HP0-655 Data Protector 5.5 Basics Exam Practice Questions

Exam code: HP0-655
Exam Name: Data Protector 5.5 Basics for Windows

Vendor: H P
Version: 3.00
Part: A
1: After the Media Management Databases are merged from other cells into the Manager of
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Managers database, what is the new name for this database?
A.CMDB (Central Management Database)
B.MoMDB (Manager of Managers Database)

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C.MMMDB (Merged Media Management Database)
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D.CMMDB (Centralized Media Management Database)

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Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
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2: How many Data Protector cells can be managed by a single Manager-of-Managers?

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A.25
B.50
C.100
D.1000
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
3: A single tape device is used in a SAN and configured for multiple Data Protector clients. Which
option causes it to be recognized as a single device, requiring one drive extension license?
http://www.testhope.com
A.Multipath
B.Autopass
C.Direct backup
D.Indirect backup
Correct Answers: A
Explanation:
4: What is the default value of the "Reconnect broken connections" option in the Data Protector
backup specification?
A.All (Control and Data connections)
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B.Control connections only
C.Data connections only

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D.Off (Do not reconnect)
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Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
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5: What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows?

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A.50GB
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B.100GB
C.200GB
D.600GB
Correct Answers: A
Explanation:
6: What is the result of a successful backup session using object mirroring?
A.All backups and mirrored objects are appended to the same media.
B.Mirrored objects are written to a special mirror pool and the backup is written to the specified
media set.
C.All backups and mirrored objects are in the same media pool.
D.One media set contains the backup and additional media sets contain the mirrored objects.
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
7: Which section of the backup specification contains the information about the backup target
drives?
A.objects
B.devices
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C.media pools
D.backup types
Correct Answers: B
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Explanation:
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8: Between which instances is data moved during a disk staging object copy process?
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A.Media Agent and Disk Agent
B.Media Agent and Media Agent

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C.Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent

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D.Backup Session Manager and Media Agent
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
9: What happens to shared logical devices in a SAN environment when you upgrade Data
Protector to version 5.5?
A.Shared logical devices must be deleted prior to the upgrade and then reconfigured as multipath
devices.
B.Shared logical devices are not reconfigured during the upgrade and can be used as before or
reconfigured as multipath devices.
C.Shared logical devices are deleted during the upgrade and must be reconfigured as multipath
devices.
D.Shared logical devices are automatically reconfigured as multipath devices during the upgrade.
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
10: Which CLI command scans specified Data Protector clients and gathers information on SCSI
addresses of drives and robotic controllers connected to the clients in a SAN environment?
A.uma
B.omnisan
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C.sanconfig
D.omniconfigsan
Correct Answers: C
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Explanation:
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11: The Data Protector scheduler allows for scheduling of which entity?
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A.media agent
B.logical device
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C.backup object
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D.backup session
E.backup specification
Correct Answers: E
Explanation:
12: In the Data Protector GUI "Users" context with default setting applied, a user on a remote
system may be configured into one of three roles. What are these roles? Select THREE.
A.admin
B.root
C.guest
D.operator
E.java
F.user
Correct Answers: A D F
13: What can Data Protector use to generate the media label during media initialization?
A.unique number issued by the internal database
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B.serial number of the drive used for initialization
C.barcode label of the media
D.media type
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Correct Answers: C
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Explanation:
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14: What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the
database? Select THREE.
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A.description
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B.filenames
C.mountpoint
D.device
E.rawdisk sections
F.hostname
Correct Answers: A C F
15: Your internal database is inoperable and an automated recovery is to be used. Which command
allows you to perform this task?
A.omnir -autorecover
B.omnidb -autorecover
C.omnisv -autorecover
D.omnidbutil -autorecover
E.omnidbrestore -autorecover
Correct Answers: E
Explanation:
16: By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?
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A.obdb.dat
B.obrindex.dat
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C.obdatafiles.dat
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D.obdbrecovery.dat
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Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
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17: When preparing for internal database recovery, you should regularly backup the internal
database object. What does this object include? Select TWO.
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A.the entire IDB
B.the Cell Manager OS system configuration
C.the Cell Manager DP program directories
D.the pre-exec and post-exec scripts
E.the DP configuration
Correct Answers: A E
18: Which file must you edit to enable Data Protector internal database transaction logging?
A.omnirc.TMPL
B.velocis.ini
C.obrindex.dat
D.global file
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
19: The default installation of Data Protector includes an automatic database purge. This happens
daily at what time?
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A.00:00
B.12:00
C.15:00
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D.22:00
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Correct Answers: B
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Explanation:
20: Where is the file version information stored?

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A.Catalog Database (CDB)

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B.Session Messages Binary Files (SMBF)
C.Detail Catalog Binary Files (DCBF)
D.Media Management Database (MMDB)
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
21: Which information, besides Other, is listed in the System Dynamics report option of the
internal database?
A.size of the IDB extension files
B.growth ratio of IDB filenames
C.number of filenames waiting to be purged
D.number of filenames purged during the last maintenance cycle
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
22: To view a finished session that is no longer displayed in the Data Protector "Monitor" context,
you must view the session in which context?
A.View
B.Internal Database
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C.Reporting
D.Devices and Media

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Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
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23: How can you enable execution tracing for the GUI on Windows and write the results into a file
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named trace.out?
A.xomni -trace 1-99 trace.out

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B.xomni -debug 1-99 -f trace.out

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C.manager -trace 1-99 trace.out
D.manager -debug 1-99 trace.out
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
24: In a Windows environment, which Data Protector service must be running on both the cell
manager and the client?
A.CRS
B.inet
C.MMDB
D.MA
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
25: Which command checks the Data Protector services, the media management database
consistency, and that there is at least one backup of the Data Protector database?
A.omnicheck
B.omnihealth
C.omnidbcheck
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D.omnihealthcheck
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
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26: Which Data Protector disaster recovery option is supported for a cell manager on a Windows
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2003 server?
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A.One Button Disaster Recovery (OBDR)
B.Disk Delivery Disaster Recovery (DDDR)

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C.Microsoft Automated System Recovery (ASR)

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D.Enhanced Automated Disaster Recovery (EADR)
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
27: What is accomplished by invoking the Data Protector Enhanced Automated Disaster Recovery
method?
A.The failed client system is automatically recovered from the latest backup.
B.The cell manager replicates the cell database to a standby system.
C.The cell manager creates the file that is to be used by the CD-burner.
D.The SRD file for a failed client is updated.
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
28: When using One Button Disaster Recovery (OBDR), what is the minimum free space that
should be on a boot partition during backup?
A.100 MB
B.150 MB
C.200 MB
D.250 MB
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Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
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29: Which situation would require disaster recovery procedures rather than a standard restore?
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Select TWO.
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A.client database corruption

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B.client configuration corruption

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C.failure/loss of the client's tape device

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D.inconsistency of the Data Protector IDB
E.corruption/loss of the Data Protector IDB
Correct Answers: B E
30: What communication technique is used for disk agent to media agent data transfer if the agents
do NOT reside on the same host?
A.RMI over LAN
B.remote agents
C.stream sockets
D.pipe mechanisms
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
31: Which Data Protector processes update the catalog information (filenames and file versions) of
the internal database (IDB) during an active backup session? Select TWO.
A.the DA (disk agent) on the Cell Client
B.the CRS (cell request server) on the Cell Manager
C.the RDS (raima database server) on the Cell Manager
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D.the BSM (backup session manager) on the Cell Manager
Correct Answers: C D
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32: Which Data Protector services must be up and running on a Windows Cell Manager? Select
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THREE.
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A.Host Agent service (HA)

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B.Cell Request Server service (CRS)

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C.Remote Connection Server (inet)

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D.Solid Database Server (SDS)
E.Raima Database Server (RDS)
F.Media Management Server (MMS)
Correct Answers: B C E
33: Which backup model allows for efficient tape library sharing between multiple hosts and
allows each host to use the tape library as it would be locally attached?
A.direct backup
B.LAN backup
C.SAN backup
D.split mirror backup
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
34: What must be done when upgrading cluster-aware clients to Data Protector version 5.5?
A.Remotely install the virtual server and reimport the client nodes into the cell.
B.Upgrade each cluster node locally and then reimport the virtual server into the cell.
C.Delete all client nodes from the cell, remotely install the client software and reimport the virtual
server into the cell.
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D.Uninstall the client software on the clients, re-install the new client software locally, and
reimport the clients into the cell.
Correct Answers: B
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Explanation:
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35: Which Data Protector components must be installed manually regardless of the Cell Manager
platform? Select TWO.
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A.NetWare Agents
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B.Windows 2000 Agents

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C.Installation Servers
D.Application Agents
E.Solaris Agents
Correct Answers: A C
36: You have just installed a Windows client manually. Which option in the GUI "Clients" context
can you use to add this client to your cell?
A.Add Client
B.Import Client
C.New Client
D.Secure Client
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
37: You just installed a Data Protector Installation Server on a Windows 2000 server. Which
statement is true?
A.Agents can not be manually installed after the Installation Server.
B.Installation Server can not be installed with Cell Manager.
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C.Installation Server can not be installed with a client.
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D.Agents can not be remotely installed to a Unix client from this Windows Installation Server.
Correct Answers: D
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Explanation:
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38: On a Windows system, which command starts the Data Protector GUI?
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A.xomni.exe
B.manager.exe
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C.omni.exe
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D.omnirc.exe
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
39: It is useful in dynamic environments to perform a backup that uses which object type?
A.file system object
B.client object
C.disk object
D.database object
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
40: Which files are backed up in an incremental backup?
A.files that have only changed attributes
B.files that have been moved from one directory to another
C.files that have a modification time newer than the previous backup time
D.files that have been accessed since the previous backup time
Correct Answers: C
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Explanation:
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41: Where are frequently used backup specifications and characteristics saved?
A.in an object
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B.in a media set
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C.in an Excel file

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D.in a template
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Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
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42: The Data Protector Backup Session Manager (BSM) runs on which system or systems in the
cell?
A.client only
B.cell manager only
C.client and cell manager
D.dedicated installation server
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
43: Files may be open when performing a backup on a Windows host. In the case of registry files
you might want to exclude them from the file system and back them up using which object?
A.Raw
B.Snapshot
C.C:\\ drive
D.Configuration
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
44: Which command starts a backup from the command line?
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A.omnib
B.omnibck
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C.omnimm
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D.omnicellbck
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Correct Answers: A
Explanation:
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45: By default, which user right is granted to the group named user?
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A.Monitor
B.Start Backup
C.Start Restore
D.Media Configuration
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
46: What does the user right "User Configuration" allow?
A.add, delete, and modify assigned groups
B.view, backup, and restore assigned systems
C.create, configure, and delete backups and restores
D.perform installation and updates of assigned systems
Correct Answers: A
Explanation:
47: You are running Data Protector through a firewall. The Cell Manager is installed in the intranet.
Which configuration is supported?
A.the Cell Console located within the DMZ
B.the Manager of Managers Console located within the DMZ
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C.the Disk Agent located within the DMZ
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D.the Disk Agent located within the DMZ and the Media Agent located within the intranet
e.
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
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48: When performing a manual configuration using the command line, you can create a new
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logical device by defining it in a temporary file in the devices directory. How is the Media
Management database updated with this information?
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A.automatically when the device schedule is invoked

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B.with the omnidownload command
C.with the omniupload command
D.with the omniupdate command
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
49: When defining a logical tape library device, the access to a library is split into two paths. What
are the paths? Select TWO.
A.data path
B.SCSI path
C.control path
D.network path
50: You are going to perform an "eject" Logical Device Operation for a tape residing in a library.
When will this operation fail?
A.if all drives are busy
B.if the mailslot is full
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C.if the media is in a free pool
D.if the media is protected
Correct Answers: B
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Explanation:
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51: How can you prevent multiple hosts from simultaneously attempting to utilize a device in one
Data Protector cell?
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A.logical lock
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B.device lock
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C.lock names
D.physical lock
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
52: Which CLI command creates the File Library device?
A.omnifilelib
B.omnifiledev
C.omniupload
D.omnidownload
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
53: What is the format for an Autolabeled tape?
A.MEDIATYPE_LABEL#
B.POOLNAME_LABEL#
C.MEDIATYPE_NUMBER
D.POOLNAME_INCREMENT#
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Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
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54: The file used to identify the vaulting locations used by the GUI is stored in which directory?
e.
A.lib
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B.cell
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C.config
D.media
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E.data_files
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Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
55: What is the default threshold for medium overwrites for linear tapes?
A.250
B.300
C.350
D.400
Correct Answers: A
Explanation:
56: What could be reasons for an unexpected mount request? Select TWO.
A.the tape drive is busy
B.the media is not appendable
C.no previous full backup was run
D.the media is physically write protected
E.the media management database is full
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Correct Answers: B D
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57: To use the same device with different media pools, what must be created?
A.a new media agent

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B.a media specification
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C.backup specification
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D.media rotation policies

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Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
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58: What influences how media are selected for backup?
A.media pools
B.mount request
C.media allocation policy
D.media management database
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
59: Which media pool property allows the media to be formatted (initialized) when it is needed?
A.file
B.strict
C.loose
D.free
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
60: What is the default threshold for available disk space to trigger a Database Space Low event?
A.25 MB
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B.50 MB
C.100 MB
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D.150 MB
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Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
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61: Data Protector provides an event driven notification system. Which notification methods are
available? Select TWO.
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A.filter
B.email
C.paging
D.broadcast
E.store to database
62: How is a disk image restore performed?
A.file-by-file
B.object-by-object
C.block-by-block
D.directory-by-directory
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
63: When using the estore into?option for an object restore, the object will be restored into a
different directory. What is important to know about restoring the object? Select TWO.
A.The subdirectories must already exist.
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B.The subdirectories will be created as needed.
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C.The subdirectories will be appended to the destination path.
e.
D.If not specified, all files will be restored into a single directory relative to the system root (e.g.
c:\\).
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E.If not specified, all files in the subdirectories will be created as sparse files.
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Correct Answers: B C
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64: Which system startup mode must be set on a Windows system to restore the Active Directory
service?
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A.Windows Safe
B.Services Recovery
C.Directory Services Restore
D.Assisted System Recovery
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
65: Your backup strategy runs one full backup per week as well as numerous incremental backups.
Between the full backup and latest incremental backup, several files in a given directory have been
deleted. When using the GUI to restore this directory, which option allows you to skip these files
and only restore to the most recent point in time?
A.restore sparse files
B.move busy files
C.omit deleted files
D.omit unrequired incrementals
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
66: Which command is required to perform an authoritative restore of a Windows Active

Directory after the restore session has finished?
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A.adrutil
B.ntdsutil
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C.omniadr
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D.omnintdutil
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Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
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67: On Windows, from which backup object would you restore the registry?
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A.from the vbfs object
B.from the winfs object
C.from the omnidb object
D.from the configuration object
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
68: Which process or service runs on the Data Protector cell manager and starts backup and
restore sessions?
A.Data Protector Inet
B.Cell Request Server (CRS)
C.Raima Database Server (RDS)
D.Media Management Process (MMD)
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
Part: B
1: Which Data Protector function enables faster restores of data that was backed up to a device
with a concurrency level greater than 1?
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A.disk staging
B.object mirroring
C.demultiplexing of media
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D.copying to different media
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Correct Answers: C
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Explanation:
2: Tapes may be initialized from the Data Protector GUI "Devices & Media" context. Which
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action performs this task?

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A.Initialize
B.Format
C.Import
D.Export
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
3: Which information about SAN devices can Data Protector store internally to enable automatic
discovery of changed SCSI addresses and avoid Windows device persistency problems?
A.type
B.name
C.SCSI ID
D.serial number
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
4: Which section of the backup specification contains the information about the backup target
drives?
A.objects
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B.devices
C.media pools
D.backup types
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Correct Answers: B
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Explanation:
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5: During a backup session with object mirroring to three tape drives, one of the tape media fails.
What is the result?
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A.All subsequent backups fail.

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B.The backup session aborts.
C.A mount request is issued for a new media.
D.Data continues to be written to the working media.
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
6: Data Protector provides simplified access to library management consoles. What does this
mean?
A.Library management is simplified and and can be done without special knowledge.
B.Access to the library management console interface does not require a login password.
C.The library management console interface can automatically be loaded in a web browser.
D.Management of multiple libraries can be performed from a single shared management console.
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
7: When configuring a backup specification, you choose a backup type of ncremental 3? What will
Data Protector do?
A.perform a differential backup based on the last protected full backup
B.perform an incremental backup of files that are newer than 3 weeks
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C.perform a full backup if ncremental 2?does not exist
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D.attempt to find the latest protected backup session with a lower level and will then perform an
incremental backup based on that lower level
e.
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
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8: Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device?
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A.redundant paths
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B.multipath devices
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C.device locking mechanism
D.multiple device connections
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
9: When configuring a file library, a directory structure is created that acts like cartridge slots in a
tape library. What are the files called?
A.file repositories
B.file depots
C.file slots
D.file directories
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
10: Which statement is true regarding shared Windows directories and Data Protector version 5.5
restore?
A.Shared directories are lost during backup and cannot be restored.
B.Shared directories are automatically re-shared after the restore.
C.Shared directories must be manually re-shared after the restore.
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D.Shared directories must be unshared prior to the backup and re-shared after the restore.
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
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11: What is the main purpose of the restore chain consolidation feature in Data Protector?
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A.increased restore speed of concurrently backed up objects

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B.object de-multiplexing to multiple media during the backup process
C.automatic simultaneous disaster recovery of multiple client systems

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D.reduced number of media changes during backup generation restore

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Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
12: How many Data Protector cells can be managed by a single Manager-of-Managers?
A.25
B.50
C.100
D.1000
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
13: What are the names of the configuration files that are created on the cell manager after it is
enabled? Select TWO.
A.mom_cell
B.mom_info
C.mom_config
D.mom_server
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14: Access to the Data Protector Reporting functionality is granted to users in the admin group and
to those with which user right or rights?
A.Reporting, Monitor, and Log

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B.User, Device, and Media
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C.Monitor, Backup, and Restore

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D.Reporting and Notification

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Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
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15: What is required to send an e-mail with the output of a Data Protector report from a Windows
system?
A.Access control list
B.DPReports mailbox
C.Anonymous user account
D.Data Protector mail profile
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
16: What are the main media management protection features?
A.labeling, duplication, and condition monitoring
B.media pool, media usage, and property specifications
C.on-line catalog, media organization, and location tracking
D.logical organization of media, pools, and allocation policies
Correct Answers: A
Explanation:
17: The media in the device is formatted and usable, but it is different from the one specified in
the Prealoc list of the backup specification. What does Data Protector do if the media pool has a
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STRICT policy?
A.issues a mount request
B.continues and sends a message to the log file

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C.scans the media pool for a medium with a loose policy
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D.scans the media pool for the next medium and continues
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Correct Answers: A
Explanation:
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18: Media operations can be divided into two categories: pool operations and tape operations.
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Which operation is valid for media pools?
A.copy
B.export
C.format
D.recycle
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
19: What is a media pool?
A.a collection of media of the same age
B.a logical collection of media that belong together
C.a concept that enables faster backup and restore
D.a physical collection of media that is used by the same device
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
20: When performing media operations with Data Protector, the process of aulting?is used as a
further means of protection. What is the purpose of aulting locations?
A.to provide information about the media condition
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B.to provide information about all media currently mounted to tape drives
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C.to provide additional information about the media location within a tape library
e.
D.to provide additional information about the off-site location of media exported from a library
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Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
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21: What could be reasons for an unexpected mount request? Select TWO.
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A.the tape drive is busy

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B.the media is not appendable
C.no previous full backup was run
D.the media is physically write protected
E.the media management database is full
22: How do you change the media type of a pool after creating it?
A.Delete the pool and recreate it.
B.Use the GUI to rename the pool.
C.Delete the media type and rename it.
D.Change the usage policy for the media type within the pool.
Correct Answers: A
Explanation:
23: Which command can be used to check if the inet service is up and running on a member of the
Data Protector cell?
A.arp -a
B.onmistat
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C.omnisv -status
D.telnet <hostname> 5555

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e.
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
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24: If you experience problems with tape library devices, which Data Protector command can be
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used to check the library operations?
A.uma
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B.omnihealthcheck
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C.chgr-debug
D.ioscan
Correct Answers: A
Explanation:
25: On a Data Protector Cell Manager, which command automatically and periodically checks the
status of the Data Protector services?
A.omnisv
B.omnimm
C.dbcheck
D.omnihealthcheck
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
26: Assuming a default configuration, what is required to perform reporting and notification from
a client system? Select TWO.
A.user rights
B.admin rights
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C.user interface
D.operator rights
E.reporting agent
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e.
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27: What is the default threshold for available disk space to trigger a Database Space Low event?
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A.25 MB
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B.50 MB
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C.100 MB
D.150 MB
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
28: Click the Task button. Show the general installation sequence for Data Protector by arranging
the panels in the proper order.
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Correct Answers:
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p e.
ho
st
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29: Which installation tool is used to install the Data Protector Cell Manager on Windows?
A.Microsoft Installer
B.Omnisetup
C.Install script
D.swinstall
Correct Answers: A
Explanation:
30: Which license type is usually included with the Data Protector CD?
A.Evaluation 30 days
B.Instant On 60 days
C.Evaluation 120 days
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D.Permanent
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
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e.
31: On a Windows system, which command starts the Data Protector GUI?
p
A.xomni.exe
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B.manager.exe
C.omni.exe
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D.omnirc.exe
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Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
32: What must first be done on a Windows NT cell manager before upgrading Data Protector to
version 5.5?
A.Ensure that a Windows installation server is installed.
B.Ensure the current Data Protector version is at the highest patch level.
C.Install the latest Windows NT service pack.
D.Upgrade Windows NT to a higher Windows version.
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
33: What is the default option for Windows Active Directory restore?
A.Primary
B.Overwrite
C.Authoritative
D.Nonauthoritative
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
m
34: What is the advantage of a Data Protector session restore?
A.The database will not be used.

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e.
B.It is fast since it is restoring only whole volumes.
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C.All objects from a backup can be restored together.

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D.It does not require any control as it is restoring everything.
Correct Answers: C
st
Explanation:
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35: The file demo.txt in the directory tree D:\demouser was created on January 4, 2003. It was
modified on January 10, 2003. A full backup took place on January 5, 2003, followed by
incrementals on January 6, 7 and 8. When using the estore version?option within the GUI, how
many versions will be displayed?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Correct Answers: A
Explanation:
36: The Data Protector Restore Session Manager (RSM) runs on which system or systems in the
cell?
A.client only
B.client and cell manager
C.cell manager only
D.dedicated installation server
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
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37: You use the "No Overwrite" option in restoring your system and the following file and
directory structure exists:
Directory_1
File_1
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e.
Directory_2
File_2
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If File_1 and File_2 are deleted and a restore is performed selecting the contents of Directory_1
for restore, what will be restored?
ho
A.File_1
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B.File_1, File_2
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C.File_1, Directory_2, File_2
D.Directory_1, File_1, Directory_2, File_2
Correct Answers: A
Explanation:
38: The file demo.txt in the directory tree D:\demouser was created on January 4, 2003. It was
modified on January 10, 2003. A full backup took place on January 5, 2003, followed by
incrementals on January 6, 7 and 8. When browsing the internal database context, how many
sessions will be available?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
39: To be able to perform a parallel restore, what must be greater than one during the backup?
A.number of tape devices
B.device concurrency
C.media agents
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D.available network interfaces
E.session managers
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e.
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
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40: What is the minimum number of obsolete filenames that must exist on a Data Protector client
ho
to initiate purging from the internal database?
A.100,000
st
B.200,000
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C.500,000
D.1,000,000
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
41: The Media Management Database (MMDB) and Catalog Database (CDB) are implemented
using an embedded database consisting of tablespaces. Which method is used to record changes to
the MMDB and CDB?
A.binary files
B.direct access
C.transaction logs
D.session messages
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
42: When might the internal database (IDB) recovery be necessary? Select TWO.
A.omnihealthcheck reports any kind of error
B.omnisv reports CRS and RDS to be non-functional
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C.omnidbcheck reports major corruption to some parts of the database
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D.omnidbcheck reports minor corruption to some parts of the database
E.omnidbcheck reports critical corruption to some parts of the database

e.
Correct Answers: C E
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43: Where is the file version information stored?

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A.Catalog Database (CDB)

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B.Session Messages Binary Files (SMBF)

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C.Detail Catalog Binary Files (DCBF)
D.Media Management Database (MMDB)
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
44: Which file do you edit to specify the location of an additional copy of the IDB recovery file?
A.velocis.ini
B.obrindex.dat
C.global file
D.omnirc.TMPL
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
45: When a Data Protector Cell Manager is inoperable due to critical database corruption, you
have to recover the internal database object. The information about the tape containing the most
recent internal database object cannot be accessed. How can you retrieve this information most
efficiently?
A.import catalogs of all tapes in the cell
B.access the media.dat file in the MMDB
C.access the media.log file in the log directory
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D.access the transaction log files and identify the proper tape
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
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e.
46: What are the dominating factors when you predict the disk space required for the transaction
p
logs of the internal database?

ho
A.total number of daily backup sessions and used devices
B.number of new filenames being backed up and total backup activities

st
C.total number of filenames and file versions in the cell

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D.amount of data changes and compression ratio
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
47: What does the user right "Clients Configuration" allow?
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
48: What does the user right "User Configuration" allow?
Correct Answers: A
m
Explanation:
co
49: What is the name of the parameter that can be added to the omnirc file to control the dynamic
listening ports used by Data Protector in an individual client system?
e.
A.DP_PORT_SPEC
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B.DPPORTRANGE
ho
C.OB2PORTRANGE
D.DP_PORT_RANGE
st
Correct Answers: C
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Explanation:
50: To verify the logical device configuation using the GUI; load a tape into the drive, then
right-click on the created drive to display the pop-up menu. From this menu, which option do you
select to verify the device operations?
A.eject medium
B.scan medium
C.check media state
D.verify tape
E.confirm mount request
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
51: What is included in a Logical Device configuration? Select TWO.
A.device options
B.overwrite protection levels
C.physical device properties
D.media pool characteristics
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E.automated media operations
co
52: A tape library with two drives is connected to two hosts (host A and host B) using SCSI. Each
e.
host is accessing one drive through a dedicated SCSI connection. Host B also has access to the
robotics interface. Which statement is true in this configuration?
p
A.This configuration is not possible in a SCSI environment because all hosts need physical access
ho
to the robotics controller.
B.Host A will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations for
st
the local drive.

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C.Host B will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations.
D.Both hosts A and B will require a "direct library" configuration to allow shared network control
of the robotics.
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
53: The Data Protector tape format is comprised of which sections?
A.File Mark, Data Blocks, and End of Data
B.Segments, File Mark, and Catalog Information
C.Tape Header, Media Label, and Fast Tape Positioning
D.Tape Header, Data Segments, and Catalog Information
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
54: Which media agent program can be used for interactively sending SCSI commands to a tape
library?
A.lma
B.bma
C.uma
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D.cma
E.mma
Correct Answers: C
co
e.
Explanation:
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55: On a Windows Cell Manager, which process runs as an application process and NOT as a
service?
ho
A.Cell Request Server (CRS)

st
B.Media Management Daemon (MMD)

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C.Raima Database Server (RDS)
D.Remote Connection Server (inet)
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
56: Which Data Protector process controls an active backup session?
A.the DA (disk agent) on the Cell Client
B.the MA (media agent) on the Cell Client
C.the CRS (cell request server) on the Cell Manager
D.the BSM (backup session manager) on the Cell Manager
Correct Answers: D
Explanation:
57: During initial installation, which tool helps predict future Data Protector internal database
(IDB) size?
A.capacity forecast report
B.media management report
C.capacity planning spreadsheet
D.database growth calculator
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Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
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58: Which backups are supported by Data Protector? Select THREE.
p e.
A.Virtual backup
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B.NDMP backup
C.Direct SAN backup

st
D.Split media backup

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E.Online application backup
Correct Answers: B C E
59: What may happen if Data Protector CANNOT find a protected version of the object on which
the incremental backup is to be based?
A.The backup will fail.
B.A mount request will be issued.
C.Data Protector will start a full backup.
D.Data Protector will continue with incremental 1.
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
60: Which steps are performed when backup preview is executed? Select TWO.
A.writes test data to the tape
B.starts the disk agent and media agent
C.performs a "dummy run" of the backup
D.writes session information to the database
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E.connects the disk agent to the media agent
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61: Where are file system and host backup specifications stored?
e.
A.c:\Program Files\Omniback\datalists
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B.c:\Program Files\Omniback\backuplists
ho
C.c:\Program Files\Omniback\Config\datalists
st
D.c:\Program Files\Omniback\Config\barlists
te
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
62: When configuring a backup, when does Static Device Allocation occur?
A.when the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device
B.when each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific logical device
C.when each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device
D.when several objects defined in the backup specification are targeted at several logical devices
Correct Answers: B
Explanation:
63: The object option "Display Statistics" is turned on in the GUI while configuring and running a
backup. What does it show in addition to standard messaging?
A.megabytes per hour for each object
B.object detail retained for a specific date
C.three levels of detail on files and directories
D.the number of files handled during a backup session
Correct Answers: A
Explanation:
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64: When backing up a Windows system, Data Protector supports which object types? Select
TWO.
A.client
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e.
B.NetWare
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C.file system - HFS

ho
D.file system - VxFS

st
E.file system - NTFS

te
Correct Answers: A E
65: To create the One Button Disaster Recovery (OBDR) backup specification, a media pool must
be created for DDS or LTO media with which policies? Select TWO.
A.strict allocation policy
B.loose allocation policy
C.appendable usage policy
D.non-appendable usage policy
66: When Data Protector is integrated into the Microsoft Automated System Recovery (ASR)
process, a set of floppy disks must be created. What is the name of the file that resides on floppy
disk 1 that must be updated to automatically recover a client?
A.recovery.asr
B.recovery.iso
C.recovery.srd
D.recovery.dat
Correct Answers: C
Explanation:
m
67: What is the command that can be used in all Data Protector disaster recovery scenarios in
Windows?
A.omnidr.exe
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e.
B.omniutil.exe
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C.omnisrd.exe
ho
D.omniofflr.exe
st
Correct Answers: A
Explanation:
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68: Regarding Disaster Recovery, what information does the Phase 1 start-up file (P1S) contain?
A.information on how to format and install all disks within a system
B.information about the logical tape device
C.information about system registry
D.information on drivers and software to be loaded
Correct Answers: A
Explanation:

HP0-655 Data Protector 5.5 Basics Exam Practice Questions

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HP0-655 Data Protector 5.5 Basics Exam Practice Questions

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Exam code: HP0-655

Exam Name: Data Protector 5.5 Basics for Windows

A.CMDB (Central Management Database)

B.MoMDB (Manager of Managers Database)

D.CMMDB (Centralized Media Management Database)

2: How many Data Protector cells can be managed by a single Manager-of-Managers?

A.All (Control and Data connections)

C.Data connections only

5: What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows?

6: What is the result of a successful backup session using object mirroring?

A.Media Agent and Disk Agent

B.Media Agent and Media Agent

C.Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent

D.Backup Session Manager and Media Agent

A.unique number issued by the internal database

C.barcode label of the media

A.the entire IDB

B.the Cell Manager OS system configuration

C.the Cell Manager DP program directories

D.the pre-exec and post-exec scripts

20: Where is the file version information stored?

A.Catalog Database (CDB)

B.Session Messages Binary Files (SMBF)

C.Detail Catalog Binary Files (DCBF)

D.Media Management Database (MMDB)

A.size of the IDB extension files

C.number of filenames waiting to be purged

D.number of filenames purged during the last maintenance cycle

D.Devices and Media

A.xomni -trace 1-99 trace.out

B.xomni -debug 1-99 -f trace.out

C.manager -trace 1-99 trace.out

D.manager -debug 1-99 trace.out

A.One Button Disaster Recovery (OBDR)

B.Disk Delivery Disaster Recovery (DDDR)

C.Microsoft Automated System Recovery (ASR)

D.Enhanced Automated Disaster Recovery (EADR)

B.The cell manager replicates the cell database to a standby system.

A.client database corruption

B.client configuration corruption

C.failure/loss of the client's tape device

D.inconsistency of the Data Protector IDB

E.corruption/loss of the Data Protector IDB

A.RMI over LAN

A.the DA (disk agent) on the Cell Client

B.the CRS (cell request server) on the Cell Manager

C.the RDS (raima database server) on the Cell Manager

A.Host Agent service (HA)

B.Cell Request Server service (CRS)

C.Remote Connection Server (inet)

D.Solid Database Server (SDS)

E.Raima Database Server (RDS)

F.Media Management Server (MMS)

D.split mirror backup

B.Windows 2000 Agents

A.Agents can not be manually installed after the Installation Server.

B.Installation Server can not be installed with Cell Manager.

A.file system object

40: Which files are backed up in an incremental backup?

A.files that have only changed attributes

B.files that have been moved from one directory to another

C.in an Excel file