1.

What telecommunications law deregulates the paging services in the

country?
A. E. O. 125
B. R. A. 3846
C. R. A. 3396
D. R. A. 7925
2. Republic Act No. 6849 is otherwise known as
A. “Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”
B. “Telecommunications Law of the Philippines”
C. “PRC Modernization Law”
D. “Municipal Telephone Act of 2000”
3. What is otherwise known as “ The Maritime Communications Law” ?
A. R. A. 109
B. R. A. 3396
C. R. A. 3846
D. R. A. 7925
4. What government regulation in telecommunication provides the policy to
improve the provision of local exchange carrier service?
A. O. 109
B. R. A. 3846
C. O. 59
D. O. 546
5. What is the basic law that provides for the regulation of radio station,
communications in the Philippines and other purposes?
A. R. A. 3846
B. D. O. 11
C. D. O. 88
D. D. O. 5
6. What law specifically requires the service of a duly registered Electronics
and Communications Engineer in the designing, installation and construction,
operation and maintenance of radio stations?
A. R. A. 3846
B. R. A. 9292
C. R. A. 5734
D. D. O. 88
7. Which law vested the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the
Philippine communications satellite corporation with the National
Telecommunications Commission?
A. E. O. 109
B. E. O. 196
C. E. O. 59
D. E. O. 205
8. What law provides regulation of the ownership and operation of radio and
television stations and for other purposes?
 A. P. D. No. 223
B. P. D. No. 576-A
C. P. D. No. 567-A
D. P. D. No. 657-A
9. What NTC memorandum circular sets the rules and regulations governing
the manufacture, acquisition, sale and service of radio communication
equipment?
A. MC No. 9-13-98
B. MC No. 8-06-88
C. MC No. 4-22-99
D. MC No. 2-05-88
10. What law governs the operations of cable television in the Philippines?
A. E. O. 196
B. E. O. 463
C. E. O. 436
D. E. O. 205
11. What law created the national council for the promotion of E-Commerce
in the country?
A. E. O. 467
B. E. O. 468
C. E. O. 109
D. E. O. 59
12. Which law provides for a national policy on the operation and use of
international satellite communications in the country?
A. E. O. 468
B. E. O. 109
C. E. O. 205
D. E. O. 467
13. What law regulates the operation of CATV systems in the country?
A. E. O. 436
B. E. O. 205
C. E. O. 250
D. E. O. 346
14. What is an executive order signed by former President Fidel Ramos in
March 1998 providing the national policy in the operation and use of
international satellite communications in the Philippines?
A. E. O. 3846
B. E. O. 59
C. E. O. 456
D. E. O. 467
15. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 59?
A. December 21, 1993
B. February 24, 1993
C. June 21, 1993
 D. December 12, 1993
16. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 436?
A. September 11, 1997
B. September 6, 1997
C. September 9, 1997
D. September 18, 1997
17. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 109?
A. July 12, 1993
B. July 15, 1993
C. October 10, 1993
D. December 12, 1993
18. When was the affectivity of Executive Order No. 205?
A. June 30, 1987
B. June 21, 1987
C. June 12, 1987
D. June 1, 1987
19. When is the effectivity of Republic Act No. 7925?
A. March 1, 1995
B. March 21, 1995
C. February 20, 1995
D. March 7, 1995
20. When was Republic Act No. 7925 approved?
A. March 1, 1995
B. March 15, 1995
C. March 17, 1995
D. March 21, 1995
21. What law created the Movie and Television Review and Classification
Board (MTRCB)?
A. P. D. 223
B. P. D. 1986
C. P. D. 1987
D. P. D. 1988
22. What law created the Videogram Regulatory Board (VRB)?
A. P. D. 223
B. P. D. 1986
C. P. D. 1987
D. P. D. 1988
24. What government agency is the principal administrator of Republic Act
No. 7925?
A. Bureau of Communications
B. Department of Transportation and Communications
C. House of Representatives
D. National Telecommunications Commission
25. What government agency was designated as the Chairman of the
Electronic Commerce Promotion Council?
A. NTC
B. DOTC
C. NEDA
D. DTI
26. The VRB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman and _____
members.
A. 10
B. 18
C. 22
D. 25
27. MTRCB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman
& __members.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
28. MTRCB law defines an “Adult” as a person years of age and above.
A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21
29. Radio programs not suitable for children must be aired after what time?
A. 7 PM
B. 8 PM
C. 9 PM
D. 10 PM
30. In Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed minutes for one hour
program.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
31. KBP Radio Code requires each radio station a minimum of of news per
day.
A. 1 hour
B. 45 minutes
C. 2 hours
D. 1 hour and 30 minutes
43. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall
not exceed _________ breaks in every program hour.
A. 8
B. 5
 C. 6
D. 7
44. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila
shall not exceed breaks per program hour.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
45. Outside Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed minutes in one
hour program.
A. 12
B. 15
C. 17
D. 20
46. All stations must promote the Filipino music by playing OPM every hour.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
47. All station must have a minimum of news/day form 5:00 AM to 10:00
PM.
A. 50 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 45 minutes
48. Newscast is a distinct unit of a program with minimum news content
of excluding intro, extro, headline and commercial load.
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute and 30 seconds
49. In Metro Manila, program interruption for the airing of commercial shall
not exceed how many breaks in 1 hour?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 7
D. 6
50. TV station is required at least newscast (aggregate total including
advisories) per day during weekdays.
A. 20 minutes
B. 40 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 30 minutes
54. Which band is allocated to Short Range Radio Service in the country?
A. ELF
B. UHF
C. VHF
D. HF
55. The certificate of Authority issued by National Telecommunications
Commission to a CATV operator shall have a maximum term of how many
years?
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. 20 years

61. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract,
namely, consent, object and cause or consideration. It is a valid contract
until it is annulled.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
62. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
63. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is
ratified is said to be
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
64. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property
belonging to another without the consent of the latter.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Contract
65. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the
pecuniary compensation, recompense, or satisfaction for an injury done or a
wrong sustained as a consequence either of a breach of a contractual
obligation or a tortuous act.
A. Payment
B. Injury
C. Damages
 D. Compensation
66. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes
medical expenses, lost wages and the repair or replacement of property.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate and Moderate Damages
67. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious
anxiety, besmirched reputation, wounded feelings, moral shock, social
humiliation and similar injury.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
68. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injury
due to a violation of some legal right, and as a consequence of which some
damages must be awarded to determine the right.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
69. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
70. “Damages” where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the
parties or fixed by the judgment of a competent court.
A. Liquidated Damages
B. Exemplary Damages
C. Corrective Damages
D. Compensatory Damages

73. What refers to a remuneration paid to a carrier by the interconnecting

carriers for accessing the facilities of such carrier which is needed by the
interconnecting carriers for the origination and/or termination of all types of
traffic derived from the interconnector?
A. Interconnection charge
B. Approach charge
C. Access charge
D. Network charge
74. What refers to a permit issued by the NTC authorizing the holder thereof
to engage to the acquisition, servicing, maintenance, purchase or sale of
transmitters and/or transceivers, parts and accessories thereof?
 A. Radio Communication Equipment Dealer Permit
B. Radio Communication Equipment Manufacture Permit
C. Service Center Operation Permit
D. Radio Communication Equipment Service Center Point

76. The installation or construction of a cable TV head-end station shall be

directly supervised by a registered ECE. The statement above is:
A. True
B. False
C. It depends upon the area of coverage
D. It depends upon the number of households using the CATV system
77. Which of the following shall be complied by an international ship
pursuant to the global maritime distress and safety system implemented last
1999?
A. A facsimile
B. A radio personnel
C. A Morse code
D. A radio-telegraph operator
78. Authorized gateway operators shall provide at least one rural exchange
line for every _____ urban local exchange lines.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
79. Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum
of ____________ switch termination.
A. 100 local exchange lines per international
B. 200 local exchange lines per international
C. 300 local exchange lines per international
D. 500 local exchange lines per international
80. What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network
before a Certificate of Public Convenience or a Provisional Authority is
issued?
A. Franchise
B. B SEC document
C. Business Permit
D. Radio station license
81. When is Electronics and Communications Engineer supervision required
under Department Order No. 88?
A. FM broadcast station with a carrier power of 1000 watts
B. TV translator with an RF carrier power of 0.5 watts
C. TV RF power booster with effective radiated power of 2kW
D. Standard AM broadcast with a carrier power of 5kW
82. An entity, sometimes referred to as carriers or national backbone
network operator, authorized to install, own and operate facilities which
connect local exchanges within the Philippines and to engage in the business
of inter-exchange national long distance services is known as .
A. Local exchange carrier
B. International carrier
C. Inter-exchange carrier
D. National carrier
83. An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution
facilities of local exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas
carriers, offers enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided by such
carriers is known as .
A. International carrier
B. Value-added service provider
C. Inter-exchange carrier
D. Local exchange carrier
84. What refers to a privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by
Congress, authorizing an entity to engage in a certain type of
telecommunications service?
A. Authority to Operate
B. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
C. Franchise
D. Provisional Authority
85. NTC cannot grant one of the following, an authority to operate a cable
television system within the same franchise area covered by any provisional
Authority or Certificate of Authority previously granted by the Commission.
A. Prior operator has not complied sufficiently with terms and condition
of the authorization.
B. New entrant has more financial support
C. Current service is grossly inadequate
D. Issuance to new entrant will not cause ruinous competition
86. Which of the following penalties is provided under the existing
telecommunication law, should an international carrier unable to comply with
its obligation to provide local exchange service in un-served and under-
served areas within three years from grant of authority?
A. Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedule
B. Cancellation of its authority
C. Given one year to comply
D. Given two years to comply
87. When can telecommunications entity provide value added service in its
area?
A. When it has separated book of account, has technical capability and
must be within the franchise area.
 B. When it is within franchise area, upon submission of required
capitalization and upon approval of NTC.
C. Upon approval of NTC, with financial capability and technical
capability.
D. Upon approval of NTC, when other VAS operators are not
discriminated in rate and access, and has separated books of
account.
88. What refers to an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio,
video, text, images or other signals or messages for reception of a broad
audience in a geographical area via wired or wireless means?
A. Telecommunications
B. Broadcasting
C. Mass media
D. Multi media
89. What refers to a non-exclusive facility which the public may, by the
payment of appropriate fees, place as well as receive telephone calls and/or
telegrams or other messages?
A. Telephone-telegraph calling center
B. Telecommunications calling station
C. Public toll calling station
D. Call center
90. The international carrier shall also comply with its obligation to provide
the local exchange service in unserved or underserved areas within years
from the grant of the authority as required by existing regulation.
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 2 years
D. 5 years
91. International switch termination refers to a port in the switching
international gateway system equivalent to kbps (digital) where international
circuit terminates.
A. 56.6
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256

94. What is the main principle used by ITU in determining the distribution of
the orbit/spectrum resources?
A. Depending on geographical boundary of a nation
B. Efficient use and equitable access
C. Depending on national sovereignty
D. Equal distribution
99. What is the executive branch of government –in-charge of policy making
in the telecommunication?
A. National Telecommunications Commission
B. Telecommunications Control Bureau
C. Department of Transportation and Communications
D. Bureau of Telecommunications
107. A person or entity intending to register as VolP service provider is
required to post a performance bond of .
A. P 1 million
B. P 3 million
C. P 5 million
D. P 10 million
108. What refers to as linkage by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of
two or more telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for
the purpose of allowing or enabling the subscriber of one carrier or operator
to access or reach the subscribers of the other carrier or operator?
A. Interconnection
B. Toll patching
C. Gateway
D. Outside plant sharing
109. Which law refers to the “Electronic Commerce Act of 2000”?
A. R. A. 8927
B. R. A. 9287
C. R. A. 8792
D. R. A. 8729
110. What is otherwise known as “Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”?
A. P. D. 223
B. R. A. 5734
C. R. A. 9292
D. R. A. 7925
111. What is otherwise known as “PRC modernization law”?
A. R. A. 8891
B. R. A. 8981
C. R. A. 8918
D. R. A. 8198
112. Professional Regulations Commission was created under .
A. P. D. 323
B. P. D. 223
C. P. D. 232
D. P. D. 223
113. When was the effectivity of Presidential Degree No. 223?
A. June 21, 1973
B. June 22, 1973
C. June 23, 1973
 D. June 24, 1974
114. When was the Electronic Commerce Act of the Philippines approved?
A. June 21, 2000
B. October 10, 2000
C. April 22, 2000
D. June 14, 2000
115. When was Republic Act No. 9292 approved by President Gloria
Macapagal Arroyo?
A. April 12, 2004
B. April 17, 2004
C. April 19, 2004
D. April 27, 2004
116. When was the implementing rules and regulations (IRR) of the R. A.
9292 approved?
A. August 27, 2007
B. August 28, 2007
C. August 29, 2007
D. August 31, 2007
117. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to render engineering
consultation services?
A. Registered Electronic Technicians
B. Registered Electronic Engineers
C. Professional Electronic Engineers
D. Choices B and C above
118. Under R. A. 9292, can a Register Electronic Engineer render
design services?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes if he has more than 5 years experience
D. Yes if he has more than 10 years experience
119. Under R. A. 9292, the Professional Electronic Engineer shall the
electronics plan designed by a Registered Electronic Engineer?
A. review
B. sign
C. seal
D. all of the choices
120. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to take charge of or supervise
electronics construction and installation?
A. Professional Electronic Engineers
B. Registered Electronic Engineers
C. Professional Electronic Engineers and Registered Electronic
Engineers
D. Only those engineers who have more than 5 years professional
practice experience
121. Under R. A. 9292, the standards on minimum compensation are based
on
A. current practice
B. current costumer price index
C. minimum basic daily wage
D. all of the above
122. Under R. A. 9292, the rate of retainers’ fee to be charged by the
consulting electronics engineer for routine or ordinary consultation will not
be less than per month.
A. P 1,500
B. P 2,000
C. P 2,500
D. P3,000
123. The powers and functions of the Board is provided in of the R. A. No.
9292.
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
124. R. A. 9292, Section 17 states that the result of the board examination
shall be released within days after the examination.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 3
125. What is the minimum punishment imposed to any person who shall
give any false or fraudulent statement to the Board to obtain a Certificate of
registration and/or Professional ID Card as Electronics Engineer?
A. P 100,000 or imprisonment of 6 months
B. P 10,000 or imprisonment of 3 months
C. P 50,000 or imprisonment of 6 months
D. P 100,000 or imprisonment of 1 year
126. The electronic designer will furnish sets of drawing specifications and
other contract documents to the client.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 7
D. 2
127. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioners
with less than 5 years of active service?
A. P 4,000 to P 8,000
B. P 2,000 to P 5,000
C. P 5,000 to P 9,000
D. P 6,000 to P 10,000
128. “To provide technical specifications for electronics equipment and
systems” is under what field of ECE practice?
A. Engineering consultation
B. Design Services
C. Construction and Installation
D. Inspection and Appraisal
129. “Testing and quality control of electronic products” is under what field
of ECE practice?
A. Education Service
B. Research and Development
C. Manufacturing
D. Maintenance
130. If the ECE consultant’s present is required in another place away from
his office, additional compensation of for every hour he is away from his
office or if the place more than 50 km away from his office.
A. P 1,000.00
B. P 500.00
C. P 250.00
D. P 100.00
131. For professional services rendered by the electronics engineer as
consultant for project with definite duration, the minimum recommended
hourly rate is for salaried ECEs.
A. 0.01 of basic monthly salary scale
B. 0.02 of basic monthly salary scale
C. 0.03 of basic monthly salary scale
D. 0.04 of basic monthly salary scale
132. Aside from compensation, the client will pay for the cost of at least
“business class” transportation and accommodation if the meetings are
conducted in a place more than km away from the established office of
electronic engineer consultant.
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 100
133. For court appearance electronics engineer must charge a minimum fee
to the client of not less than per hour per appearance regardless whether the
hearing is postponed or not.
A. P 500.00
B. P 250.00
C. P 1,000.00
D. P 100.00
134. For conference, electronics engineer must not charge fee to the client
more than per hour per attendance regardless whether the meeting is
postponed or not.
 A. P 500.00
B. P 250.00
C. P 1,000.00
D. P 750.00
135. All are methods of determining the fees to electronics engineers
except:
A. Constant Percentage Method
B. Percent of Cost Method
C. Cost Plus Reasonable Profit
D. Percent of Total Project Cost
136. When a project involves alterations, repairs, additions, modifications,
etc, which does not involve a whole project, what method is used for
computing the professional fee?
A. Unit Cost Method
B. Constant Percentage Method
C. Per Lot Method
D. Per Project Method
137. What method of computing fees is where the electronic facilities are
divided into classifications which have corresponding unit design rate?
A. Percent of Cost Method
B. Unit Cost Method
C. Per Lot Method
D. Per Project Method
138. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with
5 to 10 years of active service?
A. P 6,000 to P 20,000
B. P 5,000 to P 8,000
C. P 8,000 to P 12,000
D. P 10,000 to P 15,000
139. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with
more than 10 years of active service?
A. P 15,000 – up
B. P 12,000 – up
C. P 8,000 – up
D. P 10,000 – up
140. According to the manual of professional practice of electronics
engineers, the minimum rate of retainer’s fee to be charged by the
consulting electronics engineer is .
A. P 1,500 per month
B. P 1,000 per month
C. P 2,000 per month
D. P 2,500 per month
141. What refers to the act of putting together parts of a whole in order to
build-up; to erect or to form and/or to set or establish electronics
equipment, systems or facilities?
A. Construction and/or installation
B. Investigation
C. Appraisal
D. Acceptance
142. What refers to the process of producing, forming or fabricating
electronic equipment and/or related components, parts, devices and
accessories?
A. Quality control
B. Manufacturing
C. Development
D. System design
143. What refers to the act of conceptualizing, planning and projecting a
scheme, system and facility using the arts and science of electronics along
with social, economic, financial and technical consideration?
A. Construction service
B. Consultation service
C. Organizing service
D. Design service
14. What is the act of giving advice and information to client in the area of
electronics engineering and its related fields in line with current
internationally accepted standards and practices?
A. Consultancy design
B. Professional consultation
C. Engineering consultation
D. Consultancy service
145. What is the minimum fine for unauthorized copying of copyrighted
works as provided in the E-commerce Act of the Philippines?
A. P 100,000
B. P 500,000
C. P 100,000
D. P 50,000
146. What is the minimum penalty for unauthorized copying of copyrighted
works as provided in the E-commerce Act of the Philippines?
A. 6 months imprisonment
B. 12 months imprisonment
C. 2 months imprisonment
D. 3 months imprisonment

148. What is the term of the Chairman of the Professional Regulation

Commission?
A. 5 years
 B. 3 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years

174. Which of the following does not constitute the foundation of ethics?
A. Honesty
B. Justice
C. Integrity
D. Courtesy
175. What is defined as a legally binding agreement or premise to exchange
goods or services?
A. Consideration
B. Partnership
C. Contract
D. Obligation
176. What is the study of the decisions, policies, and values that are morally
desirable in engineering practice and research?
A. Engineering ethics
B. Engineering management
C. Engineering system
D. Engineering integrity
177. What consists of the responsibilities and rights that ought to be
endorsed by those engaged in engineering, and also of desirable ideals and
personal commitments in engineering?
A. Ethics
B. Code of ethics
C. Engineering ethics
D. Engineering standards
178. What refers to situations in which moral reasons come into conflict, or
in which the application of moral values is problematic?
A. Silo mentality
B. Preventive ethics
C. Ethical issues
D. Moral dilemmas
179. What states the moral responsibilities of engineers as seen by the
profession, and as represented by a professional society?
A. Preventive ethics
B. Work ethics
C. Code of ethics
D. Professional code
180. What is a set of attitudes, which implies a motivational orientation,
concerning the value of work?
A. Preventive ethics
 B. Work ethics
C. Code of ethics
D. Professional code
181. Ethics is synonymous to .
A. morality
B. money
C. standards
D. conduct

201. A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.

A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
202. Obligation comes from the latin word _______ which means to bind.
A. Obligum
B. Obligate
C. Obligare
D. Obligus
203. A legal wrong, committed through fault or negligence, on a person or
property, independent of contract.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
204. A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and
the courts of justice may compel their performance.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
205. A nature of obligation under civil code based on morality, natural law
and conscience, they are not legally demandable.
A. Civil Obligations
B. Natural Obligation
C. Pure Obligation
D. Condition
206. Requisites of obligations which is the vinculum or the link that binds the
party
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
207. Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something
 A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
208. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person who can demand the
performance of the obligation or known as the creditor or oblige
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
209. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person from whom prestation is
demandable or known as the debtor or obligor
A. Juridical or legal tie
B. Prestation
C. Active subject
D. Passive subject
210. One of the following is not considered as a source of obligation.
A. Law
B. Contracts
C. Quai-delicts
D. Work
211. The following are requisites of Quasi-delicts except
A. An act or omission
B. Accompanied by fault or negligence
C. There must be no pre-existing contractual relation between the
parties
D. Acts or omissions punished by law
212. An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it
mention a specific date for its fulfillment and as such it is immediately
demandable.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
213. An uncertain event which wields an influence on a legal relation.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
214. An obligation which is a subject to a condition.
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
215. A kind of condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation
until the fulfillment of the condition.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Resolutory obligation
216. A kind of condition that produces the extinguishment of an obligation
upon the happening of the event.
A. Suspensive Condition
B. Alternative obligation
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Resolutory Condition
217. An obligation whose consequences are subjected in one way or the
other to the expiration of said term.
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
218. “A” borrowed money from “B” in the amount of P50.00 promising to
pay the amount “as soon as possible”. If later on, they cannot agree on the
specific date of payment, the remedy of “B” is to go to court and ask the
court to fix the date when the debt is to be paid. This illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Obligations with a period
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
219. A kind of period with suspensive effect.
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
220. A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is
up to a certain date
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
221. A period established by law.
A. Ex die
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
222. A period agreed to by the parties.
A. Judicial period
 B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
223. A period authorized by the court.
A. Judicial period
B. In diem
C. Legal period
D. Voluntary period
224. An obligation where two parties are mutually obliged to do or to give
something.
 A. Pure obligation
 B. Condition
 C. Reciprocal obligation
 D. Alternative obligation
225. Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator.
The delivery of the piano or the refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the
obligation. Marc could not compel Edwin to accept only a part of the piano or
a part of the refrigerator because this illustrates:
A. Pure obligation
B. Condition
C. Reciprocal obligation
D. Alternative obligation
237. It is an accessory undertaking to assume greater liability in case of
breach.
A. Law
B. Penal clause
C. Stipulation
D. Preceding
238. “A” binds himself to deliver to “B” a Honda Civic car at the end of the
current year. They agree in writing that should “A” fail to deliver the car on a
specified date, “A” shall pay “B” as penalty P10,000.00. “A” fails to make the
delivery. “B” could demand the payment of P10,000.00 against “A”. “B”,
however could not compel “A” to deliver the car and pay the penalty at the
same time. This is _______ type of penal clause:
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial
239. A classification of penal clause when both the principal contract and the
penal clause can be enforced.
A. Joint
B. Subsidiary
C. Solo
D. Partial
240. An obligation can be extinguished by the following except
A. By Payment or Performance
B. By the condition or remission of the debt
C. By altering the signature
D. By the loss of the thing due
241. An obligation which is not capable of partial performance.
A. Joint obligation
B. Solidary obligation
C. Divisible obligation
D. Indivisible obligation
242. A kind of remission when the enforcement of the obligation is waived or
renounced totally.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
243. A remission when the waiver or renunciation refers only to a part of the
obligation.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
244. A remission when it is shown by words or declaration of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
245. A remission when it is inferred from the acts or conduct of the obligee.
A. Partial
B. Complete
C. Express
D. Implied
246. A type of compensation that takes place when compensation
extinguishes the two debts in their concurrent amounts even without the
express agreement of the parties. Judicial compensation
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
247. A type of compensation that takes place when there is compensation by
agreement of the parties as in the case of mutual set off of accounts.
A. Legal compensation
B. Voluntary compensation
C. Judicial compensation
 D. Partial compensation
248. A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the
counterclaim of the defendant as against the claim of the plaintiff.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
249. A type of compensation that takes place when the two obligations are
of different amounts and a balance remains unextinguished after the
compensation.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
250. A type of compensation that takes place when the obligations are of the
same amount and compensation extinguishes the obligations entirely.
A. Legal compensation
B. Total compensation
C. Judicial compensation
D. Partial compensation
251. A novation where the principal conditions of the obligation is change.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
252. “A” obliged himself to deliver to “B” a car. Subsequently, they entered
into another contract whereby instead of “A” delivering a car, “A” would
deliver a truck. This illustrates:
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
253. A novation where another person is sustained in place of the debtor or
he is subrogated to the rights of the creditor.
A. True novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
254. A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the
objects or modification of principal condition.
A. Mixed novation
B. Real novation
C. Personal novation
D. Substitute novation
255. It is the meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds
himself with respect to the other to give something or to render some
services.
A. Contracts
B. Obligation
C. Quasi-delicts
D. Condition
256. A contract comes from the Latin word _______ which signifies an
agreement.
A. Kontrus
B. contractus
C. Tractum
D. Contractumus
257. The following are considered to be the essential elements of contracts
except
A. consent of the parties
B. object or subject matter
C. cause or consideration
D. effects to the subject
258. An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is
presumed by law unless there is an agreement to the contrary
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
259. Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation
of the parties such as conditions, terms, etc.
A. Essential element
B. Natural elements
C. Accidental elements
D. Unnatural elements
260. A stage of contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the
parties agree upon the terms of the contract.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
261. A stage of contract that refers to the time when the minds of the
parties meet in agreement upon the object or subject matter as well as to
the price or consideration.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
262. Juan agrees to receive P2,000.00 for his horse and Pedro agrees to
take the horse for the amount. This refers to what stage of the contract
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
263. Juan delivers the horse to Pedro and the same is accepted. Pedro gives
the amount P2,000.00 as purchase price and the latter receives it.
A. Preparation or Conception
B. Perfection or Birth
C. Consummation or Termination
D. Deliberation
264. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by words, oral or
written.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
265. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by conduct.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
266. A contract that has already been performed.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
267. A contract that has not yet performed.
A. Express contract
B. Implied contracts
C. Executed contracts
D. Executory contracts
268. A contract that is perfected by mere consent, such as a contract of
sale.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
269. A contract that is perfected by delivery of the thing which is the object
of the contract.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
 D. Unilateral contract
270. A contract wherein only one of the parties has an obligation such as in
commodatum or gratuitous deposit.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
271. A contract that creates reciprocal obligations.
A. Consensual contract
B. Bilateral contract
C. Real contract
D. Unilateral contract
272. “A”, for and in consideration of P1,000.00, entered into a contract with
“B” whereby the latter agreed to murder “C”. This limitation upon the right
to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
273. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby for and In consideration of
P100,000.00 the latter agrees to live with “A” without the benefit of
marriage. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
274. Pedro and Maria decided to get married on October 10, 2007.
Invitations were printed and distributed to relatives and friends and apparel
were purchased including matrimonial bed. Pedro, however walked out of it
and was never heard of again. This limitation upon the right to contract that
refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
275. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby “A” will not enter into any
enterprise whatever in the Philippines. This limitation upon the right to
contract that refers to
A. Contrary to law
B. Against moral
C. Contrary to good customs
D. Contrary to public order
276. The following are requisites of contracts except
A. Consent
 B. Object of contract
C. Cause of contract
D. Effect of contract
277. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the
pure liberality of the giver.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contrary
D. Liberation Contract
278. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the
service or benefit for which the remuneration is given.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contract
D. Liberation Contract
279. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the
mutual undertaking or promise of either of the contracting parties.
A. Gratuitous Contract
B. Remunetory Contract
C. Onerous Contract
D. Liberation Contract
280. Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made or
constructed so as to express or confirm to the real intention of the parties
when some error or mistake has been committed.
A. Reformation
B. Novation
C. Defect
D. Erroneous
281. Which of the following cannot be considered as a requisite of
reformation?
A. There is a valid contract;
B. The contract is in writing;
C. The oral contract expresses the true intention of the parties
D. The failure of the written contract to express the true intention is due
to mutual mistake, fraud, inequitable conduct, or accident.
282. A defective contract where it has all the essential requisites of a
damage to third persons, such as creditors, the contract may be rescinded.
A. Rescissible Contract
B. Voidable Contract
C. Unenforced Contracts
D. Void or Inexistent Contracts
283. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason
of the fact that the price is unjust or inadequate.
A. damage
 B. effect
C. lesion
D. payment
284. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid
contract, namely, consent, object and cause or consideration. It is a valid
contract until it is annulled.
 A. Void or Inexistent Contract
 B. Unenforceable Contract
 C. Voidable Contract
 D. Negotiorum Gestio
285. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
286. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is
ratified is said to be
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Gestio
287. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or
property belonging to another without the consent of the latter.
A. Void or Inexistent Contract
B. Unenforceable Contract
C. Voidable Contract
D. Negotiorum Contract
288. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the
pecuniary compensation, recompense, or satisfaction for an injury done or a
wrong sustained as a consequence either of a breach of a contractual
obligation or a tortuous act.
A. Payment
B. Injury
C. Damages
D. Compensation
289. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes
medical expenses, lost wages and the repair or replacement of property.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate and Moderate Damages
290. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright,
serious anxiety, besmirched reputation, wounded feelings, moral shock,
social humiliation and similar injury.
 A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
291. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical
injury due to a violation of some legal right, and as a consequence of which
some damages must be awarded to determine the right.
A. Actual or Compensatory Damages
B. Nominal Damages
C. Moral Damages
D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
301. RA 9292 is known as
A. Electronics Engineering Law of 2004
B. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of the Philippines
C. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004
D. Electronics Engineering Law of the Philippines
302. The science dealing with the development and application of devices
and systems involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric
charge, in a vacuum, in gaseous media, in plasma, in semiconductors, in
solid-state and/or in similar devices, including, but not limited to,
applications involving optical, electromagnetic and other energy forms when
transduced or converted into electronic signals.
A. Electronics
B. Communications
C. Electricity
D. Physics
303. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly
registered/licensed Professional Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to
affix to his/her name the letters “PECE”.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
304. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly
registered/licensed Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to
his/her name the letters “ECE”.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
305. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly
registered/licensed Electronics Technician under RA 9292 and to affix to
his/her name the letters “ECT”.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
 B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics Technician
306. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly
registered/licensed Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic
Act No. 5734.
A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
B. Professional Electronics Engineer
C. Electronics Engineer
D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
307. Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data,
programs and/or instructions, executing programs and/or instructions to
process the data and presenting the results.
A. Computer
B. ICT
C. ATM
D. Laptop
308. The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and
transmission/reception of data and information by electronic means in forms
such as vocal, pictorial, textual, numeric or the like; also refers to the
theoretical and practical applications and processes utilizing such data and
information.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
309. The process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals
and/or messages between two (2) or more points by radio, cable, optical
wave guides or other devices and wired or wireless medium.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
310. Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic
messages, text, written or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or
images, words, music or visible or audible signals or sounds, or any
information, intelligence and/or control signals of any design/or format and
for any purpose, by wire, radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other
electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.
A. Information and Communications Technology
B. Communications
C. Telecommunications
D. Information Technology
311. An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text,
images or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a
geographical area via wired or wireless means.
A. Communications
B. Broadcasting
C. Transmission
D. Paging
312. Includes all a manufacturing establishments and other business
endeavors where electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or
equipment are installed and/or being used, sold, maintained, assembled,
manufactured or operated.
 A. Industrial Plant
 B. Commercial Establishment
 C. Production Area
 D. Power Plant
314. Shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise,
experience and professional capability in undertaking advisory and review,
pre-investment or feasibility studies, design, planning, construction,
supervision, management and related services, and other technical studies
or special studies in the field of electronics engineering.
A. Consulting services
B. Primary services
C. Secondary services
D. Technical services
316. To be qualified as a Member of the Board, he/she must be a citizen and
a resident of the Philippines for at least __________ consecutive years prior
to his/her appointment.
A. 7 years
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 3 years
317. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of __________
years from date of appointment or until their successors shall have been
appointed and qualified and may be re-appointed once for another term.
A. 7
B. 10
C. 5
D. 3
318. To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer
or Electronics Technician must obtain a passing rating of in each subject
given during the examination:
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
 D. 80%
319. One shall be allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s
where he/she has failed to obtain the passing rating. Provided, however,
that a candidate who obtains a passing rating in the majority of the subjects
but obtains a rating in the other subject/s.
A. Below 70% but not lower than 60%
B. Below 70% but not lower than 50%
C. Below 60% but not lower than 50%
D. Below 75% but not lower than 60%
320. Certified experience record of active self-practice and/or employment
either in government service or in the private sector, in the format to be
prescribed by the Board, indicating the inclusive dates, companies worked
for, description of specific responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and
name, position of immediate supervisors for a period of at least __________
years (inclusive and/or aggregate), at least ___________ years of which are
in responsible charge of significant engineering work, from the date
applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and Communications Engineer
or Electronics Engineer.
A. 10 years; 3 years
B. 7 years; 2 years
C. 5 years; 2 years
D. 10 years; 2 years
321. RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. __________ and Senate
Bill No. _______.
A. 5224; 2683
B. 5447; 458
C. 5734; 109
D. 5533; 4552
322. RA 9292 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the
Senate on
A. February 2, 2004
B. March 2, 2007
C. April 17,2004
D. March 5, 2005
323. RA 9292 was approved on
A. April 17, 2004
B. April 27, 2004
C. March 17, 2005
D. March 27, 2004
324. The effectivity of RA 9292 was on
A. April 17, 2004
B. April 27, 2004
C. May 24, 2004
D. May 28, 2004
325. To qualify in the registration to be PECE, one must provide __________
certification/s signed by __________ PECEs attesting that the experience
record submitted by the applicant is factual.
A. 1; 3
B. 1; 2
C. 3; 3
D. 2; 2
326. Under the exception proviso stipulated in the particular Section 18,
Article III of RA No. 9292 those who have been registered and licensed as
Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No.5734 for at
least __________ years upon the effectivity of RA No. 9292 are qualified to
register as PECE.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 3
D. 7
327. Registration with and without Examination for Electronics Technicians
(ECT) will start within __________ years from the effectivity of RA No.
9292.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
328. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT), he/she must have
rendered at least ___________ years (inclusive or aggregate) of active self-
practice and/ or employment either in the Government or private sector.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
329. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT),one must provide
individual certification/s from at least __________ registered PECEs
vouching for the integrity, technical capability and good moral character of
the applicant in a format to be prescribed by the Board.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 7
330. The Board may, __________ years after the revocation of a Certificate
of Registration and Professional Identification Card, upon application of the
party concerned and for reasons deemed proper and sufficient, reinstate the
validity of a revoked Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification
Card, subject to compliance with the applicable requirements of the
Commission and the Board.
 A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
332. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting
two concentric circles, with the outside circle measuring __________ in
diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
333. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting
two concentric circles, with the inner circle measuring __________ in
diameter.
A. 28 mm
B. 45 mm
C. 48 mm
D. 32 mm
334. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the upper part of the annular
space bear the words
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
335. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the lower half part of the annular
space bear the words
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
336. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner circle space has the
symbol of a/an
A. atom
B. electron
C. radar transceiver
D. computer
337. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
A. 1 electron
B. 2 electrons
C. 3 electrons
D. 4 electrons
338. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
A. 1 nucleus
B. 2 nuclei
 C. 3 nuclei
D. 4 nuclei
339. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the outer and inner ring is filled
with
A. grey with boundaries in black color
B. orange with boundaries in navy color
C. white with boundaries in black color
D. yellow with boundaries in black color
340. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the text is
A. black with white background
B. white with black background
C. black with grey background
D. white with grey background
341. in the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner ring is filled with
A. orange background
B. navy blue background
C. black background
D. white background
342. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom is colored with
___________ and the nucleus and electrons in __________ color.
A. Black ; red
B. White; orange
C. White; red
D. Black; orange

346. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29,

Article IV of RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal with a horizontal space
bearing the word
A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
D. LICENSE NO.
347. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, below the words
LICENSE NO. is the
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer
license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
348. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the portion of the inner
circle below the diametral space shall bear
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
 C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics
Engineer license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
349. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the upper portion of
the annular space bear
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics
Engineer license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
350. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the lower portion of the
annular space bear
A. license number
B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer
license
D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
351. In KBP radio standards, each station is required to schedule a minimum
of __________ of news per day (from 5:00 a.m. to 10:00 p.m.) on Monday-
thru-Saturday basis.
A. 30 min.
B. 60 min.
C. 45 min.
D. 75 min.
352. The minimum length/s of a daily radio news can be __________
A. 1 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes or 15 minutes
D. All of the above
353. A distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of one (1)
minute excluding intro, extro, headline and commercial load.
A. Newsbreak
B. Flash report
C. Newscast
D. all of the above
354. A __________ is a person from whom a piece of news originates
A. Primary source
B. Secondary source
C. 1st person source
D. 2nd person source
355. A __________ is normally a recorded material (print or audio) from
which a piece of news is extracted or attributed to, or may be a person who
acts as a conduit.
A. primary source
 B. secondary source
C. 1st person source
D. 2nd person source

392. It is required that during prime time only __________ hours of the
airtime SHALL be allowed for block time programs under station
responsibility and supervision.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
393. In TV standards, every station shall schedule at least a minimum of
_________ newscast (aggregate total including advisories) per day from
Monday to Friday.
A. 30 min
B. 60 min
C. 45 min
D. 75 min
394. Text crawls, either electronic or manual, shall not be used for any other
purpose like:
A. news bulletins
B. last minute program changes
C. advisories in the public interest
D. advertisements
395. Commercial load for television in Metro Manila shall not exceed
__________ minutes per hour in foreign or local programs, inclusive of
breakspots.
A. 15
B. 18
C. 17
D. 20