ECE LAWS and ETHICS Questionnaire

ECE 193 TAKE HOME EXAM.
ECE LAWS and ETHICS Questionnaire
Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions. Note that there are missing numbers, simply skip
it.
1. What telecommunications law deregulates the paging services in the country?
• A. E. O. 125
• B. R. A. 3846
• C. R. A. 3396
• D. R. A. 7925
2. Republic Act No. 6849 is otherwise known as
• A. “Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”

• B. “Telecommunications Law of the Philippines”
• C. “PRC Modernization Law”
• D. “Municipal Telephone Act of 2000”
3. What is otherwise known as “ The Maritime Communications Law” ?
• A. R. A. 109
• B. R. A. 3396
• C. R. A. 3846
• D. R. A. 7925
4. What government regulation in telecommunication provides the policy to improve the provision of local
exchange carrier service?
• A. O. 109
• B. R. A. 3846
• C. O. 59
• D. O. 546
5. What is the basic law that provides for the regulation of radio station, communications in the Philippines and
other purposes?
• A. R. A. 3846
• B. D. O. 11
• C. D. O. 88
• D. D. O. 5
6. What law specifically requires the service of a duly registered Electronics and Communications Engineer in
the designing, installation and construction, operation and maintenance of radio stations?
• A. R. A. 3846
• B. R. A. 9292
• C. R. A. 5734
• D. D. O. 88
7. Which law vested the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the Philippine communicateons satellite
corporation with the National Telecommunications Commission?
• A. E. O. 109
• B. E. O. 196
• C. E. O. 59
• D. E. O. 205
8. What law provides regulation of the ownership and operation of radio and television stations and for other
purposes?
• A. P. D. No. 223
• B. P. D. No. 576-A
• C. P. D. No. 567-A
• D. P. D. No. 657-A
9. What NTC memorandum circular sets the rules and regulations governing the manufacture, acquisition, sale
and service of radio communication equipment?
• A. MC No. 9-13-98
• B. MC No. 8-06-88
• C. MC No. 4-22-99
• D. MC No. 2-05-88
10. What law governs the operations of cable television in the Philippines?
• A. E. O. 196
• B. E. O. 463
• C. E. O. 436
• D. E. O. 205
11. What law created the national council for the promotion of E-Commerce in the country?
• A. E. O. 467
• B. E. O. 468
• C. E. O. 109
• D. E. O. 59
12. Which law provides for a national policy on the operation and use of international satellite communications
in the country?
• A. E. O. 468
• B. E. O. 109
• C. E. O. 205
• D. E. O. 467
13. What law regulates the operation of CATV systems in the country?
• A. E. O. 436
• B. E. O. 205
• C. E. O. 250
• D. E. O. 346
14. What is an executive order signed by former President Fidel Ramos in March 1998 providing the national
policy in the operation and use of international satellite communications in the Philippines?
• A. E. O. 3846
• B. E. O. 59
• C. E. O. 456
• D. E. O. 467
15. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 59?
• A. December 21, 1993

• B. February 24, 1993
• C. June 21, 1993
• D. December 12, 1993
• A. September 11, 1997

• B. September 6, 1997
• C. September 9, 1997
• D. September 18, 1997
• A. July 12, 1993

• B. July 15, 1993
• C. October 10, 1993
• D. December 12, 1993
18. When was the affectivity of Executive Order No. 205?
• A. June 30, 1987

• B. June 21, 1987
• C. June 12, 1987
• D. June 1, 1987
19. When is the effectivity of Republic Act No. 7925?
• A. March 1, 1995
• B. March 21, 1995
• C. February 20, 1995
• D. March 7, 1995
20. When was Republic Act No. 7925 approved?
• A. March 1, 1995
• B. March 15, 1995
• C. March 17, 1995
• D. March 21, 1995
21. What law created the Movie and Television Review and Classification Board (MTRCB)?
• A. P. D. 223
• B. P. D. 1986
• C. P. D. 1987
• D. P. D. 1988
22. What law created the Videogram Regulatory Board (VRB)?
• A. P. D. 223
• B. P. D. 1986
• C. P. D. 1987
• D. P. D. 1988
23. What is the new regulation issued by NTC providing the guideline for mobile personal communication
having a global coverage using satellite?
• A. NMT
• B. GMPCS
• C. GSM
• D. TACS
24. What government agency is the principal administrator of Republic Act No. 7925?
• A. Bureau of Communications
• B. Department of Transportation and Communications
• C. House of Representatives
• D. National Telecommunications Commission
25. What government agency was designated as the Chairman of the Electronic Commerce Promotion Council?
• A. NTC
• B. DOTC
• C. NEDA
• D. DTI
26. The VRB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman and members.
• A. 10
• B. 18
• C. 22
• D. 25
27. MTRCB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman & members.
• A. 5
• B. 10
• C. 20
• D. 30
28. MTRCB law defines an “Adult” as a person years of age and above.
• A. 18
• B. 19
• C. 20
• D. 21
29. Radio programs not suitable for children must be aired after what time?
• A. 7 PM
• B. 8 PM
• C. 9 PM
• D. 10 PM
30. All are AM radio prime time block for provincial stations except one. Which one?
• A. 5 AM to 9 AM
• B. 12 NN to 2 PM
• C. 11 AM to 3 PM
• D. 4 PM to 7 PM
31. For CATV system, prime time refers to the five-hour period from local time.
• A. 6:00 to 11:00 PM
• B. 5:00 to 10:00 PM
• C. 4:00 to 9:00 PM
• D. 3:00 to 8:00 PM
32. What is the prime time block for FM radio for provincial stations?
• A. 5 AM to 7 PM
• B. 6 AM to 8 PM
• C. 7 AM to 7 PM
• D. 6 PM to 7 PM
33. What is the prime time block for AM radio in Metro Manila?
• A. 5 AM to 9 AM and 4 PM to 8 PM
• B. 4 AM to 8 AM and 4 PM to 8 PM
• C. 5 AM to 9 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM
• D. 6 AM to 10 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM
34. What is the prime time block for FM radio in Metro Manila?
• A. 7:00 AM to 7 PM
• B. 6:00 AM to 6 PM
• C. 6:00 AM to 8 PM
• D. 7:00 AM to 8 PM
35. In Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification for FM radio is from
• . A. 6 AM to 8 PM
• B. 9 PM to 12 MN
• C. 5 AM to 6 AM and 8 PM to 9 PM
• D. 12 MN to 5 AM
36. According to the medium frequency broadcast standards, the term “nighttime” refers to the period of time
between UTC.
• A. 1000 to 2200
• B. 1000 to 1600
• C. 1000 to 1500
• D. 1000 to 1800
37. What is the maximum power suggested by KBP on 919 – 1312 AM broadcast station in Metro Manila?
• A. 10 kW
• B. 20 kW
• C. 15 kW
• D. 5 kW
38. What is the minimum carrier power output of a standard AM broadcast where effective and direct
supervision of an Electronics and Communications Engineer is required?
• A. 5 kW
• B. 4 kW
• C. 1 kW
• D. 3 kW
39. What is the maximum power allocation for AM broadcast in Metro Manila?
• A. 10 kW
• B. 25 kW
• C. 50 kW
• D. 100 kW
40. According to the TV broadcast standards, what is the maximum effective radiated power in Metro Manila
and Metro Cebu for channels 7 – 13?
• A. 300 kW
• B. 500 kW
• C. 1000 kW
• D. 1500 kW
41. In Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed minutes for one hour program.
• A. 10
• B. 15
• C. 20
• D. 25
42. KBP Radio Code requires each radio station a minimum of of news per day.
• A. 1 hour
• B. 45 minutes
• C. 2 hours
• D. 1 hour and 30 minutes
43. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed breaks in every program
hour.
• A. 8
• B. 5
• C. 6
• D. 7
44. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed breaks per
program hour.
• A. 5
• B. 6
• C. 7
• D. 8
45. Outside Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed minutes in one hour program.
• A. 12
• B. 15
• C. 17
• D. 20
46. All stations must promote the Filipino music by playing OPM every hour.
• A. 2
• B. 4
• C. 1
• D. 3
47. All station must have a minimum of news/day form 5:00 AM to 10:00 PM.
• A. 50 minutes
• B. 60 minutes
• C. 30 minutes
• D. 45 minutes
48. Newscast is a distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of excluding intro, extro, headline and
commercial load.
• A. 1 minute
• B. 2 minutes
• C. 30 seconds
• D. 1 minute and 30 seconds
49. In Metro Manila, program interruption for the airing of commercial shall not exceed how many breaks in 1
hour?
• A. 5
• B. 3
• C. 7
• D. 6
50. TV station is required at least newscast (aggregate total including advisories) per day during weekdays.
• A. 20 minutes
• B. 40 minutes
• C. 60 minutes
• D. 30 minutes
51. Radio station shall allocate at least as a program or programs rendering public service.
• A. 2 hours per day

• B. 3 hours per day
• C. 1 hour per day
• D. 1.5 hours per day
52. What is the standard IF Sound Carrier for a cable TV system?
• A. 40.25 MHz
• B. 45.75 MHz
• C. 43.75MHz
• D. 41.25 MHz
53. What is the standard IF Video Carrier for a cable TV system?
• A. 40.25 MHz
• B. 45.75 MHz
• C. 43.75MHz
• D. 41.25 MHz
54. Which band is allocated to Short Range Radio Service in the country?
• A. ELF
• B. UHF
• C. VHF
• D. HF
55. The certificate of Authority issued by National Telecommunications Commission to a CATV operator shall
have a maximum term of how many years?
• A. 5 years
• B. 10 years
• C. 15 years
• D. 20 years
56. High speed networks are ICT networks that have a capacity of at least Mbps.
• A. 2.048
• B. 32
• C. 64
• D. 256
57. The authorized transmit frequency range for cordless telephone sets operating in the UHF band is MHz
• A. 1.725 to 1.79
• B. 1.275 to 1.975
• C. 1.925 to 1.975
• D. 1.575 to 1.975
58. In CATV system, video signal to noise ratio of modulator must be better than dB.
• A. 30
• B. 34
• C. 36
• D. 38
59. In a CATV system, head end processor as RF input/output terminal match should a minimum loss of dB.
• A. 16
• B. 18
• C. 20
• D. 22
60. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact that the price is unjust or
inadequate.
• A. damage
• B. effect
• C. lesion
• D. payment
61. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract, namely, consent, object and cause
or consideration. It is a valid contract until it is annulled.
• A. Void or Inexistent Contract

• B. Unenforceable Contract
• C. Voidable Contract
• D. Negotiorum Gestio
62. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.

63. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is said to be

64. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property belonging to another without the
consent of the latter.

• D. Negotiorum Contract
65. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary compensation, recompense, or
satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as a consequence either of a breach of a contractual
obligation or a tortuous act.
• A. Payment
• B. Injury
• C. Damages
• D. Compensation
66. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes medical expenses, lost wages and
the repair or replacement of property.
• A. Actual or Compensatory Damages

• B. Nominal Damages
• C. Moral Damages
• D. Temperate and Moderate Damages
67. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious anxiety, besmirched reputation,
wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation and similar injury.
• D. Temperate or Moderate Damages
68. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injury due to a violation of some legal
right, and as a consequence of which some damages must be awarded to determine the right.

69. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.

70. “Damages” where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or fixed by the judgment of a
competent court.
• A. Liquidated Damages
• B. Exemplary Damages
• C. Corrective Damages
• D. Compensatory Damages
71. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on account of wanton, reckless,
malicious, or oppressive character of the acts complained of.

• D. Exemplary or Corrective Damages
72. Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of merchants, mariners and
business men generally in their dealings with one another throughout the civilized countries of the world.
• A. Law of merchants
• B. Law of businessmen
• C. Law of mariners
• D. Law of people
73. What refers to a remuneration paid to a carrier by the interconnecting carriers for accessing the facilities of
such carrier which is needed by the interconnecting carriers for the origination and/or termination of all types of
traffic derived from the interconnector?
• A. Interconnection charge
• B. Approach charge
• C. Access charge
• D. Network charge
74. What refers to a permit issued by the NTC authorizing the holder thereof to engage to the acquisition,
servicing, maintenance, purchase or sale of transmitters and/or transceivers, parts and accessories thereof?
• A. Radio Communication Equipment Dealer Permit

• B. Radio Communication Equipment Manufacture Permit
• C. Service Center Operation Permit
• D. Radio Communication Equipment Service Center Point
75. A series whose episodes have had no national network television exhibitions in the Philippines and no
regional network exhibition in the relevant market is known in CATV system as .
• A. Off-network
• B. Cablecasting
• C. First-Run series
• D. First-Run No-series programs
76. The installation or construction of a cable TV head-end station shall be directly supervised by a registered
ECE. The statement above is:
• A. True
• B. False
• C. It depends upon the area of coverage
• D. It depends upon the number of households using the CATV system
77. Which of the following shall be complied by an international ship pursuant to the global maritime distress
and safety system implemented last 1999?
• A. A facsimile
• B. A radio personnel
• C. A Morse code
• D. A radio-telegraph operator
78. Authorized gateway operators shall provide at least one rural exchange line for every urban local exchange
lines.
• A. 5
• B. 10
• C. 15
• D. 20
79. Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of switch termination.
• A. 100 local exchange lines per international

• B. 200 local exchange lines per international
• C. 300 local exchange lines per international
• D. 500 local exchange lines per international
80. What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network before a Certificate of Public
Convenience or a Provisional Authority is issued?
• A. Franchise
• B. B SEC document
• C. Business Permit
• D. Radio station license
81. When is Electronics and Communications Engineer supervision required under Department Order No. 88?
• A. FM broadcast station with a carrier power of 1000 watts

• B. TV translator with an RF carrier power of 0.5 watts
• C. TV RF power booster with effective radiated power of 2kW
• D. Standard AM broadcast with a carrier power of 5kW
82. An entity, sometimes referred to as carriers or national backbone network operator, authorized to install,
own and operate facilities which connect local exchanges within the Philippines and to engage in the business
of inter-exchange national long distance services is known as .
• A. Local exchange carrier

• B. International carrier
• C. Inter-exchange carrier
• D. National carrier
83. An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of local exchange and inter-
exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided by such
carriers is known as .
• A. International carrier
• B. Value-added service provider
• C. Inter-exchange carrier
• D. Local exchange carrier
84. What refers to a privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by Congress, authorizing an entity to
engage in a certain type of telecommunications service?
• A. Authority to Operate
• B. Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
• C. Franchise
• D. Provisional Authority
85. NTC cannot grant one of the following, an authority to operate a cable television system within the same
franchise area covered by any provisional Authority or Certificate of Authority previously granted by the
Commission.
• A. Prior operator has not complied sufficiently with terms and condition of the authorization.
• B. New entrant has more financial support
• C. Current service is grossly inadequate
• D. Issuance to new entrant will not cause ruinous competition
86. Which of the following penalties is provided under the existing telecommunication law, should an
international carrier unable to comply with its obligation to provide local exchange service in un-served and
under-served areas within three years from grant of authority?
• A. Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedule

• B. Cancellation of its authority
• C. Given one year to comply
• D. Given two years to comply
87. When can telecommunications entity provide value added service in its area?
• A. When it has separated book of account, has technical capability and must be within the franchise
area.
• B. When it is within franchise area, upon submission of required capitalization and upon approval of
NTC.
• C. Upon approval of NTC, with financial capability and technical capability.
• D. Upon approval of NTC, when other VAS operators are not discriminated in rate and access, and has
separated books of account.
88. What refers to an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other signals or
messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or wireless means?
• A. Telecommunications
• B. Broadcasting
• C. Mass media
• D. Multi media
89. What refers to a non-exclusive facility which the public may, by the payment of appropriate fees, place as
well as receive telephone calls and/or telegrams or other messages?
• A. Telephone-telegraph calling center

• B. Telecommunications calling station
• C. Public toll calling station
• D. Call center
90. The international carrier shall also comply with its obligation to provide the local exchange service in
unserved or underserved areas within years from the grant of the authority as required by existing regulation.
• A. 3 years
• B. 4 years
• C. 2 years
• D. 5 years
91. International switch termination refers to a port in the switching international gateway system equivalent to
kbps (digital) where international circuit terminates.
• A. 56.6
• B. 64
• C. 128
• D. 256
92. Which of the following is designated as the international distress, safety and calling frequency for radio
telephony for stations of the maritime mobile service when using frequencies in the authorized bands between
156 MHz and 174 MHz?
• A. 165.8 MHz
• B. 156.8 MHz
• C. 158.6 MHz
• D. 168.5 MHz
93. Which conference in the ITU structure does the Telecommunications Development Bureau report?
• A. RRB
• B. WTDC
• C. WRC
• D. WTSC
94. What is the main principle used by ITU in determining the distribution of the orbit/spectrum resources?
• A. Depending on geographical boundary of a nation

• B. Efficient use and equitable access
• C. Depending on national sovereignty
• D. Equal distribution
95. Which body in the present ITU structure took the place of CCITT?
• A. ITU-R
• B. ITU-D
• C. ITU-T
• D. RAG
96. Where does the secretary general in the organizational structure of present ITU report?
• A. WTSC
• B. TDAB
• C. WRC
• D. Council
97. The International Radio Consultative Committee is referred to in international radio communications as .
• A. IRCC
• B. ITU
• C. IRR
• D. CCIR
98. What agency of the United Nations formulates standards and recommended practices for all civil aviation?
• A. ICAO
• B. CAA
• C. IATA
• D. ATO
99. What is the executive branch of government –in-charge of policy making in the telecommunication?
• A. National Telecommunications Commission

• B. Telecommunications Control Bureau
• C. Department of Transportation and Communications
• D. Bureau of Telecommunications
100. What refers to the listing of the date and time events, programs, equipment, test, malfunctions and
corrections in communication system?
• A. File
• B. Documentation
• C. Reporting
• D. Log
101. Which position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is connected to the reserve transmitter
and receiver?
• A. AA
• B. Direction finder
• C. Main transmitter
• D. Emergency transmitter
102. One of the major components required under the global maritime distress and safety system is the:
• A. provision of Morse code.

• B. provision of radiotelegraph operator.
• C. provision of facsimile.
• D. provision of radio personnel.
103. One of the following is NOT the major components required on board ship under the global maritime
distress and safety system. Which one?
• A. On board radio facilities

• B. Radio operator telegraphy onboard
• C. Shore base facilities
• D. Radio personnel onboard
104. At what position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is open circuited and that any auxiliary
antenna is/are connected to the main receiver?
• A. AA
• B. Emergency transmitter
• C. Direction finder
• D. Ground
105. What position of maritime ship main antenna, when the radio watch is secured or when the ship is in
electrical storm?
• A. AA
• B. Main transmitter
• C. Grounded
• D. HF
106. What are the two legislative functions of the International Telecommunications Union in its international
conference issues on orbital resources?
• A. Assign frequencies and organized conferences.
• B. Allocates frequency bands for the services and determine the principle of distribution of the
orbit/spectrum resources.
• C. Determine principles of a spectrum distribution and assignment of frequencies.
• D. Conduct conferences and allocation of orbital slots.
107. A person or entity intending to register as VolP service provider is required to post a performance bond of .
• A. P 1 million
• B. P 3 million
• C. P 5 million
• D. P 10 million
108. What refers to as linkage by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more telecommunications
carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of allowing or enabling the subscriber of one carrier or
operator to access or reach the subscribers of the other carrier or operator?
• A. Interconnection
• B. Toll patching
• C. Gateway
• D. Outside plant sharing
109. Which law refers to the “Electronic Commerce Act of 2000”?
• A. R. A. 8927
• B. R. A. 9287
• C. R. A. 8792
• D. R. A. 8729
110. What is otherwise known as “Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”?
• A. P. D. 223
• B. R. A. 5734
• C. R. A. 9292
• D. R. A. 7925
111. What is otherwise known as “PRC modernization law”?
• A. R. A. 8891
• B. R. A. 8981
• C. R. A. 8918
• D. R. A. 8198
112. Professional Regulations Commission was created under .
• A. P. D. 323
• B. P. D. 223
• C. P. D. 232
• D. P. D. 223
113. When was the effectivity of Presidential Degree No. 223?
• A. June 21, 1973

• B. June 22, 1973
• C. June 23, 1973
• D. June 24, 1974
114. When was the Electronic Commerce Act of the Philippines approved?
• A. June 21, 2000

• B. October 10, 2000
• C. April 22, 2000
• D. June 14, 2000
115. When was Republic Act No. 9292 approved by President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo?
• A. April 12, 2004

• B. April 17, 2004
• C. April 19, 2004
• D. April 27, 2004
116. When was the implementing rules and regulations (IRR) of the R. A. 9292 approved?
• A. August 27, 2007

• B. August 28, 2007
• C. August 29, 2007
• D. August 31, 2007
117. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to render engineering consultation services?
• A. Registered Electronic Technicians

• B. Registered Electronic Engineers
• C. Professional Electronic Engineers
• D. Choices B and C above
118. Under R. A. 9292, can a Register Electronic Engineer render design services?
• A. Yes
• B. No
• C. Yes if he has more than 5 years experience
• D. Yes if he has more than 10 years experience
119. Under R. A. 9292, the Professional Electronic Engineer shall the electronics plan designed by a Registered
Electronic Engineer?
• A. review
• B. sign
• C. seal
• D. all of the choices
120. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to take charge of or supervise electronics construction and
installation?
• A. Professional Electronic Engineers

• B. Registered Electronic Engineers
• C. Professional Electronic Engineers and Registered Electronic Engineers
• D. Only those engineers who have more than 5 years professional practice experience
121. Under R. A. 9292, the standards on minimum compensation are based on
• . A. current practice
• B. current costumer price index
• C. minimum basic daily wage
• D. all of the above
122. Under R. A. 9292, the rate of retainers’ fee to be charged by the consulting electronics engineer for routine
or ordinary consultation will not be less than per month.
• A. P 1,500
• B. P 2,000
• C. P 2,500
• D. P3,000
123. The powers and functions of the Board is provided in of the R. A. No. 9292.
• A. Section 5
• B. Section 6
• C. Section 7
• D. Section 8
124. R. A. 9292, Section 17 states that the result of the board examination shall be released within days after the
examination.
• A. 5
• B. 10
• C. 15
• D. 3
125. What is the minimum punishment imposed to any person who shall give any false or fraudulent statement
to the Board to obtain a Certificate of registration and/or Professional ID Card as Electronics Engineer?
• A. P 100,000 or imprisonment of 6 months

• B. P 10,000 or imprisonment of 3 months
• C. P 50,000 or imprisonment of 6 months
• D. P 100,000 or imprisonment of 1 year
126. The electronic designer will furnish sets of drawing specifications and other contract documents to the
client.
• A. 5
• B. 3
• C. 7
• D. 2
127. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioners with less than 5 years of active
service?
• A. P 4,000 to P 8,000
• B. P 2,000 to P 5,000
• C. P 5,000 to P 9,000
• D. P 6,000 to P 10,000
128. “To provide technical specifications for electronics equipment and systems” is under what field of ECE
practice?
• A. Engineering consultation
• B. Design Services
• C. Construction and Installation
• D. Inspection and Appraisal
129. “Testing and quality control of electronic products” is under what field of ECE practice?
• A. Education Service
• B. Research and Development
• C. Manufacturing
• D. Maintenance
130. If the ECE consultant’s present is required in another place away from his office, additional compensation
of for every hour he is away from his office or if the place more than 50 km away from his office.
• A. P 1,000.00
• B. P 500.00
• C. P 250.00
• D. P 100.00
131. For professional services rendered by the electronics engineer as consultant for project with definite
duration, the minimum recommended hourly rate is for salaried ECEs.
• A. 0.01 of basic monthly salary scale
• B. 0.02 of basic monthly salary scale
• C. 0.03 of basic monthly salary scale
• D. 0.04 of basic monthly salary scale
132. Aside from compensation, the client will pay for the cost of at least “business class” transportation and
accommodation if the meetings are conducted in a place more than km away from the established office of
electronic engineer consultant.
• A. 30
• B. 40
• C. 50
• D. 100
133. For court appearance electronics engineer must charge a minimum fee to the client of not less than per
hour per appearance regardless whether the hearing is postponed or not.
• A. P 500.00
• B. P 250.00
• C. P 1,000.00
• D. P 100.00
134. For conference, electronics engineer must not charge fee to the client more than per hour per attendance
regardless whether the meeting is postponed or not.
• A. P 500.00
• B. P 250.00
• C. P 1,000.00
• D. P 750.00
135. All are methods of determining the fees to electronics engineers except:
• A. Constant Percentage Method

• B. Percent of Cost Method
• C. Cost Plus Reasonable Profit
• D. Percent of Total Project Cost
136. When a project involves alterations, repairs, additions, modifications, etc, which does not involve a whole
project, what method is used for computing the professional fee?
• A. Unit Cost Method

• B. Constant Percentage Method
• C. Per Lot Method
• D. Per Project Method
137. What method of computing fees is where the electronic facilities are divided into classifications which
have corresponding unit design rate?
• A. Percent of Cost Method

• B. Unit Cost Method
• C. Per Lot Method
• D. Per Project Method
138. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with 5 to 10 years of active service?
• A. P 6,000 to P 20,000
• B. P 5,000 to P 8,000
• C. P 8,000 to P 12,000
• D. P 10,000 to P 15,000
139. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with more than 10 years of active
service?
• A. P 15,000 – up
• B. P 12,000 – up
• C. P 8,000 – up
• D. P 10,000 – up
140. According to the manual of professional practice of electronics engineers, the minimum rate of retainer’s
fee to be charged by the consulting electronics engineer is .
• A. P 1,500 per month

• B. P 1,000 per month
• C. P 2,000 per month
• D. P 2,500 per month
141. What refers to the act of putting together parts of a whole in order to build-up; to erect or to form and/or to
set or establish electronics equipment, systems or facilities?
• A. Construction and/or installation

• B. Investigation
• C. Appraisal
• D. Acceptance
142. What refers to the process of producing, forming or fabricating electronic equipment and/or related
components, parts, devices and accessories?
• A. Quality control
• B. Manufacturing
• C. Development
• D. System design
143. What refers to the act of conceptualizing, planning and projecting a scheme, system and facility using the
arts and science of electronics along with social, economic, financial and technical consideration?
• A. Construction service
• B. Consultation service
• C. Organizing service
• D. Design service
144. What is the act of giving advice and information to client in the area of electronics engineering and its
related fields in line with current internationally accepted standards and practices?
• A. Consultancy design
• B. Professional consultation
• C. Engineering consultation
• D. Consultancy service
145. What is the minimum fine for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as provided in the E-commerce
Act of the Philippines?
• A. P 100,000
• B. P 500,000
• C. P 100,000
• D. P 50,000
146. What is the minimum penalty for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as provided in the E-
commerce Act of the Philippines?
• A. 6 months imprisonment
• B. 12 months imprisonment
• C. 2 months imprisonment
• D. 3 months imprisonment
147. A secret code which secures and defends sensitive information that crosses over public channels into a
form decipherable only with a matching electronic key is referred to as
• A. password
• B. username
• C. encrypted code
• D. electronic key
148. What is the term of the Chairman of the Professional Regulation Commission?
• A. 5 years
• B. 3 years
• C. 6 years
• D. 7 years
149. Which one is NOT the basic electrical protection measure in the Philippine Electronic Codes?
• A. Voltage/current limiting and interrupting

• B. Undergrounding
• C. Grounding and bonding
• D. Shielding
150. What unit measures the dosage ratio of radiation?
• A. roentgens per minute

• B. milliroentgens per hour (mr per hour)
• C. rebs per hour
• D. rems per minute
151. What unit expresses the amount of radiation actually absorbed in the tissue?
• A. rad
• B. rbe
• C. rem
• D. reb
152. What refers to radiation other than X-rays which will cause an absorption equal to 1 roentgen?
• A. rbe
• B. reb
• C. rem
• D. rep
153. What refers t the different sources of radiation have different effects which are related to X-rays by a
number?
• A. rbe
• B. rems
• C. rebs
154. Which of the following determines the total dose of radiation?
• A. The total dose is determined by multiplying the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure.
• B. The total dose is determined by adding the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure.
• C. The total dose is determined by dividing the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure.
• D. The total dose is determined by subtracting the dosage rate by the number of hours of exposure.
155. According to safety standards, what is the maximum allowable radiation from an electronic equipment?
• A. Must not exceed 100 mr per week

• B. Must not exceed 10 mr per week
• C. Must not exceed 1000 mr per day
• D. Must not exceed 100 mr per day
156. What unit expresses the rbe dose?
• A. rems (roentgen equivalent man)

• B. rebs (roentgen equivalent biological)
• C. Both A & B
• D. Only A
157. What formula gives the maximum accumulated permissible dose (MPD) in rems to the whole body, with N
= person’s age?
• A. MPD = 5 (N – 18)
• B. MPD = 3 (N – 15)
• C. MPD = 7 (N – 18)
• D. MPD = 5 (N – 15)
158. What is the rbe of alpha particles and fast neutrons?
• A. 10
• B. 5
• C. 15
• D. 7
159. What is the rbe of any radiation produced by a radio transmitter?
• A. 2
• B. 1
• C. 4
• D. 3
160. What unit is used to measure the accumulative effects of radiation that can cause genetic and somatic
effects?
• A. roentgens
• B. rems
• C. rbes
• D. rebs
161. When is coordination with the telephone company needed when as underground service entrance will be
used as the most feasible and economical way?
• A. Expense of telephone company

• B. Expense of subscriber
• C. Length of a bale to be used by subscriber
• D. Decision of depth of conduit at interconnection point
162. The potential difference between any exposed structure to ground in any electrical installation should not
exceed volts RMS.
• A. 10
• B. 45
• C. 0
• D. 30
163. Which of the following is the lowest resistance grounding on earth?
• A. Sand
• B. Clay
• C. Surface loam soil
• D. Limestone
164. Which part of housing of a building cable system has the same function as the slot but circular in shape?
• A. Fitting
• B. Sleeve
• C. Insert
• D. Header
165. What refers to a terminal where riser cable pairs are terminated to serve a portion or an entire floor of a
building?
• A. Floor terminal distribution area

• B. Raceway terminal
• C. Floor distribution terminal
• D. Riser terminal
166. Which part of the housing system in ECE code is a circular opening through the floor structure to allow the
passage of a cable and wire?
• A. Insert
• B. Sleeve
• C. Raceway
• D. Slot
167. In cable facilities for a building communications service, is referred to as a physical cable within a building
or series of buildings which may include both main cable pairs and house cable pairs but not wiring cable.
• A. entrance cable
• B. floor distribution cable
• C. house cable
• D. building cable
168. A telephone company’s cable entering a building from telephone cable feeder to the main cross-connecting
a point within the building is called .
• A. Telephone cable
• B. Entrance cable
• C. Connecting cable
• D. Building cable
169. It is a non-combustible tubing which encases the riser cable between enclosed type metallic terminal
cabinets or boxes.
• A. Raceway
• B. Riser shaft
• C. Riser conduit
• D. Entrance cable
170. A series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or open shaft of the building
is called .
• A. Service fitting
• B. Raceway
• C. Riser conduit
• D. Riser shaft
171. What is the maximum number of lines for any building other than a one or two story residential building to
be required a service entrance facility under ECE building code?
• A. Two lines
• B. Five lines
• C. Three lines
• D. Not required
172. What is the device that diverts high transient voltage to the ground and away from the equipment thus
protected?
• A. Alpeth
• B. Anchor
• C. Alarm
• D. Arrester
173. What is one possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in one self-excited transmitter oscillator
circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant oscillation?
• A. Poor soldered connections.

• B. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator.
• C. DC and RF ac heating of the resistors which cause change in values.
• D. Aging which cause change condition in parts characteristics.
174. Which of the following does not constitute the foundation of ethics?
• A. Honesty
• B. Justice
• C. Integrity
• D. Courtesy
175. What is defined as a legally binding agreement or premise to exchange goods or services?
• A. Consideration
• B. Partnership
• C. Contract
• D. Obligation
176. What is the study of the decisions, policies, and values that are morally desirable in engineering practice
and research?
• A. Engineering ethics
• B. Engineering management
• C. Engineering system
• D. Engineering integrity
177. What consists of the responsibilities and rights that ought to be endorsed by those engaged in engineering,
and also of desirable ideals and personal commitments in engineering?
• A. Ethics
• B. Code of ethics
• C. Engineering ethics
• D. Engineering standards
178. What refers to situations in which moral reasons come into conflict, or in which the application of moral
values is problematic?
• A. Silo mentality
• B. Preventive ethics
• C. Ethical issues
• D. Moral dilemmas
179. What states the moral responsibilities of engineers as seen by the profession, and as represented by a
professional society?
• A. Preventive ethics
• B. Work ethics
• C. Code of ethics
• D. Professional code
180. What is a set of attitudes, which implies a motivational orientation, concerning the value of work?
• A. Preventive ethics
• B. Work ethics
• C. Code of ethics
• D. Professional code
181. Ethics is synonymous to .
• A. morality
• B. money
• C. standards
• D. conduct
182. A contract can be terminated with which of the following reasons?
• A. Death of a party to the contract

• B. Failure of consideration
• C. Mutual agreement of the parties to the contract
• D. All of the above
183. Some contracts may be dissolved by which valid reason?
• A. Court order
• B. Passage of new laws
• C. Declaration of war
184. What is the major advantage of a standard contract?
• A. The meanings of the clauses were established.

• B. The clauses of this contract are to be litigated.
• C. The clauses of this contract are rarely ambiguous.
185. The general contractor who hires different subcontractors is known as contractor.
• A. real
• B. original
• C. prime
• D. legitimate
186. What is the basic requirement in order for a contract to be binding?
• A. There must be a clear, specific and definite offer.

• B. There must be some form of conditional future consideration.
• C. There must be an acceptance of the offer.
187. What contract document is part of the constructive contracts?
• A. Agreement form
• B. General condition
• C. Drawings and specifications
188. What refers to a statement of fact made by one party to the other before the contract is made?
• A. A representation
• B. An offer
• C. A proposal
• D. A consideration
189. What refers to a fundamental obligation under the contract which goes to the root of the contract?
• A. Warranty
• B. Condition
• C. Injuction
• D. Innominate terms
190. What type of damages is awarded, usually for fraud cases, to punish and make an example of the defendant
to deter other from doing the same thing?
• A. Punitive damages
• B. Nominal damages
• C. Liquidated damages
• D. Consequential damages
191. What is another term for “punitive damages”?
• A. Liquidated damages
• B. Exemplary damages
• C. Compensatory damages
• D. Nominal damages
192. What is defined as a non-performance that results in the injured party receiving something substantially
less than or different from what the contract is intended?
• A. Willful breach
• B. Material breach
• C. Unintentional breach
• D. Intentional breach
193. What refers to the condition that in a contract between two parties, only the parties to a contract may sue
under it and that any third party names in that contract or who benefit from that contract cannot sue or be sued
under that contract?
• A. Doctrine of contract
• B. Party policy of contract
• C. Equity of contract
• D. Privity of contract
194. What is a civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person of his property,
emotional well-being, or reputation?
• A. Consequential damage
• B. Fraud
• C. Punitive damage
• D. Tort
195. The tort law is concerned with .
• A. imprisonment
• B. fine
• C. compensation for the injury
• D. punishment
196. What refers to a statement or oath, often religious in nature, agreed by an individual in ceremonies?
• A. Canon
• B. Code
• C. Creed
• D. Rule
197. A canon is defined as:

• A. a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules.
• B. a system of nonstatutory, nonmandatory rules on personal conduct.
• C. an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony.
• D. a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation.
198. A rule is defined as:

199. A code is defined as:

200. What refers to the rendition of service by a dully licensed professional by virtue of his technical education,
training, experience and competence?
• A. Professional practice
• B. Professional service
• C. Legal practice and service
• D. Professional consultation
201. A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.
• A. Contracts
• B. Obligation
• C. Quasi-delicts
• D. Condition
202. Obligation comes from the latin word _______ which means to bind.
• A. Obligum
• B. Obligate
• C. Obligare
• D. Obligus
203. A legal wrong, committed through fault or negligence, on a person or property, independent of contract.
• A. Contracts
• B. Obligation
• D. Condition
204. A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and the courts of justice may compel
their performance.
• A. Civil Obligations
• B. Natural Obligation
• C. Pure Obligation
• D. Condition
205. A nature of obligation under civil code based on morality, natural law and conscience, they are not legally
demandable.
• A. Civil Obligations
• B. Natural Obligation
• C. Pure Obligation
• D. Condition
206. Requisites of obligations which is the vinculum or the link that binds the party
• A. Juridical or legal tie

• B. Prestation
• C. Active subject
• D. Passive subject
207. Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something

• B. Prestation
208. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person who can demand the performance of the obligation or
known as the creditor or oblige

• B. Prestation
209. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person from whom prestation is demandable or known as the
debtor or obligor

• B. Prestation
210. One of the following is not considered as a source of obligation.
• A. Law
• B. Contracts
• C. Quai-delicts
• D. Work
211. The following are requisites of Quasi-delicts except
• A. An act or omission
• B. Accompanied by fault or negligence
• C. There must be no pre-existing contractual relation between the parties
• D. Acts or omissions punished by law
212. An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it mention a specific date for its
fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable.
• A. Pure obligation
• B. Condition obligation
• C. Reciprocal obligation
• D. Alternative obligation
213. An uncertain event which wields an influence on a legal relation.
• B. Condition
214. An obligation which is a subject to a condition.

• B. Condition obligation
215. A kind of condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation until the fulfillment of the
condition.
• A. Suspensive Condition
• B. Alternative obligation
• D. Resolutory obligation
216. A kind of condition that produces the extinguishment of an obligation upon the happening of the event.
• A. Suspensive Condition
• B. Alternative obligation
• D. Resolutory Condition
217. An obligation whose consequences are subjected in one way or the other to the expiration of said term.
• B. Obligations with a period
218. “A” borrowed money from “B” in the amount of P50.00 promising to pay the amount “as soon as
possible”. If later on, they cannot agree on the specific date of payment, the remedy of “B” is to go to court and
ask the court to fix the date when the debt is to be paid. This illustrates:
• B. Obligations with a period
219. A kind of period with suspensive effect.
• A. Ex die
• B. In diem
• C. Legal period
• D. Voluntary period
220. A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is up to a certain date
• A. Ex die
• B. In diem
• C. Legal period
221. A period established by law.
• A. Ex die
• B. In diem
• C. Legal period
222. A period agreed to by the parties.
• A. Judicial period
• B. In diem
• C. Legal period
223. A period authorized by the court.
• A. Judicial period
• B. In diem
• C. Legal period
224. An obligation where two parties are mutually obliged to do or to give something.
• B. Condition
225. Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator. The delivery of the piano or the
refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the obligation. Marc could not compel Edwin to accept only a part of
the piano or a part of the refrigerator because this illustrates:
• B. Condition
226. An obligation wherein various things are due, but the payment of one of them is sufficient, determined by
the choice which as a general rule belongs to the obligor.
• B. Condition
227. One in which each of the debtors is answerable only for a proportionate part of the debt, and each one of
the creditors is entitled to a proportionate part of the credit
• A. Joint obligation
• B. Solidary obligation
• C. Divisible obligation
• D. Indivisible obligation
228. One in which each of the debtors is liable for the whole obligation and each of the creditors may demand
compliance of the entire obligation.
229. A kind of solidarity when it exists among the creditors only.
• A. Active Solidarity
• B. Passive Solidarity
• C. Mixed Solidarity
• D. Solo Solidarity
230. When the solidarity takes place among the debtors only, it is called
231. When the solidarity exists both among the creditors and the debtors at the same time, this is called
232. An obligation which is capable of partial performance.
233. Juan obliged himself to deliver to Pedro six sacks of rice as follows: Three sacks of rice to be delivered by
Juan on May 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the amount of P150.00. Another three sacks of rice to be delivered by
Juan on June 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the same amount of P150.00. This illustrates:
234. A type division that depends on quality rather than quantity
• A. Qualitative
• B. Quantitative
• C. Ideal
• D. Moral
235. A type of division that depends on quantity rather than quality
• A. Qualitative
• B. Quantitative
• C. Ideal
• D. Mental
236. A type of division also known as moral, intellectual or mental division
• A. Qualitative
• B. Quantitative
• C. Ideal
237. It is an accessory undertaking to assume greater liability in case of breach.
• A. Law
• B. Penal clause
• C. Stipulation
• D. Preceding
238. “A” binds himself to deliver to “B” a Honda Civic car at the end of the current year. They agree in writing
that should “A” fail to deliver the car on a specified date, “A” shall pay “B” as penalty P10,000.00. “A” fails to
make the delivery. “B” could demand the payment of P10,000.00 against “A”. “B”, however could not compel
“A” to deliver the car and pay the penalty at the same time. This is _______ type of penal clause:
• A. Joint
• B. Subsidiary
• C. Solo
• D. Partial
239. A classification of penal clause when both the principal contract and the penal clause can be enforced.
• A. Joint
• B. Subsidiary
• C. Solo
• D. Partial
240. An obligation can be extinguished by the following except
• A. By Payment or Performance
• B. By the condition or remission of the debt
• C. By altering the signature
• D. By the loss of the thing due
241. An obligation which is not capable of partial performance.
242. A kind of remission when the enforcement of the obligation is waived or renounced totally.
• A. Partial
• B. Complete
• C. Express
• D. Implied
243. A remission when the waiver or renunciation refers only to a part of the obligation.
• A. Partial
• B. Complete
• C. Express
• D. Implied
244. A remission when it is shown by words or declaration of the obligee.
• A. Partial
• B. Complete
• C. Express
• D. Implied
245. A remission when it is inferred from the acts or conduct of the obligee.
• A. Partial
• B. Complete
• C. Express
• D. Implied
246. A type of compensation that takes place when compensation extinguishes the two debts in their concurrent
amounts even without the express agreement of the parties. Judicial compensation
• A. Legal compensation
• B. Voluntary compensation
• C. Judicial compensation
• D. Partial compensation
247. A type of compensation that takes place when there is compensation by agreement of the parties as in the
case of mutual set off of accounts.
• B. Voluntary compensation
248. A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the counterclaim of the defendant as
against the claim of the plaintiff.
• B. Total compensation
249. A type of compensation that takes place when the two obligations are of different amounts and a balance
remains unextinguished after the compensation.
250. A type of compensation that takes place when the obligations are of the same amount and compensation
extinguishes the obligations entirely.
251. A novation where the principal conditions of the obligation is change.
• A. True novation
• B. Real novation
• C. Personal novation
• D. Substitute novation
252. “A” obliged himself to deliver to “B” a car. Subsequently, they entered into another contract whereby
instead of “A” delivering a car, “A” would deliver a truck. This illustrates:
253. A novation where another person is sustained in place of the debtor or he is subrogated to the rights of the
creditor.
254. A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the objects or modification of principal
condition.
• A. Mixed novation
255. It is the meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect to the other to give
something or to render some services.
• A. Contracts
• B. Obligation
• D. Condition
256. A contract comes from the Latin word _______ which signifies an agreement.
• A. Kontrus
• B. contractus
• C. Tractum
• D. Contractumus
257. The following are considered to be the essential elements of contracts except
• A. consent of the parties

• B. object or subject matter
• C. cause or consideration
• D. effects to the subject
258. An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is presumed by law unless there is an
agreement to the contrary
• A. Essential element
• B. Natural elements
• C. Accidental elements
• D. Unnatural elements
259. Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation of the parties such as conditions,
terms, etc.
• A. Essential element
• B. Natural elements
• C. Accidental elements
• D. Unnatural elements
260. A stage of contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the parties agree upon the terms of the
contract.
• A. Preparation or Conception
• B. Perfection or Birth
• C. Consummation or Termination
• D. Deliberation
261. A stage of contract that refers to the time when the minds of the parties meet in agreement upon the object
or subject matter as well as to the price or consideration.
• D. Deliberation
262. Juan agrees to receive P2,000.00 for his horse and Pedro agrees to take the horse for the amount. This
refers to what stage of the contract
• D. Deliberation
263. Juan delivers the horse to Pedro and the same is accepted. Pedro gives the amount P2,000.00 as purchase
price and the latter receives it.
• D. Deliberation
264. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by words, oral or written.
• A. Express contract
• B. Implied contracts
• C. Executed contracts
• D. Executory contracts
265. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by conduct.
266. A contract that has already been performed.
267. A contract that has not yet performed.
268. A contract that is perfected by mere consent, such as a contract of sale.
• A. Consensual contract
• B. Bilateral contract
• C. Real contract
• D. Unilateral contract
269. A contract that is perfected by delivery of the thing which is the object of the contract.
270. A contract wherein only one of the parties has an obligation such as in commodatum or gratuitous deposit.
271. A contract that creates reciprocal obligations.
272. “A”, for and in consideration of P1,000.00, entered into a contract with “B” whereby the latter agreed to
murder “C”. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
• A. Contrary to law
• B. Against moral
• C. Contrary to good customs
• D. Contrary to public order
273. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby for and In consideration of P100,000.00 the latter agrees to
live with “A” without the benefit of marriage. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
274. Pedro and Maria decided to get married on October 10, 2007. Invitations were printed and distributed to
relatives and friends and apparel were purchased including matrimonial bed. Pedro, however walked out of it
and was never heard of again. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
275. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby “A” will not enter into any enterprise whatever in the
Philippines. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to
276. The following are requisites of contracts except
• A. Consent
• B. Object of contract
• C. Cause of contract
• D. Effect of contract
277. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the pure liberality of the giver.
• A. Gratuitous Contract
• B. Remunetory Contract
• C. Onerous Contrary
• D. Liberation Contract
278. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the service or benefit for which the
remuneration is given.
• C. Onerous Contract
279. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the mutual undertaking or promise of
either of the contracting parties.
• C. Onerous Contract
280. Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made or constructed so as to express or
confirm to the real intention of the parties when some error or mistake has been committed.
• A. Reformation
• B. Novation
• C. Defect
• D. Erroneous
281. Which of the following cannot be considered as a requisite of reformation?
• A. There is a valid contract;

• B. The contract is in writing;
• C. The oral contract expresses the true intention of the parties
• D. The failure of the written contract to express the true intention is due to mutual mistake, fraud,
inequitable conduct, or accident.
282. A defective contract where it has all the essential requisites of a damage to third persons, such as creditors,
the contract may be rescinded.
• A. Rescissible Contract
• B. Voidable Contract
• C. Unenforced Contracts
• D. Void or Inexistent Contracts
283. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact that the price is unjust or
inadequate.
• A. damage
• B. effect
• C. lesion
• D. payment
284. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract, namely, consent, object and
cause or consideration. It is a valid contract until it is annulled.

285. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.

286. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is said to be

287. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property belonging to another without the
consent of the latter.

• D. Negotiorum Contract
288. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary compensation, recompense, or
satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as a consequence either of a breach of a contractual
obligation or a tortuous act.
• A. Payment
• B. Injury
• C. Damages
• D. Compensation
289. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes medical expenses, lost wages and
the repair or replacement of property.

• D. Temperate and Moderate Damages
290. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious anxiety, besmirched reputation,
wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation and similar injury.

291. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injury due to a violation of some legal
right, and as a consequence of which some damages must be awarded to determine the right.

292. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.

293. “Damages” where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or fixed by the judgment of a
competent court.
• A. Liquidated Damages
• B. Exemplary Damages
• C. Corrective Damages
• D. Compensatory Damages
294. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on account of wanton, reckless,
malicious, or oppressive character of the acts complained of.

• D. Exemplary or Corrective Damages
295. Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of merchants, mariners and
business men generally in their dealings with one another throughout the civilized countries of the world.
• A. Law of merchants
• B. Law of businessmen
• C. Law of mariners
• D. Law of people
301. RA 9292 is known as
• A. Electronics Engineering Law of 2004

• B. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of the Philippines
• C. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004
• D. Electronics Engineering Law of the Philippines
302. The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems involving the flow of
electrons or other carriers of electric charge, in a vacuum, in gaseous media, in plasma, in semiconductors, in
solid-state and/or in similar devices, including, but not limited to, applications involving optical,
electromagnetic and other energy forms when transduced or converted into electronic signals.
• A. Electronics
• B. Communications
• C. Electricity
• D. Physics
303. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Professional Electronics
Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters “PECE”.
• A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer

• B. Professional Electronics Engineer
• C. Electronics Engineer
• D. Electronics and Communications Engineer
304. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics Engineer
under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters “ECE”.

305. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics Technician
under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters “ECT”.

• D. Electronics Technician
306. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed Electronics and
Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. 5734.

307. Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data, programs and/or instructions,
executing programs and/or instructions to process the data and presenting the results.
• A. Computer
• B. ICT
• C. ATM
• D. Laptop
308. The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of data and information by
electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual, numeric or the like; also refers to the theoretical and
practical applications and processes utilizing such data and information.
• A. Information and Communications Technology

• C. Telecommunications
• D. Information Technology
309. The process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or messages between two (2) or
more points by radio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices and wired or wireless medium.

310. Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text, written or printed matter,
fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible or audible signals or sounds, or any information,
intelligence and/or control signals of any design/or format and for any purpose, by wire, radio, spectral,
visual/optical/light, or other electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.

311. An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other signals or messages
for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or wireless means.
• A. Communications
• B. Broadcasting
• C. Transmission
• D. Paging
312. Includes all a manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors where electronic or
electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or being used, sold, maintained, assembled,
manufactured or operated.
• A. Industrial Plant
• B. Commercial Establishment
• C. Production Area
• D. Power Plant
313. Shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals, condominiums, stores,
apartments, supermarkets, schools, stadia, parking areas, memorial chapels/parks, watercraft and aircraft used
for business or profit, and any other building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or
electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained,
assembled, manufactured or operated.
• A. Industrial Plant
• B. Commercial Establishment
• C. Production Area
• D. Power Plant
314. Shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and professional capability in
undertaking advisory and review, pre-investment or feasibility studies, design, planning, construction,
supervision, management and related services, and other technical studies or special studies in the field of
electronics engineering.
• A. Consulting services
• B. Primary services
• C. Secondary services
• D. Technical services
315. The integrated and accredited national organization of Professional Electronics Engineers, Electronics
Engineers and Electronics Technician.
• A. IECEP
• B. Accredited Professional Organization
• C. PIECEP
• D. Organization of PECE
316. To be qualified as a Member of the Board, he/she must be a citizen and a resident of the Philippines for at
least __________ consecutive years prior to his/her appointment.
• A. 7 years
• B. 10 years
• C. 5 years
• D. 3 years
317. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of __________ years from date of appointment or
until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be re-appointed once for another term.
• A. 7
• B. 10
• C. 5
• D. 3
318. To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics Technician must
obtain a passing rating of in each subject given during the examination:
• A. 50%
• B. 60%
• C. 70%
• D. 80%
319. One shall be allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s where he/she has failed to obtain
the passing rating. Provided, however, that a candidate who obtains a passing rating in the majority of the
subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s.
• A. Below 70% but not lower than 60%

• B. Below 70% but not lower than 50%
• C. Below 60% but not lower than 50%
• D. Below 75% but not lower than 60%
320. Certified experience record of active self-practice and/or employment either in government service or in
the private sector, in the format to be prescribed by the Board, indicating the inclusive dates, companies worked
for, description of specific responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and name, position of immediate
supervisors for a period of at least __________ years (inclusive and/or aggregate), at least ___________ years
of which are in responsible charge of significant engineering work, from the date applicant took his/her oath as
an Electronics and Communications Engineer or Electronics Engineer.
• A. 10 years; 3 years
• B. 7 years; 2 years
• C. 5 years; 2 years
• D. 10 years; 2 years
321. RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. __________ and Senate Bill No. _______.
• A. 5224; 2683
• B. 5447; 458
• C. 5734; 109
• D. 5533; 4552
322. RA 9292 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate on
• A. February 2, 2004
• B. March 2, 2007
• C. April 17,2004
• D. March 5, 2005
323. RA 9292 was approved on

• A. April 17, 2004
• B. April 27, 2004
• C. March 17, 2005
• D. March 27, 2004
324. The effectivity of RA 9292 was on
• A. April 17, 2004

• B. April 27, 2004
• C. May 24, 2004
• D. May 28, 2004
325. To qualify in the registration to be PECE, one must provide __________ certification/s signed by
__________ PECEs attesting that the experience record submitted by the applicant is factual.
• A. 1; 3
• B. 1; 2
• C. 3; 3
• D. 2; 2
326. Under the exception proviso stipulated in the particular Section 18, Article III of RA No. 9292 those who
have been registered and licensed as Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No.5734
for at least __________ years upon the effectivity of RA No. 9292 are qualified to register as PECE.
• A. 5
• B. 10
• C. 3
• D. 7
327. Registration with and without Examination for Electronics Technicians (ECT) will start within
__________ years from the effectivity of RA No. 9292.
• A. 5
• B. 3
• C. 10
• D. 7
328. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT), he/she must have rendered at least ___________ years
(inclusive or aggregate) of active self-practice and/ or employment either in the Government or private sector.
• A. 5
• B. 3
• C. 10
• D. 7
329. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT),one must provide individual certification/s from at least
__________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical capability and good moral character of the
applicant in a format to be prescribed by the Board.
• A. 5
• B. 3
• C. 10
• D. 7
330. The Board may, __________ years after the revocation of a Certificate of Registration and Professional
Identification Card, upon application of the party concerned and for reasons deemed proper and sufficient,
reinstate the validity of a revoked Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card, subject to
compliance with the applicable requirements of the Commission and the Board.
• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4
331. Exemptions for examination and registration can be possibly given to
• A. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 20 years of experience in the Philippines
• B. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 25 years of experience abroad
• C. A foreign national that are PECEs, ECEs or ECTs and equivalent who are temporarily employed by
the Philippine Government or by private firms in the Philippines
• D. A foreign national with at least 20 years of experience in ECE field here in the Philippines
332. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric circles, with the
outside circle measuring __________ in diameter.
• A. 28 mm
• B. 45 mm
• C. 48 mm
• D. 32 mm
333. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric circles, with the
inner circle measuring __________ in diameter.
• A. 28 mm
• B. 45 mm
• C. 48 mm
• D. 32 mm
334. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the upper part of the annular space bear the words
• A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

• B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
• C. NAME OF THE MEMBER
• D. LICENSE NO.
335. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the lower half part of the annular space bear the words

• D. LICENSE NO.
336. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner circle space has the symbol of a/an
• A. atom
• B. electron
• C. radar transceiver
• D. computer
337. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
• A. 1 electron
• B. 2 electrons
• C. 3 electrons
• D. 4 electrons
338. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
• A. 1 nucleus
• B. 2 nuclei
• C. 3 nuclei
• D. 4 nuclei
339. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the outer and inner ring is filled with
• A. grey with boundaries in black color
• B. orange with boundaries in navy color
• C. white with boundaries in black color
• D. yellow with boundaries in black color
340. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the text is
• A. black with white background

• B. white with black background
• C. black with grey background
• D. white with grey background
341. in the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner ring is filled with
• A. orange background
• B. navy blue background
• C. black background
• D. white background
342. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom is colored with ___________ and the nucleus and electrons
in __________ color.
• A. Black ; red
• B. White; orange
• C. White; red
• D. Black; orange
343. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of RA No. 9292 shall
be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the outer circle measuring __________ in
diameter.
• A. 28 mm
• B. 45 mm
• C. 48 mm
• D. 32 mm
344. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of RA 9292 shall be, a
dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the inner circle measuring ___________ in diameter.
• A. 28 mm
• B. 35 mm
• C. 48 mm
• D. 32 mm
345. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of RA 9292 shall be, a
dry circular seal containing the appearance of ___________ in the upper part of the inner circle
• A. atom
• B. electron
• C. radar transceiver
• D. computer
346. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of RA 9292 shall be, a
dry circular seal with a horizontal space bearing the word

• D. LICENSE NO.
347. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, below the words LICENSE NO. is the
• A. license number
• B. the word “PHILIPPINES”
• C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license
• D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”
348. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the portion of the inner circle below the diametral space
shall bear
349. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the upper portion of the annular space bear
350. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the lower portion of the annular space bear
351. In KBP radio standards, each station is required to schedule a minimum of __________ of news per day
(from 5:00 a.m. to 10:00 p.m.) on Monday-thru-Saturday basis.
• A. 30 min.
• B. 60 min.
• C. 45 min.
• D. 75 min.
352. The minimum length/s of a daily radio news can be __________
• A. 1 minute
• B. 5 minutes
• C. 10 minutes or 15 minutes
353. A distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of one (1) minute excluding intro, extro, headline
and commercial load.
• A. Newsbreak
• B. Flash report
• C. Newscast
354. A __________ is a person from whom a piece of news originates
• A. Primary source
• B. Secondary source
• C. 1st person source
• D. 2nd person source
355. A __________ is normally a recorded material (print or audio) from which a piece of news is extracted or
attributed to, or may be a person who acts as a conduit.
• A. primary source
• B. secondary source
• C. 1st person source
• D. 2nd person source
356. The cancellation or revocation of accreditation of individual employee, and recommendation for expulsion
from KBP membership and, recommendation to the NTC for the cancellation of permit to operate the station,
for improper placement of advertisement shall be given for:
• A. first offense
• B. third offense
• C. second offense
• D. fourth offense
357. These are announcements requested by private individuals or groups either through the KBP or directly
with the broadcast station.
• A. Public Service Announcements

• B. Private Announcements
• C. Private Service Announcements
• D. Public Announcements
358. All stations shall actively promote the growth and development of Filipino music. Radio stations are
encouraged to schedule _________ OPM’s every clockhour.
• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4
359. The principal source of revenue of the free, competitive system of commercial broadcasting is:
• A. Advertising
• B. Donation
• C. Fund
360. A commercial preceding the opening of the program is called
• A. cow-catcher
• B. hitch-hiker
• C. lead commercial
• D. sweeper
361. A commercial following the close of the program is called:
• A. cow-catcher
• B. hitch-hiker
• C. lead commercial
• D. sweeper
362. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program in Metro Manila
• A. 15 min
• B. 17 min
• C. 18 min
• D. 20 min
363. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within Metro Manila
• A. 15
• B. 7 minutes and 30 sec
• C. 3 minutes and 30 sec
• D. 1 minute and 15 sec
364. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes within Metro Manila
• A. 15
365. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within Metro Manila
• A. 15
366. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program outside Metro Manila
• A. 15 min
• B. 17 min
• C. 18 min
• D. 20 min
367. 17. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes outside Metro Manila
• A. 17
• B. 8 min and 30 sec
• C. 4 min
• D. 1 min and 30 sec
368. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes outside Metro Manila
• A. 17
• C. 4 min
369. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes outside Metro Manila
• A. 17
• C. 4 min
370. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ breaks in
every program hour
• A. 5
• B. 7
• C. 6
• D. 8
371. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed __________
breaks in every program hour
• A. 5
• B. 7
• C. 6
• D. 8
372. In international sports events, the commercial load may be increased upon the approval of the Board of
Directors but in no case to exceed __________ commercial minutes per hour.
• A. 20 min
• B. 15 min
• C. 30 min
• D. 25 min
373. Commercial placements of competing products, services or firms in radio standards:
• A. shall not be placed within the same cluster

• B. can be placed in the same time cluster
• C. can be placed in the same time cluster given there is a different product in between
• D. A and B
374. The following advertisements shall not be allowed:
• A. Advertising which do not use superlatives, false claims and other misleading expressions
• B. Advertisements without violent scenes or messages which describe or condone these acts
• C. Advertisements which deliberately encourage wrong pronunciation and grammar
375. Any product and/or service that is sold or a service rendered within a province
• A. Local product
• B. Local account
• C. Local merchandise
• D. Local goods
376. The following are considered local accounts except:
• A. Bowling Alleys
• B. Painting shops
• C. Barber shops
• D. Drugstores with branches in another radio area or province
377. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
• A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM

• B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
• C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight
• D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM
378. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
• A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM

• B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
379. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in AM radio is within:
• A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM

• B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
380. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in AM radio is within:
• A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM

• B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
381. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in FM radio is within:

• A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
• B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
• D. 12 midnight to 5:00 AM
382. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in FM radio is within:
• A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
• B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
383. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in FM radio is within:
• A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
• B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
384. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in FM radio is within:
• A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
• B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM
385. Outside Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:
• A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
• B. 12 noon to 2:00 PM
• C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
386. Outside Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:
• A. 9:00 AM to 12 noon
• B. 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM
• C. 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM
387. In Metro Manila, AM radio prime time is the time
• A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM

• B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
• C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
• D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
388. In Metro Manila, FM radio prime time is the time
• A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM

• B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
• C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
• D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
389. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time
• A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM
• B. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
• C. 12 noon to 2:00 PM
390. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time

• A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM
• B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
• C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
• D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
391. For provincial stations, FM radio prime time is the time
• A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM

• B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
• C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM
• D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
392. It is required that during prime time only __________ hours of the airtime SHALL be allowed for block
time programs under station responsibility and supervision.
• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4
393. In TV standards, every station shall schedule at least a minimum of _________ newscast (aggregate total
including advisories) per day from Monday to Friday.
• A. 30 min
• B. 60 min
• C. 45 min
• D. 75 min
394. Text crawls, either electronic or manual, shall not be used for any other purpose like:
• A. news bulletins
• B. last minute program changes
• C. advisories in the public interest
• D. advertisements
395. Commercial load for television in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ minutes per hour in foreign
or local programs, inclusive of breakspots.
• A. 15
• B. 18
• C. 17
• D. 20
401. An electrical discharge which occurs between clouds and also from cloud to earth.
• A. Thunder
• B. Lightning
• C. Corona
• D. Aurora
402. Results from abnormally high sound level, the physical effects of which may vary from minor discomfort
to serious injury.
• A. Electrical Shock
• B. Super Sonic
• C. Acoustic Shock
• D. Sonic Boom
403. The factor that determines the intensity of electrical shock is
• A. Current
• B. Voltage
• C. Resistance
• D. Conductance
404. The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately:
• A. 10,000 ohms
• B. 100,000 ohms
• C. 1,000,000 ohms
• D. 100 ohms
405. Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60Hz rms current of _________ amperes and above passes
through one’s chest cavity.
• A. 0.010
• B. 0.11
• C. 0.030
• D. 0.33
406. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
• A. 45V RMS AC
• B. 12V RMS AC
• C. 24V RMS AC
• D. 50V RMS AC
407. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:
• A. 150V DC
• B. 45V DC
• C. 135V DC
• D. 160V DC
408. The potential difference at any time between two points on the floor or earth surface separated by a
distance of one pace, or about one meter, in the direction of maximum potential gradient shall be no greater than
__________.
• A. 45 volts rms AC or 135 volts DC

• B. 25 volts rms AC or 115 volts DC
• C. 15 volts rms AC or 105 volts DC
• D. 55 volts rms AC or 145 volts DC
409. It is the provision of a grounded electrical conducting material located such that foreign potential will be
intercepted and surge currents diverted to ground with the least damage to plant equipment possible.
• A. Grounding
• B. Shielding
• C. Bonding
• D. Current Limiting
410. Prevents development of hazardous potential difference in communication plant by direct bonding, when
permissible or by use of surge arresters, discharge gaps, diodes, etc. which operate under abnormal voltage
condition.
• A. Current limiting
• B. Resistance limiting
• C. Grounding
• D. Voltage limiting
411. The current in a circuit can be kept from rising above predetermined value by the use of a fuse in series
with a circuit.
• C. Grounding
412. This is used to divert undesired currents before they reach the equipment being protected and often are
installed both at and some distance away from the protected equipment.
• C. Grounding
413. It is the resistance path of a ground connection which includes the ground wire and its connection to
ground electrode.
• A. Ground Resistance
• B. Grounded Electrode
• C. Ground Path
• D. Resistance Path
414. For equipment locations, antenna towers, and all allied installations, the ground resistance must never
exceed __________.
• A. 25 ohms
• B. 3 ohms
• C. 43 ohms
• D. 5 ohms
415. For outside plant telephone poles and manholes as well as customer premises, the ground resistance must
never exceed __________.
• A. 25 ohms
• B. 3 ohms
• C. 43 ohms
• D. 5 ohms
416. It is an electrode buried in the ground for the purpose of establishing a low resistance electrical contact
with the earth.
• A. Ground pole
• B. Lightning Rods
• C. Guy
• D. Made Ground
417. It is a metal strip or rod, usually of copper or similar conductive material, designed to protect tall or
isolated structures (such as the roof of a building or the mast of a vessel) from lightning damage.
• A. Ground pole
• B. Lightning Rods
• C. Guy
• D. Made Ground
418. A device used in electrical systems to protect against excessive current.
• A. fuse
• B. Lightning rod
• C. Surge arrester
• D. Grounding
419. These are normally open circuited devices and pass no significant current at normal operating potentials.
• A. fuse
• D. Grounding
420. Provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of equipment damages.
• A. fuse
• D. Bonding or Grounding
421. The simplest way to make an earth resistance test is to use:
• A. Direct Method or two terminal test

• B. Voltmeter-Ammeter Method
• C. Triangulation Method
• D. Three terminal test
422. It is the resistance of parallel faces of a one cubic centimeter of soil expressed in ohm-centimeter.
• A. Ground resistance
• B. Earth resistivity
• C. Cubic resistance
• D. Earth density
423. The following are ways to improve grounds except:
• A. Lengthen the ground-electrode in the earth

• B. Use multiple rods
• C. Treat the soil when 1 & 2 are not feasible
• D. Place stones near the rod
424. Ground resistance shall be tested when installed and periodically afterwards, at least __________ during
the dry or non-rainy months and ALL VALUES OBTAINED SHALL BE NO GREATER THAN THE RULE
REQUIRED.
• A. 3 times per year

• B. twice a year
• C. once a year
• D. 12 times a year
425. All ground connections, be it solderless or soldered, shall be checked at least __________ to be sure they
are tight.
• A. 3 times per year

• B. twice a year
• C. once a year
• D. 12 times a year
426. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 240 kph wind velocity.
• A. Heavy Loading Zone

• B. Medium Loading Zone
• C. Light Loading Zone
• D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone
427. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 200 kph wind velocity.

428. This loading shall be taken as the result ant stress due to wind and dead weight for 160 kph wind velocity.

429. Batteries should be located where temperatures range between __________ degrees Celsius.
• A. 12.5 and 25.2

• B. 15.5 and 32.2
• C. 15.2 and 52.2
• D. 55.5 and 60.3
430. Lead acid or similar gas emitting battery installations where the aggregate power exceeds __________ 5
kilowatts shall be located in a properly ventilated room separated from the equipment room or location where
people are staying.
• A. 5 kW
• B. 10 kW
• C. 1 kW
• D. 15 kW
431. Smoking and storing of inflammable materials is prohibited in battery rooms and “NO SMOKING” signs
should be posted ___________.
• A. inside the room only

• B. before entering battery rooms
• C. outside the room only
• D. Both A and C
432. An acid neutralizing agent such as __________ should be stored and available in battery rooms for use in
accidental electrolyte or acid spillage.
• A. oil
• B. kerosene
• C. flour
• D. Caustic soda
433. A low resistance electrical connection between two cable sheaths, between two ground connections or
between similar parts of two circuits.
• A. Bond
• B. Short
• C. Fuse
• D. Guy
434. The vertical space reserved along the side of a pole or tower to permit ready access for linemen to
equipment and conductors located thereon.
• A. Stairway
• B. Climbing Space
• C. Guy
• D. Pole
435. Insulated wires, used to run a subscriber’s line from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the house or
building.
• A. main line
• B. main cable
• C. dropline
• D. dropwire
436. a physical condition that causes a device, a component or an element to fail to perform in a required
manner.
• A. damaged
• B. hazard
• C. fault
• D. short
437. A current that flows from one conductor to ground or to another conductor owing to any abnormal
connection (including an arc) between the two.
• A. Fault current
• B. Dark current
• C. Leakage current
• D. Dead short
438. An apparatus so treated such that it will not maintain a flame or will not be injured readily when subjected
to flame.
• A. Flame Proof
• B. Flame Retarding
• C. Burn Proof
• D. Anti Flame
439. A property of materials or structures such that they will not convey flame or continue to burn for longer
times than specified in the appropriate flame test.
• A. Flame Proof
• B. Flame Retarding
• C. Burn Proof
• D. Anti Flame
440. A discharge through air, around or over the surface of solid, liquid or other insulation, between parts of
different potential of polarity, produced by the application of voltage such that the breakdown path becomes
sufficiently ionized to maintain an electric arc.
• A. Aurora
• B. Corona
• C. Washover
• D. Arc
441. A conducting connection, whether intentional or accidental, by which an electric circuit or equipment is
connected to earth, or to some conducting body of relatively large extent that serves in place of the earth.
• A. short
• B. jumper
• C. ground
• D. ink
442. A tension member (of solid or stranded wires) used to withstand an otherwise unbalanced force on a pole
or other overhead line structures.
• A. Bond
• B. Short
• C. Fuse
• D. Guy
443. A guy extending from a pole or structure or tree is sometimes called a span guy.
• A. Overhead guy
• B. Anchor guy
• C. Bla guy
• D. Guy post
444. An opening in an underground run or system into which workers reach, but do not enter.
• A. Manhole
• B. Rathole
• C. Handhole
• D. Finger hole
445. A device designed to protect apparatus from high transient voltage, by diverting surge current to ground
and capable of repeating this function as specified.
• A. Lightning ball
• B. Lightning Arrester
• C. Fuse
• D. Lightning Protector
446. A subsurface chamber, large enough for a person to enter, in the route of one or more conduit runs, and
affording facilities for placing and maintaining in the runs, conductors, cables and any associated apparatus.
• A. Manhole
• B. Rathole
• C. Handhole
• D. Finger hole
447. Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not a part of the conducting system, its primary function
being to support wires or cables of the system.
• A. guy
• B. support
• C. conduit
• D. messenger
448. A general term applied to the whole or portion of the physical property of a communication company
which contributes to the furnishing of communication service.
• A. zone
• B. area
• C. plant
• D. division
449. A metallic rod, driven into the ground to provide an electrical connection to the earth.
• A. Lightning rod
• B. Ground rod
• C. Drop ground
• D. Radials
450. A metallic rod carried above the highest point of a pole or structure and connected to earth by a heavy
copper conductor intended to carry lightning currents directly to earth.
• A. Lightning arrester
• C. Breaker
• D. Lightning gap
451. The installation from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the customer’s premises.
• A. Service drop
• B. Subscriber’s loop
• C. Main line
• D. Local drop
452. The horizontal displacement of a point on the tower axis from its no-wind load position at that elevation.
• A. Tower displacement
• B. Tower sway
• C. Tower twist
• D. Tower bend
453. The angular displacement of a tangent to the tower axis at the elevation from its no-wind load position at
that elevation
• B. Tower sway
• C. Tower twist
• D. Tower bend
454. The horizontal angular displacement of the tower from its no-wind position at that elevation
• B. Tower sway
• C. Tower twist
• D. Tower bend
455. Refers to communication facilities installed below the surface of the earth.
• A. underneath
• B. underground
• C. earth mat
• D. under earth
456. Define as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main cross connecting point within the
building from the nearest telephone facility.
• A. drop wire
• B. local loop
• C. service entrance
• D. subscribers loop
457. A type of service entrance that serves as means of providing service aerially from a pole to a building.
• A. Aerial entrance
• B. Underground entrance
• C. Overhead entrance
• D. Handhole
458. The size of the aerial entrance conduit shall not be less than __________ in diameter.
• A. 20 mm
• B. 30 mm
• C. 40 mm
• D. 50 mm
459. The maximum span from telephone pole to a building used in aerial entrance should be ___________.
• A. 20 m
• B. 30 m
• C. 40 m
• D. 50 m
460. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearances between telephone cable and power entrance must be
__________ radial distance.
• A. 2 m
• B. 3 m
• C. 4 m
• D. 1 m
461. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearance from ground level when crossing the street must be
___________.
• A. 4.4 m
• B. 3.3 m
• C. 5.5 m
• D. 6.6 m
462. In aerial entrance, minimum clearance over areas accessible to pedestrians only, must be __________.
• A. 3.5 m
• B. 5.5 m
• C. 4.5 m
• D. 6.1 m
463. A type of service entrance that provides mechanical protection and minimizes the need for possible
subsequent repairs to the property.
• A. Aerial entrance
• B. Underground entrance
• C. Overhead entrance
• D. Handhole
464. An underground entrance’s minimum depth under areas used for vehicular traffic inside private property is
• A. 800 mm
• B. 600 mm
• C. 900 mm
• D. 700 mm
465. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not less than __________
in well-tamped earth:
• A. 300 mm
• B. 100 mm
• C. 50 mm
• D. 150 mm
466. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not less than __________
of concrete.
• A. 300 mm
• B. 100 mm
• C. 50 mm
• D. 150 mm
467. The size of underground entrance conduit within the building shall be no case smaller than __________ in
diameter when the service entrance does not require use of a service box.
• A. 50 mm
• B. 75 mm
• C. 65 mm
• D. 45 mm
468. The use of handholes will be permitted for entrance cable not exceeding __________ pairs.
• A. 20
• B. 40
• C. 30
• D. 50
469. The minimum size for vehicular handholes is
• A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m

• B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
• C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
• D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
470. The minimum size for non-vehicular handholes is
• A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m

• B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
• C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
• D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
471. The use of service box will be permitted for entrance cable exceeding __________ pairs. The minimum
size for service box is
• A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m

• B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
• C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
• D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
472. The minimum size for service-box is
• A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m

• B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m
• C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m
• D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m
473. The minimum size for an entrance conduit is
• A. 20 mm
• B. 30 mm
• C. 40 mm
• D. 50 mm
474. The minimum number of entrance conduit is
• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4
475. It is a point where cable from TELCO and the in-building distribution system are terminated.
• A. drop wire
• B. terminal wire
• C. main terminals
• D. service box
476. The location of the main terminal must be equipped with adequate lighting, and located at a minimum
distance of __________ above floor finish.
• A. 1.3 m
• B. 2.3 m
• C. 1.6 m
• D. 2.6 m
477. The location of the main terminal should have enough working space in front of all terminations. Normally
__________ away from all hazards.
• A. 800 mm
• B. 800 mm
• C. 1000 mm
• D. 700 mm
478. A main terminal required for terminating entrance cables using one or more terminal blocks.
• A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)

• B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)
• C. Riser System
• D. Service Box
479. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used other special services is:
• A. white
• B. yellow
• C. black
• D. blue
480. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used as an entrance is:
• A. white
• B. yellow
• C. black
• D. blue
481. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used for risers is:
• A. white
• B. yellow
• C. black
• D. blue
482. A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable requirements will exceed 300 pairs.

• C. Riser System
• D. Service Box
483. Defined as the vertical and horizontal distribution of telephone communication lines between two or more
floors or adjoining premises on the same floor of a building generally originating at or near the cabinet up to the
Telephone Terminal or outlet.

• C. Riser System
• D. Service Box
484. A riser system usually extends from the ground to the roof top of the building with no floor separation to a
ventilating shaft. Telephone cable is not permitted in unless placed in metallic conduit.
• A. Open Riser
• B. Elevated Riser
• C. Closed Riser
• D. Underground Riser
485. A riser system that consists of a series of telephone terminal cabinets/closets vertically or non-vertically
aligned, usually beginning at the ground floor and extending throughout the height of the building.
• A. Open Riser
• B. Elevated Riser
• C. Closed Riser
• D. Underground Riser

ECE LAWS and ETHICS Questionnaire

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ECE LAWS and ETHICS Questionnaire

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ECE 193 TAKE HOME EXAM.

ECE LAWS and ETHICS Questionnaire

1. What telecommunications law deregulates the paging services in the country?

2. Republic Act No. 6849 is otherwise known as

• A. “Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”

3. What is otherwise known as “ The Maritime Communications Law” ?

15. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 59?

• A. December 21, 1993

16. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 436?

• A. September 11, 1997

17. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 109?

• A. July 12, 1993

18. When was the affectivity of Executive Order No. 205?

• A. June 30, 1987

19. When is the effectivity of Republic Act No. 7925?

20. When was Republic Act No. 7925 approved?

22. What law created the Videogram Regulatory Board (VRB)?

27. MTRCB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman & members.

35. In Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification for FM radio is from

• A. 2 hours per day

52. What is the standard IF Sound Carrier for a cable TV system?

53. What is the standard IF Video Carrier for a cable TV system?

• A. Void or Inexistent Contract

62. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.

• A. Void or Inexistent Contract

• A. Void or Inexistent Contract

• A. Void or Inexistent Contract

• A. Actual or Compensatory Damages

• A. Actual or Compensatory Damages

69. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.

• A. Actual or Compensatory Damages

• A. Actual or Compensatory Damages

• A. Radio Communication Equipment Dealer Permit

79. Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of switch termination.

• A. 100 local exchange lines per international

• A. FM broadcast station with a carrier power of 1000 watts

• A. Local exchange carrier

• A. Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedule

• A. Telephone-telegraph calling center

• A. Depending on geographical boundary of a nation

• A. National Telecommunications Commission

• A. provision of Morse code.

• A. On board radio facilities

109. Which law refers to the “Electronic Commerce Act of 2000”?

110. What is otherwise known as “Electronics Engineering Law of 2004”?

111. What is otherwise known as “PRC modernization law”?

112. Professional Regulations Commission was created under .

113. When was the effectivity of Presidential Degree No. 223?

• A. June 21, 1973

• A. June 21, 2000

• A. April 12, 2004

• A. August 27, 2007

• A. Registered Electronic Technicians

• A. Professional Electronic Engineers

121. Under R. A. 9292, the standards on minimum compensation are based on

• A. P 100,000 or imprisonment of 6 months

• A. Constant Percentage Method

• A. Unit Cost Method

• A. Percent of Cost Method

• A. P 1,500 per month

• A. Construction and/or installation

• A. Voltage/current limiting and interrupting

150. What unit measures the dosage ratio of radiation?

• A. roentgens per minute