CPL Airlaw Book 04

AIR LAW
Copyright  2001 Flight Training College of Africa

All Rights Reserved. No part of this manual may be reproduced in
any manner whatsoever including electronic, photographic,
photocopying, facsimile, or stored in a retrieval system, without the
prior permission of Flight Training College of Africa.
Air Law FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Revision : 1/1/2001 Version 4
Page 1
GOVERNMENT GAZETTED
ISSUE DATE GOV NOTICE GOV SIGNATURE

AMMENDED NOT GAZETTE NO
2 24/12/1997 R1753 18562
3 31/12/1998 R1701 19644
4 1/12/1999 R639 20076
5 1/5/2001 R1219 21390

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INDEX
VOLUME I
SECTIONS IN THIS VOLUME

PREAMBLE
CONTENTS
CHAPTER 2 ANR’s
CHAPTER 3 ANR’s
CHAPTER 4 ANR's
DEFINITIONS & ABBREVIATIONS
PART 12
PART 67
All Rights Reserved. No part of this manual my be reproduced in

photocopying, facsimile, or stored in a retrieval system, without
the prior permission of Flight Training College of Africa.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 3
PREAMBLE
This document ( hereafter referred to as FTC-CAR’s) is an abridged edition of the

“New Civil Aviation Regulations ( hereafter referred to as CAR’s) of 1997” and is
designed for use only by the students of Flight Training College of S.A.c.c. as a study
guide for the Commercial Pilot’s Licence and Instrument Rating Examinations. The
official implementation date was the 1st. of January 1999 replacing the older Air
Navigation Regulations of 1976 ( hereafter referred to as the ANR’s). There will no
doubt be many changes in content in the immediate future, and FTC will update and
keep current all subsequent editions of the copy of the CAR’s. But due to certain
constraints FTC will not be able to update this or any older copies as we publish the
latest available information, and thus only subsequent copies may include changes
and even extra Parts. Whilst every effort has been made to ensure correctness and
accuracy of this copy of the FTC-CAR’s, FTC of S.A. c.c. cannot be held liable for
any possible errors and is not responsible for any actions arising from any litigation
resulting from the use of this copy of the CAR’s. The information was obtained from
documents obtained from the SACAA and has been reproduced in our own format.
The document has been split into Volume I and Volume II and follows the numbering
of the CAR’s which is specific and where possible is designed for fixed wing powered
aircraft pilot and excludes the more esoteric categories such as micro lights, gliders,
hot air balloons, and the like. Consequently the numerical sequence of the Subparts
may show gaps, this will be when references to any other categories such as micro
lights etc have been excluded. For continuity purposes this preamble is followed by
a complete list of all the contents of the new CAR’s although many are not included in
this edition, the relevant contents as found in this document will be highlighted in
Bold and Italics for easy reference for the student.
Next will follow all the definitions and then in numerical order the Parts ( i.e. Part 12
then the next number highest number Part 61 etc.) and if applicable the relevant Civil
Aviation Technical Standards ( hereafter referred to as the CATS). Specific Part and
Chapter and Subpart numbers such as for example Part 91.02.7 will have the same
number in the relevant CATS document, i.e. 91.02 7. In this way the student will be
able to find the information in both the CAR’s as well as the relevant CATS
document. The CAR’s has been divided into Parts referring to various segments of
the act and the subject matter they relate to, and if necessary a CATS document,
however not every Part will necessarily have a CATS document, and example of this
is Part 12. The CATS document will be included if it is present and will in this
document always follow the relevant CAR’s Part for easy reference.
This FTC-CAR’s edition includes Part 135 which is Air Transport Operations for Small
Aircraft, but excludes Part 121 which is not yet in the Syllabus, and covers Air
Transport Operations Large Aircraft, this being more for Airlines and no doubt Airline
Transport Pilots.
The contents cover the syllabus for the South African Commercial Licence as well as
the Instrument Rating.

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At the time of the issue of this edition (1999) the new part of the CAR’s that cover
Flight Crew licensing, have not been brought into force and as a result chapters 2
and 3 of the “old ANR’s” still apply, this will in time will be replaced by Part 61 and its
relevant CATS document which will form part of Volume I, but as yet no final
introduction date for this has been officially announced. Subsequent editions of this
document will contain Part 61 which is Flight Crew Licensing.
If the reader finds any errors FTC of SA would be grateful if we could informed so as
to effect any corrections necessary. These can be forwarded to Fax 011 805 6564 or
telephonically to 011 315 3992 0r 011- 315 0974.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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CONTENTS
VOLUME I
Definitions
Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations
Procedures
Part 11 Procedures for making Regulations, Issuing Technical
Standards and Grading Exemptions
Part 12 Aviation Accidents and Incidents
Part 13 Enforcement Procedures
Aircraft
Part 21 Certification Procedures for Products and parts
Part 34 Engine Emission certification
Part 36 Noise Certification
Part 43 General maintenance Rules
Part 47 Registration and marking
Personnel
Part 61 Pilot Licensing

Part 63 Flight Engineer Licensing
Part 64 Cabin Crew Licencing
Part 65 Air Traffic Service Personnel Licencing
Part 66 Aircraft maintenance Engineer Licencing
Part 67 Medical Certification
VOLUME II
Rules of the Air and General Operating Rules
Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules

Part 92 Conveyance of Dangerous Goods
Part 98 Operating of Powered paragliders
Part 100 Operation of Gyroplanes
Part 101 Operation of Unmanned Free Balloons. Kites and
Remotely Piloted Aircraft
Part 102 Operation of Free Balloons and Airships
Part 103 Operation of Microlight Aeroplanes
Part 104 Operation of Gliders
Part 105 Operation of Parachutes
Part 106 Operation of Hang Gliders
Certificated Aircraft operations and Other Flight Operations

Part 121 Air Transport Operations – Large Aeroplanes
Part 127 Helicopters
Part 133 Helicopter External –load Operations
Part 135 Air Transport Operations – Small Aeroplanes
Part 137 Agricultural Operations
Part 138 Emergency medical Service Operations

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Aerodromes and Heliports
Part 139 Licencing and Operation

Part 141 Aviation Training Organisations
Part 145 Aircraft Maintenance Organisations
Part 148 Manufacturing Organisations
Air Traffic Services
Part 172 Air Space and Traffic Services
Aeronautical and meteorological Information Services
Part 174 Meteorological Information Services

Part 175 Aeronautical Information Services
Part 183 General
Administration
Part 1185 Offences

Part 187 Fees

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CHAPTER 2 ANR’S

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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PERSONNEL LICENSING - FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS AND AIR TRAFFIC
CONTROLLERS
2.1 Flight Crew Member Licences
A flight crew member may be licensed in the following categories:
Student pilot, or
Micro-light aeroplane pilot, or
Private pilot, or
Commercial pilot, or
Airline transport pilot,
Glider pilot,
Free balloon pilot
Gyroplane pilot;
Flight navigator;
Flight engineer (restricted), or
Flight engineer;
Flight radiotelephony operator.
2.1A Licence Fees
The fees for the issue, reissue, renewal and validation of a licence or rating
and for the issue of a duplicate of such licence or rating shall be as prescribed
in Annexure A.
2.2 Flight Crew Members Operating the Radio Installation in Aircraft
Any person operating the radio installation in an aircraft shall be the holder of
a valid restricted radiotelephone operator’s certificate or a general certificate
of competency in radiotelephony prescribed by the appropriate authority.
2.3 Aircraft Rating Requirements
(1) No person shall act as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft, unless he is

the holder of the appropriate type or group type rating in the case of
piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of 5
700 kg or less, or in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type
rating by name is require, he is the holder of the appropriate type
rating for such aircraft: Provided that a pilot receiving training for the
purpose of applying for the appropriate rating may act as pilot-in-
command of an aircraft in respect of which he does not hold such
rating, provided that the flight is not for reward, no passenger is
carried and the training is received from a flight instructor who is the
holder of the appropriate flight instructor type or group type rating in
the case of piston engined aeroplanes having a maximum certificated
mass of 5 700 kg or less, or in the case of aircraft in respect of which
a type rating by name is required, he is the holder of the appropriate
flight instructor type rating for such aircraft, or from a pilot who has
been designated in writing for such purpose by the Commissioner.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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(2) In the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name is
required -
(a) the flight instructor or designated pilot shall on satisfactory

completion of the training for a rating issue a temporary
certificate of competency valid for 30 days and entitling the
pilot who received the training to exercise during the period of
which the certificate is valid the privileges of the rating as pilot-
in-command or as co-pilot, as the case may be, before such
rating issued to him by the Commissioner; and
(b) such flight instructor or designated pilot who issues a

temporary certificate of competency in terms of paragraph (a)
shall forward the original thereof to the Commissioner and
furnish the pilot who received the training with a copy thereof.
(3) In the case of piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum

certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less -
(a) the flight instructor or designated pilot shall on satisfactory

completion of the training for a type rating-
(i) make an endorsement to this effect in the logbook of

the pilot who received the training, whereupon that pilot
shall be entitled to exercise the privileges of such
rating; and
(ii) in respect of that pilot, forward to the Commissioner

within 30 days a certificate of competency as
prescribed by the Commissioner;
(b) the endorsement referred to in paragraph (a) (i) shall be made

in the column marked ‘Details of flight and remarks’ and shall
contain the following particulars, namely -
(i) an indication of the type of aeroplane, and also the

registration marks;
(ii) the words “Regulation 3.8 complied with”;
(iii) the signature of the flight instructor or designated pilot;
(iv) the licence number of the flight instructor or designated
pilot; and
(v) the date; and
(c) where a type rating is in terms of this subregulation endorsed

in a pilot’s logbook and such type rating falls outside the group
type rating endorsed in that pilot’s licence, the flight instructor
or designated pilot may issue a temporary certificate of
competency valid for 30 days and entitling that pilot to exercise
during the period of which the certificate is valid the privileges
of the rating endorsed in the logbook before the issue of the
appropriate group type rating is issued to him by the
Commissioner.
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GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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2.4 Aircraft Ratings for Pilots and Flight Instructors
(1) Aircraft ratings for pilots and flight instructors shall comprise -
(a) category rating;

(b) class rating;
(c) type rating;
(d) group type rating.
(2) Category ratings shall comprise -
(a) aeroplanes;
(b) helicopters;
(c) gyroplanes;
(d) gliders;
(e) micro-light aeroplanes;
(f) free balloons; and
(g) unconventional aircraft, that is aircraft excluding the aircraft
mentioned in paragraph (a) to (f).
(3) Class ratings shall comprise -
(a) for aeroplanes -
(i) single-engine, land;

(ii) single-engine, sea;
(iii) multi-engine, land;
(iv) multi-engine, sea;
(b) for helicopters -
(i) single-rotor helicopters;

(ii) multi-rotor helicopters;
(c) gyroplanes;
(d) for gliders -
(i) unpowered gliders;

(ii) powered gliders.
(4) Type and group type ratings for aeroplanes shall comprise-
(a) in the case of a student pilot, a rating by name for each type
of aeroplane;
(b) when the Commissioner is satisfied that the licence holder is
suitably qualified to hold a rating in one or both the groups
specified below he may, subject to the provisions of regulation
2.3(1) and (3) being complied with, issue to that licence holder
such group type rating or ratings, namely a group type rating
for aeroplane types, other than unconventional types of
aeroplanes, having a maximum certificated mass of -
(i) 2 700 kg or less;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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(ii) 5 700 kg or less;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 13
(c) a rating by name for each type of aeroplane with a maximum
certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kg;
(d) a rating by name for each turbo propeller and turbojet
aeroplane;
(5) Type ratings for rotorcraft shall comprise a rating by name for each
type of rotorcraft;
(6) Type ratings for gliders shall comprise a rating by name for each type
of glider;
(7) Type ratings for free balloons shall comprise a rating by name for each
type of free balloon;
(8) Type ratings for unconventional aircraft shall comprise a rating by

name for each unconventional type of aircraft
(9) A flight instructor rating shall comprise a flight instructor rating Grade
1 (unrestricted) or Grade II (unrestricted) or Grade III (under
supervision), which rating shall permit the holder to give flight
instruction on an aircraft in respect of which he holds the appropriate
flight instructor type or group type rating in the case of piston-engined
aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or
less, or in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by
name is required, he is the holder of the appropriate flight instructor
type rating for such aircraft.
(10) An instrument rating shall comprise a rating permitting the holder to

pilot an aircraft in compliance with IFR or in IMC and by night, to carry
out an approach and a landing in IMC with the aid of an NDB, VOR
and/or ILS, as specified in the rating, and to act as safety pilot on an
aircraft in respect of which such holder is the holder of the appropriate
type or group type rating in the case of piston-engined aeroplanes
having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less, or in the case
of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name, is required, he is
the holder of the appropriate type rating for such aircraft.
(11) A night flight rating shall comprise a rating permitting the holder to act
as pilot-in-command by night.
(12) A tug pilot rating shall comprise a rating permitting the holder to act as
pilot-in-command of a tug aircraft.
(13) A safety pilot rating which shall comprise a rating permitting the holder
to act, on an aircraft in respect of which he is the holder of the
appropriate type or group type rating in the case of piston-engined
aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less,
or in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name is
required, he is the holder of the appropriate type rating for such
aircraft, as safety pilot to a pilot engaged in simulated instrument flying
practice.

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(13A) An undersling/winching rating (helicopter) shall comprise a rating
permitting the holder to act as pilot-in-command of a helicopter
engaged in undersling/winching operations.
(13B) A game/livestock cull rating (helicopter) shall comprise a rating

permitting the holder to act as pilot-in-command of a helicopter
engaged in game or livestock cull operations.
(14) Ratings for flight engineers shall comprise a rating by name for each
type of aircraft when the design of the aircraft necessitates the
carriage of a flight engineer.
(15) An agricultural pilot’s rating shall permit the holder to act as pilot-in-
command of an agricultural application aircraft involved in agricultural
aviation activities.
2.5 Flight Instructor Rating Requirements
(1) Subject to regulation 2.3 no person shall give flight instruction unless
he is the holder of a valid flight instructor rating.
(2) The holder of a flight instructor rating shall be permitted to give flight
instruction on aircraft in respect of which he is the holder of the
appropriate valid flight instructor type or group type rating in the case
of piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of
5 700 kg or less, or in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type
rating by name is required, he is the holder of the appropriate flight
instructor type rating for such aircraft.
3. The holder of a flight instructor rating Grade III, shall be permitted to

give flight instruction under the supervision of a flight instructor Grade I
or Grade II who is the holder of the appropriate valid flight instructor
type or group and type rating in the case of piston-engined aeroplanes
having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less, or in the case
of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by name is required, he is
the holder of the appropriate flight instructor type rating for such
aircraft.
(4) The holder of a Grade II flight instructor’s rating shall be the holder of-
(a) a valid commercial pilot’s or a valid higher grade licence; and

(b) a valid instrument flight rating, unless he gives flight instruction
on helicopters or gyroplanes.
(5) The holder of a Grade I flight instructor’s rating shall be the holder
of a valid senior commercial pilot’s or a valid higher grade
licence,( Note: the senior commercial licence no longer exists at
the time of publishing.) unless he gives flight instruction on
helicopters or gyroplanes, or is exempted from this provision by the
Commissioner.

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2.6 Instrument Rating Requirements
No person, other than the holder of a valid airline transport pilot’s licence
(aeroplane) shall act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft flying in compliance
with IFR or in IMC, unless he is the holder of a valid instrument rating, and no
person shall, with the aid of an NDB, a VOR or an ILS, carry out an approach
or a landing with an aeroplane flying in compliance with IFR or in IMC, unless
he is the holder of a valid instrument rating and his instrument rating has been
rated for the applicable aid.
2.7 Night Flight Rating Requirements
No person, other than the holder of a commercial pilot’s licence (aeroplane) or

airline transport pilot’s licence (aeroplane), shall act as pilot-in-command of an
aircraft by night, unless he is the holder of a valid night flight rating
2.8 Tug Pilot Requirements
No person shall act as pilot-in-command of a tug aircraft unless he is the

holder of a valid private pilot’s licence with a valid tug pilot rating or unless he
is the holder of a valid commercial or airline transport pilot’s licence.
2.9 Safety Pilot Rating Requirements
No person shall act as safety pilot to a pilot engaged in simulated instrument

flying practice unless he is the holder of-
(a) a valid private pilot’s licence with a valid safety pilot or instrument
rating; or
(b) a valid commercial, senior commercial or airline transport pilot’s
licence; and
(c) the appropriate valid type or group type rating in the case of piston-
engined aeroplanes having a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg
or less or, in the case of aircraft in respect of which a type rating by
name is required, he is the holder of the appropriate type rating for
such aircraft.
2.12 Period of Validity
Subject to the prescribed requirements being met, a licence or rating may be

issued, renewed or reissued-
(1) if application is made for an initial issue or the reissue of a licence or

rating, from the date of application;
(2) if application for renewal is made within 30 days prior to the date on which
the current licence or rating expires, from the date immediately
succeeding the date on which the current licence or rating expires; and

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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(3) if application for renewal is made more than 30 days before the date
on which the current licence or rating expires from the date of
application; ( see next page for validity)
for a period of:
twelve months for a student pilot;

twenty-four months for micro-light pilot;
twenty-four months for a private pilot;
twenty four months for a free balloon pilot;
twelve months for a commercial pilot;
twelve months for an airline transport pilot;
twelve months for a flight navigator;
twelve months for a flight engineer (restricted)
twelve months for a flight engineer;
twelve months for a flight radiotelephony operator;
twelve months for an instrument rating;
twelve months for a flight instructor rating;
twelve months for an air traffic controller;
twenty four months for a gyroplane pilot;
twenty-four months for a glider pilot:
Provided that
(a) no licence or rating shall be issued or renewed for a period

extending beyond the period of the appropriate current report
of medical fitness;
(b) in exceptional circumstances, the Commissioner may, on
individual representations by the holder, extend the period of
validity of a licence or rating for a period not exceeding 30 days
after the date of expiry of such licence or rating if the holder
has a current report of medical fitness appropriate to the
licence or rating for the period for which the licence or rating is
extended;
(c) if the Commissioner is satisfied that it is impractical in a
specific case, owing to the nature of an applicant’s duties, to
make application for renewal within 30 days prior to the date
on which the current licence or rating expires, but where such
application is made within 60 days after that date, a licence or
rating may be renewed from the date immediately succeeding
the date on which the current licence or rating expires.
2.13 Requirements for Issue Applicable to Renewal
If the Commissioner has evidence that any person who is the holder of a
licence, certificate or rating has failed to maintain the minimum standard
required to exercise the privileges of such licence, certificate or rating, he
may, before renewing such licence, certificate or rating require the holder to
satisfy, to the extent he may deem it necessary in the circumstances, all or
any of the requirements for the issue of such a licence, certificate or rating.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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2.14 Signature on Licence
(1) On the issue of a licence to a flight crew member or to an air traffic

controller he shall forthwith affix his signature in ink in the space on
the licence provided for this purpose
(2) Any licence which has not been signed by the holder as required in
subregulation (1) shall be deemed to be invalid and any person
exercising a privilege granted by such licence, shall be guilty of an
offence
2.15 Issue and Reissue of Licences and Ratings and Imposition of

Conditions in Respect Thereof
(1) The Commissioner may in exceptional circumstances, notwithstanding

the provisions of this Chapter relating to the privileges of the holder of
a licence or rating or the period of validity of such licence or rating,
impose such conditions (including a condition specifying a period of
validity shorter than the period specified in this Chapter) as he deems
necessary in respect of the exercise by the holder of such licence or
rating of his privileges in terms of that licence or rating
(2) The Commissioner may also in exceptional circumstances amend or

cancel any condition imposed in terms of subregulation (1) or impose
any further condition in terms of the said subregulation.
(3) The Commissioner shall endorse any condition imposed in terms of

subregulation (1) or any amendment or cancellation made in terms of
subregulation (2) on the licence concerned.
(4) If a licence or rating has lapsed the Commissioner may reissue such
licence or rating if the prescribed requirements for the renewal of that
licence or rating, and such of the prescribed requirements for the
issue of that licence or rating as he may deem necessary, have been
met
2.16 Conduct of Examinations and Tests by Inspectors of Flying
Where these regulations provide that a person other than an inspector of

flying shall conduct the examination and/or test required for the issue,
renewal or reissue of a licence, certificate or rating, the Commissioner may
require that such examination and/or test be conducted by an inspector of
flying of the Department of Transport.
2.17 Validation
(1) Validation of a foreign crew member’s licence shall be by the issue of

an authorisation to be carried with such foreign licence accepting it as
the equivalent of a comparable licence issued under these
regulations.

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Page 18
(2) The validity of the authorisation shall not extend beyond the period of
validity of the foreign licence at the time of authorisation
2.18 Issue and Reissue of Licences and Ratings and Imposition of

Conditions in Respect Thereof
(1) The medical requirements for the issue, reissue or renewal of a licence or
rating shall be as prescribed in Chapter 6.
(2) Each applicant for the issue, reissue or renewal of a licence or rating
for which medical requirements have been prescribed in Chapter 6
shall undergo the appropriate medical examination for the assessment
of his medical fitness by a medical examiner acceptable to the
Commissioner.
(3) The medical examiner carrying out the medical examination in terms
of subregulation (2) shall submit, his conclusions concerning the
medical examination in a report of medical fitness to the
Commissioner.
(4) The report of medical fitness referred to in subregulation (3) shall be in
a form acceptable to the Commissioner.
(5) The Commissioner shall not issue, reissue or renew a licence or rating
if the medical requirements prescribed in Chapter 6 for that licence or
rating are not attained, except that the licence or rating may be issued,
reissued or renewed if the following conditions are met:
(a) if medical conclusion acceptable to the Commissioner

indicates that-
(i) the condition of the applicant is not such as to introduce

any hazard either of sudden incapacity or of inability to
perform his duties safely during the period of validity of
the licence or rating; and
(ii) failure to attain the requirements is capable of being
compensated;
(b) if the Commissioner has satisfactory evidence that the

applicant’s already acquired and demonstrated ability, skill and
experience compensate for his deficiency;
(c) if the licence or rating is endorsed with any special limitations
when the safe performance of flight duties is dependent on
compliance with such limitations.
(6) The fees for medical examinations, audiometric examinations and

special medical examinations for student or private pilots, undertaken
by the Institute for Aviation Medicine shall be as prescribed in
Annexure A.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 19
(7) The fees, referred to in subregulation (6), shall be prepaid to the
Director-General: Transport or to any airport manager of the
Department of Transport and each candidate shall produce the receipt
for such fee when presenting himself for examination.
2.19 Effective Period of Reports of Medical Fitness
Subject to the provisions of regulations 2.21 and 2.22 a report of medical

fitness issued in terms of these regulations shall be effective
(a) if there is no current report of medical fitness or if there is a current

report of medical fitness and the medical examination is carried out
prior to a period of 30 days before the date of expiry of the current
report of medical fitness from the date on which that medical
examination completed; and
(b) if there is a current report of medical fitness and the medical

examination is carried out within a period of 30 days prior to the date
of expiry of the current report of medical fitness - from the date
immediately succeeding the date of expiry of the current report of
medical fitness;
for a period of
twenty-four months for a student pilot;

twenty-four months for a micro-light aeroplane pilot;
twenty four months for a private pilot;
twenty four months for a glider pilot;
twenty four months for a free balloon pilot;
twelve months for a commercial pilot;
twelve months for an airline transport pilot;
twelve months for a flight navigator;
twelve months for a flight engineer (restricted);
twelve months for a flight engineer;
twelve months for a flight radiotelephony operator who is not
the holder of another licence for which medical requirements
are prescribed in Chapter 6 and in the case of a flight
radiotelephony operator who is also the holder of another
licence for which medical requirements are prescribed in
Chapter 6, for the period prescribed for that licence;
twelve months for an air traffic controller;
twenty four months for a gyroplane pilot:
Provided that where medical conclusion acceptable to the Commissioner

indicates that a shorter effective period should be specified, the report of
medical fitness may be issued for such shorter period as is recommended in
such medical conclusion: Provided further that in the case of a student pilot, a
private pilot, a glider pilot or a free balloon pilot who is 40 years of age or
over, the report if medical fitness shall in any event not be effective for more
than 12 months.

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2.20 Circumstances in Which Medical Examinations May be Deferred
If, because of duty outside the Republic, deferment of the medical re

examination of a flight crew member has to be made, such deferment shall
only be made as an exception and shall not exceed-
(a) a single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an
aircraft engaged in private operation; or
(b) two consecutive periods, each of three months, in the case of a flight
crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations:
Provided that
(i) the person concerned obtains locally, in each instance a favourable

medical certificate after examination by a qualified physician carrying
out medical functions in that region or experienced in the examination
of aviation personnel or, if such physician is not available, by a
physician legally qualified to practise;
(ii) the medical certificate so obtained is acceptable to the Commissioner.
2.21 Medical Incapacity
(1) The holder of a licence shall not exercise the privileges of his licence
during any period when such holder is aware of any illness or
decrease in medical fitness, nor after any accident or injury, the effects
of which would render him unable to meet, for a period, the medical
requirements for the issue of his current licence.
(2) Should any such incapacity render a licence holder unable to meet the
medical requirements for the issue of his current licence he shall,
before again exercising the privilege of his licence, obtain a certificate
in duplicate by a qualified medical practitioner indicating the nature of
the incapacity to which he has been subjected and that he has fully
recovered, forward the original thereof to the Institute for Aviation
Medicine and the duplicate copy to the Commissioner and await
confirmation from the Commissioner that he has again been assessed
as medically fit.
(3) The Commissioner may, however, require the full or any part of the
examination prescribed in Chapter 6.
(4) A pilot found to be unfit after an examination in terms of Chapter 6

may appeal against such finding to the Commissioner: Provided that
the appellant shall deposit with the department the sum prescribed in
Annexure A to these regulations, which sum shall be refunded to the
appellant if his appeal is successful.

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2. 22 Decrease in Medical Fitness
(1) If in the opinion of the Commissioner, the medical fitness of the holder
of a licence, certificate or rating has decreased to an extent which
renders him unable to meet the medical requirements applicable to
the issue, reissue or renewal of his current licence, certificate or
rating, the Commissioner may, after reasonable notice in writing to
such holder, require him at his own expense to undergo on or before a
date specified by the Commissioner the medical examination
prescribed in these regulations for the issue, reissue or renewal of his
licence, certificate or rating.
(2) If the medical examination required in terms of sub regulation (1)

discloses that the holder’s standard of medical fitness is below that
required for the issue, reissue or renewal of the licence, certificate or
rating concerned, the Commissioner shall suspend that licence,
certificate or rating until such time as the holder is able to show to the
satisfaction of the Commissioner that he is able to meet the medical
requirements applicable to the issue, reissue or renewal of that
licence, certificate or rating.
(3) If the holder of a licence, certificate or rating, who has been duly
notified in terms of subregulation (1), fails without reasonable cause to
undergo the medical examination on or before the date specified, his
medical fitness shall be deemed to be below the standard required for
the issue, reissue or renewal of that licence, certificate or rating and
the provisions of subregulation (2) shall mutatis mutandis apply.
2.23 Medical Requirements for Holders of More Than One Class of Licence,
Certificate or Rating
If a person is the holder of more than one class of licence, certificate or rating
he shall not be required to undergo a separate medical examination in
respect of each such licence, certificate or rating, provided he continues to
meeting in respect of physical, visual, colour perception and hearing
requirements taken separately, the highest requirement called for by the
combined licences, certificates or ratings.
2.24 Privileges of and Limitations on Licence Holders
Student pilots
The holder of a valid student pilot’s licence shall be permitted to fly solo for
the purpose of receiving training for a higher grade pilot’s licence-
(a) in the type of aircraft in which he is undergoing training;

(b) after being authorised thereto and while under supervision, as
prescribed in regulation 7.6;
(c) without carrying any passenger;
(d) on a flight other than an international flight; and
(e) in VMC by day.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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2.25 Private Pilots
The holder of a valid private pilot’s licence shall be permitted, subject to

regulations 2.23, 2.35, 2.36 and 2.37, to act, but not for remuneration-
(a) as pilot-in-command of an aircraft and to carry passengers therein;

(b) as co-pilot of any aircraft on which a co-pilot is not a requirement;
(c) as co-pilot of any aircraft on which a co-pilot is required, on condition
that he is the holder of the appropriate category, class and type
ratings;
(d) as pilot-in-command of a tug aircraft, on condition that he is the holder
of a valid tug pilot rating;
(e) as pilot-in-command of an aircraft flying in compliance with IFR or in
IMC, on condition that he is the holder of a valid instrument rating:
Provided that a private pilot without a valid instrument rating may fly in
compliance with IFR or in IMC, in sight of the surface and clear of
cloud, fog or mist within a control zone, after being authorised to do so
by the responsible air traffic services unit;
(f) as pilot-in-command of an aircraft by night, on condition that he is the
holder of a valid night flight rating;
(g) as safety pilot, on condition that he is the holder of a valid safety pilot
rating
2.26 Commercial Pilots
The holder of a valid commercial pilot’s licence shall be permitted, subject to

regulations 2.3, 2.36 and 2.37-
(a) to exercise all the privileges of a private pilot;

(b) to act as pilot-in-command in any aircraft operations other than the
transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire;
(c) to act as pilot-in-command in commercial air transportation in any
aircraft certificated for single-pilot operations;
(d) to act as co-pilot in commercial air transportation in any aircraft
required to be operated with a co-pilot, on condition that he is the
holder of the appropriate category, class and type ratings;
(e) to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft by night, provided that the
holder of a commercial pilot’s licence (helicopter) shall be the holder of
a valid night flight rating before acting as pilot-in-command by night;
and
(f) to act as pilot-in-command of a tug aircraft and as safety pilot.
2.28 Airline Transport Pilots
The holder of a valid airline transport pilot’s licence shall be permitted, subject
to regulations 2.3, 2.36 and 2.37-
(a) to exercise all the privileges of a private and a commercial pilot:

Provided that an airline transport pilot (helicopter) shall be the holder
of an instrument rating before he may exercise the privileges of the
holder of an instrument rating;
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 23
(b) to act as pilot-in-command in air transportation.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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2.34 Privileges of and Limitations on Rating Holders
(1) The holder of a valid pilot category rating, class rating or type rating
shall be permitted to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft of that
category, class or type concerned: Provided that the holder of a valid
type rating endorsed for “co-pilot” shall only be permitted to act as co-
pilot on such aircraft type.
(2) The holder of a valid flight instructor’s rating shall be permitted,

subject to regulation 2.6, to act as flight instructor.
(3) The holder of a valid Grade III flight instructor’s rating-
(a) may give flight instruction under the supervision of a Grade I or

Grade II flight instructor;
(b) may issue certificates of competency in respect of type ratings
for aircraft having a maximum certified mass of 2 700 kg or
less, if he is the holder of such rating, but shall not be
permitted to issue other certificates of competency;
(c) may not send student pilots on their initial solo flights; and
(d) may not give instrument instruction unless he is the holder of a
valid instrument flight rating.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 25
(4) The holder of a valid Grade II flight instructor’s rating shall be
permitted to-
(a) exercise all the privileges of a Grade III flight instructor;

(b) issue certificates of competency;
(c) send the holder of a student pilot’s licence on his initial solo
flight.
(5) The holder of a valid Grade I flight instructor rating shall be permitted
to exercise all the privileges of a Grade II or Grade III flight instructor
and to undertake the duties of an official examiner if designated as
such.
(6) The holder of a valid instrument rating shall be permitted, subject to

regulation CAR Part 91.02.4, to pilot an aircraft in accordance with IFR
and IMC and by night, to carry out with the aid of an NDB, a VOR or
an ILS, for whichever he is rated, an approach and landing under IFR
and in IMC; and to act as safety pilot on an aircraft in respect of which
he is the holder of the appropriate type or group type rating:
Provided that the holder of an instrument rating issued in terms of

regulation 3.12(1) shall be restricted to exercising the privileges of
such rating in single-engine aircraft only.
(7) The holder of a valid night flight rating shall be permitted to act as
pilot-in-command of an aircraft by night.
(8) The holder of a valid tug pilot rating shall be permitted to act as pilot-
in-command of a tug aircraft.
(9) The holder of a valid safety pilot rating shall be permitted to act on an
aircraft in respect of which he is the holder of the appropriate type or
group type rating as safety pilot to a pilot engaged in simulated
instrument flying practice.
(10) The holder of a valid official flight examiner’s rating shall be permitted
to act as pilot-in-command and as flight instructor on any aircraft with
a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less.
(11) The holder of an agricultural pilot’s rating may act as pilot-in-command

of an agricultural aircraft involved in agricultural aviation activities in
respect of which he is the holder of the appropriate category and type
rating.
2.35 Maintenance of Competency by Holders of Private Pilots’ Licences

before the First Renewal of Their Licences
The holder of a private pilot’s licence shall-
(a) within the six months immediately following the date on which he
has completed 150 hours of flight time but before completing 180
hours of flight time; or

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 26
(b) within the 30 days immediately preceding the first anniversary of
the date of issue of the licence, if he has not accumulated 150 hours
of flight time at that stage; and
(c) before acting as pilot on any solo or passenger-carrying flight after the
applicable prescribed period, satisfactorily complete the practical flight
test prescribed in regulations 3.2(1) (e), 3.2(2) 1nd (3), with the
exception of sequences 3, 15 and 27 of the flight instruction syllabus
prescribed in Chapter 4, and have the successful completion of this
test certified in his pilot’s logbook by the Grade I or Grade II flight
instructor conducting the test: Provided that these requirements shall
not apply if, on the date of application for the first renewal of a private
pilot’s licence-
(i) the holder of such licence has not completed 150 hours of
flight time; or
(ii) a year has not elapsed since the date of issue of such licence.
SEE PART 91 02.4 FOR THE NEW RECENCY REQUIREMENTS. 2.36 TO

2.38 HAVE BEEN REPLACED BY PART 91.02.4 AS FROM 1 JANUARY
1999
2.36 Maintenance of Competency: Minimum Landings Before Carrying

Passengers
2.37 Maintenance of Competency: Minimum Landings Before Carrying

Passengers by
Night
2.38 Maintenance of Competency: Requirements for Instrument Approaches

in IMC

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 27
CHAPTER 3 ANR’s

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 28
REQUIREMENTS FOR THE ISSUE AND RENEWAL OF FLIGHT
CREW MEMBER AND AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER LICENCES,
CERTIFICATES AND RATINGS
3.1 Student Pilots
(1) An applicant for the issue or renewal of a student pilot’s licence shall
satisfy the Commissioner that he has an adequate knowledge of
radiotelephony procedures for undertaking solo flights, shall not be
less than 17 years of age, and shall submit to the Commissioner a
certificate of competency signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight
instructor who is the holder of the applicable flight instructor category
and type rating, wherein it is certified that the applicant is familiar with
the type of aircraft being used for his training, and that the applicant-
(a) has received adequate preparatory ground training on-
(i) location of controls, switches and cocks;

(ii) fuel and other systems;
(iii) instruments;
(iv) communication systems;
(v) location of fire extinguishers and first aid kit;
(vi) loading requirements;
(vii) starting, running and stopping of engine, where
applicable;
(viii) any exercise peculiar to the aircraft being trained on;
(b) has, within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of

application, passed a written examination conducted by a
Grade I or Grade II flight instructor (who shall not, unless
otherwise authorised in writing by the Commissioner, be the
flight instructor from whom he is receiving his theoretical
training) (or, in the case of an aircraft other than an aeroplane
or a helicopter by a person approved by an approved
organization) on NOTAMs and AICs currently in force in so far
as they are applicable to the operation of aircraft by private
pilots.
(2) When the training and test is conducted in an unconventional type

aircraft, such portions of the flight instruction syllabus or test which are
not permissible in that type of aircraft shall be omitted. In these
circumstances the licence will not be rated for a conventional type of
aircraft until the applicant has undergone the portion of the training
and tests previously omitted.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 29
3.2 Private Pilots (Aeroplane)
(1) An applicant for a private pilot’s licence shall-
(a) be the holder of at least a valid restricted radiotelephone

operator’s certificate;
(b) be not less than 17 years of age;
(c) submit to the Commissioner a certificate of competency signed
by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor, wherein it is certified
that the applicant has, within the 60 days immediately
preceding the date of application, passed a written examination
conducted by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor who shall
not (unless otherwise authorised in writing by the
Commissioner) be the flight instructor from whom he has
received his theoretical training, on-
(i) the regulations made under the Act concerning-change

of address; conditions relating to flying in the Republic;
licensing requirements applicable to private pilots;
logbooks and crediting of flight time; rules of the air;
flight rules; visual flight rules; instrument flight rules;
ground and light signals for airport traffic; air traffic
services; search and rescue; taxi rules; investigation of
aircraft accidents; aircraft flying to or from or over the
Republic on other than scheduled international air
services; prohibited and restricted areas,
and concerning his knowledge of the following as set out in the

AIP, AIP SUP, NOTAMs and AICs currently in force:
aeronautical information services available to pilots;

units of measurement; meteorological information
available to pilots;
names and functions of the various air traffic services
units and names of associated airspaces;
altimeter setting procedures;
prohibited, restricted and danger areas;
(ii) the elementary principles of-

aeronautical charts;
meteorological information for cross-country flights; and
the compass;
(iii) the technical subjects prescribed in Chapter 5;
(d) have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
(i) forty hours of flight time, dual and solo, of which not
less than 15 hours in each case shall be solo flight
time;
(ii) three hours of cross country flight time, solo, in
accordance with sequence 27(b) of the flight instruction
syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4: Provided that the
three hours may be included in the total of 40 hours
prescribed in subparagraph (i);
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 30
(e) within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of
application, have passed a practical flight test conducted by a
Grade I or Grade II flight instructor who is the holder of the
applicable flight instructor type or group type rating, and who
shall not be (unless otherwise authorised in writing by the
Commissioner), the flight instructor from whom he has
received his practical training on sequences 1 to 17, 19 to 23
and 27 of the flight instruction syllabus, prescribed in Chapter
4, including
(i) take-off, circuit, landing;

(ii) incipient spin recovery;
(iii) recovery from full left and right spins;
(iv) steep turns left and right at constant height;
(v) simulated forced landing from a minimum height of 2
000 feet to execute a landing not more than 150 m
beyond a point selected by the examiner;
vi) execution of a landing, with or without the aid of the
engine, between two marks selected by the examiner
which shall be at least 75 m apart measured along the
line of approach.
(2) The test shall be completed in one flight and should any portion of
such test be below the required standard the entire test shall be
retaken after an interval of not less than three days:Provided that
sequence 27 may be completed separately and if it is so completed
and is found to be below the required standard, that sequence shall be
retaken after an interval of not less than three days.
(3) When the training and test is conducted in an unconventional type

aircraft such portions of the flight instruction syllabus or test which are
not permissible in that type of aircraft shall be omitted. In these
circumstances the licence will not be rated for a conventional type of
aircraft until the applicant has undergone the portions of the training
and tests previously omitted.
(4) (Deleted)
(5) An applicant for the renewal of a private pilot’s licence who is the
holder of a valid instrument rating shall submit to the Commissioner
either-
(a) his pilot’s logbook or a certificate signed by a Grade I or Grade

II flight instructor showing that he has completed on an
aeroplane not less than 10 hours’ flight, of which not more than
four hours may be dual instruction time within the 12 months
immediately preceding the date of application; or

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 31
(b) a certificate of competency signed by a Grade I or Grade II
flight instructor that he has completed not less than three
hours’ flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes within the
12 months immediately preceding the date of application and
satisfactorily completed the practical flight test prescribed in
regulation 3.2(1) (e) and in regulation 3.2(2) and (3), with the
exception of sequences 3, 15 and 27 of the flight instruction
syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4, within the 30 days
immediately preceding the date of application.
(6) An applicant for the renewal of a private pilot’s licence who is under 40
years of age and who is not the holder of a valid instrument rating,
shall be the holder of a flight radiotelephony operator’s licence and
shall submit to the Commissioner a certificate of competency signed
by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor, wherein it is certified that the
applicant-
(a) has completed not less than three hours’ flight time as pilot-in
command of an aeroplane within the 12 months immediately
preceding the date of application; and
(b) has satisfactorily completed the practical flight test prescribed
in regulation 3.2(1) (e) and in regulation 3.2(2) and (3), with the
exception of sequences 3, 15 and 27 of the flight instruction
syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4, within the 30 days
immediately preceding the date of application: Provided that
the requirement for a practical flight test shall not apply in the
case of the first renewal of a licence where the applicant
furnishes proof to the Commissioner that he has satisfactorily
completed the practical flight test prescribed in regulation 2.35
within the six months immediately preceding the date of
application for such renewal.
(7) An applicant for the renewal of a private pilot’s licence who is 40 years
of age or over and who is not the holder of a valid instrument rating
shall be the holder of a flight radiotelephony operator’s licence and
shall submit to the Commissioner-
(a) for the first renewal of the licence, and thereafter for alternate
renewals, a certificate of competency signed by a Grade I or
Grade II flight instructor wherein it is certified that the applicant-
(i) has completed not less than three hours’ flight time as
pilot-in-command of an aeroplane within the 12 months
immediately preceding the date of application; and
(ii) has satisfactorily completed the practical flight test
prescribed in regulation 3.2(1)(e) and regulation 3.2(2)
and (3), with the exception of sequences 3, 15 and 27
of the flight instruction syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4,
within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of
application:

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 32
Provided that the requirement for a practical flight test
shall not apply in the case of the first renewal of a
licence where the applicant furnishes proof to the
Commissioner that he has satisfactorily completed the
practical flight test prescribed in regulation 2.35 within
the six months immediately preceding the date of
application for such renewal;
(b) for the renewals of the licence at the times not specified in
paragraph (a) either-
(i) the certificate prescribed in paragraph (a); or

(ii) his pilot’s logbook or a certificate signed by a Grade I or
Grade II flight instructor, whereto it is certified that the
applicant has completed in aeroplanes not less than 10
hours’ flight time, of which not more than four hours
may be dual instruction time, within the 12 months
(8) The requirements for the re issue of a private pilot’s licence shall be as
follows:
(a) If a period of not more than two years has expired since the
lapse of such Licence, the requirements set out in regulation
3.2 (5). 3.2 (6) or 3.2 (7), as the case may be, shall be
complied with.
(b) If a period of more than two years has expired since the lapse
of such licence, the requirements shall be the same as those
for the initial issue of such licence as set out in sub regulations
(1) to (4) of regulation 3.2, except that the Commissioner may
exempt the applicant from any or all of the prescribed written
examinations.
3.3 Commercial Pilots (Aeroplane)
(1) An applicant for a commercial pilot’s licence shall
(a) be the holder of a valid general certificate of competency in

radiotelephony;
(b) be not less than 18 years of age;
(c) satisfy the Commissioner, in a written examination, as to his
knowledge of-
(i) the regulations made under the Act as prescribed for

private pilots in regulation 3.2(1)(i), with the exception that
the licensing requirements applicable to commercial pilots
instead of the licensing requirements applicable to private
pilots shall apply, and in addition, knowledge of the
regulations made under the Act concerning-
flight-time limitations;
when licensed airports must be used;
training of flight crew members;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 33
And as to his knowledge of the following as set out in the
AIP, AIP SUP, NOTAMs and AICs currently in force:
The organisation and operation of the various air traffic

services units;
holding, approach and departure procedures;
entry and departure requirements;
search and rescue;
Incident reporting procedures;
(i) navigation;
(iii) elementary meteorology;
(iv) the technical subjects detailed in Chapter 5;
(v) [Deleted]
(d) have completed not less than 200 hours of flight time, which
may include 20 hours of flight instruction time on
simulators approved by the Commissioner, or 150 hours of
flight time if he has satisfactorily completed a course of
approved training, which may include 10 hours of flight
instruction time on simulators approved by the Commissioner:
Provided that the total of 200 hours or 150 hours, as the case
may be, shall include:
(i) 100 hours as pilot-in-command;

(ii) 20 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-
command, including one flight of not less than 300
nautical miles in the course of which not less than two
full-stop landings at different points shall be made;
(iii) ten hours of night flying as pilot-in-command, including
not less than 10 take-offs and 10 landings by night and
a solo triangular cross-country flight by night of not less
than 100 nautical miles and with a radius of not less
than 50 nautical miles from base, along any sector of
the flight;
(iv) 20 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which not
more than 10 hours may have been acquired on
simulators approved by the Commissioner;
(e) pass a practical flight test within 24 months from the date of
notification of having passed the required technical
examinations and within the 30 days immediately preceding
the date of application, and such practical flight shall be with an
official examiner in-
(i) sequences 1 to 17 and 19 to 23 of the flight instruction

syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4 and shall demonstrate
to the official examiner his ability to perform both
normal and emergency manoeuvres, appropriate to the
category and class of the aircraft used in the test, with a
degree of competency appropriate to that of a
commercial pilot;
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 34
(ii) instrument flight, which includes the interception of
predetermined radials, QDR and QDM from or to VOR
and NDB stations and utilising navigation aids as
applicable;
(iii) night flight;
(iv) flight planning and mass and balance problems
appropriate to the type of aeroplane used for the test.
(1A) Only a candidate who is the holder of a valid pilots licence may enter
for or write examinations referred to in subregulation (1) of this
regulation.
(2) The tests referred to in subregulation (1)(e) shall be undertaken in an

aeroplane with variable-pitch propeller, adjustable flaps and
retractable undercarriage, unless special permission is obtained from
the Commissioner.
(3) An applicant who has qualified as a pilot in the South African Air Force
may be exempted by the Commissioner -
(a) from any or all of the examinations and tests prescribed in

subregulation (1) of this regulation except those prescribed in
paragraph (i) of that subregulation; and
(b) from the requirement referred to in subregulation (1A) of this
regulation.
(4) An applicant for the renewal of a commercial pilot’s licence who is not
the holder of an instrument rating-
(a) shall submit to the Director-General: Transport a duly

completed application form, his pilot’s licence and the fee
prescribed in Annexure A;
(b) shall be the holder of a valid general flight radiotelephony
operator’s licence;
(c) shall for the first renewal of such licence, and for the renewal
thereof every third year thereafter, have passed the practical
flight test prescribed in subparagraph (1)(e)(i) with an official
examiner within the 30 days immediately preceding the date of
application; and
(d) shall for the renewal of the licence at times not specified in
paragraph (c) either-
(i) satisfy the Commissioner that he has completed not

less than three hours of flight time as pilot-in-command
of an aeroplane within the six months immediately
preceding the date of application by either submitting
his pilot’s logbook in which the said hours have been
recorded or submitting a certificate signed by a Grade l
or Grade II flight instructor in which it is certified that
such applicant has complied with this requirement; or
(ii) have passed the practical flight test prescribed in
subregulation (1)(e)(i) with an official examiner within

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 35
the 30 days immediately preceding the date of
application.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 36
(5) An applicant for the renewal of a commercial pilot’s licence who is the
holder of a valid instrument rating shall-
(a) if the renewal of such instrument rating is not sought, comply

with subregulation (4);
(b) if the renewal of such instrument rating is sought-
(i) comply with paragraphs (4)(a) and (b)-

(ii) either satisfy the Commissioner that he has completed
not less than 10 hours of flight time as pilot-in-
command within the six months immediately preceding
the date of application by either submitting his pilot’s
logbook in which the said hours have been recorded or
submitting a certificate signed by a Grade I or Grade II
flight instructor in which it is certified that such applicant
has complied with this requirement; or have passed the
practical flight test prescribed in subparagraph (1)(e) (i)
with an official examiner within the 30 days immediately
preceding the date of application; and
(iii) comply with regulation 3.12(4).
(6) An applicant for the renewal of a lapsed commercial pilot’s licence

shall-
(a) if a period of not more than two years has expired since lapse of
such licence, comply with the requirements for renewal as set out
in regulation 3.3(4) or 3.3(5) or 3.3A, as the case may be;
(b) if a period of more than two years but not more than five years
has expired since the lapse of such licence, comply with the
requirements for the renewal thereof as set out in regulation
3.3(4) or 3.3(5) or 3.3A, as the case may be and in addition
pass a written examination in regulations as prescribed for the
commercial pilot’s licence; and
(c) if a period of more than five years has expired since the lapse
of such licence, comply with the requirements for the initial
issue of such licence as set out in regulation 3.3(1) or 3.3(5) or
3.3A, as the case may be except that the Commissioner may
exempt the applicant from any or all of the prescribed written
examinations.
3.5 Airline Transport Pilots (Aeroplane)
(1) An applicant for an airline transport pilot’s licence (aeroplane) shall-
(a) be not less than 21 years of age;

(b) be the holder of a commercial pilot’s licence (aeroplane);
(c) satisfy the Commissioner, in a written examination, as to his
knowledge

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 37
(i) the regulations applicable to commercial pilots in terms
of regulation 3.3(1)(i), except that the licensing
requirements applicable to airline transport pilots
instead of the licensing requirements applicable to
commercial pilots, shall apply:
(ii) flight operation;
(iii) aeronautical charts and the form of the earth:
(iv) flight navigation:
(v) radio aids to navigation;
(vi) aeronautical instruments;
(vii) meteorology; and
(viii) the technical subjects referred to in Chapter 5:
the above mentioned subjects may be attempted only by a candidate

who is the holder of a valid commercial pilot’s licence issued in terms
of these regulations;
(d) (i) have completed not less than 75 hours of instrument

time, not more than 30 hours of which may be acquired
on simulators approved by the Commissioner;
(ii) have completed not less than 1 500 hours of flight time
as prescribed in Chapter 8, not more than 100 hours of
which may be acquired on simulators approved by the
Commissioner: Provided that the pilot actually
manipulated the flight controls of an aircraft for not less
than 250 hours, at least 100 hours of which shall
include night flight; and
(iii) comply with the requirements for the issuing of an
instrument rating;
(e) undergo a practical flight test with an official examiner in a

multi-engined aeroplane with variable pitch propellers,
adjustable flaps and retractable undercarriage, during which he
shall demonstrate his ability-
(i) to pilot an aeroplane satisfactorily in all manoeuvres

used in normal flight;
(ii) to execute emergency manoeuvres which may include
simulated forced landings and recovery from stalls
entered from both level and steeply banked attitudes;
(iii) to operate multi-engined aeroplanes at maximum
permissible landing mass with one engine inoperative;
(iv) to execute all normal manoeuvres, solely by means of
instruments, including stalls, spirals and turns of not
less than 720 degrees in a banked attitude of not less
than 45 degrees;
(v) to operate multi-engined aeroplanes solely by reference
to instruments at maximum permissible landing mass
with one engine inoperative;
(iv) while operating the aeroplane under actual or simulated
instrument flight conditions, to carry out orientation and
approach procedures by using radio aids, and to give

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 38
any other demonstration of skill required for the
instrument rating;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 39
(vii) to execute all other manoeuvres which may be
essential to establish his competency;
(viii) to carry out the tests detailed in subparagraphs (ii), (iii)
and (v) in an aeroplane of the class for which a rating is
sought and where the rating is sought for an aeroplane
having a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700
kg, in the type of aeroplane for which the rating is
sought; and
(ix) to meet the requirements for the issuing of an
instrument rating: Provided that any manoeuvres
required during the course of the tests, detailed in
subparagraphs (i) to (vii), may be modified or excluded
by the examiner if such manoeuvres are inadvisable for
the type of aeroplane used in the tests;
(f) pass a practical flight test within 36 months from the date of
examinations and within the 60 days immediately preceding
the date of application
(2) An applicant for the renewal of an airline transport pilot’s licence

(aeroplane) shall-
(a) submit to the Commissioner his pilot’s logbook showing that he

has completed not less than 12 hours as pilot in-command
within the six months immediately preceding the date of the
application, or has successfully completed the flight test
prescribed in subregulation (1)(e) within the 60 days
immediately preceding the date of application;
(b) meet the requirements for the renewal of an instrument rating:
Provided that where a candidate fails to meet those
requirements, such candidate may exercise the privileges of
his licence under VFR only, for a period not exceeding 60 days
or until the date of expiry of his licence, whichever period is the
lesser;
(c) if a period of not more than two years has elapsed since the
lapse of such licence, comply with the requirements set out in
paragraphs (a) and (b);
(d) if a period of more than two years but not more than five years
has elapsed since the lapse of such licence, comply with the
requirements set in paragraphs (a) and (b) and pass a written
examination in regulations as prescribed for an airline transport
pilot’s licence; or
(e) if a period of more than five years has elapsed since the lapse
of such licence, comply with the requirements for the initial
issue of such licence as set out in subregulation (1), except
that the Commissioner may exempt the applicant from the
prescribed written examinations referred to in subregulation
(1).

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 40
3.6 Category Ratings
An applicant for a category rating shall undergo the examinations and tests
required for a type rating for an aircraft of the category which is sought.
3.7 Class Ratings
An applicant for a class rating shall:

(1) If a land rating is sought, undergo the examinations and tests
applicable to a type of aircraft for that class;
(2) If a sea rating is sought, undergo the examinations and tests

applicable to a type of aircraft of that class in which the landings and
take-offs shall include one cross wind take-off and landing, and pass a
practical test in:
(a) manoeuvring on water generally; and

(b) approaching slipways and buoys;
(3) If multi-engine rating is sought-
(a) have completed a conversion course of at least six hours dual

and solo flight time on a multi-engine aircraft;
(b) undergo a practical flying test with an official examiner in:
(i) take off, circuit and landing;

(ii) simulated engine failure during take-off, the execution
of a turn and on approach;
(iii) simulated feathering or shutting down or
disengagement in the case of a helicopter, as
applicable, of inoperative engine and flying thus in
turns, approach and landing:
(iv) appreciation of critical and safety speeds;
(c) if such applicant is the holder of an instrument rating, pass the

tests prescribed in paragraphs 3.12(2)(b) or (c) and have the
relative class rating endorsed on his licence before exercising
the privilege of his instrument rating in the class of aircraft
concerned;
(4) If a powered glider rating is sought
(a) have completed a conversion course with a flight instructor

who is the holder of the appropriate category, class and type
rating;
(b) pass a practical flight test with a flight instructor who is the
holder of the appropriate category, class and type rating; and
(c) pass a written examination, given by a person authorised by an
approved organisation, on the power plant and other systems
applicable to that class of gliders.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 41
3.8 Type Ratings
An applicant for a type rating for an aircraft, excluding helicopters, with a

maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less shall-
(1) undergo a practical flight test-
(a) wherein a high standard of vital action drill shall be required:

(b) to the satisfaction of-
(i) a Grade I, Grade II or Grade III flight instructor, in

respect of an aircraft with maximum certificated mass of
2 700 kg or less, or a Grade I or Grade II flight
instructor in respect of an aircraft with a maximum
certificated mass exceeding 2 700 kg up to and
including 5 700 kg, who shall be the holder of the
appropriate flight instructor type; or
(ii) a pilot designated in writing for the purpose by the
Commissioner;
(c) with the examiner at the dual controls, where the design of the
aircraft permits, consisting of-
(i) three light-load landings;

(ii) three full-load landings (which shall include a landing
with one engine inoperative if the rating applied for is
for a multi-engine aircraft);
(iii) any other exercise considered necessary in view of the
applicant’s previous experience;
(iv) if the applicant’s experience is limited in respect of
aircraft previously flown, incipient spins or spinning (if
applicable to the aircraft), simulated forced landing and
a landing without the use of flaps;
(2) pass a technical examination on the subjects prescribed in Part 2 of

Chapter 5 applicable to the type of aircraft (including its engines) on which
the flight test is taken, conducted by an inspector of flying or an
airworthiness inspector of the Department, or by the holder of a valid
aircraft maintenance engineer’s licence (Class II) with a type rating under
Categories A and C, applicable to the type of aircraft (including its
engines) on which the flight test is taken, or by a Grade I or Grade II flight
instructor who is the holder of the applicable flight instructor type rating;
(3) submit an application for the rating together with his licence and a
copy of the certificate prescribed in regulation 2.3 to the
Commissioner for the issue of the rating in the case of aircraft in
respect of which a type rating by name required or, in the case of
piston-engined aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700
kg or less, his flying logbook to the flight instructor or designated pilot
who conducted the tests for the insertion of the endorsement referred
to in regulation 2.3(3)(a).

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 42
(4) The Commissioner may exempt an applicant for a type rating from the
requirements prescribed in subregulation (1) or (2).
3.9 An Applicant For A Type Rating For An Aircraft (Excluding Helicopters) With A
Maximum Certificated Mass Exceeding 5 700 kg shall -
(1) undergo a practical flight test to the satisfaction of a Grade I or Grade

II flight instructor who shall be the holder of the applicable flight
instructor type rating and who has been designated in writing for the
purpose by the Commissioner, or to the satisfaction of the nominee of
an organisation approved for that purpose by the Commissioner,
consisting of at least the following:
(a) executing in the type of aircraft for which a rating is applied for,
of emergency manoeuvres which may include a simulated
forced landing and recovery from a stall entered from both a
level and a steeply banked attitude;
(b) operating such aircraft at maximum permissible landing mass
with one engine inoperative;
(c) operating such aircraft solely by reference to instruments at
maximum permissible landing mass with one engine
inoperative; and
(d) completion of three full-load and three light-load landings of
such aircraft;
(2) pass a technical examination on the subjects prescribed in Part 2 of

Chapter 5 applicable to the type of aircraft (including its engine) on
which the flight test is taken conducted by an inspector of flying or an
airworthiness inspector of the Department or by a person designated
in writing for the purpose by the Commissioner;
(3) submit, an application for the rating together with his licence and a
copy of the certificate prescribed in regulation 2.3 or in regulation 3.10,
as the case may be to the Commissioner for the issue of the rating
3.10 Flight Test Conducted Outside the Republic
(1) Where the test prescribed by regulation 3.9 or 3.9A is conducted

outside the Republic by the nominee of an organisation approved for
the purpose by the Commissioner, such organisation may issue a
temporary certificate of competency, by virtue of which the applicant
may exercise the privileges of the rating for a period of 30 days as if
the rating has already been issued to him by the Commissioner.
(2) The organisation which issues a temporary certificate of competency

in terms of subregulation (1) shall submit the original thereof to the
Commissioner and furnish a copy of the certificate to the pilot after he
has successfully completed the flight test and passed the examination.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 43
3.12 Instrument Ratings
(1) An applicant for an instrument rating who is not the holder of a multi-
engine class rating (aeroplane) shall -
(a) submit to the Commissioner a duly completed application form,

his pilot’s licence and the prescribed fee;
(b) be the holder of a valid pilot’s licence;
(c) be the holder of a valid general certificate of competency in
radiotelephony;
(d) have completed not less than 100 hours of flight time as pilot-
in-command, not less than 50 hours of which shall be hours
flown cross-country by day or night;
(e) have completed not less than 40 hours of instrument time, of
which-
(i) not less than 10 hours shall have been completed

under instruction; and
(ii) not more than 20 hours may be completed under
instruction on simulators approved by the
Commissioner: Provided that if the applicant has
satisfactorily completed a course of approved training
he shall have completed at least 30 hours of instrument
flying under instruction, not more than 20 hours of
which may be done on such simulators: Provided
further that if the applicant is a private pilot he shall also
be the holder of a valid night flying rating;
(f) satisfy the Commissioner in a written examination regarding

his know ledge of-
(i) practical air navigation, including the use of

aeronautical charts, or navigation by dead reckoning
and by radio, and the use and adjustment of flight
instruments;
(ii) radio systems provided to aid navigation, approach and
landing, the manner in which such systems are used in
flight under IFR, the procedures associated therewith
and the assessment of reliability under operational
conditions of the indications obtained from such radio
aids;
(iii) elementary meteorology, the elementary principles of
weather forecasting and the arrangements and
procedures for the issue of aviation meteorological
reports;
(iv) IFR and flight planning in relation to air traffic services,
aircraft performance and forecast meteorological
conditions, including the estimation of time of arrival at
points along a route, the fuel quantities required for a
flight and the anticipation of such flight plan
modification as may prove necessary owing to changes
in flight conditions;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 44
(g) pass a practical flight test within 24 months from the date of
examinations and within the 30 days preceding the date of
application, and such flight test shall be with an official
examiner and shall be conducted solely by reference to
instruments, including-
(i) the solving of simple problems of dead-reckoning

navigation;
(ii) the fixing of the aircraft’s position;
(iii) the execution of the communications procedure at a
given airport and the execution of given track
interceptions, for the departure, descent and approach
procedures with the aid of navigational facilities,
including an ILS, in a single-engined aeroplane or
helicopter, as the case may be, or in a simulator
approved by the Commissioner for instrument rating
testing:
Provided that where an ILS is not available, the

Commissioner may, on submission to him by the
applicant of a certificate issued by a Grade I or Grade II
flight instructor stating that the applicant is proficient in
the execution of ILS approach procedures, exempt the
applicant from such test;
(iv) flight planning and mass and balance problems
appropriate to the type of aircraft used for the test.
(2) An applicant for an instrument rating who is the holder of a multi-

engine class rating (aeroplane) shall -
(a) comply with paragraphs (1)(a) to (g)(ii);

(b) pass the test prescribed in subparagraph (1)(g)(iii) in a multi
engine aeroplane or in a simulator approved by the
Commissioner for instrument rating testing;
(c) in a multi engine aeroplane or in a simulator approved by the
Commissioner for instrument rating testing, demonstrate his
ability to execute the procedures prescribed in paragraph (b),
in such aeroplane at maximum permissible landing mass with
one engine inoperative.
(2A) An applicant for an instrument rating who is the holder of an

instrument rating in more than one category of aircraft shall pass the
practical flight test prescribed in subregulation (1)(g) or (2)(b) and (c),
as the case may be, in each category of aircraft for which an
instrument rating is sought.
(3) An applicant for the renewal of an instrument rating shall -
(a) submit to the Commissioner a duly completed application form,

his pilot’s licence and the prescribed fee;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 45
(b) satisfy the Commissioner that he has satisfactorily completed
the practical flight test prescribed in paragraphs (1)(g) or (2)(b)
and (c), as appropriate, within the 30 days [60 days in the case
of a senior commercial or airline transport pilot (aeroplane)]
Provided that the holder of a helicopter and aeroplane

instrument rating may renew his instrument rating in both
categories by passing the practical flight test in one category if
he has passed the practical flight test in the other category on
the previous renewal of such instrument rating: Provided
further that the holder of a multi engine class rating (aeroplane)
may do the practical flight test in a single engine aeroplane on
every alternate renewal of such instrument rating.
(4) Should a candidate for the renewal of an instrument rating fail the test
prescribed in subregulation (3) prior to the date of expiry of his
instrument rating stated in his licence, such rating shall expire with
effect from the date and time of the completion of the test.
(5) An applicant for the reissue of a lapsed instrument flight rating shall-
(a) if a period of not more than five years has expired since the
lapse of such rating comply with the requirements for the
renewal thereof as set out in subregulation (3);
(b) if a period of more than five years has expired since lapse of
such rating, comply with the requirements for the initial issue of
such rating as set out in subregulation (1), except that the
Commissioner may exempt the applicant from any or all of the
prescribed written examinations.
3.13 Flight Instructor Ratings
(1) An applicant for a flight instructor’s rating for aeroplanes, helicopters

or gyroplanes, excluding turbo propeller and turbojet aeroplanes, shall
-
(a) be the holder of a valid commercial pilot’s or higher licence;

(b) have completed an approved course of training;
(c) pass a written examination in-
(i) theory of flight;

(ii) principles of flying instruction;
(iii) navigation and meteorology; and
(iv) the regulations made under the Act relating to the
licensing requirements applicable to all pilot’s licences
and ratings:
Provided that the above-mentioned subjects may be attempted

only by a candidate who has passed the commercial pilot’s
written examination;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 46
(d) submit to the Commissioner a certificate of competency signed
by a Grade l or Grade II flight instructor in which it is certified
that the applicant has attained the standard required for the
rating being applied for;
(e) pass a practical flight instruction test conducted by an official
examiner within 24 months from the date of notification of
having passed the prescribed technical examinations and
within the 30 days immediately preceding the application, in
the case of an aeroplane in flight instruction (sequences 1 to
23, inclusive, and 25 to 27, inclusive of the flight instruction
syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4) and in the case of a
helicopter, instruction sequences 1 to 32, inclusive, of the flight
instruction syllabus prescribed in Chapter 4A and flight
instruction by night; and

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 47
(f) submit an application for the rating together with his licence to
the Commissioner for the issue of the rating.
(1A) An applicant for a flight instructor’s rating for aeroplanes, including

turbo propeller aeroplanes and turbojet aeroplanes, shall in addition
to the requirements set out in sub regulations (1) (a). (b), (c), (d)
and (f).
(a) pass a written examination in-
(i) theory of high-altitude flight; and

(ii) the application of aero-medicine to high-altitude flying;
and
(b) pass a practical flight instruction test conducted by an official

examiner or by a person designated in writing by the
Commissioner.
(2) An applicant for a flight instructor type rating shall-
(a) in the case of piston engined aeroplanes with a maximum

certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less-
(i) satisfactorily complete a flight instruction test conducted

by a flight instructor Grade I or Grade II, who shall be
the holder of the appropriate flight instructor type rating,
or by a pilot designated in writing for such purpose by
the Commissioner and present his flying logbook to
such flying instructor or designated pilot who conducted
the tests for the insertion of the endorsement
mentioned in subregulation (3) (a); and
(ii) in respect of such endorsement, submit to the
Commissioner within 30 days a certificate of
competency,
(b) in the case of aircraft requiring a type rating by name submit to

the Commissioner a certificate of competency signed by a
flight instructor Grade I or Grade II, who shall be the holder of
the appropriate flight instructor type rating, or by a pilot
designated in writing for such purpose by the Commissioner,
wherein it is certified that such applicant has satisfactorily
completed a flight instruction test with such instructor or
designated pilot and that the flight instructor or designated pilot
is satisfied that such applicant is capable of giving flight
instruction on the type of aircraft for which a rating is being
sought.
(3) (a) The endorsement referred to in subregulation (2) (a) shall be

made in the column marked “Details of flight and remarks” and shall
contain the following
(i) an indication of the type of aeroplane, and also the

registration marks;
(ii) the words “Complied with as instructor;
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 48
(iii) the signature of the flying instructor or designated pilot;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 49
(iv) the licence number of the flying instructor or designated
pilot; and
(v) the date
(b) For the purpose of paragraph (a) the words “Complied with as
instructor” shall mean that the applicant concerned has
satisfactorily completed a flight instruction test with such flight
instructor or designated pilot concerned and that such flight
instructor or designated pilot is satisfied that such applicant is
capable of giving flight instruction on the type of aeroplane
endorsed.
(4) An applicant for the renewal of a flight instructor rating shall submit to
the Commissioner-
(a) his licence:

(b) his logbook showing that he has given not less than 20 hours
flight instruction (excluding cross-country flight instruction)
during the 12 months immediately preceding the date of
application;
(c) in the case of a flight instructor Grade III applying for the
renewal of his rating, and for a renewal in every third year
thereafter, a certificate of competency signed by an official
examiner, wherein it is certified that the applicant has
satisfactorily completed the practical flight instruction tests
prescribed in subregulation (1)(e), within the 30 days
immediately preceding the date of application; and
(d) in the case of a flight instructor Grade I or Grade II applying for
a first renewal of his rating, and for a renewal in every third
year thereafter, a certificate of competency signed by an official
examiner, wherein it certified that the applicant has
satisfactorily completed the practical flight instruction tests
prescribed in subregulation (1)(e), within the 30 days
(5) The holder of a flight instructor rating Grade III applying for regarding
to Grade II shall-
(a) be the holder of a valid commercial pilot’s licence with an

instrument rating or a valid higher licence and have given not
less than 200 hours elementary flight instruction;
(b) submit to the Commissioner a report, signed by a flight
instructor Grade I or Grade II, indicating
(i) his proficiency in flight instruction and the standard of

flying attained by his pupils; and
(ii) that he has attained the standard required for the rating
being applied for;
(c) pass the practical flight instruction tests prescribed in

subregulation (1)(e); and
(d) submit an application for the rating, together with his licence, to
the Commissioner for the issue of the rating.
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 50
(6) The holder of a flight instructor rating applying-
(a) for the inclusion of a multi-engined aeroplane to the rating

shall-
(i) for the inclusion in this rating of a multi-engine

aeroplane, undergo a practical flight test with an official
examiner in a multi engine aeroplane with variable pitch
propellers, adjustable flaps and re tractable
undercarriage; or
(ii) for the inclusion in this rating of a multi-rotor helicopter,
shall undergo a practical flight test with an official
examiner in a multi-rotor helicopter: and
(iii) submit a certificate of competency to the Commissioner
wherein the examiner certifies that the applicant has
satisfactorily completed the flight test and is capable of
giving flight instruction on multi-engine aeroplanes or
multi-rotor helicopters, as the case may be;
(b) for regarding from Grade II to Grade I shall-
(i) be the holder of an airline transport pilot’s licence and,

in the case of helicopters, also be the holder of an
instrument rating;
(ii) have given not less than 1 600 hours of flight
instruction;
(iii) have had at least 3 years’ flight instruction experience;
(iv) pass the practical flight instruction tests prescribed in
subregulation 1 (e): Provided that where such rating is
sought for aeroplanes, such test shall be done on a
multi-engine aeroplane; and
(v) submit an application for the rating, together with his
licence, to the Commissioner for the issue of the rating.
The holder of a flight instructor rating in the South African Air Force
may, on having satisfactorily completed a practical flight instruction
test with an official examiner, be granted a flight instructor rating under
these regulations by the Commissioner.
(7) An applicant for the reissue of a lapsed instructor’s rating shall-
(a) if a period of not more than two years has expired since the
lapse of such rating, pass a practical flight instruction test
conducted by an official examiner or a Grade I flight instructor
in-
(i) flight instruction by day (sequences 1 to 23 and 26 to

27 of the flight instruction syllabus as prescribed in
Chapter 4); and
(ii) flight instruction by night;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 51
(b) if a period of more than two years but not more than five years
has expired since the lapse of such rating comply with the
requirements for the renewal thereof as set out in
subregulation (1)(e);
(c) if a period of more than five years has expired since the lapse
of such rating, comply with the requirements for the initial issue
of such rating as sent out in sub-regulation (1), except that the
Commissioner may exempt the applicant from any or all of the
prescribed written examinations; on the satisfactory completion
of such flight test the applicant will be issued with a Grade III
flight instructors rating and after he has given 50 hours or more
of flight instruction he shall be required to pass a practical flight
instruction test as prescribed in subregulation (1) before the
original grade flight instructor’s rating will be reissued.
3.13A Official Flight Examiner’s Ratings
An applicant for the issue or renewal of an official flight examiners rating shall
meet such conditions as defined by the Commissioner.
3.14 Night Flight Ratings
An applicant for a night flight rating shall submit to the Commissioner
(a) his licence;
(b) his logbook or a certificate signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight

instructor who is either the holder of a valid instrument rating or is
a person who, in the case of helicopters, has been designated for
the purpose in writing by the Commissioner, in which logbook or
certificate it is certified that the applicant has received not less
than 10 hours’ instrument instruction, of which five hours may have
been acquired on simulators approved for such purpose by the
Commissioner, given by an instructor who is the holder of a valid
instrument rating or an approved flight simulator instructor, as the
case may be, or a person who has been designated as such for
such purpose in writing by the Commissioner and that within 60
days immediately preceding the date of application he or she has
satisfactorily completed not less than five take-off's by night and
five landings by night in aeroplanes or, in the case of helicopters,
has satisfactorily completed not less than 15 circuits (including the
take-off and landing) in a helicopter by night as the sole occupant
within 30 days immediately preceding the date of application and
has in addition completed a dual triangular cross-country flight by
night of not less than 100 nautical miles with a radius of not less
than 50 nautical miles from base along any sector of the flight, in
the category;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 52
(c) a practical instrument flight test report signed by a Grade I or
Grade II flight instructor who shall be the holder of the appropriate
type rating with either a valid instrument rating or who, in the case
of helicopters, has been designated for the purpose in writing by
the Commissioner, and in which report it is certified that the
candidate has satisfactorily demonstrated his ability to execute
manoeuvres including climb, various rates of turns, compass and
timed turns, straight and level, with sole reference to instruments,
and recovery from unusual attitudes with the aid of instruments,
and recovery from unusual attitudes with the aid of instruments
only, in the category of aircraft for which such a rating is applied
for.
3.15 Tug Pilot Ratings
An applicant for a tug pilot shall submit to the Commissioner-
(a) his licence;

(b) a certificate signed by a Grade 1 or Grade II flight instructor that he has
completed not less than 60 hours’ flight time as pilot-in-command and that
he is suitable to undertake such duties.
3.16 Safety Pilot Ratings
An applicant for a safety pilot rating shall submit to the Commissioner-
(a) his licence;

(b) a certificate signed by a Grade I or Grade II flight instructor stating that
he has completed not less than 100 hours flight time as pilot-in
command, that he is competent to control the aircraft from the co-pilot
seat and that he is capable of undertaking such duties in the category
of aircraft for which such a rating is applied for.
3.16C Agricultural Pilot’s Ratings
An Applicant for an Agricultural Pilot’s Rating shall-
(a) have completed not less than 300 hours’ flight time, which shall
include at least 30 hours’ flight practice in aerial application, which
flight practice shall take place under the supervision of a Grade I or
Grade II flight instructor or a person designated for the purpose by the
Commissioner, and who shall be the holder of the appropriate
category, type and agricultural pilot’s rating: Provided that the 30
hours’ flight practice shall include at least 10 hours’ dual instruction;
(b) in the case of aeroplanes, pass a practical flight test with an official
examiner or a person designated for the purpose by the
Commissioner, in-
(i) short field take-offs and landings;

(ii) cross-wind and down-wind take-offs and landings;
(iii) flight manoeuvres at minimum air-speed;
(iv) accelerated stalls;
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 53
(v) maximum-rate turns;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 54
(vi) spin recoveries entered into inside of and from outside of turns;
(vii) precision landings, normal, down-wind and cross-wind;
(vii) exit from application area, turn around and re-entry to
application area under various wind conditions;
(ix) simulated application runs at appropriate heights;
(x) entry to and exit from application area over obstructions;
(xi) avoidance of obstructions;
(xii) emergency procedures:
Provided that such tests shall be carried out in an aircraft that is equipped
with dispensing apparatus and that is certificated for agricultural aerial
applications;
(c) in the case of helicopters, pass a practical flight test with an official
examiner or a person designated for the purpose by the
Commissioner, in-
(i) cross-wind and down-wind take-offs and landings;

(ii) take-offs and landings at maximum certificated mass for aerial
applications;
(iii) hover flight under cross-wind and tail-wind conditions;
(iv) low-speed down-wind flight with turns into wind and turns back
to down-wind flight;
(v) maximum rate turns;
(vi) simulated application runs at appropriate heights;
(vii) exit from application area, turn around and re-entry to
application area under various wind conditions;
(viii) entry to and exit from application area over obstructions;
(ix) emergency quick-stops for low-level autorotation;
(x) avoidance of obstructions;
(xi) emergency procedures:
Provided that such tests shall be carried out in an aircraft that is equipped
with dispensing apparatus and that is certificated for agricultural aerial
applications;
(d) for issue of the rating, submit to the Commissioner
(i) his licence; and

(ii) his logbook

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 55
CHAPTER 4 ANR's

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 56
FLIGHT INSTRUCTION SYLLABUS (AEROPLANE) SEQUENCES
1. Cockpit layout Cockpit drill, controls, gauges, fire appliances, etc.
2. Preparation for flight.
a) External check, chocks, operation of safety harness or belt, precautions

before starting
b) Starting
c) Cockpit check
d) Engine run up or test
3. Air experience The aim of this sequence is to instill confidence in a pupil who
has previously flown very little or not at all, as well as to impart knowledge
4. Effect of controls
(a) Momentary application of each control

(b) Slipstream effect on controls.
(c) Further effect on controls application and retention in applied position
for an appreciable period of rudder and aileron.
5. Taxiying.
6. Straight and level flight
7. Climbing
(a) With flaps up.

(b) With flaps down.
8. Descending.
(a) Flaps up
(b) Flaps and undercarriage down
(c) Engine assisted
9. Stalling.
a) From straight glide

b) With engine delivering cruising power.
c) With engine delivering reduced power (as in the engine-assisted
approach).
d) After engine failure while climbing steeply at full throttle.
e) With flaps and undercarriage down

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 57
10. Medium turns.
11. (a) Descending turns,

(b) Climbing turns.
12. Take off,including vital action drill and engine failure on take-off.
13. Approach and landing including going round again.
14. Spinning
(a) Full spin

(b) Incipient spin.
15. First solo, before flying solo a pupil shall, in addition to being proficient in
sequences 1 to 14, be able to make a reasonable effort at the exercise of
"Elementary forced landing", i.e. the ability to execute and approach on a
large open space without the use of a side slip, and have had sequence 23
demonstrated to him. He shall also have completed a minimum of six
hours of dual flight instruction.
16. Sideslipping.
(a) Effect of controls in a sideslip.

(b) The slip into wind.
(c) The slip across wind.
(d) The slip in a turn.
17. Steep turns
(a) With engine

(b) Without engine.
18. Instrument flying
(a) Refreshing of pupil on all instruments without hood or other device in

operation
(b) Straight and level flight
(c) Climbing
(d) Descending.
(e) Turns.
(f) Climbing and descending turns.
(g) Turns on to courses.
(h) Taking off
(i) Going round again.
(j) Recovery from spin
(k) Recovery from unusual attitudes
19. Low flying-Emphasis on regulations governing low flying.
(a) Effect of drift.

(b) Effect of wind on ground speed.
(c) Effect of wind in reducing apparent skids and slips in turns
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 58
20. Cross-wind take off and landing
21. Precautionary landing
(a) Inspection of selected landing area.

(b) Approach and landing.
22. Forced landing
23. Action in event of fire (applicable to type).
24. Multi-engine aeroplane - Asymmetric flight.
25. Acrobatics.
(a) Loop.
(b) Stall turn.
(c) Half roll.
(d) Slow roll.
(e) Barrel roll.
(f) Half roll off top of loop.
(g) Inverted gliding.
26. Night flying.
27. Navigation
(a) Dual, triangular, cross country flight of not less than 100 nautical
miles.
(b) Solo, triangular, cross-country, with full stop landings at two airports
away from base of not less than 100 nautical miles and with a radius
not exceeding 100 nautical miles from the base, along any sector
of the flight.
(c) Test cross country flight, accompanied by the flight instructor
conducting the test (who shall not, unless otherwise authorised in
writing by the Commissioner, be the instructor from whom the pilot
undergoing the test has received his practical training) of not less than
200 nautical miles and not less than 50 nautical miles distant from
the point of departure, including a full stop landing at two airports,
other than the base. At least one of the airports from which the aircraft
takes off for this flight shall be an airport at which an air traffic
services unit is in operation and at which a flight plan shall be
submitted.
During this flight test the applicant shall satisfy the flight instructor that
he is able to-
(i) intercept QDR/QDM and/or VOR radials;

(ii) utilise navigational and radio aids as applicable;
(iii) adhere to flight plan in terms of track keeping and maintenance of
speed and vertical position.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 59
DEFINITIONS
& ABBREVIATIONS

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 60
CONTENTS:
1.0.1 Definitions……………………………………………………….
Part 1 – 3
1.0.2 Abbreviations …………………………………………………..
Part 1 – 35

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 61
1.00.1 In these Regulations any word or expression to which a meaning has been
assigned in the Act shall have that meaning and, unless the context otherwise
indicates –
"accelerate-stop distance available" means the length of the take-off run available
plus the length of stopway, if such stopway is declared available and is capable of
bearing the mass of the aeroplane under the prevailing operating conditions;
"accident" for the purposes of the definition of "accident" in section 1 of the Act,
includes an ocurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place
between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight until such
time as all such persons have disembarked, during which -
(a) a person is fatally or seriously injured as result of –
(i) being in the aircraft;

(ii) direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including parts which have
become detached or are released from the aircraft ; or
(iii) direct exposure to jet blast, rotor or propeller wake, except when the
injuries are from natural causes, self-inflicted or inflicted by other persons,
or when the injuries are to towaways hiding outside the areas normally
available to passengers and flight crew; or
(b) the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which –
(i) adversely affects the structural strength, performance or flight

characteristics of the aircraft; and
(ii) would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected
component, except for engine failure or damage when the damage is
limited to the engine, its cowlings or accessories, or for damage limited to
propellers, wing tips, antennae, tyres, brakes, fairings, small
dents or puncture holes in the aircraft skin; or
(c) the aircraft is still missing after an official search has been terminated and the
wreckage has not been located; or
(d) the aircraft is in a place where it is completely inaccessible;
"accredited representative" means an authorised officer or authorised person

designated by the Commissioner in terms of Regulation 12.01.6;
"acoustical change" means any voluntary change in type design which may
increase the noise levels of the aircraft;
"acrobatic flight" means manoeuvres intentionally performed by the pilot-in-

command of an aircraft and involving an abrupt change in attitude of the aircraft, an
abnormal attitude or an abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight;
"acts of unlawful interference" means sabotage, unlawful seizure of aircraft or any

other act by a person which endangers other persons, property or the aircraft;
"additional cabin crew member" means a cabin crew member carried over and
above the minimum number required by subpart 2 of Part 91,
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 62
"additional flight deck crew member" means a flight deck crew member carried
over and above the minimum number required by subpart 2 of Part 91,
"adjustable-pitch propeller" means a propeller, the pitch setting of which can be

conveniently changed in the course of ordinary field maintenance, but which cannot
be changed when the propeller is rotating;
"advisor" means an authorised person designated by the Commissioner in terms of

Regulation 12.01.1;
"advisory airspace" means an airspace of defined dimensions, within which an air

traffic advisory service is available;
"advisory area" means a designated area within a flight information region where
air traffic advisory services are available;
"advisory route" means a designated route along which air traffic advisory services
are available;
"aerodrome" means an aerodrome as defined in the Act, and for the purposes of
these Regulations includes a heliport;
“aerodrome control service" means an air traffic control service provided for the
control of aerodrome traffic;
“aerodrome control tower" means an air traffic control unit established to provide
an air traffic control service;
"aerodrome flight information service" means a flight information service provided

in the area of an aerodrome;
"aerodrome manager" means the person appointed as aerodrome manager in

terms of Part 139 by the holder of an aerodrome licence;
"aerodrome operating minima" means the limits of usability of an aerodrome for

either take-off or landing, usually expressed in terms of visibility or runway visual
range, decision altitude/height or minimum descent altitude/height and cloud
conditions;
“aerodrome operational area" means –
(a) excluding restricted areas and aprons, the movement area at an aerodrome and
its associated strips and safety areas; and
(b) any ground installation or facility provided at an aerodrome for the safety of
aircraft operations;
"aerodrome traffic" means all traffic on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome and
all aircraft in, entering or leaving an aerodrome traffic circuit;
"aerodrome traffic area" means an airspace of defined dimensions at an

aerodrome where an aerodrome flight information centre is in operation;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 63
"aerodrome traffic zone" means a controlled airspace at an aerodrome where
aerodrome control, established for the protection of aerodrome traffic, is in operation
as published in an AIP, AIC or NOTAM and designated as an aerodrome traffic zone;
"Aeronautical Information Circular" means a circular containing information which

does not qualify for the origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIP but which
relates to flight safety, air navigation, technical, admmistrative or legislative matters,
issued by the Commissioner in terms of Regulation 11.01.2;
"Aeronautical Information Publication" means a publication containing

aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation, issued by
the Commissioner in terms of Regulation 1 1.01.2;
"aeronautical information regulation and control" means a system aimed at

advanced notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances which
require significant changes in operating practices;
"aeroplane" means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft deriving its lift in flight

mainly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain futed under given
conditions of flight;
"AIP Supplement" means the temporary changes to the information contained in the
AIP which are published by means of special pages;
"aircraft" for the purposes of these Regulations, means an aircraft as defined in the
Act, including its engines, propellers, rotor, components, parts, equipment,
instruments, accessories and materials;
"aircraft component" means any component part of an aircraft including a

complete airframe or power plant and any operational or emergency equipment fitted
to or provided in an aircraft;
"aircraft stand taxilane" means a portion of an apron designated as a taxi-way and

intended to provide access to aircraft stands only;
"airframe" means fuselage, empennage and wings or rotors;
"air navigation infrastructure" means an air navigation infrastructure as defrned in

section 1 of the Air Traffic and Navigation Services Company Act, 1993 (Act No 45 of
1993);
"air service" means an air service as defined in section 1 of the Air Services
Licensing Act, 1990 (Act No 1 15 of 1990);
"airship" means a power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft;
"air traffic" means all aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvering area of an
aerodrorne,
"air traffic advisory service" means a service provided within advisory airspace to
ensure separation, in so far as practical between aircraft which are operating on IFR
flight plans;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 64
"air traffic control clearance" means an authorisation for an aircraft to proceed
under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit;
"air traffic controller" means the holder of a valid air traffic service licence and valid
rating which permits such holder to provide an air traffic control service,
"air traffic control service" means a service provided for the purpose of
(a) preventing collisions -
(i) between aircraft; and

(ii) on the manoeuvring area between aircraft and obstructions; and
(b) expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic;
"air traffic control unit" means an aerodrome control tower, an approach control
office or an area control centre or a combination thereof;
"air traffic service" means an aerodrome control service, an approach control

service, an area control service, a flight information service, an air traffic advisory
service or an alerting service,
"air traffic service assistant" means the holder of an air traffic service licence and
rating who provides -
(a) assistant services to an air traffic controller; or
(b) co-ordination services, clearance delivery services, flight information services or

aerodrome flight information services,
"air traffic service flight plan" means specified information, relating to the intended
flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft, which is provided to an air traffic service unit;
"air traffic service inspector" means an air traffic service inspector designated in
terms of section 5(4)(a) of the Act;
"air traffic service personnel" means air traffic controllers and air traffic service
assistants;
"air traffic service reporting office" means an air traffic service unit established for
the purpose of receiving reports concerning air traffic services and flight plans
submitted before the departure of an aircraft from an aerodrome;
"air traffic service unit" means an air traffic service control unit, flight information
centre or air traffic service reporting office;
"airway" means a control area or a portion thereof established in the form of a

corridor equipped with radio navigation aids;
"airworthiness data" means any information necessary to ensure that an aircraft or

aircraft component can be maintained in an airworthy condition;
"airworthiness standards" includes maintenance standards;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 65
"airworthy" means, when used in relation to an aircraft, that the aircraft is
serviceable and meets all the requirements prescribed for the issuing of a certificate
of airworthiness and such other requirements as have been prescribed for the
continuing validity of such a certificate;
"aisle" means a longitudinal passageway between seats;
"alerting service" means a service provided to notify and assist the appropriate
organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and to assist such
organisations as appropriate;
"all weather operations" means any take-off, en route or landing operations in IMC
and operated in accordance with IFR;
“alternate aerodrome" means an aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed

when it becomes impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or to land at the aerodrome
of intended landing, and includes a take-off alternate aerodrome, an en route
alternate aerodrome and a destination alternate aerodrome;
"altitude" means the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a

point, measured from mean sea level;
"amateur-built aircraft" means an aircraft with not more than four seats and a
maximum certified mass of 2 100 kilograms or less, of which more than 51 per cent
of the airframe has been constructed and assembled exclusively for non-commercial
purposes;
"amphibious aeroplane" means an aeroplane designed and constructed to take-of

from and land on land surfaces as well as water surfaces;
"amphibious aircraft" means amphibious aeroplanes and amphibious helicopters;
"amphibious helicopter" means a helicopter equipped with wheels, skids, floats or

other devices enabling it to land and take-off from land and the surface of water;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 66
"appliance" means any instrument, mechanism, equipment, part, apparatus,
appurtenance or accessory, including communications equipment, which is used or
intended to be used in operating or controlling an aircraft, is installed in or attached to
the aircraft, and is not part of an airframe, engine or propeller;
"approach control office" means an air traffic control unit established to provide an
air traffic control service in the controlled airspace for which it is responsible, to
controlled flights arriving at or departing from one or more aerodromes;
"approach control service" means an air traffic control service for arriving or
departing controlled nights in controlled airspaces;
"appropriate authority" –
(a) means any institution, body or person in a State or territory which, on behalf of
that State or territory carries out the provisions of the Convention; or
(b) if such Convention does not apply to a State or territory, means the institution,
body or person in that State or territory which on behalf of the State or territory,
performs the functions which are performed by an institution, body or person
contemplated in paragraph (a),and which is recognised as such by the
Commissioner;
"approved" unless used with reference to another person, means approved in

writing by the Commissioner;
"apron" means a defined area on a land aerodrome intended to accommodate

aeroplanes for the purpose of loading or unloading passengers or cargo, refueling,
parking or maintenance;
"apron taxiway" means a portion of a taxiway system located on an apron and

intended to provide a through taxi route across the apron;
“area control centre" means an air traffic control unit established to provide an air
traffic control service to controlled flights in the control area for which it is responsible;
"area control service" means an air traffic control service for controlled flights in
control areas;
“assistant service" means a service of assisting licensed air traffic controllers to

discharge air traffic service related duties;
"automatic activation device" means an automatic altitude and descent rate

activated device designated to self activate a parachute;
"aviation recreation" means microlighting, gliding, ballooning, gyroplaning, hang

gliding, or parachuting or involvement in aviation events;
"balloon" means a non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft, and for the purposes of

Part 102, includes an airship;
“base jumps" means a parachute descent from an object other than an aircraft;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 67
"break" for the purposes of Part 65, means a period not exceeding 60 minutes within
the period of operational duty, during which an air traffic controller is released from all
duties;
"cabin crew member" means a flight crew member, other than a flight deck crew
member, licensed in terms of Part 64;
"cargo aircraft" means any aircraft, other than a passenger aircraft, which is
carrying goods or property;
"cause" for the purpose of Part 12, means any action, omission, event, condition or
any combination thereof, which leads to an accident or incident;
"ceiling" means the height above the surface of the base of the lowest layer of cloud
below 20 000 feet covering more than half the sky;
"child" means a passenger who has reached his or her second but not his or her
twelfth birthday;
"Class C airspace" means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of

Regulation 112.02.2;
"Class D airspace" means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of

"Class E airspace" means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of

"Class G airspace" means that portion of the airspace classified in terms of

"Class A helicopter-load combination" means a helicopter-load combination in

which the external load can not move freely, or be jettisoned, and which does not
extend below the landing gear;
"Class B helicopter-load combination" means a helicopter-load combination in

which the external load is capable of being jettisoned and which is lifted free of land
or water during the helicopter external-load operation;
"Class C helicopter-load combination" means a helicopter-load combination in

which the external load is capable of being jettisoned and which remains in contact
with land or water during the helicopter external-load operation;
"Class D helicopter-load combination" means a helicopter-load combination, other

than a Class A, Class B or Class C helicopter-load combination, which has been
approved by the Commissioner for a specific helicopter external-load operation;
"Class I product" means a complete aircraft, aircraft engine or propeller, which –
(a) has been type certificated in accordance with the provisions of these Regulations
and for which the South African Specifications or type certificate data sheets have
been issued; or

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 68
(b) is identical to a type certificated product referred to in paragraph (a) in all
respects except as in otherwise acceptable to the appropriate authority of the
importing State;
"Class II product" means –
(a) a major component of a Class I product, including wings, fuselages, empennage

assemblies, landing gears, power transmissions, control surfaces and installed
equipment, the failure of which will jeopardise the safety of a Class product; or
(b) a part, material or appliance, approved and manufactured under the TSO system
as prescribed in subpart 12 of Part 21,
"Class III product" means any part or component which is not a Class I or a Class
II·product and includes parts;
"clearance delivery service" means a service specifically dedicated to the issuing

of air traffic control clearances to pilots on behalf of one or more air traffic service
units;
“close corporation" means a close corporation as defined in section 1 of the Close

Corporations Act, 1984 (Act No 69 of 1984);
"cloud ceiling" means the height above the ground or water of the base of the
lowest layer of cloud situated below 20 000 feet and covering more than half the sky;
"commercial air transport helicopter" means, for the purpose of Part 127, a
helicopter engaged in a commercial air transport operation;
"commercial air transport operation" means an air service as defined in section 1

of the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990 (Act No 115 of 1990), including -
(a) the classes of air service referred to in Regulation 2 of the Domestic Air Services
Regulations, 1991; and
(b) the classes of international air services referred to in Regulation 2 of the

International Air Services Regulations, 1994;
"communication failure procedure" means a procedure as published in the AIP;
"company" means a company as defined in section 1 of the Companies Act, 1913

(Act No 61 of 1913);
"composite structures or components" means aircraft components which are

manufactured of fibres embedded in a polymer matrix;
"condition" which may be imposed by the Commissioner or any person, body or

institution as a functionary, on, and which must be complied with by, any other
person, body or institution in case of applications for approval, consent or permission
in connection with any matter, object or activity, or in any other case with regard to
anything else, means, subject to other relevant provisions of the Act, these
Regulations or any other applicable and relevant law, a condition -

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 69
(a) which is clear, reasonable, practically executable and appropriate to the relevant
matter;
(b) which is calculated to achieve the particular objectives of the relevant
empowermg provision, read with the Act and these Regulations and any other
relevant and appropriate law, and, in general, the promotion of civil aviation safety
and the public interest;
(c) which may during the period of validity of the matter in respect of which the
condition is imposed (if any) from time to time be amended on written application
of the person, body or institution in respect of which the condition applies;
(d) which provides that if the functionary imposing the condition is satisfied, after the
person, body or institution referred to in paragraph (c) has been afforded a
reasonable opportunity to be heard, that a contravention or failure to comply with
the condition or a provision thereof has occurred, the functionary may, in his, her
or its discretion, permit the person, body or institution within a stated period to
cease the contravention or rectify the failure to comply, to the satisfaction of the
functionary, or to notify that person, body or institution that the condition is
deemed as having lapsed and that such a person, body or institution shall
forthwith cease carrying out any activity in respect of which the lapsed condition
applied; and which is to be reduced to writing, delivered to the other person, body
or institution in a manner ensuring proper receipt thereof, and recorded by the
functionary imposing the condition in an appropriate manner;
"configuration" means a particular combination of the positions of the moveable

elements which affect the aerodynamic characteristics of the aircraft;
"contaminated runway" means a runway of which more than 25 per cent of the
runway surface area within the required length and width being used is covered with -
(a) surface water more than three millimeters deep;

(b) slush or loose snow, equivalent to more than three millimeters of water;
(c) snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further
compression and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up; or
(d) ice,including wet ice;
"control area" means a controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified

height above the surface wilthout an upper limit, unless an upper limit is specified as
published in an AIP, AIC or NOTAM and designated as a control area;
"controlled airspace" means an airspace or defined dimensions within which an air

traffic control service is provided to IFR fights and to VFR fights in accordance with
the airspace classification as prescribed in Regulation 112.02.2;
"controlled flight" means any flight which is subject to an air traffic control
clearance ;
"control system" means a system by which the flight path, attitude or propulsive
force of an aircraft is changed, including the flight, engine and propeller controls, the
related system controls and the associated operating mechanisms;
"control zone" means as controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface to
a specified upper limit as published in an AIP, AIC or NOTAM;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 70
“conveyance by air" means conveyance in an aircraft in flight;
"co-ordination service" means a service of co-ordinating the discharge of air traffic

service related duties by a licensed air traffic service assistant;
"co-pilot" means a licensed pilot serving in any piloting capacity other than as pilot-
in-command but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of
receiving flight instruction,
"critical phases of flight" includes all ground operations involving taxi, take-off,
climb to cruise up to 10 000 feet and approach from cruise below 10 000 feet;
"cross country flight" when used in connection with the acquisition of flight
experience required for a pilot licence, means a flight between a point of departure
and a point of landing not less than 20 nautical miles apart
"cull" includes the selection, counting and herding of game and livestock;
"current flight plan" means the air traffic service flight plan, including changes, if
any, brought about by subsequent clearances;
"damp runway" means a runway of which the surface is not dry and on which the
moisture does not give the runway a shiny appearance;
"dangerous goods" means articles or substances which are capable of posing

significant risk to health, safety or property when conveyed by air;
"dangerous goods accident" means an accident associated with and related to the
conveyance of dangerous goods by air;
"dangerous goods incident" means an incident, other than a dangerous goods

accident, associated with and related to the conveyance of dangerous goods by air,
and for the purposes of Part 92, includes injury to a person, property damage, fire,
breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid or radiation or other evidence that the integrity of
the packaging has not been maintained or which seriously jeopardises the aircraft or
its occupants;
"date of application" when used in connection with the issuing, renewal or re-
issuing of a license, certificate or rating, means the date on which the application is
received in the prescribed form by the Commissioner;
"day" means the period of time from 15 minutes before sunrise to 15 minutes after
sunset, sunrise and sunset being as given in the publication "Times of Sunrise,
Sunset and Local Apparent Noon of the South African Astronomical Observatory'' or
in a similar publication issued by a recognised astronomical observatory;
"decision altitude/height" means a specified altitude or height in a precision

approach at which a missed approach is initiated if the required visual reference to
continue the approach has not been established;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 71
"defined point" -
(a) in relation to a defined point after take-off, means the point, within the take-off
and initial climb phase, before which the helicopter's ability to continue the flight
safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be
required; and
(b) in relation to a defined point before landing, means the point, within the approach
and landing phase, after which the helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely,
with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required;
"designated aviation medical examiner" means an aviation medical examiner

designated by the Commissioner in terms of Regulation 61.00.4;
"destination alternate aerodrome" means an aerodrome specified in the air traffic

service flight plan to which a flight may proceed when it becomes impossible or
inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing;
"disembarkation" means the leaving of an aircraft after landing, except by flight

crew or passengers continuing on the next stage of the same through flight;
"Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID" means a document on the South African

Civil Aviation Technical Standards relating to Aviation Accident and Incident
Investigation, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-AH" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation

Technical Standards relating to Aerodromes and Heliports, which is published by the
Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-ATRS" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation

Technical Standards relating to Aeronautical Information and Related Services, which
is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-AMEL" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation

Technical Standards relating to Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Licensing, which is
published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-AMO" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation

Technical Standards relating to Aircraft Maintenance Organisations, which is
"Document SA-CATS-AR" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation

Technical Standards relating to Airworthiness Requirements, which is published by
the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-ARM" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation

Technical Standards relating to Aircraft Registration and Marking, which is published
by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-ARO" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation

Technical Standards relating to Aviation recreation Organisations, which is published

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 72
"Document SA-CATS-ATO" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation
Technical Standards relating to Aviation Training Organisations, which is published by
"Document SA-CATS-ATS" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation

Technical Standards relating to Air Traffic Services, which is published by the
"Document SA-CATS-ATSPL" means a document on the South African Civil

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Air Traffic Service Personnel Licensing,
which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;
"Document SA-CATS-DG" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation

Technical Standards relating to the Conveyance of Dangerous Goods, which is
"Document SA-CATS-DO" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation

Technical Standards relating to Design Organisations, which is published by the
"Document SA-CATS-ENVIRO" means a document on the South African Civil

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Environmental Protection, which is published
"Document SA-CATS-FCL" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation

Technical Standards relating to Flight Crew Licensing, which is published by the
"Document SA-CATS-GMR" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation

Technical Standards relating to General Maintenance Rules, which is published by
"Document SA-CATS-MORG" means a document on the South African Civil

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Manufacturing Organisations, which is
"Document SA-CATS-MR" means a document on the South African Civil Aviation

Technical Standards relating to Medical Requirements, which is published by the
"Document SA-CATS-OPS 91" means a document on the South African Civil

Aviation Technical Standards relating to General Operating and Flight Rules, which is

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Powered Paragliders, which is

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Gyroplanes, which is published

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 73
Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Unmanned Free Balloons, Kits
and Remotely Piloted Aircraft, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of
the Act;

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Free Balloons and Airships,
which Is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Microlight Aeroplanes, which is

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Gliders, which is published by

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Parachutes, which is published

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Operation of Hang Gliders, which is

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Air Transport Operations of Large
Aeroplanes, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;

Aviation of Technical Standards relating to Air Transport Operations Helicopters,

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Helicopter, External-load Operations, which
is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Air Transport Operations of Small
Aeroplanes, which is published by the Commissioner in terms of the Act;

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Agricultural Operations, which is published

Aviation Technical Standards relating to Emergency Medical Service Operations,

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 74
“dry operating mass" means the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type
of operation, excluding all usable fuel and traffic load, and includes –
(a) flight crew members and flight crew member baggage;

(b) catering and removable passenger service equipment; and
(c) portable water and lavatory chemicals;
"dry runway" means a dry runway which is neither wet nor contaminated, and
includes those paved runways which have been specially prepared with grooves or
porous pavement and maintained to retain "effectively dry" braking action even when
moisture is present;
"elevated heliport" means a heliport located on a raised structure on land;
"embarkation" means the boarding of an aircraft for the purpose of commencing a

flight, except by such flight crew or passengers who have embarked on a previous
stage of the same through-flight;
"emergency locator transmitter" means equipment which broadcast distinctive

signals on designated frequencies and, depending on application, may either sense a
crash and operate automatically or may be manually activated;
"emergency parachute" means a parachute assembly designed and intended to be

used by persons in an emergency;
"emission charge" means any voluntary change in type of design of the aircraft or
engine which may increase fuel venting or engine emission;
“en route alternate aerodrome" means an aerodrome at which an aircraft would be

able to land after experiencing an abnormal or emergency condition while en route;
"en route safe altitude" means an altitude which will ensure a separation height of
at least 1 500 feet above the highest obstacle located within five nautical miles of the
aircraft in flight;
"ensure" in relation to any person, body or institution and in respect of any matter,
activity, process, condition, requirement or other person, or anything else, means to
take, considering the nature and context of the provision requiring the ensuring, and
any other appropriate legal provisions, in good faith, all necessary, and all reasonably
incidental and practically executable preliminary, precedent and precautionary steps
in order to be able and prepared to take, and aftewards to take, all necessary and
reasonably incidental and practically executable steps, to substantially achieve the
clear particular objectives of the provision requiring the ensuring and, in general, the
promotion of civil aviation safety and the public interest,
"estimated time of arrival" -
(a) in respect of IFR flights, means the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft
will arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids,
from which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be
commenced or, if no navigation aid is associated with the aerodrome, the time at
which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome; and

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 75
(b) in respect of VFR flights, means the time at which it is estimated that the aircraft
will arrive over the aerodrome;
"examiner" means an authorised officer or authorised person designated by the

Commissioner in terms of Regulation 61.01.11;
"extended range operations" means flights conducted over a route that contains a
point further than one hour flying time at the approved one-engine inoperative cruise
speed, under standard conditions in still air, from an adequate aerodrome;
"extended range operations with twin-engine aircraft" means flights conducted

with a twin-engine aircraft, over a route that contain a point further than one hour
flying time at the approved one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard
conditions in still air, from an adequate aerodrome;
"facility" for the purpose of Part 172, means any facility used for providing an air
traffic control service;
"final approach fix" means the fix from which the final approach (IFR) to an
aerodrome is executed and which identifies the begining of the final approach
segment;
"first aid" means first aid appropriate to the type of aircraft, and includes –
(a) the recognition and treatment of food poisoning;

(b) the recognition and treatment of contamination of the skin and eyes by aviation
fuel and other fluids;
(c) the recognition and treatment of hypoxia and hyperventilation;
(d) first aid associated with survival training, appropriate to the routes to be operated;
and
(e) other related aeromedical aspects; "flight" means from the moment an aircraft
commences its take-off until the moment it completes its next landing,
"flight" means from the moment an aircraft commences its take-off until the moment
it completes its next landing.
"flight crew member" means a person licensed in terms of Part 61, 63 or 64 and
assigned by an operator to duty on an aircraft during flight;
"flight deck crew member" means a licensed flight crew member charged by the
operator of an aircraft with duties essential to the operation of an aircraft;
"flight information centre" means an air traffic service unit established to provide
flight information services and alerting services;
"flight information region" means an airspace of defined dimensions within which

flight information services and alerting services are provided;
"flight information service" means a service provided for the purpose of giving
advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights;
"flight instructor" means a pilot who is the holder of the appropriate flight instructor
rating,
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 76
"flight level" means a surface of constant atmospheric pressure, expressed as a
number of hundreds of feet, relating to a specific pressure datum of 1 013,2
millimetrs;
"flight recorder" means a flight data recorder and a cockpit voice recorder;
"flight time" means the total time occupied in flight together with the time occupied
from the moment the aircraft first moves under its own power for the purposes of
taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight;
"flight visibility" means the visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight;
"glider" means a non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft other than a hang glider,

deriving its lift in flight mainly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain
fixed under given conditions of flight, and for the purposes of these Regulations,
includes a powered glider;
"ground visibility" means the visibility at an aerodrome;
"gyroplane" means a heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the reactions of

the air on one or more rotors which rotate freely on substantially vertical axes;
"handicapped passenger" means a passenger who is physically or mentally

handicapped due to illness, injury, congenital malfunction or other temporary or
permanent incapacity or disability;
"hang glider" means a non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft capable of being

carried, foot launched and landed solely by the energy and use of the pilot's legs,
having –
(a) a rigid primary structure with pilot weight shift as the primary method of control; or
(b) a rigid primary structure with movable aerodynamic surfaces as the primary
method of control in at least two axes, and for the purposes of Part 106, includes
a paraglider;
"hazard" means any act, omission, event or condition or a combination thereof that
could lead to or result in an accident or incident;
"heavier-than-air aircraft" means any aircraft deriving its lift in flight mainly from
aerodynamic forces;
"height" means -
(a) the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point,

measured from a specific datum;
(b) the vertical dimension of an object;
"helicopter" means a heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight mainly by the

reactions of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes;
"helicopter-load combination" means the combination of a helicopter and an

external-load, including the external-load attaching means;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 77
"helideck" means a heliport located on a floating or fixed off-shore structure;
"heliport" means an aerodrome and any defined area on a structure, intended or

designed to be used either wholly or partly for the landing, departure, and surface
movement of helicopters,
"heliport operating minima" means the limits of usability of a heliport for either
take-off or landing, usually expressed in terms of visibility, decision altitude/height or
minimum descent altitude/height and cloud conditions;
"incident" means an occurrence, other than an accident, associated with the

operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of aircraft operations;
"infant" means a passenger who has not reached his or her second birthday;
"initial approach fix" means the fix determined in terms of instrument approach
procedures which identifies the beginning of the initial approach segment;
"inspection" means that part of the maintenance by which an aircraft or aircraft

component is being examined to establish conformity with an approved standard;
"instructions for safe operation and continued airworthiness" means

instructions prepared by the holder of a type certificate for a product, comprising
descriptive data and accomplishment instructions;
"instrument approach procedure" means a series of predetermined manoeuvres

by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the
initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route,
to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not
completed, to a position at which holding or en route obstacle criteria apply;
"instrument flight time" means time during which the aircraft is piloted solely by
reference to instruments and without external reference points, whether under actual
or simulated flight conditions;
"instrument meteorological conditions" means atmospheric conditions expressed

in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, or ceiling, less than the minima prescribed
for VFR flight in Regulations 91.06.21 and 91.06.22;
"integrated training" means an uninterrupted training course, consisting of a

theoretical and practical syllabus, designed to train a student with no knowledge of
aviation, to the standard required for a commercial pilot licence or an airline transport
pilot licence;
"Integrated Aeronautical Information Package" means a package which consists

of-
(a) an AIP including an amendment service,

(b) supplements to the AIP;
(c) NOTAM;
(d) AIC; and
(e) checklists and summaries;
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 78
"international flight" means a flight which passes through the airspace over the
territory of more than one State;
"International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea" means the

International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea made under the
Convention on the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, signed
in London on 20 October 1972. set out in the Third Schedule to the Merchant
Shipping Act, 1951 (Act No 51 of 1951);
"investigation" in relation to accidents and incidents, means a process conducted

for the purpose of accident prevention and includes the gathering and evaluation of
information, the drawing of conclusions, including the determination of the cause,
causes, probable cause or probable causes of an accident or the underlying cause
or causes leading to an incident and, when appropriate, the making of
recommendations in connections with aviation safety;
"investigator" means an authorised officer or authorised person designated by the

'investigator-in-charge '' means an authorised officer designated by the

Commissioner on the basis of his or her qualifications and charged with the
responsibility for the organisation, conduct and control of and the reporting on the
investigation of an accident or incident;
"landing area" means that part of a movement area intended for the landing or take-
off of aircraft;
"landing decision point" means the point used in determing landing performance
from which, a power unit failure having been recognised at this point, the landing may
be safely continued or a baulked landing initiated;
"landing distance available" means the length of the runway which is declared
available and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane landing;
"letter of TSO design approval" means a design approval for a foreign

manufactured article which complies with a specific TSO;
"lighter-than-air aircraft" means any aircraft supported mainly by its buoyancy in

the air;
"line flight" means a commercial flight carried out under normal operations by the
holder of a licence issued in terms of the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990 (Act No
115 of 1990), or the International Air Services Act, 1993 (Act No 60 of 1993);
"line flying" means flying done by flight crew under normal commercial operations;
"low visibility procedures" means procedures applied at an aerodrome for the

purpose of ensuring safe operations during low visibility approaches and take-offs;
"low visibility take-off' means a take-off where the runway visual range is less than
400 metres;
"Mach number" means the ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound;
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 79
"main parachute" means a parachute which is designed and intended to be used as
the primary parachute for a parachute descent;
"maintenance" means all work done in accordance with manufacturers'

recommendations and approved maintenance schedules and includes inpection,
adjustment, replacement, rectification, repair, modification, overhaul, manufacturing
and testing,
"major change" means any change in the type design which is extensive enough to
require a substantially complete investigation to determine compliance with the type
certification basis;
"major modification" means a modification not listed in the aircraft, aircraft engine,
or propeller specifications –
(a) which may appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance,
powerplant operations, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting
airworthness; or
(b) which is not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by

elementary operations;
"major repair" means a repair –
(a) which, if improperly done, may appreciably affect weight, balance, structural
strength, performance, powerplant operation, flight characteristics, or other
qualities affecting airworthhness; or
(b) which is not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by

elementary operations;
"manoeuvring area" means that part of an aerodrome used for take-off, landing and
taxiing of aircraft, excluding an apron;
"Master" means the Master as defined in section 1 of the Administration of Estates

Act, 1965 (Act No 66 of 1965);
"master minimum equipment list" means a list compiled for a particular aircraft
type by the manufacturer of the aircraft with the approval of the appropriate authority
of the State of Manufacture containing items, one or more of which is permitted to be
unserviceable at the commencement of a flight;
"maximum approved passenger seating configuration" means the maximum

passenger seating capacity of an aircraft, excluding pilot seats, cockpit seats or flight
deck seats as applicable, used by the operator in a commercial air transport
operation, approved by the Commissioner and specified in the operations manual
referred to in Regulation 121.04.2, 121.04.2 or 135.04.2;
"maximum certificated mass" means the maximum permissible mass shown in the
aircraft flight manual or other document associated with the certificate of
airworthiness at which an aircraft may commence its take-off under standard
atmospheric conditions at sea level;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 80
"meteorological information" means any meteorological report, analysis or
forecast in support of aviation, and any other statement in support of aviation relating
to existing or expected meteorological conditions;
"meteorological service" means any of the following services which provide

meteorological information in support of aviation:
(a) Climatology service, which is a service for the development and supply of
climatological information for a specific place or airspace;
(b) forecast service, which is a service for the supply of forecast meteorological
information for a specific area or portion of airspace;
(c) information dissemination service, which is a service for the collection and
dissemination of meteorological information;
(d) meteorological briefing service, which is a service for the supply of written and
oral meteorological information on existing and expected meteorological
conditions;
(e) meteorological reporting service, which is a service for the supply of routine
meteorological reports; and
(f) meteorological watch service, which is a service for maintaining a watch over
meteorological conditions affecting aircraft operations in a specific area;
"microlight aeroplane" means an aeroplane the empty mass of which does not
exceed 450 kilograms;
"minimum descent altitude/height" means a specified altitude or height in a non-

precision approach or circling approach below which descent may not be made
without visual references for the intended runway or touch-down area;
"minimum equipment list" means a list which provides for the operation of aircraft,
subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative, prepared by an
operator in conformity with, or more restrictive than, the master minimum equipment
list established for the aircraft type;
"minor change" means any change in type design which has no appreciable effect
on the weight, balance, structural strength, reliability, operational characteristics or
other characteristics affecting the airworthiness of the product;
"minor modification" means a modification other than a major modification;
"missed approach point" means that point, in an instrument approach procedure at

or before which the prescribed missed approach procedure shall be initiated, in order
to ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed,
"missed approach procedure" means the procedure to be followed if the approach

cannot be continued;
"movement area" means that part of an aerodrome to be used for the takeoff,
landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the apron;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 81
"nautical mile" means the length equal to 1 852 metres exactly;
"newly overhauled" when used to describe a product, means that the product has
not been operated or placed in service, except for functional testing, since having
been overhauled, inspected and approved for release to service in accordance with
the provisions of these Regulations;
"night" means the period from 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise,
sunset and sunrise being as given in the publication "Times of Sunrise, Sunset and
Local Apparent Noon of the South African Astronomical Obsenratory" or a similar
publication issued by a recognised astronomical observatory,
"night duty" means a period of not less than 4 hours between 20h00 and 06h00 of
the next day;
"Notice to Airmen" means a notice containing information concerning the

establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or
hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight
operations, distributed by means of telecommunication by or with the authority of the
Commissioner;
"operating certificate" means an operating certificate issued by the Commissioner

authorising an operator of a commercial air transport aircraft to carry out specified air
transport operations;
"operational flight plan" means the operator's plan for the safe conduct of the flight
based on considerations of aircraft performance, other operating limitations and
relevant expected conditions on the route to be followed and at the aerodromes
concerned;
"operations personnel" for the purposes of Part 138, means personnel assigned to
or directly involved in ground and flight emergency medical service operations;
"operator" means a person, organisation or enterprise engaged in or offering to

engage in an aircraft operation;
"organisation" includes a natural person, trust, company, close corporation and

voluntary association;
"overpack" means an enclosure used by a single shipper to contain one or more

packages and to form one handling unit for convenience of handling and stowage;
"owner" means an owner as defined in the Act, and –
(a) for the purposes of these Regulations, includes a person who has the right of
possession of the aircraft for 14 days or longer; for the purpose of Part 91,
includes an operator of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations;
"package" means the complete product of the packaging consisting of the

packaging and its contents prepared for conveyance;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 82
"packaging" means a receptacle and any other component or material necessary
for the receptacle to perform its containment function and to ensure compliance with
the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 83
"packing" means the process whereby an article or substance is enveloped in a
wrapping, enclosed in a packaging or otherwise secured;
"parachute" means any device comprising a flexible drag, or drag and lift, surface
from which load is suspended by shroud lines capable of controlled deployment from
a packed condition;
"parachute assembly" means any parachute and its associated harness and
container system, and other attached equipment for use by a person;
"parachute descent" means any descent made from an aircraft by a person with the
prior intention of deploying a parachute;
"parachute drop zone" means a designated area of airspace in which parachute

descents are intended to be made;
"parachute landing area" means an area of ground or water onto which parachute
landings are intended to be made;
"parachute technician" means a person who certifies parachute equipment;
"paraglider" means a hang glider with no rigid primary structure;
"passenger aircraft" means an aircraft which carries any person other than a flight
crew member, an operator's employee in an official capacity, an authorised officer or
a person accompanying a consignment or other cargo;
"period of operational duty" means the period during which an air traffic controller
is actually exercising the privileges of the air traffic service licence;
''pilot-in-command' ' means the pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the
aircraft in flight, without regard to whether or not he or she is manipulating the
controls;
"powered glider" means an aircraft equipped with one or more engines which has,
with the engine or engines not operating, the performance characteristics of a glider;
"precision approach" means an instrument approach for landing in which precision

azimuth guidance and precision glide path guidance are provided in accordance with
the minima prescribed for the category of operation;
"preliminary report" means the communication used for the prompt dissemination
of data which is obtained in early stages of an investigation;
"pressure altitude" means an atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of altitude

which corresponds to that pressure in the standard atmosphere;
"process release certificate or report" means a certificate or report which verifies

compliance with a specific process standard;
"product" means an aircraft, aircraft engine or propeller, and includes the classes of
products or types of aircraft referred to in Part 21,
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 84
"production-built aircraft" means an aircraft with not more than four seats and a
maximum certificated mass of 2 100 kilograms or less –
(a) which is manufactured for resale in the fully constructed condition; or

(b) of which less than 51 per cent of the airframe has been constructed and
assembled exclusively for non-commercial purposes;
"prohibited area" means any area defined in Regulation 91.06. 19,
"proper shipping name" means the name to be used to describe a particular article
or substance in all shipping documents and notifications and, where applicable, on
packagings;
"pro-tem investigator" means an authorised person designated by the

"public air transport service" means an air service that has as its main purpose the
transport of passengers, cargo or mail;
"rapid exit taxiway" means a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle and
designed to allow landing aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than are achieved
on other exit taxiways and thereby minimising runway occupancy times;
"rating" means an authorisation entered on or associated with a licence and forming

part of such licence, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations relating to
such licence;
"receptacle" means any container used for or capable of retaining and holding
substances or articles, including any means of closing,
"register" means the register of South African aircraft referred to in Regulation

41.00.14;
"rejected take-off distance required" means the horizontal distance required from
the start of the take-off to the point where the helicopter comes to a full stop following
a power unit failure and rejection of the take-off at the take-off decision point;
"release to service"
(a) in relation to an aircraft , means –
(i) in respect of scheduled maintenance, the issuing of a certificate of

release to service; and
(ii) in respect of line maintenance, the appropriate entry in the techni-
cal log-book or flight folio, as the case may be; and
in relation to an aircraft component, means the issuing of –
(i) a serviceable label; or

(ii) a certificate relating to the maintenance of an aircraft;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 85
"rescue service" means a service a defined in section 1 of the Fire Brigade
Services Act, 1987 (Act No 99 of 1987), a medical service or any other related
service,
“reserve parachute" means an emergency parachute assembly designed and

approved to be used as the secondary parachute after the failure of a main
parachute;
"resident of the Republic" means a person who has his or her ordinary residence
in the Republic and who is a South African citizen or is in the possession of a permit
for permanent residence in the Republic issued in terms of section 25 of the Aliens
Control Act, 1991 (Act No 96 of 1991);
"restricted area" means any area defined in Regulation 91.06.20;
"restricted category" means a category for special purposes operations;
"rotocraft" means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight by the

reactions of the air on one or more rotors;
"runway" means a defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the
landing and take-off of aeroplanes;
"runway visual range" means the runway visual range over which the pilot of an
aeroplane on the centre line of a runway can see the runway surface markings or the
lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line,
"safety" means the freedom from risk of bodily injury or death and the freedom from
risk of loss or damage to property;
"safety recommendation" means a proposal of the investigator-in-charge based on

information derived from the investigation and made with the intention of preventing
accidents or incidents;
"scheduled public air transport service" means a public air transport service in
connection with which flights are undertaken –
(a)
(i) between the same two or more points; or
(ii) such a slight variation from the same two or more points that each flight
can reasonably be regarded as being between the same two or more
points;
(iii) according to a published timetable; or
(iv) with such a degree of regularity and frequency that they constitute a
recognisable systematic series; and
(v) in such a manner that each flight is open to use by members of the public ;
"seaplane" means an aeroplane designed and constructed to take-off from and land
on water surfaces only;
"seat" includes any area occupied by a passenger, excluding the area occupied by
the baggage of such passenger, inside an aircraft;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 86
"sector" includes take-off, en route flight time and landing, but excludes circuit
operations;
"Selcal watch" and Selcal call sign" means a selective calling system to effect
communication with aircraft by the use of a specific code which is detected by
apparatus in the aircraft;
"serious injury" means an injury which –
(a) requires hospitalisation for more than 48 hours, within seven days from the date
on which the injury was sustained;
(b) results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose);
(c) involves lacerations which cause severe haemorrhage, or nerve, muscle or
tendon damage;
(d) involves injury to any internal organ;
(e) involves second or third degree burns or any burns affecting more than five per
cent of the surface of the body; or
(f) involves verified exposure to infectious or toxic substances or injurious radiation;
"serviceable" means, when used in relation to an aircraft, that the aircraft has been
maintained and inspected in accordance with the requirements of the approved
maintenance schedule and that all adjustments and rectifications found to be
necessary, have been satisfactorily made;
"shift" means the period between the actual commencement and the actual end of a
period of duty during which an air traffic controller exercises, or may be called upon
to exercise, the privileges of the rating at the traffic service unit for which such rating
is validated, and includes breaks and time spent on duties including training,
aerodrome inspection, administration, flight information service and any extension of
duty;
"shift cycle" means a consecutive 28 day period;
"shipper" means any person who prepares or offers a package or over-pack of

dangerous goods for conveyance by air;
"SIGMET information" means information issued by a meteorological watch office

concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence or specified en route weather
phenomena which may affect the safety of aircraft operations;
"simulator" means –
(a) a flight procedures trainer or synthetic flight training device;

(b) a type specific flight simulator;
(c) any other training device approved by the Commissioner;
"South African registered aircraft" means an aircraft which is registered by the

"special purposes operations" includes –
(a) agricultural spraying, seeding and dusting;

(b) cloud spraying, seeding and dusting;
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 87
(c) culling;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 88
(d) aerial patrol, observation and survey;
(e) advertising,
(f) aerial recording by photographic or electronic means;
(g) fire spotting, control and fighting; and
(h) spraying, seeding or dusting other than for agricultural purposes and clouds ;
"special VFR flight" means a VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to fly within a
control zone under meteorological conditions below the visual metorological
conditions;
"standard category" means a category for normal, transport, utility and commuter
operations, including acrobatic, emergency medical service, flying training, semi-
acrobatic, helicopter external-load and manned free balloon operations;
"standard training" means ongoing training;
"State of Design" means the State which has authority over the organisation
responsible for the type design of an aircraft ;
"State of Manufacture" means the State which has authority over the organisation
responsible for the final assembly of an aircraft;
"State of Registry" means the State on whose register an aircraft is entered;
"State of the Operator" means the State in which the principal place of business of
an operator of an aircraft is located or, if there is no such place of business, the State
where the operator of the aircraft has permanent residence;
"stores" means articles of a readily consumable nature for use or sale on board an
aircraft during flight, including commissary supplies;
"student parachutist" means a person who is on the first level of training of an

approved aviation recreation organisation;
"student pilot-in-command instrument time" means flight time during which a

flight instructor will only observe the student acting as pilot-in-command without
influencing or controlling the flight of the aircraft;
"subsonic aeroplane" means an aeroplane incapable of sustaining level flight at

speeds exceeding flight Mach number of one;
"supplemental type certificate" means a certificate issued in terms of regulations

21.05.3, which authorises the holder thereof to alter a product for which such holder
is not the type certificate holder, by introducing a major change in the type design
which is not great enough to require a new application for a type certificate;
"take-off alternate aerodrome" means an aerodrome to which a flight may proceed

should the weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure preclude a return for
landing;
"take-off decision point" means the point used in determining take-off performance
from which, a power unit failure having been recognised at this point, either a
rejected take-off may be made of a take-off safely continued;
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 89
"take-off distance available" means –
(a) in the case of an aeroplane, the length of the take-off run available plus the length
of the clearway available; or
(b) in the case of a helicopter, the distance from the point of lift-off to the nearest
obstacle in the take-off path of 50 feet or higher;
"take-off mass" means the mass of the aircraft, including everything and every
person carried in the aircraft at the commencement of the take-off run or lift-off, as
the case may be;
"take-off run available" means the length of runway which is declared available and
suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off;
"tandem master" means the person responsible for the direct control of a tandem
parachute descent using a tandem parachute assembly when a tandem rider is being
carried and who has been authorised by an approved aviation recreation
organisation;
"tandem parachute descent" means a parachute descent involving a tandem rider

and tandem master in a common tandem parachute assembly which is under the
direct control of the tandem master;
"tandem pair" means a tandem master and tandem rider;
"tandem rider" means a person participating in a tandem parachute descent under

the direct control of a tandem master using the secondary harness of a tandem
harness system;
"taxi" means the movement of an aircraft on the surface of an aerodrome under its
own power, excluding take-off and landing;
"taxiway" means a defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of
aircraft and intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and
another, and includes an aircraft stand taxilane, an apron taxiway and a rapid exit
taxiway;
"Technical Standard Order" means a minimum performance standard issued by the

Commissioner for specified materials, parts, processes or appliances, used on
aircraft;
"temporary training" means any intermittent training;
“terminal control area" means a control area established at the confluence of air
traffic service routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes as published in
an AIP, AIC or NOTAM and designated as a terminal control area;
"the Act" means the Aviation Act, 1962 (Act No 14 of 1962);
"the Regulations" means the regulations contained in this Schedule in the several
Parts of the Civil Aviation Regulations, including this part, as amended from time to
time;

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"these Regulations" means the Regulations;
"threshold" means the beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing,
"total cosmic radiation" means the total of ionizing and neutron radiation of galactic
and solar origin,
"touch down area" means a load bearing area on which a helicopter may touch
down;
"touch down area available" means the length and width of the touchdown area
which is declared available and suitable for the landing of a helicopter;
"traffic load" means the total mass of passengers, baggage and cargo, including
any non-revenue load;
"training" means -
(a) the training; or

(b) the tests or the verifications of skill or proficiency, specified in these Regulations;
"trust" means a trust as defined in the Trust Property Control Act, 1988 (Act No 51 of
1988);
"TSO authorisation" means a design and production approval issued to the

manufacturer of an article which complies with a specific TSO;
"type certificate" means a design approval for Class 1 product issued in terms of
Regulation 21.02.8;
"type of aircraft" means all aircraft of the same basic design including all
modifications thereto except those modifications which result in a change in handling
or flight characteristics;
"unit load device" means any type of freight container, aircraft container, aircraft
pallet with a net, or aircraft pallet with a net over an igloo;
"unmanned free balloon" means a non-power-driven, unmanned, lighter-than-air

aircraft in free flight;
"valid" when used in connection with a licence or rating issued , validated,

revalidated or renewed under these Regulations, means that all the requirements
applicable to such licence or rating, as prescribed by these Regulations, have been
complied with;
“validation" means an authorisation entered on a licence and forming part thereof,

to exercise a specific rating at a specific air traffic service unit, containing special
conditions, privileges or limitations pertaining to such rating;
"validation examiner" means an official validation examiner appointed by the

Commissioner or a validation examiner who has been designated in terms of the
provisions of Regulation 65.01.9;

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"variable-pitch propeller" means a propeller, the pitch setting of which changes or
can be changed when the propeller is rotating, and includes –
(a) a propeller, the pitch setting of which is directly under the control of the flight
crew;
(b) a propeller, the pitch setting of which is controlled by a governor or other
automatic means, which may be either integral with the propeller or a separately
mounted accessory, and which may, or may not, be controlled by the flight crew;
and
(c) a propeller, the pitch setting of which may be controlled by a combination of(a)
and (b) above;
"visibility" means the ability, as determined by atmospheric conditions and

expressed in units of measurement, to see and identify prominent unlighted objects
by day and prominent lighted objects by flight;
"visual approach" means an approach when either part or all of an instrument

approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed with visual
reference to the terrain;
"visual meteorological conditions" means atmospheric conditions expressed in

terms of visibility, distance from cloud or ceiling, equal to or better than the minima
prescribed for VFR flight in Regulation 91.06.21;
"wet runway" means a runway of which less than 25 per cent of the surface is
covered with water, slush or loose slow or when there is sufficient moisture on the
runway surface to cause it to appear reflective, but without significant areas of
standing water.

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ABBREVIATIONS
1.0.1 In these Regulations –
(a) AGL means above ground level

(b) AIC means an Aeronautical Information Circular
(c) AIP means and Aeronautical Information Publication
(d) AIR SUP means and AIP Supplement
(e) ARAC means aeronautical information regulation and control
(f) AZT Means and aerodrome traffic zone
(g) CDL Means a configuration deviation list
(h) CTA means a control area
(i) CTR means a control zone
(j) DA/H means decision altitude/height
(k) DAME means designated aviation medical examiner
(l) ELT means emergency locator transmitter
(m) EROPS means extended range operations
(n) ETOPS means extended range operations with twin-engine aircraft
(o) FL means flight level
(p) IAIP means an Integrated Aeronautical Information Package
(q) IFR means instrument flight rules
(r) ILS means instrument landing system
(s) IMC means instrument meteorological conditoins
(t) MCM means caximum certificated mass
(u) MDA/H means minimum descent altitude/height
(v) MEL means a minimum equipment list
(w) MMEL means a master equipment list
(x) MNPS means minimum navigation performance specifications
(y) MSL means mean sea level
(z) NDB means a non-directional radio beacon
(aa) NM means nautical mile
(bb) NOTAM means a Notice to Airman
(cc) PAR means Precision Approach Radar
(dd) PBE means portable breathing equipment
(ee) PIB means a Pre-flight Information Bulletin
(ff) PPI means a Plan Position Indicator
(gg) RNP means the required navigation performance
(hh) RVR means runway visual range
(ii) SA-CARs means South African Civil Aviation Regulations
(jj) STOL means short take-off and landing
(kk) TMA means a terminal control area
(ll) TSO means Technical Standard Order
(mm) VFR means visual flight rules
(nn) VHF means a very high frequency
(oo) VMC means visual meteorological conditions
(pp) VOR means VHF omnidirectional radio range

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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AVIATION ACCIDENTS AND INCIDENTS
PART 12

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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AVIATION ACCIDENTS AND INCIDENTS : LIST OF REGULATIONS
SUBPART 1 : GENERAL
12.01.1 Applicability
12.01.2 Designation of body or institution
12.01.3 Designation of investigator-in-charge
12.01.4 Designation of investigator
12.01.5 Designation of pro tem investigator
12.01.6 Designation of accredited representative
12.01.7 Designation of advisor
12.01.8 Establishment of confidential aviation hazard reporting system
SUBPART 2 : ACCIDENT AND INCIDENT NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES
12.02.1 Notification of accidents

12.02.2 Notification of incidents
12.02.3 Notification of accidents or incidents outside Republic
12.02.4 Particulars of notification
12.02.5 Notification of hazards
SUBPART 3 : INVESTIGATION OF ACCIDENTS OR INCIDENTS
1203.1 Purpose of accident and incident investigation

1203.2 Accident and incident investigation procedures
1203.3 Retention of objects for purposes of investigation or inquiry
SUBPART 4 : SCENE OF AN ACCIDENT
12.04.1 Guarding of aircraft involved in accident

12.04.2 Access to the scene of accident
12.04.3 Control of evidence
12.04.4 Interference with objects and marks at scene of accident
12.04.5 Removal of damaged or disabled aircraft
SUBPART 5 : REPORTING AND REOPENING OF INVESTIGATION
12.05.1 Reporting
12.05.2 Appeal against findings in investigation
12.05.3 Reopening of investigation
12.05.4 Application

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SUBPART 1 : GENERAL
Applicability
12.01.1 This part shall, subject to the provisions of section 12 of the Act, apply to
the procedures relating to the reporting and investigation of accidents and incidents
other than accidents and incidents involving –
(a) aircraft so designed to remain moored to the earth or to be kept in tow by vehicles
or vessels moving on the surface of the earth; and
(b) aircraft designed to fly without any person on board.
Designation of body or institution
12.01.2 (1) The Commissioner may, subject to the provisions of section 4(2) and
(3) of the Act, designate a body or institution to –
(a) promote aviation safety or to reduce the risk of aviation accidents or incidents;
and
(b) advise the Commissioner on any matter connected with the promotion of aviation
safety or the reduction of the risk of aviation accidents or incidents .
(2) The designation referred to in subregulation (1) shall be made in writing and shall
be published by the Commissioner in the Gazette within 30 days from the date of
such designation.
(3) The powers and duties referred to in subregulation (1) shall be exercised and
performed according to the conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or
standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID.
Designation of investigator-in-charge
12.1.3 (1) The Commissioner may designate an investigator-in-charge to

investigate any accident or incident in terms of this part.
(2) An investigator-in-charge shall have authority, subject to the provisions of this

part, to –
(a) have unhampered access to an aircraft which has been involved in an accident or
incident, the wreck or wreckage, the place where the aircraft, the wreck or
wreckage is located and the places where marks resulting from the accident or
incident which may be of assistance in an investigation, are located;
(b) preserve an aircraft which has been involved in an accident or incident or the
wreck or wreckage and any marks resulting from the accident or incident which
may be of assistance in the investigation, by any means available, including
photographic means;

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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(c) examine an aircraft involved in an accident or incident, the wreck or wreckage,
any part or component thereof or anything transported therein or any marks
resulting from the accident or incident which may be of assistance in the
investigation, and to remove any such aircraft, wreck or wreckage, or any part or
component thereof or anything transported therein for the purpose of the
investigation or for an inquiry by a board of inquiry appointed in terms of section
12(1) of the Act;
(d) compile reports in connection with the investigation;
(e) have unhampered access to all documents, books, notes, photographs,

recordings and transcripts which the investigator-in-charge may consider
necessary for the investigation, which documents, books, notes, photographs,
recordings and transcripts shall be produced without delay by the possessor
thereof when so requested; and
(f) obtain information from any person which may be necessary for the investigation.
Designation of investigator
12.01.4 (1) The Commissioner may designate an investigator for the purposes
of assisting an investigator-in-charge in the investigation of an accident or incident.
(2) An investigator may exercise all the powers granted to and imposed on an
investigator-in-charge in terms of Regulation 12.01.3(2), which are assigned to
such investigator by the investigator-in-charge .
(3) The conditions and requirements for and the rules, procedures and standards
connected with a designation referred to in subregulation (1), shall be as
prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID.
(4) The Commissioner shall sign and issue to each investigator so designated, a
document which shall state the full name of such investigator and contain a
statement indicating that –
(a) such investigator has been designated in terms of subregulation (1); and
(b) such investigator is empowered to exercise any power entrusted to him or her in
terms of this part.
Designation of pro tem investigator
12.01.5 (1) The Commissioner may designate a pro tem investigator for the
purposes of assisting the investigator-in-charge in the initial investigation of an
accident or incident.
(2) A pro tem investigator may exercise all the powers granted to and imposed on an
investigator-in-charge in terms of Regulation 12.01.3(2), which are assigned to
such investigator by the investigator-in-charge .
(3) A pro tem investigator shall, as soon as practicable after the arrival of the
investigator-in-charge on the scene of an accident or incident, report on his or her
initial investigation to such investigator-in-charge .
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(5) The Commissioner shall sign and issue to each pro tem investigator so
designated, a document which shall state the full name of such pro tem
investigator and contain a statement indicating that -
(a) such pro tem investigator has been designated in terms of subregulation (1); and
(b) such pro tem investigator is empowered to exercise any power entrusted to him
or her in terms of this part.
Designation of accredited representative
12.01.6 (1) The Commissioner may designate –
(a) an accredited representative, for the purposes of investigating an accident or

incident involving a South African registered aircraft in a territory of a contracting
or non-contracting State; or
(b) an accredited representative of the State of Registry, State of the Operator, State
of Design or State of Manufacture for the purposes of investigating an accident or
incident involving a foreign registered aircraft in the territory of the Republic.
(3) An accredited representative designated in terms of subregulation (l)(b) may

participate in the investigation of the accident or incident under the control of the
investigator-in-charge .
(4) An accredited representative designated in terms of subregulation (l)(b) may,

under the control of the investigator-in-charge-
(a) visit the scene of the accident;
(b) examine the wreckage;
(c) obtain witness information and suggest areas of questioning;
(d) have access to all relevant evidence;
(e) receive copies of all relevant documents, books, notes, photographs, recordings
and transcripts;
(f) participate in readouts of recorded media;
(g) participate in component examinations, technical briefings, tests and simulations

and other investigative activities;

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(h) participate in deliberations on the analysis, findings, cause or causes and safety
recommendations; and

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(i) make submissions in respect of the various elements of the investigation.
Designation of advisor
12.1.7 (1) The Commissioner may designate an adviser for the purpose of
assisting the investigator-in-charge in the investigation of an accident or
incident.
Establishment of confidential aviation hazard reporting system
12.01.8 (1) The designated body or institution referred to in Regulation 12.01.2,

shall establish a confidential aviation hazard reporting system to promote aviation
safety or reduce the risk of accidents or incidents.
(2) The requirements for and the procedures of a confidential aviation hazard
reporting system and the manner in which such system shall be operated, shall
be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID.
(3) Any person who exercises or has exercised any function in terms of the
confidential aviation hazard reporting system, shall not disclose any information
which he or she obtained in the performance of such function which could identify
the originator of the notice referred to in Regulation 12.02.5.

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SUBPART 2 : ACCIDENTS OR INCIDENT NOTIFICATION PROCEDURES
Notification of accidents
12.02.1 (1) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft involved in an accident within

the Republic, or if he or she is killed or incapacitated, a flight crew member, or if there
are no surviving flight crew members or if they are incapacitated, the operator or
owner, as thecase may be, shall, as soon as possible, notify –
(a) the Commissioner;
(b) an air traffic service unit; or
(c) the nearest police station,
(d) of such accident.
(2) If an air traffic service unit or police station is notified of an accident in terms of
subregulation (1), such air traffic service unit or police station shall, immediately
on receipt of the notification, notify-
(a) the Commissioner; and
(b) where such accident occurs on an aerodrome, the aerodrome manager.
Notification of incidents
12.02.2 (1) The pilot-in-command, and any other flight crew member, operator
or owner, as the case may be, of an aircraft involved in an incident, other than an air
traffic service incident, within the Republic, shall, as soon as possible, notify –
(a) the Commissioner, or
(b) an air traffic service unit, of such incident.
(2) If an air traffic service unit is notified of an incident in terms of subregulation (1),
such air traffic service unit shall, immediately on receipt of the notification, notify-
(a) the Commissioner, and
(b) where such incident occurs on an aerodrome, the aerodrome manager.
(3) The pilot-in-command, any other flight crew member, operator or owner, as the
case may be, of an aircraft involved in an air traffic service incident within the
Republic, or any air traffic service personnel witnessing an airtraffic service
incident, shall, as soon as possible, notify an air traffic service unit of such air
traffic service incident, and such air traffic service unit shall immediately on
receipt of the notification, notify the Commissioner in the appropriate form as

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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Notification of accidents or incidents outside Republic
12.02.3 The pilot-in-command of a South African registered aircraft involved in

an accident or incident outside the Republic, or if he or she is killed or incapacitated,
a flight crew member, or if there are no surviving flight crew Members, or if they are
incapacitated, the operator or owner, as the case may be, shall as soon as possible,
notify -
(a) the appropriate authority in the State or territory where the accident or incident
occurred, directly or through any air traffic service unit; and
(b) the Commissioner;
(c) of such accident or incident.
Particulars of notification
12.02.4 Any notification of an accident or incident referred to in Regulation 12.02.1,

12.02.2 or 12.02.3 other than an air traffic service incident, shall-
(a) include the following particulars:
(i.) Type, model, nationality and registration marks of the aircraft ;

(ii.) name of the owner or operator, as applicable;
(iii.) surnames and initials of flight crew members;
(iv.) the date and time of the accident or incident, specified in co-ordinated
Universal Time or local time;
(v.) last point of departure and point of intended landing of the aircraft;
(vi.) location of accident or incident with reference to an easily identifiable
geographical point and, if known, with reference to latitude and longitude,
(vii.) number of-
(aa) flight crew members and passengers aboard, killed or

seriously injured; and
(bb) other persons killed or seriously injured;
(viii.) nature of the accident or incident and extent of damage to aircraft as far as
is known;
(ix.) terrain characteristics of the area where the accident or incident occurred;
(x.) details of any dangerous goods or hazardous substances flown to be on
board the aircraft; and
(xi.) any other relevant information; and
(b) be submitted forthwith to the Commissioner, and any information which is not
Immediately available shall be submitted in writing as soon as it becomes
available.
Notification of hazards
12.02.5 (1) Any person involved in an accident or incident, or observing any

accident, incident, hazard or discrepancy that may affect aviation safety, may notify
the designated body or institution referred in Regulation 12.01.2, of such accident,
incident, hazard or discrepancy.
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 102
(3) Any person who notifies the designated body or institution referred to in
Regulation 12.01.2 of an accident or incident, shall not be absolved from the duty
to notify the Commissioner of such accident or incident in terms of Regulation
12.02.1, 12.02.2 or 12.02.3, as the case may be.

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SUBPART 3 : INVESTIGATION OF ACCIDENTS OR INCIDENTS
Purpose of accident or incident investigation
12.03.1 The purpose of investigation of an accident or incident is, subject to

section 12 of the Act, to determine, in terms of the provisions of this part, the facts of
an accident or incident in the interest of the promotion of aviation safety and the
reduction of the risk of aviation accidents or incidents, and not to establish legal
liability.
Accident or incident investigation procedures
12.03.2 (1) All accidents and serious incidents of which the Commissioner is
notified in terms of Regulations 12.02.1 and 12.02.2, shall be investigated by a
investigator-in-charge .
(2) All incidents, other than serious incidents referred to in subregulation (1), may be
investigated by an investigator-in-charge .
(3) An accident or incident investigation shall be carried out by the investigator-m-

charge, in accordance with the requirements for and the rules, procedures and
standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID .
(4) Any person required by the investigator-in-charge to render assistance or furnish

the information which the investigator-in-charge may deem necessary for the
investigation of an accident or incident, shall be obliged to render such
assistance or furnish such information.
Retention of objects for purposes of investigation or inquiry
12.03.3 Any item or wreckage of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident, or

any part or component thereof, or anything transported therein, may be retained by
the investigator-in-charge until no longer required for the purpose of an investigation,
including an investigation following on a reopening referred to in Regulation 12.05.3,
or for an inquiry by a board of inquiry in terms of section 12(1) of the Act, whereupon
such wreckage, or part or component thereof, shall be discarded or destroyed,
unless a person having a right to such item, or part or component thereof, has
informed the Commissioner in writing, within 60 days of the date of such accident or
incident, that such item or component or part be returned to him or her after the
completion of the investigation or inquiry.

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SUBPART 4: SCENE OF AN ACCIDENT
Guarding of aircraft involved in accident
12.04.1 Where an accident occurs within the Republic, the pilot-in-command of

the aircraft involved in the accident, or if he or she is killed or incapacitated, a flight
crew member, or if there are no surviving flight crew members, or if they are
incapacitated, the operator or owner of such aircraft or where the accident occurs on
an aerodrome, the aerodrome manager, shall –
(a) pending the arrival of a police guard, take such steps which may be necessary to
prevent any interference with the aircraft, the wreck or wreckage and anything
transported therein and any marks resulting from the accident which may be of
assistance in an investigation, contrary to the provisions of this Part;
(b) forthwith arrange with a member of the South African Police Service to guard the
aircraft, the wreck or wreckage and anything transported therein and any marks
resulting from the accident which may be of assistance in an investigation.
Access to the scene of accident
12.04.2 (1) No person other than –
(a) a member of the rescue service;
(b) a pro tem investigator;
(c) an investigator;
(d) an accredited representative;
(e) an advisor;
(f) a member of the South African Police Service; or
(g) any other person authorised by the Commissioner, after consultation with the
investigator-in-charge ,
shall, until such time as the investigator-in-charge otherwise determines, have

access to an aircraft which has been involved in an accident or to the wreck or
wreckage and any marks resulting from the accident which may be of assistance in
an investigation.
(2)Every person permitted by the provisions of subregulation (1) or authorised in

terms thereof to have access to an aircraft which has been involved in an
accident or to the wreck or wreckage or to places where marks resulting from the
accident occur which may be of assistance in an investigation, shall be subject
to the direction of the investigator-in-charge until the investigation has been
completed.
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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Control of evidence
12.4.3 The aircraft, the wreck or wreckage and anything transported therein and
any marks resulting from the accident which may be of assistance in an
investigation, shall remain under the control of the investigator-in-charge
until released by such investigator-in-charge .
Interference with objects and marks at scene of accident
12.04.4 (1) Subject to the provisions of this part, no person shall interfere with
an aircraft which has been involved in an accident, the wreck or wreckage, a part or
component thereof or anything transported therein or any marks resulting from the
accident which may be of assistance in an investigation –
(a) until authorised to do so by the investigator-in-charge ; and
(b) until, in the case of an aircraft which must be cleared by a customs officer by
virtue of the provisions of the Customs and Excise Act, 1964 (Act No 91 of 1964),
clearance has been issued or permission granted by such officer.
(2) The provisions of subregulation (1) shall not prevent any action necessary for –
(a) the rescue or extrication of persons or animals from the aircraft or the wreck;
(b) the reasonable protection of the aircraft, the wreck or wreckage from destruction
by fire or other causes;
(c) the safeguarding by the owner, operator or police guard of precious metals,
jewellery or valuables;
(d) the prevention of danger or removal of an obstruction to other aircraft, other

means of transport or to the public; and
(e) the removal of the aircraft, any part or component thereof or anything transported
therein to a safe place, when in water or otherwise endangered.
Removal of damaged or disabled aircraft
12.04.5 Subject to the conditions which the Commissioner may determine, a

person authorised by the Commissioner for this purpose, may direct any person to
move an aircraft which is damaged or disabled or to move any part thereof or any
cargo or thing carried therein, to another place, at the expense of the owner or
operator of the aircraft.

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SUBPART 5 : REPORTING AND REOPENING OF INVESTIGATION
Reporting
12.05.1 (1) The investigator-in-charge shall, upon completion of an investigation

of an accident or incident carried out in terms of subpart 3, report the findings of such
investigation to the Commissioner.
(2) The reporting on an investigation referred to in subregulation (1) shall consist of-
(a) a preliminary report, if necessary in the interests of aviation safety; and
(b) a final report which shall be compiled and published in the manner as prescribed
in Document SA-CATS-ACCID and INCID.
Appeal against findings in investigation
12.05.2 (1) Any interested person who feels aggrieved by the findings on an
investigation may appeal against such findings to the Commissioner, within 30 days
after such person becomes aware of such findings.
(2) An appellant shall deliver an appeal in writing, stating the reasons why in his or
her opinion, the findings should be varied or set aside.
(3) The appellant shall submit a copy of the appeal and any documents or records
supporting such appeal, to the investigator-in-charge concerned and shall furnish
proof of such submission for the information of the Commissioner,
(4) The investigator-in-charge concerned may, within 30 days of receipt of the copy
of the appeal referred to in subregulation (3), deliver his or her written reply to
such appeal to the Commissioner.
(5) The Commissioner may –
(a) adjudicate the appeal on the basis of the documents submitted to him or her; or
(b) order the appellant and the investigator-in-charge concerned to appear before
him or her, either in person or through a representative, at a time and place
determined by him or her, to give evidence.
(6) The Commissioner may confirm, vary or set aside the findings referred to in
subregulation (1).
Reopening of investigation
12.05.3 (1) The Commissioner may order the reopening of an investigation-
(a) of which the findings are set aside in terms of Regulation 12.05.2(6);
(b) if new and significant information which indicates that the findings on the
investigation may be incorrect, becomes available; or

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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(c) if such a reopening is in the interests of aviation safety.
Any investigation reopened in terms of this regulation shall be conducted in

accordance with the provisions of this subpart 3.
Application
12.05.4 Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in this subpart, the

provisions of Regulations 12.05.2 and 12.05.3 shall only apply in cases where the
Commissioner is satisfied that the Minister has not applied and does not intend
applying the provisions of section 12 of the Act to a case in question.

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MEDICAL CERTIFICATION
PART 67

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 109
MEDICAL CERTIFICATION
Applicability
67.00.1 This part shall apply to the issuing of medical certificates in respect of flight
crew, cabin crew and air traffic service personnel.
Classes of medical certificates
67.0.1 (1) The classes of medical certificates are-
(a) Class I -
ii) airline transport pilot: aeroplane and helicopter;

iii) commercial pilot: aeroplane and helicopter;
iv) flight test rating:
v) commercial microlight aeroplane pilot;
vi) gyroplane pilot for commercial purposes;
vii) commercial glider pilot;
viii) airship pilot for commercial purposes:
ix) free balloon pilot for commercial purposes;
x) flight engineer; and
xi) powered paraglider pilot for commercial purposes;
(b) Class 2 -
i) private pilot: aeroplane and helicopter;

ii) student pilot; and
iii) cabin crew member.
(c) Class 3 -
i) air traffic controller; and
(d) Class 4 -
i) microlight aeroplane pilot;

ii) glider pilot;
iii) gyroplane pilot for non-commercial purposes;
iv) airship pilot for non-commercial purposes;
v) free balloon pilot for non-commercial purposes;
vi) hang glider pilot;
vii) paraglider pilot;
viii) powered paraglider pilot for non-commercial purposes;
and
ix) air traffic service assistant.
(2) A flight crew member who holds a valid Class I medical certificate referred to in
subregulation (1) (a), shall be deemed to hold a valid Class II medical certificate
referred to in subregulation (l)(b) and a valid Class IV medical certificate referred to
in subregulation (1) (d).
GEN 39-45 & 53,54
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An air traffic service personnel member who holds a valid Class III medical certificate
referred to in subregulation (l)(c), shall be deemed to hold a valid Class 4 medical
certificate referred to in subregulation (l)(d).
Upon expiry of a Class I medical certificate referred to in subregulation(1) (a), such

medical certificate shall be deemed to be valid for the remainder of the period for
which it would have been valid as a Class II medical certificate referred to in
subregulation (l)(b) and a Class IV medical certificate referred to in subregulation (l)
(d), as specified in Regulation 67.00.6.
Upon expiry of a Class 3 medical certificate referred to in subregulation (l)(c), such

medical certificate shall be deemed to be valid for the remainder of the period for
which it would have been valid as a Class IV medical certificate referred to in
subregulation (l)(d), as specified in Regulation 67.00.6.
The medical requirements and standards to be complied with by an applicant for, or

the holder of, a Class I, II, III or IV medical certificate shall be as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-MR.
Designation of body or institution
67.00.3 (1) The Commissioner may, subject to the provisions of section 4(2) and (3)
of the Act, designate a body or institution to -
a. exercise control over medical examinations or tests and over aviation medical
examiners performing such examinations or tests;
b. determine standards for such examinations or tests and for the training of such
aviation medical examiners;
c. issue, amend, suspend or withdraw medical certificates and keep all books or
documents regarding such examinations or tests; and
d. subject to the provisions of Regulation 67.00.9, advise the Commissioner on any
matter connected with such examinations, tests or aviation medical examiners
and on the training of flight crew and cabin crew in first aid.
The designation referred to in subregulation (1) shall be made in writing and shall be
published by the Commissioner in the Gazette within 30 days from the date of such
designation.
The powers and duties referred to in subregulation (1) shall be exercised and
performed according to the conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards
as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-MR.
Any medical practitioner employed by the body or institution designated in terms of

subregulation (1), shall not be disqualified by virtue of such designation from being
designated as an aviation medical examiner.
Designation of aviation medical examiners
67.00.4 (1) The Commissioner may, after consultation with the designated body or
institution, designate aviation medical examiners to perform medical examinations or
tests required for the issuing of medical certificates.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 111
connected with a designation referred to in subregulation (1) shall be as
prescribed in Document SA-CATS-MR.
(3) The Commissioner shall sign and issue to each designated aviation medical
examiner a document which shall state the full name of such aviation medical
examiner and contain a statement that -
a. such aviation medical examiner has been designated in terms of

subregulation (1); and
b. such aviation medical examiner is empowered to -
i) perform the medical examination or test required for the

issuing of the appropriate medical certificate;
ii) subject to the provisions of Regulation 67.00.8, issue

such medical certificate; or
iii) defer the issuing of such medical certificate pending

an appropriate instruction from the designated body
or institution.
Class 4 medical certificates
67.00.5 (1) Notwithstanding the provisions of Regulation 67.00.4, any medical

practitioner who is registered in terms of section 17 of the Medical, Dental and
Supplementary Health Service Professions Act, 1974 (Act No. 56 of 1974), may
perform a medical examination for the purpose of the issuing of a Class IV medical
certificate.
(2) The provisions of Regulation 67.00.7(1) and (2) shall apply mutatis mutandis to
an application for the issuing of a Class IV medical certificate.
(3) The medical practitioner concerned shall, within 60 days from the date on which
the medical examination has been performed, submit the application together
with any appropriate -
a. supporting medical reports; and
b. results of medical examinations or tests performed;
to the designated body or institution for the verification of the application and the
issuing of the medical certificate.
(4) An applicant who complies with the appropriate medical requirements and
standards referred to in Regulation 67.00.2(6), shall be entitled to the medical
certificate.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 112
(5) On receipt of the documents referred to in subregulation (3), the designated body
or institution shall -
a. verify the application concerned: and
b. if the applicant complies with the appropriate medical requirements and

standards referred to in Regulation 67.00.2(6), issue the medical certificate.
(6) The designated body or institution may -
a. if medical conclusion requires that -
i. medical examinations or tests be performed at shorter intervals; or

ii. additional examinations or tests be performed; or
b. when the safe performance of the duties essential to the operation of an aircraft,
of the holder of the medical certificate, depends on compliance with any special
limitation, endorse the medical certificate with such requirement or limitation.
Period of validity of medical certificates
67.00.6 (1) A Class I medical certificate shall be issued for a period not exceeding
a. 12 calendar months, calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which
the medical certificate is issued, where the applicant is less than 40 years of age
on the date on which the medical certificate is issued; and
b. six calendar months in the case of an airline transport pilot aeroplane and
helicopter, a commercial pilot: aeroplane and helicopter, a commercial microlight
aeroplane pilot, a gyroplane pilot for commercial purposes, a commercial glider
pilot, an airship pilot for commercial purposes, a free balloon pilot for commercial
purposes or a powered paraglider pilot for commercial purposes, calculated from
the last day of the calendar month in which the medical certificate is issued,
where the applicant is 40 years of age or more on the date on which the medical
certificate is issued: Provided that a medical certificate may be issued for a
period of 12 months to an applicant who is less than 60 years of age on the date
on which the medical certificate is issued if -
(i) the applicant has no identified medical condition or excessive risk

factors for conditions leading to sudden incapacity; and
(ii) the medical certificate is, for the latter six months of the period,
endorsed with a special limitation referred to in subregulation (4) (b).
(2) A Class 2 and 3 medical certificate shall be issued for a period not exceeding -
b. 12 calendar months, calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which
the medical certificate is issued, where the applicant is 40 years of age or more
on the date on which the medical certificate is issued.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 113
(3) A Class IV medical certificate shall be issued for a period not exceeding-
b. 36 calendar months, calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which
the medical certificate is issued, where the applicant is 40 years of age or more
on the date on which the medical certificate is issued.
(4) Notwithstanding the provisions of subregulations (1), (2) and (3), a designated
aviation medical examiner may-
a. indications require that -
i. medical examinations or tests be performed at shorter intervals; or

ii. additional exanimations or tests be performed; or
b. when the safe performance of the duties essential to the operation of an aircraft,
of the holder of such medical certificate, depends on compliance with any special
limitation, endorse the medical certificate with such requirement or limitation.
Application for medical certificate
67.00.7 (1) An application for the issuing of a medical certificate shall be made on
the appropriate form as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-MR.
(2) An applicant who attends a medical examination or test for the issuing of a
medical certificate shall -
a. produce proof of his or her identity; and
b. produce for inspection any licence held for which the certificate is required and
the most recent medical certificate held, if any.
(3) Subject to the provisions of Regulations 67.00.3(l)(c) and 67.004(3) (b)(iii), an

applicant who complies with the appropriate medical requirements and standards
referred to in Regulation 67.00.2(6), shall be entitled to a medical certificate.
Issuing of medical certificate
67.00.8(1) A medical certificate shall be issued by the designated aviation medical

examiner concerned on the appropriate form as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-
MR.
(2) The designated aviation medical examiner concerned shall, within 60 days from
the date on which the medical certificate has been issued, submit the original
application together with any appropriate -
a. supporting medical reports; and

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 114
b. results of medical examinations or tests performed, to the designated body or
institution for verification purposes.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 115
(3) On receipt of the documents referred to in subregulation (2), the designated body
or institution shall verify that the holder of the medical certificate complies with the
appropriate medical requirements and standards referred to in Regulation
67.00.2(5).
(4) A medical certificate issued by a designated aviation medical examiner, shall

remain in force, subject to any requirement or limitation endorsed thereon and for
the period for which it was issued: Provided that the designated body or institution
may -
a. if the medical certificate has been issued to an applicant who does not comply
with the appropriate medical requirements and standards referred to in
Regulation 67.00.2(6), cancel the medical certificate; or
b. if medical conclusion requires that -
(i) medical examinations or tests be performed at shorter intervals; or

(ii) additional examinations or tests be performed; or
(iii) when the safe performance of the duties essential to the operation of an
aircraft, of the holder of the medical certificate, depends on compliance
with any special limitation, endorse the medical certificate with such
requirement or limitation.
(5) For the purposes of subregulation (2), the words "original application" includes
any incomplete application.
Duties of holder of medical certificate
67.0.9 (1) The holder of a medical certificate shall-
a. carry such medical certificate on his or her person when carrying out the duties
as a flight crew member, an air traffic service personnel member or a cabin crew
member, as the case may be;
b. not act as a pilot-in-command, or in any other capacity as a flight crew member,

an air traffic service personnel member or a cabin crew member, as the case may
be -
(i) while he or she is aware of any medical condition which could affect
the validity of such medical certificate;
(ii) while he or she is receiving medical treatment, unless otherwise provided
for in Document SA-CATS-MR;
(iii) if the holder has entered the thirtieth week of pregnancy, unless -

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 116
(aa) the medical certificate is issued in respect of an air traffic
service licence; or
(bb) a suitable medical practitioner and a designated aviation
medical examiner certify that such holder who has entered
the twenty-ninth week of pregnancy, is fit to continue to act as
a pilot-in-command, or in any other capacity as a flight crew
member or a cabin crew member, for a further period,
which period shall not exceed six weeks from the date on
which such holder has entered the thirtieth week of pregnancy;
(iv) if the holder has given birth in the preceding eight weeks; or
(v) after such medical certificate has expired;
(c ) without undue delay, notify the designated body or institution of any -
(i) injury;
(ii) hospitalisation;
(iii) surgical operation or invasive procedure;
(iv) regular use of medication;
(v) pregnancy;
(vi) absence due to illness for a period of more than 21 days: or psychiatric
treatment, which renders such holder unable to comply with
the appropriate medical requirements and standards referred to
in Regulation 67.00.2(6).
(2) For the purposes of subregulation (l)(c), the holder of a medical certificate
shall, before such holder resumes the exercising of the privileges of the
licence held by him or her, furnish the designated body or institution with proof
that he or she has fully recovered from the decrease in medical fitness.
(3) The holder of a Class 4 medical certificate shall, after the medical certificate
has been issued to him or her, on an annual basis complete and submit to the
designated body or institution the medical declaration as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-MR.
Foreign medical assessments
67.00.10(1) The Commissioner may, in consultation with the designated body or

institution, recognize any foreign medial report, medical assessment or medical
certificate issued by an appropriate authority for the purpose of validating a foreign
flight crew member's licence, air traffic service personnel member's licence or cabin
crew member's licence.
(2) If, because of duty in a State or territory outside the Republic, deferral of the
issuing of a South African medical certificate for a flight crew member or a cabin
crew member, as the case may be, has to be made, such deferral shall not
exceed -
a. a single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft
used in non-commercial operations; or

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 117
b. two consecutive periods, each of three months, in the case of a flight crew
member or a cabin crew member, as the case may be, of an aircraft used in
commercial operations: Provided that the flight crew member or cabin crew
member concerned -
i. obtains in that State or territory, in either instance, a valid medical certificate

after examination by an appropriate authority; and
ii. undergoes the appropriate medical examination as soon as he or she returns to

the Republic.
Appeal
67.00.11 (1) An applicant for, or the holder of, a medical certificate who feels
aggrieved by -
(2) a decision by the designated body or institution in terms of Regulation 67.00.8(4)

(a) to cancel his or her medical certificate;
(3) a decision by a designated aviation medical examiner, declaring him or her unfit
or temporarily unfit;
(4) any endorsement made by the designated body or institution in terms of

Regulation 67.00.5(6) or 67.00.8(4)(b) on his or her medical certificate; or
(5) any endorsement made by a designated aviation medical examiner in terms of

Regulation 67.00.6(4) on his or her medical certificate, may appeal against such
decision or endorsement to the Commissioner, within 30 days after he or she
becomes aware of such decision or endorsement.
(2) The appellant shall-
a. deliver his or her appeal in writing, staling the reasons why, in his or her opinion,
the decision or endorsement should be varied or set aside;
b. pay the appropriate fee as prescribed in Part 187; and
c. be responsible for the payment of any additional medical expenses incurred as a

result of the appeal.
(3) The appellant shall submit a copy of his or her appeal and any documents or
records supporting such appeal, to the designated aviation medical examiner
concerned or the designated body or institution, as the case may be, and shall
furnish proof of such submission for the information of the Commissioner.
(4) The designated aviation medical examiner concerned or the designated body or
institution, as the case may be, may, within 30 days of receipt of the copy of the
appeal referred to in subregulation (3), deliver his, her or its written reply to such
appeal to the Commissioner.
(5) The Commissioner may designate a panel of medical practitioners to assist him
or her in adjudicating the appeal.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 118
(6) The panel referred to in subregulation (5) shall consist of at least two medical
practitioners who are registered in terms of section 17 of the Medical, Dental and
Supplementary Health Service Professions Act, 1974, one of whom shall have
obtained a postgraduate qualification in aviation medicine, and the other shall be
a specialist in the field of medicine concerned.
(7) The Commissioner may -
a. adjudicate the appeal on the basis of the documents submitted to him or her;
b. order the appellant and the designated aviation medical examiner concerned or
the designated body or institution, as the case may be, to appear before him or
her, either in person or through a representative, at a time and place determined
by him or her, to give evidence.
(8) The Commissioner may confirm, vary or set aside the decision or endorsement
referred to in subregulation (1).
Period of validity of medical records
67.00.12 The records of a medical examination shall, for the purpose of issuing a
medical certificate, be valid for a period not exceeding 90 days, and medical
certificate may not be issued after this period on the records of such examination.
Medical confidentiality
67.00.13 (1) Subject to the provisions of subregulation (2), all information provided
by or on behalf of an applicant for a medical certificate, which is personal medical
information, shall be confidential, and shall be used only in respect of the medical
certificate and the entire medical certification process, unless otherwise authorised
by the applicant.
(2) Any medical practitioner employed by the designated body or institution shall
ensure the protection of information referred to in subregulation (1) which is kept
by such designated body or institution: Provided that when medical information
appears to be fraudulent, false or misleading, or when such medical information
will jeopardise aviation safety, or when it is necessary for the purpose of an
appeal in terms of Regulation 67.00.11, the medical practitioner shall release to
the Commissioner such information for appropriate investigation and action.

GEN 39-45 & 53,54
Page 119
AMENDMENTS
AMMENDMENT DATE GOV NOTICE GOV GAZETTE SIGNATURE

NO AMMENDED NO NO
1 24/12/1997 R1753 18562
2 14/08/1998 R1041 19155
3 18/9/1998 R1184 19248
4 14/12/1998 R1664 19612
5 31/12/1998 R1701 19644
6 21/5/1999 R639 20076
7 17/2/2000 R170 20895
8 18/2/2000 R171 20896
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
1
I N D E X VOLUME II
SECTIONS
PART 91
CATS OPS PART 91
PART 92
PART 135
CATS PART 135
AIR LAW APPENDIX A
APPENDIX B QUESTIONS
MOCK EXAM PAPER 1
All Rights Reserved. No part of this manual my be reproduced in

photocopying, facsimile, or stored in a retrieval system, without
the prior permission of Flight Training College of S.A. c.c.
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
2
CONTENTS
VOLUME I
Definitions
Part 1 Definitions and Abbreviations
Procedures
Part 11 Procedures for making Regulations, Issuing Technical
Standards and Grading Exemptions
Part 12 Aviation Accidents and Incidents
Part 13 Enforcement Procedures
Aircraft
Part 21 Certification Procedures for Products and parts
Part 34 Engine Emission certification
Part 36 Noise Certification
Part 43 General maintenance Rules
Part 47 Registration and marking
Personnel
Part 61 Pilot Licensing

Part 63 Flight Engineer Licensing
Part 64 Cabin Crew Licencing
Part 65 Air Traffic Service Personnel Licencing
Part 66 Aircraft maintenance Engineer Licencing
Part 67 Medical Certification
VOLUME II
Rules of the Air and General Operating Rules
Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules

Part 92 Conveyance of Dangerous Goods
Part 98 Operating of Powered paragliders
Part 100 Operation of Gyroplanes
Part 101 Operation of Unmanned Free Balloons. Kites and
Remotely Piloted Aircraft
Part 102 Operation of Free Balloons and Airships
Part 103 Operation of Microlight Aeroplanes
Part 104 Operation of Gliders
Part 105 Operation of Parachutes
Part 106 Operation of Hang Gliders
Certificated Aircraft operations and Other Flight Operations

Part 121 Air Transport Operations – Large Aeroplanes
Part 127 Helicopters
Part 133 Helicopter External –load Operations
Part 135 Air Transport Operations – Small Aeroplanes
Part 137 Agricultural Operations
Part 138 Emergency medical Service Operations
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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Aerodromes and Heliports
Part 139 Licencing and Operation

Part 141 Aviation Training Organisations
Part 145 Aircraft Maintenance Organisations
Part 148 Manufacturing Organisations
Air Traffic Services
Part 172 Air Space and Traffic Services
Aeronautical and meteorological Information Services
Part 174 Meteorological Information Services

Part 175 Aeronautical Information Services
Part 183 General
Administration
Part 1185 Offences

Part 187 Fees
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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THIS PAGE HAS DELIBERATELY BEEN LEFT BLANK
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
5
GENERAL OPERATING
AND FLIGHT RULES
PART 91
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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LIST OF REGULATIONS:
GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES
SUBPART 1: GENERAL PROVISIONS
91.01.1 Applicability…………………………………………………………………..
91.01.2 Authority of pilot-in-command
91.01.3 Authorisation of personnel to taxi aeroplanes
91.01.4 Search and rescure information
91.01.5 Information on emegency and survival equipment carried
91.01.6 Method of carriage of eprsons
91.01.7 Admisison of flight deck
91.01.8 Unauthrorised carriage
91.01.9 Portable electronic devices
91.01.10 Endangering safety
91.01.11 Presevation of documents
`
SUBPART 2: FLIGHT CREW
91.02.1 Composition of flight crew

91.02.2 Flight crew member emergency duties
91.02.3 Flight crew member responsibilities
91.02.4 Recency
91.02.5 Flight crew members at duty stations
91.02.6 Laws, regulations and procedures
91.02.7 Duties of pilot-in-command regarding flight preparation
91.02.8 Duties of pilot-in-command regarding flight operations
SUBPART 3: DOCUMENTATION AND RECORDS
91.03.1 Documents to be carried on board

91.03.2 Aircraft flight manual
91.03.3 Aircraft checklists
91.03.4 Air traffic service flight plan
91.03.5 Flight folio
91.03.6 Fuel and oil record
91.03.7 Certificate of release to service
91.03.8 Flight recorder records
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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SUBPART 4: INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT
91.04.1 Use of instruments and equipment by pilot

91.04.2 Circuit protection devices
91.04.3 Aircraft operating flights
91.04.4 Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aircraft operating under VFR
91.04.5 Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aircraft operating under
IFR
91.04.6 Additional equipment for single-pilot operation in accordance with IFR
91.04.7 Mach number indicator
91.04.8 Radio altimeter
91.04.9 Equipment for operations in icing conditions
91.04.10 Flight recorder
91.04.11 Foil data recorder
91.04.12 Cockpit voice recorder
91.04.13 Flight data recorder
91.04.14 Seats, seat safety belts, harnesses and child restraint devices
91.04.15 Stowage or articles, baggage and cargo
91.04.16 Standard first aid kit
91.04.17 First aid oxygen
91.04.18 Supplemental oxygen in the case of pressuriesed aircraft
91.04.19 Supplemental oxygen in the case of non-pressurised aircraft
91.04.20 Flight crew protective breathing equipment
91.04.21 Hand fire extinguishers
91.04.22 Crash axes and crowbard
91.04.23 Marking of break-in points
91.04.24 Megaphones
91.04.25 Emergency lighting
91.04.26 Automatic emergency locator transmitter
91.04.27 Life jackets and other flotation devices
91.04.28 Life rafts and survival radio equipment for extended over-water flights
91.04.29 Survival equipment
91.04.30 Seaplanes, amphibious aeroplanes and amphibious helicopters
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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SUBPART 5: COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT
91.05.1 Communication equipment

91.05.2 Navigation equipment
SUBPART 6: RULES OF THE AIR
Division One: Flight Rules
91.06.1 Landing on roads

91.06.2 Dropping objects, spraying o dusting
91.06.3 Picking up objects
91.06.4 Towing
91.06.5 Operation of vehicle- or vessel-towed aircraft
91.06.6 Proximity and formation flights
91.06.7 Right of way
91.06.8 Following line features
91.06.9 Aircraft speed
91.06.10 Lights to be displayed by aircraft
91.06.11 Taxi rules
91.06.12 Operation on and in the vicinity of aerodrome
91.06.13 Signals
91.06.14 Water operatons
91.06.15 Reporting position
91.06.16 Mandatory radio communication in controlled airspace
91.06.17 Mandatory radio communication in advisory airspace
91.06.18 Commpliance with air traffic control clearance and instruction
91.06.19 Prohibited areas
91.06.20 Restricted areas
Division Two: Visual Flight Rules

91.06.21 Visibility and distance from cloud
91.06.22 Special VFR weather minima
91.06.23 Responsibility to ascertain whether VFR flight is permitted
Division Three: Instrument Flight Rules

91.06.24 Compiance with IFR
91.06.25 Aircraft equipment
91.06.26 Change from IFR flight to VFR flight
91.06.27 IFR procedures
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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Division Four: Aircraft on other than Scheduled International Air Services
91.06.28 Foreign military aircraft
91.06.29 Identification and interception of aircraft
Division Five: Air Traffic Rules

91.06.30 Air traffic service procedures
91.06.31 Priority
Division Six: Heights and Instrument Approach and Departure Procedures

91.06.32 Minimum heights
91.06.33 Semi-circular rule
91.06.34 Standard instrument approach to and departure from aerodrome
SUBPART 7: FLIGHT OPERATIONS

91.07.1 Routes and areas of operation
91.07.2 Minimum flight altitudes
91.07.3 Use of aerodromes
91.074 Helicopters landings and take-offs
91.07.5 Aerodrome operating minima
91.07.6 Threshold crossing height
91.07.7 Pre-flight selection of aerodromes
91.07.8 Planning minima for IFR flights
91.07.9 Meteorologival conditions
91.07.10 VFR operating minima
91.07.11 Mass and balance
91.07.12 Fuel and oil supply
91.07.13 Refuelling or defuelling with passengers on board
91.07.14 Smoking in aircraft
91.07.15 Instrument approach and departure procedures
91.07.16 Noise abatement procedures
91.07.17 Submission of air traffic service flight plan
91.07.18 Seats, safety belts and harnesses
91.07.19 Passenger seating
91.07.20 Passenger briefing
91.07.21 Emergency equipment
91.07.22 Illumination of emergency exits
91.07.23 Use of supplemental oxygen
91.07.24 Approach and landing conditions
91.07.25 Commencement and continuation of approach

91.07.26 In-flight simulation of emergency situations
91.07.27 Turning helicopter rotors
91.07.28 Starting of engines
SUBPARTS 8: LOW-VISIBILITY OPERTIONS

91.08.2 General operating rules for low-visibility operations
91.08.3 Aerodrome considerations for low-visibility operations
91.08.4 Training and qualifications for low-visibility operations
91.08.5 Operating procedures for low-visibility operations
91.08.6 Minimum equipment for low-visibility operations
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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SUBPART 9: PERFORMANCE OPERATING LIMITATIONS
91.09.1 General provisions

91.09.2 Helicopter operating limitations
91.09.3 Helicopter performance classification
91.09.4 Aeroplane performance classification
SUBPART 10: MAINTENANCE
91.10.1 General
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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SUBPART 1: GENERAL PROVISIONS
Applicability
91.01.1(1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), this part shall apply to –
(a) aircraft operated within the Republic;
(b) aircraft registered in the Republic and operated internationally,
(c) persons acting as flight crew members of aircraft registered in the Republic; and
(d) persons who are on board an aircraft operated under this part.
(2) Additional rules to, and exemptions from, the provisions of this part, are
prescribed, in respect of-
(a) the conveyance of dangerous goods, in Part 92;
(b) the operation of powered paragliders, in Part 98;
(c) the operation of gyroplanes, in Part 100;
(d) the operation of unmanned free balloons, kites and remotely piloted aircraft, in
Part 101;
(e) the operation of free balloons and airships, in Part 102;
(f) the operation of microlight aeroplanes, in Part 103,
(g) the operation of gilders, in Part 104;
(h) parachuting operations, in Part 105;
(i) the operation of hang gliders, in Part 106,
(j) large aeroplanes engaged in commercial air transport operations,in Part 121;
(k) helicopters engaged in commercial air transport operations, in Part 127;
(l) helicopters engaged in external-load operations, in Part 133;
(m) small aeroplanes engaged in commercial air transport operations, in Part 135;
(n) aircraft engaged in agricultural operations, in Part 137; and
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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(o) aircraft engaged in emergency medical service operations, in Part 138.
Authority of pilot-in-command
91.01.2 All persons on board an aircraft shall obey all lawful commands given by the
pilot-in-command of the aircraft for the purpose of securing the safety of such aircraft
and of persons or property carried therein.
Authorisation of personnel to taxi aeroplanes
91.01.3 No owner or operator of an aeroplane shall permit the taxiing of, and no
person shall taxi, an aeroplane on the movement area of an aerodrome unless the
person at the controls of the aeroplane -
(a) is the holder of a valid pilot licence; or
(b) has received instruction in the taxiing of an aeroplane from, and has been
declared competent to taxi an aeroplane by, the holder of a flight instructor rating
or, in the case of a foreign aeroplane, a person authorised by an appropriate
authority; and
(c) if the person uses a radio apparatus, such person is authorised to use the radio
apparatus; and
(d) is conversant with the aerodrome layout, routes, signs, markings, lighting, air
traffic service signals and instructions, phraseology and procedures, if required,
and is able to conform to the standards required for safe aeroplane movements at
such aerodrome.
Search and rescue information
91.01.4 The pilot-in-command or, in the case of an aircraft engaged in commercial

air transport operations, the operator, shall ensure that all essential information
concerning the search and rescue services in the area over which it is intended that
the aircraft will be flown, is available on board the aircraft.
Information on emergency and survival equipment carried
91.01.5 (1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall have available for immediate
communication to rescue co-ordination centres, a list containing information
regarding the emergency and survival equipment carried on board the aircraft.
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
13
(2) The minimum information to be contained in the list referred to in subregulation
(1) shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
Method of carriage of persons
91.01.6 No person shall be in any part of an aircraft in flight which is not a part
designed for the accommodation of persons, unless temporary permission has been
granted by the pilot-in-command to access such part of the aircraft –
(a) for the purpose of taking action necessary for the safety of such aircraft or of any
person, animal or goods therein; and
(b) in which cargo or stores are carried, being a part which is designed to enable a
person to have access thereto while such aircraft is in flight.
Admission to flight deck
91.01.7 (1) No person other than the assigned flight deck crew shall be carried on the
flight deck of a South African registered aircraft except with the permission of the
pilot-in-command.
(2) The admission of any person to the flight deck shall not interfere with the
operation of the aircraft.
(3) Any person carried on the flight deck shall be made familiar with the applicable
procedures.
Unauthorised carriage
91.01.8 No person shall secrete himself, herself or cargo on board an aircraft.
Portable electronic devices
91.01.9 (1) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), no owner, operator or

pilot-in-command of an aircraft or person shall permit the operation of, or operate on
board the aircraft during flight time, any portable electronic device which may
adversely affect the performance of the systems and equipment of the aircraft.
(2) The provisions of sub-regulation (1) shall not apply to –
(a) a heart pacemaker;
(b) a hearing aid;
(c) a portable voice recorder;
(d) an electric shaver; or
(e) any other portable electronic device, the operation of which-
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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i. in the case of an aircraft engaged in a commercial air transport operation,the
operator; or
ii. in the case of an aircraft engaged in an operation other than a commercial air
transport operation, the pilot-in-command, has determined will not cause
interference with the systems and equipment of the aircraft in which it is to be
used.
(3) A portable electronic device referred to in sub-regulation (2)(c), (d) or (e) shall not
be used by any person during the critical phases of flight.
Endangering safety
91.01.10 No person shall, through any act or omission –
(a) endanger the safety of an aircraft or person therein; or
(b) cause or permit an aircraft to endanger the safety of any person or property.
Preservation of documents
91.01.11 (1) The owner or operator of an aircraft who is required to retain any of the
documents for the specified period referred to in subpart 3, shall retain such
documents for such specified period irrespective of the fact that such owner or
operator, before the expiry of such period, ceases to be the owner or operator of the
aircraft.
(2) The owner or operator of an aircraft operated in the mass category specified
under Table 1 of Part 187 and issued with a certificate of airworthiness in any
category in terms of Part 21, shall be liable for a currency fee, as prescribed in
Part 187. Such fees shall be payable in advance on the anniversary date on
which the certificate of airworthiness was issued or re-issued as the case may be.
Should the aircraft be unserviceable and not in possession of a valid certificate of
airworthiness at that time, the currency fee mentioned will be waived until the
aircraft is again serviceable and the certificate of airworthiness reissued. The fee
for the re-issue of the certificate of airworthiness as prescribed by Part 187 shall
then be applicable.
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Composition of flight crew
91.02.1(1) The number and composition of the flight crew shall not be less than the
number and composition specified in the certificate of airworthiness, the aircraft flight
manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2 or any other document associated with the
certificate of airworthiness.
(2) The flight crew members shall –
(a) be competent and qualified to perform the duties assigned to them; and
(b) hold the appropriate valid flight crew member licences and ratings.
(3) The flight crew shall include at least one member who holds a valid
radiotelephony operator licence or an equivalent document issued by an
appropriate authority, authorising such member to operate the type of radio
transmitting equipment to be used. (Editorial note; See AIC 30.9)
(4) In the case of a multi-pilot crew, the owner or operator shall designate one pilot
among the flight crew as pilot-in-command of the aircraft and the pilot-in-
command may delegate the conduct of the flight to another suitably qualified pilot.
Flight crew member emergency duties
91.02.2(1) The owner or operator and, where appropriate, the pilot-in-command of a

multi-crew aircraft shall assign to each flight crew member concerned, the necessary
functions to be performed in an emergency or a situation requiring emergency
evacuation.
(2) The functions referred to in sub-regulation (1) shall be such as to ensure that any
reasonably anticipated emergency can be adequately dealt with and shall take
into consideration the possible incapacitation of individual flight crew members.
Flight crew member responsibilities
91.02.3(1) No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft –
(a) while under the influence of any drug having a narcotic effect;
(b) within 24 hours following scuba diving by such flight crew member;
(c) within 48 hours following blood donation by such flight crew member;
(d) if the flight crew member knows or suspects that he or she is suffering from or,
having due regard to the circumstances of the flight to be undertaken, is likely to
suffer from fatigue to such an extent that it may endanger the safety of the aircraft
or its occupants; or
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(e) if the flight crew member is in any doubt of being able to accomplish his or her
assigned duties on board the aircraft.
(2) No flight crew member shall -
(a) consume any alcohol less than 12 hours prior to commencing standby for flight
duty or flight duty, which flight duty shall be deemed to commence at the specified
reporting time, if applicable;
(b) commence flight duty while the concentration of alcohol in any specimen of blood
taken from any part of his or her body, is more than 0,00gram per 100 millilitres;
or
(c) consume alcohol during flight duty or whilst on standby, or within eight hours after
an accident or reportable incident involving the aircraft, unless the accident or
incident was not related to his or her duties.
(3) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (4), no person shall act as a flight deck
crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each flight, the flight time exceeds, or is
likely to exceed, the permissible aggregate of –
(a) in the case of an operation other than an operation referred to in paragraph (e),
irrespective of whether such operation is carried out under a licence issued in
terms of the Air Services Licencing Act, 1990 (Act No. 1 15 of 1990), or the
International Air Services Act, 1993 (Act No. 60 of 1993) –
(i.) 400 hours, during the preceding 90 days;

(ii.) 700 hours, during the preceding six months; or
(iii.) 1000 hours, during the preceding 12 months;
(b) in the case of flight instructors conducting ab initio training, six hours within one
calendar day;
(c) as part of a multi-pilot crew for a flight to be undertaken wholly or partly under
instrument flight rules –
(i.) 120 hours, during the preceding 30 days;

(ii.) 300 hours, during the preceding 90 days; or
(iii.) 1000 hours, during the preceding 12 months;
(d) as the sole pilot of an aircraft for a flight to be undertaken wholly or partly under
instrument flight rules –
(i.) 100 hours, during the preceding 30 days; or

(ii.) 1000 hours, during the preceding 12 months; or
(e) in the case of an operation carried out in terms of Part 121, Part 127, Part 135 or
Part 138 –
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(i.) eight hours, during the preceding 24 hours;
(ii.) 32 hours, during the preceding seven days;
(iii.) 100 hours, during the preceding 30 days; or
(iv.) 1000 hours, during the preceding 365 days.
(4) If a flight deck crew member expects his or her cumulative flight hours projected
for a particular operation, to exceed the appropriate limit –
(a) referred to in sub-regulation (3); or
(b) specified in the flight time and duty scheme of an operator carrying out operations
in terms of Part 121, Part 127, Part 135 or Part 138, the flight deck crew member
shall inform the operator accordingly.
Recency
91.02.4 (1)A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying

passengers by day, unless such pilot has, within the 90 days immediately preceding
the flight, carried out either by day or by night at least three take-offs and three
landings in the same class and category of aircraft as that in which such flight is to be
undertaken, or in a simulator.
(2) A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers by

night, unless the pilot has, within the 90 days immediately preceding the flight,
carried out at least three take-offs and three landings by night, in the same class
and category of aircraft as that in which such flight is to be undertaken, or in a
simulator.
(3) A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft on an instrument approach

to an aerodrome in IMC unless the pilot has, within the 90 days immediately
preceding such approach, by means of an instrument approach procedure or
procedures established by the Commissioner or an appropriate authority –
(a) executed at least two actual approaches with reference to flight instruments only;
(b) executed at least two approaches either under actual or simulated conditions with
reference to flight instruments only; or
(c) executed at least one actual approach with reference to flight instruments only
and one approach in a simulator for the purpose of practising instrument
approach procedure;
(d) or undergone the appropriate skill test as prescribed in Part 61.
Flight crew members at duty station
91.02.5(1) In the case of a multi-crew aircraft –
(a) each flight crew member shall be at his or her assigned station or seat, properly
secured by all seat belts and shoulder harnesses provided,during take-off and
landing and whenever deemed necessary by the pilot-in-command in the
interests of aviation safety;
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(b) each flight deck crew member shall keep his or her seat belt fastened while at his
or her assigned station, during phases of the flight, other than the phases referred
to in subparagraph (a);
(c) each flight deck crew member required to be on flight deck duty, shall be at his or
her assigned station, during take-off and landing;
(d) all flight deck crew members on flight deck duty shall remain at their assigned
stations during all phases of the flight other than the phases referred to in
subparagraph (c): Provided that –
(i.) a flight deck crew member may leave his or her assigned station, in the
course of the performance of his or her duties with regard to the operation
of the aircraft or for physiological needs; and
(ii.) at least one suitably qualified pilot remains at the controls of the aircraft at
all times.
(e) the pilot-in-command or, where applicable, the operator shall ensure that flight
crew members do not perform any activities during critical phases of the flight
other than those required for the safe operation of the aircraft.
(2) In the case of a single-pilot aircraft, the pilot-in-command shall, during all phases
of the flight, remain at the controls of the aircraft.
Laws, regulations and procedures
91.02.6(1) In an emergency situation which endangers the aircraft, flight crew

members or passengers, the pilot-in-command may, in the interests of aviation safety
(a) take any action which he or she considers necessary under the circumstances;
and
(b) deviate from any law, regulation and operational procedure of the State within or
over the territory of which the aircraft is operated.
(2) If a pilot-in-command deviates from any law, regulation or operational procedure

in an emergency situation referred to in sub-regulation (1), he or she shall notify
the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the
deviation occurs, of such deviation without delay.
(3) If the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the
deviation occurs, requests the pilot-in-command to submit a report on such
deviation, the pilot-in-command shall submit the report –
(a) within the period specified by such appropriate authority, to such appropriate
authority; and
(b) within 10 days from the date on which such report is requested by such
appropriate authority, to the Commissioner.
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Duties of pilot-in-command regarding flight preparation
91.02.7(1) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall not commence a flight unless he

or she is satisfied that –
(a) the aircraft is airworthy;
(b) the instruments and equipment required for the particular type of operation to be
undertaken, are installed and are serviceable, except as provided for in the MEL,
if any;
(c) the aircraft has been released to service in accordance with Part 43;
(d) the mass of the aircraft does not exceed the maximum certificated mass
calculated from the performance information provided in the aircraft flight manual
referred to in regulation 91.03.2, in terms of which the operating limitations
referred to in subpart 9 are complied with;
(e) the load carried by the aircraft is properly secured, fit to be conveyed in
accordance with Part 92 and is so distributed that the centre of gravity is within
the limits prescribed in the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2;
(f) in respect of aeroplanes operated in terms of Part 121 or Part 135, an operational
flight plan which complies with the criteria in the operations manual, is completed
for each intended flight;
(g) an air traffic service flight plan referred to in Regulation 91.03.4, has been
properly completed and filed with the appropriate air traffic service unit, if such
flight plan is required in terms of Regulation 91.03.4;
(h) all the documents and forms required to be carried on board, current maps,
charts and associated documents, if any, are carried;
(i) a check has been completed indicating that the operating limitations referred to in
subpart 9 will not be exceeded;
(j) the search and rescue information, referred to in Regulation 91.01.4, is available
on board;
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(k) the requirements in respect of fuel, oil, oxygen, minimum safe altitudes,
aerodrome operating minima and availability of alternate aerodromes are
complied with;
(l) the aerodrome operating minima are not less than the operating minima of the
aerodrome being operated to or from, established by the appropriate authority of
the State in which the aerodrome is located, unless such appropriate authority
approves lower aerodrome operating minima;
(m) the status of the aircraft and the relevant airborne systems appropriate for the
specific flight to be undertaken;
(n) the external surfaces are clear of any deposit which might adversely affect the
performance or controllability of the aircraft, unless otherwise permitted in the
aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2;
(o) according to the information available to him or her, the weather at the aerodrome
and, in respect of an aeroplane, the condition of the runway intended to be used,
will not prevent a safe take-off and departure or a safe landing at the destination
aerodrome or alternate aerodrome, as applicable ;
(p) the RVR or visibility in the take-off direction of the aircraft is equal to, or better
than, the applicable minimum;
(q) the flight crew members are properly qualified for the specific operation to be
undertaken;
(r) the status of the visual and non-visual facilities are sufficient prior to commencing
a low visibility take-off, or a Category II or III approach as specified in Document
SA-CATS-OPS 91, if such approaches are planned;
(s) an adequate and suitable aerodrome as specified in Document SA-CATS-OPS

91, is available for take-off, en route and destination, should it become
inadvisable to continue to or land at the destination aerodrome; and
(t) the flight crew members are not apparently incapacitated as a result of injury,
sickness, fatigue or the consumption of alcohol or drugs having a narcotic effect.
(2) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall –
(a) not commence a flight unless he or she has ascertained through the relevant
NOTAM, ATC, AIP or AIP SUP that the aerodromes, navigation aids and
communication facilities are adequate for the manner in which the flight is to be
conducted;
(b) prior to take-off from an aerodrome at which an air traffic service unit is in
operation, determine through the aeronautical information services available from
the unit or any other reliable source, that the unserviceability of any aerodrome,
navigation aids or communication facilities required for such flight, will not
prejudice the safe conduct of the flight; and
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(c) advise an air traffic service unit, as soon as it is practical to do so, of any
inadequate facilities encountered in the course of operations.
(3) Where a load and trim sheet is required in terms of these Regulations,the load
and trim sheet shall be acceptable to and countersigned by the pilot-in-command
before a flight commences: Provided that if the load and trim sheet is submitted to
the pilot-in-command by electronic data transfer, commencement of the flight
shall be deemed to be the acceptance thereof by such pilot-in-command.
(4) Before take-off and landing, and whenever deemed necessary in the interest of
aviation safety, the pilot-in-command shall ensure that all flight crew,passengers,
equipment and baggage is properly secured and all exit and escape paths are
unobstructed.
Duties of pilot-in-command regarding flight operations
91.02.8(1) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall be responsible for-
(a) the operation and safety of the aircraft while he or she is in command;
(b) the conduct and safety of flight crew members and passengers carried;and
(c) the maintenance of discipline by all persons on board;
(2) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall have the authority –
(a) to give such commands he or she deems necessary in the interest of the safety
of the aircraft, persons or property; and
(b) to disembark any person or cargo which in his or her opinion, represents a
potential hazard to the safety of the aircraft, persons or property.
(3) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall ensure that all passengers are informed
as to-
(a) when and how oxygen equipment is to be used, if the carriage of oxygen is
required;
(b) the location and use of life jackets or equivalent individual flotation devices,
where the carriage thereof is required;
(c) the location and method of opening emergency exits;
(d) when seat belts are to be fastened;
(e) when smoking is prohibited; and
(f) when portable electronic devices may be used.
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(4) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall -
(a) ensure that the pre-flight inspection has been carried out, and that the checklists,
and where applicable, the flight deck procedures and other instructions regarding
the operation of the aircraft, the limitations contained in the aircraft flight manual
referred to in Regulation 91.03.2, or equivalent certification document, are fully
complied with at the appropriate times during a flight;
(b) decide whether or not to accept an aircraft with unserviceabilities allowed by the
CDL or MEL, where applicable;
(c) before take-off, ensure that the passengers are briefed on the location and
general manner of use of the relevant emergency equipment carried for collective
use and, when an emergency arises, shall instruct the passengers to take such
emergency action as may be appropriate;
(d) ensure that during take-off and landing and whenever, by reason of turbulence or
any emergency occurring during a flight, the precaution is considered necessary,
all persons on board the aircraft are secured in their seats by means of the seat
belts or shoulder harnesses provided;
(e) when replanning, whilst in flight, to proceed along a route or to a destination other
than the route or destination originally planned, shall amend the operational flight
plan, if such a plan was required in terms of Regulation 91.02.7(1)(f);
(f) report any accident or incident involving the aircraft in accordance with Part 12;
(g) report any dangerous goods accident or incident involving the aircraft in
accordance with Part 92;
(h) if the aircraft is endangered in flight by a near collision with any other aircraft or
object, faulty air traffic procedure or lack of compliance with applicable
procedures by an air traffic service unit or a flight crew member or a failure of air
traffic service facilities, submit an air traffic service incident report in accordance
with Regulation 12.02.2;
(i) record any technical defect and the exceeding of any technical limitation which
occurred while he or she was responsible for the flight, in the flight folio; and
(j) if a potentially hazardous condition such as bird accumulation, an irregularity in a

ground or navigation facility, meteorological phenomena, a volcanic ash cloud or
a greater than normal radiation level is observed during flight, notify an air traffic
service unit as soon as possible.
(5) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall ensure that –
(a) breathing oxygen is available to flight crew members and passengers if flights in
a non-pressurised aircraft are contemplated above 10 000 feet up to 12 000 feet
in excess of 60 minutes, or above 12 000 feet; and
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(b) breathing oxygen is carried in sufficient quantities for all flights at such altitudes
where a lack of oxygen might result in impairment of faculties of flight crew
members, or harmfully affect passengers.
(6) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall not –
(a) require a flight crew member to perform any duties during a critical phase of the
flight, except those duties required for the safe operation of the aircraft;
(b) permit any activity during a critical phase of the flight which could distract any
flight crew member from the performance of his or her duties or which could
interfere in any way with the proper conduct of those duties; and
(c) continue a flight beyond the nearest suitable aerodrome in the event of a flight
crew member becoming unable to perform any essential duties as a result of
fatigue, sickness or lack of oxygen.
(7) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft, or in his or her absence, the owner or

operator thereof, shall report any act of unlawful interference with the operation of
the aircraft, or the authority of the pilot-in-command
(a) if the act of unlawful interference occurs within the Republic, to the
Commissioner; or
(b) if the act of unlawful interference occurs within or over the territory of a foreign
State, to the appropriate authority of the State and the Commissioner.
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Documents to be carried on board
91.03.1 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that the following
documents, or certified true copies thereof, are carried on board the aircraft on each
individual flight:
(a) If the aircraft is engaged in an international flight –
(i) the certificate of airworthiness;

(ii) the appropriate licence of each flight crew member;
(iii) the journey logbook or general declaration;
(iv) the aircraft radio station licence;
(v) if passengers are carried, the passenger manifest, unless the information
is included in the general declaration referred to in subparagraph (iv);
(vi) if cargo is carried, a manifest and detailed declaration of the cargo;
(vii) the certificate of release to service;
(viii) the navigation log when a navigator is carried,
(ix) the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2, or an equivalent
document;
(x) the certificate of registration;
(xi) the mass and balance report;
(xii) the flight folio;
(xiii) the MEL, if applicable;
(xiv) the noise certificate, if such certificate has been issued for the type of
aircraft; and a list of visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted
aircraft;
(b) if the aircraft is engaged in a domestic flight –
(i) the certificate of registration;

(ii) the certificate of airworthiness;
(iii) the appropriate licence of each flight crew member;
(iv) the aircraft radio station licence;
(v) the certificate of release to service;
(vi) the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2 or an equivalent
document;
(vii) the mass and balance report;
(viii) the flight folio,
(ix) the MEL, if applicable;
(x) the noise certificate, if such certificate has been issued for the type of aircraft;
and
(xi) the list of visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft.
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Aircraft flight manual
91.03.2(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall keep a current approved aircraft
flight manual for each aircraft of which he or she is the owner or operator.
(2) The flight crew members of the aircraft shall, on each flight, operate such aircraft
in accordance with the aircraft flight manual, unless an unforeseen emergency
dictates otherwise
.
Aircraft checklists
91.03.3 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall, where applicable, establish and
make available to the flight crew and other personnel in his or her employ needing
the information, a checklist system for the aircraft, to be used by such flight crew and
other personnel for all phases of the operation under normal, abnormal and
emergency conditions.
Air traffic service flight plan
91.03.4(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that an air traffic service
flight plan is completed if required in terms of sub-regulation (4).
(2) The items to be contained in the air traffic service flight plan referred to in sub-
regulation (1) shall be as prescribed Document SACATS-OPS 91.
(3) The air traffic service flight plan shall be filed with the appropriate air traffic
service unit and such unit shall be responsible for transmitting such air traffic
service flight plan to all air traffic service units concerned with the flight.
(4) The air traffic service flight plan shall be filed in respect of –
(a) all flights to be conducted in controlled or advisory airspace: Provided that this
requirement shall not apply in respect of-
(i.) a local flight;

(ii.) a flight crossing an airway or advisory routes at right angles; or
(iii.) a VFR flight entering or departing from an aerodrome traffic zone or
control zone, from or to an unmanned aerodrome and where no other
controlled or advisory airspace will be entered during the flight;
(b) an international flight;
(c) all flights undertaken in terms of a Class I or Class II licence issued in terms of
the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990, or the International Air Services Act, 1993;
and
(d) a flight for which alerting action is required.
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(5) An air traffic control unit may instruct a flight for which an air traffic service flight
plan is required in terms of sub-regulation (4) and for which an air traffic service
flight plan has not been filed, to clear or to remain clear of controlled airspace,
and not to cross the border of the Republic or to enter its airspace until such
time as the required air traffic service flight plan has been filed.
(6) Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible air traffic service unit, an air
traffic service flight plan for a flight to be conducted in controlled or advisory
airspace, shall be filed at least 30 minutes before departure or, if filed during
flight while outside controlled or advisory airspace for a flight to be conducted in
such airspace, it shall be filed with the responsible air traffic service unit at least
10 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry
into the controlled or advisory airspace.
(7) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that all changes which become
applicable to an air traffic service flight plan before departure or in flight, are
reported, as soon as practicable, to the responsible air traffic service unit.
(8) If an air traffic service flight plan has been filed with an air traffic service unit prior
to departure, and is not activated with an air traffic service unit within one hour of
original estimated time of departure or amended estimated time of departure, the
air traffic service flight plan shall be regarded as cancelled and a new air traffic
service flight plan shall be filed.
(9) Where an air traffic service unit is not in operation at the aerodrome of intended
landing a report shall be submitted to an air traffic service unit, by the quickest
means of communication available, immediately before or after landing, in
respect of a flight for which an air traffic service flight plan was submitted and not
as yet closed.
(10) Subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (11), the pilot-in-command shall

ensure that the aircraft adheres to the current air traffic service flight plan filed
for a controlled flight, unless a request for a change has been made and
accepted by the air traffic control unit responsible for the controlled airspace in
which the aircraft is operating, or unless an emergency situation arises which
necessitates immediate action, in which event the responsible air traffic control
unit shall, as soon as circumstances permit, be notified of the action taken and
that such action was taken under emergency authority.
(11) In the event of a controlled flight inadvertently deviating from its current air traffic
service flight plan, the following action shall be taken:
(a) If the aircraft is off track, action shall be taken forthwith to adjust the heading of
the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable;
(b) if the average true airspeed at cruising level between reporting points varies, or is
expected to vary, from that given in an air traffic service flight plan by
approximately five per cent of the true airspeed, the responsible air traffic service
unit shall be so informed;
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(c) if the estimated time at the next applicable reporting point, flight information
regional boundary, or aerodrome of intended landing, which ever comes first, is
found to be in error in excess of three minutes from that notified to the
responsible air traffic service unit, a revised estimated time shall be notified to
such air traffic service unit as soon as possible; or
(d) if the aircraft deviates from its altitude, action shall be taken forthwith to correct
the altitude of the aircraft.
Flight folio
91.03.5(1) The owner or operator of a South African registered aircraft shall ensure
that the aircraft carries a flight folio or any other similar document which contains the
information as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91, at all times.
(2) The flight folio shall be kept up-to-date and maintained in a legible manner.
(3) All entries shall be made immediately upon completion of the occurrence to which
they refer.
(4) In the case of maintenance being undertaken on the aircraft, the entry shall be
certified by the person taking responsibility for the maintenance performed.
(5) The owner or operator shall retain the flight folio for a period of five years
calculated from the date of the last entry therein.
Fuel and oil record
91.03.6(1) The owner of operator of an aircraft shall maintain fuel and oil records for
each flight undertaken by the aircraft under the control of such owner or operator.
(2) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall enter the fuel and oil records referred to
in sub-regulation (1) in the flight folio.
Certificate of release to service
91.03.7(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate a South African

registered aircraft without holding a valid certificate of release to service signed by
the holder of an appropriately rated aircraft maintenance engineer licence or aircraft
maintenance organisation approval; or
(a) a foreign aircraft without holding a valid certificate, equivalent to the certificate
referred to in paragraph (a), issued by an appropriate authority.
(2) The owner or operator shall –
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
28
(a) ensure that one copy of the certificate of release to service or equivalent
certificate is carried on board the aircraft to which it relates and, in the case of a
South African registered aircraft, a second copy shall be filed at the normal
station of the aircraft; and
(b) retain the certificate of release to service for a period of 12 months calculated
from the date of issue of such certificate of release to service
Flight recorder records
91.03.8 The owner or operator of an aircraft on which a flight recorder is carried,

shall-
(a) in the case of an accident or incident involving such aircraft, preserve the original
recording, as retained by the flight recorder, for a period of not less than 60 days
calculated from the date of the accident or incident, or until permission for
disposal of such recording has been given by the investigator in charge or an
appropriate authority, whichever is the latter date;
(b) when the Commissioner so directs, preserve the original recording, as retained
by the flight recorder, for a period of not less than 60 days calculated from the
date of such direction or until permission for disposal of such recording has been
given by the Commissioner.
(2) If an aircraft is required under this part to be fitted with a flight data recorder, the
owner or operator of the aircraft shall –
(a) save the recording for the period of operating time as required by sub-regulation
(l)(a) and (b): Provided that for the purpose of testing and maintaining a flight data
recorder one hour of the oldest recorded material at the time of testing may be
erased;
(b) keep a recording of at least one representative flight made within the preceding
12 months which includes a take-off, climb, cruise, descent, approach and
landing, together with a means of identifying the recording with the flight to which
it relates; and
(c) keep a document which represents the information necessary to retrieve and
convert the stored data into engineering units.
(3) The owner or operator of an aircraft on which a flight recorder is carried shall,
within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by the Commissioner or
an appropriate authority, produce any recording made by such flight recorder
which is available or has been preserved.
(4) A cockpit voice recorder recording may be used for purposes other than for the
investigation of an accident or incident only with the consent of all the flight crew
members concerned.
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(5) The flight data recorder recordings may be used for purposes other than the
investigation of an accident or incident which is subject to mandatory reporting,
only when such recordings are –
(a) used by the owner or operator for airworthiness or maintenance purposes only;
(b) de-identified; or
(c) disclosed under secure procedures.
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SUBPART 4: INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT
Use of instruments and equipment by pilot
91.04.1(1) Instruments on an aircraft which are used by a pilot shall be so arranged

in such a manner that the pilot can see their indications readily from his or her
station, with the minimum practicable deviation from the position and line of vision
which he or she normally assumes when looking forward along the flight path.
(2) if a single instrument or item of equipment in an aircraft is required to be operated

by more than one pilot, such single instrument or item of equipment shall be
installed in such a manner that it can be readily seen and operated from each
pilot station.
(3) An aircraft shall be equipped with means for indicating the adequacy of the power
being supplied to the required flight instruments.
Circuit protection devices
91.04.2(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft in which fuses are used, shall operate
the aircraft unless there are spare fuses available for use in flight equal to at least ten
per cent or three, whichever is the greater, of the number of fuses of each rating
required for complete circuit protection, which spare fuses shall be accessible to the
flight crew during flight.
(2) If the ability to reset a circuit breaker or replace a fuse is essential to safety in
flight, such circuit breaker or fuse shall be located and identified in such a
manner that it can be readily reset or replaced in flight.
(3) No person shall deactivate a circuit breaker in flight other than in accordance with
the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2.
Aircraft operating lights
91.04.3(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate an aircraft by day unless

the aircraft is equipped with –
(a) an anti-collision light system;
(b) lighting supplied from the electrical system of the aircraft to provide adequate
illumination for all instruments and equipment used by the flight crew essential for
the safe operation of such aircraft;
(c) lighting supplied from the electrical system of the aircraft to provide illumination in
all passenger compartments, if any; and
(d) an intrinsically safe electric torch for each required flight crew member readily
accessible to such flight crew member when seated at his or her designated seat.
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(2) No owner or operator of an aeroplane shall operate the aeroplane by night unless
such aeroplane is equipped with -
(a) the instruments and equipment referred to in sub-regulation (1);
(b) navigation or position lights;
(c) two landing lights or a single light having two separately energised filaments; and
(d) in the case of an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700
kilograms, two parachute flares.
(3) No owner or operator of a helicopter shall operate the helicopter by night unless
such helicopter is equipped with –
(a) in the case of a flight by night within 10 nautical miles, a light or lights providing
adequate illumination both forward and downward to facilitate safe approaches,
landings and take-offs; or
(b) in the case of a flight by night of more than 10 nautical miles, two landing lights or
a single light having two separately energised filaments which are capable of
providing adequate illumination both forward and downward to facilitate safe
approaches, landings and take-offs.
(4) No owner or operator of a seaplane or an amphibious aircraft shall operate the

seaplane or amphibious aircraft unless it is equipped with –
(a) the instruments and equipment referred to in sub-regulation (1), (2) or(3), as the
case may be; and
(b) when operating on water by night, display lights to conform with the International
Regulations for Prevention Collisions at Sea.
(5) The navigation lights to be displayed by aircraft at night, on the water or on the
manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, shall be as prescribed in Regulation
91.06.10.
Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aircraft operated

under VFR
91.04.4 No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft in accordance

with VFR, unless such aircraft is equipped with –
(a) a magnetic compass;
(b) an accurate time-piece showing the time in hours, minutes, and seconds;
(c) a sensitive pressure altimeter with a subscale setting, calibrated in hectopascal,

adjustable for any barometric pressure setting likely to be encountered during
flight,
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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(d) an airspeed indicator; and
(e) if to be operated by night, a chart holder in an easily readable position which can
be illuminated.
Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aircraft operated

under IFR
91.04.5 No owner or operator of an aircraft in accordance with IFR, unless such

aircraft is equipped with -
(b) an accurate time-piece showing the time in hours, minutes and seconds;
(c) a sensitive pressure altimeter with subscale settings, calibrated in hectopascal,

flight;
(d) an airspeed indicator system with heated pitot tube or equivalent means for
preventing malfunctioning due to either condensation or icing, including a warning
indicator of pitot heater failure;
(e) a vertical-speed indicator;
(f) a stabilised direction indicator;
(g) a turn-and-bank indicator, or a turn co-ordinator incorporating a slip indicator;
(h) an attitude indicator;
(i) a rate-of-climb and descent indicator,
(j) a means of indication, in the cockpit or the flight deck, the outside air temperature
in degrees Celsius;
(k) a chart holder in an easily readable position which can be illuminated for
operations by night.
Additional equipment for single-pilot operation in accordance with IFR
91.04.6 No owner or operator of an aircraft shall conduct single-pilot IFR operations

in the aircraft unless such aircraft has been certificated for such operations and is
equipped with-
(a) a stability augmentation or automatic flight control system with at least altitude
hold and heading mode; and
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(b) a headset with boom microphone or equivalent and a transmit button on the
control wheel, joy stick or cyclic stick.
Mach number indicator
91.04.7 No owner or operator of an aircraft with speed limitations expressed in terms

of Mach number, shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped with a
Mach number indicator.
Radio altimeter
91.04.8 No owner or operator of a helicopter shall operate the helicopter on a flight

over water at a distance from land corresponding to more than 10 minutes at normal
cruise speed, unless such helicopter is equipped with a radio altimeter with an audio
voice warning or other means, operating below a preset height and with a visual
warning capable of operating at a height selectable by the pilot.
Equipment for operations in icing conditions
91.04.9 (1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft in forecast or
actual icing conditions unless such aircraft is certificated and equipped to operate in
icing conditions.
(2) The owner or operator shall not operate the aircraft in forecast or actual icing
conditions by night unless such aircraft is equipped with a means to illuminate or
detect the formation of ice.
(3) The means of illumination referred to in sub-regulation (2), shall be of a type

which does not cause glare or reflection which may handicap flight deck crew
members in the performance of their duties.
Flight recorder
91.04.10(1) The owner or operator of a South African registered aircraft which is

required to be with a flight recorder in terms of Regulation 91.04. 12 or 91.04. 13,
shall ensure that the flight recorder complies with the specifications as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
(2) There shall be an aural or visual means for pre-flight checking to determine that
the flight recorder is operating properly.
(3) The flight recorder shall not be switched off during flight.
(4) Each flight recorder installed in an aircraft shall be located in such a manner that
maximum practicable protection is provided, in order that, in the event of an
accident/ incident, the recorded data may be recovered in a preserved and
intelligible state.
(5) Where a flight recorder is installed, it shall not –
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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(a) be a source of danger in itself;
(b) prejudice the proper functioning of any essential service; and
(c) in anyway reduce the serviceability or airworthiness of the aircraft in which it is

installed, even if the flight recorder fails to function.
(6) The owner or operator of the aircraft shall ensure that retrieving the recorded data
from the storage medium will be readily possible.
(7) The parameters of the flight recorder shall be determined within the ranges,
accuracy’s and recording intervals as prescribed in Document SACATS OPS 91.
(8) Each flight recorder container installed in the aircraft shall
(a) be bright orange or bright yellow;
(b) have reflective tape affixed to the external surface to facilitate its location under
water; and
(c) have an approved underwater location device on or adjacent to each container

which is secured in such a manner that the device shall be required when the
cockpit voice recorder and the flight data recorder required under this part are
installed adjacent to each other in such a manner that they are not likely to be
separated during crash impact.
(9) The owner or operator of the aircraft shall –
(a) copy and check the data on the flight recorder every six months, for the purpose
of ensuring that such flight recorder is serviceable; and
(b) record and retain the results of such check for a period of five years calculated
from the date of such check.
Foil data recorder
91.04.11 The owner or operator of a South African registered aircraft which is

required to be equipped with a flight recorder in terms of Regulation 91.04.12 or
91.04.13, shall, if the flight recorder is a foil data recorder, replace the foil data
recorder with a digital flight recorder before or on 1 July 1998.
Cockpit voice recorder
91.04. 12(1) No owner or operator shall operate –
(a) an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms,

classified for operation in the transport category, and to which an individual
certificate of airworthiness was first issued on or after 1 January 1981;
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(b) an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 27 000 kilograms, to
which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued on or after 1
January 1987;
(c) a turbo-engine aeroplane to which an individual certificate of airworthiness was

first issued before 1 January 1987, which is an aeroplane with maximum
certificated mass exceeding 27 000 kilograms, and is of a type of which the
prototype was certified by an appropriate authority after 30 September 1969; or
(d) a helicopter with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 7 000 kilograms, to

which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued on or after 1
January 1987, unless such aeroplane or helicopter is equipped with a cockpit
voice recorder which complies with the specifications referred to in Regulation
91.04.10(1).
(2) The cockpit voice recorder shall record, with reference to a time scale –
(a) voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck or in the
cockpit by radio;
(b) the aural environment of the flight deck or cockpit, including without interruption,
the audio signals received from each microphone in use;
(c) voice communications of flight deck crew members on the flight deck or cockpit
using the interphone system of the aircraft, if installed;
(d) voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a
headset or speaker;
(e) voice communications of flight deck crew members on the flight deck or crew
members in the cockpit using the public address system of the aircraft, if
installed; and
(f) in the case of a helicopter referred to in sub-regulation (l)(d) and which is not
required to be equipped with a flight data recorder, the parameters necessary to
determine main rotor speed.
(3) The cockpit voice recorder shall –
(a) be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last 30 minutes of
the aircraft's operation;
(b) start automatically to record once the aircraft is moving under its own power and
continue to record, until the termination of the flight when the aircraft is no longer
capable of moving under its own power; and
(c) if possible, start to record the cockpit checks prior to engine start at the beginning
of the flight, until the cockpit checks immediately following engine shutdown at
the end of the flight.
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(4) The cockpit voice recorder may be combined with a night data recorder referred
to in Regulation 91.04.13.
(5) An aircraft may commence a flight with the cockpit voice recorder inoperative.
Provided that –
(a) the aircraft shall not take-off from an aerodrome where repairs or replacements to
such cockpit voice recorder can be made;
(b) the aircraft does not exceed six further consecutive flights with the cockpit voice
recorder unserviceable;
(c) not more than 48 hours have elapsed since the cockpit voice recorder became
unserviceable, and
(d) any flight data recorder required to be carried, is operative, unless the flight data
recorder is combined with a cockpit voice recorder.
Flight data recorder
91.04.13(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft specified in Document SA- CATS-

OPS 91, shall operate the aircraft unless such aircraft is equipped with the
appropriate flight data recorder as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
(2) The flight data recorder shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at
least-
(a) in the case of an aeroplane, the last 25 hours of its operation; or
(b) in the case of a helicopter, the last 10 hours of its operation.
(3) The data obtained from a flight data recorder shall be obtained from aircraft
sources which enable accurate correlation with information displayed to the flight
crew.
(4) The flight data recorder shall start automatically to record the data prior to the
aircraft being capable of moving under its own power and shall stop automatically
after the aircraft is incapable of moving under its own power.
(5) An aircraft may commence a flight with the flight data recorder inoperative:
Provided that –
(a) the aircraft shall not depart from an aerodrome where repairs or replacements to
such flight data recorder can be made;
(b) the aircraft does not exceed six further consecutive flights with the flight data
recorder unserviceable,
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(c) not more than 48 hours have elapsed since the flight data recorder became
unserviceable; and
(d) any cockpit voice recorder is combined with the flight data recorder.
Seats, seat safety belts, harnesses and child restraint devices
91.04.14(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such
aircraft is equipped, as applicable, with –
(a) a seat or berth for each person who is aged two years or more;
(b) a safety belt with or without a diagonal shoulder strap, or a safety harness, for
use in each passenger seat for each passenger who is aged two or more;
(c) a restraining belt for use in each passenger berth;
(d) a child restraint device for each passenger who is less than two years of age;
(e) a safety harness for each flight deck crew member seat, incorporating a device
which will automatically restrain the occupant's torso in the event of rapid
deceleration; and
(f) a safety harness for each cabin crew member seat:
Provided that a safety belt with one diagonal shoulder strap is permitted if the
fitting of a safety harness is not reasonably practical.
(2) Seats for cabin crew members shall, where possible, be located near a floor-level
emergency exits, the additional cabin crew member seats required shall be
located such that a cabin crew member may best be able to assist passengers in
the rearward facing within 15  of the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
(3) If the pilot-in-command cannot see all the passenger seats in the aircraft from his
or her own seat, a means of indicating to all passengers and cabin crew members
that seat belts should be fastened, shall be installed.
(4) All safety harnesses and safety belts shall have a single point release.
Stowage of articles, baggage and cargo
91.04.15 No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless all
articles, baggage and cargo carried on board, except those items in use by either the
flight crew or by passengers, if such use is not prohibited by the pilot- in-command in
the interest of the safety of the aircraft or its occupants, are placed –
(a) in a manner which prevents movement likely to cause injury or damage and does
not obstruct aisles and exits; or
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(b) in stowage’s designed to prevent movement likely to cause injury or damage .
Standard first aid kit
91.04.16(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such
aircraft is equipped with an appropriate first aid kit as prescribed in Document SA-
CATS-OPS 91.
(2) The owner or operator shall carry out periodical inspections of the first aid kits to
ensure that, as far as practicable, the contents thereof are in a condition
necessary for their intended use.
(3) The supplies in the standard first aid kit shall be replenished at regular intervals,
in accordance with instructions contained on their labels, or as circumstances
require.
First aid oxygen
91.04.17(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft in respect of which the carriage of a

cabin crew member is required in terms of this part, shall operate the aircraft unless
such aircraft is equipped with the appropriate supply of first aid oxygen prescribed in
(2) The conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards for first aid oxygen
shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
Supplemental oxygen in the case of pressurised aircraft
91.04.18(1) No owner or operator of a pressurised aircraft shall operate the aircraft

unless such aircraft is equipped with the supplemental oxygen as prescribed in
Document SACATS-OPS 91.
Supplemental oxygen in the case of non-pressurised aircraft
91.04.19(1) No owner or operator of a non-pressurised aircraft shall operate the

aircraft at altitudes above 10 000 feet and up to 12 000 feet for longer than 60
minutes, or above 12 000 feet, unless such aircraft is equipped with the
supplemental oxygen as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
(2) The conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards for supplemental

oxygen shall be as prescribed in Document SACATS-OPS 91.
Flight crew protective breathing equipment
91.04.20(1) No owner or operator of a pressurised aeroplane shall operate the

aeroplane on or after 1 January 2000, or an unpressurised aeroplane with a
maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms and a maximum approved
passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats, at altitudes above12 000
feet, unless such aeroplane-
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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(a) is equipped with equipment to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of each flight
deck crew member while on flight deck duty and to provide oxygen for a period of
at least 15 minutes;
(b) has sufficient portable protective breathing equipment to protect the eyes, nose
and mouth of all cabin crew members required to be carried in terms of this part
and to provide breathing gas for a period of at least 15 minutes; and
(c) if no cabin crew member is carried, is equipped with portable protective breathing
equipment to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of one member of the flight deck
crew and to provide breathing gas for a period of at least 15 minutes.
(2) The supply of protective breathing equipment may be provided by supplemental

oxygen referred to in Regulation 91.04.19 or 91.04.19.
(3) Protective breathing equipment intended for use by flight deck crew, shall be
conveniently located on the flight deck and be easily accessible for immediate
use by each required flight deck crew member at his or her assigned duty station.
(4) Protective breathing equipment intended for use by cabin crew shall be installed
adjacent to each required cabin crew member duty station.
(5) Additional, easily accessible portable protective breathing equipment shall be

provided and located at, or adjacent to, the hand fire extinguishers referred to in
Regulation 91.04.21. Provided that where the fire extinguisher is located inside a
cargo compartment, the protective breathing equipment shall be stowed outside,
but adjacent to, the entrance to such compartment.
(6) Protective breathing equipment, while in use, shall not prevent communication,
where required.
Hand fire extinguishers
91.04.21 No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such
aircraft is equipped with the appropriate hand fire extinguishers as prescribed in
Crash axes and crowbars
91.04.22(1) No owner or operator of an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass

exceeding 5 700 kilograms or a maximum approved passenger seating configuration
of more than nine seats, shall operate the aeroplane unless such aeroplane is
equipped with at least one crash axe or crowbar located on the flight deck.
(2) If the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is more than 200
seats, an additional crash axe or crowbar shall be carried in the aeroplane and
located in or near the most rearward galley area.
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Marking of break-in points
91.04.23 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that, if areas of the
fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in emergency, are marked on the
aircraft, such areas shall be marked in accordance with the requirements as
prescribed in Part 47.
Megaphones
91.04.24(1) No owner or operator of an aeroplane with a maximum approved

passenger seating configuration of more than 50 seats, or a helicopter with a
maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats, and
which is carrying one or more passengers, shall operate the aeroplane or helicopter
unless such aeroplane or helicopter is equipped with the appropriate portable
battery-powered megaphones as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
(2) The conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards for battery powered
megaphones shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
Emergency lighting
91.04.25(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft with a maximum approved

passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats, shall operate the aircraft
unless such aircraft is equipped with the appropriate emergency lighting system as
prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
(2) The conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards for emergency

lighting shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
Automatic emergency locator transmitter
91.04.26(1) No owner or operator of-
(a) an aircraft to be operated on extended flights over water or over areas where
search and rescue would be especially difficult;
(b) an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms or a

maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 seats; or
(c) a helicopter with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more

than 19 seats, shall operate such aircraft;
unless it is equipped with an automatic emergency locator transmitter.
(2) The owner or operator shall ensure that the automatic emergency locator
transmitter-
(a) is attached to the aircraft in such a manner that, in the event of a crash, the
probability of such automatic emergency locator transmitter transmitting a
detectable signal, is maximises, and the probability of such automatic emergency
locator transmitter being damaged, is minimised; and
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(b) complies with the specifications, and is capable of transmitting on the
frequencies, as prescribed in Document SA-CAT-OPS 91.
Life jackets and other flotation devices
91.04.27 No owner or operator of-
(a) an aeroplane other than an aircraft referred to in paragraphs (b) and

(c) shall operate the aeroplane
(i) when flying over water and at a distance of more than 50 nautical
miles from the shore, in the case of the aeroplane not capable
of continuing at flight to an aerodrome with the critical power-unit
in becoming inoperative at any point along the route or any planned
diversion; or
(ii) when taking off or landing at an aerodrome where the take-off
or approach path is so disposed over water that in the event of
an incident, there would be a likelihood of a ditching, unless such
aeroplane is equipped with a life jacket containing a survivor locator
light, for each person on board, stowed in a position easily accessible,
with safety belt fastened, from the seat or berth of the person for
whose use it is provided, and an individual infant floatation device,
containing a locator survival light for use by each infant on board;
(b) a seaplane or an amphibious aeroplane shall operate the seaplane or amphibious

aeroplane unless such seaplane or amphibious aeroplane is equipped with –
(i.) a life jacket containing a survivor locator light, for each person on board,
stowed in a position easily accessible, with safety belt fastened, from the
seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided, and an individual
infant floatation device, containing a survivor locator light, for use by each
infant on board; and
(ii.) life jackets, other than the life jackets referred to in subparagraph (I), for 20
per cent of the number of persons on board such seaplane or amphibious
aeroplane, located in the passenger compartment near the emergency
exits and readily accessible;
(c) a helicopter, shall operate the helicopter over water beyond authoritative distance
from land, other than only for take-off and initial climb, or final approach and
landing, unless –
(i.) each person on board is wearing a life jacket containing a survivor

locator light; and
(ii.) such helicopter is equipped with –
A. an individual infant floatation device containing a locator survival light for use by
each infant on board, stowed in a position easily accessible for the person in
which care the infant is; and
B. floatation equipment to ensure a safe ditching: Provided that in the case of aerial
spraying operations over water, the owner or operator may apply to the
Commissioner for an exemption in terms of Part 11.
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Life rafts and survival radio equipment for extended over-water flights
91.04.28(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft over water
at a distance equivalent to –
(a) 120 minutes at normal cruising speed or 400 miles, whichever is the lesser, away
from land, if such aircraft has four engines,
(b) 90 minutes at normal cruising speed or 300 miles, whichever is the lesser, away
from land, if such aircraft has three turbine engines, or
(c) 30 minutes at normal cruising speed or 100 miles, whichever is the lesser, away
from land, in the case of aircraft other than the aircraft referred to in paragraph (a)
or (b), unless such aircraft is equipped with life rafts sufficient to accommodate all
persons on board.
(2) The conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards for the life rafts and
survival radio equipment for such extended over-water flights, shall be as
Survival equipment
91.04.29(1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft over areas
where search and rescue would be especially difficult, unless such aircraft is
equipped with the appropriate survival equipment as prescribed in Document SA-
CATS-OPS 91.
(2) The conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or standards for the survival
equipment shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
Seaplanes, amphibious aeroplanes and amphibious helicopters
91.04.30 No owner or operator of a seaplane, amphibious aeroplane or amphibious

helicopter shall operate the seaplane, amphibious aeroplane or amphibious
helicopter on water, unless it is equipped with –
(a) a sea anchor and other equipment necessary to facilitate mooring, anchoring or
manoeuvring such seaplane, amphibious aeroplane or amphibious helicopter on
water, appropriate to its size, mass and handling characteristics; and
(b) equipment for making the sound signals prescribed in the international
Regulations for Prevention of Collisions at Sea, where applicable.
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SUBPART 5: COMMUNICATION AND NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT
Communication equipment
91.05.1 (1) Except with prior written approval of the Commissioner, no owner or
operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft, unless such aircraft is equipped with
radio communication equipment capable of maintaining two-way communication with
an air traffic service unit.
(2) The radio communication equipment referred to in sub-regulation (1) shall be

capable of providing for communication on the aeronautical emergency frequency
121.5 MHz.
(3) The radio communication equipment installed in the aircraft shall be of a type as
(4) The installation, bonding and screening of the radio communication equipment
shall be in accordance with the requirements as prescribed in Document SA-
CATS-OPS 91.
Navigation equipment
91.05.2 (1) No owner or operator of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft unless such
aircraft is equipped with navigation equipment enabling it to proceed in accordance
with its flight plan, the prescribed RNP types and the appropriate air traffic service
requirements: Provided that the provisions of this regulation shall not apply to flights
operated in accordance with VFR, if such flights can be accomplished by visual
reference to landmarks.
(2) The aircraft shall be equipped with sufficient navigation equipment to ensure that,
in the event of the failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the flight, the
remaining equipment enables such aircraft to proceed with such flight.
(3) No person shall operate an aircraft in airspace where minimum navigation

performance specification apply, unless the aircraft is equipped with navigation
performance specifications as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91,in the
form of regional supplementary procedures.
(4) In an aircraft required to be operated by two pilots, the navigation equipment

referred to in sub-regulation (3) shall be visible and usable by each pilot seated
at his or her duty station.
(5) For unrestricted operation in airspace where minimum navigation performance

specifications apply, an aircraft shall be equipped with two independent long-
range navigation systems.
(6) For operation in airspace where minimum navigation performance specifications

apply along notified special routes, an aircraft shall be equipped with one long-
range navigation system, unless otherwise specified.
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SUBPART 6: RULES OF THE AIR
Division One: Flight Rules
Landing on roads
91.06.1 No pilot shall use a public road as a place of landing or take-off in an

aircraft, except –
(a) in the case of an emergency involving the safety of the aircraft or its occupants;
(b) for the purpose of saving human lives, or
(c) when involved in civil defence or law-enforcement operations: Provided that at all
times reasonable care is taken for the safety of others with due regard to the
prevailing circumstances.
Dropping objects, spraying or dusting
91.06.2 Except in an emergency or unless granted special permission by the

Commissioner, no article shall be dropped from an aircraft in flight other than –
(a) fine sand or clean water used as ballast; or
(b) chemical substances for the purpose of spraying or dusting.
Picking up objects
91.06.3 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft in flight shall not permit objects to be

picked up, except –
(a) with the prior written approval of the Commissioner; or
(b) if licensed to do so under the International Air Services Act, 1993, or the Air
Services Licensing Act, 1990.
Towing
91.06.4 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft in flight shall not permit anything to be

towed by the aircraft, except –
(a) with the prior written approval of the Commissioner; or
(b) if licensed to do so under the International Air Services Act, 1993, or the Air
Services Licensing Act, 1990.
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Operation of vehicle- or vessel-towed aircraft
91.06.5(1) Except with the prior written approval of the Commissioner and subject to
such conditions as he or she may impose, an aircraft which is intended, for purposes
of flight, to be towed by a vehicle or vessel travelling on the surface or to be moored
on the surface, shall not –
(a) be flown higher than 150 feet above the surface on which the towing vehicle or
vessel is travelling or to which such aircraft is moored;
(b) be flown closer than five nautical miles from the boundary of an aerodrome; or
(c) take-off from, land on or be flown above any public road.
(2) The provisions of sub-regulation (l)(a) and (b) shall not apply to the winching or
towing of gliders at the aerodrome of departure.
Proximity and formation flights
91.06.6 No pilot shall operate an aircraft-
(a) in such proximity to other aircraft so as to create a collision hazard;
(b) in formation flight, except by arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each

aircraft in the formation; or
(c) in formation flight while carrying passengers for commercial purposes.
Right of way
91.06.7 (1) An aircraft which has the right-of-way, shall maintain its heading and
speed, but nothing in these provisions shall relieve the pilot-in-command of an
aircraft from the responsibility of taking such action as will best avert collision.
(2) An aircraft which is obliged, by the provisions of this subpart, to keep out of the
way of another aircraft, shall avoid passing over or under the other aircraft, or
crossing ahead of such aircraft, unless passing well clear.
(3) When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is
danger of collision, each aircraft shall alter its heading to the right.
(4) When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, the aircraft
which has the other aircraft on its right, shall give way, except in the following
circumstances:
(a) Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and
balloons;
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46
(b) airships shall give way to gliders and balloons;
(c) gliders shall give way to balloons;
(d) power-driven aircraft shall give way to aircraft which are –
(i.) seen to be towing other aircraft or objects;

(ii.) carrying an underslung load or are engaged in winching operations; and
(iii.) being towed or tethered.
(5) An aircraft which is being overtaken has the right-of-way and the overtaking
aircraft, whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight, shall keep out of the
way of the overtaken aircraft by altering its heading to the right, and no
subsequent change in the relative positions of the two aircraft shall absolve the
overtaking aircraft from its obligation until such aircraft is entirely past and clear:
Provided that where a right-hand circuit is being followed at an aerodrome, the
overtaking aircraft shall alter its heading to the left.
(6) An aircraft in flight or operating on the ground or water, shall give way to other
aircraft landing or on final approach to land.
(7) When two or more heavier-than-air aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the
purpose of landing, the aircraft at the higher level shall give way to the aircraft at
the lower level, but the latter aircraft shall not take advantage of this provision to
cut in front of another aircraft which is on final approach to land, or to overtake
such aircraft.
(a) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (a), power-driven heavier-than-air

aircraft shall give way to gliders.
(8) An aircraft about to take-off, shall not attempt to do so until there is no apparent
risk of collision with other aircraft.
(9) An aircraft which is aware that another aircraft is compelled to land, shall give
way to such aircraft.
(10) For the purposes of this regulation, an overtaking aircraft is an aircraft which
approaches another aircraft from the rear on a line from an angle of less than 70
degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter aircraft, and will therefore be in
such position with reference to the other aircraft, that by night it should be unable
to see either of the other aircraft's wingtip navigation lights.
Following line features
91.06.8 An aircraft flying at or below 1 500 feet above the surface and following a
power line, a road, a railway line, a canal, a coastline or any other line feature within
one nautical mile of such line feature, shall fly to the right of such line, road, railway
line, canal, coastline or other line feature, except when the aircraft is instructed to do
otherwise by an air traffic service unit.
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Aircraft speed
91.06.9(1) No person shall, outside controlled airspace and between 1 000 feet
above the surface and flight level 100, fly an aircraft at an indicated air speed of more
than 250 knots.
(2) Unless otherwise authorised or required by an air traffic service unit, no person
shall fly an aircraft within a control zone or an aerodrome traffic zone at an
indicated air speed of more than –
(a) 160 knots, in the case of a reciprocating-engine aircraft; or
(b) 200 knots, in the case of a turbine-powered aircraft:
Provided that if the minimum safe indicated air speed for a particular flight is
greater than the maximum indicated air speed prescribed in this regulation, the
aircraft may be flown at the minimum safe indicated air speed.
Lights to be displayed by aircraft
91.06.10 The lights which have to be displayed by aircraft by night, on water or on

the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome, shall be as prescribed in SA-CATS-OPS 91.
Taxi rules
91.06.11(1) Aircraft which are landing or taking off, shall be given right of way by
other aircraft and by vehicles.
(2) An aircraft shall, after landing, unless otherwise authorised or instructed by an air
traffic service unit, move clear of the runway in use, as soon as it is safely
possible to do so.
(3) A vehicle which is towing an aircraft shall be given right of way by the vehicles
and by other aircraft which are not landing or taking off.
(4) An aircraft shall be given right of way by a vehicle which is not towing an aircraft.
(5) An aircraft or vehicle which is obliged by the provisions of this regulation to give
right of way to another aircraft, shall, if necessary in the circumstances in order to
do so, reduce its speed or stop.
(6) If danger of collision exists between an aircraft or vehicle and another aircraft or
vehicle, such of the following procedures as may be appropriate in the
circumstances, shall be applied:
(a) when the two are approaching head-on or nearly head-on, each shall turn to the
right;
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48
(b) when one is overtaking the other, the one which is overtaking shall keep out of
the way of the other by turning to the right, and no subsequent change in the
relative positions of the two shall absolve the one which is overtaking from this
obligation, until it Is finally past and clear of the other;
(c) subject to the provisions of sub-regulation (2), when the two are converging, the
one which has the other on its right, shall give way to the other and shall avoid
crossing ahead of the other unless passing well clear of it.
(7) A vehicle moving along a runway or taxiway, shall as far as practicable keep to
the right side of the runway or taxiway.
(8) When an aircraft is being towed, the person in charge of the towing vehicle shall
be responsible for compliance with the provisions of this regulation.
(9) Nothing in this regulation shall relieve the pilot-in-command of an aircraft or the
person in charge of a vehicle, from the responsibility for taking such action as will
best aid to avert collision.
Operation on and in the vicinity of aerodrome
91.06.12(1) The pilot-in command of an aircraft operated on or in the vicinity of an

aerodrome, shall be responsible for compliance with the following rules :
(a) observe other aerodrome traffic for the purpose of avoiding collision;
(b) conform with or avoid the pattern of traffic formed by other aircraft in operation;
(c) make all turns to the left when approaching for a landing and after taking off,
unless otherwise instructed by an air traffic service unit, or unless a right hand
circuit is in force: Provided that a helicopter may, with due regard to other factors
and when it is in the interest of safety, execute a circuit to the opposite side;
(d) land and take-off, as far as practicable, into the wind unless otherwise instructed
by an air traffic service unit;
(e) fly across the aerodrome or its environs at a height of not less than 2 000 feet
above the level of such aerodrome: Provided that if circumstances require such
pilot-in-command to fly at a height of less than 2 000 feet above the level of the
aerodrome, he or she shall conform with the traffic pattern at such aerodrome;
and
(f) taxi in accordance with the ground control procedures which may be in force at
the aerodrome.
(2) If an aerodrome control tower is in operation, the pilot-in-command shall also,

whilst the aircraft is within the aerodrome traffic zone –
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49
(a) maintain a continuous radio watch on the frequency of the aerodrome control
tower responsible for providing aerodrome control service at the aerodrome,
establish two way radio communication as necessary for aerodrome control
purposes and obtain such clearances for his or her movements as may be
necessary for the protection of aerodrome traffic; or
(b) if this is not possible, keep a watch for and comply with such clearances and
instructions as may be issued by visual means.
(3) If an aerodrome flight information service unit is in operation, the pilot- in-
command shall also, whilst the aircraft is within the aerodrome traffic zone –
(a) maintain a continuous radio watch on the frequency of the aerodrome flight
information service unit responsible for providing aerodrome flight information
service at the aerodrome, establish two-way radio communication as necessary
for aerodrome flight information service purposes and obtain information in
respect of the surface wind, runway in use and altimeter setting and in respect of
aerodrome traffic on the manoeuvring area and in the aerodrome traffic zone; or
(b) if this is not possible, keep a watch for visual signals which may be displayed or
may be issued by the aerodrome flight information service unit.
(4) An aircraft which is unable to communicate by radio shall, before landing at an

aerodrome, make a circuit of the aerodrome for the purpose of observing the
traffic, and reading such ground markings and signals as may be displayed
thereon, unless it has the consent of the appropriate air traffic service unit to do
otherwise.
Signals
91.06.13 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft in flight shall, upon observing or

receiving any of the signals as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91, take such
action as may be required by the interpretation of the signal as prescribed in
Water operations
91.06.14(1) In areas in which the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions

at Sea are in force, aircraft operated on the water shall comply with the provisions
thereof.
(2) Aircraft in flight near the surface of the water shall, as far as possible, keep clear
of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation.
Reporting position
91.06.15 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft –
(a) flying in controlled airspace;
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50
(b) flying in advisory airspace; or
(c) on a night for which alerting action is being provided,
shall ensure that reports are made to the responsible air traffic service unit, as soon
as possible, of the time and level of passing each compulsory reporting point,
together with any other required information, and he or she shall further ensure that
position reports are similarly made in relation to additional reporting points, if so
requested by the responsible air traffic service unit and that, in the absence of
designated reporting points, position reports are made at the intervals specified by
the responsible air traffic service unit or published by the Commissioner in terms of
Part 175, for that area.
Mandatory radio communication in controlled airspace
91.06.16 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft to be operated in or crossing a

controlled airspace shall ensure that, before the aircraft enters such airspace, two-
way radio contact is established with the responsible air traffic service unit on the
designated radio frequency, and shall ensure, while the aircraft is within, and until it
leaves, the controlled airspace, that continuous radio watch is maintained and that
such further two-way radio communication as such air traffic service unit may require,
is established: Provided that –
(a) the air traffic service unit may permit an aircraft not capable of maintaining
continuous two-way radio communication, to fly in the control area, terminal
control area, control zone or aerodrome traffic zone for which it is responsible, if
traffic conditions permit, in which case the flight shall be subject to such
conditions as such air traffic service unit deems necessary to ensure the safety of
other air traffic; and
(b) in the case of radio failure, a flight for which an air traffic service flight plan was
filed and activated by the air traffic service unit on receipt of a departure time,
may continue in controlled airspace if the communication failure procedures are
complied with.
Mandatory radio communication in advisory airspace
91.06.17 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft to be operated in advisory air space

shall ensure that, before the aircraft approaches or enters such airspace –
(a) two-way radio communication with the responsible air traffic service unit is
established on the designated radio frequency;
(b) if such communication is not possible, two-way radio communication is

established with any air traffic service unit which is capable of relaying messages
to and from the responsible air traffic service unit; or
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51
(c) if such communication is not possible, broadcasts are made on the designated
radio frequency giving information on the aircraft's intention to enter the airspace,
and such pilot-in-command shall ensure that, while the aircraft is within the
advisory airspace and until it departs therefrom, a continuous radio watch is
maintained on the designated radio frequency and that –
(i.) such further two-way radio communication as the responsible air traffic
service unit may require, is established with any other air traffic service
unit which is capable of relaying messages to and
(ii.) from such responsible air traffic service unit; if such communication is not
possible, such further two-way radio communication is established with
any other air traffic service unit which is capable of relaying messages to
and from the responsible air traffic service unit, as such responsible air
traffic service unit may require; or
(iii.) if such communication is not possible, broadcasts are made on the
designated radio frequency giving information on passing reporting points
and when leaving the airspace concerned: provided that –
A. an aircraft maintaining a Selcal watch while operating within

an advisory route in the Johannesburg flight information
region and whose Selcal call-sign has been communicated to
the Johannesburg flight information centre, shall be deemed
to be maintaining a continuous radio watch; and
B. in the case of a radio failure, a flight for which an air traffic
service flight plan was filed and activated by an air traffic
service unit on receipt of a departure time, may continue in
advisory airspace if the communication failure procedures are
complied with.
Compliance with air traffic control clearance and instructions
91.06.18 The pilot of an aircraft shall –
(a) comply with any air traffic control clearance which is obtained, unless the pilot
obtains an amended clearance;
(b) not operate the aircraft contrary to an air traffic control instruction in an area in
which an air traffic control service is provided: and
(c) when deviating from an air traffic control clearance or instruction, notify the air
traffic control unit of the deviation, as soon as practicable.
Prohibited areas
91.06.19(1) The Commissioner may by notice in the AIP, AIC or NOTAM declare any
area to be a prohibited area and shall, for the purposes of the prohibition contained in
sub-regulation (2), when so declaring an area to be a prohibited area –
(a) specify a height above the ground surface of such area; or
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
52
(b) specify an altitude in respect of such area, as the Commissioner may deem
expedient, in the notice in question.
(2) No person shall fly any aircraft whatsoever in the air space above a prohibited
area –
(a) below the height specified in terms of sub-regulation (l)(a);
(b) or below the altitude specified in terms of sub-regulation (l)(b), as the case may
be, in respect of the prohibited area in question.
Restricted areas
91.06.20 (1) The Commissioner may by notice in the AIP, AIC or NOTAM declare
any area to be a restricted area and shall, when so declaring an area to be a
restricted area, specify in the notice in question –
(a) the nature and extent of the restriction applicable in respect of the area in
question; and
(b) the authorisation under which flights in such restricted area shall be permitted.
(2) No person shall, in contravention of a restriction contemplated in sub-regulation

(l)(a), fly any aircraft to which the said restriction applies, in any restricted area,
unless the flight in question has been permitted by virtue of an authorisation
contemplated in sub-regulation (l)(b).
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Division Two: Visual Flight Rules
Visibility and distance from cloud
91.06.21 Every VFR flight shall be so conducted that the aircraft is flown with visual
reference to the surface by day and to identifiable objects by night and at no time
above more than three eighths of cloud within a radius of five nautical miles of such
aircraft and –
(a) In the case of aircraft excluding helicopters, under conditions of visibility and
distance from cloud equal to, or greater than, the conditions specified in the
following table:
Airspace Flight Distance Ground visibility and ceiling

visibility from clouds
Control zones Five km Horizontally: Except in a case mentioned in
2 000 feet footnote(1), no aircraft shall take-off
from, land at, or approach to land at
Vertically: an aerodrome or fly within the
500 feet control zone when the ground
visibility at the aerodrome concerned
is less than five km and the ceiling is
less than 1 500 feet
Within the Five km Horizontally: Except in a case mentioned in
aerodrome 2 000 feet footnote(2), no aircraft shall take-off
traffic zone from, land at, or approach to land at
(which does not Vertically: an aerodrome or fly within the
also comprise a 500 feet aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome
control zone or traffic area when the ground visibility
part of a control within such aerodrome traffic zone
zone) or an or aerodrome traffic area is less than
aerodrome five km and the ceiling is less than 1
traffic area 500 feet
Footnotes:
(1) Minima not applicable to special VFR flights

(2) When the pilot in an aircraft maintains two-way radio communication with the
aerodrome control tower or aerodrome flight information service unit, the pilot
may, in respect of a cross-country flight, leave or enter the aerodrome traffic zone
or aerodrome traffic area, as the case may be, when the ground visibility is equal
to or greater than five km and the ceiling is equal to or higher than 500 feet.
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Airspace excluding Flight visibility Distance from Ground visibility
control zones or clouds and
aerodrome traffic ceili
zones or aerodrome ng
traffic areas
At or below 1 000 feet One and a half Clear of cloud -
above the surface, by km
day only
At or below 1 500 feet Five km Horizontally; -
above the surface, by 2 000 feet
night only
Vertically;
500 feet

control zones or clouds an
aerodrome traffic d
zones or aerodrome ce
traffic areas ili
ng
From above 1 000 feet Five km Horizontally; -
to 1 500 feet above the 2 000 feet
surface, by day only Vertically;
500 feet
From above 1 500 feet Five km Horizontally -
above the surface up to 2 000 feet
and including flight level Vertically
100, by day and night 500 feet
From above flight level Eight km Horizontally: One -
100 up to and including and a half km
flight level 200, by day Vertically;
and night 1 000 feet
Above flight level 200, Eight km Horizontally: One VFR flights shall
by day and night and a half km not be conducted
Vertically above flight level
1 000 feet 200. VMC minima
for IFR flights shall
be above flight
level 200.
(b) In the case of helicopters, under conditions of visibility and distance from cloud
equal to, or greater than, those conditions specified in the following table:
Provided that the limitations as contained in the above-mentioned table shall not
prevent a helicopter from conducting hover-in-ground-effect or hover-taxi
operations if the visibility is not less than 100 m.
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Airspace Flight Distance from Ground visibility and ceiling
visibility clouds
Control zones (1) Two and a Horizontally: Except in a case mentioned in
half km 1 000 feet footnote (1), no helicopter shall
Vertically; take-off from, land at, or
Clear of cloud approach to land at an
aerodrome or fly within the
control zone when the ground
visibility at the aerodrome
concerned is less than 2,5 km
and the ceiling is less than 600
feet.
Within an Two and a Horizontally; No helicopter shall take-off from,
aerodrome traffic half km 1 000 feet land at, or approach to land at an
zone (which does Vertically; aerodrome or fly within the
not also comprise Clear of cloud aerodrome traffic zone or an
a control zone or aerodrome traffic area when the
part of a control ground visibility at the aerodrome
zone) or an concerned is less than 2,5 km
aerodrome traffic and the ceiling is less than 600
area feet

control zones or clouds and ceiling
aerodrome traffic
zones or aerodrome
traffic areas
At or below 1 500 feet One km Clear of cloud -
above the surface, by
day only
At or below 1 500 feet Five km Clear of cloud -
above the surface, by
night only
Above 1 500 feet above Five km Horizontally: -
the surface, by day and 2 000 feet
night Vertically
500 feet
Footnote:
(1) Minima not applicable to special VFR flights.
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Special VFR weather minima
91.06.22 A pilot-in-command may conduct special VFR operations in weather

conditions below the conditions prescribed in Regulation 91.06.21 within a control
zone–
(a) under the terms of an air traffic control clearance;
(b) by day only;
(c) clear of clouds;
(d) with a ceiling of at least 600 feet and visibility of at least 1 500 m;
(e) in an aircraft equipped with two-way radio equipment capable of communicating

with an air traffic service unit on the appropriate frequency;and
(f) if leaving the control zone, in accordance with instructions issued by an air traffic
service unit prior to departure.
Responsibility to ascertain whether VFR night is permitted
91.06.23 Outside a control zone or an aerodrome traffic zone or an aerodrome

traffic area, the ascertainment of whether or not weather conditions permit flight in
accordance with VFR, shall be the responsibility of the pilot-in-command of an
aircraft, and whenever weather conditions do not permit a pilot to maintain the
minimum distance from cloud and the minimum visibility required by VFR, the pilot
shall comply with IFR.
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Division Three: Instrument Flight Rules
Compliance with IFR
91.06.24 A flight conducted above flight level 200 shall be flown in compliance with
IFR as prescribed in this subpart.
Aircraft equipment
91.06.25 Aircraft shall be equipped with suitable instruments and radio navigation
apparatus appropriate to the route to be flown and in accordance with the provisions
of subpart 5.
Change from IFR flight to VFR flight
91.06.26(1) The pilot-in -command of an aircraft who elects to change the conduct of
flight of the aircraft from compliance with IFR to compliance with VFR shall, if a flight
plan was submitted for the flight, notify the air traffic service unit concerned that the
IFR flight is cancelled and communicate to such air traffic service unit the intended
changes to be made to the current flight plan.
(2) When an aircraft operating under IFR is known in or encounters visual

meteorological conditions, the pilot-in-command shall not cancel its IFR night
unless it is anticipated, and intended, that the flight will be continued for a
reasonable period in uninterrupted visual meteorological conditions.
IFR procedures
91.06.27(1) Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible air traffic service unit,
aircraft flown in compliance with the rules contained in this Division, shall comply with
IFR procedures applicable in the relevant airspace.
(2) Subject to the provisions of Regulation 91.06.25, the pilot-in-command of an

aircraft may execute, or endeavour to execute, a cloud break or let-down
procedure at an aerodrome, or nominate an aerodrome as an alternate
aerodrome: Provided that the requirements relating to cloud break or let-down
procedures and to flights under IMC, as published by the Commissioner in the
NOTAM, can be complied with.
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Division Four: Aircraft on other than Scheduled International Air Services
Foreign military aircraft
91.06.28 No foreign military aircraft shall fly over or land in the Republic except on
the express invitation or with the express permission of the Minister, but any such
aircraft so flying over or landing in the Republic shall be exempt from these
Regulations to such extent and on such conditions as are specified in the invitation or
permission.
Identification and interception of aircraft
91.06.29(1) An intercepted aircraft shall carry out the instruction of an intercepting

aircraft, as prescribed in these Regulations.
(2) When an aircraft is intercepted, the pilot-in-command shall forthwith establish

radio contact with the intercepting aircraft on 121,5 MHz, if the aircraft is so
equipped, and if radio contact has not already been established.
(3) When the intercepting aircraft cannot establish radio contact or contact in any
other practical way with the intercepted aircraft, visual signals as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-OPS 91 shall be used.
(4) The visual signals shall be used as follows:
(a) When an aircraft has been intercepted for identification purposes only, the
intercepting aircraft shall use the second series to show that the aircraft may
proceed;
(b) when an aircraft is to be led away from a prohibited or restricted area, the
appropriate part of the first series shall be used, and the second series shall be
used when the purpose has been achieved and the aircraft is released;
(c) when and aircraft is required to land, the appropriate part of the first series shall
initially be used, followed by the third series when in the vicinity of the designated
landing area;
(d) when the pilot of the intercepted aircraft considers the landing area designated as
unsuitable for his or her aircraft type, he or she shall use the fourth series to
indicate this, upon which new instructions shall be given by the intercepting
aircraft;
(e) when an intercepted aircraft is in distress, the distress signals shall be used,
where practical.
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Division Five: Air Traffic Rules
Air traffic service procedures
91.06.30 The pilot-in-command of an aircraft to be operated in controlled airspace

shall-
(a) ensure that an air traffic service flight plan is submitted and changes thereto are
notified as prescribed in Regulation 91.03.4;
(b) ensure that radio contact is established with the responsible air traffic service unit
and that radio communication is maintained as prescribed in Regulation 91.06.
16, and
(c) comply with air traffic control clearances and instructions: Provided that-
(i.) the pilot-in-command of an aircraft may deviate from an air traffic

control clearance in exceptional circumstances, but such deviation
shall be reported to the responsible air traffic service unit as soon as
possible; and
(ii.) the pilot-in-command of an aircraft may propose an amendment to an
air traffic control clearance, but such amendment shall not be applied
until acceded to by the responsible air traffic service unit.
Priority
91.06.31 An air traffic service unit may, with regard to arrivals and departures, give
priority to aircraft operating in accordance with air traffic service flight plan clearance
over aircraft not so engaged.
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Division Six: Heights and Instrument Approach and Departure Procedures
Minimum heights
91.06.32(1) Except when necessary for taking off or landing, or except with prior
written approval of the Commissioner, no aircraft –
(a) shall be flown over built-up areas or over an open-air assembly of persons at a
height less than 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle, within a radius of 2 000
feet from the aircraft;
(b) when flown elsewhere than specified in paragraph (a), shall be flown at a height
less than 500 feet above the ground or water, unless the flight can be made
without hazard or nuisance to persons or property on the ground or water; and
(c) shall circle over or do repeated overflights over an open-air assembly of persons
at a height less than 3 000 feet above the surface.
(2) Except when necessary for take-off or landing, an aircraft shall by night, in IMC,
or when operated in accordance with IFR, be flown –
(a) if within an area determined by the Commissioner, at a height of at least 1 000

feet above the highest obstacle within that area and in accordance with such
procedure as the Commissioner may determine; or
(b) if elsewhere than in an area contemplated in paragraph (a), at a height of at least

1 500 feet above the highest obstacle located within five nautical miles of the
aircraft in flight.
Semi-circular rule
91.06.33 Unless otherwise directed by an air traffic service unit, the pilot-in-
command of an aircraft in level flight shall fly at an appropriate flight level selected
according to magnetic track from the table as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-
OPS 91.
(2) Aircraft flown in accordance with VFR at a height of less than 1 500 feet above
the surface, shall not be required to comply with the provisions of sub-regulation
(1), unless if otherwise directed by an air traffic service unit.
(3) A flight conducted from flight level 200 and above, shall be flown in compliance
with IFR.
Standard instrument approach to and departure from aerodrome
91.06.34 When an instrument approach to, or instrument departure from, an

aerodrome is necessary, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall use the standard
instrument approach and departure procedure as published by the Commissioner in
the AIC, AIP. AIP SUP or NOTAM.
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61
Routes and areas of operation
91.07.1 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that –
(a) operations are only conducted along such routes or within such areas, for which
approval or authorisation has been obtained, where required, from appropriate
authority concerned;
(b) the performance of the aircraft intended to be used, is adequate to comply with
minimum flight altitude requirements; and
(c) the equipment of the aircraft intended to be used, complies with the minimum
requirements for the planned operation.
Minimum flight altitudes
91.07.2(1) No pilot-in-command shall operate an aircraft at altitudes below –
(a) altitudes, established by the owner or operator, which provide the required terrain
clearance, taking into account the operating limitations referred to in subpart 9;
and
(b) the minimum altitudes referred to in subpart 6;
except when necessary for take-off and landing.
(2) The method of establishing minimum night altitudes referred to in sub-regulation

(l)(a), shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
(3) Where the minimum flight altitudes established by the appropriate authority of a
foreign State are higher than the minimum flight altitudes prescribed in this
regulation, the minimum flight altitudes established by such appropriate authority
shall apply in respect of a South African registered aircraft flying in the airspace of
the foreign State concerned.
Use of aerodromes
91.07.3(1) No pilot shall use, and no owner or operator shall authorise the use of, an
aerodrome as a destination or alternate destination aerodrome, unless such
aerodrome is adequate for the type of aircraft and operation concerned.
(2) Except in an emergency, no pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall takeoff or land

by night, unless the place of take-off or landing is equipped with night flying
facilities.
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Helicopter landings and take-offs
91.07.4 (1) No pilot-in-command of a helicopter shall land at or take-off from any

place unless the place is so situated to permit the helicopter, in the event of an
emergency arising during such landing or take-off, to land without undue hazard to
persons or property on the surface.
(2) No pilot-in-command of a helicopter shall land on, or take-off from, any building,
structure or place situated within 100 metres of any other building or structure, in
the area of jurisdiction of a local government, unless such building, structure or
place has been approved for the purpose by the Commissioner: Provided that
this restriction shall not apply –
(a) to a helicopter landing on, or taking off from, a building, structure or place within
an industrial area, a commercial warehouse area or an open farm land which is
suitable for such purposes and in respect of which helicopter the pilot-in-
command is the holder of a valid commercial or airline transport pilot licence
(helicopter) or, in the case of the holder of (a) private pilot licence (helicopter),
with the written permission of the Commissioner, unless specifically prohibited by
the local government;
(b) to a helicopter engaged in an emergency medical service operation referred to in

Part 138, or undertaking of a flight necessary for the exercising of any power in
terms of any law.
(3) A local government may after consultation with the Commissioner, extend the
scope of the provisions of sub-regulation (2)(a) to include other places in its area
of jurisdiction.
(4) The Commissioner may, in the interests of aviation safety, impose conditions or
institute restrictions as to the use of any building, structure or place for the
landing or take-off of helicopters, or require special flight procedures to be
adopted at, or special routes to be followed to or from, such building, structure or
place by helicopters, and the Commissioner may impose different conditions,
institute different restrictions or require different special flight procedures to be
adopted in respect of different buildings, structures or places.
(5) Nothing in this regulation shall be construed as conferring any right to land at any
building, structure or place against the wishes of the owner of, or any other
person who has an interest in, the building, structure or place or as prejudicing
the rights or remedies of any person in respect of any injury to persons or
property caused by the helicopter or its occupants.
Aerodrome operating minima
91.07.5(1) No pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall use an aerodrome as a

destination or alternate aerodrome, unless the operating minima for such aerodrome,
established by the appropriate authority of the State in which the aerodrome is
situated, can be complied with.
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(2) The aerodrome operating minima for a specific type of approach and landing
procedure shall be applicable if-
(a) the ground equipment shown on the respective instrument approach and landing
chart required for the intended procedure, is operative;
(b) the aircraft systems required for the type of approach, are operative;
(c) the required aircraft performance criteria are complied with; and
(d) the flight deck crew is qualified to conduct the type of approach.
(3) In determining or establishing the aerodrome operating minima applicable to any

particular operation, the owner or operator shall take into account
(a) the type, performance and handling characteristics of the aircraft;
(b) the composition of the flight deck crew, their competence and experience;
(c) the dimensions and characteristics of the runways or touch-down areas which
may be selected for use;
(d) the adequacy and performance of the available visual and non-visual ground
aids;
(e) the equipment available in the aircraft for the purpose of navigation or control of
the flight path, as appropriate, during the take-off, approach, flare, landing or
missed approach;
(f) the obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas and the climb-
out areas and necessary clearance;
(g) the obstacle clearance altitude or height for the instrument approach procedures;
(h) the means to determine and report meteorological conditions; and
(i) the availability and adequacy of emergency services.
Threshold crossing height
91.07.6(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall establish operational

procedures designed to ensure that the aircraft being used to conduct precision
approaches, crosses the threshold by a safe margin, with such aircraft in the landing
configuration and attitude.
(2) The operational procedures applicable to Category I and Category III

approaches, shall be approved by the Commissioner.
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Pre-flight selection of aerodromes
91.07.7(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall select destination or alternate

aerodromes in accordance with Regulation 91.07.5 and Part 121, Part 127 or Part
135, as the case may be, when planning a flight.
(2) The owner or operator shall select a departure, destination or alternate

aerodrome only when the serviceability status of the aerodrome permits safe
operation of the type of aircraft concerned.
(3) The owner or operator shall select and specify in the air traffic service flight plan
referred to in Regulation 91.03.3, a take-off alternate aerodrome, if it would not
be possible for the aircraft to return to the aerodrome of departure due to
meteorological or performance reasons.
(4) The take-off alternate aerodrome referred to in sub-regulation (3), shall be

located within -
(a) one hour flight time at one-engine cruising speed according to the aircraft flight
manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2, in still air standard conditions based on
the actual take-off mass for a twin-engine aircraft;
(b) two hours flight time at one-engine inoperative cruising speed according to the
aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2, in still air standard
conditions based on the actual take-off mass for three-engine and four-engine
aircraft;
(c) if the aircraft flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2, does not contain a
one-engine inoperative cruising speed, the speed to be used for calculation, shall
be the speed which is achieved with the remaining engine set at maximum
continuous power.
(5) The owner or operator of a helicopter shall select at least one destination
alternate aerodrome for each IFR flight, unless the meteorological conditions
prevailing are such that, for the period from one hour before until one hour after
the expected time of arrival at the destination aerodrome, the approach from the
minimum sector safe altitude and landing can be made in VMC.
(6) The owner or operator of an aeroplane shall select at least one destination
alternate aerodrome or each IFR flight, unless -
(a) two suitable non-intersecting runways are available at the destination aerodrome;
and
(b) the meteorological conditions prevailing are such that, for the periods from one
hour before until one hour after the expected time of arrival at the destination
aerodrome, the approach from the minimum sector safe altitude and landing can
be made in VMC; or
(c) the destination aerodrome is isolated and no adequate destination alternate

aerodrome exists.
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(7) The owner or operator shall select two destination alternate aerodromes when -
(a) the appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination aerodrome, or any
combination thereof, indicate that during a period commencing one hour before
and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival, the weather conditions
will be below the applicable planning minima; or no meteorological information
can be obtained.
(8) The owner or operator shall specify the destination alternate aerodrome in the air
traffic service flight plan referred to in Regulation 91.03.3.
(9) The owner or operator shall specify en route alternate aerodromes for extended-
range operations with twin-engine aeroplanes and shall specify such en route
alternate aerodromes in the air traffic service flight plan referred to in Regulation
91.03.3.
(10) When planning a flight, the owner or operator shall only select an aerodrome
as a destination or alternate aerodrome, if the appropriate weather reports or
forecasts, or a combination thereof, are at or above the applicable planning
minima for a period of one hour before to one hour after the estimated time of
arrival of the aircraft at the aerodrome.
Planning minima for IFR flights
91.07.8(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall not select an aerodrome as a

take-off alternate aerodrome for a flight to be conducted, wholly or partly in
accordance with IFR under IMC unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts,
or any combination thereof, indicate that, during a period commencing one hour
before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the
weather conditions will be at or above the applicable landing minima prescribed in
Regulation 91.07.5. (Refer Part 135 – 135.7.7 CAT’s Ops)
(2) The ceiling shall be taken into account when the only approaches available are
non-precision or circling approaches.
(3) Any limitation related to one-engine inoperative operations shall be taken into
account.
(4) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall only select the destination aerodrome or
destination alternate aerodrome when the appropriate weather reports or
forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that, during a period commencing
one hour before and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the
aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at, or above, the applicable planning
minima as follows:
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(a) Planning minima for a destination aerodrome –
(i.) RVR or visibility specified in accordance with Regulation 91.07.5; (Refer

Part 135 – 135.7.7 CAT’s Ops) and
(ii.) for non-precision approach or a circling approach, the ceiling at, or above,
MDA/H; and
(b) planning minima for a destination alternate aerodrome shall be as prescribed in

Document SACATS-OPS 91.
(5) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall not select an aerodrome as an en route
alternate aerodrome unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any
combination thereof, indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before
and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the
weather conditions will be at or above the planning minima as prescribed in
(6) The owner or operator shall not select an aerodrome as an ETOPS en route
alternate aerodrome unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any
combination thereof indicate that, during a period commencing one hour before
and ending one hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the
weather conditions will be at or above the planning minima as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-OPS 91 and in accordance with the ETOPS approval of the
owner or operator
Meteorological conditions
91.07.9(1) On a flight to be conducted in accordance with IFR, the pilot-in-command

of an aircraft shall not -
(a) commence take-off; or
(b) continue beyond the in-flight decision point, unless information is available
indicating that conditions will, at the estimated time of arrival of such aircraft, be
at, or above, the applicable aerodrome operating minima -
(i.) at the destination aerodrome; or

(ii.) where a destination alternate aerodrome is required, at the destination
aerodrome and one destination alternate aerodrome or at two destination
alternate aerodromes.
(2) On a flight conducted in accordance with VFR, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft

shall not commence take-off unless current meteorological reports, or a
combination of current reports and forecasts, indicate that the meteorological
conditions along the route, or that part of the route to be flown under VFR, shall,
at the appropriate time, be such as to render compliance with the provisions
prescribed in this part possible.
VFR operating minima
91.07.10 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that -
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(a) VFR flights are conducted in accordance with the visual flight rules prescribed in
subpart 6; and
(b) special VFR flights are not commenced when the visibility is less than 3 km and
not otherwise conducted when the visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in
Regulation 91.06.22(d).
Mass and balance
91.07.11(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that, during any phase
of the operation, the loading, mass and the centre of gravity of the aircraft complies
with the limitations specified in the approved aircraft flight manual referred to in
Regulation 91.03.2, or the operations manual referred to in Part 121, Part 121 or Part
135, as the case may be, if the limitations therein are more restrictive.
(2) The owner or operator shall establish the mass and the centre of gravity of the
aircraft by actual weighing prior to initial entry into operation and thereafter at
intervals of five years.
(3) The accumulated effects of modifications and repairs on the mass and balance of
the aircraft, shall be accounted for and properly documented by the owner or
operator.
(4) The aircraft shall be weighed in accordance with the provisions of sub-regulation
(2), if the effect of modifications on the mass and balance is not accurately
known.
(5) The owner or operator shall determine the mass of all operating items and flight
crew members included in the dry operating mass of the aircraft, by weighing or
by using the appropriate standard mass as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-
OPS91.
(6) The influence of the mass of the operating items and night crew members
referred to in sub-regulation (5), on the centre of gravity of the aircraft shall be
determined by the owner or operator of such aircraft.
(7) The owner or operator shall establish the mass of the traffic load, including any
ballast, by actual weighing, or determine the mass of the traffic load in
accordance with the appropriate standard passenger and baggage mass as
(8) The owner or operator shall determine the mass of the fuel load by using the
actual specific gravity or, if approved by the Commissioner, a standard specific
gravity.
Fuel and oil supply
91.07.12(1) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall not commence a flight unless

he or she is satisfied that the aircraft carries at least the planned amount of fuel and
oil to complete the flight safely, taking into account operating and meteorological
conditions and the expected delays.
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(2) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in-
flight, is not less than the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome or, in the case
of a helicopter, a suitable landing place, where a safe landing can be made.
(3) If the usable fuel on board the aircraft is less than the final reserve fuel, the pilot-
in-command of such aircraft, shall –
(a) in the case of an aeroplane, declare an emergency; or
(b) in the case of a helicopter, land as soon as possible.
(3) The method of calculating the amount of fuel to be carried for each flight shall be
as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
Refuelling or defuelling with passengers on board
91.07.13(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that the aircraft is not
refuelled or defuelled with aviation gasoline or wide-cut type fuel when passengers
are embarking, on board or disembarking such aircraft.
(2) In cases other than the cases referred to in sub-regulation (1), necessary
precautions shall be taken and the aircraft shall be properly manned by qualified
personnel ready to initiate and direct an evacuation of such aircraft by the most
practical and expeditious means available.
Smoking in aircraft
91.07.14(1) No person shall smoke in a South African registered aircraft or in any

foreign registered aircraft when in or over the Republic, unless and except in so far
as smoking is permissible in accordance with the aircraft flight manual referred to in
Regulation 91.03.2 or other equivalent document for such aircraft.
(2) In an aircraft in which smoking is permitted, smoking shall nevertheless be

prohibited
(a) when the aircraft is on the ground;
(b) during take-off; and
(c) during an approach to land.
(3) In all South African registered aircraft, notices shall be displayed in a prominent
place in all passenger and flight crew compartments, indicating to what extent,
and when, smoking is permitted or prohibited.
Instrument approach and departure procedures
91.07.15(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that the instrument
approach and departure procedures, established by the appropriate authority of the
State in which the aerodrome to be used, is located, are used.
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(2) Notwithstanding the provisions prescribed in sub-regulation (1), a pilot-in-
command may accept an air traffic control clearance to deviate from a published
approach or departure route: Provided that -
(a) obstacle clearance criteria are observed and full account is taken of the operating
conditions; and
(b) the final approach is flown visually or in accordance with the established
instrument approach procedure.
Noise abatement procedures
91.07.16 No person shall operate an aircraft contrary to noise abatement procedures

established for an aerodrome in terms of the provisions or Part 139.
Submission of air traffic service flight plan
91.07.17 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that a flight is not
commenced unless an air traffic service flight plan referred to in Regulation 91.03.4,
has been filed, or adequate information has been deposited in order to permit
alerting services to be activated, if required.
Seats, safety belts and harnesses
91.07.18(1) Before take-off and landing, and whenever deemed necessary in the
interests of aviation safety, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that each
person on board such aircraft, occupies a seat or berth with his or her safety belt or
harness, where provided, properly secured.
(2) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that multiple occupancy of aircraft seats does
not occur other than by one adult and one infant, who is properly secured by a
child restraint device.
Passenger seating
91.07.19 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that passengers are
seated where, in the event that an emergency evacuation is required, such
passengers may best assist and not hinder evacuation from the aircraft.
Passenger briefing
91.07.20(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that –
(a) passengers are verbally briefed about safety matters, parts or all of which may be
given by an audio-visual presentation;
(b) in aircraft engaged in commercial air transport operations, passengers are

provided with a safety briefing card on which picture type instructions indicate the
operation of emergency equipment and exits likely to be used by passengers;
and
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(c) in an emergency during flight, passengers are instructed in such emergency
action as may be appropriate to the circumstances.
(2) The owner or operator shall ensure that, before take-off –
(a) passengers are briefed, to the extent applicable, on –
(i.) whether smoking is prohibited or permitted;

(ii.) when the back of the seat is to be in the upright position and the tray
table stowed;
(iii.) the location of emergency exits;
(iv.) the location and use of floor proximity escape path markings; the stowage
of carry-on baggage;
(v.) any restrictions on the use of portable electronic devices; and the location
and the contents of the safety briefing card;
(a) and passengers receive, to the extent applicable, a demonstration of-
(i.) the use of safety belts or safety harnesses, including the manner in
which the safety belts or safety harnesses are to be fastened and
unfastened;
(ii.) the location and use of oxygen equipment and the extinguishing of all
smoking materials when oxygen is being used; and
(iii.) the location and use of life jackets.
(3) The owner or operator shall ensure that, after take-off, passengers are reminded
of-
(a) whether smoking is prohibited or permitted; and
(b) the use of safety belts or safety harnesses.
(4) The owner or operator shall ensure that, before landing, passengers are
reminded of-
(a) whether smoking is prohibited or permitted;
(b) the use of safety belts or safety harnesses;
(c) when the back of the seat is to be in the upright position and the tray table
stowed, if applicable;
(d) the re-stowage of carry-on baggage; and
(e) any restrictions on the use of portable electronic devices.
(5) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that, after landing, passengers
are reminded of-
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(a) whether smoking is prohibited or permitted; and
(b) the use of safety belts or safety harnesses.
Emergency equipment
91.07.21(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that emergency

equipment, carried or installed in the aircraft in order to meet the requirements
prescribed in this part and the MEL, is in such condition that it will satisfactorily
perform its design function.
(2) The pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall ensure that the emergency equipment
concerned remains easily accessible for immediate use by the flight crew
members.
Illumination of emergency exits
91.07.22 When an aircraft, which is equipped with an emergency lighting system

referred to in Regulation 91.04.25, is in flight and below 1 000 feet above ground
level, or on the ground with passengers on board -
(a) the emergency lighting system shall be switched on; or
(b) the normal cabin lighting system shall be switched on and the emergency lighting
shall be armed.
Use of supplemental oxygen
91.07.23(1) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that flight deck crew
members engaged in performing duties essential to the safe operation of an aircraft
in flight, use supplemental oxygen continuously when the flight deck pressure altitude
exceeds 10 000 feet for more than 60 minutes, and at all times when the flight deck
pressure altitude exceeds 12 000 feet.
(2) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that, with the exception of
supersonic aeroplanes, when a flight is conducted above FL 410, at least one
pilot at the pilot station wears an oxygen mask when the other pilot leaves the
flight deck for any reason.
Approach and landing conditions
91.07.24 Before commencing an approach to land, the pilot-in-command of an

aircraft shall satisfy himself or herself that, according to the information available to
him or her, the weather at the aerodrome and the condition of the runway or touch-
down area intended to be used, will not prevent a safe approach, landing or missed
approach, having regard for the performance information contained in the aircraft
flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2 or similar document.
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Commencement and continuation of approach
91.07.25(1) When operating in IMC and in accordance with IFR the pilot-in-
command of an aircraft may commence an approach regardless of the reported RVR
or visibility, but the approach shall not be continued beyond the outer marker or
equivalent published position, unless the reported RVR or visibility for the runway or
touch-down area is equal to, or better than, the applicable operating minima.
(2) Where RVR is not available, the pilot-in-command may derive an RVR value by
converting the reported visibility in accordance with the provisions as prescribed
in Document SA-CATS-OPS 91.
(3) If, after passing the outer marker or equivalent published position in accordance
with the provisions of sub-regulation (1), the reported RVR or visibility falls below
the applicable minima, the pilot-in-command may continue the approach to
decision altitude/height or minimum descent altitude/height.
(4) The pilot-in-command may continue the approach below decision altitude/height
or minimum descent altitude/height and the landing may be completed: Provided
that the required visual reference is established at the decision altitude/height or
minimum descent altitude/height and is maintained.
(5) Where no outer marker or equivalent published position exists, the pilot-in-
command shall decide whether to continue or abandon the approach before
descending below 1 000 feet above the aerodrome on the final approach
segment.
In-flight simulation of emergency situations
91.07.26 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that no person, and no
person shall, simulate emergency situations in the aircraft affecting the flight
characteristics of such aircraft when passengers are on board such aircraft.
Turning helicopter rotors
91.07.27 No person engaged in helicopter operations, shall permit helicopter rotors

to be turned under power without -
(a) a qualified pilot; or
(b) if the helicopter is stationary on the ground, a person who has received the
relevant instruction and has been declared competent to control the helicopter
while stationary on the ground, by a Category B flight instructor, at the controls of
such helicopter.
Starting of engines
91.07.28(1) Except when the brakes are serviceable and are fully applied, chocks
shall be placed in front of the wheels of an aeroplane before starting the engine or
engines, and a competent person shall be seated at the controls when the engine or
engines are running.
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(2) Where the pilot of an aeroplane is the only competent person present and it has
been necessary for chocks to be used, he or she shall ensure that the controls of
the aeroplane are left unattended for as short a time as possible when removing
the chocks.
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SUBPART 8: LOW-VISIBILITY OPERATIONS
91.08.1 The aerodrome operating minima shall be the aerodrome operating minima
prescribed in subpart 6, and the provisions of Regulations 91.07.5 121.07.7, 127.07.7
and 135.07.7 shall apply mutatis mutandis.
General operating rules for low-visibility operations
91.08.2(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that no Category II or III
operations are conducted with the aircraft unless -
(a) such aircraft is certificated for operations with decision heights below 200 feet or
no decision height, and equipped in accordance with this part or an equivalent
regulation accepted by the Commissioner;
(b) a suitable system for recording approach or automatic-landing success and

failure is established and maintained to monitor the overall safety of the
operation;
(c) the operations are approved by the Commissioner; and
(d) decision height is determined by means of a radio altimeter.
(2) The pilot-in-command shall not conduct low-visibility take-offs with RVR of less
than 150 m for Category A, B, C and D aeroplanes, or RVR of less than 200 m for
Category E aeroplanes, unless approved by the Commissioner.
(3) The categories referred to in sub-regulation (2), are established on the basis of
1.3 times the stall speed of the aeroplanes in the landing configuration at
maximum certificated landing mass and are as follows:
Editorial note: In the event of low-visibility procedures being in force, the Air Traffic and Navigation
Service Company will report to the Commissioner details of all aircraft attempting an approach, the RVR
visibility at the time, and the outcome of the approach attempt. This information will be used by the Civil
Aviation Authority in investigation of approaches attempted outside of the operator's equipment and
pilot-in-command limitations or approval. See also AIC 22.6.
(a) Category A - less than 91 knots indicated airspeed;
(b) Category B- 91 knots indicated airspeed or more, but less than 121 knots
indicated airspeed;
(c) Category C - 121 knots indicated airspeed or more, but less than 141 knots
indicated airspeed;
(d) Category D - 141 knots indicated airspeed or more, but less than 166 knots
indicated airspeed; and
(e) Category E- 166 knots indicated airspeed or more, but less than 211 knots
indicated airspeed.
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Aerodrome considerations for low-visibility operations
91.08.3(1) No pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall use an aerodrome for Category II

or III operations, unless the aerodrome is approved for such operations by the
appropriate authority of the State in which the aerodrome is located.
(2) The owner or operator of an aircraft intended to be used in low-visibility

operations, shall verify that low-visibility procedures have been established, and
are in force, at the aerodromes where low-visibility operations are to be
conducted.
Training and qualifications for low-visibility operations
91.08.4 The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that, prior to conducting
low-visibility take-off or Category II and III operations -
(a) each flight deck crew member –
(i.) has completed the training and checking requirements as prescribed in

Document SA-CATS-OPS 91, including simulator training in operating to
the limiting values of RVR and decision height
(ii.) appropriate to the owner's or operator's Category II and III approval; and
(iii.) is qualified in accordance with the requirements as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-OPS 91, and
(b) the flight deck crew qualification is specific to the operation and the aircraft type.
Operating procedures for low-visibility operations
91.08.5(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall establish procedures and

instructions to be used for low-visibility take-offs and Category II and III operations.
(2) The pilot-in-command shall satisfy himself or herself that -
(a) the status of the visual and non-visual facilities is sufficient prior to commencing a
low-visibility take-off or a Category II or III approach;
(b) appropriate low-visibility procedures are in force according to information

received from an air traffic service unit, before commencing a low visibility take-
off or a Category II or III approach; and
(c) the flight deck crew members are properly qualified to carry out a low visibility
take-off in an RVR of less than 150 m in a Category A, B, C and D aeroplane, or
200 m in a Category E aeroplane, or a Category II or III approach.
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Minimum equipment for low-visibility operations
91.08.6(1) The operator of an aircraft shall include in the operations manual referred
to in Regulation 121.04.2,121.04.2 or 135.04.2, as the case may be, the minimum
equipment which shall be serviceable at the commencement of a low-visibility take-
off or a Category II or 111 approach in accordance with the aircraft night manual
referred to in Regulation 91.03.2.
(2) The pilot-in-command shall satisfy himself or herself that the status of the aircraft
and the relevant airborne systems thereof, is appropriate for the specific
operation to be conducted.
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SUBPART 9: PERFORMANCE OPERATING LIMITATIONS
General provisions
91.09.1(1) The owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that the aircraft is
operated in compliance with -
(a) the terms and conditions of the certificate of airworthiness issued in respect of
such aircraft;
(b) the operating limitations, the markings and placards as prescribed by the
appropriate authority of the State of Registry; and
(c) the mass limitations prescribed in Part 21.
(2) In complying with sub-regulation (1), the owner or operator shall take account of
airframe configuration, environmental conditions and the operation of systems
which may have an effect on the performance of the aircraft, when appropriate.
(3) The operator of an aircraft engaged in a commercial air transport operation, shall
comply with the provisions of the appropriate regulations in Part 121, Part 127 or
Part 135, as the case may be.
Helicopter operating limitations
91.09.2(1) Performance Class 3 helicopters shall only be operated in conditions of

weather and light, and over such routes and diversions there from, which may permit
a safe forced landing to be executed in the event of an engine failure.
(2) The provisions of sub-regulation (1) shall mutatis mutandis apply to performance
Class 2 helicopter prior to the defined point after take-off and after the defined
point before landing.
(3) Only performance Class 1 helicopters shall be permitted to operate from elevated
heliports in built-up urban areas.
Helicopter performance classification
91.09.3 For performance purposes, helicopters are classified as follows:
(a) Class 1 helicopter - a helicopter with performance such that, in case of critical
power unit failure, the helicopter is able to land on the rejected take-off area or
safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area,depending on when the
failure occurs;
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(b) Class 2 helicopter - a helicopter with performance such that, in case of critical
power unit failure, the helicopter is able to safely continue the flight, except when
the failure occurs prior to a defined point after takeoff or after a defined point
before landing, in which case a forced landing may be required; and
(c) Class 3 helicopter - a helicopter with performance such that, in case of power unit
failure at any point in the flight profile, a forced landing has to be performed.
Aeroplane performance classification
91.09.4 For performance purposes, aeroplanes are classified as follows:
(a) Class A aeroplanes –
(i) multi-engine aeroplanes powered by turbo-propeller engines with a

maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than
nine seats or a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700
kilograms; and
(ii) multi-engine turbojet-powered aeroplanes;
(b) Class B aeroplanes- propeller-driven aeroplanes with a maximum approved

passenger seating configuration of nine seats or less, and a maximum certficated
mass of 5 700 kilograms or less;
(c) Class C aeroplanes - aeroplanes powered by two or more reciprocating engines

with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than nine
seats or a maximum certificated mass exceeding 5 700 kilograms; and
(d) Class D aeroplanes - single-engine aeroplanes.
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General
91.10.1 No owner, operator or pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall operate the

aircraft unless such aircraft is maintained and released to service in accordance with
the provisions of Part 43.
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SA CATS OPS 91
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SOUTH AFRICAN CIVIL AVIATION TECHNICAL STANDARDS RELATING
TO GENERAL OPERATING AND FLIGHT RULES
1. GENERAL
Section 22A of the Aviation Act, 1962 (as amended by section 5 of the Aviation Laws
Amendment Act, 1996) empowers the Commissioner for Civil Aviation to issue technical
standards for civil aviation on the matters which are prescribed by regulation.
2. PURPOSE
Document SA-CATS-OPS 91 contains the standards, rules, requirements, methods,

specifications, characteristics and procedures which are applicable in respect of general
operating and flight rules.
Each reference to a technical standard in this document, is a reference to the

corresponding regulation in the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, for example,
technical standard 91.02.8 refers to regulation 8 of Subpart 02 of Part 91 of the
Regulations.
The abbreviation “CAR” is used throughout this document when referring to any
regulation.
The abbreviation “TS” refers to any technical standard.
3. SCHEDULES AND NOTES
Guidelines and recommendations in support of any particular technical standard, are

contained in schedules to, and/or notes inserted throughout the technical standards.
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LIST OF TECHNICAL STANDARDS
91.01.5 INFORMATION ON EMERGENCY AND SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT

CARRIED
(1) Emergency and survival list
91.02.7 DUTIES OF PILOT-IN-COMMAND REGARDING FLIGHT PREPARATION

(1) Category II approach
(2) Category III approach
(3) Adequate and suitable aerodromes
91.03.4 AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE FLIGHT PLAN

(1) Form of an air traffic service flight plan
91.03.5 FLIGHT FOLIO

(1) Information to be contained in a flight folio
91.04.10 FLIGHT RECORDER

(1) Flight recorder specifications
(2) Parameters
91.04.13 FLIGHT DATA RECORDER

(1) Types of aircraft
91.04.16 STANDARD FIRST AID KIT

(1) Standard first aid kits
91.04.17 FIRST AID OXYGEN

(1) Supply of first aid oxygen
(2) Oxygen equipment
91.04.18 SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN IN THE CASE OF PRESSURISED

AIRCRAFT
(1) General
(2) Oxygen equipment and supply requirements
(3) Minimum requirements for supplemental oxygen for pressurised
aeroplanes
(4) Quick donning mask
91.04.19 SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN IN THE CASE OF NON-PRESSURISED

AEROPLANES
(1) General
(2) Oxygen supply requirements
(3) Minimum requirements for supplemental oxygen for non-pressurised
aeroplanes
91.04.21 HAND FIRE EXTINGUISHERS

(1) General
(2) Hand fire extinguishers
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91.04.24 MEGAPHONES
(1) Megaphones
91.04.25 EMERGENCY LIGHTING

(1) Emergency lighting
91.04.26 AUTOMATIC EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER

(1) Distress frequencies
(2) Types of ELT's
(3) Installation
91.4.28 LIFE RAFTS AND SURVIVAL RADIO EQUIPMENT FOR EXTENDED

OVER-WATER FLIGHTS
(1) Equipment
91.04.29 SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT

(1) Survival equipment
(2) Interpretation
(3) Additional survival equipment
(4) Duplicates
(5) Location
91.05.1 COMMUNICATION EQUIPMENT

(1) General
(2) Radio equipment
(3) Audio selector panel
(4) Radio equipment for operations under VFR over routes navigated by
reference to visual landmarks
(5) Communication and navigation equipment for operations under IFR, or
under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks
(6) Communication and navigation equipment using the Global Positioning
System
(7) Operational standards for inertia navigation and reference systems
91.05.2 NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT

(1) MNPS specifications
91.06.10 LIGHTS TO BE DISPLAYED BY AIRCRAFT

(1) Aircraft
(2) Aeroplane operating lights
91.06.13 SIGNALS
(1) Distress signals
(2) Urgency signals
(3) Visual signals used to warn an unauthorised aircraft flying in, or about to
enter a restricted, prohibited or danger area.
(4) Signals for aerodrome traffic
(5) Marshalling signals
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91.06.29 IDENTIFICATION AND INTERCEPTION OF AIRCRAFT
(1) Visual interception signals
91.06.33 SEMI-CIRCULAR RULE

(1) Semi-circular rule
91.07.2 MINIMUM FLIGHT ALTITUDES

(1) Minimum flight altitude formula
91.07.8 PLANNING MINIMA FOR IFR FLIGHTS

(1) Planning minima for destination alternate aerodromes
(2) Planning minima for en route alternate aerodromes (Non-ETOPS flights)
(3) Planning minima for an ETOPS en route alternate
91.07.11 MASS AND BALANCE

(1) Definitions
(2) Mass values for flight crew
(3) Mass values for passengers and baggage
91.07.12 FUEL AND OIL SUPPLY

(1) Planning criteria for aeroplanes
(2) Fuel and oil supply for helicopters
91.07.25 COMMENCEMENT AND CONTINUATION OF APPROACH

(1) Conversion of reported visibility
91.08.4 TRAINING AND QUALIFICATIONS FOR LOW-VISIBILITY OPERATIONS

(1) General
(2) Ground training
(3) Simulator training and/or flight training
(4) Conversion training requirements to conduct low-visibility take-off and
Category II and III operations
(5) Type and command experience
(6) Low-visibility take-off with RVR less than 150/200 m
(7) Recurrent training and checking - Low-visibility operations
(8) LVTO and Category 11 /III recency requirements
ANNEXURE A : GPS TRAINING SYLLABUS
ANNEXURE B : GLOBAL POSITIONING SYSTEM
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91.01.5 INFORMATION ON EMERGENCY AND SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT
CARRIED
1. Emergency and survival list
An owner or operator must have a list containing the following minimum information
regarding the emergency and survival equipment carried on board:
(1) The number, colour and type of life rafts

and pyrotechnics;
(2) details of emergency medical supplies;
(3) water supplies; and
(4) type and frequencies of emergency portable radio equipment.
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91.2.7 DUTIES OF PILOT-IN-COMMAND REGARDING FLIGHT
PREPARATION
1. Category II approach
A Category II approach is an ILS approach procedure which provides for an

approach to a decision height lower than 200 feet but not lower than 100 feet and a
RVR of not less than 350 m.
2. Category III approach
A Category III approach is divided into a -
1) Category III A approach, which is an ILS approach procedure which provides for
an approach with either a decision height lower than 100 feet or with no decision
height and with a RVR of not less than 200 m,
2) Category III B approach, which is an ILS approach procedure which provides for
an approach with either a decision height lower than 50 feet or with no decision
height and with a RVR of less than 200 m but not less than 50 m, and
3) Category III C approach which is an ILS approach procedure which provides for
an approach with no decision height and no RVR limitations.
3. Adequate and suitable aerodromes
For the purposes of CAR 91 02.7(l)(s) -
1) an adequate aerodrome is an aerodrome licensed in terms of Part 139 or is found

to be equivalent to the safety requirements prescribed in Part 139; and
2) a suitable aerodrome is an adequate aerodrome with weather reports, or

forecasts or any combination thereof, indicating that the weather conditions are at
or above operating minima, as specified in the operation specifications, the field
condition reports indicate that a safe landing can be accomplished at the time of
the intended operation and the facilities necessary to complete an approach at
such aerodrome is operational.
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91.3.4 AIR TRAFFIC SERVICE FLIGHT PLAN
1) Form of an air traffic service flight plan
(2) An air traffic service flight plan filed prior to departure must contain the following
items:
(d) Aircraft identification and transponder data;
(e) flight rules and type of flight;
(c) number and type(s) of aircraft and wake turbulence category;
(f) radio communication, navigation and approach-aid equipment;
(g) aerodrome of departure and time;
(h) flight information region boundaries and estimated times;
(i) cruising speed and flight level;
(j) route to be followed;
(k) aerodrome of destination and estimated times of arrival;
(l) alternate aerodrome(s);
(m) alerting action required;
(n) fuel endurance;
(o) total number of persons on board;
(p) emergency and survival equipment and colour of aircraft;
(q) other pertinent information; and
(r) name, postal address, telephone and telefax number of the owner or operator of
the aircraft which must be completed in field 18 of the standard flight plan form.
(2) An air traffic service flight plan filed in flight to comply with CAR 91.03.4(6)
must contain the following items:
(a) Aircraft registration;
(b) flight rules;
(c) type of aircraft;
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(d) aerodrome of departure;
(e) cruising speed and flight level;
(f) route to be followed and estimates as applicable
(g) aerodrome of destination and estimated time of arrival;
(h) alternate aerodrome for IFR flights;
(i) alerting action required;
(j) fuel endurance if alerting action as applicable;
(k) total number of persons on board; and
(l) name, post address, telephone and telefax number of the owner or operator of
the aircraft
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91.3.5 FLIGHT FOLIO
1. Information to be contained in a flight folio
1) An owner or operator must retain the following information for each flight in the
form of a flight folio:
(a) Aircraft registration;
(b) date;
(c) name(s) of flight crew member(s);
(d) duty assignment of flight crew member(s);
(e) place of departure;
(f) place of arrival;
(g) time of departure (off-block time);
(h) time of arrival (on-block time);
(i) hours of flight;
(j) nature of flight;
(k) incidents, observations (if any);
(l) signature of pilot-in-command;
(m) the current maintenance statement giving the aeroplane maintenance status of
what maintenance, scheduled or out of phase, is next due;
(n) all outstanding deferred defects which affect the operation of the aeroplane;
(o) fuel used; and
(p) fuel uplift.
(2) The owner or operator need not keep a flight folio or parts thereof, if the relevant
information is available in other documentation.
(3) The owner or operator must ensure that all entries are made concurrently and
that they are permanent in nature.
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91.04.10 FLIGHT RECORDER
1. Flight recorder specifications
All digital flight recorders must comply with one

of the following specifications as applicable:
(1) ARINC 542A
(2) ARINC 573-717
(3) ARINC 717
(4) ICAO
2. Parameters
The parameters of flight recorders are pre-

Scribed in CAR 91.04.13.
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91.4.13 FLIGHT DATA RECORDER
1. Types of aircraft
1) An aeroplane or helicopter in respect of which an individual certificate of

airworthiness was issued on or after 1 January 1989 which -
(a) Is an aeroplane with a MCM exceeding 27 000 kg;
(b) Is an aeroplane with a MCM exceeding 5 700 kg, up to and including 27 000 kg,
classified in the public transport or transport of cargo category; or
(c) is a helicopter with a MCM exceeding 7 000 kg and is engaged in international

operations,
may not be operated unless such aeroplane or helicopter is equipped with the
appropriate flight data recorder prescribed in paragraph (3).
2) A turbine-engine aeroplane with a MCM exceeding 27 000 kg of which the proto

type was certified by an appropriate authority after 30 September 1969, may not
be operated unless such aeroplane is equipped with the appropriate flight data
recorder prescribed in paragraph (3).
(3)
(a) An aeroplane referred to in paragraph (l)(a) must be equipped with a Type I flight
data recorder precribed in Table 1.
(b) An aeroplane referred to in paragraph (l)(b) must be equipped with a Type II flight
data recorder prescribed in Table 1.
(c) A helicopter referred to in paragraph (l)(c) must be equipped with a Type IV flight
data recorder prescribed in Table 2.
(d) A turbine-engine aeroplane referred to in paragraph (2) must be equipped with a

Type II flight data recorder prescribed in Table 1.
(4) A turbine-engine aeroplane with a MCM exceeding 5 700 kg which is classified

for operation in the public transport or transport of cargo category, and -
(a) in respect of which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued

before 1 January 1987, but before 1 January 1989; or
in respect of which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued

before 1 Janaury 1987, may not be operated unless such aeroplane is equipped
with a flight data recorder which records -
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(i) time
(ii) altitude
(iii) airspeed;
(iv) normal acceleration;
(v) heading; and
(vi) pitch.
(5) In the case of an aeroplane or helicopter referred to in paragraph (1), in respect

of which an individual certificate of airworthiness was first issued before 1
January 1987, the flight data recorder may be combined with the cockpit voice
recorder.
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91.4.16 STANDARD FIRST AID KIT
1. Standard first aid kits
1. The following must be included in the first aid kit:
(a) Bandage (unspecified);
(b) burns dressings (unspecified);
(c) wound dressings, large and small;
(d) adhesive tape, safety pins and scissors;
(e) small adhesive dressings;
(f) antiseptic wound cleaner;
(g) ahesive wound closures;
(h) adhesive tape;
(i) disposable resuscitation aid;
(j) simple analgesic e.g. paracetamol;
(k) antiemetic e.g. cinnarizine;
(l) nasal decongestant;
(m) first aid handbook;
(n) splints, suitable for upper and lower limbs;
(o) gastrointestinal antacid +;
(p) anti-diarrhoeal medication e.S· loperamide +;
(q) ground/air visual signal code for use by survivors;
(r) disposable glove; and
(s) a list of contents in at least 2 languages (English and one other). This should
include information on the effects and side effects of drugs carried.
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Note:
(1) All, eye irrigator whilst not required to be carried in the First Aid kit should,
where possible, be available for use on the ground.
(2) + indicates aircraft with more than 9 passenger Seats installed.
2. Unless the standard first aid kit is clearly visible, its location must be indicated by
a placard or sign, and appropriate symbols may be used to supplement the
placard or sign.
(3) An owner or oprator must ensure that the standard First Aid kit is readily
accessible for use.
(4) An aircraft must be equipped with the following number of standard First aid kits:
Number of passenger Number of standard

Seats isntalled First Aid Kits required
0 to 99 1
100 to 199 2
200 to 299 3
300 and more 4
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91.04.17 FIRST AID OXYGEN
1. Supply of first aid oxygen
1) The amount of oxygen must be calculated using an average flow rate of at least 3
litres Standard Temperure Pressure Dry (STPD)/minute/person and provided for
the entire flight after cabin depressurisation at cabin altitudes of more than 8 000
ft for at least 2% of the passengers carried, but in no case for less than one
person. There must be a sufficient number of dispensing units, but in no case
less than two, with a means for cabin crew to use the supply.
2) The amount of first aid oxygen required for a particular operation must be
determined on the basis of cabin pressure altitudes and flight duration, consistent
with the operating procedures established for each operation and route.
2. Oxygen equipment
1) The oxygen equipment provided must be Capable of generating a mass flow to

each user of at least four litres per minute, STPD Means may be provided to
decrease the flow to not less than two iitres per minute, STPD, at any altitude.
2) The dispensing units may be of a portable type.
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91.4.18SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN IN THE CASE OF PRESSURISED
AIRCRAFT
1. General
(1) An owner or operator may not operate a pressurised aircraft above 10 000 feet
unless supplemental oxygen equipment, capable of storing and dispensing the
oxygen supplies required by this technical standard, is provided.
(2) The amount of supplemental oxygen required required must be determined on

the basis of cabin altitude, flight duration and the assumption that a cabin
pressurisation failure will occur at the altitude or point of flight that is most critical
from the standpoint of oxygen need, and that, after the failure, the aircraft will
descend in accordance with emergency procedures specified in the aircraft
flight manual to a safe altitude for the route to be flown that will allow continued
safe flight and landing.
(3) Following a cabin pressurisation failure, the cabin altitude must be considered the
same as the aircraft altitude, unless it is demonstrated to the Commissioner that
no probable failure of the cabin or pressurisation system will result in a cabin
pressure altitude equal to the aircraft altitude. Under these circumstances, this
lower cabin pressure altitude may be used as a basis for determination oxygen
supply.
2. Oxygen equipment and supply requirements
(1) Flight deck crew members
(a) Each flight deck crew member on flight deck duty must be supplied with
supplemental oxygen in accordance with paragraph 3. If all occupants of flight
deck seats are supplied from the flight crew source of oxygen supply then they
must be considered as flight deck crew member.s on flight deck duty for the
purpose of oxygen supply. Flight deck seat occupants, not supplied by the flight
deck crew source, are to he considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen
supply.
(b) Flight deck crew members, not covered by subparagraph (l)(a) above, are to be
considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply.
(c) Oxygen masks must be located so as to be within the immediate reach of flight
deck crew members whilst at their assigned duty station.
(d) Oxygen masks for use by flight deck crew members in pressurised aeroplanes
operating above 25 000 ft must be a quick donning type of mask.
(2) Cabin crew members, additional flight crew members and passengers
(a) Cabin crew members and passengers must be supplied with supplemental
oxygen in accordance with paragraph 3. Cabin crew members carried in addition
to the minimum number of cabin crew members required, and additional flight
crew members, are to be considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen
supply.
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(b) When operating above 25 000 feet there must be provided sufficient spare outlets
and/or portable oxygen units are to be distributed evenly throughout the cabin to
Ensure immediate availability of oxygen to each required cabin crew member
regardless of his or her location at the time of cabin pressurisation failure.
(c) When operating above 25 000 feet there must be an oxygen dispensing unit
connected to oxygen supply terminals immediately available to each occupant,
wherever seated. The total number of dispensing units and outlets must exceed
the number of sets by at least 10%. The extra units are to be evenly distributed
throughout the cabin.
(d) The oxygen supply requirements, as specified in paragraph 3 for aircraft not
certificated to fly at altitudes above 25 000 feet, may be reduced to the entire
flight time between 10 000 feet and 14 000 feet cabin pressure altitudes for all
required cabin crew members and for at least 10% of the passengers if, at all
points along the route to be flown, the aircraft is able to descend safely within 4
minutes to a cabin pressure altitude of 14 000 feet.
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3. Minimum requirements for supplemental oxygen for pressurised aircraft
SUPPLY FOR DURATION AND CABIN PRESSURE ALTITUDE

1. All occupants of flight Entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds
deck seats on flight 13 000 feet and entire flight time when the cabin pressure
deck duty altitude exceeds 10 000 feet but does not exceed 13000
feet after the first 30 minutes at those altitudes, but in no
case less than:
i. 30 minutes for aircraft certificated to fly at altitudes not

exceeding 25 000 feet (Note 2)
ii. 2 hours for aircraft certificated to fly at altitudes more
than 25 000 feet (Note 3)
2. All required cabin crew Entire flight time when cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13
members 000 feet but not less than 30 minutes (Note 2), and entire
flight time when cabin pressure altitude is greater than 10
000 feet but does not exceed 13 000 feet after the 30
minutes at these altitudes.
3. 100% of passengers 10 minutes or the entire flight time when the cabin pressure
(Note 5) altitude exceeds 15 000 feet whichever is the greater (Note
4)
4. 30% of passengers Entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds
(Note 5) 14 000 feet but does not exceed 15 000 feet.
5. 10% of passengers Entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds
(Note 5) 10 000 feet but does not exceed 14 000 feet after the first
30 minutes at these altitudes.
Note 1:
The supply provided must take account of the cabin pressure altitude and
descent profile for the routes concerned.
Note 2:
The required minimum supply is that quantity of oxygen, necessary for a
constant rate of descent from the aircraft's maximum certificated operating
altitude to 10 000 feet in 10 minutes and followed by 20 minutes at 10 000 feet.
Note 3:
The required minimum supply is that the guantity of oxygen necessary for
a constant rate of descent from the aircraft's maximum certificated operating
altitude to 10 000 feet in 10 minutes and followed by 100 minutes at 10 000
feel. The oxygen required in CAR 91.04.20 may be included in determinining
the supply required
Note 4
The required minimum supply is that guantity of oxygen, necessary for a
constant rate of descent from the aircraft's maximum certificated operating
altitude to 15 000 feet.
Note 5:
For the purpose of this table passengers' means passenger’s actually
carried and includes infants.
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Quick donning mask
A quick donning mask is the type of mask that -
1) can be placed on the face from its ready position, properly secured, sealed, and
supplying oxygen upon demand, with one hand and within 5 seconds and will
thereafter remain in position, both hands being free;
2) can be put on without disturbing eye glasses and without delaying the flight crew
member from proceeding with assigned emergency duties;
3) after being put on, does not prevent immediate communication between the flight
deck crew members and other flight crew members over the aeroplane
intercommunication system.
4) does not inhibit radio communications.
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1. General
1) An owner or operator may not operate a nonpressurised aircraft at altitudes above

10 000 feet and up to 12 000 feet for longer than 60 minutes, or above 12 000 feet
unless supplemental oxygen equipment, capable of storing and dispensing the
oxygen supplies required, is provided.
2) The amount of supplemental oxygen for sustenance required for a particular

operation must be determined on the basis of flight altitudes and flight duration,
consistent with the operating procedures established for each operation in the
operations manual and with the routes to be flown, and with the emergency
procedures specified in the operations manual, if applicable.
2. Oxygen supply requirements
1) Flight deck crew members. Each flight deck crew member on flight deck duty must
be supplied with supplemental oxygen in accordance with paragraph 3. If all
occupants of flight deck seats are supplied from the flight crew source of oxygen
supply, then they are to be considered as flight deck crew members on flight deck
duty for the purpose of oxygen supply.
2) Cabin crew members, additional flight crew members and passengers. Cabin crew
members and passengers must be supplied with oxygen in accordance with
paragraph 3. Cabin crew members carried in addition to the minimum number of
cabin crew members required, and additional flight crew members, are to be
considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply.
3. Minimum requirements for supplemental oxygen for non-pressurised

aeroplanes
SUPPLY FOR DURATION AND PRESSURE ALTITUDE

All occupants of flight deck Entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 12 000 feet and for any period
seats on flight deck exceeding 60 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 feet but not
duty exceeding 12 000 feet.
All required cabin crew Entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 12 000 feet and for any period
members exceeding 60 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 feet but not
exceeding 12 000 feet.
100% of passengers (See Entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 12 000 feet.
Note)
10% of passengers (See Entire flight time after 60 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 feet
Note) but not exceeding 12 000 feet.
Note: For the purpose of this table ‘passengers’ means passengers actually carried and includes infants
under the Age of 2.
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1. Definitions
Any word or expression to which a meaning has been assigned in the Aviation Act,
1962, and the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, bears, when used in this technical
standard, the same meaning unless the context indicates otherwise, and -
1) "Class A cargo or baggage compartment" means a cargo or baggage

compartment in which –
(a) The presence of a fire would be easily discovered by a flight crew member while
at his or her station;and
(b) each part of the compartment is easily accessible in flight;
2) "Class B cargo or baggage compartment" means a cargo or baggage

compartment in which -
(a) there is sufficient access in flight to enable a flight crew member to effectively
reach any part of the compartment with the contents of a hand fire extinguisher;
(b) when the access provisions are being used, no hazardous quantity of smoke,
flames or extinguishing agent will enter any compartment occupied by the flight
crew or passengers; and
(c) there is a separate approved smoke detector or fire detector system to give
warning at the pilot or flight engineer station;
3) “Class E cargo compartment” means a cargo compartment used only for the
carriage of cargo and in which-
(a) there is a separate approved smoke or fire detector system to give warning at the
pilot or flight engineer station;
(b) there are means of shutting off the ventitating airflow to or within the
compartment, and the controls for these means are accessible to the flight crew
in the fligh crew compartment;
(c) there are means of excluding hazardous quantities of smoke, flames, or noxious
gases, from the flight crew compartment; and
the required flight crew emergency exits are accessible under any cargo
loading conditions.
(d) the required flight crew emergency exits are accessible under any cargo
loading conditions.
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2. Hand fire extinguishers
An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft unless hand fire extinguishers
Are provided for use in flight crew, Passenger and, as applicable, cargo
compartments and galleys in accordance with the following:
1) The type and quantity of extinguishing agent must be suitable for the kinds of
fires likely to occur in the compartment where the extinguisher is intended to be
used and, for personnel compartments, must minimise the hazard of toxic gas
concentration.
2) At least one hand fire extinguisher, containing Halon 1211

(bromochlorodifluoromethane, CBrCIF,), or equivalent as the extinguishing agent,
must be conveniently located on the flight deck for use by the flight deck crew.
3) At least one hand fire extinguisher must be located in, or readily accessible for
use in, each galley not located on the main passenger deck.
4) At least one readily accessible hand fire extinguisher must be available for use in
each Class A or Class B cargo or baggage compartment and in each Class cargo
compartment that is accessible to flight crew members in flight.
At least the following number of hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently

located in the passenger compartment(s):
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Maximum Number of
approved extinguishers
Passenger seating
Configuration
7 to 30 1
31 to 60 2
61 to 200 3
201 to 300 4
301 to 400 5
401 to 500 6
501 to 600 7
601 or more 8
When two or more extinguishers are required, they must be evenly

distributed in the passenger compartment.
6) At least one of the required fire extinguishers located in the passenger

compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating
configuration of at least 31, and not more than 60, and at least two of the
fire extinguishers located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft
with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 61 or more
must contain Halon 1211, equivalent as the extinguishing agent.
7) The number and location of hand fire extinguishers must be such as to

provide adequate availability for use, account being taken of the number
and size of the passenger compartments, the need to minimise the hazard
of toxic gas concentrations and the location of toilets, galleys, etc. These
considerations may result in the number being greater than the minimum
prescribed.
8) There must be at least one fire extinguisher suitable for both flammable
fluid and electrical equipment fires installed on the flight deck. Additional
extinguishers may be required for the protection of other compartments
accessible to the flight crew in flight. Dry chemical fire extinguishers
should not be used on the flight deck, or in any compartment not
separated by a partition from the flight deck, because of the adverse effect
on vision during discharge and, if non-conductive, interference with
electrical contacts by the chemical residues.
9) Where only one hand fire extinguisher is required in the passenger

compartments it must be located near the cabin crew member's
station, where provided.
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10)Where two or more hand fire extinguishers are required in the passenger
compartments and their location is not otherwise dictated by consideration
of subparagraph (7) above, an extinguisher must be located near each
end of the cabin with the remainder distributed through the cabin as
evenly as is practicable.
Unless an extinguisher is clearly visible, its location must be indicated by a

placard or sign, and appropriate symbols may be used to supplement such
a placard or sign.
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91.4.24 MEGAPHONES
1. Megaphones
1) An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft with a Maximum approved

passenger seating configuration of more than 60 seats and carrying one or more
passengers unless it is equipped with portable battery-powered megaphones
readily accessible for use by flight crew members during an emergency
evacuation, to the following scales:
(a) For each passenger deck:
Passenger seating Number of

configuration Megaphones required
61 to 99 1
100 or more 2
(b) For aircraft with more than one passenger deck, in all cases when the total
passenger seating configuration is more than 60 seats, at least 1 megaphone is
required.
2) When one megaphone is required, it must be readily accessible from a cabin

crew member's assigned seat. Where two or more megaphones are required,
they must be suitably distributed in the passenger cabin(s) and readily accessible
to cabin crew members assigned to direct emergency evacuations. This does
not necessarily require megaphones to be positioned such that they can be
reached by a cabin crew member when strapped in a cabin crew member's seat.
3) Unless the megaphone is clearly visible, its location must be indicated by a

placard or sign, and appropriate symbols may be used to supplement the placard
or sign.
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91.04.25 EMERGENCY LIGHTING
1. Emergency lighting
1) An owner or operator may not operate a passenger carrying aircraft which, in

accordance with its individual certificate of airworthiness, has a maximum
approved passenger seating configuration of more than nine seats unless it is
provided with an emergency lighting system having an independent power supply
to facilitate the evacuation of the aircraft. The emergency lighting system must
include -
(a) for aircraft which, in accordance with their individual certificate of airworthiness,
have a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19
seats:
(i) sources of general cabin illumination;

(ii) internal lighting in floor level emergency exit areas;
(iii) illuminated emergency exit marking and locating signs;
(iv) when flying by night, exterior emergency lighting at all overwing exits, and
at exits where descent assist means are required or aircraft for which an
application for the issuing of a type certificate was made before 1 May
1972;
(v) floor proximity emergency escape path marking system in the passenger
compartments for aircraft in respect of which a type certificate was first
issued on or after 1 January 1958;
(b) for aircraft which, in accordance with their individual certificate of airworthiness
have a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of less than 20 seats
or are certificated to TS 21.02.3(3) and (4).
(i.) Sources of general cabin illumination;

(ii.) Internal lighting in emergency exit areas;
(iii.) Illuminated emergency exit marking and locating signs;
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(c) for aircraft which in accordance with their individual certificate of airworthiness
have a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of less than 20 seats
and are not certificated to TS 21.02.3(3) and (4).
(i) Sources of general cabin illumination.
2) An owner or operator may not operate a passenger carrying aircraft which, in

accordance with its individual certificate of airworthiness, has a maximum
approved passenger seating configuration of less than ten seats, when flying by
night, unless it is provided with a source of internal cabin illumination to facilitate
the evacuation of the aircraft. The system may use dome lights or other sources
of illumination already fitted on the aircraft and which are capable of remaining
operative after the battery has been switched off.
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91.04.26 AUTOMATIC EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMITTER
Distress frequencies
An owner or operator must ensure that the automatic emergency locator transmitter
(ELT) is capable of transmittirig on the distress frequencies 121.5 MHz and 243
MHz, except that, where the whole of a proposed flight is within an area where, for
search and rescue purposes, only one of these frequencies is required, the use of
that single frequency may be specifically authorised, if so agreed by the authority
responsible for search and rescue in the area concerned.
2. Types of ELT's
Types of ELT's are defined as follows:
2.1 Automatic Fixed (ELT (AF))
This type of ELT is intended to be permanently attached to the aircraft before and
after a crash and is designed to aid search and rescue teams in locating a crash site;
2.2 Automatic Portable (ELT (AP))
This type of ELT is intended to be rigidly attached to the aircraft before a crash, but
readily removable from the aircraft after a crash. It functions as an ELT during the
crash sequence. If the EL does not employ an integral antenna, the aircraft-mounted
antenna may be disconnected and an auxiliary antenna (stores on the ELT case)
attached to the ELT. The ELT can be tethered to a survivor or a life-raft. This type of
ELT is intended to aid search and rescue teams in locating the crash site or
survivor(s);
2.3 Automatic Deployable (ELT (AD))
This type of ELT is intended to be rigidly attached to the aircraft before the crash and
automatically ejected and deployed after the crash sensor has determined that a
crash has occurred. This type of ELT should float in water and is intended to aid
search and rescue teams in locating the crash site.
3. Installation
To minimise the possibility of damage in the event of crash impact, the ELT should be
rigidly fixed to the aircraft structure as far aft as practicable with its antenna and
connections so arranged as to maximise the probability of the signal being radiated
after a crash.
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91.4.28 LIFE RAFTS AND SURVIVAL RADIO EQUIPMENT FOR
EXTENDED OVER-WATER FLIGHTS
1. Equipment
1) An owner or operator must ensure that the aircraft is equipped with sufficient life
rafts to carry all persons on board. Unless excess rafts or enough capacity are
provided, the buoyancy and seating capacity beyond the rated capacity of the
rafts must accommodate all occupants of the aircraft in the event of a loss of one
raft of the largest rated capacity.
2) The life rafts must be equipped with
(a) a survivor locator light; and
(b) life saving equipment including means of sustaining life as appropriate to the
flight to be undertaken.
3) The following should be included in each life-raft –
(a) means for maintaining buoyancy;
(b) a sea anchor;
(c) life-lines and means of attaching one life-raft to another;
(d) paddles for life-rafts with a capacity of 6 or less;
(e) means of protecting the occupants from the elements;
(f) a water resistant torch;
(g) signalling equipment to make the pyrotechnical distress signals prescribed in

CAR 91.06.13;
(h) for each 4, or fraction of 4, persons which the life-raft is designed to carry:
- 100 g glucose tablets;
- 500 mi of water. This water may be provided in durable

containers or by means of making seawater drinkable
or a combination of both; and
(i) first aid equipment.
Note: Items (g)-(i), inclusive, should be contained in a pack.
4) An aircraft must be equipped with at least two sets of survival radio quipment
capable of transmitting on 121.5 MHz and 243 MHz.
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5) Unless the life rafts and survival radio equipment are clearly visible, its location
must be indicated by a placard or sign, and appropriate symbols may be used to
supplement the placard or sign.
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91.04.29 SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT
1. Survival equipment
An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft across areas in which search
and rescue would he especially difficult unless it is equipped with the following:
1) Signalling equipment to make the pyrotechnical distress signals prescribed in

CAR 91.06.13;
2) at least one ELT; and
3) additional survival equipment for the route to be flown taking account of the
number of persons on board as prescribed in paragraph 3. Provided that the
additional equipment need not be carried when the aircraft either -
(a) remains within a distance from an area where search and rescue is not especially
difficult corresponding to:
 120 minutes at the one engine inoperative cruising speed for aircraft capable
of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit(s)
becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions; or
 30 minutes at cruising speed for all other aircraft; or
(b) for aircraft certificated to TS 21.02.3(4), no greater distance than that

corresponding to 90 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making
an emergency landing.
2. Interpretation
For the purposes of this technical standard, the expression "area in which search and
rescue would be especially difficult" means –
1) an area so designated by the State responsible for managing search and rescue;
or
2) an area which is largely uninhabited and where -
(a) the State responsible for managing search and rescue has not published any
information to confirm that search and rescue would not be especially difficult;
and
(b) the State referred to in (a) does not, as a matter of policy, designate areas as
being especially difficult for search and rescue.
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3. Additional survival equipment
1) The following additional survival equipment should be carried when required:
(a) 500 ml of water for each 4, or fraction of 4, persons on board;
(b) one knife;
(c) first aid equipment;
(d) one set of air/ground codes.
2) In addition, when polar conditions are expected, the following should be carried:
(a) a means for melting snow;
(b) one snow shovel and one ice saw;
(c) sleeping bags for use by '/ 3 of all persons on board and space blankets for the
remainder or space blankets for all passengers on board; and
(d) one Arctic/polar suit for each flight crew member carried.
4. Duplicates
If any item of equipment contained in the above list is already carried on board the
aircraft in accordance with another requirement, there is no need for this to be
duplicated.
1. Location
Unless the survival equipment is clearly visible, its location must be indicated by a
placard or sign, and appropriate symbols may be used to supplement the placard or
sign.
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91.05.1 COMMUNICATION EQUIPMENT
1. General
1) An owner or operator must ensure that a Flight does not commence unless the
communication and navigation equipment required under Subpart 5 of the CARs
Part 91 is-
(a) approved and installed in accordance with the requirements applicable to them,
including the minimum performance standard and the operational and
airworthiness requirements;
(b) installed in such manner that the failure of any single unit required for either
communication or navigation purposes, or both, will not result in the inability to
communicate andlor navigate safely on the route being flown;
(c) in an operable condition for the kind of operation being conducted except as
provided in the MEL; and
(d) so arranged that if equipment is to be used by one flight deck crew member at his
or her station during flight, it must be readily operable from his or her station.
When a single item of equipment is required to be operated by more than one
flight deck crew member, it must be installed so that the equipment is readily
operable from any station at which the equipment is required to be operated.
2) Communication and navigation equipment minimum performance standards are

those prescribed in the applicable ZA-TSO as listed in the ZA-TSO, unless
different performance standards are prescribed. Communication and navigation
equipment complying with design and performance specifications other than ZA-
TSO on the date of commencment of the CARs may remain in service, or be
installed, unless additional requirements are prescribed in Subpart 5 of the CARs
Part 91.
2. Radio equipment
1) An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with radio
required for the kind of operation being conducted.
2) Where two independent (separate and complete) radio systems are required
under Subpart 5 of the CARs Part 91, each system must have an independent
antenna installation except that, where rigidly supported non-wire antennae or
other antenna installations or equivalent reliability are used, only one antenna is
required.
3. Audio selector panel
An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft under IFR unless it is equipped
with an audio selector panel accessible to each required flight crew member.
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4. Radio equipment for operations under VFR over routes navigated by
reference to visual landmarks
An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft under VFR over routes than can be
navigated by reference to visual landmarks, unless it is equipped with the radio
equipment (communication and SSR transponder equipment) necessary under
normal operating conditions to fulfil the following:
1) Communicate with appropriate ground stations;
2) communicate with appropriate air traffic service facilities from any point in
controlled airspace within which flights are intended;
3) receive meteorological information; and
4) reply to SSR interrogations as required for the route being flown.
5. Communication and navigation equipment for operations under IFR, or

under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks
1) An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft under IFR, or under VFR over
routes that cannot be navigated by reference to visual landmarks, unless the
aircraft is equipped with communication and navigation equipment in accordance
with the requirements of air traffic services in the area(s) of operation, but not less
than –
(a) Two independent radio communication systems necessary under normal

operating conditions to communicate with an appropriate ground station from any
point on the route including diversions;
(a) one VOR receiving system, one ADF system, one DME and one Marker Beacon
receiving system;
(b) one ILS or MLS where ILS or MLS is required for approach navigation purposes;
(c) an area navigation system when area navigation is required for the route being
flown;
(e) an additional VOFI receiving system on any route, or part thereof, where
navigation is based only on VOR signals;
(f) an additional ADF system on any route, or part thereof, where navigation is based
only on NDB signals; and
(g) SSR transponder equipment as required for the route being flown.
(h) An owner or operator may operate an aircraft that is not equipped with the
navigation equipment specified in sub-paragraph (l)(e) or (f), provided that it is
equipped with alternative equipment authorised, for the route being flown, by
the Commissioner. The reliability and the accuracy of alternative equipment must
allow safe navigation for the intended route.
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6) Communication and navigation equipment using the Global Positioning
System
6.1 Definitions
1962 and the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, bears, when used in this technical
standard, the same meaning unless the context indicates otherwise,and –
"sole means navigation system" means a Navigation system that, for a given phase
of flight, must allow the aircraft to meet all four navigation system performance
requirements, accuracy, integrity, availability and continuity of service;
"primary means navigation system" means a navigation system that, for a given
operation or phase of flight, must meet accuracy and integrity requirements, but need
not meet full availability and continuity of service requirements. Safety is achieved by
either limiting flights to specific time periods, or through appropriate procedural
restrictions and operational requirements;
"supplemental means navigation system" means a navigation system that must be

used in conjunction with a sole means navigation system;
"integrity" means that quality which relates to the trust which can be placed in the
correctness of information supplied by a system. It includes the ability of a system to
provide timely warnings to users when the system should not be
used for navigation;
“receiver autonomous integrity monitoring" means a technique whereby an airborne

GPS receiver/processor autonomously monitors the integrity of the navigation signals
from GPS satellites, and where reference to RAIM occurs, it includes other approved
equivalent integrity monitoring systems.
6.2 Purpose
1) This paragraph prescribes the requirements for the use of a GPS within South
African airspace, for the purpose of -
(a) position fixing;
(b) long range navigation including operations on designated routes;
(c) deriving distance information, for en route navigation, traffic information and ATC
separation; and
(d) application of RNAV based separation.
2) GPS must not be used as a sole means navigation system or for instrument
approaches.
3) GPS may continue to be used as an en route supplemental navigation aid.
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6.3 GPS signal integrity
1) System integrity is an essential element of the approval for use of GPS as a

primary means navigation system. GPS receivers certified to TSO-C129 provide
integrity through the use of RAIM, or an approved equivalent integrity system.
When RAIM is lost or not available, the accuracy of the system cannot be
assumed to meet the required standard for navigation, or for the application of
ATC separation standards.
2) GPS integrity is also dependent on the number of operational satellites in view, or

available for use. Loss of one or more Satellites can result in degraded system
availability (see Paragraph 6.4)
3) RAIM availability is greatly improved through the use of barometric aiding.
4) Except as provided in this paragraph, GPS must not be used to fix position,
provide distance information or provide primary navigation, unless RAIM is
available.
6.4 GPS satellite constellation
1) The approvals contained in this paragraph are based on the availability of the US
DoD GPS standard positioning service (SPS) operating to its defined full
operational capability (FOC). This service does not meet the requirements of a
sole means navigation system.
2) Disruption to the GPS may result in degradation in GPS service to such a level
that some or all of the operational approvals for the IFR primary use of GPS
contained in the technical standards may need to be withdrawn. When known,
these changes or Restrictions will be advised by NOTAM.
3) Prior knowledge of RAIM availability will enable operators to use the system more
efficiently, by allowing operations to be planned around gaps in RAIM coverage
(RAIM holes). To achieve these efficiencies, appropriate RAIM prediction
capabilities should be available at dispatch locations. Flights should be planned
to ensure the safe completion of flight in the event of loss of GPS integrity.
6.5 Airworthiness requirements
The following airworthiness requirements must be satisfied.
1) GPS navigation equipment must have US FAA Technical Standard Order (TSO)
C-129 (or CAA approved equivalent) authorisation;
2) if the GPS is installed in such a way that it is integrated with the aircraft's autopilot
and navigation system, the GPS must be de-energised when ILS is selected:
(3) the aircraft must be placarded that the GPS is not approved as a sole navigation
and/or approach aid; and
(4) automatic barometric aiding function, as provided by TSO C-129, must be

connected.
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Notes:
1) Operators should be made aware that not all TSO C129 receivers will meet
the requirements for future non-precision approaches, other than 'GPS
Arrivals': and "DME or GPS Arrivals':
2) Operators should also be aware that TSO C-129 receivers may not be able
to take advantage of future enhanced GPS capabilities, such as wide area
or local area augmentation systems (WAAS orLAAS).
3) Operators should ensure that receivers are upgradable to accommodate

future augmentation which will be reguired in terminal areas and for
approaches.
6.6 Pilot training
The following pilot training requirements must be satisfied:
1) Prior to using GPS in IFR operations for any of the purposes specified in this
paragraph, the holder of a valid instrument rating must, unless exempted by the
Commissioner, have completed a course of ground training based on the syllabus
contained in Annexure A. The course must be conducted by an aviation training
organisation approved in terms of the CARs Part 141; and
2. the course must cover both general information and procedures applicable to all
types of GPS equipment, as well as the essential operating procedures for a
specific type of aircraft equipment. Pilots who have completed the course and
who wish to use a different type of GPS aircraft equipment, must ensure that they
are familiar with, and competent in, the operating procedures required for that
type of equipment, before using it in flight for any of the purposes approved in this
paragraph.
6.7 Operational requirements
The following operational requirements must be satisfied:
1) Operating instructions for GPS navigation equipment must be -
(a) carried on board; and
(b) incorporated into the operations manual for commercial operations;
2) GPS navigation equipment must be operated in accordance with the operating

instructions and any additional requirements specified in the aircraft flight manual
or flight manual supplement;
3) in addition to GPS, aircraft must be equipped with serviceable radio navigation

systems as prescribed in paragraphs 1 to 5 of this technical standard;
4) when within rated coverage of ground based navigation aids, pilots must monitor
the ground based system, and maintain track as defined by the most accurate
ground based radio navigation aid (VOR or NDB) available. If there is a
discrepancy between the GPS and ground based system information, pilots
must use the information provided by the ground based navigation system;
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5) ATS may require GPS equipped aircraft to establish on, and track with reference
to, a particular VOR radial or NDB track for the application of separation;
6) GPS must not be used as a navigation reference for flight below the MSA, except
as otherwise authorised by CAA.
6.8 Operations without RAIM
1) GPS systems normally provide three modes of operation:
(a) Navigation (Nav) Solution with RAIM,
(b) 2D or 3D Nav Solution without RAIM; and
(c) Dead Reckoning (DR), or Loss of Nav Solution.
2) ATS services, and in particular ATC separation standards, are dependent on

accurate navigation and position fixing. If RAIM is lost, the accuracy of the system
is assumed not to meet the required standard for both navigation and
application of ATC separation. Accordingly, when RAIM is lost, the following
procedures must be adopted:
(a) Aircraft tracking must be closely monitored against other on board systems;
(b) In controlled airspace, the ATS unit must be adivsed if:
(i.) RAIM is lost for periods greater than ten minutes, even if GPS is still
providing positional information;
(ii.) RAIM is not available when the ATS unit requests GPS distance, or if an
ATC clearance or requirement based on GPS distance is imposed;
(iii.) The GPS receiver is in DR mode, or experiences loss of navigation
function,for more than one minute; or
(iv.) indicated displacement from track centreline is found to exceed 2 nm., and
ATS may then adjust separation;
(c) if valid position information is lost (2D and DFi Mode), or non-RAIM operation
exceeds ten minutes, the GPS information is to be considered unreliable, and
another means of navigation should be used until RAIM is restored and the
aircraft is re-established on track;
(d) following re-establishment of RAIM, the appropriate ATS unit should be notified
of RAIM restoration, prior to using GPS information. This will allow the ATS unit to
reassess the appropriate separation standards;
(e) when advising the ATS unit of the status of GPS the phrases "RAIM FAILURE" or
"RAIM RESTORED" must be used.
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6.9 GPS distance information to air traffic service units
1) When a DME distance is requested by an ATS unit, DME derived distance

information should normally be provided. Alternatively, GPS derived distance
information may be provided to an ATS unit, Unless RAIM is currently
unavailable, and has been unavailable for the preceding ten minutes.
2) Notwithstanding subparagraph (1), if an ATS unit has issued a clearance or

requirement based upon GPS distance (eg. a requirement to reach a certain level
by a GPS distance), pilots must inform the ATS unit if RAIM is not available.
3) When the DME distance is not specifically requested, or when the provision of a
DME distance is not possible, distance information based on GPS derived
information may be provided. When providing GPS distance, transmission of
distance information must include the source and point of reference – eg 115 nm
GPS JSV, 80 nm GPS VAL NDB, 267 nm GPS ORNAD etc.
4) If the GPS distance is provided to an ATS unit, and RAIM is not currently
available, but has been available in the preceding 10 minutes, the distance report
should be suffixed “NEGATIVE RAIM” – eg 26 nm GPS BLV NEGATIVE RAIM.
5) Databases sometimes contain waypoint information which is not shown on

published AIP charts and maps. Distance information must only be provided in
relation to published waypoints unless specifically requested by an ATS unit.
6) Where GPS distance is requested or provided from an NDB, VOR, DME, or

published waypoint, the latitude and longitude of the navigation air or waypoint
must be derived from a validated database which cannot be modified by the
operator or flight crew (see paragraph 6.10).
16.10 Data integrity
1) As a significant number of data errors, in general applications, occur as a result of

manual data entry errors, navigation aid and waypoint latitude and longitude data
should be derived from a database, if available, which cannot be modified by the
operator or flight crew.
2) When data is entered manually, data entries must be cross-checked by at least

two flight crew members for accuracy and reasonableness, or, for single pilot
operations, an independent check leg. GPS computed tracks and distances
against current chart data must be made.
3) Both manually entered and database derived position and tracking information
should be checked for reasonableness (confidence check) in the following cases:
(a) Prior to each compulsory reporting point;
(b) at or prior to arrival at each en route waypoint;
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(c) at hourly intervals during area type operations when operating on established
routes; and
(d) after insertion of new data – eg creation of new flight plan.
16.11 Integrity and interference data sheets
Co-incident with the approvals contained in this technical standard, and in order to
build up the data base on GPS integrity in South Africa, a system validation period
has been established to verify operationally the availability of RAIM, and the quality
of navigation provided by GPS at other times.
Note: Operators or pilots using GPS for the puposes of this technical
standard are requested to provide GPS system information, as detailed below:
(a) Private operators : Private operators are requested to submit information

on GPS interference as it occurs.
(b) Commercial operators : Commercial operators are requested to submit

integrity reports for the first 30 flights after installation of approved GPS
equipment After this period, operators are requested to monitor and record
the performance of OPS, and provide details of the system accuracies and
reliabilities from time to time. In addition to these reports, operators are
requested to submit information on GPS interference as it occurs.
Pilots should particularly note cases of GPS degradation/interference around

aerodromes, over populated areas, near radio or television transmission
towers, and during radio or SA TCOM transmissions.
Information about the additional types of data required as detailed on the data
sheet. This data will be used to verify the predicted integrity of the GPS system
in South African airspace, and will, in part, form the basis for future extension
of GPS approvals and revisions to ATC separation minima.
Data should be entered on the System Verification Data Sheet contained in

annexure B
16.12 Flight plan notification
Pilots of aircraft equipped with GPS systems that comply with the requirements of
this technical standard, should insert the following addition to other indicators in the
air service flight plans.
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7. Operational standards for inertial navigation and reference systems
7.1 General
Inertial navigation may be used by approved operators only. For approved operators
of SA registered aircraft, inertial navigation may be used to satisfy the requirements
of the CAA. The inertial navigation system (INS) or inertial reference system (IRS)
and its installation must be certified by the State of registry as meeting the
airworthiness standards prescribed in Part 21.
Notes: 1. Airworthiness requirements will satisfied provided that..
The equipment has been installed to the manufacturer's requirements;
The installation is listed in the aircraft type certificate or has a suplemental

type certificate for the specific aircraft type;
There is a flight manual supplement covering any system limitations; and
The system is included in the operator’s maintenance program.
Outside SA (for example, in Europe and over the North Atlantic) other State
authorities might require navigation performance different to that reguired by
these standards.
7.2 Minimum performance for operational approval
1) An INS/IRS must meet the following criteria for operational approval and must be
maintained to ensure performance in accordance with the criteria:
(a) With a 95% probability to radial error rate is not to exceed 2 per hour for flights up
to 10 hours duration;
(b) with a 95% probability the crosstrack error is not to exceed  20 nm and along
track error is not to exceed  25 nm at the conclusion of a flight in excess of 10
hours.
2) The INS/IRS should have the capability for coupling to the aircraft's autopilot to
provide steering guidance.
3) The navigation system should have the capability for updating the displayed
present position.
7.3 Serviceability requirements
1) An INS/IRS may be considered as serviceable for navigation purposes until such

time as its radial error exceeds 3 + 3t nm (t being the hours of operation in the
navigation mode).
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2) Maintenance corrective action must also be taken when an INS/IRS is
consistently providing radial error rates in excess of 2 nm per hour and/or track
and along track errors in excess of the tolerances given at subparagraph (1) on
more than 5% of the sectors flown.
7.4 System performance monitoring
The operator is to monitor and record the performance of INS/IRS and may be
required to provide details of the system accuracies and reliabilities from time to time.
7.5 Navigation criteria
Navigation using INS/IRS as the primary navigation means is permitted in

accordance with the following conditions:
(a) Initial confidence check. The INS/IRS must be checked for reasonable
navigation accuracy by comparison with ground-referenced radio navigation aids
(which may include ATC radar) before proceeding outside the coverage of the
short range radio navigation aids system;
(b) maximum time.
(2) Single INS/IRS:
(a) The maximum operating time since the last ground alignment is not to exceed 10
hours.
(b) On flights of more than 5 hours, any route sector may be planned for navigation
by INS/IRS within the appropriate time limits (given in (c) below) but contingency
navigation procedures must be available in the event of an INS/IRS inflight
unserviceability which would preclude the aircraft's operation on a subsequent
route sector for which area navigation is specifled.
INS/IRS may be used as a sole source of tracking information for continuous period
not exceeding –
(i) 3 hours in controlled airspace other than oceanic control area (OCA); or
(ii) 5 hours in OCA or outside controlled airspace (OCTA).
3) Two or more INS/IRS
(a) If, during a flight, 10 hours elapsed time since the last ground alignment will be
exceeded, ground alignment is to be included in the pre-flight flight deck
procedures prior to pushback/taxi for departure.
(b) INS/IRS may be used as the sole source of tracking information for continuous
periods not exceeding -
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(i) hours in controlled airspace other than OCA;or
(ii) 12 hours in OCA or OCTA.
Notes: (1) Provided that the use of INS/IRS as the sole means of navigation
does not exceed the time limit, the aircraft may be operated for longer periods
using the INS/IRS with either manual or automatic updating.
The 5 hour limit on single INS/IRS ensures 99.74%(3 sigma) probability that
loss of satisfactory navigation capability will not occur with equipment mean
time between failures (MTBF) of approximately 1900 hours. If the
demonstrated MTBF exceeds 2000 hours, the maximum time may be
increased.
(c) Updating present position. Updating inertial present position in flight is permitted
in the following instances only:
(i) Manually:
 Overhead a VOR beacon.
 Within 25 nm of a co-located VOR/DME beacon.
 Over a visual fix when at a height not more than 5 000 ft above the
feature.
(ii) Automatically:
 Within 200 nautical miles of a DME site when the aircraft's track will
pass within 140 nm of the site.
 Within 200 nm of both DME sites for a DME/DME Fix.
 From a co-located VOR/DME beacon provided that updates from a

receding beacon are not accepted when the beacon is more than 25
nm from the aircraft.
Notes: (1) En route VOR and DME sites separated by not more than 500
metres are considered to be co-located
2) DME slant range error correction might be necessary in some

circumstances.
3) Updating a present position from a visual fix may not be planned for IFR
nights.
4) A receding beacon is one from which the distance to the aircraft is

increasing.
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5) Updating in other circumstances (for example, over a NDB) will not provide
sufficient accuracy to ensure that the INS/IRS operates within the
prescribed tolerances for navigation.
6) Because INS/IRS are essentially accurate and reliable, and ground

alignment is not accurate than in-flight updating of present postion is
usually not warranted especially during the initial few hours of operation.
However, INS/IRS errors general increase with time and are not self-
correcting. Unless the error is fairly significant (fo example, more than 4
nm or 2 nm/hr) it may be preferable to retain the error rather than manually
update.
(d) Limitation on use. Wherever track guidance is provided by radio navigation aids,
the pilot-in-command must ensure that the aircraft remains within the appropriate
track keeping tolerances of the radio navigation aids. INS/IRS is not to be used
as a primary navigation reference during IFR flight below lowest safe altitude
(LSALT).
Pre-flight and en route procedures.
The following practices are required:
(i.) New data entries are to be cross-checked between at least two flight crew
members for accuracy and reasonableness, or, for single pilot
operations, an independent check (for example of INS/IRS-computed
tracks and distances against the flight plan) must be made.
(ii.) As a minimum, position and tracking information is to be checked for

reasonableness (confidence check) in the following cases:
 Prior to each compulsory reporting point.
 At or prior to arrival at each en route way point during RNAV operatior

along RNAV routes.
 At hourly intervals during area type operation of established RNAL

routes.
 After insertion of new data.
7.6 Operating criteria
1) Two or more INS/IRS installations
For two or more INS/IRS

installations:
(a) If one INS/IRS fails or can be determined to have exceeded a radial error of 3+3t
nm, operations may continue on area navigation routes using the serviceable
system(s) in accordance with the navigation criteria applicable to the number of
INS/IRS units remaining serviceable.
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(b) If-
(i.) the difference of pure inertial readouts between each pair of INS/IRS is
less than 1.4 (3+3t) nm, no action is required.
(ii.) the difference of pure inertial readouts between any pair of INS/IRS
exceeds (3+3t) nm and it is possible to confirm that one INS/IRS has an
excessive drift error, that system should be disregarded and/or isolated
from the other systems) and the apparently serviceable system(s) should
be used for navigation;
Note: This check and its isolation action are unnecessary if a multiple
INS/IRS installation is protected by a serviceabilily self-test algorithm
(iii) if neither condition (i) or (ii) can be satisfied, another means of

navigation should be used, and the pilot-in-command must advise the
appropriate ATS unit.
2) Single INS/IRS installations
For single INS/IRS installations, if the INS/IRS fails or exceeds the serviceability
tolerance:
(a) The pilot-in-command must advise the appropriate ATS unit of INS/IRS failure;
(b) another means of navigation is to be used; and
(c) the aircraft is not to begin a route sector for which area navigation is specified
unless it is equipped with an alternative, serviceable, approved area navigation
system.
3) Autopilot coupling
Autopilot coupling to the INS/IRS should be used, whenever practicable, if this

feature is available. If for any reason the aircraft is flown without Autopilot coupling,
the aircraft is to be flown within an indicated cross-track tolerance of ± 2 nm. In
controlled airspace the ATS unit is to be advised if this tolerance is exceeded.
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91.05.2 NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT
7.7 Navigation tolerances
1) The maximum drift rate expected from INS/IRS is 2 nm per hour (2 sigma
probability). For the purposes of navigation and determining aircraft separation,
the 3 sigma figure of 3 nm is allowed so that the maximum radial error with 3
sigma confidence equals 3+3t nm where t equals the time in hours since the
INS/IRS was switched into the navigation mode.
2) DME and other inputs can automatically influence the INS/IRS to improve the
accuracy of its computed position. The pilot may also insert known position
coordinates to update the INS/IRS. Therefore, if the system is updated with
known position information the position error is reduced and the INS/IRS can be
assumed to operate within the radial error tolerance of 3+3T nm where T is the
time (hours elapsed since the last position update).
3) The accuracy of the data used for updating must be considered. The navigation
aid positions used for updating inertial present position are accurate to within 01
nm. However, the aircraft in flight cannot be "fixed" to the same order of
magnitude. The accuracy of the position fix is taken as ± 3 nm radial error.
4) Because the INS/IRS error, the navigation aid position accuracy and the position
fix errors are independent of each other, the total radial error is determined by the
root-sum-square method:
____________________
Total error = (3 + 3T) ² + 0.1² + 3² nm
5) The effect of navigation aid position accuracy on the total error is negligible,
and so,
______________
Total error = (3 = 3T)² + 3² nm
_____________
= (1 + T) ² + 1nm
Substituting values for T
at time of update, total

radial error = 4.2 nm
after 1 hour = 6.7 nm
after 2 hours = 9.5 nm
after 3 hours =12.4 nm
after 4 hours =15.3 nm
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6) Dual installation
If two INS/IRS are installed and the aircraft is navigated by averaging, the
inertial present position formula for the total radial error given in subparagraph (4) is
modified by multiplying by.
1
2 (= 0.7)
7) Triple installations
If three INS/IRS are installed and "triple mix" is used, the total radial error is further
reduced. For simplicity for navigation and aircraft separation the tolerances
applicable to dual installations apply and the third system provides redundancy.
1. MNPS specifications
An owner or operator may not operate an aircraft in MNPS airspace unless it

is equipped with navigation equipment that complies with minimum navigation
performance specifications prescribed in ICAO Doc 7030 in the form of
Regional Supplementary Procedures.
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91.06.10 LIGHTS TO BE DISPLAYED BY AIRCRAFT
1. Aircraft
At night all aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome

must display the lights prescribed in paragraph 2, unless otherwise instructed by
the Commissioner or by an air traffic service unit: Provided that such aircraft must
display no other lights if these are likely to be mistaken for the lights prescribed in
paragraph 2.
2. Aeroplane operating lights
2.1 Definitions
standard, the same meaning unless the context indicates otherwise,
and –
"angles of coverage" means -
1) Angle of coverage A is formed by two intersecting vertical planes making angles

of 70 degrees to the right and 70 degrees to the left respectively, looking aft along
the longitudinal axis to a vertical plane passing through the longitudinal axis.
2) Angle of coverage F is formed by two intersecting vertical planes making angles

of 110 degrees to the right and 110 degrees to the left respectively, looking
forward along the longitudinal axis to a vertical plane passing through the
longitudinal axis.
3) Angle of coverage L is formed by two intersecting vertical planes one parallel to

the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, and the other 110 degrees to the right of
the first, when looking forward along the longitudinal axis.
4) Angle of coverage R is formed by two intersecting vertical planes one parallel to

the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, and the other 110 degrees to the right of
the first, when looking forward along the longitudinal axis.
"horizontal plane" means the plane containing the longitudinal axis and
perpendicular to the plane of symmetry of the aeroplane;
"longitudinal axis of the aeroplane" means a selected axis parallel to the direction
of flight at a normal cruising speed, and passing through the centre of gravity of
the aeroplane;
"making way" means that an aeroplane on the surface of the water is under way
and has a velocity relative to the water;
"under command" means that an aeroplane on the surface of the water is able to
execute manoeuvres as required by the International Regulations for Preventing
Collisions at Sea for the purpose of avoiding other vessels;
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"under way" means that an aeroplane on the surface of the water is not aground
or moored to the ground or to any fixed object on the land or in the water;
"vertical planes" means planes perpendicular to the horizontal plane; and
“visible" means visible on a dark night with a clear atmosphere.
2.2 Navigation lights to be displayed in the air
As illustrated in Figure 1, the following unobstructed navigation lights must be

displayed:
1) A red light projected above and below the plane through angle of coverage L;
2) a green light projected above and below the horizontal plane through angle of
coverage R;
3) a white light projected above and below the horizontal plane rearward through
angle of coverage A.
Figure 1
2.2 Lights to be displayed on the water
1) General
The International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea require different lights
to be displayed in each of the following circumstances:
(i) when under way;

(ii) when towing another vessel or aeroplane
(iii) when being towed;
(iv) when not under command and not making way;
(v) when making way but not under command;
(vi) when at anchor;
(vii) when aground.
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(b) The lights required by aeroplanes in each case are described below.
2) When under way
(a) As illustrated in Figure 2, the following appearing as steady unobstructed

lights:
(i) a red light projected above and below the plane through angle of coverage
L;
(ii) a green light projected above and below the horizontal plane through
angle of coverage R;
(iii) a white light projected above and below the horizontal plane rearward
through angle of coverage A; and
(iv) a white light projected through angle of coverage F.
(b) The lights described in the first three items should be visible at a distance of at
least 3.7 km (2 nm) The light described in the fourth item should be visible at a
distance of 9.3 km (5 nm) when fitted to an aeroplane of 20 m or more in length
or visible at a distance of 5.6 km (3 nm) when fitted to an aeroplane of less than
20 m in length.
3. When towing another vessel or aeroplane
Figure 2
As illustrated in Figure 3, the following appearing as steady, unobstructed lights:
The lights described in subparagraph (2);
(b) a second light having the same characteristics as the light described in the
fourth item of subparagraph (2) and mounted in a vertical line at least 2 m above
or below it; and
(c) a yellow light having otherwise the same characteristics as the light described in
the third item of subparagraph (2) and mounted in a vertical line at least 2 m
above it.
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Figure 3
4) When being towed
The lights described in the first three items of subparagraph (2) appearing as
steady unobstructed lights.
5) When not under command and not making way
As illustrated in Figure 4, two steady red lights placed where they can best be
Seen, one vertically over the other and not less than 1 m apart, and of such a
character as to be visible all around the horizon at a distance of at least 3,7 km
(2nm)
6) When making way but not under command
As illustrated in Figure 5, the lights described in subparagraph (5) and the first
three items of subparagraph (2)
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1 metre at least
Figure 5
Note: The display of lights prescribed in subparagraph (5) and (6) above is to
be taken by other aircraft as signals that the aeroplane showing them it is not
under command cannot therefore get out of the way. They are not the signals
of an aeroplane in distress and requiring assistance
7) When at anchor
(a) If less than 50 m in length, where it can best be seen, a steady white light (Figure
6), visible all around the horizon at a distance of at least 3.7 km (2 nm)
Figure 6
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(b) If 50 m or more in length, where they can best be seen, a steady white forward
light and a steady white rear light (Figure 7) both visible all around the horizon at
a distance of at least 5.6 km (3 nm)
Figure 7
(c) If 50 m or more in span a steady white light on each side (Figures 8 and 9) to
indicate the maximum span and visible, so far as practicable, all around the
horizon at a distance of at least 1.9 km (1 nm)
Figure 8
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Less than 50 metres in length; 50 metres more in span
Figure 9
8) When aground
The lights prescribed in paragraph (7) and in addition two steady red lights in vertical
line, at least 1 m apart so placed as to be visible all around the horizon.
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91.06.13 SIGNALS
1. Distress signals
1) The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that grave and
imminent danger threatens, and immediate assistance is requested:
(a) A signal made by radiotelegraphy or by any other signalling method consisting of

the group SOS (. .. _ _ _... in the Morse Code);
(b) a signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MADAY;
2) Alarm signals for actuating radiotelegraph and radiotelephone auto-alarm

systems
(a) 3268 The radiotelegraph alarm signal consists of a series of twelve dashes sent
in one minute, the duration of each dash being four seconds and the duration of
the interval between consecutive dashes one second. It may be transmitted by
hand but its transmission by means of an automatic instrument is recommended.
(b) 3270 The radiotelephone alarm signal consists of two substantially sinusoidal
audio frequency tones transmitted alternately. One tone has a frequency of 2 200
Hz and the other a frequency of 1 300 Hz, the duration of each tone being 250
milliseconds.
(c) 3271 The radiotelephone alarm signal, when generated by automatic means,
must be sent continuously for a period of at least thirty seconds but not exceeding
one minute; when generated by other means, the signal must be sent as
continuously as practicable over a period of approximately one minute.
2. Urgency signals
1) The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that an aircraft
wishes to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring
immediate assistance:
(a) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights;
(b) The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights in such a manner as to
be distinct from flashing navigation lights.
2) The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that an aircraft
has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or
other vehicle, or of some person on board within sight:
(a) A signal made by radiotelegraphy or by any other signaling method consisting of

the group XXX;
(b) a signal sent by radiotelephone consisting of the spoken words PAN, PAN
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3) None of the provisions in this paragraph prevent the use, by an aircraft in
distress, of any means at its disposal to attract attention, make known its position
and obtain help.
3) None of the provisions in this paragraph prevent the use, by an aircraft in distress
of any means at its disposal to attract attention, make known its position and
obtain help.
3. Visual signals used to warn an unauthorised aircraft flying in, or about to

enter a restricted, prohibited or danger area
By day and by night, a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of
1C seconds, each showing, on bursting, red and green lights or stars will indicate to
an unauthorised aircraft that it is flying in or about to enter a restricted, prohibited or
danger area, and that the aircraft is to take such remedial action as may be
necessary.
4. Signals for aerodrome traffic
(1) Light and pyrotechnic signals
(a) Instructions
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Light From aerodrome control to
Aircraft in flight Aircraft on the ground
Steady Cleared to land Cleared for take-off
{
green
Steady red Give way to other aircraft and Stop

Directed continue circling
towards
Aircraft Series of Return for landing* Cleared to taxi
concerned green
flashes
{
(see figure Series of Aerodrome unsafe, do not land Taxi clear of landing area in use
1.1) red flashes
Series of Land at this aerodrome and Return to starting point on the

white proceed to apron* aerodrome
flashes
Steady red Notwithstanding any previous

on final instructions, do not land for the
approach time being
* Clearance to land and to taxi will be given in due course
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(c) Acknowledgement by aircraft
(i) When in flight:
 During the hours of daylight:
by rocking the aircraft's wings;
Note: This signal should not be expected on the base and final legs of the
approach
 During the hours of darkness:
by flashing on and off twice the aircraft's landing lights, or if not so

equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights;
(ii) when on ground:
 During the hours of daylight:
by moving the aircraft's ailerons or rudder;
 during the hours of darkness:
by flashing on and off twice the aircraft's landing lights or, if not so
equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation lights.
Visual ground signals
(a) Prohibition of landing
A horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals (Figure 1.2) when
displayed in a signal area indicates that landings are prohibited and that the
prohibition is liable to be prolonged.
Figure 1.2
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(b) Need for special precautions while approaching or landing
A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal (Figure 1.3) when
displayed in a signal area indicates that owing to the bad state of the
manoeuvring area, or for any other reason, special precautions must be observed
in approaching to land or in landing.
Figure 1.3
(c) Use of runways and taxiways
 A horizontal white dumb-bell (Figure 1.4) when displayed in a signal area

indicates that aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and
taxiways only.
Taxi on runways and tawiways only
Figure 1.4
 The same horizontal white dumb-bell as in Figure 1.4 but with a black bar
placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular portion of the dumb-bell
(Figure 1.5) when displayed in a signal area indicates that aircraft are
required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not
be confined to runways and taxi-ways.
Figure 1.5
(d) Closed runways or taxiways
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Crosses of a single contrasting colour, yellow or white (Figure 1.6), displayed
horizontally on runways and taxiways or parts thereof indicate an area unfit for
movement or aircraft
(e) Directions for landing or take-off
 A horizontal white or orange landing T (figure 1.7) indicates the direction to

be used by aircraft for landing and take-off, which must be in a direction
parallel to the shaft of the T towards the cross arm.
Note: When used at night, the landing T is either illuminated or outlined in white
coloured lights
 A set of two digits (Figure 1.8) displayed vertically at or near the aerodrome control
tower indicates to aircraft on the manoeuvring area the direction for take-off,
expressed in units of 10 degrees to the nearest 10 degrees of the magnetic compass.
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(e) When displayed in a signal aarea, or horizontally at the end of the runway or stipr
in use, a righthand arrow of conspicuous colour (Figure 1.9) indicates that turns
are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off.
(g) Air traffic services reporting office
The letter C displayed vertically in black against a yellow background (Figure

1.10) indicates the location of the air traffic services reporting office.
Glider flights in operation
A double white cross displayed horizontally (figure 1.11) in the signal area indicates that
the aerodrome is being used by gliders and the glider flights are being performed.
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Agricultural flights in operation. A figure A (figure 1.12) in the signal. Area indicates that
the aerodrome is being used for agricultural flights.
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Marshalling signals
From a signalman to an aircraft Prior to using the following signals, the signalman
must ascertain that the area within which an aircraft is to be guided is clear of objects
which the aircraft, in complying with this technical standard, might otherwise strike.
Note: Figure 1.12 The design of many aircraft is such that the, path of the
wing tips, engines and other extremities cannot always be monitored is
usually from the flight deck while the aircraft is being manoeuvred on the
ground.
Figure 1.12
Proceed under further guidance by signalman
Signalman directs pilot if traffic conditions on

aerodrome require this action
This bay
Arms above head in a vertical position with the

palms facing inward
Proceed to next signalman
Right or left arm down, other arm moved across the body
And extended to indicate direction of next signalman.
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Move ahead
Arms a little aside, palms facing backward and repeatedly

Moved upward-backward from shoulder height.
Turn
a) Turn to your left; right arm downward, left arm

Repeatedly moved upward-backward. Speed
Of arm movement indicating rate of turn.
b) Turn to your right: left arm downward, right arm

Repeatedly moved upward-backward. Speed
Of arm movement indicating rate of turn.
Stop
Arms repeatedly crossed above head (the rapidity of the

Arm movement should be related to the urgency of the
Stop, i.e. the faster the movement the quicker the stop).
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7. Brakes
Engage brakes: raise arm and hand, with fingers

Extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist.
(b) Release brakes : raise arm, with fist clenched,

Horizontally in front of body, then extend fingers.
8. Chocks
Chocks inserted: arms down, palms facing

Inward, move arms from extended position
Inwards
Chocks removed: arms down, palms facing

Outwards, move arms outwards
9. Starting engine(s)
Left hand overhead with appropriate number of fingers

Extended, to indicate the number of the engine to be
Started, and circular motion of right hand at head level.
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10. Cut engines
Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand across

Throat, palm downward. The hand is moved sideways with
The arm remaining bent.
11. Slow down
Arms down with palms toward ground, then moved up

And down several times.
12. Slow down engine(s) on indicated side
Arms down with palms toward ground, then either right or

Left hand waved up and down indicating the left or right
Side engine(s) respectively should be slowed down.
13. Move back
Arms by sides, palms facing forward, swept forward and

upward repeatedly to shoulder height.
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14. Turns while backing
For tail to starboard: point left arm down, and right

Arm brought from overhead, vertical position to
Horizontal forward position, repeating right arm
Movement.
For tail to port: point right arm down, and left arm
Brought from overhead, vertical position to horizontal
Forward position, repeating left arm movement.
15. All clear
Right arm raised at elbow with thumb erect.
Notes:
1) These signals are designed for use by the signalman, with hands
illuminated as necessary to facilitate observation by the pilot, and facing
the aircraft in a position:
(a) For fixed-wing aircraft, forward of the left-wing tip within view of the pilot;
2) The meaning of the relevant signals remains the same if bats, illuminated
wands or torch lights are held.
3) The aircraft engines are numbered, for the signalman facing the aircraft,
from right to left (i.e. No 1 engine being the port outer engine).
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2) From the pilot of an aircraft to a signalman
(a) Brakes
Note: The moment the fist is clenched or the fingers are extended indicates,
respectively, the moment of brake engagement or release.
 Brakes engaged
Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of face, then
clench fist.
 Brakes released
Raise arm, with fist clenched, horizontally in

front of face, then extend fingers.
(b) Chocks
 Insert chocks
Arms extended, palms outwards, move hands inwards to cross in front of

face.
 Remove chocks
Hands crossed in front of face, palms outwards, move arms outwards.
(c) Ready to start engine
Raise the appropriate number of fingers on one hand indicating the number of the
engine to be started.
Note:
1) 1. These signals are designed for use by a pilot in, the cockpit with hands
plainly visible to the signalman, and illuminated as necessary to facilitate
observation by the signalman.
2) The aircraft engines are numbered in relation to the signalman facing the
aircraft, from right to left (i.e. No. 1 engine being the port outer engine).
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91.06.29 IDENTIFICATION AND INTERCEPTION OF AIRCRAFT
Signal by intercepting aircraft Meaning Response by intercepted aircraft

Day First series
(a) Rocking wings while in front and Follow me away from a prohibited Rocking wings
to left of intercepted aircraft area
(b) Rocking wings while in front and Follow me to a landing terrain Rocking wings
to right of intercepted aircraft
(c) When (a) and (b) have been Follow intercepting aircraft
acknowledged, making a slow -
level turn into desired course
Night
(a) As for day, and in addition Follow me away from a prohibited Rocking wings if considered safe and
flashing navigation and, if or restricted area showing steady landing light if carried.
available, landing lights at
irregular intervals
Rocking wings if considered safe and
(b) As for day, and in addition Follow me to a landing terrain showing steady landing light if carried
flashing navigation and, if
available landing lights at
irregular intervals Follow intercepting aircraft
-
(c) As for day, and in addition
flashing navigation and, if
available, landing lights at
irregular intervals when (a) and
(b) have been acknowledged.
Weather conditions or the terrain may require the intercepting aircraft to take up a position in front and to the right of
the intercepted aircraft to complete the successive turn to the right.
Signal by intercepting aircraft Meaning Response by intercepted aircraft

Day or night Second series
An abrupt break away of 90° or more You may proceed Rocking wings if considered safe, at night
without crossing the line of flight of the showing steady landing light if carried
intercepted aircraft
Day Third series
Circling landing area, lowering landing Land on this landing area Same as interceptor and proceed to land
gear and overflying the direction of (where applicable) if considered safe, at
landing night showing steady landing light if
carried
Night
As for day and showing steady - -

landing light
Day Fourth series
First of Second series dependent on Landing terrain unsuitable Rocking wings (if fixed landing gear) or
what further action intercepting aircraft raising gear (whichever applicable) while
requires to be taken either: passing over landing terrain at a height
“follow me”, or exceeding 1 000 feet but not exceeding 2
“You may proceed”. 000 feet.
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The visual signals must be used as follows:
1) When an aircraft has been intercepted for identification only, the intercepting aircraft
will use the second series to show that the aircraft may proceed;
2) when an aircraft is to be led away from a prohibited or restricted area the appropriate
part of the first series will be used and the second series when the purpose has been
achieved and the aircraft is released;
3) when an aircraft is required to land, the appropriate part of the first series will initially
be used, followed by the third series when in the vicinity of the designated landing
area;
4) when the pilot of the intercepted aircraft considers the landing area designated as
unsuitable for his or her aircraft type, he or she will use the fourth series to indicate
this and new instructions will then be given by the intercepting aircraft;
5) when an intercepted aircraft is in distress the distress signals should be used, where
practical.
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91.06.33 SEMI-CIRCULAR RULE
MAGNETIC TRACK
Flight Level
From 000° to 179° From 180° to 359°
IFR VFR IFR VFR

30 15 20 25
50 35 40 45
70 55 60 65
90 75 80 85
110 95 100 105
130 115 120 125
150 135 140 145
170 155 160 165
190 175 180 185
210 195 200
230 220
250 240
270 260
290 280
330 310
370 350
410 390
450 430
490 470
etc. 510
etc
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91.07.2 MINIMUM FLIGHT ALTITUDES
1. Minimum flight altitude formula
An operator must use the following method to calculate minimum flight altitudes:
MORA is a minimum flight altitude computed from current ONC or WAC charts.
1) Two types of MORAs are charted which are:
(a) Route MORAs e.g. 9800a; and
(b) Grid MORAs e.g. 98.
2) Route MORA values are computed on the basis of an area extending 10 nm to either
side of route centreline and including a 10 nm radius beyond the radio fix/reporting
point or mileage break defining the route segment.
3) MORA values clear all terrain and manmade obstacles by 1 000 feet in areas where
the highest terrain elevation or obstacles are up to 5 000 feet. A clearance of 2 000
feet is provided above all terrain or obstacles which are 5 001 feet and above.
4) A grid MORA is an altitude computed by the formula and the values are shown within
each grid formed by charted lines of altitude and longitude. Figures are shown in
thousands and hundreds of feet (omitting the last two digits so as to avoid chart
congestion). Values followed by ± are believed not to exceed the altitudes shown.
The same clearance criteria as explained in subparagraph (3) above apply.
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91.07.8 PLANNING MINIMA FOR IFR FLIGHTS
1. Planning minima for destination alternate

aerodromes
1) An owner or operator may only select the destination aerodrome and/or

destination alternates when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any
combination thereof, indicate that, during a period commencing 1 hour before
and ending 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, the
weather conditions will be at or above the applicable planning minima as follows:
Table 1 : Planning minima – En route and destination alternates
Type of approach Planning minima

Cat II and III Cat I minima with RVR in accordance with TS 121.07.7
Cat I Non-precision minima and ceiling must be above the MDH
Non-precision Non-precision minima plus 200 ft added to MDH and 1000m added to
RVR/Visibility. Ceiling must be above the MDH + 200 ft.
Circling Circling
Note: Only operators approved for Cat II and III operations must use planning minima based on a Cat II and
III approach in Table 1.
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2. Planning minima for en route alternate aerodromes (Non-ETOPS Flights)
An owner or operator may not select an aerodrome as an en-route alternate

aerodrome unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination
thereof, indicate that, during a period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour
after the expected time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at
or above the planning minima prescribed in Table 1 above.
(a) Planning minima for the destination aerodrome
(i) RVR/visibility must be in accordance with that specified in CAT’s OPS

135.07.7; and
(ii) For a non-precision approach or a circling approach, the ceiling at or

above MDH;
(b) Planning minima for destination alternate aerodrome must be in accordance with
Table 1.
3) Planning minima for an ETOPS en route alternate
An owner or operator may not select an aerodrome as an ETOPS en-route alternate

aerodrome unless the appropriate wether eports or forecasts, or any combination
thereof, indicate that, during a period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour
after the expected time of arrival at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at
or above the planning minima prescribed in Table 2 below, and in accordance with
the operator's
ETOPS approval.
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Table 2 : Planning minima – ETOPS
Planning minima
(RVR/visibility required and ceiling if applicable)
Aerodrome with
Type of Approach At least 2 separate ap- At least 2 separate ap- At least 1 approach
proach procedures proach procedures procedure based on 1
based on 2 separate Based on 2 separate aid
Aids serving 2 separate Aids serving 1 runway Serving 1 runway
runways
Precision approach Precision approach Non-precision approach minima
Cat II, III (ILS MLS) Cat I minima
Precision approach Non-precision approach Circling minima or, if not available, non-precision
Cat I (ILS MLS) Minima Approach minima plus 200 ft / 1000m
Non-precision approach The lower of non- The higher of circling minima or non-precision
Precision approach Approach minima plus 200 ft / 1000 m
Minima plus 200 ft /
1000 m or circling
Minima
Circling approach Circling minima
Notes:
1) "Tempo" and "lnter" conditions published in the forecast are not limiting
unless these conditions are forecast to be below published planning
minima. Where a condition is forecast as "Prob”, provided the probability
percent factor is less than 40%, it is not limiting. However the pilot-in-
command will be expected to exercise good aviation /judgement in
assessing the overall "Prob" conditions.
2) Runways on the same aerodrome are considered to be separate runways

when
(a) they are separate landing surfaces which may overlay or cross such that if
one of the runways is blocked, it will not prevent the planned type of
operations on the other runway; and
(b) each of the landing surfaces has a separate approach procedure based on
a separate aid.
3) Only operators approved for Category II or III operations may use the
planning minima applicable to categories II and III in Table 2 and then only
If the aeroplane is certificated for a one engine inoperative Category II or III
approach as applicable.
4) The JAA Information Leaflet No. 20 IL20, may be used by an operator to

conduct an ETOPS operation, together with the ETOPS alternate weather
criteria determined in this technical standard.
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91.7.11 MASS AND BALANCE
1. Definitions
standard, the same meaning unless the context indicates otherwise,and –
"maximum structural landing mass" means the maximum permissible total aircraft
mass upon landing under normal circumstances;
"maximum structural take off mass" means the maximum permissible total aircraft
mass at the start of the take-off run or lift-off; and
"maximum zero fuel mass" means the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft
with no usable fuel. The mass of the fuel contained in particular tanks must be
included in the zero fuel mass when it is explicitly mentioned in the aircraft flight
manual limitations;
"traffic load" means the total mass of passengers, baggage and cargo, including
any non-revenue load.
2. Mass values for flight crew
1) An owner or operator must use the following mass values to determine the dry
operating mass:
(a) Actual masses including any flight crew baggage; or
(b) standard masses, including hand baggage, of 85 kg for flight deck crew members
and 75 kg for cabin crew members.
2) An owner or operator must correct the dry operating mass to account for any
additional baggage. The position of this additional baggage must be accounted
for when establishing the centre of gravity of the aircraft.
3. Mass values for passengers and baggage
1) An owner or operator must compute the mass of passengers and checked

baggage using either the actual weighed mass of each person and the actual
weighed mass of baggage or the standard mass values specified in Tables 1 to 3
below except where the number of passenger seats available is less than 6,
when the passenger mass may be established by a verbal statement by or on
behalf of each passenger or by estimation. The procedure specifying when to
select actual or standard masses must be included in the operations manual.
2) If determining the actual mass by weighing, an owner or operator must ensure

that passengers' personal belongings and hand baggage are included. Such
weighing must be conducted immediately prior to boarding and at an adjacent
location.
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3) If determining the mass of passengers using standards mass values, the
standard mass values in Tables 1 and 2 below must be used. The standard
masses include hand baggage and the mass of any infant below 2 years of age
carried by an adult on one passenger seat. Infants occupying separate passenger
seats are to be considered as children for the purpose of this paragraph.
4) Mass values for passengers - 20 seats or more
(a) Where the total number of passenger seats available on an aircraft is 20 or

more, the standard masses of male and female in Table 1 are applicable. As an
alternative, in cases where the total number of passenger seats available is 30 or
more, the 'All Adult' mass values in Table 1 are applicable.
(b) For the purpose of Table 1, holiday charter means a charter flight solely intended
as an element of a holiday travel package.
Table 1
Passenger 20 and more 30 and

seats more
Male Female All adult
All flights
except
holiday 88 kg 70 kg 84 kg
charters
Holiday
Charters 83 kg 69 kg 76 kg
Children 35 kg 35 kg 35 kg
5) Mass values for passengers – 19 seats or less
Passenger
seats 1–5 6–9 10 - 19
Male 104 kg 96 kg 92 kg
Female 86 kg 78 kg 74 kg
Children 35 kg 35 kg 35 kg
(a) Where the total number of passenger seats available on an aircraft is 19 or less,
the standard masses in Table 2 are applicable.
(b) On flights where no hand baggage is carried in the cabin or where hand baggage
is accounted for separately, 6 kg may be deducted from the above male and
female masses. Articles such as an overcoat, an umbrella, a small handbag or
purse, reading material or a small camera are not considered as hand baggage
for the purpose of this paragraph.
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6) Mass values for baggage
Where the total number of passenger seats available on the aircraft is 20 or more,
the standard mass values given in Table 3 are applicable for each piece of checked
baggage. For aircraft with 19 passenger seats or less, the actual mass of the
checked baggage, determined by weighing, must be used
Table 3 : 20 or more seats
Type of flight Baggage

standard
Mass
Domestic 11 kg
International 15 kg
7) If an owner or operator wishes to use standard mass values other than those
contained in Tables 1 to 3 above, he or she must advise the Commissioner of his
or her reasons and gain such approval in advance. After verification and approval
by the Commissioner of the results of the weighing survey, the revised standard
mass values are only applicable to that operator. The revised standard mass
values can only be used in circumstances consistent with those under which the
survey was conducted. Where revised standard masses exceed those in Tables
1 to 3, then such higher values must be used.
8) On any flight identified as carrying a significant number of passengers whose

masses, including hand baggage, are expected to exceed the standard
passenger mass, an owner or operator must determine the actual mass of such
passengers by weighing or by adding an adequate mass increment.
9) If standard mass values for checked baggage are used and a significant number
of passengers check-in baggage that is expected to exceed the standard
baggage mass, an owner or operator must determine the actual mass of such
baggage by weighing or by adding an adequate mass increment.
10) An owner or operator must ensure that a pilot-in-command is advised when a non
standard method has been used for determining the mass of the load and that
this method is stated in the load and trim sheet.
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91.07.12 FUEL AND OIL SUPPLY
1. Planning criteria for aeroplanes
An owner or operator must base the fuel policy, including calculation of the amount of
fuel to be carried, by an aeroplane on the following planning criteria:
The amount of –
taxi fuel, which must not be less than the amount, expected to be used prior to take-
off. Local conditions at the departure aerodrome and APU consumption must be
taken into account;
Trip fuel, which must include
(i) fuel for take-off and climb from aerodrome elevation to initial cruising
level/altitude, taking into account the expected departure routing;
(ii) fuel from top of climb to top of descent, including any step
climb/descent;
(iii) fuel from top of descent to the point where the approach is initiated,
taking into account the expected arrival procedure; and
(iv) fuel for approach and landing at the destination aerodrome;
(c) contingency fuel, which must be the higher of item (i) or (II) below:
(i) Either:
 5% of the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight replanning, trip fuel
for the remainder of the flight; or
 not less than 3% of the planned trip fuel or, in the event of in-flight
replanning, trip fuel for the remainder of the flight, subject to the
approval of the Commissioner, provided that an en route alternate is
available; or
 an amount of fuel sufficient for 20 minutes flying time based upon the
planned trip fuel consumption: Provided that the owner or operator has
established a fuel consumption monitoring programme for individual
aeroplanes and uses valid data determined by means of such a
programme for fuel calculation; or
 an amount of fuel of not less than that which would be required to fly for
15 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 feet (450 m) above the destination
aerodrome in standard conditions, when an owner or operator has
established a programme, approved by the Commissioner, to monitor the
fuel consumption on each individual route /aeroplane combination and
uses this data for a statistical analysis to calculate contingency fuel for
that route/aeroplane combination; or
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(ii) an amount to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 feet (450 m) above
the destination aerodrome in standard conditions;
(d) alternate fuel, which must be sufficient for
(i.) a missed approach from applicable MDA/DH at the destination aerodrome

to missed approach altitude, taking into account the complete missed
approach procedure;
(ii.) a climb from missed approach altitude to cruising level altitude;
(iii.) the cruise from top of climb to top of descent;
(iv.) descent from top of descent to the point where the approach is initiated,
taking into account the expected arrival procedure; and
(v.) executing an approach and landing at the destination alternate aerodrome;
(vi.) if two destination alternates are required, alternate fuel must be sufficient to
proceed to the alternate which requires the greater amount of alternate fuel;
(e) final reserve fuel, which must be -
(i) for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, fuel to fly for 45 minutes; or
(ii) for aeroplanes with turbine power units, fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding
speed at 1 500 feet (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions, calculated with the estimated mass on arrival at the alternate
or the destination, when no alternate is required;
The minimum additional fuel which must permit –
(i) holding for 15 minutes at 1 500 feet (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in
standard conditions, when a flight is operated under IFR without a destination
alternate; and
(ii) following the possible failure of a power unit or loss of pressurisation, based
on the assumption that such a failure occurs at the most critical point along
the route, the aeroplane to:
 descend as necessary and proceed to an adequate aerodrome; and hold

there for 15 minutes at 1 500 feet (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in
standard conditions; and
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 make an approach landing, except that additional fuel is only required, if
the minimum amount of fuel calculated in accordance with
subparagraphs (l)(b) to (e) above is not sufficient for such an event; extra
fuel, which is at the discretion of the pilot-in-command.
(2) Decision point procedure
If an owner's or operator's fuel policy includes planning to a destination

aerodrome via a decision point along the route, the amount of fuel should be the
greater of item (a) or (b) below:
(a) The sum of –
(i) taxi fuel;

(ii) trip fuel to the destination aerodrome, via the decision point;
(iii) contingency fuel equal to not less than 5% of the estimated fuel
consumption from the decision point to the destination aerodrome;
(iv) alternate fuel, if a destination alternate is required;
(v) final reserve fuel;
(vi) additional fuel; and
(vii) extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command; or
(b) the sum of –
(i) taxi fuel;

(ii) the estimated fuel consumption from the departure aerodrome to a
suitable e en-route alternate, via the decision point;
(iii) contingency fuel equal to not less than 3% of the estimated fuel
consumption from the departure aerodrome to the en-route alternate;
(iv) final reserve fuel;
(v) additional fuel;
(vi) and extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command.
3) Isolated aerodrome procedure
If an owner's or operator's fuel policy includes planning to an isolated aerodrome

for which a destination alternate does not exist, the amount of fuel at departure
must include -
(a) taxi fuel;
(b) trip fuel;
(c) contingency fuel calculated in accordance with subparagraph (1)(c) above;
(d) additional fuel if required, but not less than -
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(i) for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, fuel to fly for 45 minutes plus
15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising level, or two hours,
whichever is the lesser; or
(ii) for aeroplanes with turbine engines, fuel to fly for two hours at normal
cruise consumption after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome,
including final reserve fuel; and
(e) extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command.
4) Pre-determined point procedure
If an owner's or operator's fuel policy includes planning to a destination

alternate where the distance between the destination aerodrome and the
destination alternate is such that a flight can only be routed via a predetermined
point to one of these aerodromes, the amount of fuel must be the greater of item
(a) or (b) below:
(a) The sum of -
(i) taxi fuel;

(ii) trip fuel from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome, via
the predetermined point;
(iii) contingency fuel calculated in accordance with subparagraph (l)(c)
above;
(iv) additional fuel if required, but not less than -
 for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, fuel to fly for 45 minutes

plus 15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising level or two
hours, whichever is less; or
 for aeroplanes with turbine engines, fuel to fly for two hours at normal
cruise consumption after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome,
including final reserve fuel; and
(v) extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command; or
(b) the sum of –
(i) taxi fuel;

(ii) trip fuel from the departure aerodrome to the alternate aerodrome, via
the predetermined point
(iii) contingency fuel calculated in accordance with subparagraph (l)(c) above;
(iv) additional fuel if required but not less than -
 for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, fuel to fly for 45 minutes ; or
 for aeroplanes with turbine engines, fuel to fly for 30 minutes at

holding speed at 1 500 feet (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in
standard conditions.
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Including final reserve fuel; and
(v) Extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command
Fuel and oil supply for helicopters
(1) A helicopter employed in the public transport operation category or public

transport of cargo operation category, from one landing site to another, on a flight
which is in whole or in part an IFR or a night flight, must carry fuel and oil
reserves to provide for contingencies to fly to and to execute an approach and a
missed approach at the destination landing site, and thence –
(a) to fly to a suitable alternative landing site;
(b) to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 feet above the elevation of the
alternative landing site, under standard temperature conditions; and
(c) to execute an approach and landing
Provided that further reserves equal to 5% of the total required in terms of items
(a), (b) and (c) must be carried.
(2) A helicopter employed in the aerial work category, industrial aid operation
category, flying training operation category or private operation category, from
landing site to another on a flight which is in whole or in part an IFR or a night
flight, must carry fuel and oil reserves to provide for contingencies at least to fly to
the destination landing site after having carried out its planned task or tasks (if
any) en route, thence to a suitable alternative landing site, and thereafter to fly for
a further 20 minutes.
(3) A helicopter employed in the public transport category, public transport of cargo
category, industrial aid operation category, flying training operation category or
private operation category, from one landing site to another on a VFR flight by
day, must carry fuel and oil reserves to provide for contingencies –
(a) To fly to the desitnation landing site, and thereafter for 20 minutes; or
(b) if the flight is over water, to fly to the destination landing site, thence to fly to
either a suitable alternative landing site or to the nearest point of land, and
thereafter for 30 minutes.
(4) A helicopter employed in the aerial work category must carry fuel and oil reserves
to provide for contingencies –
(a) to complete its task or tasks;
(b) to execute an approach and landing at a suitable landing site; and
(c) thereafter to fly for 10 minutes, or a length of time considered to be the minimum
for a safe flight for the particular helicopter, whichever is the longer.
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(5) A helicopter employed in any category on a VFR flight by day may carry fuel and
oil additional to that available to the powerplant, provided that this is carried in a
safe manner. The additional fuel and oil may be included in the quantities
specified in subparagraphs (3) and (4). Provided that for the purpose of self
refuelling there must be a safe landing site en route, which can be reached before
the levels specified in subparagraph (4)(c) are reached.
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91.07.25 COMMENCEMENT AND CONTINUATION OF APPROACH
1. Conversion of reported visibility
The RVR value may be obtained by converting the reported visibility in

accordance with TS 121.07.7, 127.07.7 and 135.07.7
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91.8.4 TRAINING AND QUALIFICATIONS FOR LOW VISIBILITY
OPERATIONS
1. General
1) An owner or operator must ensure that flight deck crew member training
programmes for low visibility operations include structured courses of ground,
simulator and/or flight training. The owner or operator may abbreviate the course
content as prescribed by subparagraphs (2), (3) and (4) below provided the
content of the abbreviated course is acceptable to the Commissioner.
2) Flight deck crew members with no Category II or Category III experience must
complete the full training programme prescribed in paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 below.
3) Flight deck crew members with Category II or Category III experience with
another owner or operator may undertake an abbreviated ground training course.
4) Flight deck crew members with Category II or Category III experience with the
owner or operator may undertake an abbreviated ground simulator and/or flight
training course. The abbreviated course is to include at least the requirements of
paragraph 4(1) or 4(4)(a) or (b) as appropriate.
2. Ground training
An owner or operator must ensure that the initial ground training course for low
visibility operations covers at least –
1) the characteristics and limitations of the ILS and/or MLS;
2) the characteristics of the visual aids;
3) the characteristics of fog;
4) the operational capabilities and limitations of the particular airborne system;
5) the effects of precipitation, ice accretion, low level wind shear and turbulence;
6) the effect of specific aircraft malfunctions,
7) the use and limitations of RVR assessment systems;
8) the principles of obstacle clearance requirements;
9) recognition of and action to be taken in the event of failure of ground equipment;
10) the procedures and precautions to be followed with regard to surface movement
during operations when the RVR is 400 m or less and any additional procedures
required for take-off in conditions below 150 m (200 m for Category D
aeroplanes) or with visibility less than 225 m;
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11) the significance of decision heights based upon radio altimeters and the effect of
terrain profile in the approach area on radio altimeter readings and on the
automatic approach/landing systems;
12) the importance and significance of alert height, if applicable, and the action in the
event of any failure above and below the alert height;
13) the qualification requirements for pilots to obtain and retain approval to conduct
low visibility take-offs and Category II or III operations, and
14) the importance of correct seating and eye position.
3. Simulator training and/or flight training
1) An owner or operator must ensure that simulator and/or flight training for low
visibility operations includes -
(a) checks of satisfactory functioning of equipment, both on the ground and in flight;
(b) effect on minima caused by changes in the status of ground installations;
(c) monitoring of automatic flights control systems and Autoland status annunciators
with emphasis on the action to be taken in the event of failures of such systems;
(d) actions to be taken in the event of failures such as engines, electrical systems,
hydraulics or flight control systems;
(e) the effect of known unserviceabilities and use of minimum equipment lists;
(f) operating limitations resulting from airworthiness certification;
(g) Guidance on the visual cues required at decision height together with information
on maximum deviation allowed for glidepath or localliser; and
(h) the importance and significance of alert height, if applicable, and the action in the
event of any failure above and below the alert height.
2) An owner or operator must ensure that each flight deck crew member is trained to
carry out his or her duties and instructed on the co-ordination required with other
flight crew members. Maximum use must be made of suitably equipped flight
simulators for this purpose.
3) Training must be divided into phases covering normal operation with no aircraft or
equipment failures but including all weather conditions which may be
encountered and detailed scenarios of aircraft and equipment failure which
could affect Category II or III operations. If the aircraft system involves the use of
hybrid or other special systems (such as head up displays or enhanced vision
equipment) then flight deck crew members must practise the use of these
systems in normal and abnormal modes during the simulator phase of training.
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4) Incapacitation procedures appropriate to low visibility take-offs and Category II
and III operations must be practised.
5) For aircraft with no type specific simulator, owners or operators must ensure that
the flight training phase specific to the visual scenarios of Category II operations
is conducted in a simulator approved for that purpose by the Commissioner.
Such training must include a minimum of 4 approaches. The training and
procedures that are type specific must be practised in the aircraft.
6) Category II and III training must include at least the following exercises:
(a) Approach, using the appropriate flight guidance, autopilots and control systems
installed in the aircraft, to the appropriate decision height and to include transition
to visual flight and landing;
(b) approach with all engines operating using the appropriate flight guidance
systems, autopilots and control systems installed in the aircraft down to the
appropriate decision height followed by missed approach, all without external
visual reference;
(c) where appropriate, approaches utilising automatic flight systems to provide

automatic flare, landing and roll-out; and
(d) normal operation of the applicable system both with and without acquisition of
visual cues at decision height.
7) Subsequent phases of training must include at least -
(a) approaches with engine failure at various stages on the approach;
(b) approaches with critical equipment failures (e.g. electrical systems, autoflight
systems, ground and/or airborne ILS/MLS systems and status monitors);
(c) approaches where failures of auto flight equipment at low level require either -
(i) reversion to manual flight to control flare, landing and roll out or missed
approach; or
(ii) reversion to manual flight or a downgraded automatic mode to control

missed approaches from, at or below decision height including those
which may result in a touchdown on the runway;
(d) failures of the system which will result in excessive localiser and/or glideslope
deviation, both above and below decision height, in the minimum visual
conditions authorised for the operation. In addition, a continuation to a manual
landing must be practised if a head-up display forms a downgraded mode of the
automatic system or the head-up display forms the only flare mode; and
(e) failures and procedures specific to aircraft type or variant.
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8) The training programme must provide practice in handling faults which require a
reversion to higher minima.
9) The training programme must include the handling of the aircraft when, during a
fail passive Category III approach, the fault causes the autopilot to disconnect
at or below decision height when the last reported RVR is 300 m or less.
10) Where take-offs are conducted in RVRs of 400 m and below, training must be
established to cover systems failures and engine failure resulting in continued as
well as rejected take-offs.
4. Conversion training requirements to conduct low visibility take-off and

Category II and III operations
An owner or operator must ensure that each flight deck crew member completes
the following low visibility procedures training if converting to a new type or
variant of aircraft in which low visibility take-off and Category II and III operations
will be conducted. The flight deck crew member experience requirements to
undertake an abbreviated course are prescribed
in paragraphs 1(3) and (4).
1) Ground training
The appropriate requirements prescribed in paragraph 2 above, taking into

account the flight deck crew member's Category II and Category III training and
experience.
2) Simulator training and/or flight training
(a) A minimum of 8 and/or landings in approaches a simulator approved for the

purpose.
(b) Where no type-specific simulator is available, a minimum of 3 approaches

including at least 1 go-around is required on the aircraft.
(c) Appropriate additional training if any special equipment is required such as head-
up displays or enhanced vision equipment.
3) Flight deck crew qualification
The flight deck crew qualification requirements are specific to the owner or
operator and the type of aircraft operated.
(a) The owner or operator must ensure that each flight deck crew member completes
a check before conducting Category II or III operations.
(b) The check prescribed in item (a) above may be replaced by successful
completion of the simulator and/or flight training prescribed in paragraph 4(2).
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4) Line flying under supervision
An owner or operator must ensure that each flight crew member undergoes the
following line flying under supervision –
(a) For Category II when a manual landing is required, a minimum of 3 landings from
autopilot disconnect; and
(b) for Category III, a minimum of 3 autolands except that only 1 autoland is required
when the training required in paragraph 4(2) above has been carried out in a full
flight simulator usable for zero flight time training.
5. Type and command experience
The following additional requirements are applicable to pilot-in-commands who

are new to the aircraft type:
1) 50 hours or 20 sectors as pilot-in-command on the type before performing any

Category II or Category III operations; and
2) 100 hours or 40 sectors as pilot-in-command on the type. 100 m must be added

to the applicable Category II or Category III RVR minima unless he or she
has previously qualified for Category II or III operations with another owner or
operator.
3) The Commissioner may authorise a reduction in the above command

experience requirements for flight crew members who have Category II or
Category III command experience.
6. Low visibility take-off with RVR less than 150/200 m or visibility less than
225 m
1) An owner or operator must ensure that prior to authorisation to conduct take-offs

in RVRs below 150 m (below 200 m for Category D aeroplanes) or with visibility
less than 225m the following training is carried out:
(a) Normal take-off in minimum authorised conditions or RVR conditions;
(b) take-off in minimum authorised conditions or RVR conditions with an engine

failure between V, and V,, or as soon as safety considerations permit; and
(c) take-off in minimum authorised conditions or RVR conditions with an engine

failure before V, resulting in a rejected take-off.
2) An owner or operator must ensure that the training required by subparagraph (1)
above is carried out in an approved simulator. This training must include the use
of any special procedures and equipment. Where no approved simulator exists,
the Commissioner may approve such training in an aircraft without the
requirement for minimum conditions or RVR conditions.
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3) An owner or operator must ensure that a flight crew member has completed a
check before conducting low visibility take-offs in RVRs of less than 150 m (less
than 200 m for Category D aeroplanes) or in visibility less than 225 m if
applicable. The check may only be replaced by successful completion of the
simulator and/or flight training prescribed in subparagraph (I)on initial conversion
to an aircraft type.
7. Recurrent training and checking - Low Visibility Operations
1) An owner or operator must ensure that, in conjunction with the normal recurrent
training and proficiency checks, a pilot's knowledge and ability to perform the
tasks associated with the particular category of operation, including LVTO, for
which he or she is authorised, is checked. The required number of approaches
to be conducted during such recurrent training is to be a minimum of two, one of
which is to be a missed approach and at least one low visibility take off to the
lowest applicable minima. The period of validity for this check is 6 months
including the remainder of the month of issue.
2) For Category III operations an owner or operator must use a flight simulator
approved for Category ill training.
3) An owner or operator must ensure that, for Category III operations on aeroplanes
with a fail passive flight control system, a missed approach is completed at least
once every 18 months as the result of an autopilot failure at or below decision
height when the last reported RVR was 300 m or less.
4) The Commissioner may authorise recurrent training for Category II operations in

an aircraft type where no approved simulator is available.
8. LVTO and Category II or III recency requirements
1) An owner or operator must ensure that, in order for pilots to maintain a Category
II and Category III qualification, they have conducted a minimum of 3
approaches and landings using approved Category II or III procedures during the
previous six month period, at least one of which must be conducted in the aircraft.
2) Recency for LVTO is maintained by retaining the Category II or III qualification

prescribed in subparagraph (1) above.
3) An owner or operator may not substitute this recency requirement for recurrent
training.
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TABLE 1
PARAMETERS FOR AEROPLANE FLIGHT DATA RECORDERS

Serial Parameter Measurement Recording Accuracy limits (Sensor
Number range Interval input
(seconds) Compared to FDR read-out)
1 Time (UTC when 24 hours 4 ± 0.125% per hour
available, otherwise
elapsed time)
2 Pressure altitude -300 m (-1000 ft) to 1 ± 300 m to ± 200m (± 100 ft to
maximum ± 700 ft)
certificated altitude
of aircraft
+1500 m (+ 5000 ft)
3 Indicated airspeed 95 km/h (50 kt) to 1 ± 5%
max Vso (Note 1)
Vso to 1.2 VD (Note ±3%
2)
4 Heading 360º 1 ± 2º
5 Normal acceleration -3 g to +69 0.125 ± 1% of maximum range
excluding datum error of
± 5%
6 Pitch attitude ± 75º 1 ± 2º
7 Roll attitude ± 180º 1 ± 2º
8 Radio transmission On-off (one 1
keying discrete)
9 Power on each Full range 1 (per ± 2º
engine (Note 3) engine)
10 Trailing edge flap or Full ranger on each 2 ± 5% or as pilot’s indicator
cockpit control discrete position
section
11 Leading edge flap or Full range on each 2 ± 5% or as pilot’s indicator
cockpit control discrete position
section
12 Thrust reverser Stowed, in transit, 1 (per
position and reverse engine)
13 Ground spoiler/speed Full range or each 1 ± 2% unless higher accuracy
brake selection discrete position uniquely required
14 Outside air Sensor range 2 ± 2º C
temperature
15 Autopilot / auto A suitable 1
throttle / AFCS mode combination of
and engagement discretes
status
Note: The preceding 15 parameters satisfy the requirements for a Type II FDR
16 Longitudinal ±1g 0.25 ± 1.5% max range excluding
acceleration datum error of ± 5%
17 Lateral acceleration ±1g 0.25 ± 1.5% max range including
datum error of ± 1.5%
18 Pilot input and/or Full range 1 ± 2º unless higher accuracy
control surface uniquely required.
position – primary
controls (pitch, roll,
yaw) (Note 4)
19 Pitch trim position Full range 1 ± 3% unless higher accuracy
uniquely required
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TABLE 1
Serial Parameter Measurement Recording Accuracy limits (Sensor

Number range Interval input
(seconds) Compared to FDR read-out)
20 Radio altitude -6 m to 750 m 1 ± 0.6 m (± 2 ft) or ± 3%
(-20 ft to 2500 ft) whichever is greater below
150m (500 ft) and ± 5%
above 150 m (500 ft)
21 Glide path deviation Signal range 1 ± 3%
22 Localiser deviation Signal range 1 ± 3%
23 Marker beacon Discrete 1
passage
24 Master warning Discrete 1
25 NAV 1 and 2 Full range 4 As installed
frequency selection
(Note 5)
26 DME 1 and 2 0 – 370 km 4 As installed
distance (Notes 5 and
6)
27 Landing gear squat Discrete 1
switch status
28 GPWS (ground Discrete 1
proximity warning
system)
29 Angle of attack Full range 0.5 As installed
30 Hydraulics, each Discrete 2
system (low pressure)
31 Navigation data As installed 1 As installed
(latitude / longitude,
ground speed and
drift angle) (Note 7)
32 Landing gear or gear Discrete 4 As installed
selector position
Note: The preceding 32 parameters satisfy the requirements for Type I FDR
Notes:
1) Vso stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
2) VD design diving speed.
3) Record sufficient inputs to determine power.
4) For aeroplane’s with conventional control systems “or” applies. For aeroplanes with non-
mechanical control systems “and” applies. In aeroplanes with split surfaces, a suitable
combination of inputs is acceptable in lieu of recording each surface separately.
5) If signal available in digital form.
6) If signals readily available.
7) Recording of latitude and logitude from INS or other navigation system is a preferred
alternative.
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ANNEXURE A
GPS TRAINING SYLLABUS
1. GPS system components and principle of operation
Demonstrate an understanding of the GPS system and its principles of operation:
 GPS system components, constellation, control and user

 Aircraft equipment requirements
 GPS satellite signal and pseudo random code
 Principle of position fixing
 Method of minimising receiver clock error
 Minimum satellites required for navigation functions
 Masking function
 Performance limitations of various equipment types
 GPS use of WGS84 co-ordinate system.
2. Navigation system performance requirements
Define the following terms in relation to a navigation system and recall to what
extent The GPS system meets the associated Requirements:
 Accuracy
 Integrity
 Means of providing GPS integrity; RAIM; procedural systems integration
 Availability
 Continuity of service.
3. Authorisation and documentation
Recall the requirements applicable to pilots and equipment for GPS operations:
 Pilot training requirements

 Logbook certification
 Aircraft equipment requirements
 GPS NOTAM.
4. GPS errors and limitations
Recall the cause and magnitude of typical GPS errors:
 Ephemeris
 Clock
 Receiver
 Atmospheric / ionospheric
 Multipath
 SA (Selected availability)
 Typical total error associated with C/A code
 Effect of PDOP / GDOP on position accuracy
 Susceptibility to interference
 Comparison of vertical and horizontal errors
 Tracking accuracy and collision avoidance.
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5. Human factors and GPS
Be aware of the human factors limitations associated with the use of GPS
equipment. Apply GPS operating procedures which provide safeguards against
navigation errors and loss of situational awareness due to these causes:
 Mode errors
 Data entry errors
 Data validation and checking including independent cross-checking
procedures
 Automation induced complacency
 Non-standardisation of the GPS – pilot interface
 Human information processing and situational awareness.
6. GPS equipment - Specific navigation procedures
Recall and apply knowledge of appropriate GPS operating procedures to typical

navigation tasks using a specific type of aircraft equipment:
 Select appropriate operational modes

 Recall categories of information contained in the navigation database
 Predict RAIM availability
 Enter and check user defined waypoints
 Enter I retrieve and check flight plan data
 Interpret typical GPS navigation displays LAT / LONG, distance and bearing
to waypoint, CDI
 Intercept and maintain GPS defined tracks
 Determine TMG, GS, ETA, time and distance to WPT, WV in flight
 Indications of waypoint passage
 Use of direct to function
 Use of nearest aerodrome function
 Use of GPS in GPS and VOR/DME/GPS arrival procedures.
7. GPS equipment checks
For the specific type of aircraft equipment, carry out the following GPS
operational and serviceability checks at appropriate times:
 TSO status
 Satellites acquired
 RAIM status
 PDOP / GDOP status
 IFR database currency
 Receiver serviceability
 CDI sensitivity
 Position indication
8. GPS warning and messages
For the specific type of aircraft equipment, recognise and take appropriate action
for GPS warnings and messages, including the following:
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 Loss of RAIM
 2D navigation
 in Dear Reckoning mode
 Database out of date
 Database missing
 GPS fail
 Barometric input fail
 Power / battery fail
 Parallel offset on
 Satellite fail.
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ANNEXURE B
GLOBAL POSITIONING SYSTEM
SYSTEM VERIFICATION DATA SHEET
A. GENERAL
Name:……………………………………………… Company:……………………………………………………
Telephone / Facsimile:………………………………………………………………………………………………..
(Address is only used in the event of clarification. Please report each occurrence separately)
Make and type of receiver and any special features in use at the time that may have affected its
performance:
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
B. INTERFERENCE REPORT
Purpose for which GPS was being used (survey, navigation, etc) and its mode of use (eg. Stationary, In
flight, OCA, over land, etc):
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Location of receiver antenna (eg. Remote mounted on A/C
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Date, time and nature of GPS malfunction and variation with time / distance travelled:
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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ANNEXURE B
C. INTEGRITY – RAIM LOSS REPORT

RAIM mode: Date and time Period of loss Location
En route
Comments:
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Please forward completed forms to: CAA

FLYING INSPECTORATE
Fax: (012) 328-7169
ATNS
AIR TRAFFIC
SERVICES
Fax (011) 392-3946
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PART 92
CONVEYANCE OF DANGEROUS GOODS
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LIST OF REGULATIONS : CONVEYANCE OF DANGEROUS GOODS
92.00.2 Conveyance of dangerous goods forbidden
92.00.3 Exemption
92.00.4 Classification, division and listing of dangerous goods
92.00.5 Designated body or institution
92.00.6 Designation of dangerous goods inspectors
92.00.7 Powers of dangerous goods inspectors
92.00.8 Training
92.00.9 Validation of foreign certificates
92.00.10 Packing and packaging
92.00.11 Responsibility of shipper
92.00.12 Labeling and marking
92.00.13 Dangerous goods transport document
92.00.14 Acceptance procedures
92.00.15 Information to be provided
92.00.16 Inspection of damage or leakage by operator
92.00.17 Storage and loading
92.00.18 Loading restrictions in cabin or on flight deck
92.00.19 Separation and segregation
92.00.20 Securing of dangerous goods
92.00.21 Loading in cargo aircraft
92.00.22 Dangerous goods accident and incident reporting
92.00.23 Dangerous goods accident and incident investigation
92.00.24 Dangerous goods accident and incident information
92.00.25 Notification of undeclared and misdeclared dangerous goods
92.00.26 Retention of documents
92.00.27 Dangerous goods carried by passengers or flight crew members
92.00.28 Information to passengers
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Applicability
92.00.1 (1) This part shall apply to –
(a) any aircraft used for the conveyance of dangerous goods;

(b) any person who –
i. offers dangerous goods for conveyance by air;

ii. conveys dangerous goods by air; or
iii. accepts dangerous goods conveyed by air; and
(c) any passenger or flight crew member on board or to be taken on board an

aircraft.
2) This part shall not apply in respect of-
(a) military aircraft;

(b) military personnel who perform their official duties on board a military aircraft;
(c) dangerous goods carried in an aircraft where such goods are intended –
i. to provide medical aid to a patient during a flight;

ii. to provide veterinary aid or a humane killer for an animal during a flight;
iii. for spraying, dusting or dropping in connection with agricultural,
horticultural, forestry or pollution control operations, or
iv. for purposes of game and livestock management during a flight;
(d) articles and substances which would otherwise constitute dangerous goods but
which are required to be on board the aircraft in accordance with the appropriate
airworthiness requirements and the provisions of the operations manual
concerned: Provided that articles and substances intended as replacements for
such articles and substances, shall be conveyed in accordance with the
requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG;
(e) articles and substances which would otherwise constitute dangerous goods but
which are on board the aircraft for the specialised purposes as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-DG; and
(f) articles and substances intended for the personal use of passengers and flight
crew members to the extent as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
Conveyance of dangerous goods forbidden
92.00.2 No person shall offer for conveyance in an aircraft, convey in an aircraft or

accept for conveyance in an aircraft
(a) the dangerous goods specifically identified by name or by generic description in

Document SA-CATS-DG as being forbidden for conveyance by air under any
circumstances;
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(b) the dangerous goods identified in Document SA-CATS-DG as being forbidden for
conveyance by air under normal circumstances;
(c) any other dangerous goods, unless in accordance with the provisions of the Act,
this part and the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-
CATS-DG; and
(d) infected live animals.
Exemption
91.00.3 (1)The Commissioner may, upon application in writing by any person

referred to in Regulation 92.00.1 (l)(b), exempt such person from the provisions of
Regulation 92.00.2 (b), in the case of -
(a) extreme urgency;

(b) Other forms of conveyance being appropriate; or full compliance with the
provisions of this part being contrary to aviation safety.
(2) The Commissioner may grant an exemption referred to in subregulation (1),

under such conditions and for such period which the Commissioner may
determine, but only after the applicant has made every effort to achieve the
overall level of safety required by the Act, this part and Document SA-CATS-DG.
(3) In the event of an exemption being granted for a period exceeding 90 days, the
Commissioner shall, within 30 days from the date on which the exemption has
been granted, publish the full particulars thereof in the Gazette.
Classification, division and listing of dangerous goods
92.00.4 The classes, divisions and listing of dangerous goods shall be as prescribed
in Document SA-CATS-DG.
Designated body or institution
92.00.5 (1) The body or institution designated under Part 12 shall, in addition to
the powers and duties referred to in Regulation 12.00.3 –
(a) promote the safety of the conveyance of dangerous goods by air and an
awareness thereof; and
(b) advise the Commissioner on any matter connected with the safe conveyance of
dangerous goods by air.
(2) The powers and duties referred to in subregulation (1) shall be exercised and
performed according to the conditions, rules, requirements, procedures or
standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
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Designation of dangerous goods inspectors
92.00.6 (1) The Commissioner may designate dangerous goods inspectors to

exercise the powers and duties referred to in Regulation 92.00.7.
connected with a designation referred to in subregulation (1), shall be as prescribed
in Document SA-CATS-DG.
(3) The Commissioner shall sign and issue to each designated dangerous goods
inspector a document which shall state the full name of such inspector and
contain a statement indicating that –
(a) such inspector has been designated in terms of subregulation (1); and
(b) such inspector is authorised to exercise the powers referred to in Regulation
92.00.1.
Powers of dangerous goods inspectors
92.00.7 (1) A designated dangerous goods inspector may –
(a) enter and inspect any –
i. aerodrome or hangar;
ii. premises where goods intended for conveyance by air are made,
produced or manufactured or where goods or baggage intended
for the conveyance by air are packed, held or received or where
goods or baggage are received after being conveyed by air; and
iii. aircraft, vehicle, freight container or unit load device used
for the conveyance of dangerous goods, in order to ensure
that the provisions of the Act, this part and the requirements
and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG, are
complied with; and
(b) request any person to produce or furnish him or her with all documents and
information relating to dangerous goods or baggage in so far as this may be
necessary for the proper execution of his or her functions.
(2) A designated dangerous goods inspector who on reasonable grounds suspects

that any baggage, consignment, freight container or unit load device contains
goods which may not, in terms of the provisions of the Act, this part and the
requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG, be
conveyed by air, or goods which constitute a danger or potential danger to
persons, aircraft or any other property, may inspect such baggage, consignment,
freight container or unit load device and, if he or she deems it necessary in the
interest of aviation safety, order that such goods be detained and not be loaded in
an aircraft.
(3) A designated dangerous goods inspector may at any time –
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(a) search –
i. any baggage, consignment, freight container or unit load device

presented or accepted for conveyance by air;
ii. any baggage, consignment, freight container or unit load device received
after being conveyed by air; and
iii. any person who has disembarked from an aircraft or who intends to board
an aircraft, or the baggage or personal possessions of such person,
in order to ascertain whether dangerous goods have been or are to be conveyed

by air, and a search referred to in subparagraph (iii) shall be conducted with strict
regard to decency and order and a person shall be searched only by a person of
the same gender;
(b) satisfy himself or herself that the mass, quantity or composition of any –
i. goods or baggage offered or presented for conveyance in any

consignment; passengers' baggage;
ii. freight container or unit load device;
iii. stores conveyed by the owner of an aircraft, or his or her agent; and
goods or baggage on board an aircraft, comply with the requirements
and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG;
(c) satisfy himself or herself that the requirements and standards as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-DG are complied with regarding the separation of the
classes of dangerous goods in storage areas, unit load devices, vehicles and
aircraft;
(d) require goods to be removed from an aircraft if the requirements and standards
referred to in paragraphs (b) and (c) are not complied with;
(e) request any person to produce or cause to be produced for inspection any
document relating to a consignment intended for conveyance by air or which has
been conveyed by air, or any other document specified in Document SA-CATS-
DG;
(f) question any person handling dangerous goods in order to ascertain whether that
person complies with the provisions of the Act, this part and the requirements and
standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG relating to the handling of
such dangerous goods; and
(g) condemn any dangerous goods which, in his or her opinion, are not in a good
condition, or the storage or use of which he or she deems to be dangerous and
order any such dangerous goods to be destroyed forthwith, in which case the
owner of goods so condemned, shall have no claim against such inspector or
against the State for the loss thereof and shall, in connection with the destruction
of explosives, be responsible for any expense Incurred.
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Training
92.00.8 (1) Any -
(a) shipper of dangerous goods, including a packer and shipper's agent;

(b) operator; or
(c) person –
i. which performs the act of accepting, handling, loading, unloading,

transferring or other processing of cargo, on behalf of an operator;
ii. located at an aerodrome, which performs the act of processing
passengers on behalf of an operator;
iii. not located at an aerodrome, which performs the act of checking in
passengers on behalf of an operator;
iv. other than an operator, involved in processing cargo; or
(d) engaged in the security screening of passengers and their baggage, shall ensure
that the following categories of personnel in his, her or its employ successfully
complete initial dangerous goods training and refresher dangerous goods
training:
A. Cargo personnel;
B. personnel engaged in the ground handling, storage and
loading of dangerous goods;
C. passenger handling personnel;
D. security personnel who deal with the screening of passengers
and their baggage;
E. flight crew members;
F. packers;
G. shippers; and
H. shipper's agents.
(2) Training as required by this part shall only be provided by a dangerous goods
training organisation approved by the Commissioner in terms of Part 141.
(3) The subject matter of initial dangerous goods training and refresher dangerous
goods training shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
(4) Any person, employee or agency, referred to in subregulation (1) shall complete
refresher dangerous goods training every 24 months, calculated from the date of
the successful completion of the initial dangerous goods training or the preceding
refresher dangerous goods training, as the case may be.
(5) Upon the successful completion of the initial dangerous goods training or the
refresher dangerous goods training referred to in subregulation (3), the
dangerous goods training organisation concerned shall issue to the candidate a
certificate in the handling of dangerous goods to be conveyed by air.
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Validation of foreign certificates
92.00.9 (1) The Commissioner may upon application in writing by a person, validate
any foreign certificate issued in the handling of dangerous goods to be conveyed by
air, if the holder of the certificate submits documentary proof that -
(a) Such certificate has obtained such certificate from an approved foreign training
organisation; and
(b) He or she has successfully completed the refresher dangerous goods training
referred to in Regulation 92.00.8(3).
(2) The application referrred to in subregulation (1) shall be accompanied by the

appropriate fee as prescribed in Part 187.
(3) The provisions of Regulation 92.00.8(4) and (5) shall apply mutatis mutandis to
the holder of a certificate referred to in subregulation (1).
Packing and packaging
92.00.10 (1) A shipper shall ensure that all dangerous goods which the shipper
prepares or offers for conveyance by air, are packed in accordance with the
provisions of this part and the requirements and standards as prescribed in
Document SA-CATS-DG.
(2) A shipper shall ensure that any packaging used for the conveyance of dangerous
goods by air shall –
(a) comply with the material and construction specifications of, and be tested initially
in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document
SA-CATS-DG; and
(b) be of good quality and constructed and securely closed so as to prevent leakage
caused by changes in temperature, humidity, pressure or vibration under normal
conditions of conveyance by air.
(3) A shipper shall ensure that inner packaging is packed, secured or cushioned to
prevent its breakage or leakage and to control its movement within the outer
packaging during normal conditions of conveyance by air.
(4) A shipper shall ensure that packaging in direct contact with dangerous goods is
resistant to any chemical or other action of such goods and cushioning, and that
absorbent materials do not react dangerously with the contents of the
receptacles.
(5) A shipper shall ensure that packaging for which retention of a liquid is a basic
function, is capable of withstanding, without leaking, the pressure as prescribed in
(6) No receptacle used for the conveyance of dangerous goods by air shall be re-
used by the shipper until such receptacle has been inspected by such shipper
and found free from corrosion or other damage.
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(7) If a receptacle, used for the conveyance of dangerous goods by air, is re-used by
the shipper, all necessary measures shall be taken by the shipper to prevent
contamination of subsequent dangerous goods conveyed therein.
(8) If, because of the nature of their former contents, uncleaned empty receptacles
may present a hazard, the shipper shall ensure that such receptacles are tightly
closed and treated according to the hazard that they constitute.
(9) A shipper shall ensure that no harmful quantity of any dangerous substance
adhere to the outside of a package.
Responsibility of shipper
92.00.11 (1) A shipper shall ensure that dangerous goods offered for conveyance by
air, are not dangerous goods identified as forbidden for conveyance by air in terms of
Regulation 92.00.2 and are -
(a) identified, classified, packed, marked and labelled; and
(b) accompanied by a properly executed dangerous goods transport document, in

accordance with the provisions of this part and the requirements and standards
as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
(2) A shipper shall ensure that any person employed by him or her or any person
employed to act on his or her behalf, who is involved in the preparationof a
consignment of dangerous goods to be conveyed by air, is trained in accordance
with the provisions of Regulation 92.00.8.
Labelling and marking
92.00.12 (1) Any person who offers any package containing dangerous goods for
conveyance by air, shall ensure that such package thus offered is labelled with the
appropriate label or labels in accordance with the requirements and standards as
prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
(2) Any person who offers any package containing dangerous goods for conveyance
by air, shall ensure that such package thus offered is marked with the proper
shipping name, UN shipping number, class of hazard, subsidiary risk, packing
group, packing instruction and any authorisation reference of the contents of the
package in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in
(3) (a) any person who offers any package containing dangerous goods for
conveyance by air, shall ensure that each packaging which is manufactured in
accordance with a packaging specification as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-
DG, is marked with the appropriate packaging specification marking as
(b) No packaging shall be marked with a packaging specification marking unless

such packaging complies with the appropriate packaging specification as
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Dangerous goods transport document
92.00.13 (1) Any person who offers dangerous goods for conveyance by air, shall,
unless otherwise provided for in Document SA-CATS-DG, complete and sign and
provide the operator with a dangerous goods transport document and such other
appropriate documents as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
(2) A dangerous goods transport document shall contain the information as

prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG as well as a declaration, signed by the
person referred to in subregulation (1), indicating that the dangerous goods
offered for conveyance by air are –
(a) fully and accurately described by their proper shipping names;

(b) identified, classified, packed, marked and labelled in accordance with the
requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG;
(c) in proper condition for conveyance by air in accordance with the requirements
and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG; and
(d) not dangerous goods identified as forbidden for conveyance by air in terms of
Regulation 92.00.2.
Acceptance procedures
92.00.14 (1) The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are to be

conveyed, shall not accept such dangerous goods for conveyance by air -
(a) unless the dangerous goods are accompanied by a completed dangerous goods
transport document, except where Document SA-CATS-DG provides that such
document is not required; and
(b) until such operator has inspected the exterior or the package, overpack or freight
container containing the dangerous goods in accordance with the acceptance
procedures as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
(c) The operator referred to in subregulation (1) shall develop and use an
acceptance checklist to ensure that the provisions of subregulation (1) regarding
the acceptance of dangerous goods for conveyance by air, are complied with.
(d) The acceptance checklist referred to in subregulation (2), shall comply with the
requirements as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
Information to be provided

conveyed shall provide the pilot-in-command, as soon as practicable before
departure of the aircraft, with the written information as prescribed in Document SA-
CATS-DG.
(2) The operator referred to in subregulation (1), shall provide information to the flight
crew members and employees concerned to enable such flight crew members
and employees to carry out their duties with regard to the conveyance by air of
dangerous goods, and such information shall include the information as
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Inspection for damage or leakage by operator

conveyed, shall inspect the exterior of each package and overpack containing
dangerous goods and each freight container or package containing radioactive
materials to ensure that there is no damage to or leakage from such package,
overpack and freight container, before loading such package, overpack and container
in the aircraft or into a unit load device.
(2) The operator referred to in subregulation (I) shall inspect a unit load device before
loading such device in the aircraft to ensure that there is no damage to or leakage
from any dangerous goods contained therein.
(3) No damaged or leaking package, overpack, freight container or unit load device
shall be loaded in an aircraft.
(4) If any package, overpack or freight container containing dangerous goods

appears to be damaged or leaking after loading such package, overpack or
freight container in an aircraft, the operator shall remove or arrange for the
removal of such package, overpack or freight container from the aircraft and shall
ensure that the remainder of the consignment is in a proper condition for
conveyance by air and that no other package, overpack or freight container has
been contaminated.
(5) Each package or overpack containing dangerous goods, or a freight container or

package containing radioactive materials, shall be inspected by the operator for
signs of damage or leakage upon unloading such package, overpack or freight
container from the aircraft or unit load device, and if damage or leakage has
occurred, the area where such package, overpack, freight container or unit load
device were stowed in the aircraft, shall be inspected for damage or
contamination.
(6) If a package, overpack or freight container containing radioactive materials is

found to be damaged or leaking, the operator shall –
(a) take all necessary precautions to restrict access to such package, overpack or
freight container containing radioactive materials; and
(b) designate a qualified person to assess the extent of the contamination and the
radiation level.
(7) If any hazardous contamination is found in an aircraft as a result of damage to or

leakage from a package or overpack containing dangerous goods, the operator
shall decontaminate the aircraft immediately.
(8) The operator referred to in subregulation (1) shall remove an aircraft from service
immediately when such aircraft is contaminated by radioactive materials and shall
not return such aircraft to service until the radiation level resulting from the fixed
contamination at any accessible surface and the non-fixed contamination, is
below the values as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
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(9) Any person responsible for the conveyance and opening of packages containing
infectious substances who becomes aware of damage to or leaking from such
packages, shall –
(a) avoid handling such infectious substances, where possible;

(b) inspect adjacent packages for contamination;
(c) inform the appropriate public health authority or veterinary authority of such
damage or leakage;
(d) provide the appropriate authority of the country of transit with information
regarding any possible contamination; and
(e) notify the shipper or the consignee accordingly.
Storage and loading
92.00.17 The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are to be conveyed

shall comply with the storage and loading provisions of this part and the requirements
and standards as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG.
Loading restrictions in cabin or on flight deck
92.00.18 Unless otherwise provided for in Document SA-CATS-DG, dangerous

goods shall not be stowed in an aircraft cabin occupied by passengers or on the flight
deck of an aircraft.
Separation and segregation

conveyed shall ensure that packages containing dangerous goods which might react
dangerously when coming into contact with each other, are not stowed in an aircraft
next to each other or in a position that would allow interaction between them in the
event of leakage.
(2) The operator referred to in subregulation (1) shall ensure that a package
containing poison or an infectious substance, is stowed in an aircraft in
accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in Document SA-
CATS-DG.
(3) The operator referred to in subregulation (1) shall ensure that a package
containing radioactive materials, is stowed in an aircraft in a manner which
separates the package from persons, live animals and undeveloped film, in
CATS-DG.
Securing of dangerous goods

conveyed, shall, when dangerous goods are loaded in the aircraft, protect such
dangerous goods from being damaged, and shall secure such dangerous goods in
the aircraft in a manner which will prevent any movement in flight that could change
the orientation of the packages.
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(2) When securing packages containing radioactive materials, the operator shall
ensure that the securing is adequate in order that the requirements regarding the
separation of radioactive materials referred to in Regulation 92.00.10(3) are
complied with.
Loading in cargo aircraft
92.00.21 Unless otherwise provided for in Document SA-CATS-DG, a package or

overpack containing dangerous goods and bearing a "cargo aircraft only" label, shall
be loaded in a manner that any night crew member or other person authorised by the
operator, can see, handle and, where size and weight permit, separate such package
or overpack from other cargo in flight.
Dangerous goods accident and incident reporting
92.00.22 (1) The operator of an aircraft involved in a dangerous goods accident or

dangerous goods incident within the Republic, shall within 48 hours after such
accident or incident has occurred, notify -
(a) in the case of an accident, any air traffic service unit or the nearest police station;
or
(b) in the case of an incident, any air traffic service unit,
(c) of such accident or incident, and such air traffic service unit or police station, as
the case may be, shall immediately on receipt of the notification, notify –
i. the Commissioner; and

ii. where such accident or incident occurs at an aerodrome, the
aerodrome manager.
(2) The operator of a South African aircraft involved in a dangerous goods accident
or dangerous goods incident outside the Republic, shall, as soon as practicable,
notify-
(a) the appropriate authority in the State for territory where the accident or incident
has occurred, directly or through any air traffic service unit; and
(b) the Commissioner, of such accident or incident.
(3) Any notification of a dangerous goods accident or dangerous goods incident

referred to in subregulation (1) or (2) shall, in addition to the provisions of
Regulation 12.00.5(3)(a), contain the particulars as prescribed in Document SA-
CATS-DG .
Dangerous goods accident and incident investigation
92.00.23 The investigator-in-charge shall investigate all dangerous goods accidents

and dangerous goods incidents of which the Commissioner is notified in terms of
Regulation 92.00.22(1), and Part 12 shall apply mutatis mutandis to such
investigation.
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Dangerous goods accident and incident information
92.00.24 In the case of a consignment for which a dangerous goods transport

document is required in terms of this part, the operator shall ensure that the
information as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-DG is available at all times for use
in an emergency response to dangerous goods accidents or dangerous goods
incidents.
Notification of undeclared or misdeclared dangerous goods
92.00.25 The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are conveyed within
the Republic or outside the Republic shall, within 48 hours after the discovery of –
(a) any undeclared or misdeclared dangerous goods; or

(b) dangerous goods not permitted in terms of Regulation 92.00.2, on board the
aircraft or in the baggage of a passenger or flight crew member, notify the
Commissioner or the appropriate authority thereof, as the case may be.
Retention of documents
92.00.26 The operator of an aircraft in which dangerous goods are conveyed, shall
ensure that at least one copy of all documents pertaining to a flight on which
dangerous goods are conveyed, including the –
(a) dangerous goods transport document;

(b) acceptance checklist, if completion of the checklist is required; and
(c) written information provided to the pilot-in-command in terms of Regulation 92.00.
15(1), are retained for a period of 90 days, calculated from the date of such flight.
Dangerous goods carried by passengers or flight crew members
92.00.27 No passenger or flight crew member shall carry dangerous goods as, or in,
carry-on baggage or checked baggage, or on his or her person, except in
CATS-DG.
Information to passengers
92.00.28 Any operator shall ensure that information regarding the types of goods
that passengers are forbidden to carry on board an aircraft, is available to such
passengers and such information shall include –
(a) applicable information accompanying the passenger ticket; and

(b) notices which are prominently displayed –
i. at any location where tickets are issued and baggage checked;

and
ii. in aircraft boarding areas and baggage claim areas.
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PART 135
AIRPORT TRANSPORT OPERATIONS

SMALL AEROPLANES
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1. GENERAL
Section 22A of the Aviation Act, 1962 (as amended by section 5 of the Aviation Laws
Amendment Act, 1996) empowers the Commissioner for Civil Aviation to issue
technical standards for civil aviation on the matters which are prescribed by
regulation.
2. PURPOSE
Document SA-CATS-OPS 135 contains the standards, rules, requirements, methods,

specifications, characteristics and procedures which are applicable in respect of air
transport operations : small aeroplanes.
Each reference to a technical standard in this document, is a reference to the

corresponding regulation in the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997, for example,
technical standard 135.01.10 refers to regulation 10 of Subpart 01 of Part 135 of the
Regulations.
The abbreviation "CAR" is used throughout this document when referring to any
regulation.
The abbreviation "TS" refers to any technical standard.
3. SCHEDULES AND NOTES
Guidelines and recommendations in support of any particular technical standard, are

contained in schedules to, and/or notes inserted throughout the technical standards.
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LIST OF REGULATIONS:
AIRPORT TRANSPORT OPERATIONS – SMALL AEROPLANES
SUBPART 1: GENERAL
135.01.2 Exemptions
135.01.3 Admission to flight deck
135.01.4 Drunkenness
135.01.5 Dry lease-in of small commercial air transport aeroplane
135.01.6 Wet lease-in of small commercial air transport aeroplane
135.01.7 Dry lease-out of small commercial air transport aeroplane
135.01.8 Wet lease-out of small commercial air transport aeroplane
135.01.9 Leasing of small commercial air transport aeroplane
between two South African operators
135.01.10 Subchartering
135.01.11 Preservation of documents

135.02.1 Composition of flight crew
135.02.2 In-flight relief of flight crew members
135.02.3 Flight crew member emergency duties
135.02.4 Recency, route and aerodrome qualifications
135.02.5 Flight time and duty periods
SUBPART 3: TRAINING AND CHECKING

Division One: General
135.03.1 Training of flight crew members
135.03.2 Initial training of flight crew members
Division Two: Pilot Training

135.03.3 Conversion training
135.03.4 Differences training and familiarisation training
135.03.5 Upgrading to pilot-in-command
135.03.6 Pilot-in-command holding commercial pilot licence
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135.03.7 Recurrent training and checking
135.03.8 Pilot qualification to operate in either pilot’s seat
135.03.9 Advanced qualification programme
Division Three: Training of other Flight Crew members

135.03.10 Training

135.04.1 Documents to be retained on ground
135.04.2 Operations manual
135.04.3 Aeroplane operating manual
135.04.4 Aeroplane flight manual
135.04.5 Operational flight plan
135.04.6 Flight time and duty period records
135.04.7 Records of emergency and survival equipment
135.04.8 Flight crew member training records
135.04.9 Load and trim sheet
135.04.10 Aeroplane checklist
SUBPART 5: AEROPLANE INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT

135.05.1 Approval of instruments and equipment
135.05.2 Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aeroplanes operated under VFR
135.05.3 Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aeroplanes operated under IFR
135.05.4 Altitude alerting system
135.05.5 Airborne weather radar equipment
135.05.6 Flight deck crew interphone system
135.05.7 Means for emergency evacuation
SUBPART 6: OPERATING CERTIFICATE

135.06.1 Operating certificate
135.06.2 Application for operating certificate
135.06.3 Adjudication of application for operating certificate
135.06.4 Period of validity of operating certificate
135.06.5 Safety inspections and audits
135.06.6 Suspension and cancellation of operating certificate and appeal
135.06.7 Duties of holder of operating certificate
135.06.8 Register of operating certificates
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135.07.1 Routes and area of operation
135.07.2 Establishment of procedures
135.07.3 Operational control and supervision
135.07.4 Competence of operations personnel
135.07.5 Use of air traffic services
135.07.6 Minimum flight altitudes
135.07.8 Smoking in aeroplane
135.07.9 Fuel policy
135.07.10 Fuel and oil supply
135.07.11 Instrument approach and departure procedures
135.07.12 Noise abatement procedures
135.07.13 Carriage of infants and children
135.07.14 Carriage of passengers with disability
135.07.15 Limitations on carriage of infants, children and passengers
With disability
135.07.16 Carriage on inadmissible passengers, deportees or persons in custody
135.07.17 Carry-on baggage
135.07.18 Securing of passenger cabin and galley
135.07.19 Passenger services
135.07.20 Incidents and defects
SUBPART 8: AEROPLANE PERFORMANCE OPERATING

LIMITATIONS
135.08.1 Classification
135.08.2 General provisions for all classes of aeroplanes
Division One: Class A Aeroplane

135.03.3 General
135.03.4 Take-off
135.03.5 Net take-off flight path
135.03.6 En route with one engine inoperative
135.03.7 Landing at destination and alternate aerodromes
135.03.8 Landing on dry runways
135.03.9 Landing on wet and contaminated runways
Division Two: Class B Aeroplane

135.08.10 General
135.08.11 Take-off
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135.08.12 Take-off flight path
135.08.13 En route
Division Three: Class A Aeroplane

135.08.17 General
135.08.18 Take-off
135.08.19 Take-off flight path
135.08.20 En route
135.09.1 General
135.09.2 Aeroplane maintenance schedule
135.09.3 Maintenance contracted to approved aircraft maintenance organisation
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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SUBPART 1: GENERAL
Applicability
135.01.1 (1) This part shall apply to –
(a) aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5700 kilograms or less, or a

maximum approved passenger seating configuration of not more than nine seats,
engaged in commercial air transport operations within the Republic;
(b) aeroplanes with a maximum certificated mass of 5700 kilograms or less, or a
maximum approved passenger seating configuration of not more than nine seats,
registered in the Republic, but engaged in commercial international air transport
operations;
(c) persons acting as flight crew members of aeroplanes registered in the Republic;
and
(d) persons who are on board an aeroplane operated under this part.
(2) For the purposes of this part, an, aeroplane registered in another State and
operated by the holder of an operating certificate issued in the Republic, shall be
deemed to be registered in the Republic.
(3) The provisions of Part 91 shall mutatis mutandis apply to any aeroplane operated
in terms of this part.
Exemptions
135.01.2 (1) The Commissioner may exempt any aeroplane or person involved in
emergency operations from the provisions of this part, on the conditions as
(2) An application for an exemption shall be made in accordance with the provisions
of Part 11.
Admission to flight deck
135.01.3 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure
that no person is admitted to, or carried on the flight deck of the aeroplane unless
such person is -
(a) a flight crew member assigned to the flight;

(b) authorised officer, inspector or authorised person; or
(c) permitted by, and carried in accordance with, the instructions contained in the
operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2.
(2) The final decision regarding the admission of any person to the flight deck shall
be the responsibility of the pilot-in-command.
(3) The admission of any person to the flight deck shall not interfere with the
operation of the aeroplane.
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(4) Any person carried on the flight deck shall be made familiar with the applicable
procedures.
Drunkenness
135.01.4 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall
not permit, and no person shall enter or be in, the aeroplane while under the
influence of alcohol or a drug having a narcotic effect, to the extent where the safety
of such aeroplane or its occupants is, or is likely to be, endangered.
(2) The operator shall establish procedures to ensure that any person referred to in
subregulation (1) is –
(a) refused embarkation; or

(b) if such person is on board, restrained or disembarked.
Dry lease-in of small commercial air transport aeroplane
135.01.5 (1) An operator who intends to dry lease-in a small foreign

registered aeroplane for commercial air transport purposes, shall –
(a) ensure that such aeroplane can be operated and is operated in accordance with
the requirements prescribed in this Part;
(b) obtain prior approval from the Commissioner to operate such aeroplane.
(2) The approval referred to in subregulation (l)(b) shall, subject to such conditions as
the Commissioner may determine, be granted if such aeroplane is –
(a) type certificated in accordance with the requirements prescribed in Part 21;
(b) maintained in accordance with an aeroplane maintenance schedule referred to in
(c) operated under the operating certificate held by the operator referred to in
subregulation (1).
(3) The conditions of approval referred to in subregulation (2) shall be part of the
lease agreement between the operator referred to in subregulation (1) and the
operator from which the small foreign registered aeroplane is leased.
Wet lease-in of small commercial air transport aeroplane
135.01.6 (1) An operator who intends to wet lease-in a small foreign

registered aeroplane for commercial air transport purposes shall, subject to such
conditions as the Commissioner may determine, obtain prior approval from the
Commissioner to operate such aeroplane.
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(2) The duration of the lease agreement concerned shall be limited to a maximum
period of six calendar months in one year.
(3) The approval referred to in subregulation (1) shall, subject to such conditions as
the Commissioner may determine, be granted if such aeroplane –
(a) Is wet leased-in from an operator who Is the holder of an operating certificate or
similar document issued by an appropriate authority;
(b) has been type certificated by the appropriate authority;
(c) holds a valid certificate of airworthiness or similar document issued by such
appropriate authority;
(d) is maintained and operated in accordance with safety standards at least

equivalent to the safety standards referred to in this Part; and
(e) will be operated in terms of the operating certificate or similar document held by
the operator referred to in paragraph (a).
(4) The operator referred to in subregulation (1) shall –
(a) satisfy the Commissioner that the safety standards of the lessor are not less than
the safety standards referred to in this Part;
(b) ensure that any law applicable to the aeroplane to be wet leased-in, the
maintenance or operation thereof, is complied with.
(5) The total number of wet leased-in aeroplanes shall be such that an operator
referred to in subregulation (1) will not be predominantly dependent on foreign
registered aeroplanes.
(6) The conditions of approval referred to in subregulation (1) shall be part of the
lease agreement between the operator referred to in subregulation (1) and the
operator from which the small foreign registered aeroplane is leased.
Dry lease-out of small commercial air transport aeroplane
135.01.7 (1) Subject to the provisions of subregulation (2), the operator of a

small South African registered aeroplane may dry lease-out the aeroplane to any
operator in a contracting State.
(2) On request of the operator of a small South African registered aeroplane, the
Commissioner may exempt the operator from the applicable provisions of this
part and remove the aeroplane from the operating certificate held by such
operator: Provided that –
(a) the appropriate authority of the State of the Operator to which such aeroplane is
dry leased has accepted, in writing, responsibility for surveillance of the
maintenance and operation of such aeroplane; and
(b) such aeroplane is maintained according to an approved maintenance programme
.
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Wet lease-out of small commercial air transport aeroplane
135.01.8 The operator of a small South African registered aeroplane who intends to
wet lease-out the aeroplane to any operator, other than an operator of a contracting
State, shall remain the operator of the aeroplane for the purposes of subpart 6, and
responsibility for surveillance of the maintenance and operation of such aeroplane
shall not be transferred to the appropriate authority of the State of the Operator to
which such aeroplane is wet leased-out.
Leasing of small commercial air transport aeroplane between two South

African operators
135.01.9 A South African operator who intends to lease out an aeroplane and
complete flight crew to another South African operator, shall remain the operator of
the aeroplane and shall retain the functions and responsibilities prescribed in subpart
6.
(2) A South African operator, intending to utilise an aeroplane leased from, or to

lease it to, another South African operator shall obtain prior approval from the
Commissioner for the operation, and the conditions of approval shall be part of
the lease agreement between the operators.
(3) The terms of an approved lease agreement, other than an agreement in terms of
which an aeroplane together with aeroplane flight crew is leased, and where no
transfer of functions and responsibilities is intended, shall include –
(a) the arrangement concerning the operating certificate under which the flights with
the leased aeroplane shall be operated; and
(b) any deviation from the operating certificate under which the flights with the leased
aeroplane shall be operated.
Subchartering
135.01.10 (1) In the exceptional circumstances as prescribed in Document SA-

CATS-OPS 135, an operator may subcharter a small aeroplane and flight crew from
any operator who holds a valid operating certificate for the aeroplane, issued by an
appropriate authority: Provided that –
(a) the subcharter period does not exceed five consecutive days; and
(b) the operator of the aeroplane so subchartered, informs the Commissioner, within
24 hours, of such subcharter.
(2) The provision of Regulations 135.01.5(1)(a) and (2), 135.01.6(3) and (4)(b) and
135.01.9(1) and (3) shall apply mutatis mutandis to any subcharter referred to in
this regulation.
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Preservation of documents
135.01.11 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane who is

required to retain any of the documents for the specified period referred to in subpart
4, shall retain such document for such specified period irrespective of the fact that
such operator, before the expiry of such specified period, ceases to be the owner or
possessor of the aeroplane concerned.
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Composition of flight crew
135.02.1 (1) The minimum number and composition of the flight crew shall not
be less than the minimum number and composition specified in the aeroplane flight
manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.4.
(2) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall allocate
additional flight crew members when it is required by the type of operation, and
the number of such additional flight crew members shall not be less than the
number specified in the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2.
(3) The operator shall ensure that the flight crew members –
(a) are competent to perform the duties assigned to them; and

(b) hold the appropriate valid licences and ratings.
(4) The flight crew shall include at least one member who holds a valid
radiotelephony operator licence or an equivalent document issued by an
appropriate authority, authorising such member to operate the type of radio
transmitting equipment to be used.
(5) When deemed necessary for the safe conduct of a flight, the flight crew shall
include at least one member who is proficient in navigating over the route to be
flown.
(6) For operations under IFR or by night in a small commercial air transport turbo-
propeller or turbojet aeroplane, an operator shall ensure that the minimum flight
crew is two pilots: Provided that in the case of a turbojet aeroplane, a single-pilot
operation is allowed if –
(a) the aeroplane has been certificated for single-pilot IFR operation; and
(b) the operator has included in the operations manual, referred to in Regulation
135.04.2, a conversion and recurrent training programme for pilots which includes
the additional requirements for a single-pilot operation.
(7) The operator shall designate one pilot among the flight crew as pilot-in-command
of a small commercial air transport aeroplane and the pilot-in-command may
delegate the conduct of the flight to another suitably qualified pilot.
In-flight relief of flight crew members
establish procedures in accordance with the provisions of this regulation, to prevent
inexperienced flight crew members from doing duty together on the same flight.
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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(2) A flight deck crew member may be relieved in flight of his or her duties. at the
controls of a small commercial air transport aeroplane by another suitably
qualified flight deck crew member.
(3) A pilot assigned to the pilot-in-command station may be relieved by another pilot
who -
(a) is the holder of the appropriate valid pilot licence (aeroplane) and ratings;
(b) has completed –
i. the conversion training and checking, including type rating training

prescribed in subpart 3;
ii. the recurrent training and checking prescribed in subpart 3; and in the case of
scheduled public air transport service operations,
iii. recency, route and aerodrome qualifications prescribed in Regulation
135.02.4; and
(c) may not operate below FL 200 unless he or she is the holder of the applicable
type rating and has been assigned to the pilot-in-command station.
(4) The co-pilot of a small commercial air transport aeroplane may be relieved by –
(a) another suitably qualified pilot; or

(b) a cruise-relief co-pilot who holds a valid commercial pilot licence (aeroplane) and
instrument rating and who has completed:
i. the conversion training and checking, including type rating training

other than take-off and landing training, prescribed in subpart 3;
ii. the recurrent training and checking, other than take-off and landing
training, prescribed in subpart 3.
(5) A cruise-relief co-pilot referred to in subregulation (4) shall –
(a) not operate as co-pilot below FL 200; and

(b) shall undergo simulator Recency and refresher flying skill training at intervals not
exceeding six months.
(6) When any additional flight crew member is carried to provide in-flight relief for the
purpose of extending a flight time and duty period, such flight crew member shall
hold qualifications which comply with the requirements of the operational duty
which he or she is required to carry out during such in-flight relief period.
Flight crew member emergency duties
135.02.3 (1) An operator and, where appropriate, the pilot-in-command of a small

commercial air transport aeroplane, shall assign to each flight crew member
concerned, the necessary functions to be performed in an emergency or a situation
requiring emergency evacuation.
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(2) The functions referred to in subregulation (1) shall be such as to ensure that any
reasonably anticipated emergency can be adequately dealt with and shall take
into consideration the possible incapacitation of individual flight crew members.
(3) A flight crew member shall not accept an assignment of emergency functions
unless such flight crew member has been trained to perform emergency functions
in accordance with the requirements prescribed in subpart 3.
Recency, route and aerodrome qualifications
135.02.4 (1) A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of a small commercial air
transport aeroplane used in a scheduled public air transport service operation,
unless the pilot has within the preceding 12 months demonstrated to the operator of
such aeroplane an adequate knowledge of –
(a) the route to be flown;

(b) the aerodromes to be used;
(c) the procedures applicable to flight paths over densely inhabited areas and areas
of higher traffic density; and
(d) obstructions, physical layout, lighting, approach aids and arrival, departure,
holding and instrument approach procedures including operating minima.
(2) If a route requires a specific type of navigation qualification, the pilot-in-command

shall within the 12 months immediate preceding a flight on such route,
demonstrate his or her ability to the operator of a small commercial air transport
aeroplane by –
(a) flying over a route or area as pilot-in-command using the applicable special type
of navigation system; or
(b) flying over a route or area under the supervision of a suitably qualified pilot using
the applicable special types of navigation system.
Flight time and duty periods
135.02.5 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall -
(a) establish a scheme for the regulation of flight time and duty periods for each flight
crew member;
(b) include the scheme referred to in paragraph (a) in the operations manual referred
to in Regulation 135.04.2;
(c) ensure that each flight crew member complies with the provisions of the scheme
referred to in paragraph (1);
(d) not cause or permit any flight crew member to fly in the aeroplane if such
operator knows or has made aware that such flights crew member –
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i. will exceed the flight time and duty periods prescribed in
subregulation (l)(a) while on flight duty; or
ii. is suffering from or having, regard to the circumstances of the
flight to be undertaken, is likely to suffer from fatigue which may
endanger the safety of the aerodrome or its flight crew members
and passengers;
(e) not schedule a flight crew member for active flight duty for a period exceeding
eight consecutive hours during any given flight time and duty period unless
authorised in the scheme referred to in paragraph (a).
(2) The provisions to be included in a scheme referred to in subregulation (1) shall be

as described in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
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SUBPART 3: TRAINING AND CHECKING
Division One: General
Training of flight crew members
establish and maintain a ground and flight training programme for flight crew
members in his or her employ.
(2) The operator shall ensure that:
(a) each flight crew member received training in accordance with this subpart and the
appropriate syllabus prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135;
(b) the training shall only be provided by the holder of an aviation training
organisation approval issued in terms of Part 141, and
(c) each flight crew member passes a written examination with regard to all the
subjects of the training syllabus referred to in paragraph (a).
(3) The provisions of this subpart shall apply in respect of full-time and part-time
employed flight crew members.
Initial training of flight crew members
135.03.2 A flight crew member employed by the operator of a small commercial air
transport aeroplane shall have successfully completed the initial training and skill
tests as prescribed in Part 61.
Division Two: Pilot Training
Conversion training
ensure that -
(a) a flight deck crew member completes a type conversion course in accordance
with the applicable requirements prescribed in Part 61, when changing from one
type of aeroplane to another type or class for which a new type or class rating Is
required;
(b) a flight deck crew member completes the operator's type conversion course
before commencing unsupervised operational flying –
i. when changing to an aeroplane for which a new type or class

rating is required; or
ii. when employed by such operator.
(c) type conversion training is conducted by a competent person in accordance with

the detailed course syllabus included in the operations manual referred to in
Regulation 135.04.2, and as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135;
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(d) the amount of training required by the operator's type conversion course is
determined after due note has been taken of the flight crew member's previous
training as recorded in the training records referred to in Regulation 135.04.8;
(e) the minimum standards of qualification and experience required of flight deck
crew members before undertaking type conversion training are specified in the
operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2;
(f) each flight deck crew member undergoes the checks prescribed in Regulation
135.03.1(2) and
(g) and the training and checks prescribed in Regulation 135.03.1(6) before
commencing operational flying; and
(h) if multi-crew operations are contemplated, flight deck crew resources
management training as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135 is
incorporated in the conversion class.
(2) In the case of changing aeroplane type of class, the check prescribed in
Regulation 135.03.1(2) may be combined with the type or class rating skill test
prescribed in Part 61.
(3) The operator's type conversion course and the type or class rating course
prescribed in Part 61, may be combined.
(4) The operator's type conversion course shall include the items, and shall be
condition in the order as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
(5) When a flight deck crew members has not previously completed the operators'
type conversion course, such operator shall ensure that, in addition to
subregulation (4), the flight deck crew members undergoes general first aid
training and, if applicable, ditching procedures training using the appropriate
equipment in water.
Differences training and familiarisation training
ensure that a flight deck crew member completes differences training when –
(a) operating another variant of an aeroplane of the same type or another type at the
same class currently operated; or
(b) a change of equipment or procedures on types or variants currently operated,
requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.
(2) The operator shall ensure that a flight deck crew member completes
familiarisation training when -
(a) operating another aeroplane of the same type or variant; or

(b) a change of equipment or procedures on types or variants currently operated,
requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.
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(3) The operator shall specify in the operations manual referred to in Regulation
135.04.2 when differences training or familiarisation training is required.
Upgrading to pilot-in-command
ensure that, for an upgrade to pilot-in-command from co-pilot, and for a pilot joining
as pilot-in-command -
(a) a minimum level of experience is specified in the operations manual referred to in

Regulation 135.04.2; and
(b) if multi-crew operations are contemplated, the co-pilot, as the case may be,
completes an appropriate command course.
(2) The command course referred to in subregulation (l)(b) shall be specified in the
operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2 and shall include:
(a) training in a flight simulator or flying training in the aeroplane;

(b) an operator proficiency check operating as pilot-in-command;
(c) pilot-in-command responsibilities;
(d) operational in-command training under supervision;
(e) completion of a pilot-in-command check prescribed in Regulation 135.03.1(4)
and, in the case of scheduled public air transport service options, the Recency,
route and aerodrome qualifications prescribed in Regulation 135.02.4; and
(f) if multi-crew operations are contemplated, flight deck crew resource management
training as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
Pilot-in-command holding commercial pilot licence
135.3.6 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall ensure
that –
(a) a holder of a commercial pilot licence does not operate as a pilot-in-command of

an aeroplane certificated in the aeroplane flight manual referred to in Regulation
135.04.4 for single-pilot operations unless –
i. when conducting passenger carrying operations under VFR

outside a radius of 50 nautical miles from an aerodrome of depar-
ture, the pilot has a minimum of 300 hours total flight time on
aeroplanes or holds a valid instrument rating; or
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ii when operating on a multi-engine type under IFR, the pilot has
minimum of 400 hours total flight time on aeroplanes which in-
cludes 200 hours as pilot-in-command of which 100 hours have
been under IFR including 40 hours multi-engine operation: Pro-
vided that the 200 hours as pilot-in-command may be substituted
by hours operating as co-pilot on the basis of two hours co-pilot is
equivalent to one hour as pilot-in-command: Provided further that
these hours are gained within an established multi-pilot flight crew
system prescribed in the operations manual referred to in Regula-
tion 135.04.2;
(b) In addition to paragraph (a)(ii), when operating under IFR as a single pilot, the
requirements prescribed in Regulation 135.02.1(6) are complied with;
(c) in multi-pilot flight crew operations, and prior to operating as pilot-in-command,
the command course prescribed in Regulation 135.03.5(1) is completed.
Recurrent training and checking
ensure that –
(a) each flight deck crew member undergoes recurrent training and checking and
that all such training and checking is relevant to the type or variant of aeroplane
on which the flight deck crew member is licensed to operate;
(b) a recurrent training and checking programme is included in the operations
manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2;
(c) recurrent training is conducted by –
i. a competent person, in the case of ground and refresher training;

ii. a type rated instructor, in the case of aeroplane or flight simulator
training,
iii competent personnel in the case of emergency and safety equip-
ment training and checking; or
iv competent personnel, in the case of flight deck crew resource
management training;
(d) recurrent checking is conducted by –
i. an examiner in the case of operator proficiency checks; and

ii a pilot-in-command designated by the operator in the case of
operational checks; and
(e) when multi-crew operations are contemplated, each flight deck crew member
undergoes operator proficiency checks every six calendar months as part of a
normal flight deck crew complement.
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(2) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of the operator proficiency check
referred to in subregulation (l)(e) –
(a) each flight deck crew member undergoes such checks to demonstrate his or her
competence in carrying out normal, abnormal and emergency procedures; and
(b) such check is conducted without external visual reference when the flight deck
crew member will be required to operate under IFR.
(3) Upon successful completion of the operator proficiency check referred to in

subregulation (l)(e), the operator shall issue a certificate of competency to the
flight deck crew member concerned, which certificate shall be valid for a period of
six calendar months calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which
such certificate is issued.
(4) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of an operational check, each flight
deck crew member undergoes the operational check on the aeroplane to
demonstrate his or her competence in carrying out normal operations specified in
the operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2.
(5) Upon successful completion of the operational check referred to in subregulation

(4), the operator shall issue a certificate of competency to the flight deck crew
member concerned, which certificate shall be valid for a period of 12 calendar
months calculated from the last day of the calendar month in which such
certificate is issued.
(6) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of emergency and safety equipment
training and checking, each flight deck crew member undergoes training and
checking on the location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried.
(7) Upon successful completion of the emergency and safety equipment check
referred to in subregulation (6), the operator shall issue a certificate of
competency to the flight deck crew member concerned, which certificate shall be
valid for a period of 12 calendar months calculated from the last day of the
calendar month in which such certificate is issued.
(8) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of flight deck crew resource
management training, each flight deck crew member undergoes such training as
part of the recurrent training as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
(9) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of ground and refresher training, each
flight deck crew member undergoes training every 12 calendar months.
Pilot qualification to operate in either pilot's seat
that –
(a) a pilot to be assigned to operate in either pilot's seat, completes the appropriate
training and checking; and
(b) the training and checking programme is –
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i. specified in the operations manual referred to in Regulation
135.04.2; and
ii is undertaken in accordance with the appropriate syllabus as
Advanced qualification programme
135.03.09 (1) The period of validity for the training referred to in Regulation
135.03.2 may be extended if the Commissioner has approved an advanced
qualification programme established by the operator.
The advanced qualification programme shall contain training and checking which
establishes and maintains a proficiency that is not less than the proficiency referred
to in Regulations 135.03.3(4), 135.03.4, 135.03.5 and 135.03.7.
Division Three: Training of Other Flight Crew Members
Training
provide, where applicable, an initial, recurrent and refresher training course for any -
(a) load master;

(b) parachute dispatcher; or
(c) other flight crew member essential to safe operations.
The training course referred to in subregulation (1) shall be specified in the

operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2.
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Documents to be retained on ground
135.04. 1 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall
ensure that –
(a) a copy of the operational flight plan;

(b) copies of the relevant parts of the flight folio;
(c) the load and trim sheet;
(d) the passenger list or cargo manifest;
(e) the special loads notification, if applicable; and
(f) a general declaration in the case of an aeroplane engaged in international flights,

are retained in a safe place at the first point of departure in respect of each flight
undertaken by the aeroplane.
(2) The documents referred to in subregulation (1) shall be retained for a period of at
least 90 days.
Operations manual
13.04.2 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall draw
up an operations manual containing all the information required under this part and
setting out the manner in which such operator will operate the air service for which
such operator is licenced in terms of the International Air Services Act, 1993 (Act No.
60 of 1993), or the Air Services Licencing Act, 1990 (Act No. 115 of 1990), as the
case may be.
(2) The operator shall submit the operations manual in duplicate to the
Commissioner for approval.
(3) If the Commissioner is satisfied that the operator –
(a) will comply with the provisions of Regulation 135.06.1; and

(b) will not operate the air service concerned contrary to any provision of the Act, the
International Air Services Act, 1993, the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990, or the
Civil Aviation Offences Act, 1912 (Act No. 10 of 1972), the Commissioner shall
certify in writing on both copies of the operations manual that such manual has
been approved, and shall return one copy of the approved operations manual to
the operator.
(4) The operator shall submit an amendment to an approved operations manual in

duplicate to the Commissioner for approval.
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(5) If the Commissioner is satisfied that the operator will comply with the provisions
of subregulation (3)(a) and (b), the Commissioner shall certify in writing on both
copies of the amendment to the approved operations manual that such
amendment has been approved, and shall return one copy of the approved
amendment to the operator.
(6) The operator shall at all times operate the small commercial air transport
aeroplane in accordance with the approved operations manual or a approved
amendment thereto.
(7) The operator shall-
(a) ensure that all operations personnel are able to understand the technical
language used in those sections of the operations manual which pertain to their
duties;
(b) ensure that every flight is conducted in accordance with the operations manual
and that those parts of the operations manual which are required for the conduct
of a flight, are easily accessible to the flight crew members on board;
(c) make the operations manual available for the use and guidance of operations
personnel;
(d) provide the flight crew members with their own personal copy of the sections of
the operations manual which are relevant to the duties assigned to them;
(e) keep the operations manual up to date; and
(f) keep the operations manual in a safe place.
(8) The contents of the operations manual shall not contravene the conditions
contained in the operating certificate issued to the operator in terms of Regulation
121.06.3.
(9) The structure and contents of the operations manual referred to in subregulation
(1) shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
Aeroplane operating manual
compile and make available an aeroplane operating manual for use by the flight crew
members in such operator's employ.
(2) manual shall contain –
(a) the normal, abnormal and emergency procedures relating to the aeroplane;
(b) details of the aeroplane system; and
(c) the checklists to be used by the flight crew members.
(3) The operator shall provide each flight crew member with a copy of those parts of
the aeroplane operating manual, which are relevant to the operational duties
assigned to such flight crew member.
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(4) The operator shall ensure that the aeroplane operating manual is provided in a
hard copy or in an approved electronic format.
(5) The aeroplane operating manual shall be included in the operations manual
Aeroplane flight manual
135.04.4 The aeroplane flight manual referred to in Regulation 91.03.2 may be

included in the aeroplane operating manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.3.
Operational flight plan
ensure that, where practical, an operational flight plan is completed for each flight
undertaken by the aeroplane.
(2) The operational flight plan and its use shall be contained in the operations
(3) All entries in the operational flight plan shall be current and permanent in nature.
(4) The items to be contained in the operational flight plan shall be as prescribed in
(5) The operational flight plan shall be retained by the operator for a period of at least
90 days.
Flight time and duty period records
135.04.6 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall -
(a) maintain current flight time and duty period records of all flight crew members in
such operator's employ; and
(b) retain the flight time and duty period records for a period of 15 calendar months
calculated from the date of the last flight of each flight crew member.
(2) A flight crew member in the part-time employ of an operator shall maintain his or
her own flight time and duty period records and shall provide copies thereof to the
operator to enable such operator to ensure that such flight crew member does
not exceed the limits prescribed in the flight time and duty scheme of the operator
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Records of emergency and survival equipment
135.04.7 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall compile
a list of all the survival and emergency equipment to be carried in the aeroplane and
shall have such list available at all times for immediate communication to rescue co-
ordination centres.
(2) The survival and emergency equipment list shall be included in the operations
(3) The format and minimum information to be included in the survival and
emergency equipment list shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS
135.
Flight crew member training records
135.04.8 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall maintain
the records of all training and proficiency checks undertaken by the flight crew
members in such operator's employ, and such records shall incorporate certificates
indicating the successful completion of such training and proficiency checks.
(2) The operator shall retain the record of each flight deck crew member for a period
of at least three years and the record of all other flight crew members for a period
of at least 12 months from the date on which the flight crew member concerned
has left the employ of such operator.
(3) The certificates referred to in subregulation (1) shall be made available by the
operator to the flight crew member concerned on request.
Load and trim sheet
135.04.9 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane-
(a) registered in the Republic with a maximum certificated mass exceeding 1 600
kilograms, and which is operated into, within or from the Republic under –
i a Class I or Class II licence issued in terms of the Domestic Air

Services Regulations, 1991; or
ii a Class I or Class II licence issued in terms of the International Air
(b) registered in a foreign State and operated into, within or from the Republic under-
i a Class I or Class II licence issued in terms of the Domestic Air

ii a foreign operator's permit issued in terms of the International Air
Services Regulations, 1993, shall ensure that no flight is undertaken
by the aeroplane unless the person superintending the loading of
such aeroplane has completed and certified a load and trim sheet.
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(2) A load and trim sheet shall be completed in duplicate and one copy shall be
carried in the aeroplane and one copy shall be retained in accordance with the
provisions of Regulation 135.04.1
(3) The load and trim sheet shall be retained by the operator for a period of at least
90 days calculated from the date on which the flight was undertaken.
(4) The minimum contents of a load and trim sheet shall be as prescribed in
Aeroplane checklist
135.04.10 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall, in

addition to the aircraft checklist referred to in Regulation 91.03.3, compile and make
available to the flight crew and other personnel members in such operator's employ,
a checklist of the procedures to be followed by such flight crew and personnel
members when searching for concealed weapons, explosives or other dangerous
devices.
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SUBPART 5: AEROPLANE INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT
Approval of instruments and equipment
ensure that a flight does not commence unless the instruments and Equipment
required under this subpart, or otherwise installed on the aeroplane, are –
(a) subject to the provisions of subregulation (2), approved and installed in

accordance with the requirements, including operational and airworthiness
requirements applicable to such instruments and equipment; and
(b) in a condition for safe operation of the kind being conducted, except as provided
for in the MEL.
(2) The operator shall not be required to obtain approval for the –
(a) fuses referred to in Regulation 91.04.2;

(b) intrinsically safe electric torches referred to in Regulation 91.04.3(1)(d);
(c) accurate time piece referred to in regulations 91.04.4 and 91.04.5;
(d) first aid equipment referred to in Regulation 91.04. 16,
(e) survival equipment referred to in Regulation 91.04.29; and
(f) sea anchors and equipment for the mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring of
seaplanes and amphibious aeroplanes on water, referred to in Regulation
91.04.30.
Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aeroplanes operated under

VFR
135.05.2 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall not
operate the aeroplane in accordance with VFR, unless such aeroplane is equipped
with -

(c) a sensitive pressure altimeter with a subscale setting, calibrated in hectopascal,
flight;
(d) an airspeed indicator;
(e) a vertical-speed indicator,
(f) a turn-and-slip indicator or a turn co-ordinator incorporating a slip indicator;
(g) an attitude indicator;
(h) a stabilised direction indicator; and
(i) a means of indicating on the flight deck the outside air temperature in degrees
Celsius.
(2) If two pilots are required to operate a small commercial air transport aeroplane,
the second pilot's station shall be equipped with -
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(a) a sensitive pressure altimeter with a subscale setting calibrated in hectopascal,
flight;
(b) an airspeed indicator;
(c) a vertical-speed indicator;
(d) a turn-and-slip indicator or a turn co-ordinator, incorporating a slip indicator;
(e) an attitude indicator, and
(f) a stabilised direction indicator.
(3) For flights, the duration of which does not exceed 60 minutes, which take off and
land at the same aerodrome, and which remain within 25 nautical miles of such
aerodrome, the instruments specified in subregulation (l)((f)), (g) and 01), and
subregulation (2)(d:, (e) and (f), may be replaced by a turn-and-slip indicator, or a
turn co-ordinator, incorporating a slip indicator, or both an attitude indicator and a
slip indicator.
(4) A small commercial air transport aeroplane being operated by night shall be
equipped in accordance with the flight and navigation instruments referred to in
Regulation 135.05.3.
Flight, navigation and associated equipment for aeroplanes operated under IFR
135.05.3 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall not
operate the aeroplane in accordance with IFR, unless such aeroplane is equipped
with –

(c) two sensitive pressure altimeters with subscale settings, calibrated in
hectopascal, adjustable for any barometric pressure setting likely to be
encountered during flight;
(d) an airspeed indicator system with heated pitot tube or equivalent means for
preventing malfunctioning due to either condensation or icing, including a
warning indicator of pitot heater failure;
(e) a vertical-speed indicator;
(f) a turn-and-slip indicator, or a turn co-ordinator, incorporating a slip indicator;
(g) an attitude indicator;
(h) a stabilised direction indicator,
(i) a means of indicating on the flight deck the outside air temperature in degrees
Celsius; and
(j) an alternate source of static pressure for the altimeter and the airspeed and
vertical-speed indicators.
(2) If two pilots are required to operate a small commercial air transport aeroplane,
the second pilot's station shall be equipped with -
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(a) a sensitive pressure altimeter with a subscale setting, calibrated in hectopascal,
flight, which may be one of the two altimeters required under subregulation (l)(c);
(b) an airspeed indicator system with heated pitot tube or equivalent means for
preventing malfunction due to either condensation or icing including a warning
indicator of pitot heater failure;
(c) a vertical-speed indicator,
(d) a turn-and-slip indicator or a turn co-ordinator incorporating a slip indicator,
(e) an attitude indicator; and
(f) a stabilised direction indicator.
Altitude alerting system
135.05.4 The operator of a small turbojet-powered commercial air transport

aeroplane shall not operate the aeroplane unless such aeroplane is equipped with an
altitude alerting system capable of-
(a) alerting the flight deck crew members upon approaching preselected altitude in
either ascent or descent in sufficient time to establish level flight at such
preselected altitude; and
(b) alerting the flight deck crew members when deviating above or below a
preselected altitude by at least an aural signal.
Airborne weather radar equipment
135.05.5 (1) The operator of a small pressurised commercial air transport

aeroplane shall not operate the aeroplane unless such aeroplane is equipped with
airborne weather radar equipment whenever such aeroplane is being operated by
night or in IMC in areas where thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous weather
conditions, regarded as detectable with airborne weather radar’s, may be expected to
exist along the route.
(2) The Commissioner may, in the case of a propeller-driven pressurised small

commercial air transport aeroplane, approve the replacement of the airborne
weather radar equipment referred to in subregulation (1) with other equipment
capable of detecting thunderstorms and other potentially hazardous weather
conditions, regarded as detectable with airborne weather radar equipment.
Flight deck crew interphone system
135.05.6 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane on which

more than one flight deck crew member is required, shall not operate the aeroplane
unless such aeroplane is equipped with a flight deck crew interphone system,
including headsets and microphones, not of a hand-held type, for use by all flight
deck crew members.
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Means for emergency evacuation
135.05.7 (1) The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane with
passenger emergency exit sill heights –
(a) which are more than 1,83 metres above the ground with the aeroplane on the
ground and the landing gear extended; or
(b) which will be more than 1,83 metres above the ground after the collapse of, or
failure to extend one or more legs of the landing gear and for which a type
certificate was first applied for on or after 1 March 1998, shall not operate the
aeroplane unless such aeroplane has equipment or devices available at each exit
to enable passengers and flight crew members to reach the ground safely in an
emergency.
(2) The equipment or devices referred to in subregulation (1) need not be provided at
overwing exits if the designated place on the aeroplane structure at which the
escape route terminates, is less than 1,83 metres from the ground with the
aeroplane on the ground, the landing gear extended and the flaps in the take-off
or landing position, whichever flap position is higher from the ground.
(3) In an aeroplane required to have a separate emergency exit for the flight deck
crew and –
(a) for which the lowest point of the emergency exit is more than 1,83 metres above
the ground with the landing gear extended; or
(b) for which a type certificate was first applied for on or after 1 March 1998, and for
which the lowest point of the emergency exit will be more than 1,83 metres above
the ground after the collapse of, or failure to extend one or more legs of the
landing gear, there shall be a device to assist the flight deck crew members in
reaching the ground safely in an emergency.
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SUBPART 6: OPERATING CERTIFICATE
Operating certificate
135.06.1 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall not
operate the aeroplane unless such operator is the holder of a valid –
(a) licence issued in terms of the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990, or the
International Air Services Act, 1993; and
(b) operating certificate issued in terms of Regulation 135.06.3.
Application for operating certificate
135.06.2 An application for an operating certificate shall be made to the

Commissioner in the appropriate form as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS
135 and shall be accompanied by the appropriate fee as prescribed in Part 187.
Adjudication of application for operating certificate
135.06.3 (1) In considering an application referred to in Regulation 135.06.2 the

Commissioner may conduct the investigation he or she deems necessary.
(2) An application shall be granted and the operating certificate issued if the
Commissioner is satisfied that –
(a) the applicant will comply with the provisions of Regulation 135.06.1; and
(b) the applicant will not operate the air service concerned contrary to any provision
of the Act, the Civil Aviation Offences Act, 1972, the International Air Services Act,
1993, or the Air Service Licensing Act, 1990.
(3) If the Commissioner is not so satisfied he or she shall notify the operator thereof,
stating the reasons in the notification, and grant the operator the opportunity to
rectify or supplement any defect within the period determined by the
Commissioner, after which period the Commissioner shall grant or refuse the
application concerned.
(4) An operating certificate shall be issued on the appropriate form as prescribed in

Document SA-CATS-OPS 135, under such conditions which the Commissioner
may determine.
Period of validity of operating certificate
135.06.4 (1) An operating certificate shall be valid for such period as may be
determined by the Commissioner: Provided that such period shall not exceed a
period of 12 months from the date of issuing thereof.
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(2) If the holder of an operating certificate applies at least 30 days prior to the expiry
thereof for a new operating certificate, that first-mentioned operating certificate
shall, notwithstanding the provisions of subregulation (1), remain in force until
such holder is notified by the Commissioner of the result of the application for the
issuing of a new operating certificate.
Safety inspections and audits
135.06.5 (1) An applicant for the Issuing of an operating certificate shall permit an
authorised officer, inspector or authorised person to carry out such safety inspections
and audits which may be necessary to verify the validity of an application made in
terms of Regulation 135.06.2.
(2) The holder of an operating certificate shall permit an authorised officer, inspector
or authorised person to carry out such safety inspections and audits which may
be necessary to determine compliance with the appropriate requirements
prescribed in this part.
Suspension and cancellation of operating certificate and appeal
135.06.6 (1) An authorised officer, inspector or authorised person may suspend for
a period not exceeding 30 days, an operating certificate issued under this subpart, if-
(a) after a safety inspection and audit carried out in terms of Regulation 135.06.5, it
is evident that the holder of the operating certificate does not comply with the
requirements prescribed in this part, and such holder fails to remedy such non-
compliance within 30 days after receiving notice in writing from the authorised
officer, inspector or authorised person to do so; or
(b) the authorised officer, inspector or authorised person is prevented by the holder
of the operating certificate to carry out a safety inspection and audit in terms of
Regulation 135.06.5; or
(c) the suspension is necessary in the interests of aviation safety.
(2) The authorised officer, inspector or authorised person who has suspended an
operating certificate in terms of subregulation (1), shall deliver a report in writing
to the Commissioner, stating the reasons why, in his or her opinion, the
suspended operating certificate should be cancelled.
(3) The authorised officer, inspector or authorised person concerned shall submit a
copy of the report referred to in subregulation (2), to the holder of the operating
certificate which has been suspended, and shall furnish proof of such submission
for the information of the Commissioner.
(4) The holder of an operating certificate who feels aggrieved by the suspension of
the operating certificate may appeal against such suspension to the
Commissioner, within 30 days after such holder becomes aware of such
suspension.
(5) An appellant shall deliver an appeal in writing, stating the reasons why, in his, her
or its opinion, the suspension should be varied or set aside.
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(6) The appellant shall submit a copy of the appeal and any documents or records
supporting such appeal, to the authorised officer, inspector or authorised person
concerned and shall furnish proof of such submission for the information of the
Commissioner.
(7) The authorised officer, inspector or authorised person concerned may, within 30
days of receipt of the copy of the appeal referred to in subregulation(6) deliver his
or her written reply to such appeal to the Commissioner.
(8) The Commissioner may –
(a) adjudicate the appeal on the basis of the documents submitted to him or her; or
(b) order the appellant and the authorised officer, inspector or authorised person
concerned to appear before him or her, either in person or through a
representative, at a time and place determined by him or her, to give evidence,
(9) The Commissioner may confirm, vary or set aside the suspension referred to in
subregulation (1).
(10) The Commissioner shall –
(a) if he or she confirms the suspension in terms of subregulation (9), or

(b) if an operating certificate is suspended in terms of subregulation (1) and the
holder thereof does not appeal against such suspension in terms of subregulation
(4), cancel the operating certificate concerned.
Duties of holder of operating certificate
135.06.7 The holder of an operating certificate shall –
(a) notify the Commissioner in the manner as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-

OPS 135 before any change is effected to the particulars on the operating
certificate;
(b) keep the operating certificate in a safe place and produce such operating
certificate to an authorised officer, inspector or authorised person for inspection if
so requested by such officer, inspector or person; and
(c) not commence or continue with the air service concerned unless such holder is
the holder of a valid operating certificate.
Register of operating certificates
135.06.8 (1) The Commissioner shall maintain a register of all operating certificates
issued in terms of the regulations in this part.
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(a) The register shall contain the following particulars:
(b) the full name and, if any, the trade name of the holder of the operating certificate;
(c) the postal address of the holder of the operating certificate;
(d) the number of the operating certificate issued to the holder;
(e) particulars of the type of air service for which the operating certificate is issued;
(f) particulars of the category of aeroplane for which the operating certificate was
issued; and
(g) the date on which the operating certificate was issued.
(3) The particulars referred to in subregulation (2) shall be recorded in the register
within 30 days from the date on which the operating certificate was issued by the
Commissioner.
(4) The register shall be kept in a safe place at the office of the Commissioner.
(5) A copy of the register shall be furnished by the Commissioner, on payment of the
appropriate fee as prescribed in Part 187, to any person who requests the copy.
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Routes and areas of operation
ensure that operations are only conducted along such routes or within such areas, for
which –
(a) in the case of scheduled public air transport service operations –
i ground facilities and services, including meteorological services,

are provided which are adequate for the planned operation; and
ii appropriate maps and charts are available;
(b) approval or authorisation has been obtained, where required, from the
appropriate authority concerned;
(c) if a twin-engine aeroplane is used, adequate aerodromes are available within the
time or distance limitations as prescribed in Document SA CATS-OPS 135; and
(d) if a single-engine aeroplane Is used, surfaces are available which permit a safe
forced landing to be executed.
(2) The operator shall ensure that –
(a) the performance of the aeroplane intended to be used, is adequate to comply

with minimum flight altitude requirements; and
(b) the equipment of the aeroplane intended to be used, complies with the minimum
requirements for the planned operation.
Establishment of procedures
135.07.2 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall –
(a) establish procedures and instructions, for each aeroplane type, containing ground
personnel and flight crew member's duties for all types of operations on the
ground and in flight;
(b) establish a checklist system to be used by flight deck crew members for all
phases of operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions, to
ensure that the operating procedures in the operations manual referred to in
Regulation 135.04.2, are followed; and
(c) ensure that flight crew members do not perform any activities during critical
phases of the flight other than those required for the safe operation of the
aeroplane.
Operational control and supervision
135.07.3 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall exercise
operational control and establish and maintain an approved method of supervision of
flight operations.
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Competence of operations personnel
that all personnel assigned to, or directly involved in ground and flight operations, are
properly instructed, have demonstrated their abilities in their particular duties and are
aware of their responsibilities and the relationship of such duties to the operation as a
whole.
Use of air traffic services
that air traffic services are used for all flights whenever available.
Minimum flight altitudes
establish minimum flight altitudes and the methods to determine such minimum flight
altitudes for all route segments to be flown which provide the required terrain
clearance, taking into account the operating limitations referred to in subpart 8 and
the minimum altitudes prescribed in subpart 6 of Part 91.
(2) The operator shall take into account the following factors when establishing
minimum flight altitudes:
(a) The accuracy with which the position of the aeroplane can be determined;
(b) the possible inaccuracies in the indications of the altimeters used;
(c) the characteristics of the terrain along the routes or in the areas where operations
are to be conducted;
(d) the probability of encountering unfavourable meteorological conditions; and
(e) possible inaccuracies in aeronautical charts.
(3) In complying with the provisions of subregulation (2), the operator shall give due
consideration to -
(a) corrections for temperature and pressure variations from standard values;
(b) the air traffic control requirements; and
(c) any contingencies which may occur along the planned route.
establish aerodrome operating minima in accordance with the provisions of
subregulations (2), (3) and (4) and in conjunction with the instrument approach and
landing charts for each aerodrome intended to be used either as destination or
alternate aerodrome.
(2) The operator shall establish. aerodrome operating minima for each aerodrome
planned to be used, which shall not be lower than the values as prescribed in
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(3) The method of determining aerodrome operating minima shall be approved by
the Commissioner.
(4) The aerodrome operating minima established by the operator shall not be lower
than any aerodrome operating minima established by the appropriate authority of
the State in which the aerodrome concerned is located: Provided that if such
appropriate authority approves such lower aerodrome operating minima
established by the operator, the lower aerodrome operating minima shall apply.
Smoking in aeroplane
135.07.8 No person shall smoke in a South African registered aeroplane when

such aeroplane is used in a scheduled air transport service operation and has
departed from and will be landing within the Republic.
Fuel policy
establish a fuel policy for the purpose of flight planning and in-flight replanning to
ensure that every flight carries sufficient fuel for the planned operation and reserve
fuel to cover deviations from the planned operation.
(2) The operator shall ensure that the planning of a flight is only based upon-
(a) procedures, tables or graphs which are contained in or derived from the
operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2, or current aeroplane-
specific data;
(b) the operating conditions under which the flight is to be conducted including –
i realistic aeroplane fuel consumption data;

ii anticipated masses;
iii expected meteorological conditions; and
iv air traffic service procedures and restrictions.
(3) The operator shall ensure that the calculation of usable fuel required by such
aeroplane for a flight includes –
(a) taxi fuel;

(b) trip fuel;
(c) reserve fuel consisting of –
i contingency fuel as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135;

ii alternate fuel, if a destination alternate aerodrome is required;
iii two-hours island holding fuel in situations where the destination
aerodrome is remote or no suitable alternate aerodrome exists;
iv final reserve fuel;
v additional fuel, if required by the type of operation; and
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(d) extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command.
(4) The operator shall ensure that in-flight replanning procedures for calculating
usable fuel required when a flight has to proceed along a route or to a destination
aerodrome other than originally planned includes –
(a) trip fuel for the remainder of the flight;

(b) reserve fuel consisting of –
i contingency fuel;
ii alternate fuel, if a destination alternate aerodrome is required,
including selection of the departure aerodrome as the destination
alternate aerodrome;
iii final reserve fuel; and
iv additional fuel, if required by the type of operation; and
extra fuel, if required by the pilot-in-command.
Fuel and oil supply
135.07.10 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall

establish a procedure to ensure that in-flight fuel checks and fuel management are
carried out.
Instrument approach and departure procedures
135.07.11 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane may

implement instrument approach and departure procedures, other than instrument
approach and departure procedures referred to in Regulation 91.07.16(1), if required:
Provided that such instrument approach and departure procedures have been
approved by –
(a) the appropriate authority of the State in which the aerodrome to be used, is
located; and
(b) the Commissioner.
Noise abatement procedures
establish operating procedures for noise abatement.
(2) Take-off and climb procedures for noise abatement specified by the operator for
any one aeroplane type shall be the same for all aerodromes.
Carriage of infants and children
ensure that an infant is only carried when properly secured with a child restraint
device or in the arms or on the lap of an adult passenger.
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(2) Infants shall not be seated in front of exits.
(3) Infants shall not be carried behind a bulkhead unless a child restraint device is
used during critical phases of flight and during turbulence.
(4) When an infant is carried in the arms or on the lap of a passenger, the seat belt,
when required to be worn, shall be fastened around the passenger carrying or
nursing the infant, but not around the infant.
(5) When an infant is carried in the arms or on the lap of a passenger on a small
commercial air transport aeroplane, the name of the infant shall be bracketed on
the passenger list with the name of the person carrying or nursing the infant.
(6) An infant may be seated in a car-type infant seat, approved for use in an
aeroplane, provided it is secured to the aeroplane seat.
(7) A car-type infant seat referred to in subregulation (6) shall not be located in the
same row or a row directly forward or aft of an emergency exit.
Carriage of passengers with disability
establish procedures, including identification, seating positions and handing in the
event of an emergency, for the carriage of passengers with a disability.
(2) The operator shall ensure that –
(a) the pilot-in-command of the aeroplane is notified when a passenger with a

disability is to be carried on board;
(b) a passenger with a disability Is not seated in the same row or a row directly
forward or aft of an emergency exit;
(c) individual briefings on emergency procedures are given to a passenger with a
disability and his or her able-bodied assistant, appropriate to the needs of such
passenger; and
(d) the person giving the briefing shall enquire as to the most appropriated manner of
assisting the passenger with a disability so as to prevent pain or injury to such
passenger.
(3) In the case of the carriage of a stretcher patient in the aeroplane –
(a) the stretcher shall be secured in such aeroplane so as to prevent it from moving
under the maximum accelerations likely to be experienced in flight and in an
emergency alighting such as ditching;
(b) the patient shall be secured by an approved harness to the stretcher or aeroplane
structure; and
(c) an able-bodied assistant shall accompany each stretcher patient.
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(4) A mentally disturbed person shall not be carried in the aeroplane unless –
(a) accompanied by an able-bodied assistant; and

(b) a medical certificate has been issued by a medical practitioner certifying such
mentally disturbed person's suitability for carriage by air, and confirming that
there is no risk of violence from such person.
(5) The operator shall undertake the carriage of a mentally disturbed person who,
according to his or her medical history, may become violent, only after special
permission has been obtained from the Commissioner by such operator.
(6) A passenger with a splinted or artificial limb may travel unaccompanied provided
he or she is able to assist himself or herself.
(7) The affected limb or supporting aids of a passenger referred to in subregulation

(6) shall not obstruct an aisle or any emergency exit or equipment.
(8) If a passenger with a splinted or artificial limb cannot assist himself or herself then
he or she shall be accompanied by an able-bodied assistant.
Limitations of carriage of infants, children and passengers with disability
135.07.15 (1) Only one passenger with a disability or one unaccompanied minor
may be carried in a small commercial air transport aeroplane.
(2) An able-bodied assistant shall accompany a passenger with a disability who

cannot assist himself or herself, and such assistant shall be assigned with the
responsibility of the safety of such passenger.
(3) The operator may establish procedures, other than the procedures referred to in
subregulations (1) and (2), for the carriage of infants, children, and passengers
with a disability: Provided that such procedures –
(a) do not jeopardise aviation safety; and

(b) prior written approval is obtained from the Commissioner.
Carriage of inadmissible passengers, deportees or persons in custody
establish procedures for the carriage of inadmissible passengers, deportees or
persons in custody to ensure the safety of the aeroplane and its occupants.
(2) The pilot-in-command of the aeroplane shall be notified by the operator of such
aeroplane prior to departure, of the intended carriage, and the reason for
carriage, of any of the persons referred to in subregulation (1).
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(3) For the purposes of this regulation, "inadmissible passenger" means any person
who is not entitled to board the aeroplane and includes those persons who are
not in the possession of a valid passenger ticket, passport or visa.
Carry-on baggage
establish adequate procedures to ensure that only such baggage is carried onto the
aeroplane and taken into the passenger cabin as can be adequately and securely
stowed.
(2) The minimum requirements for the procedures referred to in subregulation (1)
shall be as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-OPS 135.
Securing of passenger cabin and galley
135.07.18 (1) Before take-off and landing and whenever deemed necessary in the
interests of aviation safety, the pilot-in-command of a small commercial air transport
aeroplane shall ensure that –
(a) all equipment, baggage and loose articles in the cabin of the aeroplane, including
passenger service items and flight crew members' and passengers' personal
effects, are properly secured and stowed so as to avoid the possibility of injury to
persons or damage to such aeroplane through the movement of such articles
caused by in-flight turbulence or by unusual accelerations or manoeuvres; and all
aisles, passage ways, exits and escape paths are kept clear of obstructions.
(b) All solid articles shall be placed in approved stowage areas in the aeroplane, at
all time whenever the seat belt lights are illuminated or when so directed by the
pilot-in-command of such aeroplane.
(3) For the purposes of subregulation (2), "approved stowage area” means –
(a) the area under a passenger seat; or

(b) a locker, overhead; or other, utilised in accordance with the placard mass
limitation of the locker.
(4) No take-off or landing shall be commenced by the pilot-in-command of the

aeroplane, unless he or she has been informed of the safe condition of the cabin.
Passenger services
135.07.19 (1) Except when in use, all items for passenger services, including food
containers, thermos flasks and servicing trays, shall be carried in their respective
stowage’s and secured against movements likely to cause injury to persons or
damage to the aeroplane.
(2) All items referred to in subregulation (1) shall be stowed during take-off and
landing or during emergency situations, as directed by the pilot-in-command of
the aeroplane.
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(3) Any item which cannot be accommodated in the stowage, referred to in
subregulation (1), shall not be permitted in the cabin of the aeroplane.
(4) Securing of the cabin shall be completed before the approach for landing of the
aeroplane is commenced.
(5) If passenger services are provided while the aeroplane is on the ground, no
passenger service equipment shall obstruct the aisles or exits of the aeroplane
Incidents and defects
establish adequate inspection and reporting procedures to ensure that defective
equipment are reported to the pilot-in-command of the aeroplane before take-off.
(2) The procedures referred to in subregulation (1) shall be extended to include the
reporting to the operator of all incidents or the exceeding of limitations that may
occur while the flight crew are embarked on the aeroplane and of defective
equipment found on board.
(3) Upon receipt of the reports referred to in subregulation (2), the operator shall
compile a report and submit such report on a monthly basis to the Commissioner.
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SUBPART 8: AEROPLANE PERFORMANCE OPERATING LIMITATIONS
Classification
135.08.1 (1) The classification of aeroplanes for performance limitation purposes

is prescribed in Regulation 91.09.4 (2) The operator of a small commercial air
transport aeroplane shall ensure that-
(a) a Class A aeroplane is operated in accordance with the performance operating

limitations prescribed in Division One;
(b) a Class B aeroplane is operated in accordance with the performance operating
limitation prescribed in Division Two; and
(c) a Class D aeroplane is operated in accordance with the performance limitations
prescribed in Division Three.
(3) Where specific design characteristics of an aeroplane prevents the compliance

with the regulations in Division One, Two or Three of this subpart, the operator
shall, notwithstanding the provisions of subregulation (2), ensure that the
aeroplane is operated in accordance with such standard that a level of safety
equivalent to the level of safety prescribed in the appropriate Division in this
subpart is maintained.
General provisions for all classes of aeroplanes
ensure that the mass of the aeroplane, at the start of the take-off, is not greater than
the mass at which the requirements prescribed in the appropriate Division can be
complied with for the flight to be undertaken, allowing for expected reductions in
mass as the flight proceeds.
(2) The operator shall ensure that the approved performance data contained in the
aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, is used to determine
compliance with the requirements prescribed in the appropriate Division
supplemented as necessary with other approved data prescribed in the
appropriate Division.
(3) A twin-engine propeller-driven small commercial air transport aeroplane which

does not comply with the requirements as prescribed in Document SA-CATS-
OPS 135 for take-off and landing shall, for the purposes of this subpart, be
deemed to be a single-engine aeroplane, to be operated in accordance with the
performance operating limitations prescribed in Division Three.
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Division One: Class A Aeroplane
General
135.08.3 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane shall ensure that, for determining
compliance with the requirements prescribed in this Division, the approved
performance data in the aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4,
is supplemented as necessary with other approved data if the approved performance
data in such aeroplane flight manual are insufficient in respect of-
(a) accounting for reasonably expected adverse operating conditions such as take-
off and landing on contaminated runways, and
(b) consideration of engine failure in all flight phases.
(2) The operator shall ensure that, in the case of a wet and contaminated runway,
performance data determined in accordance with an approved method is used.
Take-off
135.08.4 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane shall ensure that the take off
mass of the aeroplane does not exceed the maximum certificated mass for the
pressure altitude and the ambient temperature at the aerodrome of departure.
(a) The operator shall comply with the following requirements when determining the
maximum permitted take-off mass of the aeroplane at the aerodrome of
departure:
(b) The required accelerate-stop distance shall not exceed the accelerate-stop
distance available;
(c) the required take-off distance shall not exceed the take-off distance available,
with a clearway distance not exceeding half of the take-off run available;
(d) the required take-off run shall not exceed the take-off run available;
(e) compliance with the provisions of this subregulation shall be shown using a single
value of V1 for the rejected and continued take-off; and
(f) on a wet or contaminated runway, the take-off mass shall not exceed the take-off
mass permitted for a take-off on a dry runway under the same conditions .
(2) When determining the maximum permitted take-off mass prescribed in

subregulation (2), the operator shall take account of –
(a) the pressure altitude at the aerodrome;

(b) the ambient temperature at the aerodrome;
(c) the runway surface condition and the type of runway surface;
(d) the runway slope in the direction of take-off;
(e) Brake energy;
(f) tyre-speed limit;
(g) pilot reaction time;
(h) not more than 50 per cent of the reported head-wind component or not less than
150 per cent of the reported tail-wind component; and
i. the loss, if any, of runway length due to alignment of the aeroplane prior to take-
off.
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Net take-off flight path
135.08.5 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane shall ensure that the net take-off
flight path clears all obstacles by a vertical distance of at least 35 feet or by a
horizontal distance of at least 90 metres plus 0.125 x D, where D is the horizontal
distance the aeroplane has travelled from the end of the take-off distance available.
(2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), the operator shall take
account of –
(a) the mass of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run,
(b) the pressure altitude of the aerodrome;
(c) the ambient temperature at the aerodrome; and
(d) not more than 50 per cent of the reported head-wind component or not less than
150 per cent of the reported tail-wind component.
(3) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), track changes shall
not be allowed up to the point on the net take-off path where a height of 50 feet
above the take-off surface has been achieved and thereafter, up to a height of
400 feet, it is assumed that the aeroplane is banked by not more than 15°:
Provided that-
(a) above 400 feet, height bank angles greater than 15°, but not more than 25°, may
be scheduled; and
(b) adequate allowance is made for the effect of bank angle on operating speeds and
flight path, including the distance increments resulting from increased operating
speeds.
(4) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1) in those cases where the
intended flight path does not require track changes of more than 15°, the
operator shall not be required to consider those obstacles which have a lateral
distance greater than –
(a) 300 metres, if the pilot is able to maintain the required navigation accuracy
through the obstacle accountability area; or
(b) 600 metres, for flights under all other conditions.
When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1) in those cases where the
intended flight path does not require track changes of more than 15°, the operator
shall not be required to consider those obstacles which have a lateral distance
greater than -
(a) 600 metres if the pilot is able to maintain the required navigation accuracy
through the obstacle accountability area; or
(b) 900 metres for flights under all other conditions.
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6. The operator shall establish contingency procedures to satisfy the requirements
prescribed in this regulation in order to provide a safe route avoiding obstacles to
enable the aeroplane to land safely at the aerodrome of departure or at a take-off
alternate aerodrome, if so required.
En route with one engine inoperative
135.08.6 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane shall demonstrate that the one-
engine inoperative en route net flight path data for the aeroplane shown in the
aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, appropriate to the
meteorological conditions expected for the flight, complies with subregulation (2) or
(3) at all points along the planned route.
(2) The net flight path shall have a positive slope at 1 500 feet above the aerodrome,
where the landing is assumed to be made after engine failure.
(3) At altitudes and under meteorological conditions where icing protection systems
shall be operated, the effect of the use of such icing protection systems on the
net flight path shall be taken into account.
(4) The slope of the net flight path shall be positive at an altitude of at least 1 000
feet above all terrain and obstructions along the route within 10 nautical miles on
either side of the intended track.
(5) The net flight path shall permit the aeroplane to continue flight from the cruising
altitude to an aerodrome where a landing can be made in accordance with
Regulation 135.08.8 or 135.08.9, as the case may be, the net flight path clearing
vertically, by at least 2 000 feet, all terrain and obstructions along the route within
10 nautical miles on either side of the intended track in accordance with the
provisions of subregulations (1) to (4). Provided that –
(a) the engine is assumed to fail at the most critical point along the route, and
allowance is made for indecision and navigation error;
(b) account is taken of the effects of winds on the flight path; and
(c) the aerodrome where the aeroplane is assumed to land after engine failure,
complies with the following criteria:
i The performance requirements at the expected landing mass are

complied with; and
ii weather reports and forecasts, or any combination thereof, and

field condition reports indicate that a safe landing can be accom-
plished at the estimated time of arrival.
(6) When complying with the provisions of this regulation, the operator may reduce
the width margins referred to in subregulations (4) and (5), to five nautical miles if
the required navigation accuracy can be achieved.
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Landing at destination and alternate aerodromes
135.08.7 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane shall ensure that the landing
mass of the aeroplane, determined in accordance with the provisions of Regulation
135.08.2(1), does not exceed the maximum landing mass specified for the altitude
and the ambient temperature expected for the estimated time of landing at the
destination and alternate aerodrome.
(2) For instrument approaches with decision heights below 200 feet, the operator
shall verify that the approach mass of the aeroplane, taking into account the take-
off mass and the fuel expected to be consumed in flight, allows a missed
approach gradient of climb of at least 2,5 per cent in the approach configuration
with one engine inoperative, or an approved alternative procedure.
Landing on dry runways
135.08.8 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane shall ensure that the landing
mass of the aeroplane determined in accordance with the provisions of Regulation
135.08.2(1) for the estimated time of landing, allows a full-stop landing from 50 feet
above the threshold within 70 per cent of the landing distance available at the
destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome: Provided that the
Commissioner may permit the use of a screen height of less than 5O feet, but not
less than 35 feet, for steep-approach and short-landing procedures.
account of-
(a) the pressure altitude at the aerodrome; and

(b) not more than 50 per cent of the reported head-wind component or not less than
150 per cent of the reported tail-wind component.
(3) For dispatching the aeroplane in accordance with subregulation (1), it shall be
assumed that –
(a) such aeroplane will land on the most favourable runway, in still air; and
(b) such aeroplane will land on the runway most likely to be assigned considering the
probable wind speed and direction and the ground handling characteristics of the
aeroplane, and considering other conditions such as landing aids and terrain.
(4) If the operator is unable to comply with the provisions of subregulation (3)(b) for
the destination aerodrome, the aeroplane may be dispatched if an alternate
aerodrome is designed which permits full compliance with the provisions of
subregulations (1), (2) and (3).
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Landing on wet and contaminated runways
135.08.9 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane shall ensure that, when the
appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the
runway at the estimated time of arrival may be wet, the landing distance available is
at least 115 per cent of the required landing distance determined in accordance with
the provisions of Regulation 135.08.8.
(2) The operator shall ensure that, when the appropriate weather reports or
forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the estimated time
of arrival may be contaminated, the landing distance available must be at least
the landing distance determined in accordance with the provisions of
subregulation (1) or at least 115 per cent of the landing distance determined in
accordance with approved contaminated landing distance data or an equivalent
thereof, whichever is the greater.
(3) A landing distance on a wet runway shorter than the landing distance required by
the provisions of subregulation (1), but not less than the landing distance required
by the provisions of Regulation 135.08.8(1), may be used if the aeroplane flight
manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4 includes specific additional information
on landing distances on wet runways.
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Division Two: Class B Aeroplane
General
135.08.10 The regulations in this Division shall apply to –
(a) the operator of a Class A aeroplane which does not comply with the performance
operating instruction prescribed in Division One on the date of commencement of
the Regulations, and who may, until 30 June 1998, operate the aeroplane under
performance operating limitations approved by the Commissioner: Provided that
such limitations shall not be less restrictive than the performance operating
instructions prescribed in this Division; and
(b) the operator of a Class B aeroplane.
Take-off
135.08.11 (1) The operator of a Class A aeroplane prescribed in Regulation

135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that the take-off mass of the
aeroplane does not exceed the maximum certificated mass for the pressure altitude
and the ambient temperature at the aerodrome of departure.
(2) The operator shall ensure that the take-off distance, as specified in the aeroplane
flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, multiplied by a factor of 1.3,
does not exceed the take-off run available.
account of-
(a) the mass of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run, and
(b) the requirements prescribed in Regulation 135.08.4(3)
Take-off flight path

135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that the take-off flight path of the
aeroplane clears all obstacles by a vertical margin of at least 295 feet plus 0,125 x D,
where D is the horizontal distance the aeroplane has travelled from the end of the
take-off distance available except as prescribed in subregulations (3) and (4).
(2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), it shall be assumed that
–
(a) the take-off flight path begins at a height of 50 feet above the take-off surface at
the end of the take-off distance prescribed in Regulation 135.08.11(2) and ends
at a height of 1 500 feet above the take-off surface;
(b) the aeroplane is not banked before such aeroplane has reached a height of 50
feet above the take-off surface, and that thereafter the angle of the bank does not
exceed 15°;
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(c) failure of the critical engine occurs at the point of the all-engines take-off flight
path where the loss of visual reference for the purpose of avoiding obstacles is
expected to occur;
(d) the gradient of the take-off flight path from 50 feet to the assumed engine-failure
height is equal to the average all-engines gradient during climb and transition to
the en route configuration, multiplied by a factor of 0,77; and
(e) the gradient of the take-off flight path from the height reached in accordance with
the provisions of paragraph (d) to the end of the take-off flight path, is equal to the
one-engine-inoperative en route climb gradient shown in the aeroplane flight
manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4.
(3) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), in those cases where
the
intended flight path does not require track changes of more than 15°, the operator
need not consider obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than-
(a) 300 metres, if the flight is conducted under conditions allowing visual course
guidance navigation, or if navigation aids or available enabling the pilot to
maintain the intended flight path with the same accuracy; and
(4) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1),in those cases where the
intended flight path requires heading changes of more than 15°, an operator need
not consider obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than –
(a) 600 metres for nights under conditions allowing visual course guidance
navigation; or
(5) When complying with the provisions of this regulation, an operator shall take
account of the requirements prescribed in Regulation 135.08.5(2).
En route

135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall be able to demonstrate that the aeroplane,
in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, and in the event of the failure
of one engine, with the remaining engine or engines operating within the maximum
continuous power conditions specified, is capable of continuing flight at or above the
relevant minimum altitudes for safe flight stated in the operations manual prescribed
in Regulation 135.04.2, to a point 1 000 feet above an aerodrome at which the
performance requirements can be complied with.
(2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1) –
(a) the aeroplane shall be assumed not to be flying at an altitude exceeding the
altitude at which the rate of climb equals 300 feet per minute with all engines
operating within the maximum continuous power conditions specified in the
operations manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.2; and
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(b) the assumed en route gradient with one-engine-inoperative shall be the gross
gradient minus 0,5 per cent gradient.
135.08.14 The operator of a Class A aeroplane prescribed in Regulation

135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that the landing mass of the
aeroplane does not exceed the maximum landing mass specified for the altitude and
the ambient temperature expected for the estimated time of arrival at the destination
and alternate aerodrome.

135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that the landing mass of the
aeroplane for the estimated time of arrival, allows a full-stop landing from 50 feet
above the threshold within 70 per cent of the landing distance available at the
destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome: Provided that the
Commissioner may permit the use of a screen height of less than 50 feet, but not
less than 35 feet, for steep-approach and short-landing procedures.
account of-
(a) the runway surface condition and the type of runway surface;
(b) the runway slope in the direction of take-off; and
(c) the requirements referred to in Regulation 135.08.8(2)(a) and (b).
(3) For dispatching the aeroplane in accordance with the provisions of subregulation
(1), it shall be assumed that –
aeroplane, and considering landing aids and terrain.
(4) If the operator is unable to comply with the provisions of subregulation 30(b) for
the destination aerodrome, the aeroplane may be dispatched if an alternate
aerodrome is designated which permits full compliance with the provisions of

135.08.10, or a Class B aeroplane, shall ensure that, when the appropriated weather
reports or forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the
estimated time of arrival may be wet, the landing distance available is at least 115
per cent of the required landing distance determined in accordance with the
provisions of Regulation 135.08.15.
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forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the estimated
time of arrival may be contaminated, the landing distance available is at least the
required approved landing distance.
the provisions of subregulation (1), but not less than the landing distance
required by the provisions of Regulation 135.08.15(1), may be used if the
aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, includes specified
additional information on landing distances on wet runways.
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Division 3: Class D Aeroplane
General
135.08.17 The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall not operate the aeroplane -
(a) by night; or
(b) in IMC except under special VFR or under special conditions as approved by the
Commissioner.
Take-off
135.08.18 (1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that the take-off
mass of the aeroplane does not exceed the maximum certificated mass for the
pressure altitude and the ambient temperature at the aerodrome of departure.
(2) The operator shall ensure that the take-off distance, as specified in the aeroplane
flight manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.4, multiplied by a factor of 1.3,
does not exceed the take-off run available.
account of –
(a) the mass of the aeroplane at the commencement of the take-off run; and
(b) the requirements prescribed in Regulation 135.08.4(3).
Take-off flight path
135.08.19 (1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that the take-off
flight path of the aeroplane clears all obstacles by a vertical margin of at least 295
feet plus 0,125 x D, where D is the horizontal distance the aeroplane has travelled
from the end of the take-off distance available, except as provided in subregulations
(3) and (4).
(2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1), it shall be assumed that
–
(a) the take-off flight path begins at a height of 50 feet above the take-off surface at
the end of the take-off distance required by Regulation 135.08.12(2) and ends at
a height of 1 500 feet above the take-off surface;
(b) The aeroplane is not banked before such aeroplane has reached a height of 50
feet above the take-off surface, and that thereafter the angle of bank does not
exceed 15°,
(c) engine failure occurs at the point of the take-off flight path where the loss of visual
reference for the purpose of avoiding obstacles is expected to occur; and
(d) the gradient of the take-off flight path from 50 feet to the assumed engine-failure
height is the gradient during climb and transition to the en route configuration,
multiplied by a factor of 0,11.
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the intended flight path does not require track changes of more than 15°, the
operator need not consider obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than-
(a) 300 metres, if the flight is conducted under conditions allowing visual course
guidance navigation, or if navigation aids are available enabling the pilot to
maintain the intended flight path with the same accuracy; and
the intended flight path requires heading changes of more than 15°, an operator
need not consider obstacles which have a lateral distance greater than –
(a) 600 metres for flights under conditions allowing visual course guidance
navigation; or
(5) When complying with the provisions of this regulation, the operator shall take
account of the requirements referred to in Regulation 135.08.5(2).
En route
135.08.20 (1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall be able to demonstrate

that the aeroplane, in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, is capable
of continuing flight at or above the relevant minimum altitudes for safe flight stated in
the operations manual prescribed in Regulation 135.04.2, to a point 1 000 feet above
an aerodrome at which the performance requirements can be complied with.
(2) When complying with the provisions of subregulation (1) the aeroplane shall be
assumed not to be flying at an altitude exceeding the altitude at which the rate of
climb equals 300 feet per minute within the maximum continuous power
conditions specified in the aeroplane flight manual prescribed in Regulation
135.04.4.
135.08.21 The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that the landing mass
of the aeroplane does not exceed the maximum landing mass specified for the
altitude and the ambient temperature for the estimated time of arrival at the
destination and alternate aerodrome.
135.08.22 (1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that the landing
mass of the aeroplane for the estimated time of arrival allows a fun-stop landing from
50 feet above the threshold within 70 per cent of the landing distance available at the
destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome:
Provided that the Commissioner may permit the use of a screen height of less than
50 feet, but not less than 35 feet, for steep-approach and short-landing procedures.
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account of-
(a) the runway surface condition and the type of runway surface;
(b) the runway slope in the direction of take-off; and
(c) the requirements referred to in Regulation 135.08.8(2)(a) and (b).
(3) For dispatching the aeroplane in accordance with the provisions of subregulation
(1), it shall be assumed that –
aeroplane, and considering landing aids and terrain.
(4) If the operator is unable to comply with the provisions of subregulation 3(b) for the
destination aerodrome, the aeroplane may be dispatched if an alternate
aerodrome is designated which permits full compliance with the provisions of
135.08.23 (1) The operator of a Class D aeroplane shall ensure that, when the
appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the
runway at the estimated time of arrival may be wet, the landing distance is at least
115 per cent of the required landing distance in accordance with the provisions of
Regulation 135.08.22.
forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runway at the estimated time
of arrival may be contaminated, the landing distance available is at least the
required approved landing distance.
the provisions of subregulation (1), but not less than the landing distance required
by the provisions of Regulation 135.08.22(1), may be used if the aeroplane flight
manual referred to in Regulation 135.04.4, includes specified additional
information on landing distances on wet runways.
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General
135.09.1 The operator of a small commercial air transport aeroplane shall not
operate the aeroplane unless such aeroplane is maintained in accordance with the
regulations in Part 43.
Aeroplane maintenance schedule
ensure that the aeroplane is maintained in accordance with an aeroplane
maintenance schedule established by the operator.
(2) The schedule shall contain details, including frequency, of all maintenance
required to be carried out on the aeroplane.
(3) The schedule shall include a reliability programme if the Commissioner

determines that such a reliability programme is necessary.
(4) The schedule referred to in subregulation (1) and any subsequent amendment
thereof shall be approved by the Commissioner.
Maintenance contracted to approved maintenance organisation
135.09.3 If maintenance on a small commercial air transport aeroplane is carried

out by the holder of an aircraft maintenance organisation approval with the
appropriate rating issued in terms of Part 145, the operator of the aeroplane shall
ensure that all contracted maintenance is carried out in accordance with the
regulations in Part 43.
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S A CATS OPS 135
(AIR TRANSPORT OPERATIONS: SMALL
AEROPLANES)
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LIST OF TECHNICAL STANDARDS
135.01.2 EXEMPTIONS
1. Exemptions
135.01.10
SUBCHARTERING
1. Subchartering
135.02.5 FLIGHT TIME AND DUTY PERIODS

1. Definitions
2. Requirements for the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997
3. Operators’ schemes and their approval
4. General principles of control of flight, duty and rest time
5. Responsibilities of flight crew members
6. Standard provisions required for an operator’s scheme
7. Limitations of single flight duty periods – flight crew
8. Rest periods
9. Duty periods
10. Days off
11. Cumulative duty and flying hours
12. Cabin crew members
13. Records to be maintained.
135.03.1 TRAINING OF FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS

1. Training syllabus
135.03.3 CONVERSION TRAINING

1. Operator’s conversion training course syllabus
2. Flight deck crew resource management training
35.03.5 UPGRADING TO PILOT-IN-COMMAND

135.03.6 RECURRENT TRAINING AND CHECKING

135.03.8 PILOT QUALIFICATION TO OPERATE IN EITHER PILOTS' SEAT

1. Training
135.04.2 OPERATIONS MANUAL

1. Structure of operations manual
2. Contents of operations manual
135.04.5 OPERATIONAL FLIGHT PLAN

1. Items in operational flight plan
135.04.7 RECORDS OF EMERGENCY AND SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT

1. Emergency and survival equipment list
135.04.9 LOAD AND TRIM SHEET

1. Load and trim sheet
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135.05.13 EMERGENCY MEDICAL KIT
1. Contents
135.06.2 APPLICATION FOR OPERATING CERTIFICATES

1. Application for operating certificate
135.06.3 ADJUDICATION OF APPLICATION FOR OPERATING CERTIFICATE

1. Issuing of operating certificate
135.06.7 DUTIES OF HOLDER OF OPERATING CERTIFICATE

1. Notification
135.07.1 ROUTES AND AREAS OF OPERATION

1. Time/distance limitations
2. Adequate aerodrome
135.07.7 AERODROME OPERATING MINIMA

1. Take-off minima
2. Non-precision approach
3. Precision approach - Category I operations
4. Precision approach - Category II operations
5. Precision approach - Category III operations
6. Circling
7. Visual approach
8. Conversion of reported meteorological visibility to RVR
135.07.10 FUEL POLICY

1. Contingency fuel
135.07.18 CARRY-ON BAGGAGE

1. Procedures for stowing of carry-on baggage
TABLES
TABLE 1: MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : SINGLE PILOT CREWS -

AEROPLANES CERTIFIED FOR SINGLE PILOT OPERATIONS
TABLE 2 : MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : TWO PILOT CREWS - AEROPLANES :

ACCLIMATISED TO LOCAL TIME
TABLE 3. MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : TWO PILOT CREWS - AEROPLANES

NOT ACCLIMATISED TO LOCAL TIME
TABLE 4 MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : BASIC CREW CONSISTING OF THREE

FLIGHT
MEMBERS - AEROPLANES CERTIFIED FOR THREE CREW MEMBERS :
TABLE 5 MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : BASIS CONSISTING OF THREE

FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS - AEROPLANES CERTIFIED FOR THREE
FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS : NOT ACCLIMATISED TO LOCAL TIME
ANNEXURES
ANNEXURE A : PILOT-IN-COMMAND'S DISCRETION REPORT
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ANNEXURE B: LOAD AND TRIM SHEET
ANNEXURE C : APPLICATION FOR THE ISSUING OF AN OPERATING CERTIFICATE

NOTIFICATION OF CHANGES TO THE PARTICULARS ON AN OPERATING
CERTIFICATE
ANNEXURE D : OPERATING CERTIFICATE
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135.01.2 EXEMPTIONS
1. Exemptions
(1) The Commissioner may, on application, exempt any person or aeroplane involved in
or used for emergency operations, from the provisions of Part 135, on condition that
the Commissioner is satisfied that –
(a) exceptional circumstances prevail which necessitates the exemption;
(b) there is a need for the exemption; and
(c) an acceptable level of safety is maintained.
(2) The Commissioner may determine any supplementary condition that he or she
deems necessary in order to ensure that an acceptable level of safety is
maintained.
(3) An application for an exemption must be made in terms of the provisions of Part 11.
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135.01.10 SUBCHARTERING
Subchartering
An operator may subcharter an aeroplane or flight crew, or both an aeroplane and flight
crew in circumstances where such operator is
faced with an immediate, urgent and unforeseen need for a replacement aeroplane
and/or flight crew.
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135.02.5 FLIGHT TIME AND DUTY PERIODS
1. Definitions
standard, the same meaning unless the context indicates otherwise, and –
"days off' means periods available for leisure and relaxation, no part of which forms
part of a duty period. A single day off must include two local nights. Consecutive days
off must include a further local night for each consecutive day off. A rest period may
be included as part of a day off;
"duty period" means any continuous period throughout which either a flight crew
member flies in any aeroplane, whether as a flight crew member or as a passenger,
at the behest of his or her employer, or otherwise carries out a required duty in the
course of his or her employment. It includes any flight duty period, positioning at the
behest of the operator, ground training, office duties, flight watch, home reserve and
standby duty;
"flight duty period" means any time during which a person operates in an aircraft as a
member of its flight crew. It starts when the flight crew member is required by an
operator to report for a flight, and finishes at on-chocks or engines off, on the final
sector for that flight crew member;
"flight watch" means a period of time during which a flight crew member be required
to check with the operator at specified times as to whether his or her services as a
flight crew member will be required and, should this be the case, will report for duty
at the time then specified;
"home reserve" means a period of time during which a flight crew member must be
prepared to respond to a call out for flight duties as yet unspecified. The flight crew
member must report for duty within a specified time from call out;
"local night" means a period of eight hours falling within the ten hour period from
21h00 to 07h00 local time;
"positioning" means the practice of transferring flight crew from place to place as
passengers in surface or air transport at the behest of the operator;
"rest period" means a period before starting a flight duty period which is intended to
ensure that a flight crew member is adequately rested before a flight;
"split duty" means a flight duty period which consists of two or more flight duties
which are separated by less than the minimum rest period;
"standby duty" means a period of time during which a flight crew member is in a
position to commence a flight duty at once.
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2. Requirements of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 1997
(1) CAR 135.02.5 requires that an operator of an aircraft must have a scheme for the
regulation of flight times and duty times of his or her flight crews.
(2) CAR 135.02.5 also requires that a flight crew member may not fly, and an
operator may not require that flight crew member to fly, if either has reason to
believe that he or she is suffering or is likely to suffer while flying, from such
fatigue as may endanger the safety of the aeroplane or of its occupants.
(3) Every flight crew member is required to inform the operator of all flying he or she
has undertaken if the cumulative amount of such flying and any scheduled duties
is likely to exceed the maximum laid down in the Regulations.
3. Operators' schemes and their approval
(1) An operator must submit a proposed scheme for the regulation of flight time and
duty periods and minimum rest periods to the Commissioner for approval.
(2) Any deviation from the approved scheme must be submitted to the Commissioner
for consideration.
(3) Non-availability of auto pilot or auto stabilisation systems requires a reduction in
flight time and duty period in respect of public air transport and IFR operations.
4. General principles of control of flight, duty and rest time
(1) The prime objective of any scheme of flight time limitations is to ensure that flight
crew members are adequately rested at the beginning of each flight duty period.
Aeroplane operators will therefore need to take account of interrelated planning
constraints on -
(a) individual duty and rest periods;

(b) the length of cycles of duty and the associated periods of time off; and
(c) cumulative duty hours within specific periods.
(2) Duties must be scheduled within the limits of the operator's scheme. To allow for
unforeseeable delays the pilot-in-command may, within prescribed conditions,
use his or her discretion to exceed the limits on the day. Nevertheless, flight
schedules must be realistic, and the planning of duties must be designed to avoid
as far as possible exceeding the flight duty limits.
(3) Other general considerations in the sensible planning of duties are –
(a) the need to construct consecutive work patterns which will avoid as far as
possible such undesirable rostering practices as alternating day/night duties and
the positioning of flight crews in a manner likely to result in a serious disruption of
established sleep/work patterns;
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(b) the need, particularly where flights are carried out on a programmed basis, to
allow a reasonable period for the preflight notification of duty to flight crews, other
than those on standby; and
(c) the need to plan time off and also to ensure that flight crews are notified of their
allocation well in advance.
5. Responsibilities of flight crew members
It is the responsibility of all flight crew members to make optimum use of the
opportunities and facilities for rest provided by the operator, and to plan and use their
rest periods properly so as to minimise the risk of fatigue.
6. Standard provisions required for an operator's scheme
(1) The standard provisions which the Commissioner regards as the basis for an
acceptable scheme of flight and duty limitations and which, if included in an
operator's scheme, will facilitate approval by the Commissioner are contained in
paragraphs 7 to 13 below.
(2) Although operators are expected to plan their schemes in accordance with the
requirements, it is however, recognised that the standard provisions will not
necessarily be completely adaptable to every kind of operation. In exceptional
circumstances therefore operators may apply to have variations from the
standard provisions included in their schemes. However, such variations
should be kept to a minimum and approval will only be granted where an operator
can show that these proposed provisions will ensure an equivalent level of
protection against fatigue.
7. Limitations of single flight duty periods – flight deck crew
7.1 Maximum rostered flight duty periods
The maximum rostered flight duty period (FDP) tin hours) must be in accordance with
Table 1, or Table 2 or 3, or Table 4 or 5. Rostering limits in the tables may be
extended by in-flight relief or split duty under the terms of paragraphs 7.2 and 7.3.
On the day, the pilot-in-command may at his or her discretion further extend the FDP
actually worked in accordance with paragraph 7.6
(1) Maximum FDP - Two pilot crews : aeroplanes
Table 2 applies when the FDP starts at a place where the flight crew member is
acclimatised to local time, and Table 3 applies to other times. To be considered
acclimatised for the purpose of this technical standard, a flight crew member
must be allowed three consecutive local nights free of duty within a local time
zone band which is two hours wide. He or she will thereafter be considered to
remain acclimatised to that same time zone band until he or she ends a duty
period at a place where local time falls outside this time zone band.
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(2) Maximum FDP - Two pilots plus additional flight crew member : aeroplanes
Table 4 applies when the FDP starts at a place where the flight crew member is
acclimatised to local time, and Table 5 applies at other times. To be considered
acclimatised for the purposes of this technical standard, a flight crew member
must be allowed three consecutive local nights free of duty within a local time
zone band which is two hours wide. He or she will thereafter be considered to
remain acclimatised to that same time zone band until he or she ends a duty
period at a place where local time falls outside this time zone band.
(3) Limits on two flight crew long range operations
(This paragraph does not apply to cabin crew members.)
When an aeroplane flight deck crew comprises only two pilots, the allowable FDP is
calculated as follows: A sector scheduled for more than 7 hours is considered as a
multi-sector flight, as below:
Scheduled Acclimatised to local Not acclimatised to local time

sector times time
Sectors
Sectors
Sector length 2 4
over 7 hrs but
not more than
9 hrs
Sector length 3 4
over 9 hrs but
not more than
11 hrs
Sector length 4 Not applicable
over 11 hrs
Table 2 is then entered with the start time of the duty period and the '”modified'
number of sectors, to determine the allowable FDP.
When an additional, current, type rated pilot is a flight crew member, then these
limits do not apply and the permissible FDP is determined by entering Table 2 or 3
with time of start and the actual sectors planned.
7.2 Extension of flight duty period by in- Flight relief
(1) When any additional flight crew member is carried to provide in-flight relief for the
purpose! of extending a FDP, he or she must hold qualifications which will meet
the requirements of the operational duty for which he or she is required as a
relief.
(2) When in-flight relief is provided, there must be available, for the flight crew
member who is resting, a comfortable reclining seat or bunk separated and
screened from the flight deck and passengers.
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(3) A total of in-flight rest of less than three hours will not count towards extension of
an FDP, but where the total of in-flight rest (which need not be consecutive) is
three hours or more, the rostered FDP may be extended beyond that permitted in
Tables 2 and 3 or 4 and 5 by:
(a) If rest is taken in a bunk, a period equal to one half of the total of rest taken,
provided that the maximum FDP permissible is 18 hrs (or 19 hrs in the case of
cabin crew members); and
(b) if rest is taken in a seat, a period equal to one third of the total of rest taken,
provided that the maximum FDP permissible is 15 hrs (or 16 hrs in the case of
cabin crew members).
The maximum extension allowable is equivalent to that applying to the basic flight
crew member with the least rest.
(4)Where a flight crew member undertakes a period of in-flight relief and after its
completion is wholly free of duty for the remainder of the flight, that part of the
flight following completion of duty may be classed as positioning and be subject
to the controls on positioning detailed in paragraph 7.4.
7.3 Extension of flying duty period by split duty
When a FDP consists of two or more duties separated by less than a minimum rest
period, then the FDP may be extended beyond that permitted in the tables by the
amounts indicated below:
Consecutive hour Maximum extension of the FDP

rest
Less than 3 Nil
3 – 10 Period equal to half of the consecutive hours rest

taken
The rest period must not include the time required for immediate post-flight and pre-
flight duties. When the rest period is not more than six hours it will be sufficient if a
quiet and comfortable place is available, not open to the public, but if the rest period
is more than six consecutive hours, then a bed must be provided.
7.4 Positioning
All time spent on positioning as required by the operator is classed as duty, but
positioning does not count as a sector when assessing the maximum permissible
FDP. Positioning, as required by the operator, which immediately precedes a FDP, is
included as part of the FDP for the purpose of paragraph 7.1.
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7.5 Travelling time
Travelling time other than that time spent on positioning may not be classed as duty
time and may not be included in cumulative totals of duty hours.
Note: Travelling time from home to departure aerodrome can become an

important factor if long distances are involved. If the journey time from
home to the normal departure aerodrome Is lengthy, flight crew members
should make arrangement for accommodation nearer to their bases to
ensure adequate pre-flight rest.
(2) Where travelling time between the aerodrome and sleeping accommodation
provided by the operator exceeds thirty minutes each way, the rest period must
be increased by the amount of the excess, or such lesser time as is consistent
with a minimum of ten hours at the sleeping accommodation.
(3) When flight crew members are required to travel from their home to an
aerodrome other than the one from which they normally operate, the assumed
travelling time from the normal aerodrome to the other aerodrome is classed as
positioning and is subject to the controls of positioning detailed in paragraph 7.4.
7.6 Pilot-in-command’s discretion to extend a Flight duty period
(1) A pilot-in-command may, at his or her discretion, extend a FDP beyond the
maximum normally permitted, provided he or she is satisfied that the flight can
safely be made. In these circumstances the maximum normally permitted is
calculated according to what actually happens, not on what was planned to
happen. The operator's scheme must include guidance to pilots-in-command on
the limits within which discretion to extend a FDP may be exercised. An extension
of three, hours beyond the maximum normally permitted should be regarded as
the maximum, except in cases of emergency.
(2) Whenever a pilot-in-command so exercises his or her discretion, he or she must

report it to the operator and, should the maximum normally permitted be
exceeded by more than two hours, both the pilot-in-command and the operator
must submit a written pilot-in-command's discretion report - extension of flight
duty period, to the Commissioner within thirty days.
Notes: Discretion reports either concerning extension of a flight duly

period or reduction of a rest period must be submitted In the form
contained in Annexure A. Those reports will be used by the Commissioner
when assessing the realism of particular schedules.
An emergency in respect or an extension of a flight duly period is a

situation which in the judgement of the pilot-in-command presents serious
risk to health or safety.
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7.7 Delayed reporting time
When flight crew members are informed of a delay before leaving their place of rest
the FDP starts at the new reporting time or four hours after the original reporting time,
whichever is the earlier. The maximum FDP is based on the original reporting time.
This paragraph does not apply if flight crew members are given ten hours or more
notice of a new reporting time.
8. Rest periods
(1) It is the responsibility of the operator to notify flight crew members of a flight duty
period so that adequate and, within reason, uninterrupted pre-flight rest can be
obtained by the flight crew. Away from base the operator must provide the
opportunity and facilities for the flight crew to obtain adequate pre-flight rest. It is
the operator's responsibility to ensure that rest accommodation is satisfactory.
When operations are carried out at such short notice that it is impracticable for an
operator to ensure that rest accommodation is satisfactory, it will be the pilot-in-
commands responsibility to obtain satisfactory accommodation.
(2) (a) Each duty period, including flight watch and home reserve, must be preceded
by a rest period of at least:
(i) Nine consecutive hours in-

cluding a local night; or
(ii) ten consecutive hours; or
(iii) if the preceding FDP, ad-
justed for split duty, exceeds
eleven hours, an additional
rest period must be provided
for in the operator's scheme
to the satisfaction of the
Commissioner.
(a) Where a flight crew member has completed two consecutive duty periods, the
aggregate of which exceeds eight hours flight time or eleven hours duty time
(extensions by in-flight relief or split-duty disregarded), and the intervening rest
period has been less than twelve consecutive hours embracing the hours
between 11h00 and 06h00 local time, he or she must have a rest period on the
ground of at least twelve consecutive hours embracing the hours between 22h00
and 06h00 local time or so much longer as to embrace these hours prior to
commencing any further duties, but not necessarily larger than twenty four
consecutive hours; provided that this requirement does not apply in respect of
consecutive flight watch and home reserve duties.
(b) Following fifty hours of duty of any nature associated with his of her employment,
except flight watch and home reserve duty, a flight crew member must have a rest
period of not less than twenty-four consecutive hours before commencing further
duties.
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(c) When a flight crew member has completed a flight time and duty period in excess
of eighteen hours, he or she must receive a rest period of at least eighteen hours
including a local night before he or she commences any further duties.
(d) Time on flight watch and home reserve duty may be counted towards the
required rest periods preceding a period of duty.
(3) Pilot-in-command's discretion to reduce a rest period
A pilot-in-command may, at his or her discretion, reduce a rest period to below

the minimum required by paragraph 8(2) and 12(2)(b). The exercise of such
discretion must be considered exceptional and should not be used to reduce
successive rest periods. A rest period must be long enough to allow flight crew
members at least eight hours, at the accommodation where the rest is taken. If a
rest period is reduced, the pilot-in-command must submit a report to his or her
employer, and if the reduction exceeds two hours, must submit a written report to
the Commissioner within thirty days. (See note 1 to paragraph 7.6(2)).
(4) For the purpose of calculating the minimum rest period before commencement of
duties, the required post flight duties on completion of the previous FDP is added
to such FDP.
9. Duty periods
(1) The following limits apply:
Duty Maximum duration

Flight watch No limit *
Home reserve No limit*
Positioning No maximum**
Standby Maximum 12 hours (not

necessarily consecutive)
in any 24 hour period
Standby + FDP 20 hours
* However, the provisions of item (2) applies.
** However, the provisions of paragraph 7.4

applies.
(2) For the purpose of calculating duty time, the following applies:
(a) For the calculation of accumulated duty time in terms of paragraph 11, flight
watch and home reserve is credited on the basis of eight hours for every period of
twenty four or fewer consecutive hours, or on a one-for-one basis, whichever is
the lesser.
(b) Standby duty time must count fully as duty time for the calculation of accumulated
duty time in terms of paragraphs 8(2)(c) and (d) and 11.
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(c) See paragraph 7.4 in respect of positioning time.
10. Days off

Flight crew members must –
(1) not work more than seven consecutive days between days off; and
(2) have two consecutive days off in any consecutive fourteen days; and
(3) have a minimum of six days off in any consecutive four weeks at the aerodrome
from which they normally operate; and
(4) have an average of at least eight days off in each consecutive four week period,
averaged over three such periods.
11. Cumulative duty and flying hours
Maximum cumulative duty hours : The average weekly total of duty hours may not
exceed sixty hours over seven days, or fifty hours averaged over any four
consecutive weeks. All types of duty, flight duty, ground duty, split duty, stand-by and
positioning is counted in full for this purpose. Any period of seven or more
consecutive days within which the flight crew member is employed on duties other
than flight duties, flight watch or home reserve, standby, office duties or positioning is
not included in calculating the above average weekly total of duty hours.
12. Cabin crew members
(1) The requirements detailed in this paragraph are applicable to all cabin crew
members carried as cabin crew members.
(2) The limitations which apply to cabin crew members are those contained in
paragraphs 7 to 11 applicable to flight deck crew members, but with the following
adjustment:
(a) Rostered flight duty periods may not be more than one hour longer than those
permitted to flight deck crew members and contained in paragraph 7.1. In order to
remove anomalies which might arise when cabin crew members and flight deck
crew members report at different times for the same flight, the maximum FDP for
cabin crew members must be based on the time at which the flight deck crew
start their flight duty period.
(b) Rostered minimum rest periods must not be more than one hour shorter than
those required by flight deck crew and contained in paragraph 8(2).
(c) (I) For the purpose of a FDP extension following in-flight rest by cabin crew
members, a period of a minimum of two consecutive hours of rest must allow for
the extension of such FDP by half the actual rest period.
(II).Where in-flight rest is provided for more than three hours, the provisions of
paragraph 8.2(iii) applies.
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(d) The combined sum of standby duty and following FDP may not exceed twenty-
one hours.
(e) The average weekly total of duty hours may not exceed fifty-five hours.
(f) The annual and monthly limits on flying hours need not be applied.
13. Records to be maintained
An operator must retain all pilot-in-command discretion reports of extended flight

duty periods and reduced rest periods for a period of at least six months.
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135.03.1 TRAINING OF FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS
1. Training syllabus
The training syllabus for flight crew members

required in terms of CAR 135.03.1, is –
(1) the syllabi prescribed in Parts 61 and 64, for initial training;
(2) the syllabi prescribed in TS 135.03.3 for conversion training;
(3) the syllabi prescribed in TS 135.03.6 for recurrent training and checking and
refresher training; and
(4) the syllabi prescribed in Part 92 for initial and refresher dangerous goods training
courses.
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135.03.3 CONVERSION TRAINING
1. Operator's conversion training course Syllabus
(1) An operator's conversion course syllabus must include the following items.
(a) Ground training and checking including aeroplane systems, normal, abnormal and
emergency
procedures;
(b) emergency and safety equipment training and checking which must be completed
before aeroplane
training commences;
(c) flight deck crew resource management training;
(d) aeroplane/flight simulator training and checking; and
(e) line flying under supervision and line check.
(2) The conversion course must be conducted in the order set out in subparagraph(l)
above.
The flight deck crew resource management training referred to in CAR 135.03.3(1)(h) is
the flight deck crew resource management training contemplated in TS 135.03.5.1.
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135.03.5 UPGRADE TO PILOT-IN-COMMAND
1. Flight deck crew resource management Training
1.1 Procedures
(1) If the flight deck crew member has not previously completed an operator's
conversion course then the operator should ensure that a flight deck crew
resource management (CRM) course with a full length syllabus is completed .
The flight deck crew member should not be assessed either during or upon
completion of this course.
(2) If the flight deck crew member undergoes a subsequent conversion course with
the same or a change of operator, he or she should complete the appropriate
elements of the CRM course. The flight deck crew member should not be
assessed either during or upon completion of this training.
(3) Recurrent training:
(a) Where an operator utilises line orientated flying training (LOFT) in the recurrent
training programme, the flight deck crew member should complete elements of
CRM training. The flight deck crew member should not be assessed.
(b) Where an operator does not utilise LOFT, the flight deck crew member should
complete elements of CRM training every year. The flight deck crew member
should not be assessed.
(c) An operator should ensure that flight deck crew members complete the major
elements of the full length CRM course over a four year recurrent training cycle.
The flight deck crew member completing this refresher training should not be
assessed.
(d) When a flight deck crew member undergoes an operator proficiency check, line
check or command course, then CRM skills should be included in the overall
assessment.
(4) Operators should, as far as is practicable, provide combined training for flight
deck crew and cabin crew.
(5) There should be an effective liaison between flight deck crew and cabin crew
training departments. Provision should be made for flight deck and cabin crew
instructors to observe and comment on each others training.
(6) The successful resolution of aeroplane emergencies requires interaction between

flight deck crew and cabin crew and emphasis should be placed on the
importance of effective co-ordination and two-way communication between all
flight deck crew members in various emergency situations. Initial and recurrent
CRM training should include joint practice in aeroplane evacuations so that all
who are involved are aware of the duties other flight crew members should
perform. When such practice is not possible, combined flight deck crew and cabin
crew training should include joint discussion of emergency scenarios.
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1.2 Objective and contents
(1) CRM is the effective utilisation of all available resources (e.g. flight crew
members, aeroplane systems and supporting facilities) to achieve safe and
efficient operation.
(2) The objective of CRM is to enhance the communication and management skills of
the flight deck crew member concerned. The emphasis is placed on the non-
technical aspects of flight deck crew performance.
(3) CRM training should include the following elements:
(a) Statistics and examples of human factor related accidents;

(b) human perception, learning process;
(c) situational awareness;
(d) management of workload, tiredness or fatigue, and vigilance management of
stress;
(e) operator's standard operating procedures;
(f) personality type, delegation, leadership,effective communication skills;
(g) the CRM loop
Notion of
Senergy
 Inquiry(
explore, examine,
or
scrutinise)
Conflict resolution
Decision making
Critique
Feedback
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(h) effective communication and co-ordination within the flight deck crew, and between flight
crew members and other operational personnel (air traffic controllers, maintenance
personnel etc);
(i) error chain and taking actions to break the error chain; and
(j) implications of automation on CRM.
(4) CRM training should also address the nature of the operator's operations as well as the
associated flight crew operating procedures. This will include areas of operations which
produce particular difficulties, adverse climatological conditions and any unusual
hazards.
(5) CRM training should include both:
(a) Classroom training; and

(b) practical exercises including group discussions and accident reviews to analyse
communication problems and instances or examples of a lack of information or flight
crew management.
(6) Ideally, the CRM training course should last a minimum of 3 days, but providing
the whole syllabus is covered, then a 2 day course may be acceptable. A one day
course for single pilot operations may be acceptable.
(7) As part of the operations manual, the CRM course (for conversion and recurrent
training) will be approved by the Commissioner. An operator may use a course
provided by another operator, if that course has already been accepted.
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135.03.7 RECURRENT TRAINING AND CHECKING
The flight deck crew resource management

training referred to in CAR 135.03.7 is the flight deck crew resource management
training contemplated in TS 135.03.5.1.
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135.03.8 PILOT QUALIFICATION TO OPERATE IN EITHER PILOT’S SEAT
1. Training
(1) A pilot-in-command whose duties also require him or her to operate in the right-
hand seat and carry out the duties of co-pilot, or a pilot-in-command required to
conduct training or examining duties from the right-hand seat, must complete
additional training and checking as specified in the operations manual, concurrent
with the operator proficiency checks prescribed in CAR 135.03.7. This
additional training must include at least the following:
(a) An engine failure during take-off;

(b) a one engine inoperative approach and go-around;
(c) a one engine inoperative landing; and
(d) Category II or Category III operations, if applicable.
(2) When engine-out manoeuvres are carried out in an aeroplane, the engine failure
must be simulated.
(3) When operating in the right-hand seat, the checks required for operating in the
left-hand seat must, in addition, be valid and current
(4) A pilot relieving as pilot-in-command must demonstrate practice of drills and

procedures, concurrent with the operator proficiency checks prescribed in CAR
135.03.7, which would otherwise have been the responsibility of the pilot-in-
command. Where the differences between left and right seats are not significant
(for example because of use of autopilot) then practice may be conducted in
either seat.
(5) A pilot other than the pilot-in-command occupying the left-hand seat must
demonstrate practice of drills and procedures, concurrent with the operator
proficiency checks prescribed in CAR 135.03.7 which would otherwise have been
the pilot-in-command's responsibility acting as pilot non-flying. Where the
differences between left and right seats are not significant (for example because
of use of autopilot) then practice may be conducted in either seat.
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135.04.2 OPERATIONS MANUAL
1. Structure of operations manual
(1) An operator must ensure that the main structure of the operations manual is as
follows:
Part 1: General
This part must comprise all non type-related operational policies, instructions and
procedures needed for a safe operation and must comply with all relevant CARs.
Part 2 : Aeroplane operating matters
This part must comprise all type-related instructions and procedures needed for a
safe operation. It must take account of the different types of aeroplanes or variants
used by the operator.
Part 3 : Route and aerodrome instructions and information
This part must comprise all instructions and information needed for the area of
operation.
Part 4 : Training
This part must comprise all training instructions for personnel required for a safe
operation. An operator must ensure that the contents of the operations manual are in
accordance with paragraph 2 of this technical standard, and relevant to the area and
type of operation. An operator must ensure that the detailed structure of the
operations manual is approved by the Commissioner.
2. Contents of operations manual
2.1 PART1: GENERAL
2.1.1 Administration and control of operations manual
(1) Introduction
(a) A statement that the manual complies with all applicable CARs and with the terms
and conditions of the applicable operating certificate.
(b) A statement that the manual contains operational instructions that are to he
complied with by the relevant personnel.
(c) A list and brief description of the various parts, their contents, applicability and
use.
(d) Explanations and definitions of terms and words needed for the use of the
manual.
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(2) System of amendment and revision
(a) Who is responsible for the issuance and insertion of amendments and revisions.
(b) A record of amendments and revisions with insertion dates and effective dates.
(c) A statement that hand-written amendments and revisions are not permitted
except in situations requiring immediate amendment or revision in the interests of
aviation safety.
(d) A description of the system for the annotation of pages and their effective dates.
(e) A list of effective pages.
(f) Annotation of changes (on text pages and, as far as practicable, on charts and
diagrams).
(g) Temporary revisions.
(h) A description of the distribution system for the manuals, amendments and
revisions.
2.1.2 Organisation and responsibilities
(1) Organisational structure
A description of the organisational structure including the general organogram

and operations department organogram The organogram must depict the
relationship between the Operations Department and the other Departments of
the organisation. In particular, the subordination and reporting lines of all
Divisions, Departments etc, which pertain to the safety of flight operations, must
be shown.
(2) Nominated postholders
The name of each nominated postholder responsible for flight operations, the
maintenance system, flight crew training and ground operations. A description of
their function and responsibilities must be included.
(3) Responsibilities and duties of operations management personnel
A description of the duties, responsibilities and authority of operations

management personnel pertaining to the safety of flight operations and the
compliance with the applicable CARs.
(4) Authority, duties and responsibilities of the pilot-in-command
A statement defining the authority, duties and responsibilities of the pilot-in-

command.
(5) Duties and responsibilities of flight crew members other than the pilot-in-
command.
A statement defining the duties and responsibilities of flight crew members other
than the pilot-in-command.
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2.1.3 Operational control and supervision
(1) Supervision of the operation by the operator
A description of the system for supervision of the operation by the operator. This
must show how the safety of flight operations and the qualifications of personnel
are supervised. In particular, the procedures related to the following items must
be described:
(a) Licence and qualification validity;

(b) competence of operations personnel; and
(c) control, analysis and storage of records, flight documents, additional information
and data.
(2) System of promulgation of additional operational instructions and information
A description of any system for promulgating information which may be of an

operational nature but is supplementary to that in the operations manual. The
applicability of this information and the responsibilities for its promulgation must
be included.
(3) Accident prevention and flight safety programme
A description of the main aspects of the flight safety programme including –
(a) programmes to achieve and maintain risk-awareness by all persons involved in

flight operations; and
(b) evaluation of aviation accidents and incidents and the promulgation of related
information.
(4) Operational control
A description of the procedures and responsibilities necessary to exercise

operational control with respect to flight safety.
2.1.4 Quality control system
A description of the quality control system adopted.
2.1.5 Flight crew composition
(1) Flight crew composition
An explanation of the method for determining flight crew compositions taking

account of the following:
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(a) The type of aeroplane being used;
(b) the area and type of operation being undertaken;
(c) the phase of the flight;
(d) the minimum flight crew requirement and flight duty period planned;
(e) experience (total and on type), recency and qualification of the flight crew
members; and
(f) the designation of the pilot-in-command and, if necessitated by the duration of the
flight, the procedures for the relief of the pilot-in-command or other members of
the flight crew.
(2) Designation of the pilot-in-command
The rules applicable to the designation of the pilot-in-command.
(3) Flight crew incapacitation
Instructions on the succession of command in the event of flight crew

incapacitation.
2.1.6 Qualification requirements
(1) A description of the required licence, rating(s), qualification/competency (e.g. for

routes and aerodromes), experience, training, checking and recency for
operations personnel to conduct their duties. Consideration must be given to the
aeroplane type, kind of operation and composition of the flight crew.
(2) Flight deck crew
(a) Pilot-in-command
(b) Go-pilot
(c) Pilot under supervision
(d) Operation on more than one type or variant.
(3) Cabin crew
(a) Senior cabin crew member

(b) Cabin crew member
(i) Required cabin crew member

(ii) Additional cabin crew member and cabin crew member during familiarisation
flights.
(c) Operation on more than one type or variant.
(4) Training, checking and supervision personnel
(a) For flight deck crew

(b) For cabin crew.
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(5) Other operations personnel.
2.1.7 Flight crew health precautions
(1) Flight crew health precautions
The relevant regulations and guidance to flight crew members concerning health
including –
(a) alcohol and other intoxicating liquor;

(b) narcotics;
(c) drugs;
(d) sleeping tablets;
(e) pharmaceutical preparations;
(f) immunisation;
(g) scuba diving;
(h) blood donation;
(i) meal precautions prior to and during flight;
(j) sleep and rest; and
(k) surgical operations.
Note: See Document SA-CATS-MR.
2.1.8 Flight time limitations
(1) Flight time and duty period limitations and rest requirements
A description of the flight time and duty period limitations and rest requirements
prescribed in TS 135.02.10 as applicable to the operation.
(2) Exceedances of flight time and duty period limitations and/or reductions of rest
periods
Conditions under which flight time and duty period may be exceeded or rest
periods may be reduced and the procedures used to report these modifications.
1.1.9 Operating procedures
(1) Flight preparation instructions
As applicable to the operation:
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(a) Minimum flight altitudes
A description of the method of determination and application of minimum altitudes

including -
i. a procedure to establish the minimum altitudes/ flight levels for

IFR flights; and
(b) Criteria for determining the usability of aerodromes

(c) Methods for the determination of aerodrome operating minima
The method for establishing aerodrome operating minima for IFR flights in
accordance with TS 135.07.7. Reference must be made to procedures for the
determination of the visibility and/or runway visual range and for the applicability
of the actual visibility observed by the pilots, the reported visibility and the
reported runway visual range.
(d) En route operating minima for VFR flights or VFR portions of a flight and, where
single-engine aeroplanes are used, instructions for route selection with respect to
the availability of surfaces which permit a safe forced landing.
(e) Presentation and application of aerodrome and en route operating minima
(f) Interpretation of meteorological information
Explanatory material on the decoding of MET forecasts and MET reports relevant
to the area of operations, including the interpretation of conditional expressions.
(g) Determination of the quantities of fuel, oil and water methanol carried
The methods by which the quantities of fuel, oil and water methanol to be
carried, are determined and monitored in flight. This section must also include
instructions on the measurement and distribution of the fluid carried on board.
Such instructions must take account of all circumstances likely to be
encountered on the flight, including the possibility of in-flight replanning and of
failure of one or more of the aeroplane's power plants. The system for
maintaining fuel and oil records must also be described.
(h) Mass and centre of gravity
The general principles of mass and centre of gravity including:
(i) Definitions;
(ii) methods; procedures and responsibilities for preparation
and acceptance of mass and centre of gravity calculations;
(iii) the policy for using either standard and/or actual masses;
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(iv) the method for determining the applicable passenger, baggage and cargo
mass;
(v) the applicable passenger and baggage masses for various
types of operations and aeroplane type;
(vi) general instruction and information necessary for verification of the various
types of mass and balance documentation in use;
(vii) last minute changes procedures;
(viii) specific gravity of fuel, oil and water methanol; and
(ix) seating policy/procedures.
(i) ATS flight plan
Procedures and responsibilities for the preparation and submission of the air
traffic service flight plan. Factors to be considered include the means of
submission for both Individual and repetitive flight plans.
(j) Operational flight plan
Procedures and responsibilities for the preparation and acceptance of the

operational flight plan. The use of the operational flight plan must be described
including samples of the operational flight plan formats in use.
(k) Operator's flight folio
The responsibilities and the use of the operator's flight folio must be described,
including samples of the format used.
A technical log may be used in place of a flight folio, if it contains the required
information.
(l) List of documents, forms and additional information to be carried.
(2) Ground handling instructions
(a) Fuelling procedures
A description of fuelling procedures, including –
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(i.) safety precautions during refuelling and defuelling including when an APU
is in operation or when a turbine engine is running and the prop-brakes
are on;
(ii) refuelling and defuelling when passengers are embarking, on board or
disembarking ; and
(iii) precautions to be taken to
avoid mixing fuels.
(b) Aeroplane, passengers and cargo handling procedures related to safety
A description of the handling procedures to be used when allocating seats and

embarking and disembarking passengers and when loading and unloading the
aeroplane. Further procedures, aimed at achieving safety whilst the aeroplane is
on the apron, must also be given. Handling procedures must include –
i. disembarking of persons
ii. sick passengers and persons with reduced
iii. mobility
iv. transportation of inadmissible passengers,deportees or persons in custody
v. permissible size and weight of hand baggage
vi. loading and securing of items in the aeroplane
vii. special loads and classification of load compartments
viii. positioning of ground equipment
ix. operation of aeroplane doors
x. safety of the apron, including fire prevention, blast and suction areas
xi. start-up on the apron departure
xii. and arrival procedures
xiii. servicing of aeroplanes
xiv. documents and forms for aeroplane handling and
xv. multiple occupancy of aeroplane seats.
(c) Procedures for the refusal of embarkation and for disembarkation
Procedures to ensure that persons who appear to be intoxicated or who

demonstrate by manner or physical indications that they are under the influence
of drugs, except medical patients under proper care, are refused embarkation.
(d) De-icing and anti-icing on the ground
A description of the de-icing and anti-icing policy and procedures for aeroplanes
on the ground. These must include descriptions of the types and effects of icing
and other contaminants on aeroplanes whilst stationary during ground
movements and during take-off. In addition, a description of the fluid types used
must be given including -
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i. Proprietary or commercial
Names
ii. Characteristics
iii. Effects on aeroplane performance
iv. Hold-over items and
v. Precautions during usage.
(3) Flight procedures
(a) VFR/IFR policy
A description of the lowing flights to be made under VFR, or of requiring flights to

be made under IFR, or of changing from one to the other.
(b) Navigation procedure
A description of all navigation procedures relevant to the type(s) and area(s) of

operation.
Consideration must be given to –
(i) standard navigation procedures including policy for carrying out

independent cross-checks of keyboard entries where these affect
the flight path to be followed by the aeroplane;
(ii) MNPS and POLAR navigation and navigation in other designated areas;
(iii) RNAV;
(iv) in-flight replanning; and
(v) procedures in the event of system degradation.
(c) Altimeter setting procedures

(d) Altitude alerting system procedures
(e) Ground proximity warning system procedures
(f) Policy and procedures for the use of TCAS/ACAS
(g) Policy and procedures for in-flight fuel management
(h) Adverse and potentially hazardous atmospheric conditions
Procedures for operating in, andlor avoiding, potentially hazardous atmospheric

conditions including –
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i. thunderstorms;
ii. icing conditions;
iii. turbulence;
iv. windshear
v. jetstream;
vi. volcanic ash clouds;
vii. heavy precipitation;
viii. sand storms;
ix. mountain waves; and
x. significant temperature inver sion s.
(i) Wake turbulence
Wake turbulence separation criteria, taking into account aeroplane types, wind
conditions and runway location.
(j) Flight crew members at their stations
The requirements for flight crew members to occupy their assigned stations or
seats during the different phases of flight or whenever deemed necessary in the
interests of aviation safety.
(k) Use of safety belts for flight crew and passengers
The requirements for flight crew members and passengers to use safety belts
and/or harnesses during the different phases of flight or whenever deemed
necessary in the interests of aviation safety.
(l) Admission to flight deck
The conditions for the admission to the flight deck of persons other than the flight
crew.
(m) Use of vacant flight crew seats
The conditions and procedures for the use of vacant flight crew seats.
(n) Incapacitation of flight crew members
Procedures to be followed in the event of incapacitation of flight crew members in

flight. Examples of the types of incapacitation and the means for recognising
them, must be included.
(o) Cabin safety requirements
Procedures covering:
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(i) Cabin preparation for flight,in-flight requirements and preparation
for landing including procedures for securing cabin and galleys;
(ii) procedures to ensure that passengers are seated
where, in the event that an emergency evacuation is re-
quired, they may best assist and not hinder evacuation
from the aeroplane;
(iii) procedures to be followed during passenger embarka-
tion and disembarkation; procedures in the event of
fuelling with passengers on board or embarking and dis-
embarking; and
(v) smoking on board.

(w) Passenger briefing procedures
The contents, means and timing of passenger briefing in accordance with CAR
91.07.19.
(x) Procedures for aeroplanes operated whenever required cosmic or solar radiation
detection equipment is carried.
(y) Procedures for the use of cosmic or solar radiation detection equipment and for
recording its readings including actions to be taken in the event that limit values
specified in the operations manual are exceeded, in addition, the procedures,
including ATS procedures, to be followed in the event that a decision to descend
or re-route is taken.
(4) All weather operations
(5) ETOPS
(6) Use of the minimum equipment and configuration deviation list(s)
(7) Non revenue flights
Procedures and limitations for –
(a) Training flights

(b) Test flights
(c) Delivery flights
(d) Ferry flights
(e) demonstration flights; and
(f) positioning flights,
including the kind of persons who may be carried on such flights.
(8) Oxygen requirements
(a) An explanation of the conditions under which oxygen must be provided and used.
(b) The oxygen requirements specified for –
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(i) flight deck crew;
(ii) cabin crew; and
(iii) passengers.
1.1.10 Dangerous goods and weapons
(1) Information, instructions and general guidance on the conveyance of dangerous

goods including-
(a) operator's policy on the conveyance of dangerous goods;

(b) guidance on the requirements for acceptance, labelling, handling, stowage and
segregation of dangerous goods;
(c) procedures emergency for responding to situations involving dangerous goods;
(d) duties of all personnel involved as referred to in a Part 92; and
(e) instructions on the carriage of the operator's employees.
(2) The conditions under which weapons, munitions of war and sporting weapons
may be carried.
1.1.11 Security
(1) Security instructions and guidance of a Non-confidential nature which must

include the authority and responsibilities of operations personnel. Policies and
procedures for handling and reporting crime on board such as unlawful
interference, sabotage, bomb threats, and hijacking must also be included.
(2) A description of preventative security measures and training.
Note: Parts of the security instructions and guidance may be kept confidential.
1.1.12 Handling of aviation accidents and Incidents
Procedures for the handling, notifying and reporting of aviation accidents and
incidents. This section must include –
(1) definitions of aviation accidents and incidents and the relevant responsibilities of
all persons involved;
(2) the description of which operator departments, authorities or other institutions

have to be notified by which means and in which sequence in case of an aviation
accident;
(3) special notification requirements in the event of an aviation accident or incident

when dangerous goods are being carried;
(4) a description of the requirements to report specific aviation accidents and

incidents;
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(5) the forms used for reporting and the procedure for submitting them to the relevant
authority must also be included; and
(6) if the operator develops additional safety related reporting procedures for its own
internal use, a description of the applicability and related forms to be used.
2.1.13 Rules of the air
Rules of the air including –
(1) visual and instrument flight rules;
(2) territorial application of the rules of the air;
(3) communication procedures including COM-failure procedures;
(4) information and instructions relating to the interception of civil aeroplanes;
(5) the circumstances in which a radio listening watch is to be maintained;
(6) signals;
(7) time system used in operation;
(8) ATC clearances, adherence to flight plan and position reports;
(9) visual signals used to warn an unauthorised aeroplane flying in or about to enter
a restricted, prohibited or danger area;
(10)procedures for pilots observing an aviation accident or receiving a distress

transmission;
(11)the ground/air visual codes for use by survivors, description and use of signal
aids; and
(12)distress and urgency signals.
1.2 PART 2 : AEROPLANE OPERATING MATTERS - TYPE RELATED
Taking account of the differences between types, and variants of types, under
the following headings:
2.2.1 General information and units of

Measurement
General information (e.g. aeroplane dimensions), including a description of

the units of measurement used for the operation of the aeroplane type
concerned and conversion tables.
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2.2.2 Limitations
A description of the certified limitations and the applicable operational

limitations including –
(1) certification status;
(2) Passenger seating configuration for each Aeroplane type including a pictorial
presentation;
(3) Types of operation that are approved (e.g. IFR/VFR, CAT II/III, flights in known
icing conditions, etc);
(4) flight crew composition;
(5) mass and centre of gravity;
(6) speed limitations;
(7) flight envelope(s);
(8) wind limits including operations and contaminated runways;
(9) performance limitations for applicable configurations;
(10) runway slope;
(11) limitations on wet or contaminated runways;
(12) airframe contamination; and
(13) system limitations.
2.2.3 Normal procedures
The normal procedures and duties assigned to the flight crew, the appropriate
check-lists, the system for use of the check-lists and a statement covering the
necessary co-ordination procedures between flight deck crew and cabin crew.
The following normal procedures and duties must be included:
(1) Pre-flight;
(2) pre-departure
(3) altimeter setting and checking;
(4) taxi, take-off and climb;
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(5) noise abatement;
(6) cruise and descent;
(7) approach, landing preparation and briefing;
(8) VFR approach;
(9) instrument approach;
(10) visual approach and circling;
(11) missed approach;
(12) normal landing;
(13) post landing; and
(14) operation on wet and contaminated runways.
2.2.4 Abnormal and emergency procedures
The abnormal and emergency procedures and duties assigned to the flight
crew, the appropriate check-lists, the system for use of the check-lists and a
statement covering the necessary co-ordination procedures between flight
crew and cabin crew. The following abnormal and emergency procedures and
duties must be included:
(1) Fight crew incapacitation;
(2) fire and smoke drills;
(3) unpressurised and partially pressurised flight;
(4) exceeding structural limits such as overweight landing;
(5) exceeding cosmic radiation limits;
(6) lighting strikes;
(7) distress communications and alerting ATC to emergencies;
(8) engine failure;
(9) system failures;
(10) guidance for diversion in case of serious technical failure;
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(11) ground proximity warning;
(12) TCAS warning;
(13) windshear; and
(14) emergency landing/ditching.
2.2.5 Performance
(1) Performance data must be provided in a form in which it can be used without
difficulty.
(2) Performance data
Performance material which provides the necessary data for compliance with the
performance requirements prescribed in Part 1 of this technical standard must be
included to allow the determination of –
(a) take-off climb limits - mass, altitude, temperature;

(b) take-off field length (dry, wet, contaminated);
(c) net flight path data for obstacle clearance calculation or, where applicable take-off
flight path;
(d) the gradient losses for banked climbouts;
(e) en route climb limits;
(f) approach climb limits;
(g) landing climb limits;
(h) landing field length (dry, wet, contaminated) including the effects of an in-flight
failure of a system or device, if it affects the landing distance;
(i) brake energy limits; and
(j) speeds applicable for the various flight stages (also considering wet or
contaminated runways).
(3) Supplementary data covering flights in icing conditions
Any certificated performance related to an allowable configuration, or configuration

deviation, such as anti-skid inoperative, must be included.
If performance data, as required for the appropriate performance class, is not

available in the approved AFM, then other data acceptable to the Commissioner
must be included. Alternatively, the operations manual may contain cross-reference
to the approved data contained in the AFM where such data is not likely to be used
often or in an emergency.
(4) Additional performance data
Additional performance data, where applicable, including –
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(a) all engine climb gradients;
(b) drift-down data;
(c) effect of de-icing/anti-icing fluids;
(d) flight with landing gear down;
(e) for aeroplanes with 3 or more engines, one engine inoperative ferry flights; and
(f) flights conducted under the provisions of the CDL.
2.2.6 Flight planning
(1) Data and instructions necessary for preflight and in-flight planning including
factors such as speed schedules and power settings. Where applicable,
procedures for engine(s)-out operations. ETOPS and flights to isolated
aerodromes must be included.
(2) The method for calculating fuel needed for the various stages of flight in
accordance with TS 135.07.10.
2.2.7 Mass and balance
Instructions and data for the calculation of the mass and balance including –
(1) calculation system (e.g. index system);
(2) information and instructions for completion of mass and balance documentation,
including manual and computer generated types;
(3) limiting masses and centre of gravity of the various versions; and
(4) dry operating mass and corresponding centre of gravity or index.
2.2.8 Loading
Procedures and provisions for loading and securing the load in the aeroplane.
2.2.9 Configuration deviation list
The Configuration Deviation List(s) (CDL), if Provided by the manufacturer,

taking account of the aeroplane types and variants operated Including
procedures to be followed when an aeroplane is being despatched under the
terms of its CDL.
2.2.10 Minimum equipment list
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) taking account of the aeroplane types
and variants operated and the type(s)/area(s) of operation.
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2.2.11 Survival and emergency equipment
including oxygen
(1) A list of the survival equipment to be carried for the routes to be flown and the
procedures for checking the serviceability of this equipment prior to take-off.
Instructions regarding the location, accessibility and use of survival and
emergency equipment and its associated check lists(s) must also be included.
(2) The procedure for determining the amount of oxygen required and the quantity
that is available. The flight profile, number of occupants and possible cabin
decompression must be considered. The information provided must be in a form
in which it can be used without difficulty.
2.2.12 Emergency evacuation procedures
(1) Instructions for preparation for emergency evacuation including flight crew co-
ordination and emergency station assignment.
(2) Emergency evacuation procedures
A description of the duties of all members of the flight crew for the rapid
evacuation of an aeroplane and the handling of the passengers in the event of a
forced landing, ditching or other emergency.
2.2.13 Aeroplane systems
A description of the aeroplane systems, related controls and indications and

operating instructions.
2.3 PART 3 : ROUTE AND AERODROME INSTRUCTIONS AND INFORMATION
Instructions and information relating to communications, navigation and aerodromes

including minimum flight levels and altitudes for each route to be flown and operating
minima for each aerodrome planned to be used, including –
(1) minimum flight level/altitude;
(2) operating minima for departure, destination and alternate aerodromes;
(3) communication facilities and navigation aids;
(4) runway data and aerodrome facilities;
(5) approach, missed approach and departure procedures including noise abatement
procedures;
(6) COM-failure procedures;
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(7) search and rescue facilities in the area over which the aeroplane is to be flown;
(8) a description of the aeronautical charts that must be carried on board in relation
to the type of flight and the route to be flown, including the method to check their
validity;
(9) availability of aeronautical information and MET services;
(10) en /route COM/NAV procedures including holding; and
(11) aerodrome categorisation for flight crew competence qualification.
2.4 PART 4 : TRAINING
(1) Training syllabi and checking programmes for ail operations personnel assigned
to operational duties in connection with the preparation and/or conduct of a flight.
(2) Training syllabi and checking programmes must include:
(a) For flight deck crew
All relevant items prescribed in Part 61 and Subpart 3;
(b) For cabin crew
All relevant items prescribed in Part 64 and Subpart 3;
(c) For operations personnel concerned, including flight crew members:
(i) All relevant items prescribed in Part 92; and
(ii) All relevant items regarding operator security.
(d) For operations personnel other than flight crew members (e.g. dispatcher, handling
personnel etc. )
All other relevant items pertaining to their duties.
(3) Procedures
(a) Procedures for training and checking.

(b) Procedures to be applied in the event that personnel do not achieve or maintain the
required standards.
(c) Procedures to ensure that abnormal or emergency situations requiring the application
of part or all of abnormal or emergency procedures and simulation of IMC by artificial
means, are not simulated during commercial flights.
(4) Description of documentation to be stored and storage periods.
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135.04.5 OPERATIONAL FLIGHT PLAN
1. Items in operational flight plan
(1) An operator must ensure that the operational flight plan used and the entries
made during flight contain the following items:
(a) Aeroplane registration;

(b) aeroplane type and variant;
(c) date of flight;
(d) flight identification;
(e) names of flight crew members;
(f) duty assignment of flight crew members;
(g) place of departure;
(h) time of departure (actual off-block time, take-off time);
(i) place of arrival (planned and actual);
(j) time of arrival (actual landing and on-block time);
(k) type of operation (ETOPS, VFR, ferry flight, etc.);
(l) route and route segments with checkpoints/waypoints, distances, time and tracks;
(m) planned cruising speed and flying times between check-points/ waypoints.
Estimate and actual times overhead;
(2) Items which are readily available in other documentation or from an acceptable
source or which are irrelevant to the type of operation, may be omitted from the
operational flight plan.
(3) An operator must ensure that the operational flight plan and its use is described
in the operations manual
(4) An operator must ensure that all entries in the operational flight plan are made
concurrently and that they are permanent in nature.
(n) safe altitudes and minimum levels,

(o) planned altitudes and flight levels,
(p) fuel calculations (records of in-flight fuel checks);
(q) fuel on board when starting engines;
(r) alternate(s) for destination and, where applicable, take-off and enroute, including
information required in subparagraphs (I), tm), tn) and to) above;
(s) initial ATS flight plan clearance and subsequent re-clearance;
(t) in-flight re-planning calculations; and
(u) relevant meteorological information.
(5) Items which are readily available in other documentation or from an acceptable
source or which are irrelevant to the type of operation, may be omitted from the
operational flight plan.
(6) An operator must ensure that the operational flight plan and its use is described
in the operations manual.
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(7) An operator must ensure that all entries in the operational flight plan are made
concurrently and that they are permanent in nature.
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135.04.7 RECORDS OF EMERGENCY AND SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT
1. Emergency and survival equipment list
The minimum information to be contained in an emergency and survival equipment list,

is prescribed in CAR 91.01.5.
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135.04.9 LOAD AND TRIM SHEET
1. Load and trim sheet
(1) The load and trim sheet must contain the following information:
(a) The aeroplane registration and type;

(b) the flight identification number and date;
(c) the identity of the pilot-in-command;
(d) the identity of the person who prepared the document;
(e) the dry operating mass and the corresponding CG of the aeroplane;
(f) the mass of the fuel at take-off and the mass of trip fuel;
(g) the mass of consumables other than fuel;
(h) the components of the load including passengers, baggage, freight and ballast;
(i) the take-off mass, landing mass and zero fuel mass;
(j) the load distribution;
(k) the applicable aeroplane CG positions; and
(l) the limiting mass and CG values.
(2) The person superintending the loading of an aeroplane must certify that the load
distribution is in accordance with the requirements prescribed in the operations
manual or flight manual and that the maximum certificated mass has not been
exceeded.
(3) The load and trim sheet must be signed by the pilot-in-command unless the load
and trim sheet is sent to the aeroplane by electronic data transfer.
(4) Electronic data transfer
When the load and trim sheet is sent to the aeroplane by electronic data transfer,
a copy of the final load and trim sheet, as accepted by the pilot-in-command,
must be available on the ground.
(5) An example of a load and trim sheet is contained in Annexure B.
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135.06.2 APPLICATION FOR OPERATING CERTIFICATE
1. Application for operating certificate
The form referred to in CAR 135.06.2, in which application is made for an operating
certificate, is contained in Annexure C.
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135.06.3 ADJUDICATION OF APPLICATION FOR AN OPERATING CERTIFICATE
1. Issuing of operating certificate
An operating certificate is issued on the form

contained in Annexure D.
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135.06.7 DUTIES OF HOLDER OF OPERATING CERTIFICATE
1. Notification
Before change is effected to an operating certificate, the holder of the operating

certificate
must notify the Commissioner in the following manner:
(1) The notification must be made in the form contained in Annexure C; and
(2) be accompanied by a certified true copy of the air service licence held by the holder
and the operating certificate concerned.
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135.07.1 ROUTES AND AREAS OF OPERATION
1. Time/distance limitations
(1) An operator may not, unless specifically approved by the Commissioner (ETOPS
approval), operate a twin-engine performance Class A aeroplane, with a
maximum certificated mass of less than 45 454 kg and a maximum approved
passenger seating configuration of more than 19 seats, over a route that contains
a point further from an adequate aerodrome than the distance flown, under
standard conditions in still air, in 120 minutes at the one-engined inoperative
cruise speed.
Upon application by an operator, the Commissioner may approve a distance

equivalent to 180 minutes at the one engine inoperative cruise speed under
standard conditions in still air, provided the operator can demonstrate an
equivalent level of safety to the 120 minute operation and subject to any other
conditions that the Commissioner may deem necessary.
(2) An operator may not operate a twin engined performance Class B aeroplane on a
route that contains a point further, from an adequate aerodrome, than the
distance flown, under standard conditions in still air, in 90 minutes at the all-
engines maximum-range cruise speed, or 300 nautical miles, whichever is the
lesser.
(3) An operator may not, unless specially approved by the Commissioner (ETOPS
approval), operate a twin-engined aeroplane other than the aeroplanes referred
to in paragraph (1) or (2) above including cargo aeroplanes, on a route that
contains a point further, from an adequate aerodrome, than the distance flown,
under standard conditions in still air, in 120 minutes at the one-engine-
inoperative cruise speed.
(4) In the case of approved ETOPS operation, an operator must ensure than an
enroute alternate aerodrome is available within the authorised diversion time.
2. Adequate aerodrome
(1) When defining aerodromes for the type of aeroplane(s) and operation(s)
concerned, an operator must take account of the following:
(a) An adequate aerodrome is an aerodrome which the operator considers to be

satisfactory, taking account of the applicable performance requirements and
runway characteristics. In addition, it should be anticipated that, at the expected
time of use, the aerodrome will be available and equipped with necessary
ancillary services, such as ATS, sufficient lighting, communications, weather
reporting, navaids and emergency services.
(2) For an ETOPS on route alternate aerodrome, the following additional points must
be considered:
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(a) The availability of an ATC facility;
(b) the availability of at least one letdown aid (ground radar would so qualify) for an
instrument approach; and
(c) the weather at the aerodrome must meet the criteria prescribed for ETOPS in TS
91.07.8.
Note: Guidance material for the granting of ETOPS approval is contained in

the Information Leaflet No. 20 "Temporary Guidance Material for Extended
Range Operation with Two Engine Aeroplanes ETOPS Certification and
Operation”: July 1995, JAR/IL No. 20, issued by the Joint Aviation Authority.
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135.07.7 AERODROME OPERATING MINIMA
1. Take-off minima
(1) General
(a) Take-off minima established by the operator must be expressed as visibility or

RVR limits, taking into account all relevant factors for each aerodrome planned to
be used and the aeroplane characteristics. Where there is a specific need to see
and avoid obstacles on departure and/or for a forced landing, additional
conditions (e.g. ceiling) must be specified.
(b) The pilot-in-command may not commence take-off unless the weather conditions
at the aerodrome of departure are equal to or better than applicable minima for
landing at that aerodrome unless a suitable take-off alternate aerodrome is
available.
(c) When the reported meteorological visibility is below that required for take-off and
RVR is not reported, a take-off may only be commenced if the pilot-in-command
can determine that the RVR/visibility along the take-off runway is equal to or
better than the required minimum.
(d) When no reported meteorological visibility or RVR is available, a take-off may
only be commenced if the pilot-in-command can determine that the RVR/visibility
along the take-off runway is equal to or better than the required minimum.
(2) Visual reference
The take-off minima must be selected to ensure sufficient guidance to control the
aeroplane in the event of both a discontinued take-off in adverse circumstances
and a continued take-off after failure of the critical power unit.
(3) Required RVR/Visibility
(a) For multi-engined aeroplanes, whose performance is such that, in the event of a
critical power unit failure at any point during take-off, the aeroplane can either
stop or continue the take-off to a height of 1 500 feet above the aerodrome while
clearing obstacles by the required margins, the take-off minima established by an
operator must be expressed as RVR/visibility values not lower than those given in
Table 1 below except as provided in paragraph (4) below:
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Table 1 : RVR/Visibility for take-off
Take-off RVR/Visibility for take-off

Nil (Day only) 500 m
Runway edge 250/300 m (Notes 1
lighting and/or and 2)
centreline marking
Runway edge and 200/250 m (Note 1)
centreline lighting
Runway edge and 150/200 m (Notes 1
centreline lighting and 4)
and multiple RVR
information
Note
(1) The higher values apply to Category D aeroplanes.
(2) For night operations at least runway edge and runway end lights are
required.
(3) The reported RVR Visibility value representative of the initial part of the
take-off run can be replaced by pilot assessment.
(4) The required RVR value must be achieved for all of the relevant RVR
reporting points with the exception given in Note 3 above.
(b) For multi-engined aeroplanes whose performance is such that they cannot
comply with the performance conditions in subparagraph (3)(a) above in the
event of a critical power unit failure, there may be a need to re-land immediately
and to see and avoid obstacles in the take-off area.
Such aeroplanes may be operated to the following take-off minima provided they are
able to comply with the applicable obstacle clearance criteria, assuming engine
failure at the height specified. The take-off minima established by an operator must
be based upon the height from which the one engine inoperative net take-off flight
path can be constructed. The RVR minima used may not be lower than either of the
values given in Table 1 above or Table 2 below.
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Table 2: Assumed engine failure height above the runway versus
RVR/Visibility
Take-off RVR/Visibility – flight path

Assumed engine RVR/Visibility (Note
failure height 2)
above the take-off
runway
< 50 ft 200 m
51 – 100 ft 300 m
101 – 150 ft 400 m
151 – 200 ft 500 m
201 – 300 ft 1 000 m
> 300 ft 1 500 m (Note 1)
Note (1) 1500 m is also applicable if no positive take-off flight path can
be constructed
(2) The reported RVR/visibility value representative of the Initial part of

the take-off run can be replaced by pilot assessment.
(c) When reported RVR, or meteorological visibility is not available, the pilot-in-
command may not commence take-off unless he or she can determine that the
actual conditions satisfy the applicable take-off minima.
(4) Exceptions to paragraph (3)(a):
(a) Subject to the approval of the Commissioner, and provided the requirements in
paragraphs (i) to (v) below have been satisfied, an operator may reduce the take-
off minima to 125 m RVR (Category A, B and C aeroplanes) or 150 m RVR
(Category D aeroplanes) when –
(i) low visibility procedures are in force;

(iii) high intensity runway centreline lights spaced 15 m or less
and high intensity edge lights spaced 60 m or less are in operation;
(iv) flight deck crew members have satisfactorily completed training
in a simulator approved for this procedure,
(iv) a 90 m visual segment is available from the cockpit
at the start of the take-off run; and
(v) the required RVR value has been achieved for all of the
relevant RVR reporting points.
(b) Subject to the approval of the Commissioner, an operator of an aeroplane using

an approved lateral guidance system for take-off may reduce the take-off minima
to an RVR less than 125 m (Category A, B and C aeroplanes) or 150 m (Category
D aeroplane) but not lower than 75 m provided runway protection and facilities
equivalent to Category III landing operations are available.
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2. Non-precision approach
(1) System minima
An operator must ensure that system minima for non-precision approach procedures,
which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR, NDB, SRA
and VDF are not lower than the MDH values given in Table 3 below.
Table 3 : System minima for non-precision approach aids
System minima
Facility Lowest MDH
ILS (no glide path – LLZ) 250 ft
SRA (terminating at ½ NM) 250 ft
SRA (terminating a 1 NM) 300 ft
SRA (terminating at 2 NM) 350 ft
VOR 300 ft
VOR/DME 250 ft
NDB 300 ft
VDF (QDM and QGH) 300 ft
(2) Minimum descent height
An operator must ensure that the minimum descent height for a non-precision
approach is not lower than either –
(a) the OCH/OCL for the category of aeroplane; or

(b) the system minimum.
A pilot may not continue an approach below MDA/MDH unless at least one of the
following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and
identifiable to the pilot:
(a) Elements of the approach light system;

(b) the threshold;
(c) the threshold markings;
(d) the threshold lights;
(e) the threshold identification lights;
(f) the visual glide slope indicator,
(g) the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings;
(h) the touchdown zone lights;
(i) runway edge lights; or
(j) other visual references accepted by the Commissioner.
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(4) Required RVR
The lowest minima to be used by an operator for non-precision approaches are:
Table 4 (a) : RVR for non-precision approach – full facilities

Non-precision approach minima
Full facilities (Notes (1), (5), (6) and (7)
MDH RVR/Aeroplane category
A B C D
250 ft – 299 ft 800 m 800 m 800 m 1 200m
300 ft – 449 ft 900 m 1 000 m 1 000 m 1 400 m
450 ft – 649 ft 1 000 m 1 200 m 1 200 m 1 600 m
650 ft and above 1 200 m 1 400 m 1 400 m 1 800 m
Table 4(b) : RVR for non-precision approach – intermediate facilities

Intermediate facilities (Notes (2), (5), (6) and (7)
A B C D
250 ft – 299 ft 1 000 m 1 100 m 1 200 m 1 400 m
300 ft – 449 ft 1 200 m 1 300 m 1 400 m 1 600 m
450 ft – 649 ft 1 400 m 1 500 m 1 600 m 1 800 m
650 ft and above 1 500 m 1 500 m 1 800 m 2 000 m
Table 4(c) : RVR for non-precision approach – basic facilities

Basic facilities (Notes (3), (5), (6) and (7)
A B C D
250 ft – 299 ft 1 200 m 1 300 m 1 400 m 1 600 m
300 ft – 449 ft 1 300 m 1 400 m 1 600 m 1 800 m
450 ft – 649 ft 1 500 m 1 500 m 1 800 m 2 000 m
650 ft and above 1 500 m 1 500 m 2 000 m 2 000 m
Table 4 (d) : RVR for non-precision approach – Nil approach light facilities

Nil approach light facilities (Notes (4), (5), (6) and (7)
A B C D
250 ft – 299 ft 1 500 m 1 500 m 1 600 m 1 800 m
300 ft – 449 ft 1 500 m 1 500 m 1 800 m 2 000 m
450 ft – 649 ft 1 500 m 1 500 m 2 000 m 2 000 m
650 ft and above 1 500 m 1 500 m 2 000 m 2 000 m
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Note:
(1) Full facilities comprise runway markings, 720 m or more of HI/MI approach
lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights
must be on.
(2) Intermediate facilities comprise runway markings, 420 - 719 m of HI/MI

approach lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end
lights. Lights must be on.
(3) Basic facilities comprise runway markings, < 420 m of HI/MI approach
lights, any length of LI approach lights, runway edge Iights, threshold lights
and runway end lights. Lights must be on.
(4) NiI approach light facilities comprise runway markings, runway edge Iights,
threshold lights, runway end lights or no Iights at all.
(5) The tables are only applicable to conventional approaches with a nominal
descent slope of not greater than 4 . Greater descent slopes will usually
reguire that visual glide slope guidance (e.g. PAPI) is also visible at the
Minimum Descent Height.
(6) The above figures are either reported RVR or meteorological visibility
converted to RVR as in TS 135.07.7.8 below.
(7) The MDH mentioned In Table 4(a). 4(b), 4(c) and 4(d) refers to the initial
calculation of MDH When selecting the associated RVR, there is no need to
take account of a rounding up to the nearest ten feet, which may be done
for operational purposes, e.g. conversion to MDA.
(5) Night operations
For night operations at least runway edge, threshold and runway end lights must
be on.
3 Precision approach - Category I operations
(1) General
A Category I operation is a precision instrument approach procedure which

provides for an approach to a decision height not lower than 200 ft and a visibility
not less than 800 m or RVR not less than 555m.
(2) Decision height
An operator must ensure that the decision height to be used for a category
Iprecision approach is not lower than –
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(a) the minimum decision height specified in the aeroplane flight manual (AFM) if
stated;
(b) the minimum height to which the precision approach aid can be used without the
required visual reference;
(c) the OCH/OCL for the category of aeroplane; or
(d) 200 ft.
A pilot may not continue an approach below the Category I decision height,
determined in accordance with paragraph (2) above, unless at least one of the
following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and
identifiable to the pilot:
(a) Elements of the approach light system;

(b) the threshold;
(c) the threshold markings;
(d) the threshold lights;
(e) the threshold identification lights;
(f) the visual glide slope indicator;
(g) the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings;
(h) the touchdown zone lights; or
(i) runway edge lights.
(4) Required RVR
The lowest minima to be used by an operator for Category I operations are:
Table 5 : RVR for Cat 1 approach vs facilities and DH
Category I minima
Decision height Facilities/RVR (Note 5)
(Note 7)
Full Interim. Basic Nil
(Notes 1 and 6) (Notes 2 and 6) (Notes 3 and 6) (Notes 4 and 6)
200 ft 550 m 700 m 800 m 1 000 m
201 – 250 ft 600 m 700 m 800 m 1 000 m
251 – 300 ft 650 m 800 m 900 m 1 200 m
301 ft and above 800 m 900 m 1 000 m 1 200 m
Note :
1. Full facilities comprise runway markings, 720 m or more of HI/MI approach

lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights. Lights
must be on.
Note :
2. Intermediate facilities comprise runway markings, 420 – 719 m of HI/MI

approach lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end
lights. Lights must be on.
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Note :
3. Basic facilities comprise runway markings, 420m of HI/MI approach lights,

any length of LI approach lights, runway edge lights, threshold lights and
runway end lights. Lights must be on.
Note :
4. Nil approach light facilities comprise runway markings, runway edge lights,
threshold lights, runway end lights or no lights at all
Note :
5. The above figures are either the reported RVR or meteorological visibility
converted to RVR as in accordance with technical standard 131.6
Note:
6. The table is applicable to conventional approaches while a glide slope

angle up to and including 4.
Note:
7. The DH mentioned in Table 5 refers to the initial calculation of DH. When

selecting the associated RVR, there is no need to take account of a
rounding up to the nearest ten feet, which may be done for operational
purposes, e.g. conversion to DA.
(5) Single pilot operations
For single pilot operations, an operator must calculate the minimum RVR for all
approaches in accordance with CAR 135.07.7 and this technical standard. An
RVR of less than 800 m is not permitted except when using a suitable autopilot
coupled to an ILS or MLS, in which case normal minima apply. The decision
height applied may not be less than 1.25x the minimum disengagement height for
the autopilot.
(6) Night operations
For night operations at least runway edge. threshold and runway end lights must
be on.
4. Precision approach -Category II operations
(1) General
A Category II operation is an ILS approach procedure which provides for an

approach to a decision height lower than 200 feet but not lower than 100 feet and
a RVR of not less than 350 m.
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(2) Decision height
An operator must ensure that the decision height for a Category II operation is not
lower than –
(a) the minimum decision height specified in the AFM, if stated;

required visual reference;
(c) the OCH/OCL for the category of aeroplane; or
(d) the decision height to which the flight crew is authorised to operate; or
(e) 100 ft.
A pilot may not continue an approach below the Category II decision height
determined in accordance with paragraph (2) above, unless visual references
containing a segment of at least consecutive lights being the centre line of the
approach lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway centre line lights, or runway
edge lights, or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained. This
visual reference must include a lateral element of the ground pattern, i.e. an
approach lighting crossbar or the landing threshold or a barrette of the touchdown
zone lighting.
(4) Required RVR
The lowest minima to be used by an operator for Category II operations are:
Table 6 : RVR for Cat II approach vs DH
Category II minima
Auto-coupled to below DH (Note 1)
Decision height RVR/Aeroplane Category A,B RVR/Aeroplane Category D
and C
100 ft – 120 ft 300 m 300 m
(Note 2)
/350 m
135 ft – 140 ft 400 m 400 m
141 ft and above 450 m 450 m
Notes 1 :
The reference to ‘auto-coupled to below DH’ in this table means continued use
of the automatic flight control system down to a height which is not greater
than 80% of the applicable DH. Thus airworthiness requirements may, through
minimum engagement height for the automatic flight control system, affect the
DH to be applied.
Note 2:
300 m May be used for a Category D aeroplane conducting an Autoland.
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2. Precision approach - Category III operations
(1) General
Category III operations are subdivided as follows:
(a) Category III A operations
An ILS approach procedure which provides for an approach to a decision height

lower than 100 feet or with no decision height and with a RVR of not less than
200 m.
(b) Category 111B operations
An ILS approach procedure which provides for approach with either decision
height lower than 50 feet or no decision height and a RVR lower than 200 m but
not less than 75 m.
(c) Category IIIC operations
An ILS approach procedure which provides for approach with no decision height
and no runway visual range limitations.
(2) Decision height
For operations in which a decision height is used, an operator must ensure that
the decision height is not lower than –
(a) the minimum decision height specified in the AFM, if stated;

required visual reference; or
(c) the decision height to which the flight crew is authorised to operate.
(3) No decision height operations
Operations with no decision height may only be conducted if –
(a) the operation with no decision height is authorised in the AFM;

(b) the approach aid and the aerodrome facilities can support operations with no
decision height; and
(c) the operator has an approval for CAT III operations with no decision height.
Note: In the case of a CAT III runway it may be assumed that operations with
no decision height can be supported unless specifically restricted as
published in the AIP or NOTAM.
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(a) For Category III A operations, a pilot may not continue an approach below the
decision height determined in accordance with paragraph (2) above unless a
visual reference containing a segment of at least 3 consecutive lights being the
centreline of the approach lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway centre line
lights, or runway edge lights, or a combination of these is attained and can be
maintained.
(b) For Category III B operations with a decision height a pilot may not continue an
approach below the decision height, determined in accordance with paragraph
(2) above, unless a visual reference containing at least one centreline light is
attained and can be maintained.
(c) For Category III operations with no decision height there is no requirement for
visual contact with the runway prior to touchdown.
(5) Required RVR
The lowest minima to be used by an operator for Category III operations are:
Table 7 : RVR for CAT III approach vs flight control systems and DH
Category III minima

Flight control system/RVR (metres)
Fail Passive Fail Operational
Without roll-out With roll-out guidance or control
System system
Approach Decision height Fail passive Fail operational
category (ft)
IIIA Less than 100 ft 200 m (Note 1) 200 m 200 m 200 m
IIIB Less than 50 ft Not authrised Not authorised 125 m 75 m
IIIC No DH Not authrised Not authorised Not authorised 75 m
Note 1:
For operations to actual RVR values less than 300 m a go-around is assumed
in the event of an autopilot failure at or below DH.
6. Circling
(1) The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling are:
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Table 8 : Visibility and MDH for circling vs aeroplane category
Aeroplane category
A B C D
MDH 400 ft 500 ft 600 ft 700 ft
Mini- 1500 1600 2400 3600
mum m m m m
meteo
ro-
logical
visibilit
y
(2) Circling with prescribed tracks is an accepted procedure within the meaning of
this paragraph.
7. Visual approach
An operator may not use an RVR of less than 1 500 m for a visual approach.
8. Conversion of reported meteorological

visibility to RVR
(1) An operator must ensure that a meteorological visibility to RVR conversion is not
used for calculating take-off minima, Category II or III minima or when a reported
RVR is available.
(2) When converting meteorological visibility to RVR in all other circumstances than
those in paragraph (1) above, an operator must ensure that the following table is
used:
Table 9 : Conversion of visibility to RVR
RVR = Reported Met.

Visibility x
Lighting elements in Day Night
operation
HI approach and runway 1.5 2
Lighting
Any type of lighting 1 1.5
installation
Other than above
No lighting 1 Not
applicable
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135.07.9 FUEL POLICY
1. Contingency fuel
At the planning stage, not all factors which could have an influence on the fuel
consumption to the destination aerodrome can be foreseen. Therefore, contingency fuel
is carried to compensate for items such as –
(1) deviations of an individual aeroplane from the expected fuel consumption data;
(2) deviations from forecast meteorological conditions; and
(3) deviations from planned routings and/or cruising levels/altitudes.
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135.07.17 CARRY-ON BAGGAGE
1. Procedures for stowing of carry-on

Baggage
Procedures established by an operator to ensure that carry-on baggage is

adequately and securely stowed must take account of the following:
(1) Each item carried in a cabin must be stowed only in a location that is capable of
restraining it;
(2) mass limitations placarded on or adjacent to stowages must not be exceeded;
(3) underseat stowages must not be used unless the seat is equipped with a restraint bar
and the baggage is of such size that it may adequately be restrained by this
equipment;
(4) items must not be stowed in toilets or against bulkheads that are incapable of
restraining articles against movement forwards, sideways or upwards and unless
the bulkheads carry a placard specifying the greatest mass that may be placed there;
(5) baggage and cargo placed in lockers must not be of such size that they prevent
latched doors from being closed securely;
(6) baggage and cargo must not be placed where it can impede access to emergency
equipment; and
(7) checks must be made before take-off, before landing, and whenever the pilot-in-
command illuminates the fasten seat belts sign (or otherwise so orders) to ensure
that baggage is stowed where it cannot impede evacuation from the aircraft or cause
injury by failing (or other movement) as may be appropriate to the phase of flight.
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135.08.2 GENERAL PROVISIONS FOR ALL CLASSES OF AEROPLANES
(Reserved.)
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TABLE 1 : MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : SINGLE PILOT CREWS –
AEROPLANES CERTIFIED FOR SINGLE PILOT OPERATIONS
Local time of Sectors

start Up to 4 5 6 7 8 or more
0500 – 0659 10 9¼ 8½ 8 8
0700 – 1359 11 10¼ 9½ 8¾ 8
1400 – 2059 10 9¼ 8½ 8 8
2100 - 0459 9 8¼ 8 8 8
Note:
Pilots engaged in repetitive short flights, with an average eight or more take-
offs and landings per hour, must have a break of at least thirty minutes within
any continuous period of three hours, away from the aircraft; however for the
purpose of these technical standards each such series of repetitive flights
must be counted as a single sector.
TABLE 2 : MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : TWO PILOT CREWS – AEROPLANES

:
Local time of Sectors

start 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 or more
0500 – 0659 13 12¼ 11½ 10¾ 10 9¼ 9 9
0700 – 1359 14 13¼ 12½ 11¾ 11 10¼ 9½ 9
1400 – 2059 13 12¼ 11½ 10¾ 10 9¼ 9 9
2100 – 2159 12 11¼ 10½ 9¾ 9 9 9 9
2200 - 0459 11 10¼ 9½ 9 9 9 9 9
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TABLE 3 : MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : TWO PILOT CREWS – AEROPLANES
:
NOT ACCLIMATISED TO LOCAL TIME
Length of Sectors
preceding 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 or
Rest (hours) more
Up to 18 or over 13 12¼ 11½ 10¾ 10 9¼ 9
30
Between 18 and 12 11¼ 10½ 9¾ 9 9 9
30
Note:
The reason that available duty times are less following rest periods inside 18 –
30 hours is the aeromedical advice that the quality of rest isless due to the
disturbance of the body’s natural rhythm.
TABLE 4 : MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : BASIC CREW CONSISTING OF

THREE FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS – AEROPLANES CERTIFIED FOR THREE
CREW MEMBERS : ACCLIMATISED TO LOCAL TIME
Local time Sectors

of 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 or
start more
0500 – 0659 13 12¼ 11½ 10¾ 10 9¼ 9 9
0700 – 1359 14 13¼ 12½ 11¾ 11 10¼ 9½ 9
1400 – 2059 13 12¼ 11½ 10¾ 10 9¼ 9 9
2100 – 2159 12 11¼ 10½ 9¾ 9 9 9 9
2200 - 0459 11 10¼ 9½ 9 9 9 9 9
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TABLE 5 : MAXIMUM FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD : BASIC CREW CONSISTING OF
THREE FLIGHT CREW MEMBERS – AEROPLANES CERTIFIED FOR THREE
CREW MEMBERS : NOT ACCLIMATISED TO LOCAL TIME
Length of Sectors
Preceding 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 or
Rest more
(hours)
Up to 18 or 13 12¼ 11½ 10¾ 10 9¼ 9
over 30
Between 18 12 11¼ 10½ 9¾ 9 9 9
and
30
Note:
The reason that available duty times are less following rest periods inside 18 –
30 Hours is the aeromedical advice that the quality of rest is less
due to the disturbance of the body’s natural rhythm.
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ANNEZURE A
PILOT-IN COMMAND’S DISCRETION REPORT
SECTION 1 : EXTENSION OF FLIGHT DUTY PERIOD
Part A : Operator
Aircraft type
Flight number
Pilot-in-command
Date
Note: If discretion exercised for part crew or individual state name(s) and
Operating capacity below.
Part B Flight details
(1) Crew acclimatised to time zone YES/NO*
(2) Length of preceding rest eighteen to thirty hrs/under eighteen or over thirty hours *
(3) Split duty: actual time off……………time on……………
(4) Extended FDP for in-flight relief YES/NO*
* Delete inapplicable items
FLIGHT DETAILS
Schedule (planned) Actual
Place UTC Local UTC Local
Start of duty Duty started
Depart Departed
Arrive Arrived
Depart Departed
Arrive Arrived
Depart Departed
Arrive Arrived
Depart Departed
Arrive Arrived
FDP to end FDP ended
Schedule FDP Actual FDP
Maximum permitted
FDP
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Part C : Pilot-in command’s report giving reasons
Signed :…………………………………….
Date : …………………………………….
Operator’s remarks / Action taken
Signed :…………………………………….
Date : …………………………………….
Forwarded to CAA
Date : …………………………………….
SECTION 2 : REDUCTION OF REST
Note: All times to be recorded as date/time six-figure groups, expressed in both UTC
and
Local time.
Part A: Operator
Flight number
Aircraft type
Pilot-in-command
Date
Note: If discretion exercised for part crew or individual state name(s) and operating
Capacity below.
Part B: Last duty started UTC/Local

Last duty ended UTC/Local
Rest earned Hours
Calculated earliest next
Avialable UTC/Local
Actual start of next
FDP UTC/Local
Rest period reduced
By crew affected UTC/Local
Part C: Pilot – in – command’s report
Signed :…………………………………….
Date : …………………………………….
Operator’s remarks / Action taken
Signed :…………………………………….
Date : …………………………………….
Forwarded to CAA
Filed : …………………………………….
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ANNEXURE B
LOADSHEET
Aircraft ZS……………………. Type……………………… Flight No……………………….
Date………………………………… From…………………………. To…………………………….
A AIRCRAFT
Operating mass, empty MASS ARM MOMENT

Extra equipment (water injectants, de-
fluid etc)
Crew (No………)
Crew Baggage
Operating mass, empty
B PAYLOAD
Passengers (No…………….)
(Passenger manifest must accompany
this load sheet)
Free baggage
Excess Baggage
Freight
Mail
(Other)
Aircraft zero fuel mass
C FUEL
(USABLE) (QUANTITY)
Tank No ………….. …………….

Tank No ………….. …………….
Tank No ………….. …………….
Tank No ………….. …………….
TOTAL AIRCRAFT MASS AND CENTRE OF GRAVITY (as

loaded)………………………………………………………..
FUEL EXPECTED TO BE USED ON THIS FLIGHT

…………………………………………………………………
ESTIMATED LANDING MASS AND CENTRE OF
GRAVITY AT THE END OF THIS FLIGHT……………….
I hereby certify the load distribution to be in accordance with the requirements prescribed in the “Flight or Operations Manual” and
that the maximum certificated mass has not been exceeded.
…………………………………………….
SIGNATURE OF LOADER
LOAD SHEET EXAMINED
Date…………………………………….. Signed…………………………………………………
Pilot - in - command
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ANNEXURE C
(LOGO)
SOUTH AFRICAN CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 1997
APPLICATION FOR NOTIFICATION OF CHANGES TO THE ISSUING OF AN OPERATING

CERTIFICATE TO THE PARTICULARS ON AN OPERATING CERTIFICATE
Notes:
(i.) This application/notificafion must be signed by –
(a) the holder of the air service licence, if a natural person;
(b) each partner, if the application/notification is on behalf of a partnership; or
(c) the officer(s) duly authorised to execute documents on its behalf, if the applicant/holder of an
air service licence is a company, close corporation or organisation,
and must be accompanied a certified true copy of the relevant authorising resolution.
(ii.) Where the required information cannot be furnished in the space provided on this form, the
information must as a separate memorandum and attached hereto.
(iii.) *Delete if not applicable.
Mark the appropriate block
 Application for the issuing of an operating certificate
 Notification of changes to the particulars on the operating certificate.
1. PARTICULARS REGARDING THE APPLICANT
1.1 Full name :………………………………………………………………………………………………
1.2 Trade name if any:………………………………………………………………………………………………
1.3 Full business/residential address: 1.4 Postal address:

…………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………….. ……………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………….. Postal code: …………………………
1.5 Telephone number :…………………………… 1.6 Telefax number :…………………………………
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*I/We herby declare that * I/we are in possession of an approved operations manual, that it is
up to date and that
*I/We may not operate the air service concerned contrary to the relevant approved operations
manual and any provisions of the Air Services Licensing Act, 1990 (Act No. 115 of 1990), the
Aviation Act, 1962 (Act No. 74 of 1962), and the Civil Aviation Offences Act, 1972 (Act No 10.
of 1972).
Name(s) of signatory(ies) Signature(s)
……………………………………………………. …………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………. …………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………. …………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………. …………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………. …………………………………………………….
I certify that the deponent(s) *has/have acknowledged that * he knows and understands/they
know and understand the contents of this statement, which was signed and *affirmed/sworn to
before me at
…………………………………………………….on………………………………………
19………….
…………………………………………………….
Commissioner of Oaths
Full Name:
…………………………………………………….
Business address:
…………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………….
Capacity
…………………………………………………….
Area
…………………………………………………….
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ANNEXURE D
(LOGO)
SOUTH AFRICAN CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY

CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 1997
OPERATING CERTIFICATE
Operating certificate number : ……………………………………………………………………………………..
This is to certify that ……………………………………………………………………………………………….
Of …………………………………………………………………………………………………
To whom (a) Class/Classes……………………………………………………………………………………….
Licence(s), number(s) ………………………………………………………………………………………………
Dated………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
.
Has been authorised to operate the said air service(s) in accordance with the approved operations
manual and the provisions of the Air Service Licensing Act, 1990 (Act No. 115 of 1990), the Aviation Act,
1962 (Act No 74 of 1962), and the Civil Aviation Offences Act, 1972 (Act No. 10 of 1972).
Expiry date : ……………………………………………………………………………………..
Issued at PRETORIA on
………………………………………………………..19……………………..
………………………………………………………………
Commissioner of Civil Aviation
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APPENDIX A
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AIR LAW
Appendix A
Questions are often asked in the examination concerning the use of navigation lights at night
to avoid collision. Once a few principles are understood, these problems should not prove
difficult at all.
Using the diagram below let us examine the illustrated situations and formulate some rules.
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 Red to red and green to green is safe therefore no risk of collision exists. Easy enough.
 Red to green (and vice versa!) is unsafe - but when and ,what must you do?
 If the relative bearing between yourself and the other aircraft is either increasing or
decreasing then, although not safe, there is no collision risk.
 If the bearing remains constant then there is a risk of collision and if:
 You have the other aircraft on your right, the ANR's say you must alter
heading to the right to avoid collision.
 You have the other aircraft on your left, maintain heading but be prepared to
take action should the other aircraft not take avoiding action. (Remember he
has you on his right and he must therefore give way.)
Finally, should you be approaching an aircraft from behind (with its white tail light visible,
that is, within 70 of its fore-aft axis and it is getting closer, bearing remaining constant,
you are on a collision course. You are in fact busy overtaking the other aircraft and you must
thus alter heading to the right.
In the table below consider the conditions given in columns (1) to (3). Select the correct
answer from the following 4 alternatives and insert it in column 4.
(a) There is no risk of collision.

(b) There is a collision risk. Alter heading to port.
(c) There is a collision risk. Alter heading to starboard.
(d) There is a collision risk. Maintain heading but be prepared to take action if the other fails
to give way.
Assume the following:
(i.) You are flying at night in a flying machine.

(ii.) The lights seen are those of another flying machine at about the same altitude.
(iii.) If avoiding action is necessary there is sufficient time for normal action.
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NOTES:
(i.) ‘Increases’ or ‘decreases’ in column (3) refers to the numerical change in the value of the
bearing.
(ii.) A dash in column (3) means that no information about change in relative bearing is required to
answer that question.
Lights of the other Relative Subsequent change Answer

flying machine seen in bearing of in the relative
addition to its anti the lights bearing, if any
collision light when first
seen
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Question 1 Steady Red and White 040 Remains constant
Question 2 Steady Red and Green 080 -
Question 3 Steady Green 030 -
Question 4 Steady Green 350 Decreases quickly
Question 5 Steady Red 045 Decreases quickly
Question 6 Steady White getting 010 Remains constant

nearer
Question 7 Steady Green 300 Decreases quickly
Question 9 Steady Red 050 Increases quickly
Question 10 Steady Green 340 Increases quickly
Question 11 Steady Red 030 Decreases quickly
Question 12 Steady White to which 350 No change

you are getting nearer
Question 13 Steady Green 330 Remains constant
Question 15 Steady Red 020 Increasing slowly
Question 16 Steady White getting 310 No change

nearer
Question 17 Steady Red 320 -
Question 18 Steady Green 290 No change
Question 19 Steady Red 030 No change
Question 20 Steady Green 340 No change
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ANSWERS
1 C
2 A
3 A
4 A
5 A
6 C
7 A
8 C
9 A
10 A
11 A
12 B
13 D
14 A
15 A
16 C
17 A
18 D
19 C
20 D
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APPENDIX B
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QUESTIONS
1. The final decision regarding the admission of any person to the flight deck shall be the
responsibility of the:
a) Co-pilot
b) Pilot-in-command
c) Commissioner
2. A person may smoke in a South African registered aeroplane when such aeroplane is
used in a scheduled air transport service operation and has departed from and will be
landing within the Republic
a) True
b) False
c) Not Applicable
3. Where may infants in small commercial air transport aeroplanes NOT be seated:
a) Windows
b) Adults laps
c) Exits
4. How many passengers with a disability or unaccompanied minors may be carried in a

small commercial air transport aeroplane:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
5. An infant is defined as being
a) 3 years or younger
b) Not yet reached his/her second birthday
c) 1 year or younger
6. A child is defined as being
a) Between 2 years and 12 years

b) Between 2 years and under 12 years
c) Between 1 year and under 12 years
7. Over a 14 day period, the number of days off should not be less than:
a) 3 days
b) 2 days
c) 4 days
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8. The minimum RVR/visibility for take-off with runway edge lighting and/or center-line
marking in an aircraft other than a category D aircraft is:
a) 500 m
b) 250 m
c) 300 m
9. For a visual approach, the minimum RVR may not be less than:
a) 1000 m
b) 1500 m
c) 2000 m
10. Night duty means a period of not less than 4 hours between
a) 20h00 to 06h00
b) 24h00 to 06h00
c) 02h00 to 06h00
11 No twin or single engine aircraft may be operated over water without a life raft if more
than:
a) 10 minutes or 50 NM from shore;

b) 90 minutes or 300 NM from shore;
c) 30 minutes or 100 NM from shore.
12 No aircraft shall be used to conduct single pilot IFR flights unless equipped with:
a) Auto-pilot with heading mode;

b) Auto-pilot with altitude and heading mode;
c) Auto-pilot with altitude mode.
13 No aircraft owner or operator shall operate an aircraft without each seat being
equipped with:
a) A seat belt;
b) A safety harness for all crew members;
c) A seat belt for cabin crew members and a safety harness for each flight deck
crew member.
14 An aircraft may not be operated over water without a life jacket for each person aboard
more than ……….. from the shore:
a) Gilding distance;
b) 50 NM;
c) 10 NM.
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15 No aircraft shall be operated by day unless it is equipped with:
a) An anti-collision light and torch for each crew member;

b) An anti-collision light and an emergency electrical power source for the
illumination of all instruments and equipment used by the flight crew;
c) An anti-collision light system.
16 No aircraft shall be operated at night without:
a) An anti-collision light system, navigation lights or position lights;

b) Anti-collision light system, navigation lights, position lights and two landing
lights or a single light having two separately energised filaments;
c) Two parachute flares if the maximum certificated mass is less than 5700 kgs.
17 No pilot shall act as Pilot In Command of an aircraft on an instrument approach in IMC

unless the pilot has within the preceding 90 days completed at least:
a) 2 actual approaches in IMC;

b) 2 simulated approaches;
c) 1 actual approach in IMC.
18 No person acting as a flight crew member, may consume alcohol before commencing a
flight, within:
a) 8 hours;
b) 12 hours;
c) none of the above.
19 When two aircraft are converging at the same level, which aircraft has the right of way:
a) The one on the right;

b) The one on the left;
c) Neither.
20 When an aircraft is being overtaken by another aircraft, which aircraft has the right of
way and in which direction must the aircraft giving way turn:
a) The overtaken aircraft to the right;

b) The overtaking aircraft to the left;
c) The aircraft being overtaken and the overtaking aircraft must turn to the left.
21 When can an overtaking aircraft alter its heading to the left:
a) When a pilot deems it necessary in the interest of safety;

b) When a right-hand circuit is in force;
c) When a left-hand circuit is in force.
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22. At what time intervals must an operator establish the mass and the centre of gravity of
the aircraft by actually weighing the aircraft
a) Every 5 years
b) Every 3 years
c) Every 4 years
23. No pilot shall operate an aircraft in formation flight, except:
a) By prior written approval having been granted by the Commissioner

b) By arrangement between the pilot-in-command of each aircraft
c) In uncontrolled airspace
24 An aircraft following a line feature at or below 1500 ft. AGL and within 1 nm. of that line
feature shall:
a) Fly to the right of the line feature

b) Fly to the left of the line feature
c) Fly directly along the line feature
25 Special VFR can be given
a) By day only
b) When visibility is less than 1500m.
c) Both A & B.
26 Every VFR flight shall be so conducted that the aircraft is flown with visual reference to
the surface by day and at no time above more than.
a) Four eighths cloud within a 3 nm. radius

b) Three eighths cloud within a 5 nm. radius
c) Three eighths cloud within a 3 nm. radius
27 As stated under Part 1 of the CAR’s, “day” means the period of time from:
a) 15 minutes before sunrise to 15 minutes after sunset.

b) 15 minutes after sunrise to 15 minutes before sunset
c) 15 minutes after sunrise to 15 minutes after sunset.
28 As stated under Part 1 of the CAR’s, “estimated time of arrival” in respect of a VFR
flight, means:
a) Estimated time that the aircraft will touchdown at the destination aerodrome.
b) Estimated time that the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome
c) Estimated time that the aircraft commences shutdown
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29 As stated under Part 91, no person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft:
a) Within 24 hrs. following scuba diving

b) Within 12 hrs. following scuba diving
c) Within 36 hrs. following scuba diving
30 As stated under Part 91 CAR’s, no person shall consume alcohol less than:
a) 16 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty,

b) 12 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty,
c) 8 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty.
31 As stated under Part 91 CAR’s, no person shall act as a flight deck crew member of an
aircraft if flight time exceeds:
a) 120 hrs. during the preceding 30 days

b) 350 hrs. during the preceding 90 days
c) 400 hrs. during the preceding 30 days
32 As stated in Part 91 CAR’s, a pilot shall not act as PIC of an aircraft carrying
passengers by night unless the pilot has carried out 3 take-offs and landing by night in
the same class/category aircraft within:
a) 90 days
b) 60 days
c) 6 months
33 As stated in part 91 CAR’s, the PIC of the aircraft shall ensure that breathing oxygen is
available if flights in a non-pressurised aircraft are contemplated:
a) Above 10,000 feet

b) Above 14,000 feet
c) Above 18,000 feet
34 If a flight plan is to be filed in flight, at least how long must it be filed before entering
controlled or advisory airspace:
a) 30 minutes
b) 60 minutes
c) 10 minutes
35 A flight folio must be retained for at least how many years from the date of it’s last
entry:
a) 3 years
b) 5 years
c) 7 years
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36 An owner / operator may not operate a non-pressurised aircraft at altitudes above
…………… feet and up to ………… feet for longer than ……... minutes, unless
supplemental oxygen is provided for the crew and all passengers.
a) 12000'/14000'/ 60 minutes.
b) 10000’/2000'/ 45 minutes.
c) 10000' /12000'/ 60 minutes.
37 At least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently located on the flight deck for
use by flight deck crew. This must be of the following type :
a) CO 2.
b) Halon 1211.
c) Dry Chemical.
38 An aircraft owner / operator must ensure that the ELT on board the aircraft is capable of
transmitting on the distress frequencies :
a) 121.5 kHz and 243 MHz.

b) 121.5 kHz and 234 kHz.
c) 121.5 MHz and 243 MHz.
39 By day or night, a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10

seconds showing, on bursting, red and green lights or stars will indicate to an aircraft :
a) It is flying in, or about to enter, a restricted, prohibited or danger area.

b) Aerodrome is unsafe - do not land.
c) Aerodrome radio station unserviceable - continue unmanned.
40 For marshalling of fixed - wing aircraft, the signalman shall be facing the aircraft, within
view of the pilot, in a position :
a) Forward of the right wingtip.

b) Forward of the left wingtip.
c) In the centre of both wingtips.
41 The meaning of an intercepting aircraft rocking its wings whilst in front of and to the
right of an intercepted aircraft, by day, is :
a) Follow me away from a prohibited area,

b) Follow me to a landing terrain.
c) Land on this landing area.
42 The highest allowable VFR Flight Level is :
a) FL 185.
b) FL 195.
c) FL 205.
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43 A signal made by radiotelegraphy consisting of S0S in Morse code will be:
a) . . . - - -…
b) - - . - - ….
c) ---...
44 When using GPS in controlled airspace, the ATS unit must be advised if RAIM is lost for
periods greater than……… minutes, even if GPS is still providing positional information.
a) 15 minutes.
b) 5 minutes.
c) 10 minutes.
45 Critical phase of flight includes all ground operations and taxi, take-off and climb to cruise.
a) Up to 1 500 feet
b) Above 10 000 feet
c) Up to 10 000 feet
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ANSWERS
1 B
2 B
3 C
4 A
5 B
6 B
7 A
8 B
9 B
10 A
11 C
12 B
13 B
14 B
15 A
16 A
17 A
18 A
19 A
20 A
21 B
22 A
23 B
24 A
25 A
26 B
27 A
28 B
29 A
30 C
31 B
32 A
33 A
34 C
35 B
36 C
37 B
38 C
39 A
40 B
41 B
42 B
43 A
44 C
45 C
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Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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MOCK EXAM
CPL AIR LAW
TIME: 2 HOUR
TOTAL MARKS:
NO. OF QUESTIONS:
PASS MARK: 75%
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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1. When a pilot in command of an aircraft departs from the provisions of Air
Navigation regulations in the interests of safety, the pilot in command shall
report such departure and the reasons therefore to the :
a) Commissioner of Civil Aviation within seven days,

b) Nearest major police station,
c) Nearest convenient air traffic services unit as soon as is practicable.
2. Except with the written permission of the Commissioner, and subject to any
condition he may impose in the interests of safety, no aircraft shall circle over
or within one kilometre of, or do repeated overflights over an open air
assembly of persons below a height of:
a) 3000 feet above the surface,

b) 2000 feet above the surface,
c) 1500 feet above the surface.
3. Except when necessary for taking off or landing, or except by individual

permission from the Commissioner, aircraft shall be flown over built up areas
at heights :
a) which will permit, in the event of the failure of a power unit, an emergency
landing without due hazard to persons or property on the surface,
b) of not less than 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a radius of
2000 feet from the aircraft,
c) of not less than 1500 feet above the highest obstacle within a radius of
2000 feet from the aircraft.
4. An aircraft flown in accordance with VFR shall not be required to comply with
the provisions of Flight Levels if flown at a height above the surface of less
than :
a) 1000 feet,
b) 1500 feet,
c) 2000 feet.
5. No pilot shall use a public road as a place of landing or take off, except :
a) in the case of emergency involving the safety of the aircraft,

b) with the permission of the Public Roads Department,
c) where no licensed aerodrome is available.
6. Except by an individual from the Commissioner, aircraft shall not be flown

acrobatically within:
a) five nautical miles of an aerodrome unless at a height not less than 4000
feet above ground level,
b) six nautical miles of an aerodrome unless at a height not less than 5000
feet above ground level,
c) eight nautical miles of an aerodrome unless at a height not less than 5000
feet above ground level.
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7. Except when instructed to do otherwise by an ATC unit, an aircraft flying at or
below 1500 feet above the surface and following a road, a railway line or any
other line feature, shall fly
a) to the left of the line feature,

b) overhead the line feature,
c) to the right of the line feature.
8. Where a right hand circuit is being followed at an aerodrome, a faster aircraft

in the circuit may:
a) overtake a slower aircraft on the left of the slower aircraft,

b) not overtake the slower aircraft,
c) overtake a slower aircraft on the right of the slower aircraft.
9. Unless otherwise authorised by an ATC, no person shall fly an aircraft within a

control zone or an aerodrome traffic zone at an indicated airspeed of more
than :
a) 180 knots piston engine aircraft and 210 knots turbine powered aircraft,
b) 160 knots piston engine aircraft and 200 knots turbine powered aircraft,
c) 170 knots piston engine aircraft and 220 knots turbine powered aircraft.
10. Decision Height (DH) is referenced to :
a) mean sea level,

b) runway threshold elevation,
c) aerodrome elevation.
11. The minimum RVR or VIS, below which no approach to land shall be
commenced or continued, shall be determined by the :
a) Pilot in command,
b) Commissioner,
c) Operator of the aircraft.
12. The pilot in command shall, prior to undertaking an IFR flight, obtain a weather
forecast for the destination and alternate aerodromes for a duration of at least:
a) one hour before and one hour after the ETA at both aerodromes,
b) the fuel endurance of the aircraft,
c) the ETA plus 1 ½ hours at both aerodromes.
13. An aircraft is cleared for a Cobra 2 Alfa STAR for an ILS approach to
Johannesburg runway 03 L. In the event of a missed approach, the aircraft will
divert to Durban. If the aircraft is not visual at the MAPt the correct procedure
is to comply with the :
a) missed approach procedure and divert from the JS NDB,

b) climb straight ahead to the JB NDB, turn left onto heading 280 and at
8300 ft. turn left for Bloemfontein,
c) RHINO 2A SID
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14. VMC minima for IFR flights above flight level 200 are :
a) visibility 8 kilometres distance from cloud 1½ km horizontally, 1000 feet

vertically,
b) visibility 5 kilometres distance from cloud 2000 feet horizontally, 500 feet
vertically,
c) visibility 5 kilometres distance from cloud 1½ km horizontally, 1000 feet
vertically.
15. No person shall act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger by

night unless he has carried out, in an aircraft of the same class and category,
not less than
a) five take offs and landings within six months of the flight,
b) three take offs and landings within 90 days preceding the flight,
c) three take offs and landings within six months of the flight.
16. An applicant for a commercial pilot's licence shall be not less than 18 years of
age and have completed not less than 200 hours of flight time which shall
include :
a) 100 hours as pilot in command, 20 hours cross country flight time as pilot
in command, 10 hours of night flying as pilot in command and 20 hours of
instrument flight instruction,
b) 100 hours as pilot in command, 30 hours cross country flight time as pilot
in command, 20 hours of night flying as pilot in command and 20 hours
of instrument flight instruction,
c) 100 hours as pilot in command, 20 hours cross country flight time as pilot
in command, 10 hours of night flying as pilot in command and 40 hours of
instrument flight instruction.
17. An applicant for an instrument rating shall have completed not less than :
a) 150 hours of flight time as pilot in command and 40 hours of instrument

time,
b) 100 hours of flight time as pilot in command and 40 hours of instrument
time,
c) 150 hours of flight time as pilot in command and 20 hours of instrument
time.
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18. Except in an emergency, no aircraft shall take off or land by night unless:
a) The aircraft is equipped with landing lights in: accordance with Air
navigation Regulations in which case such landing lights may be regarded
as sufficient equipment for take off and landing at night.
b) The pilot in command is familiar with the aerodrome and that the
aerodrome is manned;
c) The place of take off or landing is equipped for night flying and the pilot in
command shall be responsible for ensuring that night flying facilities are
available for the take off or landing.
19. A loadsheet shall be completed for flights made by South African aircraft which
are classified and operated under the public transport category and have a
maximum certified mass greater than :
a) 1600Kg,
b) 2700Kg,
c) 5700Kg.
20. A pilot in command of an aircraft in flight shall not permit objects to be picked
up unless:
a) the aircraft is suitably equipped and certified by the aircraft operating

manual,
b) prior authority is granted by the Commissioner,
c) such pick up can be made without hazard to persons or property on the
ground.
21. You are requested to fly a foreign registered aeroplane for which you have the
appropriate type rating on your South African licence.
a) You may fly the aeroplane in South African airspace subject to SA Air
Navigation Regulations,
b) You may fly the aeroplane with written permission of the owner,
c) You may not fly the aeroplane if you do not hold a licence as prescribed
under the laws of the country in which the aeroplane is registered.
22. An accident involving a South African registered aircraft outside South Africa
shall be reported as soon as possible to the :
a) appropriate aviation authority in the country where the accident occurred

and the Commissioner for Civil Aviation, Pretoria.
b) aircraft owner, the police and the aviation authority in the country
where the accident occurred,
c) ATC and the aviation authority in the country where the accident occurred.
23. An aircraft may use an airport licensed for private use :
a) with ATC permission,

b) with permission granted by the licensee only,
c) with permission of the Commissioner.
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24. An unlicensed aerodrome is recognized by :
a) the letter "P" in a circle at the centre of the aerodrome,

b) crosses at each end of runways,
c) the absence of aerodrome markings.
25. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same height, the
aircraft that has he other on its right shall give way, except :
a) gliders shall give way to balloons, airships shall give way to aircraft which
are seen to be towing other aircraft,
b) gliders shall give way to airships and balloons.
26. The loadsheet of a public transport aircraft must be retained after a flight for a
period of not less than:
a) 30 days
b) 90 days
c) 60 days
27. The pre flight inspection of an aircraft is the responsibility of the:
a) co pilot,
b) flight engineer,
c) pilot in command.
28. A pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft unless he has, in the
preceding:
a) 90 days carried out three take offs and landings in an aircraft of the same
class and category or an approved simulator,
b) six months carried out three take offs and landings in an aircraft of the
same class and category or an approved simulator,
c) six months carried out six take offs and landings in an aircraft of the same
class and category or an approved simulator,
29. An aerodrome or its environs shall not be crossed at a height of less than:
a) 1000 feet.
b) 1500 feet.
c) 2000 feet.
30. The holder of any licence, certificate or rating shall inform the Commissioner
of any change of permanent address within a period of:
a) 7 days,
b) 14 days,
c) 1 month.
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31. The vehicle moving along a runway or taxiway shall as far as practical keep to
the :
a) right side of the runway or taxiway,

b) either edge of the runway or taxiway,
c) left side of the runway or taxiway.
32. 'Flight' means the time period between the :
a) moment the aircraft commences its take off until the moment it completes
the next landing,
b) moment the aircraft moves under its own power until it comes to rest at the
end of the flight,
c) moment the aircraft becomes airborne until the moment of touch down.
33. 'Day' means the period of time from:
34. 'Night' means the period of time from:
a) sunset to sunrise,
b) the end of evening twilight to the beginning of morning twilight,
c) 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise.
35. Instrument flight time means the time period an aircraft is:
a) On an IFR flight plan

b) Above FL 200
c) Piloted solely with reference to instruments without external reference
points.
36. Life saving rafts and associated equipment shall be carried over water if the
distance and time from the shore is:
a) 400 miles or 120 minutes, whichever is the greater, if the aircraft has four
engines
b) 400 miles or 120 minutes, which ever is the lesser, if the aircraft
has four engines
c) 400 miles or 120 minutes, whichever is the lesser, if the aircraft
has three or more engines.
37. All aeroplanes operating in the public transport category shall carry a flight
data recorder if the maximum certified mass is :
a) 2 700 Kg or over
b) 4 700 Kg or over
c) 27000 Kg or over
38. A certificate of release to service is to be retained by the owner/operator for a

period of:
a) 9 months
b) 6 months
c) 12 months
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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39. The pilot of an aircraft observes the anti collision beacon and the red
navigation light of another aircraft on a relative bearing of 030°, the bearing
remaining constant.
a) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the right,

b) there is no danger of collision.
c) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the left.
40. The pilot of an aircraft observes the anti collision beacon and the green
navigation light of another aircraft on a relative bearing of 330°, the bearing
remaining constant.
a) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the right,

b) there is no danger of collision.
c) there is a danger of collision.
41. The maximum indicated airspeed for an aircraft flying outside controlled
airspace and between 1000 feet and 10 000 feet is :
a) 200 knots
b) 250 knots,
c) 300 knots.
42. A flight plan shall be filed at least :
a) 30 minutes before departure,

b) 1 hour before departure,
c) 1 ½ hours before departure.
43. If a flight plan has been filed prior to departure and the departure of the
aircraft is delayed and the ATC is not informed, the fight plan will be cancelled
after:
a) 30 minutes after the ETD,

b) 1 hour after the ETD,
c) 1 ½ hours after the ETD.
44. ATC shall be informed if the average TAS of an aircraft at cruising level
changes by:
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
45. If radio contact cannot be made between an intercepting aircraft and an

intercepted aircraft, visual signals shall be used. If the intercepting aircraft
rocks its wings while in front of and to the left of the intercepted aircraft, this
means :
a) follow me away from a prohibited area,

b) leave the prohibited area by reversing track,
c) follow me to a landing terrain.
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46. If radio contact cannot be made between an intercepting aircraft and an
intercepted aircraft visual signals shall be used. If the intercepting aircraft
rocks its wings while in front of and to the right of the intercepted aircraft, this
means :
a) follow me away from a prohibited area,

b) leave the prohibited area by reversing track,
c) follow me to a landing terrain.
47. No article other than fine sand or clean water used as ballast or chemical
substances for the purpose of spraying or dusting may be dropped from an
aircraft in flight, except:
a) by special permission granted by the Commissioner for Civil Aviation;

b) in an emergency;
c) both (a) and (b) are correct.
48. On a VFR flight form X to Z an Airway has to be crossed at right angles. Both
X and Z are situated outside Controlled airspace.
a) it is only necessary to file a flight plan if alerting action is required:

b) it is not necessary to file a flight plan.
c) both a) and b) are correct.
49. The pre flight inspection regarding serviceability of the aircraft and its
equipment and instruments are the responsibility of:
a) the flight engineer and the co pilot;

b) the flight engineer:
c) the pilot in command.
50. The pilot in command of an aircraft shall not permit objects to be picked up
except -
a) if the aircraft is suitably equipped and such operation is authorised in the

operating manual of the aircraft;
b) if such pick up can be made with no hazard to propertyor persons on the
ground;
c) with prior authority of the Commissioner for Civil Aviation.
51. AIRCRAFT "A" : 120 degrees first available FL above FL 200

AIRCRAFT "B" : 300 degrees first available FL above FL 200
a) There is a risk of collision.

b) There is no risk of collision.
52. A flight plan for a flight to be conducted in Controlled airspace or Advisory

airspace must be submitted at least:
a) 60 minutes before departure;

b) 30 minutes before departure;
c) 45 minutes before departure.
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53. From 1500 feet above the surface to FL 100 flight visibility and distance from
cloud must be:
a) one nautical mile and clear of cloud:

b) 5 km visibility, 2000 feet horizontally and 500 feet vertically:
c) 5 km visibility, 1 nm horizontally and 1000 feet vertically.
54. From above FL 100 up to and including FL 200 flight visibility and distance
from cloud must be:
a) 5 km visibility, horizontally 2000 feet and 500 feet vertically;

b) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1,5 km and 1000 feet vertically;
c) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1,5 km and 500 feet vertically.
55. From above FL 200, day and night, flight visibility and distance from cloud
must be:
a) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1,5 km and 1000 feet vertically;

b) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1500 feet and 500 feet vertically;
c) 5 km visibility, horizontally 1,8 km and 1500 feet vertically.
56. An aircraft is to maintain a track of 357 degrees (T). TAS 110 KTS : wind
velocity 285/20 variation 10 W. Which of the following IFR flight levels can be
selected?
a) F115:F080:F215:
b) F 205 :F100 :F 230;.
c) F 090 :F210:F 130.
57. An aircraft is to maintain a track of 175 degrees (T). TAS 110 KTS: wind
velocity 070/20; variation 07 W. Which of the following IFR flight levels can be
selected?
a) F 140 : F 280 :F 310;

b) F 160 : F 195 :F 280:
c) F 210 : F 240 :F 310.
58. AIRCRAFT "A": 000 degrees VFR

AIRCRAFT "B": 180 degrees IFR
What would be the minimum flight separation between the two aircraft?
a) 1500 feet;
b) 1000 feet;
c) 500 feet.
59. AIRCRAFT "A" : 359 degrees VFR

AIRCRAFT "B" : 179 degrees IFR
a) 1000 feet:
b) 1500 feet:
c) 500 feet.
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60. AIRCRAFT "A" : 179 degrees VFR
AIRCRAFT "B" : 000 degrees IFR
a) 1000 feet;
b) 2000 feet:
c) 500 feet.
61. The pilot operating on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome where there is no Air
Traffic Control, shall be responsible for:
a) making all turns to the right when other air traffic is observed doing so;
b) making all turns to the left unless a right hand circuit is in force;
c) making turns to the left or right, providing there is no risk or collision.
62. Cloud ceiling as defined shall mean:
a) the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 10,000
feet, covering more than half the sky;
b) the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 20,000
feet, covering less than half the sky;
c) the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 20,000
feet, covering more than half the sky.
63. The semi circular rule is based on :
a) magnetic track;
b) magnetic heading;
c) true track.
64. Lights to be displayed by heavier than air aircraft are:
a) red on the right, green on the left and white on the tail;
b) red on the left, green on the right and white on the tail:
c) green on the right, white on the left and red on the tail.
65. When two aircraft are on a converging track:
a) the one which has the other on its left shall give way and must avoid
passing ahead of the other, unless well clear of it:
b) the one which has the other on its right shall give way and must avoid
passing ahead of the other, unless well clear of it;
c) both aircraft should alter heading to the left and maintain so until the
possibility of collision is well avoided.
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66. Where a right hand circuit is being followed at an airfield, an aircraft wishing to
overtake another aircraft may:
a) overtake the slower aircraft by passing on its right:

b) overtake the slower aircraft by passing on its left;
c) not overtake the slower aircraft.
67. The pilot in command may depart from the prescribed Rules and Regulations
in the interest of safety, when such a departure has been made the pilot must
report it to the:
a) Director General : Department of Transport;

b) Nearest convenient Air Traffic Service Unit:
c) Nearest police station.
68. Except when necessary for taking off or landing, or except with the individual
permission from the Commissioner for Civil Aviation, an aircraft shall be flown
over built up areas at a height:
a) of not less than 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a radius
of 2000 feet from the aircraft;
b) which, in the event of the failure of a power unit, will permit an emergency
landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface;
c) of not less than 1500 feet above the highest obstacle within a radius 2000
feet from the aircraft:
69. If A files a flight plan and B does not :
a) A has priority;
b) No one has priority:
c) A may be given priority.
70. Acrobatic flight is permitted if:
a) the aircraft can be brought to an even keel at not less than 2000 ft above
ground level;
b) near a suitable forced landing field,
c) with permission from the owner of the aircraft.
71. Minimum height when circling over a crowd of people is
a) 1000 feet;
b) 3000 feet;
c) not permitted.
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72. Whilst flying at night, you observe the green side light of another aircraft on a
relative bearing of 320 deg. at the same flight level and the bearing remains
constant; you should;
a) maintain heading and speed but be prepared to take action if the

other aircraft fails to give way:
b) alter heading to starboard;
c) maintain speed and alter heading to port.
73. In order to fly according to visual flight rules, below 1000 feet outside
controlled airspace, the flight visibility must be at least
a) 5 kilometres:
b) 3 kilometres:
c) 1 ½ kilometres.
74. The signal which, when directed from an aerodrome at an aircraft in the air
shall constitute an instruction to the aircraft to give way to other aircraft and
continue circling
a) an intermittent green beam;

b) a continuous red beam;
c) an intermittent read beam.
75. In a Control Zone for a turbo prop aircraft, the maximum IAS is
a) 160 knots:
b) 200 knots;
c) 170 knots.
76. The mandatory red and green lights on wingtips for a night flight should be
visible above and below the horizontal plane, and from dead ahead through
an angle of-
a) 70 deg.;
b) 110 deg.:
c) 120 deg.:
77. In a simulated instrument flight, the safety pilot must
a) occupy a control seat;

b) occupy a control seat and have adequate vision in all directions;
c) have adequate vision in all directions.
78. At an airfield without an ATSU, an aircraft taking off on runway 35 on a cross

country flight shall turn :-
a) left:
b) right;
c) it will depend on whether there is a left or right hand circuit on RW 35 after
take off to set a course of 090 deg.
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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79. A steady green light to aircraft in the air means:
a) cleared to land;
b) return for landing;
c) give way to other traffic, and then land.
80. Whilst on an IFR flight, complete radio communication failure is experienced

and the subsequent procedure is: -
a) continue flying in VMC if possible and land at the nearest suitable

aerodrome:
b) although flight is possible in VMC the flight must continue to the
aerodrome of original destination:
c) proceed to an alternate aerodrome with a known cloud base of at least
1000 feet.
81. In Item 10 of an ICAO flight plan, the letters S, D and Z appear; this means
that the following equipment is carried: -
a) VHF, ADF, VOR, ILS, DME and other;

b) VHF, ADF, ILS, DME and GPS;
c) VHF, ADF, DME and Transponder.
82. A special VFR flight is applicable to:
a) An ATZ, ATA and CTR

b) Only a CTR
c) An ATZ and CTR
83. Acrobatic fight, including spins, may not take place, except with the
permission of the CAA
a) below 4000 feet;

b) below 2000 feet;
c) below 3000 feet.
84. To overtake another aircraft in the circuit, the overtaking aircraft must:
a) turn right:
b) turn left:
c) turn right except in a right hand circuit.
85. Gliders have right of way over balloons
a) True
b) False
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
357
86. Maximum speed in a TMA is
a) 250 kts;
b) 200 kts;
c) none of these.
87. For a flight from George Airport (controlled) to Beaufort West (uncontrolled) a
Flight Plan
a) must be filed;
b) can be filed for SAR:
c) must be filed if the flight is at night.
88. A Green flashing light followed by a Red pyrotechnical light means:
a) the aerodrome is unsafe; do not land;

b) do not land for the time being;
c) return for landing, but the taxiways are unsafe.
89. When a pilot departs from the provisions of the ANR's in the interests of
safety, he shall:
a) report to the CAA within a period of seven days:

b) as soon as practicable, report the matter to the police:
c) as soon as practicable, report such departure and the reasons
d) for it, to the nearest convenient air traffic services unit.
90. Which of the following series of flight levels apply to a magnetic track of 150
deg.
a) 190,230,290,310:
b) 70, 250, 290, 330:
c) 155,195,270,350.
91. When flying to VD on a QDM of 150 deg., an appropriate flight level would be:
a) 310;
b) 290,
c) 215.
92. The minimum height above a proclaimed game reserve:
a) 1500 feet:
b) 2000 feet;
c) neither (a) or (b).
93. A parachute flare showing a red light means
a) do not land for the time being;

b) grave and imminent danger threatens;
c) do not take off.
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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94. VFR flight levels start at:
a) FL 35;
b) FL15;
c) above the airfield transition level.
95. You are to fly VFR from A to B having to cross an airway at right angles. Both
A and B are situated outside controlled airspace -
a) it is not necessary to file a flight plan;

b) it is only necessary to file a flight plan if altering acting is required;
c) both a) and b) are correct.
96. Circuit height at any airfield is
a) 1000 feet above airfield elevation:

b) 1000 feet for reciprocating aircraft, 1500 feet for turbine powered aircraft;
c) 1000 feet above airfield elevation, unless the AIP specifies something
different.
97. A safety pilot must be rated on the type of aircraft and he must also:-
a) occupy a control seat;

b) be able to keep a look out in all directions:
c) occupy a control seat and be able to keep a good look out.
98. With reference to aircraft speed no person shall fly a turbine aircraft within an
ATA at an IAS of more than (safety permitting) -
a) 200 kts;
b) 160 kts;
c) 250 kts.
99. Instrument Flight Time is the time during which:
a) the aircraft is piloted solely by reference to instruments;

b) the aircraft is IMC;
c) the aircraft is on an IFR plan.
100. An AFIS operates at :
a) an aerodrome with an ATZ;

b) an aerodrome with an ATA;
c) a private aerodrome.
101. An AFIS has authority to declare IFR in force.
a) True.
b) False
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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102. On a magnetic track of 185 deg., variation of 20 deg. W, wind velocity 110/30,
a suitable flight level at night would be (maximum spot height enroute 5253
ft):-
a) F055
b) F060;
c) F080.
103. If the ETA at a reporting point on a controlled flight deviates by more than 5
minutes, the ATSU must be informed:
a) True.
b) False.
104. Three signals are listed here; one of them is out of place:
a) red shells at short intervals;

b) red parachute flare;
c) flashing red lights.
105. Ceiling as defined in the ANRs is :
a) The height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below
20,000 feet, covering more than half of the sky;
b) the maximum height to which an aircraft can climb:
c) neither (a) or (b).
106. The pilot in command is the pilot:
a) responsible for the flight:

b) the most experienced licenced pilot in the aircraft;
c) the pilot in the left front seat.
107. Safety harness and belts must be worn:
a) before acrobatic manoeuvres are undertaken:

b) all the lime:
c) during the landing roll.
108. A VFR flight may never be conducted above:
a) any cloud at all:

b) more than three eighths of cloud within 5 nm of A/C;
c) five eighths of cloud.
109. For a private flight from Umtata (controlled) to Escourt (controlled) a Flight
Plan:
a) must be filed;
b) must be filed if for SAR;
c) need only be filed if the flight is at night.
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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110. A flight plan TAS is recorded as 150 kts in controlled airspace. Due to
headwinds, to improve the range you reduce power, and the TAS is now 138
kts-
a) you must inform ATSU, because your ETA's have changed;

b) you must inform ATSU, because your TAS has changed;
c) you must inform ATSU, because your TAS and ETA's have changed.
111. Your TAS changes from 150 kts to 145 kts: Your ETA for a compulsory
reporting point changes by 2 minutes
a) you must inform ATSU, because your ETA's have changed;

b) you must inform ATSU, because your TAS has changed:
c) you need not inform ATSU.
112. Minimum visibility in a control zone for visual flight is:
a) 8 km;
b) 1,5 km;
c) 5 km.
113. The ceiling minimum for a visual flight in an ATA is:
a) 500 ft if you have two way contact when departing;

b) 1000 ft;
c) 2000 ft.
114. The horizontal/vertical limits of cloud above 1500 ft. up to FL100 are:
a) 2000 m ./500 m.;

b) 2000 ft./500 ft.;
c) 1,5km./1000ft.
115. A CTA is located-
a) on top of an airfield;
b) around an airfield;
c) above one or more major airfields.
116. In uncontrolled airspace, the pilot maintains radio contact with an information
or advisory service; these services :-
a) issue clearances, which must be strictly adhered to;

b) give information regarding other traffic, and weather if possible.
c) only offer information if the pilot requests it.
117. A CTA always has an upper limit:
a) only when located at an airfield;

b) sometimes:
c) never.
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
361
118. Air Traffic Control operates in:
a) control zones, aerodrome traffic zones and in upper airways;

b) aerodrome traffic zones, aerodrome traffic areas and terminal control
areas;
c) aerodrome traffic areas, terminal control areas and upper airways.
119. Outside controlled airspace normal radio contact is with:
(a) information, aircraft, to aircraft or on AFIS:

(b) information, aircraft to aircraft:
(c) information or air traffic control.
120. At an airfield with an AFIS, the AFIS:
a) issues clearances and controls the aircraft in the ATA:

b) issues clearances and controls the aircraft in the ATZ;
c) gives information to expedite traffic, but leaves the decisions to the pilot
in command.
121. An ATIS is-
a) a recorded message broadcast on a VOR frequency;

b) a branch of air traffic services which operates in an ATA;
c) a service offered by the aerodrome operator.
122. The ICAO is a body which:
a) Decides about all international aviation law

b) Offers guidelines to local aviation authorities
c) Is to do with air traffic control
123. Who is responsible for the signing of the load and trim sheet.
a) The operator
b) The Pilot in Command
c) The Loadmaster
124. Who is responsible for certifying that a load a trim sheet is correct?
a) The operator
b) The Pilot in Command
c) The supervising person loading the a/c.( Loadmaster.)
125. When is the PIC not required to sign and load and trim sheet.
a) When the co pilot signs for it.

b) When the operator signs it.
c) When it is sent as an electronic copy.
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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126. An aircraft specified to have a Flight Data Recorder may commence a flight
with the FDR inoperative.
a) For 50 hrs before it must be repaired.

b) Provided it must not exceed 6 consecutive flights before it is repaired.
c) Must be repaired within 24 hrs. of it becoming defective.
with the FDR inoperative.
a) If not more than 48 hours have elapsed since the FDR became u/s.
b) Not more than 24 hours have elapsed since the FDR became u/s.
c) Need not be repaired in not on the MEL.
with the FDR inoperative, from an aerodrome where the FDR can be
repaired.
a) But must be fixed within 48 hours.

b) Can depart if not on the MEL.
c) Cannot depart until FDR is replaced or repaired.
129. Circling to Land MDA refers to.
a) Aerodrome elevation.
b) Runway elevation.
c) Both a and b
130. When carrying out a non precision approach the MDA refers to
a) The Aerodrome Elevation.

b) The runway elevation.
c) The runway threshold elevation.
131. When would a non precision approach MDA not refer to the runway threshold
elevation.
a) When a circling to land approach was intended.

b) When a missed approach was carried out.
c) Both a and b are correct.
132. When is the MDA in a non precision approach not related to the Runway
threshold.
a) When the outer marker is u/s.

b) When the FAF is u/s.
c) When the runway threshold is more than 2 meters ( 7 feet lower than
the aerodrome elevation).
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
363
133. Two aircraft are in controlled airspace one has filed an IFR flight plan the other
not, which one has the right of way?
a) The one having filed the IFR flight plan

b) Neither
c) The a/c that is lower.
134. How many handicapped passengers and infants may be carried on any one
flight under part 135 of the CAR's?
a) One of each.
b) One only.
c) One of each provided they are accompanied by an adult.
135. What type of fire extinguisher must be carried on board a SA registered a/c.
a) Dry Powder type.

b) An approved type.
c) An approved type using Halon 1211.
136. Whilst on an IFR flight in IMC complete radio communication failure is

experienced and the subsequent procedure is: -
a) Maintain last assigned F/L for 3 mins. Climb to planned F/L

proceed to destination using NDB leave NDB ETA plus 10 minutes, and
complete NDB approach to destination aerodrome:
b) Although flight is possible in IMC the flight must continue to the
aerodrome of original destination:
c) Proceed to an destination aerodrome with a known cloud base of at least
1000 feet.
137. What are the minima for SVFR.
a) 500 foot cloudbase 1500 meters RVR by day

b) 600 foot cloudbase 1500 meters Viz.
c) 600 foot cloudbase 1500 meters Viz by day only
138. When does a pilot not have to comply with the semi circular rule.
a) When not permitted by weather conditions.

b) When flown below 1500 feet AGL VFR
c) When flying due North or South.
139. Contingency fuel is.
a) The higher of 5% or 3% of the Trip fuel only

b) 5% of the Taxi and Trip Fuel.
c) 3 % of the Taxi and Trip fuel.
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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140. When would less than 3 % contingency fuel be approved.
a) When approved by the operator and the Commissioner.

b) Subject to the approval of the CAA and the Commissioner,
c) Approved by the Commissioner using inflight replanning with an en route
alternative available.
141. Alternate fuel must be sufficient for.
a) A missed approach, climb and full trip to most distant alternate.

b) A missed approach, climb and full trip to most distant alternate and a
landing at this alternate.
c) A missed approach, climb and full trip to most distant alternate and a
landing at this alternate with a possible missed approach taken into
account.
142. Final reserve fuel for a turbine powered aircraft is.
a) 45 Minutes at holding speed 1500 feet above the aerodrome.

b) 20 Minutes at holding speed 1500 feet above the aerodrome.
c) 30 Minutes at holding speed 1500 feet above the aerodrome.
143. When does the Commissioner not require 2 crew in a small commercial air
transport turbo prop or turbo jet under IFR or by night.
a) (a)A/C certified for 1 crew and operator has a recurrent training program
for the pilot.
b) A/C certified for 1 crew and fully IFR equipped with autopilot with altitude
and heading hold.
c) (c) A/C certified for 1 crew and fully IFR equipped with autopilot with
altitude and heading hold and boom mike.
144. How many hours must a newly qualified commercial pilot have before being
able to carry passengers more that 50 nautical miles from the aerodrome of
departure under VFR.
a) 200 hours and a suitable type rating

b) 300 PIC hours and a suitable type rating.
c) 300 hours Total Time or 200 hours and a valid Instrument rating.
145. How many hours must a newly qualified commercial pilot have before being
able to carry passengers in a single crew multi engine type VFR more than 50
nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure.
a) 300 hours and a suitable type rating.

b) 300 PIC hours and a suitable type rating.
c) 300 hours Total Time or 200 hours and a valid Instrument rating.
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
365
146. How many hours must a commercial pilot have before being able to carry
passenger in a single crew multi engine aircraft under IFR .
a) 400 hours Total Time 200 hours PIC and 100 Hours multi hours.
b) 400 hours Total Time 200 PIC and 40 hours multi hours.
c) 400 hours Total Time 100 PIC and 40 hours multi hours.
147. Under part 135 how often must a pilot have proficiency checks .
a) Every six months

b) Every 12 months.
c) 90 days.
148. What is the validity of proficiency and operational checks under part 135.
a) Six months.
b) Six and 12 months respectively.
c) 12 months.
149. What is the landing distance required when landing on a wet runway as
opposed to the normal dry length required?
a) 120 %
b) 110 %
c) 115 %
150. During a Cat 1 ILS what is the minimum RVR a pilot of a Class D aircraft may
use and when may this be decreased?
a) 800 meters may be decreased using a suitable coupled autopilot.

b) 1500 meters may be decreased using a suitable coupled autopilot
c) 550 meters if pilot is recent in terms of Part 91.02.4 a or b.
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
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CPL AIR LAW MOCK EXAM
ANSWERS
1 C 40 C 79 A 118 A
2 A 41 B 80 A 119 A
3 B 42 A 81 A 120 C
4 B 43 B 82 B 121 A
5 A 44 A 83 B 122 B
6 A 45 A 84 C 123 B
7 C 46 C 85 B 124 C
8 A 47 C 86 C 125 C
9 B 48 C 87 B 126 B
10 B 49 C 88 B 127 A
11 C 50 C 89 C 128 C
12 A 51 B 90 B 129 A
13 C 52 B 91 B 130 C
14 A 53 B 92 C 500 met 131 A
15 B 54 B 93 A 132 C
16 A 55 A 94 C 133 C
17 B 56 C 95 C 134 B
18 C 57 A 96 C 135 C
19 A 58 C 97 C 136 A
20 B 59 C 98 A 137 C
21 C 60 C 99 A 138 B
22 A 61 B 100 B 139 A
23 B 62 C 101 A 140 C
24 C 63 A 102 C 141 B
25 A 64 B 103 A 142 C
26 B 65 B 104 A 143 A
27 C 66 B 105 A 144 C
28 A 67 B 106 A 145 A
29 C 68 A 107 A 146 B
30 B 69 A 108 B 147 A
31 A 70 A 109 A 148 B
32 A 71 B 110 C 149 C
33 B 72 A 111 C 150 A
34 C 73 C 112 C
35 C 74 B 113 A
36 B 75 B 114 B
37 C 76 B 115 A
38 C 77 B 116 B
39 A 78 C 117 B
Revision: 4 AIRLAW
367

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AIR LAW

Copyright  2001 Flight Training College of Africa

Air Law FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE

ISSUE DATE GOV NOTICE GOV SIGNATURE

Air Law FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE

SECTIONS IN THIS VOLUME

DEFINITIONS & ABBREVIATIONS

All Rights Reserved. No part of this manual my be reproduced in

Air Law FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE

This document ( hereafter referred to as FTC-CAR’s) is an abridged edition of the

Air Law FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE

Air Law FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE

Part 61 Pilot Licensing

Part 91 General Operating and Flight Rules

Certificated Aircraft operations and Other Flight Operations

Air Law FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE

Part 139 Licencing and Operation

Air Traffic Services

Part 172 Air Space and Traffic Services

Aeronautical and meteorological Information Services

Part 174 Meteorological Information Services

Part 1185 Offences

Air Law FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE

Air Law FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE

2.1 Flight Crew Member Licences

A flight crew member may be licensed in the following categories:

2.1A Licence Fees

2.2 Flight Crew Members Operating the Radio Installation in Aircraft

2.3 Aircraft Rating Requirements

(1) No person shall act as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft, unless he is

Air Law FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE

(a) the flight instructor or designated pilot shall on satisfactory

(b) such flight instructor or designated pilot who issues a

(3) In the case of piston-engined aeroplanes having a maximum

(a) the flight instructor or designated pilot shall on satisfactory

(i) make an endorsement to this effect in the logbook of

(ii) in respect of that pilot, forward to the Commissioner

(b) the endorsement referred to in paragraph (a) (i) shall be made

(i) an indication of the type of aeroplane, and also the

(c) where a type rating is in terms of this subregulation endorsed

(a) category rating;

(2) Category ratings shall comprise -

(3) Class ratings shall comprise -

(a) for aeroplanes -

(i) single-engine, land;

(b) for helicopters -

(i) single-rotor helicopters;

(i) unpowered gliders;

(i) 2 700 kg or less;

Air Law FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE

(8) Type ratings for unconventional aircraft shall comprise a rating by

(10) An instrument rating shall comprise a rating permitting the holder to

Air Law FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE

(13B) A game/livestock cull rating (helicopter) shall comprise a rating

2.5 Flight Instructor Rating Requirements

3. The holder of a flight instructor rating Grade III, shall be permitted to

(a) a valid commercial pilot’s or a valid higher grade licence; and

Air Law FLIGHT TRAINING COLLEGE

2.7 Night Flight Rating Requirements

No person, other than the holder of a commercial pilot’s licence (aeroplane) or

2.8 Tug Pilot Requirements

No person shall act as pilot-in-command of a tug aircraft unless he is the

2.9 Safety Pilot Rating Requirements