DIRECTIONS:

CHOOSE THE LETTER OF THE BEST ANSWER. IF THE ANSWER IS NOT AMONG THE CHOICES, CHOOSE LETTER E.

MODULE 1

1. Artificial Air” is used therapeutically to alleviate difficult respiration and contains:

a. 60% oxygen & 40% helium
b. 20% oxygen & 80% helium
c.20% helium & 80% oxygen
d. 40% helium & 60% oxygen
2. Besides activated charcoal and tannic acid, the other component of universal antidote is:
a. MgO
b. MgCl2
c. MgCO3
d. Mg(OH)2
e. Mg3(PO4)2
3. A 10-volume hydrogen peroxide is equivalent to ______% H2O2:
a. 3% b. 9% c. 20% d. 30%
4. Rochelle salt which is used as a cathartic and also as sequestering agent is:
a. KHC4H4O6 b. NaKC4H4O6 c. KC4H4O6 d. NaC4H4O6
5. Blue vitriol, an effective astringent and emetic is chemically:
a. FeSO4-7H2O b. CaCl2 c. CU(C2H3O2)2 d. CuSO4 . 5H2O
6. The most electronegative element in the periodic table is:
a. sulfur b. oxygen c. chlorine d. fluorine
7. Saltpeter, a meat preservative is the synonym for:
a. KNO2 b. NaNO3 c. NaNO2 d. KNO3
8. To kill microorganism in inanimate objects we simply used:
a. antiseptic b. corrosive c. disinfectant d. sterilization
9. The ion that gives a Prussian blue precipitate with potassium ferrocyanide:
a. ferric b. ferrous c. cobalt d. nickel
10. An agent that loses one or more electrons in a redox reaction:
a. oxidizing agent b. reducing agent c. catalyst d. inhibitor
11. A law that states that the elemental composition of a pure compound is always the same regardless of its source.
a. Law of Conservation of Mass c. Law of Definite Proportion
b. Law of Constant Composition d. b and c
12. Group of elements in which the d orbitals are being filled
a. transition metals c. f-block elements
b. representative elements d. inert gas
13. Spontaneous reactions tend to be:
a. endothermic c. either
b. exothermic d. both
14. BAL is:
a. British Anti-Lewisite c. 3, 2 – dimercaptopropanol
b. 2, 3 – dimercaptopropanol d. a and b
15. In solution, Nickel Hydroxide is color:
a. blue c. purple
b. green d. red
16. Chalcogens are:
a. Group V c. Group IV
b. Group III d. Group VI
17. Standard temperature for gas

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

1
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 a. O deg Celsius c. 273 K
b. 314 K d. a and c
18. The chemical CH₃CH₂COOCH₃ is an example of what type of organic compound?
a. Ketone d. Aldehyde
b. Ester e. Acid Anhydride
c. Ether
19. Which of the following drugs is also known as 1, 3-dimethylxanthine?
a. Theophylline d. Pentoxifylline
b. Caffeine e. Doxofylline
c. Theobromine
20. A metallic deposit obtained after sublimation may indicate the presence of:
A. Ammonium salts
B. Sulphur
C. Mercury (I) iodide
D. Selenium (IV) oxide
E. Amalgams
21. Ca imparts ______ color to the nonluminous Bunsen flame
A. Crimson
B. Yellowish green
C. Green
D. Blue
E. Brick red
22. Quilonium-R® is also
A. Lithium bromide D. Lithium bicarbonate
B. Lithium chloride E. Lithium hydroxide
C. Lithium carbonate
23. A property of some substances to lose water molecules from a crystalline structure.
A. Dehydration D. Efflorescence
B. Hygroscopic property E. NOTA
C. Deliquescence
24. The only single acid to dissolve gold
A. Nitric acid D. A and B
B. Hydrochloric acid E. B and C
C. Selenic acid
. 25. CCl4 has a ________ molecular geometry.
A. trigonal planar
B. tetrahedral
C. bent
D. A and B
26. GENERALLY ACCEPTED OTHER NAMES OF ALCOHOL, USP
I. ETHANOL
II. WOOD ALCOHOL
III. SPIRITUS VINI RECTIFICATUS
IV. WINE SPIRIT
A. I AND IV ONLY
B. I, II AND III ONLY
C. I, III AND IV ONLY
D. I AND III ONLY
27. AUGMENTIN IS A COMBINATION OF:
I. K SALTS OF CLAVULANIC ACID
II. AMOXICILLIN

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

2
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 III. AMPICILLIN
IV. SULBACTAMS
A. I AND II
B. I AND III
C. II AND III
D. II AND IV
E. III AND IV
28. UNASYN IS A COMBINATION OF:
I. AMOXICILLIN
II. SULBACTAM SODIUM
III. AMPICILLIN SODIUM
IV. CLAVULANIC ACID
A. I AND II
B. I AND III
C. II AND III
D. II AND IV
E. III AND IV
29. PRIMAXIN IS A COMBINATION OF:
I. TAZOCILLIN
II. IMIPENEM
III. PIPERACILLIN
IV. CILASTATIN
A. I AND II
B. I AND III
C. II AND III
D. II AND IV
E. III AND IV
30. Methylated erythromycin:
a. clarithromycin b. azithromycin c. lincomycin d. ilotycin
31. Which of the following functional groups is the most basic?
a. imide b. amide c. amine d. aniline
32. The ring common among penicillins and cephalosphorins: a. benzene ring b. B-lactam ring c. thiazole ring d.
phenothiazone
33. The generic name of Duracef:
a. Cephradine b. Cephazoline c. Cephadroxil d. Cephalexin
34. A loop or high-ceiling diuretic:
a. Furosemide b. Sorbitol c. Spirinolactone d. Hydrochlorothiazide
35. Levodopa is used in the treatment of:
a. leukemia c. Alzheimer’s disease b. Parkinson’s disease d. Tay Sach’s disease
36. The scientist who can lay claim to the title of Father of Chemotherapy:
a. Robert Koch c. Paul Ehrlich e. Giuseppe Brotzu b. Joseph Lister d. Alexander Fleming
37. This group is responsible for the bone marrow toxicity of chloramphenicol:
a. NO2 group c. OH group e. benzene group b. NH2 group d. COOH group
38. From the list given below, identify the drug possessing “triad of features” which includes antiamebic. antigiardiasis, and
antitrichomonal:
a. iodoquinol c. emetine e. piperazine b. chloroquine d. metronidazole
39. Penicillin G
a. Methicillin b. Benzyl penicillin c. both d. none
40. Drug of choice for leprosy:
a. rifampicin c. prothionamide e. dapsone b. ethonamide d. clofazimine
41. Large overdose of acetaminophen are likely to cause: a. tinnitus b. hepatic necrosis c. agranulocytosis d. renal tubular acidosis

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

3
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 42. Which of the following compound is considered as a Grignard’s Reagent?
a. CH3CH2OH d. NaHSO3
b. CH3Li e. HCN
c. CH3MgCl
43. Give the IUPAC name of the given chemical: CH₂=CHCH₂CH₂CH₃
a. Pentene d. 1-pentyne
b. 1-pentene e. 2-pentene
c. Pentane
44. An organic compound with a molecular formula C10H22 is most likely a/an
a. Alkane d. Cycloalkene
b. Alkene e. Cycloalkene
c. Alkyne
45. SI unit for temperature is:
a. Fahrenheit c. Kelvin
b. Celsius d. all of the above
46. The molarity of a solution is:
a. The number of moles of solute per liter of solution
b. The number of moles of solute dissolved in kg solvent
c. The number of equivalent weights per liter of solution
d. The number of moles of solvent per kg of solution e. The weight in g of solute per 100 ml of a solution
47. The ionization constant of the strongest acid is
a. HA Ka = 7.2 x 10-4 b. HB Ka = 8.5 x 10-8 c. HC Ka = 7.5 x 10-5 d. HD Ka = 6.5 x 10-10
48. It forms white precipitate with HCl but blackens upon addition of ammonium hydroxide:
a. cupric b. mercurous c. plumbous d. silver
49. It gives the spatial orientation of the electron cloud with respect to the three areas in space:
a. Spin quantum number b. Magnetic quantum number c. Principal quantum number d. Azimuthal
50. The composition of aqua regia is:
a. 3HCl and HNO3 b. 2HNO3 and 2HCl c. 2HNO3 and 1HCl d. 1HNO3 and 2H2SO4

MODULE 2

1. The order and sequence of amino acid in a polypeptide determines what protein structure
a. primary c. tertiary b. secondary d. quaternary
2. Which of the following is a precursor of vitamin D?
a. prostaglandin c. cholesterol b. linoleic acid d. aldosterone
3. Carbohydrates are
a. polyhydroxyaldehydes / polyhydroxyketones c. hemiacetals b. polyhydroxy acids d. polymers of amino
acids
4. It is the organelle which serves as the site of the electron transport chain.
a. mitochondria b. ribosome c. nucleus d. lysosome
5. Hypertonic solutions will cause the cell to: a. swell b. shrink c. burst d. undergo hemolysis
6. Optimum temperature for enzyme activity in the body: a.40oC c. 37oC b.60oC d. 10oC
7. The process of converting glucose into glycogen is called a. gluconeogenesis c. glycolysis b. glycogenesis d.
glycogenolysis
8. Glucose, amino acid and fatty acid enter the citric acid cycle by their conversion into:
a. pyruvate c. acetoacetyl CoA b. acetyl CoA d. palmitic acid
9. The process of producing fats from acetyl co-A is called a. glycolysis c. glycogenolysis b. lipogenesis d. glucogenesis
10. IUPAC name of acrolein a. pentenal c. hexanal B. propenal d. acetone
11. The complementary strand of CGACCTTGATCGACGTCGA:
a. TCGTTCCAGCTAGTACTAG

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

4
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 c. AGCAAGGTCGATCATGATC
b. GCTGGAACTAGCTGCEGCT
d. ATCAAGGTCGATCATGATC
12. Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the a. nucleus c. cytoplasm b. mitochondria d. lysosomes
13. Which is the monomer unit of proteins? a. amino acid c. fatty acid b. monosaccharide d. purine
14. A normal value of glucose in the blood a. 100 to 200 mg% c. 50 to 75 mg% b. 80 to 120 mg% d. 200 to 300mg%
15. Is the sum total of all acitivities directed towards the maintenance of life
a. catabolism d. photosynthesis b. anabolism e. fermentation c. metabolism
16. What vitamin deficiency causes pellagra? a. riboflavin c. pantothenic acid b. thiamine d. nicotinic acid
17. The major extracellular cation is
a. potassium c. calcium b. sodium d. iron
18. This sugar is also called an “invert sugar” a. sucrose c. glucose b. fructose d. galactose
19. The steps of central states:
a. replication, translation and transcription
b. replication, translation and transmission
c. replication, translation and translation
d. transcription, translation and replication
20. The number of chromosomes in the human:
a. 41 c. 43 b. 42 d. 46
21. A nucleic acid is made up of:
a. sugar, nucleoside and a base
b. proteins, sugar and a phosphate group
c. nitrogenous base, amino acid and sugar
d. nitrogenous base, phosphate and sugar
22. It is regarded as the universal biological energy currency
A. Adenosine triphosphate C. Uncouplers
B. Guanosine triphosphate D. Calories
23. Which of the following includes the main goals of Pentose Phosphate Pathway?
I. produce ribose-5-phosphate for nucleotide synthesis
II. produce NADPH and NADP for oxidoreductive biochemical synthesis
III. to interconvert pentoses and hexoses
A. I & II D. I, II & III
B. II & III
C. I & III
24. Ketoses can be differentiated from aldose by this test
A Molisch’s test C. Seliwanoff’s test
B. Benedict’s test D. Tollen’s test
25. Which of the following codons are generally known as stop or non sense codons?
I. UAG II. UGA III. UAA
A. I only C. II & III only
B. I & II only D. I, II & III only
26. Idioblasts are cells containing a large amount of ___?
a. Calcium silicate crystals c. calcium oxalate crystals
b. Calcium chloride crystals d. calcium sulphate crystals
27. Product of amygdalin hydrolysis is ___.
a. Hydrocyanic acid c. All of the above
b. Benzaldehyde d. None of the above
28. Isolated morphine in 1804.
a. Ehrlich c. Planck e. None of the above
b. Costeau d. Serturner
29. Talampunay is scientifically known as

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

5
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 a. Datura metel L. c. Datura nigra Blanco
b. Datura alba L. d. Datura sophora Mill
30. The non-sugar component of glycosides is known as ___.
a. Aglycone d. Sugar ethers
b. Glycone e. None of the above
c. Acetals
31. A substance obtained from the head of the sperm whale, Physeter macrocephalus L.
a. Spermaceti d. Stearyl alcohol
b. Cetyl ester wax e. Cetyl Laurate
c. Cetyl alcohol
32. This is the undissolved portion of the drug that remains after the extraction process is completed.
a. Menstrum d. Chief constiuent
b. Marc
c. Extractive
33. The most important monosaccharides found in plants and from which most of the polysaccharides are constructed.
a. Pentoses c. Aldoses
b. Hexoses d. Ketotses
34. It indicates the number of milligrams of Potassium hydroxide required to neutralize the free acids and saponify the esters contained
in 1 gram of substance.
a. Acid value c. Iodine value
b. Saponification value d. Ester value
35. Volatile oils are differentiated from fixed oils by
a. Acrolein test c. Ozasone test
b. Iodine test d. Spot test
36. What is the pungent-tasting oil that is produced by hydrolysis of Sinapsis alba?
a. Mustard oil c. Acrinylisothiocyanate
b. Sinalbin d. Allyisothiocyanate
37. An acid known as sugar acid with antioxidant property.
a. Lactic acid c. Ascorbic acid
b. Tartaric acid d. Malic acid
38. In 780 A.D., he described about 600 plants with medicinal properties in his book “De Materia Medica”
A. Galen
B. Dioscorides
C. Seydler
D. Fluckiger
39. Gum usually used as a substitute for acacia.
A) Ghatti
B) Tragacanth
C) Karaya
D) Algin
40. The red color obtained from cathecol tannins is due to the presence of ____ ?
a.Phenol c. Phlobaphene
b.Ellagic acid d. Gallic acids
41. Silymarin a plant constituents which is widely used in the treatment of liver ailments, is obtained from___.
A. Silybum marianum
B. Melissa officinales
C. Salvia officinales
D. Valeriana Mexicana
E. Ginkgo biloba
42. Which of the following is not a source of a starch?
A. Maize (Zea mays)

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

6
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 B. Wheat (Triticum aestivum)
C. Potato (Solanum tuberosum)
D. Tapioca (Manihot utilissima)
E. None of the given choices
43. Rutin and hesperidin have been called:
A. Vitamin P D. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin H E. Vitamin B complex
C. Vitamin K
44. What phenolic ether volatile oil is obtained from Illicium verum (Fam. Magnoliaceae)?
A) Anise oil
B) Fennel oil
C) Chinese star anise oil
D) All of the above
45. These are resinous mixtures containing cinnamic acids, benzoic acids, or both, or esters of these acids.
A) Resins
B) Balsams
C) Gums
D) Tannins
46. It is regarded as the “Ginseng of Europe” because it is extensively cultivated and utilized in
European folk medicine.
A) Feverfew
B) Camphor
C) Eucalyptus
D) Chamomile
47. Use of castor oil:
A) Retardant for dental cement
B) Anti-diarrheal
C) Stimulant cathartic
D) Emulsifying agent
48. This is the animal source of Premarin®, which is an example of conjugated estrogen.
A) Frog
B) Rabbit
C) Dog
D) mare
49. This is the animal source of Premarin®, which is an example of conjugated estrogen.
A) Frog
B) Rabbit
C) Dog
D) mare
50. Sambong is used as:
A) Analgesic
B) Diuretic
C) Anthelmintic
D) Stimulant

MODULE 3

1. It is refers to the responsible of drug therapy to achieve definite outcomes that are intended to improve a patients quality of life
A. Professional – patient relationship
B. Therapeutic drug monitoring

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

7
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 C. Drug therapy assessment
D. Pharmaceutical care
E. Formal documentation
2. Upon dispensing the pharmacist what is the vital information can the pharmacist give when a patient buys calcium supplement.
A. Calcium's absorption is enhanced with Vitamin D
B. Calcium's absorption is enhanced with Vitamin E
C. Calcium's absorption is deterred with Vitamin D
D. Calcium's absorption is deterred with Vitamin E

3. It refers to the value assigned to duration of life as modified by impairments, functional states, perceptions, and social opportunities
that are influenced by disease, injury, treatment or policy
A. Optimum health
B. Quality of life
C. Health outcomes
D. Responsiveness
E. Wellness of being
4. A retrospective or prospective follow-up study of exposed and non-exposed defined groups in which a variable of interest is
measured
A. Cross sectional study
B. Case control study
C. Cross over study
D. Cohort study
5. Any noxious, unintended, and undesired effect of a drug that occurs at doses used in humans for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy.
A. Adverse drug event
B. Allergy
C. Hypersensitivity
D. Adverse drug reaction
6. Which of the following drugs has the most potent cholesterol lowering potential?
a. Bile acid resins
b. HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors
c. Beta Blockers
d. ACE inhibitors
e. Calcium Channel Blockers
7. A small part of clot that breaks off and travels to another part of the vascular system
a. Embolus
b. Thrombosis
c. Infarction
d. Ischemia
e. Stroke
8. Prescription part generally understood to be a contraction of the Latin verb recipe, meaning take thou or you take
a. Superscription
b. Inscription
c. Subscription
d. Signature
e. Transcription
9. The abbreviation “ss” means
a. After surgery
b. Rectally
c. By mouth
d. One half
e. Immediately

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

8
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
10. Refers to a system that has its purpose the selection, acquisition, control, storage, dispensing, delivery, preparation, and
administration of drug product in health care institution in response of an authorized prescriber
a. Drug distribution control system
b. Drug use information system
c. Drug distribution system
d. Drug packaging system
e. Drug availability system
11. Responsible for the development and surveillance of pharmacy and therapeutics policies and practices, particularly drug utilization
within the hospital
a. Medical director
a. Board of directors
b. Pharmacy and therapeutics committee
c. Chief pharmacist
d. Pharmaceutical services director
12. It is a commercially available, nonformulary agent that is temporarily made available to a physician for evaluation.
a. Nonformulary drug
b. Formulary drug
c. Restricted drug
d. Investigational drug
e. Clinical evaluation drug
13. This is a continually updated list of medications and related information, representing the clinical judgment of physicians,
pharmacists, and other experts in the diagnosis, prophylaxis, or treatment of disease and promotion of health.
A. Formulary system
B. Formulary
C. Drug monograph
D. Policy and procedure manual
E. Operating manual
14. This medical staff is composed of specialists who are recognized as such by right of passing specialty boards or belonging to
the national organization of their specialty and who serve as consultants to other members of the medical staff when called
upon.
a. Consulting
b. Honorary
c. Active
d. Courtesy
e. Associate
15. Which of the following are fundamental functions of a hospital?
I. Patient care
II. Wellness
III. Research
IV. Education
A) I, II only
B) I, II, IV only
C) I, II ,III only
D) I, II only
E) I, II, III, IV
16. Hospitals may be classified in different ways according to:
I. Type of service
II. Length of stay
III. Ownership
IV. Bed capacity
A) I, II, III, IV

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

9
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 B) I, II, II only
C) I, III only
D) I, IV only
E) I, II, IV only
17. Refers to a drug distribution system wherein all drugs are retained in the pharmacy until the order is received, and then a
multiple dose supply is dispensed to the nursing unit labeled for use by a specific patient.
a. Patient prescription system
b. Floor stock
c. Emergency carts
d. Unit dose dispensing system
e. Decentralized system
18.First President of PSHP:
a. Rosario Capistrano Tan d. Marcelia Itturalde b. Lourdes Echauz e. Siopin Co c. Violeta Alvarez
19. This method is used when a small amount of potent substances is to be mixed with a large amount of diluents.
a. Block and divide method C. geometric dilution E. trituration
b. Spatulation D. sifting
20. Pharmacist may advise the patient during dispensing that Gingival hyperplasia is a common side effect of
A. Procainamide D. Indomethacin
B. Phenytoin E. Guanethidine
C. Digitalis
21. A mathematical model for a potentiating drug effect.
A.1+1=2 D.1+1=0
B.1+1=3 E.1+1=1
C.0+1=2
22. The largest size of hard, empty capsule that can be swallowed is:
A. 00 C. 00 E. 0
B. 000 D. 5
23. These are forms of oral medication which are discoid-shaped solids containing the medicinal agent in a suitably flavored base.
I. Troches
II. Pastilles
III. Lozenges
A. I only
B. III only
C. I & III
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
24. Tinctures of potent drugs for which no proportion of active principles has been fixed, shall have the strength of:
A. 10% by weight
B. 20% by weight
C. 40% by weight
D. 50% by weight
25. A gel mass consisting of floccules of small distinct particles
a. Single-phase gel
b. Paste
c. Magma
d. Vanishing cream
e. NOTA
26. This is a phenomenon in which the physiological and/ or psychological response to a substance is decreased with continuous use
of the same dose of that substance.
A. tolerance
B. withdrawal

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

10
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 C. dependence
D. insanity
27. When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the prescription is:
A. Erroneous prescription C. Impossible prescription
B. Violative prescription D. Correct prescription
28. These are semisolid dosage forms employed for the purpose of leaving a medication for long-term residence on the skin
a. Pastes
b. Creams
c. Glycerogelatins
d. Plasters
e. Ointments
29. Phocomelia is a teratogenic effect associated with the use of:
A. Tretinoin C. Phenytoin
B. Thalidomide D. Phenothiazines
30. Common preservatives of emulsions
a. Polysorbates
b. Sorbitans
c. Parabens
d. Acids
e. Alcohols
31. The following ointment base/s is/are classified as hydrocarbon base/s:
I. Petrolatum
II. White ointment
III. Polyethylene Glycol Ointment
A.I only
B. I & II
C. I & III
D. III only
E. I, II, III
32. Purified water, USP:
I. Obtained by distillation, ion-exchange treatment, reverse osmosis or other suitable process
II. Intended for use in the preparation of aqueous dosage forms other than parenterals
III. 1000 times more free of dissolved solids than is water
A. I only
B. I & II
C. I & III
D. II & III
33. Salicylic acid collodion contains how many % of salicylic acid in Flexible Collodion USP?
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 15%
e. 1%
34. Flexible Collodion is prepared by adding castor oil and camphor to Collodion USP. How many % of castor oil is required in this
preparation?
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 2%
d. 0.5%
e. 1%
34. Which of the following is a troche?

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

11
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 a. Kremil-S
b. Dequadin
c. Alaxan-FR
d. Clusivol
e. Zantac-150
35. A formula for a cough syrup contains 1/8 gr of codeine phosphate per teaspoonful. How many grams of codeine phosphate should
be used in preparing 2 pints of the cough syrup?
a. 2.30 g
b. 6.43 g
c. 1.54 g
d. 0.91 g
e. 1.03
37. How many milliliters of a 1:20 v/v solution of methyl salicylate in alcohol can be made from 100 mL of 2% v/v solution?
a. 25
b.38
c.40
d.30
e.20
38. What is the density of a metal, 10 mL of which weighs 5450 mg?
a. 1.106
b. 0.670
c. 0.545
d. 10.5
e. 0.626
39. What is the concentration of 0.04% (w/v) NaCl solution in ratio strength?
a. 1:2500
b. 1:166.67
c. 1:250
d. 1:400
e. 1: 225
40. How many drops would be prescribed in each dose of a liquid medicine if 20 mL contained 60 doses? The dispensing dropper
calibrates 35 gtts per mL.
a. 12 gtts b. 15 gtts c. 8 gtts d. 23 gtts
41. How many colchicines tablets, each containing 600 mcg, may be prepared from 30 g of colchicines?
a. 50,000 tablets b. 20,000 tablets c. 20 tablets d. 50 tablets
42. Nitrostat Sublingual tablets are available as 1/200-gr tablets. What is the approximate equivalent in milligrams?
a. 0.325 b. 0.077 c. 0.005 d. 0.65
43. Pico denotes _____ of the basic unit: a. 10-12 b. 10-15 c. 10-18 d. 10-10
44. If 150 mL of polyethylene glycol 400 weighs 74.1 g, what is its specific gravity?
a. 0.88 b. 0.494 c. 2.35 d. 1.3
45. Four equal amounts of belladonna extract, containing 1.15%, 1.30%, 1.35% and 1.20% of alkaloids respectively, were mixed.
What was the percentage strength of the mixture?
a. 1.2% b. 1.4% c. 1.5% d. 1.25%
46. An inhalant dose of amyl nitrite is 0.18 mL. Express the dose in minims.
a. 4 m b. 2 m c. 3 m d. 5 m
47. The adult dose of a liquid medication is 0.1 mL/kg body weight to be administered as a single dose. How many teaspoonfuls
should be given to a patient weighing 220 lb?
a. 2 tsp b. 2.5 tsp c. 3 tsp d. 2 tbsp
48. The normal body temperature is 37°C. Express this in °Fahrenheit.
a. 96.8°F b. 98.6°F c. 28.3°F d. 100°F

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

12
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 49. ______ grams is also equivalent to 10 milliliters of water.
a. 10 b. 100 c. 1.00 d. 0.01 e. 0.01
50. 90% of alcohol is how many proof?
a. 180 proof b. 45 proof c. 135 proof d. none

Module 4

1. An example of a weakly basic prodrug that when protonated, form covalent disulfide linkages with H+/K+ ATPase and inactivates
it:
A. Maalox®
B. Nexium®
C. Tums®
D. Buscopan®
2. Pharmacodynamics is
A) The science that examines the interrelationship of the physicochemical properties of the drug and the route of administration
on the rate and extent of systemic circulation
B) The science of the kinetics of drug absorption, distribution and elimination
C) The part of pharmacology, which deals with what a drug does to the body
D) The science, which deals with the physicochemical properties of the drug that allow it to be designed into dosage forms
E) A and B
3. Which of the following types of drugs binds to a receptor and produce an effect similar to that of endogenous ligands?
A) Inverse agonist
B) Agonist
C) Partial agonist
D) Competitive antagonist
E) Noncompetitive antagonist
. 4. The relative measure f the safety and effectiveness of a drug is the ratio of TD50 to ED50. The pharmacological term used to
indicate this ratio is known as
A) Pharmacological efficacy
B) Pharmacological toxicity ratio
C) Therapeutic index
D) Median effective ratio
E) Competitive antagonism
5. Chloramphenicol is known for which of the following adverse side-effects?
A) Blue baby syndrome
B) Gray baby syndrome
C) Red man syndrome
D) A and B
E) B and C
6. The hydraulic equation is
A) CO=PVR x BP
B) PVR=CO x CO
C) BP=CO x PVR
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
7. What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia?
A. Sussinylcholine
B. Gabapentin
C. Rocuronium

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

13
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 D. Dantrolene
E. Arecholine
8. Which of the following antiviral drug can be used for Parkinsonism
A. Abacavir
B. Dinanosine
C. Efavirenz
D. Amantadine
E. NOTA
9. Which of the ff. vitamin can be used to lower cholesterol levels?
A. Retinol
B. Thiamine
C. Riboflavin
D. Niacin
E. Panthothenic acid
10. Which of the given is considered the DMARD”s of 1st choice to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Methotrxate
C. Azathioprine
D. Mycophenolate mofetil
E. Cyclodextrins
11. What is the oral form of penicillin?
A. Pen G
B. Pen V
C. Pen C
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
12. This anti-fungal drugs absorption is improved when taken with fatty foods:
A. Ketoconazole
B. 5-flucytosine
C. Nystatin
D. Griseofulvin
E. All of the above
13. Antidote for acetaminophen overdose
A. NAC
B. Atropine
C. Bicarbonate
D. Fomepizole
E. All of the above
14. Acetylated morphine
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Methadone
D. Naloxone
E. All of the above
15. All of the following are hormones EXCEPT
A. Bromocriptine
B. Somatotropin
C. Thyrotropin
D. Vasopressin
E. Somatomedin

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

14
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
16. For most drugs, which part of the gastrointestinal tract is the optimum site for drug absorption after the oral administration?
A. Buccal cavity
B. stomach
C. duodenum
D. jejunum
17. Which of the following is the major process of absorption for most drugs?
A.Passive Diffusion D. Vesicular transport
B. Active transport E. Convective transport
C. Facilitated Diffusion
18.A given drug has a biologic half-life of 4 hours. How much of the drug will remain in the body 12 hours after a single dose?
A. 75%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 12.5%
E. 6.25%
19.Evaluate the ff.
Statement 1: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs provide pain relief through their anti-inflammatory action.
Statement 2: Acetaminophen also provide pain relief through its anti-inflammatory effect.
A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are wrong
20. While teaching a patient about drug therapy for diabetes, you review the absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of
insulin and oral antidiabetic agents. Which principle of pharmacology are you describing?
A. Pharmacokinetics D. Drug potency
B. Pharmacodynamics E. Alternative therapy
C. Pharmacotherapeutics
21. Migration of drug into a container
A. Sorption D. Vaporization
B. leaching E. None of the above
C. Permeation
22. What is considered as dominant phase I metabolic reaction?
a. Oxidation
b. Reduction
c. Hydrolysis
d. Glucuronidation
e. Acetylation
23. Biotransformation of orally administered drugs occurring primarily in the liver that reduces the amount of drug finally entering
the systemic circulation is often referred to as __________.
a. Enterohepatic recirculation
b. Gastric emptying
c. Elimination
d. First-pass effect
e. Enzyme induction
24. Methylphenidate and Dextroamphetamine are centrally acting sympathomimetics which have found use in which of the
following conditions?
a. Manic-depression
b. Alcohol withdrawal
c. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
d. Generalized anxiety disorder

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

15
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 e. Hypotensive episodes
25. Teratogenic drugs cause physical defects in the developing fetus. Which pregnancy drug category is characterized if the use of
the product is contraindicated in women who are may become pregnant.
A. Category A D. Category D
B. Category B E. Category X
C. Category C
26. Areas of toxicology that focuses on the impact of chemical pollutants in the environment on biological organism, specially studying
the impacts of chemicals on nonhuman organism
a. forensic toxicology
b. clinical toxicology
c. developmental toxicology
d. reproductive toxicology
e. environmental toxicology
27.Place the following mechanism of toxin delivery in order from most effective to least effective. 1: intravenous 2:subcutaneous 3: oral
4: inhalation 5: dermal
A. 1,5,2,4,3
B. 4,1,2,3,5
C. 1,4,2,3,5
D. 4,2,1,5,3
E. 1,4,3,2,5
28. Enzyme catalyses oxidation of ethanol to acetaldehyde
A. aldehyde dehydrogenase
B. catalase
C. alcohol dehydrogenase
D. both A and C
E. none of the above
29. Wilson’s disease is an autosomal genetic disorder caused by which of the following metals?
A. Aluminium
B. Copper
C. Arsenic
D. Cadmium
E. Lead
29. It is the antidote for warfarin toxicity.
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin E
D. Pyridoxine
E. Thiamine
30. Laboratory test used to monitor therapy with warfarin.
A. Aptt
B. Creatine kinase
C. AST
D. PT
E. ALT
31. This includes the chemical, biochemical, and molecular events that lead to deleterious effects on development.
A. Mutagenesis
B. Teratogenesis
C. Carcinogenesis
D. Behavioral toxicology
E. None of the above

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

16
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
32. Which of the following drugs has been historically associated with the development of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, a fatal
neurodegenerative disease caused by prions?
A. Pancreas derived insulin
B. Pituitary derived growth hormone
C. Thyroid hormone extract
D. Recombinant growth hormone
E. Cortisol
33. Which of the following substance causes hypocalcemia?
A. Vitamin A
B. Tamoxifen
C. Androgens
D. Calcitonin
E. Glucocorticoids
34. Which of the following substance causes hypocalcemia?
A. Vitamin A
B. Tamoxifen
C. Androgens
D. Calcitonin
E. Glucocorticoids
35. This drug is known as “soda loading”. It buffers the lactic acidosis caused by exercise, thereby delaying fatigue and enhancing
performance.
A. Caffeine
B. Calcium hydroxide
Diuretics
Amphetamines
Sodium bicarbonate
36. It is used in the treatment of aniline induced Methemoglobinemia
A. Methylene blue
B. Glucagon
C. Oximes
D. EDTA
37. It is active substance in the Chinese plant Ma-huang has been used for the treatment of asthma.
A. Khat
B. Cathionone
C. Methcathinone
D. Ephedrine
E. None of the above
36. Which of the following drugs causes “red man red neck syndrome”?
A. Sulfonamides
B. amphotericin B
C. Vancomycin
D. Erythromycin
E. None of the above
39. A type of poison that causes blackening and severe corrosion in the mouth:
a. nitric acid d. phenol b. sulfuric acid e. hydrochloric acid c. ascorbic acid
40. “Angel dust:” a. MDMA c. PCP b. LSD d. THC
41. Characteristic type of precipitate of magnesium ammonium phosphate for the presence of phosphorous:
a. curdy, white precipitate c. crystalline, white precipitate b. heavy, white precipitate d. white solution
42. Patron saints of medicine and pharmacy a. Cosmas and Damian c. George Ebers b. St. Peter d. Don Leon Ma. Guerrero
43. The “NO SUBSTITUTION” instruction is seen on

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

17
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 a. erroneous prescription c. violative prescription b. impossible prescription d. any of the above
44. The lowering of melting point is called: a. evolution c. hydrolysis b. eutexia d. none of these
45. Denotes the absorption, distribution, excretion, and metabolism of toxins, toxic doses of therapeutic agents and their metabolites
A. Toxicokinetics
B. Toxicodynamics
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
46. The most ubiquitous toxic metal
A. Cadmium
B. Lead
C. Arsenic
D. Mercury
47. The specific antidote for the treatment of poisoning due to oral ingestion of silver nitrate would be the oral administration of:
a. acetic acid solution c. sodium bicarbonate b. normal saline
48. Antidote for iodine poisoning: a. silver nitrate c. potassium nitrate b. starch d. sugar
49. It is the choice of professional poisoners.
a. nitrite d. arsenic b. naphthalene e. beryllium c. oxalate
50. Cocaine is commonly known as: a. coke c. crystals b. lady d. all of the above

Module 5

1. The following animals may be used in evaluating the toxicity plastic materials based on USP test procedures EXCEPT:
A. Dogs
B. Rabbits
C. Mice
D. None of the above
2. A mechanism for determining and assigning necessary duties to people so they can work together effectively is the:
A. Chart
B. Quality rules
C. Organization
D. Management
3. An establishment which is a registered owner of the drug product, procures the materials and packaging components and
provides the production monograph and quality control standards and procedures is the:
A. Drug importer
B. Drug trader
C. Drug supplier
D. Drug manufacturer
4. The period of stability of a preparation is the time from the date of manufacture until its chemical or biological activity
A. Has deteriorated
B. Is close to 100%
C. Is not less than 90% of the labeled potency
D. Has reached its maximum
5. The color for quarantine sticker is
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. White
D. Red
6. Retention period for finished products should be:

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

18
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 A. At least 2 years after the distribution of the first lot
B. One year after the expiration date of the product
C. At least 3 years after the manufacture is completed
D. At least 1 year after the expiration date of the last lot
7. The required amount of methyl and propyl paraben combinations as preservatives employed in pharmaceutical products is
A. 0.1-0.2%
B. 0.1-0.5%
C. 15-20%
D. 0.002-0.01%
8. The study of the deformation and flow of liquid and semi-solid preparations referred to as
a. Emulsification
b. Suspendability
c. Compatibility study
d. Rheology
9. The IPQC Test that determines the durability of a tablet and its ability to withstand abrasion in handling, packaging and shipment;
USP requires a maximum weight loss of not more than 1% is the
a. Tablet hardness
b. Tablet disintegration
c. Tablet thickness
d. Friability test
10. The test done for parenterals for the presence of bacterial endotoxins is the
a. Sterility test
b. Pyrogen test
c. Rabbit test
d. Limulus Amebocyte Tests

11. The best solvent to use for oral solutions is the

a. Diluted Alcohol, USP
b. Purified Water, USP
c. Propylene Glycol
d. Alcohol, USP
12. The period in which the product remained acceptable for use.
a. Stability
b. Shelf life
c. Accelerated stability studies
d. All of the above
13. A system for ensuring that products are consistently produced and controlled according to quality standards. It is designed to minimize
the risks of errors involved in any pharmaceutical production, which cannot be eliminated through the final testing of the products;
A. First in-First out Policy C. Current Good Manufacturing Practice
Quality Control D. Safety First Policy
14. It refers to any distinctive combination of letters and/or numbers or both, by which the complete history of the manufacture, control,
packaging and distribution of a batch or lot of drug is determined;
A. Drug Registration Number C. Manufacturing Order Number
B. Lot number D. Finishing Order Number
15. Glycerinated gelatin suppositories may be prepared by dissolving the following components in their required proportions:
A) Gelatin (20%), glycerine(70%),suspension of the medication (10%)
B) Gelatin (60%), glycerine(20%),suspension of the medication (20%)
C) Gelatin (20%), glycerine(40%),suspension of the medication (40%)
D) Gelatin (50%), glycerine(30%),suspension of the medication (20%)
E) None of the above

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

19
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
16. It is the process which involves finding the target( receptors or enzymes) that causes or leads to the disease with the use of new
scientific approaches
A) Drug discovery D) drug manufacture
B) Drug development E) All of the above
C) Clinical trials
17. Storage conditions for capsules a. 35-50% RH c. AOTA b. 21-25ºC d. NOTA
18. One part of a slightly soluble material will dissolve in ________ part of solvent
a. 10-30 c. 100-1000 b. 30-100 d. 1000-10000
19. Stoke’s Monsanto tester is used to measure
a. thickness c. hardness b. friability d. disintegration of tablets
20. The most commonly used of determining the particle size of powders and granules is:
a. coulter counter c. microscopy b. sieve method d. none
21. The ff are binders, except a. starch c. bentonite b. acacia d. Cab-O-sil
22. First-order half-life is equal to
A. 1/k
B. K
C. 0693/k
D. 2k+1
E. NOTA
23. The buffer equation is also known as:
A. Young’s equation
B. Charle’s Law
C. Boyle’s Law
D. Stoke’s Law
E. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
24. Sodium chloride equivalents are used to estimate the amount of sodium chloride needed to render a solution isotonic. The
sodium chloride eqiuvalent or “E” value may be defined as the
A. Amount of sodium chloride that is theoretically equivalent to 1 gram of a specific chemical
B. Amount of a specified chemical theoretically equivalent to 1 gram of a specified chemical
C. Milliequivalents of sodium chloride needed to render a solution isotonic
D. Weight of a specified chemical that will make a solution isotonic
E. Percent sodium chloride need to make a solution isotonic
25. This is responsible for the solubility of ionic crystalline substance in polar solvents like water
a. Debye
b. Ion-dipole interaction
c. Ion-induced dipole interaction
d. H-bonds
26. It is value of R (gas constant) when P and V are expressed in dynes/cm2 and cm3 respectively.
A. 0.821 L.atm.mole-1 deg-1
B. 8.3214 x 107 ergs.mole-1deg-1
C. 83.214 x 105 ergs.mole-1deg-1
D. 08.21 L.atm.mole-1deg-1
E. None of the above
27. This is a physical property of systems that is dependent on the number or quantity of particles in solution
A. Additive property D. NOTA
B. Constitutive property E. AOTA
C. Colligative property
28. It is the phenomenon where compounds exists in more than one crystalline and/or amorphous form.
A. Polymorph
B. Polymorphic form

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

20
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 C. Modification
D. Polymorphism
E. None of the above
29. The concentration of solution may be expressed in terms of Normality. Normality is the;
A. Number of moles solute/L of solution
B. Moles of solute/Moles of solute + Moles of solvent
C. Gram-equivalent weights of solute/L of solution
D. Milligram-equivalent weights of solute/L of solution
30. Which of the following is an optical property of colloids?
A. Diffusion C. Brownian motion
B. Tyndall effect D. Viscosity
31. This is the property of crystals which the mesophase also possess characterized as the ability to let light pass through and
divide into two components with different velocities and refractive index.
A. Refraction
B. Polymorphism
C. Isomerism
D. Birefringence
E. Isotropic
32. A solution of sucrose (MW=342) is prepared by dissolving 0.5 g in enough water to make 100 g of solution, the concentration
of the said solution in % by weight is:
A. 1.0 %
B. 0.498 %
C. 0.25 %
D. 2.0 %
E. 2.2 %
33. According to this law, at a definite temperature, the partial pressure component in a liquid mixture is equal to vapor
pressure in the pure state multiplied by the mole fraction of the component in the solution.
A. Henry’s law D.) Stokes law
B. Dalton’s law E.) All of the above
C. Raoult’s law
34. A substance containing two or more donor groups may combined with a metal to form a special type of complex known as:
A. Channel lattice D.) Chelate
B. Clathrates E.) Inclusion
35. How much NaCl is needed to adjust the following prescription to isotonicity?
Rx
Zinc sulphate 1% E=0.15
NaCl
Purified water q.s. 60%
A. 0.60 g D.) 0.45 g
B. 0.54 g E.) 0.50 g
C. 0.75 g
36. The least number of intensive variables that must be fixed to describe the system completely.
A. Number of phases D.) Number of degrees of freedom
B. Number of components E.) None of the above
C. Number of intermediates
37. Kb in the equation of colligative property is also known as:
A. Cryoscopic constant D.) Freezing point constant
B. Dissociation constant E.) All of the above
C. Ebbulioscopic constant
38. A liquid whose viscosity is increase when stress is applied, classified as which of the following:

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

21
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 A. Newtonian flow D.) Pseudoplastic flow
B. Dilatant flow E.) Non-Newtonian flow
C. Plastic Flow
39.TRUE statements regarding HLB system include;
I. Surfactants with high HLB values are hydrophilic
II. Surfactants with low HLB values are lipophilic
III. Spans are hydrophilic surfactants
A. Only I is correct C. I and III are correct
B. I and II are correct D. I, II and III are correct
39. Which of the following is an example of an extensive property of a system
a. Density
b. Pressure
c. Temperature
d. Volume
40. Which gas law states that pressure is inversely proportional to the volume occupied?
A. Boyle’s law D. Ideal Gas law
B. Charle’s law E. NOTA
C. Gay-Lussac’s law
41. The special law on counterfeit drug is known as RA__________
A.7394
B.3720
C.8203
D.5921
E.NOTA ( none of the above )
42. The Board of Pharmacy was created for the implementation of RA 5921. This Board is composed of a chairman and
_______ members.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
43. RA 6425 is the
a. Narcotic Drugs Law c. Revenue Regulation b. Pharmacy Law
d. Dangerous Drug Act of 1972
44. An act to promote, require and ensure the production of an adequate supply, distribution, use and acceptance of drug and
medicines identified by their Generic Names
a. RA 5921 c. RA 6625 b. RA 6425 d. PD 881
45. Counterfeit drugs refers to:
a. product with correct ingredients but not in the amount provided b. product with wrong ingredients c. product with insufficient
quantity of active ingredients d. drugs which is fraudently mislabeled e. AOTA
46. Food Drug Devices and Cosmetics Act: a. R.A. 5921 c. R.A. 6675 b. R.A. 3720 e. R.A. 8203 c. R.A. 6425
47. Senior Citizens Act: a. R.A. 7432 c. R.A. 6675 b. R.A. 3720 e. R.A. 8203 c. R.A. 6425
48. The original copy of the records of prescription of drugs is retained by:
a. physician c. buyer of the drug b. pharmacist who filled it d. a&b
49. A system of words or other system arbitrarily used to represent words: a. secret key c. code b. cipher d. NOTA
50. Dangerous drug prescriptions shall be retained by the pharmacist for a period of:
A. 3 years B. 2 years C. 4 years D. 5 years E. 1 year

Module 6

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

22
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
1. The internationally recommended strategy for the control of tuberculosis is DOTS, which stands for:
a. Directly Observed Short-Term Strategy
b. Directly Observed Treatment Short Course
c. Directly Observable Therapy Short Course
d. Directly Observable Standard Treatment
e. Duration of Observed Treatment Short Course
2. Extreme hypersensitivity to a given protein is manifested by
A. Anaphylactic shock reaction C. Urticaria
B. Immunity D. Itching
3. Constitute health promotion and specific protection
A. Primary prevention C. Secondary prevention
B. Tertiary prevention D. None
4. Which of the following organisms are not eukaryotic?
A. Bacteria C. Molds
B. Yeasts D. Protozoa
5. The spores of which organisms are used as biological indicator of sterilization?
A. Bacillus staerothermophilus C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Salmonella typhi D. Staphylococcus aureus
6. Which of the following sequences reflects the correct order of events in mitosis?
A. Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase
B. Prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
C. Telophase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase
D. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
7. The moist heat of sterilization employing 15 lbs of pressure psi in a temperature of steam at 121°C is called:
A. Autoclaving C. Membrane-filter method
B. Fractional sterilization D. Any of the above
8. The use of biological processes to remedy problems, particularly those caused by pollution:
A. Bioremediation C. Biotechnology
B. Biotransformation D. Biomagnifications
9. Discovered the microbial causes of bacterial infections such as, anthrax and tuberculosis
a. Robert Hooke
b. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
c. Louis Pasteur
d. Robert Koch
e. Joseph Lister
10. The cause of avian influenza A is
a. H5N1 virus
b. H1N1 virus
c. H1N3 virus
d. H3N1 virus
e. HIV
11. Protein coats that protects the nucleic acid of a virus
a. Plasmid
b. Capsid
c. Capsomere
d. Envelope
e. Spike
12. Cause of lyme disease
a. Borrelia burgdorferi

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

23
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 b. Candida albicans
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Limulus polyhemus
e. Treponema pallidum
13. Human immunodeficiency virus targets which cell immune system?
a. CD4+ T helper cell
b. B cell
c. CD8+ B helper cell
d. CD4+ T cytotoxic cell
e. Natural killer cell
14. According to the Center of Disease Control and Prevention, the single most important means of preventing the spread of
nosocomial infection is
a. Education on microbial control
b. Disinfection of hospital instruments and devices
c. Uses of hand gel
d. Handwashing
e. Placing face mask on all infected patients
15. Term for the combination of signs and symptoms that occur together and indicate a particular disease
a. Symptom
b. Syndrome
c. Observation
d. Sequelae
e. Sign
16. Lesions of the oral cavity which manifest as tiny red patches with central white specks in patients infected with Rubeola virus
a. Erythema infectiosum
b. Macular rash
c. Fever blister
d. Koplik’s spot
e. Negri bodies
17. Which of the following is an obligate anaerobe?
a. Micrococcus luteus
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. E. coli
d. Clostridium perfingens
e. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
18. Malnutrition type which is due to deprivation of sufficient quality of protein foods,impaired absorption of protein, or abnormal
losses of protein from the body, which also later results to fatty liver
a. Iodine Deficiency Disorders
b. Marasmus
c. Protein Energy Malnutrition
d. Kwashiorkor
e. Xerophthalmia
19. A national project that involves the voluntary fortification of processed foods
a. Medium-Term Philippine Plan of Action for Nutrition (MTPPAN)
b. Sangkap Pinoy Seal
c. Maternal and Child Health
d. Early Childhood Development Project
e. Safe Motherhood
20. This is probably the only bacterium that grows in the peripheral nervous system
a. Clostridium tetani

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

24
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Mycobacterium leprae
d. Listeria monocytogenes
e. Neisseria meningitidis
21. This refers to the number (usually expressed as percentage) of individuals in a population estimated to be infected with a
particular parasite species at a given time
a. Prevalence
b. Incidence
c. Cumulative prevalence
d. Morbidity
e. NOTA
22. Technique used in detecting eggs with tick shells such as Ascaris and Trichuris, using a mixture of glycerine and malachite
green solution
a. Scotch tape method
b. Kato katz method
c. Perianal swab
d. Direct fecal smear
e. Kato tick method
23. This is also known as the “break bone fever”
A. Dengue fever
B. Yellow fever
C. Hay fever
D. Relapsing fever
24. This is the causative agent of the so called”Leningrad’s curse”
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma
25. This is the most common opportunistic infection among AIDS patients
A. Cryptosporidiosis
B. Isosporosis
C. Pneumonia
D. Toxoplasmosis
26. A tightly closed container of suitable size and design that maintains an atmosphere of low moisture content by means of
appropriate drying agents:
A. Desiccator B. Muffle furnace
C. Oven D. Glass stoppered bottle
27. Nitrogen content determination of foods and pharmaceuticals involves what method?
A. Fajan’s method
B. Gravimetric method
C. Gay-Lussac method
D. Winkler method
E. Kjeldahl method
28. A parameter that checks the homogeneity of the active ingredient in tablets and is usually done by assaying a certain number
of tablets individually:
A. tablet hardness D. Content Uniformity B. Tablet thickness E. Weight variation C. Dissolution
29. Type of chromatography wherein the mobile phase is polar in nature and the stationary phase is nonpolar in nature:
A. Thin layer chromatography B. Ion-exchange chromatography C. Normal
phase chromatography D. Reversed-phase chromatography E. Paper chromatography
30. What does G stand for in silica gel G?

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

25
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 A. Gauss D. Gall B. Germanium E. Ghrelin C.
Gypsum
31. When organic compound is placed on a very high magnetic field, the protons absorb radiant energy and produce characteristics
peaks due to the organic groups associated with the protons:
A. UV spectrophotometry D. HPLC B. Colorimetry E. Polarography C. Nuclear Magnetic
Resonance
32. Assayed by iodimetry:
A. Iodine Tincture for Iodine Content B. Sodium Thioglycollate C. sodium metabisulfite
D. A and B E. A, B and C
33. The current official assay for aspirin tablets employs what method?
A. Residual alkalimetry D. HPLC B. TLC E. bioassay C. UV
spectrophotometry
34. A parameter that denotes the nearness of the experimental dta of the true value:
A. Accuracy D. Ruggedness B. Deviation between trials E. B and C C. Precision
35. Spectrometric method tha measures the amount of light scattered by a suspension:
A. Spectophotometry D. Colorimetry B. Turbidimetry E. Flame photometry C.
Nephelometry
36. Preferred titrant for the analysis of ferrous salts in mixtures that contain excipient or diluents that have a reducing action on
permanganate:
A. Silver nitrate VS B. Ceric sulfate VS
C. Sodium thiosulfate VS D. Disodium EDTA VS E. Hydrochloric acid VS
37. Official methods of demonstrating antimicrobial activity:
A. Turbidimetric assay D. A and C
B. Brine shrimp assay E. B and C
C. Cylinder-plate assay
38. A specific gravity bottle that has a thermometer stopper and a capillary overflow tube:
A. Geissler pycnometer D. Lovi’s beads
B. Pycnometer E. Saccharometer
C. hygrometer
39. This Raw Material Quality Control test entails addition if silver nitrate to a HCl acid standard.
A. Limit test for Chloride
B. limit test for sulfates
C. limit test for sulfides
D. litim test for chlorates
E. limit test for acetates
40. This test classifies whether the suspension is flocculated or deflocculated one:
A. Sedimentation volume
D. Minimum fill
B. Viscosity E. Assay C. Deliverable volume
41. This refers to the contamination of a starting material, intermediate product, or finished product with another starting material or
product during manufacture.
A. mixed-ups D. Scale up B. cross contamination E. AOTA C.
Sanitation
42. This is the heart of a clean room:
A. Barometer D. HEPA filter B. HPLC E. Laminar flow wood C.
oven
43. Acceptable glassware to be used to deliver an exact volume of a certain standard solution to be used for titration:
A. Beaker D. Analytical balance B. Buret E. Volumetric flask C.
Graduated cylinder
44. USP specifies that the standardization of Sodium Hydroxide VS should be done using ______ as standard:

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

26
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
 A. Hydrochloric Acid VS B. Sodium Carbonate C. Tromethamine
D. Potassium Biphthalate E. Potassium Dichromate
45. Use to prevent one element from interfering in the analysis of another element
a. Masking agent
b. Demasking agent
c. Both a and b
d. None of the choices
46. The active fraction of starch which reacts with iodine to form an intense blue color
a. Amylopectin
b. Amylose
c. Glucose
d. Sucrose
47. Sodium and potassium ions are determined by this method which involves the emission of energy of a particular wavelength when
diluted solution of a metallic ion is sprayed into a colorless flame. The intensity of the emitted radiation is determined by a suitable
spectrometer and compared to the standard:
A. Atomic absorption spectroscopy B. Supercritical fluid extraction C. Flame photometry
D. Tandem mass spectrometry E. Refractometry
48. Oxidizing agents are assayed titrimetrically by:
A. Acidimetry D. Iodometry B. Cerimetry E. Iodimetry
C. Miscellaneous redox
49. The operation speed for paddle in a dissolution apparatus is:
A.150 rpm C.100 rpm
B. 200 rpm D. 50 rpm
50. A substance of known purity that is used for determination of the exact soncentration of a volumetric solution:
A. Analyte D. Primary standard B. Blak determination E. Titer value
C. Equivalence factor

PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES

27
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING
PRRS - PHARMACY REVIEW AND RESEARCH SERVICES
28
AUGUST 2018 PLE: FINAL COACHING