SmartCAT-10609

Verbal Ability and Reading comprehension

Instructions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of

questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Any discussion of how to treat Parkinsonism is sure to be problematic. To begin with,

Parkinsonism, a neurological condition that impairs an individual‘s ability to interact with
others, is a wide-ranging spectrum disorder. Some high-level idiopathic hold jobs and
have families. Others are almost incapable of communicating or otherwise interacting
with the world. Between these extremes lie individuals with a variety of symptoms. Some
can communicate, but have difficulty differentiating between a trivial comment and an
important point. Others cannot stand to be touched, or might feel a gentle touch as
hurtful. As there is no nationwide agreement on the classification of different levels of
Parkinsonism, a person considered to have high-level Parkinsonism (sometimes called
Dyskinesia Syndrome) could move to a state where he or she is deemed neurotypical—
that is, not idiopathic at all.

The main motor symptoms are collectively called Parkinsonism, or a

"parkinsonian syndrome". Parkinson's disease is often defined as
a parkinsonian syndrome that is idiopathic (having no known cause), although some
atypical cases have a genetic origin. Many risk and protective factors have been
investigated: the clearest evidence is for an increased risk of PD in people exposed to
certain pesticides and a reduced risk in tobacco smokers. The pathology of the disease is
characterized by the accumulation of a protein called alpha-synuclein into inclusions
called Lewy bodies in neurons, and from insufficient formation and activity of dopamine
produced in certain neurons within parts of the midbrain. Lewy bodies are the
pathological hallmark of the idiopathic disorder, and the distribution of the Lewy bodies
throughout the Parkinsonian brain varies from one individual to another. The anatomical
distribution of the Lewy bodies is often directly related to the expression and degree of
the clinical symptoms of each individual. Diagnosis of typical cases is mainly based on
symptoms, with tests such as neuroimaging being used for confirmation.

Not knowing what causes Parkinsonism also complicates any consideration of its
treatment, though genetic research has proven promising in this regard. A region of
chromosome 1 has been associated with Parkinsonism, as has a region of chromosome 3
that contains the GAT1 gene and the AIBX gene. The GAT1 gene is involved in
transmitting messages between brain cells, and the AIBX gene appears to help the early
brain develop. Environmental factors, including viral infections and exposure
to environmental chemicals, continue to be investigated as well. There has also been
research into the possibility of a link between Parkinsonism and certain vaccines. None of
these possible causes has proven conclusive, but none has been ruled out, either. Finally,
many idiopathic reject the premise that they need to be ―cured‖ at all. These people, who
prefer the term ―idiopathic‖ to ―people with Parkinsonism,‖ believe that eradicating their
Parkinsonism would wipe out something central to their personalities. Many are opposed
to a treatment known as Applied Behavioral Analysis (ABA), arguing that this is a
potentially traumatic process that only teaches idiopathic to imitate
certain neurotypical behavior. Some in the idiopathic community are also critical
of prolepotentic drugs, which can suppress certain behaviors, but which, the critics say,
are overprescribed. With so much controversy regarding the nature of this complicated
condition, it is unlikely that any agreement as to its proper treatment, or whether it should
be treated at all, will be imminent.

The disease is named after the English doctor James Parkinson, who published the first
detailed description in An Essay on the Shaking Palsy in 1817.[1] Several major
organizations promote research and improvement of quality of life of those with the
disease and their families. Public awareness campaigns include Parkinson's disease day
(on the birthday of James Parkinson, 11 April) and the use of a red tulip as the symbol of
the disease. People with parkinsonism who have increased the public's awareness of the
condition include actor Michael J. Fox, Olympic cyclist Davis Phinney, and professional
boxer Muhammad Ali. Parkinson's not only affects humans, but other primates as well,
which have often been used in researching the disease and testing approaches to its
treatment

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to _______.

A) provide a summary of the range of treatments available for Parkinsonism
B) give a general description of the symptoms and possible causes of Parkinsonism
show that idiopathic are not in agreement as to how to treat their condition, or
C)
whether to treat it at all
D) present an overview of the difficulties involved with treating Parkinsonism

2. According to the passage, an idiopathic individual _______.

A) might have developed the condition through exposure to a vaccine
B) is symptomatically unlike an individual with Dyskinesia Syndrome
givenprolepotentic drugs stands a better chance of controlling his or her symptoms
C)
than an individual treated with ABA
 who is able to communicate with some proficiency would prefer being called
D)
―idiopathic‖ not ―a person with Parkinsonism‖
3. It can be inferred that individuals who prefer to be called ―idiopathic‖ rather than
―people with Parkinsonism‖
A) are likely to have Dyskinesia Syndrome
are skeptical that altering someone‘s GAT1 gene would have any meaningful effect
B)
on their Parkinsonism
would not be in favor of genetic manipulation as a way to eliminate their
C)
Parkinsonism
D) are able to communicate verbally with relative ease
4. According to the passage, brain development
in toddlers _______.
A) is largely determined by a region of chromosome 1
B) can be affected by environmental chemicals
C) is aided by the AIBX gene
D) can be damaged by an over prescription of prolepotentic drugs

Instructions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of

questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Anchialine cave frescos are frescos found on Anchialine cave walls and ceilings, and
especially those of prehistoric origin, which date back to some 40,000 years ago in both
Asia and Europe. The exact purpose of the Paleolithic Anchialine cave frescos is not
known. Evidence suggests that they were not merely decorations of living areas since
the Anchialine caves in which they have been found do not have signs of ongoing
habitation. They are also often located in areas of Anchialine caves that are not easily
accessible. Some theories hold thatAnchialine cave frescos may have been a way of
communicating with others, while other theories ascribe a religious or ceremonial
purpose to them. The frescos are remarkably similar around the world, with animals
being common subjects that give the most impressive images. Humans mainly appear as
images of hands, mostly hand stencils made by blowing pigment on a hand held to the
wall.

Archaeologists working in two recently discovered limestone Anchialine caves in

Sulawesi, Indonesia have found a flabbergasting collection of 41 frescos estimated to be
6,000 to 12,000 years old. The frescos are unusual in their medium, manner of display,
and subject matter. These are not simply wall or ceiling frescos. Stones—some as small
as notebooks, some as large as doors—have been chipped and otherwise shaped to form
rough canvases on which are painted individual works. Some of the pieces are stacked,
while others are arranged upright in an overlapping pattern so that one can ―flip through‖
the smaller pieces in the collection with relative ease. Hunters, warriors, and hunted
animals, the typical subjects of Anchialine cave art, are largely absent from these
works. Instead, domestic scenes are represented, including food preparations, family
meals, and recreational activities.

Though no tools have been found in the area, the fineness of the lines suggests the use of
sophisticated animal-hair brushes. Gypsum, manganese, malachite, and other minerals
were painstakingly ground and mixed with binding materials such as vegetable and
animal oils to form the paints. In some cases, the artist or artists (Dr. Abigayle Mendoza
of the International Speleologist Association has studied the frescos and believes that
stylistic similarities and differences point to the work of three artists) have removed the
patina surrounding the intended figures, producing a negative image. One probable
reason for the high level of artistry is that the frescos may have been produced in the
open air, where the light was good, and then brought into the Anchialine cave.

However, it is the purpose of the frescos that is the most curious. Conventional wisdom
holds that the hunting scenes found in Anchialine cave art were meant to provide
supernatural aid during actual hunts, or that figures and designs were painted by
prehistoric shamans as a way of drawing power from the Anchialine cave itself. It may
also be that the scenes of domestic life are, like representations of hunting, meant to
ensure good luck. Though facial features are rarely distinct, the frescos do suggest
contentedness, or at least an absence of conflict. Most tantalizingly, it may be that the
collection represents a sort of family tree. A number of the frescos appear to feature some
of the same people, and it is tempting to think of these works as family portraits. Indeed,
one figure, seen as a child with a mark on its forehead—the stone has actually been
chipped away to represent the mark—is shown in other frescos as a young person and as
an adult with the same mark.

5. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as an unusual feature of the

Sulawesi stone frescos?
A) The high level of artistry
B) The age of the frescos
C) The range in the size of the figures in the painting
D) The overlapping presentation of the pieces
6. The author of the passage is especially interested in
_______.
A) the possibility that the frescos trace the lineage of a family
B) the manner in which the paints were made
C) the stylistic differences exhibited in the frescos
D) the location of the Anchialine caves in which the stone frescos were discovered
7. The primary purpose of the passage is to
_______.
present an overview of stone frescos and show how they differ from
A)
most Anchialine cave frescos
offer evidence that the stone frescos found in Sulawesi most likely represent a family
B)
tree
detail some of the reasons that the discovery of the stone frescos is of considerable
C)
interest
D) persuade the reader of the great skill that went into the creation of the stone frescos
8. Which of the following would be the most likely description of the ‗shamans‘
mentioned in the last para?
A) One who communicates with spirits and conducts rituals
B) One who represents and maintains the history of a tribe
C) Hereditary leader of a tribe
D) One who specializes in the arts
Instructions for questions 9 to 12:

TWO out of three Greek workers either understate their earnings or fail to disclose them
to the taxman altogether, according to Stephen Hall, an adviser to the Bank of Greece.
Last year an estimated 24% of all economic activity in Greece went undeclared to evade
tax and regulation, well above the European average of 19%. The IMF, which was in
Athens this week to check up on Greece‘s public accounts, would like to bring more of
this activity into the sunlight, to boost government revenues. After a calamitous recession
in which the economy shrank by 30%, government debt now stands at 174% of GDP; the
budget deficit last year was almost 13% of GDP. But there is a risk that an overly
aggressive tax-raising drive will compound the problem.

Greeks, even more than their counterparts elsewhere, feel that their taxes are wasted. One
study, using data from the 1990s, put Greece‘s ―tax morale‖ fourth-lowest of 26
countries. Greece‘s public sector is more corrupt than that of any other EU state,
according to Transparency International, a pressure group. Satisfaction with public
services is extremely low. No wonder, then, that many Greeks have few qualms about not
paying their share. Greece also has high self-employment, which tends to lead to bigger
underground economies. It is relatively easy for those working for themselves to evade
income tax and social-security contributions. Greeks have plenty of incentive to do so:
government levies account for 43% of labour costs, compared with the rich-country
average of 26%.

A big shadow economy, naturally, crimps government revenue. Each percentage-point

increases in the underground economy‘s share of GDP lifts the debt-to-GDP ratio by 0.4
percentage points, according to a recent study of 11 European countries. Before Greece
joined the euro, it was able to reduce its debts through high inflation. With monetary
policy now in the hands of the European Central Bank, that option is no longer available:
inflation has been negative for more than a year. Lots of shady activity may also be bad
for growth. Shadowy firms find it hard to borrow, which limits their productivity.
According to Francesco Pappada of the Einaudi Institute of Economics and Finance many
small firms in Greece deliberately avoid taking out loans because it involves being more
transparent. Unproductive firms pay low wages.

The IMF wants Greece to learn from Peru, which in the 1990s tackled tax evasion by
creating a small, well-trained task force. Eliminating the many exemptions and
loopholes in its labyrinthine tax system will help, by making it possible to lower rates,
thereby reducing the incentive to cheat. On October 6th the government unveiled a
budget that included tax cuts. Greece may also refine its definition of tax fraud in an
attempt to catch more evaders. But the taxmen must tread with care. Over 25% of Greeks
are officially unemployed; the shadow economy is a lifeline to many of them, notes
Friedrich Schneider of Johannes Kepler University. Two-thirds of shadow earnings are
spent almost immediately at businesses that do pay tax. Too severe a crackdown on tax
evasion might put all that in jeopardy. Take a law passed in 2011 but yet to be
implemented, which mandates that certain workers use time clocks to monitor their
working hours. It may simply discourage bosses from hiring, thus bringing in little
revenue while lowering incomes.

Greece should instead try to coax shadowy businesses into the open. Mr Schneider wants
to see short-term tax exemptions for those who work a second job at
night. MrPappada wants Greece to offer tax breaks to small businesses that take out
loans. Both schemes would encourage workers and firms to register with the government,
making it easier to shrink the shadow economy over time. The best cure, though, would
be a sustained economic expansion. According to the European Commission, Greece will
grow by 0.6% this year and 2.9% next. Unemployment in the second quarter of 2014 was
3.6% lower than a year before. As unemployment falls and wages rise, the urge to go
underground will wane. At any rate, that is what happened from 1993 to 2003, when
growth averaged 2.5% a year and the shadow economy shrank by a third.

9. Which of the following is NOT a reason for the tendency of Greeks to avoid taxes?
A) A large number of Greeks feel that their government is corrupt and inefficient
B) Greece has a lower share of organized employment where tax monitoring is higher.
C) Greece has higher levels of taxation as compared to richer countries
D) The Income levels of Greeks are lower than in neighboring countries
10. What does the IMF recommend for the Greek government?
A) A severe crackdown on tax evaders to set a precedent
B) Reducing Tax rates while eliminating exemptions
C) Higher economic growth, which will increase tax compliance
D) A task force to focus exclusively on the self employed tax evaders
11. What could be the reason behind the non-implementation of the 2011 Law?
A) It faced a strong resistance from Trade Unions
Fear that an attempt to bring unregistered businesses into tax net may lead to loss of
B)
employment.
While the official unemployment figure was 25%, many of them were actually
C)
employed in the underground economy
D) More than one of the above
12. Why is the growth of the shadow economy bad for the economy?
A) Unregistered firms find it difficult to get credit for expansion
B) Employees working in unregistered firms are unproductive
C) Firms and employees in the shadow economy don't pay taxes
D) More than one of the above

Instructions for questions 13-18: The passage given below is followed by a set of
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Could the hottest trend in investment management be the greatest danger to financial
stability? Exchange-traded funds (ETFs)—pooled portfolios of assets that trade
on stockmarkets, usually linked to an index—have grown from a total value of $416
billion in 2005 to $2.5 trillion today. Their rapid growth has left regulators worrying
about what might happen if the money that has flowed into ETFs decides to flow out
again. Investors can sell their holdings in ETFs throughout the day, but the assets of some
ETFs may be hard to sell immediately. One obvious area is the corporate-bond market,
where banks have retreated from trading, and so hold less inventory. There are some
46,000 separate bond issues, not all of which will find ready buyers during a rout. In
other words, there is a potential mismatch between the liquidity of the funds and the
liquidity of the assets they own. A stampede out of ETFs might cause a fire sale of assets
that would ripple through the financial system.

To understand ETFs fully you need to know about their antecedents. They are the
crossbred offspring of two earlier types of pooled portfolios: mutual funds (or unit trusts)
and investment trusts. From the former, ETFs have inherited an open-ended structure,
meaning that the size of the fund rises and falls in line with demand from investors. From
the latter, ETFs have inherited the ability to be traded between investors on a stock
exchange.

An ETF is created by a fund-management company, which chooses which index to

follow and markets the fund to clients. If the index is liquid enough—a
leading stockmarket, say—the manager might replicate it, buying all the stocks or bonds
and weighting them to match the proportions in the benchmark. More commonly, the
manager will choose a representative sample of securities intended to track the index, and
adjust that sample over time to try to keep in sync with the benchmark. Almost as
important for the ETF are the authorised participants, or APs, which act as marketmakers.
The APs, most of which are banks, help to keep the share price of the ETF close to the
value of the underlying assets. Imagine that one big investor in an ETF with, say, a 10%
stake, wanted to sell its holding in a single day. There might not be ready buyers for such
a large holding, causing the ETF to fall to a price below the value of the assets it owns.
To avoid this, the APs act to balance supply and demand. If the ETF is expanding (more
people want to buy shares than to sell), then the AP puts in an order to the fund manager
for a block of new shares, dubbed creation units, in the ETF. In return, it transfers a
bundle of securities, based on the index the fund is tracking, to the manager (this
bundle is known as the creation basket). If the ETF is shrinking (more people want to sell
than to buy), then the AP sells creation units to the fund manager and receives in return a
bundle of securities known as the ―redemption basket‖. The AP can also keep the price of
the fund in line with its assets through arbitrage. The asset value of the ETF is published
on a regular basis during the day; if the price of the ETF is higher than its underlying
assets, then the AP (or any big investor) can sell ETF shares and buy the underlying
assets. If the price is lower, they can buy ETF shares and sell the assets.
So how might this process go wrong? One obvious danger might be the role of the APs.
If they fail to make a market in the security, then the price could get out of kilter with the
asset value of the fund. The industry says that it is well protected against such events.
First, it does not depend on a single market maker or AP; BlackRock says it uses more
than 40 across its range of funds. Second, most ETF trades in America are conducted
through a clearinghouse such as the National Securities Clearing Corporation (NSCC)
which will stand behind the deal if the AP fails. Third, the vast majority of trades occur
between stockmarket investors, not between the ETF manager and an AP. An analysis by
the Investment Company Institute, an industry lobby group, found that only 9% of all
trades were creations and redemptions for equity ETFs and 19% for bond funds. Even for
the bond funds, daily creations and redemptions were just 0.34% of asset value.

Even in the case of corporate-bond funds, it is hard to see how things could go badly
wrong. The total assets of corporate-bond ETFs are $141 billion, compared with annual
bond issuance of $3.2 trillion in 2013. There will doubtless be individual ETFs that get
into trouble in the future; there will probably be scandals. Some will suffer spectacular
falls in value, just as technology funds plunged in the early 2000s. But that does not make
them a systemic threat.

13. Why is there a concern that ETF‘s of corporate bonds may be vulnerable to market
collapse?
A) Unlike Stock markets corporate bonds are not traded throughout the day.
The demand for corporate bonds fluctuates based on the financial performance of the
B)
corporate entity
C) Some corporate bonds may not find buyers when markets turn bearish
D) Corporate bonds are not sought after by individual investors
14. In the context of ETF‘s when does the AP get an arbitrage opportunity?
A) When large investors make big purchases or sale of ETF shares
B) When there is a liquidity mismatch funds and the assets owned
C) When individual investors exit ETFs in large numbers
When there is a price differential between the ETF share price and the value of the
D)
assets that it represents
15. Which of the following is NOT a reason cited for the stability of ETFs?
A) The share of trades made by the AP out of total trades for ETFs is quite small
B) The NSSC regulates the performance of ETFs and Aps
 C) The share of single AP in the total creation and redemptions is not large
The share of ETF‘s corporate bond assets is a small portion of total corporate bonds
D)
issued
16. What is the basic difference between ETFs and Mutual funds?
A) Unlike mutual funds ETFs are traded on stock exchanges
B) Mutual funds do not invest in corporate bonds
C) Mutual funds have a fixed fund size based on the assets they hold
D) Daily creation and redemption figures are low for ETFs
17. Why, according to the passage, is there is a potential mismatch between the liquidity
of the funds and the liquidity of the assets they own
Investors in ETFs have a short-term horizon while Corporate Bonds have a ling term
A)
horizon
The risk involved Corporate bonds depends on the financial health of the issuing
B)
Corporate
ETF Investors can sell their holdings at any time, while some of the underlying assets
C)
like Corporate bonds may not find buyers immediately.
D) There are no takers for some of the Corporate bonds
18. Which of the following best explains the role played by AP‘s for ETFs?
A) They are buyers of last resort
B) They issue corporate bonds to the ETF‘s
C) They promise to purchase the underlying assets in case there is no buyer
D) They provide stability to the ETF market by balancing demand and supply for ETF‘s

Instructions for questions 19-24: The passage given below is followed by a set of
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The NDA government has indicated that the Ministry of Corporate Affairs is going to
relook certain aspects of the Companies Act. One of its many provisions that require
amendment is the clause on Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR). As per the law that
came into force from April 1 this year, every company beyond a minimum size has to
spend at least 2% of its average net profits of the three preceding years on CSR activities.
This rule is not just economically unsound but also socially counterproductive.

Businesses exist to serve the interests of their owners without harming the society. If
businesses concentrate on doing just this, they contribute to social welfare in a number of
ways. They produce useful goods and services for customers as well as generate
employment and tax revenue. If managers do not do this to the best of their abilities, not
only are they failing to deliver on the task that owners have entrusted them with but they
are also not enhancing social welfare. The whole idea of corporate governance is built
around this theme and by forcing managers to do otherwise is asking them to violate the
principles of good governance. Of course it is praiseworthy when many business leaders
spend from their fortunes on socially useful activities. Industry captains, executives and
even the ordinary worker in any sector should be encouraged to be philanthropic through
use of their personal wealth and time. But that is quite different from using others‘ money
for purposes it is not intended for.

Every business has certain specializations or competitive advantage in particular

activities. Microsoft is very good at making software but not so good at making mobile
handsets. Mahindra & Mahindra makes excellent large vehicles but is not known for
small cars. Similarly there are companies who have expertise in socially useful
businesses and may have even spotted a market opportunity there such as in organic
foods, fair trade or microfinance.

Economic efficiency drives social welfare. Asking a company to take on activities

beyond its interest or expertise is the surest path to inefficiency. Not only do companies
have to allocate 2 percent of their net profits but set up new CSR departments to spend
the money. To oversee these activities, companies are mandated to set up a CSR
committee of its board with three or more directors. This amounts to further increase in
costs and a distraction for the board and management at a time when businesses have
been hit hard by the adverse economic environment.

There could be three types of responses by businesses to this new law. One, where the
company adheres to the letter and spirit of the law by dedicatedly pursuing some
activities that benefitsociety.Second, where the company follows the letter but not the
spirit of the law and ends up spending on areas which require the least effort and time but
may not be the ones that are in most need of the money. For example it would be easy to
add a second coat of paint in a local school than identify one that needs it most, perhaps
in a remote location.

Third, where CEOs decide that the board is most likely to reward them if they violate the
CSR rules and adhere to good corporate governance instead. That is, work for higher
profits rather than follow the law and get fired. Even the government would agree that the
first scenario is the one that the law hopes to realize. But such companies would spend on
CSR activities anyway even without the force of law. All that is needed is some
encouragement from the government in the form of guidance or public private
partnerships for a social cause. There are many such examples from foreign and Indian
companies not because of any law but out of corporate choice. By all means do facilitate
the work of socially inclined companies, but do not force inefficiency upon the
disinterested.

What the provisions of the law amount to, is the government abdicating its constitutional
responsibility of working for the society and passing the onus on the corporate sector.
Raising the rate of corporate tax would have achieved the same purpose in a much
simpler way. Had the same resources been devoted to core activities by companies, they
could have generated much more value to all stakeholders including the society.
Perhaps some part of the government realizes this. And that is why there is an escape
route built into the law. If a company fails to spend the mandated amount on CSR
activities, it has to explain the reasons for this failure while reporting its financial
statements.

If it fails to do even that, it is liable to a fine of Rs 25000 and every officer who is
responsible is liable to a fine of Rs 5000. That the law itself is weak seems to be a saving
grace. Throwing it out would be infinitely better of course.

19. Why does the author feel that the law on CSR violates the principles of corporate
governance?
A) Corporate boards will reward people who violate the law to seek more profits
Corporates may not have the expertise in social projects that they have in their core
B)
business
C) Most companies will follow the letter but not the spirit of the law
Corporate managers are duty bound to work in the interest of shareholders and not
D)
for social causes
20. Why does the author feel that the CSR law is a weak one?
The purpose would have been better served by raising corporate tax than by insisting
A)
on CSR by corporate houses
Corporates can generate the maximum value for society by working in their core
B)
areas.
C) There seem to loopholes in the law and the prescribed penalty is a paltry one
D) Responsible companies would work for CSR with or without the law
21. Why does the author feel that the purpose would have been better served by raising
corporate tax?
 Raising corporate tax would achieve more funds for social causes than the law on
A)
CSR.
B) Social projects are the responsibility of the government
C) Government has better expertise in social projects than most corporates
D) The law on CSR is a weak law and would be difficult to implement
22. Which of the following is NOT something that the author is likely to agree with?
Corporate executives should not pursue philanthropy with money that belongs to the
A)
shareholder.
A company that performs its core activities efficiently and does no CSR can be said
B)
to contributing to society.
C) Corporates are, in general disinterested as well as inefficient in CSR
Corporates who implement CSR just to follow the law may do so in a perfunctory
D)
manner
23. Which of the following is the most likely outcome of the CSR law?
Companies which are anyway inclined to work for social causes will do so without
A)
the law while others will try to find loopholes in the system.
The Government has no intention of enforcing the law and the penalties are too low
B)
to act as a deterrent.
C) Most companies will be able to find NGO‘s to work as partners for social causes
D) None of the above
24. Which of the following best summarizes the author‘s argument?
Companies should not be involved in Social Activities as it is the responsibility of the
A)
government
B) Corporate social Activities are never effective and are almost always an eyewash
Companies belong to the shareholders and hence their activities should be in best
C)
interests of its shareholders
D) Government should raise corporate taxes and fund social sector.
25. Directions: Following word is Capitalized and bolded which is used in the
corresponding 4 sentences variously. Find the incorrect usage of the word in among
the four sentences.Type the option in the space provided below

DROWN

1. The noise of the passing train drowned our conversation.

2. The high waters almost drowned the farmers out last year.

3. We are just drowning in cabbage this year. Our garden is full of it.

4. I will drown you in money and fine clothes.

26 Directions: Following word is Capitalized and bolded which is used in the

. corresponding 4 sentences variously. Find the incorrect usage of the word in among
the four sentences.Type the option in the space provided below

FEATHER

1. Government officials are notorious for feathering their nests by taking advantage of
their position.

2. When I last met him he was in fine feathers but he seems to have suffered a lot since
then

3. Once my mother gets home and sees the mess I have created she will make the feathers
fly

4. My job in the company is to smooth ruffled feathers of all my colleagues and seniors
who always seem to be at loggerheads

27 Directions:. A paragraph has been broken into fragments and arranged

. coherently. Identify the INCORRECT sentence or sentences. Choose for your answer
the combination that shows all the INCORRECT sentence or sentences (for eg. 1 or
12 or 134 or 1234) and type it (in ascending order) in the space provided below.

1) Medical and public health experts have been assuring the public that there was little
cause for fear.

2) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and other health agencies were
working behind the scene, painstakingly tracing anyone who may have come into contact
with Duncan and quarantining those who might transmit the disease.

3) Transmission in the US was nearly impossible, owing to the strength of the US health
system, it was thought.
4) As recent events have illustrated, robust health agencies should not be taken for
granted.

5) In fact, over the past decade, the government has slashed budgets at several top health
agencies, including the CDC, the National Institutes of Health (NIH), and state and local
health departments.

28 Directions:. A paragraph has been broken into fragments and arranged

. coherently. Identify the INCORRECT sentence or sentences. Choose for your answer
the combination that shows all the INCORRECT sentence or sentences (for eg. 1 or
12 or 134 or 1234) and type it (in ascending order) in the space provided below.

1) Sub-Saharan Africa‘s economies have boomed in recent years. But the headline
figures often mask longer-term problems – not least, an over-reliance on natural
resources and chronic inequalities.

2) Inclusive, sustainable growth is achievable, but only by tapping the continent‘s

greatest reserve of energy and creativity; African women and girls.

3) Health and development experts, economists, non-governmental organizations, United

Nations agencies, and banks agree that the key for unlocking Africa‘s potential lies in
expanding women‘s education, freedom, and job opportunities.

4) Today, many African women are not only expected to fulfill traditional roles, such as
raising children and caring for the elderly;

5) They are also facing legal and social discrimination regarding land and property
ownership, inheritance, education, and access to credit and technology – in addition to
oppressive sexual mores and violence.

29 Directions:. A paragraph has been broken into fragments and arranged

. coherently. Identify the INCORRECT sentence or sentences. Choose for your answer
the combination that shows all the INCORRECT sentence or sentences (for eg. 1 or
12 or 134 or 1234) and type it (in ascending order) in the space provided below.

1) Academic research suggests that countries with higher per capita income, lesser
income inequality, and lower fertility rates tend to invest more in children‘s education,
with public expenditure leading to higher enrollment rates.
2) The logical conclusion is that efforts to promote more inclusive economic growth and
improve education systems can raise enrollment among young people in developing
countries and reduce disparities among genders and social groups.

3) Hence, simply narrowing the gaps in school-enrollment rates and total years of
schooling is not enough.

4) Countries must also ensure the quality of their education systems – a key challenge for
the coming decades.

5) As it stands, poor educational outcomes and inefficient education systems are eliciting
deep concern worldwide.

30 Directions: The following question has a paragraph from which the last sentence has
. been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in
the most appropriate way an type the option in the space provide below -

India and other countries untouched by Ebola must, however, be ready with response
plans should an infected person turn up on their shores. The ability to quickly diagnose
and isolate such cases, ensure rigorous infection control in healthcare settings, and track
down and monitor an infected individual‘s contacts are essential. Nigeria and Senegal,
West African countries that saw imported cases, were able to stop the virus from
spiraling out of control.

1. It remains to be seen if screening passengers on arrival will actually reduce of risk of

the virus getting in

2. Good planning holds the key to getting the better of Ebola.

3. Given Ebola‘s sinister reputation, there have been strident demands for measures to
reduce the risk of infection being brought into the countries

4. As it is, the outbreak has been a colossal calamity for these three of the world‘s poorest
nations, requiring a massive international response to the resulting humanitarian crisis.

31 Directions: The following question has a paragraph from which the last sentence has
. been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in
the most appropriate way.
Most economists have a reason to be worried about China‘s economy – whether it be low
consumption and large external surpluses, industrial overcapacity, environmental
degradation, or government interventions like capital controls or financial repression.
What many fail to recognize is that these are merely the symptoms of a single underlying
problem: China‘s skewed growth model.

1. But the model also carries considerable costs. Indeed, China is now locked in a vicious
economic circle

2. That model is, to some extent, a policy-induced construct, the result of a deep-rooted
bias toward construction and manufacturing as the leading drivers of economic
development.

3. One of the most glaring features of this model is the disparity between China‘s GDP
growth and its employment growth.

4. The consequence of China‘s skewed growth model has been a decline in household
income as a share of GDP.

32 Directions: The following questions have five sentences each where a pair of word
. usages is given. Choose the best combination of the word usages that fits the context
of the sentences and completes the sentence meaningfully and type the answer in the
space provided below

1) I have no fear of flying, but I do not like to be reminded of the fact that flying an
airplane is only part science. The rest is luck, skill, art, habit and experience. All very
grey things if you ask me.

2) A thin line between ‗to be or not to be‘. Looking at the co-pilot who is all sweating, I
am sure that Shakespeare is not the first thing on his mind.

3) In a big commercial jetliner, it looks like all goes automatic. You can ‗Sit back, relax
and enjoy your flight‘. Our reality is a bit different at this moment.

4) I don‘t know why, but pilots that go off cursing and act all agitated don‘t inspire a lot
of confidence in me.

5) The problem with small planes is that you can see and hear everything going on in a
cockpit. You‘re sitting just a few inches away from reality.
33 Directions: The following questions have four sentences each where a pair of word
. usages is given. Choose the best combination of the word usages that fits the context
of the sentences and completes the sentence meaningfullyand type the answer in the
space provided below

1) The report lays out a road map to show how the military will adapt to rising sea levels,
more violent storms and widespread droughts.

2) It also predicted rising demand for military disaster responses as extreme weather
creates more global humanitarian crises.

3) As the Pentagon plans for the impact of climate change, it is conducting a survey to
assess the vulnerability of its more than 7,000 bases, installations and other facilities.

4) The Pentagon on Monday released a report asserting decisively that climate

change poses an immediate threat to national security, with increased risks from
terrorism, infectious disease, global poverty and food shortages.

5) The Defense Department will begin by integrating plans for climate change risks
across all of its operations, from war games and strategic military planning situations to a
rethinking of the movement of supplies.

34 Directions: The following questions have four sentences each where a pair of word
. usages is given. From the options given, choose the best combination of the word
usages that fits the context of the sentences and completes the sentence
meaningfullyand type the answer in the space provided below

1) Few company bosses would care to admit it, but the market fumbles its way to success,
as successful ideas take off and less successful ones die out.

2) The market has solved the problem of generating material wealth

3) We should see the long, tangled history of failure, of all of the companies and all of the
ideas that didn‘t make it.‖

4) But its secret has little to do with the profit motive or the superior savvy of corporate
bosses

5) When we see the survivors of this process – such as Exxon, General Electric and
Procter & Gamble – we shouldn‘t merely see success.
 Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning

Directions to questions 35 to 38

A leading e - commerce company has a huge order rush during the Diwali week and is
struggling to deliver all the orders that it has received. For all the orders that are not
delivered as per the customer‘s requested category, the customer is given a credit voucher
of 50/ - for each level of category change. For example: If a customer had requested
same day delivery but he is delivered the product after 2 days, he will get a credit voucher
worth 100/ - . Ordinary delivery represents delivery in 3 days.

Orders received

Orders Delivered

35. What is the number of orders that were delivered late over all the categories?
36. What is the amount of credit vouchers issued by the company?
 37. How many orders were delivered late in the 2 day delivery order category?
38 What is the number of orders of Category II, that were delivered with a delay of two
. days or more?

Directions to questions 39-40

The table below gives the information on the population, literacy rate and graduation
rates in some of the states of India.

39. When graduates are considered, which state occupies the fourth rank?
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Kerala
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Karnataka
40. Literate Population of Tamil Nadu is what percentage more or less than that of
Madhya Pradesh?
A) 10%
B) 10.7%
C) 11.2%
D) 11.7%
Directions to questions 41-44

Kart Deal manufactures six different products – A, B, C, D, E and F. Details of

production volume, production cost, sales volume and sales value are represented in the
pie charts given below.
Profit for any product = Sales Value – Production Cost

Profit Margin for any product = Profit x 100/ Sales

Further there was no inventory for any product. In other words, whatever sold during the
year is what was manufactured during the year.

41. For which product is the production cost per unit produced the lowest?
A) B
B) D
C) E
D) F
42. The sales volume of Kart Deal are at most what percentage of its production volume?
A) 66.66%
B) 83.33%
C) 90.42%
D) Cannot be determined
43. What is the least possible profit margin made by the company, if the company made a
profit in every Product?
A) 25%
B) 15%
C) 16.66%
D) None of these
44. If the sales value of the company is 140% of its production cost then in how many
products is the profit margin less than 20%?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Directions to questions 45-48

The bar chart below shows the revenue received, in millions of rupees, from subscribers
to a particular Celtel India Mobile service. The data covers the period 2010 to 2013 for
the Western Region (India) and Northern Region (India). The bar chart also includes the
revenue estimates from the subscription to this service for the period 2014 to 2016.

45. In which year is the percentage growth in the revenue from southern Region the
highest?
A) 2011
B) 2012
C) 2013
D) 2010
46. Assuming that the growth rate estimated in 2016 over 2015 for both the regions
continues in the future years, when will the revenue of the Southern Region be equal
to or more than that of the Western region?
A) 2020
B) 2021
C) 2019
D) 2022
47. In which year (other than 2010) did the percentage growth rate in revenue from both
the regions show the same trend (increase or decrease)?
A) 2011
B) 2012
C) 2013
 D) None of these
48. When is the difference between growth rates of both the regions the maximum?
A) 2010
B) 2011
C) 2012
D) 2013

Directions to questions 49-50

There is a tournament in which ‗n‘ players participated. The match is played on a league
basis. Every player plays the other players exactly once. At the end of the tournament, the
top four scores were 4.5, 4, 2.5 and 2. For a win the winner gets 1 point and loser does
not get any point. For a draw, both the participants get half a point.

49. How many Players participated in the tournament?

A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) cannot be determined

50. What is least possible score obtained by any player?

A) 0
B) 0.5
C) 1
D) 1.5
Directions to questions 51-52
A painter is given a task to paint a cubical box with six different colours for different
faces of the cube. The detailed account of it was given as:

1) Red face should lie between Yellow and Brown faces.

2) Green face should be adjacent to the Silver face.

3) Pink face should lie adjacent to the Green Face.

4) Yellow face should lie opposite to the Brown one.

5) Brown face should face down.

6) Silver and Pink faces should lie opposite to each other.

51. What is the color of the face opposite the red colored face?
A) Yellow
B) Green
C) Pink
D) Silver
52. What are the colors of the faces adjacent to the green colored face?
A) Yellow, Pink, Red, Silver
B) Brown, Pink, Red, Silver
C) Red, Silver, Yellow, Brown
D) Pink, Silver, Yellow, Brown
53. Yesterday in a party, I asked Mr. Sunil his date of birth. With a mischievous glint in
his eyes he replied. "The day before yesterday I was 83 years old and next year I will
be 86." Can you figure out what is the date of birth of Mr. Sunil? Assume that the
current year is 2000.
A) 29th Feb, 1915
B) 29th Feb, 1916
C) 31st Dec, 1915
D) 1st Jan 1916

Directions to questions 54-56

Four men - Abhay, Bhaskar, Chandra and Deepak - are standing in a straight line.

1) One man is fair, handsome and unscarred.

2) Two men who are not fair, are each standing next to Abhay.

3) Bhaskar is the only man standing next to exactly one handsome man.
4) Chandra is the only man not standing next to exactly one scarred man.

54. Who is fair, handsome and unscarred?

A) Abhay
B) Bhaskar
C) Chandra
D) Deepak
55. How many men are fair?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 1 or 2
D) Cannot be determined
56. Who are standing on either side of Abhay?
A) Bhaskar and Chandra
B) Bhaskar and Deepak
C) Chandra and Deepak
D) Cannot be determined
57. Secret agent X emailed a code word to his head office. They are "AIM DUE OAT TIE
MOD". But four of these five words are fake and only one of the words contains the
information. The agent X also mailed a sentence as a clue - 'If I tell you any one
character of the code word, you would be able to tell the number of vowels in the code
word'. Can you tell which is the code word?
A) AIM
B) DUE
C) OAT
D) TIE

Directions for Questions 58-60 :

Five students – Charu, Abhinav, Priya, Nisha and Rahul - appeared for an exam. There
were total five questions - two multiple choice (three choices a, b or c) and three
true/false questions. They answered five questions each and answered as follow.
Also, no two students got the same number of correct answers.

58. What is the total number of correct answers marked by all the students?

59. Which student has got minimum number of correct answers?

A) Charu
B) Abhinav
C) Priya
D) Nisha
60. What is the correct answer for the 2nd question?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) Cannot be determined

Directions for Questions 61-63 :

Ten coins are distributed among four people P, Q, R and S such that one of them gets a
coin, another gets 2 coins, the 3rd one gets 3 coins and the 4th one gets 4 coins. It is also
that known that Q gets more coins than P and S gets fewer coins than R.
61. If the number of coins distributed to Q is twice the number of coins distributed to P,
then which one of the following is necessarily true?
A) R gets even no. of coins
B) R gets odd no. of coins
C) S gets even no. of coins
D) S gets odd no. of coins
62. If R gets at least two more coins than S then which one of the following statements is
necessarily true?
A) Q gets at least 2 more coins than S
B) Q gets at least 3 coins
C) P gets more coins than S
D) P and Q together get at most five coins
63. If Q gets fewer coins than R, then which one of the following statements is not
necessarily true?
A) P and Q together get at least 4 coins
B) Q and S together get at least 4 coins
C) R and S together get at least 5 coins
D) P and R together get at least 5 coins

Directions for Questions 64-66 :

In the below given subtraction, each alphabet stands for a unique single digit number
between 0 to 9.

64. What is the sum of all the digits of the number ‗SYSTEM‘?
65. What is the value of ‗S‘?
66. What will be the value of DETEST + ESTEEM?
 Quantitative Ability
67. If 15 August 2016 is Monday, Then 15th August 2010 falls on which day?
th

A) Monday
B) Sunday
C) Tuesday
D) Wednesday

68. A circle touches the lines x=y and x=-y. The centre of the circle is (2√2,0).Determine
the radius.

69. There are some white balls, red balls, black balls and green balls in a box. if green
balls are taken out the number of balls are reduced to half. Half of the red balls is
equal to one third of black balls. Twice the number of red and black balls is 4 more
than three times the black balls. Half of white balls is one third of green balls. Find
the number of green balls.
70 F(n) = q*5n where n & q is a natural number and q is not divisible by 5. Then which of
. the following could be true?
A) F(m+n) = F(m) + F(n)
B) F(m+n) < F(m) + F(n)
C) F(m+n) > F(m) + F(n)
D) None of these
71. A goat is tethered to the corner of a shed which consists of a square and an equilateral
triangle. (see the diagram below). The square has side length 2 m and the rope is 5 m
long. What is the maximum area that the goat can graze outside of its shed?

A) 121π/6
B) 20π
 C) 125π/10
D) None of these
72. A right-angled triangle has an area of 5. The altitude perpendicular to the hypotenuse
has a length of 2. The perimeter of the triangle is
A) 5√5+5
B) 3√3+3
C) 5√3+3
D) 3√5+5
73. Which of the following is always true?
Length of every median is lesser than the average of the lengths of the two sides
A)
meeting at the medians vertex
Length of smallest median is lesser than the average of the lengths of the two sides
B)
meeting at the medians vertex
Length of longest median is greater than the average of the lengths of the two sides
C)
meeting at the medians vertex
D) Length of sum of medians is greater than the perimeter of the triangle
74. ABCD is a quadrilateral inscribed in a circle and AD is a diameter. AB = BC =10.
Find the area of

Quadrilateral ABCD

A) 50√3
B) 75√3
C) 75
D) 50
75. In a square ABCD, P is an internal point on the diagonal BD such that BP:PD =3:1 E
is the midpoint of CD. Find Angle BPE.
76 What is the minimum of (x1+x2)(x2+x3) ……(x7+x8)given that xi is the reciprocal of x(9-
. i)?
A) 128
B) 256
C) 64
D) 512
77. Find the value

A) n2 logxa

B) (n2+1) logxa
C) 1/6 [n(n+1)(2n+1)] logxa
D) log x a
78. The mass of a solid 9*9*9 cube is 2187 kg.
Three shafts, each 1*1*9, are made as shown
in the sketch. The mass of the remaining solid
is

A) 2112 kg
B) 2022 kg
C) 2012 kg
D) 2016 kg

79. A string of 2016 digits begins with the digit 6. Any two consecutive digits in this
string would be divisible by 17 or 23.Find sum of the last five digits of such a 2016
digit number formed.
A) 24
B) 27
C) 30
D) No number exists
80. The smallest natural number n such that n! is divisible by 1000 is …..
A) 20
B) 3
C) 10
D) 15

81. The no of digits in 41000 is x and the no of digits in 251000 is y, what is the value of
(x+y)?

82. Let x= [1*2*4+2*4*8+3*6*12+….. +10*20*40] and y=

[1*3*9+2*6*18+3*9*27+….. +10*30*90].The value of x/y is
A) 1/729
B) 1/27
C) 8/27
D) 2/3
83. What is the remainder when 296is divided by 105?

84. Let y= (1!)2 + (2!)2 + … + (10000!)2, what is the remainder when y is divided by
1152?

85. If the no of selections of 6 different letters that can be made from the words SUMAN
and DIVYA so that each selections contains 3 letters from each word is N2. Then
value of N is?

86. Three single digits numbers in AP are selected and all possible three digit numbers
are formed using these three digits (without repetition). The sum of each of such
numbers formed is divisible by ______(type the largest possible divisor)

87. How many triplets (i, j, k) from numbers 1 to 7 such that (i + j+ k) is odd?
88. If 1*50 +2*49+3*48+….+48*3+49*2+50*1 = nc3, what is the value of n?

89. Let "A" be a set {1, 4, 7, 10, 13, 16, …, 100}. The elements of the set are in AP. A
 new set "B" is created from the elements of set A such that the sum of any two
elements is NOT equal to 104. What can be the maximum number of elements in this
new set B

90. Find the average of the following sequence: 1, 3, 6, 10 … up to 101 terms

91. If an =2*a(n-1) +32 and a10 =2016, find a1
A) -29
B) 30
C) -31
D) -28

92. If a and b are roots of the equation x2-7x-3=0. What is the value of y ={(m12-3m10)/
m11 } where mn=an-bn ?
A) 1
B) 7
C) 3
D) 5

93. Amit has borrowed Rs.5000. He plans to pay off the loan in full after two payments.
He will make one payment in 3 years, then another payment in 6 years. The second
payment will be exactly double the amount of the first payment. How much is the
first payment if the interest rate of the loan is 10% compounded annually? (enter the
approximate answer rounded off to the nearest integer to the actual value)
94. Number of solutions to the equation √[x4+4] = [x2-2] is
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
95. Manish told Mayank his score in ACT, which was over 50.From this, Mayank was
able to determine the number of problems Manish solved correctly. If Manish's score
had been any lower, but still over 50, John could not have determined this. What was
Mary's score? ACT has 30 quants questions. 4 marks are awarded for every correct
answer and 1 mark is deducted for every wrong answer. No penalty for unanswered
questions. What is Manish‘s score?
96. If x+y = x2+y2-xy, number of positive integral solutions

97. Scores of Kiran Pollard 9 innings on an English tour were 6, 10, 8, 12, x, 14,
22,24,26. Which of the following can be the median?
A) 10
B) 13
C) 18
D) 16

98. A bridge was built by1200 workers in 12 years working 12 hours a day. How many
are needed to complete the bridge in 3 years working 8 hours a day?
99 Priya noted that a train to Trichy took 8 minutes to pass her. A train in the opposite
. direction to Chennai took 12 minutes to pass her. The trains took 9 minutes to pass each
other. Assuming each train maintained a constant speed, and given that the train to
Chennai was 150m long, what was the length of the train to Trichy?
A) 175
B) 300
C) 150
D) 125

100. If xCos3A+y*Sin3A = Sin A * Cos A,x*Cos A = y*Sin A, what is the value of

x2 +y2 ?
A) 1
B) Cos2A
C) Sin2A
D) Cannot be determined