Professional Documents
Culture Documents
MULTIPLE CHOICE
2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was:
a. Marconi c. Maxwell
b. Bell d. Hertz
ANS: A
12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its:
a. frequency-domain representation c. spectrum
b. Fourier series d. all of the above
ANS: D
21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is:
a. VT = sqrt(V1 × V1 + V2 × V2) c. VT = sqrt(V1 × V2)
b. VT = (V1 + V2)/2 d. VT = V1 + V2
ANS: A
COMPLETION
ANS: 1863
2. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year ____________________.
ANS: 1901
3. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the ____________________ band.
ANS: base
4. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the ____________________.
ANS: channel
ANS: zero
ANS: bandwidth
7. The more information per second you send, the ____________________ the bandwidth required.
ANS:
greater
larger
wider
8. In ____________________, you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple
signals.
ANS: FDM
ANS: TDM
ANS: 30
ANS: 300
13. A radio signal's ____________________ is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier.
ANS: wavelength
14. In free space, radio signals travel at approximately ____________________ meters per second.
15. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the _________________________.
ANS: Fourier
ANS:
noise blanking
blanking
ANS: solar
ANS: electrons
SHORT ANSWER
ANS:
Source, Transmitter, Channel, Receiver, Destination
ANS:
White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. Likewise, thermal noise has
equal power density over a wide range of frequencies.
ANS:
Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors, and red is at the low end of the visible
spectrum. Likewise, pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies.
5. Suppose there is 30 µV from one noise source that is combined with 40 µV from another noise source.
Calculate the total noise voltage.
ANS:
50 µV
6. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise, both across the same 100-ohm load, what is the signal-
to-noise ratio in dB?
ANS:
20 dB
7. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80
dB. Find NF, both in dB and as a ratio.
ANS:
20 dB, NF = 100
8. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Find its noise figure.
ANS:
1.5
9. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. Find the total NF for the pair.
ANS:
5.4
10. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise.
How would you control the amount of noise generated?
ANS:
When current flows through a diode, it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source,
the output of which is a noise current. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for
thermal noise voltage. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current, controlling
the diode current controls the noise power.
Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called:
a. base time c. charge time
b. transit time d. Miller time
ANS: B
13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called:
a. the loop-gain criteria c. the Bode criteria
b. the Hartley criteria d. the Barkhausen criteria
ANS: D
19. If two signals, Va = sin(ωat) and Vb = sin(ωbt), are fed to a mixer, the output:
a. will contain ω1 = ωa + ωb and ω2 = ωa – ωb
b. will contain ω1 = ωa / ωb and ω2 = ωb / ωa
c. will contain ω = (ωa + ωb ) / 2
d. none of the above
ANS: A
COMPLETION
ANS: short
3. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground, it is called a ____________________.
ANS: ground-plane
ANS: shielding
ANS: components
ANS: decoupling
ANS: bypass
8. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the ____________________ of the tuned circuit.
ANS: Q
9. A value of ____________________ or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations
to be valid.
ANS: 10
10. In a class C RF amplifier, the ____________________ extracts one frequency from all the harmonics
contained in the device current (e.g. collector current).
11. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called ____________________.
ANS: neutralization
ANS: capacitive
ANS: linear
15. At some bias point, a diode or a transistor can act as a ____________________-law mixer.
ANS: square
SHORT ANSWER
1. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz?
ANS:
5.4 µH
2. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz?
ANS:
100
3. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. What should be the value
of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria?
ANS:
0.1
ANS:
It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback
divider.
5. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts, what will be the capacitance at 4 volts?
ANS:
30 pF
6. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20°C, and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. What
will be the shift in frequency at 70°C? What percentage is that?
ANS:
50 kHz, 0.05%
7. Two sinusoidal signals, V1 and V2, are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. V1 is a 20-MHz signal; V2 is a 5-
MHz signal. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer?
ANS:
15 MHz and 25 MHz
8. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz
and a fixed-modulus divider of 10. What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output
frequency of 120 MHz?
ANS:
12
Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. AM stands for:
a. Audio Modulation c. Angle Modulation
b. Amplitude Modulation d. Antenna Modulation
ANS: B
3. If the audio Va sin(ωat) modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct), then the modulation index, m, is:
a. m = ωa / ωc c. m = (Va / Vc)2
b. m = Va / Vc d. m = Va / ωa
ANS: B
5. Overmodulation causes:
a. distortion c. both a and b
b. splatter d. none of the above
ANS: C
6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The modulation index, m, is:
a. m = Emin / Emax c. m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + Emin)
b. m = Emax / Emin d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – Emin)
ANS: C
7. If Va sin(ωat) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin(ωct), it will produce the frequencies:
a. ωc + ωa and ωc – ωa c. ωc + ωa and 2ωc + 2ωa
b. (ωc + ωa)/2 and (ωc – ωa)/2 d. none of the above
ANS: A
9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will be:
a. 5 kHz c. 1.005 MHz
b. 10 kHz d. none of the above
ANS: B
10. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index, you would expect:
a. the audio to get louder at the receiver c. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase
b. the received RF signal to increase d. all of the above
ANS: D
16. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation, what will it radiate with no modulation?
a. 1000 watts c. 250 watts
b. 500 watts d. 0 watts
ANS: D
19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a
modulation index of m2. The total modulation index is:
a. m1 + m2 c. sqrt(m1 × m2 + m2 × m1)
b. (m1 + m2) / 2 d. sqrt(m1 × m1 + m2 × m2)
ANS: D
COMPLETION
ANS: simple
ANS: inefficient
ANS: envelope
ANS: two
ANS: less
ANS: one
10. In AM, a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of ____________________.
ANS: 6000 Hz
11. With a 1-MHz carrier, if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz, then the USB will extend up to
____________________.
12. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation, it will put out ____________________ watts
with 100% modulation.
ANS: 150
SHORT ANSWER
1. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. How much power will it generate with 20%
modulation?
ANS:
102 watts
2. If the carrier power is 1000 watts, what is the power in the USB at 70.7% modulation?
ANS:
125 watts
3. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0.3, 0.4, and 0.5,
then what is the total modulation index?
ANS:
0.707
4. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the
minimum Vpp is 25 volts. What is the modulation index?
ANS:
0.6
5. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20
volts, what is the PEP?
ANS:
4 watts
Chapter 4: Angle Modulation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
11. FM stereo:
a. uses DSBSC AM modulation c. has a higher S/N than mono FM
b. is implemented using an SCA signal d. is not compatible with mono FM
ANS: A
COMPLETION
ANS: angle
ANS: data
3. Compared to AM, the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually ____________________.
ANS: better
ANS:
wider
greater
5. FM transmitters can use Class ____________________ amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not
important.
ANS: C
ANS: amplitude
8. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the ____________________ of the
modulating signal.
ANS: frequency
ANS: infinite
10. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency, their power ____________________.
ANS: decreases
12. In FM, as the modulating frequency decreases, the modulation index ____________________.
ANS: increases
13. In FM, as the frequency deviation decreases, the modulation index ____________________.
ANS: decreases
14. As the FM modulation index increases, the number of significant sidebands ____________________.
ANS: increases
15. For certain values of mf, such as 2.4, the amplitude of the carrier frequency ____________________.
ANS:
disappears
goes to zero
ANS: Carson's
ANS: Bessel
ANS: threshold
19. The ____________________ effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are
close to each other in frequency.
ANS: capture
ANS: carrier
SHORT ANSWER
1. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier
frequency, what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator?
ANS:
5 kHz / volt
2. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz, what is the modulation index?
ANS:
2
3. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3?
ANS:
9 kHz
4. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V, what will be the modulation index caused by
a 1-volt, 1-kHz audio signal?
ANS:
2
ANS:
48.4 watts
6. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM
transmitter?
ANS:
673 watts
7. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM
transmitter?
ANS:
200 mW (0.2 watt)
8. Using Carson's rule, what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2
being modulated by a 5-kHz signal?
ANS:
30 kHz
9. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4.1, what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2
being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power?
ANS:
30 kHz
10. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2.4, 5.5, etc) to measure the
frequency deviation of an FM modulator?
ANS:
Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. Using a spectrum analyzer, adjust the audio
frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes. Record the audio frequency. Then do the calculation: δ =
fm × mf where mf will have one of the known values. For example, if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is
5.5, then δ is 11 kHz.
Chapter 5: Transmitters
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called:
a. agility c. VFO
b. expansion d. spread-spectrum
ANS: A
2. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out:
a. is a measure of efficiency c. may require water cooling
b. heats the transmitter d. all of the above
ANS: D
12. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage will be:
a. approximately half the DC supply voltage
b. approximately twice the DC supply voltage
c. approximately four times the DC supply voltage
d. none of the above
ANS: C
13. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of:
a. 50 ohms resistive c. 300 ohms resistive
b. 75 ohms resistive d. 600 ohms resistive
ANS: A
15. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor is called:
a. a heavy load c. a temporary load
b. a dummy load d. a test load
ANS: B
16. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor must be:
a. wire-wound c. 1% tolerance or better
b. noninductive d. all of the above
ANS: B
20. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use:
a. a mechanical filter c. both a and b
b. a crystal filter d. none of the above
ANS: C
COMPLETION
1. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the ____________________ oscillator.
ANS: carrier
2. In the USA, the ____________________ sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's
frequency.
ANS: FCC
ANS: agility
ANS: PEP
ANS: compression
ANS: expansion
ANS: compression
ANS: efficiently
ANS: linear
11. To isolate the oscillator from load changes, a ____________________ stage is used.
ANS: buffer
12. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is ____________________ than the DC supply
voltage.
ANS: higher
13. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a ____________________-ohm load.
ANS: 50
14. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a ____________________ network for
impedance matching.
ANS: T
15. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce ____________________ levels.
ANS: harmonic
ANS: mismatch
ANS: receiver
18. To allow a high modulation percentage, it is common to modulate the ____________________ as well as
the power amplifier in transistor modulators.
ANS: driver
ANS: duration
ANS: D
21. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed, ____________________ is used to operate at
more than one frequency.
ANS: mixing
ANS: DSBSC
23. Indirect FM is derived from ____________________ modulation.
ANS: phase
ANS: reactance
25. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a ____________________ loop.
ANS: phase-locked
SHORT ANSWER
1. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0.001%, what is the range of possible frequencies?
ANS:
50 MHz ± 500 hertz
2. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car battery?
ANS:
75.8%
3. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation.
Assuming high-level modulation, how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100%
modulation?
ANS:
50 watts
4. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC, what is the maximum
collector voltage at 100% modulation?
ANS:
400 volts
5. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. The audio modulation
frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. To pass the USB, what should be the center frequency of an ideal
crystal filter?
ANS:
10.005 MHz
6. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. What is the
minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier
frequency of 50 MHz?
ANS:
40 MHz
7. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation. If frequency
multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz, what will be the new carrier frequency?
ANS:
4 MHz
8. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. Explain how you
could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz.
ANS:
First, put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation. Then
mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation.
Chapter 6: Receivers
MULTIPLE CHOICE
9. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because:
a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses
b. it increases sensitivity
c. it increases selectivity
d. it is cheaper
ANS: D
COMPLETION
ANS: superheterodyne
2. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year ____________________.
ANS: 1887
3. When two tuned circuits ____________________ each other, it means that when the frequency of one is
adjusted, the other changes with it.
ANS: track
4. The ____________________ effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency.
ANS: skin
ANS: 1918
ANS: mixer
8. In a superhet, the ____________________ frequency is the difference between the local oscillator
frequency and the received signal frequency.
ANS:
intermediate
IF
9. The ____________________ circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength.
ANS: AGC
10. An ____________________ converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer.
ANS: autodyne
11. In low-side injection, the local oscillator is ____________________ than the received signal frequency.
ANS: lower
12. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in
frequency.
ANS: Selectivity
13. ____________________ is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak
signal.
ANS: Sensitivity
14. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double-____________________ receiver.
ANS: conversion
ANS: image
ANS: detector
ANS: envelope
ANS: product
ANS: carrier
ANS: coherent
ANS: S
22. While still commonly found, the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are ____________________.
ANS: obsolescent
23. Unlike the PLL detector, the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in ____________________ of the
input signal.
ANS: amplitude
ANS: gate
ANS: noisy
27. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually ____________________ coupled for the response to have a flat
top and steep sides.
ANS: over
ANS: stagger
29. Compared to tuned circuits, ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require ____________________.
ANS: adjustment
30. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a ____________________ frequency than the incoming
signal.
ANS: higher
31. In a block converter, the frequency of the first local oscillator is ____________________.
ANS:
fixed
constant
ANS: IF
ANS: S
ANS: limiting
ANS: discriminator
SHORT ANSWER
1. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. Approximately what bandwidth would you
expect it to have at 4 MHz?
ANS:
20 kHz
2. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF, what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the receiver
is tuned to 5 MHz?
ANS:
6 MHz
3. An IF filter has a –60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a –6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. What is the shape
factor value?
ANS:
1.25
4. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency. Assuming high-side injection, what would be the image
frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz?
ANS:
60 MHz
5. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.5 MHz. What would be the acceptable
frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz?
ANS:
1.5 MHz ± 100 hertz
6. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary. What value
of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling?
ANS:
0.06
7. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling
need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz?
ANS:
0.01
Chapter 7: Digital Communications
MULTIPLE CHOICE
37. Compared to standard PCM systems, the quality of the output of a vocoder is:
a. much better c. about the same
b. somewhat better d. not as good
ANS: D
COMPLETION
ANS:
improved
better
2. To send it over an analog channel, a digital signal must be ____________________ onto a carrier.
ANS: modulated
ANS: digitized
4. In analog channels, the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually ____________________ as the
length of the channel increases.
ANS:
decreases
gets worse
5. The ____________________ value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel.
ANS: binary
6. A ____________________ repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable.
ANS: regenerative
7. There are techniques to detect and ____________________ some errors in digital transmission.
ANS: correct
ANS:
error
noise
ANS: Time
ANS: limited
11. ____________________ Law gives the relationship between time, information capacity, and bandwidth.
ANS: Hartley's
12. Ignoring noise, the _________________________ theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission
for a given bandwidth.
ANS: Shannon-Hartley
13. The ____________________ limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth
and a given signal-to-noise ratio.
ANS: Shannon
ANS: Natural
15. The ____________________ Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital
format.
ANS: Nyquist
16. ____________________ distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate.
ANS: Foldover
17. ____________________ means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the
identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally.
ANS: Aliasing
ANS: amplitude
19. ____________________ modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme.
ANS: Pulse-code
20. ____________________ noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format.
ANS: Quantizing
ANS: Companding
ANS:
µ
mu
ANS: A
24. A ____________________ is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa.
ANS: codec
25. In a PCM system, the samples of the analog signal are first converted to ____________________ bits
before being compressed to 8 bits.
ANS: 12
26. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is ____________________.
ANS:
1
one
27. Delta modulation requires a ____________________ sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of
reproduction.
ANS: higher
28. ____________________ noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change.
ANS: Granular
29. In delta modulation, ____________________ overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast.
ANS: slope
ANS: step
31. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about ____________________ the bit rate
of PCM.
ANS: half
32. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have ____________________ continuity.
ANS: DC
33. In AMI, binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in ____________________.
ANS: polarity
ANS: zeros
35. Manchester code has a level ____________________ in the center of each bit period.
ANS: transition
36. Manchester coding provides ____________________ information regardless of the pattern of ones and
zeros.
ANS: timing
ANS: 24
38. DS-1 uses a ____________________ bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver.
ANS: framing
ANS: 8000
40. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of ____________________ bits per second.
ANS: 1.544 × 106
ANS: superframe
42. From a group of twelve frames, signaling bits are "stolen" from every ____________________ frame.
ANS: sixth
43. ____________________ compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do
it.
ANS: Lossless
SHORT ANSWER
1. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100,000 bits over a channel with a
bandwidth of 2,000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10.
ANS:
5 seconds
2. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12,000 bits per second if the
number of levels transmitted is 8.
ANS:
2000 hertz
3. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of
15?
ANS:
16 kbps
4. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency
components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz?
ANS:
6600 samples/second
5. What is the approximate dynamic range, in dB, of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample?
ANS:
74 dB
6. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per
second?
ANS:
64 kbps
7. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame, what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the
frame?
ANS:
56 kbps
8. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt, what is the output voltage of a µ-law compressor
if the input voltage is 0.388 volt?
ANS:
0.833 volt
Chapter 8: The Telephone System
MULTIPLE CHOICE
5. A LATA is a:
a. a local calling area c. a way of accessing a tandem office
b. a type of digital local network d. a way of accessing a central office
ANS: A
8. Call blocking:
a. cannot occur in the public telephone network
b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure
c. occurs only on long-distance cables
d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded
ANS: D
15. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as:
a. step-by-step switching control c. common control
b. crossbar control d. ESS
ANS: C
18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to:
a. allow lines to be "conditioned" c. allow signals to be multiplexed
b. prevent "singing" d. all of the above
ANS: C
COMPLETION
ANS: LATA
ANS: tandem
4. With 7-digit phone numbers, ____________________ thousand telephones can connect to a central
office.
ANS: ten
5. Call ____________________ is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an
overload of lines being used.
ANS: blocking
ANS: digital
ANS: twisted-pair
8. As compared to a hierarchical network, a ____________________ network never needs more than one
intermediate switch.
ANS: flat
ANS: Loading
ANS: ring
ANS: tip
12. Of the red and green 'phone wires, the ____________________ wire is positive with respect to the other.
ANS: green
13. A telephone is said to have ____________________ the line when the central office sends it dial tone.
ANS: seized
15. A ____________________ coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing full-
duplex operation over a single pair of wires.
ANS: hybrid
16. In a crosspoint switch, not all ____________________ can be in use at the same time.
ANS: lines
17. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively ____________________ signal voltage.
ANS: large
ANS: DTMF
ANS: conditioned
ANS: repeaters
21. An echo ____________________ converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation.
ANS: suppressor
22. ____________________ weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a
typical telephone receiver.
ANS: C-message
ANS:
SSB
SSBSC
ANS: guard
25. Because of "bit robbing", a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only ____________________ kbps when
used to send digital data.
ANS: 56
26. A ____________________ is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and
twelfth frames.
ANS: superframe
27. In DS-1C, ____________________ bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates.
ANS: stuff
28. Busy and dial tone are referred to as ____________________ signals because they use the same pair of
wires as the voice signal.
ANS: in-channel
ANS: common-channel
ANS: packet
ANS: D
32. In ISDN, the ____________________ channels are used for voice or data.
ANS: B
33. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated ____________________ equipment.
ANS: TE1
ANS: asymmetrical
35. In ADSL, the speed from the network to the subscriber is ____________________ than the speed in the
opposite direction.
ANS:
greater
faster
SHORT ANSWER
1. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current is 40
mA, what is the DC resistance of the local loop?
ANS:
1000 ohms
2. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current is 40
mA, what is the DC resistance of the telephone?
ANS:
200 ohms
3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.)
ANS:
697 Hz and 1209 Hz
ANS:
1 dB
5. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn?
ANS:
90 dBrn
6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. If C-weighting
produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal level be in dBrnc0?
ANS:
65 dBrnc TLP
Chapter 9: Data Transmission
MULTIPLE CHOICE
8. LF stands for:
a. Line Feed c. Line Forward
b. Link Feed d. Link Forward
ANS: A
14. In synchronous transmission, the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using:
a. the clock bits c. the CRC bits
b. the data bits d. a separate clock line
ANS: B
16. BISYNC:
a. is an IBM product c. requires the use of DLE
b. is a character-oriented protocol d. all of the above
ANS: D
17. HDLC:
a. is an IBM product c. is identical to SDLC
b. is a bit-oriented protocol d. all of the above
ANS: B
COMPLETION
ANS: short
ANS: Baudot
ANS: character
4. The ____________________ code is a 7-bit code commonly used in communication between personal
computers.
ANS: ASCII
5. The two letters ____________________ designate the code character used to advance a printer to the next
page.
ANS: FF
6. An asynchronous frame begins with the ____________________ bit.
ANS: start
ANS: stop
8. At the end of an asynchronous frame, the line will be at the ____________________ level.
ANS:
mark
binary 1
ANS: UART
10. When receiving digital data, ____________________ are used to hold data until they can be read.
ANS: buffers
11. Synchronous communication is more ____________________ than asynchronous since there are fewer
"overhead" bits.
ANS: efficient
ANS: transitions
13. Clock sync is derived from the stream of ____________________ bits in synchronous transmission.
ANS: data
14. In the ____________________ protocol, each frame begins with at least two SYN characters.
ANS: BISYNC
ANS: flag
ANS: 01111110
ANS: escape
ANS: stuffing
ANS: Burst
ANS: forward
22. An ____________________ scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks.
ANS: ARQ
ANS: even
ANS: burst
25. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data ____________________.
ANS: compression
26. A ____________________ is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data.
ANS: cipher
27. A ____________________ is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember.
ANS: password
28. If the key is ____________________ enough, private-key encryption can be quite secure.
ANS: long
ANS: decrypted
SHORT ANSWER
ANS:
64
2. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex)
numbers?
ANS:
20 hex (32 decimal)
3. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers?
ANS:
30H to 39H
4. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits), what is the
shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long?
ANS:
10 seconds
5. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data, a parity bit, and two stop bits (it could happen).
Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.
ANS:
66.7%
6. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. The frame
carries 1024 bytes of actual data. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.
ANS:
97.0%
Chapter 10: Local Area Networks
MULTIPLE CHOICE
4. Most LANs:
a. are based on Ethernet c. use UTP cable
b. use CSMA/CD d. all of the above
ANS: D
6. In a circuit-switched network:
a. communication is half-duplex only
b. each channel carries only one data stream
c. connection is usually done using a bus topology
d. all of the above
ANS: B
9. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to:
a. a central ring c. a node
b. a central bus d. none of the above
ANS: D
11. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called:
a. a collision c. excess traffic
b. contention d. multiple access
ANS: B
12. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called:
a. a collision c. excess traffic
b. contention d. multiple access
ANS: A
14. In an Ethernet-based network, a switch can be used to reduce the number of:
a. nodes c. packets
b. users d. collisions
ANS: D
22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is:
a. to increase the data rate
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
d. all of the above
ANS: C
23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is:
a. to increase the data rate
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
d. all of the above
ANS: C
28. A hub:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
d. are more common in token-passing networks
ANS: A
29. A switch:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network
d. are more common in token-passing networks
ANS: B
32. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in:
a. peer-to-peer networks c. both a and b
b. client-server networks d. none of the above
ANS: B
33. Record locking is used to:
a. store records securely on a server
b. prevent multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously
c. prevent one user from reading a record that another user is writing to
d. none of the above
ANS: C
COMPLETION
ANS: Local
ANS: networks
ANS: star
ANS: circuit
ANS: topology
ANS: token
ANS: packet
8. ____________________ is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time.
ANS: Contention
9. A ____________________ occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable.
ANS: collision
ANS: detected
11. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be ____________________ before using it.
ANS:
quiet
free
unused
available
ANS: backbone
13. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to ____________________ bits per second.
14. In CSMA/CD, packets must have a ____________________ length to ensure that collisions are detected.
ANS: minimum
15. In CSMA/CD, the ____________________ of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected.
ANS: length
ANS: NIC
ANS: fiber-optic
ANS: stacked
ANS: address
20. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce ____________________.
ANS: contention
SHORT ANSWER
ANS:
A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order. So it doesn't matter
how the physical connection is made. It still works like a token-passing ring.
ANS:
A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. A switch sends a packet to a specific port
based on the address in the packet.
ANS:
If the central computer in a star network fails, the entire network is inoperative. If a node fails in a
CSMA/CD network, it can be disconnected and the network still functions.
ANS:
If a packet is too short, nodes at either end of a cable could get on, send a packet, and get off before the
packets travel far enough to collide. The collision would not be detected.
ANS:
The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory. Each factory uses
a different sequence of numbers, so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same
address is extremely small.
Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet
MULTIPLE CHOICE
8. Frame Relay:
a. is faster than X.25 c. allows for variable length packets
b. does less error checking than X.25 d. all of the above
ANS: D
9. ATM stands for:
a. Asynchronous Transfer Mode c. Asynchronous Transmission Model
b. Asynchronous Transmission Mode d. Automatic Test Mode
ANS: A
10. A bridge:
a. separates a network into "collision domains"
b. looks at the address of each packet
c. operate at the data-link level
d. all of the above
ANS: D
14. IP is a:
a. connection-oriented protocol c. connectionless protocol
b. virtual circuit d. non-robust protocol
ANS: C
27. A DNS:
a. has become obsolete on the Internet
b. translates words to numbers
c. stores all domain addresses
d. describes the Internet address-naming procedure
ANS: B
COMPLETION
ANS: Metropolitan
ANS: Wide
ANS: leased
ANS: switched
ANS: forward
ANS: physical
ANS: data-link
ANS: network
ANS: CCITT
ANS: frame
ANS: packet
13. The physical route of a ____________________ circuit changes each time it is used.
ANS: virtual
ANS: bit-error
ANS: less
ANS: 53
17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow ____________________-time communications.
ANS: real
ANS: Repeaters
19. ____________________ look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it.
ANS: Bridges
20. ____________________ decide the best network path on which to forward a packet.
ANS: Routers
ANS:
ARPANET
DARPANET
22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, ____________________ was used first.
ANS: TCP/IP
23. A ____________________ protocol does not track packets after they are sent.
ANS: connectionless
24. HTTP allows the use of ____________________ that jump to other pages on the web.
ANS: hyperlinks
ANS: fiber-optic
ANS: DNS
27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a ____________________ for security.
ANS: firewall
ANS: IP
29. "____________________" is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet.
ANS: Streaming
ANS: ISP
SHORT ANSWER
ANS:
Network number, Subnet number, Host number
ANS:
A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have messages for each
other. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like
direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit.
3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size?
ANS:
The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater than that required for
packets of a fixed length. More processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets per
second through the network.
4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why not
just have one layer that does it all?
ANS:
Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big layer could not be adapted to
newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program.
5. What is a "hop"?
ANS:
Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node in the network, it is considered to
be one "hop".
ANS:
Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this
number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the packet is deleted from the network.
ANS:
If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would continuously
increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.
Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems
MULTIPLE CHOICE
12. For QAM, the two dimensions of its symbol space are:
a. amplitude and frequency c. frequency and phase angle
b. amplitude and phase angle d. I-bits and Q-bits
ANS: B
13. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were:
a. 300 bps, full-duplex, FSK c. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK
b. 600 bps, full-duplex, FSK d. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK
ANS: A
COMPLETION
ANS: Send
ANS: CTS
ANS: Keying
ANS: Data
ANS: Quadrature
ANS: baud
ANS: dibit
ANS: four
ANS: Delta
10. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a ____________________ diagram.
ANS: constellation
ANS: Telecommunications
12. In QAM modems, ____________________ coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy
line.
ANS: Trellis
13. ____________________ is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and phase
response on a line.
ANS: Equalization
14. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about ____________________ bps.
ANS: 54k
ANS: 20k
16. In RS-232, the ____________________ line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem is
being received.
ANS:
CD
DCD
RLSD
17. Between hardware flow control and software flow control, ____________________ flow control is
preferred.
ANS: hardware
18. A voltage higher than ____________________ volts should be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver.
ANS: 3
19. A ____________________ modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports.
ANS: null
ANS: Asymmetrical
ANS: tree
22. In a CATV system using cable modems, a ____________________ is used to put several channels of data
onto a fiber-optic backbone.
ANS: CMTS
23. ____________________ is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a CMTS.
ANS: Ranging
24. ____________________ systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with dial-
up service.
ANS: ADSL
25. The ____________________ version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end.
ANS: lite
26. ____________________ modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones or
bins for ADSL.
ANS: DMT
ANS: Multiplexer
SHORT ANSWER
1. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible
states per symbol.
ANS:
4000
2. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2
amplitude levels?
ANS:
16
3. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps. If
half the modems are active at any given time, what bit rate can a customer expect?
ANS:
720 kbps
4. A DMT system uses 4.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. Approximately how many bins are there?
ANS:
230
5. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second, how many possible states must a symbol have to
achieve a data rate of 1200 bps?
ANS:
8
Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques
MULTIPLE CHOICE
4. When calculating the maximum number of users, a limiting factor in FDM is:
a. the type of media used c. the bandwidth of each signal
b. the length of the channel d. all of the above
ANS: C
14. For a given data rate, direct-sequence systems, compared to standard RF systems, use:
a. about the same bandwidth c. much less bandwidth
b. much more bandwidth d. approximately double the bandwidth
ANS: B
19. CDMA:
a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum
b. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum
c. cannot be used on an RF channel
d. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously
ANS: D
COMPLETION
ANS: share
ANS: CDMA
3. In FDM, each signal uses part of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time.
ANS: all
4. In TDM, each signal uses all of the bandwidth ____________________ of the time.
ANS: part
5. Using CDMA on a radio channel, all signals can transmit ____________________ of the time.
ANS: all
ANS: time
ANS: frequency
8. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of ____________________ channels.
ANS: 24
ANS: AMI
ANS: 193
ANS: 8
ANS: superframe
14. Switching signals from one line to another is called ____________________ switching.
ANS: space
15. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called ____________________ switching.
ANS: time
16. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called ____________________ fading.
ANS: Rayleigh
ANS: pseudo
ANS: hopping
ANS: difficult
21. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called ____________________.
ANS: chips
22. A chipping-rate of at least ____________________ times the bit rate of the data is common.
ANS: ten
ANS: code
24. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system, when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same
time the PN sequences are said to be ____________________.
ANS: orthogonal
SHORT ANSWER
1. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital
transmission?
ANS:
The more bandwidth, the less time it takes to send a given amount of information. So the more bandwidth
available, the higher the possible bit rate.
2. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth and
the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz?
ANS:
9
ANS:
Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the spectrum the
information signal occupies. Because a spread-spectrum signal is, by definition, spread out over a very
wide bandwidth, jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal.
ANS:
In a spread-spectrum transmission, the signal power at any given frequency in its band is so low that it is
virtually indistinguishable from noise. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. And
without knowing the exact sequence being used, it is virtually impossible to "de-spread" the signal.
ANS:
During transmission, the PN sequences determine which parts of the available bandwidth the spread-
spectrum signal will occupy. Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. At some point in time,
suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11, f12, f13, and so forth. Now suppose
PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21, f22, f23, and so forth. If the two sets of
frequencies, (f11, f12, f13, ...) and (f21, f22, f23, ...), have no frequencies in common, then the two PN
sequences are said to be orthogonal.
Chapter 14: Transmission Lines
MULTIPLE CHOICE
4. When analyzing a transmission line, its inductance and capacitance are considered to be:
a. lumped c. equal reactances
b. distributed d. ideal elements
ANS: B
12. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit:
a. would reflect as a positive pulse
b. would reflect as a negative pulse
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
d. would not reflect at all
ANS: B
13. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance:
a. would reflect as a positive pulse
b. would reflect as a negative pulse
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
d. would not reflect at all
ANS: D
20. Compared to a 300-ohm line, the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power:
a. would be less c. would be the same
b. would be more d. cannot be compared
ANS: B
23. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents:
a. the voltage c. the impedance
b. the current d. none of the above
ANS: D
COMPLETION
ANS: unbalanced
2. Parallel lines are usually operated as ____________________ lines since both wires are symmetrical with
respect to ground.
ANS: balanced
3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its ____________________ impedance.
ANS: characteristic
ANS: low
ANS: distributed
6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the ____________________ effect.
ANS: skin
7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the ____________________ field inside
the wire.
ANS: magnetic
ANS: lossy
9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit ____________________.
ANS: length
ANS: surge
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a ____________________ line.
ANS: matched
12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the ____________________
polarity.
ANS: opposite
13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a ____________________
wave.
ANS: standing
ANS: standing
ANS: one
ANS: Smith
17. Short transmission-line sections called ____________________ can be used as capacitors or inductors.
ANS: stubs
18. Any cable that radiates energy can also ____________________ energy.
ANS: absorb
19. A ____________________-dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load.
ANS: 3
ANS: load
21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the ____________________ voltage of
its dielectric.
ANS: breakdown
ANS: Z0
23. The ____________________ of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance.
ANS: center
ANS: one-quarter
ANS: frequency
SHORT ANSWER
1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. Calculate its
characteristic impedance.
ANS:
Z0 = 200 ohms
2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04 inch. Calculate,
approximately, its characteristic impedance.
ANS:
386 ohms
3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant ∈r = 2.6 , what is the velocity factor for
the cable?
ANS:
0.62
4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along the
cable?
ANS:
12.5 ms
5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz?
ANS:
0.6 meters
6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is the maximum
voltage along the cable?
ANS:
200 volts
7. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms, but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load.
What SWR do you expect to measure?
ANS:
1.5
8. If a cable has an SWR of 1.5, what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection?
ANS:
0.2
9. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.2 transmits 100 watts into
the line. How much power is actually absorbed by the load?
ANS:
96 watts
10. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable, what would be the normalized value of an impedance
equal to 200 + j50 ohms?
ANS:
4 + j1
Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
10. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna:
a. vertical c. circular
b. horizontal d. all of the above
ANS: D
21. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called:
a. fading c. frequency diversity
b. diffraction d. spatial diversity
ANS: A
25. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit:
a. the cell area is increased c. the power levels are increased
b. the cell area is split d. the number of channels is reduced
ANS: B
27. To receive several data streams at once, a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses:
a. a "funnel" receiver c. multiple receivers
b. a "rake" receiver d. none of the above
ANS: B
COMPLETION
ANS: Maxwell
ANS: Hertz
ANS: transverse
ANS: photons
6. Unlike sound or water waves, radio waves do not need a ____________________ to travel through.
ANS: medium
7. The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about ____________________ volts per meter.
ANS: 3 × 106
ANS: isotropic
ANS: sphere
10. At a far distance from the source, a radio wavefront looks like a flat ____________________-wave.
ANS: plane
11. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its ____________________ field.
ANS: electric
12. The electric field of a radio wave is ____________________ to its magnetic field.
ANS: perpendicular
13. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are ____________________ to its propagation
direction.
ANS: perpendicular
14. With ____________________ polarization, the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it
travels through space.
ANS: circular
15. An antenna is said to have ____________________ in a certain direction if it radiates more power in that
direction than in other directions.
ANS: gain
16. The watts per square meter of a radio wave ____________________ as the wave-front moves through
space.
ANS: decrease
ANS: specular
18. ____________________ is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between two
different dielectrics.
ANS: Refraction
19. The process of ____________________ makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner".
ANS: diffraction
ANS: Space
21. ____________________ waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's surface.
ANS: Ground
22. ____________________ waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to refraction.
ANS: Sky
23. The ____________________ zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received.
ANS: skip
ANS: multipath
25. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by ____________________ waves interfering
with direct waves.
ANS: reflected
ANS: low
27. The ____________________ of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical area.
ANS: reuse
28. ____________________ is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas, each covering a third of the
cell area, to reduce interference.
ANS: Sectoring
29. The use of ____________________ chips makes cell phones a practical technology.
ANS: microprocessor
SHORT ANSWER
1. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6.3 × 10–10 F/m and the same permeability as free space. What is
the characteristic impedance of that dielectric?
ANS:
45 ohms
2. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt, what is the power density 10,000 meters from the
source?
ANS:
796 pW/m2
3. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters from
the source is 1 µW/m2?
ANS:
113 watts
4. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function, how far away from a 1-watt point source
will it continue to work?
ANS:
8.9 km
5. A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart. What, approximately,
is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same?
ANS:
37 meters
6. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures. If the
car is traveling 36 km/hour, what is the expected time between fades?
ANS:
15 msec
Chapter 16: Antenna
MULTIPLE CHOICE
5. Measured on the ground, the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is
strongest:
a. in one direction c. in all directions
b. in two directions d. depends on the number of elements
ANS: B
6. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called:
a. directivity c. active antenna
b. selectivity d. resonance
ANS: A
10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by:
a. radio signals reflecting off the ground
b. buildings and other structures on the ground
c. fading
d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground
ANS: A
13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by:
a. gamma rays c. helical rotation
b. Faraday Rotation d. the distance traveled
ANS: B
19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a:
a. Marconi c. Log-Periodic Dipole
b. Yagi d. stacked array
ANS: B
21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is:
a. collimated c. dispersed
b. phased d. none of the above
ANS: A
COMPLETION
ANS: space
ANS: 95
4. The ____________________ resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to transmitted
radio waves leaving the antenna.
ANS: radiation
5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about ____________________
Ω.
ANS: 70
6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about ____________________ Ω.
ANS: elevation
8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with ____________________ coordinates.
ANS: polar
ANS:
point
isotropic
ANS: dBd
ANS: Directivity
ANS: 0
13. The ____________________ of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points.
ANS: beamwidth
14. ERP stands for ____________________ radiated power.
ANS: effective
15. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's ____________________.
ANS: gain
ANS: balun
17. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with ____________________ polarization.
ANS: horizontal
ANS:
wider
greater
more
ANS: vertical
ANS:
one-quarter
1/4
21. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a ____________________ plane.
ANS: ground
22. A vertical antenna has an _________________________ radiation pattern for ground-based receivers.
ANS: omnidirectional
ANS: one
ANS: parasitic
26. If an LPDA had five elements, the number of driven elements it had would be ____________________.
ANS: five
27. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the ____________________.
ANS: focus
28. A ____________________ beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other.
ANS: collimated
ANS: horn
ANS: anechoic
SHORT ANSWER
1. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz.
ANS:
475 millimeters
2. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts?
ANS:
95 watts
3. If an antenna has 10.14 dB of gain compared to a point source, how much gain does it have compared to a
half-wave dipole?
ANS:
8 dB
4. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt?
ANS:
10 watts
5. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. What is the RMS
current in the antenna?
ANS:
1 ampere
6. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. What is the RMS
voltage at the feed-point of the antenna?
ANS:
100 volts
Chapter 17: Microwave Devices
MULTIPLE CHOICE
COMPLETION
ANS: Dispersion
ANS: zero
3. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the ____________________ mode.
ANS: dominant
4. In TE10 mode, the ____________________ field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section.
ANS: electric
5. In TE20 mode, the electric field has ____________________ peaks in the waveguide cross section.
ANS: two
ANS: TM01
ANS: high
ANS: slower
ANS: faster
ANS: hybrid
ANS: high
ANS: cavity
ANS: resistance
ANS: wave
ANS: linear
ANS: slot
18. A ____________________ antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground
plane on the other side.
ANS: patch
19. The radar cross section of a target is typically ____________________ than its actual size.
ANS: smaller
20. The frequency of the returned signal will be ____________________ than the transmitted signal if the
target is moving toward the radar antenna.
ANS: higher
SHORT ANSWER
1. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross
section is 5 cm.
ANS:
3 GHz
2. Calculate the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.
ANS:
260 × 106 meters per second
3. Calculate the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.
ANS:
346 × 106 meters per second
4. Calculate the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency.
ANS:
173 millimeters
5. Find the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm.
ANS:
14.8
6. Find the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second.
ANS:
15 km
7. Find the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2-µsec duration pulses.
ANS:
300 meters
Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems
MULTIPLE CHOICE
13. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using:
a. diversity c. high-gain antennas
b. power d. all of the above
ANS: A
COMPLETION
ANS: hop
ANS: studio
3. A typical microwave system has about one hour per ____________________ or less of downtime.
ANS: year
ANS: jitter
5. In microwave systems, it is more convenient to use noise ____________________ than noise figure in
calculations.
ANS: temperature
6. In digital microwave systems, the energy per bit per ____________________ is a key parameter.
ANS: fading
8. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of ____________________ diversity
in a microwave system.
ANS: space
ANS: diversity
10. Microwave systems generally use less than ____________________ watts of power.
ANS: ten
11. ____________________ are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line-of-sight
distance.
ANS: Repeaters
ANS: baseband
13. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of ____________________ as a signal goes
from link to link.
ANS: noise
ANS: LMDS
SHORT ANSWER
1. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km, what would it be, approximately, for a
microwave beam?
ANS:
16 km
ANS:
16.4 meters
3. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. How many dBm of power gets to
the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt, and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of
20 dBi?
ANS:
–42.4 dBm
4. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of 150 K. Calculate the noise
temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input.
ANS:
201 K
5. A microwave receiver receives –60 dBm of signal. The noise power is –100 dBm. What is the carrier-to-
noise power ratio?
ANS:
40 dB
Chapter 19: Television
MULTIPLE CHOICE
18. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM
ANS: B
19. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM
ANS: D
20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
a. SSB c. suppressed-carrier AM
b. vestigial sideband AM d. FM
ANS: C
24. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is:
a. about the same c. much lower
b. much higher d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration
ANS: B
COMPLETION
1. ____________________ is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV.
ANS: Aquadag
ANS: NTSC
ANS: scanning
4. During the horizontal blanking interval, the electron beam ____________________ from right to left.
ANS: retraces
ANS: composite
ANS: aspect
ANS:
luma
luminance
ANS:
chroma
chrominance
9. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front ____________________.
ANS: porch
10. Odd and even fields are identified by the ____________________ of the vertical sync pulse.
ANS: position
11. Each horizontal scan line takes ____________________ microseconds, not including blanking.
ANS: 62.5
ANS: 10
ANS: 1.3
ANS: pixels
ANS: 525
ANS: green
ANS: 3.58
ANS: separate
ANS: ultor
20. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about ____________________ kV.
ANS: 20 to 30
21. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with ____________________ to generate the picture.
ANS: phosphor
23. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a ____________________ filter.
ANS: comb
24. The color ____________________ turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a
monochrome signal.
ANS: killer
ANS: dBmV
26. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the ____________________ end.
ANS: head
27. A ____________________ shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases.
ANS: vectorscope
ANS: saturation
29. The ____________________ of the chroma signal represents the color hue.
ANS: phase
30. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct color
phosphor dots.
ANS: purity
31. The ____________________ controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct triad of
phosphor dots.
ANS: convergence
Chapter 20: Satellite Communications
MULTIPLE CHOICE
2. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively,:
a. apogee and perigee c. uplink and downlink
b. perigee and apogee d. downlink and uplink
ANS: A
7. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of:
a. 101 watts c. 103 watts
2
b. 10 watts d. 104 watts
ANS: C
COMPLETION
ANS: 24
2. The ____________________ is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite.
ANS: uplink
3. The ____________________ is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station.
ANS: downlink
4. A satellite in a ____________________ orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator.
ANS: geostationary
ANS: orbital
ANS: 35,780
7. A ____________________ is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to.
ANS: footprint
ANS: perigee
ANS: apogee
11. An antenna's ____________________ is its angular direction between east and west.
ANS: azimuth
12. An antenna's ____________________ is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface.
ANS: elevation
13. An antenna's ____________________ is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis.
ANS: declination
ANS: Ku
15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about ____________________ milliseconds.
ANS: 500
ANS: transponder
17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its ____________________.
ANS: diameter
ANS: star
ANS: failure
ANS: larger
SHORT ANSWER
1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The loss
between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise
temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T.
ANS:
25 dB
2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature.
ANS:
139 K.
3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km away. The
satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1
MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver.
ANS:
38 dB
Chapter 21: Cellular Radio
MULTIPLE CHOICE
21. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the:
a. BSC c. RF interface
b. MTSO d. air interface
ANS: D
24. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is:
a. increase the number of cells c. increase the ERP
b. decrease the number of cells d. decrease the ERP
ANS: A
COMPLETION
1. AMPS uses the ____________________-MHz band.
ANS: 800
2. ____________________ is still the most common cellular phone system in North America.
ANS: AMPS
ANS: reuse
4. A ____________________ occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to another.
ANS: handoff
5. If a cell-site radius drops below ____________________ km, handoffs will occur too frequently.
ANS: 0.5
ANS: three
ANS:
I
one
ANS: 600 mW
ANS:
III
three
ANS: attenuation
12. For security, you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are ____________________.
ANS: public
ANS: MTSO
14. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of ____________________.
ANS: traffic
ANS: erlangs
16. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a ____________________ call.
ANS: dropped
17. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell ____________________.
ANS: splitting
18. A ____________________ site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole.
ANS: microcell
19. Very small cells called ____________________ are used for reliable indoor reception.
ANS: picocells
20. Compared with AMPS, digital cellular phones require ____________________ bandwidth.
ANS: less
SHORT ANSWER
1. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell phone systems.
ANS:
1. Digital is inherently more secure because of its format.
2. Digitized voice signals are easily encrypted.
2. If a 28.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone, how many words of text would be lost during a
100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word?
ANS:
57.6
3. A certain cell site contains 200 cell phones. The probability that a given cell phone is being used is 15%.
What is the traffic in erlangs?
ANS:
30
ANS:
For a given probability of being blocked, the maximum allowable traffic per channel increases as the
number of channels increases.
Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems
MULTIPLE CHOICE
11. Other things being equal, battery life in a GSM phone should be:
a. less than in a TDMA phone c. greater than in a TDMA phone
b. no better than in an AMPS phone d. no better than a TDMA phone
ANS: C
18. In CDMA:
a. all frequencies are used in all cells
b. each cell uses half the available frequencies
c. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base
d. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone
ANS: A
COMPLETION
ANS: Personal
ANS: second
ANS: 1900
ANS: smaller
5. Besides TDMA and CDMA, ____________________ is also used in North America for PCS.
ANS: GSM
ANS:
CDMA
direct sequence
7. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is _________________________.
ANS: soft
ANS: Walsh
10. Unlike other systems, in CDMA ____________________ frequencies are used in all cells.
ANS: all
ANS: random
ANS: Frequency
13. RF channel S/N ratios ____________________ than zero are typical in CDMA systems.
ANS: less
ANS: variable
15. A phone user typically talks less than ____________________% of the time during a conversation.
ANS: 50
ANS: closed
ANS: Packet
ANS: Mobile
ANS: Universal
20. UWT stands for Universal ____________________ Telecommunications.
ANS: Wireless
ANS: Wideband
SHORT ANSWER
ANS:
No calls are dropped.
2. If CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time, how do they pick a specific frequency?
ANS:
Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence. To demodulate, the receiver uses
the PN sequence specific to the channel it wants.
ANS:
It increases the background noise level, but CDMA can tolerate a lot of such noise.
ANS:
It uses limited frequency hopping.
5. Why was PCS assigned to 1.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS?
ANS:
The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded.
6. Why would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in a TDMA phone?
ANS:
A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots. A GSM phone is active during one out
of every eight.
ANS:
With standard QPSK, the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero. With offset QPSK, it never goes to
zero. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Pagers use:
a. the VHF band only
b. the UHF band only
c. both the VHF and UHF bands
d. the VHF band, the UHF band, and the ISM band
ANS: C
3. CAPCODE is:
a. an encryption scheme used for pagers
b. an addressing scheme used for pagers
c. an error-detection scheme used for pagers
d. a digital modulation scheme used for pagers
ANS: B
9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of:
a. CSMA/CA c. CDMA
b. CSMA/CD d. all of the above
ANS: A
COMPLETION
ANS: capcode
ANS: TDMA
ANS: Post
ANS: 10
ANS: 802.11
6. The IEEE document specifies a maximum power of ____________________ for wireless LANs.
ANS: 1 watt
ANS: ISM
ANS: piconet
ANS: piconets
ANS: 1 meter
Chapter 24: Fiber Optics
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Compared to the core, the index of refraction of the cladding must be:
a. the same c. less
b. greater d. doesn't have an index of refraction
ANS: C
6. Scattering causes:
a. loss c. intersymbol interference
b. dispersion d. all of the above
ANS: A
COMPLETION
ANS: reflection
2. The core is surrounded by the ____________________.
ANS: cladding
ANS: critical
ANS: energy
ANS: sine
ANS: internal
ANS: intramodal
8. With optical fiber, ____________________ light is more common than visible light.
ANS: infrared
9. In multimode fiber, ____________________ index has less dispersion than step index.
ANS: graded
10. For laser diodes, the term ____________________ is used instead of bandwidth.
ANS: linewidth
ANS: time
12. ____________________ interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse.
ANS: Intersymbol
ANS: loose-tube
14. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a ____________________ cable.
ANS: tight-buffer
15. A ____________________ is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the source.
ANS: pigtail
ANS: single
17. A ____________________ diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable.
ANS: laser
ANS: photon
19. A ____________________ diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable.
ANS: PIN
20. For safety, you should never ____________________ at the end of an optical fiber unless you know it is
not connected to a light source.
ANS: look
Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems
MULTIPLE CHOICE
6. A Soliton is a:
a. defect in the glass c. type of pulse
b. type of particle d. type of optical network
ANS: C
9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to:
a. 1000 miles c. 100 km
b. 100 miles d. 10 km
ANS: C
15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called:
a. FDDI c. FITL
b. FTTC d. SONET
ANS: B
COMPLETION
ANS: Curb
ANS: Hierarchy
ANS: Wavelength
ANS: Synchronous
ANS: Distributed
ANS: erbium
ANS: pump
ANS: WDM
ANS: 51.84
11. SONET does not use bit ____________________ to synchronize two digital signals.
ANS: stuffing
12. SONET uses a ____________________ to denote the starting position of an information frame.
ANS: pointer
ANS: token
14. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in ____________________ directions.
ANS: opposite
15. Each ____________________ in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater.
ANS: node
ANS: multi
ANS: 100 M
18. SONET frames have considerably more ____________________ than do DS frames for information
about signal routing and setup.
ANS: overhead
ANS: 810
ANS: 774
ANS: 9
22. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________.
ANS: 4
23. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is ____________________.
ANS: 1
24. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and ____________________ overhead.
ANS: transport
ANS: envelope
SHORT ANSWER
1. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds?
ANS:
1 MHz
2. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter, receiver, and cable each have a rise
time of 50 nanoseconds.
ANS:
86.6 nanoseconds