology in the etiology may play a role,
erythrocyte cylinders are the most characteristic urinary finding of glomerulonephritis.
The most common cause of death in ARF is:In previous years, the most common cause of death in patients with ARF
is infection. While hyperpotasemia is currently the most common cause of which of the following drugs is high,
leading to acute tubular necrosis ... The acute risk of extraction known to occur among the renal options failure is
amphotericin B.
A seventy-seven-year-old male patient complains of fatigue and shortness of breath, back and low back pain. Anemia,
hypercalcemia, elevated urea creatinine, lytic lesions in the bones and paraproteinemia are detected in the
examinations.
The most likely cause of renal damage in this patient ...Tubulointerstitial damage due to light chain
An 18-year-old male patient presented with complaints of decreased urine volume and bloody urination starting a few
days ago. Physical examination revealed a blood pressure of 165/105 mmHg, creatinine 2+ edema in the eyelids and
pretibial region. 2.1 mg / dL, laboratory potassium levels of 5.6 mmol / L serum and urine protein 1 g / day is
determined. Urine microscopy shows abundant erythrocytes and erythrocyte cylinders.
- Fructional urea in a patient with acute kidney damage
- Fructional urea in a patient with acute kidney damage
The fact that the rate of excretion is less than 30% suggests that ... Prerenal acute kidney injury
- The condition suggesting renal artery stenosis in one patient ... Rapid deterioration of renal function with renin-
angiotensin-aldosterone blockers
Differential diagnosis in a 50-year-old female patient with chronic renal failure who was admitted to the emergency
department with complaints of shortness of breath, right side pain, swelling of the left leg and pain for 3 days. Nuclear
medicine imaging method that should be preferred for ... Ventilation — perfusion scintigraphy
GLOMERULAR DISEASES
Renal disease that does not cause nephrotic syndrome is one of the following. . . Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
is a prototype of nephritic syndromes. Others do nephrotic syndrome.

Hospitalization for acute glomerulonephritis is not indicated as follows:Microscopic hematuria and proteinuria are not
indications for hospitalization.
Mesengial IgA storage occurs in one of the following. . . It occurs in Berger's disease (IgA nephropathy).
- The type of nephritis not associated with the storage of the immune complex is:There is no immune complex in
glomerulosclerosis, minimal change disease, hereditary nephritis. - Hematuria, proteinuria, decrease in CS, swelling of
the eyelids following URI is the first diagnosis to be considered. There are two possibilities in the patient who
develops glomerulonephritis after infection. Berger's disease and APSG. C3 decrease is seen in APSGN. Not in Berger.
Complement level monitoring is important in the follow-up of which disease ... CS, properdin Clq and C4 decrease in
APSGN
Which of the following does not appear in acute PSGN ... In APSG, complement is not normal, its low is a
characteristic finding.
Which one of the following antihypertensive drugs to use in the treatment of this patient is inconvenient ...Angiotensin
converting enzyme inhibitor (for reducing glomerular blood supply)
Increased nephrotic syndrome is:In nephrotic syndrome, alpha2 proteins and beta globulins increase.
4
.-. © irusoAtA
M CENTRALIZATION CENTERS
A 19-year-old female released 250 cc of urine in two days. BUN 98 — Creatine 5.8-Rales in the lungs and gallop in
the heart. Erythrocyte and erythrocyte cylinders were present in the urine sediment and furosemide was given in the
last 4 hours.
Your diagnosis in this patient is: . .Signs of acute renal failure + erythrocyte cylinder: characteristic for acute
glomerulonephritis
The patient who has blood urine, urine culture and tuberculosis negative for guinea pig inoculation, normal renal
function and no edema, which is the first of the following for diagnosis ...
The patient in the previous question would consider exactly which of the following. .. Kidney biopsy is required.
Berger's disease should be considered in this patient. In the renal biopsy, no other findings were detected in the
podocyte leg protrusions without deletion. '
The pathology here may be one of the following. . .Minimai change occurs in the disease.
In idiopathic nephrotic syndrome, there is no decrease in ... 63.
Kidney disease that responds dramatically to steroid dramatically is one of the following. . Steroids contribute greatly
to the tendency of minimal change disease to spontaneously resolve.
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is seen in type I in a double contoured appearance in the glomerular
basement membrane.
Which of the following causes overflow type (overflow) proteinuria ...Overflow type is seen in paraproteinemias such
as multiple myeloma. A typical example is Benje Jones proteinuria. '
The most common renal pathology in Wegener's granulomatosis is: . . The most common cause of renal failure is focal
segmental necrotizing glomerulonephritis.
The presence of one of the following in a patient with renal dysfunction is considered as strong evidence for the
diagnosis of chronic renal failure. . . Osteotomy like subperiostal resorption is the most specific finding of fibroza
cystica.
A 14-year-old male patient presented with complaints of periorbital and pretibial edema and decreased urine volume
and brown discoloration following a febrile upper respiratory tract infection one week ago. Physical examination
revealed a blood pressure of 160/105 mmHg. In laboratory examinations, serum creatinine is 2.1 mg / dL, BUN: 70
mg / dL, serum potassium is 5.6 mEq / L, protein amount in urine is 1 g / day and urine microscopy shows abundant
erythrocyte, pyuria and erythrocyte cylinders.
Which of the following is not a priority in the diagnosis of this patient (September 2008) ... Renal biopsy is not
required for initial diagnosis in APSGN and minimal lesions.
Which of the following statements about diabetic nephropathy is wrong? .. There is no relationship between
nephropathy and giicosuria. Blood Sugar appears above 180 mg.
The most common recurrent renal disease in the graft after renal transplantation ... Poor predictors of the prognosis of
membrane-proliferative glomerulonephritis type II IgA nephropathy ... Advanced age, Weight of proteinuria, Male sex,
Hypertension
Findings in Alport syndrome ... Hematuria, Proteinuria, Hearing loss, Anterior lenticonus
A 25-year-old male patient presented with a complaint of darkening of the urine and had a sore throat the day before.

Physical examination revealed 1+ edema in the lower extremities around the eye and blood pressure was 140/100
mmHg. creatinine level 1.2 mg / dL. BUN level is 20 mg / dL and albumin level is expected to be 4.0 g / dL. IgA
nephropathy
Hypocomplemantenemia is expected kidney pathologies ... Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis, Subacute bacterial
endocarditis, Cryoglobulinemia, Systemic lupus erythematosus
Causes of chronic tubulointerstitial nephritis ... Sarcoidosis, Sjogren's syndrome, Lead nephropathy, Balkan
nephropathy
If a patient with metastatic breast cancer is found to have diffuse edema, hypoalbuminemia and proteinuria, the most
likely diagnosis ... Membraneous glomerulonephritis
Typical clinical findings for the diagnosis of diabetic nephropathy ... Type 1 diabetes> 10 years, presence of
retinopathy, presence of microalbuminuria, absence of macroscopic hematuria
Conditions in which serum complement levels are expected to fall ... Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis,
Cryoglobulinemia, Idiopathic membranoproiiferative glomerulonephritis, Shunt nephritis
OTHER NEPHROLOGIC DISEASES
The disease which does not cause kidney lesions is: . . Multiple sclerosis does not involve the kidneys. It only holds
the FAQ. It does not involve the medulla spinalis from the CNS.
The most typical manifestation of hepatorenal syndrome is:Since it is prerenal azotemia, it has oliguria and azotemia.
The most important procedure in the treatment of hyperoxaluria is: A low-oxalate, calcium-rich diet should be given.
The incidence of urinary infection increases with the following diseases:Risk is high in diabetes meilitus. 'Which of the
following is not a radiological finding of chronic pyelonephritis. . . Kidneys do not grow, but shrink.
As a result of long-term use of phenacetin
While frequent papillary necrosis occurs, interstitial nephritis may also occur.
The patient with normal BUN values had high ADH, hypernatremia, Na excretion in urine, decreased urinary
osmolarity and increased blood osmolarity. Your diagnosis in this patient is ...RenaI is bulgur compatible with diabetes
insipidus.
The characteristic finding of diabetic nephropathy is: . . The characteristic lesion is nodular glomerulosclerosis. This is
called the Kimmel Stiel Wilson bodies.
Which is the most effective treatment for hyperkalemia in oliguric renal failure ... Hemodialysis is the most effective
treatment for hyperkalemia in oliguric renal failure.
Which of the following is most important in the diagnosis of hepatorenal syndrome ... Oliguria and hyperosmolar urine
are characteristic.
Which of the following may develop as a complication in FMF? ..AA type is amylodosis. Amyloidosis
Which of the following laboratory findings is useless in the diagnosis of renovascular hypertension. . . Renal artery
stenosis is the most common cause of renovascular hypertension. Renal biopsy has no place in diagnosis.
- Which type of stone in alkaline urine
It occurs. . . Ammonium is composed of magnesium phosphate stone.
In IVP in a patient with hypertension, the right kidney is small, the collecting system is minimally deformed, the
cortex is thin and irregularly limited.
Which is considered in this patient Occurs in chronic pyelonephritis
Which of the following does not have renal papillary necrosis ...Renal papilla necrosis is not expected in acute
glomerulonephritis.
General anesthetic which is not used in kidney disease because it is toxic to kidney is one of the following
...Metoxiflurane makes kidney failure. It may cause nephrogenic diabetes insipitus.
The earliest sign of diabetic nephropathy is: .. The first sign of diabetic nephropathy is the hyperfiltration phase and the
second phase is the microalbuminuric phase.
Which of the following is used in the definitive diagnosis of Goodpasture syndrome ... There are anti-glomerular
basement membrane and anti-alveolar basement membrane antibodies.
Rapidly developing glomerulonephritis and pulmonary hemosiderosis occur in: Good Pasture syndrome.
In a hospitalized patient with fever of up to 39 ° C with urinary tract complaints, you do either of the following. . .
Urine culture sample is taken and antipseudomanol antibiotic is started immediately.
The most common side effect of cisplatin is:Dose-dependent nephrotoxicity. However, the most common side effects
are nausea and vomiting.
The most common cause of out-of-hospital lower urinary tract infections is: The most common of these is E.coli.
- Which of the following drugs have an immunosuppressive effect by inhibiting inosine monophosphate

dehydrogenase enzyme. . .Mycophelonate mofetil is an inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase inhibitor.
A 70-year-old man who had been followed up for 15 years with type 2 diabetes mellitus has had elevated blood
pressure for the last 6 months. The patient with a plasma creatinine level of 1.2 mg / dL and microalbuminuria was
diagnosed and started on Mangiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor therapy. On the third day of treatment, decrease in
urine volume, dyspnea and orthopnea develops.
Repeated creatinine level was 2.8 mg / dL.Ticketeral renal artery stenosis is considered. The definitive first test is USG
with doppler. The definitive diagnosis is made by renal artery angiography.
Which is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in a thirty-year-old woman in the 28th week of pregnancy ...
Severe preeclampsia (Preeclampsia is the most common cause of nephrotic proteinuria in pregnancy. Proteinuria,
which occurs for the first time in pregnancy and exceeds Zgr / day, should suggest preeclampsia. )
25 years old, 2.5 months pregnant woman without any complaints urine culture 105 colony / m | Escherichia coli is
produced.
The treatment of this patient ... If the bacteria are susceptible, amoxicillin — clavulanate is given for 7 days.
Acute interstitial nephritis can cause acute renal failure ... Omeprazole
Complications that can be demonstrated by dynamic renal scintigraphy after kidney transplantation ... Differential
diagnosis of acute tubular necrosis-Cyclosporine toxicity, Urinary leakage, Hydronephrosis, Urethral obstruction
Renal AA amyloidosis_yo | who opened ... Rheumatoid arthritis, Familial Mediterranean fever, Inflammatory bowel
disease, Tuberculosis
A 40-year-old female patient presented with complaints of decreased urine volume, blurred consciousness, and
macular rash on her legs. In a patient with dL and serum creatinine 2.9 mg / dL with peripheral blood smear
eosinophilia, the most likely disease that could lead to this clinical picture ... Acute tubulointersitive nephritis
A 45-year-old female patient who had been followed with hypertension for eight years and was treated with ramipril
and hydrochlorothiazide was measured 120/80 mmHg. The most appropriate approach for the treatment of
hyponatremia in a patient with L and K * 4.2 mmoI / L Hydrochlorothiazide should be discontinued and followed up.
f'KEYDATA “f -
CARDIOLOGY
INTRODUCTION TO CARDIOLOGY (Story, Examination, Symptoms, Diagnosis Vöntemlerö
The disease that increases pulse pressure is: Pulse pressure increases in hyperkinetic heart failure in aortic
insufficiency.
The most important procedure in the diagnosis and treatment of cardiac tamponade is: . . Pericardial effusion is best
demonstrated by echocardiography. However, definitive etiologic diagnosis is made by pericardiocentesis.
Which of the following is a specific symptom of heart disease. . .Diastolic murmur is the definitive finding of heart
disease.
Diastolic murmur and $ 4 is always pathological.
Which of the following is not the cause of sudden death ... Myocardial infarction is the most common cause of sudden
death. Malignant melanoma causes myocardial metastasis. But sudden death is not expected.
The components that make up the sound of Sl are:I. Heart sound: It occurs when the mitral and tricuspid valves are
closed during systole 51 and the systole begins.
If the pressure on the lesion increases and blood pressure decreases, your diagnosis is one of the following. . . If the
artery feeding the fistula is depressed, the shunt to the low resistance circuit is prevented and there is a sudden drop in
pulse rate (Branham sign). ECG findings in hypercalcemia are: . . ECG findings in hypercalcemia: Q — T interval is
shortened and others are prolonged. QT distance to calcium is inversely proportional. In which of the following, the
first heart sound is weak. .. Mitral and tricuspid regurgitation are associated with prolonged PR interval. Causes of
Bradycardia
ECG findings in hypocalcemia are: . . QT interval is prolonged, T wave depressed and inversion is seen.
II. Which makes the heart sound ... It occurs as a result of closing of the semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary
valve). Wave (a) is seen in the following case. . . Pulmonary stenosis, pulmonary hypertension, tricuspid stenosis and
AV are seen in complete block. Which of the following does not show continuous murmur. . . In aortic stenosis, it
causes systolic murmur, crescendo-decurcondo murmur. The best method to determine the degree of obstruction of
valvular aortic stenosis is: Doppler echocardiography is the most reliable diagnostic method in the evaluation of valve
pathologies. Central cyanosis does not occur in any of the following. . . Peripheral cyanosis is seen in heart failure, not
central.
(Note: Mixed cyanosis occurs in the advanced stage of heart failure. $ Antral-Peripheral)
In addition to ventricular depolarization during the QRS wave in the ECG, which of the following occurs ... QRS

wave: depolarization of ventricles and repolarization of atria.
With nuclear medicine techniques in pediatric cardiology, which of the following cannot be demonstrated ... It is used
in the diagnosis of valvular diseases, congenital heart diseases, myocardial disease and CAD.
In the jugular vein, the wave “a ur disappears in at least one of the following by wave atrial fibrillation.
Which of the following is one of the purposes of therapeutic catheter application? Endomyocardial biopsy is used for
diagnosis.
4. The heart sound is one of the following: . . Everything that causes right and left ventricular hypertrophy is heard in
ischemic heart diseases.
The most common ECG sign of hyperkalemia is ... The most common and most important ECG sign is T-sharpening.
Stimulation of receptors on the endocardial surface of the ventricular walls in the heart causes one of the following. .
.It causes a decrease in peripheral resistance.
On the telecardiogram of the following, there are double contours to the right of the heart ...Mitral stenosis occurs. .
In the ECG, the T wave indicates which of the following. .. T wave; Ventricular repolarization.
Which of the following is paradoxical mating ... Right ventricular pathologies are extensive, left ventricular
pathologies paradox makes S2 mating. Pace makers are the opposite.
In the absence of venous wave pulses in a patient with venous fullness in the neck, the most likely diagnosis is: Vena
cava superior syndrome does not show venous waves in the neck.
In an elderly male patient with infarction who had hypertension and diabetes mellitus, the LDL-cholesterol value and
the desired LDL-cholesterol value required to initiate drug therapy for hypercholesterolemia are given together in
which the LDL> 100 is the target value 70 mg / dl.
Electrocardiography does not show P waves, if the distances R düzenli R are regular and the speed is 60 / min, which
is the most likely diagnosis. .. * RR intervals equal and no P wave, nodal rhythm. Which of the following heart sounds
is heard in the systole ...Ejection click is a systolic sound.
On an electrocardiogram taken at a rate of 25 mm / sec, there are 15 small squares between two gin complexes that
come at equal intervals. . . 300 / Large frames or 1500 / Small frames. In the 1500/15: 100 / min ECG shot, which of
the following precordial leads is not specified versus the electrode location. . . Precordial, V5 anterior axillary line, V6
is placed in the middle axillary line.
I'm a mess. © Paradox pulse diseases ... Pericardial tamponade, Blood pressure pneumothorax, Hemorrhagic shock,
Pulmonary embolism
The goal is to achieve a successful shock treatment ... Mean arterial pressure 265 mmHg
Conditions that cause a difference in blood pressure of more than 10 mmHg between both upper extremities ...
Subclavian steal syndrome, Supravalvular aortic stenosis, Takayasu's arteritis, Aortic dissection
Increased leads to ... pulse pressure Aortic regurgitation, combined with systolic arteriovenous hypertension fistula,
Patent ductus arteriosus, Arteriosclerosis
HEART DISEASES AND MVOKARD Heart is one of the following complaints of subjective failure ...The cause of
the tricuspid is non-valve valve ionization. stenosis disease does not cause the least failure of the heart.
What is not seen in digital intoxication is:Yellow makes green vision but does not jaundice.
- which one. Heart failure. . Exercise dyspnea is the most common cause.
Pulsus alternans is one of the following diseases: Heart rate changes in every beat.
Which of the following is not seen on the ECG as a digitalization effect ... P wave changes, PR interval elongation, ST
depression, T wave inversion are observed.
Which is not given digital treatment. . . Aortic stenosis and hypertrouk cardiomyopathy are also not given.
Which of the following does not cause cardiomyopathy. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia does not cause
cardiomyopathy.
- Congestive heart failure in which one of the following happens ... thrombosis Congestive is the most frequent heart
failure and thrombosis in everyone is the most common deep femoral
veins. Which of the following will be the first to be suspected of digital poisoning? . . In case of drug intoxication, the
drug is discontinued first. heart If heart failure reserve is low, it may be due to which of the following develops after
surgery. . . Volume overload Which is contraindicated in acute congestive heart failure. . . [b-blockers and adrenaline
are contraindicated. Iti-blockers may be given in chronic heart failure. Which of the following antiarrhythmics is used
to treat ventricular arrhythmia due to digital poisoning. . . IV? Idocaine or phenytoin is used as antiarrhythmia in the
treatment of digitally induced arrhythmias. Digital is one of the following intoxication. . . Dopamine does not cause
any of the following. .. Dopamine inhibits PRL secretion.

- Which of the following is not used in congestive heart failure in heart failure. not suitable. . . Calcium blockers
NSAID,
Group Ia, Ic, III antiarrhythmics are not used. Whichever of the following is not applicable to patients with advanced
heart failure and refractory to loop diuretics. . .Thiazide diuretics alone are not effective in heart failure. Weak
diuretics.
Fifteen days after a viral infection in a forty-eight year-old person known to have no previous heart disease, rapid
fatigue, 375 ° C breathing fever, heart stenosis, rate of palpitations, complaints per minute 120, 1. Heart and tone
attenuation, 53 gallop, apex systolic murmur and high creatine phosphokinase levels were detected.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient...History of infection +, signs of muscle damage =
typical for acute myocarditis.
Which of the following is not a disease that increases the heart's afterload ... Mitral insufficiency increases preload.
A 19-year-old female patient presented with complaints of excessive dyspnea for two days. Physical examination
revealed bilateral heart gallop pretibial rhythm and (++) pulmonary edema. widespread crepitant Serum BUN = 98,
rales and mg / dl Cre = 5.8, mg / dl K = 6 mg / dl_ and erythrocyte silencers in urine sediment. The amount of urine
for two days is 200—250 ml per day. It was also learned that the patient was given IV 200 mg furosemide _4 hours
ago.
Which of the following should be done to this patient first. . . In patients with ARF, diuretic therapy is resistant and in
patients with anuria, heart failure treatment is dialysis treatment. Also the patient has high potassium. (dialysis)
In patients with acute myocardial infarction, which is as follows: Arrhythmias are the most common early
complications of acute myocardial infarction. Of these, VES is most common.
One patient had a second degree of short systolic murmur in the left fourth intercostal space. This murmur is
exacerbated by expiration, straining and standing up and slowed down by the opening and closing of the fingers
(isometric handgrip).
The most common diagnosis in this patient is which of the following. . . Conditions that increase venous return:
Squatting and isometric exercise IHSS and MVP murmurs decrease, while other murmurs exacerbate
ACE inhibitors are the first choice for the treatment of alpine insufficiency.
A sixty-year-old male patient presented with complaints of fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, loss of appetite and
abdominal distension for 6 months. Physical examination revealed subicter sclera, fullness of neck veins, high
tachycardia and central venous pressure. Abdominal free acid, 3-4 cm hepatomegaly, Traube distance is closed and 1+
pretibial edema is detected. ECG shows sinus tachycardia and right axis deviation.
In terms of differential diagnosis, this patient is most likely to have the following diseases ...
she is . Tusdata to
which does not cause pulmonary hypertension. Budd Chiari makes portal hypertension.
In the immediate treatment of acute pulmonary edema due to left ventricular insufficiency, whichever is the following
mm. . .ACE inhibitors have no place in the emergency treatment of acute pulmonary edema due to left vertricular
insufficiency.
Which of the following is not one of the causes of high flow heart failure ...Anemia, fever, beriberi, paget disease of
the bone, arteriovenous fistulas and thyrotoxicosis. Does not cause hypothyroidism.
In a patient diagnosed with chronic “heart failure, which of the following drugs can be used to prevent disease
progression. . .If you read the question more clearly. What he wants to ask is ur what is the first choice drug in the
treatment of heart failure. Or “which of the following is the drug that reduces mortality when used in heart failure”. In
both, the correct response is ACE inhibitors.
The drug that increases neurohormonal activity that can be used in the treatment of heart failure ... furosemide
In an echocardiography of a patient with pulmonary edema, a patient whose left ventricular ejection fraction was found
to be normal should be used to accurately differentiate adult respiratory distress syndrome from diastolic heart failure.
Type B natriuretic peptide
Decompensated adrenergically effective drugs used in the treatment of heart failure ... Dobutamine, Isoproterenol,
Epinephrine, Dopamine
The most probable diagnosis is systolic murmurs and peripheral pulses-fast ascension which is not spread to S4 and
neck but increases the intensity of murmur by valsalva maneuver and decreases the severity of murmur by squatting or
lifting the legs in supine position. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
The mechanism of action of reninin angiotensin-aldosterone system antagonist drugs used in the treatment of heart
failure ... Decreasing right atrial pressure, Decreasing systemic vascular resistance, Decreasing pulmonary capillary
wedge pressure, Decreasing neurohormonal activation Increasing substance in the perferic vein of a patient with heart

failure ... Nitric oxide
the HİPERTANSİVO
Hypertension and renin levels are low in a patient with hypertension. . .In primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn
syndrome): Hypertension, hypernatremia, hypokalemia and alkalosis develop.
If an adult has a transient hypertension attack, the reason is: Pheochromocytoma: It is characterized by hypertension,
which occurs in attacks independent of physical and psychic stresses.
Which of the following is hypertension ygLagm'g. . .Hypertension is not an expected finding in acute pancreatitis.
Pheochromocytoma with alpha receptor stimulation is one of the following ... Alpha stimulation of the vascular bed
leads to vasoconstriction and hypertension.
Which is a complication that can be seen during treatment with angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE
inhibitors) ...Severe persistent cough, proteinuria, hypotension, bronchospasm and hyperkalemia.
In a patient with hypertension and intermittent claudication, the following is considered primarily: It can be seen in
aortic coarctation.
Which of the following drugs for the treatment of primary pulmonary hypertension W W.Beta blockers are
contraindicated in the treatment of asthma, AV blocks and pulmonary hypertension.
Which of the following is one of the antihypertensive mechanisms of beta adrenergic receptor blockers?They do not
decrease peripheral vascular resistance
One of the side effects of ACE inhibitors ... Hypokalemia (They do hyperkalemia)
In patients with beta-blockers, the drug should be preferred when there is no response to epinephrine in the treatment
of anaphylaxis. glucagon
ISCHEMIC HEART DISEASES
A 50-year-old male patient with hyperlipidemia, who was smoking, described substernal pain that lasted 5 minutes
with exertion. In this patient, which examination should be done primarily for diagnostic purposes ...Effort
electrocardiography
Which of the following findings is not a complication of acute myocardial infarction ... Korea is the major criterion of
acute rheumatic fever.
In myocardial infarction, the enzyme does not elevate which of the following. .Alkaline phosphatase increases in many
organ and tissue damage. There is no increase in AMI.
Which of the following electrocardiographic findings is not a sign of coronary artery disease.It does not cause short PR
syndrome.
The order of elevation of enzymes in acute myocardial infarction is the following. .The first rising enzyme is CK —
MB. Then AST and LDH rise at the latest.
The relationship between single-dose pediatric aspirin intake and coronary artery disease in recent years suggests
which of the following ... It inhibits cyclooxygenase enzyme and blocks thromboxane A2 synthesis and ADP release.
The most recent enzyme after myocardial infarction is:LDH: It is the latest enzyme that gets better.
In cardiac resuscitation, the heart is given to which of the following ... Adrenaline + HCO3 may be given
continuously. HCO3 is no longer supplied. (given if the pH drops below 7.1). Atropine is given together with
adrenaline.
The following information gives the best lead in lateral lesions of the left ventricle. .. V shows 5, 6. It also shows D-
AVL.
KW:
Three days after acute myocardial infarction, the heart sounds begin to be heard deeply in the elderly woman. If
sudden chest pain, hypotension and electromechanical dissociation develop, which is the possible cause. .. Free wall
rupture (Cardiac rupture): causes acute tamponade.
The ECG of the patient who had no history of acute myocardial infarction at 4 weeks showed a 3 mm ST elevation in
V1-V3.
The most likely diagnosis is: aneurysm is considered if the ST segments are consistently high, even after 2-3 weeks.
Infarction in right coronary artery thrombosis develops in which ... The right atrium, right ventricle and posterior left
ventricle feed the posterior part of the interventricular septum, the sinoatrial node (60%), and the atrioventricular node
(90%).
In MI, anticoagulation has no place ...Anticoagulants are discontinued due to the risk of hemorrhagic pericarditis.
Electrocardiovations are performed in the following cases: It is performed if the hemodynamic status is impaired in
atrial fibrillation with high ventricular response.
In cases where V height is not observed in leads V1, which is the following. . "Right bundle branch block, right

ventricular hypertrophy and posterior MI. It is not seen in left bundle branch block.
In myocardial infarction, the first rising and lasting enzyme is one of the following. . .The first ascending CK-MB is
the last ascending LDH.
Whichever of the following does not increase atherosclerosis. . .HDL protects against atherosclerosis because it
removes cholesterol from the periphery.
In one of the following, electrocardiography leads to an R / S ratio in lead V1 above I. Posterior myocardial infarction.
The definition of Dressler syndrome is:Autoimmune pericarditis with fever, pleural and pericardial effusion at 4 weeks
post-infarction. Latest MI complication
Which of the following is not one of the treatment modalities proven by clinical studies to reduce mortality after acute
myocardial infarction ... Calcium channel blockers are not recommended for heart failure and acute myocardial
infarction.
In a patient with acute myocardial infarction, which is not a predictor of mortality in the period following discharge
from the hospital ... Factors affecting prognosis:
a. More than 10 VES per minute. b. Post infarction angina c. Non Q MI d. Left heart failure findings e. The ejection
fraction is less than 40%. f. Effort test is positive
Mobitz type II arthrioventricia in a patient with acute anteroseptal myocardial infarction
In case of development of block and signs of heart failure, which of the following treatment methods should be
applied first ...Mobitz type II block and AV is a full block pacemaker.
There is no definitive contraindication for thrombolytic therapy in patients with acute ST elevation myocardial
infarction. Prolonged (> 10 minutes) cardiopulmonary resuscitation
A 45-year-old male patient is being treated for acute pancreatitis. The triglyceride level is 1100 mg / dL, LDL
cholesterol is 90 mg / dL and HDL cholesterol is 40 mg / dL. He had a familial history of coronary artery disease and
familial type II diabetes mellitus. His fasting blood sugar was 120 mg / dL.
The most appropriate antilipid treatment in this patient ... Fibric acid derivatives
Myocardial in-difference is the most common cause of left ventricular aneurysm. . . Acute anterior myocardial
infarction
Treatment of acute myocardial infarction is one of the treatments that has no effect on survival ...nitrates
Metabolic Syndrome Diagnostic Criteria:
one. Central obesity (navel circumference of 94 cm in men, 80 cm in women)
. Triglyceride> 150 mg / dl,. HDL cholesterol <40 mg / d |. Hypertension (& gt; 130/85 mmHg). Fasting blood sugar>
100 mg / dl or diabetes
Approaches used in the treatment of acute coronary syndrome without ST elevation on electrocardiography ... Anti-
ischemic drugs, Anticoagulants, Antithrombocytic drugs, Coronary revascularization
A contraindication for the use of B — adrenergic antagonists in patients with acute ST elevation myocardial infarction
... Heart rate <60 / min, Systolic blood pressure <100 mmHg, PR interval> 0.24 seconds, 2nd or 3rd degree
atrioventricular block
Unstable medication for acute coronary syndrome without ST elevation ... alteplase
In a patient with MI, pain associated with nausea and vomiting, starting from epigastrum and chest and back, sinus
rhythm without conduction defect, heart rate 90 / min and ST segment elevation of 2-4 mm in V1 -5 leads are the most
likely MI region. Acute anterior myocardial infarction
3 years ago, anterior wall MI in the event of shortness of breath in the patient who is expected to be seen in ECO
findings ...Low left ventricular ejection fraction, Wall motion impairment, Increased left ventricular diastolic diameter,
Increased left ventricular systolic diameter
The patient was hospitalized in the coronary intensive care unit with the diagnosis of acute inferior myocardial
infarction. The patient's blood pressure was 80/60 mmHg and Kussmaul was not detected and the central venous
pressure was measured 10 cm.
€ tus "mahogany centers
HEART VALVES DISEASES
Rheumatic fever causes heart valve disease which most follows ... Lid retention sequence; mitral (insufficiency) aorta,
tricuspid and pulmonary valve. Aschoff nodule is one of the following diseases. . .Rheumatic fever occurs in the
myocardium. Which of the following causes mitral valve failure today? Left atrial myxoma causes symptoms
mimicking mitral stenosis. MY does not. MVP is the most common cause of MR. _ If a diastolic murmur is heard in
the apex of the girl with arthritis in the knee joint, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment ...Penicillin
+ Aspirin + Bed rest is given. Myocardial involvement is required for the steroid. (Myocarditis)

The cause of premature death in acute rheumatic fever is:Pancarditis is the cause of premature death in rheumatic fever.
Which of the following is not a sign of mitral regurgitation ...De Musset symptom is seen in aortic insufficiency.
Heart disease, which is the most common cause of hemoptysis, is:Hemoptysis is most commonly seen in mitral
stenosis.
Which of the following affects the prognosis in pregnant women the most. . .Mitral stenosis is a common pathology
that affects prognosis.
How long is antibiotic prophylaxis given in Sydenham Korea ...Prophylaxis should be applied until at least 20 years of
age, if there is no recurrence. A hypertensive, fifty-year-old male patient had severe chest pain beginning behind the
sternum and spreading to the neck, back and arms.
Left brachial and radial arterial pulse cannot be detected and the diagnosis can be as follows: It is seen in dissecting
aortic aneurysms.
Which of the following diseases' sudden death by effort ...Aortic stenosis and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy may cause
angina syncope and sudden death.
Which is the most common atrial fibrillation disease ...Mitral stenosis is the most common cause of atrial fibrillation.
In developed countries, the most common cause is hypertension. (Now this definition has changed. Hypertension is the
most common cause of AF. In underdeveloped countries, he asks Mitral stenosis.
In an asymptomatic case with mitral insufficiency due to ARA at the age of twenty, which of the following is
appropriate. . .In an asymptomatic case with mitral regurgitation, if the patient is over 20 years of age, monitoring is
sufficient.
Diastolic murmur is a specific finding for which of the following. . .Early diastolic murmurs: Occurs in aortic
insufficiency. Radiological findings that are not seen in pure mitral stenosis are: The aortic knob shrinks.
Which is not a major criterion in ARA. .. Arthritis, Carditis, Subcutaneous nodules, Korea and Erythema marginatum.
It's not arthralgia. In the treatment of symptomatic pure mitral stenosis, which of the following should be applied first.
. .It is closed mitral commisurotomy if there are no conditions such as calcification, atrial thrombi, mitral regurgitation
and aortic regurgitation. If you have a midsystolic click and a late systolic murmur, you will consider ... Mitral valve
prolapse: Midsystolic click and late systolic murmur are typical.
The diagnosis of a patient with a wave of jugular vein, apex left displacement and systolic ejection murmur is one of
the following ...Pulmonary stenosis is a physical examination.
It is a middastolic murmur due to functional mitral valvulitis due to ARA. (Care-Coombs murmur) '-
If there is hilar fullness in the telegraphy, prominent pulmonary contraction and dilatation in the left atrium, which of
the following would you consider ... Radiological findings in mitral stenosis were listed.
Which is a sign of aortic stenosis ... Atrial fibrillation is one of the complications of aortic stenosis.
Which of the following cannot be treated with aspirin and steroid in acute rheumatic fever (April-94). . .In patients
with chorea in acute rheumatic fever, aspirin and steroid treatment is not necessary.
Graham-Steel murmur is caused by: . .It is a murmur of relative pulmonary insufficiency in all diseases that cause
pulmonary hypertension.
Which of the following drugs should not be preferred in case of intraventricular gradient increase in IHSS treatment. .
.Digitally contraindicated at IHSS.
The patient whose blood pressure was 150/50 mmHg and early diastolic murmur was heard in 2-3 intercostal spaces on
the left side of the sternum, which disease is considered most strongly ...Two important signs of aortic insufficiency
were given. In a patient with early diastolic murmur along the left side of the sternum, which of the following should
be considered first. . .It is heard in aortic failure. Systolic blood pressure is higher than the upper extremity of the leg. ..
Hill's symptom of aortic failure is being questioned.
Which of the following does not occur in severe pulmonary stenosis. . .Pulmonary valve closure sound was lost in
severe stenosis. -
Left ventricular dilatation and hypertrophy do not occur in any of the following ...Since there is no volume load and
pressure load in the left ventricle in mitral stenosis, dilatation and hypertroH are not seen in the left ventricle.
A 20-year-old female patient presented with severe dyspnea and decreased exercise capacity. ECHO examination
revealed mitral stenosis. (cover area 0.9 cm?). There is no calcification in the valves and no thrombus in the left
atrium.
'_, ğı ızı vi vi vi' vi
The most appropriate approach to the patient is: ..Balloon valvuloplasty is the most appropriate approach.
A 30-year-old patient with exertional dyspnoea presented in the examination. Grade mesocardiac focus is heard early
diastolic murmur. The patient had a history of acute rheumatic fever and ECG revealed left ventricular hypertrophy.

The most likely diagnosis is: Early diastolic and pandiastolic murmur may be heard depending on the degree of aortic
insufficiency.
Which of the following does not appear as the physical examination findings of the patient in the previous question ...
Pulsus parvus et tardus; aortic stenosis. It is a slow and late rising pulse.
- Which of the following is an indication that the prognosis of valvular aortic stenosis is poor). . .Poor prognosis
findings in aortic stenosis;
Heart failure, angina, atrial and ventricular arrhythmias favor favorable prognosis.
Which of the following statements about mitral stenosis is incorrect. . .In isolated mitral stenosis, the left ventricular
diastolic pressure generally decreases, not increasing.
Murmur in pulmonary hypertension due to mitral stenosis ... Graham Steell murmur
- In a patient with severe calcific aortic stenosis, the development of which leads to sudden deterioration of the clinical
picture ... Atrial fbrilation
~ Additional volume with increased inspiration ... tricuspid
systolic murmur at failure
Physical examination findings in tricuspid valve insufficiency ... Increased right ventricular activity in the parasternal
region, 3rd heart sound from right ventricle, prominent systolic wave in J'ugular vein, Pansystolic murmur intensified
during inspiration in subxiphoid region and 4th intercostal space
A 42-year-old female patient presented with a history of progressive respiratory distress for the last 6 years. Bilateral
pulmonary edema and large left atrium appearance revealed echocardiographic examination. Aortic and mitral
A 42-year-old female patient presented with complaints of increasing fatigue and weakness for several years. The
patient described chest pain and dyspnea on exertion for 1 month. The most probable diagnosis is for a patient whose
systolic 4/6 murmur is heard most prominently and dilatation of the main pulmonary and left pulmonary arteries is
detected on the telecardiography and the lung areas are olygmic ... Pulmonary stenosis
.; us NAURLIK CENTERS
CONJ'ENITAL HEART DISEASES IN ADULTS
- Which of the following congenital anomalies is common with supravalvular aortic stenosis. .. Williams syndrome. In
addition to mental retardation in this syndrome, there are round wide forehead, nasal root obstruction, abnormalities of
the face and long altrum, constriction of other arteries and hypercalcemia that develop in infancy.
- In a patient with systemic embolism, pulmonary hypertension and atrial fibrillation, which should be considered as
primary disease, which of the following ...Both systemic embolism and pulmonary hypertension in the patient: mitral
stenosis
- Posterior-anterior chest X-ray kalp wooden shoe ((sabo) heart appearance, which is the following diseases.Fallot
tetralogy.
- In a routine physical examination of a 20-year-old male patient, blood pressure in his right arm is 180/110 mm / Hg.
Both radial and carotid pulses are full and striking, while femoral, popliteal and dorsalis pulses are barely palpable.
The diagnosis that can be made in this patient is: . .It is seen in aortic coarctation.
- Pulmonary vascularization is reduced in which of the following: ..Tetralogy of Fallot decreases vascularity due to
decreased blood supply to the lung.
- If the child has chest pain, fainting seizures, and ST, T changes in V5-V6 on ECG, whichever is considered. . .The
first diagnosis that comes to mind in an advanced child with left ventricular hypertrophy findings in angina, syncope
and ECG is AS.
~ The most common heart defect in Down syndrome
which is the following. . . Endocardial cushion defect anomalies in the heart, and then tetralogy of VSD and Fallot are
common.
In tetralogy of Fallot, if the patient has acute anoxic seizures, which of the following ...Morphine and 02 are used to
treat these seizures.
If there is constant mating in the second heart sound, systolic ejection in the pulmonary focus, and right bundle branch
block, which one would you consider ...Fixed $ 2 mating can be marked ASD with peace of mind.
The disease can only be diagnosed in a child by controlling the peripheral pulse. ..Since the ductus arteriosus of the
aorta does not show any other findings, it can only be diagnosed by checking the pulses.
In a child, the therapeutic catheter is most commonly administered. . .It is applied in pulmonary stenosis. Congenital
heart disease with right axis deviation and right ventricular hypertrophy on ECG is one of the following. . . In tetralogy
of Fallot, systolic thrill and systolic murmur, decrease of P2 component of Sa, right axis deviation and right ventricular
hypertrophy (Cor en sabo) in radiology can be seen. 'Which of the following is more common in Marfanda than in

society. . .The most common mitral valve prolapse, mitral insufficiency, aortic root and valsalva sinuses
... ms PREPARATION CENTERS
enlargement, aortic regurgitation Other pathologies in the cardiovascular system due to Marfan syndrome. - In a child,
an apical prominent pansystolic left sternum and axillary murmur, marked S3 and 54 in diastole
available. What is your diagnosis in this child (April-96) ...Ebstein's anomaly (—-> Lithium use during pregnancy) is
considered. - Which of the following is not a complication of aortic coarctation. Pulmonary hypertension is not one of
the complications. - In a patient with ventricular septal defect, which is diagnosed as Eisenmenger syndrome
...Diagnosis is made by the increase of pulmonary artery pressure and its approach to systemic blood pressure.
- It was learned from the history that the patient presented with complaints of quick fatigue, palpitation and pressure in
his chest, and his history continued from time to time while he was resting. On physical examination, his blood
pressure was measured 180/100 mmHg and his femoral pulses were barely palpated and systolic murmur on his back
and routine blood and urine tests were performed. The most likely cause of secondary hypertension in a twenty-two-
year-old male patient with normal ... Aortic coarctation
- Echocardiography of a 50-year-old male patient
A patient with congenital bicuspid aortic valve who had severe hypertension for the last 8 years was found to have
weaker femoral pulses compared to radial pulses. Aortic coarctation
ARRHYTHMIAS
- In a patient with tachycardia, if the pulse rate returns to normal with carotid massage, which is the most likely
diagnosis. . .Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia is considered. 'Sinusal bradycardia should not be given the drug which is
...Eeta blockers should not be used in bradycardic patients because they lower the heart rate. - A pulse rate of 44 in a
male patient who has had dizziness and fainting seizures six times in the past year
It is found to be present. The most likely diagnosis is:Infranodal atrioventricular block is a condition that results in
syncope in elderly patients. This syncope is called Adams-Stokes crisis. - Which of the following causes arterial
embolism the most ...Frequent arterial embolism, especially when associated with mitral valve disease
Is a plus. - You cannot use any of the following for an asystole patient. . . Beta blockers are not used. 'If there is no
match between heart rate and heart rate, you will consider which of the following. .. Atrial fibrillation: Pulsus
There are defisit. 'If the QRS is 0.14 mm wide in a 14-year-old patient, you consider which of the following. . . Branch
blocks, ventricular hypertrophies, ventricular tachycardias and WPW syndrome are broad QRS.
The most common complication of atrial fibrillation is: Atrial fbrilation complications: Thromboembolism, heart
failure and angina may cause pectoris.
Anti-arrhythmics which are not used orally are: Lidocaine is not used orally. Which of the following slows AV
transmission ...Acute rheumatic fever disrupting the AV node, arteriosclerosis, cardiotonic drugs such as digital,
myocardial and ischemic heart diseases, some infectious diseases such as diphtheria are hypokalemia and
pacSympathetic. Which of the following is used in supraventricular tachycardia. ..
one. First vagal maneuvers (carotid
massage, massage to the eye, such as valsalva). 2nd. Drug treatment: The first choice drug is adenosine. Digitally used
calcium channel blockers (verapamil), beta blockers. Which of the following is used for the treatment of the patient
with the following D II derivation (ECG atrial fibrillation radiograph): Emergency synchronized DC cardioversion is
indicated in patients with poor general condition. Digoxin, adenosine, verapamil, betablokor should be used.
Propophenone or Amiadarone is used to convert to sinus rhythm.
The condition seen in the above ECG is: . .Ventricular extrasystoles are recognized in E KG with large (usually> 0.14
sec) and peculiar QRS complexes that are not pioneered by the P wave.
Which of the following drugs does not extend the P — R interval. . .Adenosine, amiodarone, Verapamil and
propranolol prolong the PR range; Lidocaine does not extend the PR interval.
Which ECG has been matched ...Normal P, PR distance, QRS complex and T wave were given. Speed's normal. Sinus
rhythm.
The most common ECG sign in acute joint rheumatism is:The most common ECG disorder is prolongation of PR. (1st
degree AV block) Which of the following statements about patients with atrial fibrillation is wrong ... Quinidine alone
is not administered until the ventricular rate slows down.
A 70-year-old patient was admitted to the emergency department due to sudden fainting seizures. His ECG shows P
and QRS around 35-36 minutes. relatives of the patient within the last 3 months from time to time complaints of
dizziness and phenomena SGOT, LDH and CPK are within normal limits.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient)...In complete block, the patient's general condition
is poor, hypotension and syncope are present. Heart rate is usually less than 40. Rapid ventricular responsive atrial

fibrillation:Atropine increases heart rate. There is no need to give intermediate gas to the fast one.
The given rhythm track is compatible with which of the following ...AV full block ECG sample, speed less than 40, PP
intervals fixed, RR intervals fixed but independent of each other. .
wii: = 'f, f — ıffıişf'ı-İffızı centers,'

- Development of atrial fibrillation, following heart sounds
_ * s RARE MARVERS
'Retrosternal located chest which has been going on for 3 hours causes which one to disappear. .. It causes the fourth
heart sound to disappear. In addition, a wave and pesystolic exacerbation are not seen in these patients.
The electrocardlyogram track above is compatible with any of the following. . . In this ECG, there is a diagnosis of left
bundle branch block. Diagnostic criteria of left bundle branch block:
1) Wide QRS, 2) Q5 pattern in V1, 3) Notched R wave in V5-V6, 4) Left axle
- After one hour of chest pain
A 62-year-old male patient underwent electrocardiogram tracing as follows.
This trase is compatible with ... ECG sample compatible with ventricular tachycardia.
, Tivi — iiii i. , FEHIM
The electrocardiogram above is compatible with: $ ol ECG sample compatible with ventricular hypertrophy.
dd! criteria for ventricular hypertrophy
a. Left axis deviation, b. QRS elongation greater than 0.1 s, c. V5, V6 in R> 27, V15 + V5R> 35 l'nV, d. ST
depression and T negativity in V5, V6 - Treatment given to a patient with paroxysmal atrial tachycardia. . . Verapamil,
Digitalis, Adenosine, Diltiazem
'The most common arrhythmia associated with sudden cardiac death ...
Ventricular tachyarrhythmias
Fifty-one-year-old male patient who admitted to the emergency department with pain, whose body temperature was
36,706 and his blood pressure was 155/85 mmHg and whose troponin and creatine kinase-MB levels were high on
laboratory examination and ST segment elevation in anterior leads were observed within 24 hours. complication...
Cardiac arrhythmia
Cardiac arrhythmia and cardiopulmonary resuscitation were performed.Atrial fibrillation
An old male patient with MI 5 years ago had left ventricular EF 20% and frequent ventricular tachycardia attacks
The most appropriate treatment in term treatment ... Intracardiac Endocardial Diseases
In infective endocarditis, none of the following findings may be seen in Heberden IE. nodule is seen in osteoarthritis.
Other Which is the most common cause of bacterial endocarditis. . .Stafa. Is Aerous'.
It is the most common natural valve endocarditis. .. Does not take place Streptococci. (Actually, infective 5taf.aerustur
is the most common causative agent of endocarditis. An important feature of Staf.aerus is coagulase positive (the most
common cause of natural valve endocarditis). The correct answer to this question is the second most common factor,
streptococcus virida.
Endocardial rupture is most common in which ...In marantic endocarditis, the endocardium is more vulnerable and
weak. Therefore, it is more likely to tear.
Which of the following indications for surgical treatment in a child with infective endocarditis M m. . . The treatment
of supraventricular tachycardia is usually medical. No surgery is required.
endocarditis Prophylaxis of the following cardiac diseases is not necessary. infective Prophylaxis is not required in
patients with isolated atrial septal defects. Others are required.
- Libman-Sacks pathognomonic involvement endocarditis is Libman. .Lupus endocarditis seen in systemic pots.
Erythematosus disease A 60-year-old male patient with diarrhea who has been treated for 10 days with the diagnosis
of infective endocarditis.
Abdominal pain on the 10th day of treatment. pole .. abdomen Radiograph of the abdomen. In the event of the
development of infective valve disease endocarditis followed by rheumatism should be done first in the internal events
in a person in the case of the tooth should be considered primarily as the following microorganism. . .S. viridans
bacteremia, dental
It may come. Manipulations occur with tonsillectomy or chewing.
: Tus Preparation Center ©

Bilateral dyspnea, new 40 infiltration degree systolic fever murmur, and multiple aureus using S. on blood cultures and
drug radiographs.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient. The tricuspid valve is most commonly involved in
patients receiving intravenous drugs. The most common agent is 5th aureus.
is not one of the following.In infective infective endocarditis, splenomegaly of endocarditis may be cardinal. However,
hepatomegaly is not an expected finding.
In the following case, the risk of occurrence of infective endocarditis is not necessary, because prophylaxis is very low.
Before a male patient was diagnosed with any complaints of fever and shortness of breath 18 years old with no
complaints of any tremors, lesions were detected in two feet. head and shoots. palpinebral auscultation Physical
conjunctival examination revealed a purpuric fever at 39 ° C focus on the aorta, and a severe 0.5 x 0.5 diastolic
murmur. A furuncle is detected on the patient's neck and it is learned that this lesion appeared about four days before
shaving.
Which of the following microorganisms are most likely to reproduce in the blood culture to be taken from this patient
...Fronculus + endocarditis: Staphylococcus aureus is considered.
A 28-year-old male patient who had been treated with aortic insufficiency for three years was hospitalized with
complaints of fever, loss of appetite and weight loss for 1.5 months. In the physical examination, the patient's fever is
38.506, the spleen is palpated at the edge of the rib 3 cm, subconjunctival hemorrhages and petioles are determined at
the speed. elevation, laboratory leukocytosis and microscopic sedimentation hematuria.
Which of the following tests should be performed first to make a definitive diagnosis in this patient ... Clinically
infective culture endocarditis should be requested. Defined. In cases, echocardiography for diagnosis is not
echocardiography and the correct answer for blood is blood culture. According to 'infective Duke criteria endocarditis,
the major criterion in the diagnosis of which is considered to be ...
DUKE criteria: Major criteria:
one. Positive blood culture:
Blood cultures taken at 12-hour intervals, all three blood cultures reproduction in 4 or more blood cultures 2. ECO:
Positive echocardiography for infective endocarditis
a. Vegetation, b. Abscess, c. Valve perforation, d. New damage to prostatic valve e. In the presence of newly
developed valvular insufficiency urethral dilatation endocarditis should be administered in a patient with prophylaxis ...
whichever has a bioprosthesis heart valve
A 67-year-old blood male patient with high fever was diagnosed with bovis infectious Streptococcus endocarditis.
Which of these cancers should be screened in this reproducing patient ... Colon cancer
Duke criteria nodules used in the diagnosis of infective endocarditis, Roth minor stains, criteria ... High lesions of
J'aneway
fever (238 ° C), Osler OTHER HEART DISEASES
- Paradox pulse is seen. . .Pericarditis / tamponade occurs in any of the following.
Constructive is one of the following pericarditis ...Tuberculosis is the most common cause of the disease. The
pathology of heart failure in hyperthyroidism is:It depends on the increase in metabolic speed.
If a fifty-year-old patient with a 2/6 fever degree and weight loss position has a murmur apex, you will consider which
of the following. .. Myxoma mimics mitral valve disease. Fever and platypnea are the two most typical symptoms.
The diagnosis of bradycardia, pericardial effusion, cardiomyopathy and ECG is a decrease in voltage ...One patient
who was followed up for hypothyroidism had the most probable tamponade findings.
In a patient with pericardial tamponade, which is not appropriate before pericardiocentesis ...Diuretic administration
(Pulse type pulsus paradoxus). Electrocardiography; low voltage. Pericardiocentesis is performed in diagnosis and
treatment.
The most likely diagnosis in a patient with severe chest pain, deep inspiration and increased pain in the supine position
is one of the following. . .Classical of acute pericarditis
are changes. Which of the following constructions is chronic ... l <usmau | Symptoms of the sign of pericarditis: non-
increase in neck venous fullness in deep inspiration. The pulse in the pericardial tamponade is: . .Pulsus is paradoxical.
Cardiothoracic pericarditis increases and the most restrictive cardiomyopathy is low in which of the following
conditions ... L <ronic cardiomegaly does not make constrictive. If a patient has a quadruple heart failure but there is
no cardiomegaly, two pathologies will come to your mind. Constructive pericarditis, Restrictive CMP In which of the
following, a systemic disease is not associated with a common cardiac complication. .. Marfan syndrome does not
cause pulmonary stenosis but aortic insufficiency and aneurysm.
The use of acute gouty arthritis in the treatment of patients presenting with priority ...Allopurinol is the most probable
diagnosis if a patient's coronary angiography is normal if sudden and severe chest pain, hypertension and blood
pressure measured from the arms are not equal. Aortic dissection

© '.Tus Preparation Centers, "
CHEST DISEASES
INTRODUCTION TO CHEST DISEASES
Pulmonary wedge pressure indicates which of the following ... Pulmonary wedge pressure (Pulmonary wedge pressure)
... indicates left-ventricular end-diastolic pressure.
Which of the following diseases increases the residual volume of the lungs ...Increases in obstructive pulmonary
diseases.
Which of the following are signs of kartagener syndrome ... Chronic sinusitis, frontal sinus agenesis or aplasia,
dextrocardia and bronchiectasis are seen.
Which one of the following does not show clubbing ... It does not occur in clubfoot sarcoidosis, Oat cell CA, Raynoud
phenomenon, COPD, asthma bronchiale, Primary Pulmonary hypertension, Acute infections (Laryngitis, pneumonia
etc.) and noncomplicated tuberculosis. (in short; SORKAPAT)
In percussion, the mature of the lung is seen in the following situations:Space-saving liquids and solids cause
maturation in percussion. In pneumonia, percussion is taken to the matte.
Which of the following diseases do not require bronchoscopy ...Bronchoscopy has no place in the diagnosis of asthma.
Obstructive manifestations in functional respiratory tests are:Bronchial asthma, chronic bronchitis, emphysema,
bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis and small airway disease are included in this group.
In a thoracic examination, a possible diagnosis of a patient with reduced thoracic vibration and hypersonorite is:
Physical examination with emphysema. These findings are also present in the pneumothorax.
Which is not an indication for bronchoscopy ...Hematemesis is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding. Bronchoscopy is not
required.
Which one does not have alveolar hypoxia ...Interstitial lung diseases are in the restrictive lung diseases group.
Hypoxia in these patients is due to non-alveolar causes. 'Spirometric examination of the disease in restrictive type of
ventilation disorder, which signs are detected ...Decreased residual volume (Detected in complex spirometry-Helium
dilution method and Plethysmography) Chest radiograph shows an upward opacity in the right costodiaphragmatic
sinus. Which of the following is done to confirm the diagnosis ... A lateral decubitis radiograph is taken.
Which of the following is definitively diagnosed with Bronchogra ... Bronchiectasis is definitively diagnosed by
bronchography / HRCT.
Which is one of the following that does not cavitate the lung ...Asthma is characterized by attacks of constriction in the
main bronchi and bronchioles and does not cause cavitation.
Hypoxemia without hypoxemia is observed in which case ...Without hypoxemia, hypoxia occurs in anemia.
- A woman using oral contraceptives suddenly develops dyspnea and chest pain hemoptysis following a 12-hour bus
ride.
Which of the following methods will help the diagnosis at least? Pulmonary X-ray is the least information among
these tests in the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism.
Which of the following g_i_mgz causes unilateral diaphragm elevation ... In the early stages of emphysema,
diaphragms flatten and diaphragms are lower than normal.
Which of the following is not one of the features of the pleural fluid that transudates ...The transudate is also LDH
<200 IU / L. All other options are characteristic of the transudate fluid.
Transudate type. pleural fluid .. Congestive heart failure
Contamination of pleural effusion with infectious agents. . . empyema
A situation in which a patient with trauma should be detected at the first examination and urgent intervention should
be done ... Blood pressure pneumothorax, Cardiac tamponade, Open pneumothorax, Massive hemothorax
The best parameter in the diagnosis of upper airway obstruction is spirometry ... Current volume curve
Diseases expected to develop clubbing ... Pulmonary fibrosis, Pulmonary arteriovenous malformation, Pulmonary
malignant neoplasm, Pulmonary abscess
Pulmonary function test results consistent with aging ... Decreased FEV1 / FVC, Increased vital capacity, Decreased
FEV1, Decreased POS
COPD
Laboratory findings in allergic (extrinsic) asthma are: IgE increases in serum in extrinsic asthma.
Which of the following diseases does not increase sweat Cl ...It does not increase in hemolytic anemia.
Especially in the morning when the patients get out of bed cough with plenty of purulent sputum is seen in which of
the following diseases ...It is a characteristic symptom of bronchiectasis.
Night cough is typical for ... Night cough is primarily suggestive of bronchial asthma. Sinusitis and gastroesophageal

reflux also include night coughing.
Which of the following was missing in my emphysema ...I-lomozigote Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency ((panaciner) ...
panlobular) ... can cause emphysema.
In uncomplicated asthma, which is M. . . Diffuse pulmonary infiltration is not seen in asthma.
... ws "mahogany MERCES
Connective tissue disease that causes acute asthma-like attacks is: Can produce asthma-like symptoms due to lung
involvement in scleroderma,
Which of the following allergic diseases is not immunotherapy ... Immunotherapy is not used in this disease because
there is no allergy in intrinsic asthma.
Blood levels in status astmaticus are: pH low, PaO2 low, Pa CO2 high.
Which is not seen in cystic fibrosis Which is normal growth does not develop.
Emphysema type, which extends to the alveoli, including the respiratory bronchioles, is one of the following ...
Panaciner. .. emphysema is characterized by dilatation or destruction of terminal bronchioles.
If a 20-year-old patient with pneumonia in childhood has abundant sputum and occasional hemoptysis, which one
would you consider ... Bronchiectasis should be considered. '
Which is the most reliable test for COPD: FEV1 (1st sec volume of forced expiration) ... is a reduction.
'Which of the following does not cause bronchiectasis ...
Emphysema is seen in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency.
Which of the following does not occur due to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease ... COPD is the most common
cause of secondary polycythemia, not anemia.
Secondary spontaneous pneumothorax most. frequent reason. . . Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Which of the following medications can cause asthma attacks ... Beta can cause adrenergic agonists and aspirin.
Which of the following does not cause an asthma attack ... Calcium channel blockers vasodilatate the bronchovascular
bed.
Which of the following causes obstructive lung disease? Radiation pneumonitis is a restrictive lung disease. - Which
of the following drugs can not be used in the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease ... Beta-blockers are
contraindicated in COPD, asthma and AV blocks. Which of the following does not fit into the emphysema clinic ...
The risk of infection is greater in chronic bronchitis. Emphysema is insidious and comes to the physician with dyspnea.
The chest radiograph shows homogeneous opacity on one side, diaphragmatic elevation on the same side and
mediastinal lesion. It is compatible with atelectasis. Which of the following pathologies does not play a role in the
development of bronchiectasis ... Silicosis does not cause bronchiectasis.
The mast cell stabilizer in asthma is: The mast cell stabilizer sodium sodium or nedocromil sodium may be used.
Anatomic contributing most to the formation of hilus density on normal posterior anterior chest X-ray
©
the structure is one of the following) ... The most important structure of the hilum is the pulmonary arteries.
Which of the following is not detected on lateral chest radiography in advanced emphysema ... Radioluensity does not
decrease in lungs, it increases.
When monitoring a patient in acute asthma crisis in the emergency department, the following methods can be used to
evaluate airway obstruction: Since airway obstruction is used in the question, the answer is PEFR. PaOZ level is the
distracting option.
An asthmatic patient presented with hypotension, shortness of breath and urticaria following painkillers. Anaphylactic
reaction to the drug is described. The first thing to do in the treatment is to remove from the factor. If breathing has
stopped, the respiratory tract must be opened. In the treatment of the drug adrenaline can be given as subcutaneous or
intravenous infusion. High dose steroid treatment is given. Adrenaline was originally given for anaphylaxis not given
for asthma.
. '5' ... It's normal. .
I v A TAKG TAKE RV. RVA
V_E_: Expiratory flow velocity TAC: Total lung capacity observed TAC: Total lung capacity expected _ RV:
Observed residual volume Rvg: Expected residual volume VA: Pulmonary volume
The pulmonary flow-volume curve given above is associated with which of the following diseases ...It is compatible
with acute asthma attacks.
Best non - invasive diagnostic method of bronchiectasis. . .High resolution CT
The definitive indication for long-term oxygen therapy in the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease ...
PaOZ s 55 mmHg Emphysema-related lung radiological findings ... Shrinkage of the heart shadow, Thinning of

peripheral vessels, Flattening of the diaphragm, Blistering Indications for regular inhaled corticosteroid use in COPD
patients ... Forced expiration 1. Secondary excretion volume (FEV1) is less than 50%, Reversibility test positivity,
Repetitive exacerbations in severe and very severe COPD stage, Annual loss of FEV1 is 80 mL or more
Expected FEV1 value after bronchodilator administration in middle-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease ...
50% s FEV1 <80% Characteristics of bronchial asthma ... Airway obstruction, Airway inflammation, Mucus
hypersecretion, Bronchial hypersensitivity
'i İ' * 'Tİ'US' PREPARATION CENTERS
TUBERCULOSIS
The definitive method of diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis is: The definitive diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis is
made by producing bacillus from sputum.
- The primary focus of bacilli in primary pulmonary tuberculosis is: The first locus where the bacilli are located in the
lung is called the Ghon locus.
Milier Tuberculosis is spread in the following ways which ... It happens through pulmonary veins.
A 20-year-old male patient has pleurisy and no response to antibiotic therapy. There is no pericardial tubule, the lesion
has a line from the hilus to the basal periphery and the leukocyte is normal.
In this hasTa you can see which of the following ... Disease Table is compatible with sarcoidosis and Tuberculosis. In
differential diagnosis, biopsy and Tuberculin Detection and ARB are performed.
- Which of the following is true in tuberculous pleurisy ... Vibration is reduced, breathing sounds are reduced and the
test is taken.
Which of the following is not expected to have anergy ... Viral infections, Hodgkin's disease, sarcoidosis, pregnancy,
menopause, precariousness and Iepra PPD may be negative.
The most common radiographic appearance of primary pulmonary tuberculosis is: Primary focus of primary
tuberculosis is primary focus (Ghon complex). . . It is.
In tuberculosis prophylaxis The agent that can be used alone is: Isoniazid Used alone in the prophylaxis of
tuberculosis.
- FeTusa Tuberculosis drug which is known to be toxic and should not be used in pregnant woman is: STrepTomycin
is strictly contraindicated in pregnant women because they deform the eighth head nerve in the fetus and cause
deafness.
Twenty-year-old male patient with unilateral pleural effusion is predominant in exudate and fluid cytology. In pleural
biopsy, granuloma showing pleural cystic pleuritis was detected.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient... Tuberculosis-related exudate findings consistent
with effusion.
Adult lung tuberculosis is the most common localized site in which ... (Secondary Tbc) Both base lobes TuTar.
If anergy develops in someone who has had PPD (+) ... Tuberculin Test may be negative in Miliary Tuberculosis.
Which of the following does not cause pulmonary tuberculosis ... ATopy does not cause the development of
tuberculosis. - Which is the most appropriate form of treatment for Tuberculosis Treatment Active In the first 2 months
of tuberculosis patients, isoniazid (INH) ..., rifampin (RIF) ... and pyrazinamide (PZA) ... Treatment is continued with
INH and RIF for 4 months.
s PREPARATION
- Which is one of the radiological findings of pulmonary tuberculosis Mun) ... Pulmonary venous congestion is not
expected.
A 40-year-old male patient has been hospitalized for 6 weeks with complaints of night sweats, bloody sputum, weight
loss and dyspnea. The chest radiograph of HasTa is as follows.
The most likely diagnosis for this patient is: Clinical and radiological findings Compatible with tuberculosis.
- A fifty year old male patient is being treated for active pulmonary tuberculosis. The dose of oral anticoagulant drug
in this patient who has been using warfarin for another reason
they have to be raised to two floors.
The antituberculous drug that causes this condition is ... Rifampin is a general inhibitor. Reduces the effect of many
drugs.
~ HerediTer sferosiTozda is the most common missing ...
There are spekTrin defekTi.
'Chest X-ray findings which are common in primary tuberculosis but rarely seen in posTprimer tuberculosis ...
lymphadenopathy
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM INFECTIONS

- If a patient has complaints of chills, TiTreme, fever rise, severe chest pain, cough and yellow-brown phlegm after the
common cold, which of the following diseases is considered ... Listed important clinical findings of pneumococcal
pneumonia.
- Which is the least likely to cause recurrent pulmonary infection ... Cyanoic heart disease does not cause frequent
infections.
- A young person with Canary care has fever, cough, cyanosis and dyspnea. Chest X-ray is compatible with a typical
pneumonia and cannot be definitively diagnosed.
Which medicine do you use ... The clinical picture complies with the psiTakoz. The agent is Clamidia psiTTaci.
Treatment is 6x250-500 mg TeTracycline.
- In uncomplicated lobar pneumonia Treatment, which of the following ... uncomplicated
penicillin is the first choice in lobar pneumonia.
The patient presented with a sudden onset of fever, cough, and rusty sputum. Which of the findings determined in the
physical examination of this patient is likely to be identified
.. 'TU! candle
is lower than others ...Reduction of vocal fremitus in the consolidation area Cases with increased vibration thoracic.
..ARDS, pneumonia, lung cancer, atelectasis
What is the cause of primary atypical pneumonia? The most common causative agent of primary atypical pneumonia is
Mycoplasma pneumonia (Eaton agent).
Pneumocystis cariniin is the most common form of disease in bedridden patients, which is ... It is common in AIDS
patients. He makes interstitial pneumonia in his clinic.
- Pathological sequencing in lobar pneumonia is: Exudation, red hepatization, gray hepatization and resolution stage.
Which of the following does not cause recurrent lung infection ... Immune system disorders include low antitrypsin
deficiency, cystic fibrosis, incomplete complement, tracheoesophageal fistulas, embolism, diabetes,
hemoglobinopathies and malignant diseases.
In the treatment of uncomplicated lobar pneumonia, which is ... Penicillin is the first choice for uncomplicated
pneumonia.
A 24-year-old male patient was admitted with complaints of cough, dyspnea and abundant purulent sputum for 5 days.
He had a history of pneumonia at the age of 9 years, and had complaints of cough, sputum production and hemoptysis
from time to time. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient ...Bronchiectasis. (The disease with the highest
risk of developing bronchiectasis is cystic fibr'osis').
On the chest radiograph, the lotus flower image is composed of: In exploded cysts, there may be Nilüfer sign, crescent
sign, double dome sign.
Which of the following bacteria is seen as Gr (-) ... and thick capsule bacilli in sputum preparations of patients with
pneumonia who are alcoholic in middle age and over Klebsiella should think about pneumonia.
The first choice for pneumococcal pneumonia is: The first choice in pneumococcal pneumonia is Penicillin G if it does
not produce penicillinase.
A physical examination of a university student who presented with high fever and sore throat revealed
lymphadenopathy in the neck, 15,000 leukocytes in CBC and 95% of them were reported to be lymphocytes.
Which microorganism is most likely to cause this clinic in this patient ...Clinical findings consistent with EMN were
given.
On the chest radiograph, the fungus title deed is one of the following factors ... It is seen in aspergilloma and localized
in the tuberculosis cavity and apex.
Which is the cause of atypical pneumonia ... Chlamydia pneumonia often leads to atypical pneumonia secondary to
Mycoplasma pneumonia. The most common cause of atypical pneumonia is mycoplasma pneumoniae.
The opportunistic organism that causes pneumonia in AIDS patients is: P. carinine is the most common cause of
pneumonia in AIDS patients.
©
- A 35-year-old male patient presented with dyspnea and cough. Ampicillin-sulbactam was used for 2 days. Abundant
leukocytes are detected in sputum smear. Mental changes in the patient's biochemistry of SGOT, SGPT, BUN,
creatinine increased, sodium decreased.
If chest X-ray taken a few days ago shows a patch-like infiltration and pleural effusion, the most likely factor is ...
Legionnaires' Disease; It is pneumonia caused by L.pneumoniae which is gr (-) ... in hot and humid areas.
Which of the following does not increase the risk of bacterial pneumonia ... Pleural thickening of previous tuberculosis
is of no importance.

A 70-year-old male patient was admitted to the intensive care unit due to severe pneumonia developed outside the
hospital. The microscopic examination of the respiratory secretion taken from the patient with bronchoscopy shows
abundant fragmented leukocytes and very few bacterial cells. The antigen test tested for the presence of a specific
microorganism in the urine is positive.
The clinical picture in this patient should be considered as one of the following microorganisms: This case is clearly
Legionnaires' disease. The diagnosis is made by looking at the antigen in the urine.
A 22-year-old male patient with no previous health problems was admitted with subfebrile fever, dry cough and joint
pain. On physical examination, pharyngeal erythematous, right hemithorax basal rales and otoscopic examination
revealed bullous myringitis. Lung radiographs show scattered patch-like intubations in the right lower zone.
In this case, which of the following should be considered as the first factor ... Atypical pneumonia + bullous
myringitis in the ear: Mycoplasma pneumonomy should be considered.
A 56-year-old male patient presented with complaints of cough, phlegm and shortness of breath that started three days
ago. The patient's history revealed that he had been smoking for 25 years. Physical examination revealed a 38 ° C
fever, increased posterior and basal tactile fremitus in the right chest, and crepitant rales.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient... Physical examination of the right lower lobe
pneumonia was given.
In which people the incidence of .pandemic H1N1 influenza virus is lower than others ... Healthy people over 65 years
of age
In a patient with acute lobar pneumonia ... characteristic findings increased vocal fremitus, percussion findings,
mature, auscultation, crepitant ral and tuber sufi.
Plasma sodium concentration 136 mmol / L bicarbonate concentration 30mmoI / L chloride 98 mmol / L carbon
dioxide pressure 60 mmHg and pH 7.32. Chronic bronchitis
RESPIRATORY PREVENTION AND PULMONARY EMBOLIA
- Which of the following does not cause acute pulmonary embolism ... Left atrial myxoma may cause systemic arterial
embolism, not pulmonary.
- Which of the following is an adult respiratory distress?
does not cause primary syndrome ... Hypoxia does not directly make ARDS.
- Which of the following causes respiratory failure when the lungs are normal.
The most important pathological finding in ARDS is: Diffuse alveolar damage is the morphological finding of this
disease.
- The most common cause of acute cor pulmonale is: Acute cor pulmonale is most commonly caused by massive
pulmonary embolism.
In acute respiratory failure, you do not give ... In acute respiratory failure; Morphine is not given because it depresses
respiration.
- The cause of hypoxia in pulmonary thromboembolism is: Ventilation neden causes perfusion failure.
- Which of the following is an adult respirator alone
distress syndrome makes ... Sepsis complication is the most common and most severe cause of ARDS. Can do ARDS
alone.
Which is not seen in ARDS ... In ARDS, lung compliance does not increase, but decreases.
- Alveoli with hyaline membrane formation which is the following disease ... ARDS is a syndrome with diffuse defect
in the lung due to interstitial edema, hyaline membrane formation, atelectasis areas and decreased capillary blood
volume, with additional surfactant anomaly.
Which of the following is not a risk factor for venous thrombosis? Lymphangitis does not pose a risk for thrombosis.
A twelve-year-old patient who had a traffic accident had hypoxemia which was unresponsive to oxygen therapy that
started on the third day. Bilateral diffuse parenchymal infiltration is observed in the PA lung graft.
In this patient, you would consider ... The clinical picture described in the question is consistent with ARDS.
The most useful review in the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism is: Pulmonary ventilation is an important diagnostic
method for perfusion scintigraphy. The definitive diagnosis is made by pulmonary artery angiography.
If a woman aged 20-40 often comes with complaints of hemoptysis and infection, the most likely diagnosis in this
patient is ... Adenoma and pulmonary embolism remain. Recurrent infection is a sign of malignancy. Adenoma should
think in favor.
The diagnosis in a patient with normal perfusion of ventilation as a result of Sintigra'H is: Ventilation in pulmonary
thromboembolism

". PREPARATION CENTERS
one or more areas with perfusion mismatch.
- The most accurate diagnosis of pulmonary embolism is: Pulmonary angiography; diagnosis of pulmonary embolism
is considered to be the standard test for.
- Which of the following is not seen in pulmonary thromboembolism Alveolar hypoxia is not seen. Others are seen. '
- The most common cause of acute respiratory distress syndrome is ... The most common cause is gram negative
bacterial sepsis.
In obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, the obstruction in patients is characterized in which anatomical region follows ...
Closure most commonly occurs in the retropalatal and retroglossal regions of the oropharynx.
.....
In the first physical examination of an obese woman, her blood pressure was 100/80 mmHg, pulse rate was 102 /
minute, respiratory rate was 22 / minute and fever was 379 ° C. No abnormal findings were detected during
auscultation. Blunting of the left sinus on chest X-ray, sinus tachycardia on electrocardiography, right ventricular
overload and arterial blood gas analysis revealed moderate hypoxemia.
Which of the following tests should be performed first to diagnose this patient ... The first test to be asked in a patient
with embolism is considered D. It is a dimer. The first radiological examination is P — A chest X-ray. However, the
most appropriate test for diagnosis is ventilation - perfusion scintigraphy. If the definitive diagnosis was as follows, it
would be pulmonary angiography.
A fifty-seven-year-old man presented with excessive daytime sleepiness. He is said to have woken up by his wife at
night as severe snoring and often suffocated. It was learned that the patient used cigarette and alcohol and had been
followed up for hypertension in the past. The physical examination revealed that the patient was obese and the neck
was short and wide. Oropharynx is normal.
The most appropriate approach in this patient is: A case of sleep apnea syndrome was given. The most reliable
diagnostic method is polysomnography.
The diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome was not ..... Pa_Oz / FIO2 ratio is above ZOO (PaOZ / FIOz ratio
in ARDS is less than 200
A 35-year-old female patient presented with sudden onset of dyspnea and cough. Physical examination revealed
tachycardia and tachypnea. D-dimer
Which of the following is an arterial blood gas sample that supports pulmonary thromboembolism? PaOZ (mmHg) -)
68, PaCOZ (mmHg) -) 30, pH -) 7.48
A 40-year-old male patient presented with complaints of shortness of breath and fatigue, and diastolic murmur
exacerbated by inspiration in the third intercostal space on the left side of the sternum during physical examination.
Pulmonary insufficiency
'The highest sensitivity for a patient with symptoms and signs of pulmonary embolism ...Computed tomography
angiography
ra.— 0 TUSDATA
- In a 45-year-old female patient, right side pain 24 hours after birth by cesarean section and shortly after the start of
sudden blood spitting shortness of breath complaints, developing and physical examination blood pressure 80/60
mmHg, pulse 112 / minute, respiratory rate, 30 Pulmonary Thromboembolism for a patient whose minute and body
temperature was measured as 36,806 and the patient's breathing sounds were normal and there was no additional sound
in the heart and oxygen saturation in room air was 88%.
A 58-year-old male patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and heart failure was admitted to
the emergency department due to dyspnea. 35 pH mEq / L in the treatment of a patient with 7.32 ... bronchodilator,
non-invasive mechanical ventilation LUNG TUMORS AND MEDIASTINAL MASSES
Cough, exertional dyspnea and hemoptysis of the patient who smoked for 60 pack years, radiological examination of
the patient is detected hilar mass is the full contraindicated method ... Transthoracic fine needle aspiration
MEDIASTINAL LUNG TUMORBARY MASSES AND LUNG CANCER Which of the following findings is a
definite contraindication for surgical intervention ... Absolute inoperability criteria of lung cancer:
one. Extra-thoracic lymph, such as supracavicular, cervical
Metastasis to the glands. Metastasis to prescalin lymph nodes. Distant metastasis such as liver, brain and bone.
Metastasis of the tumor to the opposite lung or bronchi. Malignant pleurisy involving the pleura of the tumor. Vena
cava is caused by superior syndrome. Horner which settles the syndrome ... makes it most of the tumors in the lung
tumor is seen from the following. Myosis, ptosis, enophthalmitis and sweating defect are seen on the same side.
The site of involvement of the Pancoast tumor is: It originates from the superior part of the upper lobes

The lung has a 2 cm nodule in the left upper periphery. If there is no calcification, which of the following is done for
diagnosis ... Bronchial lavage is one of the most important diagnostic methods in peripheral cancers. .
Which is the most common cause of Vena cava superior ... Syndrome The most important cause of lung cancer.
Small cell lung cancer develops following paraneoplastic syndrome which ... Eaton-Lambert syndrome is a
neuromyopathy caused by small cell lung carcinoma. The most common ectopic ACTH-releasing tumor ... Small cell
lung cancer
.__ _ =. : - &
Which of the following types of lung cancer has the highest risk of association with smoking ... There is a direct
relationship between small cell and squamous cell cancers.
Which of the following histological types of lung cancer is most common in gn ... Adenocarcinoma.
Which of the following statements is true regarding mesothelioma ... Approximately half of mesotheliomas
metastasize, but death is usually caused by local spread.
INTERSTITIAL LUNG DISEASES
Converting enzyme increases most of which ... Increases in sarcoidosis
The definitive diagnosis of sarcoidosis is made by: The definitive diagnosis of sarcoidosis is made by biopsy. Bisinosis
is caused by ... Bisinosis is caused by an allergic reaction to the protein fraction of cotton powder.
Which one of the following for the farmer's lungs ... Bronchioles have 60-70% polymorph core leukocytes. Eosinophil
increase is not expected. The disease is similar to sarcoidosis with its clinical and histological findings. Granuloma of
tuberculosis is caseified. There is no sarcoidosis.
Interstitial fibrosis most often leads to: Pulmonary hypertension and cor pulmonale develop.
In determining sarcoidosis activity, which of the following is ... While Kweim test is used as a diagnostic test, it is not
used today because it is of human origin.
Cough, shortness of breath, and auscultation of fine rales are seen in a chest radiograph showing reticular opacities in
the basal.
In this patient, you would consider ... There is a risk of exposure to asbestos in the manufacture of roofing and flooring
materials, asbestos cement, brake pads, fire-resistant clothing. Which of the following leads to the farmer's lung ...
Actinomyces spores found in plant powders lead to the lungs of the farmer.
Restrictive ventilation disorder is seen in the following diseases: Obstructive pulmonary diseases are asthma,
emphysema bronchitis, small airway disease and bronchiectasis. Others cause restrictive lung disease.
The gm finding in sarcoidosis is: Caseified granulomas are unique to tuberculosis. Sarcoidosis and tuberculosis are
pathologically differentiated by this finding. Which of the following is the most elegant in silicosis ... People exposed
to silica are 3 times more likely to develop tuberculosis. Silica accumulates in macrophages and causes dysfunction.
m (D TMŞDATA)
Which of the following cancers occur as a result of chronic asbestos exposure ... The lung makes adeno ca,
mesothelioma, colon ca, kidney tm.
Which of the following is not a characteristic finding of sarcoidosis ... Does not cause lung abscess.
Which of the following does not cause low pH in pleural fluid ... The pH of the fluid accumulated after
pericardiectomy is alkai.
Lung abscess developing as a result of aspiration in a supine patient is anatomically frequently as follows. which is
seen ... Since the aspiration is often in the supine position, the upper lobe of the right lung is affected posteriorly or the
lower lobe superior.
Alveolar — arterial oxygen difference (PAOZ-PaOZ). Alveolar hypoventilation syndrome does not have a significant
change in balance.
The first test for a patient with sarcoidosis symptoms and signs ... Pulmonary radiography Pleural diseases
The disease in which pleural fluid is very low in glucose is: Rheumatoid arthritis, empyema, parapneumonic effusions,
SLE, tuberculosis, esophageal rupture are seen in diseases. The most common type of emphysema causing pleural
effusions and malignant young adult spontaneous pneumothorax is: It is mostly seen in paraseptal emphysema.
Which of the following is detected in pleural fluid suggests effusion is due to esophageal rupture ... Amylase increases
in pleural effusion in esophageal rupture. Amylase is also high in effusions due to pancreatitis.
In the following cases, the glucose level in the pleural fluid is normal ... In nephrotic c syndromes, serum glucose is
normal in pleural effusion and low in other cases.
is detected.
The most common diagnosis for this patient is ... Pleural effusion. If the fever does not fall, you should think of
empyema. The increase in ADA suggests TB.

"v. As a result of the examinations, the trachea was displaced to the left, lung sounds were normal on the left, not on
the right, tactile fremitus on the right decreased and percussion was found to be matte. Other systemic findings were
normal. This patient should first consider which of the following ... Pleural effusion was detected.
The most probable diagnosis is for a patient presenting with chest pain and shortness of breath and in the physical
examination of the respiratory system, the right hemithorax is less involved in breathing, there is a decrease in the
vibration thoracic and the percussion is taken to the mature from the right hemithorax to the base of the scapula.
Pleural effusion
OTHER RESPIRATORY SYSTEM DISEASES (Chest deformities, Congenital, Anomalies, Larynx diseases, Lung in
systemic diseases. Etc.). . .
The latest effect of radiotherapy is: The most sensitive cell to radiation is the germ cell of the testis. Resistant cells are
central nervous system, striated muscle and uterus. A change in consciousness, a intoxication with confusion. PCO2:
40, POS: 72, pH: 7.2, Ca: <7.5 and oxalate crystals are detected in urine, which is the most likely cause ... Ethylene
glycol poisoning is characterized by acidosis and advanced renal failure.
Cytoplasmic most specific marker ANCA (CANCA) ... is used in the diagnosis of Wegener Granulomatosis. Wegener
in the diagnosis and follow-up of treatment - expected situations of bronchiectasis ... Primary ciliary dyskinesia, Cystic
fibrosis, Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis,
Pleural / serum ratios of a patient with pleural effusion were found to be pleural / serum: protein = 0.3, LDH = 0.4,
Glucose = 1.
Which of the following is most likely to cause pleural effusion ... Pancreatitis does exudate-type effusion, while others
do transudate-type effusion.
In one of the following pathologies, the level of glucose in the pleural fluid drops below 60 mg / dl ... Low glucose in
pleural effusion is seen in tuberculosis and rheumatoid arthritis. Since tuberculosis is not present in the fashion, RA is
the answer.
A 50-year-old male patient presented to the emergency department with severe side pain. Her history revealed that she
had fever, chills, sweating and side pain 10 days ago and her pain gradually increased. Physical examination revealed
pleural fluid. Analysis of the fluid obtained by thoracentesis, pH: 7.0, total neutrophil count 25.000 / mma, glucose 20
mg / dL and adenosine deaminase level normal
; tus Candle lion
Foreign body aspiration
The benefits of smoking cessation ... Improvement of lung function, Reduced mortality, Reduced cardiovascular
events, Reduced risk of lung cancer
The patient presented with complaints of shortness of breath and right side pain. A complete chest X-ray showed
complete pleural effusion right hemithorax and drainage of 4.5 liters in half an hour by tube thoracostomy. The patient
developed progressive respiratory failure after the procedure and died within 6 hours. possible cause of death ... Re-
expansion lung edema
Shortness of breath and physical examination revealed reduction in thoracic vibration in one side hemithorax,
hypersonorite and respiratory sounds. pneumothorax
Obese patients, palpitations, nocturnal sinus pauses in blood pressure monitoring and nocturnal blood pressure is
detected if the most likely diagnosis ... Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome
ENDOCRINOLOGY
HYPOTHALAMO - HYPOPHISARY DISEASES
Hypervolemia, hyponatremia and high-density urinary symptoms after meningitis should be considered first. Serum
osmolarity and sodium are low, urine osmolarity and sodium are high. There is no polyuria and peripheral edema. The
disease that does not cause papilla edema is: . . In hyperparathyroidism, calcifications occur in the cerebrum, basal
ganglia, cerebellum, cornea and vitreus. Papillae edema is not observed. However, calcification of the papilla may be
observed.
Which of the following was damaged in a diabetic patient? ADH and oxytocin are synthesized in supraoptic and
paraventricular nuclei in the hypothalamus. Def is DI.
In the insulin hypoglycemia test to investigate the reserve of anterior pituitary hormones, it is not necessary to
determine the amount of blood in which ... In insulin hypoglycemia test, all but prolactin, one of the pituitary anterior
lobe hormones, are increased. Adrenaline, noradrenaline and blood sugar should also look at.
In a patient with edema with postural hypotension and dehydration, but with hyponatremia and urine osmolality of 300
mOsm / lt, you consider which of the following. . . Same as the first question, with little change.
The factor that inhibits prolactin release in the hypothalamus is: Under normal conditions, prolactin release of the

anterior pituitary is inhibited by dopamine secreted from the hypothalamus.
The most common pituitary tumor is one of the following. . . adenoma
The most common prolactinoma is the second most common nonfunctioning adonem.
A 44-year-old woman presented with amenorrhea and galactorrhea. The serum prolactin level was 270 ng / ml (normal
<20 ng / ml) and a 1.2 cm adenoma was detected in her pituitary. She has a history of cholecystectomy, kidney stone
and more recently hypertension. Dopamine agonist treatment was responded to by regularization of menstruation,
normalization of prolactin levels and shrinkage of the tumor. Which organs should be investigated for possible
neoplasia in this patient ...Parathyroids and pancreas (MEN I.: parathyroid, pitiuter, are associated with the pancreas.
(3P finding)
The drug that causes nephrogenic diabetes insipitus is one of the following. . .Drugs that most commonly cause
nephrogenic diabetes insipitus; Lithium, aminoglycoside and Democlosicline.
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of inappropriate ADH secretion syndrome ... Significant edema
and hypertension may not be present due to volume increase and natriuresis.
A 38-year-old female patient with amenorrhea and decreased libido, loss of appetite and cold intolerance had a history
of 5 | It is learned that these complaints became apparent after the previous birth.
The most common diagnosis is: Sheehan syndrome should be considered.
In this patient, you expect the serum FSH, LH and TSH values to be as follows:Sheehan syndrome; As
panhipopituitarism develops, serum levels of all anterior pituitary hormones decrease.
In the treatment of this patient, you first use one of the following. . . Hydrocortisone is the first choice in the treatment
of panhipopituitarism, hypothyroid crisis and Addison crisis.
The patient who presented with polyuria and polydipsia had a plasma osmolarity of 305 and a urine osmolarity of 95.
The response to water loading test and desmopressin remained unchanged.
Which is the most unusual diagnosis. . . Because there is no response to desmopressin, the diagnosis is nephrogenic
diabetes insipitus.
Which of the following inhibits growth hormone secretion ...In toxin, elevated blood sugar levels and an increase in
fatty acids decrease growth hormone levels.
Which of the following is not one of the clinical signs of acromegaly. ..It does not cause hypoglycemia.
In the treatment of patients with panhipopituitarism, first of which of the following hormones should be replaced ...The
latest findings of hypocortisolemia in the clinic of panhipopituatirism are added to the table. The first choice of
treatment is hydrocortisone.
A 35-year-old female patient presented with sudden onset of fever and blurred consciousness. Physical examination
revealed stiff neck and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) examination, '1000 / mm3 polymorph core leukocytes and Gram (+)
diplococci are detected.
Empirical treatment to be initiated prior to CSF culture and antibiotic susceptibility results is not appropriate. .. He
asks which empirical treatment is not given in meningitis. Penicillin is not given because its susceptibility to penicillin
is unknown.
Ietargi develops in a patient who was followed up for small cell lung cancer. Physical examination revealed edema,
orthostatic hypotension or dehydration, and urine osmolality was 320 mOsm. In laboratory tests, serum sodium level
was 118 mEq / L: serum BUN, creatinine and glucose levels were normal.
In the initial treatment of this patient, which of the following should be done. . . Asking for inappropriate ADH
syndrome. Treatment: The first step is water restriction
In a patient who presented with sweating, palpitation, weight loss and irritability, the most probable diagnosis was in a
patient with diffuse goiter, high serum free T3, high free T4 and TSH levels above normal. tsho to
In a male patient who presented with headache, loss of libido, impotence, weakness, cold intolerance and nausea,
magnetic resonance imaging revealed a 25x15 mm macroadenoma in the pituitary and laboratory investigations; The
most likely diagnosis for a patient with high prolactin levels, normal TSH levels, low levels of ACTH, cortisol, free T
,, growth hormone, LH, FSH and testosterone ... Prolactinoma - Hypopituitarism
Findings of acromegaly ... Expansion of the frontal sinuses, Sleep apnea, Hypertension, Carpal tunnel syndrome
Drug that can cause inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion syndrome (SIADH) ... vincristine
A drug that can cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus ...Lithium
A 42-year-old male patient with acromegaly was admitted to the emergency department with sudden onset of
headache, blurred vision and change of consciousness. Proper treatment Prednisolone
THYROID DISEASES
Which is the least common symptom in hyperthyroidism. . . Hyperthyroidism causes high-pulse heart failure,

tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, ventricular arrhythmia. But angina doesn't.
The most common cause of thyroiditis is n ...Hashimoto thyroiditis is the most common cause of hypothyroidism and
chronic thyroiditis.
The reason for the use of iodine before thyroid operations is: Iodine solutions reduce thyroid vascularization and result
in fibrosis.
Symptoms found in patients with thyrotoxicosis are concomitant with ... The most common symptom is irritability,
tachycardia and goiter. Even though they eat, they become weak. They don't like heat.
In a patient with decreased T3 — T4, normal TSH, decreased iodine uptake, increased anemia, weakness, increased
urea, pretibial and facial edema, Hb 8g, which one would you consider ... A case question consistent with findings of
euthyroid patient syndrome due to CRF.
In compensated primary hypothyroidism, which of ...TSH will be above normal, the TSH response to TRH will be
suppressed or decreased.
Thyroid nodules are detected in a forty year old woman in an endemic region.
The most probable diagnosis is the following: In the patient with thyroid nodules, 40-60% of the patients have nodular
goiter.
In primary hypothyroidism, which of the following is detected. .. TSH increases, T3, T4 drops.
A 28-year-old woman who had given birth two months ago had positive antitoglobulin antibodies with decreased T3,
T4 high thyroid iodine uptake, and fever and tachycardia.
The diagnosis of this patient is: Pospartum is compatible with thyroiditis.
Thyroxine is given to a patient with diffuse nodular goiter for treatment. After a while, the patient developed
hyperthyroidism.
Which of the following tests is most useful to determine whether these findings are due to medication or indeed
hyperthyroidism? . .Thyroglobulin is used to differentiate between endogenous and exogenous hyperthyroidism. It is
high in endogens and low in exogens.
A 60-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer had no FSH and LH burden, no TSH response to TRH, and low
T3 and T4, and free T4 normal.
What is considered in this patient ... Patient with malignant disease, abnormal thyroid function tests should first bring
to mind euthyroid syndrome.
Which of the following causes simple diffuse growth in the thyroid ... Diffuse growth is seen in Graves' disease.
Which of the following hyperthyroidism causes thyroid hormone synthesis increases? .. In subacute thyroiditis
(granulomatous), hyperthyroidism clinic is due to follicle destruction.
Serum free T4 and TSH levels observed in primary hypothyroidism are given together in which ...In primary
hypothyroidism, T3, T4 low TSH is high. Secondary and tertiary are all low.
- A 38-year-old female patient was admitted for 6 weeks of fatigue, constipation, menorrhagia and weight gain of 4 kg.
On physical examination, pulse rate is 56 / minute, blood pressure is 150/94 mmHg, diffuse thyroid gland, skin dry
and deep tendon reflexes are detected in the relaxation phase elongation. TSH levels are high and free T4 levels are
low.
For this patient, which of the following is appropriate in the next stage. . . The patient was diagnosed with primary
hypothyroidism and further testing is not required. Direct treatment can be given.
- Thyroid function tests in a patient with chronic renal failure revealed low T3, normal T4 and low TSH. The patient
did not receive any treatment except erythropoietin and calcium acetate.
The most likely cause and treatment of this condition is given in which of the following. . . Autroid patient syndrome:
characterized by chronic disease, fluctuation in thyroid function tests.
Calcimimetic agent which is calcium-sensing receptor activator and used in the treatment of hyperparathyroidism in
chronic renal failure ... Cinacalcet hydrochloride
In a patient using Ievothyroxine due to Hashimoto's thyroiditis, if TSH is low, free T3 and T4 are normal,
thyroglobulin is low, and C-reactive protein is low, the most likely diagnosis is Iatrogenic thyrotoxicosis.
After thyroidectomy, RAI ablation is the most effective treatment for thyroid malignancy. Papillary cancer
ğ; - Tu: PREPARATION CENTERS
The patient with painful swelling, palpitation and sweating complaints after a respiratory tract infection has a marked
increase in thyroid hormones and suppression of TSH levels, and a differential diagnosis in a patient with thyroid echo
structure. RAI TuTulum TesTi ”
A 28-year-old woman who was pregnant for three months was admitted to hasTa ruTin and IaboraTuvar examination
revealed that TSH was 0.01 mlU / mL (Normal 0-5-5 mIU / mL) sT 1.5 mg / dL (Normal 0.8-1.8 mg / dL) and

TT3180 mg / dL (Normal 70-220 mg / dL) is the most appropriate approach for a detected patient ...Repeating thyroid
function tests after 1 month
A 25-year-old male patient who underwent ToTaI Thyroidectomy with the diagnosis of follicular thyroid cancer is the
most appropriate approach for the follow-up of a patient with radioactive substance for residual tissue ablation. Whole
Body Screening Screening Parathyroid Diseases. CALCIUM METABOLISM
Hyperparathyroid in radiology following which view o_ll'n_qz ...CorTical thickening occurs in the PageT of the bone.
Which of the following clinical findings in hypokalemia m. . .TeTani can be observed in hypocalcemia and
hypomagnesemia.
OsTeoiTis Tîbroza sisTica is seen in the following pathology. . .The unique radiological finding in
hyperparathyroidism is osTeoiTis fibrosa sis.
Which of the following is not observed in hyperparathyroidism. .. Symptoms in hyperparathyroidism are due to
hypercalcemia. TeTani is a sign of hypocalcemia.
In primary hyperparathyroidism, which is not ... Increase the amount of Cl. not reduced.
Round face, meTakarp and meTaTars shortness is one of the following ... Unlike hypoparathyroidism, paraThormone
levels are high in pseudohypoparathyroidism. There are some accompanying clinical findings. Serum calcium,
phosphorus and alkaline phosphaTase in hypoparathyroidism are: Calcium Phosphorus Alkaline fosfaTaz
In hypoparathyroidism, paraThormone and calcium are low and phosphorus is high. When you have bone pain, blood
calcium and phosphorus are normal, alkaline phosphatase is high, syntigraphy has increased in the skull bone. Isolated
alkaline phosphatase height is the first diagnosis of bone in the detected patient. In the differential diagnosis of primary
and secondary hypothyroidism, which of the following ... Differential diagnosis can be made by looking at the TSH
level. High in primary and low in secondary.
In primary hyperparathyroidism, ParaThormone (PTH), calcium (Ca), PhosphaphT (P), and Alkaline phosphaphTase
(ALP) values vary as follows. .. Phosphorus is low in primary hyperparathyroidism. Others are high.
Which of the following causes hypocalcemia that gives clinical indications? An unknown mechanism in Addison's
disease absorbs calcium independent of need and develops hypercalcemia.
OsTeoporosis is uncommon.Hypothyroidism does not directly cause osTeporoz. OsTeoporosis due to LevaTiroxin and
prolactinemia may be rare.
Non-hypocalcemia is:The use of LiTium may cause hypercalcemia.
In a patient with a history of depression, menTal changes, and frequent kidney stone reduction, band keraTopaTi is
also detected.
Which of the following Meme this patient! Introduces ... Band keraTopaTi is a unique finding of hypercalcemia.
Hypercalcemia makes all sorts of neurological findings.
A 50-year-old female patient presented with complaints of diffuse bone pain, clouding-vomiting, and consolidation.
She had been diagnosed with nephrolithiasis and peptic ulcer 2 years before her history. The blood pressure of the
patient was 160/95 mmHg, renal function was normal, and subperiosTeal resorption was detected in the phalanges.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient)...GIS findings of primary hyperparathyroidism are
listed.
A 45-year-old female patient presented with chronic fatigue, cramps in her hands and feet. ChvosTek sign is observed
in the physical examination.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient. .. Hand cramp and ChvosTek symptom are unique
to hypoparathyroidism. A 65-year-old female patient presented with sudden onset severe back pain. In physical
examination, sensitization in the upper Iumbar spine and spasm in the paraspinal muscles were detected. Direct
radiographs of L1 compression fracture is observed. Serum calcium and proTein electrophoresis are normal.
In addition to administering calcium and vitamin D to this patient who has not accepted hormone replacement therapy,
the most appropriate approach is the following. . .Bisphosphonates should be started. There are alendronaT,
risendronaT etc.
DIABETES MELLITUS
The most likely diagnosis in a child with abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia and hyperventilation complaints is: .
.Polyuria and polydipsia are two sympathomes specific to diabeTes melliTus. Determination of postprandial glucose in
oral glucose tolerance test Oral glucose Tolerance Test The second hour blood glucose is positive blood sugar.
'candle- «mm
- Which laboratory findings make the diagnosis of ip 2 diabetes mellitus ... Fasting blood sugar 110, oral GTT result
with 75 grams of glucose at 2 hours 220 (mg / dL)
Which of the following occurs in diabetic ketoacidosis. . . High serum bicarbonate level

Polyuria develops due to an increase in serum osmolarity. Dehydration symptoms may develop due to polyuria.
Candida infection is common in which ...Tuberculosis, urinary infection, mucor meningitis, vulvovaginal candidiasis
occur frequently in diabetic patients.
Which increases the risk of surgical operation in a patient with diabetes? The most important risk of diabetic patients
during operation is diabetic ketoacidosis.
The most important factor in the differentiation of isolated third motor nerve involvement and aneurysm in diabetes
is:In diabetic neuropathy, the third nerve is most frequently involved in CNS. The most important feature of this is the
protection of pupillary reflexes.
Which of the following data corresponds to the picture of hyperosmolar nonketotic diabetic coma ... Blood glucose
levels between 600 and 2200 mg / dlt were normal, increased in blood and urine osmolarity, and urine osmolality and
glucose were high.
When a person receiving insulin gets blurred of consciousness, you first do one of the following ... If the diabetic
patient comes with a coma, the first thing to look for is blood sugar.
An elderly woman with diabetes mellitus suddenly develops numbness in the legs, tingling coldness and pallor.
In this patient, which is considered ...The risk of thrombosis is increased in patients with DM. You need to think about
embolism.
Which of the following does not show hypoglycemia ... Cortisol, an anti-insulin hormone, increases in Cushing's
syndrome. Blood sugar increases. Others have hypoglycemia.
Which of the following does not occur in lactic acidosis. . .Polyuria and hypervolemia are not seen.
Atrophy of tenor muscles in a 50-year-old patient with diabetes mellitus, 1-2-3. can not do hypoesthesia and
opposition movement in the fingers.
In the case of this patient, which of the following is considered. .. Carpal tunnel syndrome in DM is a case question.
Cataract and neuropathy in diabetes mellitus are the following. .. Galactose
Sorbitol dehydrogenase activity decreases in diabetus mellitus. Sorbitol increases. It is responsible for cataract and
neuropathy.
Hunger, weakening, sweating, irritability, abundant urine and very thirsty child in which the following tests are done
...Common findings of DM and hyperthyroidism. Thyroid hormone levels and FBS should be evaluated.
s PREPARATION CENTERS
Urinary tract infection is more common in which of the following conditions ... Increased urinary and genital tract
infections occur in DM.
Which of the following does not increase blood sugar ... Addison has hypocortisolism and hypoglycemia occurs.
Somogy is one of the following ... Insulin-dependent, patient hypoglycemia at night 2-033, morning sugars rise due to
anti-insulin hormones. Evening dose should be reduced.
In a female patient with type II diabetes, using chlorpropamide, confusion and loss of consciousness, her blood glucose
was 160 mg / dl.
The patient is considered to have one of the following. .. Chlorpropamide makes inappropriate ADH syndrome. This
causes hyponatremia. '
Which causes hypoglycemia and does not cause hepatomegaly. . . There is hypoglycemia secondary to increased
ketone levels in ketoti k hypoglycemia. It is usually due to hunger and vomiting.
Which of the following does not occur in hypoglycemic coma. . . Hypoglycemia coma patient is sweaty. If there are
signs of dehydration, the diagnosis is hyperglycemic coma.
- A 70-year-old patient with DM for 30 years is brought to the emergency department with complaints of fever and
confusion. Physical examination revealed a coma, 40 ° C fever, black, dry lesions in both nostrils, black colored, dry
necrotic lesions on the hard palate. His blood sugar is 400 mg / dl, acetone (+++) and glucose (+++) are detected in
urine. Computed tomography of the brain revealed fluid and bone defects in both maxillary and ethmoid sinuses. In
the evaluation of the biopsy from the maxillary sinus by Hematoxylin Eosin staining, thick hyphae were observed in
the tissue.
Accordingly, the most likely diagnosis is the following. .. Mucormucosis: DM causes infection in patients. Causes
Rhisopus and Absidia. It causes more sinopulmonary infections. From the sinuses to the brain. The treatment includes
extensive surgical debridement and amphotericin-B. Which of the following does not play a role in the
etiopathogenesis of acute hunger, hypoglycemia, for example, is caused by the ingestion of fructose in hereditary
fructose intolerance. Hypoglycemia is not expected.
Which of the following diseases causes pseudo-obstruction. .. Gastorparasis due to diabetic autonomic neuropathy may
develop. Can do pseudoobstruction.

Which of the following is not seen in insulin deficiency ... There is a tendency for lipolysis in insulin deficiency.
Which of the following does not cause diabetic foot ... Hypogammaglobulinemia is not seen in diabetic patients.
Diabetic does not do standing.
In diabetic ketoacidosis, the complication of unnecessary bicarbonate administration to correct acidosis is:Bicarbonate
is not given if the plasma is above pH> 7. If given, lactic acidosis causes cardiovascular collapse, brain edema and
hypokalemia.
..ÇUS TUS NAZIRIGK CENTERS
Which is not a complication of diabetic autonomic neuropathy ... Radiculopathy is not one of the autonomic
neuropathies.
The patient was brought with severe dehydration and unconsciousness. Urine density was 1010, serum BUN: 31, blood
No: 144, F: 5 and urine Na: 46.
The most likely diagnosis is: The answer to this question is not in the options. renal-induced ABYI. Because
isosternuric urine is high in urine sodium, high in urea. Urinary electrolytes are low in diabetic nonketotic coma.
In the patient in the above question, which fluid do you start as treatment? Isotonic saline (0.9% NaCl) solution is
initiated and 5% dextrose can be given when normoglycemia is achieved.
A 40-year-old patient who has been followed up for 15 years with the diagnosis of type I diabetes mellitus has a daily
excretion of 80mg microalbumin in his urine. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. HbAIC is 95% and blood creatinine
level is 1.1 mg / dl.
The diabetic nephropathy in this patient is at the time of the following. If the albumin in the 24-hour urine is 30-300
mg / 24 hours, the diagnosis is the microalbumuric phase.
Which of the following has no place in the treatment of the patient mentioned in the previous question Abundant
protein diet is not recommended.
A 38-year-old male patient who had been followed up for eight years with the diagnosis of insulin-dependent diabetes
mellitus stated that he had been making stools in water, brown color 10-12 times a day, more frequently at night for 6
months, and several times stool incontinence. The patient said that he did not have abdominal pain and that he had lost
weight. It is learned from her history that she had orthostatic hypotension and impotence. No abnormal biochemical
value was detected except the patient's high blood sugar level.
In order to diagnose the clinical condition in this patient, which of the following should be done. .. Diagnosis is
nighttime diarrhea due to autonomic neuropathy. There is no definitive diagnosis.
A 70-year-old obese female with diabetes mellitus for five years had signs of mental confusion, excessive dehydration,
lethargy and hypovolemia. No fever and no Kussmaul respiration.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient. . . The diagnosis is non-ketotic coma if there is no
acidosis or mild, ketone negative and severe dehydration.
A 56-year-old female patient presented with complaints of dry mouth, polyuria and polydipsia for 3 months. He was
152 cm tall and his body weight was 95 kg. His blood pressure was 150/90 mmHg. Fasting plasma glucose is
measured as 185 mg / dl and satiety plasma glucose is measured as 280 mg / dl.
Which of the following tests is not necessary in this patient ...The diagnosis is DM. OGTT is not required.
Which of the following characteristics should not be included in the diet to be recommended to the patient mentioned
in the previous question. .. Diet: 35% fat, 50% carbohydrate, 15% protein should be tried to meet daily calorie needs.
A 42-year-old female patient presented to the doctor with chronic fatigue. As a result of laboratory tests, fasting blood
glucose was found to be 130 mg / dL.
In order to confirm the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus in this patient, which of the following tests should be performed
first ... For the second time you need to look at your blood sugar.
Which of the following was not an appropriate approach in the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis]: ...The first liquid to
be administered within the first hour is isotonic (0.9%). 0.45% sodium chloride is not substituted for Na Cl.
Cardiac autonomic neuropathy characterized by prolonged tachycardia and QT interval at rest occurred in a patient
with hypertension who had been followed up for 20 years with the diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Which of the following antihypertensive drugs was not suitable for this patient: ...Alpha blockers are not given in
postural hypotension and reflex tachycardia. '
Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus mainly acts by reducing glucose
production in the liver. . .Biguanides inhibit gluconeogenesis in the liver. It also breaks insulin resistance by increasing
peripheral utilization.
Oral antidiabetic drug should be preferred in a 50-year-old obese patient with a newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes
mellitus with a body mass index of 35 kg / m2.It is recommended to start monotherapy with metformin in overweight

and obese patients (BMI> 27).
The drug used in the treatment of hyperlipidemia, which may impair glycemic control in a diabetic patient ... Nicotinic
acid
A 40-year-old obese woman who has been using 2x1 g / day metformin for the diagnosis of type 2 diabetes for two
years is the most appropriate approach for a patient whose HbA1c value is measured as 73% and worried about
gaining weight due to treatment. exenatide
A 36-year-old female patient was brought to the emergency department because of blurring of consciousness. Her
medical history revealed that she had no known chronic disease and drug use. blood glucose 400 mg / dL, K * 3.0 Meq
/ L and ketone bodies positive in urine analysis' arterial blood gas pH 7.1 and HCO3 12 mEq / L as a patient should be
applied in the first stage treatment... Intravenous treatment of 09% NaCl at 1,000 cc / h
Body mass index 27 kg / m2 blood pressure 150/110 mmHg measured and laboratory tests of fasting plasma glucose
200 mg / dL, HbAic 9% LDL-cholesterol 160 mg / dL serum creatinine 2.1 mg / dL and 24 hour urine albumin 340
mg The most appropriate approach for the treatment of the patient of a sixty-five-year-old female patient located ...
Insulin - Statin - ACE inhibitor
Antidiabetic agent group that can cause weight gain ... Thiazolidinediones
A 38-year-old female patient with type 1 diabetes for 15 years was admitted to the emergency department with
ketoacidosis.
. XI; [0203] f.Tusv \ I-ZIAVZ'IRLIKMVENTURESHf f _ tusoaıra

In the physical examination, the blood pressure was measured as 80/60 mmHg, and the blood glucose level was 600
mg / dL, HbAic 13.0%, Na '132 mmol / L, K' 5.8 mmol / L, blood pH 7.25 and The most appropriate initial approach
for fluid and electrolyte replacement in a patient with urine ketone 3+ and insulin therapy. . .Initiation of isotonic NaCl
ADRENAL CLOTH DISEASES

The diagnosis of chronic adrenal insufficiency is:Diagnosis of chronic addisonism is performed ACTH stimulation.
Elevated blood pressure, increased urinary potassium excretion, elevated serum sodium and bicarbonate, and low
serum renin levels are laboratory findings of the following types of hypertension. . .Primary hyperaldesteronism (Conn
syndrome): characterized by hypertension, hypernatremia, hypokalemia.
Which of the following is not seen in Cushing's disease ...Eosinophilia, lymphocytosis, monocytosis are seen in
Addison's disease.
In primary hyperaldosteronism, which of the following occurs:A | dosteron is kept in excess water and sodium.
Potassium is discarded.
Which of the following increases in plasma in pheochromocytoma. . .The most commonly produced mediator in
pheochromocytoma and paraganglinoma is noradrenaline.
The distinction between primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism occurs by: Renin is low in primary
hyperaldosteronism and high in secondary hyperaldesteronism.
The most important clinical finding of pheochromocytoma is: . .These findings are due to excessive catecholamine
release. In flashing and continuous hypertension is the most common and first in the treatment of hypertension of a
patient with pheochromocytoma, the use of which drug alone leads to more fgzlg rise in blood pressure ... Beta-
blocking drugs
Which of the following is a sign of chronic adrenocortical insufficiency. . .Fatigue is the most common and first
symptom. The most common finding is hyperpigmentation.
If 5 HIAAs are present in flushing, diarrhea, and urine, the following are typical for the most likely diagnosis. Which
is ...Carcinoid syndrome The drug used in medical adrenalectomy is: . .Aminoglutethimide is used.
- Findings which do not lack aldosterone synthesis are: . .Circulating volume due to aldesterone deficiency is reduced. -
In Cushing's disease, which of the following ... € ushing is not hypoglycemia,
hyperglycemia.
- Cushing is done ...In Cushing's disease dexamethasone in which the disease is performed by the suppression test test.
There is no suppression in Cushing's syndrome. There is disease.
s PREPARATION CENTERS
In a 35-year-old patient with hyperpigmentation with pulmonary infection, arterial pressure of 60-30 mmHg and
nausea and vomiting, you would think ... If you have hypotension and fever in Addison's disease, you should consider
Addison's crisis.
You give the patient in the previous question the following for treatment ...Therefore, antibiotics, fluid and
hydrocortisone are given in the treatment. Hydrocortisone is the first choice.

Nineteen-year-old diarrhea twice with TA 70/40 mmHg, Na: and pH: 129. It is 7:32. K: 6.1, Ca: 11, Ure: 24 patients
with severe fatigue Diagnosis which of the following. . .The most common cause of Addison's crisis is infections.
The most common cause of Addison's disease is:Addison's disease is primary adrenocortical insufficiency. It is most
commonly of autoimmune origin.
- Na is present in the patient with hypertension, muscle fatigue, polyuria. Aldesterone. .In primary hyperaldosteronism
the following tables indicate which aldosterone and sodium are high and potassium is low.
Hyperpotasemia is one of the following diseases:In adrenal insufficiency, hyponatremia and hyperpotasemia due to
low aldosterone are seen.
Which of the following does not increase corticotropin with low sodium, high potassium, weakness, weakness, but
does not increase steroids. .. The table describes adrenal insufficiency. Primary adrenocortical insufficiency is called
addison.
Male patient comes with orthostatic hypotension complaint. After the tricyclic onset of the psychiatrist, his blood
pressure rises.
Which of the following examinations of this patient would you like. . .Tricyclics and guanitidine should not be used in
patients with pheochromocytoma. May cause hypertensive crisis.
Which of the following is the most reliable test to investigate whether the cause of obesity is due to cushing's disease
or external exogenous steroid intake. . .The best method is low-dose dexamethasone suppression test.
In a person with a fasting blood glucose level of 160 mg / dl, which of the following diseases should not be considered
... In Addison's disease, Na is low, K is high, bicarbonate is low, urea is high, calcium is high and sugar is low.
A 50-year-old female patient is admitted with intermittent anxiety, sweating palpitations, fever attacks. These seizures
are happening during blood pressure which is normally 100mmHg blood pressure 150/85 220 / mmHg.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient. .. Pheochromocytoma should think. - A 26-year-
old male patient who had had tuberculosis at the age of 18 years, presented with complaints of fatigue, weight loss,
loss of appetite, nausea and vomiting that have been evident for the last 6 months. Physical examination revealed a
blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg and brown pigmentation of the skin and oral mucosa.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient...Typical Addison due to tuberculosis
SIT TASS MINING CENTERS
The diagnosis of Addison 's disease is clinically diagnosed with pigmentation + pigmentation.
In the patient mentioned in the previous question, the test to be done to confirm the diagnosis is:Addison is diagnosed
by ACTH stimulation test. .
Which of the following methods is most sensitive in the differential diagnosis of ectopic ACT-releasing tumor and
pituitary ACTH-secreting adenoma causing Cushing syndrome. The most sensitive diagnostic test is inferior petrosal
venous sampling. In a patient with paroxysmal hypertension and basal catecholamine levels normal, followed by a
preliminary diagnosis of pheochromocytoma, which of the following tests should be performed. .. Nonspecific
question. The glucagon provocation test is the correct answer.
Clinical condition in patients undergoing bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing's disease characterized by excessive
elevation in ACTH levels and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Nelson syndrome
Paroxysmal increase in abdominal pressure, accompanied by headache, sweating, palpitations, nausea and vomiting. . .
pheochromocytoma
Used in the treatment of primary adrenocortical insufficiency, mineralocorticoid replacement ... the fludrocortisone
The most appropriate test for diagnosis in a patient with Addison's disease ... ACTH stimulation test
Metabolic effects of Cushing's syndrome ... Kidney stone, Glucose intolerance, Hyperlipidemia, Polyuria
Adenoma of the adrenal gland in a patient with hypertension, plasma aldosterone / plasma renin activity ratio of more
than 30 in the first diagnostic test should be done ... Oral sodium loading test
OTHER ENDOCRINE DISEASES
Which of the following endocrine changes in obesity?T4 receptors are either diminished or normal.
Which of the following is the cause of delayed puberty o_Igmgz. . .Tallness is not associated with puberty.
Which of the following applications is effective in the treatment of familial hypercholesterolemia? cholestyramine,
cholestipol, niacin, lovastatin, probucol should be given as treatment. Liver transplantation has no place. A female
patient (17 years old) with the complaint of angina pectoris had xanthomas, xantholesma and arcus cornea on the
Achilles tendon. Her history revealed that her brother had a myocardial infarction at the age of 10 years. In laboratory
tests, serum LDL cholesterol level was 550 mg / dL and triglyceride level was 180 mg / dL.
The diagnosis of M 5 1 for this patient is: . . Only the topic is missing. It is compatible with familial
hypercholesterolemia.

x"
- A 36-year-old female patient, who was treated for tuberculosis 3 years ago, presented with complaints of fatigue,
weight loss and nausea for the last 6 months. Physical examination revealed a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg,
decreased axillary and pubic hair, and increased pigmentation of the oral mucosa. In laboratory examinations, serum
sodium, chlorine and bicarbonate values are lower than normal and calcium is normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient. . . Primary adrenal insufficiency should be
considered. - Hormonal changes consistent with aging ... Decrease in basal aldosterone level, increase in basal ADH
level, change in plasma renin activity, decrease renal response to ADH
° Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 in adults Parathyroid adenoma, Insulinoma, Skin angiofibromas, Prolactinoma
- A test for the diagnosis of erythematous lesions on the back, legs and rim of a patient with diarrhea, slimming and
hyperglycemia. Serum
glucagon level
ROMATOLOGY - IMMUNOLOGY
GENERAL INFORMATION IN RHEUMATOLOGY
'Which of the following diseases does not have bone pain ... Leukemia, myeloma, sickle cell anemia, osteomalacia
cause bone pain. It is not seen in D vit height.
- Dupuytren's contracture does not occur in any of the following ... Diabetes insipidus; does not play a role in etiology.
- Which of the following is not an acute phase reactant

It is the first rising CRP in acute inflammation. Albumin, prealbumin, retinol binding globulin and transferrin are
negative acute phase reactants; decrease in inflammation. Amyloid A is not an acute phase reactant. - Vasospastic
disorders ... Raynaud's disease, Benign livedo reticularis, Primary erythromelalgia, Acrocyanosis - mainly cytokine
responsible for IgE synthesis ... IL4
SYSTEMIC LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSIS
- In a patient with Coombs (+) hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, hematuria, arthritis and hepatosplenomegaly,
which of the following is firstly considered ... SLE-induced hematologic involvement, arthritis, and renal involvement.
- Which is the least likely to cause SLE-like syndrome ... Hydralazine makes a lupus-like picture. - Libmann-Sacks
endocarditis occurs in: Libmann — Sacks endocarditis Non-bacterial verrucose endocarditis in the heart in SLE. -
Which of the following is not among the diagnostic criteria of systemic lupus erythematosus ... Eye involvement is
common in lupus. However, uveitis is not among the diagnostic criteria.
,, PRINTING CENTERS
- A twenty-two-year-old patient comes with low complaints. Thrombocytopenia is also present in the patient with a
history of venous thrombosis.
What is the most likely diagnosis A question examining the relationship between antiphospholipid antoric syndrome
and lupus.
- Which of the following autoantibodies is responsible for thromboTic events observed in sisTemic lupus
erythromaTosus. .. Thrombophlebitis: It is seen in approximately 10 Has / o of HasTas. In these patients, the
anticardiolipin antibodies are generally positive.
Hematologic findings such as leukopenia, Iymphopenia and thrombocytopenia are the most common diseases.There is
no blood cell in the lupus. All cells are reduced. Lupus is the leading rheumatolic disease that causes PansiTopeni.
A 20-year-old woman presented with pain and swelling in the wrist and proximal interphalangeal joints for the last 3
months, recurrent ulcers in the mouth, and post-traumatic side pain due to breathing. Laboratory tests revealed cellular
urine, proTeinuria, hemoglobin level of 10 g / dL and leukocyte count of 2500 / mm3.
In this patient, the prevalence of oToanTikor is highest. ..antinuclear
vASCULITIS on
- Which of the following is not a sign of Temporal arTeriTin ...Temporal arthritis There is a throbbing, penetrating,
traumatic, and characterizing headache in the temporal region. Blindness, brain infarction, coronary ischemia are
important complications. EriTema has nothing to do with mulTiformeTur.
- Renal biopsy is performed on a patient with hemoptysis and acute nephritis syndrome. Light microscopy detects the
formation of crescent in 70% of glomeruli. In the immunofluorescence study, linear TuTulum was observed in the
glomerular basement membranes.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient...When the hemoptysis and acute nephritis
syndrome is mentioned, the first thing that comes to mind is Good PasTure.
- Treatment of the patient mentioned in the previous question
which should be done first ... Good PasTure syndrome can be treated with corTicosTeroid, immunosuppressive

therapy, plasmapheresis. But the results are not very good.
Wegener granulomaTosis is the most specific serological test that makes the diagnosis ... Wegener granulationC-
ANCA is the most reliable diagnostic method for the disease. Easy question.
Which of the following is a vasculature that has an antineutrophilic cytoplasmic tori (ANCA) often positively ...
Antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA). .. P ANCA is four positively positively. Ulceraive coliT,
microscopic PAN, Churg STrauss, primary sclerosing cholangia are positively. Which antibodies are positive in which
diseases are given below.
) Tus nıızııux CENTER
ROMATOID ARTHRITIS AND OSTEOARTHRITIS
- RomaToid factor is ...The Ig M-type against the Fc portion of IgG is called antibodies. It is one of the diagnostic
criteria.
RomaToid arTriTTe does not show which of the following ... OsTeosclerosis: OsTeoarTriTin is a finding. RomaToid
arTriTTe is not observed.
Which of the following is not detected in the rheumatoid arthritis joint fluid ...It has exudative properties, low glucose
and high proTein. ProTein does not decrease.
Typical finding of romaToid arTriTin in the hand is ... Ulnar deviation is typical. Swan neck and buttonhole
deformities are also seen.
It is an autoimmune non-organ-specific sisTemic disease which is ... All the diseases in the question are
immunological. TuTar RA all sisTem and textures TuTar all in a certain place.
Primary osTeoarTriTTe is the most common TuTulan joint which ... Psoriasis and osTeoarTiriTIF DIF joint TuTulum
is common.
'RA which joint TuTmaz ...KosToverTebraI joint TuTumu
It is reported.
- Which of the following is not one of the radiological changes seen in romaToid arTriTT ...OsTeofit is a finding in
osTeoarTriTT. It is not seen in RA.
- A 40-year-old woman presented with MTF joint, ankle, knee and hands with PIF, MKF and wrist pain and swelling.
Although he used NSAIDs for these complaints for a while, he stated that his complaints did not decrease at all. In the
physical examination, synovium is detected in the joints subject to the complaint.
IaboraTuar Tests which should be done in diagnosis of this patient are given in which of the following: In one patient,
5 of the diagnostic criteria were given. They were left incomplete. The missing ones are RF and radiological findings.
Which of the following is the rarest TuTulan joint in romaToid arTriTTe ...DIF TuTulum is seen more
osTeoarTiriTTe.
In a 35-year-old female patient with subcutaneous nodules and high levels of rheumatoid factor in the serum, which of
the following should be considered first. . .Primary Sjögren's syndrome or sarcoidosis In patients with sarcoidosis,
subclinical nodules are seen. Primary Sjogren cannot cause skin nodules. The correct answer is sarcoidosis.
Which of the following is one of the 1987 American Association of Romanism rheumatoid arthritis classification
criteria does not have a diagnostic criterion called arTrai in muscles or more joints. - Which of the rheumatic diseases
depends on the disease?
TuTulum of the kidney is at least ... RomaToid arTriT
Findings showing extra-articular Tumulus of RomaToid arthritis ... SclerT, Subcutaneous nodule, Pericardium,
Pleuritis
- Clinical Table with joint TuTulum different in shape ... rheumatoid
arthritis
3 ": ms OFFICE MERCERS

OTHER ARTHRITES ROMATOLOGY OTHER ISSUES
Arthritis in gout fluid is one of the following when the cell reaches the diagnosis ... The diagnosis of gout urate to the
monosodium physician is made by showing the crystals a very helpful joint.
Pain in the shoulder and hip joints, prolonged morning stiffness, sedimentation rate of 100 mm / h and alkaline
rheumatism; In the 60-year-old female stiffness, which is normal proximal phosphatase, which is the muscle strength
and enzymes in the patient, normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate is high.
The cause of acute mono-arthritis in a patient on diuretics may be: In particular, the thiazide group causes
hyperuricemia and gout arthritis of diuretics. One of the findings of one of the following is sacroiliitis "reactive

arthritis, SRAs: enteropathic ankylosing spondylitis, arthritis Reiter and syndrome, psoriatic arthritis. PAN is a
vasculitis. If blenorhagicum is detected in an HLA 827 positive patient with oligoartricular joint involvement, the most
likely balanitis diagnosis is circinate and which of the following is keratoderma ...The characteristics of Reiter
syndrome are listed.
A patient with chondrocalcinosis on direct X-ray and calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the joint was detected.
Pseudogut: knee retention + deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals + cartilage calcification (chondrocalcinosis)
...
Which of the following is not a common feature of seronegative spondyloarthropathies ... They don't do vasculitis.
- A 20-year-old male patient presented with complaints of pain in both heels and lower lumbar region for 5 months.
Her history revealed that she and her family had never had such a finding before. Laboratory physical examination
revealed bilateral erythrocyte heel sensitivity sedimentation. rate 98 mm / h, CRP level 9.5 mg / dL, leukocyte count
6400 / mm3, serum albumin level 3.4 g / dL, serum globulin level 4.3 g / dL, uric acid level 5.9 mg / dL and anti-DNA
antibodies are negative .
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient... Ankylosing spondylitis: Heel pain: Entesopathy:
Seronegative arthritis. Young patient have low back pain. Acute phase reactants positive, not ANA Ds anti DNA DNA
negative After skiing, a 32-year-old female patient complained of pain and stiffness when standing up after resting.
The patient had no signs of pain and increased flexion, and a slight crepitation and inflammation was felt in his
examination during flexion. The most likely diagnosis for this patient ... Chondromalacia patella Ankylosis disease
with two sacroiliac joints seen on ver every bamboo cane graf on radiographs in direct vertebrae ... HLA-327
Medication without a role in the treatment of acute gout ... Diuretics
In Raynaud's disease, which of the following ... Cold, cigarettes and betablokers are contraindicated.
Which is the most sensitive laboratory test in the diagnosis of polymyositis and muscle biopsy ...Diagnosis is made by
diagnosis. clinical, Enzyme in muscle diseases, EMG rising enzymes; creatine kinase (most specific). . .: LDH, AST
and aldolase. .
Raynaud 's phenomenon is the most common and the earliest symptom of scleroderma.
- Pencil-pencil (pencil-in-cup) observed in radiologically olfactory distal interphalangeal joints. .. image is the
characteristic finding of the following (April 2006) ... Pencil inkwell sign or pencil in cup view psoriatic
is a characteristic radiological finding of arthritis. Joints likely to be involved in rheumatoid arthritis ...
Metacarpophalangeal joints, Atlantoaxial joints Shoulder joints, Temporomandibular joints
In patients with CZ, C4 deficiency, which of the following is expected ... SLE and autoimmune diseases are seen in
CZ and C4 deficiency.
The mucous membranes are ... It is IgA. which Ig in the protective epidemic Which of the following tests is used to
measure the immunity of the cellular immune response. used ... The test as well as the PPD Mantoux test is also
known as cellular. Type IV is associated with hypersensitivity.
Which of the following does not occur with Type III immune complex ... Scleroderma SLE, and PAN, Polymyositis
Henoch etc. Schönlein, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Which of the following is most commonly found in blood ... The most
commonly found antibody (7070-80) in plasma (GAMDE) is IgG. In the following immunodeficiency diseases, skin
tests are negative ...Di George syndrome T cell
can. Which is negative EMF in skin tests because of dysfunction ... selective IgA immune is the most deficient.
Common cause of insufficiency Immunodeficiency caused by: Most antigen binding Ig is: IgM; The most common
antigen is Ig. Directorate-i ... Which of the following serum Serum Type III disease hypersensitivity finding is the
reaction of leukopenia. Temporary 1, albuminuria, CZ, C4 levels are less, fever. Ienfadenopathy, Vasculitis occurs.
arthritis, urticaria. Bloody diarrhea does not.
An immune factor that provides a late response is one of the following leukocytes ...Delayed transfer to another is the
factor of the transfer immune response. the transfer of immunity from one leukocyte to the humoral to the other is
transferred from the person providing the lymphocytes.
\; TUSVV \ HA.Z'IRLIK CENTERS. ...'
The main factor in Type III immune response is: Antigen-antibody coupling. Lymphadenopathy is not detected in
patients with hyperplasia of small intestine lymphoid follicles, who have frequent lung infections and all Igs are low.
Which is your most likely diagnosis ... There is almost no B-lymphocyte in Bruton agammaglobulinemia and all Igs
are low or even absent.
'The local Ag-Ab reaction in the vein is: In the arthus reaction, the excess antibody is in the foreground and the event
is local. The local lesion may become a sterile abscess and then gangrene. Causes a vasculitis causing necrosis.
The clinical manifestation of anaphylaxis is:Urticaria, angioedema, hypotension, bronchus, GIS and uterine muscles

contract. Hypotension due to vasodilation develops in the vessels and may even lead to hypotensive shock. No
hypertension.
The substance that does not produce an immune response alone but reacts with an established immune response is:
Substances that are not immunogenic alone but which acquire antigenic properties when combined with a protein
molecule are called haptens.
Which of the following is not passive immunization ...AIDS does not passive immunization. Ig is given in hepatitis B.
The more common immunodeficiency is:Selective IgA deficiency, a type of humoral immunodeficiency, is the most
common immunodeficiency. Its frequency is between 1 / 700—1 / 3000.
When horse serum is given, the following type of reaction is seen in the person whose symptoms of serum disease
begin Type III hypersensitivity reaction.
The complement that causes the most lysis is ... C8, C9 causes lysis in the cell.
Which of the following causes a delayed-type cellular response ...They are the reactions that occur due to the contact
of antigen with the sensitized lymphocytes, namely T cells.
The substance that is released from T cells and causes autocrine cell proliferation is: interleukin II. In type I
anaphylactic reaction, which of the following is not secreted ... Bradikinin and the complement system are not
involved in the type I hypersensitivity reaction. The occurrence of anaphylactic reaction with the administration of
blood, blood products and immunoglobulin occurs in the following types of immunodeficiency ... Selective IgA
deficiency is the most disabled person in transfusion medicine. Severe anaphylaxis may develop.
Immunoglobulin which increases early in acute infections is one of the following ... IgM.
An agent presenting on the surface of the antigen-presenting cell that provides antigen delivery to the helper T cells is:
Antigen-presenting cells are macrophages and monocytes. These cells present foreign antigens to T-helpers through
class-II-MHC antigens. T-helpers secrete IL-2
IR; russian PREPARATION CENTERS L çg.
they stimulate their proliferation, as well as B-lymphocyte proliferation and antibody production.
Immunocompromised patient which vaccine is not administered ... Live attenue virus vaccines are not administered to
an immunosuppressed patient. These include: Measles vaccine, Rubella vaccine, Mumps vaccine, (three of these are
also called MMR vaccine), Oral polio (sabin) ... Yellow fever, chickenpox (varicella) and Adenovirus vaccine.
- The antigen most responsible for the type I hypersensitivity reaction is: Mast cells degranulate by binding of IgEs on
antibody to pre-sensitized mast cells. Hay fever, asthma, urticaria and systemic anaphylaxis are caused by this
mechanism.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is one of the following ...Contact dermatitis belongs to this group.
The effect of the complement components CSa and C5a is ... Effects of complement components of CSa and C5a
(Anaphlatoxins):
- Chemotaxis - Histamine release 'Smooth muscle contraction' Increased capillary permeability Factors involved in the
cytotoxic response and its effect through specific antibodies are the following ...Antibody-dependent cytotoxic
reactions occur when a cell coated with antibody is cleaved by NK (natural killer) cells. Killer cells (natural killers) do
not need antibodies to identify target cells. "
The alternative complement pathway starts from ... It starts with CB.
Immunoglobulins synthesize and carry on ... Upon antigenic stimulation, B lymphocytes form plasma cells secreting
immunoglobulins.
Which of the following is wrong with the lack of selective 19 A ... Gamaglobulin should never be used in these
patients. Anaphylaxis may develop due to anti-IgA antibodies.
Which of the following cells does not play a role in delayed type hypersensitivity reactions T lymphocytes, histiocytes,
epithelioid cells and macrophages are effective, whereas B lymphocytes have no role. The development of
autoantibodies against acetyl choline receptors leads to:Anti-Ach antibodies were detected in Myastenia Graves.
Cytokine regulates migration and activation of eosinophils Interleukin-5
The mechanism of action of topical corticosteroids ... Immunosuppressive effect, Antiinflammatory effect,
Antiproliferative effect, Vasoconstrictor effect
OtoinHumoral disease ... Familial Mediterranean Fire
- The most likely diagnosis in a patient with bilateral parotid swelling, dryness of the mouth and eyes, and pain and
weakness in the small joints of the hand ... sjögren syndrome
& Tus Nmnuk usb ansa believe!

- Anaphylaxis is a sensitivity reaction. Regarding the ...Early degranulation of systemic mast cells

Type excessive - one of the following, which feels difficulty swallowing but as a result show immunotherapy occurs.
Serum is helpful in diagnosis. tryptase Venom level increase in anaphylaxis A forty-two-year-old female patient was
brought to the emergency room with sudden urticaria, redness of the eyes, nasal congestion and shortness of breath 30
minutes after eating kiwifruit, and she had been working as an operating nurse for 5 years. sneezing, runny nose,
itching, cough, and shortness of breath, a patient learned to be sensitive to complaints ... Latex
Tract
The most valuable enzyme in the diagnosis of cholestasis is: ..Alkaline phosphatase, GGT, Leucine amino peptidase
and 5 'nucleotidase are used in the diagnosis of cholestasis. ALP is the most sensitive.
Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is contraindicated in any of the following. . Acute MI, abdominal aortic aneurysm,
recent cardiopulmonary resuscitation, severe valve disease, esophageal, gastric and duodenal rupture risk, aortic
dissection, and severe COPD.
Which of the following is not indicative of a liver dysfunction (September-97). ..Equal phosphatase is not directly
involved in liver function tests. It rises mainly in prostate diseases.
- Radiological examination which should be requested first for diagnosis in a patient with acute abdomen. ..The
radiograph is taken while standing directly.
In the 38-year-old male patient who was brought to the emergency room with a large amount of bright red blood
vomiting, physical examination revealed blurred consciousness, body temperature 120 / minute 36.6 rhythmic “C, and
blood respiratory pressure number 60/30 24 / minute mmHg What is the liquid patient needs to be treated & prepared
and blood prepared ...Vascular (Endoscopy, angiography or scintigraphy, if necessary, should be applied to investigate
the etiology after correcting the patient's hemodynamic status.)
Mallory-Weis syndrome is most commonly seen in the following. ..Mallory Weiss syndrome is a submucosal tear at
the esophagogastric junction due to vomiting.
- In peptic esophagitis, the definitive diagnosis is made by: ..The most common cause of peptic esophagitis is
gastroesophageal reflux. The most accurate result in diagnosis is endoscopy and biopsy
Data.
The first diagnostic procedure for Boerrhave syndrome is:Boerhave syndrome is a later stage of Mallory-Weiss
syndrome. Esophageal rupture. First chest radiograph is taken.
Which of the following does not have macroglossi ...In pernicious anemia, there is a type of glossitis called Hunter
language. Here the language is hyperemic and sensitive. But there is no macroglossi.
Globus hystericus that can swallow a woman is generally observed in the patient as a diagnosis in women. It is
believed ... Which of the following is not a complication of reflux esophagitis?Duodenal ulcer develops due to the
increase of aggressive factors. It is not associated with reflux.
Upper esophageal sphincter dysfunction results in dysfunction of the following.Upper zenker esophageal diverticulum
consists of sphincter.
Reflux-esophagitis is not given in which of the following ..Anticholinergics are contraindicated in reflux esophagitis
because it will reduce LES pressure.
Which is Barret ...The epithelium is transformed into the columnar epithelium of the following squamous layers, which
play a role in the reflux esophagus. Adeno Ca may develop in these patients.
Which is the most objective method in the diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux. Diagnosis is made by 24-hour
monitoring of esophageal pH.
The most objective and sensitive examination method in gastroesophageal reflux is the following. .. The most reliable
diagnostic method is 24 hours pH'metry.
A 35-year-old female patient was admitted with fatigue, weakness, regurgitation of the food she had eaten for two
days, and difficulty in swallowing liquid and solid foods.
The most probable diagnosis in a patient with increased esophageal pressure is one of the following.Achalasia is
considered.
The following factor shows the effect of reducing gastroesophageal reflux ...Protein foods reduce reflux.
Barret epithelium pathology, which is the most common result of reflux in esophagus, develops in GIS. which is ...
Which of the following does not cause hyperplasia in gingiva ... Pemphigusvulgaris does not cause dental hyperplasia.
Peristalsis disorder in the proximal part of the esophagus occurs in one of the following: Polio and polymyositis
involve the proximal part of the esophagus, causing dysphagia and regurgitation.
A 45-year-old male patient had dysphagia for 3 years, occasional substernal chest pain and especially coughing
seizures at night. In the endoscopic examination, the lower end of the esophagus was normal, the esophagus was
enlarged and food residues were detected.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient...A typical case of achalasia has been described.
There is no pressure manometric typical finding in the diagnostic examination. is put through the measurement.
Endoscopic A 63-year-old male patient presented with complaints of pyrosis and regurgitation for 10 years. Her
history has been learned during the last two months and three months of ingesting solid 3 kg of food. The difficulty
The lab's recent examinations have found that hemoglobin was 33% in value. level 10 days before 11 g / dL and
started to completely recover with the hematocrit double dose proton pump inhibitor treatment
"CENTERS OF PRISONERS
discontinues the drug due to complaints. Two weeks after discontinuation of the drug, he was admitted to the hospital
again with the onset of symptoms.
Which of the following information regarding this case is not the upper gastrointestinal tract. .Endoscopic examination
should be performed in patients with GER system system endoscopy if there are complications such as cancer and
esophagitis that are more than 5 years old. What is not in the pathogenesis of acute erosive gastritis is: . .The most
common causes are NSAIDs,
do not do. The most common reason for them is aspirin. HP acute erosive gastritis Steroids are not given if any of the
following is present. Treatment should not be given ...In active peptic ulcer - Gastric tube is contraindicated in which
...Insertion of the gastric tube in the larynx is not appropriate reflex. In the diagnosis of gastritis, which of the
following methods gives the most accurate results - to patients without ...The term gastritis is a pathological
description. Diagnosis is made by endoxic biopsy.
The urease (+) small pleated microorganisms seen in the gastric biopsy in the gastric biopsy were given the serological
properties of Helicobacter pylori. warned ... The reason for sucralfate is given to patients in intensive care unit. .. It
covers the mucous surface of the stomach. It neutralizes excess H * ion. The pH rises above 4.
Stomach perforation is considered in the patient & useful examination which is the following .. Direct abdominal X-
ray is expected to show air under the diaphragm C)
- Which of the following is not effective in the pathogenesis of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory ulcers? They inhibit
prostaglandin synthesis. But they don't do bile reflux.
- Which of the following applies in intensive care units
It is not a major risk factor for stress ulcers that may develop in inpatients.Burns, severe traumas, mechanical
ventilation and coagulopathy. Ileus does not cause stress ulcers.
Which of the following is secreted from the main cells in the gastric mucosa. Pepsinogen is a protein secreted from
essential cells.
pylori The sensitivity of which of the following tests used Helicobacter for a detect patient with the presence of active
duodenal infection ulcer is the lowest. .. HP is unlikely to produce a causative agent in the diagnosis. Therefore, culture
is the least sensitive method in diagnosis.
Which of the following does not happen in celiac disease ... deficiencies, iron deficiency weakness, and folic
hypoalbuminemia acid deficiency, ADEK causes vitamins. No increase in carotene.
If diarrhea persists despite the gluten-free diet in celiac, which of the following is tried? Secondary lactase deficiency
or another disaccharidase deficiency is considered.
- The safest method for the definitive diagnosis of gluten enteropathy is: Proximal small intestine
biopsy taken.
g.— _ tus PREPARATION
- Which of the following is not seen in Zolinger Ellison. . . Diare and malabsorption. There are 6 cell hyperplasia, not
beta cell hyperplasia.
- Which of the following is not a basis for the diagnosis of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome Zollinger Ellison Syndrome
has diarrhea and malabsorption. No constipation.
Which of the following increases Zollinger Ellison syndrome. .. Zollinger Ellison Syndrome occurs as a result of
hyperplasia of G cells. Gastrin and HCl levels increased.
How many grams of fecal fat should be present in order to say that the person taking 100 grams of fat has steatorrhea.
.. 100 g straw if there is fat over 6 g and steatore.
- Which of the following was not appropriate to be given purgative to the patient. . Ileus is a general name and the
reason is unclear. Ileus of unknown cause is not given purgative.
- If a patient who undergoes D-Xyloz test to investigate the etiology of malabsorption is positive, which of the
following is not considered in the differential diagnosis ...Malabsorption is the most sensitive diagnostic method for
demonstrating small bowel origin.
All steps of the Schilling test performed in a patient with Vit 812 deficiency were found to be normal.

Accordingly, which of the following is true. . . In the absence of BIZ, a Schilling test for the etiology is performed. If
all four stages of the test were normal, the lesion was in the terminal ileum.
The patient with a sensitive enteropathy of gluten is given a gluten-free diet. The patient is recovering.
Which of the following is not expected in this patient ... D— xylose absorption disturbance does not improve despite
treatment.
Secretory diarrhea is not expected in any of the following. Excess lactulose intake causes osmotic diarrhea In the
treatment of Whipple's disease, the use of either of the following often leads to clinical remission Trimetoprim-
sulfamethoxazole, tetracycline or penicillin is often fatal if not treated. Which of the following increases in urine in
carcinoid tumor. .. In carcinoid syndrome, 5-OH IAA increases in urine.
Malabsorption of the nutrient given in which of the following does not appear in the face. . .In fat malabsorption, there
is an abundant, smelly fatty diarrhea. No watery diarrhea is seen.
If severe anemia is detected in a patient who comes with long-term weakness, loss of appetite and constipation, you
will consider which of the following about his profession ... Lead intoxication causes constipation, confusion and
sideroblastic anemia, abdominal pain. Visible to battery workers
Pyoderma gangrenosum is the most common symptom. Ulcerative colitis also occurs.
- Radiological manifestations of ulcerative colitis which is the least seen. .. It is seen in Crohn's disease. Fistula
formation,
- What is the most common cause of microorganism in tourist land is ... The most common agent in tourist diarrhea is
enterotoxogenic E. coli.
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Fever, a small number of maculopapular rashes of 2-4 mm in diameter in the upper abdomen, bradycardia, and a
feeling of abdominal tension may indicate which of the following infections ...Clinical findings consistent with typhoid
fever. A 34-year-old male patient had diarrhea, rectal bleeding, subfebrile fever and mild weight loss for the last
month. Pseudopolip and haustralar deletions were seen on the colon graph. __ Which is possible in this patient? ..
Compatible with ulcerative colitis. In the australia, fibrosis-induced lead tube landscape is seen in ulcerative colitis.
Which of the following is not a complication of colitis ulcerosis ...Ulcerative colitis only involves the colon. Does not
involve the small intestine and stomach. In a seventy-year-old patient with jaundice with large intrahepatic bile ducts
and high alkaline phosphatase, you consider which of the following. . . The patient's findings were consistent with
pancreatic head cancer. The diagnosis is cholangiocarcinoma because it is not present in the cases. The best method of
ulcerative colitis is one of the following. . . Reksigmoidoscopy and biopsy.
Which is best suited for the initial treatment of severe course ulcerative colitis ...Prednisolone (In fulminant cases, oral
feeding is discontinued and total parenteral feeding is started. IV steroid treatment is initiated and broad-spectrum
antibiotics are added if there is a risk of toxic megacolon.
Sulfasalazine and mesalamine may be used in the treatment of severe ulcerative colitis but are not suitable for
treatment alone.)
A young male patient admitted to the hospital because of constipation, headache, fever and general condition disorder.
Fever 39.6 ° C, TA: 120/80 mmHg, Pulse = 84 / min. The liver crosses the 3 cm costa. Spleen 2 cm comes in hand.
Bone marrow smears show Gram-negative bacteria. According to this situation, the most probable factor is the
pathogen which ...The most common cause of typhoid fever is Salmonella typhid. . For polyps in Peutz-J'eghers
syndrome, one of the following is wrong: makes hamartomatous polyps, does not make adenomatous polyps. Which of
the following is not characteristic of Crohn's disease. . . Pseudopolip is seen in ulcerative colitis. Other findings may
be seen in Chron's disease.
Which of the following is used to treat ulcerative colitis. . . Sulfasalazine is used.
The most common symptom in rectal cancer is:Hematocesia is the most common symptom.
Which of these causes bloody diarrhea ... Campylobacter makes jejuni.
It should be considered primarily in a 70-year-old patient with recurrent lower gastrointestinal bleeding and tnesia. . .
Rectum cancer should be considered.
The most common cause of severe lower gastrointestinal bleeding in adults older than sixty years ... colonic
diverticulosis
The patient who comes with acute diarrhea does not have white blood cells in the stool smear. .. It does not occur in
amibiasis.
A patient with AIDS develops bloodless diarrhea with watery mucus that lasts more than a month. Microscopy doesn't
reveal anything. Ziehl-Nielsen staining shows acid-resistant oocysts.
Which is most likely ... Cryptosporidium parvum.

A 32-year-old woman presented with bloody-mucus diarrhea, abdominal pain and fever 8-10 times a day for three
months. Physical examination revealed a blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg, a pulse rate of 98 / minute, and a fever of
37.8 ° C. As a result of laboratory investigations, hemoglobin content was 10.9%, leukocyte count was 14 ZOO / mms,
hematocrit value was 31% and sedimentation rate was 42 mm / hour. Abundant leukocytes and erythrocytes are seen in
the stool. Colonoscopic examination revealed diffuse edema, hyperemia and loss of vascularity in the rectal mucosa.
This patient should first consider which of the following ...Rectal bleeding + Young patient + anemia + Colonscopy
findings: consistent with ulcerative colitis.
Small bowel biopsy can be definitively diagnosed in any of the following conditions causing malabsorption. ..
intestinal infections (Tuberculosis, Whiplle's disease) ..., abetalipoproteinemia, agammaglobulinemia, | Biopsy can be
made in the diagnosis of infangectasis, lymphoma, amyloidosis, celiac disease, tropical sprue.
Which of the following findings is not seen in left side colon cancers. . . Melana is invisible.
Risk factors for the development of adenocarcinoma of the stomach ... Helicobacter pylori infection, Excessive salt
consumption, Pernicious anemia, Smoking
Which of the following findings of inflammatory bowel disease is more common in Crohn's disease ...Again, an easy
question is the finding of perianal lesions Chron's disease.
A fifty-five-year-old, obese woman who had no previous complaints, presented with cough lasting more than 3 weeks.
It was learned that he did not take an ACE inhibitor and his chest radiograph was considered normal.
The most likely diagnosis for this patient ...A Gastroözofage | reflux
A 75-year-old man presented with fever and acute onset pain in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen. Physical
examination revealed abdominal distention and localized peritonitis. The number of leukocytes is 14 OOO / mm3.
This is the most appropriate method to diagnose the patient. . . Abdominal computed tomography
A pregnant woman with acute infection is most likely to have fulminant hepatitis. Hepatitis E
Diarrhea due to motility disorder;
'Irritable bowel syndrome' Scleroderma 'Diabetic diarrhea' The risk of developing hepatic coma in a cirrhotic patient
medicines
- Drugs: narcotics, trancilisants, sedatives,
diuretics - risk factors for stone-free cholecystitis ...
'Diabetes Mellitus' Burn - Sepsis - Trauma
Collagen vascular diseases - Multiple organ failure - Long-term total parenteral nutrition - Complications of enteral
nutrition in the elderly ... Vomiting, Infection, Diarrhea, Aspiration
The most successful imaging modality in evaluating the T stage of esophageal tumor ... Endosonography '
Firstly, upper gastrointestinal system endoscopy indications ... Unexplained weight loss, Age greater than 59,
Unexplained anemia, Presence of dysphagia
A 38-year-old female patient presented with diarrhea lasting for 8 weeks and defined diarrhea accompanied by a small
amount of tenesmin 7-8 times a day. C-reactive protein is within normal limits, complete blood count and routine
clinical biochemical examinations of a patient with normal diarrhea ... Chronic - Colon type - Inflammatory
Twenty-two-year-old female patient presented with a 1-year history of diarrhea. Her history revealed that her diarrhea
was repeated every day and 3-4 times a day. The most probable diagnosis for a patient with low levels of upper
gastrointestinal system endoscopy and colonoscopy is considered normal and stool examination revealed abundant
fatty acids and muscle fibers. Intestinal lymphangiectasia
Height 160cm, body mass index of a woman with body weight 107.52 kg ... 42
The most common mutation in gastrointestinal stromal tumors ... C-Kit
A 35-year-old female patient presented to the doctor with dyspeptic symptoms. Endoscopy revealed clearance of
vascular structure and gastric corpus pleural fluid, and biopsy revealed atrophic gastritis. Enterochromaffin-like cells
Oropharyngeal dysphagia seen ... Zenker diverticulum
Risk factors for small intestinal cancers ... Male sex, Celiac disease, Crohn's disease, Refine sugars and foods rich in
red meat
- About Crohn's disease ... Smoking adversely affects prognosis.
The patient who has been complaining of vomiting in the last few months of increasing vomiting and usually in the
postprandial period, said that his vomit was smelly and contained what he ate during the last 1-2 days. Pyloric
obstruction
Endoscopic examination of a patient with melena revealed duodenal ulcer. Clot on ulcer, Vascular appearing in the
middle of ulcer, Active arterial bleeding, Venous bleeding in the form of leak
The most probable diagnosis in a patient with colon polyposis and intracranial tumor ... Turcot syndrome

'Diagnostic methods to be used in patients with melena ... Upper GIS endoscopy, Lower Gills endoscopy,
Scintigraphy, Angiography
A 50-year-old male patient was admitted to the emergency department with the complaints of black vomiting and
fainting. He had a history of coronary artery disease, stent placement in the coronary artery, and therefore used
acetylsalicylic acid and clopidogrel. measured and a red prognosis for a patient with nasogastric tube insertion.Pulse
rate, Presence of ischemic heart disease, Blood pressure level, Fresh blood from nasogastric tube
The patient, who started as if the knife was suddenly stabbed in the epigastrium and spread to the whole abdomen,
described the first test for a patient with defenses and rebounds in the abdomen in the physical examination. Peptic
ulcer perforation
LIVER
Which of the following drugs is the most common cause of cholestatic hepatitis. .. Phenothiazines (especially
Chlorpromazine) ... oral contraceptives and erythromycins, especially the esteolate salt of erythromycin.
Which of the following shows the liver cell M. . .Technetium 99-m is held by the liver, thyroid and salivary glands.
Viral Hepatitis-A is the most common period in which a patient is spreading the virus around the virus. Infections
starting in the middle of the incubation are maximum towards the end of the incubation. - In viral hepatitis, the clinical
type in which serum alkaline phosphatase level is high is: Alkaline phosphatase is mostly increased in cholestatic type
acute viral hepatitis. The most common cause of hepatitis A is cholestatic hepatitis.
Indication of vaccination in people at risk of hepatitis B: the following table is more appropriate ...People who have
HBs Ag (-) ... and anti HBs antibody (-) ... and anti HBc total negative should be vaccinated.
Which of the following does not cause chronic hepatitis.Hepatitis A virus causes all kinds of hepatitis. But it does not
become chronic. In the blood sample taken, the patient's serology is as follows: HBsAg: +, AntiHBs: -, AntiHBcM?,
HBeAg: +, AntiHBe: -. HBsAg (+) ... and AntiHBcM were positive together, indicating acute hepatitis. The
serological results of a nurse who stabbed her hand 4 months ago are as follows:
Hbs Ag (-) ... Anti Hbs (-) ... Anti HAV IgM (-) ... Anti HAV IgG (+) ... Anti HBc IgM (+) ... Anti HBe (+) ... The
most likely diagnosis in this patient is: Anti HBs is negative and HBc IgM is positive, indicating that the patient is in
the window period. The most common cause of pyogenic liver abscesses ... Biliary tract infections The most accurate
diagnosis of liver dysfunction is made by: Test - prothrombin time has the highest prognostic value in detecting
hepatocyte damage. .
The first blood level in hepatocyte damage is factor VII. Therefore, the first elongation is P'IZ. Serological thinning
results of Hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection in a patient with normal serum transaminase levels are given in the table
below. HBs Ag, Hbe antigen, anti HBs and anti Hbc IgM were negative, Anti Hbe and anti Hbc IgG were positive.
Based on this information, one of the following judgments about this patient can be reached ... Indicates that he has
previously experienced live hepatitis B virus. Which of the following is not the cause of acid ...Vena Cava Superior
syndrome is at the top of the obstruction. Does not acid. For the definitive diagnosis of alcoholic cirrhosis, which of
the following is used ...Gamma Glutamyl Transferase (GGT) ... is used in the diagnosis of alcoholic hepatitis and
cirrhosis. GGT increase is typical while ALP is normal. Which of the following is not the cause of edema in liver
cirrhosis ...There is no relationship between bilirubin elevation and acid pathogenesis. Cirrhosis of the liver,
degeneration of the brain and fundoscopic examination with the Kaiser-Flascher ring is the following. Kaiser Flascher
ring is a unique finding of Wilson's disease. The defect in Gilbert syndrome is:UDP-glucuronyl transferase activity
decreased by 30%. Indirect bilirubin conjugation and uptake were impaired. In hemochromatosis, one of the following
is more helpful than others for a definitive diagnosis. .. Hemochromatosis is performed by liver biopsy. The most
reliable diagnosis today
method is to show genetic mutation. The extrahepatic extrahepatic portal is one of the following ...V. hypertension
develops in the thrombosis of the portal hypertension porta. If the child has fatty liver and convulsion syndrome in
children, it is seen as follows. which one you think. ..Reye Which of the following is not expected in the liver fat
...Alcohol in the liver. Lead to fatty liver does not cause fattening most often. The reason for which is the clinical
findings of Palmar. erythema is seen ...Chronic and spider neviis hepatic activity of the pathology in failure of the
following -following completely complies with the following .. whichever none Criggler-Najjar or. -PDP also partially
decreased -glucronil. disease has indirect bilirubin conjugation disorder. Indirect bilirubinemia occurs in the following
situations:The disease of Gilbert hyperbilirubinemia is the most common cause. chronic, benign, indirect. Wilson's
disease. . In the pathophysiology of which one of the following copper defect of the biliary pathway is defective. not
seen ...Toxic Which of the following increases both indirect and hyperbilirubinemia direct and indirect bilirubin in
hepatitis. Which is conjugated. pigmentation caused by hyperbilirubinemia and do not do. . In Dubin-Johnson and
Rotor syndrome, the liver directly increases bilirubin. In Rotor syndrome, liver is normal in color since there is no

accumulation of corpoporphyrin. Increasing hepatic encephalopathy is one of the following. . . Hyperkalemia does not
burn. The liver is unaffected by which factor failure level. In a patient with ..Factors V and VIII below are not made in
the liver. Factor VIII is synthesized in the vascular endothelium. Which of the following diseases directly increases
blood bilirubin. ..There is direct bilirubin increase in Dubin Johnson and Rotor Syndrome. The history of the 25-year-
old woman who presented with jaundice revealed that she had no complaints, noticed yellowing in her family's
sclerance, and her brother had similar findings before. There was no pathological finding on physical examination. In
laboratory tests, total bilirubin 3 mg / dl and indirect bilirubin 0.7 mg / dl were determined. Serum, ALT, AST,
alkaline USG phosphatase, normal GGT. levels, complete blood count and abdominal This is ...Rotor ALP is the most
likely or Dubin-Johnson of levels for the patient and GGT. The normal diagnosis is seen in both AST-ALT, both of
the following. In Rotor Syndrome, direct bilirubin <10 mg / dl is Dubin dl. As a rule in Johnson Syndrome> 10 mg /
25-year-old male patient presented with abdominal pain and abdominal distention. Her history reveals that she had a
fever rising at night. Ascites were detected on physical examination and leukocyte count was 7000 / mm3 and 90%
lymphocytes were exudates. The most likely diagnosis for this patient is:
a. I " '
Which is. . .If a patient with ascites has fever and abdominal pain, the diagnosis is peritonitis. The diagnosis is
tuberculous peritonitis since it is dominated by lymphocytes. Which of the following does not cause fatty liver ...Other
than $ LE, fatty liver is seen in the options mentioned. SLE can cause hepatitis, but not hepatosteatosis. A 27-year-old
pregnant woman with gravida 1, para 0, seven months of age is admitted because of severe itching. Physical
examination revealed no signs of skin dryness. After 4 weeks, the patient presented again with complaints of mild
jaundice, darkening of urine color and acolic stool. He had no abdominal pain, no medication and 2 kg weight loss
since his first admission. The physical examination revealed that the uterus was 8 cm above the umbilicus and that the
liver and spleen size were normal. As a result of laboratory tests, serum total bilirubin level is 7 mg / dL, direct
bilirubin level is 5 mg / dL, AST level is 33 U / L, alkaline phosphatase level is 210 U / L and prothrombin time is 12
seconds. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient...A pregnant woman'3. pruritus +
cholestasis tests in the third trimester and high bilirubin directly: intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. A patient who
was investigated for cholestatic jaundice showed no biliary obstruction and the underlying pathology was cholestatic
liver disease. Normalization of prothrombin time with intramuscular vitamin K Non-alcoholic diseases with increased
incidence of fatty liver ... Type 2 concomitant diabetes, Hypertension, Obesity, Dyslipidemia A 40-year-old female
patient was admitted to the clinic for general control. A patient whose total / direct bilirubin, total protein / albumin,
ALT, AST and GGT values were found to be normal and antimitochondrial antibody (AMA) was found to be negative
in a patient whose physical examination could not be detected any abnormality was found to be the most appropriate
normal approach ... Drugs used in the treatment of chronic hepatitis B after 3 months repeat ALP after that ...
Pegylated interferon-a, Telbivudine, Lamivudine, Tenofovir Acute B hepatitis was diagnosed with acute liver failure.
Prolonged prothrombin time Risk factors for the development of hepatocellular cancer ... Aflatoxin B, Obesity,
Hepatitis B, Alcoholic cirrhosis In patients with uncontrolled chronic liver failure, fatigue fever and 400 / mm3 PMNL
is the most appropriate approach ... Intravenous cefotaxime should be initiated 3x2 g. Post-hepatic type portal
hypertension condition ... Budd-Chiari syndrome A 21-year-old male patient with no known illness was admitted to
hospital for progressive jaundice and blurred consciousness, and his family history revealed that his sister had died at
the age of 8 years, and had abdominal and abdominal splenomegaly on abdominal ultrasonography. 400 IU / L
bilirubin and AST 35 mg / dL, 550 IU / L bilirubin directly found at 9 mg / dL, the most likely diagnosis for a patient
ALT Wilson's disease
'PANCREAS TUMORS __ DISEASES AND Which is the first in pancreatitis. . .Amylase increases in the first 24
hours of the enzyme increases. Which of the following is not one of the systemic complications of acute pancreatitis
does not cause hypoglycemia, not hypoglycemia, not hypercalcemia. In a patient who presented with recurrent
abdominal pain, direct abdominal X-ray showed calcitations intraperitoneal on the first lumbar vertebrae and on each
computed tomography. Captured liquid collections being monitored. What is the most mature diagnosis for this patient
... Acute attack VIP in a patient with chronic pancreatitis causes one of the following. .. Makes aqueous diarrhea,
hypocalemia and achlorhydria The cause of non-hypoglycemia due to hyperinsulinism is one of the following ...
Hyperinsulinism and hypoglycemia are not observed in asymmetric growth retardation. A 42-year-old man underwent
vagotomy and hemigastrectomy for the treatment of bleeding duodenal ulcer. The patient reported that he had
dyspeptic endoscopic complaints at the 9th month as well as recurrent diarrhea in marginal order. In the laboratory
examination, the plasma calcium level was 9.8 mg / dl. Gastric secretion tests As a result, i $ e 24 hour gastric fluid
volume is 2500 cc, basal acid release is measured as 28 mEq / h. Which is the most likely diagnosis for this patient ...
“Atypical, treatment-resistant, complicated, multiple ulcers, kidney stones, high calcium + gastrin: Think of Zollinger

Elison syndrome. Hepatitis refers to being a carrier of complaints of rapid fatigue B virus. A patient known to have
weaknesses, serum AST and ALT levels greater than 5 times normal. Which of the following is not one of the
conditions that explain the height of the enzyme in this patient is the development of hypertension, esophageal varices.
height of enzyme. .Portal does not. Which of the following is not associated with nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)
... Acetaminophen toxicity does not cause fatty liver. The serum antigen and antibody levels of an immunized patient
undergoing acute viral hepatitis B infection are given in the following graph.
titer
Infection. ,. I . . . . . | . ,. . . '. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 12
Post-contact time [Month]
The curve indicated by X in this graph shows the level of which of the following. . . A question was asked based on
the graphic interpretation. The correct answer is compatible with anti HBc Ig M.
j Tus Preparation
ANS RANSON ri CRITERIA is used for the application of a pankreaTiTi ... White blood cell count, Serum LDH
level, Plasma glucose level, Age Recurrent pancreatitis is the most probable diagnosis if the main pancreatic duct
enlargement and CT in the head of the pancreas are detected with 4 cm. Intraductal papillary mucinous neoplasia
Diabetes, slimming, right upper quadrant pain, cholelithiasis, nodular lesion in the liver and watery diarrhea are the
most probable diagnoses ...somatostatinoma
BALL SURGERY DISEASES
The most common cause of benign biliary obstruction is: The most common cause of benign biliary obstruction is
biliary stones. The most common of these is cholesTerol Stones. In primary biliary cirrhosis, which is specific. . .
AnTimiTochondrial antorch posiTifTir (90%) ... Vision in primary biliary cirrhosis .. It causes hypocalcemia due to fat
malabsorption and not hypercalcemia. The best indicator of prognosis in the follow-up of primary biliary cirrhosis
is:The most important indicator of prognosis is the bilirubin level. In a patient suspected to have gallstones, you first
do the following for diagnosis ... Abdominal USG. After a heavy and greasy dinner, starting late at night, 30-60 min.
The patient was admitted to our hospital with the complaint of pain, localized to the right hypochondrium and clouded,
and found to be 38 ° C, leukocyte 10,000 / mm3.
The most likely diagnosis is one of the following. . A clinical case question compatible with AkuT cholesisTiT The
most common cause of secondary biliary cirrhosis is:The most common cause of inTrahepaTik in adults is primary
Sclerosing cholangy, and the most common cause of exTrahepaTik is choledocholithiasis. The most common
inTrahepatic cause of Pediatric Cystic Fibrosis is the most common cause of extrahepatic biliary agression. One of the
causes of jaundice eksTrahepaTik ... Mirizzi syndrome Genetic disorder in bilirubin conjugation, whose prognosis is
most ... Crigler — Najjar syndrome Type I
INFECTIOUS DISEASES
SYMPTOMS AND FINDINGS IN INFECTIOUS DISEASES
- In a patient with group A beAtHaTolTic sTrepTococci due to acut TonsIl, which of the following is the least useful
in diagnosing ... ASO is not meaningful in the diagnosis of acute hematologic sTrepTococcal infections. Which of the
following antiTibioTic groups is better than phagocytes is better than others ... Antibiotic macrolides with the best
ability to pagene to phagocytes.
- A virmish-five-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of sudden onset of fever,
cloudiness, skull, widespread myalgia and skin rash. It is learned from his history that mensTuration has started 4 days
before and he has been using vqiinal tampon for the last 3 days. Physical examination revealed a blood pressure of
80/40 mmHg, a pulse rate of 120 / min, and a diagnosis of 39 ° C. It has been observed that the patient has confusion
and has an eruptive rash similar to sunburn on the whole skin. As a result of laboratory investigations, Hb 12.8 g,
leukocyte 18.000 mm3, thrombocyte 70.000 mm3, BUN 80 mg / dl, kreaTinin 2.7 mg / dl, ALT 100 IU / L, AST 85 IU
/ L, kreaTinin kinase 500 IU / L, serum albumin 2 g / dl, Ca 7.5 mg / dl. It is detected that there is no reproduction in
the blood culture. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient... Patient history and physical
examination findings are consistent with toxic shock syndrome. Swam anTibiotic Therapy for hasTa mentioned in the
previous question is one of the following. . . Clindamycin or naphthylin is the first choice in the treatment of toxic
shock syndrome. Giardia lamblia trophozoites are observed in an adult patient with diarrhea, abdominal pain, nausea
and vomiting for two days. _ Which of the following agents is most suitable for the treatment of this patient ...
MeiTranidazole is the first choice in the treatment of 6iardia and enTomoebea hisToliTica. Anaerobic bacterias are
most likely to play a role in any of the following infections. Anaerobes have no role. In young women, which is the
most common cause of acute cystitis after Echerichia coli is: Acute systemin is the most common eT gene in young
women after E. coli. STaphylococcus saprophyTicus. Look at the eTiopaTogenesis of which of the following is

responsible for a ... The effect of whipple disease is bacterial. Others have nothing to do with BakTeri. A 30-year-old
woman was admitted to our clinic with complaints of headache, abdominal pain and constipation for 3 days. HasTan
history of bloodless, mucus diarrhea lasting 2 days after aThesi is learned to rise. Physical examination revealed 39 ° C
fever, blood pressure 125/70 mmHg, pulse rate 80 / minute rhythmic, maculopapular lesions with a pressure of 2-4 mm
in the abdomen. The number of leukocytes was 3000 / mm3; peripheral smear contains 7 ° 75-part leukocyte, 25%
lymphocyte This Table has the highest probability of causing the following microorganisms: Salmonella Typhiye-
induced salmonellosis should be considered. Which of the following antimalarial drugs in pregnant women is strictly
contraindicated ... Doxycycline is not used in pregnant women due to liver and pancreas active fatty necrosis and renal
damage (hepaTorenal syndrome). The development of clinically significant resistance to this antibiotic in a given
microorganism versus which of the following antibiotics is undefined. STrepTococcus pyogenes Penicillin resistance
has not been reported. An 18-year-old male patient presented with fever and sore throat. Physical examination
revealed a 38.5 ° C, pharyngeal hyperemic, occasional white exudations and painful lymphadenopathies in the jaw.
27 '' HAZ'i'RLI'K'CENTERTS j. ;. 7 îî "î TMSDATA O Which of the following microorganisms is most likely to
cause this clinical picture ... Rhinovirus makes a cold. Does not make the above table. Which of the following is the
lowest risk of transmission of Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever ... Mucosal contact with feces has been shown to
have the lowest risk of contamination. Kaposi's sarcoma associated with AIDS ... Human Herpes virus type
antiretroviral infection is associated with treatment. Due to its high incidence rate decreased. Active onset lesions are
primarily seen on the face. Oropharyngeal involvement is common. Antibiotic to Escherichia coli that produces broad
spectrum beta Iactamase. connected to. . bacteremia Risk factors for optimal influenza complications in the treatment
of ertapenem ... Antibiotics used in the treatment of acute bacterial meningitis in pregnancy, Diabetes mellitus, HIV
infection, Asthma ... Ceftriaxone, Cefotaxime, Ampicillin, Ceftazidime - A non-isolated sample in brucellosis ...
Gaita is an agent with antiviral activity against the Crimean Congo hemorrhagic fever virus ... Risk factors for
meningitis due to ribavirin Listeria monocytogenes ... Chronic alcohol use, HIV infection, Newborn, Pregnancy Skin
and soft tissue infections expected muscle involvement ... Synergistic necrotizing cellulite, Gas gangrene, Anaerobic
streptococcal myositis, Infected vascular gangrene Antibacterial agent used in the treatment of acute cystitis in a
pregnant patient ... Phosphomycin A 45-year-old female patient who had been using prednisolone for one year due to
rheumatoid arthritis developed acute purulent meningitis and was diagnosed with gram-positive coccobacilli — bacilli
in the cerebrospinal fluid. Ampicillin In a patient who had undergone renal transplantation three months ago without
any prophylaxis and was diagnosed with interstitial pneumonia, the most likely causative agent was ... The most
appropriate treatment plan for a hemodialysis patient who presented with a complaint of pain, swelling, swelling and
pus in the joint and cytomegalovirus joint and who had gram positive cocci on gram stain of aspirate but had no
growth in culture. Vancomycin, 4 weeks of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings supporting acute bacterial meningitis
Increase in CSF pressure, increase in leukocyte count, decrease in glucose amount, increase in protein amount A 65-
year-old male patient was diagnosed with pathogens that may be responsible for acute bacterial meningitis.
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Listeria monocytogenes, Neisseria meningitidis The drug used in the treatment of
asymptomatic amebiasis ... Paromomycin 'A vaccine that should not be recommended to a Hodgkin lymphoma patient
undergoing chemotherapy ... Varicella-zoster vaccine Glossy and painful lesion on the erythematous surface with a
superficial, sharp margin spreading from the cheek to nose root
. ; The most probable diagnosis in diabetic patients with MHK i ... Streptococcus pyogenes The most sensitive tests
used in the follow-up of AIDS disease ... CD4 + T-cell count - HIV-RNA in the blood Chemoprophylaxis-induced
diseases Pulmonary tuberculosis, whooping cough, acute rheumatic fever, cut the Malaria Cow five days ago, then
edema on arm without fever, blue-black vesicular and black-dried lesions, most likely diagnosis of a farmer ... Anthrax
in a sub-Saharan Africa, a patient returning after periodic chills yüksek high fever after tremor, distress,
hepatosplenomegaly, icteric appearance in peripheral smear, infected erythrocytes, and multiple stony rings in
respiration. If the parasites are seen Plasmodium falciparum most - possible Artesunate agent + Meflokin and
treatment drug ... Compared with typical community-acquired pneumonia and atypical pneumonia ...Typical
pneumonia usually involves lobar consolidation with air bronchogram on chest radiography. Infection of a patient with
fever and rash complaints on the body, arms and legs the day before, body temperature of 38,596 and widespread 0.5
—1 cm maculopapular rashes on the body and a black lesion on the outer edge of the foot, 1 cm in diameter. The best
antibiotic for ... Doxycycline is an antimicrobial drug with side effects of skeletal muscle toxicity ... Daptomycin -
Thirty fever, six sore throat pain and female swallowing patient, who had difficulty in swallowing for 8 days, and
started to use oral amoxicillin-clavulanate on the right side of her neck a week ago. Lymphadenopathy 38,506 and
exudative pulse 95 / min pharyngitis measured and detected in the neck and laboratory examination of the erythrocyte

sedimentation rate of 80 mm / h and leukocyte count 14,000 / mm3 and a purulent fluid in a neck puncture is the most
likely cause of a patient aspirated ... Francisella tularensis - A 50-year-old male patient presented with paraffernal and
discharge samples starting from a purulent 4-day discharge after passing through a coronary bypass graft incision line,
and Gram-staining of multiple polymorphonuclear leukocytes and gram (+) clusters. The most appropriate intravenous
antibiotic therapy for a patient who has been given generations of cephalosporin ... Vancomycin - antibacterial
ciprofloxacin, amoxicillin-clavulanate, agents used in the treatment of acute non-complicated cystitis ... Trimetoprim-
sulfamethoxazole, Nitrofurantoin A 50-year-old female patient with the diagnosis of stage IV sarcoidosis presented
with complaints of cough, sputum, increase in shortness of breath and new onset blood sputum, and diffuse cystic
lesions in the right middle zone with cystic lesions in the right middle zone. The most probable diagnosis for a patient
who has a lesion and radiological examination revealed that the lesion is displaced within the cavity depending on the
position of the patient ... aspergilloma
TASS QUESTIONS IN PEDIATRIC

NEWBORN
Bloody vaginal discharge in a three-day-old baby ... Maternal hormones
Moro reflex disappears when ... 6. Where Fetal Oz is highest in a month ..A Umbiiik | and
The most common anomaly with postmaturity .. Anencephaly - - finding ... Leucocori in newborn
Newborn with pathological skin manifestations for emergency eye examination ...Amniotic band scars
The condition where the craniotabes finding is normal ... Newborn - USG in Newborn
definitive diagnosis of congenital hip dislocation ... Ballard unused. Your test. . Nails are the most important
complication of premature treatment in newborns in terms of physical maturation ...Beautiful oxygen retinopathy
(ROP)
- Important risk factor in newborn. seen . prematurity
The most common site of intracranial hemorrhage in neonates. . . Germinal matrix SGA decreases the risk of
occurrence in infants ... RDS is the most common apnea in premature infants. .. Convulsive apnea Not used in the
treatment of apnea. . . Calcium Type of birth trauma which does not increase in babies of diabetic mothers. . . Head
Traumas What is the most common cause of SLE in infants?Discoid rash 'SLE' mother is responsible for what is in the
heart block in the baby .. Anti-
SSA (anti-Ro), AntiSS-B (anti-La) The most common fractured bone at birth ...kıavikul to. _
The most important risk factor for BPD ...Prematurity The most common cause of jaundice in the first 24 hours after
birth. .. Isoimmunization (such as Rh and ABO) - What to do in pregnancy to the mother in Rh nonconformity ...
Rhogam (anti-D immunoglobulin) The first sign of Kernicterus ...Reduction in absorption Fetomaternal bleeding is
detected by which test. .. Kleihauer-Betke test The most common cause of hemolytic diseases in newborns. . .ABO
nonconformity Which test is not needed to determine the etiology in term neonates with pathological jaundice? ... Apt
test
Where does hematapoez begin first?Yolk salk
In which newborn we can distinguish between mother and infant blood in upper GIS bleeding.APT test - the most
common cause of thrombocytopenia in newborn ...Anne
ITP 'Limit of polycythemia in newborn. . .65% in central venous blood
and over
- Polycythemia + hematuria + abdominal mass ...Rena vein
thrombosis - the most common cardiac in infants of diabetic mothers
anomaly. . . VSD Image of eli waiter's hand anda in newborn ...Erb-Duchenne paralysis The most valuable method in
the diagnosis of hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy. . . EEG 'is an intervention that is suitable to be performed in a
hypotonic baby born in Meconium ... Endotracheal intubation and
aspiration The most important complication of oligohydramniosis in newborn infants ...Pulmonary hypoplasia - Drug
used in adult resuscitation and not used in neonatal resuscitation. . .Atropine is the most important disease in the
differential diagnosis of RDS ...Group B streptecoccal pneumonia 'Neonatal hypoxia test without improvement
...Persistent fetal circulation and congenital heart disease - Persistent pulmonary hypertension which happens in
infants. ..Term and postterm SGA have no effect on the treatment of bronchopulmonary dysplasia in infants ... Prenatal
steroid treatment The most specific radiological finding of necrotizing enterocolitis. . . Pneumatosis intestinalis' The
most common cause of prolonged jaundice ...Breast milk jaundice
Low specificity test in ABO mismatch. . . Direct Coombs Glycogen storage disease is the most common hypoglycemia
in the newborn. . .Type I (VonGierke) The most common convulsive metabolic disorder in the first 3 days in the

newborn. .. Hypoglycemia - the most common cause of late hypocalcemia ...Increased phosphorus
burden What is missing in hypocalcemia unresponsive to calcium treatment ... M9 The most commonly injured cranial
nerve in traumatic delivery ... 7. Cranial nerve (facial) - High dose vitamin K does in preterm infants. ..
Hemol trace
: mums-em ',.
If the newborn has hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, intracranial calcification. . . Congenital toxoplasmosis' Intracranial
calcificate in congenital CMV infection
tion. . .The most common heart anomaly in periventricular congenital rubella ... PDA is the most common FM finding
of congenital rubella infection. .. Petechia and purpura
The most common ocular finding in congenital rubella infection. .. Cataract
Skin scar, limb hypoplasia, muscle atrophy, rudimentary finger ... Congenital chickenpox
- Contraindicated in maternal genital herpes infection ... NSVY childbirth - rhinitis in the newborn baby and bloody
discharge from the nose ...
Congenital syphilis Which examination findings are not present in newborn meningitis. .. Neck stiffness
The most common cause of neonatal meningitis ... Str. agalactiae
The first sign of neonatal tetanus ... Decrease in absorption In the newborn period (0-1 months), acute meningitis is the
most common cause ... Group B streptococcus
The most common cause of sacral agenesis ... Diabetic mother
- 24-hour term newborn brought with the complaint of non-stool posterior fontanelle and umbilical hernia is found to
be 2 cm. This baby should be considered primarily what ... Congenital hypothyroidism)
Which convulsion is not seen in the newborn ...Febrile and generalized tonic-clonic The most common cause of
abdominal mass in the newborn. .. Renal pathology (hydronephrosis) Which does not cause microcephaly ...
Hyperthyroidism The cause of ambiguus genitalia in both boys and girls ... 3 beta-OH steroid dehydrogenase
deficiency - the most common cause of male pseudohermaphroditism. .. testicular
Feminization No risk factor for sudden infant death syndrome. .. Pacifier use To prevent bleeding due to vitamin K
deficiency that may be seen in newborn babies ... The baby is given 1 mg intramuscular vitamin K after birth. Causes
of hypocalcemia in the newborn. .. Maternal diabetes, Maternal anticonvulsant use, Prematurity, Hypomagnesemia -
Eye findings of congenital Rubella ... Cataract
, Microphthalmia, Glaucoma, Retinopathy A baby who was born with a normal vaginal weight of 4000 grams, is
unable to move his right arm after birth. Physical examination shows that the baby holds the right arm in extension
and internal rotation, that the tonus is low and Moro reflex is absent; however, there is no pain in the baby during
passive movements.
_ SNAZIRUK CENTERS
This baby should be considered first. .. Brachial plexus injury on the affected side - Non-hemolytic indirect
hyperbilirubinemia syndromes in the newborn. .. Gilbert, Criggler- Najjar
Treatment of the baby who presented with pathological jaundice at the 12th hour of life. .. Start phototherapy, follow
the bilirubin level.
Treatment of transient tyrosinemia of the newborn Vitamin C 85—90% of infants with CMV infection are
asymptomatic at birth. Skin findings that disappear spontaneously over time in the newborn ...... Mongol blemishes,
Harlequin blemishes, Cutis marmorata, Toxic erythema Related to physiological jaundice in premature and term
infants ... Bilirubin daily increase rate does not exceed 5 mg / dL in both groups, jaundice improves later in premature
infants, indirect bilirubin peak in premature infants is 15 mg / dL, bilirubin levels in premature infants 6-8. reaches the
maximum value in days. One-month-old male infant, who had no fever with cough that started 3 weeks after birth, was
found to have tachypnea and crepitant rales on physical examination and eosinophilia with Ienfocytosis on hemogram.
Chlamydia trachomatis
Risk factors for transient tachypnea of the newborn ...
Polycythemia, Prematurity, Inertial cesarean delivery, Presence of maternal asthma Risk factors for the development of
necrotizing enterocolitis in mature newborn ... Perinatal asphyxia, Congenital heart disease, Down syndrome,
Hirschsprung's disease Conditions that directly increase bilirubin in neonates ... Intrauterine infection, al — Antitrypsin
deficiency, Bile duct scarcity, Galactosemia
Chorionic villus sampling which is used in prenatal diagnosis is done during the gestational weeks ... 10-12 Causes of
Hypercalcemia ... Subcutaneous fat necrosis, Multiple endocrine neoplasia Type 1, Infantile hypophosphatasia,
Overdose of vitamin D intake
The least specific investigation in the diagnosis of neonatal sepsis ... Erythrocyte sedimentation rate The most

appropriate approach for the treatment of a baby with sigh breathing after birth and having a heart beat of 50 / minute
is the most appropriate approach in the first stage. Making positive pressure ventilation Antibiotic therapy
recommended to be started empirically to a baby with suspected early neonatal sepsis, considering the possibility of
rational drug use and resistance ... Ampicillin + Gentamicin
Conditions that may cause seizures in the first 4 days of the newborn period ... Pridoxin Deficiency, Galactosemia,
Hypocalcemia, Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy Considering the first 24-hour postnatal period in the first 24 hours
after birth, despite the routine antiepileptic drug treatment and recurrent clonic and myoclonic seizures due to recurrent
clonic and myoclonic seizures should be considered as a priority to be considered as a priority prognosis and favorable
intervention. affecting situation ... Vitamin-dependent epilepsies
'A newborn with amniotic fluid in hemorrhagic appearance, low Apgar score, poor spontaneous breathing and pale skin
color at birth is thought to be the etiology ... Vascular anomaly of placenta, Ablatio placenta, Umbilical cord rupture,
Umbilical cord vascular anomaly
Causes of premature anemia ...Repeated snow intake for tests Rapid growth, shorter erythrocyte life, PaOz in neonatal
period, higher than fetal period Findings not seen in linear nevus syndrome ... Aortic coarctation
Major risk factors that can cause jaundice in term newborn infants ... History of phototherapy in his brother, Cephalic
hematoma, Maternal Far East Asian, Jaundice onset in the first 24 hours' Causes of hydrops fetalis ...Intrauterine
parvovirus infection, Fetomaternal hemorrhage, Mediastinal teratoma, Gaucher's disease
Postmenstrual week of the first Screening for retinopathy of a 24-week-born newborn ... 31 A 9-day-old infant born
3,300 weeks of spontaneous vaginal delivery via a 36-week-old 9-day infant has been reported to have been very
restless for the last 24 hours, constantly crying and decreased sucking and jaundice and the best choice for empirical
antimicrobial treatment of an infant with abundant leukocytes, leukocyte clusters and motile bacteria in urine
microscopy in all areasAmpicillin + Aminoglycoside
A 38-week-old infant admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit after resuscitation in the delivery room is expected to
develop during the follow-up of a newborn whose first measured rectal body temperature is 34.5 ° C. hypoglycemia
The most probable diagnosis for a baby with purpuric rashes in the body of a 5-day-old baby with intrauterine growth
retardation and with subependimal periventricular calcifications on cranial imaging with thrombocytopenia on
laboratory examination is the most probable diagnosis. Congenital cytomegalovirus infection
GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT
In which month the newborn reaches 2 times the birth weight. .. 5 months 2 times, 12 months 3 times, 2 years 4 times
It is learned that a four-month-old baby weighing 7 kg is exclusively breastfed and has a birth weight of 3,300 kg.
What should be recommended to the family to feed this baby ...Kraniotabes continue to give breast milk only, which is
normal until the month ... What it looks at the first 3 months of routine newborn screening in Turkey. .
.Hypothyroidism, phenylketonuria, biotinidase deficiency The first sign of puberty in men ...Increase in testicular
volume (in girls). The earliest detected sinuses at birth ... Ethmoid and maxillary sinuses.
The cause of non-pathological short stature with late lengthening. . . constitutional
The most common cause of disproportionate pathological short stature ... Achondroplasia
The most common reason for referring to a doctor in Turner syndrome. . . Short stature
Long stature, arachnodacty, aortic aneurysm ... Marfan syndrome Findings suggesting physical abuse ...Clinical
features of pediatric DiGeorge syndrome with burns on bilateral stockings. .. Ear anomalies, Neonatal hypocalcemia,
Aortic arch anomaly, Thymic hypoplasia
Microdeletion syndromes ... Prader-Willi syndrome, Angelman syndrome, DiGeorge syndrome, Williams syndrome
Disproportionate short stature + dome palate + low nape hairline + mane neck + nipple separation ... Turner Sedrom
A situation that requires further examination of a child's development ... 15 -18. In the months of 5-10 objects can not
point with his finger, 30 months can not do two-digit commands, 36 months can not express what they want by name
'A twenty-month-old baby's expected developmental stages ... To be able to say one word, to make a tower with 3-4
cubes, to know one or several body parts, to show their wishes with index finger
The frequency of child health monitoring ... 18-36. every 6 months
What a 12-month-old baby can't ...Show body parts
NUTRITION
At first age which food is not given ...Honey (risk of botulism) In infants who are not breastfed, which trace element is
deficient. . .Zinc Bifidus factor effective ...E.coIi What a little ... Fat and lactose
Combined with an intrinsic factor, it is absorbed from the ileum. Sialocobalamin (Vitamin BIZ) Vitamin is taken
inactive with diet and then converted into active form in liver, then kidney ...Vitamin D is missing from Pellegrada ...
B3 (niacin)

Diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, death ... 83 (niacin) Anorexia, restlessness, seborrheic dermatitis and pseudotumor
cerebri which vitamin surplus ... Avitamin is the first sign of vitamin A deficiency ... Night blindness Pseudotumor
cerebri in which vitamin deficiency and excess occurs ... Vitamin A
Mainly controlling the release of intrinsic factor ... Vitamin BIZ
Pseudoparalysis or frog position in which vitamin deficiency happens ... C vitamin
Thiamine deficiency. . . Beriberi
, TASS, PREPARATION'S CENTER *? "füsmm

- Which vitamins in polyuria, polydipsia, constipation, irritability
in the absence. . . Vitamin D
The cause of fatty liver in protein-energy malnutrition. ..Inability to bind triglycerides to apoproteins
Formaminoglutamic occurs in urine deficiency. . . Folic acid acid excretion of vitamins which causes metaplasia in the
epithelium. .. Vitamin A
- What vitamin deficiency in a child fed with goat's milk
would ... Folic acid
- What vitamins are given to the baby fed with breast milk ...
Vitamin D
Anti-oxidant vitamin ... Vitamin E
Vitamin BIZ is the most sensitive test to detect deficiency. .. Increased methylmalonic acid in urine
What factors are affected by vitamin K deficiency ... 2.7, 9, 10
Total parenteral nutrition is most often the lack of trace elements which ...Zinc
Vitamin that causes hemolysis in newborn deficiency. ..Vitamin E
Vitamin deficiency thrombosis in newborn ...Vitamin E
- Vitamin deficiency in blind loop syndrome ... Vitamin
BIZ - Vitamin involved in collagen synthesis ... C vitamin
- Prolonged diarrhea deficiency vitamin ... | <vitamin
~ Acid in folic family which is given recurrent pregnancy which neural vitamin tube defect is given ...
In the mother's Akroderm atitis enteropatika which element is missing. .. Zinc
The cause of convulsions in infant fed constantly cow's milk ... hypocalcemia
Which element is deficient is immune deficiency ... Cu (copper) Menkes disease. .. What should be considered
primarily in the presence of calcium-resistant hypocalcemia in a newborn infant in Cu (copper) deficiency ...
Hypomagnesemia In pregnancy, which vitamin deficiency neural tube defects Y0 | opens... Folic acid Parathyroid
hormone levels increase secondary to hypocalcemia developing in nutritional rickets The condition that the mother
should not breastfeed her baby ... Active herpetic lesion in the breast The steps in the World Health Organization's
Adım 10 Steps for Successful Breastfeeding öneril recommendations ... The baby and the mother in the same room for
24 hours, unless the baby is not given food ready for medical reasons, as a result of vitamin A excess ... Anorexia
Contraindicated in breastfeeding congenital metabolic hGSfdllk --- Galactosemia 3-month-old baby boy starting 1
month after cessation of breast milk cheeks, mouth, eye area, hand
Mineral deficiency responsible for the clinical picture of a patient with bullous, pustular and dry lesions in the foot and
diaper region, with bilefaritis, conjunctivitis, corneal opacity and photophopia on eye examination ... Clinical signs and
symptoms of zinc 312 deficiency ... Hypotonia, Restlessness, Growth retardation, Paresthesia Findings of vitamin A
deficiency ... Benign migratory glaucite, Subperiostal hemorrhage, Megaloblastic anemia, Hypopigmentation
Findings of vitamin B1 deficiency ...Peripheral neuropathy - A newborn term related to breastfeeding a baby ... Mother
and newborn stay in the same room. With malnutrition definitions, i | gi | i ...Gomez classification is 80% of the ideal
weight by age is a mild nutritional disorder. In the Waterlow classification, 72% of the ideal weight compared to the
dye is moderate malnutrition.
A six-month-old girl was hospitalized for severe malnutrition and pneumonia. Antibiotic treatment was started and
enteral nutrition was planned to be started. Potassium, Magnesium, Phosphorus
Tract
'Most common esophageal atresia type ...Proximal atresia — distal
fistula - diagnosis if cyanosis, cough, regurgitation and breathing difficulty during feeding ... Esophageal atresia The
gold standard diagnostic test for gastroesophageal reflux. .. 24-hour pH monuterization - The most sensitive diagnostic
test in Akalazy ...esophageal
manometer

Most common diaphragmatic hernia. . . Bochdalek, located in the left posterolateral Three weeks after birth, vomiting,
hypochloremic loss of weight and dehydration alkalosis detected in 6-week-old male and infant brought to diagnose
which method is primarily bOSVl-lf'tl'malldl '. .. Ultrasonography (Pyloric stenosis should be considered first.)
Double-bouble (gas distension of the stomach and proximal duodenum) in which disease ... Duodanel atresia
The most important complication of Hirschprung's disease ... Enterocolitis Small left colon in which infants ... biqbetik
mother baby The most common GIS anomaly ...Meckel's diverticulum Omphalomesenteric canal closure defect ...A
Meckler | diverticulum The most common ectopic tissue found in Meckel's diverticulum ... Gastric Meckel
diverticulum is the most common clinical finding. .. Intermittant, painless rectal bleeding
5,31 ms OFFICE LENSES
Diagnosis in Meckel's diverticulum ... _Sintigraphy is the most common cause of acute abdomen under 2 years ...
Invagination The most common invagination site ... Ileocecal region The most valuable diagnostic method in
invagination ... USG is the most specific and sensitive antibody in celiac disease. Anti-endomisium IgA What is done
for definitive diagnosis in celiac ... Small bowel biopsy The most common congenital disaccharidase deficiency ...
Sucrose-isomaltase
The most common cause of carbohydrate malabsorption ... Lactose intolerance What is not seen in Reye's syndrome ...
Rey: The most common cause of like-syndrome ...Fatty acid oxidation defects
The most common cause of cholestasis in children ... Extrahepatic biliary atresia The most common indication for liver
transplantation in children ... Extrahepatic biliary atresia The cause of postsynusoidal portal hypertension in childhood.
. .Budd-Chiari syndrome is the definitive diagnosis of Wilson's disease ... KC biopsy
The earliest neurological finding in Wilson's disease. .. Salivary secretion inability to swallow (mouth drooling)
Kayser-Fleischer ring. . . Wilson's disease
The most common cause of massive splenomegaly in children ... The most common hemolytic disease that
...Hereditary spherocytosis Spontaneous splenic rupture is the most common disease ... EMN The most common cause
of gastroenteritis in children ... Endocrine causes of constipation in children with rotavirus. hypothyroidism and
hyperparathyroidism The most pronounced damage in acetaminophen poisoning is in which organ. .. Liver In a child
with painless defecation in the form of red jelly, hemoglobin 5.3 g / dl is the most likely diagnosis ... Massive lower
Gis hemorrhage (Meckel's Diverticulum) The most likely diagnosis in an 8-month-old infant with chronic diarrhea,
growth retardation, bullous lesions in the mouth and perianal region, and low plasma zinc levels ..... Acrodermatitis
enteropathica hypergammaglobulinemia is a common finding, immune system disorder ..... Chronic granulomatous
disease In Wilson's disease, primarily the cellular structure involved ... Findings suggesting Hirschsprung's disease in a
child with mitochondria constipation ... Delayed removal of meconium The most common cause of acute liver failure
in children ... Use of high-dose acetaminophen
Criteria for cyclic vomiting syndrome ... Occurring at least 1 week apart, lasting from 1 hour to 10 days
severe nausea and vomiting attacks, return to the health status between attacks before the attack, the number of
vomiting during attacks at least ”4 per hour, no other disease that can explain the attacks A child with chronic and
recurrent abdominal pain is more likely to be functional ... Periumbilical pain.
Malabsorption and congenital diarrhea leading to a very low st ... Congenital glucose-galactose malabsorption
Findings expected to be seen in a 3-year-old girl who were accidentally taking 200 mg / kg salicylic acid ... Seizure,
Hyperglycemia, Respiratory alkalosis, Nausea and vomiting
Characteristics of autoimmune hepatitis ... Arthritis, Vasculitis, Rash, Coombs positive anemia A 6-year-old girl with
chronic diarrhea, weight loss and growth retardation has to meet criteria for celiac disease. Total villous atrophy and
crypt hyperplasia, Ensuring clinical remission with gluten free diet
The most common cause of severe enterocolitis in patients diagnosed with AIDS is ... cytomegalovirus
The most likely diagnosis in a patient with diarrhea, nausea and vomiting, growth retardation, hypoalbuminemia,
Iymphocytopenia, low immunoglobulin levels, and fat in the feces of one leg is significantly thicker than the other.
Intestinal lymphangiectasia
Immediate diarrhea, which starts immediately after birth, is improved when the diarrhea improves when the serum is
inserted, but the diarrhea recurs when the diets begin, the reductant substance is positive in the stool, glucose is
detected despite the normal blood glucose and biopsy is the most probable diagnosis in the baby. Glucose — galactose
malabsorption
4-5 times a day soft or watery consistency, abundant, mucus-free, bloodless stool, weight loss after receiving
additional food is the most likely diagnosis ... Celiac disease
Hepatomegaly, a decrease in school success, deterioration in speech, and meaningless fears, is the first test for the
diagnosis of heterogeneous liver with high AST and ALT values. Serum ceruloplasmin level

An 11-month-old baby girl was brought to the hospital for the third time in the last 3 months because of rectal
prolapse, and her mother learned that the baby had no constipation. Sweat test
A 4-year-old girl presented with diarrhea for about 1 month. Her history revealed no diarrhea at night. . Diarrhea may
be caused by giardicizis. Abdominal distension in the patient may be secondary to carbohydrate malabsorption. Zinc
supplementation may be beneficial. The patient has chronic diarrhea.
TUS PREPARATION CENTERS _ füsoame

NEUROLOGY
- Meningomyelocele is most commonly seen ... lumbosacral
region in hydrocephalus due to choroid plexus papilloma
treatment. . .Asetozalamid
The most important factor in the pathogenesis of cerebral palsy ... hypoxia
The most common type of cerebral palsy ...Spastic
Febrile convulsion is most common in which period. .. 5 months-5 years (New information 9 months— 5 years)
A febrile seizure type lasting more than 15 minutes ... Complicated frontal lobe localized 3 Hz spike wave which
happens in epilepsy. .. Absence Typical EEG finding of infantile spasm (West Syndrome). .. Hypersarrhythmia used to
treat infantile spasm ...ACTH Status is the most common cause of epilepticus. . .Discontinuation of anticonvulsant
drug Hyperacuzi in which disease happens ...Tay-Sacks and Krabbe
- Metachromatic A deficiency Leukodystrophy-deficient enzyme ... Aryl sulfatase - Mucopolysaccharidosis without
visual impairment ...Hunte
r
- Signs of ataxia, increased pigmentation and adrenal insufficiency in school age. . .Adrenolökodistrotî.
Sphingomyelinidase deficiency ... Niemann-Pick disease is the most commonly involved cranial nerve in multiple
sclerosis. Etiopathogenesis of optic neurofibromatosis. . .Migration disorders during neural crest cells during
embryonic development
The most common neurocutonous disease ... Neurofibromatosis
Adenoma sebaseum, convulsion, mental retardation ... Tuberous sclerosis The most common tumor in
neurofibromatosis type I ...Optic glioma is the most common tumor in neurofibromatosis type II.Acoustic neurinoma
(Schwannoma) Cardiac rhabdomyoma which happens in neurocutonous disease. . .Tuberous sclerosis
Neurocutonous syndrome without genetic transmission. .. Sturge- Weber Neurocutaneous disease characterized by
venous angioma, convulsion and contralateral hemiparesis in the face wine stain, pia mater. . .Sturge-Weber syndrome
Pes cavus, kyphoscoliosis, ataxia and cardiomyopathy ... Friedreich's ataxia Tongue fasciculation ... Spinal muscular
atroty
The most common hereditary neuromuscular disease ... Duchenne muscular dystrophy
3 tus PREPARATION CENTERS
- What disease does Gowers have?
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
- Pseudohypertrophy in Duchenne muscular dystrophy
where apparent. .. gastrocnemius
- Duchenne defect ... recessive in muscular X-linked dystrophy, Xp21
genetic transition and gene Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy separation. . .Dystrophy analysis
What is CSF in Guillian Barre Syndrome? Albuminocytological dissociation
Infantile spasm ... It is a type of epilepsy in which short-symmetrical muscle contractions occur in the neck, trunk and
extremities and hypipsarithmia is seen in EEG.
Severe hyponatremia + very high increase in head urinary trauma after sodium excretion on day 3 ... Cerebral salt loss
Stair hypertrophy + increased CPK level strain when exiting male + child ... gastroknemius Duchenne type muscular
dystrophy Advanced ... degree of spinal muscular hypotonic atrophy fasciculations of the tongue of the infant Seizure
types seen in neonatal period Tonic, Myoclonic, Multifocal clonic, Focal clonic (Generalized tonic — clonic is not
seen)
Tuberous sclerosis ..... Shows autosomal dominant transition
- Diagnosis in a child with normal intelligence and long stature, aortic dilatation and lens dislocation ..... Marfan
syndrome
Generalized epileptic seizure type without aura and postictal phase ... Absence epilepsy
A 18-month-old child, who was previously reported to be healthy, was brought to the emergency department with

complaints of fever, vomiting and diarrhea for 3 days. The cause of the seizure and the required laboratory
examination ... Fluid electrolyte disturbance-Serum electrolyte levels
The most probable diagnosis in a 4-year-old child with tumor in the posterior fossa ... medulloblastoma
In the case of overdose of midazolam used for sedation, the drug can be used as an antidote ... flumazenil
A 13-year-old girl's eye examination revealed a 15-year-old milky brown spot on her body, which was found to have
similar rashes on her mother's body. Lisch nodule 'A patient who had a history of walking due to difficulty in walking
and who had a history of walking at the age of 1.5 and whose physical examination revealed that the duck-like patient
had mild hypertrophic signs of walking gastrocnemius and Gower muscles and deep tendon reflexes could not be
excluded from the Achilles reflex and laboratory creatine kinase level was 10,000 IU / The most likely diagnosis and
deficiency for a three-year-old male patient identified as L is the protein ... Duchanne muscular dystrophy - Dystrophin
protein
:; tus candle
Long-term findings of kernicterus ... Seizure, Sensorineural hearing loss, Dysarthric speech, Choreoatethosis When
subdural hematoma and retinal hemorrhage are present, the finding suggestive of head trauma ...Diffuse axonal
damage The most probable diagnosis in a patient with splashing eye movements and walking imbalance, ataxia and
opsomyoclonus and calcified mass in the adrenal gland ...Neuroblastoma related to Fragile X syndrome ...Attention
deficit, hyperactivity disorder may carry signs, is characterized by triple nucleotide repeat increase, recurrent episodes
of acute otitis may occur, Characteristic findings include long face, large ears and high palate
Not talking to the teacher and friends, but with family members is very comfortable and chatty, and the most probable
diagnosis of a child who has not detected any other motor and language development ... Selective discord The most
probable diagnosis in a patient with a history of difficult birth, holding the left arm adjacent to the trunk and facing
inward after birth, unable to receive a moro reflex but receiving a palm-catching reHex. Erb — Duchenne paralysis
The most probable diagnosis and diagnostic examination in a baby with consanguineous marriage, no complications at
birth, immobile at 15 days of age, bilateral hip hip rotation, abdominal respiration, tongue fasciculation, and deep
tendon reflexes could not be obtained and serum creatine kinase value was normal. Spinal muscular atrophy - SMN1
gene analysis
Physical examination with headache and diplopia for several days revealed cranial nerve involvement and papillary
edema at the base of the eye. Lumbar puncture
The 9-year-old boy who learned to speak at a normal time from his history was most likely to have been brought to
life for a year because he had done so much wrong in his homework, didn't fully understand what was said, lost his
school bag and books several times, was constantly on the move, and had a frequent fight with friends and siblings.
diagnosis... Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder A nine-month-old boy was admitted with complaints of inability to
sit, crying with a weak voice, and immobility of the legs. a preliminary diagnosis for a learned patient and firstly
examination to be requested ... Werdnig-Hoffman's disease - DNA analysis for the SMN gene In an 18-month-old
child with normal development until one year of age, after this age, recurrent stroke episodes have begun and acidosis
and myopathy have been identified during the episodes. Mitochondrial diseases
Diseases characterized by triple nucleotide repeat increase ... Fragile X syndrome, Myotonic dystrophy, Huntington's
disease, Friedreich's ataxia
CARDIOLOGY
Which type of shock is most common in children ... Hypovolemic $ 2 is heard as a double in inspiration and as a
single sound in expiratory. .. Physiological mating
The paradox in 52 is the mating situation ... A case of constant mating in aortic stenosis SZ ...ASD is not an innocent
murmur ... Diastolic murmur,
Disease with a large pulse pressure ...PDA-Aortic insufficiency Venidia is the cause of heart failure ... Hypoplastic left
heart What should be applied first if arrhythmia develops in the treatment of heart failure. . . Digitally discontinued
Which treatment is not given to a child with PDA with heart failure. . . Prostoglandin - EINewborn that does not cause
heart failure ... Tetralogy of Fallot
The most common cause of hypertension in childhood. .. Renal pathologies
Which is not used in the treatment of hypertensive crisis ... prazosin
Congenital disease (intrauterine infection) is the most common cause of PDA. . .rubella
The age at which VSD closes most ... 0-2 years
What type of murmur is heard in congenital aortic stenosis? .. Right 2. Intercostal systolic ejection
Which drug is used to prevent syncope in tetralogy of Fallot. . .Propranolol
Disease in which femoral pulses cannot be taken ...Aortic coarctation Which disease is considered in a child with

hypoxic attack, cyanosis, and crouching relief?Tetralogy of Fallot What is the radiological finding of tetralogy of
Fallot ... Cardiomegaly + decrease in pulmonary vascularity Chest pain, fainting seizure, ST-T change in V5-Va on
ECG ...Aortic stenosis is the most common heart defect in Down syndrome. . .Endocardial cushion defect The most
common congenital heart disease in trisomy 21 patients. . .Atrioventricular septal defect The most commonly used
disease of the therapeutic catheter ... Pulmonary stenosis Which complication does not occur in tetralogy of Fallot ...
Heart failure Systolic ejection murmur on the left side of the sternum in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child suggests
which disease. . .ASD Pansystolic in the apex, murmur extending to the left and under the arm of the sternum,
diagnosis if accompanied by diastolic 53-54. . .Mitral insufficiency
What is the situation requiring emergency treatment in a child with tetralogy of Fallot? . .Cyanosis and anoxic seizure
What is congenital cyanotic heart disease which is the most common cause of heart failure under one year.TGA Early
diastolic murmur on the left side of the sternum suggests what. . .Aortic regurgitation What is the most important
complication of wide VSD? .. Pulmonary vascular disease - Which is cyanotic heart disease ...Eisenmenger
syndrome
It is the cause of continuous murmur. . .PDA
Sternum left 2. Diagnosis in the patient with intercostal murmur in the intercostal space, constant mating in the ...ASD
Which is not seen in severe pulmonary stenosis ... What is used in the treatment of pulmonary atresia?PGE1
Which is wrong ...What is the paradox mating finding in SZ that is not seen in aortic coarctation? Hill's sign Tetralogy
of Fallot unused in the treatment of hypoxic seizures. . . Digital The most common congenital heart disease ...VSD
Which is not useful in the diagnosis of isolated aortic arch anomaly. . .Telecardiogram What can be used to treat PDA
in a two-day premature baby. . .indomethacin
- What is the diagnosis in a patient with a decrease in sZ severity, ejection click on the left side of the sternum and
apex, 4/6 systolic ejection murmur on the right upper edge of the sternum? In aortic valve stenosis ECG, in which case
sharp, high and narrow P waves are seen. . . Congenital pulmonary stenosis Diagnosis if left ventricular hypertrophy is
detected in a 2-month-old cyanotic infant. . .Tricuspid atresia Which is not expected during hypoxic spell in a baby
with tetralogy of Fallot. . . Clarification of systolic murmur Asymptomatic 6-year-old boy had a systolic ejection
murmur on the left of the sternum, a prominent pulmonary contraction, and a diagnosis of RSR in the vi ...Pre-
operative drug in a 3-day-old baby with ASD Aortic coarctation . . PGEI The second heart sound in inspiration and
expiration in a healthy child ... Couple, Single Five year old boy being brought with complaints of leg pains after
exercise. On physical examination, her blood pressure was 130/85 mmHg and femoral pulses were weak.
M for this kid. . . Aortic coarctation In order to maintain pulmonary blood flow, the ductus arteriousus must remain
open.Severe pulmonary stenosis is the most common congenital heart disease in Turner syndrome. . . Bicuspid aorta
Which is a minor complication of VSD ...Bacterial endocarditis
What is the most common cardiac pathology in premature ...PDA
The five-month-old infant had frequent infection, growth retardation and left subclavicular murmur without cyanosis
and left ventricular hypertrophy. Diagnosis...PDA is a murmur of a cyanotic newborn with a decreased blood supply
to the lung and a QRS axis on the ECG of -60 degrees. . .Tricuspid atresia Which drug is used to close the ductus
arteriosus. . .indomethacin
What is the disease in which the vasculature of the vasculature decreases. . . Fallot tetraloj is constrictive pericarditis
often develops ... Tuberculosis pericarditis Myocardial infarction ...Doxorubicin Disease that does not cause
cardiomyopathy ...Methyl malonic acidemia The most useful laboratory method in the diagnosis of pericardial
effusion. . . Echocardiography Which does not cause ventricular tachycardia. .. Contraindicated drug group in
adolescents with restrictive CMP hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a ... Digital preparations The most common tumor in
the heart ...Rhabdomyoma Treatment of a patient with diastolic murmur in the apex, arthritis of the knee joint. .
.Penicillin, aspirin, bed rest The most common cause of mitral regurgitation ...CALL
In which disease do Aschoff bodies appear? ARA Which is not the cause of surgery in children with infective
endocarditis. . . SVT
Cardiac disease in which nuclear medicine techniques do not benefit. . . Bacterial endocarditis is not a sign of infective
endocarditis ...Rise in C3
The most common ECG sign of ARA ...PR elongation Carey-Coombs murmur. . . Mardiastolic murmur in the apex is
not a sign of ARA ...Erythema nodosum is not a minor finding of ARA ... | <ore Which is the most common valve
involvement of ARA ...Mitrai insufficiency in patients with ARA, cardiomegaly and apex 3/6 systolic murmur in the
treatment of ... Benzatin penicillin, steroid, rest Infective endocarditis prolylaxis is unnecessary in which. . . Secundum
ASD Subacute bacterial endocarditis causing strep. Where is the primary focus of viridans ... oropharynx
In case of infective endocarditis following tooth extraction, which factor is considered first ... $ trep. viridans

Which is one of the minor criteria of ARA ... Prolonged PR on ECG. The most appropriate treatment in ARA
prophylaxis .. -34 weeks IM benzatin penicillin 6 A 14-year-old patient with QRs 0.14 mm wide diagnosis ... $ ol
branch block is not an ECG sign of hyperpotasemia ...U wave ECG findings of right ventricular hypertrophy ...Right
axis deviation Heart catheterization should not be done. Bacterial endocarditis
What can be considered if the QT distance in ECG is long. Hypocalcemia What is considered as physiological
dysrhythmia. . . Sinusal arrhythmia
Which extends pr ... What is the ECG finding of ARA Hyperpotasemia ... high, pointed T
Which doesn't show long QT ...Hyponatremia What is the unexpected situation of sinus bradycardia ... Anemia Which
is not a sign of hyperpotasemia ... Constriction in ORS, shortening of PR interval In a 6-year-old healthy child, a 2 ° /
6 ° systolic murmur is heard in the pulmonary vow, and a steady pairing of the second heart sound is heard. .. Atrial
septal defect stenosis decreased pulmonary due to tetralogy of Fallot component.
blood stream... Pulmonary
In tetralogy of Fallot, it is the most commonly used drug in the long term to prevent hypersyanatic seizures. Beta-
blockers A 2-day-old baby born prematurely does not have cyanosis on physical examination and has a continuous
murmur in the left subclavicular region during ascension.
The most likely diagnosis for this baby with increased pulse ..... Patent ductus arteriosus I - The drug of choice in the
treatment of this baby. Indomethacin Cyanosis expected in congenital heart diseases in the Venetian period ...
Transposition of the great arteries, Truncus - arteriosus, Tricuspid atresia, Pulmonary atresia without ventricular septal
defect A 6-year-old patient presented with complaints of rapid fatigue. hypertrophy findings and rsR pattern in right
precordial leads are the most probable diagnosis ... Secundum atrial septal defect In a neonate born spontaneously
vaginally, cyanosis, acidosis and rapid respiration are detected on the first day of life, and when the oxygen saturation
does not increase significantly in the hypoxia test, the first disease to be considered ... Transposition of the great
arteries
A seven-year-old boy falls after a collision while playing football, and when the child develops a loss of
consciousness, it is necessary to reenact the cardioversion pulse ... Pulse-free time ventricular tachycardia
The most common electrocardiographic finding during hospitalized cardiac arrest in children ... Asystole - In a 3-year-
old child with superficial respiration, capillary filling time> 3 seconds, bradycardia (50 beats / minute) and arterial
blood gas hypoxia
Epinephrine application, Intubated respiratory support, Oxygen administration
A 3-year-old patient with no symptoms had a mild heart sound and a 4 ° / 6 ° systolic ejection murmur on the left
upper margin. . Pulmonary stricture congenital heart diseases expected to develop Eisenmenger syndrome ... Trunkus
arteriosus, Patent ductus arteriosus, Atrial septal defect, Ventricular septal defect findings in children with heart failure
... Eyelid edema in infants, anorexia and abdominal pain in older children, wheezing in lung ascultation, detection of
cardiomegaly on telecardiography
A 12-year-old girl who presented with sudden palpitation of heart palpitations was the first drug to be used in the
treatment of a child with supraventricular tachycardia. Adenosine One of the major criteria used in the diagnosis of
bacterial endocarditis ... Valve vegetation on echocardiography Cyanotic congenital heart disease with decreased
pulmonary blood flow ... Tricuspid atresia
- A six-year-old male patient presented with hypovolemic shock due to acute gastroenteritis. Hypotension Conditions
that may lead to sudden death during exercise ... Abnormal saline coronary artery, Dilated cardiomyopathy,
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, Long QT syndrome - related to toxic effects of digoxin used in the treatment of heart
failure in children ... Since the serum treatment level of digoxin is close to the toxic level, toxicity can easily develop.
Two to three weeks ago, she had a feverish upper respiratory tract infection, palpitation, weakness, pain and swelling
in her joints, and physical examination revealed a body temperature of 38.6 oc and a 90 ° / min. 16-year-old patient
without pathology is the most probable for the patient ... Acute rheumatic fever Increases due to disruption of tissue
perfusion in a patient in shock ...Lactate The most likely diagnosis in a patient with intermittent syncope attacks,
generalized tonic seizures and a family history of sudden death ... Long QT Syndrome Antidote not to be used with
intoxications with anticholinergics.Atropine
SupravenTricular Tachycardia Treatment Vagal warning
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation in children is contraindicated for routes of drug administration ... intracardiac
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation in childrenIntra-bone, Peripheral vein, $ anTral vein, EndoTracheal
The most suitable prophylactic approach for a child with artificial heart valve to be treated for tooth damage ... Single

dose oral amoxicillin 50 mg / kg given 30-60 minutes before the procedure Risk Factors in a Patient with Deep Vein
Thrombosis ... AnTiTrombin deficiency, ProTein C deficiency, Factor VIII elevation, ProTein S deficiency
Frequent and forced breathing, short sucking off, inability to gain weight Tachypnea, dyspnea, tachycardia and
hepaTomegaly sapTan mesocardiac focusTa 3 ° / 6 ° severity PansisToikik murmur The most probable diagnosis in the
newborn diagnosed ... VenTricular septal defect
Increased incidence of MiTraI valve prolapse is expected ... OsTeogenesis imperfecta, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome,
PekTus exkavaTum, Marfan syndrome
In children and adolescents, screening for dyslipidemia ... The father is a high-risk group with myocardial infarction
before the age of 55 years, and the high-risk group with a parent's ToTal cholesterol value above 240 mg / dL
Aquatic rheumatic a ... Pancardia is seen in the acute phase, Sydenham's chorea is a major symptom that occurs late in
the period. Erectema marginina, a major finding, is not expected to be seen on the face. Subcutaneous nodular is a rare
major finding.
An 8-year-old boy with fainting complaints was found to have a sudden death of his uncle at a very young age. His
physical examination was normal and sinus rhythm was detected on electrocardiography. QT distance measurement
Thirteen-year-old girl has a special education due to menstrual reintardation, she has had chest pain, physical
examination, thick lips, wide mouth and high eyebrow line, and continuous laughing has a pronounced focus on the
aorT, the murmur of echocardiography and the supravalvular aberration of the echocardiography. The most likely
diagnosis for hasTa ...Williams syndrome
RESPIRATORY
The most common cause of acute epigloth ...H. influenzae Type B
1-year-old child with a sudden cough-style coughThe most likely diagnosis ...Aquatic spasmodic |
It can cause nonproducive cough, fever, circle, pneumonia and hypona ...Legionella pneumonia
- The most common cause of infant in the first months is the following. .. laryngomalacia
Tus Preparation Centers
Sudden developing respiratory distress, decrease in breathing sounds, chest X-ray in the lungs in excess of ventilation
and shift to the opposite side What is the diagnosis ... Aspiration of Vabancı
What is the substance that reduces alveolar surface tension and prevents collapse. . .surfactant
Repetitive sTridor cause ... Allergic croup - Which does not cause chronic cough ...Alpha-1
anTiTripsin deficiency - What is the most probable diagnosis if there is an anterior mediasTinal chi in the appearance
of sailing on the chest radiograph of a 3-month-old baby. . .PersisTan Thymus Which is not a sign of inTraThoracic
obsTructive lung disease ... Shorter inspiration time
- Which causes recurrent or persisTan wheezing
No way. . . Chronic sinusitis
- Which is not a complication of AsTım aT ...
pneumonia
Which is not one of the causes of persistent cough ... Pulmonary embolism
- What factor increases the purity in congenital diaphragmatic hernia? . .Hypoplasic lung
- What is coexistence of pulmonary hypoplasia?
Bochdaleck hernia
- Delay in meconium output, a history of sibling death and a baby with lung infectionTe Diagnosis which is useful for
TesT ... Ter TesTi
What is the inheritance form of KisTic fibrosis ...OTozomaI recessive
Meconium ileus is detected in the infant, which is primarily considered disease. . .Cystic fibrosis
A 5-year-old child who had measles and whooping cough two years ago was diagnosed with fatigue, pronounced
cough and sputum in the morning for a year.bronchiectasis'
The most common complication of staphylococcal pneumonia in children. .. Empyema Children have abundant
phlegm, frequent recurrent lung infection, siTus inversus and sinusitis which suggests disease ... KarTagener syndrome
The most common reason for presenting to children with Cystic fibrosis. . .Acute or recurrent pulmonary findings -
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in pleurisy ...
Pneumococcus - The cause of Löffler pneumonia ...Ascaris lumbricoides
The most common cause of primary lung abscess. .. Aspiration of oropharyngeal secretion
Characterization of intra-alveolar foamy eosinophilic material and interstitial mononuclear cell infiltration.
PnömosisTis carinii
The most common viral cause of nosocomial pneumonia ... RespiraTuvar sneaky virus KisTic fibrosisTe which is not

seen ... Hemolytic anemia
Diagnosis of a child with cough, abundant phlegm extraction and clubbing ... bronchiectasis
What is the most useful diagnostic method for diagnosing bronchiectasis? . .Thorax computed tomography
The diagnosis of nasal polyps and rectal prolapse in a 4-year-old child with growth retardation and frequent lung
infection is ... Cystic Fibrosis It is not one of the signs and symptoms of cystic fibrosis. .. Cytopenia What is the most
commonly involved organ in childhood sarcoidosis ... Pulmonary for Tuberculosis. not true...PPD positivity indicates
active infection
Which disease should be considered first in pleural exudate with yellow color and lymphocyte predominance ...
Tuberculosis The most common microorganism in the etiology of bronchiolitis in infants. . .Respiratory syncytial virus
A child with bronchial asthma. .. Dry cough, Wheezing, Shortness of breath, Chest compression Principles of acute
bronchiolitis treatment ... Removal of bronchial obstruction, Correction of hypoxemia and acidosis, Prevention of
potential cardiac complications, Treatment of secondary bacterial infections Cough and respiratory difficulty in a 35-
day-old baby girl + history of vaginal delivery and bilateral conjunctivitis. .. Chlamydia trachomatis
- High fever, exidative tonsillitis, splenomegaly, ALT and
Slight increase in AST ... Infectious mononucleosis
A 3-year-old boy who presented with growth retardation and chronic diarrhea was found to have fat 3+, fatty acid 1+,
pH 6, reducing agent (-). The most likely diagnosis ... Cystic fibrosis
Possible diagnoses in a patient with a history of wheezing .... Bronchial asthma, Gastroesophageal reflux, Cystic
fibrosis, Bronchiolitis obliterans (Wheezing is not expected in pleural effusion) In a child with cervical trauma, the
need to do to open the airway ... Jaw push maneuver
In foreign body aspirations, the anatomical structure where the object is most frequently attached ... Right main
bronchus
A 15 - year - old patient with sudden respiratory distress and general condition was impaired. On physical
examination, respiratory sounds decreased on one side and hyperresonance in percussion. The most probable diagnosis
for a patient whose heart trauma was found to be normal and in which the trachea was shifted and neck veins became
apparent ... Blood pressure pneumothorax Causes of pulmonary hemosiderosis ... Wegener's granulomatosis, Mitral
stenosis, Celiac disease, Heiner _ syndrome A 5-year-old male patient was brought to the hospital because of a long
nose obstruction and a physical examination revealed a polyp in the nostril. Chronic sinusitis, Asthma, Cystic fibrosis,
Allergic rhinitis
Prophylaxis with RSV monoclonal antibody during respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) season ... 0-6 months old babies
with gestational age 29-32 weeks, chronic lung disease and oxygen supplementation younger than 2 years old, babies
with cyanotic heart disease less than 2 years old, babies 0-12 months old with gestational age less than 28 weeks
A two-year-old boy was brought to our hospital because of sudden respiratory distress. He had no history of
complaints, but suddenly started coughing about 1 hour ago. The most likely diagnosis for a patient ... Foreign body
aspiration She was admitted with complaints of fever, restlessness, neck pain, inability to mouth feed and drooling, and
was diagnosed with acute tonsillopharyngitis 3 days before her history and antibiotic treatment was started. The most
probable diagnosis in a three-year-old boy who was found to have torticollis and ... Retropharyngeal abscess Cough,
runny nose, recurrent upper respiratory infections, serous otitis; Pulmonary examination revealed ral and rhonchi,
polycystic kidney disease and a family history of similar symptoms.Primary ciliary dyskinesia Oxygen delivery
method that achieves the highest oxygen concentration in respiratory distress in children ... Oxygen mask with non-
breathing reservoir
RHEUMATOLOGY
It's not the diagnostic criterion of Kawasaki disease ... Splenomegaly is not one of the findings of Henoch-schönlein
purpura ... Leukopenia What do you think of a patient with urethritis, arthritis and conjunctivitis ... Reiter syndrome 'is
not a sign of Systemic JRA ... Iridocyclitis ANA height is not observed ... Which of the types of Behçet's disease JRA
has the highest risk of chronic uveitis. .. ANA positive oligoarticular type is not one of the diagnostic criteria in SLE ...
Alopecia Abdominal pain, petechial rash on lower extremities and complete platelet count. .. Henoch-Schönlein
purpura What is not seen in Henoch-Schönlein purpura ... Thrombocytopenia is not a vasculitis group. . .Tuberous
sclerosis Diagnosis if there is redness of the eyelids (heliotrope), weakness of the proximal muscles and creatine kinase
is high with SGOT, SGPT. . . Dermatomyositis is not one of the diagnostic criteria of Kawasaki disease. . .Common
Ienfadenopathy is not one of the diagnostic criteria of Kawasaki disease ... Purulent conjunctivitis No chromosome
analysis is necessary in achondroplasia ... Diagnosed by dysmorphic findings on physical examination Conditions
related to juvenile dermatomyositis ... Calcinosis, Gower's sign, Vasculitis, Lipodystrophy In addition to ANA
positivity in a patient with pre-diagnosis of systemic Iurpus erythematosus, laboratory tests that should be requested

for definitive diagnosis ... Urinary findings such as lupus anticoagulant positivity, hematuria and cylinduria
. y,: _TUS ”.PREP-CENTER)!"5 3TI
RUDE DISEASES AND IMMUNIZATION
- Which vaccine has convulsions?pertussis
'Immun immunodeficiency is not given to the child of the child ...Live vaccine
- Which vaccine should not become pregnant for 3 months. .. Rubella (No: this period went down to 28 days) -
Pregnancy which vaccines are not given ...Live virus vaccines
- After 7 years of contraindicated vaccine ...pertussis
- Which vaccines can be given orally ...Polio and roTa virus
Intradermal vaccination. . . BCG - Immunosuppressive Treatment
should be done ... 3 months
6 - 8 days after the injection of the vaccine ... Measles
- Which is the most common complication of mumps. ..
Meningitis - Which is the most common complication of chickenpox ... Secondary bacterial skin infections
Which is the most common neurological complication of chickenpox. . . Cerebellar aTaxis Influenza vaccine where
effective ...of hemaqt
Hepatitis B vaccine is not given to ...
SubacuT Sclerosing panencephalyT is a complication of infection. .. Measles
Causes of erythema nodosum in children. . ._ Tuberculosis, Sarcoidosis, Lymphoma, PheniToin use, Inflammation.
A healthy 5-year-old child who had not been vaccinated against chickenpox, had contacted a child with chickenpox 3
days later Chickenpox vaccine A four-month-old girl has a maculopapular rash that occurs after a 3-day high fever
fall, with complaints of loss of appetite and weakness, and after the history of the rash that begins on the body of the
neck, face, top, and aIT, which can be exacerbated ... Human Herpes virus Type 6
Oral interstitial parasites ... BalanTidium, EnTamoeba, Giardia, CrypTosporidium The most effective combination of
antibiotics used in the treatment of brucellosis in children older than eight years ... Doxycycline and aminoglycoside
In a patient diagnosed with septic shock, the substance that shows the activity by increasing the activity of the enzymes
in the cell membrane in the correction of Iacic acidemia ... epinephrine
Vaccine applications not recommended situations ... Live vaccine during pregnancy, 15 days z 2 mg / kg / day
prednisone Treatment
A 4-year-old boy was brought to the hospital because of fever height and rash.
(35% Tus PREPARATIONS)
and physical examination, 37.8 ° C aThese, more intense fading on the face and neck, body and light pink color in the
arms and legs, separate macular rashes identified and preauricular and positoxypetal lymphadonapa determined that no
vaccine was given to the child. The most convenient TesT ... Rubella IgM in combination with peeling, erTrodermia
and hypoTension sTaphylococcal Toxic shock syndrome is one of the major diagnostic cri ... Fever (> 38.8 ° C)
Expected complications of rubella ... EncephalT, MyocardiT, Thrombocytopenia, Arthritis Undesirable ectopic
hypotonic hyporesponsive response can be seen as a vaccine ... pertussis
A four-year-old boy presented with a swelling on the left side of his face and had a mild history of swelling on the
child's face from a week before the swelling had arisen. On the side of the sTernocleidonasToid muscle starting from
the front of the ear lobe extending upward and outward to the dough consistency swelling in a detected patient has a
higher probability of occurrence or complication ... orchitis,
- Non-infectious capsid of microorganisms
Vaccines prepared from proTe ... HPV vaccine
Which of the following, the expected complications of measles ... Tracheitis, Acute otitis media, Giant cell pneumonia,
Encephalitis
Thirty-five-year-old male patient had tuberculosis disease and sputum smear was found to be bacillus residant from
sputum smear. Child 2. Child 3. Child
Age (years) 8 3 1 Physical examination Examination of the right lung Normal Normal ral
BCG vaccine + + + scar Lung Right hilar radiography Normal Normal lymphadenopathy Tuberculin skin Test 18 2 16
(mm)
This is the most appropriate treatment approach for children 1. Pediatric INH prophylaxis 2. Pediatric INH prophylaxis
3. Child INH- RIF Tedavi Treatment with PZA
We had chickenpox one week after IAtergy and generalized tonic clonic seizure Table and neurological examination
revealed blurred consciousness, bilaterally optic neuritis, and right hemiparesis. Possible diagnosis ... Acute

disseminated encephalomyelia The BordeTelIa perTussis antigens used in acellular pertussis vaccines ...PerTakTin,
Fembren Type Hemagglutinin, Fimbria Type 2, Fimbria Type 3
.)! Russian mahogany uERKEzerieri '
- The most probable diagnosis in a patient with edema in the hands, redness in the eyes, cervical Ienfadenopathy,
strawberry tongue appearance and high fever ...Absolute contraindications for Kawasaki disease Whooping cough
vaccine ...Encephalopathy on day 3 after first vaccination
About the clinical course of rubella ... The incubation period of the disease is usually 14-21 days. Petechia is detected
in the soft palate. Postauricular lymph nodes grow. There is a maculopapular rash with a centropedal distribution. After
the first tuberculosis infection, the organ where the disease occurs most recently. Kidney Molluscum contagiosum
related ... It occurs in healthy children. AIDS is more common and more common in diseases. Transmissible through
contact In a child diagnosed with congenital hearing loss and scheduled for cochlear implantation, the vaccine should
be included in the vaccination program. Pneumococcal vaccine A 20-month-old male infant was admitted with
complaints of restlessness, crying, fever, nausea and vomiting. The most likely diagnosis ... Kawasaki disease
An 8-year-old child with a history of tuberculosis in his father who had no history of any complaint was found to have
negative tuberculin skin test performed 2 months ago. A BCG scar on the left shoulder was found. laboratory
examination for the diagnosis of tuberculosis infection ... Interferon gamma oscillation test
ALLERGY AND IMMUNOLOGY
Which is not expected to trigger symptoms in a child with bronchial asthma. . .Stress Complications not seen in asthma
attacks ...Pneumonia A possible cause of decreased oz saturation by inhalation of salbutamol in an asthma attack
...Ventilation-perfusion imbalance A finding not seen in bronchial biopsy of an asthmatic patient. .. Epithelial
metaplasia 'The first drug to be used in the treatment of asthma attacks. . .B2 mimetic inhalation Diagnosis of
bronchial asthma. . .Reversible airway obstruction What is the most effective preventive medicine for exercise-induced
asthma.InhaledB2 agonist Which is used leukotriene antagonists in the treatment of the disease ... Asthma 'What are
the triggering factors of bronchial asthma ... Gastroesophageal reflux
What is the drug that can be used regularly in the long-term treatment of bronchial asthma ...Montelukast -
What does methacholine inhalation test show in an asthmatic patient? . .Bronchial hyperreactivity is the most common
cause of death in anaphylaxis.Upper respiratory tract obstruction Which test is suitable for the diagnosis of an atopic
child ... Allergen skin test
The maximum dose of adrenaline used in the treatment of anaphylaxis ... 0.3 mg The causative agent of allergic
reactions in atopic children ... Aspergillus is an indicator of poor prognosis in children with atopic dermatitis ...
Accompanying asthma Which is not a major feature of atopic dermatitis ... Aphthous lesion in the buccal mucosa
causes Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction ... Contact dermatitis Uncomplicated disease in childhood. .
.Hypogammaglobulinemia Non-passive immunization disease ...AIDS is not seen in combined immunodeficiency
syndrome ... Vitamins used in Chediak-Higashi syndrome are normal T cell functions ... VitaminCi
Signs of hyper IgE syndrome ...Recurrent staphylococcal infections
Immunodeficiency with negative skin test ... Di-George Syndrome
Di — George Syndrome is not seen in the finding ... hypogammaglobulinemia
Disease in which delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is negative. Di—-George Syndrome Disease with
phagocytosis. . .Chronic granulomatous disease Disease with recurrent infections, nystagmus and partial
albinismChediak-Higashi is one of the primary immunodeficiencies ...Chronic granulomatous disease [bi-George
Syndrome is not true ..Serum Ig M low is not seen in Di-George Syndrome.Pulmonary hemosiderosis Expected finding
in chronic granulomatous disease. Killing does not function Which infections are common in humoral
immunodeficiency. .. Encapsulated bacterial infections Disease seen in phagocytic dysfunction ...Chronic
granulomatous disease is not one of the causes of recurrent pneumonia. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
Ataxia is not true for telangiectasia ... Thrombocytopenia Non-B cell diseaseDi-George Syndrome
: fig}; ; IUSAZIRLI'K CENTERS. . '
In hyper IgE syndrome ...Allergic disease of the respiratory tract
Di-George Syndrome, hepatosplenomegaly
The reaction to which host of the host occurs in graft versus host disease ... Major histocompatibility complex
Symptoms associated with common variable immunodeficiency ... Hypogammaglobulinemia, B cell lymphoma, gastric
atrophy, chronic active hepatitis. Symptoms of admission in a patient with selective IgA deficiency ... Recurrent
sinopulmonary infections
When the 8-month-old baby boy, whose mother and father was a cousin, was hospitalized with the diagnosis of
perianal abscess and sepsis, it was learned from his history that he had an omphalitis in the neonatal period and that

the umbilical cord fell in the 4th week. Leukocyte adhesion defect type 1
Symptoms of anaphylaxis ... Skin urticaria, Laryngeal stridor, Wheezing, Dyspnea Chronic urticaria criteria At least
two attacks per week for six weeks
Asthma predictive indexes used in the diagnosis of asthma in children ... Eosinophilia, Allergic rhinitis, History of
eczema in children, Inhaler allergen sensitivity
Common immunodeficiency associated with celiac disease ... Selective IgA deficiency
X-linked transient immunodeficiency characterized by frequent infection, thrombocytopenia and eczema. . . Wiscott-
Aldrich syndrome
In the first two years of life during the natural course of allergy, the incidence is higher than others ... Atopic dermatitis
- Food allergy
A 6-year-old boy presented with complaints of fever, abdominal pain and vomiting lasting for 4 gün8 weeks and
vomiting for 3-5 days and had a history of cervical Ienfadenopathy. Hyper IgD syndrome
The use of intranasal corticosteroids in the treatment of allergic rhinitis ... It should be used in patients with severe and
persistent symptoms, The initiation of treatment before the pollen season provides a protective effect, It has undesirable
effects in the form of nasal mucosa irritation, burning sensation and epistaxis, It is the most effective drugs in the
treatment of allergic rhinitis One-year-old female infant who was found to have thrush bronchiolitis and pneumonia,
incontinent and unable to sit without support, had a severe varicella on physical examination, motor developmental
retardation and spasticity. .. Purine nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency The most appropriate treatment for patients
with hoarseness and fever and cyanosis, stridor, nasal wing breathing and suprasternal withdrawal are the most
appropriate treatment.
WINKIN MERCELS
Findings showing the presence of airway inflammation in asthma ... Measurement of exhaled nitric oxide related to
Bruton's disease ... There are no B cells in circulation. Indicates an X-connected switch. There is severe
hypogammaglobulinemia. There is a risk of paralysis after oral polio vaccination.
Mevalonate kinase is a disease that is not enough ...Hyperimmunoglobulin D-associated periodic fever syndrome
Tests for the diagnosis of a patient suffering from allergic rhinitis ... Nasal smear test, Allergy skin test
The most likely diagnosis in a patient with frequent middle ear inflammation and flow cytometry is not seen in B
lymphocytes. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
In a pediatric asthmatic patient with widespread severe atopic dermatitis lesions, firstly the test to be selected to
investigate allergic sensitivity and the reason ... Serum specific IgE measurements due to widespread dermatitis
Screening test used to diagnose antibody deficiencies ... Measurement of titer of isohemagglutinin
ENDOCRINOLOGY
Not seen in panhipopituitarism ... Mental retardation
- Central diabetes insipidus without cause ... vasopressin
receptor deficiency
- Not seen in hypopituitarism ...Early puberty
- Inappropriate ADH ...Plasma osmolarity
reduction
Central diabetes insipidus without cause ... X-linked vasopressin (V2) receptor mutation
Which does not show inappropriate ADH release. .. Diabetes mellitus
While menstruation was regular before, there was no menstruation for the last 7 months. Diagnosis. . .Secondary
amenorrhea
16 years old primary amenorrhea, short stature, hairline below and high palate (+) Diagnosis ...Turner syndrome
What to do in Turner for diagnosis ...Karyotype determination The first hormone that increases secretion rate during
puberty in girls. .. Dihidroksiandrostero to
- KY = TY, the growth curve is below the normal standards, but the shortening of the parallel to the standards. ..
Familial (Hereditary) brevity
Causes of precocious central puberty in girls. .. Idiopathic, Hypothyroidism, Head trauma, Craniopharyngioma
Calendar age 11 years, short stature, open fontanelle and mental retardation. Which diagnosis can't be ...
Kraniosinositoz
21-Which type of precocious puberty in patients with hydrochylase deficiency. . .Isosexual incomplete
Nausea, vomiting and weight loss in a 3-week-old child with abnormal external genitalia. Diagnosis. .. Congenital
adrenal hyperplasia
- Hyponatremia (+) Diagnosis of normal and a few days after virilism in child. Isosexual incomplete

. Tus Preparation Centers
Not in congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Microcephaly
What is done to diagnose GrowTh hormone deficiency ... Dual stimulation with L-Dopa and insulin
Delayed puberTe no reason ...Which is not seen in female pseudohermaphroditis with tall congenital adrenal
hyperplasia. . .Reduction of the number of primary follicles in the ovary with time Micropenia and hypospadias,
bilateral testes can not be palpated, blood Na: 120 K: 8 mEq / L What do you do. . .Sex chromaTin, karyoType and
corTizol Determination The gonad palpated labium major, female phenoType, karyoType 46 XV has a high
TesTosTeron level. Diagnosis. . .Testicular feminization No need to look at a child whose external gene is unclear. .
.Sex steroids 21 Men with hydroxylase deficiency not observed.Ambigus geneTalya Delayed puberTe + TesTisIer
small + GonadoTrpinIer high. First thing to do ... KaryoType analysis No signs of virilism ...Growth of breast tissue
Puber in boys and girlsThe first findings of ... The growth in breast tissue in girls, the increase in TesTis volume in
boys does not increase the proportion of short stature ...Achondroplasia Development of secondary sex characteristics
in a three-year-old girl and vaginal bleeding + poliosTopic fibrosis dysplasia + hyperpigmene stain on the abdominal
skin. Diagnosis... McCune AlbrighT syndrome Learning disability and behavior disorder + long stature + small TesTis.
Diagnosis... KlinefelTer syndrome is the most common cause of irregular mens in the first year after menarche.
isofunctional uTerous hemorrhage Which of the children of the mother using PropylTiouracil ... GuaTr 1 month old
baby with constipation, abdominal distension, umbilical hernia and prolonged jaundice. Which test would you like ...
T3-T4- TSH Neonatal hypothyroidism is not a sign of ...Intrauterine growth retardation Early clinical signs of
hypothyroidism in a newborn ... Prolonged jaundice Mental retardation + constipation + fonTanel wide + makroglossi.
Diagnosis. . . Congenital hypothyroidism 2 months old baby Developmental delay, mental retardation, umbilical hernia
and constipation. Diagnosis...Congenital Hypothyroidism What do you want from radiological tests in diagnosis
...Knee radiography
Child with polyuria-polydipsia complains, acute abdomen Table + hypervenilation. Diagnosis...Diabetic keToacidosis
LeTargy, great function, tongue size and constipation. Diagnosis. . .Congenital Hypothyroidism
The most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism ...Aplasia - hypoplasia
©
A child with a thyroid nodule is most likely to be malignant ...Single nodule, solid, hypofunction without venous
congenital hypothyroidism. . .Restlessness Constipation, prolonged jaundice, umbilical hernia and tendency to sleep (+)
Which one to look for ... T3, T4 and TSH The most common cause of acquired primary hypothyroidism in a non-
endemic guaTr region. .Lymphocytic Thyroid
Thyromegaly, T4 low, T3 high, and TSH minimally high. Diagnosis. .Lack of IOC
No signs of congenital hypothyroidism ...Low TSH levels are not observed in neonatal hyperthyroidism ...
Hypercalcemia Endemic crescentNon-neurological signs of seizure. . .ExTrapiramidal findings PregnancyThe use of
the drug in which the congenital in the baby makes hypothyroidism + guaTr ... Amiodarone Akkiz The most common
cause of hypothyroidism ...Lymphocytic Thyroid Congenital ThyroidThe most common cause of congenital
hypothyroidismThyroid dysgenesis
Stage 2 diffuse guaTr + Thyroid hormone, ThyroidTiropine, Thyroid antibodies and normal iodine levels in urine.
.Simple (colloid) guaTr
AkuT adrenacorTikal insufficiency ... High Glucose
Hasp-hormone profile with hyperpigmenation, postural hypotension, water bite, fatigue, and a ... ACTH high, corTizol,
and aldoseron low are the symptoms of Conn syndrome (primary hyperaldosTeronism). Hyperkalemia, acidosis Do not
cause Cushing's syndrome ... 17-a hydroxylase deficiency Hypoglycemic convulsion + cilTe hyperpigmenTation. No
salt loss and no genital anomalies. Isolated glucocorTichoid deficiency Virilization occurs in the absence of which ...
11 beTa- hydroxylase-21-hydroxylase deficient maleTe observed ... Salt loss 21-conjugate due to deficiency of
hydroxylase enzyme Adrenal hyperplasia. .. In boys, the external genitalia is usually normal in the newborn period.
Approximately 70% of cases are followed by loss of salt. Girls can be completely male fenoType. Serum 17- -
hydroxyprogesTeron activity increased. 1 baby boy with vomiting, weight loss and dehydration. Na: 115 K: 8 Cl: 75
Most likely diagnosis 21- hydroxylase deficiency Hypoglycemia Abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia and
hypervenilation. Diagnosis. .. Diabetic keToacidosis
Type I DM receiving insulin does not increase the need for insulin in children. .. hypothyroidism
©
TUSHIRU Manama ... ~ ”3: 05m
If the child with Type I DM develops infection, what should he do?Insulin dose to prevent ketoacidosis by

hypoglycemia and hepaTomegali ... KETOTIC hypoglycemia
Diabetic complication. In keToacidosis .. Bicarbonate aggravation of cerebral superfluous acidosis is not recommended
in the treatment of diabetic ketoToacidosis. .. Insulin is discontinued after glucose is reduced to 250-350
6 years old male, blurred consciousness, decreased Turgor Tonus, breath aseTon smell. Glucose: 320 and keTonuria
(+) The first thing to do ... 0.9% sodium chloride liquid Treatment
One of the complications in the treatment of diabetic keToacidosis. . . hypokalemia
us PREPARATION CENTERS
Hypercalcemia in hyperparathyroidism ...There are no signs of hypocalcemia.
Clinic seen in thyroidism. . .meTakarp and metatars shortness, round face
Electrolyte change in primary hyperparathyroidism. . .phosphate decreases, PTH, Ca and ALP increases.
Depression, mental change, frequent kidney move and band diagnosishyperparathyroidism
Abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperventilation is the most likely diagnosis of children who come with
...Diabetic keToacidosis
In diabetic ketoToacidosis dehydration occurs. Blood glucose level 2-3 months ago ...Measured with HbA1C.
seen
Insulin should be used at the first look ...Blood and blurred sugar level are developing in a hasTada DiabeTik mother
with malformations in their children. . .Isolated expected pulmonary congenitalTherapy
Somogy is hyperglycemia. phenomena ... Three-year-old child developing against overdose of insulinType 1
prognosisThe importance of diabetes melliTus ... |Islet Diagnosed 12 year old cell antibody
Diabetic and neuropathic ...sorbitol
Not seen in hypoglycemic coma. . .dehydration
No increase in children. . diabeTes.Addison's disease
The complication of unnecessary bicarbonate in diabetic ketoacidosis. . worsening cerebral acidosis.
Affected Layer in Conn syndromezoster
Not seen in BarTTer syndrome. . .hypertension. glomerulosa
Not seen in adrenal tissue. . .Ezinopenia The most common cause of Cushing's syndrome ...Exogenous sTeroid use
Although low Na, high K, weakness, weakness, corTicoTropin were given, the patient had low sTeroid levels and did
not cause Cushing syndrome. . .17 alpha hydroxylase
Your diagnosis. . .Adrenal deficiency
Adrenal insufficiency occurs with hyperpoCasemia. Diagnosis of HashimoTo Thyroid. .. HurTle cells
Diagnosis of a patient with hyperpigmenate, low arterial pressure, cloudy vomiting ... Addison's crisis The most
common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism ...ParaTyroid adenoma
Diagnosis of Cushing 's Disease ... DexameTasone suppression TesTi Diabetes is not a late - term complication. .
.STasis ulcer
- Primary and secondary hyperaldos are important in the diagnosis of ...Blood renin level
separator
THYROID THYMOTIC HORMONIC RECEPTOR BINDING ANTIBODIES Graves
The sequence of stages of puber in girls. . .Height growth> Telarche> Pubarche> Menarche MenenjiThen
hypervolemia, which has urine developing after dancing. hyponaTremi .., inappropriate ADH syndrome
Diabetic Insipidus supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei are damaged.
- The most common pituitary tumor in children ...GH secreting
- PuberTede Breast development
oxytocin
- A 7-year-old girl has a precocious puberty. . .diagnosis
Granulosa cell tumor is considered.
The most common cause of GnRH independent puberTe precox in girls. .. Ovarian KisTi or Tumors. adenoma
Inhibiting GH secretion ...High fatty acid level
Hormone used in differential diagnosis of primary and secondary hypothyroidism. . .TSH Disease causing simple
diffuse growth in the thyroid. .. Graves
Primary hypothyroidism. . . FT4 low, TSH high
The most common cause of true puberty precancia is idiopathic.
Hypothalamic hamarTom is the true cause of puberty prepox.
The cause of amenorrhea ...RezisTan Ovary Syndrome
The most common cause of primary amenorrhea ...... Gonadal dysgenesis Bone and joint findings in

hyperparathyroidism Bone cyst, Bone Tumor, PeriosTa thickening, Joint degeneration
If the female amenorrhea with primary amenorrhea does not bleed when estrogen is given to the patient, Diagnose ......
Testicular feminization Bone lesion seen in the overwork of the ParaTyroid gland. . .OsTeiTis fibroza mistTika
Hypothetamic FSH amenorrhea in blood
When the level is not high ...
§ 0 WSIDMA
Hypogonadatropic hypogonadism In a patient with primary amenorrhea, the female phenotype is palpated in the
inguinal hernia sac. On examination, there is no uterus. Your diagnosis ...Androgen 'insensitivity syndrome
Hypothalamo pituitary tumor is the most common hypogonodatropic hypogonadism ... Kraniafarengi Game
The increase in Turner syndrome is unexpected ... Mental retardation
A 2-year-old boy with chronic diarrhea had short stature, exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, neutropenia and skeletal
changes. Sweat test is normal. ,
The most mature diagnosis for this child ... shwachman-Diamand syndrome Congenital hypothyroidism. .. The
prevalence of congenital hypothyroidism in the world is 1/4000. Thyroid dysgenesis is responsible for approximately
85% of cases. Endemic goiter is one of the reasons. Excessive exposure during the fetal period may result. Diabetic
mothers have hypamagnesemia and related hypocalcemia due to renal magnesium loss. . The etiology of antibodies
passed from mother to fetus. disease in which the role plays. Transient neonatal thyrotaxicosis A 10-year-old girl
presented with diabetic ketoacidosis and vomiting and a tendency to sleep. In the physical examination, the patient was
dehydrated at 10% and his laboratory investigations revealed a blood pH of 7: 1, 1 HCO-3, 6 mmal / L.
_This patient should be treated in the first hour. Intravenous administration of 0.9% NaCl 10—20 mI / kg
An 11-year-old girl presented with a neck swelling. It is learned from his history that he has a swelling in the neck for
a year and male extension is insufficient. Physical examination revealed stage II goitre. TSH levels are high, FT4 level
is low and Anti TPO is positive in laboratory examinations.
The most ..... Hashimoto thyroiditis Nine-six-month-old girl's physical examination, breast and aerola dilated but not
separated from each other, can not be made pubic hair and began to curl, pubic area is observed to darken. The sexual
maturation stage of this child whose menstruation does not start. Stage III Calcification of the adrenal glands is
detected in the abdominal X-ray of a 2-month-old baby with vomiting, diarrhea, hepatasplenomegaly, fever and
growth retardation that started in the first days after birth. Mag diagnosis for this patient ..... Wolman's disease Gender
development disorders with virilization in puberty ... 21-hydroxylase deficiency, 5a-reductase deficiency, 17-
ketosteroid reductase deficiency, Partial androgen resistance syndrome Hypospadias, bifid scrotum, born with
undescended testis, bearing XY chromosome and salt loss in a baby Congenital adrenal hyperplasia that should be
considered ... Sb-hydraxisteroid dehydrogenase
Congenital hypothyroidism associated with goiter Dishormonogenesis ANCA (Anti-Neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody)
-related diseases ... ANCA-related vasculitis limited to the kidney, Churg-Strauss syndrome, Wegener granulomatase,
Micrascobi k polyangiitis In an 11-month-old boy with complaints of contractions in his hands, rickets findings and
alopecia areata were detected in the physical examination of the hands and hypocalcemic 1, 25- (Ol-I) The most likely
diagnosis for a patient determined to be high in vitamin D3 ... Vitamin D-related rickets type 2 A 2-year-old girl
presented with a complaint of growth in the right breast. She had a history of enlargement in the other breast 6 months
ago and subsequently regressed. The patient was 25 percentile in height, 50 percentile in height and target length. The
most probable diagnosis is for a patient who has no pubic hair and whose bone age is equal to calendar age on
radiological examination. Premature telarche
A 20 - day - old male infant was brought with complaints of vomiting, sucking, and inability to gain weight. His
mother and father were close relatives and his brother was suspected of sepsis at the age of 1 month. The blood
pressure was 50/20 mmHg and pulse rate was 160 / min and the weight was less than 3 percentile in height and 3
percentile. The skin was dry, scrotum, nipple and buccal mucosa were found to be hyperpigmented and the testes were
palpated in scrotum. : 118Meq / LK: 7 mEq / L, blood glucose: The most likely diagnosis for a patient with 40 mg / dl
... Primary adrenal insufficiency - An 11-year-old girl who had been followed up with a diagnosis of chronic renal
failure due to vesicourethral reflux since the age of seven and had poor treatment compliance, which contributed to the
development of a clinical picture developing bone pain, bending of the legs and pathological fractures. Hypercalcemia,
Hyperphosphatemia, Secondary hyperparathyroidism, Impaired renal 1.25 - (OH) 2
vitamin D3 production in a 10-year-old child with Cushing's syndrome Hypertension, Short stature, Hirsutism, Obesity
A mass of 2 cm in palpable pain with a palpable pain in the left breast, which was presented 3 months ago with the
complaint of a mass in the left breast, was found to be the most probable diagnosis for a 14-year-old boy. .
Gynecomastia At the beginning of puberty, the first observed findings in physical examination ...Breast bud in girls,

increase in testicular volumes in boys, - The most probable diagnosis in a patient with generalized tonic seizures,
hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia ... Hypoparathyroidism The most common diagnosis in a newborn with
vomiting, loss of appetite and thoughtfulness is hypoactive with low oxygen saturation and neonatal reflexes, increased
BUN and creatinine, and low metabolic acidosis with high sodium and potassium levels. Congenital adrenal
hyperplasia
A 12-year-old girl is the most likely diagnosis for a child who has been experiencing menstrual episodes for the past
few months and has started to menstruate 1 year before her history and has learned that her period is regular and
sexually inactive. Primary dysmenorrhea
Pretreatment in a patient with polyuria, hyponatremia, high sodium excretion in urine, hypovolemia, high serum atrial
natriuretic peptide ... Cerebral salt loss
METABOLISM
Increased homogentisic acid in the urine ... Alkaptonuria
The most common finding in an 8-year-old untreated phenylketonuria child ... Mental motor retardation Definitive
diagnosis of phenylketonuria. .. Blood phenylalanine level in Blue Diaper syndrome which amino acid metabolism
disorder. .. Tryptophan Homogentisic acid oxidase deficiency ... Alkaptonuria
If the urine of the child is staining the intermediate diaper, the diagnosis ... Alkaptonuria
The enzyme missing in albinism. . .tyrosinase
Long thin limb, arachnodacty, lens subluxation and recurrent thromboembolic attacks. Diagnosis... Homocysistinuria
- Mental retardation, microcephaly, seborrheic skin lesions, convulsion, light hair color and blue eye. . .
Phenylketonuria
Metabolic disease using high-dose pyridoxine in treatment. .. Homocystinuria The most reliable test for the diagnosis
of phenylketonuria in ... Guthrie test
Hartnup disease is not absorbed from the kidneys and intestines. . . Neutral amino acids Alopecia, mental retardation
and mild metabolic acidosis in a 6-month-old child with respiratory distress. Diagnosis... Biotininase deficiency Baby
with photosensitive skin lesions and mental retardation. .. Hartnup used high protein diet to treat disease. .. Hartnup's
disease If a microcephalic baby cannot be diagnosed with examinations ... Determination of phenylalanine in the
mother The most common and widely used test for screening phenylketonuria ... Guthrie
Seborrheic dermatitis, alopecia, ataxia, hypotonia, myoclonic seizures and growth retardation. The missing enzyme ...
Biotinidaz
Vitamin used in the treatment of transient tyrosinemia in newborn infants. . . Vitamin C Common erythematous rash
with exfoliation. Diagnosis... Multiple carboxylase deficiency
Hypoglycemia unexpected in neonatal period ... Phenylketonuria
- Congenital metabolic disease is given together with clinical findings that do not belong to it. Cystinosis -
Hyperthyroidism “Sweaty foot odor" in which organic acidemia ... Isovaleric acidemia Which is seen in maternal
phenylketonuria ... | <ongenital heart diseases not causing hyperamonemia. . . Phenylketonuria Not a sign of untreated
classical phenylketonuria. . . Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not among the eye findings of homocystinuria
disease. .. Optic neuritis - Metabolic diseases are asymptomatic ... Fructokinase deficiency enzyme deficiency in Cori
diseaseAmilo 1-6-glycosidase
The patient with galactosemia shouldn't use ... Lactose Malnutrition in the newborn, prolonged jaundice, cataract,
hepatosplenomegaly and aminoaciduria. Diagnosis... galactosemia
Stored in Gaucher's disease. . . Serebrozit
Teeth are not considered in a healthy male child ...Fructose intolerance
Vomiting nausea when eating ripe fruit ...Hereditary fructose intolerance Cataract in a healthy childGalactokinase
deficiency
Diagnosis of an 8-month-old child with prolonged jaundice, hepatomegaly, cataract and aminoaciduria ... galactosemia
Face view of a four year old boy with hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, stone baby. ..Von Gierke
The enzyme missing from essential fructosuria ... Fruktokinaz
The enzyme missing in Von Gierke ...Glucose-6 — phosphatase Neonatal metabolic hypoglycemia is not due to
hyperinsulinism. . .Galactosemia Growth retardation, hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, hyperuricemia and
hyperlipidemia ...Glycogen storage disease Prolonged jaundice, hypoglycemia, convulsion, hepatomegaly and urine-
positive substance in urine. Diagnosis... Galactosemia Deficient cataract enzyme ... Galactokinase Enzyme deficient in
classical galactosemia Galactose 1- Phosphate uridyl transferase Diagnosis in a pale child with mental retardation,
microcephaly, seborrheic or eczematous skin lesions. . . Phenylketonuria Missing in abetalipoproteinemia. . . Shi
Iomikron - Disorder in Tay Sachs, Niemann Pick and Gaucher diseases. . .Glycolipid deposition

Which is seen in type I hyperlipoproteinemia. . .Plasma is milk-like - with ganglioside deposition ... Tay-Sachs
o TUSDATA a 'I ii' "
Accumulating substance in Niemann Pick ... $ fingomyelin A substance used in Type 3 hyperlipoproteinemia that is
not absorbed from the intestine. . . The characteristic 'finding of serum of patients with cholestyramine Type I
hyperlipidemia. . .Plasma like milk
The enzyme missing in Tay-Sachs disease ... Hexozaminidase A is missing in Tangier's disease ... HDL
Which type of lipoprotein lipase activity decreases ... The missing enzyme in type I Nieman Pick ... $ tingomyelinase
Calcification in adrenal, hepatomegaly, fatty diarrhea ... Wolman Arylsulfatase A deficiency. . .Metachromatic
leukodystrophy Apoprotein-E is missing and chylomicron remains cannot be removed.Type III Gaucher disease which
enzyme is missing ...Beta glucosidase Branched-chain fatty acid that accumulates in the liver and brain in Refsum
disease ...Which lipoproteins are increased in phytic acid hyperlipoproteinemia type V? .. Type I and Type IV Lipid
storage disease with central nervous system involvement. . .Tay Sachs Lipid depot diseases do not have any
neurological signs.Gaucher's disease type I is not among the findings of fatty acid oxidation defects. . . Dysmorphic
findings
The absence of hexosaminidase A in leukocytes ...Tay-Sachs disease is not used to treat hyperammonemia ...
Glutamine A high dose of vitamin BIZ is used in the treatment of organic acidemia ... Methyl malonic acidemia Acute
intermitant poruria in which enzyme is missing ... Uroporphyrinogen I synthetase Cause of hyperammonemia. . .Urea
cycle disorder The informative finding in the urea cycle enzyme defect ... Ammonia increases in blood
. Which enzyme deficiency leads to hyperuricemia ...
Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase Rough facial appearance, hepatosplenomegaly, corneal opacity,
mental retardation, retardation of bone development and hypoglycemia ".Mucopolysaccharidosis Which should be
considered in a child with complaints of vomiting, encephalopathy, inability to feed, convulsions after three days of
normal birth ... Urea cycle defect Vomiting, lethargy, convulsion (+) ammonia in blood, orotic acid levels in urine in a
15-day-old baby boy who was previously consanguineous. No acidosis. Diagnosis... Lack of ornithine carbamoyl
transferase
Diagnosis of an acidotic infant with hyperammonemia, vomiting and lethargy and convulsions ... Organic acidemia
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome which enzyme deficiency ... Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase Moderate
dehydration neutropenia, acidosis and ketosis in a 5-day-old baby with sucking and vomiting + Sweaty foot odor in
urine (+) Full .. Isovaleric acidemia
3 day old baby vomiting, dehydration, acidosis, ketosis and neutropenia + Consanguineous marriage (+) Diagnosis ...
Methylmalonic acidemia,
I don't have hyperamonemia. Histidinemia is not a disease of lysosomal storage ... Infantile Refsum disease is not a
sign of Wilson's disease. Precocitated puberty Citric acid cycle and beta oxidation organelle. Enzyme deficient in Cori
disease in mitochondria ...Amilo 1-6 glycosidase Hypoglycemia + Hepatomegaly + Stone in a baby with a child's face
Von Gierke Lack of enzyme, in which the glycogen does not have a normal structure. .. 1,4 - 1,6 Saccharide should be
used in patients with galactosemia in transglucosidase deficiency ... B lactose
If only a child who is breastfed is found to have stool sugar ...Diagnosis of lactose intolerance ... Detected sugar
lactose Recognized in children with prolonged jaundice + Hepatomegaly + Cataract + Aminoaciduria ... Galactosemia
Enzyme deficient in essential fructosemia ... Fructokinase is the enzyme missing from Hurler's syndrome ... Alpha L
iduronidase is the enzyme missing from Gaucher's disease ... Beta glucosidase Tay Sachs, Niemann Pick, Basic
disorder in gaucher diseases. . .Glycolipid accumulation Metabolic disease with impaired fatty acid alpha oxidation. . .
Refsum Disease A substance that transports fatty acids to mitochondria in mitochondrial oxidation. . .Carnitine The
substance accumulated in refsum disease ...Phytanic acid Disease caused by lack of peroxisome in tissues. Zellweger's
disease Description of a baby with vomiting encephalopathy, inability to feed and convulsions after three days of
normal birth. Urea cycle defect is high in ammonia and high in orotic acid. Ornithine carbamoyl transferase deficiency
is considered. The purpose of administering IV to benzoic acid or phenyl acetic acid to a patient ... To reduce the
ammonia concentration. Alkaptonuride tyrosine in which amino acid metabolism is impaired ...
The amino acid accumulated in Mayple Syrup ... Valine, leucine, isoleucine Low birth weight does not indicate
impaired amino acid metabolism. Diseases with lens subluxation ...Marfan, Homocystinuria, Sulfide oxidase deficiency
is a finding that does not suggest hereditary metabolic disorder in the newborn ... Fecal occult blood Hyperammonemia
+ lactic acidosis ... Organic Acidemia Phenylketonuri does not show any pathology in the liver ... Causes of Phanconi
syndrome ... Cystinosis, Galactosemia, Von Gierke, Tyrosinemia, Wilson
L-listidinase The most likely diagnosis for a 5-year-old girl presented with hepatomegaly, renal tubular dysfunction
and galactose intolerance ... GLUT-Z deficiency Enzyme deficiency that should be considered in a 3-year-old child

with no complaints other than bilateral cataracts and without hepatocellular dysfunction ... galactokinase
Personality change in a 12 year old girl + e | distortion in the article + Kaiser Fleischer ring in the eye. . .Wilson's
disease
Classical phenylketoni. . . Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency, mental retardation, microcephaly, epilepsy,
hyperactivity, eczematous rashes and increased muscle tone (hypertonia) are seen. Severe metabolic acidosis,
ketonuria, hyperglycemia and very high serum ammonia levels are the most likely congenital ... Isovaleryl CoA
dehydrogenase deficiency - The most probable diagnosis when lethargy and cataract is detected in the physical
examination of a 1-month-old baby brought with complaints of vomiting, jaundice and inability to gain weight and the
most probable diagnosis ... Galactosemia The most likely cause of this condition in a baby diagnosed with classical
phenylketonuria in a baby diagnosed with lethargy, loss of appetite, growth retardation, anemia and rash in the third
month of treatment ... Low serum phenylalanine level Ure cycle disorder that can eliminate the need for a protein-
restricted diet with carbamyl glutamate therapy. N — acetyl glutamate synthetase deficiency Growth retardation, low
mobility of the lower extremities, paresthesia attacks and crying with touch, liver and spleen size and wrist
enlargement, transaminase height, prolonged prothrombin time, hypophosphotemia and hyperphosphaturia are the most
likely diagnoses.Tyrosinemia type 1
Conditions that require examination for congenital hereditary metabolic diseases in a child with developmental delay ...
History of kinship, loss of acquired developmental stages, history of unexplained infant death in infancy in family,
presence of hypoglycemia and unexplained encephalopathy attacks - 56A, microcephaly and mother of 3rd grade
cardiac murmur twice before
The most likely diagnosis for a patient with miscarriage ...Maternal phenylketonuria A 5-month-old infant with
respiratory tract infection had hepatomegaly crossing the rib margin 5 cm in the midclavicular line, and laboratory tests
revealed blood glucose 40 mg / dL blood uric acid 14 mg / dL, and the presence of ketone positivity in the urine and
serum white color difference. most likely diagnosis for an infant ... Glycogen storage disease type 1 Plasma arginine
level is increased urea cycle disorder ... Lack of arginase
HEMATOLOGY
The most obvious change in exposure to chronic benzene is the organ ...Bone marrow Growth factor affecting
multipotent stem cells. .. IL-3
It doesn't change its structure by binding to hemoglobin ... 2,3 Diphosphoglycerate Graft-Versus — Host reaction. .
.Reaction of transplanted bone marrow T cells to recipient
The most common cause of hypochrome microcytic anemia ...Iron deficiency anemia Time for physiological anemia in
children ... 8-12. Weeks, normochrome normocytic
- Not seen in chronic disease anemia.
Reticulocytosis Diamond-Blackfan anemia. . .MCV and Hb F are higher
Poisoning causing hypochromic microcytic anemia. . . Lead poisoning
Iron deficiency anemia. . .SD, Ferritin low, SDBK, RDW, Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin is high.
Direct Coombs are negative ...Paroxysimal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
If hemoglobin, serum iron and ESRC are low ... Chronic disease anemia
The cause of hemolytic anemia in a patient receiving quinine. .. Glucose 6PD deficiency
Infectious aian that makes pure erythrocyte aplasis. . .Parvovirus 819
The most common cause of chronic disease anemia ... Parasitic megaloblastic anemia due to chronic renal failure 312
deficiency ... Diylobotrium Latum 3 alpha gene deletion, disease with D4 tetramers ... Hemoglobin H disease
Hemoglobin Barts (84) is the disease ...Hydrops fetalis The most specific examination finding of aplastic anemia ...
Splenomegaly and absence of Iymphadenopathy The disease in which splenectomy is contraindicated ... Paroxysmal
nocturnal hemoglobinuria Factor deficiencies recognized by length of isolated partial thromboplastin time (aP'l ')
...Lack of F8, F9, F11
"TUS PREPARATION" EMBLEM
The most common infection in ITP. . .Epstein Barr virus (EBV) infection not seen in aplastic anemiaThe presence of
normoblasts in the periphery The child has microcephaly, microphthalmia, no thumb, pale, dark skin.Fanconi aplastic
anemia Non-iron deficiency. . .Reticulocytosis Not seen in severe aplastic anemia ...reticulocytosis
Not seen in Fe deficiency anemia due to malnutrition. . .Reticulocytosis Increased osmotic fragility of erythrocytes
Hereditary spherocytosis is not seen in megaloblastic anemia ...reticulocytosis
Disease characterized by increased erythrocyte fragilities, isometric configuration changes at low 0: conditions,
obstruction of small vessels and anemia. . .Sickle cell anemia
Possible diagnosis in children with anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly, gallstones ... Hereditary spherocytosis Possible

diagnosis in a patient with congenital hemolytic anemia, frequent pulmonary infection and no splenomegaly. . .Sickle
cell anemia
Splenectomy without treatment. .. Cold antibody hemolytic anemia and 66PD deficiency
Hemolysis drug in G6PDH deficiency ... chloramphenicol
If a patient has hepatosplenomegaly, subicter, deep pallor, reticulocytosis and low hemoglobin ... Hemolytic anemia
Test to be requested if there is hypochrome-microcytosis, target cell and basophilic punctuation in peripheral smear. ..
Hemoglobin electrophoresis Hematogenic clonal stem cell disease. . .Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
The first drug of choice for autoimmune hemolytic anemia ... Corticosteroid Compensation mechanism of anemia ...
2,3 Increase in diphosphoglycerate level The first finding in iron deficiency anemia ... Depot rebar drop Anemia
without macrocytosis ...Such deficiency is not among the expected laboratory findings in thalassemia carriage. .
.Macrocytosis (hypochromic microcytic anemia is seen in thalassemia.) It does not cause microangiopathic hemolytic
anemia ... Hypersplenism Possible diagnosis in patients with anemia, leukopenia, height of MCV, numbness in hands
and feet ... Macrocytic anemia due to BIZ deficiency
Findings not seen in acute ITP ... Lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly A 25-year-old female patient with
abdominal pain has pancytopenia, splenomegaly, and Budd — Chiari syndrome. Possible diagnosis ..Paroxysmal
nocturnal hemoglobinuria
©
The patient presented with fatigue, stomatitis, ataxia and disorientation, and pancytopenia and hyperseiular marrow.
First of all, the test ... Cobalamin level In a girl with epistaxis, partial thromboplastin time is long and bleeding time is
prolonged. Von Willebrand's disease
Which provides subendothelial platelet adhesion. . .Fibrillary collagen catalyzes the formation of bonds between fibrin
monomers. . . Factor XIII
Deficient factor without prolongation of prothrombin time ... Factor VIII The most common hereditary bleeding
disease. . .Von Willebrand Disease (especially Type I) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura triad. . .DC negative
hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic changes in erythrocytes In patients with Warfarin, widespread
necrotic areas of the skin occur. . .Protein C deficiency The most common cause of heretider thrombophilia ...
Activated protein C resistance (Factor V leiden mutation)
The mechanism of action of heparin ...It combines with antithrombin III and blocks the effect of thrombin. Iron
deficiency observed disease. .. Idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis Skin necrosis develops during warfarin treatment
in a 2-year-old boy who was found to have had purpura fulminans in the newborn period.
The most likely diagnosis for this child ... Protein C deficiency Indirect bilirubin-elevated conditions. .. Crigler —
Najjar syndrome, Gilbert syndrome, Rh blood group mismatch, ABO blood group mismatch The first changing
laboratory finding in the treatment of iron deficiency anemia ... Reticulocyte increase In 6-month-old male baby with
paleness, growth retardation and hepatosplenomegaly, hypochromic-microcytic erythrocytes, polychromasia, increase
in reticulocyte level and electrophoresis in hemorrhagic F level are 80% in peripheral smear. Molecular structure of
beta thalassemia major in familial Mediterranean fever disease has been shown ... Pyrin Common complications of
sickle cell anemia Susceptibility to bacterialcepsis, Dactylitis, Priapism, Cerebrovascular event (pancreatitis not
observed) Bleeding tendency is observed ... Afibrinogenemia Fanconi is suspected of aplastic anemia. The child. ..
Thrombocytopenia, Cafe-au-lait spots, Short stature, Microcephaly (macrocytosis not expected microcytosis) Twelve-
year-old female patient, frequent nosebleeds since the age of 3 years and menstrual bleeding and fatigue lasting for the
last 2 years When prothrombin time, activated prothrombin time and bleeding time are found to be normal, the disease
should be considered first ... von Willebrand disease type 1
r “TUSHAZIRLIKCENT CENTERS
__% TUŞDAIA o In a newborn brought with umbilical hemorrhage, prothrombin time and activated partial
thromboplastin time are found as normal findings, and the most probable diagnosis for this similar and patient similar
history is with father and sibling ... Factor XIII deficiency
The most commonly involved bone in Langerhans cell histiocytosis in children ... Kalvaria
Whole blood count is accurately matched to erythrocyte morphology in peripheral smear with erythrocyte parameters.
RDW = 20 Anisocytosis
Leukemia was the most likely leukemia in a 12-year-old boy who was diagnosed with acute leukemia with a diagnosis
of acute leukemia on his chest smear, with blasts on his peripheral blood smear, and anterior mediastinal mass on chest
X-ray. type ... T cell lymphoblastic
The most probable diagnosis for a three-year-old girl who was found to have a platelet count of 340,000 / mm3 in her

blood count and whose platelet morphology was normal in her peripheral blood smear was learned. Glanzmann
thrombasthenia
The most probable diagnosis is Parvavirus Bl9 IgM (+) in a patient with sudden pallor, jaundice, loss of appetite,
weakness and abdominal pain, hyperbilirubinemia, anemia, reticulocytosis, MCV normal, MCHC high and platelet
normal during neonatal period. Hereditary spherocytosis Anorexia and malaise, anemia, low MCV, distribution volume
in the erythrocyte patient is the most likely normal diagnosis ...A thalassemia and reticulocyte carrier with a normal
thrombosis and bleeding. Diffuse intravascular coagulation A four-month-old male infant with pallor who had
hemoglobin 4 g / dL MCV 98 fL reticulocyte 7.0.2 on laboratory investigations and whose bone marrow examination
showed that only erythrocyte precursors were reduced and the other series were normal. Diamond-Blackfan anemia
ONCOLOGY
The organ that ALL holds most ...FAQ
ALL given in the treatment of ...Prednisolone + vincristine + Asparaginase
Where is the most common non-Hodgkin's lymphoma in a child? Abdomen - ALL'Ii can be seen after treatment in
children ...
Hyperuricemia Cough, dyspnea, pleural effusion lymphoma located in mediastinum. . and. Lymphoma causing non-
Hodgkin's superior vena cava syndrome
It is not used for diagnostic purposes in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Diagnosis of blood LDH Level L3 form
lymphocytes with 10% lymphoblast dominance. available . .Burkitt and abdominal lymphoma in the patient
pain, acid and abdominal mass. : WM III cancer not detected to be related to EBV cancer ...Kaposi's sarcoma in AIDS
patients
A six-year-old boy has abdominal distention, abdominal pain, weakness, anorexia. FM: diffuse mass, acid, scrotal
edema. L3-type blasts in acid fluid cytology, B cell immune phenotype and 8:14 translocation in cytogenetic
examination. Diagnosis. ., Burkitt lymphoma
Six-year-old boy with abdominal mass. In the chromosome analysis made from the piece taken from the mass, t (8:14)
... Burkitt lymphoma What should be considered in the patient in the above question. .. If hyperuricemia is first
admitted to ALL, it has a poor prognostic ...Leukocyte count 100,000 mm Non-oncogenic ...Coxackie B virus is the
most common extramedullary infiltration in ALL. . .Central nervous system
- Where's tumor lysis syndrome most often ...Burkitt lymphoma
- Characteristic cell that is observed in Hodgkin Iymphoma and helps in diagnosis ...Reed-Stenberg cell
Leukemia frequently developing disseminated intravascular coagulopathy. ..M 3 type acute promyelocytic leukemia
Not Hodgkin. . . Lymphoblastic type histological subtypes of leukemia of type AML chromosome (acute myeloblastic
translocation leukemia) observed 15:17. .. M3 Which brain tumor is more common than others ... Medulloblastoma In
acute lymphoblastic leukemia, which of the following findings indicates the best course of action ... Presence of
hyperdiploidy Epstein-Barr virus-related disease in AIDS patients. . . rhabdomyosarcoma
The most common soft tissue tumor under the age of fifteen. . .rhabdomyosarcoma
- Increased urine in neuroblastoma ...Vanilmandelic acid
A 4-year-old male patient had a mass on the left side that did not exceed the midline,Willms Tumor Malignancy with
the worst prognosis in children ...Acute myeloblastic leukemia in a child with hemihypertrophy which malignancy. ..
Wilms tumor Ptosis, myosis, enophthalmus and anhydrosis + increased urinary VMA in a child with a neck mass.
Diagnosis. . .Neuroblastoma Poor prognosis criterion of childhood neuroblastoma. . .Stage IV 5 (Ds) 4-year-old
ecchymosis around the eye, abdominal mass and blastic infiltration forming a rosette in the bone ... Neuroblastoma is
the most helpful diagnostic tool in Willms tumor. Abdominal computed tomography - most likely to be associated
with Wilms tumor
anomaly. .. aniridia
, tus NAIRLIK MERCHORS
Abdominal mass, hemihypertrophy, hematuria and hypertension. .. Wilms tumor Fast-growing abdominal mass, diffuse
bone metastasis and increased urinary catecholamine metabolites ... neuroblastoma
Wilms tumor most often makes metastasis where ... Lungs
Neuroblastoma without a poor prognostic criterion ... Patient under 1 year of age, 3-year-old swelling in the abdomen,
hematuria, aniridia, hemihypertrophy, the left side of the abdomen, a smooth and mid-line on the hard mass does not
exceed ...Wilms tumor High blood pressure and abdominal palpable mass + rosette formation in the bone marrow. .
.Neuroblastoma The most common renal tumor in children ...Wilms tumor Abdominal swelling and abdominal pain,
hematuria, aniridia, intraabdominal smooth contour not exceeding the midline ... Wilms tumor Non-common anomalies
in patients with Wilms tumor. . .Polycystic kidney

Aniridia, a mass not exceeding the right abdominal midline, Hematuria on urine ...Wilms tumor
Posterior mediastinal mass in a child with fever, cough, weakness, liver size and normal lung sounds.
Diagnosis...neuroblastoma
Retroorbital tumor + rosette formation in bone marrow. . .neuroblastoma
Diabetes insipitus and multiple lytic lesions in the head ... Langerhans cell histiocytosis Primitive neuroectodermal
tumor of central nervous system. . .Medulloblastoma is a rare tumor in childhood. .. Glioblastoma multiforme Brain
tumor usually seen in children and localized in the cerebellum. . .Medullablastoma Morning headache, nausea,
vomiting, changes in consciousness + cerebellar mass on MRI ... Medullablastoma Chest X-ray “coin" lesion + left
upper quadrant mass Wilms' tumor Abdominal swelling, abdominal mass, proptosis, periorbital ecchymosis and
oxomyoclonus, rosette formation in bone marrow aspiration, catecholamine levels measured in 24-hour urine are three
standard deviations above normal. Diagnosis. . . Mutations in neuroblastoma Li-Fraumeni syndrome ... p53 gene Right
orbital propitosis, periorbital ecchymosis and opsomyoclonic contractions. . .Neuroblastoma 10-year-old girl, speech-
writing difficulty that has been evident for 3 months, apathic appearance, jaundice for 3 days. Diagnosis. .. Wilson's
disease Neuroblastoma least metastasis ... Which of the central nervous system tumors has better lung prognosis than
others? Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma
The most common site of neuroblastoma ... Chromosomal anomaly typical for abdominal Wilms tumor ... 11p13
deletion
The most common subtype of rhabdomyosarcoma ... The most probable diagnosis in a 3-year-old child with
embryonal abdominal mass and hemihypertrophy ... Wilms tumor
Tables associated with EBV. .. Burkitt Lymphoma - Nasopharyngeal carcinoma - Wilms tumor - Infectious
mononucleosis HHV type 8 is not seen in leukomoid reaction ... Leukopenia is a giant cell in Hodgkin's disease. Reed
Stenberg's cell antineoplastic agent responsible for peripheral neuropathy in the treatment of Hodgkin ... Vincristine
Antineoplastic agent used in acute promyelocytic leukemia ... ATRA (all-trans retinoic acid) is the most important
factor in the treatment planning of Hodgkin's disease. . . Stage of the disease
Hypertension, increased volume, hyponatremia, natriuresis ... suggest inappropriate ADH syndrome.
Leukemia type showing gingiva infiltration ... Acute myelostic leukemia
The type of lymphoma that most closely resembles CLL. .. Small cell lymphocytic lymphoma
Hodgkin type, which is commonly seen in adolescents and girls, often involving the cervical and mediastinal lymph
nodes. . .Nodular sclerosing type
Characteristics of Hodgkin's disease in childhood. CNS involvement, Testicular involvement, Extrinodal localization,
Leukemic transformation The main cause of thrombosis in acute Iymphoblastic leukemia. . . L-asparqiinase treatment
A two-year-old girl is brought with a complaint of abdominal distention. Physical examination revealed a rosette-
forming blasts in the bone marrow of a child with a 7> <8 cm mass in the left upper quadrant.
The most probable diagnosis for this child .... Neuroblastoma is a tumor that increases the level of o-fetoprotein ...
Hepatoblastoma Myelodysplastic syndrome ... Clonal cell proliferation is a myeloid malignant disease associated with
impaired differentiation and increased apoptosis. The most important difference from acute leukemias is that the bone
marrow is not filled with blasts. Lymphatic lesions in the diaphysis of long bones and bone tumor with a view of the
onion membrane ... Ewing's sarcoma Tumor causing diarrhea due to vasoactive intestinal peptide secretion in children
... Neuroblastoma In the rectal examination of an 8-month-old child suffering from constipation, it should be
considered first if there is a hard mass.
Disorders of DNA repair mechanism ... Bloom's Syndrome, Xeroderma pigmentosum, Ataxia telangiectasia, Fanconi
anemia
&. ,, _, _ _, Itjı'Jjıgığığı centers

ğ "" "" 'Acute lymphoblastic leukemia in good risk group condition ... Trisomy 4 The pathology on the upper part of
the tibia that appears as “onion skin ide on radiography ... Ewing sarcoma Diseases causing alpha fetoprotein elevation
... Yolk sac tumor, Tyrosinemia type 1, Hepatoblastoma, Ataxia-telangiectasia Nephrology
- No aminoaciduria. Fanconi aplastic anemia
Nephrosis in children is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome ... Lupoid is not seen in childhood nephrotic
syndrome ... Plasma oncotic pressure increase The most common nephrotic syndrome in children ... Minimal lesion
disease Idiopathic abortion is not seen in nephrotic syndrome ... C3 Nephrotic tumor ... Hypodension, proteinuria,
hypoproteinemia and hypoalbuminemia (5) in a 5-year-old child with generalized edema in the malignant body, which
is the most stylish coexistence with Hodgkin syndrome Minimal change nephropathy Not seen in minimal lesion
disease. . . Macroscopic hematuria Kidney disease that responds dramatically to steroids dramatically. Minimal change

disease not seen in idiopathic nephrotic syndrome ... Osteodystrophy Fanconi syndrome is not characteristic of ...
Hyperuricemia Minimal hypocomponentemia is not a typical sign of lesion disease. Bacteria with nephrotic frequent
cause syndrome ... primary pneumoniae peritonitis in children of 5treptococcus, 3 years old male, edema-abdominal
swelling after URI. Most likely acid, diagnosis ... Minimal (++ - ++) change in urine protein, disease Albumin:
Childhood sign. . age.Massive idiopathic proteinuria is a common 15-year-old boy with nephrotic syndrome, swelling
of feet, dark urination, hemodialysis blur on vision for 4 years, and a lack of (+) most undiagnosed diagnosis in a
patient with hearing. . .Alport syndrome A 16-year-old girl with edema in her feet and periorbital region, occasionally
suffering from joint pain in a young girl and abdominal pain 4+ with proteinuria (+). AA type amyloidosis Non-acute
glomerulonephritis. . . Microscopic hematuria Microangiopathic hemolytic onema and thrombocytopenia after
glomerulonephritis at the age of 2 years. Diagnosis... Hemolytic uremic syndrome Non-poststreptococcal. . .
Antinuclear antibody positivity from the findings of glomerulonephritis Double contoured appearance in glomerular
basement membrane ... Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
. I '. '. Preparations for the development of antibodies against the basement membrane. ..Good-pasture syndrome
Hypocomplemantemia without glomerulonephritis. . .Membranous - Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Myalgia A 10-year-old child who had cryptic tonsillitis 10 days ago had generalized glomerulonephritis convulsion in
the emergency poststreptococcal service where he was brought with complaints of swelling of the eyelids and body,
oliguria, tea-colored urine and headache. Acute Optimal treatment of hypertension and hyperkalemia in a patient with
acute glomerulonephritis and signs of renal insufficiency ... Brown swelling of dialysis. Diagnosis. Pee .. It has the
highest probability of developing in acute eyelid, poststreptococcal headache and eye glomerulonephritis due to
hemolytic uremic syndrome. Cortical necrosis Low levels of serum complement C3 do not occur. . . Goodpasture
syndrome Not leading to acute nephritic syndrome. . . Minimal lesion disease 'Nephrotoxic antibiotic. . .amikacin
Peritoneal dialysis without indication. . . Hypoalbuminemia edema, hypertension and heart failure develop in CRF
patients, whichever is not done ... Digitalize with Digoxin
In the presence of normochromic and normocytic anemia in CRF, ... Recombinant erythropoietin Without cause of
acute renal failure in young children. .. Non-obstructive uropathy Dialysis in acute renal failure is not indicated ...
Hypovolemia The most likely to improve renal functions. .. Prerenal renal failure not seen in renal osteodystrophy due
to CRF. . . Increase in serum 1,25 D3 level The most common cause of chronic renal failure in children ... Vesico
ureteral reflux The most common cause of urinary infection in children. TO. Coli The most common cause of
pyelonephritis in childhood. . .Escherichia coli 10 days to be asked for radiological examination of urinary tract
infection in the baby. . .Ultrasonogrcili If there is one of the first factors of childhood urinary tract infection causes
stone formation ...'Proteus mirabilis Urinary factors ... pathway Dysfunction of voiding infections, Constipation,
Pregnancy _ Neurogenic bladder risk in the development of Mention cystourethrogram is a diagnostic disorder. . .The
most useful test for acute pyelonephritis Renal injury (scar) ...Dimer captosuccinic acid (DMSA) scintigraphy Urine
pH: 7.1 If the child has rickets and aminoaciduria diagnosis. . .Phanconia syndrome
2 years old blood pH: 7.1, total 602 contours: 13, urine pH: 7, diagnosis in a child with hypokalemia and rickets. . .
Distal tubular acidosis
In nephrocalcinosis with growth-growth retardation and polydipsia, blood pH: 7.29, urine pH: 6.8 and blood K: 2.9 ...
Distal renal tubular acidosis Causes renal tubular acidosis by affecting the proximal tubule. . . Cystinosis Anion gap
normal in a child with growth retardation, acidosis, hypokalemia, hyperchloremia. Diagnosis... Renal tubular acidosis
A-1-antitrypsin deficiency, which does not cause renal tubular dysfunction ...Veratoxin Bloody diarrhea followed by
meat consumption and cytotoxicity in vera cells. .. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli A rapidly developing severe otitis externa
in a patient with diabetes is the causative agent of ... Pseudomonas Aurigenosa not seen in Bartter syndrome. .
.Hypertension All electrolytes, ions and particles except magnesium are absorbed most ... Proximal tubular Bartter's
diseaseHypopotasemic metabolic alkalosis Decreasing the extraction in adrenac cortex failure ... What is the most
effective treatment of hypercalcemia in potassium 'ABV ... Dialysis Dialysis without indication ... Hypoalbuminemia
does not improve with dialysis in CRF ...Renal osteodystysty The main cause of renal osteodystrophy in CRF ...
Hyperparathyroidism caused by hyperphosphatemia. Urine Na is below 20 mmol / l and fractionated Na excretion is
less than 1%. Prerenal ABY
Urine findings in acute tubular necrosis ...Anuri or oliguria without evidence of renal osteodystrophy ...
Hypomagnesemia The most common cause of prerenal ABV is ... Hypovolemia is not a cause of hypocalcemia in ...
Hypercalciuria Small kidney, creatinine elevation, anemia, osteitis fibrosa (bone resorption in subperiostasis) and band
keratopathy in a patient with renal dysfunction. . '| <<Suggests BY. Nephropathy seen in mesengial IgA deposition. ..
Immune complex storage of Berger's Disease is unseen. . . . Laboratory element used in the follow-up of hereditary
nephritis and Minimal change disease APSGN ... CS level Proteins with increased levels in nephrotic syndrome ...

Alpha-2 macroglobulin, Beta globulin Diagnosis of a patient with renal biopsy showing deletion of podocyte leg
protrusions ...Lipoid nephrosis (Minimal change) Nephropathy with C3 nephritic factor acting as an autoantibody
against CSbBb. .. Type 2 MPGN Hemoptysis + Nephritic syndrome + Diagnosis of a patient with crescent formation
in glomeruli. .. Goodpasture Syndrome
©
Systemic disease that increases the risk of urinary infection. . . . Diabetic nephropathy. . . Nodular glomerulosclerosis
Calcium phosphate and magnesium ammonium phosphate stones in the patient's urine is how you expect. . . . The
earliest sign of alkaline diabetic nephropathy ...Mikroalbumi nüri Where water reabsorption is most ...Proximal tubulus
The hormone released from the juxtaglomerular apparatus ...Specific epithelial cells that form the visceral leaf of the
Renin Bowman capsule. . .Podocytes Renal pupillary necrosis is most common in diabetes. Antibody caused by type 4
collagen. . .Good Pasture The most obvious change in lipoid nephrosis ...Flattening of podocytes Renal lesion seen in
severe shock ...Acute tubular _ necrosis Linear Ig deposition in the basal membrane of the immunofluorescence. .
.antiGBM nephritis (GoodPasture)
Glomerular change, indicating that the disease will progress rapidly and progressively ... Half-moon-shaped epithelial
proliferation does not cause acute pyelonephritis ...Excessive analgesic use
Imaging method showing the highest renal scores in a baby with febrile urinary tract infection. . .DMSA scintigraphy
Cystic disease in which kidney size is smaller than normal. . .Uremic medullary cystic disease Diffuse proliferative
glomerulonephritis is the most common cause. . .Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci caused by immune complex
crescentic glomerul nephritis. . .SLE, HSP, APSGN, Berger The most common cystic kidney disease that requires
dialysis and transplantation and causes KBV. . .Autosomal dominant disease
In a young adult with recurrent episodes of hematuria, mesengial IgA deposition is expected on renal biopsy. - The
cause of proteinuria in lipoid nephrosis ... Loss of glomerular polyanion The most important histopathological feature
that determines fast progressive glomerulonephritis ...The crescents with parietal cell proliferation The change leading
to the formation of glomeruli half moon is secondary to cell proliferation of the parietal epithelium. Acute
poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. . . It is common between the ages of 5-12. Serum CS levels are low. Nephritis is
usually self-limiting and has a good prognosis. Microscopic hematuria. The main cause of anemia in chronic renal
failure ... Erythropoietin deficiency. Other reasons
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iron deficiency, B12 and folate deficiency, chronic infection and secondary bone marrow fibrosis secondary to
hyperparathyroidism. Tubular damage is not a cause of anemia
- Treatment of nephrotic syndrome in children ... corticosteroids, albumin and diuretics, alkylating agents
(cyclophosphamide), cyclosporine
A four-year-old girl has decreased urine volume and red urination after gastroenteritis. Laboratory examination
revealed anemia, thrombocytopenia and serum creatinine as 1.7 mg / dL.
The most likely diagnosis for this patient ... Hemolytic uremic syndrome Diseases associated with glomerulonephritis
in children, ... Goodpasture syndrome, Lupus nephritis, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, Vasculitis
The most appropriate examination after urinary ultrasonography in children with frequent urinary tract infections ...
urination cystourethrography
Expected urinary findings in acute tubular necrosis ... Increased excretion of fractionated sodium
Conditions that cause hematuria in children ... Polycystic kidney disease, Hemolytic uremic syndrome, Nutcracker
syndrome, IgA nephropathy
A 6-year-old healthy female patient with microscopic hematuria and routine 3-year-old brother were found to have
microscopic hematuria. Thin basal membrane disease
A 2-year-old child with normal growth and development, presented with complaints of progressive fatigue and
paleness in the last 2 days, had a history of diarrhea for 5 days, and had a stool that was dark and bloody. required...
Hemogram and peripheral smear The most probable diagnosis for a baby who was brought on time due to hematuria
and whose mother was diabetic, was found to have hypertension in her physical examination and to have a 7x5 cm
mass on the right during deep palpation in abdominal examination and found to have thrombocytopenia in laboratory
examinations. . Renal vein thrombosis In arterial blood gas examination; Ph: 7.27, p602: 25 mmHg, P02: 90 mmHg,
BE: -17, H60,: 10 mEq / L, No: 130 mEq / L, K = 3.5 mEq / L, Cl: 113 mEq / L In the child, the clinical condition
responsible for this picture ... Renal tubular acidosis
A 5-year-old girl was admitted with a history of urinary tract infection 4-5 times since her infancy. She had a history
of fever and abdominal pain in some of these infections. She had a urine culture 2 times and renal ultrasonography
showed that the left kidney was 12 mm smaller than the right. The most appropriate approach for the next stage for a

patient who is found to be abnormal and there are no abnormalities other than edge irregularities ...
Dimercaprosuccinic acid renal scintigraphy
A 3.5-year-old boy diagnosed with acute renal failure is at risk of causing heart failure and pulmonary edema during
fluid overload. Urine sodium level> 40mEq / L
l— O ð wasp / ms
- Primary approach to the treatment of hypercalcemia in children ...
Hydration
The most probable diagnosis was for a three-year-old boy who was brought with the complaint of blood coming from
his urine and who had a history of dropping stones 3 times. Cystinuria associated with acute poststreptococcal
glomerulonephritis (APSGN) ...Complete recovery occurs in the majority of patients, is rare in children under the age
of three years. Following streptococcal tonsillopharyngitis, APSGN develops more quickly than APSGN after
streptococcal pyodermia. In the majority of patients, low levels of complement C3 are detected.
Hypernatremia and its treatment ... Usually associated with fluid deficit, Sodium level should not be reduced rapidly in
chronic hypernatremia, can be applied in oral therapy, 5% dextrose can be used in treatment
The most probable diagnosis was in the patient with high fever, marked rashes in the legs and intermittent colic
abdominal pain and dark palpable rashes of various sizes, erythrocyte in urine and mild proteinuria. Henoch-Schönlein
purpura
In a child receiving paracetamol at the level of poisoning, the earliest hour should be measured. 4
Renal swelling of the body and eyelids, nephrotic proteinuria level in urine examination, fever and abdominal pain 4 to
5 times a year with a previous history of appendectomy and similar complaints in other individuals in the family of
patients with similar complaints in the most likely finding ...Storage of amyloid
The patient had hematuria and oliguria that developed suddenly after bloody diarrhea and was found to be
normovolemic in the evaluation of the patient. Renal acute renal failure
Platelet count for a patient with Henoch-Schönlein purpura ...normal
The 5-day-old male infant was observed to have growth in the left kidney during prenatal follow-up, and it was most
suitable for the follow-up of a baby whose ultrasound examination was performed on the 1st postnatal day and whose
ultrasonography showed a larger than normal (stage 2) left ureter and left kidney with normal parenchymal thickness. .
Serial renal ultrasonography should be followed.
A four-year-old child presented with a 6-day history of fever and bloody diarrhea and was found to be pale and
restless. Hypertension was detected in the laboratory, thrombocytopenia and serum creatinine elevation was detected
and peripheral smear schistositis and Burr cells were the most probable diagnosis for a child. Hemolytic uremic
syndrome
GENEI. QUESTION OF TASS IN SURGERY

METABOLIC AND ENDOCRINE RESPONSE TO TRAUMA
Traumatic Glucagon is ill, reduces the effect of catecholamines without ... Trauma is the result of ... Myositis ossiticans
Not seen in trauma. . .Reduction in the amount of free fatty acids in the serum Trauma, elevation in systemic blood
press, heart rate per minute and decrease in respiration. .Increased intracranial pressure Inhibition of amino acid release
from traces of cortisol in trauma ... Without catecholamine effect in trauma ... Reduces 6-lagonagon A sixty-year-old
woman with metastatic breast cancer has no TSH response to FSH and LH high TRH and low T3 and T4 value free T4
what is normally considered. . . Patient euthyroid syndrome Responsible for postoperative dilutional hyponatremia
ADH Tissue injury, the earliest rising cytokine ...Which of the TNF-alpha cytokines is a macrophage-derived
cytokine. IL-1 and TNF Immunosuppression IL-2 (which is also necessary for lymphocyte proliferation,
immunoglobulin synthesis and intestinal mucosal integrity). Major trauma, 60-year-old patient. Vital signs are all fond,
despite attempts to bleed. It is improved. Fever, hypotension, nausea and vomiting of general condition, hypoglycemia,
hyponatremia and hyperkalemia, the most likely diagnosis. . . Acute adrenal insufficiency leads to multiple organ
failure ...Per'itonitis, Trauma, Pancreatitis, Burn.
Cause of amenorrhea in trauma ...Increased prolactin release
Proinflammatory cytokines. .IL 4,10, 13 Increases nitric oxide for smooth muscle relaxation. cGMP
Both TNF alpha and IL-6 secreting cells. macrophages
The first hormone ACTH in hemorrhagic shock as a reaction to shock at the pituitary-adrenal axis. .. -Fire> 38 ° C or
<36 ° C -Kclp rate> 90 / min
- Respiratory rate> 20 / min or PaCO: <32mmHg - White sphere> 12000 / mm3 or <4000 / mm3 or> 10% band form
Hormones that produce diabetic effects in trauma: - Glucocorticaids. - Catecholamines - Glucagon - Grovith hormone -

ACTH _ Hemorrhagic shock after trauma which is not observed. . . Hypoglycemia The first medical school in history
was established where ... M. Where he founded the Hippocrates medical school in Knidos in 700 BC.
Kos Island (Kos)
A hormone that reduces muscle protein synthesis in the process of regulating the body's nitrogen balance which is
deteriorated due to trauma or infections. Glucocorticoids Molecules that activate eosinophils after an in-response to
trauma ... Platelet activating factor Those involved in the opposite regulatory response in intraabdominal infection ...
Tumor necrosis factor-binding factor, Interleukin-1 receptor antagonist, Interleukin-4, Interleukin-IO
Major decreasing surgical hormone .. The factors that increase the release of antidiuretic hormone in response to
trauma after thyroxine ... Angiotensin II, Pain, Adrenaline, Hyperglycemia Those involved in early neutrophil
activation after trauma ... Ischemia, Reperfusion, Oxygen radicals, Cytokines
NUTRITION IN SURGICAL PATIENTS
The most serious complication in total parenteral nutrition. . Catheter sepsis Hepatomegaly and liver glucose
administration in parenteral hyperalimentation depends on the height of the enzymes ... Asymptomatic elevation in
hyperalimentation in excess parenteral tests is the most common cause of liver function. . . '' liver fats To reduce the
risk of hepatic encephalopathy in a liver patient undergoing parenteral nutrition, the aim is to reduce the aromatic
amino acids and increase the proportion of branched chain amino acids.Reduce the number of pseudo-
neurotransmitters in circulation
The most common complication of enteral nutrition ...Diarrhea To complete the protein-calorie deficiency of the
patient who was in a coma for a long time due to a traffic accident
ıhtıuısmm
which way is preferred ..my J'ejunosto
Standard amino acid solution containing 1.7g protein per kilogram per 24 hours, potassium glucose to give 150kcall
energy to Igr nitrogen, 24 phosphorus of 90mEq, total magnesium 50mEq sodium and calcium 40mEq treatment of
30mEq per hour. , intraocular disorder in a patient. under pressure .. Essential drops are observed: the most possible
metabolic deficiency of fatty acids is the state where the body's energy requirement is highest ... Serious burn
As a complication of long-term parenteral nutrition, hypocapnia or hypercapnia ... hlpercapnia It is recommended to
keep the blood sugar level in TPN. ..80-110 mg / dL
In appropriate patients, enteral nutrition compared to parenteral nutrition, superior features ... Less risk of developing
atrophy in intestinal mucosa, Cheap inexpensive, Less development of infectious complications Diseases that need
nutritional support ... Patients with serum albumin <3 g / dL in the absence of any inflammatory process, Patients with
significant weight loss (> 10%), Patients with dysfunction of the gastrointestinal tract, Patients with burns, patients
with catabolic problems such as sepsis or pancreatitis Complications related to parenteral nutrition ...
Hypertriglyceridemia, Azotemia, Hyperglycemia, Hypoglycemia
A 45-year-old male patient followed up for nasopharyngeal cancer invading the proximal part of the esophagus is the
most appropriate method for feeding a patient who cannot receive oral or solid food and cannot undergo upper
gastrointestinal endoscopy for tumor. Surgical gastrostomy
Perioperative patient whose body mass index is required under the support of nutrition 18.5 kg / mz
status ...
Which is considered a kind of active euthanasia method ...Lethal dose medication
Central venous pressure and cardiac index is high, arteriovenous oxygen difference is low shock type. . .Hyperdynamic
septic shock
In the terminal period, due to a disease, life support devices connected to life, artificial support of a patient in the
process of closure of the disease to leave the natural process ... Active euthanasia Hyperdynamic septic shock, non-
hemodynamic changes. . .Hypovolemic parameter. . .Urine shock is used in monitoring the amount and density of the
most healthy shock and increases the blood flow to the kidney ... dopamine
The first operation in every type of shock ... Give enough IV fluid
No septic shock ...Lung atelectasis
(% wax — girl! )
The earliest hemodynamic change in septic shock caused by Gram (-) bacteria.Vascular resistance decreases
Neurogenic shock is always a finding ... Decrease in peripheral vascular resistance Correct metabolic acidosis in acute
hemorrhagic shock
The first thing to do for transfusion ... Ringer lactate and blood septic shock is wrong ... Myocardial depression in all
stages

Severe shock of a kidney lesion ... Acute tubular necrosis - A finding specific to the hypodynamic phase of gram -
negative septic shock. .. Increased peripheral vascular resistance The earliest finding in a patient with septic shock. . .
Hypoxia, hyperventilation, respiratory alkalosis Hemorrhagic stating is the best criterion in the clinical treatment of
shock ...Increase in the flow of urine fluid is sufficient
Liquid to be given to a patient in septic lactate shock. Ringer The most basic element of shock treatment. . Appropriate
fluid replacement (Cardiogenic replacement). The first treatment for shocks other than shock is fluid - diagnosis of
systemic inflammatory response syndrome
criteria. . . - Fever> 3806 or <36 ° C - Heart rate> 90 beats / min. - Respiratory rate> 20 Respiration / min or Pa CO2
<32 torr (<4.3kPa) - BK> 12,000 or <4,000 cells / mm3, or> 10% band
form
Septic shock without TNF effect ..._IL-1 reduction in oscillation
Tumor necrosis factor ... IL-1 induction induces endothelial secretion on cells. cytotoxic / adhesion cytostatic increase,
fever, effect, IFN — gamma GM-CSF - The success of fluid therapy in hemorrhagic shock
007 is the best parameter showing ...Hourly urine excretion is not normovolemic properties. in a patient. . Increased
arteriovenous developing septic-aware shock - Gram negative in patients with normal immune system
septic system is the most frequent source of shock. . . Genitourinary Stabi 38, aged from the fourth day of the male
patient after an accident throughout the traffic, increased after 3 heart days, decreased systemic vascular resistance and
decreased urinary excretion, extremity warm, dry and pink. . .Septic shock, hyperdynamic stage
An early change in septic shock, leading to an increase in permeability and microcirculatory disorder. . . Vascular
Early Septic Shock (hot shock, hyperdynamic shock) - Systolic blood pressure is low - Heart rate is normal or high.
- The skin is usually warm (even red) and dry. Initially
hypothermic patients have poor prognosis - Tachycardia and tachypnea
- Arterial blood gases are usually moderate respiratory alkalosis - Lactic acid level is usually normal or initially
slightly increased. - Arteriovenous oxygen difference decreases.
Late Septic Shock (cold shock) (hypodynamic phase) - Organ functions are impaired - Intravenous fluid retention -
Functional extracellular fluid volume decreases. - The cardiac index usually falls below normal. - Lactic acid level
starts to increase rapidly. - Myocardium depresses. . - Heart rate will drop. Hypovolemic shock, initial resuscitation,
which fluid is preferred. . .Ringer lactate The most common cause of spinal shock ... spinal trauma
An organ that shows the earliest signs of insufficiency in an ICU patient with multiple organ dysfunction
syndrome.Respiratory system (finally cardiovascular system) An organ without vasoconstriction in a mild or moderate
shock.Brain Hypovolemic shock; According to the mechanism of autoregulation, the brain is the organ whose last
circulation is disrupted. First response to septic shock ... Peripheral vasodilatation A decrease in blood viscosity from
solutions used as volume expanders in hemorrhagic shock. Dextran
The success of shock treatment ...Lactic acid level and base deficiency are used in trauma centers as the best reflecting
parameter of oxygen debt. Both are easy and inexpensive to monitor with blood gases. Clinical findings in neurogenic
shock. Classic picture of neurogenic shock ° Bradycardia - Decreased blood pressure - Dry, hot extremities due to
peripheral vasodilatation Hemodynamic parameter that distinguishes neurogenic shock from other shock
types.Bradycardia Recommended as a basic therapy in a patient with septic shock ... Fluid resuscitation, Vasopressors,
Inotropic therapy, Steroid therapy Causes of coagulopathy directly associated with pathological changes caused by
shock in hemological shock ... Hypothermia, Acidosis, Consumption of coagulation factors, Dilution of coagulation
factors In order to make a diagnosis of severe sepsis, the patient should be ... oliguria
- About the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock ... Peripheral vasodilatation develops, hyperglycemia and insulin
resistance develops, mostly increased cardiac output, contraction of vascular smooth muscles is impaired.
A 45-year-old female patient was admitted to the surgical intensive care unit with the diagnosis of acute biliary
pancreatitis. On physical examination, her body temperature was 36.7 ”6, heart rate was 120 / minute, respiratory rate
was 30 / minute, blood pressure was 100/60 mmHg and oxygen saturation was 98 percent. The most common
diagnosis for a patient whose white blood cell count was found to be 13.000 / mm3 in his laboratory examinations, and
complete urine examination was normal and no other source of infection was detected. Systemic inflammatory
response syndrome Conditions involved in the pathophysiology of shock ... Parenchymal cell damage, Decreased tissue
perfusion, Cellular hypoxia, Endothelial cell activation Related to the body's hemodynamic response to shock types ...
Cardiac index decreases in hypovolemic shock, systemic vascular resistance increases, central venous pressure
decreases, Cardiac index increases in septic shock, systemic vascular resistance decreases, central venous pressure
increases or decreases, Cardiogenic shock decreases, systemic vascular resistance increases, central venous pressure
rises

He was brought to the emergency department with complaints of cough, weakness and fever that had been going on
for one week. In physical examination, his body temperature 39,206 heart rate 114 / minute blood pressure 80/60
mmHg and respiratory rate 32 / minute were measured and crepitant rales were detected within one hour. A 34-year-
old male patient whose blood pressure was measured 75/60 mmHg after 1000 mL saline infusion was the most
probable diagnosis ... Septic shock: Clinical findings of a hemorrhagic shock patient who lost 30-40% of intravascular
blood volume. Pulse rate is higher than 120 / minute, Systolic pressure is low, Pulse pressure is low, Significant
tachypnea is present. Right hemicolectomy was performed due to tumor and the patient was taken to the recovery room
after the operation and the patient's blood pressure decreased to 85/50 mmHg and the pulse rate increased to IBO /
min. and urine output in the last hour 5m | For the treatment of a measured sixty-five-year-old patient without an
additional medical problem ... The patient should be taken to the operating room immediately and laparotomy should
be performed. Lactate level cannot be corrected by giving oxygen to a patient in shock condition. The finding seen in
a patient who lost IO% of total blood volume ... Hourly urine output> 30 mL / h
. Liquid Electrolyte-Acid Base Balance
and DISORDERS
- Base deficiency 15 mEq / L, 70 kg. The amount of bicarbonate required to be given to a person of 210 mEq. A
patient aged 15 years undergoing cholecystectomy, fever and respiratory distress up to 39 ° C after 24 hours, PO2 60
mmHg, PCO2 52 mmHg, HCOa 26 mEq / L, acid-base in the patient disorder .. Respiwratuar acidosis
Optimal treatment for the above patient Tracheobronchial a5piration
POz was 50 mm Hg, pCOz 55 mmHg and HCC-38 mEq / L as a result of treatment. .. Mechanical ventilation Chlorine
70 kg to 75 mEq / lt and 90 mEq / lt. The amount of chlorine to be given to the person ... 210
If we treat a patient with metabolic acidosis with a high dose of alkali, what causes the contraction in the hands. . .ion
reduction in Ca. First approach to the patient in surgical patients with hypoxia and hypercapnia. .. Tracheabronchial
aspiration 70 kg. If a patient is unable to receive oral nutrients daily needs fluid. . Diagnosis in a patient with 2500-
3000ml pH = 7.36, pCO2 = 20 mmHg and H603 = 9 mEq / lt. Compensated Metabolic Acidosis Cause if plasma is
hypertonic and Na is decreased. . Chlorothiazide (Thiazides reduce Na but increase glucose and urea, thereby
increasing osmolality)
70 kg with metabolic alkalosis due to vomiting and gastric aspiration. The amount of chlorine needed to increase a
patient's serum chlorine concentration from 75 mEq / L to 90 mEq / L ... 210
Which is given to the patient to prevent acidosis in the first 24 hours postoperatively ... Ringer lactate
Anion deficit low non-metabolic acidosis ... Renal tubular acidosis - the cause of paradoxical aciduria in metabolic
alkalosis.
Hypopotasemia Which loss of HCO3 in fistula is most ... Pancreas
The most reliable way to monitor whether a patient is receiving adequate intravenous fluid therapy. .. * Hourly urine
monitoring
H603: normal, PaCOZ: in patients with high and low pH ..._ Respiratory acidosis (uncompensated)
The most common cause of metabolic acidosis after surgical operations ...Acute circulatory failure pH = 7.20, PCOZ =
80, H603 = 22 most likely diagnosis. . .Decompensated respiratory acidosis The most common cause of hypercalcemia
is parathyroid adenoma. Metastasis is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in an inpatient. The maximum amount
of K + that can be given in 1000 ml in IV hypokalemia in mEq / It ... 40
Preparations used in the treatment of hypocalcemia IV ... Ca gluconate or Ca chloride
Causes of prerenal azotemia. . .
Bleeding 'Dehydration - Burns - Diuresis
Hypotension Artery occlusion Stenosis
'Heart failure' Hypoxia - Which laboratory result is used to differentiate acute renal failure from prerenal azotemia
caused by hypovolemia due to renal hypoperfusion ... Fractionated sodium excretion> "/ o 3 - A 55-year-old patient
with pyloric stenosis underwent nasogastric drenqi. Laboratory results K *: 3 mg / dl P602: 44, H603: 37mEq and pH:
7.50, the most probable diagnostic ... Metabolic alkalosis
- Not used in hlpovolemia ... Sympathomimetic agents T-sharpening and QRS dilatation are observed on his ECG 11
days after surgical correction of the patient who was operated for gunshot injury. The first thing to do in this patient ...
Looking at serum electrolytes (ECG shows T-spike and QRS width in hyperkalemia)
Electrolyte excretion in renal alkalosis with increased excretion ... Potassium Na: 139 mEq / L CI-z 85 mEq / LK * 2.9
mEq / L, H603: 38 mEq / L and pH: 7.51 urine Na: 10 K *: 60 urine density 1017 diagnosis in this patient. .. Vomiting
The most important plasma buffer system ... Bicarbonate / Carbonic acid buffer system
The most important intracellular buffer system is proteins.

Hemoglobin acts as the intracellular buffer in erythrocytes.
The shifts of hemoglobin O2 dissociation curve to the left are: - Alkalose - decrease of 2,3 dihydrophosphoglycerate
level 'Increase in blood pH - decrease in temperature - increase in PO, - decrease in PCO,. 'HbF' Carboxy hemoglobin
'Methemoglobin' Hexokinase deficiency 'Elderly Erythrocytes
HCO3 is the highest secretion which ...Pancreas - Ileum and bile secretions are the most
secretions very similar. - Small intestine makes the highest amount of secretion. (3000
cc) - The smallest amount of secretion makes the large intestine. (100-200
cc) - Na ratio is the best pancreas and bile. (140 mEq) - Na is the lowest saliva. (10 mEq) - Pancreas and bile secrete
isotonic fluid. - The highest Ki content belongs to colon secretion. - The lowest K— content belongs to the pancreas
and bile. - The highest chlorine is gastric secretion. - In the emergency examination of a patient with trauma; pH: 30.7
pos: 65 mmHg pCOZ: 55.6 mmHg
r O d ,. 'A T'UŞDAT
H603: 12 mEq / lt Total 602: 14.5 Hemoglobin: 8 gr / dl was found to be. The acid-base disorder in this patient
...Metabolic acidosis + respiratory acidosis Serum Na = 115 mg / dl 70 kg. In order to increase the serum Na of a
patient weighing 140 to 140%, how much should be given from 0.9% NaCl. 7 2, PCOZ: 25 mmHg CO content: 10
mEq / L calculated CO capacity 14 mEq / Lt, standard H60 16 mEq / Lt, lack of base is 15 mEq / Lt. Acid-base
disorder in this patient. KompanSe metabolic acidosis is not secondary to hyponatremia ...Symptoms of hyponatremia
are mainly related to central nervous system. Symptoms of brain edema occur when the plasma sodium concentration
decreases rapidly. Physical examination revealed increased intracranial pressure, decreased urinary excretion,
excessive sweating and watery diarrhea. The following fluid electrolyte change in this patient. .Hyponatremia The
most likely cause of low serum sodium level is 120 mEq / L in a postoperative patient who is not dehydrated and has
normal renal function. . .Improper antidiuretic hormone release
Stress hormones such as aldosterone, ADH increase in postoperative patients. There is a tendency to dilutional
hyponatremia in surgical patients due to increased ADH.)
The system that plays the most important role in buffering hydrogen ions in the body as acidosis. . .Bicarbonate —
carbonic acid Bilateral femoral fracture was detected after a traffic accident. The patient's blood pressure was 100/40
mm, pulse was 136 / minute and cold sweating was observed. Optimal intravenous therapy to prevent hypovolemic
shock ... Administration of Ringerlactate solution and blood transfusion if necessary Chronic renal failure and upper
gastrointestinal system hemorrhage The patient has pH 7.2 | standard bicarbonate 16 mEq / L, base minus -15, anion
gap 28 mEq / L, acid base disorder ... Primary metabolic acidosis - compensated respiratory alkalosis Not used in the
treatment of hyperkalemia ...Intravenous ammonium chloride The patient is hospitalized due to traffic accident. Blood
pH 7.23 p60z 40 mmHg, bicarbonate 10mEq / dl, which are acid base disorders ... Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
Not seen in acute symptomatic hyponatremia. . .Reduction of sweat Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
due to pyloric stenosis. . . Increased potassium excretion in response to hydrogen ion reabsorption from the kidneys
The most common occurrence of hyperpotasemia. .. acidosis. (surgical patients)
.©
The most common cause of hypercalcemia in hospitalized patients. . .Malignant Diseases Engaged in
bronchoconstriction, vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation. Serotonin SEROTONIN: It is a product of tryptophan.
Vasoconstrictor, bronchoconstrictor, has a stimulating effect on platelet aggregation. chronotrope + inotropic effect on
myocardium. HISTAMINE: hypotension, peripheral pooling of blood, increased capillary permeability cause
myocardial insufficiency. BRADIKININE: It is a vasodilatation product of Kallikrein-kinin system. Electrolyte content
is the most similar body fluid with Ringer's lactate solution. . Small bowel content The most common fluid balance
disorder in surgical patients. . . Volume loss in extracellular fluid Dilutional hyponatremia is the most common
electrolyte disorder in surgical patients. The cause of persistent hypokalemia in a patient admitted to the surgical
intensive care unit in the posttraumatic period ... hypomagnesemia
Prerenal and renal nitrogenemia is the most useful test to distinguish ... Fractionated sodium excretion prerenal (%) <1,
renal> 3 PaOZ / FiO2 ratio below 200, pulmonary artery wedge pressure below 18 mmHg, and bilateral infiltration
detected on chest radiography. Acute respiratory distress syndrome is the second most common benign tumor of the
liver ... Focal nodular hyperplasia is the organ with the highest bicarbonate ion in secretion. Pancreatic resuscitation
fluid with a pH of 6.5 - containing sodium, potassium and calcium ... Ringer's lactate solution Hypernatremia causes ...
Excessive sweating, Sodium bicarbonate use in resuscitation, Hypoosmotic gastrointestinal fluid loss In hypokalemia,
intravenous replacement can be given in 1 hour without ECG monitoring.Significant U wave Hyponatremia associated
with inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion syndrome. Water intake is restricted in its treatment. A 64-year-old
female patient presented to the emergency department with complaints of fatigue, cough, respiratory distress and fever

that had not improved despite antibiotic and symptomatic treatment for two weeks. On physical examination, her body
temperature was 38.5 ° C, pulse 122 / minute, blood pressure 85/55 mmHg, respiratory rate 22 The patient who had
widespread crepitant rales on both auscultation and peripheral oxygen saturation (Spoz) was 84% and was given
oxygen by a mask and infused 1,000 mL of crystalloid fluid in 30 minutes and started empirical antibiotherapy.
The most appropriate approach for a patient who was taken to the intensive care unit and monitored and whose
hypotension continued in the first 6 hours and whose Spose level increased to 92% despite the central venous pressure
being given to the patient in the range of 8-12 mmHg ... Norepinephrine infusion contains Ringer's lactate solution ...
Sodium, Chlorine, Calcium, Potassium Increased anion deficit causes metabolic acidosis ... Ketoacidosis In which of
the following conditions is the possibility of acute respiratory alkalosis ... Pain, Fever, Hypoxia, Anxiety Physiological
conditions, the role of regulation of calcium metabolism ... Bone, Liver, Kidney. Small intestine
NUTRITION IN SURGICAL PATIENTS
The most important pulmonary complication of early postoperative period. . . Atelectasis (The most common cause of
postoperative pneumonia is aspiration.)
It is given in addition to intravenous potassium for maintenance of intracellular potassium level in the treatment of
acute hypokalemia ...... Magnesium is the most common cause of hypermagnesemia. Chronic renal failure
The cause of fever 24 to 48 hours after a clean operation. .. Atelectasis In the upper abdominal surgery, after 24 hours,
if the fever rises, which examination is required. . .Chest X-ray, diagnosis in this patient. . .atelectasis
Causes of postoperative fever and sepsis
Atelectasis breast infection
Wound infection
intraabdominal sepsis
thromboembolism
Catheter infection
A patient who comes with gastric acid fluid aspiration, the first thing to do ... Emergency bronchial lavage Which does
not cause severe extracellular loss after surgery. .. Fluid sequestration from the wound site The most common cause of
postoperative cardiac failure in a patient with low myocardial reserve. hypervolemia
The patient developed intraoperative and postoperative hypertension and fever. Pheochromocytoma In which category
of perforated acute appendicitis surgery. . . Clean-contaminated
Does not increase the risk of postoperative urinary retention ... Preoperative alpha 1 blocker treatment
A 60-year-old patient who underwent cholecystectomy for gallstones had fever in the first 24 hours after surgery. .
.Atelectasis Pulmonary embolism The most common electrolyte disorder after major surgery. . . Hyponatremia The
most common fluid electrolyte disorder after major surgery is hlpovolemia. Hyponatremia is the most common
electrolyte deterioration after major surgery.
Factors that increase the risk of developing postoperative infection in a patient to be operated due to pyloric
obstruction due to duodenal ulcer. ..The patient is hospitalized for a long time before surgery, preoperative blood
transfusion, the patient is over 65 years of age, shaving the site 48 hours before surgery The most sensitive diagnostic
method in the diagnosis of acute tubular necrosis after surgery. . fractionated sodium excretion, urine / plasma urea and
creatinine ratios.
** “Urine / plasma urea and creatinine ratios according to Schwartz
** fr Extraction of fractionated sodium according to Sabiston
The most common pulmonary complication after major abdominal or thoracic surgery ... pneumothorax
Criteria of acute respiratory distress syndrome. - Bilateral infiltration - Acute onset - Predisposing condition -
Pulmonary artery wedge pressure below 18mmHg
- There should not be signs of right heart failure. - PaOZ / FIO2 ratio should be less than 200. The most common cause
of enterocutaneous fistulas. .. Surgical intervention **** Mechanisms of postoperative fistula development
'Anastomosis leakage,' Damage to the intestine or intestinal blood flow, 'Laceration of the intestine with retention
sutures,' Forgotten pads in the abdomen, 'As a result of erosion of drains or abscesses. Reduction in iron absorption
Indications of hemodialysis in a patient with renal failure in the postoperative period. .. 'Serum K level above 5.5 mEq
/ L' Blood urea nitrogen above 80-90 mg / dL 'Persistent acidosis' Excessive fluid load' Uremic signs and symptoms
Systemic factors that increase the risk of postoperative wound infection. . .
'Diabetes mellitus' Steroid use - Obesity' Malnutrition
.'O% ”iu SDATA
- Leukemia, DM 'uremia,' burn and trauma, - advanced malignancy, - advanced age, 'obesity - malnutrition
The most important cause of serious infections in surgical patients. . insidious malnutrition. Hypotension, tachycardia

and tachypnea occur in a patient who underwent total abdominal colectomy and postoperative subclavian vein
catheterization. The chest radiograph taken is as follows.
The clinical picture in this patient is due to ... Shift in the mediastinum **** The question could be asked which of the
following is seen in blood pressure pneumothorax. Findings related to PaOz, PaCO2, and alveolar-arterial oxygen
gradient (AaDOz) levels that will diagnose postoperative acute respiratory failure. . . Pa02_low, PaCOz high, AaDOz
high
Typically, parenteral nutritional requirements less than few days / week can be met from the periphery ... 2 weeks
Complications of carbon dioxide as a complication of long-term parenteral nutrition ... Hypocapnia The most common
electrolyte imbalance in TPN ... Hypopotasemia is the most common lack of trace elements in TPN ... It is
recommended to keep the blood sugar level in zinc TPN ... 80-110 mg / dL (not exceed 150 mg / di)
HEMOSTASIS AND TRANSFUSION
Changes in bank blood. . . Lactic acid accumulates. - pH decreases. - Ammonia accumulates. - Factor V, VIII
decreases. - Factors II, VII, IX, XI are stable. - ATP and 2,3-DPG are reduced. - O: the carrying capacity is reduced. -
Increases osmotic fragility. - Platelets disappear after 24 hours. - The amount of potassium rises.
'No complication of blood transfusion ... Oil
Massive Transfusion Complications. . . - Hypervolemia - Diabetes thrombocytopenia - Plt (platelet) dysfunction - Lack
of factor 5,8,9 - Citrate intoxication - Lactic acidosis (due to systemic hypoperfusion) - Metabolic alkaioz (citrate to
bicarbonate in the liver)
- Hyperpotasemia - Hlpocalcemia (due to the Ca binding effect of citrate)
unexpected complications in massive blood transfusions. . . Sodium overload Hemolytic transfusion without
complication ... Hypercalcemia The most common cause of coagulopathy in massive transfusion. . . Thrombocytopenia
**** The tendency of bleeding in massive blood transfusion depends on the loss of platelets.
The most appropriate laboratory test for dose adjustment in anticoagulation with heparin ... aPTT The most common
finding of acute hemolytic reactions ... hemoglobinuria Which of the following blood clotting factors decreases in
patients undergoing massive blood transfusion ...Factor V, factor VIII, factor XI The most common complication
during blood transfusion. . . Febrile reaction Optimal for coagulation factor replacement in a patient undergoing
massive transfusion ...Fresh frozen plasma *** Drugs used in bleeding diathesis
- TDP: It contains all the clotting factors.
- Cryoprecipitate: Contains fibrinogen, F8, F13, vwf.
- Prothrombin complex: F2, 7, 9, 10.
Hemoglobin threshold required for blood transfusion in a surgical patient without cardiac or respiratory problems ... 7
The most common hemostasis disorder in surgical patients. . . Thrombocytopenia Whichever drug is not discontinued
at least 5 days before surgery may cause complications during and after surgery. . .Antiaggregant drugs Which is used
to monitor the effect of low molecular weight heparin ...Anti-factor Xa level '**** Monitoring of heparin treatment is
performed with aPTT.
**** INR is calculated over prothrombin time and is used in the follow-up of warfarin therapy.
**** Factor VIII level is used in Hemophilia A follow-up.
**** Bleeding time and platelet functions are monitored.

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EXIT IN THE INTERNAL TASS QUESTIONS

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tus TUS PREPARATION CENTERS, it '_R_. ,. PREPARATION BENCHES THROMBOEMBOLIC DISEASES

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wii: = 'f, f — ıffıişf'ı-İffızı centers,'

: Tus Preparation Center ©

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. XI; [0203] f.Tusv \ I-ZIAVZ'IRLIKMVENTURESHf f _ tusoaıra

ADRENAL CLOTH DISEASES

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- Which of the following is not an acute phase reactant

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3 ": ms OFFICE MERCERS

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& Tus Nmnuk usb ansa believe!

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TASS QUESTIONS IN PEDIATRIC

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