Civil Engineering R AGOR Objective Type

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TABLE OF CONTENT
S.no Description Page No.
01 Applied mechanics and 03-63
Graphic.1-60
02 Building-Materials 64-268
03 Building construction. 1-50 269-319
04 Concrete tech and design.1-50 320-370
05 Construction Planning and 371-404

Management 1-33
06 Deisgn of masonry 405-413
constructions
07 Design of steel structures.1- 414-454
50
08 Docks and Harbours 455-473
09 Estimating & Costing 474-504
10 Highways engg.01-50 505-555
11 Hydraulics.1-30 556-586
12 Irrigation 587-658
13 Railway 659-712
14 RCC. 1-46 713-752
15 Remote sening 753-771
16 Water supply. 1-60 772-830
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applied mechanics and Graphic.1-10.pdf

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Applied Mechanics and Graphic Statics
Question No. 01
Select the correct statement
(A) The body centrode rolls on the space centrode
(B) The space centrode rolls on the body centrode
(C) Both body and space centrodes may role on each other
(D) The body centrode never touches space centrode
Answer: Option A
Question No. 02
The following is in unstable equilibrium
(A) A uniform solid cone resting on a generator on a smooth horizontal plane
(B) A uniform solid cone resting on its base on a horizontal plane
(C) A solid cube resting on one edge
(D) A satellite encircling the earth
Answer: Option C
Question No. 03
In a lifting machine with efficiency 60%, an effort of 200 N is required to raise a load of 6 kN. The
velocity ratio of the machine is
(A) 30
(B) 50
(C) 60
(D) 80
Answer: Option B
Question No. 04
The member forces in a statically in determinate truss
(A) Can be obtained by graphic statics
(B) Cannot be obtained by graphic statics
(C) May be obtained by graphic statics
(D) Can be obtained by graphic statics by trial and error
Answer: Option B
Question No. 05
A ball moving on a smooth horizontal table hits a rough vertical wall, the coefficient of restitution
between ball and wall being 1/3. The ball rebounds at the same angle. The fraction of its kinetic
energy lost is
(A) 1/3
(B) 2/3
(C) 1/9
(D) 8/9
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 06
A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium if
(A) Floor is smooth and wall is rough
(B) Floor is rough and wall is smooth
(C) Both floor and wall are rough
(D) Both floor and wall are smooth
Answer: Option D
Question No. 07
The maximum displacement of a particle executing S.H.M. corresponds to
(A) Zero potential energy and maximum kinetic energy
(B) Zero kinetic energy and maximum potential energy
(C) Maximum kinetic energy and maximum potential energy
(D) Minimum kinetic energy and minimum potential energy
Answer: Option B
Question No. 08
A sphere and a cylinder having the same mass and radii start from rest and roll down the same
inclined plane. Which body gets to the bottom first?
(A) Sphere with greater rotational energy at bottom than cylinder
(B) Sphere with lesser rotational energy at bottom than cylinder
(C) Cylinder with greater rotational energy at bottom than sphere
(D) Both reach the bottom simultaneously with equal rotational energy at bottom
Answer: Option B
Question No. 09
When a circular wheel rolls on a straight track, then the shape of body centrode and space
centrode respectively are
(A) Straight line and parabola
(B) Straight line and circle
(C) Circle and straight line
(D) Circle and parabola
Answer: Option C
Question No. 10
The time period of a simple pendulum depends on
(i) Mass of suspended particle
(ii) Length of the pendulum
(iii) Acceleration due to gravity
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) Both (ii) and (iii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii)
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(D) All are correct

Answer: Option B
Question No. 11
A light rope is loaded with many equal weights at equal horizontal intervals. The points of
suspension on the rope lie on a
(A) Parabola
(B) Catenary
(C) Cycloid
(D) Ellipse
Answer: Option A
Question No. 12
Free body diagram is an
(A) Isolated joint with only body forces acting on it
(B) Isolated joint with internal forces acting on it
(C) Isolated joint with all the forces, internal as well as external, acting on it
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 13
The graphical method of determining the forces in the members of a truss is based on
(A) Method of joint
(B) Method of section
(C) Either method
(D) None of the two methods
Answer: Option A
Question No. 14
In which of the following trusses, the method of substitution is required for determining the forces
in all the members of the truss by graphic statics?
(A) Howe truss
(B) King post truss
(C) Fink truss
(D) Warren truss
Answer: Option C
Question No. 15
If the direction of projection bisects the angle between the vertical and the inclined plane, then
the range of projectile on the inclined plane is
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Minimum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 16
A particle executes a simple harmonic motion. While passing through the mean position, the
particle possesses
(A) Maximum kinetic energy and minimum potential energy
(B) Maximum kinetic energy and maximum potential energy
(C) Minimum kinetic energy and maximum potential energy
(D) Minimum kinetic, energy and minimum potential energy
Answer: Option A
Question No. 17
The tension in a cable supporting a lift
(A) Is more when the lift is moving downwards
(B) Is less when the lift is moving upwards
(C) Remains constant whether its moves downwards or upwards
(D) Is less when the lift is moving downwards
Answer: Option D
Question No. 18
The vertical reaction at the support of the structure shown in below figure, is
(A) 1 t
(B) 2 t
(C) 3 t
(D) 3.5 t
Answer: Option C
Question No. 19
The shape of a suspended cable under its own weight, is
(A) Parabolic
(B) Circular
(C) Catenary
(D) Elliptical
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 20
If the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator of amplitude A are both
equal to half the total energy, then the displacement is equal to
(A) A
(B) A/2
(C) A
(D) A
Answer: Option C
Question No. 21
Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) If two equal and perfectly elastic smooth spheres impinge directly, they interchange their
velocities
(B) If a sphere impinges directly on an equal sphere which is at rest, then a fraction ½(1 - e2) the
original kinetic energy is lost by the impact
(C) If two equal spheres which are perfectly elastic impinge at right angles, their direction after
impact will still be at right angles
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 22
The inherent property of a body which offers reluctance to change its state of rest or uniform
motion, is
(A) Weight
(B) Mass
(C) Inertia
(D) Momentum
Answer: Option C
Question No. 23
A particle is executing simple harmonic motion in a line 1.0 m long. If the time of one complete
vibration is 1 sec, then the maximum velocity of the particle is
(A) 1.00 m/sec
(B) 1.57 m/sec
(C) 3.14 m/sec
(D) 6.28 m/sec
Answer: Option C
Question No. 24
Pick up the correct statement from the following. The kinetic energy of a body
(A) Before impact is equal to that after impact
(B) Before impact is less than that after impact
(C) Before impact is more than that after impact
(D) Remain constant
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 25
The reaction at the support of the beam shown in below figure is
(A) 2 t
(B) 5.8 t
(C) 0.2 t
(D) 3.5 t
Answer: Option A
Question No. 26
Three forces which act on a rigid body to keep it in equilibrium. The forces must be coplanar and
(A) Concurrent
(B) Parallel
(C) Concurrent parallel
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 27
Coefficient of friction depends on
(A) Nature of surfaces only
(B) Area of contact only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 28
The intrinsic equation of catenary is
(A) S = c
(B) y = c cosh x/c
(C) y = c
(D) y = c
Answer: Option A
Question No. 29
If a particle is projected inside a horizontal tunnel which is 554 cm high with a velocity of 60 m per
sec, the angle of projection for maximum range, is
(A) 8°
(B) 9°
(C) 10°
(D) 11°
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 30
The reaction RB of the roller support B of the beam shown in below figure is
(A) 10.8 t
(B) 10.6 t
(C) 10.4 t
(D) 10.2 t
Answer: Option A
Question No. 31
The maximum pull in a cable, carrying a uniformly distributed load and supported at two ends
which are at the same level, is at
(A) Supports
(B) Quarter span
(C) Mid span
Answer: Option A
Question No. 32
A stone is whirled in a vertical circle, the tension in the string, is maximum
(A) When the string is horizontal
(B) When the stone is at the highest position
(C) When the stone is at the lowest position
(D) At all the positions
Answer: Option C
Question No. 33
At a given instant ship is travelling at 6 km/h due east and ship is travelling at 8 km/h due
north. The velocity of relative to is
(A) 7 km/hrs
(B) 2 km/hrs
(C) 1 km/hrs
(D) 10 km/hrs
Answer: Option D
Question No. 34
The ratio of the moment of inertia of a rectangle about its centroidal axis to the moment of inertia
about its base, is
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(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(C) 3/4
(D) 2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 35
The angular speed of a car taking a circular turn of radius 100 m at 36 km/hr will be
(A) 0.1 rad/sec
(B) 1 rad/sec
(C) 10 rad/sec
(D) 100 rad/sec
Answer: Option A
Question No. 36
A weight is suspended at the free end of a light member hinged to a vertical wall. If the angle
of
(A) W
(B) W
(C) W
(D) W
Answer: Option A
Question No. 37
The beam shown in below figure is supported by a hinge at and a roller at . The
reaction RA of the hinged support of the beam, is
(A) 10.8 t
(B) 10.6 t
(C) 10.4 t
(D) 10.2 t
Answer: Option D
Question No. 38
Two particles have been projected at angles 64° and 45° to the horizontal. If the velocity of
projection of first is 10 m/sec, the velocity of projection of the other for equal horizontal ranges is
(A) 9.3 m/sec
(B) 8.3 m/sec
(C) 7.3 m/sec
(D) 6.3 m/sec
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Answer: Option A
Question No. 39
The force polygon representing a set of forces in equilibrium is a
(A) Triangle
(B) Open polygon
(C) Closed polygon
(D) Parallelogram
Answer: Option C
Question No. 40
The centre of gravity of a homogenous body is the point at which the whole
(A) Volume of the body is assumed to be concentrated
(B) Area of the surface of the body is assumed to be concentrated
(C) Weight of the body is assumed to be concentrated
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 41
A satellite moves in its orbit around the earth due to
(A) Gravitational force
(B) Centripetal force
(C) Centrifugal force
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 42
The force acting on a point on the surface of a rigid body may be considered to act
(A) At the centre of gravity of the body
(B) On the periphery of the body
(C) On any point on the line of action of the force
(D) At any point on the surface normal to the line of action of the force
Answer: Option C
Question No. 43
For a non-concurrent force system to be in equilibrium
(A) Only the closure of force polygon is sufficient
(B) Only the closure of funicular polygon is sufficient
(C) Both force polygon and funicular polygon must close
Answer: Option C
Question No. 44
If w) and the
central dip is , the horizontal pull at each support, is
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(A) wl/4y
(B) wl/8y
(C) wl/2y
(D) wl
Answer: Option B
Question No. 45
The C.G. of the shaded area of the below figure whose curve OM is a parabola from y-axis, is
(A) a/4
(B) 3a/4
(C) 3b/10
(D) 3a/10
Answer: Option B
Question No. 46
A rod 5 m in length is moving in a vertical plane. When it is inclined at 60° to horizontal, its lower
end is moving horizontally at 3 m/sec and upper end is moving in vertical direction. The velocity of
its upper end, is
(A) 0.5 m/sec
(B) 1.0 m/sec
(C) 1.5 m/sec
(D) 2.5 m/sec
Answer: Option B
Question No. 47
A force P of 50 N and another force Q of unknown magnitude act at 90° to each other. They are
balanced by a force of 130 N. The magnitude of Q is
(A) 60 N
(B) 80 N
(C) 100 N
(D) 120 N
Answer: Option D
Question No. 48
On a mass describing a circular path of radius , the centrifugal force
(A) Acts tangentially to the circular path
(B) Acts towards the centre of rotation
(C) Acts away from the centre of rotation
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(D) Is mw2r/g kgf

Answer: Option B
Question No. 49
Parallelogram Law of Forces states, "if two forces acting simultaneously on a particle be
represented in magnitude and direction by two adjacent sides of a parallelogram, their resultant
may be represented in magnitude and direction by
(A) Its longer side
(B) Its shorter side
(C) The diagonal of the parallelogram which does not pass through the point of intersection of
the forces
(D) The diagonal of the parallelogram which passes through the point of intersection of the
forces
Answer: Option D
Question No. 50
The following factor affects the orbit of a satellite up to an altitude of 720 km from the earth's
surface
(A) Uneven distribution of the gravitational field
(B) Gravity of the sun and the moon
(C) Aerodynamic forces
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 51
Two circular discs of same weight and thickness are made from metals having different densities.
Which disc will have the larger rotational inertia about its central axis?
(A) Disc with larger density
(B) Disc with smaller density
(C) Both discs will have same rotational inertia
Answer: Option B
Question No. 52
Moment of inertia of a squares of side about an axis through its centre of gravity, is
(A) b3/4
(B) b4/12
(C) b4/3
(D) b4/8
Answer: Option B
Question No. 53
The masses of two balls are in the ratio of 2 : 1 and their respective velocities are in the ratio of 1 :
2 but in opposite direction before impact. If the coefficient of restitution is ½, the velocities of
separation of the balls will be equal to
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(A) Original velocity in the same direction

(B) Half the original velocity in the same direction
(C) Half the original velocity in the opposite direction
(D) Original velocity in the opposite direction
Answer: Option D
Question No. 54
The ratio of the reactions RA and RB of a simply supported beam shown in below figure is
(A) 0.50
(B) 0.40
(C) 0.67
(D) 1.00
Answer: Option D
Question No. 55
A disc of mass 4 kg, radius 0.5 m and moment of inertia 3 kgm² rolls on a horizontal surface so that
its center moves with speed 5 m/see. Kinetic energy of the disc is
(A) 50 J
(B) 150 J
(C) 200 J
(D) 400 J
Answer: Option C
Question No. 56
A point subjected to a number of forces will be in equilibrium, if
(A) Sum of resolved parts in any two directions at right angles, are both zero
(B) Algebraic sum of the forces is zero
(C) Two resolved parts in any two directions at right angles are equal
(D) Algebraic sum of the moments of the forces about the point is zero
Answer: Option A
Question No. 57
The resultant of two forces and acting at an
(A) P2 + Q2 + 2P
(B) P2 + Q2 + 2PQ
(C) P2 + Q2 + 2PQ
(D) P2 + Q2 + 2PQ
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 58
A particle moves with a velocity of 2 m/sec in a straight line with a negative acceleration of 0.1
m/sec2. Time required to traverse a distance of 1.5 m, is
(A) 40 sec
(B) 30 sec
(C) 20 sec
(D) 15 sec
Answer: Option C
Question No. 59
It is observed that in a certain sinusoidal oscillation, the amplitude is linearly dependent on the
frequency f . If the maximum velocity during the oscillation is V , then V must be proportional to
(A) f
(B) 1/f
(C) 1/f²
(D) f²
Answer: Option D
Question No. 60
One Joule is equivalent to
(A) 9.81 Newton metre
(B) 1 Newton metre
(C) 1 kg wt metre
(D) 1 dyne metre
Answer: Option B
Question No. 61
The velocity of a moving body, is
(A) A vector quantity
(B) A scalar quantity
(C) A constant quantity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 62
1 and u2 are the velocities of approach of two moving bodies in the same direction and their
corresponding velocities of separation are v1 and v2 wton's law of collision of elastic

bodies, the coefficient of restitution (e) is given by
(A) e = v1 - v2/u2 - u1
(B) e = u2 - u1/v1 - v2
(C) e = v2 - v1/u1 - u2
(D) e = v1 - v2/u2 + u1
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 63
For the system of the loads shown in below figure, the time required for the 6.6 kg load to fall on
the edge, is
(A) 1 sec
(B) 2 sec
(C) 3 sec
(D) 4 sec
Answer: Option C
Question No. 64
A cable loaded with 10 kN/m of span is stretched between supports in the same horizontal line
100 m apart. If the central dip is 10 m, then the maximum and minimum pull in the cable
respectively are
(A) 1346.3 kN and 1500 kN
(B) 1436.2 kN and 1250 kN
(C) 1346.3 kN and 1250 kN
(D) 1436.2 kN and 1500 kN
Answer: Option C
Question No. 65
A vehicle weighing w kg is to run on a circular curve of radius r . If the height of its centre of
gravity above the road level is h and the distance between the centres of wheels is 2a, the
maximum velocity, in order to avoid over turning, will be
(A) gra/h
(B) (gra/h)
(C) 3 (gra/h)
(D) 4 (gra/h)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 66
The centre of gravity of a triangle is at the point where three
(A) Medians of the triangle meet
(B) Perpendicular bisectors of the sides of the triangle meet
(C) Bisectors of the angle of the triangle meet
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 67
For perfectly elastic bodies, the value of coefficient of restitution is
(A) Zero
(B) 0.5
(C) 1.0
(D) Between 0 and 1
Answer: Option C
Question No. 68
A stone was thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 50 m/sec. After 5
seconds another stone was thrown vertically upwards from the same place. If both the stones
strike the ground at the same time, then the velocity with which the second stone was thrown
should be (Assume g = 10 m/sec²)
(A) 15 m/sec
(B) 25 m/sec
(C) 40 m/sec
(D) 50 m/sec
Answer: Option B
Question No. 69
A retarding force on a body does not
(A) Change the motion of the body
(B) Retard the motion of the body
(C) Introduce the motion of the body
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 70
A cable loaded with 0.5 tonne per horizontal metre span is stretched between supports in the
same horizontal line 400 m apart. If central dip is 20 m, the minimum tension in the cable, will be
(A) 200 tonnes at the centre
(B) 500 tonnes at the centre
(C) 200 tonnes at the right support
(D) 200 tonnes at the left support
Answer: Option B
Question No. 71
The bending moment in an arch is proportional to
(A) Vertical ordinate of funicular polygon
(B) Vertical ordinate of the arch
(C) Intercept between the arch axis and the funicular polygon
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 72
The C.G. of the shaded area of the below figure from the x-axis is
(A) a/4
(B) 3a/4
(C) 3b/10
(D) 3a/10
Answer: Option C
Question No. 73
The centre of gravity of a trapezoidal dam section whose top width is a, bottom width is band the
vertical side is a, from its vertical face is
(A) (a² + ab + b²)/3 (a + b)
(B) (b² + bc + c²)/3 (b + c)
(C) (a² + ab + c²)/3 (a + c)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 74
Joule is the unit of
(A) Work
(B) Force
(C) Power
(D) Torque
Answer: Option A
Question No. 75
The equation of motion of a particle starting from rest along a straight line is x = t3 - 3l2 + 5. The
ratio of the velocities after 5 sec and 3 sec will be
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: Option D
Question No. 76
If a set of given forces are such that their free vectors build a closed polygon, then
(A) The resultant force and resultant couple are always zero
(B) The resultant force is zero but resultant couple is not zero
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(C) The resultant force is zero but resultant couple may not be zero
(D) The resultant force and resultant couple both may not be zero
Answer: Option C
Question No. 77
To double the period of oscillation of a simple pendulum
(A) The mass of its bob should be doubled
(B) The mass of its bob should be quadrupled
(C) Its length should be quadrupled
(D) Its length should be doubled
Answer: Option C
Question No. 78
When a body in equilibrium undergoes an infinitely small displacement, work imagined to be
done, is known as
(A) Imaginary work
(B) Negative work
(C) Virtual work
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 79
A ball is dropped from a height of 2.25 m on a smooth floor and rises to a height of 1.00 m after
the bounce. The coefficient of restitution between the ball and the floor is
(A) 0.33
(B) 0.44
(C) 0.57
(D) 0.67
Answer: Option D
Question No. 80
If the resultant of two forces has the same magnitude as either of the force, then the angle
between the two forces is
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 120°
Answer: Option D
Question No. 81
A ball which is thrown upwards, returns to the ground describing a parabolic path during its flight
(A) Vertical component of velocity remains constant
(B) Horizontal component of velocity remains constant
(C) Speed of the ball remains constant
(D) Kinetic energy of the ball remains constant
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Answer: Option B
Question No. 82
A string of length 90 cm is fastened to two points and at the same level 60 cm apart. A ring
weighing 120 g is slided on the string. A horizontal force is applied to the ring such that it is in
equilibrium vertically below . The value of is:
(A) 40 g
(B) 60 g
(C) 80 g
(D) 100 g
Answer: Option C
Question No. 83
A satellite is said to move in a synchronous orbit if it moves at an altitude of 36, 000 km with a
maximum velocity of about
(A) 7000 km per hour
(B) 8000 km per hour
(C) 9000 km per hour
(D) 11,000 km per hour
Answer: Option
Question No. 84
A rigid body is in a stable equilibrium if the application of any force
(A) Can raise the CG of the body but cannot lower it
(B) Tends to lower the CG of the body
(C) Neither raises nor lowers the CG of the body
(D) None of above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 85
The reaction at the support B of the beam shown in below figure is
(A) 1.6 t
(B) 9.6 t
(C) 8.5 t
(D) 0.5 t
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 86
A uniform rod 9 m long weighing 40 kg is pivoted at a point 2 m from one end where a weight of
120 kg is suspended. The required force acting at the end in a direction perpendicular to rod to
keep it equilibrium, at an inclination 60° with horizontal, is
(A) 40 kg
(B) 60 kg
(C) 10 kg
(D) 100 kg
Answer: Option C
Question No. 87
The instantaneous centre of a member lies at the point of intersection of two lines drawn at the
ends of the member such that the lines are inclined to the direction of motion of the ends at
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option D
Question No. 88
A flywheel of moment of inertia 20 kgm" is acted upon by a tangential force of 5 N at 2 m from its
axis, for 3 seconds. The increase in angular velocity in radian per second is
(A) 1/2
(B) 3/2
(C) 2
(D) 3
Answer: Option B
Question No. 89
The phenomenon of collision of two elastic bodies takes place because bodies
(A) Immediately after collision come momentarily to rest
(B) Tend to compress each other till they are compressed maximum possible
(C) Attempt to regain its original shape due to their elasticities
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 90
The unit of Moment of Inertia of a body, is
(A) m
(B) m2
(C) m3
(D) m4
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 91
The angle of friction is:
(A) The ratio of the friction and the normal reaction
(B) The force of friction when the body is in motion
(C) The angle between the normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and limiting
friction
(D) The force of friction at which the body is just about to move
Answer: Option C
Question No. 92
If a projectile is fired with an initial velocity of 10 m/sec at an angle of 60° to the horizontal, its
horizontal and vertical velocity at the highest point of trajectory are
(A) 0 and 5 m/sec
(B) 5 m/sec and 0
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 93
ank whose radius is
centre and obliquity of the connecting rod v of the piston, is given by the
equation
(A) 2 (l cos + r sin
(B) 2 (l sin + r
(C) l sin + r cos
(D) 2 (l sin - r )
Answer: Option C
Question No. 94
One Newton force, is
(A) 103 dynes
(B) 104 dynes
(C) 105 dynes
(D) 106 dynes
Answer: Option C
Question No. 95
A simple pendulum of length l has an energy E , when its amplitude is A . If the length of
pendulum is doubled, the energy will be
(A) E
(B) E/2
(C) 2E
(D) 4E
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 96
A square hole is made in a circular lamina, the diagonal of the square is equal to the radius of the
circle as shown in below figure the shift in the centre of gravity is
(A) r ( - 0.75)/( - 0.5)

(B) r ( - 0.25)/( - 0.75)
(C) r ( - 0.5)/( - 0.75)
(D) r ( - 0.5)/( - 0.25)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 97
A particle moving with a simple harmonic motion, attains its maximum velocity when it passes
(A) The extreme point of the oscillation
(B) Through the mean position
(C) Through a point at half amplitude
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 98
(A) Nature plays an important role in the launch of a satellite
(B) The earth's gravity reduces the speed of a satellite by 32 km per second
(C) The gravitational force relents as the satellite climbs higher
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 99
A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to a string of length 1 m and whirled in a horizontal circle at a constant
angular speed 5 rad/sec. The tension in the string is,
(A) 5 N
(B) 10 N
(C) 15 N
(D) 25 N
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 100

A ladder of weight 'w' rests against a smooth vertical wall, and rests on rough horizontal ground,
the coefficient of friction between the ladder and the ground being 1/4. The maximum angle of
inclination of the ladder to the vertical, if a man of weight 'w' is to walk to the top of it safely, is
tan'1 x, where x is
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option B
Question No. 101

For a self-locking machine, the efficiency should be
(A) Less than 60%
(B) 50 %
(C) More than 50%
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 102

The C.G. of a right circular cone lies on its axis of symmetry at a height of
(A) h/2
(B) h/3
(C) h/4
(D) h/5
Answer: Option C
Question No. 103

The resultant of two forces acting at right angles is kg and acting at 60° is 70 kg. The forces are
(A) 1 kg and 4 kg
(B) 2 kg and 3 kg
(C) kg
(D) 3 kg and 5 kg
Answer: Option D
Question No. 104

A body is dropped from a height of 100 m and at the same time another body is projected
vertically upward with a velocity of 10 m/sec. The two particles will
(A) Never meet
(B) Meet after 1 sec
(C) Meet after 5 sec
(D) Meet after 10 sec
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 105

In the structure shown in below figure, the member which carries zero force, is
(A) AB
(B) BC
(C) BE
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 106

The forces which meet at one point and have their lines of action in different planes are called
(A) Coplanar non-concurrent forces
(B) Non-coplanar concurrent forces
(C) Non-coplanar non-current forces
(D) Intersecting forces
Answer: Option B
Question No. 107

A marble ball is rolled on a smooth floor of a room to hit a wall. If the time taken by the ball in
returning to the point of projection is twice the time taken in reaching the wall, the coefficient of
restitution between the ball and the wall, is
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.75
(D) 1.0
Answer: Option B
Question No. 108

A system of coplanar forces acting on a rigid body can be reduced to
(A) One force only
(B) One couple only
(C) One force and one couple only
Answer: Option C
Question No. 109

Williot-Mohr diagram is used to determine deflection in
(A) Trusses only
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(B) Beam only

(C) Rigid frames only
(D) Any type of structure
Answer: Option A
Question No. 110

The Law of Polygon of Forces states that
(A) If a polygon representing the forces acting at point in a body is closed, the forces are in
equilibrium
(B) If forces acting on a point can be represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a
polygon taken in order, then the resultant of the forces will be represented in magnitude
and direction by the closing side of the polygon
(C) If forces acting on a point can be represented of a polygon taken in order, their sides of a
polygon taken in order, their resultant will be represented in magnitude and direction by the
closing side of the polygon, taken in opposite order
(D) If forces acting on a point can be represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a
polygon in order, the forces are in equilibrium
Answer: Option C
Question No. 111

The reaction at the support D of the continuous beam ABCD, hinged at two points shown in below
figure is
(A) 1.6 t
(B) 1.6 t
(C) 0.5 t
(D) 0.5 t
Answer: Option B
Question No. 112

A 49 kg lady stands on a spring scale in an elevator. During the first 5 sec, starting from rest, the
scale reads 69 kg. The velocity of the elevator will be
(A) 10 m/sec
(B) 15 m/sec
(C) 20 m/sec
(D) 25 m/sec
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 113

The numbers of funicular polygons which can be drawn to pass through two specified points in the
space diagram are
(A) Zero
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option D
Question No. 114

Periodic time of body moving with simple harmonic motion, is
(A) Directly proportional to its angular velocity
(B) Directly proportional to the square of its angular velocity
(C) Inversely proportional to the square of its angular velocity
(D) Inversely proportional to its angular velocity
Answer: Option D
Question No. 115

A square hole is punched out of a circular lamina, the diagonal of the square being the radius of
the circle. If is the radius of the circle, the C.G. of the remainder from the corner of the square
on the circumference will be
(A) [r ( + 0.25)]/( - 0.5)
(B) [r ( - 0.5)]/( + 0.25)
(C) [r ( - 0.25)]/( - 0.5)
(D) [r ( + 0.25)]/( + 0.5)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 116

A body A of mass 6.6 kg which is lying on a horizontal platform 4.5 m from its edge is connected to
the end of a light string whose other end is supporting a body of mass 3.2 kg as shown in below
figure. If the friction between the platform and the body A is 1/3, the acceleration is
(A) 0.5 m/sec2

(B) 0.75 m/sec2
(C) 1.00 m/sec2
(D) 1.25 m/sec2
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 117

A geo-stationary satellite is one which orbits the earth with a velocity of rotation of
(A) Moon
(B) Earth
(C) Sun
(D) Pole
Answer: Option B
Question No. 118

The total time of collision and restitution of two bodies, is called
(A) Time of collision
(B) Period of collision
(C) Period of impact
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 119

is the force acting on a body whose mass is and acceleration is . The equation P - mf= 0, is
known as
(A) Equation of dynamics
(B) Equation of dynamic equilibrium
(C) Equation of statics
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 120

A rod AB carries three loads of 30 N, 70 N and 100 N at distances of 20 mm, 90 mm and 150 mm
respectively from A. Neglecting the weight of the rod, the point at which the rod will balance is
(A) 109.5 mm from A
(B) 119.5 mm from A
(C) 125.5 mm from A
(D) 132.5 mm from A
Answer: Option A
Question No. 121

M.I. of solid sphere, is
(A) Mr2
(B) ½ Mr2
(C) Mr2
(D) 4/2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 122

Two forces act an angle of 120°. If the greater force is 50 kg and their resultant is perpendicular to
the smaller force, the smaller force is
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(A) 20 kg
(B) 25 kg
(C) 30 kg
(D) 35 kg
Answer: Option B
Question No. 123

The necessary condition of equilibrium of a body is:
(A) Algebraic sum of horizontal components of all the forces must be zero
(B) Algebraic sum of vertical components of all the forces must be zero
(C) Algebraic sum of the moments of the forces about a point must be zero
(D) All (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 124

Which of the following represents the state of neutral equilibrium?
(A) A cube resting on one edge
(B) A smooth cylinder lying on a curved surface
(C) A smooth cylinder lying on a convex surface
Answer: Option D
Question No. 125

The unit of force in C.G.S. system of units, is called
(A) Dyne
(B) Newton
(C) Kg
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 126

The equation of motion of a particle starting from rest along a straight line is x = t3 - 3t2+ 5. The
ratio of the accelerations after 5 sec and 3 sec will be
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: Option
Question No. 127

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The C.G. of a circle is at its centre
(B) The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its medians
(C) The C.G. of a rectangle is at the intersection of its diagonals
(D) The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance of r/2 from the centre
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 128

If the angular distance, 0 = 2t3 - 3t², the angular acceleration at t = 1 sec. is
(A) 1 rad/sec²
(B) 4 rad/sec²
(C) 6 rad/sec²
(D) 12 rad/sec²
Answer: Option C
Question No. 129

A heavy ladder resting on a floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium, if
(A) Floor is smooth and the wall is rough
(B) Floor is rough and the wall is smooth
(C) Floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
(D) Floor and wall both are rough surfaces
Answer: Option C
Question No. 130

If the tension in a cable supporting a lift moving upwards is twice the tension when the lift is
moving downwards, the acceleration of the lift, is
(A) g/2
(B) g/3
(C) g/4
(D) g/5
Answer: Option B
Question No. 131

Newton's law of Collision of elastic bodies states that when two moving bodies collide each other,
their velocity of separation
(A) Is directly proportional to their velocity of approach
(B) Is inversely proportional to their velocity of approach
(C) Bears a constant ratio to their velocity of approach
(D) Is equal to the sum of their velocities of approach
Answer: Option C
Question No. 132

The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of a projectile are
equal to
(A) 36°
(B) 45°
(C) 56°
(D) 76°
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 133

Two loads of 50 kg and 75 kg are hung at the ends of a rope passing over a smooth pulley shown in
below figure. The tension in the string is:
(A) 50 kg
(B) 75 kg
(C) 25 kg
(D) 60 kg
Answer: Option D
Question No. 134

The mechanical advantage of an ideal machine is 100. For moving the local through 2 m, the effort
moves through
(A) 0.02 m
(B) 2 m
(C) 2.5 m
(D) 20 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 135

A ball moving with a velocity of 5 m/sec impinges a fixed plane at an angle of 45° and its direction
after impact is equally inclined to the line of impact. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, the
velocity of the ball after impact will be
(A) 0.5 m/sec
(B) 1.5 m/sec
(C) 2.5 m/sec
(D) 3.5 m/sec
Answer: Option C
Question No. 136

If A is the amplitude of particle executing simple harmonic motion, then the total energy E of the
particle is
(A) Proportional to A
(B) Proportional to A²
(C) Proportional to 1/A²
(D) Independent of A
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 137

A body of weight placed on an inclined plane is acted upon by a force parallel to the plane
which causes the body just to move up the plane. If the angle of
, is
(A) w sin ( - cos
(B) w sin - )/
(C) w cos )/cos
(D) w sin cos - )/
Answer: Option B
Question No. 138

The C.G. of a thin hollow cone of height , above its base lies on the axis, at a height of
(A) h/3
(B) h/4
(C) 2h/3
(D) 3h/4
Answer: Option C
Question No. 139

According to Law of Triangle of Forces
(A) Three forces acting at a point, can be rep-resented by the sides of a triangle, each side being
in proportion to the force
(B) Three forces acting along the sides of a triangle are always in equilibrium
(C) If three forces acting on a, point can be represented in magnitude and direction, by the sides
of a triangle taken in order, these will be in equilibrium
(D) If the forces acting on a particle be represented in magnitude and direction by the two sides
of a triangle taken in order, their resultant will be represented in magnitude and direction by
the third side of the triangle, taken in opposite order
Answer: Option D
Question No. 140

The unit of rotational inertia of a body in C.G.S system is
(A) cm4
(B) kg.cm²
(C) gm.cm²
(D) gm.cm3
Answer: Option C
Question No. 141

In case of S.H.M. the period of oscillation (T), is given by
(A) T = 2 / ²
(B) T = 2 /
(C) T = 2/
(D) T = /2
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 142

The locus of the instantaneous centre of a moving rigid body, is
(A) Straight line
(B) Involute
(C) Centroid
(D) Spiral
Answer: Option C
Question No. 143

A 50 kg boy climbs up a 8 m rope in gymnasium in 10 sec. The average power developed by the
boy is approximately
(A) 400 watts
(B) 500 watts
(C) 4000 watts
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 144

Minimum pull in a suspended cable with supports at two ends is equal to
(A) Horizontal thrust
(B) Support reactions
(C) Resultant of horizontal thrust and support reaction
(D) Half the weight of the cable
Answer: Option A
Question No. 145

The reaction at the central support B of the beam ABC hinged at D shown in below figure is
(A) 2 t
(B) 5.8 t
(C) 0.2 t
(D) 3.5 t
Answer: Option B
Question No. 146

Engineer's units of force, is
(A) Newton in absolute units
(B) Dyne in absolute units
(C) Newton and dyne in absolute units
(D) All the above
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Answer: Option A
Question No. 147

The ends of a string weighing w/metre are attached to two points at the same horizontal level. If
the central dip is very small, the horizontal tension of the string throughout is
(A) wl/4d
(B) wl²/4d
(C) wl²/8d
(D) wl²/16d
Answer: Option C
Question No. 148

A shell of mass 100 kg travelling with a velocity of 10 m/sec breaks into two equal pieces during an
explosion which provides an extra kinetic energy of 20000 Joules. If the pieces continue to move in
the same direction as before, then the speed of the faster one must be
(A) 20 m/sec
(B) 30 m/sec
(C) 40 m/sec
(D) 50 m/sec
Answer: Option B
Question No. 149

The rate of change of displacement of a body with respect to its surrounding, is known
(A) Velocity
(B) Acceleration
(C) Speed
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 150

If the radius of the earth is 600 km the height of a mountain above sea level at the top of which a
beat seconds pendulum at sea level, looses 27 seconds a day, is
(A) 500 metres
(B) 1000 metres
(C) 1500 metres
(D) 2000 metres
Answer: Option D
Question No. 151

If the horizontal range is 2.5 times the greatest height, the angle of projection of the projectile, is
(A) 57°
(B) 58°
(C) 59°
(D) 60°
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 152

If two forces are in equilibrium, then the forces must
(i) Be equal in magnitude
(ii) Be opposite in sense
(iii) Act along the same line
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) Only (i)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 153

The unit of moments in M.K.S system, is
(A) kg.m
(B) kg/m2
(C) kg/sec2
(D) kg/sec
Answer: Option A
Question No. 154

. It will have the maximum
centripetal acceleration
(A) At the start
(B) At the top of the trajectory
(C) As it strikes the ground
(D) Elsewhere
Answer: Option A
Question No. 155

If two bodies of masses M1 and M2(M1 > M2) are connected by alight inextensible string passing
over a smooth pulley, the tension in the string, will be given by
(A) T = g(M1 - M2)/(M1 + M2)
(B) T = g(M1 + M2)/(M1 × M2)
(C) T = g(M2 - M1)/(M1 + M2)
(D) T = g(M2 + M1)/(M2 - M1)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 156

The angles between two forces to make their resultant a minimum and a maximum respectively
are
(A) 0° and 90°
(B) 180° and 90°
(C) 90° and 180°
(D) 180° and 0°
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 157

The piston of a steam engine moves with a simple harmonic motion. The crank rotates 120 r.p.m.
and the stroke length is 2 metres. The linear velocity of the piston when it is at a distance of 0.5
metre from the centre, is
(A) 5.88 m/sec
(B) 8.88 m/sec
(C) 10.88 m/sec
(D) 12.88 m/sec
Answer: Option C
Question No. 158

The angle which an inclined surface makes with the horizontal when a body placed on it is on the
point of moving down, is called
(A) Angle of repose
(B) Angle of friction
(C) Angle of inclination
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 159

Two shots fired simultaneously from the top and bottom of a vertical tower with elevations of 30°
and 45° respectively strike a target simultaneously. If horizontal distance of the target from the
tower is 1000 m, the height of the tower is
(A) 350 m
(B) 375 m
(C) 400 m
(D) 425 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 160

The angular speed of a car while taking a circular turn of radius 100 m at 36 km/hour, is
(A) 0.1 radian/sec
(B) 1 radian/sec
(C) 100 radian/sec
(D) 1000 radian/sec
Answer: Option A
Question No. 161

A particle is dropped from the top of a tower 60 m high and another is projected upwards from
the foot of the tower to meet the first particle at a height of 15.9 m. The velocity of projection of
the second particle is
(A) 16 m/sec
(B) 18 m/sec
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(C) 20 m/sec
(D) 22 m/sec
Answer: Option C
Question No. 162
(A)
(B) (1 -
(C) -
(D) (1 -
Answer: Option D
Question No. 163

The member which does not carry zero force in the structure shown in below figure, is
(A) ED
(B) DC
(C) BC
(D) BD
Answer: Option D
Question No. 164

At the instantaneous center, the velocity of the moving lamina at any instant is
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Minimum
(D) Varying
Answer: Option A
Question No. 165

If two equal forces of magnitude act at an an
(A) P
(B) 2P
(C) P
(D) 2P
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 166

If a body moves in such a way that its velocity increases by equal amount in equal intervals of
time, it is said to be moving with
(A) A uniform retardation
(B) A uniform acceleration
(C) A variable acceleration
(D) A variable retardation
Answer: Option C
Question No. 167

A number of forces acting simultaneously on a particle of a body
(A) May not be replaced by a single force
(B) May be replaced by a single force
(C) May be replaced by a single force through C.G. of the body
(D) May be replaced by a couple
Answer: Option B
Question No. 168

A stone is thrown up a slope of inclination 60° to the horizontal. At what angle to the slope must
the stone be thrown so as to land as far as possible from the point of projection?
(A) 15°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 75°
Answer: Option A
Question No. 169

If a body is acted upon by a number of coplanar non-concurrent forces, it may
(A) Rotate about itself without moving
(B) Move in any one direction
(C) Move in any one direction rotating about itself
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 170

If three rigid rods are hinged together to form a triangle and are given rotary as well as translatory
motion, the number of instantaneous centres of the triangle, will be
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 171

are the angle of projection and initial velocity of a projectile respectively, the
horizontal range of the projectile, is
(A) /g
(B) /g
(C) /2g
(D) /2g
Answer: Option A
Question No. 172

The potential energy of a particle falling through a straight shaft drilled through the earth
(assumed homogenous and spherical) is proportional to
(A) log r
(B) r
(C) r²
(D) 1/r
Where r is the distance of the particle from centre of the earth
Answer: Option C
Question No. 173

From a circular plate of a diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is equal to the radius of
the plate. The C.G. of the remainder from the centre of circular plate is at a distance of
(A) 2.0 cm
(B) 1.5 cm
(C) 1.0 cm
(D) 0.5 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 174

If the gravitational acceleration at any place is doubled, the weight of a body, will
(A) Be reduced to half
(B) Be doubled
(C) Not be affected
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 175

A pilot flies a small plane in a vertical loop of radius . At the top of its trajectory he experiences
weightlessness. If the acceleration due to gravity is , the speed of the plane at the top of its
trajectory would be
(A) Zero
(B) Infinite
(C) gr
(D) 2gr
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 176

If a body is lying on a plane whose inclination with the horizontal is less than the angle of friction,
then?
(i) A force is required to move the body upwards
(ii) A force is required to move the body downward
(iii) The body will not be in equilibrium
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Both (i) and (iii)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 177

The acceleration of a particle moving along the circumference of a circle with a uniform speed, is
directed
(A) Radially
(B) Tangentially at that point
(C) Away from the centre
(D) Towards the centre
Answer: Option B
Question No. 178

Work may be defined as
(A) Force × distance
(B) Force × velocity
(C) Force × acceleration
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 179

Pick up the correct statement from the following for the structure shown in below figure.
(A) The horizontal reaction at A t

(B) The horizontal reaction at C t
(C) The vertical reaction at A is zero
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 180

A shell travelling with a horizontal velocity of 100 m/sec explodes and splits into two parts, one of
mass 10 kg and the other of 15 kg. The 15 kg mass drops vertically downward with initial velocity
of 100 m/sec and the 10 kg mass begins to travel at an angle to the horizontal of tan"1 x, where x
is
(A) 3/4
(B) 4/5
(C) 5/3
(D) 3/5
Answer: Option D
Question No. 181

A ball of mass 250 g moving on a smooth horizontal table with a velocity of 10 m/sec hits an
identical stationary ball on the table. If the impact is perfectly plastic, the velocity of the
ball just after impact would be
(A) Zero
(B) 5 m/sec
(C) 10 m/sec
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 182

The length of a Second's pendulum, is
(A) 99.0 cm
(B) 99.4 cm
(C) 100 cm
(D) 101 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 183

The following statement is one of the laws of Dynamic friction
(A) The force of friction always acts in a direction opposite to that in which a body is moving
(B) The magnitude of the kinetic friction bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between
two surfaces. The ratio being slightly less than that in the case of limiting friction
(C) For moderate speeds the force of friction remains constant but decreases slightly with the
increase of speed
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 184

Force polygon method is applicable for
(A) Any coplanar force system
(B) A system of parallel forces only
(C) Concurrent coplanar force system
(D) Non-concurrent coplanar force system
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 185

A weight of 100 kg is supported by a string whose ends are attached to pegs and at the
same level shown in below figure. The tension in the string is
(A) 50 kg
(B) 75 kg
(C) 100 kg
(D) 120 kg
Answer: Option C
Question No. 186

A particle moves along a straight line such that distance traversed in seconds is given
by x = t2(t + 1), the acceleration of the particle, will be
(A) 3t3 - 2t
(B) 3t2 + 2t
(C) 6t - 2
(D) 6t + 2
Answer: Option D
Question No. 187

If two forces P and Q (P > Q) act on the same straight line but in opposite direction, their resultant,
is
(A) P + Q
(B) P/Q
(C) Q/P
(D) P - Q
Answer: Option D
Question No. 188

The condition of equilibrium for any system of forces in a plane is
(A) That polygon of forces must close
(B) That resultant couple must be zero
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 189
(A) Arithmetical sum of the moments of two forces about any point, is equal to the moments of
their resultant about that point
(B) Algebraic sum of the moments of two forces about any point, is equal to the moment of
their resultant about that point
(C) Arithmetical sum of the moments of the forces about any point in their plane, is equal to the
moment of their resultant about that point
(D) Algebraic sum of the moments of the forces about any point in their plane, is equal to the
moment of their resultant about that point
Answer: Option D
Question No. 190

If g1 and g2 are the gravitational accelerations on two mountains A and B respectively, the weight
of a body when transported from A to B will be multiplied by
(A) g1
(B) g2
(C) g1/g2
(D) g2/g1
Answer: Option D
Question No. 191

The characteristic of a couple is:
(A) Algebraic sum of forces, constituting a couple is zero
(B) Algebraic sum of moments of forces, constituting a couple, about any point, is same
(C) A couple can be never the balanced by a single force
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 192

When two forces, each equal to P, act at 90° to each other, then the resultant will be
(A) P
(B) P
(C) P
(D) 2P
Answer: Option B
Question No. 193

The displacement of a particle which moves along a straight line is given by S = 4t3 + 3t2- 10
where is in meters and t is in seconds. The time taken by the particle to acquire a velocity of 18
m/sec from rest, is
(A) ½ sec
(B) 1 sec
(C) 1.2 sec
(D) 1.5 sec
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Answer: Option B
Question No. 194

Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) The tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of friction
(B) The angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
(C) The tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of friction
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 195

A load of 500 kg was lifted through a distance of 13 cm. by an effort of 25 kg which moved through
a distance of 650 cm. The velocity ratio of the lifting machine is
(A) 50
(B) 55
(C) 60
(D) 65
Answer: Option A
Question No. 196

Instantaneous center is at infinity when the angular velocity is
(A) Constant
(B) Zero
(C) Maximum
(D) Minimum
Answer: Option B
Question No. 197

When a body moves round a fixed axis, it has
(A) A rotary motion
(B) A circular motion
(C) A translatory
(D) A rotary motion and translatory motion
Answer: Option B
Question No. 198

A load of 500 kg was lifted through a distance of 13 cm. by an effort of 25 kg which moved through
a distance of 650 cm. The efficiency of the lifting machine is
(A) 50 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 55 %
(D) 30 %
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 199
(A) Everybody continues in its state of rest or of uniform motion in a straight line, unless it is
acted upon by some external force
(B) The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the impressed force, and takes
place in the same direction, in which the force acts
(C) To every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 200
(A) 1 sec and 99.4 cm

(B) 1 sec and 92.7 cm
(C) 2 sec and 99.4 cm
(D) 2 sec and 92.7 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 201

The frequency of oscillation on moon as compared to that on earth, will be
(A) 2.44 times more
(B) 2.44 times less
(C) 3 times less
(D) 3 times more
Answer: Option B
Question No. 202

The maximum velocity of a body vibrating with a simple harmonic motion of amplitude 150 mm
and frequency 2 vibrations/sec, is
(A) 188.5 m/sec
(B) 18.85 m/sec
(C) 1.885 m/sec
(D) 0.18845 m/sec
Answer: Option C
Question No. 203

The centre of gravity of the trapezium as shown in below figure from the side is at a distance of
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(A) (h/3) × [(b + 2a)/(b + a)]

(B) (h/3) × [(2b + a)/(b + a)]
(C) (h/2) × [(b + 2a)/(b + a)]
(D) (h/2) × [(2b + a)/(b + a)]
Answer: Option A
Question No. 204

Cartesian form of the equation of catenary is
(A) y = c cosh x/c
(B) y = c sinh x/c
(C) y = c tan x/c
(D) y = c sin x/c
Answer: Option A
Question No. 205

The moment of inertia of a triangular section (base b, height h) about centroidal axis parallel to
the base, is
(A) b3h/12
(B) bh3/3
(C) bh3/36
(D) bh3/2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 206

To attain the synchronous orbit, the launch of a satellite, is done from a place
(A) On equator
(B) On 30° latitude
(C) On 45° latitude
(D) On the poles
Answer: Option A
Question No. 207

Pick up the correct statement from the following. A rubber ball when strikes a wall rebounds but a
lead ball of same mass and velocity when strikes the same wall, falls down
(A) Rubber and lead balls undergo equal changes in momentum
(B) Change in momentum suffered by lead ball is less that of rubber ball
(C) Momentum of rubber ball is less than that of lead ball
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 208

Two objects moving with uniform speeds are 5 m apart after 1 second when they move towards
each other and are 1 m apart when they move in the same direction. The speeds of the objects are
(A) 2 m/sec and 2 m/sec
(B) 3 m/sec and 2 m/sec
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(C) 3 m/sec and 3 m/sec

(D) 4 m/sec and 6 m/sec
Answer: Option B
Question No. 209

A body of weight 14 g appears to weight 13 g when weighed by a spring balance in a moving lift.
The acceleration of the lift at that moment was
(A) 0.5 m/sec2
(B) 0.7 m/sec2
(C) 1 m/sec2
(D) 1 cm/sec2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 210

The product of mass and velocity of a moving a body, is called
(A) Moment
(B) Momentum
(C) Power
(D) Impulse
Answer: Option B
Question No. 211

A body is said to move with Simple Harmonic Motion if its acceleration, is
(A) Always directed away from the centre, the point of reference
(B) Proportional to the square of the distance from the point of reference
(C) Proportional to the distance from the point of reference and directed towards it
(D) Inversely proportion to the distance from the point of reference
Answer: Option C
Question No. 212

An ordinate in a funicular polygon represents
(A) Shear force
(B) Resultant force
(C) Bending moment
(D) Equilibrium
Answer: Option C
Question No. 213

A bullet weighing 200 g is fired horizontally with a velocity of 25 m/sec from a gun carried on a
carriage which together with the gun weighs 100 kg. The velocity of recoil of the gun, will be
(A) 0.01 m/sec
(B) 0.05 m/sec
(C) 1.00 m/sec
(D) 1.5 m/see
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 214

The load shared by the member BC of the structure shown in below figure is
(A) 23 t
(B) 32 t
(C) 4 t
(D) 3 t
Answer: Option C
Question No. 215

The ratio of the ranges on the inclined plane with motion upward and with motion downward for
a given velocity, angle of projection will be
(A) -
(B) -
(C) -
(D) -
Answer: Option B
Question No. 216

The resultant of two forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled, the new resultant is perpendicular to P.
Then,
(A) P = R
(B) Q = R
(C) P = Q
(D) None of the above is correct
Answer: Option B
Question No. 217

A sphere is resting on two planes BA and BC which are inclined at 45° and 60° respectively with the
horizontal. The reaction on the plane BA will be
(A) Less than that on BC
(B) More than that of BC
(C) Equal to that on BC
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 218

The moment of inertia of the shaded portion of the area shown in below figure about the X-axis,
is
(A) 229.34 cm4

(B) 329.34 cm4
(C) 429.34 cm4
(D) 529.34 cm4
Answer: Option C
Question No. 219

A hoop of radius 3 m weighs 100 kg. It rolls along a horizontal floor so that at its centre of mass
has a speed of 200 mm/sec. The work required to stop the hoop is
(A) 2 J
(B) 4 J
(C) 6 J
(D) 8 J
Answer: Option B
Question No. 220
circle of radius , the equation for the velocity of the particle, is

(A) v (y² - r²)
(B) y (y - r)
(C) v (r² + y²)
(D) v (r² - y²)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 221

A projectile is fired with a velocity of 100.3 m/sec. at an elevation of 60°. The velocity attained by
the projectile when it is moving at a height of 100 m, is
(A) 70 m/sec
(B) 75 m/sec
(C) 80 m/sec
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(D) 90 m/sec
Answer: Option D
Question No. 222

A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a vertical velocity of 49 m/sec. It returns to the ground
in
(A) 5 sec
(B) 8 sec
(C) 10 sec
(D) 20 sec
Answer: Option C
Question No. 223

If two forces each equal to in magnitude act at right angles, their effect may be neutralised by a
third force acting along their bisector in opposite direction whose magnitude will be
(A) 2 T
(B) 1/2 T
(C) T
(D) 3 T
Answer: Option C
Question No. 224

When a body of mass M1 is hanging freely and another of mass M2 lying on a smooth inclined
ey, the
acceleration of the body of mass M1, will be given by
(A) g(M1 + M2 )/(M1 + M2) m/sec
(B) g(M1 - M2 )/(M1 + M2) m/sec²
(C) g(M2 + M1 )/(M1 + M2) m/sec²
(D) g(M2 × M1 )/(M2 - M1) m/sec²
Answer: Option B
Question No. 225

One end of an elastic string of natural length / and modulus X is kept fixed while to the other end
is attached a particle of mass m which is hanging freely under gravity. The particle is pulled down
vertically through a distance x, held at rest and then released. The motion is
(A) A simple harmonic motion
(B) A rectilinear motion with constant speed
(C) A damped oscillatory motion
Answer: Option A
Question No. 226
projectile from a horizontal plane, is

(A) /2g
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(B) /2g
(C) /2g
(D) u² sin 2 /2g
Answer: Option B
Question No. 227

If two forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, they must be equal in magnitude and their line of
action must be along
(A) The same line in the same sense
(B) The same line in opposite sense
(C) The perpendicular to both the lines
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 228

The shape of a suspended cable for a uniformly distributed load over it is
(A) Circular
(B) Parabolic
(C) Catenary
(D) Cubic parabola
Answer: Option B
Question No. 229

Kinetic friction may be defined as
(A) Friction force acting when the body is just about to move
(B) Friction force acting when the body is in motion
(C) Angle between normal reaction and resultant of normal reaction and limiting friction
(D) Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
Answer: Option B
Question No. 230

Ball of mass 250 g moving on a smooth horizontal table with a velocity of 10 m/s hits an
identical stationary ball on the table. If the impact is perfectly elastic, the velocity of the
ball just after impact would be
(A) Zero
(B) 5 m/sec
(C) 10 m/sec
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 231

A bullet weighing 10 gm moves with a velocity of l km/sec. Its kinetic energy is
(i) 5000 Nm
(ii) 5000 kg.m
(iii) 5000 J
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(A) Only (ii)
(B) Both (i) and (iii)
(C) Both (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 232

The moment of inertia of a circular lamina of diameter , about an axis perpendicular to the
plane of the lamina and passing through its centre, is
(A) 4
/12
(B) 4
/16
(C) 4
/24
(D) 4
/32
Answer: Option D
Question No. 233

If
the circular path of radius , will be
(A) r/v²
(B) v²/r
(C) r/
(D) /r
Answer: Option B
Question No. 234

A funicular polygon cannot be made to pass through
(A) One specified point
(B) Two specified points
(C) Three specified points
(D) More than three specified points
Answer: Option D
Question No. 235

From a solid cylinder of height 8 cm and radius 4 cm, a right circular cone is scooped out on the
same base and having the same height as that of the cylinder. The C.G. of the remainder is at a
height of
(A) 4.5 cm
(B) 5.0 cm
(C) 5.25 cm
(D) 5.5 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 236

A cube on a smooth horizontal surface
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(A) Cannot be in stable equilibrium

(B) Cannot be in neutral equilibrium
(C) Cannot be in unstable equilibrium
(D) Can be in any of these states
Answer: Option D
Question No. 237

The height at which the end of a rope of length should be tied so that a man pulling at the other
end may have the greatest tendency to overturn the pillar, is
(A) ¾ l
(B) ½ l
(C) l
(D) l
Answer: Option C
Question No. 238
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 239

Two forces of 6 Newtons and 8 Newtons which are acting at right angles to each other, will have a
resultant of
(A) 5 Newtons
(B) 8 Newtons
(C) 10 Newtons
(D) 12 Newtons
Answer: Option C
Question No. 240

Rate of change of angular momentum is equal to
(A) Force
(B) Torque
(C) Linear momentum
(D) Impulse
Answer: Option B
Question No. 241

A Second's pendulum gains 2 minutes a day. To make it to keep correct time its length
(A) Must be decreased
(B) Must be increased
(C) Is not changed but weight of the bob is increased
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(D) Is not changed but weight of the bob is decreased

Answer: Option B
Question No. 242

The horizontal reaction at the support A of the structure shown in below figure, is
(A) Zero
(B) 2 t
(C) 3 t
(D) 1 t
Answer: Option A
Question No. 243

In a simple harmonic motion, the position of equilibrium is always
(A) Stable
(B) Unstable
(C) Neutral
Answer: Option A
Question No. 244

The centre of gravity of a quadrant of a circle lies along its central radius at a distance of
(A) 0.2 R
(B) 0.4 R
(C) 0.3 R
(D) 0.6 R
Answer: Option D
Question No. 245

Lami's theorem states that
(A) Three forces acting at a point are always in equilibrium
(B) If three forces acting on a point can be represented in magnitude and direction by the sides
of a triangle, the point will be in the state of equilibrium
(C) Three coplanar forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium, if each force is proportional to
the sine of the angle between the other two
(D) Three coplanar forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if each force is inversely
proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 246

Impulse can be obtained from a
(A) force-displacement diagram
(B) force-time diagram
(C) velocity-time diagram
(D) velocity-displacement diagram
Answer: Option B
Question No. 247

A block of weight 50 kg is placed on a horizontal plane. When a horizontal force of 18 kg is applied,
the block is just on the point of motion. The angle of friction is
(A) 17° 48'
(B) 18° 48'
(C) 19° 48'
(D) 20° 48'
Answer: Option C
Question No. 248

The units of moment of inertia of an area are
(A) kg/m
(B) kg/m2
(C) m4
(D) m3
Answer: Option C
Question No. 249

A car goes round a curve of radius 100 m at 25 m/sec. The angle to the horizontal at which the
road must be banked to prevent sideways friction on the car wheels is tan"1 x, where x is (Assume
g = 10 m/sec²)
(A) 3/8
(B) 1/2
(C) 9/5
(D) 5/8
Answer: Option D
Question No. 250

From the circular plate of a diameter 6 cm is cut out a circular plate whose diameter is equal to
radius of the plate. The C.G. of the remainder shifts from the original position through
(A) 0.25 cm
(B) 0.50 cm
(C) 0.75 cm
(D) 1.00 cm
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 251

The resultant of two forces acting at right angles is 5 kgf and if they act at an angle of 60°, it
is 37 kgf. The magnitudes of the forces are:
(A) 2 kgf, 3 kgf
(B) 3 kgf, 4 kgf
(C) 4 kgf, 5 kgf
(D) 5 kgf, 3 kgf
Answer: Option B
Question No. 252

The diagram showing the point of application and line of action of forces in their plane is called
(A) Vector diagram
(B) Space diagram
(C) Force diagram
(D) Funicular diagram
Answer: Option B
Question No. 253

Energy may be defined as
(A) Power of doing work
(B) Capacity of doing work
(C) Rate of doing work
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 254

If two forces of 3 kg and 4 kg act at right angles to each other, their resultant force will be equal to
(A) 7 kg
(B) 1 kg
(C) 5 kg
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 255

A block in the shape of a parallelepiped of sides 1m × 2m × 3m lies on the surface. Which of the
faces gives maximum stable block?
(A) 1 m × 2 m
(B) 2 m × 3 m
(C) 1 m × 3 m
(D) Equally stable on all faces
Answer: Option B
Question No. 256

A smooth cylinder lying on its convex surface remains
(A) In stable equilibrium
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(B) In unstable equilibrium

(C) In neutral equilibrium
(D) Out of equilibrium
Answer: Option B
Question No. 257

A trolley wire weighs 1 kg per metre length. The ends of the wire are attached to two poles 20 m
apart. If the horizontal tension is 1000 kg, the central dip of the cable is
(A) 2 cm
(B) 3 cm
(C) 4 cm
(D) 5 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 258

A particle moves in a straight line and its position is defined by the equation x = 6 t² - t3 where t is
x the motion is
(A) 6 m/sec
(B) 12 m/sec
(C) 24 m/sec
(D) 48 m/sec
Answer: Option B
Question No. 259

Periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is the time taken by the particle
for
(A) Half oscillation
(B) Quarter oscillation
(C) Complete oscillation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 260

One end of a light string 4 m in length is fixed to a point on a smooth wall and the other end
fastened to a point on the surface of a smooth sphere of diameter 2.25 m and of weight 100 kg.
The reaction between the sphere and the wall of the arrangement made is
(A) 102.5 kg
(B) 105.5 kg
(C) 108.5 kg
(D) 110 kg
Answer: Option A
Question No. 261

A particle of mass 2 kg executes simple harmonic motion of frequency 6/71 Hz and amplitude 0.25
m. Its maximum kinetic energy is
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(A) 4.5 J
(B) 9.0 J
(C) 12.0 J
(D) 18.0 J
Answer: Option B
Question No. 262

The Centre of gravity of a 10 × 15 × 5 cm T-section from its bottom, is
(A) 7.5 cm
(B) 5.0 cm
(C) 8.75 cm
(D) 7.85 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 263

The following is not a law of static friction:
(A) The force of friction always acts in a direction opposite to that in which the body tends to
move
(B) The force of friction is dependent upon the area of contact
(C) The force of friction depends upon the roughness of the surface
(D) The magnitude of the limiting friction bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between
two surfaces
Answer: Option A
Question No. 264

One Newton is equivalent to
(A) 1 kg. wt
(B) 9.81 kg. wt
(C) 981 dyne
(D) 1/9.81 kg. wt
Answer: Option D
Question No. 265

When a body slides down an inclined surface, the acceleration (f) of the body, is given by
(A) f = g
(B) f = g
(C) f = g
(D) f = g
Answer: Option B
Question No. 266

For lifting a load of 50 kg through a distance of 2.5 cm, an effort of 12.5 kg is moved through a
distance of 40 cm. The efficiency of the lifting machine, is
(A) 60 %
(B) 65 %
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(C) 70 %
(D) 75 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 267

In a lifting machine a weight of 5 kN is lifted through 200 mm by an effort of 0.1 kN moving
through 15 m. The mechanical advantage and velocity ratio of the machine are respectively
(A) 50 and 75
(B) 75 and 50
(C) 75 and 75
(D) 50 and 50
Answer: Option A
Question No. 268

The motion of a particle moving with S.H.M. from an extremity to the other, constitutes
(A) half an oscillation
(B) One full oscillation
(C) Two oscillations
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 269

One end of a light string 4 m in length is fixed to a point on a smooth wall and the other end
fastened to a point on the surface of a smooth sphere of diameter 2.25 m and of weight 100 kg.
The tension in the string is
(A) 17.5 kg
(B) 19.5 kg
(C) 22.5 kg
(D) 25 kg
Answer: Option C
Question No. 270
will
(A) Be in equilibrium
(B) Always reduce to a resultant force
(C) Always reduce to a couple
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 271

The force which produces an acceleration of 1 m/sec2 in a mass of one kg, is called
(A) Dyne
(B) Newton
(C) Joule
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(D) Erg
Answer: Option B
Question No. 272

If is the Gauge of track, is velocity of the moving vehicle, is the acceleration due to gravity
and is the radius of a circular path, the required super elevation is
(A) gv²/Gr
(B) Gr²/gr
(C) Gr²/gv²
(D) Gv²/gv
Answer: Option D
Question No. 273

A uniform pyramid and a uniform prism of same height lie with their base on the surface. Which is
more stable?
(A) Pyramid
(B) Prism
(C) Both equally stable
Answer: Option A
Question No. 274

For a particle moving with a simple harmonic motion, the frequency is
(A) Directly proportional to periodic time
(B) Inversely proportional to periodic time
(C) Inversely proportional to its angular velocity
(D) Directly proportional to its angular velocity
Answer: Option B
Question No. 275

Principle of Transmissibility of Forces states that, when a force acts upon a body, its effect is
(A) Maximum if it acts at the centre of gravity of the body
(B) Different at different points on its line of
(C) Same at every point on its line of action
(D) Minimum if it acts at the C.G. of the body
Answer: Option C
Question No. 276

A 2 m long ladder rests against a wall and makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal floor. Where
will be the instantaneous center of rotation when the ladder starts slipping?
(i) 1.0 in from the wall
(ii) 1.732 m from the wall
(iii) 1.0 m above the floor
(iv) 1.732 m above the floor
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(A) (i) and (iii)

(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 277

If a spherical body is symmetrical about its perpendicular axes, the moment of inertia of the body
about an axis passing through its centre of gravity as given by Routh's rule is obtained by dividing
the product of the mass and the sum of the squares of two semi-axes by Where, is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: Option D
Question No. 278

Which one of the following laws is not applicable to a simple pendulum?
(A) The time period does not depend on its magnitude
(B) The time period is proportional to its length l
(C) The time period is proportional to l, where l is length
(D) The time period is inversely proportional to g, where g is the acceleration due to gravity
Answer: Option B
Question No. 279

One Newton is equivalent to
(A) 105 dyne
(B) 106 dyne
(C) 107 dyne
(D) 981 dyne
Answer: Option A
Question No. 280

and are angle of projection and initial velocity of a projectile respectively, the total time of
flight, is given by
(A) T
(B) T
(C) T
(D) T
Answer: Option D
Question No. 281

A spring scale in a stationary lift shows a reading of 60 kg for a man standing on it. If the lift starts
descending at an acceleration of g/5, the scale reading would be
(A) 48 kg
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(B) 60 kg
(C) 72 kg
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 282

The condition for a lifting machine to be reversible is that its efficiency should be
(A) Less than 50%
(B) More than 50%
(C) More than 66.67%
(D) Equal to 100%
Answer: Option B
Question No. 283

The C.G. of a hemisphere from its base measured along the vertical radius is at a distance of
(A) 4R/3
(B) 3R/8
(C) 3 /4
(D) 8R/3
Answer: Option B
Question No. 284

To avoid bending action at the base of a pier,
(A) Suspension and anchor cables are kept at the same level
(B) Suspension and anchor cables are fixed to pier top
(C) Suspension cable and anchor cables are attached to a saddle mounted on rollers on top of
the pier
(D) None the these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 285

The pole distance is measured in
(A) Distance scale
(B) Force scale
(C) Mass scale
(D) Time scale
Answer: Option B
Question No. 286

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. In a simple harmonic motion
(A) Velocity is maximum at its mean position
(B) Velocity is minimum at the end of the stroke
(C) Acceleration is minimum at the end of the stroke
(D) Acceleration is zero at the mean position
Answer: Option C
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Bilding-Materiasl_2_.pdf
Building Material_0_.pdf
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Building Materials
Question No. 01
Which of the following has more fire resisting characteristics?
(A) Marble
(B) Lime stone
(C) Compact sand stone
(D) Granite
Answer: Option C
Question No. 02
The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at a considerable depth from earth's surface
are called
(A) Plutonic rocks
(B) Hypabyssal rocks
(C) Volcanic rocks
(D) Igneous rocks
Answer: Option A
Question No. 03
Plywood has the advantage of
(A) Greater tensile strength in longer direction
(B) Greater tensile strength in shorter direction
(C) Same tensile strength in all directions
Answer: Option C
Question No. 04
Due to attack of dry rot, the timber
(A) Cracks
(B) Shrinks
(C) Reduces to powder
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 05
Excess of alumina in brick earth makes the brick
(A) Impermeable
(B) Brittle and weak
(C) To lose cohesion
(D) To crack and warp on drying
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 06
(A) In stone arches, the stones are placed with their natural beds radial
(B) In cornices, the stones are placed with their natural beds as vertical
(C) In stone walls, the stones are placed with their natural beds as horizontal
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 07
The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the undesirable properties of cement is
(A) Di-calcium silicate
(B) Tri-calcium silicate
(C) Tri-calcium aluminate
(D) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite
Answer: Option C
Question No. 08
Inner part of a timber log surrounding the pitch, is called
(A) Sapwood
(B) Cambium layer
(C) Heart wood
(D) None to these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 09
For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing
cement and standard sand in the proportions of
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 1 : 4
(D) 1 : 6
Answer: Option B
Question No. 10
If is the percentage of water required for normal consistency, water to be added for
determination of initial setting time, is
(A) 0.70 P
(B) 0.75 P
(C) 0.80 P
(D) 0.85 P
Answer: Option D
Question No. 11
The basic purpose of a retarder in concrete is
(A) To increase the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
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(B) To decrease the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete

(C) To render the concrete more water tight
(D) To improve the workability of concrete mix
Answer: Option A
Question No. 12
Clay and silt content in a good brick earth must be at least
(A) 50 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 30 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option A
Question No. 13
Which of the following is the purest form of iron?
(A) Cast iron
(B) Wrought iron
(C) Mild steel
(D) High carbon steel
Answer: Option B
Question No. 14
If the iron ore contains clay as an impurity, the flux added during calcination, is
(A) Clay
(B) Lime stone
(C) Argillaceous iron ore
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 15
The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness of wall is
(A) 90 mm
(B) 180 mm
(C) 190 mm
(D) 280 mm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 16
The plywood
(A) Has good strength along the panel only
(B) Can be spilt in the plane of the panel
(C) Has greater impact resistance to blows than ordinary wood
(D) Cannot be bent more easily than ordinary wood of same thickness
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 17
(A) The phenol is carbolic acid
(B) The phenol is either extracted from coal-tar or prepared from benzene
(C) Phenol reacts with formaldehyde, to form phenol formaldehyde resin
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 18
Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is that
(A) It takes less time for burning
(B) It gives more output of first class bricks
(C) It has less initial cost
(D) It is suitable when bricks are required in large numbers
Answer: Option C
Question No. 19
(A) Solder material is an alloy which melts at a temperature above 400°C
(B) Brazing is done at temperature above 600°C to 1100°C
(C) Brazing joint is stronger than the solder joint
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 20
Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to develop adequate strength.
Reason R : Pure lime has slow hardening characteristics.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below:
(A) Both A and R is true and R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true and R is not a correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer: Option A
Question No. 21
During pudding
(A) Molten metal is kept clear of the fuel
(B) Carbon is converted into carbonic acid gas
(C) Silicon forms a slag
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 22
Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening cement is mainly due to
(A) Gypsum
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(B) Finer grinding

(C) Tri-calcium silicate
(D) Tri-calcium aluminate
Answer: Option B
Question No. 23
(A) Quick lime is obtained by burning pure lime stone
(B) Hydraulic lime is obtained by burning lime stone containing clay 5% to 30%
(C) Poor lime is obtained by burning lime stone containing impurities more than 5%
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 24
Which of the following cements contains maximum percentage of dicalcium silicate?
(A) Ordinary Portland cement
(B) Low heat cement
(C) Rapid hardening cement
(D) Sulphate resisting cement
Answer: Option B
Question No. 25
(A) Hydraulic lime is generally obtained by burning kankar
(B) Hydraulic lime sets slowly as compared to fat lime
(C) Hydraulic lime is generally used in lime mortar
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 26
Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the quality of structural steel?
(A) Ultimate stress
(B) Yield stress
(C) Proof stress
Answer: Option B
Question No. 27
Quick lime
(A) Generates heat when added to water
(B) Reacts with carbon dioxide
(C) May be used for white-washing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 28
Assertion A : Normally turpentine oil is recommended as thinner for indoor painting.
Reason R : Turpentine oil is costlier than other thinners.
(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer: Option B
Question No. 29
Putty is
(A) Made with finely powdered chalk and linseed oil
(B) Used for fixing glass panes
(C) Softened by a solution of pearl ash and quick-lime soaked in water
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 30
A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as
(A) Bed joint
(B) Wall joint
(C) Cross joint
(D) Bonded joint
Answer: Option C
Question No. 31
A volatile substance added to a paint to make its application easy and smooth, is known as
(A) Base
(B) Solvent
(C) Vehicle
(D) None to these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 32
Jumper is a tool used for
(A) Testing of stones
(B) Quarrying of stones
(C) Dressing of stones
Answer: Option B
Question No. 33
Pick up the volcanic rock from the following:
(A) Granite
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(B) Dolerite
(C) Basalt
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 34
Sapwood consists of
(A) Innermost annular rings around the pith
(B) Portion of timber between heartwood and cambium layer
(C) Thin layers below the bark
(D) Thin fibre which extends from the pith outwards and holds the annular rings together
Answer: Option B
Question No. 35
Strength of cement concrete primarily depends upon
(A) Quality of water
(B) Quantity of aggregate
(C) Quantity of cement
(D) Water-cement ratio
Answer: Option D
Question No. 36
The main function of alumina in brick earth is
(A) To impart plasticity
(B) To make the brick durable
(C) To prevent shrinkage
(D) To make the brick impermeable
Answer: Option A
Question No. 37
Cast iron
(A) Is obtained by purifying pig iron
(B) Is manufactured in required shapes
(C) May contain 2 to 5 per cent of carbon with other impurities
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 38
Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of the useful and harmful constituents
respectively of a good brick earth?
(A) Lime stone and alumina
(B) Silica and alkalies
(C) Alumina and iron
(D) Alkalies and magnesium
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 39
(A) The distinct plane of division along which a stone can easily be split, is called natural bed of
stone
(B) The natural bed of sedimentary rocks is along the planes of stratification
(C) The natural bed of igneous rocks is not defined
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 40
Hydraulic lime is obtained by
(A) Burning of lime stone
(B) Burning of kankar
(C) Adding water to quick lime
(D) Calcination of pure clay
Answer: Option B
Question No. 41
Oil varnish generally consists of
(A) Synthetic resin and spirit
(B) Oil, wax and resin
(C) Resin, oil and turpentine
(D) Spirit, oil and wax
Answer: Option C
Question No. 42
For testing compressive strength of cement, the size of cube used is
(A) 50 mm
(B) 70.6 mm
(C) 100 mm
(D) 150 mm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 43
When a brick is immersed in water for 24 hours and then dried, if
(A) No grey or white deposits appear on the surface, the brick is free from soluble salts
(B) 10 percent surface is covered with grey or white deposits, the brick has slight efflorescence
(C) 50 percent surface is covered with grey or white deposits, the brick has serious efflorescence
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 44
Gypsum consists of
(A)
(B)
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(C)
(D)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 45
For sanitary pipes and chemical stonewares,
(A) Salt glazing is used
(B) Lead glazing is used
(C) Opaque glazing is used
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 46
The most commonly used retarder in cement is
(A) Gypsum
(B) Calcium chloride
(C) Calcium carbonate
Answer: Option A
Question No. 47
The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at a relatively shallow depth from the earth's
surface are called
(A) Plutonic rocks
(C) Volcanic rocks
(D) Igneous rocks
Answer: Option B
Question No. 48
The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel rolled structural beams and channels is
(A) Less than 1
(B) Equal to 1
(C) Greater than 1
(D) Less than 1 in beams but greater than 1 in channels
Answer: Option A
Question No. 49
Non acid-resistant asbestos is:
(A) Tremolite asbestos
(B) Chrysotile asbestos
(C) Amosite asbestos
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 50
The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be
(A) Along the direction of bedding planes
(B) At 45° to the direction of bedding planes
(C) At 60° to the direction of bedding planes
(D) Perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
Answer: Option D
Question No. 51
Pick up the constituent of good brick earth whose excess causes the raw bricks shrink and warp
during drying and burning, from the following:
(A) Alumina
(B) Lime
(C) Iron-oxide
(D) Magnesia
Answer: Option A
Question No. 52
The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is
(A) Single Flemish bond
(B) Double Flemish bond
(C) English bond
(D) Zigzag bond
Answer: Option C
Question No. 53
Blister steel
(A) Is obtained by cementation process
(B) Is full of fissures and cavities
(C) Can be easily welded
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 54
Gypsum is a
(A) Mechanically formed sedimentary rock
(B) Igneous rock
(C) Chemically precipitated sedimentary rock
(D) Metamorphic rock
Answer: Option C
Question No. 55
Seasoning of timber is done
(A) To make it water proof
(B) To paint its surface
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(C) To increase its temperature

(D) To remove water
Answer: Option D
Question No. 56
Which of the following is a rock?
(A) Quartz
(B) Mica
(C) Gypsum
Answer: Option C
Question No. 57
The tendency of a stone is, to split along:
(A) Texture
(B) Fracture
(C) Cleavage
(D) Structure
Answer: Option C
Question No. 58
Which of the following stone is best suited for construction of piers and abutments of a railway
bridge?
(A) Granite
(B) Sand stone
(C) Lime stone
(D) Quartzite
Answer: Option A
Question No. 59
Cast iron contains carbon approximately
(A) 1.5% to 5.5%
(B) 0.05% to 1.75%
(C) 0.250 %
(D) None to these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 60
Which of the following trees yields hard wood?
(A) Deodar
(B) Chir
(C) Shishum
(D) Pine
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 61
Soundness of cement is tested by
(A) Vicat's apparatus
(B) Le-chatelier apparatus
(C) Compressive strength testing apparatus
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 62
First class timber has an average life of
(A) Less than one year
(B) 1 to 5 years
(C) 5 to 10 years
(D) More than 10 years
Answer: Option D
Question No. 63
Bitumen may be dissolved in
(A) Carbondioxide
(B) Water
(C) Sodium chloride
(D) Carbon disulphide
Answer: Option D
Question No. 64
Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables the brick to retain its shape?
(A) Alumina
(B) Silica
(C) Iron
(D) Magnesia
Answer: Option B
Question No. 65
Veneering means
(A) Carving out designs on timber planks
(B) Chemically treating timber planks
(C) Thick layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood
(D) Thin layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood
Answer: Option C
Question No. 66
Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is
(A) 400
(B) 450
(C) 500
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(D) 550
Answer: Option C
Question No. 67
Which one of the following is used for preparing porcelain?
(A) Clay
(B) Feldspar
(C) Quartz
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 68
The main ingredients of Portland cement are
(A) Lime and silica
(B) Lime and alumina
(C) Silica and alumina
(D) Lime and iron
Answer: Option A
Question No. 69
(A) Blistering may be cured by applying water paint finished with oil paint dried with a little
copal varnish
(B) Cracked paints may be cured by removing paint and giving a fresh coat of paint
(C) Crawling paints may be cured by sand preparing the surface and giving a fresh coat with
plenty of turps
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 70
After storage, the strength of cement
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remains same
(D) May increase or decrease
Answer: Option A
Question No. 71
A bull nose brick is not used for
(A) Rounding off sharp corners
(B) Pillars
(C) Decoration purpose
(D) Arches
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 72
The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of concrete is
(A) Gypsum
(B) Calcium chloride
(C) Calcium carbonate
Answer: Option B
Question No. 73
Chlorite, a green colour mineral is mainly derived from the decomposition of
(A) Augite
(B) Biotite
(C) Hornblende
(D) All of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 74
The ultimate tensile strength of structural mild steel is about
(A) 160 N/mm²
(B) 260 N/mm²
(C) 420 N/mm²
(D) 520 N/mm²
Answer: Option C
Question No. 75
Asbestos
(A) Is a natural fibrous mineral substance
(B) Is composed of hydrous silicates of calcium and magnesium (CaSiO3, 3MgSiO3)
(C) Contains iron oxide and alumina
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 76
A queen closer is a
(A) Brick laid with its length parallel to the face or direction of wall
(B) Brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face or direction of wall
(C) Brick having the same length and depth as the other bricks but half the breadth
(D) Brick with half the width at one end and full width at the other
Answer: Option C
Question No. 77
The percentage of alumina and silica in good fire clay vary respectively is
(A) 25, 75
(B) 30, 70
(C) 35, 65
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(D) All of these

Answer: Option A
Question No. 78
The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction are
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : 6
(D) 1 : 8
Answer: Option A
Question No. 79
Index number expressing the relative sizes of both coarse and fine aggregates, is called
(A) Proportioning of aggregates
(B) Fineness modulus
(C) Grading of aggregates
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 80
Which of the following sedimentary rocks changes into quartzite by metamorphic action?
(A) Sand stone
(B) Lime stone
(C) Shale
(D) Gypsum
Answer: Option A
Question No. 81
Lime putty
(A) Is made from hydraulic lime
(B) Is made by adding lime to water
(C) Can be used only upto three days
(D) All of above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 82
The stone suitable for rubble masonry should be.
(A) Hard
(B) Tough
(C) Heavy
(D) Light
Answer: Option A
Question No. 83
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(A) Air bubbles in casting produce a dull sound by tapping their surfaces lightly with a hammer
(B) Cupola furnace is used for the manufacture of cast iron
(C) Red short iron is of no value for welding purpose
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 84
Spalling hammer is used for
(A) Driving wooden headed chisels
(B) Rough dressing of stones
(C) Carving of stones
(D) Breaking small projection of stones
Answer: Option B
Question No. 85
Bullet proof glass is made of thick glass sheet sandwiched by a layer of
(A) Steel
(B) Stainless steel
(C) High test plastic
(D) Chromium plate
Answer: Option C
Question No. 86
Plywood is made by bonding together thin layers of wood in such a way that the angle between
grains of any layer to grains of adjacent layers is
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option D
Question No. 87
According to IS 399-1963, the weight of the timber is specified at
(A) 8% moisture content
(B) 10% moisture content
(C) 12% moisture content
(D) 14% moisture content
Answer: Option C
Question No. 88
The internal size of mould used in brick preparation is
(A) Equal to the size of a fully burnt brick
(B) Smaller than the size of a fully burnt brick
(C) Greater than the size of a fully burnt brick
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 89
(A) The free quartz suddenly expands at a temperature lower than 600°C
(B) The lime stone resists fire upto about 800°C and at higher temperature it splits into CaO and
CO2
(C) The sand stone with silicates resist a fire in a better way
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 90
Quick lime is
(A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Calcium oxide
(C) Calcium hydroxide
Answer: Option B
Question No. 91
(A) Styrene resin is produced from ethylene which is made from petroleum
(B) Styrene resin is light in weight
(C) Styrene resin transmits ultraviolet waves of light
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 92
The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per IS specifications should not be less
than
(A) 10 minutes
(B) 30 minutes
(C) 60 minutes
(D) 600 minutes
Answer: Option B
Question No. 93
Rapid hardening cement attains early strength due to
(A) Larger proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement
(B) Lesser proportion of lime grounded coarser than normal cement
(C) Lesser proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement
(D) Excess percentage of gypsum
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 94
With increase in moisture content, the bulking of sand
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) First increases to a certain maximum value and then decreases
(D) First decreases to a certain minimum value and then increases
Answer: Option C
Question No. 95
Plywood is normally available
(A) 1 mm thick
(B) 2 mm thick
(C) 2 to 3 mm thick
(D) 3 mm to 4 mm thick
Answer: Option D
Question No. 96
Compared to mild steel, cast iron has
(i) High compressive strength
(ii) High tensile strength
(iii) Low compressive strength
(iv) Low tensile strength
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 97
In a mortar, the binding material is
(A) Cement
(B) Sand
(C) Surkhi
(D) Cinder
Answer: Option A
Question No. 98
The vehicle used in case of enamel paints is usually
(A) Linseed oil
(B) Water
(C) Varnish
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 99
In the method of condensation polymerization,
(A) Low-molecular substances are removed from the high molecular substance
(B) The reaction proceeds with an evolution of ammonia
(C) The reaction proceeds with an evolution of hydrogen chloride
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 100

The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40
Answer: Option B
Question No. 101

Sand stone is
(A) Sedimentary rock
(B) Metamorphic rock
(C) Igneous rock
(D) Volcanic rock
Answer: Option A
Question No. 102

Which of the following represents a metamorphic rock?
(i) Slate
(ii) Shale
(iii) Quartzite
(A) Only (iii)
(B) Both (i) and (iii)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 103

For the manufacture of Portland cement, the proportions of raw materials used, are
(A) Lime 63% ; silica 22% ; other ingredients 15%
(B) Lime 22% ; silica 63% ; other ingredients 15%
(C) Silica 40% ; lime 40% ; other ingredients 20%
(D) Silica 70% ; lime 20% ; other ingredients 10%
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 104

A good building stone should not absorb water more than
(A) 5 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 20 %
Answer: Option A
Question No. 105

Good quality stones must
(A) Be durable
(B) Be free from clay
(C) Resist action of acids
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 106

Specific gravity for most of the building stones lies between
(A) 1.5 to 2.0
(B) 2.0 to 2.5
(C) 2.5 to 3.0
(D) 3.0 to 3.5
Answer: Option C
Question No. 107

Initial setting time of cement for asbestos cement products should be not less than
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 50 minutes
(C) 75 minutes
(D) 90 minutes
Answer: Option D
Question No. 108

The age of a tree can be known by examining
(A) Cambium layer
(B) Annular rings
(C) Medullary rays
(D) Heart wood
Answer: Option B
Question No. 109

(A) In basic Bessemer process, the steel heats the converter
(B) In open-hearth process, the furnace heats the steel
(C) In Siemens process, the impurities of pig iron are oxidised by the oxygen of the ore
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 110

Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between
(A) 5 to 10 %
(B) 20 to 30 %
(C) 50 to 60 %
(D) 70 to 80 %
Answer: Option C
Question No. 111

Resins are
(A) Not soluble in water
(B) Soluble in spirit
(C) Used in varnishes
(D) Left behind on evaporation of oil
Answer: Option C
Question No. 112

Quick lime is
(i) Slow in setting
(ii) Rapid in slacking
(iii) Good in strength
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(D) Both (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 113

(A) Soft stones are required for carving
(B) Light stones are required for arches
(C) Hard stones are required to stand high pressure
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 114

As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for ordinary Portland cement should be
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 1 hour
(C) 6 hours
(D) 10 hours
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 115

Shingle is
(A) Decomposed laterite
(B) Crushed granite
(C) Water bound pebbles
(D) Air weathered rock
Answer: Option A
Question No. 116

Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in
(i) Better workability
(ii) Better resistance to freezing and thawing
(iii) Lesser workability
(iv) Less resistance to freezing and thawing
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 117

Pick up the correct statement from the following: Method of sawing timber
(A) Tangentially to annual rings, is known as tangential method
(B) In four quarters such that each board cuts annual rings at angles not less than 45°, is known
as quarter sawing method
(C) Cut out of quarter logs, parallel to the medullary rays and perpendicular to annual rings, is
known as radial sawing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 118

Assertion A : Paints with white lead base are not recommended for painting of iron works.
Reason R : Paints with white lead base do not check rusting of iron.
(A) Both A and R is true and, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer: Option A
Question No. 119

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(A) Alexander Parkes, a Scottish chemist prepared a hard material by mixing camphor and
alcohol with nitro cellulose and called it, as Parkesite
(B) Dr. L. Bakeland, a Belgian scientist prepared a product known as Bakelite
(C) Pollark, an Austrian scientist prepared a substance from urea and formaldehyde and called
it Plastic
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 120

Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall lengths usater than
(A) 10 m
(B) 20 m
(C) 30 m
(D) 40 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 121

Cast steel is manufactured by
(A) Cementation process
(B) Crucible process
(C) Bessemer process
(D) Open hearth process
Answer: Option B
Question No. 122

Based on the following rocks and minerals, select the correct statement, quartz, shale, basalt,
granite, marble, gypsum, mica
(A) Basalt and marble are the only metamorphic rocks
(B) There is no sedimentary rock
(C) Granite is the only igneous rock
(D) Quartz and mica are minerals
Answer: Option D
Question No. 123

The foliated structure is very common in
(A) Sedimentary rocks
(B) Igneous rocks
(C) Metamorphic rocks
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 124

Cross cut saw is used for
(A) Cutting soft stones
(B) Cutting hard stones
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(C) Cutting large blocks of stones

(D) Dressing stones
Answer: Option B
Question No. 125

(A) Catalysts are added to assist and accelerate the hardening of resin
(B) The fillers are inert materials and they impart strength and hardness
(C) Fibrous fillers increase thermal resistance
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 126

A first class brick when immersed in cold water for 24 hours should not absorb water more than
(A) 15 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 22 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 127

The minimum compressive strength of 2nd class bricks should be
(A) 75 kg/cm2
(B) 90 kg/cm2
(C) 100 kg/cm2
(D) 120 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 128

Which of the following bricks are used for lining of furnaces?
(A) Over-burnt bricks
(B) Under-burnt bricks
(C) Refractory bricks
(D) First class bricks
Answer: Option C
Question No. 129

Bulking of sand is caused due to
(A) Surface moisture
(B) Air voids
(C) Viscosity
(D) Clay contents
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 130

According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary Portland cement after three
days should not be less than
(A) 7 MPa
(B) 11.5 MPa
(C) 16 MPa
(D) 21 MPa
Answer: Option C
Question No. 131

(A) Plastics have generally low melting point
(B) The coefficient of thermal expansion of plastics is about three times than that of steel
(C) The acoustical boards prepared by impregnating fibre-glass with phenolic resins has
absorption coefficient of about 0.67
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 132

The amount of water used for one kg of distemper is
(A) 0.2 liter
(B) 0.4 liter
(C) 0.6 liter
(D) 0.8 liter
Answer: Option C
Question No. 133

Smith's test of stones is performed to find out
(A) The presence of soluble matter of stone
(B) The compressive strength of the stone
(C) The hardness of the stone
(D) The toughness of the stone
Answer: Option A
Question No. 134

The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar and for forming joints is
(A) Trowel
(B) Square
(C) Bolster
(D) Scutch
Answer: Option A
Question No. 135

The weight of 1 m3 of brick earth, is about
(A) 1200 kg
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(B) 1500 kg
(C) 1800 kg
(D) 2000 kg
Answer: Option C
Question No. 136

Which of the following is a mineral?
(A) Basalt
(B) Granite
(C) Quartz
(D) Syenite
Answer: Option C
Question No. 137

Age of a tree may be ascertained by
(A) Radius of its stem
(B) Circumference of its stem
(C) Number of branches
(D) Number of annual rings
Answer: Option D
Question No. 138

Crushing strength of a good building stone should be more than
(A) 50 MPa
(B) 100 MPa
(C) 150 MPa
(D) 200 MPa
Answer: Option B
Question No. 139

Generally wooden moulds are made from
(A) Ply wood
(B) Shishum wood
(C) Deodar wood
(D) Teak wood
Answer: Option B
Question No. 140

The nominal size of the modular brick is
(A) 190 mm × 90 mm × 80 mm
(B) 190 mm × 190 mm × 90 mm
(C) 200 mm × 100 mm × 100 mm
(D) 200 mm × 200 mm × 100 mm
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 141

Bitumen is generally obtained from
(A) Organic material
(B) Synthetic material
(C) Petroleum product
(D) Coal
Answer: Option C
Question No. 142

The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is
(A) Calcium oxide
(B) Silica
(C) Clay
(D) Water
Answer: Option C
Question No. 143

Calcination of iron ores is done
(A) To remove moisture
(B) To remove carbonic acid
(C) By roasting in heaps
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 144

Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such as large
dams?
(B) Low heat cement
(C) Rapid hardening cement
(D) Sulphate resisting cement
Answer: Option B
Question No. 145

The commonly used thinner in oil paints, is
(A) Naphtha
(B) Turpentine
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None the these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 146

Minimum thickness of wall where single Flemish bond can be used is
(A) Half brick thick
(B) One brick thick
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(C) One and a half bricks thick

(D) Two bricks thick
Answer: Option C
Question No. 147

The pigment used in paints for corrosive resistance, is
(A) White lead
(B) Ferrous oxide
(C) Zinc white
(D) Red lead
Answer: Option D
Question No. 148

Slate is formed by metamorphic action on
(A) Shale
(B) Lime stone
(C) Sand stone
(D) Granite
Answer: Option A
Question No. 149

Sea sand used in structures causes
(A) Dampness
(B) Efflorescence
(C) Disintegration
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 150

The trunk of tree left after cutting all the branches is known as
(A) Log
(B) Batten
(C) Plank
(D) Baulk
Answer: Option A
Question No. 151

The weight of a good quality brick when immersed in water for a period of 16 hours should not
exceed the weight of dry brick
(A) 20 %
(B) 15 %
(C) 10 %
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 152

Pug mill is used for
(A) Preparation of clay
(B) Moulding of clay
(C) Drying of bricks
(D) Burning of bricks
Answer: Option A
Question No. 153

Pick up the synthetic resin from the following:
(A) Urea resin
(B) Phenolic resin
(C) Resorcinol resin
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 154

Addition of pozzolana to ordinary Portland cement increases
(A) Bleeding
(B) Shrinkage
(C) Permeability
(D) Heat of hydration
Answer: Option B
Question No. 155

Plastics are compounds of carbon with element
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 156

Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of
(A) Wood work
(B) Iron work
(C) Both wood work and iron work
Answer: Option A
Question No. 157

For a good building stone, its specific gravity should the greater than
(A) 1.5
(B) 1.7
(C) 2.2
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(D) 2.7
Answer: Option D
Question No. 158

Sandstone is a
(i) Sedimentary rock
(ii) Aqueous rock
(iii) Siliceous rock
(A) Only (i)
(B) Both (i) and (ii)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 159

The rocks having alumina or clay as their major constituents are known as
(A) Siliceous rocks
(B) Argillaceous rocks
(C) Calcareous rocks
(D) Sedimentary rocks
Answer: Option B
Question No. 160

The practical limit of moisture content achieved in air drying of timber is
(A) 5 %
(B) 15 %
(C) 25 %
(D) 35 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 161

Glazing of clay products, is done
(A) To improve their appearance
(B) To protect them from atmospheric effect
(C) To protect them from corrosive action
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 162

Study the following statements.
(i) Hydraulic lime is suitable for white washing,
(ii) Fat lime is suitable for whitewashing,
(iii) Hydraulic lime is suitable for making mortar,
(iv) Fat lime is suitable for making mortar.
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(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 163

The yield strength and tensile strength of low carbon steel may be improved by the addition of
(A) Manganese
(B) Chromium
(C) Nickel
(D) Vanadium
Answer: Option D
Question No. 164

Three basic raw materials which are needed in large quantities for production of steel are
(A) Iron ore, coal and sulphur
(B) Iron ore, carbon and sulphur
(C) Iron ore, coal and lime stone
(D) Iron ore, carbon and lime stone
Answer: Option C
Question No. 165

To give a brilliant finish, the type of varnish used, is
(A) Water varnish
(B) Spirit varnish
(C) Turpentine varnish
(D) Oil varnish
Answer: Option B
Question No. 166

Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker walls?
(A) Headers
(B) Stretchers
(C) Brick bats
(D) Queen closer
Answer: Option A
Question No. 167

Asbestos
(A) Is an excellent insulator for heat and electricity
(B) Is fire-proof and acid proof
(C) Has sp. gravity equal to 3.10
(D) All the above
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 168

A heavy stone is suitable for
(A) Arches
(B) Rubble masonry
(C) Roads
(D) Retaining walls
Answer: Option D
Question No. 169

(A) Blisters in the finished wrought iron, are caused due to the reaction between oxide of iron
and carbon
(B) The edges of a finished wrought iron are rough due to red shortage
(C) Pig iron (charcoal) is manufactured from magnetic ore (Fe3O4)
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 170

The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between
(A) 5 to 10 %
(B) 20 to 30 %
(C) 50 to 60 %
(D) 70 to 80 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 171

Pig iron made from haematite ores free from sulphur, phosphorus and copper, is known as
(A) Bessemer pig
(B) Grey or foundry pig
(C) White or forge pig
(D) Mottled pig
Answer: Option A
Question No. 172

Le-Chatelier's device is used for determining the
(A) Setting time of cement
(B) Soundness of cement
(C) Tensile strength of cement
(D) Compressive strength of cement
Answer: Option B
Question No. 173

Red short iron cracks when bent due to the presence of
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(A) Sulphur
(B) Carbon
(C) Phosphorus
(D) Silicon
Answer: Option A
Question No. 174

Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is
(A) Less than 0.25
(B) Between 0.25 and 0.7
(C) Between 0.7 and 1.5
(D) Greater than 1.5
Answer: Option A
Question No. 175

The method of addition polymerization is used for obtaining:
(A) Polystyrene
(B) Polypropylene
(C) Polyvinylchloride
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 176

Which of the following metamorphic rocks has the most weather resisting characteristics?
(A) Marble
(B) Quartzite
(C) Slate
(D) Lime stone
Answer: Option B
Question No. 177

To retard the initial setting time of cement, the compound responsible, is
(A) Tri-calcium silicate
(B) Gypsum
(C) Di-calcium silicate
(D) Tri-calcium aluminate
Answer: Option B
Question No. 178

Seasoning of timber is done for
(A) Increasing moisture content
(B) Decreasing moisture content
(C) Increasing strength of timber
(D) None to these
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 179

The steel used for the manufacture of rails, is
(A) Bessemer steel
(B) Mild steel
(C) Cast steel
(D) Stainless steel
Answer: Option A
Question No. 180

Durability of building stone is affected by its
(A) Chemical composition
(B) Texture
(C) Resistance to atmosphere
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 181

Pick up the most favourable condition for the rapid growth of fungus for dry rot from the
following:
(A) Absence of sun light
(B) Dampness
(C) Presence of sap
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 182

Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than
(A) 3.5 N/mm²
(B) 7.0 N/mm²
(C) 10.5 N/mm²
(D) 14.0 N/mm²
Answer: Option C
Question No. 183

(A) Rust is due to formation of oxides
(B) Cast iron oxidises less
(C) Steel oxidises most
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 184

The main constituent of cement which is responsible for initial setting of cement is
(A) Di-calcium silicate
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 185

(A) The low voltage porcelain is prepared by wet process
(B) The high voltage porcelain is prepared by dry process
(C) The low voltage porcelain is prepared by dry process
Answer: Option C
Question No. 186

In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretchers in each course is
known as
(A) English bond
(B) Double Flemish bond
(C) Zigzag bond
(D) Single Flemish bond
Answer: Option B
Question No. 187

In stone masonry, if stones are so placed that their layers are parallel to the direction of load, they
(A) Split easily
(B) Are affected by moisture
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 188

Granite is not suitable for ordinary building purpose because
(A) It cannot be polished
(B) It is not a fire proof material
(C) It is costly
(D) It has less crushing strength
Answer: Option C
Question No. 189

Lacquer paints
(A) Are generally applied on structural steel
(B) Are less durable as compared to enamel paints
(C) Consist of resin and nitro-cellulose
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 190

Glazing is used to make earthenware
(A) Hard
(B) Soft
(C) Porous
(D) Impervious
Answer: Option D
Question No. 191

In the cement the compound quickest to react with water, is
(A) Tri-calcium aluminate
(B) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite
(C) Tri-calcium silicate
(D) Di-calcium silicate
Answer: Option A
Question No. 192

Which of the following gradients exerts maximum influence on properties of steel?
(A) Iron
(B) Carbon
(C) Manganese
(D) Sulphur
Answer: Option B
Question No. 193

Stainless steel contains
(A) 18% of chromium and 8% nickel
(B) 8% of chromium and 18% of nickel
(C) 12% of chromium and 36% of nickel
(D) 36% of chromium and 12% of nickel
Answer: Option A
Question No. 194

Excess of silica in brick earth results in
(A) Cracking and warping of bricks
(B) Loss of cohesion
(C) Enhancing the impermeability of bricks
Answer: Option B
Question No. 195

Which one of the following is acid resistant asbestos?
(A) Actinolite asbestos
(B) Amosite asbestos
(C) Anthophylite asbestos
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 196

The slump recommended for mass concrete is about
(A) 25 mm to 50 mm
(B) 50 mm to 100 mm
(C) 100 mm to 125 mm
(D) 125 mm to 150 mm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 197

For preparing porcelains, the clay should be
(A) Sufficiently pure
(B) Of high degree of tenacity
(C) Of good plasticity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 198

For melting one tonne of cast iron
(A) 700 m3 air is required
(B) 20 kg limestone is required
(C) One quintal coke is required
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 199

Pick up the correct statement regarding low heat cement from the following:
(A) It possesses less compressive strength
(B) Its initial setting time is about one hour
(C) Its final setting time is about 10 hours
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 200

Quick lime (or caustic lime)
(A) Is obtained by the calcination of pure lime stone
(B) Has great affinity to moisture
(C) Is amorphous
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 201

The commonly used lime in white washing, is
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(A) White lime

(B) Fat lime
(C) Hydraulic lime
(D) Quick lime
Answer: Option B
Question No. 202

For slaking of 10 kg of CaO, the theoretical amount of water is
(A) 2.2 kg
(B) 1.5 kg
(C) 3.2 kg
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 203

Plywood is made from
(A) Common timber
(B) Bamboo fibre
(C) Teak wood only
(D) Asbestos sheets
Answer: Option C
Question No. 204

A 1st class brick immersed in water for 24 hours, should not absorb water (by weight) more than
(A) 10 %
(B) 15 %
(C) 20 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option C
Question No. 205

The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain edges or to obtain stones of required size and
shape is known as
(A) Quarrying of stones
(B) Blasting of stones
(C) Seasoning of stones
(D) Dressing of stones
Answer: Option D
Question No. 206

The hardest rock is
(A) Marble
(B) Diamond
(C) Talc
(D) Quartz
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Answer: Option B
Question No. 207

Wrought iron is used for
(A) Structural works in beams
(B) Small sized water pipes
(C) Columns and struts
(D) None to these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 208

(A) Corrugated sheet iron is made by passing plain sheets between grooved rollers
(B) Strength and stiffness of corrugated sheets are considerably increased
(C) Corrugated sheets are generally used on slanting roofs
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 209

The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as
(A) Kneading
(B) Moulding
(C) Pugging
(D) Drying
Answer: Option A
Question No. 210

The type of steel used for precision levelling staff, is
(A) Titanium steel
(B) Carbon steel
(C) Invar
(D) Stainless steel
Answer: Option C
Question No. 211

Formula for quick lime, is
(A) CaCO3
(B) Ca(OH)2
(C) CO3CO2
(D) None to these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 212

The process of decarbonising the pig iron completely and then adding proper percentage of carbon
for manufacturing steel, is called
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Answer: Option A
Question No. 213

The maximum quantity of calcium chloride used as an accelerator in cement in percentage by
weight of cement is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option B
Question No. 214

Which one of the following polymers is obtained from condensation polymerization?
(A) Phenol formaldehyde
(B) Carbamide
(C) Melamine-formaldehyde
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 215

The portion of a brick cut to form angles other than right angles in plan, is known as
(A) Queen closer
(B) King closer
(C) Closer
(D) Squint brick
Answer: Option D
Question No. 216

The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is
(A) 4 % to 6 %
(B) 10 % to 12 %
(C) 15 % to 20 %
(D) 100 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 217

The cement becomes unsound by the presence of excess
(A) Sulphur
(B) Magnesia
(C) Lime
(D) All of these
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 218

For one cubic metre of brick masonry, number of bricks required, is
(A) 400
(B) 425
(C) 450
(D) 500
Answer: Option D
Question No. 219

Rapid hardening cement contains
(B) Tri-calcium aluminate
(C) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite
Answer: Option A
Question No. 220

In order of increasing percentage of silica, the correct sequence is
(A) Sandy clay, calcareous clay, pure clay
(B) Calcareous clay, pure clay, sandy clay
(C) Pure clay, sandy clay, calcareous clay
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 221

Which of the following timbers is suitable for making sports goods?
(A) Mulberry
(B) Mahogany
(C) Sal
(D) Deodar
Answer: Option A
Question No. 222

The stones obtained by blasting are used as
(A) Ballast in railways
(B) Aggregates for concrete
(C) Road metal
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 223

(A) Acid test is done to find out the weathering quality of stones
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(B) Attrition test is done to find out the rate of wear of stones which are used in road
construction
(C) Crushing test is done to find out the compressive strength of the stone
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 224

Mastic asphalt is
(A) Water proof
(B) Fire proof
(C) Elastic
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 225

(A) Lime is available in Free State
(B) Lime is available by dissolving calcium carbonate in water
(C) Lime is available by calcining calcium carbonate at 900°C
(D) Lime is nothing but calcium chloride
Answer: Option C
Question No. 226

The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on
(A) Bottom face
(B) Top face
(C) Shorter side
(D) Longer side
Answer: Option B
Question No. 227

(A) Roasting is not necessary if iron ore is an oxide
(B) Impurities float on the molten iron as slag
(C) The slag contains lime about 45%
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 228

For obtaining vinyl chloride acetate, the method used, is
(A) Addition polymerization
(B) Condensation polymerization
(C) Co-polymerization
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 229

Whitworth compressed steel is obtained when molten steel is subjected to a pressure of
(A) 5 kg/mm2
(B) 9 kg/mm2
(C) 13 kg/mm2
(D) 15 kg/mm2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 230

The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about
(A) 10 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 30 %
(D) 40 %
Answer: Option C
Question No. 231

Lacquer is
(A) Oil paint
(B) Distemper
(C) Spirit varnish
(D) None to these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 232

Plaster of Paris is obtained by calcining
(A) Bauxite
(B) Gypsum
(C) Lime stone
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 233

(A) The lime in excess makes the cement unsound and causes the cement to expand and
disintegrate
(B) The silica in excess makes the cement stronger but its setting time also increases
(C) The excess amount of alumina weakens the cement
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 234

Priming consists of
(A) One part of white lead, 8 parts of chalk and four parts of twice boiled linseed oil
(B) 8 parts of white lead, one part of chalk and four parts of twice boiled linseed oil
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(C) One part of white lead, 8 parts of chalk and one part of linseed oil
(D) None to these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 235

The coefficient of hardness of stones used in road work should be greater than
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 17
Answer: Option D
Question No. 236

Manganese steels
(A) Are non-magnetic
(B) Possess high electrical resistance
(C) Possess low coefficient of expansion
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 237

The most commonly used base for timber painting, is
(A) Red lead
(B) Zinc white
(C) White lead
(D) Titanium white
Answer: Option C
Question No. 238

(A) Adding 5% to 6% of moisture content by weight, increases the volume of dry sand from 18%
to 38%
(B) The bulking of fine sand is more than that of coarse sand
(C) If the percentage content of moisture exceeds 10%, increase in bulk of sand starts increasing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 239

(A) For thin structures subjected to wetting and drying, the water cement ratio should be 0.45
(B) For mass concrete structures subjected to wetting and drying, the water ratio should be 0.55
(C) For thin structures which remain continuously under water, the water-cement ratio by
weight should be 0.55
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 240

Quartzite is a
(A) Metamorphic rock
(B) Argillaceous rock
(C) Calcareous rock
(D) Siliceous rock
Answer: Option D
Question No. 241

The plastics made from cellulose resin
(A) Are as clear as glass
(B) Are tough and strong
(C) Possess excellent electrical properties
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 242

Polymerization helps to improve the property of
(A) Strength
(B) Rigidity
(C) Elasticity
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 243

For filling cracks in masonry structures, the type of bitumen used, is
(A) Cut-back bitumen
(B) Bitumen-emulsion
(C) Blown bitumen
(D) Plastic bitumen
Answer: Option D
Question No. 244

Expanded metal is
(A) Manufactured from steel sheets
(B) Used for reinforced concrete in road pavements
(C) Measured in term of SWM (short way mesh) and LWM (long way mesh)
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 245

Pick up the plutonic rock from the following:
(A) Granite
(B) Dolerite
(C) Basalt
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option A
Question No. 246

The portion of the brick without a triangular corner equal to half the width and half the length, is
called
(A) Closer
(B) Queen closer
(C) King closer
(D) Squint brick
Answer: Option C
Question No. 247

Cement is said to be of good quality if
(A) Its colour is not greenish grey
(B) One feels cool by thrusting one's hand in the cement bag
(C) A handful of cement thrown into a bucket of water does not float
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 248

The silica is used for preparing
(A) Silica bricks
(B) Coke oven
(C) Lining for glass furnaces
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 249

The timber having maximum resistance against white ants, is obtained from
(A) Chir
(B) Shishum
(C) Sal
(D) Teak
Answer: Option B
Question No. 250

Duco is one of the patent forms of
(A) Emulsion paints
(B) Plastic paints
(C) Bituminous paints
(D) Cellulose paints
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 251

Quartzite, a metamorphic stone is
(A) Hard
(B) Brittle
(C) Crystalline
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 252

If water required for 1 bag of cement is 30 litres, the water cement ratio is:
(A) 0.40
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.60
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 253

A piece of timber whose thickness and width are respectively 5 cm and 10 cm is called
(A) Slate
(B) Plank
(C) Board
(D) Strip
Answer: Option D
Question No. 254

The percentage of water for normal consistency, is
(A) 5% to 15%
(B) 10% to 25%
(C) 15% to 25%
(D) 20% to 30%
Answer: Option C
Question No. 255

(A) The baked earth is called terra-cotta
(B) The articles prepared from clay which is burnt at low temperature and cooled down slowly,
are called earthen-ware
(C) The articles prepared from refractory clays which as mixed with stone and crushed pottery,
are called stone ware
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 256

In a rock calcium carbonate predominates. State whether it is:
(A) Siliceous rock
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(C) Calcareous rock
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 257

The cracks which extend from bark towards the sap wood in the cross section of a tree, are called
(A) Radial shakes
(B) Star shakes
(C) Heart shakes
(D) Cup shakes
Answer: Option B
Question No. 258

The steel used for rails under heavy traffic and on sharp curves, is
(A) Nickel steel
(B) Chrome steel
(C) Manganese steel
(D) Vanadium steel
Answer: Option C
Question No. 259

The steel used in R.C.C. work is
(A) Stainless steel
(B) Mild steel
(C) High carbon steel
(D) Wrought iron
Answer: Option B
Question No. 260

Pick up the rock which is not a sedimentary rock from the following:
(A) Gravel
(B) Sand stone
(C) Gypsum
(D) Dolerite
Answer: Option D
Question No. 261

Acrylic is the name of
(A) Cellulose resin
(B) Alkyd resin
(C) Methyl methacrylate
(D) Cumarone-indene
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 262

The PVC doors and windows are preferred as they are
(A) Rust proof
(B) Rot proof
(C) Water proof
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 263

The sequence of refractory materials according to increasing melting points is:
(A) Dolomite, Magnesia, Bauxite, Chromites
(B) Bauxite, Chromites, Dolomite, Magnesia
(C) Magnesia, Bauxite, Dolomite, Chromites
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 264

Upto a maximum of 72% of iron, is available in
(A) Magnetite
(B) Limonite
(C) Siderite
(D) Iron pyrites
Answer: Option A
Question No. 265

The melting point of silica is:
(A) 1570°C
(B) 1630°C
(C) 1730°C
(D) 1850°C
Answer: Option C
Question No. 266

Lime stones are generally known as
(A) Aqueous rocks
(B) Sedimentary rocks
(C) Stratified rocks
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 267

Stones used for rubble masonry must be
(A) Soft
(B) Hard
(C) Light
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(D) Heavy
Answer: Option B
Question No. 268

The property by virtue of which lime sets under water, is known as
(A) Slacking
(B) Setting
(C) Hydraulicity
(D) Calcining
Answer: Option C
Question No. 269

Porcelain is used as:
(A) Sanitary wares
(B) Electric insulators
(C) Storage vessels
(D) Reactor chambers
Answer: Option D
Question No. 270

The lime which contains high percentage of calcium oxide, is generally called
(A) Fat lime
(B) Rich lime
(C) White lime
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 271

Second class bricks
(A) Are of dark brown colour
(B) Produce a metallic sound when struck
(C) Are well burnt
(D) Are under burnt
Answer: Option B
Question No. 272

Wrought iron contains carbon upto
(A) 0.25 %
(B) 1.0 %
(C) 1.5 %
(D) 2 %
Answer: Option A
Question No. 273

The variety of pig iron used for manufacture of wrought iron, is
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(A) Bessemer pig

(C) White forge pig
(D) Mottled pig
Answer: Option C
Question No. 274

Kaolin is chemically classified as
(C) Calcareous rock
(D) Siliceous rock
Answer: Option B
Question No. 275

Sewer pipes are made of
(A) Earthen ware
(B) Stone ware
(C) Refractory clay
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 276

The process of manufacturing steel by heating short lengths of wrought iron bars mixed with
charcoal in fire clay crucibles and collecting the molten iron into moulds, is known as
Answer: Option B
Question No. 277

The rock generally used for roofing, is
(A) Granite
(B) Basalt
(C) Slate
(D) Pumice
Answer: Option C
Question No. 278

The lime which contains mainly calcium oxide and slacks with water, is
(A) Fat lime
(B) Quick lime
(C) Hydraulic lime
(D) Poor lime
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Answer: Option B
Question No. 279

The standard size of masonry bricks, is
(A) 18 cm × 8 cm × 8 cm
(B) 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
(C) 20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
(D) 21 cm × 11 cm × 11 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 280

The proportions of charcoal, saltpetre and sulphur in gun powder by weight, are respectively:
(A) 15, 75, 10
(B) 75, 10, 15
(C) 10, 15, 75
(D) 10, 75, 15
Answer: Option A
Question No. 281

Knots in timber are
(A) Defects caused by crushing fibres
(B) Splits radiating from the centre
(C) Speckled strains
(D) Signs of branches cut off
Answer: Option D
Question No. 282

Pick up correct statement from the following:
(A) Fibre boards are used for thermal and acoustic control
(B) Fibre boards are used for light weight standing members
(C) Fibre boards are obtained by impregnating a resin product on fibres
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 283

Portland cement manufactured from pure white chalk and clay but free from iron-oxide, is known
as
(A) Quick setting cement
(B) Rapid hardening cement
(C) White cement
(D) Low heat Portland cement
Answer: Option C
Question No. 284

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(A) Slaked lime contains calcium hydroxide

(B) Quick lime contains calcium oxide
(C) Slaked lime may be obtained from quick lime
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 285

The minimum compressive strength of 1st class bricks should be
(A) 75 kg/cm2
(B) 90 kg/cm2
(C) 100 kg/cm2
(D) 120 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 286

The cast iron when heated to red heat with powdered red haematite in an oven for increasing its
toughness, is converted to
(A) Grey cast iron
(B) White cast iron
(C) Mottled cast iron
(D) Toughed cast iron
Answer: Option C
Question No. 287

A well seasoned timber may contain moisture up to
(A) 4 to 6 %
(B) 6 to 8 %
(C) 8 to 10 %
(D) 10 to 12 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 288

The usual percentages of clay and metal in cermet are:
(A) 50%, 50%
(B) 60%, 40%
(C) 70%, 30%
(D) 80%, 20%
Answer: Option D
Question No. 289

(A) The plastic bottles are made by the process of blowing
(B) The application of thermo-setting resins on sheets of paper, is called laminating process
(C) The plastic articles made by placing raw material in the desired moulds, is known as
moulding process
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 290

The specific gravity of marble, is
(A) 2.50
(B) 2.60
(C) 2.66
(D) 2.72
Answer: Option D
Question No. 291

Plastic asphalt is
(A) Used as a water proofing layer over roof
(B) A mixture of cement and asphalt
(C) A natural asphalt
(D) A refinery product
Answer: Option B
Question No. 292

(A) Rusting is caused due to combined action of air, moisture and carbon dioxide
(B) During rusting, first ferrous bicarbonates are formed
(C) On further oxidation ferrous bicarbonates get converted to ferric bicarbonates
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 293

The commonly used base for iron and steel work, is
(A) Red lead
(B) Zinc white
(C) White lead
(D) Titanium white
Answer: Option A
Question No. 294

For high grade instruments the steel preferred to, is
(A) Cast steel
(B) Bessemer steel
(C) Mild steel
(D) Whitworth compressed steel
Answer: Option A
Question No. 295

Bitumen felt is used for
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(A) Water proofing

(B) Damp proofing
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 296

The most important constituent of an oil paint, is
(A) Thinner
(B) Vehicle
(C) Pigment
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 297

Acrylic sheets
(A) Possess 10 to 17 times greater breakage resistance than that of glass of equivalent thickness
(B) Are generally unaffected by most household detergents
(C) Possess the light transmission rate of 93%
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 298

Brass is an alloy of
(A) Copper and zinc
(B) Zinc and lead
(C) Tin and silver
(D) Zinc and nickel
Answer: Option A
Question No. 299

Pick up the polymineralic rock from the following:
(A) Quartz sand
(B) Pure gypsum
(C) Magnesite
(D) Granite
Answer: Option D
Question No. 300

Pick up the hypabyssal rock from the following:
(A) Granite
(B) Dolerite
(C) Basalt
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 301

The rocks formed by gradual deposition, are called
(B) Igneous rocks
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 302

Plastic
(A) Is an organic substance
(B) Consists of natural or synthetic binders
(C) Finished products are rigid and stable at normal temperature
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 303

Apiece of sawn timber whose cross-sectional dimensions exceed 5 cm, in one direction and 20 cm
in the other direction, is called a
(A) Cant
(B) Deal
(C) Baulk
(D) Strip
Answer: Option C
Question No. 304

Rocks formed due to alteration of original structure due to heat and excessive pressure are called
(B) Igneous rocks
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 305

Geologically, marble is known as
(B) Igneous rock
(C) Metamorphic rock
(D) Stratified rock
Answer: Option C
Question No. 306

Iron ore may contain
(A) Carbon
(B) Silicon
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(C) Phosphorus and manganese

(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 307

(A) Plastics are chemical resistant
(B) Plastics are durable
(C) Plastics are ductile
(D) Plastics are excellent electric insulators
Answer: Option C
Question No. 308

The cracks caused by shrinkage of the exterior surface of the wood exposed to atmosphere, are
called:
(A) Radial shakes
(B) Heart shakes
(C) Wind cracks
(D) Twisted fibres
Answer: Option C
Question No. 309

Pig iron is manufactured from the ores by
(A) Dressing
(B) Calcination and roasting
(C) Smelting
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 310

(A) The plywoods do not split or crack due to changes in atmosphere
(B) The commercial plywoods are available upto 150 cm wide and upto 300 cm long
(C) The plywoods possess uniform tensile strength in all directions
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 311

Jhumb bricks are
(A) Under burnt
(B) Over burnt
(C) Kutcha
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 312

(A) Steel produced by open hearth process is milder than that obtained by the Bessemer
process
(B) Engineers prefer open hearth steel for structural purpose as it is more homogenous
(C) Basic Bessemer process is suitable for converting poor ore containing a large proportion of
sulphur and phosphorus into steel
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 313

Refractory bricks resist
(A) High temperature
(B) Chemical action
(C) Dampness
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 314

The thermosetting plastic
(A) Becomes rigid when moulded at suitable pressure and temperature
(B) At 127°C to 177°C permanently set and further application of heat does not soften it
(C) Chars at 343°C
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 315

Commonly used thinner in
(A) Lacquer paints, is alcohol
(B) Cellulose paints is ethyl acetate
(C) Oil paints, is naphtha
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 316

The curved swellings from the growth of layers or wounds left after branches are cut off in an
irregular manner are known as
(A) Knots
(B) Rindgalls
(C) Burls
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 317

Bitumen completely dissolves in
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(A) Carbon bisulphide

(B) Chloroform
(C) Coal tar
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 318

A stone is rejected if it absorbs water more than
(A) 5 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 20 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 319

The most commonly used synthetic abrasive is
(A) Aluminium carbide
(B) Boric acid
(C) Silicon
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 320

During smelting process, the combination of fuel in the furnace
(A) Forms carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon dioxide with carbon forms carbon mono-oxide
(C) Carbon mono-oxide reacts with Fe2O3 to form iron and liberates CO2
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 321

According to ISI, bitumen is classified into
(A) 2 grades
(B) 4 grades
(C) 8 grades
(D) 10 grades
Answer: Option D
Question No. 322

Basalt is
(C) Extrusive igneous rock
(D) Intrusive igneous rock
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 323

The size of mould for bricks, is generally kept
(A) A little large to specified size
(B) A little small to specified size
(C) Equal to specified size
(D) 10% larger than specified size
Answer: Option A
Question No. 324

For construction of structures under water, the type of lime used, is
(A) Hydraulic lime
(B) Fat lime
(C) Quick lime
(D) Pure lime
Answer: Option A
Question No. 325

French polish is
(A) Oil paint
(B) Distemper
(C) Spirit varnish
(D) None to these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 326

Ultimate strength to cement is provided by
(B) Di-calcium silicate
Answer: Option B
Question No. 327

Wrought iron contains carbon about
(A) 1.5% to 5.5%
(B) 0.5% to 1.75%
(C) 0.1% to 0.25%
(D) None to these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 328

Galvanising means covering iron with a thin coat of
(A) Tin
(B) Zinc
(C) Glaze
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(D) Coal tar

Answer: Option B
Question No. 329

The rocks in which argil (or clay) predominates, are called
(A) Siliceous rocks
(B) Argillaceous rocks
(C) Calcareous rocks
(D) Igneous rocks
Answer: Option B
Question No. 330

Name the type of cement from the following for canal linings:
(A) Sulphate resisting cement
(C) Quick setting cement
(D) Pozzolana cement
Answer: Option A
Question No. 331

Seasoning is
(A) A process of removing sap
(B) Creosoting
(C) Painting with sodium silicate
(D) Coating with tar
Answer: Option A
Question No. 332

Soundness test of cement determines
(A) Quality of free lime
(B) Ultimate strength
(C) Durability
(D) Initial setting
Answer: Option A
Question No. 333

Turpentine oil is used in paints as
(A) Thinner
(B) Vehicle
(C) Base
(D) Drier
Answer: Option A
Question No. 334

Stucco paints are suitable for
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(A) Stone masonry

(B) Brick walls
Answer: Option C
Question No. 335

Stones used for ornamental work must be
(A) Soft
(B) Hard
(C) Light
(D) Heavy
Answer: Option A
Question No. 336

Lime stone is not a
(B) Stratified rock
(C) Aqueous rock
Answer: Option D
Question No. 337

(A) The heating of a material to redness in contact with air, is known as calcination
(B) The property of lime by which it sets or hardens in damp places having no free circulation of
air is called setting
(C) The product that remains after calcination of limestone, is called lime
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 338

(A) The average crushing strength of hand moulded bricks is 6000 t/m2
(B) The average tensile strength of hand moulded brick is 200 t/m2
(C) The average shearing strength of hand moulded brick is 600 t/m2
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 339

Snowcrete is one of the patent forms of
(A) Distempers
(B) Water proof cement paints
(C) Enamel paints
(D) Cellulose paints
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Answer: Option B
Question No. 340

Cast iron is used for
(A) Structural works in beams
(D) None to these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 341

(A) The percentage of absorption for firebricks varies from 5 to 10
(B) The percentage of silica in silica bricks is to the extent of about 95 to 97 percent
(C) Roughly 1 to 2 percent of lime in silica bricks is added to act as binding material
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 342

Good quality cement contains higher percentage of
Answer: Option A
Question No. 343

Laterite is a/an
(A) Volcanic rock
(C) Calcareous rock
(D) Siliceous rock
Answer: Option B
Question No. 344

Seasoning of timber is essential to remove
(A) Knots from timber
(B) Sap from timber
(C) Twisted fibre from timber
(D) Roughness of timber
Answer: Option B
Question No. 345

The term frog means
(A) An apparatus to lift the stone
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(B) A depression on a face of brick

(C) Vertical joint in a brick work
(D) Soaking brick in water
Answer: Option B
Question No. 346

The presence of sand in brick earth prevents:
(A) Cracking of bricks
(B) Shrinkage of bricks
(C) Warping of bricks
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 347

Refractory bricks are
(A) Neutral refractory bricks
(B) Acid refractory bricks
(C) Basic refractory bricks
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 348

A prime coat is given to steel work with
(A) An oxide of iron paint
(B) A mixture of white lead and lead paint
(C) A special paint
(D) Cement paint
Answer: Option B
Question No. 349

Teak wood is suitable for
(A) Sports articles
(B) Furnitures
(C) Railway sleepers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 350

Elastomers can extend upto
(A) Five times their original dimensions
(B) Seven times their original dimensions
(C) Ten times their original dimensions
(D) Three times their original dimensions
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 351

Bitumen in
(A) Solid state, is called asphalt
(B) Semi fluid state, is called mineral tar
(C) Fluid state, is called petroleum
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 352

Varnish is a transparent or semi-transparent solution of resinous substances in
(A) Alcohol
(B) Linseed
(C) Turpentine
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 353

Refractory bricks are used for
(A) Retaining walls
(B) Columns
(C) Piers
(D) Combustion chambers
Answer: Option D
Question No. 354

Minimum required water cement ratio for a workable concrete, is
(A) 0.30
(B) 0.40
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.60
Answer: Option B
Question No. 355

Minimum of 40% of iron, is available in
(A) Magnetite
(B) Red haematite
(C) Limonite
(D) Black band
Answer: Option D
Question No. 356

Portland pozzolana cement possesses
(A) Higher resistance to chemical attack
(B) Lower heat of hydration
(C) Lower shrinkage on drying
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 357

Dextrin is
(A) Animal glue
(B) Starch glue
(C) Albumin glue
(D) Rubber based adhesive
Answer: Option D
Question No. 358

Mastic asphalt is normally used for
(A) Sound insulation
(B) Water proofing
(C) Fire proofing
(D) None to these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 359

The steel which contains fissures and cavities, is manufactured by
Answer: Option A
Question No. 360

Based on flow quality, the sequence of pipes is
(A) A.C. pipes, G.I. pipes, C.I. pipes, PVC pipes
(B) C.I. pipes, G.I. pipes, A.C. pipes, PVC pipes
(C) C.I. pipes, G.I. pipes, PVC pipes, A.C. pipes
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 361

(A) Hornblende mineral is brittle
(B) Muscovite is also known as white mica and potash mica
(C) Biotite is also known as black-mica
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 362

Good quality sand is never obtained from
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(A) River
(B) Lake
(C) Sea
(D) Gravel powder
Answer: Option C
Question No. 363

Lime mortar is generally made with
(A) Quick lime
(B) Fat lime
(C) Hydraulic lime
(D) Plain lime
Answer: Option C
Question No. 364

Pick up the compound responsible for early strength of cement from the following:
(A) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite
Answer: Option B
Question No. 365

Linseed oil is used in paints as
(A) Thinner
(B) Vehicle
(C) Base
(D) Drier
Answer: Option D
Question No. 366

Asphalt is obtained from
(A) Petroleum distillation
(B) Bitumen distillation
(C) Plastic distillation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 367

Percentage content of silica in window glass, is
(A) 40 to 45
(B) 50 to 55
(C) 60 to 65
(D) 70 to 75
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 368

Most commonly used solvent in oil paints, is
(A) Petroleum
(B) Spirit
(C) Coal tar
(D) Turpentine
Answer: Option A
Question No. 369

The harmonious mixing of the clay ingredients, is known as
(A) Weathering
(B) Blending
(C) Tempering
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 370

Bitumen felt
(A) Is used as water proofing material
(B) Is used as damp proofing material
(C) Is made from bitumen and hessian fibres
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 371

The initial setting time of lime-pozzolana, is
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 60 minutes
(C) 90 minutes
(D) 120 minutes
Answer: Option D
Question No. 372

The clay to be used for manufacturing bricks for a large project, is dugout and allowed to weather
throughout
(A) The monsoon
(B) The winter
(C) The summer
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 373

If the furnace is provided with insufficient fuel at low temperatures, the type of pig iron produced,
is called
(A) Bessemer pig
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(D) Mottled pig
Answer: Option C
Question No. 374

Depending on the chemical composition and mechanical properties, iron may be classified as
(A) Cast iron
(B) Wrought iron
(C) Steel
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 375

The main constituent of fly-ash, is
(A) Aluminium oxide
(B) Silica
(C) Ferrous oxide
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 376

Brittleness of cold is due to an excess of
(A) Sulphur
(B) Carbon
(C) Phosphorus
(D) Silicon
Answer: Option C
Question No. 377

Asbestos cement
(A) Is brittle
(B) Warps due to changes in humidity
(C) Strength is lowered when saturated by water
Answer: Option D
Question No. 378

Gneiss is obtained from
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Metamorphic rocks
(C) Sedimentary rocks
(D) Sedimentary metamorphic rocks
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 379

Fibre glass
(A) Retains heat-longer
(B) Has a higher strength to weight ratio
(C) Is shock proof and fire retardant
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 380

(A) The theory of formation of concrete is based on the phenomena of formation of voids
(B) The bulking of sand is taken into account while volumetric proportioning of the aggregates
(C) The dry sand and the sand completely flooded with water, have practically the same volume
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 381

The commonly used colour pigment in paints, is
(A) Ambers
(B) Carbon black
(C) Iron oxide
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 382

The variety of pig iron used for the manufacture of steel by Bessemer process, is
(A) Bessemer pig
(B) Grey pig
(C) White forge pig
(D) Mottled pig
Answer: Option A
Question No. 383

Vanadium steel is generally used for
(A) Railway switches and crossing
(B) Bearing balls
(C) Magnets
(D) Axles and springs
Answer: Option D
Question No. 384

A badly mixed cement concrete results in
(A) Segregation
(B) Bleeding
(C) Honey combing
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(D) None of these

Answer: Option C
Question No. 385

Chemically, marble is known as
(C) Calcareous rock
(D) Siliceous rock
Answer: Option C
Question No. 386

The filler used in plastic bitumen, is
(A) Shale powder
(B) Talc powder
(C) Asbestos powder
(D) Plastic powder
Answer: Option C
Question No. 387

Mastic asphalt is generally used for
(A) Damp proof course
(B) Water proof layer
(C) Partition walls
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 388

The most fire resistant paints are:
(A) Enamel paints
(B) Aluminium paints
(C) Asbestos paints
(D) Cement paints
Answer: Option C
Question No. 389

A pug mill is used for
(A) Softening brick earth
(B) Moulding brick earth
(C) Tempering brick earth
(D) Providing brick earth
Answer: Option C
Question No. 390

A good brick earth should contain:
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(A) About 20% to 30% of alumina

(B) About 50% to 60% of silica
(C) Not more than 5% of lime
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 391

The compound of Portland cement which contributes to the strength after two to three years is
(D) Tetra-calcium alumino ferrite
Answer: Option B
Question No. 392

Bessemer process is used for the manufacture of
(A) Pig iron
(B) Cast iron
(C) Wrought iron
(D) Steel
Answer: Option D
Question No. 393

Which one of the following is an air binding material?
(A) Gypsum
(B) Acid-resistant cement
(C) Quick lime
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 394

A good quality stone absorbs water less than
(A) 5 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option A
Question No. 395

The slag which floats on the surface of the molten iron generally contains
(A) Lime (CaO) 45%
(B) Silica (SiO2) 35%
(C) Alumina (Al2O3) 12% and MgO, CaSO4, KMnO2 and FeO 8%
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 396

For the manufacture of plywood, veneers are placed so that grains of adjacent veneers
(A) Run at right angles
(B) Parallel
(C) Inclined at 45°
(D) Inclined at 60°
Answer: Option A
Question No. 397

The commonly used drying oil for oil paints, is
(A) Olive oil
(B) Linseed oil
(C) Kerosene oil
(D) Acetate of lead
Answer: Option D
Question No. 398

Initial setting of cement is caused due to
Answer: Option C
Question No. 399

Wrought iron is manufactured from pig iron by
(A) Refining
(B) Pudding
(C) Shingling
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 400

Fibre boards can be
(A) Distempered
(B) Painted
(C) Painted and distempered
(D) Used for furniture
Answer: Option D
Question No. 401

Lime concrete is generally used for
(A) Wall foundations
(B) Flooring at ground level
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Answer: Option B
Question No. 402

Bituminous fells are used for
(A) Covering A.C. sheets
(B) Covering sloping roofs
(C) D.P.C.
(D) None to these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 403

Quick setting cement is produced by adding
(A) Less amount of gypsum in very fine powdered form
(B) More amount of gypsum in very fine powdered form
(C) Aluminium sulphate in very fine powdered form
(D) Pozzolana in very fine powdered form
Answer: Option C
Question No. 404

(A) The substance which consists of one primary chemical, is known as monomer
(B) The polymer consists of thousands of monomers joined together
(C) The polymer molecule is called macro-molecule
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 405

The normal curing period for lime mortar, is:
(A) 1 day
(B) 3 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 10 days
Answer: Option C
Question No. 406

German silver is an alloy of
(A) Zinc, lead and nickel
(B) Silver, gold and lead
(C) Copper, nickel and zinc
(D) Copper, brass and zinc
Answer: Option C
Question No. 407

For the manufacture of stainless steel, steel is mixed with
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(A) Chromium
(B) Nickel
(C) Tungsten
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 408

The presence of original rounded surface on the manufactured piece of timber, is called
(A) Wane
(B) Torn grain
(C) Diagonal grain
(D) Chipmark
Answer: Option A
Question No. 409

In paints, the pigment is responsible for
(A) Durability
(B) Colour
(C) Smoothness
(D) Glassy face
Answer: Option B
Question No. 410

The operation of removal of impurities or clay adhering to iron ores, is known as
(A) Dressing
(B) Calcination
(C) Roasting
(D) Smelting
Answer: Option A
Question No. 411

Dry rot
(A) Cracks the timber
(B) Reduces the strength of timber
(C) Reduces the timber to powder
(D) Spoils the appearance of timber
Answer: Option C
Question No. 412

Pozzolana (or surkhi) is used in lime
(A) To impart hydraulicity
(B) To prevent shrinkage
(C) To decrease the cost of construction
(D) To decrease the setting time
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 413

The size of modular bricks, is
(A) 10 × 10 × 9 cm
(B) 19 × 9 × 9 cm
(C) 22.5 × 10 × 8.5 cm
(D) 22.5 × 8.0 × 9 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 414

Plywood is obtained by gluing wooden sheets at
(A) 100 to 150 N/cm2
(B) 100 to 130°C
Answer: Option C
Question No. 415

The low voltage porcelain is mainly used for
(A) Switch block
(B) Insulating tubes
(C) Lamp sockets
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 416

The initial setting time of hydraulic lime, is
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 60 minutes
(C) 90 minutes
(D) 120 minutes
Answer: Option D
Question No. 417

PVC stands for
(A) Plastic very compact
(B) Polythene vinyl chloride
(C) Polythene vinyl carbon
(D) Polythene vanadium carbide
Answer: Option B
Question No. 418

Cement paints usually
(A) Contain hydrated lime
(B) Contain 5% to 10% colour pigments
(C) Contain 5% sodium chloride
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 419

The kiln which may work throughout the year, is
(A) Clamp
(B) Bull's kiln
(C) Hoffman's kiln
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 420

The main ingredient of a good quality brick earth, is
(A) Magnesia
(B) Lime
(C) Silica
(D) Alumina
Answer: Option D
Question No. 421

In stone masonry, stones (stratified rocks) are so placed that the direction of pressure to the plane
of bedding is
(A) Right angles
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) Parallel
Answer: Option A
Question No. 422

The most durable varnish is
(A) Water varnish
(B) Spirit varnish
(C) Turpentine varnish
(D) Oil varnish
Answer: Option D
Question No. 423

Softer variety of steel may be obtained by
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 424

Bitumen emulsion is
(A) A liquid containing bitumen in suspension
(B) A paint
(C) Used as anti-corrosive paint
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 425

Plastic bitumen is generally used for
(A) Road pavements
(B) Expansion joints
(C) Crack fillings
(D) None to these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 426

Asbestos is
(A) Corrugated sheet used for roofing
(B) An incombustible fire proof material
(C) An organic substance
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 427

The rocks which are formed due to pouring of magma at the earth's surface are called
(A) Plutonic rocks
(C) Volcanic rocks
(D) Igneous rocks
Answer: Option C
Question No. 428

Invar contains
(A) 12% of nickel
(B) 24% of nickel
(C) 30% to nickel
(D) 36% of nickel
Answer: Option D
Question No. 429

Distemper is
(A) A paint consisting of powdered chalk, pigments and water
(B) A water proofing agent
(C) A paint consisting of coloured cement and water
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(D) A drying agent

Answer: Option A
Question No. 430

The compound of Portland cement which reacts immediately with water and also sets first is
Answer: Option C
Question No. 431

In arches, stratified stones are placed so that their planes are
(A) Parallel
(B) Perpendicular
(C) Radial
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 432

The fire clay contains pure
(A) Lime
(B) Oxide of iron
(C) Hydrated aluminium silicate
(D) Magnesium
Answer: Option C
Question No. 433

Pick up the correct characteristic of Pyroxene from the following:
(A) It forms octagonal crystals
(B) It converts to chlorine by hydration
(C) Its density is 2.3 to 3.6 g/cm2
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 434

The base material for distemper, is
(A) Chalk
(B) Lime
(C) Lime putty
(D) Cement wash
Answer: Option A
Question No. 435

Slacking of lime is affected by
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(A) Keeping it exposed to air

(B) Immersing the lime in water
(C) Crushing the lime lumps
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 436

Stones used for the construction of retaining walls must be
(A) Soft
(B) Hard
(C) Light
(D) Heavy
Answer: Option D
Question No. 437

Permanent magnets are made of high carbon steel and
(A) 15% of cobalt
(B) 20% of cobalt
(C) 35% of cobalt
(D) 45% of cobalt
Answer: Option D
Question No. 438

Stainless steel resists corrosion due to
(A) Carbon
(B) Sulphur
(C) Vanadium
(D) Chromium
Answer: Option D
Question No. 439

The most important constituent of varnish, is
(A) Drier
(B) Solvent
(C) Resin
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 440

A ferrous metal is
(A) Cast iron
(B) Wrought iron
(C) Steel
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 441

For making fly-ash building bricks, the following mix of fly-ash, sand and lime, is
(A) 80 : 13 : 7
(B) 70 : 20 : 10
(C) 60 : 35 : 5
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 442

Water paint is a
(A) White wash
(B) Colour wash
(C) Whiting
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 443

Spirit varnish generally consists of
(A) Oil, wax and resin
(B) Alcohol, wax and turpentine
(C) Pigment and synthetic resin
(D) Spirit and shellac
Answer: Option D
Question No. 444

Duco paints are
(A) Plastic paints
(B) Cellulose paints
(C) Emulsion paints
(D) Oil paints
Answer: Option D
Question No. 445

(A) Melamine is obtained from calcium carbide
(B) Formaldehyde is prepared synthetically from methane
(C) The melamine when reacted with formaldehyde forms the melamine-formaldehyde resin
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 446

Steel contains carbon approximately
(A) 1.50% to 5.6%
(B) 0.05% to 1.75%
(C) 0.25 %
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(D) None to these

Answer: Option B
Question No. 447

Based on its dry weight, a freshly felled tree may contain water
(A) 25 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 75 %
(D) 100 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 448

Forge pig may be converted to wrought iron by
(A) Rolling
(B) Pudding
(C) Shingling
(D) Refining
Answer: Option B
Question No. 449

(A) Bull's trench kiln a trench excavated in ground
(B) Hoffman's kiln is constructed over ground
(C) Tunnel Kiln is constructed as a tunnel
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 450

The softest rock is
(A) Marble
(B) Diamond
(C) Talc
(D) Quartz
Answer: Option C
Question No. 451

Mild steel is used for
(A) Structural works in beams, joints and girders
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 452

The most valuable timber may be obtained from
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(A) Chir
(B) Shishum
(C) Sal
(D) Teak
Answer: Option D
Question No. 453

Mastic asphalt is
(A) Acid resisting material
(B) Non-corrosive material
(C) Corrosive material
(D) Heating-resisting material
Answer: Option B
Question No. 454

For lime concrete,
(A) Slump is 50 to 75 mm
(B) Flexural strength at 90 days is 0.2 N/mm2
(C) Compressive strength at 90 days is 1.5 N/mm2
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 455

The material generally not used as extender in paints, is
(A) Powdered silica
(B) Gypsum
(C) Talc
(D) Zinc white
Answer: Option D
Question No. 456

Pick up the non-inflammable plastic from the following:
(A) Cellulose acetate plastics
(B) Polyvinyl chloride plastics
(C) Phenol formaldehyde plastic
(D) Urea formaldehyde plastic
Answer: Option B
Question No. 457

For light and ornamental casting, the most unsuitable pig iron, is
(A) Bessemer pig
(D) Mottled pig
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 458

If the ore impurities is
(A) Clay, lime stone is used as flux
(B) Lime stone, clay is used as flux
(C) Quartz, lime stone and argillaceous iron ores are used as flux
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 459

The plastics prepared from Vinyl resin are
(A) Odourless
(B) Non-toxic
(C) Transparent
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 460

A rock contains only one mineral. It is called
(A) Homogeneous
(B) Non-homogeneous
(C) Monomineralic
(D) Polymineralic
Answer: Option C
Question No. 461

Pegmatite is a/an
(A) Intrusive igneous rock
(B) Extrusive igneous rock
(C) Sedimentary rock
Answer: Option A
Question No. 462

Dorry's testing machine is used for
(A) Crushing test of stone
(B) Hardness test of stone
(C) Impact test of stone
(D) Water absorption test
Answer: Option B
Question No. 463

Dolomite is a lime stone which contains carbonate of magnesia upto
(A) 15 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 25 %
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(D) 45 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 464

The portion of the brick cut across its width and having its length equal to that of a full brick, is
known as
(A) Closer
(B) Queen closer
(C) King closer
(D) Prince closer
Answer: Option B
Question No. 465

The minimum percentage of silica, alumina and ferric oxide in lime for white washing, is
(A) 20
(B) 15
(C) 5
(D) 0
Answer: Option D
Question No. 466

For a 50 kg cement bag water required, is
(A) 16.5 litres
(B) 18.5 litres
(C) 20.5 litres
(D) 22.5 litres
Answer: Option D
Question No. 467

Slump test for concrete is carried out, to determine
(A) Strength
(B) Durability
(C) Workability
(D) Water content
Answer: Option C
Question No. 468

The frog of a brick is normally made on its
(A) Top face
(B) Bottom face
(C) Longer face
(D) Shorter side
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 469

Granite mainly composed of quartz and feldspar particles, is obtained from
(C) Igneous rocks
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 470

Pig iron obtained from the furnace which is properly provided with fuel at a very high
temperature, is called
(A) Bessemer pig
(D) Mottled pig
Answer: Option B
Question No. 471

Pick up the metal refractory from the following:
(A) Molybdenum
(B) Tungsten
(C) Zirconium
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 472

With storage, strength of cement
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains the same
(D) None to these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 473

The commonly used raw material in the manufacture of cement, is
(A) Slate
(B) Sand stone
(C) Lime stone
(D) Basalt
Answer: Option C
Question No. 474

The rocks formed from molten magma, are called
(B) Igneous rocks
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 475

Bitumen paints offer
(A) Pleasing surface
(B) Hard surface
(C) Smooth surface
(D) Protective surface
Answer: Option D
Question No. 476

Ground glass
(A) Is made by grinding its one side
(B) Is made by melting powdered glass paints surface
(C) Is used for getting light without transparency
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 477

The wedging is adopted for quarrying costly stratified rock such as
(A) Laterite
(B) Marble
(C) Limestone
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 478

The colour of statuary marble used for sculptor's work, is
(A) Red
(B) Blue
(C) White
(D) Green
Answer: Option C
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Building Materials
(Section – 1)
1. In a mortar, the binding material is
A. cement B. Sand
C. surkhi D. cinder.
Answer: Option A
2. Lacquer paints
A. are generally applied on structural steel
B. are less durable as compared to enamel paints
C. consist of resin and nitro-cellulose
D. contain alcohol as thinner
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
3. Wrought iron contains carbon upto

A. 0.25% B. 1.0%
C. 1.5% D. 2%.
Answer: Option A
4. Pick up the polymineralic rock from the following:

A. Quartz sand
B. Pure gypsum
C. Magnesite
D. Granite
E. None of these.
Answer: Option D
5. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. For thin structures subjected to wetting and drying, the water cement ratio should be 0.45
For mass concrete structures subjected to wetting and drying, the water ratio should be
B.
0.55
For thin structures which remain continuously under water, the water-cement ratio by
C.
weight should be 0.55
For massive concrete structures which remain continuously under water, the water cement
D.
ratio by weight should be 0.65
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
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6. Ultimate strength to cement is provided by

A. Tricalcium silicate
B. Di-calcium silicate
C. Tri-calcium aluminate
D. Tetra calcium alumino ferrite.

Answer: Option B
7. Elastomers can extend upto

A. five times their original dimensions
B. seven times their original dimensions
C. ten times their original dimensions
D. three times their original dimensions.

Answer: Option C
8. Bitumen felt
A. is used as water proofing material
B. is used as damp proofing material
C. is made from bitumen and hessian fibres
D. all the above.

Answer: Option D
9. In the method of condensation polymerization,

A. low-molecular substances are removed from the high molecular substance
B. the reaction proceeds with an evolution of ammonia
C. the reaction proceeds with an evolution of hydrogen chloride
D. all the above.

Answer: Option D
10. In the cement the compound quickest to react with water, is

A. Tricalcium aluminate
B. Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite
C. Tricalcium silicate
D. Dicalcium silicate.
Answer: Option A
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11. The initial setting time of lime-pozzolona, is
A. 30 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 90 minutes
D. 120 minutes.
Answer: Option D
12. The clay to be used for manufacturing bricks for a large project, is dugout and allowed to
weather throughout
A. the monsoon
B. the winter
C. the summer
D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
13. The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at a considerable depth from earth's
surface are called
A. Plutonic rocks
B. Hypabyssal rocks
C. Volcanic rocks
D. Igneous rocks.
Answer: Option A
3
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14. Quartzite is a
A. metamorphic rock
B. argillaceous rock
C. calcareous rock
D. silicious rock.
Answer: Option D
15. The variety of pig iron used for manufacture of wrought iron, is
A. Bessemer pig
B. Grey or foundry pig
C. White forge pig
D. Mottled pig.
Answer: Option C
16. Sand stone is
A. sedimentary rock
B. metamorphic rock
C. igneous rock
D. volcanic rock.
Answer: Option A
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17. If the furnace is provided with insufficient fuel at low temperatures, the type of pig iron
produced, is called
A. Bessemer pig
C. White or forge pig
D. Mottled pig.
Answer: Option C
18. Stainless steel contains
A. 18% of chromuim and 8% nickel
B. 8% of chromium and 18% of nickel
C. 12% of chromium and 36% of nickel
D. 36% of chromium and 12% of nickel.
Answer: Option A
19. Pick up the hypabyssal rock from the following:
A. Granite
B. Dolerite
C. Basalt
D. All the above.
Answer: Option B
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20. Depending on the chemical composition and mechanical properties, iron may be classified
as
A. cast iron
B. wrought iron
C. steel
D. all the above.
Answer: Option B
21. Wrought iron contains carbon about
A. 1.5% to 5.5%
B. 0.5% to 1.75%
C. 0.1% to 0.25%
D. none to these.
Answer: Option C
22. The main constituent of fly-ash, is
A. aluminium oxide
B. silica
C. ferrous oxide
D. All of these.
Answer: Option D
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23. Bitumen in
A. solid state, is called asphalt
B. semi fluid state, is called mineral tar
C. fluid state, is called petroleum
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
24. The plastics made from cellulose resin
A. are as clear as glass
B. are tough and strong
C. possess excellent electrical properties
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D
25. Kaolin is chemically classified as
A. metamorphic rock
C. calcareous rock
D. silicious rock.
Answer: Option B
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26. Which one of the following is acid resistant asbestos:
A. actinolite asbestos
B. amosite asbestos
C. anthophylite asbestos
D. crocidolite asbestos
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
27. Due to attack of dry rot, the timber
A. cracks
B. shrinks
C. reduces to powder
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
28. Brittleness of cold is due to an excess of
A. sulphur B. carbon
C. phosphorus D. silicon.
Answer: Option C
29. For the manufacture of Portland cement, the proportions of raw materials used, are
A. lime 63% ; silica 22% ; other ingredients 15%
B. lime 22% ; silica 63% ; other ingredients 15%
C. silica 40% ; lime 40% ; other ingredients 20%
D. silica 70% ; lime 20% ; other ingredients 10%.
Answer: Option A
8
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30. Asbestos cement
A. is brittle
B. warps due to changes in humidity
C. strength is lowered when saturated by water
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
31. Gniess is obtained from
A. igneous rocks
B. metamorphic rocks
C. sedimentary rocks
D. sedimentary metamorphic rocks.
Answer: Option D
32. The rocks formed by gradual deposition, are called
A. sedimentary rocks
B. igneous rocks
C. metamorphic rocks
D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
9
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33. Galvanising means covering iron with a thin coat of
A. tin
B. zinc
C. glaze
D. coal tar.
Answer: Option B
34. For preparing porcelains, the clay should be
A. sufficiently pure
B. of high degree of tanacity
C. of good plasticity
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D
35. Polymerization helps to improve the property of
A. strength
B. rigidity
C. elasticity
D. all of these.
Answer: Option D
10
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36. Good quality stones must
A. be durable
B. be free from clay
C. resist action of acids
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
37. Sewer pipes are made of
A. earthen ware
B. stone ware
C. refractory clay
D. terracota
E. all the above.
Answer: Option B
38. Fibre glass
A. retains heat-longer
B. has a higher strength to weight ratio
C. is shock proof and fire retardent
D. does not decay
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
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The theory of formation of concrete is based on the phenomena of formation of

A.
voids
The bulking of sand is taken into account while volumetric proportioning of the
B.
aggregates
The dry sand and the sand completely flooded with water, have practically the
C.
same volume
The expansion and contraction joints are provided if concrete structures exceed
D.
12 m in length
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
A. In stone arches, the stones are placed with their natural beds radial
B. In cornices, the stones are placed with their natural beds as vertical
C. In stone walls, the stones are placed with their natural beds as horizontal
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D
41. The commonly used colour pigment in paints, is
A. ambers
B. carbon black
C. iron oxide
D. lamp black
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
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42. Varnish is a transparent or semi-transparent solution of resinuous substances in
A. alcohol
B. linseed
C. turpentine
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
43. Initial setting time of cement for asbestos cement products should be not less than
A. 30 minutes
B. 50 minutes
C. 75 minutes
D. 90 minutes.
Answer & Explanation
Answer: Option D
44. The variety of pig iron used for the manufacture of steel by Bessemer process, is
A. Bessemer pig
B. Grey pig
C. White forge pig
D. Mottled pig.
Answer: Option A
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45. For melting one tonne of cast iron
A. 700 m3 air is required
B. 20 kg limestone is required
C. one quintal coke is required
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
46. For filling cracks in masonry structures, the type of bitumen used, is
A. cut-back bitumen
B. bitumen-emulsion
C. blown bitumen
D. plastic bitumen.
Answer: Option D
47. Plastic
A. is an organic substance
B. consists of natural or synthetic binders
C. finished products are rigid and stable at normal temperature
D. is capable of flow when necessary heat and pressure are applied
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
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48. Vanadium steel is generally used for
A. railway switches and crossing
B. bearing balls
C. magnets
D. axles and springs.
Answer: Option D
A. In basic Bessemer process, the steel heats the converter
B. In open-hearth process, the furnace heats the steel
In Siemens process, the impurities of pig iron are oxidised by the oxygen of the
C.
ore
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
50. The process of manufacturing steel by heating short lengths of wrought iron bars mixed
with charcoal in fire clay crucibles and collecting the molten iron into moulds, is known as
A. Cementation process
B. Crucible process
C. Bessemer process
D. Open hearth process.
Answer: Option B
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Building Materials
(Section – 2)
1. The rocks in which argil (or clay) predominates, are called
A. sillicious rocks
B. argillaceous rocks
C. calcareous rocks
D. igneous rocks.
Answer: Option B
2. A badly mixed cement concrete results in
A. segregation
B. bleeding
C. honey combing
D. none to these.
Answer: Option C
3. Pick up the correct statement regarding low heat cement from the following:
A. It possesses less compressive strength
B. Its initial setting time is about one hour
C. Its final setting time is about 10 hours
D. Its mainly used for mass concrete work
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
4. Chemically, marble is known as

A. metamorphic rock
C. calcareous rock
D. silicious rock.
Answer: Option C
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5. Inner part of a timber log surrounding the pitch, is called
A. sapwood
B. cambium layer
C. heart wood
D. none to these.
Answer: Option C
6. The filler used in plastic bitumen, is
A. shale powder
B. talc powder
C. asbestos powder
D. plastic powder
E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
7. Resins are
A. not soluble in water
B. soluble in spirit
C. used in varnishes
D. left behind on evaporation of oil
E. all the above.
Answer: Option C
8. Refractory bricks are used for
A. retaining walls
B. columns
C. piers
D. combustion chambers.
Answer: Option D
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9. Expanded metal is
A. manufactured from steel sheets
B. used for reinforced concrete in road pavements
measured in term of SWM (shortway mesh) and LWM (long way

C.
mesh)
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
10. The rock generally used for roofing, is
A. granite B. basalt
C. slate D. pumice.
Answer: Option C
11. Apiece of sawn timber whose cross-sectional dimensions exceed 5 cm, in one
direction and 20 cm in the other direction, is called a
A. cant B. deal
C. baulk D. strip.
Answer: Option C
12. Quick lime (or caustic lime)
A. is obtained by the calcination of pure lime stone
B. has great affinity to moisture
C. is amorphous
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D
A. soft stones are required for carving
B. light stones are required for arches
C. hard stones are required to stand high pressure
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D. All the above.
Answer: Option D
14. Name the type of cement from the following for canal linings :
A. sulphate resisting cement
B. rapid hardening cement
C. quick setting cement
D. pozzuolana cement.
Answer: Option A
15. Mastic asphalt is generally used for
A. damp proof course
B. water proof layer
C. partition walls
D. both (a) and (b).

Answer: Option D
16. Black marble is generally found in the district of
A. Jodhpur B. Jaipur
C. Jabalpur D. Jaisalmer
E. Pune.
Answer: Option B
17. The most fire resistant paints are :
A. enamel paints
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B. aluminium paints
C. asbestos paints
D. cement paints.
Answer: Option C
18. If P is the percentage of water required for normal consistency, water to be

added for determination of initial setting time, is
A. 0.70 P
B. 0.75 P
C. 0.80 P
D. 0.85 P
E. 0.90 P.
Answer: Option D
19. A pug mill is used for
A. softening brick earth
B. moulding brick earth
C. tempering brick earth
D. providing brick earth
E. all the above.

Answer: Option C
20. A good brick earth should contain :
A. about 20% to 30% of alumina
B. about 50% to 60% of silica
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C. not more than 5% of lime
D. about 5 to 6% of oxide of lime
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
21. The commonly used lime in white washing, is
A. white lime
B. fat lime
C. hydraulic lime
D. lime
E. quick lime.
Answer: Option B
22. Shingle is
A. decomposed laterite
B. crushed granite
C. water bound pebbles
D. air weathered rock.

Answer: Option A
23. Pick up the plutonic rock from the following:
A. Granite
B. Dolerite
C. Basalt
D. All the above.

Answer: Option A
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24. The lime which contains mainly calcium oxide and slacks with water, is
A. fat lime
B. quick lime
C. hydraulic lime
D. poor lime
E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
25. Seasoning is
A. a process of removing sap
B. creosoting
C. painting with sodium silicate
D. coating with tar.

Answer: Option A
26. Inhaling of fly-ash over a long period causes
A. silicosis
B. fibrosis of lungs
C. bronchitis
D. pneumonitis
E. All of these.
Answer: Option E
27. Minimum required water cement ratio for a workable concrete, is
A. 0.30 B. 0.40
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C. 0.50 D. 0.60
E. 1.0.
Answer: Option B
28. Rocks formed due to alteration of original structure due to heat and excessive
pressure are called
B. igneous rocks
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
29. The compound of Portland cement which contributes to the strength after two to
three years is
C. Tricalcium aluminate
D. Tetracalcium alumino ferrite.

Answer: Option B
30. For slaking of 10 kg of CaO, the theoretical amount of water is
A. 2.2 kg
B. 1.5 kg
C. 3.2 kg
D. None of these.
Answer: Option C
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31. Pick up the correct statement from the following: Method of sawing timber
A. tangentially to annual rings, is known as tangential method.
in four quarters such that each board cuts annual rings at angles not
B.
less than 45°, is known as quarter sawing method.
cut out of quarter logs, parallel to the medullary rays and

C.
perpendicular to annual rings, is known as radial sawing.
D. all the above.

Answer: Option D
32. Clay and silt content in a good brick earth must be at least
A. 50% B. 40%
C. 30% D. 25%
E. 20%.
Answer: Option A
33. Bessemer process is used for the manufacture of
A. Pig iron
B. cast iron
C. Wrought iron
D. Steel.
Answer: Option D
34. The portion of the brick without a triangular corner equal to half the width and
half the length, is called
A. closer
B. queen closer
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C. king closer
D. squint brick.
Answer: Option C
35. The standard size of masonry bricks, is
A. 18 cm x 8 cm x 8 cm
B. 19 cm x 9 cm x 9 cm
C. 20 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm
D. 21 cm x 11 cm x 11 cm
E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
36. Which one of the following is an air binding material ?
A. Gypsum
B. Acid-resistant cement
C. Quick lime
D. All of these.
Answer: Option D
37. A good quality stone absorbs water less than
A. 5% B. 10%
C. 15% D. 20%
E. 25%.
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Answer: Option A
Alexander Parkes, a Scottish chemist prepared a hard material by

A. mixing camphor and alcohol with nitro cellulose and called it,
as Parkesite
Dr. L. Bakeland, a Belgian scientist prepared a product known as

B.
Bakelite
Pollark, an Austrian scientist prepared a substance from urea and

C.
formaldehyde and called it Plastic
D. All the above.

Answer: Option D
39. Plywood is made from
A. common timber
B. bamboo fibre
C. teak wood only
D. asbestos sheets.
Answer: Option C
40. Soundness test of cement determines
A. quality of free lime
B. ultimate strength
C. durability
D. initial setting
E. all the above.

Answer: Option A
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41. The slag which floats on the surface of the molten iron generally contains
A. Lime (CaO) 45%
B. Silica (SiO2) 35%
C. Alumina (Al2O3) 12%
D. MgO, CaSO4, KMnO2 and FeO 8%
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
42. Minimum of 40% of iron, is available in
A. Magnetite
B. Red haemetite
C. Limonite
D. Siderite
E. Black band.
Answer: Option E
43. If the iron ore contains clay as an impurity, the flux added during calcination, is
A. clay
B. lime stone
C. argillaceous iron ore
D. all the above.

Answer: Option B
44. Cement is said to be of good quality if
A. its colour is not greenish grey
B. one feels cool by thrusting one's hand in the cement bag
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C. it is not smooth when rubbed in between fingers
D. a handful of cement thrown into a bucket of water does not float
E. none of these.
Answer: Option E
45. Cast steel is manufactured by
B. Crucible process
C. Bessemer process

Answer: Option B
46. For the manufacture of plywood, veneers are placed so that grains of adjacent
veneers
A. run at right angles
B. parallel
C. inclined at 45°
D. inclined at 60°.
Answer: Option A
47. A 1st class brick immersed in water for 24 hours, should not absorb water (by
weight) more than
A. 10% B. 15%
C. 20% D. 25%
E. 5%.
Answer: Option C
48. The proportions of charcoal, saltpetre and sulphur in gun powder by weight, are
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respectively:
A. 15, 75, 10
B. 75, 10, 15
C. 10, 15, 75
D. 10, 75, 15.

Answer: Option A
49. Geologically, marble is known as
A. sedimentary rock
B. igneous rock
C. metamorphic rock
D. stratified rock.
Answer: Option C
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Building Materials
(Section – 3)
1. The commonly used drying oil for oil paints, is
A. olive oil
B. linseed oil
C. kerosine oil
D. accetate of lead.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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2. Initial setting of cement is caused due to

A. Tri-calcium silicate

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
3. The foliated structure is very common in

B. igneous rocks
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
4. Turpentine oil is used in paints as

A. thinner B. vehicle
C. base D. drier.
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Answer: Option D
Explanation:
5. The hardest rock is

A. marble B. diamond
C. talc D. quartz.
Answer: Option B
6. The silica is used for preparing

A. silica bricks
B. coke oven
C. lining for glass furnaces
D. all of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
7. Wrought iron is manufactured from pig iron by

A. refining
B. pudding
C. shingling
D. rolling
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:

A. The phenol is carbolic acid
B. The phenol is either extracted from coal-tar or prepared from benzene
C. Phenol reacts with formaldehyde, to form phenol formaldehyde resin
D. The plastics prepared from phenol-formaldehyde are used for paints,
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varnishes, w.c. seats
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
9. Fibre boards can be

A. distempered
B. painted
C. painted and distempered
D. used for furniture.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

A. Catalysts are added to assist and accelerate the hardening of resin,
B. The fillers are inert materials and they impart strength and hardness
C. Fibrous fillers increase thermal resistance
D. All the above.

Answer: Option D
11. Portland pozzolana cement possesses

A. higher resistance to chemical attack
B. lower heat of hydration
C. lower shrinkage on drying
D. water tightness
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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12. Iron ore may contain

A. carbon
B. silicon
C. sulphur
D. phosphorus and maganese
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
13. Wrought iron is used for

A. structural works in beams
B. small sized water pipes
C. columns and struts
D. none to these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
14. The timber having maximum resistance against white ants, is obtained from
A. chir B. shisham
C. sal D. teak.
Answer: Option B
15. Knots in timber are

A. defects caused by crushing fibres
B. splits radiating from the centre
C. speckled strains
D. signs of branches cut off.

Answer: Option D
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A. Solder material is an alloy which melts at a temperature above 400°C
B. Brazing is done at temperature above 600°C to 1100°C
C. Brazing joint is stronger than the solder joint
D. all the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
17. Lime concrete is generally used for

A. wall foundations
B. flooring at ground level
C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b).

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
18. Bituminous fells are used for

A. covering A.C. sheets
B. covering sloping roofs
C. D.P.C.
D. none to these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
19. The minimum compressive strength of Ilnd class bricks should be

A. 75 kg/cm2
B. 90 kg/cm2
C. 100 kg/cm2
D. 120 kg/cm2
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E. 150 kg/cm2.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
20. Stuco paints are suitable for

A. stone masonry
B. brick walls
C. both (a) and (b)

Answer: Option C

Corrugated sheet iron is made by passing plain sheets between
A.
grooved rollers
B. Strength and stiffness of corrugated sheets are considerably increased
Corrugated sheets are generally gal-venised to protect iron from

C.
corrosion by rust
D. Corrugated sheets are generally used on slanting roofs
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
22. Quick setting cement is produced by adding

A. less amount of gypsum in very fine powdered form
B. more amount of gypsum in very fine powdered form
C. aluminium sulphate in very fine powdered form
D. pozzolana in very fine powdered form
E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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23. Duco is one of the patent forms of

A. emulsion paints
B. plastic paints
C. bituminous paints
D. aluminium paints
E. cellulose paints.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:

The substance which consists of one primary chemical, is known as
A.
monomer
B. The polymer consists of thousands of monomers joined together
C. The polymer molecule is called macro-molecule
A polymetric material consists of a large number of long-chain

D.
molecules
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
25. Bulking of sand is caused due to

A. surface moisture
B. air voids
C. viscosity
D. clay contents
E. all the above.

Answer: Option A
26. The normal curing period for lime mortar, is:
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A. one day
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 10 days
E. 14 days.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
27. The type of steel used for precision levelling staff, is

A. Titanium steel
B. Carbon steel
C. Invar
D. Stainless steel.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
28. During pudding

A. molten metal is kept clear of the fuel
B. carbon is converted into carbonic acid gas
C. silicon forms a slag
D. metal is heated by the burning of gases
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
29. German silver is an alloy of

A. zinc, lead and nickel
B. silver, gold and lead
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C. copper, nickel and zinc
D. copper, brass and zinc
E. brass, silver and zinc.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
30. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. Plastics are chemical resistant
B. Plastics are durable
C. Plastics are ductile
D. Plastics are excellent electric insulators.

Answer: Option C
31. Pick up correct statement from the following:

A. Fibre boards are used for thermal and acoustic control
B. Fibre boards are used for light weight standing members
C. Fibre boards are obtained by impregnating a resin product on fibres
D. all the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
32. Quartzite, a metamorphic stone is

A. hard
B. brittle
C. crystalline
D. compact
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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A. Plastics have generally low melting point
The coefficient of thermal expansion of plastics is about three times

B.
than that of steel
The acoustical boards prepared by impregnating fibre-glass with

C.
phenolic resins has absorption coefficient of about 0.67
D. All the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
34. Dextrin is
A. animal glue
B. starch glue
C. albumin glue
D. rubber based adhesive
E. none to these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
35. Formula for quick lime, is

A. CaCO3
B. Ca(OH)2
C. CO3CO2
D. none to these.
Answer: Option A
36. For the manufacture of stainless steel, steel is mixed with

A. chromium
B. nickel
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C. tungsten
D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
37. Stones used for ornamental work must be

A. soft B. hard
C. light D. heavy.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:

A. Quick lime is obtained by burning pure lime stone:
Hydraulic lime is obtained by burning lime stone containing clay 5% to

B.
30%
Poor lime is obtained by burning lime stone containing impurities more

C.
than 5%
D. All the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
39. The presence of original rounded surface on the manufactured piece of timber, is
called
A. Wane
B. Torn grain
C. Diagonal grain
D. Chipmark.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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40. Smith's test of stones is performed to find out

A. the presence of soluble matter of stone
B. the compressive strength of the stone
C. the hardness of the stone
D. the toughness of the stone.

Answer: Option A
41. The cracks caused by shrinkage of the exterior surface of the wood exposed to
atmosphere, are called:
A. radial shakes
B. heart shakes
C. wind cracks
D. twisted fibres.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
42. The process of decarbonising the pig iron completely and then adding proper
percentage of carbon for manufacturing steel, is called
B. crucible process
C. Bessemer process

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
43. In paints, the pigment is responsible for

A. durability
B. colour
C. smoothness
D. glassy face
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E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
44. The operation of removal of impurities or clay adhering to iron ores, is known as
A. dressing B. calcination
C. roasting D. smelting.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
45. If water required for 1 bag of cement is 30 litres, the water cement ratio is :
A. 0.40
B. 0.50
C. 0.60
D. None of these.
Answer: Option C
46. Portland cement manufactured from pure white chalk and clay but free from
iron-oxide, is known as
A. quick setting cement
B. rapid hardening cement
C. white cement
D. low heat Portland cement.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
47. Dry rot

A. cracks the timber
B. reduces the strength of timber
C. reduces the timber to powder
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D. shrinks the timber
E. spoils the appearance of timber.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
48. Which one of the following polymers is obtained from condensation

polymerization ?
A. phenol formaldehyde
B. carbamide
C. melamine-formaldehyde
D. all of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
49. The weight of 1 m3 of brick earth, is about

A. 1200 kg
B. 1500 kg
C. 1800 kg
D. 2000 kg.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
50. Pozzolana (or surkhi) is used in lime

A. to impart hydraulicity
B. to prevent shrinkage
C. to decrease the cost of construction
D. to decrease the setting time.

Answer: Option A
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Building Materials
(Section – 4)
A. Hydraulic lime is generally obtained by burning kankar
B. Hydraulic lime sets slowly as compared to fat lime
C. Hydraulic lime is generally used in lime mortar
D. None of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
2. Mastic asphalt is normally used for

A. sound insulation
B. water proofing
C. fire proofing
D. none to these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
3. Lime stone is not a

A. sedimentary rock
B. stratified rock
C. aqueous rock
D. metamorphic rock.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
4. The size of modular bricks, is

A. 10 x 10 x 9 cm
B. 19 x 9 x 9 cm
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C. 22.5 x 10 x 8.5 cm
D. 22.5 x 8.0 x 9 cm.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
5. A piece of timber whose thickness and width are respectively 5 cm and 10 cm is

called
A. slate B. plank
C. board D. strip.
Answer: Option D
6. Pig iron is manufactured from the ores by

A. dressing
B. calcination and roasting
C. smelting
D. all the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
7. Quick lime
A. generates heat when added to water
B. reacts with carbon dioxide
C. may be used for white-washing
D. when mixed with water forms slaked lime
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
8. Age of a tree may be ascertained by

A. radius of its stem
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B. circumference of its stem
C. number of branches
D. number of annual rings.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
9. The portion of a brick cut to form angles other than right angles in plan, is
known as
A. queen closer
B. king closer
C. closer
D. squint brick.
Answer: Option D

A. Slaked lime contains calcium hydroxide
B. Quick lime contains calcium oxide
C. Slaked lime may be obtained from quick lime
D. Slaked lime is obtained by adding water to quick lime
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
11. Plywood is obtained by gluing wooden sheets at

A. 100 to 150 N/cm2
B. 100 to 130°C
C. both (a) and (b)
D. Neither (a) nor (b).

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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12. The low voltage porcelain is mainly used for

A. switch block
B. insulating tubes
C. lamp sockets
D. All of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
13. Putty is
A. made with finely powdered chalk and linseed oil
B. used for fixing glass panes
C. softened by a solution of pearl ash and quick-lime soaked in water
D. all the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
14. The initial setting time of hydraulic lime, is

A. 30 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 90 minutes
D. 120 minutes
E. 150 minutes.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
15. PVC stands for

A. plastic very compact
B. polythene vinyl chloride
C. polythene vinyl carbon
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D. polythene vanadium carbide.

Answer: Option B
16. Generally wooden moulds are made from

A. ply wood
B. shisham wood
C. deodar wood
D. teak wood
E. hard wood.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
17. Cement paints usually

A. contain hydrated lime
B. contain 5% to 10% colour pigments
C. are prepared with white cement
D. contain 5% sodium chloride
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
18. The cement becomes unsound by the presence of excess

A. sulphur
B. magnesia
C. lime
D. All of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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19. The kiln which may work throughout the year, is

A. Clamp
B. Bull's kiln
C. Hoffman's kiln
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
20. The minimum compressive strength of 1st class bricks should be

A. 75 kg/cm2
B. 90 kg/cm2
C. 100 kg/cm2
D. 120 kg/cm2
E. 130 kg/cm2.
Answer: Option C
21. A volatile substance added to a paint to make its application easy and smooth, is
known as
A. base
B. solvent
C. vehicle
D. none to these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
22. The percentage of water for normal consistency, is

A. 5% to 15%
B. 10% to 25%
C. 15% to 25%
D. 20% to 30%
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E. 25% to 35%.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

A. The plywoods do not split or crack due to changes in atmosphere
The commercial plywoods are available upto 150 cm wide and upto
B.
300 cm long
C. The plywoods possess uniform tensile strength in all directions
D. The plywoods are light in weight
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
24. The main ingredient of a good quality brick earth, is

A. magnesia B. lime
C. silica D. alumina.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
25. Bitumen is generally obtained from

A. organic material
B. synthetic material
C. petroleum product
D. coal.
Answer: Option C
26. For one cubic metre of brick masonry, number of bricks required, is
A. 400 B. 425
C. 450 D. 500
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E. 550.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
27. The steel which contains fissures and cavities, is manufactured by

B. Crucible process
C. Bessemer process

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
28. Pick up the volcanic rock from the following:

A. Granite
B. Dolerite
C. Basalt
D. All the above.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
29. In stone masonry, stones (stratified rocks) are so placed that the direction of
pressure to the plane of bedding is
A. right angles
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. parallel
E. None of these.
Answer: Option A
31. Softer variety of steel may be obtained by
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B. crucible process
C. Bessemer process

Answer: Option C
Explanation:

A. The baked earth is called terra-cotta
The articles prepared from clay which is burnt at low temperature and
B.
cooled down slowly, are called earthen-ware
The articles prepared from refractory clays which as mixed with stone
C.
and crushed pottery, are called stone ware
The articles prepared from fine earthen ware which is white, thin and
D.
semi-transparent, are called procelain
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
33. Calcination of iron ores is done

A. to remove moisture
B. to remove carbonic acid
C. by roasting in heaps
D. after dressing
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
34. Strength of cement concrete primarily depends upon

A. quality of water
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B. quantity of aggregate
C. quantity of cement
D. water-cement ratio.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
35. Rapid hardening cement contains

B. Tri-calcium aluminate
C. Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite
Answer: Option A
36. Bitumen emulsion is

A. a liquid containing bitumen in suspension
B. a paint
C. used as anti-corrosive paint
D. all the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
37. The cast iron when heated to red heat with powdered red haemetite in an oven
for increasing its toughness, is converted to
A. grey cast iron
B. white cast iron
C. mottled cast iron
D. toughed cast iron.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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38. Jhumb bricks are

A. under burnt
B. over burnt
C. kutcha
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
39. Plastic bitumen is generally used for

A. road pavements
B. expansion joints
C. crack fillings
D. none to these.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

The heating of a material to redness in contact with air, is known as
A.
calcination
The property of lime by which it sets or hardens in damp places

B.
having no free circulation of air is called setting
C. The product that remains after calcination of limestone, is called lime
D. All the above.

Answer: Option D
41. The commonly used thinner in oil paints, is

A. naptha
B. turpentine
C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b)
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E. none the these.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
42. Cast iron

A. is obtained by purifying pig iron
B. is manufactured in required shapes
C. may contain 2 to 5 per cent of carbon with other impurities
D. is remelted in a cupola furnace
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
43. Asbestos is
A. corrugated sheet used for roofing
B. an incombustible fire proof material
C. an organic substance
D. a bad insulator for sound and heat
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
44. In a rock calcium carbonate predominates. State whether it is :

A. Sillicious rock
B. Argillaceous rock
C. Calcareous rock
D. None of these.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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45. In order of increasing percentage of silica, the correct sequence is

A. sandy clay, calcareous clay, pure clay
B. calcareous clay, pure clay, sandy clay
C. pure clay, sandy clay, calcareous clay
D. None of these.
Answer: Option B
46. The rocks which are formed due to pouring of magma at the earth's surface are
called
A. Plutonic rocks
B. Hypabyssal rocks
C. Volcanic rocks
D. Igneous rocks
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

Steel produced by open hearth process is milder than that obtained by
A.
the bessemer process
Engineers prefer open hearth steel for structural purpose as it is more

B.
homogenous
Basic Bessemer process is suitable for converting poor ore containing

C.
a large proportion of sulphur and phosphorus into steel
D. all the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

The distinct plane of division along which a stone can easily be split, is
A.
called natural bed of stone
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The natural bed of sedimentary rocks is along the planes of

B.
stratification
C. The natural bed of igneous rocks is not defined
D. All the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
49. Invar contains

A. 12% of nickel
B. 24% of nickel
C. 30% to nickel
D. 36% of nickel.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
50. Based on flow quality, the sequence of pipes is

A. A.C. pipes, G.I. pipes, C.I. pipes, PVC pipes
B. C.I. pipes, G.I. pipes, A.C. pipes, PVC pipes
C. C.I. pipes, G.I. pipes, PVC pipes, A.C. pipes
D. None of these.
Answer: Option B
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Building Materials
(Section – 5)
1. The pigment used in paints for corrosive resistance, is

A. white lead
B. ferrous oxide
C. zinc white
D. red lead
E. gypsum.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
2. A well seasoned timber may contain moisture up to

A. 4 to 6%
B. 6 to 8%
C. 8 to 10%
D. 10 to 12%.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
3. The stones obtained by blasting are used as

A. ballast in railways
B. aggregates for concrete
C. roadmetal
D. All the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
4. Distemper is
A. a paint consisting of powdered chalk, pigments, and water
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B. a water proofing agent
C. a paint consisting of coloured cement and water
D. a drying agent.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
5. Oil varnish generally consists of

A. synthetic resin and spirit
B. oil, wax and resin
C. resin, oil and turpentine
D. spirit, oil and wax.

Answer: Option C

A. The average crushing strength of hand moulded bricks is 6000 t/m2
B. The average tensile strength of hand moulded brick is 200 t/m2
C. The average shearing strength of hand moulded brick is 600 t/m2
D. All the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
7. The cracks which extend from bark towards the sap wood in the cross section of
a tree, are called
A. radial shakes
B. star shakes
C. heart shakes
D. cup shakes.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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8. Sea sand used in structures causes

A. dampness
B. efflorescence
C. disintegration
D. All of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
9. The compound of Portland cement which reacts immediately with water and also
sets first is

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
10. Refractory bricks resist

A. high temperature
B. chemical action
C. dampness
D. all the above.

Answer: Option A
11. When a brick is immersed in water for 24 hours and then dried, if
no grey or white deposits appear on the surface, the brick is free from
A.
soluble salts
10 per cent surface is covered with grey or white deposits, the brick
B.
has slight efflorescence
50 per cent surface is covered with grey or white deposits, the brick
C.
has serious efflorescence
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D. All the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
12. In arches, stratified stones are placed so that their planes are
A. parallel
B. perpendicular
C. radial
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:

A. Acid test is done to find out the weathering quality of stones
Attrition test is done to find out the rate of wear of stones which are
B.
used in road construction
C. Crushing test is done to find out the compressive strength of the stone
D. Impact test is done to determine toughness of a stone
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
14. The fire clay contains pure

A. lime
B. oxide of iron
C. hydrated aluminium silicate
D. magnesium.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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15. Pick up the correct characteristic of Pyroxene from the following:

A. It forms octagonal crystals
B. It converts to chlorine by hydration
C. Its density is 2.3 to 3.6 g/cm2
D. Its hardness is 5 to 6
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
16. For sanitary pipes and chemical stonewares,

A. salt glazing is used
B. lead glazing is used
C. opaque glazing is used
D. None of these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
17. The steel used for rails under heavy traffic and on sharp curves, is
A. Nickel steel
B. Chrome steel
C. Magnese steel
D. Vanadium steel.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
18. The weight of a good quality brick when immersed in water for a period of 16
hours should not exceed the weight of dry brick
A. 20%
B. 15%
C. 10%
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D. None of these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
19. Snowcrete is one of the patent forms of

A. distempers
B. water proof cement paints
C. enamel paints
D. cellulose paints.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
20. The usual percentages of clay and metal in cermet are :

A. 50%, 50%
B. 60%, 40%
C. 70%, 30%
D. 80%, 20%.
Answer: Option D

A. Horn blende mineral is brittle
B. Muscovite is also known as white mica and potashmica
C. Biotite is also known as blackmica
D. All the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
22. The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at a relatively shallow depth from
the earth's surface are called
A. Plutonic rocks
B. Hypabyssal rocks
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C. Volcanic rocks
D. Ignoeous rocks.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
23. The base material for distemper, is

A. chalk
B. lime
C. lime putty
D. cement wash.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
24. The thermosetting plastic

A. becomes rigid when moulded at suitable pressure and temperature
at 127°C to 177°C permanently set and further application of heat does not
B.
soften it
C. charrs at 343°C
D. All the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
25. Pick up the synthetic resin from the following:

A. Malamine resin
B. Phenolic resin
C. Resorcinol resin
D. Urea resin
E. All of these.
Answer: Option E
26. Slacking of lime is affected by
A. keeping it exposed to air
B. immersing the lime in water
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C. crushing the lime lumps
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
27. The steel used in R.C.C. work is

A. stainless steel
B. mild steel
C. high carbon steel
D. wrought iron.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
28. Mastic asphalt is

A. water proof
B. fire proof
C. elastic
D. all the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
29. Non acid-resistant asbestos is :

A. tremolite asbestos
B. chrysolite abestos
C. amosite absestos
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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30. Stones used for the construction of retaining walls must be

A. soft B. hard
C. light D. heavy.
Answer: Option D
31. Permanent magnets are made of high carbon steel and
A. 15% of cobalt
B. 20% of cobalt
C. 35% of cobalt
D. 45% of cobalt.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
32. Plastics are compounds of carbon with element

A. hydrogen
B. nitrogen
C. oxygen
D. All of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

A. The plastic bottles are made by the process of blowing
The plastic sheets are made by the calendering process in which the
B.
plastic material is allowed to pass between cylindrical rollers
The application of thermo-setting resins on sheets of paper, is called

C.
laminating process
The plastic articles made by placing raw material in the desired

D.
moulds, is known as moulding process
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
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Explanation:
34. Pick up the constituent of good brick earth whose excess causes the raw bricks
shrink and warp during drying and burning, from the following:
A. Alumina B. Lime
C. Ironoxide D. Magnesia.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
35. Cast iron is used for

A. structural works in beams
D. none to these.
Answer: Option C
36. Stainless steel resists corrosion due to

A. carbon B. sulphur
C. vanadium D. chromium
E. maganese.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
37. Commonly used thinner in

A. lacquer paints, is alcohol
B. cellulose paints is ethyle acetate
C. oil paints, is naptha
D. distemper, is water
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
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Explanation:
38. Good quality sand is never obtained from

A. river
B. nala
C. sea
D. gravel powder.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
39. Pick up the rock which is not a sedimentary rock from the following:
A. gravel
B. sand stone
C. gypsum
D. dolerite
E. lignite.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
40. For a good building stone, its specific gravity should the greater than
A. 1.5 B. 1.7
C. 2.2 D. 2.7.
Answer: Option D
41. Blister steel

A. is obtained by cementation process
B. is full of fissures and cavities
C. can not be forged
D. can be easily welded
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E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
42. The most important constituent of varnish, is

A. drier
B. solvent
C. resin
D. all the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
43. A ferrous metal is

A. cast iron
B. wrought iron
C. steel
D. all the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
44. For making fly-ash building bricks, the following mix of fly-ash, sand and lime, is
A. 80 : 13 : 7
B. 70 : 20 : 10
C. 60 : 35 : 5
D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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A. Lime is available in free state
B. Lime is available by dissolving calcium carbonate in water
C. Lime is available by calcining calcium carbonate at 900°C
D. Lime is nothing but calcium chloride
E. None of these.
Answer: Option C
46. Water paint is a

A. white wash
B. colour wash
C. whiting
D. distemper
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
47. Seasoning of timber is done

A. to make it water proof
B. to paint its surface
C. to increase its temperature
D. to remove water.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
48. The specific gravity of marble, is

A. 2.50 B. 2.60
C. 2.66 D. 2.72
E. 3.00.
Answer: Option D
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Explanation:
49. The rocks having alumina or clay as their major constituents, are known as
A. siliceous rocks
B. argillaceous rocks
C. calcareous rocks
D. sedimentary rocks
E. igneous rocks.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
50. The curved swellings from the growth of layers or wounds left after branches are
cut off in an irregular manner, are known as
A. knots
B. rindgalls
C. burls
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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Building Materials
(Section – 6)
A. The percentage of absorption for firebricks varies from 5 to 10
The percentage of silica in silica bricks is to the extent of about 95 to

B.
97 percent
Roughly 1 to 2 percent of lime in silica bricks is added to act as

C.
binding material
D. The compressive strength of silica bricks is about 150 kg/cm2
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
2. Spirit varnish generally consists of

A. oil, wax and resin
B. alcohol, wax and turpentine
C. pigment and synthetic resin
D. spirit and shellac
E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

A. Roasting is not necessary if iron ore is an oxide
B. Impurities float on the molten iron as slag
C. The slag contains lime about 45%
The molten iron is made to run, in a long channel formed in sand

D.
called 'sow'
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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4. The tendency of a stone is, to split along:

A. texture
B. fracture
C. cleavage
D. structure
E. all the above.

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
5. Acrylic is the name of

A. cellulose resin
B. alkyd resin
C. methyl metha crylate
D. cumarone-indene.
Answer: Option C
6. Glazing of clay products, is done

A. to improve their appearance
B. to protect them from atmospheric effect
C. to protect them from corrosive action
D. all the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
7. Lime mortar is generally made with

A. quick lime
B. fat lime
C. hydraulic lime
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D. plain lime
E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
8. Duco paints are

A. plastic paints
B. cellulose paints
C. emulsion paints
D. bituminous paints
E. oil paints.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:

A. Melamine is obtained from calcium carbide
B. Formaldehyde is prepared synthetically from methane
The melamine when reacted with formaldehyde forms the melamine-

C.
formaldehyde resin
The plastics made from melamine formaldehyde resin, are used for
D.
electrical insulators
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
10. Steel contains carbon approximately

A. 1.50% to 5.6%
B. 0.05% to 1.75%
C. 0.25%
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D. none to these.
Answer: Option B
11. Cast iron contains carbon approximately

A. 1.5% to 5.5%
B. 0.05% to 1.75%
C. 0.250%
D. none to these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
12. Plastic asphalt is

A. used as a water proofing layer over roof
B. a mixture of cement and asphalt
C. a natural asphalt
D. a refinery product.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
13. For obtaining vinyl chloride acetate, the method used, is

A. addition polymerization
B. condensation polymerization
C. co-polymerization
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
14. The yield strength and tensile strength of low carbon steel may be improved by
the addition of
A. manganese B. chromium
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C. nickel D. venadium
E. tungsten.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
15. Bitumen completely dissolves in

A. carbon bisulphide
B. chloroform
C. benzol
D. coaltar
E. All of these.
Answer: Option E
16. Good quality cement contains higher percentage of

D. Tetra calcium alumino ferrite
E. all the above.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:
17. Soundness of cement is tested by

A. Vicat's apparatus
B. Le-chatelier apparatus
C. compressive strength testing apparatus
D. none of the these.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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18. The PVC doors and windows are preferred as they are
A. rust proof
B. rot proof
C. termile proof
D. water proof
E. all of these.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
19. Based on its dry weight, a freshly felled tree may contain water
A. 25% B. 50%
C. 75% D. 100%.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
20. Forge pig may be converted to wrought iron by

A. rolling B. pudding
C. shingling D. refining.
Answer: Option B
21. To give a brilliant finish, the type of varnish used, is

A. water varnish
B. spirit varnish
C. turpentine varnish
D. oil varnish
E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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A. Bull's trench kiln a trench excavated in ground
B. Hoffman's kiln is constructed overground
C. Tunnel Kiln is constructed as a tunnel
D. All the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
23. The softest rock is

A. marble B. diamond
C. talc D. quartz.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
24. Bitumen may be dissolved in

A. carbondioxide
B. water
C. sodium chloride
D. carbon disulphide
E. none of these.
Answer: Option D

Rusting is caused due to combined action of air, moisture and carbon
A.
dioxide
B. During rusting, first ferrous bicarbonates are formed
On further oxidation ferrous bicarbonates get converted to ferric

C.
bicarbonates
Ultimately hydrated ferric oxide is formed during rusting and carbon

D.
dioxide gets liberated
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E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
26. Whitworth compressed steel is obtained when molten steel is subjected to a

pressure of
A. 5 kg/mm2
B. 9 kg/mm2
C. 13 kg/mm2
D. 15 kg/mm2
E. 10 kg/mm2.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
27. Asbestos
A. is an excellant insulator for heat and electricity
B. is fire-proof and acid proof
C. has sp. gravity equal to 3.10
D. is smooth like glass and silk
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
28. Mild steel is used for

A. structural works in beams, joints and girders
D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
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29. The sequence of refractory materials according to increasing melting points is :

A. Dolomite, Magnesia, Bauxite, Chromite
B. Bauxite, Chromite, Dolomite, Magnesia
C. Magnesia, Bauxite, Dolomite, Chromite.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
30. Veneering means

A. carving out designs on timber planks
B. chemically treating timber planks
C. thick layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood
D. thin layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood.

Answer: Option C
31. Laterite is a/an

A. volcanic rock
C. calcareous rock
D. silicious rock.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
32. A stone is rejected if it absorbs water more than

A. 5% B. 10%
C. 15% D. 20%
E. 25%.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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33. The most valuable timber may be obtained from

A. chir B. shisham
C. sal D. teak.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

Blisters in the finished wrought iron, are caused due to the reaction
A.
between oxide of iron and carbon
B. The edges of a finished wrought iron, are rough due to red shortage
C. Pig iron (charcoal) is manufactured from magnetic ore (Fe3O4)
For the manufacture of wrought iron, non-sulphurous fuel is not

D.
necessary
E. All the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
35. Pick up the compound responsible for early strength of cement from the
following:
A. Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite
B. Tricalcium silicate
C. Tricalcium aluminate
Answer: Option B
36. Mastic asphalt is

A. acid resisting material
B. non-corrosive material
C. corrosive material
D. heating-resisting material.
Answer: Option B
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Explanation:
37. Which one of the following is used for preparing porcelain

A. clay
B. feldspar
C. quartz
D. minerals
E. All of these.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
38. The commonly used base for iron and steel work, is
A. red lead
B. zinc white
C. white lead
D. titanium white.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
39. Laterite is found in

A. U.P.
B. Punjab
C. West Bengal
D. Kerala.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
40. Lacquer is
A. oil paint
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B. distemper
C. spirit varnish
D. none to these.
Answer: Option C
41. Upto a maximum of 72% of iron, is available in

A. Magnetite
B. Red haemetite
C. Limonite
D. Siderite
E. Iron pyrites.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
42. For lime concrete,

A. slump is 50 to 75 mm
B. flexural strength at 90 days is 0.2 N/mm2
C. compressive strength at 90 days is 1.5 N/mm2
D. compressive strength at 26 days is 1.2 N/mm2
E. all the above.

Answer: Option E
Explanation:
43. Pig iron made from heamatite ores free from sulphur, phosphorus and copper, is
known as
A. Bessemer pig
D. Mottled pig
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E. All the above.

Answer: Option A
Explanation:

Blistering may be cured by applying water paint finished with oil paint
A.
dried with a little copal varnish
Cracked paints may be cured by removing paint and giving a fresh

B.
coat of paint
Crawling paints may be cured by sand preparing the surface and

C.
giving a fresh coat with plenty of turps
D. All the above.

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
45. The material generally not used as extender in paints, is

A. powdered silica
B. gypsum
C. talc
D. zinc white.
Answer: Option D
46. Pick up the non-inflammable plastic from the following:

A. Cellulose acetate plastics
B. Polyvinyl chloride plastics
C. Phenol formaldehyde plastic
D. Urea formaldehyde plastic.

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
47. The most commonly used synthetic abrasive is
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A. aluminium carbide
B. boric acid
C. silicon
D. All of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
48. For light and ornamental casting, the most unsuitable pig iron, is
A. Bessemer pig
D. Mottled pig.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
49. Seasoning of timber is essential to remove

A. knots from timber
B. sap from timber
C. twisted fibre from timber
D. roughness of timber.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
50. The melting point of silica is :

A. 1570°C B. 1630°C
C. 1730°C D. 1850°C.
Answer: Option C
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Building Materials
(Section – 7)
1. A bull nose brick is not used for

A. rounding off sharp corners
B. pillars
C. decoration purpose
D. arches.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
2. Red short iron cracks when bent due to the presence of

A. sulphur B. carbon
C. phosphorus D. silicon.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
3. Linseed oil is used in paints as

A. thinner B. vehicle
C. base D. drier.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
4. Plaster of Paris is obtained by calcining

A. bauxite
B. gypsum
C. kankar
D. lime stone
E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
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Explanation:
5. For high grade instruments the steel preferred to, is

A. cast steel
B. bessemer steel
C. mild steel
D. whitworth compressed steel.

Answer: Option A
6. If the ore impurities is
A. clay, lime stone is used as flux
B. lime stone, clay is used as flux
C. quartz, lime stone and argallaceous iron ores are used as flux
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
7. The plastics prepared from Vinyl resin are
A. odourless
B. non-toxic
C. transparent
D. colourless
E. all of these.
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Answer: Option E
Explanation:
8. Chlorite, a green colour mineral is mainly derived from the decomposition of
A. augite
B. biotite
C. horn blende
D. All of these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
9. During smelting process, the combination of fuel in the furnace
A. forms carbon dioxide
B. carbon dioxide with carbon forms carbon mono-oxide
C. carbon mono-oxide reacts with Fe2O3 to form iron and liberates CO2
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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10. Lime stones are generally known as
A. aqueous rocks
B. sedimentary rocks
C. stratified rocks
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
11. The method of addition polymerization is used for obtaining:
A. polythylene
B. polypropylene
C. polyvinylchloride
D. polystyrene
E. All of these.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
The lime in excess makes the cement unsound and causes the cement to
A.
expand and disintegrate
The silica in excess makes the cement stronger but its setting time also
B.
increases
C. The excess amount of alumina weakens the cement
D. The addition of gypsum increases the initial setting time of cement
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E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
13. A rock contains only one mineral. It is called
A. homogeneous B. non-homogeneous
C. monomineralic D. polymineralic.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
14. Asbestos
A. is a natural fibrous mineral substance
B. is composed of hydrous silicates of calcium and magnesium (CaSiO3, 3MgSiO3)
C. contains iron oxide and alumina
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
15. Pegmatite is a/an
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A. intrusive igneous rock
B. extrusive igneous rock
C. sedimentary rock
D. metamorphic rock.
Answer: Option A
16. The percentage of alumina and silica in good fire clay vary respectively is
A. 25, 75
B. 30, 70
C. 35, 65
D. All of these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
17. The term frog means
A. an apparatus to lift the stone
B. a depression on a face of brick
C. vertical joint in a brick work
D. soaking brick in water.
Answer: Option B
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Explanation:
18. Asphalt is obtained from
A. petroleum distillation
B. bitumen distillation
C. plastic distillation
D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
19. To retard the initial setting time of cement, the compound responsible, is
B. Gypsum
C. Di-calcium silicate
D. Tri calcium aluminate.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
20. Dorry's testing machine is used for
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A. crushing test of stone
B. hardness test of stone
C. impact test of stone
D. water absorption test.
Answer: Option B
21. Stones used for rubble masonry must be
A. soft B. hard
C. light D. heavy.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
22. Index number expressing the relative sizes of both coarse and fine aggregates, is called
A. proportioning of aggregates
B. fineness modulus
C. grading of aggregates
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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23. Dolomite is a lime stone which contains carbonate of magnesia upto
A. 15% B. 20%
C. 25% D. 35%
E. 45%.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
24. Priming consists of
A. one part of white lead, 8 parts of chalk and four parts of twice boiled linseed oil
B. 8 parts of white lead, one part of chalk and four parts of twice boiled linseed oil
C. one part of white lead, 8 parts of chalk and one part of linseed oil
D. none to these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
25. The portion of the brick cut across its width and having its length equal to that of a full
brick, is known as
A. closer
B. queen closer
C. king closer
D. prince closer
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E. none of these.
Answer: Option B
26. Seasoning of timber is done for
A. increasing moisture content
B. decreasing moisture content
C. increasing strength of timber
D. none to these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
27. Bitumen felt is used for
A. water proofing
B. damp proofing
C. both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
28. According to ISI, bitumen is classified into
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A. 2 grades
B. 4 grades
C. 6 grades
D. 8 grades.
E. 10 grades.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
29. Lime putty
A. is made from hydraulic lime
B. is made by adding lime to water
C. can be used only upto three days
D. may be obtained from drying lime water mix passing through IS sieve No. 300
E. all of above.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
30. The minimum percentage of silica, alumina and ferric oxide in lime for white washing, is
A. 20 B. 15
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C. 10 D. 5
E. 0.
Answer: Option E
31. For a 50 kg cement bag water required, is
A. 16.5 litres
B. 18.5 litres
C. 20.5 litres
D. 22.5 litres
E. 25 litres.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
32. The presence of sand in brick earth prevents:
A. cracking of bricks
B. shrinkage of bricks
C. warping of bricks
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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33. The property by virtue of which lime sets under water, is known as
A. slacking B. setting
C. hydraulicity D. calcining.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
34. Percentage content of silica in window glass, is
A. 40 to 45
B. 50 to 55
C. 60 to 65
D. 70 to 75.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
35. The coefficient of hardness of stones used in road work should be greater than
A. 10 B. 12
C. 15 D. 17.
Answer: Option D
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Air bubbles in casting produce a dull sound by tapping their surfaces lightly with
A.
a hammer
B. Cupola furnace is used for the manufacture of cast iron
C. Red short iron is of no value for welding purpose
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
37. The steel used for the manufacture of rails, is
A. Bessemer steel
B. mild steel
C. cast steel
D. stainless steel.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
38. Slump test for concrete is carried out, to determine
A. strength
B. durability
C. workability
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D. water content.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
39. Basalt is
A. sedimentary rock
B. metamorphic rock
C. extrusive igneous rock
D. intrusive igneous rock.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
40. The frog of a brick is normally made on its
A. top face
B. bottom face
C. longer face
D. shorter side.
Answer: Option A
41. The most important constituent of an oil paint, is
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A. thinner
B. vehicle
C. pigment
D. base
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
42. Granite mainly composed of quartz and felsper particles, is obtained from
B. metamorphic rocks
C. igneous rocks
D. all the above.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
43. Bullet proof glass is made of thick glass sheet sandwiched by a layer of
A. steel
B. stainless steel
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C. high test plastic
D. chromium plate.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
44. Pig iron obtained from the furnance which is properly provided with fuel at a very high
temperature, is called
A. Bessemer pig
D. Mottled pig
E. None of the above.
Answer: Option B
45. Refractory bricks are
A. neutral refractory bricks
B. acid refractory bricks
C. basic refractory bricks
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
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46. Porcelain is used as :
A. sanitary wares
B. electric insulators
C. storage vessels
D. reactor chambers
E. All of the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
47. Durability of building stone is affected by its
A. chemical composition
B. texture
C. resistance to atmosphere
D. location in structure
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
48. Magnese steels
A. are non-magnetic
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B. possess high electrical resistance
C. possess low coefficient of expansion
D. are used for the manufacture of rails
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
49. Pick up the metal refractory from the following:
A. Molyblendum
B. Tungsten
C. Zicronium
D. All of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
50. According to IS 399-1963, the weight of the timber is specified at
A. 8% moisture content
B. 10% moisture content
C. 12% moisture content
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D. 14% moisture content.
Answer: Option C
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Building Materials
(Section – 8)
1. The size of mould for bricks, is generally kept
A. a little large to specified size
B. a little small to specified size
C. equal to specified size
D. 10% larger than specified size
E. 20% larger than specified size.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
2. Most commonly used solvent in oil paints, is
A. petroleum B. spirit
C. coaltar D. turpentine.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
3. Acrylic sheets
possess 10 to 17 times greater breakage resistance than that of glass of

A.
equivalent thickness
B. are generally unaffected by most household detergents
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C. possess the light transmission rate of 93%
D. are available in various shapes
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
4. With storage, strength of cement
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. none to these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
5. The commonly used raw material in the manufacture of cement, is
A. slate
B. sand stone
C. lime stone
D. basalt.
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Answer: Option C
A. The free quartz suddenly expands at a temperature lower than 600°C
The lime stone resists fire upto about 800°C and at higher temperature it splits
B.
into CaO and CO2
C. The sand stone with silicates resist a fire in a better way
D. The argillaceous stone though poor in strength can resist fire quite weak
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
7. The most commonly used base for timber painting, is
A. red lead
B. zinc white
C. white lead
D. titanium white.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
8. Pick up the most favourable condition for the rapid growth of fungus for dry rot from the
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following:
A. absence of sun light
B. dampness
C. presence of sap
D. stagnant air
E. All the above,
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
9. The rocks formed from molten magma, are called
B. igneous rocks
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
10. Bitumen paints offer
A. pleasing surface
B. hard surface
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C. smooth surface
D. protective surface
E. rough surface.
Answer: Option D
A. Styrene resin is produced from ethylene which is made from petroleum
B. Styrene resin is light in weight
C. Styrene resin transmits ultraviolet waves of light
D. Styrene resin is used to manufacture utensils which are unaffected by chemicals
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
12. The lime which contains high percentage of calcium oxide, is generally called
A. fat lime
B. rich lime
C. white lime
D. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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Explanation:
13. For construction of structures under water, the type of lime used, is
A. hydraulic lime
B. fat lime
C. quick lime
D. pure lime
E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A. Rust is due to formation of oxides
B. Cast iron oxidises less
C. Steel oxidises most
D. Wrought iron oxidises moderately
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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15. A prime coat is given to steel work with
A. an oxide of iron paint
B. a mixture of white lead and lead paint
C. a special paint
D. cement paint.
Answer: Option B
16. Ground glass
A. is made by grinding its one side
B. is made by melting powdered glass paints surface
C. is used for getting light without transparency
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
17. The harmonious mixing of the clay ingredients, is known as
A. weathering
B. blending
C. tempering
D. None of these.
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
18. Brass is an alloy of
A. copper and zinc
B. zinc and lead
C. tin and silver
D. zinc and nickel
E. tin and lead.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
19. The wedging is adopted for quarrying costly stratified rock such as
A. laterite
B. marble
C. limestone
D. sandstone
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
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Explanation:
20. Rapid hardening cement attains early strength due to
A. larger proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement
B. lesser proportion of lime grounded coarser than normal cement
C. lesser proportion of lime grounded finer than normal cement
D. larger proportien of lime grounded coarser than normal cement
E. excess percentage of gypsum.
Answer: Option A
21. The colour of statuary marble used for sculptor's work, is
A. red B. blue
C. white D. green
E. yellow
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
22. Second class bricks
A. are of dark brown colour
B. produce a metallic sound when struck
C. are well burnt
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D. are under burnt.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
A. The low voltage porcelain is prepared by wet process
B. The high voltage porcelain is prepared by dry process
C. The low voltage porcelain is prepared by dry process
D. None of the above.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Adding 5% to 6% of moisture content by weight, increases the volume of dry

A.
sand from 18% to 38%
B. The bulking of fine sand is more than that of coarse sand
If the percentage content of moisture exceeds 10%, increase in bulk of sand

C.
starts increasing
D. The volume of fully saturated sand equals that of dry sand
E. All the above.
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Answer: Option E
Explanation:
25. Teak wood is suitable for
A. sports articles
B. furnitures
C. railway sleepers
D. all the above.
Answer: Option B
26. Plywood is normally available
A. 1 mm thick
B. 2 mm thick
C. 2 to 3 mm thick
D. 3 mm to 4 mm thick.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
27. French polish is
A. oil paint
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B. distemper
C. spirit varnish
D. none to these.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
28. In stone masonry, if stones are so placed that their layers are parallel to the direction of
load, they
A. split easily
B. are affected by moisture
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
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Buildin construction.1-10.pdf
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Building Construction
Question No. 01
Cast iron piles
(A) Are suitable for works under sea water
(B) Resist shocks or vibrations
(C) Are suitable for use as batter piles
(D) Are useful for heavy vertical loads
Answer: Option D
Question No. 02
The form work from the slabs excluding props, can be removed only after
(A) 1 day
(B) 4 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 14 days
Answer: Option B
Question No. 03
The process of filling hollow spaces of walls before plastering, is known
(A) Hacking
(B) Dubbing out
(C) Blistering
(D) Peeling
Answer: Option B
Question No. 04
The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose of
carrying the load of the wall above is
(A) Segmental arch
(B) Pointed arch
(C) Relieving arch
(D) Flat arch
Answer: Option C
Question No. 05
The platform at the end of a series of steps, is known as
(A) Platform
(B) Relief
(C) Rest
(D) Landing
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 06
The pile which supports the load due to friction between pile face and surrounding soil, is
generally known as
(A) Bearing pile
(B) Friction pile
(C) Sheet pile
(D) Battered pile
Answer: Option B
Question No. 07
(A) A mortar joint having a concave finishing in brick masonry, is called keyed joint
(B) A mortar joint projecting beyond the face of a masonry wall, is called tucked joint
(C) A mortar joint having a recess in it, is called ruled joint
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 08
The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is known as
(A) Gable roof
(B) Hip roof
(C) Gambrel roof
(D) Mansard roof
Answer: Option C
Question No. 09
The inclined surface of an abutment to receive the arch, is known as
(A) Skew back
(B) Soffit
(C) Spandril
(D) Haunch
Answer: Option A
Question No. 10
(A) D.P.C. should be continuous
(B) D.P.C. should be of good impervious material
(C) D.P.C. may be horizontal or vertical
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 11
A wall constructed with stones to protect slopes of cuttings in natural ground from the action of
weathering agents, is called
(A) Retaining wall
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(B) Breast wall

(C) Buttress
(D) Parapet wall
Answer: Option B
Question No. 12
Higher pitch of the roof
(i) Results in stronger roof
(ii) Results in weaker roof
(iii) Requires more covering material
(iv) Requires less covering material
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 13
For different layers of cement concrete floor. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The lowest layer consists of consolidated ground
(B) A 10 cm thick clean sand is laid on consolidated ground
(C) A 10 cm lime concrete (1 : 4 : 8) is laid on clean sand
(D) A 10 cm thick cement concrete (1 : 2 : 4) is laid on top layer
Answer: Option D
Question No. 14
Open test pit is only suitable upto a depth of
(A) 2 metres
(B) 2.5 metres
(C) 3 metres
Answer: Option C
Question No. 15
The service area in a building means the area occupied by
(A) Stairs
(B) Toilets
(C) Light and shafts
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 16
The number of steps in a flight generally should not be less than
(A) 2
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(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) No limit
Answer: Option B
Question No. 17
The columns of multi-storeyed buildings are designed to withstand the forces due to
(A) Dead loads
(B) Live loads
(C) Wind loads
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 18
In soils possessing low bearing capacity, the type of foundation generally provided, is
(A) Column footing
(B) Grillage footing
(C) Raft footing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 19
The minimum strength of the mortar used in load bearing brick masonry, is
(A) 50 N/cm2
(B) 100 N/cm2
(C) 150 N/cm2
(D) 200 N/cm2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 20
As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course should be
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Equal
(D) Equal or more
Answer: Option A
Question No. 21
To obtain good bonding in brick masonry
(A) First class bricks are used
(B) Vertical joints in alternate courses are kept in plumb line
(C) Bats are used where necessary
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 22
The type of pointing in which upper side of mortar joints is kept about 12 mm inside the face of
the masonry and bottom is kept flushed with face of wall, is
(A) Truck pointing
(B) Recessed pointing
(C) Struck pointing
(D) Grooved pointing
Answer: Option C
Question No. 23
The wedge shaped bricks forming an arch ring, are called
(A) Soffits
(B) Voussoirs
(C) Haunches
(D) Spandrils
Answer: Option B
Question No. 24
The maximum total settlement for isolated foundations on clayey soils should be limited to
(A) 25 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 65 mm
(D) 100 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 25
The foundation which consists of a thick reinforced cement slab covering whole area to support
heavy concentrated structural loads, is known as
(A) Combined footing
(B) Strap footing
(C) Raft footing
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 26
For each storey of a building, the depth of exploration should be
(A) 1 metre
(B) 2 metres
(C) 3 metres
(D) 4 metres
Answer: Option C
Question No. 27
(A) Plain cement concrete is equally strong in compression as well as in tension
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(B) Slump test is performed to check concrete strength

(C) Curing of concrete is done for proper compaction of cement
(D) Fineness modulus is the index number expressing the relative sizes of both coarse and fine
aggregates
Answer: Option D
Question No. 28
The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by
(A) Compacting the soil
(B) Draining the soil
(C) Increasing the depth of foundation
(D) Grouting
Answer: Option B
Question No. 29
The position of a brick when laid on its side 9 cm × 9 cm with its frog in the vertical plane, is called
(A) Brick on edge
(B) Brick on end
(C) Brick on bed
(D) Brick held vertically
Answer: Option B
Question No. 30
A floor constructed with the 4 to 6 mm marble chips, is known
(A) Reinforced marble floor
(B) Terrazzo floor
(C) Marble floor
(D) Chip floor
Answer: Option B
Question No. 31
A stair should not have pitch more than
(A) 25°
(B) 30°
(C) 40°
(D) 50°
Answer: Option C
Question No. 32
Depth or height of the arch is the
(A) Perpendicular distance between intrados and extrados
(B) Vertical distance between springing line and intrados
(C) Perpendicular distance between springing line and extrados
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 33
(A) The pile driven in sand is called sand pile
(B) The drilled hole filled with sand is called sand pile
(C) The sand piles are used for bearing purposes
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 34
A wall constructed to resist the pressure of an earth filling, is called
(A) Retaining wall
(B) Breast wall
(C) Buttress
(D) Parapet wall
Answer: Option A
Question No. 35
Two columns 50 cm × 50 cm and 60 cm × 60 cm carry 80 tonnes and 120 tonnes of loads
respectively. The centre to centre distance between columns is 5.00 metres. The permissible
bearing capacity of the soil is 20 t/m2. If the footing is not to project more than 25 cm beyond the
outside of the smaller column, pick up the correct design parameters of the footing from the
following:
(A) Distance of C.G. of the loads from the smaller column = 3.00 m
(B) The length of the foundation slab = 7.00 m
(C) Area of footing slab = 11.00 m2
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 36
Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for
(A) Coastal regions
(B) Plain regions
(C) Covering large areas
Answer: Option A
Question No. 37
A wooden block hinged on post outside a door, is known
(A) Cleat
(B) Stop
(C) Horn
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 38
If a is the offset of concrete bed in cms, and d is the depth of concrete bed in cms, then
(A) d = 0.445 a
(B) d = 0.557 a
(C) d = 0.775 a
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 39
In high mountainous region, the type of roof generally recommended for buildings, is
(A) Shed type
(B) Gable type
(C) Gambrel type
(D) Mansard type
Answer: Option C
Question No. 40
The function of cleats in a roof truss is
(A) To support the common rafter
(B) To support purlins
(C) To prevent the purlins from tilting
Answer: Option C
Question No. 41
The Auger borings are not common
(A) In soils that require lateral support
(B) In cohesive soils
(C) In soft soils
Answer: Option A
Question No. 42
The pile provided with one or more bulles in its vertical shaft, is generally known as
(A) Under-ream pile
(B) Friction pile
(C) Bearing pile
(D) Sheet pile
Answer: Option A
Question No. 43
(A) Isolated footing is provided under column to transfer the load safely to soil bed
(B) Column footings may have steps or projections in the concrete base
(C) Heavily loaded column base must be provided steel reinforcement in both directions
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 44
In any good staircase, the maximum and minimum pitch respectively should be
(A) 90° and 0°
(B) 75° and 30°
(C) 60° and 10°
(D) 40° and 25°
Answer: Option D
Question No. 45
Raft foundation are generally preferred to when the area required for individual footing, is more
than
(A) 25% to total area
(B) 30% of total area
(C) 40% to total area
(D) 50% of total area
Answer: Option D
Question No. 46
According to National Building Code, the hydrants in water mains is provided at minimum interval
of
(A) 50 m
(B) 60 m
(C) 75 m
(D) 90 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 47
The X-ray rooms are plastered with
(A) Plaster of Paris
(B) Barium plaster
(C) Martin's cement
(D) Keen's cement
Answer: Option B
Question No. 48
The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is
(A) Raft foundation
(B) Grillage foundation
(C) Well foundation
(D) Isolated footing
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 49
Dutch bond is a modification of
(A) English bond
(B) Stretcher bond
(C) Header bond
(D) Single Flemish bond
Answer: Option A
Question No. 50
In clay soil
(A) Swelling and shrinkage characteristics prevail
(B) Consolidation continues even after several years of construction
(C) Differential settlement is generally prevalent
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 51
Which one of the following activities is not correct as applicable to brick corbels?
(A) The maximum projection of the corbel should not be more than the thickness of the wall
(B) The maximum projection of each corbel course should be limited to a quarter brick at a time
(C) The discontinuous corbels are used to carry heavy concentrated loads
(D) Stretcher bond is generally used for the construction of brick corbel
Answer: Option D
Question No. 52
In ordinary residential and public buildings, the damp proof course is generally provided at
(A) Ground level
(B) Plinth level
(C) Water table level
(D) Midway ground level and water-table level
Answer: Option B
Question No. 53
In which of the following pairs both trees yield soft wood?
(A) Deodar and Shishum
(B) Chir and sal
(C) Sal and teak
(D) Chir and deodar
Answer: Option D
Question No. 54
The raft slab is projected beyond the outer walls of the structure by
(A) 5 to 10 cm
(B) 15 to 20 cm
(C) 25 to 30 cm
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(D) 30 to 45 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 55
In grillage foundations, distance between flanges of grillage beams, is kept
(A) 40 cm
(B) Equal to flange width
(C) Twice the flange width
(D) Maximum of (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 56
The sill of a common wooden partition is
(A) Vertical wooden member on either end
(B) Lower horizontal wooden member
(C) Upper horizontal wooden member
(D) Intermediate horizontal wooden member
Answer: Option B
Question No. 57
The important test to be conducted on a stone used in docks and harbours is
(A) Hardness test
(B) Workability test
(C) Weight test
(D) Toughness test
Answer: Option C
Question No. 58
The member which is placed horizontally to support common rafter of a sloping roof, is
(A) Purlin
(B) Cleat
(C) Batten
(D) Strut
Answer: Option A
Question No. 59
A covering of concrete placed on the exposed top of an external wall, is known as
(A) Cornice
(B) Coping
(C) Frieze
(D) Lintel
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 60
The bond in which headers and stretchers are laid in alternate courses and every stretcher course
is started with a three fourth brick bat, is known as
(A) English cross bond
(B) Dutch bond
(C) Monk bond
(D) Rat-trap bond
Answer: Option B
Question No. 61
The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the inner curve of an arch is
known as
(A) Intrados
(B) Rise
(C) Spandril
(D) Extrados
Answer: Option B
Question No. 62
The entrained concrete is used in lining walls and roofs for making
(A) Heat insulated
(B) Sound insulated
(C) Neither (a) nor (b)
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 63
The depth of concrete bed of the foundation depends upon
(A) The projection of the concrete block beyond the footing over it
(B) The upward soil pressure
(C) The mix of the concrete
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 64
A pre-stressed concrete pile is
(A) Easy to handle
(B) Lighter in weight
(C) Extremely durable
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 65
The type of joint commonly used at the junction of a principal rafter and tie beam in timber
trusses is
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(A) Mortise and tenon joint

(B) Oblique mortise and tenon joint
(C) Butt joint
(D) Mitred joint
Answer: Option B
Question No. 66
During percussion drilling
(A) Ground water observations are hindered due to entry of the slurry in the soil below the
bottom of the hole
(B) Caving or mixing of strata are caused in soft soils or cohesionless soils
(C) The soil to a considerable depth below the bottom of the hole gets disturbed
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 67
The type of stone masonry in which stones of same height are laid in layers, is called
(A) Random rubble masonry
(B) Course rubble masonry
(C) Uncoursed rubble masonry
(D) Ashlar masonry
Answer: Option B
Question No. 68
A wooden block fixed on back side of a door frame on its post, is known as
(A) Cleat
(B) Stop
(C) Horn
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 69
In a colar beam roof
(A) There is no horizontal tie beam
(B) There is a horizontal tie at the feet of rafters only
(C) There is a horizontal tie at almost the middle of rafters only
(D) There are two horizontal ties, one at the feet and other at the middle of the rafters
Answer: Option C
Question No. 70
The piece of a brick cut with its one corner equivalent to half the length and half the width of a full
brick, is known as
(A) Queen closer
(B) Bevelled closer
(C) King closer
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(D) Half king closer

Answer: Option C
Question No. 71
For effective drainage, the finished surface of flat roof should have a minimum slope of
(A) 1 in 20
(B) 1 to 50
(C) 1 in 10
(D) 1 in 5
Answer: Option A
Question No. 72
Vertical construction joints are provided where the shearing forces are minimum in the case of
(A) Slabs
(B) Beams
(C) Girders
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 73
Single Flemish bond consists of
(A) Double Flemish bond facing and English bond backing in each course
(B) English bond facing and double Flemish bond backing in each course
(C) Stretcher bond facing and double Flemish bond backing in each course
(D) Double Flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
Answer: Option A
Question No. 74
The foundations are placed below ground level, to increase
(A) Strength
(B) Workability
(C) Stability of structure
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 75
The type of bond in a brick masonry containing alternate courses of stretchers and headers, is
called
(A) Flemish bond
(B) English bond
(C) Stretcher bond
(D) Header bond
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 76
The width of the hollow space between two walls of a cavity wall should not exceed
(A) 5 cm
(B) 7.5 cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) 15 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 77
The predominant constituent which is responsible for strength in granite is
(A) Quartz
(B) Felspar
(C) Mica
Answer: Option A
Question No. 78
To ensure that supporting area of an offset footing of a boundary wall is fully compressive, the
C.G. of load must act
(A) At the centre of the base
(B) Within the middle third of the base
(C) Within the middle fifth of the base
(D) Neither (a), (b) nor (c)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 79
The size of a floor tile commonly used, is
(A) 15 cm × 15 cm × 1.8 cm
(B) 20 cm × 20 cm × 2 cm
(C) 22.5 × 22.5 cm × 2.2 cm
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 80
The art of bringing the floor to a true level surface by means of screeds, is called
(A) Topping
(B) Bedding
(C) Screeding
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 81
The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and temperature is high is
(A) Pitched and sloping roof
(B) Flat roof
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(C) Shell roof

Answer: Option B
Question No. 82
For constructing a terrazzo floor, Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) A base course is prepared as in cement concrete flooring
(B) A 32 mm thick layer of cement concrete (1 : 2 : 4) is laid on the base course and the surface
is made smooth by trowelling
(C) Glass strips are driven into the layer according to the pattern required
(D) After final grinding is over, oxalic acid mixed with water is spread over and rubbed hard with
soft material
Answer: Option B
Question No. 83
The arrangement made to support an unsafe structure temporarily, is known as
(A) Shoring
(B) Scaffolding
(C) Underpinning
(D) Jacking
Answer: Option A
Question No. 84
The type of pointing in which a V-shaped projection outside the wall surface, is provided, is called
(A) Recessed pointing
(B) Weather pointing
(C) V-pointing
(D) Tuck pointing
Answer: Option B
Question No. 85
Assertion A : Shishum is used for decorative woodwork.
Reason R : Shishum can be polished to an excellent finish.
Answer: Option A
Question No. 86
Rotary drilling
(A) Is not suitable for deposits containing very coarse gravel
(B) Hinders the ground water observations and permeability test
(C) Is not economical for holes of less than 10 cm
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 87
Safe bearing capacity of black cotton soil varies from
(A) 2 to 3 t/m2
(B) 5 to 7.5 t/m2
(C) 8 to 10 t/m2
(D) 10 to 12 t/m2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 88
The window which projects outside a room of a building for admitting more light and air, is known
(A) Bay window
(B) Casement window
(C) Lantern window
(D) Dormer window
Answer: Option A
Question No. 89
In the construction of arches, sand box method is used for
(A) Centring
(B) Actual laying of arch work
(C) Striking of centring
Answer: Option C
Question No. 90
In English garden wall bond
(A) One course of headers to three or five course of stretchers
(B) Queen closer in provided in each heading course
(C) The middle course of stretchers is started with a header to give proper vertical joints
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 91
The concrete slump recommended for foundations, is
(A) 25 to 50 mm
(B) 30 to 125 mm
(C) 50 to 100 mm
(D) 75 to 125 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 92
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(A) In a king post truss, principal rafter and tie beams are jointed together with a bridle joint
(B) Joint between the principal rafter and the king post is made by making tenon and mortise
respectively
(C) Joint between strut and king post, is generally of mortise and tenon type
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 93
Sum of tread and rise must lie between
(A) 300 to 350 mm
(B) 400 to 450 mm
(C) 500 to 550 mm
(D) 600 to 650 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 94
In case of foundations on sandy soil, maximum permissible differential settlement, is usually
limited to
(A) 15 mm
(B) 25 mm
(C) 35 mm
(D) 45 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 95
In soft clay of low bearing capacity, the type of steel pile generally used, is
(A) H-pile
(B) Screw pile
(C) Disc pile
(D) Pipe pile
Answer: Option B
Question No. 96
Gravels
(A) Are cohesionless aggregates
(B) Vary in size between 2 to 20 mm
(C) Never swell when they come into contact with water
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 97
The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandy soils should not exceed
(A) 25 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 65 mm
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(D) 100 mm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 98
An arch constructed with finely dressed stones, is known
(A) Ashlar arch
(B) Rubble arch
(C) Gauged arch
(D) Axed arch
Answer: Option A
Question No. 99
(A) Lime mortar with cement in the ratio of in 10 is cheaper and better for outside plaster
(B) For very cold or very hot climate, a compact and closed plan should be provided
(C) On the sea coast, an exposed and open house is generally preferred
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 100

Weep holes are provided in retaining and breast walls
(A) To drain off the water from the filling
(B) To ventilate the stone masonry
(C) To add architectural beauty
(D) To increase compaction of the earth retained
Answer: Option A
Question No. 101

The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are
known as
(A) Heart shakes
(B) Cupshakes
(C) Starshakes
(D) Rindgalls
Answer: Option C
Question No. 102

The angular steps used for changing direction of the stairs, are called
(A) Round steps
(B) Angular steps
(C) Winders
(D) Radial steps
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 103

The concrete slump recommended for columns, is
(A) 25 to 50 mm
(B) 25 to 75 mm
(C) 75 to 125 mm
(D) 50 to 100 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 104

The minimum width of a stair in residential buildings, is
(A) 55 cm
(B) 70 cm
(C) 85 cm
(D) 100 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 105

The function of king post in a king post roof truss is
(A) To support the frame work of the roof
(B) To receive the ends of principal rafter
(C) To prevent the walls from spreading outward
(D) To prevent the tie beam from sagging at its centre
Answer: Option D
Question No. 106

The dimensions of a half queen closer, are
(A) 9 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
(B) 9 cm × 9 cm × 4.5 cm
(C) 9 cm × 4.5 cm × 9 cm
(D) 1.8 cm × 4.5 cm × 9 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 107

For plastering the exposed brick walls, the cement sand mortar should be
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 1 : 4
(D) 1 : 6
Answer: Option C
Question No. 108

The stone blocks approximately triangular in shape, used as steps, are known
(A) Stone steps
(B) Built up steps
(C) Spandril steps
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(D) None of these

Answer: Option C
Question No. 109

As compared to English bond, double Flemish bond is
(A) Stronger
(B) More compact
(C) Costly
Answer: Option B
Question No. 110

(A) The cost of square rooms is less
(B) The expenditure on the foundation and roof for the double storeyed building is nearly half of
that for the ground storeyed building
(C) The cost of construction of a house may be minimised by restricting the height floors
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 111

In the method of tube boring of soil investigation, the following is essential:
(A) A tube of about 2 metres length and 20 cm diameter with a cutting edge
(B) A flap valve at the bottom of tube is provided to extract the soil sample
(C) The tube is raised and lowered by 4 thick rope moving over a pulley suspended on a tripod
stand
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 112

Slate
(A) Is a metamorphic rock
(B) Splits into thin sheets along its bedding planes
(C) Has a smooth surface and contains alumina and silica
(D) Possesses good water absorption capacity
Answer: Option A
Question No. 113

The minimum depth of foundation in clayey soils is
(A) 0.5 m
(B) 0.7 m
(C) 0.9 m
(D) 1.2 m
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 114

In case of Raymond pile
(A) Lengths vary from 6 m to 12 m
(B) Diameter of top of piles varies from 40 cm to 60 cm
(C) Diameter of pile at bottom varies from 20 cm to 28 cm
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 115

Herringbone bond is used for
(A) Walls having thickness more than 4 bricks
(B) Architectural finish to the face work
(C) Ornamental panels in brick flooring
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 116

Suitable spacing of timber piles, is
(A) 50 cm
(B) 60 cm
(C) 80 cm
(D) 90 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 117

The disease of dry rot in timber is caused by
(A) Lack of ventilation
(B) Alternate wet and dry conditions
(C) Complete submergence in water
Answer: Option A
Question No. 118

(A) Louvered door is generally provided in bath rooms
(B) Flush door is generally provided in dining room
(C) Revolving door is generally provided in cinema halls
(D) Sliding door is generally provided in show rooms
Answer: Option C
Question No. 119

The minimum distance between the centres of bulb of diameter du, of a multi under reamed piles,
is
(A) du
(B) 1.25 du
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(C) 1.5 du
(D) 1.75 du
Answer: Option C
Question No. 120

The stone masonry of finely dressed stones laid in cement or lime, is
(A) Random rubble masonry
(B) Coursed rubble masonry
(C) Dry rubble masonry
(D) Ashlar masonry
Answer: Option D
Question No. 121

The vertical posts placed at the top and bottom ends of a flight supporting the hand rail are known
as
(A) Balusters
(B) Newel posts
(C) Balustrades
(D) Railings
Answer: Option B
Question No. 122

(A) The function of foundation is to distribute the load of super structure over a large bearing
area
(B) No timbering is required for shallow trenches
(C) Shallow foundations can be constructed on made-up soil
(D) Black cotton soil is very good for foundation bed
Answer: Option D
Question No. 123

For the construction of flyovers in sandy soils, the type of foundation provided, is
(A) Strap footing
(B) Raft footing
(C) Combined footing
(D) Pier footing
Answer: Option D
Question No. 124

For a rectangular foundation of width b, eccentricity of load should not exceed
(A) b/2
(B) b/3
(C) b/4
(D) b/6
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 125

The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces is known as
(A) Friction pile
(B) Sheet pile
(C) Batter pile
(D) Anchor pile
Answer: Option C
Question No. 126

The maximum bearing capacity of soil is that of
(A) Black cotton soil
(B) Loose fine sandy soil
(C) Dry coarse sandy soil
(D) Hard rocks
Answer: Option D
Question No. 127

(A) Cavity of a cavity wall should start near ground level
(B) Cavity of a cavity wall should terminate near eaves level of sloping roof
(C) Cavity of a cavity wall should terminate near coping of flat roof with parapet wall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 128

The thickness of a reinforced brick partition wall, is generally kept
(A) 5 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 15 cm
(D) 20 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 129

The term string is used for
(A) The underside of a stair
(B) Outer projecting edge of a tread
(C) A sloping member which supports the steps in a stair
(D) A vertical member between two treads
Answer: Option C
Question No. 130

The 19 cm × 9 cm side of a brick as seen in the wall face, is generally known as
(A) Stretcher
(B) Face
(C) Front
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(D) Header
Answer: Option A
Question No. 131

The steel pile which is generally sunk in soft clay or loose sand of low bearing capacity, is
(A) H-pile
(B) Pipe pile
(C) Screw pile
(D) Disc pile
Answer: Option C
Question No. 132

Pick up the correct statement about silt soil from the following:
(A) The silt soil has particle size from 0.02 mm to 0.06 mm
(B) In organic fine grained silt soil possesses no plasticity
(C) The least plastic type normally consists of more or less equidimensional grains of quartz
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 133

The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries and other places where
noiseless floor covering is desired is
(A) Cork flooring
(B) Glass flooring
(C) Wooden flooring
(D) Linoleum flooring
Answer: Option A
Question No. 134

The angle between skew back of a flat arch and the horizontal, is kept approximately equal to
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option C
Question No. 135

(A) The sand in the sand pile is well compacted
(B) The sand is kept moist at the time of placing and tamping
(C) Sand piles are generally used under column loads
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 136

(A) A combined footing is so proportioned that centre of gravity of supporting area coincides
with centre of gravity of two column loads
(B) A combined footing may be either rectangular or trapezoidal in shape
(C) Trapezoidal shaped footings may be provided under any loading
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 137

Minimum width of landing should be
(A) Equal to width of stairs
(B) Half the width of stairs
(C) Twice the width of stairs
(D) One fourth the width of stairs
Answer: Option A
Question No. 138

For a wall carrying heavy load on low bearing capacity soil,
(A) Lean concrete bed is provided
(B) Thick concrete bed is provided
(C) Reinforced concrete bed is provided
(D) Both (a) and (c) of the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 139

While investigating the site, a thick layer of fairly firm clay over a deep layer of soft clay is
encountered. In such a situation, the following type of foundation is useful:
(A) Pile formation
(B) Raft foundation
(C) Grillage foundation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 140

The type of arch used for high class buildings where appearance is of prime importance, is known
as
(A) Ashlar arch
(B) Rubble arch
(C) Gauged brick arch
(D) Axed brick arch
Answer: Option A
Question No. 141

Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in
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(A) Two directions without break in the slope on each side

(B) Two directions with break in the slope on each side
(C) Four directions without break in the slope on each side
(D) Four directions with break in the slope on each side
Answer: Option D
Question No. 142

If is the angle of repose of soil of weight w kg/m3, the horizontal pressure p at a depth
of h metres per metre length of wall, is
(A) wh × [(1 - sin )/(1 + )]
(B) (wh/2) × [(1 - sin )/(1 + )]
(C) wh - sin )/(1 + )]
(D) wh )/(1 - )]
Answer: Option A
Question No. 143

Pick up the correct specification of one-room quarters generally adopted from the following:
(A) Six quarters in a row
(B) The size of room is either 3.5 m × 3 m or 4.2 m × 2.5 m
(C) The front verandah is kept 2 m wide
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 144

The piece of a brick cut along the centre of width in such a way that its length is equal to that of
full brick, is called
(A) Half brick
(B) Queen closer
(C) King closer
(D) Bevelled closer
Answer: Option B
Question No. 145

Number of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of joints in the header course,
where x is equal to
(A) 1/2
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 1/4
Answer: Option A
Question No. 146

The process of keeping concrete moist for a certain period after its finishing, is known as
(A) Finishing of concrete
(B) Curing of concrete
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(C) Placing of concrete

(D) Compaction of concrete
Answer: Option B
Question No. 147

The inner section of a cavity wall, is generally known as
(A) Buttress
(B) Leaf wall
(C) Pilaster
(D) Pillar
Answer: Option B
Question No. 148

(A) Sand consists of coarse particles of silica formed due to the disintegration of rocks
(B) The grains of sand are not affected by frost
(C) Sand beds are permeable and do not allow water to rise up between pores due to capillary
action
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 149

The lintels are preferred to arches because
(A) Arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc.
(B) Arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
(C) Arches are difficult in construction
Answer: Option D
Question No. 150

Cavity wall is generally provided for
(A) Heat insulation
(B) Sound insulation
(C) Prevention of dampness
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 151

The construction joints in buildings are provided after
(A) 10 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 20 m
(D) 40 m
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 152

A pointed arch which forms isosceles or equilateral triangle, is generally known as
(A) Three centred arch
(B) Two centred arch
(C) Lancet arch
(D) Bull's eye arch
Answer: Option C
Question No. 153

In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the bearing
capacity of soils is to
(A) Increase the depth of foundation
(B) Drain the soil
(C) Compact the soil
(D) Replace the poor soil
Answer: Option D
Question No. 154

Depth of lean concrete bed placed at the bottom of a wall footing, is kept
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) Equal to its projection beyond wall base
(D) Less than its projection beyond wall base
Answer: Option C
Question No. 155

The sound which continues even after its source is cut off, is called
(A) Reverberation
(B) Echo
(C) Intensity of sound
(D) Interference
Answer: Option A
Question No. 156

(A) The bearing capacity of a pile is defined as the load which can be sustained by the pile
without producing excessive settlement
(B) The safe bearing capacity of a pile is obtained by dividing the ultimate bearing capacity with
a suitable factor of safety
(C) The factor of safety for piles is taken as 6
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 157

The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should be limited to
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(A) 25 mm
(B) 25 to 40 mm
(C) 40 to 65 mm
(D) 65 to 100 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 158

Which one of the following rocks is used for monumental buildings?
(A) Granite
(B) Marble
(C) Sand stone
(D) Slate
Answer: Option B
Question No. 159

Pick up the consideration to the taken while designing a hospital from the following:
(A) The operation theatre unit to be detached as it requires sterilized zone but near the ward for
the patients and doctor
(B) The mortuary should be detached from the main circulation with a post-mortem room
(C) Casualty unit should be provided a separate entrance
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 160

The members which support covering material of a sloping roof, are
(A) Rafters
(B) Purlins
(C) Battens
(D) Struts
Answer: Option A
Question No. 161

The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line drawn through the
crown of an arch is known as
(A) Haunch
(B) Spandril
(C) Voussoirs
(D) Skewbacks
Answer: Option B
Question No. 162

For providing a raft foundation, the following activities are involved
1. Ramming the foundation bed
2. Excavation of the soil upto required depth
3. Laying the reinforcement over the foundation bed
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4. Curing the cement concrete placed over reinforcement

5. Pouring the cement concrete over the reinforcement
The correct sequence is
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(B) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
(D) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
Answer: Option C
Question No. 163

The stone whose crushing strength is maximum, is
(A) Granite
(B) Chalk
(C) Slate
(D) Sand stone
Answer: Option A
Question No. 164

Brick nogging type of partition wall, is constructed by
(A) Laying bricks as stretchers in cement mortar
(B) Laying bricks as headers in cement mortar
(C) Reinforcing brick wall with iron straps
(D) Constructing brick work within a wooden framework
Answer: Option D
Question No. 165

Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of
(A) 2.5 m
(B) 3.5 m
(C) 4.5 m
(D) 5.5 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 166

A solid core of rock is formed inside the cylinder in the case of
(A) Auger boring
(B) Percussion drilling
(C) Diamond drilling
(D) Wash boring
Answer: Option C
Question No. 167

The floor is rubbed with oxalic acid, for making its surface
(A) Free from voids
(B) Glossy
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(C) Durable
(D) Uniform
Answer: Option B
Question No. 168

The line of intersection of two surfaces of a sloping roof forming an internal angle less than 180°, is
known as
(A) Ridge
(B) Hip
(C) Valley
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 169

In which of the following directions, the strength of timber is maximum?
(A) Parallel to grains
(B) 45° to grains
(C) Perpendicular to grains
(D) Same in all directions
Answer: Option A
Question No. 170

Arches in the form of masonry arcs struck from more than four centres, are called
(A) Two curved arches
(B) Gothic arches
(C) Ogee arches
(D) Drop gothic arches
Answer: Option C
Question No. 171

(A) Horizontal D.P.C. is provided at plinth level in internal walls
(B) D.P.C. is provided under door and verandah openings
(C) Vertical D.P.C. is not provided in internal walls
(D) Cement concrete is a rigid damp-proofing material
Answer: Option B
Question No. 172

The vertical faces of a door opening which support frame of the door, are
(A) Jambs
(B) Posts
(C) Reveals
(D) Styles
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 173

The lower edge of the pitched roof, from where the rain water of the roof surface drops down, is
known as
(A) Hip
(B) Gable
(C) Ridge
(D) Eaves
Answer: Option D
Question No. 174

The arrangement of supporting an existing structure by providing supports underneath, is known
as
(A) Shoring
(B) Underpinning
(C) Jacking
(D) Piling
Answer: Option B
Question No. 175

(A) The first coat of stucco plaster is called scratch coat
(B) The second coat of stucco plaster is called brown coat
(C) The third coat of stucco plaster is called white coat
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 176

A concrete structure is set on fire and the temperature raises to 1000°C. The strength of concrete
as compared to original strength reduces to
(A) 10 %
(B) 15 %
(C) 20 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option C
Question No. 177

The horizontal timber piece provided at the apex of a roof truss which supports the common rafter
is called
(A) Ridge board
(B) Hip rafter
(C) Eaves board
(D) Valley rafter
Answer: Option A
Question No. 178
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(A) In dog-legged stairs, no space between its flights is provided
(B) In open newel stair, a rectangular well is provided
(C) In geometric stair, a curved shaped well between forward and backward flights, is provided
(D) In geometrical stair, two quarter space landing is provided
Answer: Option D
Question No. 179

The maximum number of steps in a flight should generally be restricted to
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) No limit
Answer: Option B
Question No. 180

In flat roof of reinforced cement concrete, the recommended angle of slope, is
(A) Zero
(B) A few degrees
(C) 10°
(D) 200°
Answer: Option B
Question No. 181

The process of working a flat for the finishing coat, is known
(A) Dubbing out
(B) Floating
(C) Knitting
(D) Blistering
Answer: Option B
Question No. 182

The highest line of sloping roof, where two opposite slopes meet, is known as
(A) Rafter
(B) Ridge
(C) Crown
(D) Eave
Answer: Option B
Question No. 183

The depth of the ground water table may be ascertained by
(A) Looking through the well in the vicinity
(B) Standing on the well in the vicinity
(C) Measuring the depth of water in the well
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 184

Which of the following metal sheets is most effective in preventing dampness?
(A) Copper sheets
(B) Lead sheets
(C) Aluminium sheets
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 185

Under reamed piles are generally used for
(A) Machine foundations
(B) Factory building
(C) Tall structures
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 186

(A) The width of the wall is constructed thicker at the base in a stepped fashion
(B) A long vertical load transferring concrete structure is called a concrete pile
(C) In pile which transfers the load to the soil by the friction between the pile and the
surrounding soil is called friction pile
(D) The pile which transfers the load to a hard rock bed at certain depth is called load bearing
Answer: Option D
Question No. 187

Engineering news formula for obtaining safe bearing capacity of pile for drop hammer, is,
(A) Q = Wh/6 (S + 2.5)
(B) Q = Wh/2.5 (S + 6)
(C) Q = (W × 6)/h (S + 2.5)
(D) Q = (W × 2.5)/6 (S + h)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 188

The rock formed from the solidification of molten matter (magma) is called:
(C) Igneous rock
Answer: Option C
Question No. 189

The maximum permissible deflection of a timber beam supporting a roof, is
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(A) L/100
(B) L/150
(C) L/260
(D) L/360
Answer: Option D
Question No. 190

Negative skin friction
(A) Is a downward drag acting on a pile due to downward movement of the surrounding
compressible soil relative to the pile
(B) Develops due to lowering of ground water
(D) Neither (a) not (b)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 191

The ceiling height of a building is
(A) Between ceiling and ground level
(B) Between ceiling and floor level
(C) Upto roof above ground level
(D) Upto ceiling from the ground level
Answer: Option B
Question No. 192

The skirting/dado in a bath roof should be upto
(A) Ceiling
(B) 15 cm above floor level
(C) 200 cm
(D) Level of the tap
Answer: Option C
Question No. 193

The bearing capacity of piles is determined by
(A) Dynamic formula
(B) Static formula
(C) Pile load tests
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 194

The vertical sides of a door and window openings provided in a wall, are known as
(A) Verticals
(B) Reveals
(C) Jambs
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 195

The type of ashlar masonry in which stones are finely chisel dressed and thickness of joints does
not exceed 3 mm, is
(A) Chamfered ashlar masonry
(B) Ashlar facing masonry
(C) Random coursed ashlar masonry
(D) Coursed ashlar masonry
Answer: Option D
Question No. 196

The form Work including the props can be removed from beams, only after
(A) 3 day
(B) 7 days
(C) 14 days
(D) 21 days
Answer: Option C
Question No. 197

The mortar in which both cement and lime are used as binding materials, is called
(A) Cement mortar
(B) Lime mortar
(C) Fire resistant mortar
(D) Gauged mortar
Answer: Option D
Question No. 198

According to Rankine's formula, minimum depth of foundations, is
(A) (P/w) × [(1 + sin )/(1 - )]²
(B) (P/w) × [(1 - sin )/(1 + )]²
(C) (P/2w) × [(1 - sin )/(1 + )]²
(D) (P/w) × [(1 + sin )/(1 - )]
Answer: Option B
Question No. 199

To stagger vertical joints in successive courses of a wall, a piece of brick is generally used at the
end of the course, which is known as
(A) Bat
(B) Header
(C) Stretcher
(D) Closer
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 200

The bearing capacity of granite is generally
(A) 5 to 10 kg/cm2
(B) 15 to 20 kg/cm2
(C) 30 to 35 kg/cm2
(D) 40 to 45 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 201

In grillage foundations a minimum 15 cm cover is provided on
(A) Upper flange of top tier
(B) Lower beam of lower tier
(C) Ends of external beams
(D) None to these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 202

Stability of an existing structure may be disturbed by
(A) Rising of water table
(B) Vibrations caused by traffic movements
(C) Mining in the neighbourhood
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 203

The Auger boring method is not suitable for
(A) Very hard soil
(B) Cemented soil
(C) Vary soft soil
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 204

Dampness causes
(A) Efflorescence
(B) Bleaching of paints
(C) Crumbling of plaster
(D) Growth of termites
Answer: Option D
Question No. 205

The pile which supports the load partly by friction and partly by resting on hard stratum, is called
(A) Friction pile
(B) Bearing pile
(C) Friction bearing pile
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(D) Rough pile

Answer: Option C
Question No. 206

An ordinary concrete may be made water proof by adding
(A) Pudlo
(B) Impermo
(C) Snowcem
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 207

The opening provided in sloping roof with its top parallel to the roof surface, is called
(A) Dormer window
(B) Sky light window
(C) Lantern window
(D) Louvered window
Answer: Option B
Question No. 208

(A) The roof slabs of multi-storeyed buildings are constructed monolithically to carry the various
floor loads
(B) The beams of multi-storeyed buildings rest on girders and are the main load transferring
members to the columns
(C) The slab is spanned across the secondary beams provided between the main beams
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 209

The window which is provided in flat roof of a room, is known
(A) Dormer window
(B) Lantern window
(C) Louvered window
(D) Sky window
Answer: Option B
Question No. 210

Grillage foundation
(A) Is used to transfer heavy structural loads from steel columns to a soil having low bearing
capacity
(B) Is light and economical
(C) Does not require deep cutting as the required base area with required pressure intensity is
obtained at a shallow depth
(D) All the above
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 211

Pick up the correct statements from the following:
(A) Cracks appear on the plastered surface in the form of hair cracks
(B) In brick work, the efflorescence is removed by applying a solution of zinc sulphate and water
(C) Excessive thermal variations in the backing or plaster causes the plaster to fall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 212

The window which is provided on a sloping roof of a building, is called
(A) Lantern window
(B) Dormer window
(C) Louvered window
(D) Rash window
Answer: Option B
Question No. 213

The single stage well point system of dewatering an excavation can be used if the depth of
excavation does not exceed
(A) 5 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 15 m
(D) 20 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 214

The nominal thickness of one brick wall in mm, is
(A) 90 mm
(B) 150 mm
(C) 190 mm
(D) 200 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 215

(A) The retaining wall should be structurally capable to resist the applied earth pressure
(B) The section of the retaining wall should be so proportioned that it may not overturn by the
lateral pressure
(C) The retaining wall should be safe against sliding
(D) To drain off water from the earth retained, weep holes are provided near the top of the
retaining wall
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 216

The stepped structure provided for lateral support of a structure, is
(A) Retaining wall
(B) Breast wall
(C) Buttress
(D) Parapet wall
Answer: Option C
Question No. 217

Raft foundations are used for:
(A) Providing increased area of foundation over poor bearing capacity of soil
(B) Spanning over small soft or loose pockets
(C) Counter acting the hydrostatic effect
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 218

(A) In Flemish bond, headers and stretchers are laid alternately in the same course
(B) In Flemish bond every header in each course lies centrally over every stretcher of the
underlying course
(C) In English bond, stretchers are laid in every course
(D) In English bond, headers and stretchers are laid in alternate courses
Answer: Option C
Question No. 219

Stud(s) of a common wooden partition
(A) Are vertical wooden members
(B) Is the upper horizontal wooden member
(C) Is the lower horizontal wooden member
(D) Are the intermediate horizontal wooden members
Answer: Option A
Question No. 220

The additional piles which are driven to increase the capacity of supporting loads on vertical piles,
are known
(A) Construction piles
(B) Raking piles
(C) Eccentric piles
(D) Sinking piles
Answer: Option B
Question No. 221

Queen closer may be placed
(A) In header course
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(B) In stretcher course

(C) In header course next to first brick
(D) In stretcher course next to first brick
Answer: Option C
Question No. 222

The bearing capacity of a water logged soil, may be improved by
(A) Grouting
(B) Chemical action
(C) Drainage
(D) Compaction
Answer: Option C
Question No. 223

The process of making the back ground rough, before plastering, is
(A) Dubbing
(B) Hacking
(C) Blistering
(D) Peeling
Answer: Option B
Question No. 224

Which one of the following piles has a cast iron shoe even after removal of the hollow cylindrical
steel casing?
(A) Simplex pile
(B) Pedestal pile
(C) Vibro pile
(D) Both (a) and (c) of the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 225

While designing a stair, the product of rise and going is approximately kept equal to
(A) 350
(B) 420
(C) 450
(D) 500
Answer: Option B
Question No. 226

Nogging of a common wooden partition is
(A) Upper horizontal wooden member
(B) Lower horizontal wooden member
(C) Intermediate horizontal wooden member
(D) Vertical wooden member
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 227

Which one of the following factors is considered for the orientation of buildings?
(A) The direction of the prevailing winds in the area
(B) The exposure of the walls and roof of the buildings to the rays of sun
(C) The extent up to which the sunrays penetrate with the verandah
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 228

To construct a 10 cm thick partition wall, you will prefer
(A) English bond
(B) Flemish bond
(C) Header bond
(D) Stretcher bond
Answer: Option D
Question No. 229

The strength of brick masonry in 1:6 cement mortar, is
(A) 20 tonnes/m2
(B) 40 tonnes/m2
(C) 50 tonnes/m2
(D) 60 tonnes/m2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 230

The form work from the sides of beams can be removed only after
(A) 1 day
(B) 4 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 14 days
Answer: Option A
Question No. 231

For brick construction, the lime-sand mortar, is
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 3
(D) 1 : 4
Answer: Option B
Question No. 232

The least bearing capacity of soil is that of
(A) Hard rock
(B) Moist clay
(C) Soft rock
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(D) Coarse sandy soil

Answer: Option B
Question No. 233

The maximum permissible differential settlement, in case of foundations in clayey soil, is usually
limited to
(A) 10 mm
(B) 20 mm
(C) 30 mm
(D) 40 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 234

(A) English bond is used for brick masonry to support heavy loads
(B) Double-Flemish bond is suitable for brick masonry to give uniform face appearance
(C) The stretcher bond is used for the construction of half brick masonry brick
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 235

The black cotton soil
(A) Undergoes volumetric changes
(B) Swells excessively when wet
(C) Shrinks excessively when dry
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 236

A cut in frame of a door to receive the shutter, is called
(A) Louver
(B) Stop
(C) Horn
(D) Rebate
Answer: Option D
Question No. 237

The loose pockets in soil mass can be bridged safely by providing a raft foundation provided the
soft area is smaller than
(A) The column spacing
(B) One-third the column spacing
(C) Half the column spacing
(D) Three-fourth the column spacing
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 238

(A) In king post truss, one vertical post is used
(B) In a queen post truss, one vertical post is used
(C) In a queen post truss, two vertical posts are used
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 239

The pile which is provided with a bulb filled with concrete at its lower end, is known as
(A) Simplex pile
(B) Mac-Arthur pile
(C) Raymond pile
(D) Franki pile
Answer: Option B
Question No. 240

Ornamental moulded course placed on the top of a wall, is
(A) Cornice
(B) Coping
(C) Frieze
(D) Lintel
Answer: Option A
Question No. 241

(A) Cement is added to lime mortar to increase its hydraulic properties only
(B) Lime surkhi mortar is used for pointing the walls
(C) Lime should be slaked before preparing lime mortar
(D) High early strength concrete is generally used in cold weather
Answer: Option A
Question No. 242

Pile foundation is generally provided if soil is
(A) Compressible
(B) Water logged
(C) Made up
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 243

Bearing capacity of soils cannot be improved by
(A) Draining sub-soil water
(B) Ramming crushed stone in soil
(C) Driving sand piles
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(D) Watering surface of soil

Answer: Option D
Question No. 244

Rotary drilling is the fastest method in case of
(A) Rocky soils
(B) Clay soils
(C) Sandy soil
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 245

The concrete slump recommended for beams and slabs; is
(A) 25 to 50 mm
(B) 25 to 75 mm
(C) 30 to 125 mm
(D) 50 to 100 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 246

The alignment of a cross joint along the plumb line is
(A) Bed block
(B) Perpend
(C) Lintel
(D) Vertical line
Answer: Option B
Question No. 247

A projecting piece usually provided to support a truss, is
(A) Cornice
(B) Coping
(C) Frieze
(D) Lintel
Answer: Option C
Question No. 248

Best type of piles for soft soil having little resistance to the flow of concrete, is
(A) Simplex pile
(B) Vibro pile
(C) Raymond pile
(D) Franki pile
Answer: Option B
Question No. 249

The form work from the underside of slabs, can be removed only after
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(A) 1 day
(B) 4 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 14 days
Answer: Option C
Question No. 250

Couple roof is used for spans
(A) 3.5 m or less
(B) 3.5 m but less than 5 m
(C) 5 m but less than 6.5 m
(D) 6.5 m but less than 8 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 251

For heavy embankments and dams, of height h, the depth of exploration of soil should not be less
than
(A) h/4
(B) 1/2 h
(C) h
(D) 2 h
Answer: Option D
Question No. 252

The vertical member running through middle of a shutter frame, is
(A) Style
(B) Reveal
(C) Mullion
(D) Post
Answer: Option C
Question No. 253

The lower half portion between crown and skew back of the arch, is called
(A) Spandril
(B) Haunch
(C) Springing
(D) Soffit
Answer: Option B
Question No. 254

An arch may fail due to
(A) Uneven settlement of abutments
(B) Sliding of voussoirs
(C) Crushing of the material
(D) All the above
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 255

The exterior angle between outer faces of a wall, is known as
(A) Turn
(B) Junction
(C) Quion
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 256

The minimum thickness of walls built in cement mortar (1 : 6) for a single storey building, is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 25 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 257

Pick up the commonly adopted geophysical method in civil engineering from the following:
(A) The seismic method
(B) Electrical resistivity method
(C) Gravitational method
(D) Both (a) and (b) of the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 258

If height of the first storey of a building is 3.2 m and riser is 13 cm, the number of treads required,
is
(A) 12
(B) 18
(C) 24
(D) 25
Answer: Option C
Question No. 259

Dado is usually provided in
(A) Dining halls
(B) Bath rooms
(C) Living rooms
(D) Verandah
Answer: Option B
Question No. 260

A roof which slopes in four directions, is called
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(A) Shed roof

(B) Gable end roof
(C) Hipped roof
(D) Gambrel roof
Answer: Option C
Question No. 261

The taper of precast concrete pile should not be more than
(A) 1 cm per metre length
(B) 2 cm per metre length
(C) 4 cm per metre length
(D) 5 cm per metre length
Answer: Option B
Question No. 262

If the depth of an excavation is 20 metres, number of single stage well points to be installed at
various levels, is
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 263

In case of multi-storeyed buildings, the forms to be removed first are
(A) Sides of beams and girders
(B) Column forms
(C) Bottom of beams and girders
(D) All the above at the same time
Answer: Option A
Question No. 264

The vertical members fixed between steps and hand rail, are known
(A) Balusters
(B) Strings
(C) Newel posts
(D) Soffits
Answer: Option A
Question No. 265

The depth of an arch is the distance between
(A) Ground level and springing line
(B) Crown and springing line
(C) Crown and ground level
(D) Intrados and extrados
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 266

The nominal thickness of an expansion joint in brick walls, is kept more than
(A) 5 mm
(B) 10 mm
(C) 15 mm
(D) 20 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 267

Exposed portions of vertical surface at right angles to the door or window frame, are known as
(A) Jambs
(B) Lintels
(C) Reveals
(D) Soffits
Answer: Option C
Question No. 268

The projections of head or sill of a door or window frame are
(A) Transoms
(B) Horns
(C) Stops
(D) Chocks
Answer: Option B
Question No. 269

The line of intersection of the surfaces of a sloping roof forming an external angle exceeding 180°,
is
(A) Ridge
(B) Hip
(C) Valley
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 270

The depth of excavation of foundations, is generally measured with a
(A) Ranging rod
(B) Steel tape
(C) Levelling staff
(D) Boning rod
Answer: Option D
Question No. 271

The 9 cm × 9 cm side of a brick as seen in the wall face, is generally known as
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Concrete tech and design.1-10.pdf

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Concrete Technology and Design
Question No. 01
The temperature reinforcement in the vertical slab of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is
(A) Not needed
(B) Provided equally on inner and front faces
(C) Provided more on inner face than on front face
(D) Provided more on front face than on inner face
Answer: Option D
Question No. 02
Bulking of sand is maximum if moisture content is about
(A) 2 %
(B) 4 %
(C) 6 %
(D) 10 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 03
Diagonal tension in a beam
(A) Is maximum at neutral axis
(B) Decreases below the neutral axis and increases above the neutral axis
(C) Increases below the neutral axis and decreases above the neutral axis
(D) Remains same
Answer: Option C
Question No. 04
According to IS: 4561978, the column or the strut is the member whose effective length is greater
than
(A) The least lateral dimension
(B) 2 times the least lateral dimension
(C) 3 times the least lateral dimension
(D) 4 times the least lateral dimension
Answer: Option C
Question No. 05
When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced by
(A) Increasing the depth
(B) Providing shear reinforcement
(C) Using high strength steel
(D) Using thinner bars but more in number
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 06
The diameter of ties in a column should be
(A) More than or equal to one fourth of diameter of main bar
(B) More than or equal to 5 mm
(C) More than 5 mm but less than one-fourth of diameter of main bar
(D) More than 5 mm and also more than one-fourth of diameter of main bar
Answer: Option D
Question No. 07
In counterfort retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem at support is
(A) Not provided
(B) Provided only on inner face
(C) Provided only on front face
(D) Provided both on inner and front faces
Answer: Option B
Question No. 08
Due to shrinkage stresses, a simply supported beam having reinforcement only at bottom tends to
(A) Deflect downward
(B) Deflect upward
(C) Deflect downward or upward
Answer: Option A
Question No. 09
The purpose of reinforcement in pre-stressed concrete is
(A) To provide adequate bond stress
(B) To resist tensile stresses
(C) To impart initial compressive stress in concrete
Answer: Option C
Question No. 10
(A) Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is nearly the same as that of mild steel
(B) Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is more than that of mild steel
(C) Carbon percentage in high carbon steel is less than that in mild steel
(D) High tensile steel is cheaper than mild steel
Answer: Option A
Question No. 11
To minimise the effect of differential settlement, the area of a footing should be designed for
(A) Dead load only
(B) Dead load + live load
(C) Dead load + fraction of live load
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(D) Live load + fraction of dead load

Answer: Option C
Question No. 12
Due to circumferential action of the spiral in a spirally reinforced column
(A) Capacity of column is decreased
(B) Ductility of column reduces
(C) Capacity of column is decreased but ductility of column increases
(D) Both the capacity of column and ductility of column increase
Answer: Option D
Question No. 13
For concreting of heavily reinforced sections without vibration, the workability of concrete
expressed as compacting factor should be
(A) 0.75 - 0.80
(B) 0.80 - 0.85
(C) 0.85 - 0.92
(D) Above 0.92
Answer: Option D
Question No. 14
Workability of concrete is directly proportional to
(A) Aggregate cement ratio
(B) Time of transit
(C) Grading of the aggregate
(D) All of above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 15
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Minimum cross sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement in a column is 0.8%
(B) Spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of column should not exceed 300
mm
(C) Reinforcing bars in a column should not be less than 12 mm in diameter
(D) The number of longitudinal bars provided in a circular column should not be less than four
Answer: Option D
Question No. 16
Critical section for shear in case of flat slabs is at a distance of
(A) Effective depth of slab from periphery of column/drop panel
(B) d/2 from periphery of column/capital/ drop panel
(C) At the drop panel of slab
(D) At the periphery of column
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 17
For road pavements, the cement generally used, is
(C) Low heat cement
(D) Blast furnace slag cement
Answer: Option B
Question No. 18
(A) Space between the exterior walls of a warehouse and bag piles should be 30 cm
(B) Cement bags should preferably be piled on wooden planks
(C) Width and height of the pile should not exceed 3 m and 2.70 m respectively
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 19
For a slab supported on its four edges with corners held down and loaded uniformly, the Marcus
correction factor to the moments obtained by Grashoff Rankine's theory
(A) Is always less than 1
(B) Is always greater than 1
(C) Can be more than 1
(D) Can be less than 1
Answer: Option A
Question No. 20
Addition of pozzolana to ordinary port land cement, causes
(A) Decrease in early strength
(B) Reduction in chemical action with sulphates
(C) Increase in shrinkage
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 21
(A) The maximum size of a coarse aggregate, is 75 mm and minimum 4.75 mm
(B) The maximum size of the fine aggregate, is 4.75 mm and minimum 0.075 mm
(C) The material having particles of size varying from 0.06 mm to 0.002 mm, is known as silt
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 22
In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement is provided on the
(i) Bottom face in front counterfort
(ii) Inclined face in front counterfort
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(iii) Bottom face in back counterfort

(iv) Inclined face in back counterfort
(A) (i) and (ii),
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 23
For construction of structures in sea water, the cement generally preferred to, is
(A) Portland-pozzolana cement
(B) Quick setting cement
(C) Low heat Portland cement
(D) Rapid hardening cement
Answer: Option A
Question No. 24
Curing of pavements, floors, roofs and slabs, is done by
(A) Membrane method
(B) Ponding method
(C) Covering surface with bags
(D) Sprinkling water method
Answer: Option B
Question No. 25
The centroid of compressive force, from the extreme compression fiber, in limit state design lies at
a distance of
(A) 0.367 xu
(B) 0.416 xu
(C) 0.446 xu
(D) 0.573 xu
Where xu is the depth of neutral axis at the limit state of collapse
Answer: Option B
Question No. 26
(A) Construction joints are necessarily planned for their locations
(B) Expansion joints are provided to accommodate thermal expansion
(C) Construction joints are provided to control shrinkage cracks
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 27
The bulk density of aggregates, depends upon
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(A) Shape
(B) Grading
(C) Compaction
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 28
In symmetrically reinforced sections, shrinkage stresses in concrete and steel are respectively
(A) Compressive and tensile
(B) Tensile and compressive
(C) Both compressive
(D) Both tensile
Answer: Option B
Question No. 29
The main object of compaction of concrete, is:
(A) To eliminate air holes
(B) To achieve maximum density
(C) To provide intimate contact between the concrete and embedded materials
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 30
Which of the following has high tensile strength?
(A) Plain hot rolled wires
(B) Cold drawn wires
(C) Heat treated rolled wires
(D) All have same tensile strength
Answer: Option B
Question No. 31
(A) The degree of grinding of cement, is called fineness
(B) The process of changing cement paste into hard mass, is known as setting of cement
(C) The phenomenon by virtue of which cement does not allow transmission of sound, is known
as soundness of cement
(D) The heat generated during chemical reaction of cement with water, is known as heat of
hydration
Answer: Option C
Question No. 32
Concrete gains strength due to
(A) Chemical reaction of cement with sand and coarse aggregates
(B) Evaporation of water from concrete
(C) Hydration of cement
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option C
Question No. 33
To determine the modulus of rupture, the size of test specimen used is
(A) 150 × 150 × 500 mm
(B) 100 × 100 × 700 mm
(C) 150 × 150 × 700 mm
(D) 100 × 100 × 500 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 34
Tricalcium aluminate (C3A)
(A) Reacts fast with water
(B) Generates less heat of hydration
(C) Causes initial setting and early strength of cement
(D) Does not contribute to develop ultimate strength
Answer: Option B
Question No. 35
If the various concrete ingredients i.e. cement, sand and aggregates are in the ratio of 1:3:6, the
grade of concrete, is
(A) M 100
(B) M 150
(C) M 200
(D) M 250
Answer: Option A
Question No. 36
Admixtures which cause early setting and hardening of concrete are called
(A) Workability admixtures
(B) Accelerators
(C) Retarders
(D) Air entraining agents
Answer: Option B
Question No. 37
(A) Sand stones may be divided into calcareous, siliceous and ferruginous sand stones
(B) Concrete using sand stones, cracks due to excessive shrinkage
(C) Broken bricks produce a concrete having good fire resisting qualities
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 38
(A) Admixtures accelerate hydration
(B) Admixtures make concrete water proof
(C) Admixtures make concrete acid proof
(D) Admixtures give high strength
Answer: Option A
Question No. 39
For a reinforced concrete section, the shape of shear stress diagram is
(A) Wholly parabolic
(B) Wholly rectangular
(C) Parabolic above neutral axis and rectangular below neutral axis
(D) Rectangular above neutral axis and parabolic below neutral axis
Answer: Option C
Question No. 40
Allowable shear strength of concrete, depends upon
(A) Shear strength
(B) Tensile strength
(C) Compressive strength
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 41
In slump test, each layer of concrete is compacted by a steel rod 60 cm long and of 16 mm
diameter for
(A) 20 times
(B) 25 times
(C) 30 times
(D) 50 times
Answer: Option B
Question No. 42
The individual variation between test strength of sample should not be more than
(A) ±5 % of average
(B) ± 10 % of average
(C) ± 15 % of average
(D) ±20 % of average
Answer: Option C
Question No. 43
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. For performing compressive strength test of
cement
(A) Cement and standard sand mortar are used in the ratio of 1 : 3
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(B) Water is added at the rate of (P/4) + 3.0 percentage of water where P is the percentage of
water for standard consistency
(C) A cube mould of 10 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm is used
(D) The prepared moulds are kept in a atmosphere of 50% relative humidity
Answer: Option A
Question No. 44
(A) Concrete for which preliminary tests are conducted, is called controlled concrete
(B) Bulking of sand depends upon the fineness of grains
(C) Concrete mix 1 : 6 : 12, is used for mass concrete in piers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 45
The slab is designed as one way if the ratio of long span to short span is
(A) Less than 1
(B) Between 1 and 1.5
(C) Between 1.5 and 2
(D) Greater than 2
Answer: Option D
Question No. 46
For the construction of cement concrete dams, the maximum permissible size of the aggregates, is
(A) 40 mm
(B) 50 mm
(C) 60 mm
(D) 70 mm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 47
(A) With passage of time, the strength of cement increases
(B) With passage of time, the strength of cement decreases
(C) After a period of 24 months, the strength of cement reduces to 50%
(D) The concrete made with storage deteriorated cement, gains strength with time
Answer: Option A
Question No. 48
The load carrying capacity of a helically reinforced column as compared to that of a tied column is
about
(A) 5 % less
(B) 10 % less
(C) 5 % more
(D) 10 % more
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 49
To hydrate 500kg of cement full water needed, is
(A) 100 kg
(B) 110 kg
(C) 120 kg
(D) 130 kg
Answer: Option D
Question No. 50
(A) A highly absorptive aggregate reduces the workability of concrete considerably
(B) The specific gravity of aggregate is important for the determination of the moisture content
(C) The absorption and porosity of an aggregate influence the property of the concrete
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 51
In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement in the stem at mid span is provided on
(A) Front face only
(B) Inner face only
(C) Both front face and inner face
Answer: Option A
Question No. 52
Under normal conditions using an ordinary cement, the period of removal of the form work, is:
(A) 7 days for beam soffits
(B) 14 days for bottom slabs of spans 4.6 m and more
(C) 21 days for bottom beams over 6 m spans
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 53
Water cement ratio is generally expressed in volume of water required per
(A) 10 kg
(B) 20 kg
(C) 30 kg
(D) 50 kg
Answer: Option D
Question No. 54
The minimum cover in a slab should neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less than
(A) 10 mm
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(B) 15 mm
(C) 25 mm
(D) 13 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 55
To ensure constant moisture content in aggregates
(A) Area of each aggregate pile should be large
(B) Height of each aggregate pile should not exceed 1.50 m
(C) Aggregate pile should be left for 24 hours before aggregates are used
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 56
(A) Cement should be mixed for at least one minute
(B) 10% of water is placed in the rotating drum before adding dry material
(C) 10% of water is added after placing the other ingredients in the drum
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 57
The average permissible stress in bond for plain bars in tension is
(A) Increased by 10% for bars in compression
(B) Increased by 25% for bars in compression
(C) Decreased by 10% for bars in compression
(D) Decreased by 25% for bars in compression
Answer: Option B
Question No. 58
Concrete mainly consists of
(A) Cement
(B) Aggregates
(C) Water
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 59
For the construction of thin R.C.C. structures, the type of cement to be avoided, is
(C) Low heat cement
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 60
Which of the following R.C. retaining walls is suitable for heights beyond 6 m?
(A) L-shaped wall
(B) T-shaped wall
(C) Counterfort type
Answer: Option C
Question No. 61
For batching 1:3:6 concrete mix by volume, the ingredients required per bag of 50 kg cement, are:
(A) 70 litres of sand and 120 litres of aggregates
(B) 70 kg of sand and 140 litres of aggregates
(C) 105 litres of sand and 140 litres of aggregates
(D) 105 litres of sand and 210 litres of aggregates
Answer: Option D
Question No. 62
A concrete using an air entrained cement
(A) Has strength less than 10% to 15%
(B) Has more resistance to weathering
(C) Is more plastic and workable
(D) Is free from segregation and bleeding
Answer: Option C
Question No. 63
In the design of a front counterfort in a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement is
provided on
(i) Bottom face near counterfort
(ii) Top face near counterfort
(iii) Bottom face near centre of span
(iv) Top face near centre of span
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iv)
(D) Both (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 64
(A) Segregation is necessary for a workable concrete
(B) Consistency does not affect the workability of concrete
(C) If the concrete mix is dry, the slump is maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 65
The surface where two successive placements of concrete meet, is known as
(A) Contraction joint
(B) Expansion joint
(C) Construction joint
Answer: Option C
Question No. 66
A beam curved in plan is designed for
(A) Bending moment and shear
(B) Bending moment and torsion
(C) Shear and torsion
(D) Bending moment, shear and torsion
Answer: Option D
Question No. 67
(A) Water cement paste hardens due to hydration
(B) During hardening cement binds the aggregates together
(C) Cement provides strength, durability and water tightness to the concrete
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 68
'Ware house pack' of cement means
(A) Full capacity of the ware house
(B) Pressure exertion of the bags of upper layers
(C) Pressure compaction of the bags on lower layers
(D) Packing the ware house
Answer: Option C
Question No. 69
High carbon content in the steel causes
(A) Decrease in tensile strength but increase in ductility
(B) Increase in tensile strength but decrease in ductility
(C) Decrease in both tensile strength and ductility
(D) Increase in both tensile strength and ductility
Answer: Option B
Question No. 70
If the engineer-in-charge approves, the 10 cm cubes may be used for the work test of concrete
provided maximum nominal size of aggregate, does not exceed
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
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(C) 20 cm
(D) 25 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 71
Particles of 0.002 mm size are that of
(A) Clay
(B) Sand
(C) Gravel
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 72
Ultimate strength of cold drawn high steel wires
(A) Increases with increase in diameter of bar
(B) Decreases with increase in diameter of bar
(C) Does not depend on diameter of bar
Answer: Option B
Question No. 73
The cement whose strength is a little lower than the ordinary cement during the first three
months but attains afterwards the same strength, is known as
(A) Low-heat Portland cement
(B) Rapid hardening Portland cement
(C) Portland blast slag cement
(D) Portland pozzolana cement
Answer: Option A
Question No. 74
The dimensions of a 35 litre forma for measuring aggregates by volume, are:
(A) length 30 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 30 cm
(B) length 39 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 32 cm
(C) length 27 cm, breadth 27 cm, height 48 cm
(D) length 220 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 40 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 75
Ratio of permissible stress in direct compression and bending compression is
(A) Less than 1
(B) Between 1 and 1.5
(C) Between 1.5 and 2.0
(D) Greater than 2
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 76
Concrete containing
(A) Siliceous aggregates, has higher co-efficient of expansion
(B) Igneous aggregates, has intermediate coefficient of expansion
(C) Lime stones, has lowest co-efficient of expansion
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 77
The lower water cement ratio in concrete, introduces
(A) Smaller creep and shrinkage
(B) Greater density and smaller permeability
(C) Improved frost resistance
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 78
In T-shaped R C. retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem is provided on
(A) The front face in one direction
(B) The front face in both directions
(C) The inner face in one direction
(D) The inner face in both directions
Answer: Option C
Question No. 79
The aggregate containing moisture in pores and having its surface dry, is known as
(A) Moist aggregates
(B) Very dry aggregates
(C) Dry aggregates
(D) Saturated surface dry aggregate
Answer: Option D
Question No. 80
(A) Construction joints in columns are provided a few cm below the junction of beam
(B) Construction joints in columns are provided at the bottom hunching
(C) Construction joints in beams and slabs are provided within middle third
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 81
According to ISI recommendations, the maximum depth of stress block for balanced section of a
beam of effective depth d is
(A) 0.43 d
(B) 0.55 d
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(C) 0.68 d
(D) 0.85 d
Answer: Option A
Question No. 82
Pick up the correct proportions of chemical ingredients of cement
(A) Lime : Silica : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3
(B) Silica : Lime : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3
(C) Alumina : Silica : Lime : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3
(D) Iron oxide : Alumina : Silica : Lime : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3
Answer: Option A
Question No. 83
Internal friction between the ingredients of concrete, is decreased by using
(A) Less water
(B) Fine aggregates
(C) Rich mix
(D) More water and coarse aggregates
Answer: Option D
Question No. 84
(A) The quality of water governs the strength of concrete
(B) 10% excess of water reduces the strength of concrete by 15%
(C) 30% excess of water reduces the strength of concrete by 50%
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 85
In pre-stressed concrete
(A) Forces of tension and compression change but lever arm remains unchanged
(B) Forces of tension and compressions remain unchanged but lever arm changes with the
moment
(C) Both forces of tension and compression as well as lever arm change
(D) Both forces of tension and compression as well as lever arm remain unchanged
Answer: Option B
Question No. 86
(A) Lime in excess, causes the cement to expand and disintegrate
(B) Silica in excess, causes the cement to set slowly
(C) Alumina in excess, reduces the strength of the cement
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 87
If the effective plan area of a warehouse is 54 sq. m, and maximum height of piles permitted is 270
cm, the number of cement bags to be stored, is
(A) 2000 bags
(B) 2200 bags
(C) 2400 bags
(D) 2700 bags
Answer: Option D
Question No. 88
The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends to rise to the surface while
placing and compacting, is called
(A) Segregation
(B) Bleeding
(C) Bulking
(D) Creep
Answer: Option B
Question No. 89
Workability of concrete for a given water content is good if the aggregates, are
(A) Rounded aggregate
(B) Irregular aggregate
(C) Angular aggregate
(D) Flaky aggregates
Answer: Option A
Question No. 90
For preparing ordinary concrete, the quantity of water used, is
(A) 5% by weight of aggregates plus 20% of weight of cement
(B) 10% by weight of aggregates plus 10% of weight of cement
(C) 5% by weight of aggregates plus 30% of weight of cement
(D) 30% by weight of aggregates plus 10% of weight of cement
Answer: Option C
Question No. 91
Finer grinding of cement
(A) Affects only the early development of strength
(B) Affects only the ultimate strength
(D) Does not affect the strength
Answer: Option A
Question No. 92
The light weight aggregates are obtained from
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(C) Igneous rocks
(D) Volcanic source
Answer: Option D
Question No. 93
The aggregate impact value of the aggregate used in
(A) Building concrete is less than 45
(B) Road pavement concrete is less than 30
(C) Runway concrete is less than 30
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 94
For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is generally
removed after
(A) 24 to 48 hours
(B) 3 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 14 days
Answer: Option A
Question No. 95
Efflorescence in cement is caused due to an excess of
(A) Alumina
(B) Iron oxide
(C) Silica
(D) Alkalis
Answer: Option D
Question No. 96
For given workability the grading requiring the least amount of water is one that gives
(A) Greatest surface area for the given cement and aggregates
(B) Least surface area for the given cement and aggregates
(C) Least weight for the given cement and aggregates
(D) Greatest weight for the given cement and aggregates
Answer: Option A
Question No. 97
Minimum pitch of transverse reinforcement in a column is
(A) The least lateral dimension of the member
(B) Sixteen times the smallest diameter of longitudinal reinforcement bar to be tied
(C) Forty-eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement
(D) Lesser of the above three values
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 98
Pick up the incorrect statement applicable to the field test of good cement.
(A) When one thrusts one's hand into a bag of cement, one should feel warm
(B) The colour of the cement is bluish
(C) By rubbing cement in between fingers, one should feed rough
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 99
An aggregate is known as cyclopean aggregate if its size is more than
(A) 4.75 mm
(B) 30 mm
(C) 60 mm
(D) 75 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 100

In counterfort type retaining walls
(i) The vertical slab is designed as a continuous slab
(ii) The heel slab is designed as a continuous slab
(iii) The vertical slab is designed as a cantilever
(iv) The heel slab is designed as a cantilever
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i)and(iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 101

Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is determined by
(A) Tensile strength test
(B) Slump test
(C) Compaction factor test
(D) Flexural strength test
Answer: Option C
Question No. 102

If the average compressive strength is 4000 kg/cm2 and standard deviation is 500, the co-efficient
of variation is
(A) 10 %
(B) 12.5 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 18.5 %
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 103

The effect of creep on modular ratio is
(A) To decrease it
(B) To increase it
(C) Either to decrease or to increase it
(D) To keep it unchanged
Answer: Option B
Question No. 104

The type of aggregates not suitable for high strength concrete and for pavements subjected to
tension, is
(A) Rounded aggregate
(B) Irregular aggregate
(C) Angular aggregate
(D) Flaky aggregate
Answer: Option A
Question No. 105

The maximum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement is that of
(A) Magnesium oxide
(B) Iron oxide
(C) Silica
(D) Lime
Answer: Option D
Question No. 106

Select the incorrect statement
(A) The loss of pre-stress is more in pre-tensioning system than in post-tensioning system.
(B) Pre-tensioning system has greater certainty about its durability.
(C) For heavy loads and large spans in buildings or bridges, post-tensioning system is cheaper
than pre-tensioning system
Answer: Option D
Question No. 107

The commercial name of white and coloured cement in India, is
(A) Colorcrete
(B) Silvicrete
(C) Snowcem
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 108

An excess of flaky particles in concrete aggregates
(A) Decreases the workability
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 161

According to the recommendations of IS : 456-1978, the expansion joints
(A) Are provided where plane changes abruptly
(B) Are provided to ensure minimum resistance
(C) Do not carry reinforcement across them
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 162

The impurity of mixing water which affects the setting time and strength of concrete, is
(A) Sodium sulphates
(B) Sodium chlorides
(C) Sodium carbonates and bicarbonates
(D) Calcium bicarbonates
Answer: Option C
Question No. 163

If the size of panel in a flat slab is 6 m × 6 m, then as per Indian Standard Code, the widths of
column strip and middle strip are
(A) 3.0 m and 1.5 m
(B) 1.5 m and 3.0 m
(C) 3.0 m and 3.0 m
(D) 1.5 m and 1.5 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 164

(A) The bottom and top ends of slump mould are parallel to each other
(B) The axis of the mould is perpendicular to the end faces
(C) The internal surface of the mould is kept clean and free from set cement
(D) The mould is in the form of a frustum of hexagonal pyramid
Answer: Option D
Question No. 165

The concrete mix which causes difficulty in obtaining a smooth finish, possess
(A) Segregation
(B) Internal friction
(C) Hardness
(D) Bleeding
Answer: Option C
Question No. 166

While designing the pile as a column, the end conditions are nearly
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(A) Both ends hinged

(B) Both ends fixed
(C) One end fixed and other end hinged
(D) One end fixed and other end free
Answer: Option C
Question No. 167

The internal dimensions of a ware house are 15 m × 5.6 m, and the maximum height of piles is
2.70 m, the maximum number of bags to be stored in two piles, are
(A) 1500 bags
(B) 2000 bags
(C) 2500 bags
(D) 3000 bags
Answer: Option D
Question No. 168

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. While performing preliminary test on concrete
(A) Proportions of the material and water should be the same as to be used at the work site
(B) Cement should be mixed by hand in order to maintain uniformity
(C) Concrete mix should be stored in air-tight containers
(D) Concrete ingredients should be kept at a temperature of 37° ± 2°C
Answer: Option D
Question No. 169

In a spherical dome the hoop stress due to a concentrated load at crown is
(A) Compressive everywhere
(B) Tensile everywhere
(C) Partly compressive and partly tensile
(D) Zero
Answer: Option B
Question No. 170

I.S. Sieve Nos. 10 mm and 4.75 mm are generally used for grading of
(A) Coarse aggregates
(B) Fine aggregates
Answer: Option D
Question No. 171

Log Angles machine is used to test the aggregate for
(A) Crushing strength
(B) Impact value
(C) Abrasion resistance
(D) Water absorption
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 172

The property of the ingredients to separate from each other while placing the concrete is called
(A) Segregation
(B) Compaction
(C) Shrinkage
(D) Bulking
Answer: Option A
Question No. 173

(A) Higher workability indicates unexpected increase in the moisture content
(B) Higher workability indicates deficiency of sand
(C) If the concrete mix is dry, the slump is zero
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 174

The process of mixing, transporting, placing and compacting concrete using Ordinary Port land
Cement should not take more than
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 40 minutes
(C) 60 minutes
(D) 90 minutes
Answer: Option A
Question No. 175

The strength of concrete after one year as compared to 28 days strength is about
(A) 10 to 15% more
(B) 15 to 20% more
(C) 20 to 25% more
(D) 25 to 50% more
Answer: Option C
Question No. 176

Specified compressive strength of concrete is obtained from cube tests at the end of
(A) 3 days
(B) 7 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 28 days
Answer: Option D
Question No. 177

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(A) Tricalcium silicate (C3S) hydrates rapidly

(B) Tricalcium silicate (C3S) generates more heat of hydration
(C) Tricalcium silicate (C3S) develops early strength
(D) Tricalcium silicate (C3S) has more resistance to sulphate attack
Answer: Option D
Question No. 178

If the permissible stress in steel in tension is 140 N/mm², then the depth of neutral axis for a singly
reinforced rectangular balanced section will be
(A) 0.35 d
(B) 0.40 d
(C) 0.45 d
(D) Dependent on grade of concrete also
Answer: Option B
Question No. 179

A construction joint is provided where
(A) Bending moment is small
(B) Shear force is small
(C) The member is supported by other member
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 180

Sand generally contains salt if it is obtained from:
(A) Nala beds
(B) River beds
(C) Sea beds
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 181

According to IS: 4561978, minimum slenderness ratio for a short column is
(A) Less than 12
(B) Less than 18
(C) Between 18 and 24
(D) More than 24
Answer: Option A
Question No. 182

Water cement ratio is
(A) Volume of water to that of cement
(B) Weight of water to that of cement
(C) Weight of concrete to that of water
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 183

For a concrete mix 1:3:6 and water cement ratio 0.6 both by weight, the quantity of water
required per bag, is
(A) 10 kg
(B) 12 kg
(C) 14 kg
(D) 16 kg
Answer: Option C
Question No. 184
is the span)
(A) l/3
(B) l/5
(C) l/7
(D) l/10
Answer: Option C
Question No. 185

(A) In properly graded aggregates, bulk density is more
(B) In single size aggregates, bulk density is least
(C) In single size aggregates, bulk density is maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 186

To prevent segregation, the maximum height for placing concrete, is
(A) 100 cm
(B) 125 cm
(C) 150 cm
(D) 200 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 187

For a simply supported beam of span 15 m, the minimum effective depth to satisfy the vertical
deflection limits should be
(A) 600 mm
(B) 750 mm
(C) 900 mm
(D) More than 1 m
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 188

For compacting plain concrete road surface of thickness less than 20 cm, we use
(A) Internal vibrator
(B) Screed vibrator
(C) Form vibrator
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 189

Expansion joints are provided if the length of concrete structures exceeds
(A) 10 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 15 m
(D) 45 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 190

The permissible diagonal tensile stress in reinforced brick work is
(A) About 0.1 N/mm²
(B) Zero
(C) 0.3 N/mm² to 0.7 N/mm²
(D) About 1.0 N/mm²
Answer: Option A
Question No. 191

(A) According to the petrological characteristics, concrete aggregates are classified as heavy
weight, normal weight and light weight
(B) According to the shape of the particles, concrete aggregates are classified as rounded
irregular, angular and flaky
(C) According to the surface texture of the particles, the concrete aggregates are classified as
glassy, smooth, granular, rough, crystalline, honey combed and porous
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 192

(A) The concrete gains strength due to hydration of cement
(B) The concrete does not set at freezing point
(C) The strength of concrete increases with its age
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 193

Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly concrete, is known
(A) Bleeding
(B) Creeping
(C) Segregation
(D) Flooding
Answer: Option A
Question No. 194

The critical section for finding maximum bending moment for footing under masonry wall is
located
(A) At the middle of the wall
(B) At the edge of the wall
(C) Halfway between the middle and edge of the wall
(D) At a distance equal to effective depth of footing from the edge of the wall
Answer: Option C
Question No. 195

On a grading curve, the gap grading is represented by
(A) A horizontal line
(B) A vertical line
(C) N.W. inclined line
(D) N.E. inclined line
Answer: Option A
Question No. 196

Sinking of an intermediate support of a continuous beam
(i) Reduces the negative moment at support
(ii) Increases the negative moment at support
(iii) Reduces the positive moment at center of span
(iv) Increases the positive moment at center of span
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 197

High temperature
(A) Increases the strength of concrete
(B) Decreases the strength of concrete
(C) Has no effect on the strength of concrete
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 198

Horizontal construction joints in concrete walls are generally provided at
(A) Soffit level
(B) Window sill level
(C) Floor level
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 199

Stress strain curve of high tensile steel
(A) Has a definite yield point
(B) Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.1% proof stress
(C) Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.2% proof stress
(D) Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 2% proof stress,
Answer: Option C
Question No. 200

Addition of pozzolana to cement causes
(A) Reduction in permeability
(B) Loss of heat of hydration
(C) Reduction in bleeding
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 201

Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete grade is
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 150 kg/cm2
(C) 200 kg/cm2
(D) 250 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 202

The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars in a column is
(A) 6 mm
(B) 8 mm
(C) 12 mm
(D) 16 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 203

The high strength of rapid hardening cement at early stage, is due to its
(A) Finer grinding
(B) Burning at high temperature
(C) Increased lime cement
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(D) Higher content of tricalcium

Answer: Option C
Question No. 204

Sand requiring a high water cement ratio, belongs to
(A) Zone I
(B) Zone II
(C) Zone III
(D) Zone IV
Answer: Option A
Question No. 205

Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete as per IS: 4561978 is
(A) M 15
(B) M 20
(C) M 10
(D) M 25
Answer: Option A
Question No. 206

While compacting the concrete by a mechanical vibrator, the slump should not exceed
(A) 2.5 cm
(B) 5.0 cm
(C) 7.5 cm
(D) 10 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 207

Non-uniform compaction may cause the concrete
(A) Porous
(B) Non-homogeneous
(C) Reduced strength
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 208

Modulus of rupture of concrete is a measure of
(A) Flexural tensile strength
(B) Direct tensile strength
(D) Split tensile strength
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 209

M10 grade of concrete approximates
(A) 1 : 3 : 6 mix
(B) 1 : 1 : 2 mix
(C) 1 : 2 : 4 mix
(D) 1 : 1.5 : 3 mix
Answer: Option A
Question No. 210

Higher workability of concrete is required if the structure is
(A) Made with cement concrete
(B) Thick and reinforced
(C) Thin and heavily reinforced
(D) Thick and heavily reinforced
Answer: Option D
Question No. 211

For a cantilever of effective depth of 0.5 m, the maximum span to satisfy vertical deflection limit is
(A) 3.5 m
(B) 4 m
(C) 4.5 m
(D) 5 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 212

The bulk density of aggregates does not depend upon:
(A) Size and shape of aggregates
(B) Specific gravity of aggregates
(D) Size and shape of the container
Answer: Option D
Question No. 213

How long will it take for the concrete to achieve 100% of its strength?
(A) 7 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 28 days
Answer: Option D
Question No. 214

A higher modular ratio shows
(A) Higher compressive strength of concrete
(B) Lower compressive strength of concrete
(C) Higher tensile strength of steel
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 161

According to the recommendations of IS : 456-1978, the expansion joints
(A) Are provided where plane changes abruptly
(B) Are provided to ensure minimum resistance
(C) Do not carry reinforcement across them
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 162

The impurity of mixing water which affects the setting time and strength of concrete, is
(A) Sodium sulphates
(B) Sodium chlorides
(C) Sodium carbonates and bicarbonates
(D) Calcium bicarbonates
Answer: Option C
Question No. 163

If the size of panel in a flat slab is 6 m × 6 m, then as per Indian Standard Code, the widths of
column strip and middle strip are
(A) 3.0 m and 1.5 m
(B) 1.5 m and 3.0 m
(C) 3.0 m and 3.0 m
(D) 1.5 m and 1.5 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 164

(A) The bottom and top ends of slump mould are parallel to each other
(B) The axis of the mould is perpendicular to the end faces
(C) The internal surface of the mould is kept clean and free from set cement
(D) The mould is in the form of a frustum of hexagonal pyramid
Answer: Option D
Question No. 165

The concrete mix which causes difficulty in obtaining a smooth finish, possess
(A) Segregation
(B) Internal friction
(C) Hardness
(D) Bleeding
Answer: Option C
Question No. 166

While designing the pile as a column, the end conditions are nearly
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(A) Both ends hinged

(B) Both ends fixed
(C) One end fixed and other end hinged
(D) One end fixed and other end free
Answer: Option C
Question No. 167

The internal dimensions of a ware house are 15 m × 5.6 m, and the maximum height of piles is
2.70 m, the maximum number of bags to be stored in two piles, are
(A) 1500 bags
(B) 2000 bags
(C) 2500 bags
(D) 3000 bags
Answer: Option D
Question No. 168

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. While performing preliminary test on concrete
(A) Proportions of the material and water should be the same as to be used at the work site
(B) Cement should be mixed by hand in order to maintain uniformity
(C) Concrete mix should be stored in air-tight containers
(D) Concrete ingredients should be kept at a temperature of 37° ± 2°C
Answer: Option D
Question No. 169

In a spherical dome the hoop stress due to a concentrated load at crown is
(A) Compressive everywhere
(B) Tensile everywhere
(C) Partly compressive and partly tensile
(D) Zero
Answer: Option B
Question No. 170

I.S. Sieve Nos. 10 mm and 4.75 mm are generally used for grading of
(A) Coarse aggregates
(B) Fine aggregates
Answer: Option D
Question No. 171

Log Angles machine is used to test the aggregate for
(A) Crushing strength
(B) Impact value
(C) Abrasion resistance
(D) Water absorption
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 172

The property of the ingredients to separate from each other while placing the concrete is called
(A) Segregation
(B) Compaction
(C) Shrinkage
(D) Bulking
Answer: Option A
Question No. 173

(A) Higher workability indicates unexpected increase in the moisture content
(B) Higher workability indicates deficiency of sand
(C) If the concrete mix is dry, the slump is zero
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 174

The process of mixing, transporting, placing and compacting concrete using Ordinary Port land
Cement should not take more than
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 40 minutes
(C) 60 minutes
(D) 90 minutes
Answer: Option A
Question No. 175

The strength of concrete after one year as compared to 28 days strength is about
(A) 10 to 15% more
(B) 15 to 20% more
(C) 20 to 25% more
(D) 25 to 50% more
Answer: Option C
Question No. 176

Specified compressive strength of concrete is obtained from cube tests at the end of
(A) 3 days
(B) 7 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 28 days
Answer: Option D
Question No. 177

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(A) Tricalcium silicate (C3S) hydrates rapidly

(B) Tricalcium silicate (C3S) generates more heat of hydration
(C) Tricalcium silicate (C3S) develops early strength
(D) Tricalcium silicate (C3S) has more resistance to sulphate attack
Answer: Option D
Question No. 178

If the permissible stress in steel in tension is 140 N/mm², then the depth of neutral axis for a singly
reinforced rectangular balanced section will be
(A) 0.35 d
(B) 0.40 d
(C) 0.45 d
(D) Dependent on grade of concrete also
Answer: Option B
Question No. 179

A construction joint is provided where
(A) Bending moment is small
(B) Shear force is small
(C) The member is supported by other member
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 180

Sand generally contains salt if it is obtained from:
(A) Nala beds
(B) River beds
(C) Sea beds
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 181

According to IS: 4561978, minimum slenderness ratio for a short column is
(A) Less than 12
(B) Less than 18
(C) Between 18 and 24
(D) More than 24
Answer: Option A
Question No. 182

Water cement ratio is
(A) Volume of water to that of cement
(B) Weight of water to that of cement
(C) Weight of concrete to that of water
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 183

For a concrete mix 1:3:6 and water cement ratio 0.6 both by weight, the quantity of water
required per bag, is
(A) 10 kg
(B) 12 kg
(C) 14 kg
(D) 16 kg
Answer: Option C
Question No. 184
is the span)
(A) l/3
(B) l/5
(C) l/7
(D) l/10
Answer: Option C
Question No. 185

(A) In properly graded aggregates, bulk density is more
(B) In single size aggregates, bulk density is least
(C) In single size aggregates, bulk density is maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 186

To prevent segregation, the maximum height for placing concrete, is
(A) 100 cm
(B) 125 cm
(C) 150 cm
(D) 200 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 187

For a simply supported beam of span 15 m, the minimum effective depth to satisfy the vertical
deflection limits should be
(A) 600 mm
(B) 750 mm
(C) 900 mm
(D) More than 1 m
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 188

For compacting plain concrete road surface of thickness less than 20 cm, we use
(A) Internal vibrator
(B) Screed vibrator
(C) Form vibrator
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 189

Expansion joints are provided if the length of concrete structures exceeds
(A) 10 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 15 m
(D) 45 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 190

The permissible diagonal tensile stress in reinforced brick work is
(A) About 0.1 N/mm²
(B) Zero
(C) 0.3 N/mm² to 0.7 N/mm²
(D) About 1.0 N/mm²
Answer: Option A
Question No. 191

(A) According to the petrological characteristics, concrete aggregates are classified as heavy
weight, normal weight and light weight
(B) According to the shape of the particles, concrete aggregates are classified as rounded
irregular, angular and flaky
(C) According to the surface texture of the particles, the concrete aggregates are classified as
glassy, smooth, granular, rough, crystalline, honey combed and porous
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 192

(A) The concrete gains strength due to hydration of cement
(B) The concrete does not set at freezing point
(C) The strength of concrete increases with its age
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 193

Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly concrete, is known
(A) Bleeding
(B) Creeping
(C) Segregation
(D) Flooding
Answer: Option A
Question No. 194

The critical section for finding maximum bending moment for footing under masonry wall is
located
(A) At the middle of the wall
(B) At the edge of the wall
(C) Halfway between the middle and edge of the wall
(D) At a distance equal to effective depth of footing from the edge of the wall
Answer: Option C
Question No. 195

On a grading curve, the gap grading is represented by
(A) A horizontal line
(B) A vertical line
(C) N.W. inclined line
(D) N.E. inclined line
Answer: Option A
Question No. 196

Sinking of an intermediate support of a continuous beam
(i) Reduces the negative moment at support
(ii) Increases the negative moment at support
(iii) Reduces the positive moment at center of span
(iv) Increases the positive moment at center of span
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 197

High temperature
(A) Increases the strength of concrete
(B) Decreases the strength of concrete
(C) Has no effect on the strength of concrete
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 198

Horizontal construction joints in concrete walls are generally provided at
(A) Soffit level
(B) Window sill level
(C) Floor level
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 199

Stress strain curve of high tensile steel
(A) Has a definite yield point
(B) Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.1% proof stress
(C) Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.2% proof stress
(D) Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 2% proof stress,
Answer: Option C
Question No. 200

Addition of pozzolana to cement causes
(A) Reduction in permeability
(B) Loss of heat of hydration
(C) Reduction in bleeding
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 201

Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete grade is
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 150 kg/cm2
(C) 200 kg/cm2
(D) 250 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 202

The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars in a column is
(A) 6 mm
(B) 8 mm
(C) 12 mm
(D) 16 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 203

The high strength of rapid hardening cement at early stage, is due to its
(A) Finer grinding
(B) Burning at high temperature
(C) Increased lime cement
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(D) Higher content of tricalcium

Answer: Option C
Question No. 204

Sand requiring a high water cement ratio, belongs to
(A) Zone I
(B) Zone II
(C) Zone III
(D) Zone IV
Answer: Option A
Question No. 205

Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete as per IS: 4561978 is
(A) M 15
(B) M 20
(C) M 10
(D) M 25
Answer: Option A
Question No. 206

While compacting the concrete by a mechanical vibrator, the slump should not exceed
(A) 2.5 cm
(B) 5.0 cm
(C) 7.5 cm
(D) 10 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 207

Non-uniform compaction may cause the concrete
(A) Porous
(B) Non-homogeneous
(C) Reduced strength
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 208

Modulus of rupture of concrete is a measure of
(A) Flexural tensile strength
(B) Direct tensile strength
(D) Split tensile strength
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 209

M10 grade of concrete approximates
(A) 1 : 3 : 6 mix
(B) 1 : 1 : 2 mix
(C) 1 : 2 : 4 mix
(D) 1 : 1.5 : 3 mix
Answer: Option A
Question No. 210

Higher workability of concrete is required if the structure is
(A) Made with cement concrete
(B) Thick and reinforced
(C) Thin and heavily reinforced
(D) Thick and heavily reinforced
Answer: Option D
Question No. 211

For a cantilever of effective depth of 0.5 m, the maximum span to satisfy vertical deflection limit is
(A) 3.5 m
(B) 4 m
(C) 4.5 m
(D) 5 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 212

The bulk density of aggregates does not depend upon:
(A) Size and shape of aggregates
(B) Specific gravity of aggregates
(D) Size and shape of the container
Answer: Option D
Question No. 213

How long will it take for the concrete to achieve 100% of its strength?
(A) 7 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 28 days
Answer: Option D
Question No. 214

A higher modular ratio shows
(A) Higher compressive strength of concrete
(B) Lower compressive strength of concrete
(C) Higher tensile strength of steel
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(D) Lower tensile strength of steel

Answer: Option B
Question No. 215

For the construction of cement concrete floor, the maximum permissible size of aggregate, is
(A) 4 mm
(B) 6 mm
(C) 8 mm
(D) 10 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 216

The specifications of a cement bag for storage, are
(A) Weight 50 kg
(B) Height 18 cm
(C) Plan area 3000 sq. cm
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 217

The main reinforcement in the heel of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is provided on
(A) Top face perpendicular to wall
(B) Bottom face perpendicular to wall
(C) Both top and bottom faces perpendicular to wall
Answer: Option A
Question No. 218

Separation of coarse aggregates from mortar during transportation, is known
(A) Bleeding
(B) Creeping
(C) Segregation
(D) Shrinkage
Answer: Option C
Question No. 219

A flaky aggregate is said to be elongated if its length is
(A) Equal to the mean size
(B) Twice the mean size
(C) Thrice the mean size
(D) Four times the mean size
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 220

Assertion A : The load factor for live load is greater than that for dead load.
Reason R : The live loads are more uncertain than dead loads.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
Answer: Option A
Question No. 221

You are asked to construct a massive dam, the type of cement you will use, is
(C) Low heat cement
Answer: Option C
Question No. 222

An ideal ware house, is provided
(A) Water proof masonry walls
(B) Water proof roof
(C) Few windows which remain generally closed
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 223

Normally pre-stressing wires are arranged in the
(A) Upper part of the beam
(B) Lower part of the beam
(C) Center
(D) Anywhere
Answer: Option B
Question No. 224

(A) Bulking of sand is caused due to formation of a thin film of surface moisture
(B) Fine sand bulks more than coarse sand
(C) The volume of fully saturated sand, is equal to the volume of dry and loose sand
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 225

The minimum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement is that of
(A) Magnesium oxide
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(B) Iron oxide

(C) Alumina
(D) Lime
Answer: Option A
Question No. 226

Poisson's ratio for concrete
(A) Remains constant
(B) Increases with richer mixes
(C) Decreases with richer mixes
Answer: Option B
Question No. 227

Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using
(A) Low water cement ratio
(B) Less cement in the concrete
(C) Proper concrete mix
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 228

The shuttering of a hall measuring 4 m × 5 m, can be removed after
(A) 5 days
(B) 7 days
(C) 10 days
(D) 14 days
Answer: Option B
Question No. 229

The approximate value of the ratio between direct tensile strength and flexural strength is
(A) 0.33
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.75
(D) 1.0
Answer: Option B
Question No. 230

An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than
(A) 1/5th of mean dimension
(B) 2/5th of mean dimension
(C) 3/5th of mean dimension
(D) 4/5th of mean dimension
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 231

Workability improved by adding
(A) Fly ash
(B) Hydrated lime
(C) Calcium chloride
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 232

Workability of concrete is inversely proportional to
(A) Time of transit
(B) water-cement ratio
(C) The air in the mix
(D) Size of aggregate
Answer: Option A
Question No. 233

(A) The free water is the amount of water added while mixing and the amount of water held on
the surface of the aggregates prior to mixing
(B) The total water is the free water and the amount actually absorbed by the aggregates
Answer: Option D
Question No. 234

Inert material of a cement concrete mix, is
(A) Water
(B) Cement
(C) Aggregate
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 235

If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength can be increased most economically by
(A) Increasing the depth of beam
(B) Using thinner bars but more in number
(C) Using thicker bars but less in number
(D) Providing vertical stirrups
Answer: Option B
Question No. 236

(A) A rich mix of concrete possesses higher strength than that a lean mix of desired workability
with excessive quantity of water
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(B) The strength of concrete decreases as the water cement ratio increases
(C) Good compaction by mechanical vibrations, increases the strength of concrete
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 237

Ordinary Portland cement is manufactured from
(A) Lime stone and clay
(B) Gypsum and lime
(C) Pozzolana
(D) Lime, pozzolana and clay
Answer: Option B
Question No. 238

The percentage of reinforcement in case of slabs, when high strength deformed bars are used is
not less than
(A) 0.15
(B) 0.12
(C) 0.30
(D) 1.00
Answer: Option B
Question No. 239

Addition of pozzolana to cement
(A) Decreases workability
(B) Increases strength
(C) Increases heat of hydration
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 240

If 50 kg of fine aggregates and 100 kg of coarse aggregates are mixed in a concrete whose water
cement ratio is 0.6, the weight of water required for harsh mix, is
(A) 8 kg
(B) 10 kg
(C) 12 kg
(D) 14 kg
Answer: Option C
Question No. 241

The minimum cover to the ties or spirals should not be less than
(A) 15 mm
(B) 20 mm
(C) 25 mm
(D) 50 mm
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 242

According to Water-Cement Ratio Law, the strength of workable plastic concrete
(A) Depends upon the amount of water used in the mix
(B) Does not depend upon the quality of cement mixed with aggregates
(C) Does not depend upon the quantity of cement mixed with aggregates
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 243

Sands of zone I are:
(A) Course
(B) Medium
(C) Medium to fine
(D) Fine
Answer: Option A
Question No. 244

According to Whitney's theory, ultimate strain of concrete is assumed to be
(A) 0.03 %
(B) 0.1 %
(C) 0.3 %
(D) 3 %
Answer: Option C
Question No. 245

The condition not applicable to water cement ratio law, is
(A) Internal moisture conditions on hydration continue till complete strength is gained
(B) Concrete specimens may be tested at any temperature
(C) Concrete specimens need be of same age
(D) Concrete specimens need be of same size
Answer: Option B
Question No. 246

If the slump of a concrete mix is 60 mm, its workability is
(A) Very low
(B) Low
(C) Medium
(D) High
Answer: Option C
Question No. 247

Cube strength of controlled concrete to be used for pre-tensioned and post-tensioned work
respectively should not be less than
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(A) 35 MPa and 42 MPa

(B) 42 MPa and 35 MPa
(C) 42 MPa and 53 MPa
(D) 53 MPa and 42 MPa
Answer: Option B
Question No. 248

The void ratio of
(A) Single size coarse aggregate is roughly 0.45
(B) Graded coarse aggregate is roughly 0.040
(C) Fine aggregate is roughly 0.45
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 249

According to IS : 382-1963, a good aggregate should be
(A) Chemically inert
(B) Sufficiently strong
(C) Hard and durable
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 250

The compressive strength of 100 mm cube as compared to 150 mm cube is always
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Equal
Answer: Option B
Question No. 251

The diameter of the Vicat plunger is 10 mm and its length varies from
(A) 20 mm to 30 mm
(B) 30 mm to 40 mm
(C) 40 mm to 50 mm
(D) 50 mm to 60 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 252

Gypsum is added for
(A) Colour
(B) Strength
(C) Controlling setting time
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 253

Modulus of elasticity of steel as per IS: 4561978 shall be taken as
(A) 20 kN/cm²
(B) 200 kN/cm²
(C) 200 kN/mm²
(D) 2 × 106 N/cm²
Answer: Option C
Question No. 254

The grade of concrete M 150 means that compressive strength of a 15 cm cube after 28 days, is
(A) 100 kg/cm2
(B) 150 kg/cm2
(C) 200 kg/cm2
(D) 250 kg/cm2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 255

The cement becomes useless if its absorbed moisture content exceeds
(A) 1 %
(B) 2 %
(C) 3 %
(D) 5 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 256

In reinforced concrete footing on soil, the minimum thickness at edge should not be less than
(A) 100 mm
(B) 150 mm
(C) 200 mm
(D) 250 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 257

For preparing a test-specimen, it is necessary
(A) To mix cement and fine aggregate by dry hand
(B) To mix coarse aggregates
(C) To mix water to the cement, fine aggregates and coarse aggregates
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 258

For a good concrete
(A) Aggregates should be hard and durable
(B) Water should be free from organic materials
(C) Cement should be sufficient to produce the required strength
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 259

The design yield stress of steel according to IS: 4561978 is:
(A) 0.37 fy
(B) 0.57 fy
(C) 0.67 fy
(D) 0.87 fy
Where fy is the characteristic yield strength of steel
Answer: Option D
Question No. 260

The process of hardening the concrete by keeping its surface moist is known
(A) Placing
(B) Wetting
(C) Curing
(D) Compacting
Answer: Option C
Question No. 261

For the construction of the retaining structures, the type of concrete mix to be used, is
(A) 1 : 3 : 6
(B) 1 : 2 : 4
(C) 1 : 1½ : 3
(D) 1 : 4 : 8
Answer: Option C
Question No. 262

The main reinforcement in the toe of a T-shaped R C. retaining wall is provided on
(i) Top face parallel to the wall
(ii) Top face perpendicular to the wall
(iii) Bottom face parallel to the wall
(iv) Bottom face perpendicular to the wall
(A) Only (ii) is correct
(B) (i) and (ii) are correct
(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(D) Only (iv) is correct
Answer: Option D
Question No. 263

The produce impermeable concrete
(A) Thorough mixing of concrete is required
(B) Proper compaction of concrete is required
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(C) Proper curing of concrete is required

(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 264

Pozzolanic properties exist in
(A) Shales
(B) Fly ash
(C) Pumicite
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 265

A continuous beam is deemed to be a deep beam when the ratio of effective span to overall depth
(1/D) is less than
(A) 1.5
(B) 2.0
(C) 2.5
(D) 3.0
Answer: Option C
Question No. 266

(A) The weight of ingredients of concrete mix, is taken in kilograms
(B) Water and aggregates are measured in litres
(C) 20 bags of cement make one tonne
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 267

If fineness modulus of sand is 2.5, it is graded as
(A) Very fine sand
(B) Fine sand
(C) Medium sand
(D) Coarse sand
Answer: Option B
Question No. 268

Maximum quantity of water needed per 50 kg of cement for M 15 grade of concrete is
(A) 28 liters
(B) 30 liters
(C) 32 liters
(D) 34 liters
Answer: Option C
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cpm.1-10.pdf
cpm.11-20.pdf
cpm.21-30.pdf
cpm.31-33.pdf
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Construction Planning and Management
Question No. 01
In time-cost optimization of a project, crashing is done.
(A) On all the activities
(B) On all the activities lying on the critical path
(C) Only on activities lying on the original critical path and having flatter cost slopes
(D) On original critical activities and those that become critical at any stage of crashing in the
order of ascending cost slope
Answer: Option D
Question No. 02
Which of the following does not represent an activity?
(A) Site located
(B) Foundation is being dug
(C) The office area is being cleaned
(D) The invitations are being sent
Answer: Option A
Question No. 03
In resources levelling
(A) Total duration of project is reduced
(B) Total duration of project is increased
(C) Uniform demand of resources is achieved
(D) Cost of project is controlled
Answer: Option C
Question No. 04
Sensitivity analysis is a study of
(A) Comparison of profit and loss
(B) Comparison of assets and liabilities
(C) Change in output due to change in input
(D) Economics of cost and benefits of the project
Answer: Option C
Question No. 05
Preliminary project report for a road project must contain
(A) The detailed estimated cost based on detailed design
(B) The several alternatives of the project that have been considered
(C) The soil survey, traffic survey, concept design and approximate cost
(D) The contract documents for inviting tenders
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 06
For which of the following materials, the output of power shovels for a fixed shovel size will be
maximum
(A) Moist loam
(B) Good common earth
(C) Well blasted rock
(D) Wet sticky clay
Answer: Option A
Question No. 07
If the output of a dragline for 90° angle of swing at optimum depth of cut is X, then the output for
120° angle of swing at 120 % of optimum depth of cut will be
(A) Equal to X
(B) More than X
(C) Less than X
(D) Any of the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 08
In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their occurrence follow
(A) Normal distribution curve
(B) Poisson's distribution curve
(C) Beta distribution curve
Answer: Option C
Question No. 09
Free float is mainly used to
(A) Identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float of preceding
activity
(B) Identify the activities, which can be delayed without affecting the total float of succeeding
activity
(C) Establish priorities
(D) Identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float of either the
preceding or succeeding activities
Answer: Option B
Question No. 10
Grader is used mainly for
(A) Trimming and finishing
(B) Shaping and trimming
(C) Finishing and shaping
(D) Finishing, shaping and trimming
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 11
Which of the following surfaces will give highest rolling resistance for a rubber tyred vehicle?
(A) Concrete
(B) Loose sand
(C) Asphalt
(D) Firm earth
Answer: Option B
Question No. 12
Which of the following earth moving machines has the shortest cycle time?
(A) Drag line
(B) Hoe
(C) Clam shell
(D) Dipper shovel
Answer: Option D
Question No. 13
Updating may result in
(A) Change of critical path
(B) Decrease of project completion time
(C) Increase of project completion time
Answer: Option D
Question No. 14
The time by which a particular activity can be delayed without affecting the preceding and
succeeding activities is known as
(A) Total float
(B) Free float
(C) Interfering float
(D) Independent float
Answer: Option D
Question No. 15
During the construction period, price variation clause in contracts caters to
(A) Increase in rates of only important materials
(B) Variation in cost in materials element, labour element and petrol-oil-lubricant element
(C) Variation in total cost of the project on an ad hoc basis
(D) Rate of inflation
Answer: Option B
Question No. 16
Critical path method
(A) Is an improvement upon bar chart method
(B) Provides a realistic approach to daily problems
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(C) Avoids delays which are very common in bar charts

(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 17
At a work site, statistical quality control of concrete means
(A) Measurement of risks to eliminate failures
(B) Applying the theory' of probability to sample testing or inspection
(C) Reduction in wastage of inspection costs
(D) Reduction in costs for the removal of defects
Answer: Option B
Question No. 18
For the network shown in the given figure, the expected time for the activity
(A) 1-2 is 4
(B) 2-3 is 7
(C) 3-4 is 8
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 19
A critical ratio scheduling
(A) Determines the status of each activity
(B) Adjusts automatically changes in activity progress
(C) Is a dynamic system
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 20
For a given activity, the optimistic time, pessimistic time and the most probable estimates are 5,
17 and 8 days respectively, The expected time is
(A) 8 days
(B) 9 days
(C) 10 days
(D) 15 days
Answer: Option B
Question No. 21
(A) Optimistic time estimate refers to activities
(B) Pessimistic time estimate refers to activities
(C) Most likely time estimate refers to activities
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 22
In the time-cost optimisation, using CPM method for network analysis, the crashing of the
activities along the critical path is done starting with the activity having
(A) Longest duration
(B) Highest cost slope
(C) Least cost slope
(D) Shortest duration
Answer: Option C
Question No. 23
A golden rule for the procurement of construction stones, suggests
(A) 100% at the site
(B) 67% at the site and 33% under procurement
(C) 50% at the site and 50% under procurement
(D) 33% at the site and 67% under procurement
Answer: Option B
Question No. 24
The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time is known as
(A) Crash time
(B) Normal time
(C) Optimistic time
(D) Standard time
Answer: Option B
Question No. 25
Pick up the correct statement from the following with regards to C.P.M. network analysis of
projects
(A) The latest occurrence time of the node of which the activity arrow terminates minus the
duration of the activity, is called latest start time
(B) The latest occurrence time for the node at which the activity arrow terminates, is called
latest finish time
(C) Earliest occurrence time of the event from which the activity arrow' originates, is called
earliest start time of the activity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 26
Interfering float is the difference between
(A) Total float and free float
(B) Total float and independent float
(C) Free float and independent float
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Answer: Option A
Question No. 27
While filling the tender for any work, the contractor considers
(A) Site survey
(B) Availability of construction materials
(C) Availability of labour
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 28
An excavator costs Rs. 20,00,000 and has an estimated life of 8 years. It has no salvage value at the
end of 8 years. The book value of the excavator at the end of 3 years using general double
declining balance method is
(A) Rs. 8,43,750
(B) Rs. 8,75,000
(C) Rs. 10,50,000
(D) Rs. 11,56,250
Answer: Option A
Question No. 29
(A) The various functions under each activity, are shown by one bar on Bar Charts
(B) Bar chart establishes the interdependency of one event on another
(C) Only approximate percentage of the completed work is reported
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 30
A wheeled tractor hauling unit is working on firm earth. The total loaded weight distribution of
this unit is:
Drive wheels: 25000 kg
Scraper wheels: 10000 kg
If the coefficient of traction for wheeled tractor on firm earth is 0.5, the rimpull which this tractor
can exert without slipping is
(A) 10000 kg
(B) 12500 kg
(C) 22500 kg
(D) 5000 kg
Answer: Option B
Question No. 31
If the expected time of completion of a project is 60 weeks with a standard deviation of 5 weeks,
the probability of completing the project in 50 weeks and 65 weeks respectively will be
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(A) 2.3% and 84.1%

(B) 97.7% and 84.1%
(C) 97.7 % and 15.9%
(D) 15.9% and 97.7%
Answer: Option A
Question No. 32
Power stations are generally treated as
(A) Light construction
(B) Heavy construction
(C) Industrial construction
(D) Electrical construction
Answer: Option C
Question No. 33
For a given size of bucket, the ideal output of a dragline will be least in
(A) Moist loam
(B) Sand and gravel
(C) Good common earth
(D) Wet sticky clay
Answer: Option D
Question No. 34
Bar charts are suitable for
(A) Minor works
(B) Major works
(C) Large projects
(D) All the Above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 35
The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is
(A) Crash time
(B) Normal time
(C) Optimistic time
(D) Between normal time and crash time
Answer: Option D
Question No. 36
Construction team means
(A) An engineer
(B) An architect
(C) An owner
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 37
Select the incorrect statement.
(A) Start float and finish float are always equal.
(B) Total float can be either start float or finish float.
(C) Start float and finish float need not be equal.
(D) Start float and finish float are the differences between activity times and not event times.
Answer: Option C
Question No. 38
The artificial activity which indicates that an activity following it, cannot be started unless the
preceding activity is complete, is known as
(A) Event
(B) Free float
(C) Dummy
(D) Constraint
Answer: Option C
Question No. 39
PERT technique of network analysis is mainly useful for
(A) Small projects
(B) Large and complex projects
(C) Research and development projects
(D) Deterministic activities
Answer: Option C
Question No. 40
(A) The float may be positive, zero or negative
(B) If the float is positive and the activity is delayed by a period equal to its total float, the
completion of project is not delayed
(C) If the float of an activity is negative, delay in its performance is bound to delay the
completion of project
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 41
The independent float affects only
(A) Preceding activities
(B) Succeeding activities
(C) The particular activity involved
Answer: Option C
Question No. 42
Site order book is used for recording
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(A) Instructions by the executive engineers

(B) Construction measurements
(C) Issue of store equipments
(D) Names of the casual labour
Answer: Option A
Question No. 43
The time by which activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the start of
succeeding activities, is known as
(A) Duration
(B) Total float
(C) Free float
(D) Interfering float
Answer: Option C
Question No. 44
The part of a derrick crane include
(i) Mast
(ii) Boom
(iii) Bull wheel
(iv) Jack
Of these statements
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer: Option D
Question No. 45
If the gross vehicle weight of a truck is 30 tonne and rolling resistance is 30 kg/tonne, then the
tractive effort required to keep the truck moving at a uniform speed is
(A) 30 kg
(B) 300 kg
(C) 900 kg
(D) 1000 kg
Answer: Option C
Question No. 46
Works costing less than Rs. 20,000 are treated as
(A) Any project
(B) Major projects
(C) Minor projects
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 47
A machine costs Rs. 20000 and its useful life is 8 years. The money is borrowed at 8% interest per
annum. The capital recovery factor at 8% interest per annum for 8 years is 0.174. The annual
equipment cost of the machine will be
(A) Rs. 1740
(B) Rs. 3480
(C) Rs. 5220
(D) Rs. 6960
Answer: Option B
Question No. 48
Railway projects are treated as
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 49
Consider the following statements:
In the critical path method of construction planning, Free Float can be.
1. Greater than Total Float.
2. Greater than Independent Float
3. Equal to Total Float.
4. Less than Independent Float. Of these statements
(A) 1 and 4 are correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 4 are correct
(D) 1 and 2 are correct
Answer: Option B
Question No. 50
(A) The duration between the earliest start time of the preceding event and latest finish time of
the succeeding event, is called 'float'
(B) The duration of time by which an activity can be delayed without affecting the succeeding
activity, is called free float
(C) The difference between total float and free float, is called interfering float
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 51
The original cost of an equipment is Rs.10,000. Its salvage value at the end of its total useful life of
five years is Rs. 1,000. Its book value at the end of two years of its useful life (as per straight line
method of evaluation of depreciation) will be
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(A) Rs. 8,800

(B) Rs. 7,600
(C) Rs. 6,400
(D) Rs. 5,000
Answer: Option C
Question No. 52
For completion of a project, the critical path of the network represents
(A) Minimum time
(B) Maximum time
(C) Maximum cost
(D) Minimum cost
Answer: Option A
Question No. 53
The maximum rimpull in the first gear of a tractor while towing a load is 6300 kg. The tractor
weighs 12.5 tonnes and is operating along a 2 percent upgrade and the rolling resistance is 45
kg/tonne. Pull available for towing the load is
(A) 3425 kg
(B) 5515 kg
(C) 4350 kg
(D) 2975 kg
Answer: Option B
Question No. 54
Which one of the following represents an event?
(A) Concrete cured
(B) Fixing of door
(C) Plastering of walls
(D) Selecting sites
Answer: Option A
Question No. 55
The rated loads of lifting cranes, as percentage of tipping load at specified radius, for crawler-
mounted and pneumatic tyre-mounted machines would be respectively
(A) 80 and 90
(B) 90 and 80
(C) 85 and 75
(D) 75 and 83
Answer: Option D
Question No. 56
PERT is
(A) An analytic in concept
(B) Limited of event oriented diagrams
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(C) Used for research and development projects

(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 57
Optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic times for the activities of a network in the given
figure are written above their arrows. If the contractual obligation time for the project is 75, the
latest occurrence time for the event 2, is
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 35
(D) 15
Answer: Option B
Question No. 58
An earth moving equipment costs Rs. 5,00,000 and has an estimated life of 10 years and a salvage
value of Rs. 50,000. What uniform annual amount must be set aside at the end of each of the 10
years for replacement if the interest rate is 8% per annum and if the sinking fund factor at 8% per
annum interest rate for 10 years is 0.069?
(A) Rs. 31050
(B) Rs. 34500
(C) Rs. 37950
(D) Rs. 50000
Answer: Option A
Question No. 59
Output of a bulldozer is
(i) Increased if drawbar HP of the tractor is increased for a given hauling distance
(ii) Decreased if drawbar HP of the tractor is increased for a given hauling distance
(iii) Increased if the hauling distance is increased for a given drawbar HP of the tractor
(iv) Decreased if the hauling distance is increased for a given drawbar HP of the tractor
Of these statement
(A) (i) and (iii) are correct
(B) (i) and (iv) are correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer: Option B
Question No. 60
For the execution of a project, a contractor is
(A) A person
(B) A firm
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(C) An agency
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 61
The constraints in case of resource smoothening operation would be
(A) Resources
(B) Project duration time
(C) Both resources and project duration time
Answer: Option B
Question No. 62
The time which results in the leasi, possible construction cost of an activity, is known as
(A) Normal time
(B) Slow time
(C) Crash time
(D) Standard time
Answer: Option B
Question No. 63
The direct cost of a project with respect to normal time is
(A) minimum
(B) Maximum
(C) Zero
(D) Infinite
Answer: Option A
Question No. 64
The object of technical planning, is
(A) Preparation of specifications
(B) Preparation of estimates
(C) Initiating the procurement action of resources
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 65
If an activity has its optimistic, most likely and pessimistic times as 2, 3 and 7 respectively, then its
expected time and variance are respectively
(A) 3.5 and 5/6
(B) 5 and 25/36
(C) 3.5 and 25/36
(D) 4 and 5/6
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 66
Various activities of a project, are shown on bar charts by
(A) Vertical lines
(B) Horizontal lines
(C) Dots
(D) Crosses
Answer: Option B
Question No. 67
Select the correct statement.
(A) Activity arrows in a CPM network are drawn to scale
(B) The tail of an arrow represents the finish of an activity
(C) Arrow bead represents the start of an activity
Answer: Option D
Question No. 68
If D is the duration, ES and EF are the earliest start and finish, LS and LF are latest start and latest
finish time, then the following relation holds good
(A) EF = ES + D
(B) LS = LF - D
(C) LF = LS + D
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 69
Total float for any activity is defined as the difference between
(A) Its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
(B) Its latest start time and earliest start time
(C) Its latest start time and earliest finish time
(D) Its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
Answer: Option B
Question No. 70
(A) The activity is the time consuming part of a project
(B) The beginning and end of a job, are called events
(C) The activity which consumes maximum time, is called a node
(D) Logically and sequentially connected activities and events form a network
Answer: Option C
Question No. 71
Assertion (A): Activity 57 is critical.
Reason (R): Earliest finish time and latest finish time for events 57 are same
Select the correct answer.
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(A) A is correct but R is not correct

(B) R is correct but A is not correct
(C) Both A and R is correct
(D) Both A and R is incorrect
Answer: Option A
Question No. 72
The main principle of an organisation, is
(A) Unity of command
(B) Effective control at all levels
(C) Delegation of authority
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 73
If the expected time for completion of a project is 10 days with a standard deviation of 2 days, the
expected time of completion of the project with 99.9% probability is
(A) 4 days
(B) 6 days
(C) 10 days
(D) 16 days
Answer: Option D
Question No. 74
(A) Earliest expected time is denoted by TE
(B) Latest occurrence time is denoted by TL
(C) Contractual obligation time is denoted by Ts
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 75
Consider the following operations:
1. Drilling
2. Blasting
3. Mucking
4. Placing steel
5. Placing concrete
The correct sequence of these operations in tunnel construction is
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
(B) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(D) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 76
(A) The difference between the earliest start time and latest finish time of any activity, is the
maximum time available for the activity
(B) The difference between the maximum time available for the job and actual time it
consumes, is called total float
(C) The difference between the latest start time and earliest start time of an activity, is called
total float
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 77
The basic action involved in sheep foot rolling is
(A) Kneading
(B) Pressing
(C) Tamping
(D) Vibration
Answer: Option A
Question No. 78
(A) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique, is event oriented
(B) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique is not event oriented
(C) Critical Path Method is event oriented
(D) Critical Path method is event oriented
Answer: Option A
Question No. 79
If the excavation of earth is done manually then it costs Rs. 10 per cum. A machine can excavate at
a fixed cost of Rs. 4000 plus a variable cost of Rs. 2 per cum. The quantity of earth for which the
cost of excavation by machine will be equal to the cost of manual excavation is
(A) 500 cum
(B) 1000 cum
(C) 1500 cum
(D) 2000 cum
Answer: Option A
Question No. 80
Time and progress chart of a construction, is also known as
(A) Bar chart
(B) Gantt chart
(C) Modified Mile stone chart
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 81
Economic saving of time results by crashing
(A) Cheapest critical activity
(B) Cheapest noncritical activity
(C) Costliest critical activity
(D) Costliest noncritical activity
Answer: Option A
Question No. 82
In the given figure, the network of a project represents
(A) Activity of an excavation of a footing

(B) Activity of an excavation which starts at event No. 1 and ends at even No. 2
(C) Activity of excavation which takes 8 units of time
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 83
(A) Earliest start of an activity is the early event time of the node it leaves.
(B) Latest finish of an activity is the late event time of the node it enters.
(C) Latest start of an activity is its latest finish minus its duration.
Answer: Option D
Question No. 84
The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of a project, is
known
(A) Event flow scheduling technique
(B) Critical ratio scheduling
(C) Slotting technique for scheduling
(D) Short interval scheduling
Answer: Option B
Question No. 85
Which of the following is a weakness of bar chart?
(A) Interdependencies of activities
(B) Project progress
(C) Uncertainties
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 86
Which one of the following represents an activity?
(A) Excavation for foundation
(B) Curing of concrete
(C) Setting of question paper
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 87
Which of the following excavators is most suitable for digging under water?
(A) Drag line
(B) Hoe
(C) Clam shell
(D) Dipper shovel
Answer: Option A
Question No. 88
A CPM family includes
(A) CPA (Critical Path Analysis)
(B) CPP (Critical Path Plotted)
(C) MCE (Minimum Cost Expenditure)
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 89
Critical path
(A) Is always longest
(B) Is always shortest
(C) May be longest
(D) May be shortest
Answer: Option A
Question No. 90
For the supply of materials for concrete, form work reinforcing and placing of concrete, removal of
form work and curing of concrete, number of bar(s) required on bar chart, is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option A
Question No. 91
Which one of the following surfaces will give highest coefficient of traction while using crawler
track tractors?
(A) Ice
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(B) Concrete
(C) Loose sand
(D) Earth
Answer: Option D
Question No. 92
Residential buildings are treated as
(D) Private construction
Answer: Option A
Question No. 93
In the bar chart planning
1. Interdependence of the operations cannot be portrayed.
2. Progress of work can be measured.
3. Spare time of the activities can be determined.
4. Schedule cannot be updated.
Of these statements
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Answer: Option B
Question No. 94
The three time estimates for the activities of the network shown in the given figure are shown
above their arrows. The earliest expected time for the event 4, is
(A) 19
(B) 14
(C) 24
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 95
Consider the following activities in a building construction:
1. Concreting of roof slabs
2. Brick-jelly lime concrete terracing
3. Erection of form work for slab
4. Construction of parapet wall in terrace
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The correct sequence of these activities is

(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 3, 1, 4, 2
(C) 3, 1, 2, 4
(D) 1, 3, 4, 2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 96
Military organisation is known as
(A) Line organisation
(B) Line and staff organisation
(C) Functional organisation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 97
Mobilization advance up to 10% of the cost of work is given to a contractor
(A) On commencement of work at site for payment of loan taken by him
(B) For the purchase of construction materials
(C) For the payment of advances to labour and other staff
(D) For all activities required to start the work at site on finalization of the contract document
Answer: Option D
Question No. 98
Pick up the PERT event from the following:
(A) Digging of foundation started
(B) Digging of foundation completed
(C) Laying of concrete started
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 99
A machine is purchased for Rs. 10,000,00 and has an estimated life of 10 years. The salvage value
at the end of 10 years is Rs. 1,50,000. The book value of the machine at the end of 5 years using
general straight line method of evaluation of depreciation is
(A) Rs. 4,75,000
(B) Rs. 5,75,000
(C) Rs. 6,50,000
(D) Rs. 8,50,000
Answer: Option B
Question No. 100

(A) An activity of a project is denoted by an arrow on the net work
(B) The tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity
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(C) The head of the arrow indicates the end of the activity
(D) The arrows are drawn to scale from left to right
Answer: Option D
Question No. 101

The process of incorporating changes and rescheduling or replanning is called
(A) Resource levelling
(B) Resource smoothening
(C) Updating
(D) Critical path scheduling
Answer: Option C
Question No. 102

Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known
(A) Event
(B) Node
(C) Connector
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 103

Assertion A: For a given depth of cut, the output of a power shovel can be increased by decreasing
the angle of swing.
Reason R: If the angle of swing is decreased, the cycle time will be decreased.
Select the correct answer.
Answer: Option A
Question No. 104

The salient feature of functional organisation is
(A) Strict adherence to specifications
(B) Separation of planning and design part
(C) Each individual maintains functional efficiency
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 105

A tractor shovel has a purchase price of Rs. 4.7 lacs and could save the organization an amount of
rupees one lac per year on operating costs. The salvage value after the amortization period is 10%
of the purchase price. The capital recovery period will be
(A) 3.7 years
(B) 4.23 years
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(C) 5 years
(D) 7.87 years
Answer: Option B
Question No. 106

The first method invented for planning projects, was
(A) Bar chart method
(B) Milestone chart
(C) Critical path method (CPM)
(D) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 107

Which one of the following is not an excavating and moving type of equipment?
(A) Bulldozer
(B) Clam shell
(C) Scraper
(D) Dump truck
Answer: Option D
Question No. 108

The main disadvantage of line organisation, is
(A) Rigid structure
(B) Extraordinary delay in communications
(C) Top level executions over work
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 109

Batching refers to
(A) Controlling the total quantity at each batch
(B) Weighing accurately, the quantity of each material for a job before mixing
(C) Controlling the quantity of each material into each batch
(D) Adjusting the water to be added in each batch according to the moisture content of the
materials being mixed in the batch
Answer: Option C
Question No. 110

While scheduling a project by C.P.M.
(A) A project is divided into various activities
(B) Required time for each activity is established
(C) Net work is drawn by connecting the activities and the events
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 111

Slack time refers to
(A) An activity
(B) An event
(C) Both event and activity
Answer: Option B
Question No. 112

Final technical authority of a project lies with
(A) Assistant Engineer
(B) Executive Engineer
(C) Superintending Engineer
(D) Chief Engineer
Answer: Option D
Question No. 113

Whenever an activity has zero total float, then
(A) Free float of the activity must be zero but independent float need not be zero
(B) Independent float must be zero but free float need not be zero
(C) Free float and independent float both must be zero
(D) Free float and independent float both need not be zero
Answer: Option C
Question No. 114

Mile Stone charts were invented in the year of
(A) 1910
(B) 1920
(C) 1930
(D) 1940
Answer: Option D
Question No. 115

Which of the following is not a PERT event?
(A) Site investigation started
(B) Sessional work completed
(C) Bus starts from Jaipur
(D) Class is being attended
Answer: Option D
Question No. 116

A construction schedule is prepared after collecting
(A) Number of operations
(B) Output of labour
(C) Output of machinery
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 117

A tractor whose weight is 20 tonnes has a drawbar pull of 2500 kg, when operated on a level road
having a rolling resistance of 30 kg per tonne. If this tractor is operated on a level road having a
rolling resistance of 40 kg per tonne, then the drawbar pull of the tractor will
(A) Reduce by 200 kg
(B) Increase by 200 kg
(C) Increase by 250 kg
(D) Reduce by 250 kg
Answer: Option A
Question No. 118

(A) The difference of latest occurrence time and earliest expected time, is called slack
(B) The activities connecting the events having zero slack, lie on the critical path
(C) The critical path consumes the maximum time
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 119

In India, are prefabricated components costlier than those of traditional cast-in-situ items that the
prefabricated components replace?
(A) Yes, because of heavier overheads and handling cost
(B) Yes, because of the very high order of quality control for the factory made components
(C) No, because of repetitive manufacture of a number of elements
(D) No, because of savings in site labour
Answer: Option C
Question No. 120

Frequency distribution curves
(A) Having a single lump, are called uninodal curves
(B) If symmetrical, are called normal curves
(C) If not symmetrical, are called skew curves
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 121

Wheeled tractors are replacing crawler tractors because
1. Wheeled tractors travel faster.
2. Crawler tractors are more expensive.
3. Track parts of a crawler wear out quickly.
4. Crawler tractors have stick control.
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Of these statements
(A) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer: Option C
Question No. 122

The difference between the time avail-to do a job and the time required to do the job, is known as
(A) Event
(B) Float
(C) Duration
(D) Constraint
Answer: Option B
Question No. 123

The grade resistance factor for an earth moving machine can be obtained by multiplying grade
percentage by a factor approximately equal to
(A) 2 kg/tonne
(B) 6 kg/tonne
(C) 9 kg/tonne
(D) 20 kg/tonne
Answer: Option C
Question No. 124

A dummy activity
(A) Is artificially introduced
(B) Is represented by a dotted line
(C) Does not consume time
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 125

The reduction in project time normally results in
(A) Decreasing the direct cost and increasing indirect cost
(B) Increasing the direct cost and decreasing the indirect cost
(C) Increasing the direct cost and indirect cost both
(D) Decreasing the direct cost and indirect cost both
Answer: Option B
Question No. 126

Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as
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(D) Effective organisation

Answer: Option C
Question No. 127

The area under the Beta distribution curve is divided into two equal parts by
(A) Most likely time
(B) Optimistic time
(C) Pessimistic time
(D) Expected time
Answer: Option D
Question No. 128

CPM is
(A) Synthesising in concepts
(B) Is built of activities oriented programme
(C) Is based on time estimate
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 129

A four wheel truck or whose operating weight is 12000 kg is pulled along a road having a rising
slope of 2% at a uniform speed. Assume grade resistance factor = 10 kg/tonne. The tension in the
tow cable is 720 kg. The rolling resistance of the road will be
(A) 20 kg/tonne
(B) 30 kg/tonne
(C) 40 kg/tonne
(D) 50 kg/tonne
Answer: Option C
Question No. 130

The Overall in-charge of an organisation at the site responsible for the execution of the works, is
(A) Executive Engineer
(B) Engineer
(C) Junior Engineer
(D) Assistant Engineer
Answer: Option B
Question No. 131

Consider the following features/factors:
1. Projects are of the non-repetitive type
2. Time required need not be known
3. Time required is known precisely
4. Events have been established for planning
5. Emphasis is given to activities of project
PERT is preferred for planning because of
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(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 5
Answer: Option A
Question No. 132

The first stage of a construction, is
(A) Preparation of estimate
(B) Survey of the site
(C) Initiation of proposal
(D) Preparation of tender
Answer: Option C
Question No. 133

Crash project duration is obtained by summing the
(A) Normal durations for all the activities
(B) Crash durations for all activities
(C) Crash durations for all the activities along the critical path obtained by taking into account
the normal duration for all the activities
(D) Crash durations for all the activities along the critical path obtained by taking into account
the crash duration for all the activities.
Answer: Option D
Question No. 134

(A) Forward pass is used for calculating earliest expected time
(B) Backward pass is used for calculating the latest occurrence time
(C) Maximum value of earliest expected time is used if there is more than one value of any
event
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 135

Sinking fund is
(A) The fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over
(B) Raised to meet maintenance costs
(C) The total sum to be paid to the municipal authorities by the tenants
(D) A part of the money kept in reserve for providing additional structures and structural
modifications
Answer: Option A
Question No. 136

If a is the optimistic time, b is the pessimistic time and m is most likely time of an activity, the
expected time of the activity, is
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(A) (a + m + b)/6
(B) (a + 2m + b)/6
(C) (a + 4m + b)/6
(D) (a + 5m + b)/6
Answer: Option C
Question No. 137

Consider the following statements for a power shovel:
(i) Output can be increased by reducing the angle of swing for a given depth of cut.
(ii) For a given angle of swing, output will be maximum at optimum depth of cut.
(iii) Output can be increased by keeping the depth of cut less than optimum depth,
(iv) Output can be increased by increasing the size of shovel. Of these statements
(A) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(D) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer: Option B
Question No. 138

If to, tp and tm are the optimistic, pessimistic and most likely time estimates of an activity
respectively, the expected time t of the activity will be
(A) to + 3tm+ tp/3
(B) to + 4tm+ tp/4
(C) to + 4tm+ tp/5
(D) to + 4tm+ tp/6
Answer: Option D
Question No. 139

The most suitable type of equipment for compaction of cohesive soils is
(A) Smooth-wheeled rollers
(B) Vibratory rollers
(C) Sheep foot rollers
(D) Tampers
Answer: Option C
Question No. 140

If the total float and duration of an activity are 5 and 10 days respectively, the particular activity
can be
(A) Started 5 days later
(B) Completed 5 days later
(C) Performed at slower rate in 15 days
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 141

Rolling resistance of a wheel depends upon
(i) Vehicle load
(ii) Grade
(iii) Ground conditions
Of these statements
(A) Only (i) is correct
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer: Option C
Question No. 142

A Milestone chart
(A) Shows the interdependencies of various jobs
(B) Depicts the delay of jobs, if any
(C) Points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 143

Earliest finish of an activity is always
(A) Greater than earliest event time of the following node
(B) Less than earliest event time of the following node
(C) Less than or equal to earliest event time of the following node
(D) Greater than or equal to earliest event time of the following node
Answer: Option C
Question No. 144

Critical path lies along the activities having total float
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Zero
(D) Same
Answer: Option C
Question No. 145

If the scheduled completion time of a project is more than the earliest expected time for
completion of the project, then the probability of completion of the project within the scheduled
completion time will be
(A) 50 %
(B) Less than 50 %
(C) More than 50 %
(D) 100 %
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 146

The critical activity has
(A) Maximum float
(B) Minimum float
(C) Zero float
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 147

For excavating utility trenches with precise control of depth, the excavation equipment used is
(A) Hoe
(B) Shovel
(C) Dragline
Answer: Option A
Question No. 148

PERT analysis is based on
(A) Optimistic time
(B) Pessimistic time
(C) Most likely time
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 149

The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering Constructions, is
(D) Effective organisation
Answer: Option A
Question No. 150

The probability of completion of any activity within its expected time is
(A) 50 %
(B) 84.1 %
(C) 99.9 %
(D) 100 %
Answer: Option A
Question No. 151

The performance of a specific task in CPM, is known
(A) Dummy
(B) Event
(C) Activity
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(D) Contract
Answer: Option C
Question No. 152

Pre-tender stage requires
(A) Acquisition of land
(B) Selection of site
(C) Fmalisation of alignment of work
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 153

An event is indicated on the network by a number enclosed in
(A) A circle
(B) A square
(C) A triangle
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 154

(A) A critical path always begins at the very first event.
(B) A critical path always terminates at the last event.
(C) Critical activities control the project duration.
(D) Critical activity is the one for which free float is zero.
Answer: Option D
Question No. 155

If t is the duration of an activity, t1 is the latest finish possible moment of its preceding activity
and t2 is the earliest start possible moment, the independent float of the activity is
(A) (t1 - t2) - t
(B) t - (t1 - t2)
(C) (t1 + t2) - t
(D) t + (t1 - t2)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 156

Free float for any activity is defined as the difference between
(A) Its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
(B) Its latest start time and earliest start time
(C) Its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
(D) Its earliest finish time and latest start time for its successor activity
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 157

In CPM analysis,
(A) Emphasis is given to activities
(B) Uncertainties are not allowed
(C) Activities are represented by arrows
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 158

The estimated time required to perform an activity, is known as
(A) Event
(B) Dummy
(C) Duration
(D) Float
Answer: Option C
Question No. 159

Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer
(A) To concentrate his attention on critical activities
(B) To divert the resources from non-critical advanced activities to critical activities
(C) To be cautious for avoiding any delay in the critical activities to avoid delay of the whole
project
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 160
B. If he decides to invest in A, for every rupee invested, he is assured of doubling his money in ten
years. If he decides to invest in B, he is assured of making his money 1.5 times in 5 years. If the
contractor values his money at 10% interest rate, he
(A) Should invest in neither of the two projects
(B) Could invest in either of the two projects
(C) Should invest in project A
(D) Should invest in project B
Answer: Option A
Question No. 161

Henry Gantt developed Bar charts for planning and scheduling of projects in
(A) 1880
(B) 1900
(C) 1920
(D) 1940
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 162

If TL is the latest allowable event occurrence time, total activity slack(s), is equal to
(A) LST-EST
(B) LFT-EFT
(C) TL-EFT
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 163

Modular co-ordination of construction means proper
(A) Planning
(B) Designing
(C) Execution
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 164

(A) CPM analysis is activity oriented
(B) PERT analysis is event oriented
(C) In CPM, the time is related to cost
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 165

The final selection of a construction site, is done by
(A) Departmental representative or user
(B) Local civil authority representative
(C) Representative of engineer authority
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 166

The main advantage of line organisation is:
(A) Effective command and control
(B) Rigid discipline in the organisation
(C) Defined responsibilities at all levels
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Design of Masonry Structures
Question No. 01
Rich cement mortars are more liable to cracking as compared to lean mortars because rich mortars
have
(A) High shrinkage
(B) Less strength
(D) None of above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 02
In a cavity wall, both leaves of which are load bearing, the effective thickness is taken as
(A) Sum of thickness of both leaves
(B) Two-third of the sum of thickness of both the leaves
(C) Actual thickness of the stronger leaf
(D) Larger of (B) and (C)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 03
Assertion A : For identical strength, a composite cement-lime mortar is preferred over cement
mortar.
Reason R : Composite cement-lime mortar has higher drying shrinkage than cement mortar.
Select your answer based on the codes given below:
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
Answer: Option C
Question No. 04
For earthquake resistant masonry buildings, the vertical distance between openings one above the
other in a load bearing wall shall not be less than
(A) 50 cm
(B) 60 cm
(C) 75 cm
(D) 100 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 05
The mode of failure of a very short masonry member having h/t ratio of less than 4 is by
(A) Shear
(B) Vertical tensile splitting
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(C) Buckling
Answer: Option A
Question No. 06
Where a structural component or a system is providing lateral support to five or more walls or
columns, the lateral load to be resisted may be taken as _________ of the total vertical load on
the most heavily loaded wall or column in the group
(A) 4 %
(B) 5 %
(C) 6 %
(D) 7 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 07
Consider the following statements regarding bands to be provided for strengthening masonry
work in masonry buildings constructed in zone III, IV and V.
(i) Lintel band is provided at lintel level on partition walls,
(ii) Gable band is provided at top of gable masonry below the purlins,
(iii) The bands shall be to full width of the wall and not less than 7.5 cm in depth,
(iv) The bands shall be made of reinforced concrete only.
Of these statements, the correct statements are
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 08
The basic stress in masonry units having height to width ratio of 1.5 may be increased by a factor
of
(A) 1.2
(B) 1.4
(C) 1.6
(D) 2.0
Answer: Option C
Question No. 09
The timber floor not spanning on the masonry wall but properly anchored to the wall gives
(A) Lateral restraint but not rotational restraint
(B) Rotational restraint but not lateral restraint
(C) Both lateral and rotational restraints
(D) Neither lateral nor rotational restraint
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 10
A free standing brick wall 20 cm thick is subjected to a wind pressure of 75kg/m². The maximum
height of wall from stability consideration is
(A) 0.64 m
(B) 0.96 m
(C) 1.28 m
(D) 1.5 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 11
The use of relatively weak mortar
1. Will accommodate movements due to loads and, cracking if any, and will be distributed as thin
hair cracks which are less noticeable or harmful.
2. Will result in reduction of stresses due to differential expansion of masonry units.
Of these statements
(A) 1 alone is correct
(B) 2 alone is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer: Option C
Question No. 12
If is the height of wall between centers of supports, then the effective height of wall where
concrete floors have a bearing on wall irrespective of the direction of span will be
(A) 0.75 H
(B) 0.85 H
(C) 1.0 H
(D) 1.5 H
Answer: Option A
Question No. 13
For designing masonry components of a structure, seismic forces provision in the design
calculation is not necessary for buildings constructed in
(A) Zone I only
(B) Zone I and II
(C) Zone I, II and III
(D) Zone I, II, III and IV
Answer: Option B
Question No. 14
A 200 mm thick wall made of modular bricks is 5 m long between cross walls and 3.8 m clear
height between RCC slabs at top and bottom. The slenderness ratio of the wall is
(A) 15
(B) 19
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(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: Option A
Question No. 15
Water retentivity for brick masonry should not be less than
(A) 50 %
(B) 60 %
(C) 70 %
(D) 80 %
Answer: Option C
Question No. 16
The bending stress in a wall or column subjected to effective vertical load need not be considered,
if the eccentricity ratio is
(A) Less than or equal to 1/24
(B) Less than or equal to 1/6
(C) More than 1/24
(D) Less than or equal to 1/12
Answer: Option A
Question No. 17
Assertion A : Lime based mortars give higher ratio of brickwork strength to mortar strength as
compared to non-lime mortar.
Reason R : Lime based mortars have lower bond strength as compared to non-lime mortars.
Select your answer according to the codes given below:
Answer: Option C
Question No. 18
In the case of panel wall subjected to horizontal loads at right angles to the plane of the wall, with
the mortar not leaner than Ml type, tensile stress in bending in the vertical direction may be
allowed to the extent of
(A) 0.4 kg/cm²
(B) 0.7 kg/cm²
(C) 1.0 kg/cm²
(D) 1.2 kg/cm²
Answer: Option C
Question No. 19
If the ratio of center to center spacing of intersecting walls to actual thickness of intersecting wall
is more than 20, then the stiffening coefficient for wall proper will be
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(A) 0
(B) Between 0 and 1
(C) 1
(D) Greater than 1
Answer: Option D
Question No. 20
1. Masonry in rich cement mortar though having good strength with high shrinkage is much liable
for surface cracks.
2. Lime mortar possesses poor workability and poor water retentivity and also suffers high
shrinkage.
3. Masonry in lime mortar has better resistance against rain penetration and is less liable to crack
when compared to masonry in cement mortar.
Which of these statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 21
If the eccentricity ratio is more than 1/24, then increase in the permissible stress in the design of
wall subjected to eccentric loading as per code is
(A) 10 %
(B) 25 %
(C)
(D) 50 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 22
For masonry work with solid bricks, consistency of mortar should be
(A) 5 to 8 cm
(B) 9 to 13 cm
(C) 14 to 18 cm
(D) 19 to 23 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 23
Consider the following statements regarding provision of chases in masonry,
(i) No chase should be permitted in a half brick load-bearing wall,
(ii) Vertical chases should not be closer than 2 m in any stretch of a wall,
(iii) Chases should be provided near to bearings of beams and lintels. Of these statements
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) (i) and (iii) are correct
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Answer: Option A
Question No. 24
For masonry built in 1 : 1 : 6 cement-lime-sand mix mortar or equivalent, the horizontal shear
stress permissible on the area of a mortar bed joint is
(A) 0.15 MPa
(B) 0.125 MPa
(C) 0.1 MPa
(D) 0.075 MPa
Answer: Option A
Question No. 25
Maximum slenderness ratio of load bearing walls for a dwelling having more than 2 storeys
(i) Shall not exceed 12 if lime mortar is used
(ii) Shall not exceed 18 if cement lime mortar 1 : 2 : 9 is used
(iii) Shall not exceed 24 if cement mortar 1 : 6 is used
Of these statements
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i) and (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer: Option A
Question No. 26
Full restraint is provided by
(i) Foundation footing of a wall
(ii) Timber floor spanning on the wall and anchored to the wall
(iii) RCC slab with a minimum bearing of 10 cm on the wall
Of these statements
(A) (i) and (iii) are correct
Answer: Option D
Question No. 27
A high lime content in a composite cement-lime mortar results in
1. Slow hardening.
2. Quick setting.
3. Weaker mortar. Of these statements
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 28
The effective height of free standing non-load bearing wall and column respectively will be
(A) 1.0H and 1.0H
(B) 1.5H and 1.5H
(C) 2.0H and 1.5H
(D) 2.0H and 2.0H
Where H is the height of wall or column between centers of supports
Answer: Option D
Question No. 29
Assertion A : From consideration of structural soundness and economy of design, most codes
control the maximum slenderness ratio of masonry walls and columns.
Reason R : By controlling the maximum slenderness ratio, failure is by excessive stress and not by
buckling. Select your answer according to codes given below:
Answer: Option A
Question No. 30
Assertion A : Limiting value of slenderness ratio for a column is less than that of a wall.
Reason R : A column can buckle around either of the two horizontal axes while a wall can buckle
around only one axis.
Select your answer according to the codes given below:
Answer: Option A
Question No. 31
A 200 mm thick brick masonry wall made of modular bricks carries an axial load of 30 kN/m from
wall above and an eccentric load of 20 kN/m from RCC floor acting at a distance of 47.5 mm from
the centre line of the wall. The resultant eccentricity ratio is
(A) 0.090
(B) 0.095
(C) 0.100
(D) 0.105
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 32
The thickness of each leaf of a cavity wall shall not be less than
(A) 5 cm
(B) 7.5 cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) 15 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 33
Minimum compressive strength in N/mm² for H1 type mortar used for masonry is
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7.5
(D) 10
Answer: Option D
Question No. 34
Direct load carrying capacity of a brick masonry wall standing freely as against when it supports RC
slab will be
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) The same in both the cases
(D) 100 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 35
Assertion A : For eccentricity ratio exceeding 1/6, effective thickness of masonry will get reduced.
Reason R : For eccentricity ratio exceeding 1/6, there will be tension on one side of the member.
Select your answer according to the codes give below:
(B) Both A and R is true and R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer: Option A
Question No. 36
If the horizontal cross-sectional area of a wall is 1200 cm², then the basic stress shall be multiplied
by a reduction factor equal to
(A) 0 6
(B) 0.75
(C) 0.85
(D) 0.95
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 37
For strengthening a 50 m long and 5 m high straight compound wall built in brick work, which one
of the following would be most suitable?
(A) Providing buttresses at certain intervals
(B) Providing a deeper foundation
(C) Using a richer mortar
(D) Using stronger bricks
Answer: Option A
Question No. 38
Minimum thickness of stiffening wall for 1 to 3 storeys shall not be less than
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 39
Cement mortars richer than 1 : 3 are not used in masonry because
(i) There is no gain in strength of masonry
(ii) There is high shrinkage
(iii) They are prone to segregation
Of these statements
(A) Only (ii) is correct
Answer: Option B
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Design of steel structures.1-10.pdf

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Design of Steel Structures
Question No. 01
(A) Material cost of a rivet is higher than that of a bolt
(B) Tensile strength of a bolt is lesser than that of a rivet
(C) Bolts are used as a temporary fastening whereas rivets are used as permanent fastenings
(D) Riveting is less noisy than bolting
Answer: Option C
Question No. 02
The forces acting on the web splice of a plate girder are
(A) Axial forces
(B) Shear and axial forces
(C) Shear and bending forces
(D) Axial and bending forces
Answer: Option C
Question No. 03
Generally the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid
(A) Axial force in rafter
(B) Shear force in rafter
(C) Deflection of rafter
(D) Bending moment in rafter
Answer: Option D
Question No. 04
Which of the following sections should preferably be used at places where torsion occurs?
(A) Angle section
(B) Channel section
(C) Box type section
Answer: Option C
Question No. 05
Other conditions being same, the load factor in indeterminate structures is
(A) Equal to load factor in determinate structures
(B) More than the load factor in determinate structures
(C) Less than the load factor in determinate structures
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 06
Rivets connecting flange angles to cover plates in a plate girder are subjected to
(A) Horizontal shear only
(B) Vertical load only
Answer: Option A
Question No. 07
The effective length of a fillet weld should not be less than
(A) Two times the weld size
(B) Four times the weld size
(C) Six times the weld size
(D) Weld size
Answer: Option B
Question No. 08
In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined for complete bearing on the base
plate, then the axial load is assumed to be transferred to base plate
(A) Fully by direct bearing
(B) Fully through fastenings
(C) 50% by direct bearing and 50% through fastenings
(D) 75% by direct bearing and 25% through fastenings
Answer: Option C
Question No. 09
If the floor is supported at or near the bottom but top chords of a bridge is not braced, then the
bridge is called
(A) Deck type
(B) Through type
(C) Half through type
(D) Double deck type
Answer: Option C
Question No. 10
The elastic strain for steel is about
(A) 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/120 of maximum strain
(B) 1/2 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/12 of maximum strain
(C) 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and 1/200 of maximum strain
(D) 1/24 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/200 of maximum strain
Answer: Option C
Question No. 11
In the virtual work method, the virtual quantity is
(A) Displacement
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(B) Load
(C) Slope
(D) Moment
Answer: Option A
Question No. 12
In moment resistant connections, the moment resistance of riveted connection depends upon
(A) Shear in rivets
(B) Compression in rivets
(C) Tension in rivets
(D) Strength of rivets in bearing
Answer: Option C
Question No. 13
The portal bracing in a truss bridge is used to
(A) Transfer load from top of end posts to bearings
(B) Keep the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section
(C) Stiffen the structure laterally
(D) Prevent the sides-way buckling of top chord
Answer: Option A
Question No. 14
The maximum permissible span of asbestos cement sheets is
(A) 650 mm
(B) 810 mm
(C) 1250 mm
(D) 1680 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 15
Lacing bars in a steel column should be designed to resist
(A) Bending moment due to 2.5% of the column load
(B) Shear force due to 2.5% of the column load
(C) 2.5% of the column load
Answer: Option B
Question No. 16
The moment of the couple set up in a section of a beam by the longitudinal compressive and
tensile force, is known as
(A) Bending moment
(B) Moment of resistance
(C) Flexural stress moment
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 17
The thickness of the web of a mild steel plate girder is less than d/200. If only one horizontal
stiffener is used, it is placed at
(A) The neutral axis of the section
(B) 2/3rd of the depth of the neutral axis from the compression flange
(C) 2/5th of the depth of the neutral axis from the compression flange
(D) 2/5th of the height of the neutral axis from tension flange
Answer: Option C
Question No. 18
Shear buckling of web in a plate girder is prevented by using
(A) Vertical intermediate stiffener
(B) Horizontal stiffener at neutral axis
(C) Bearing stiffener
Answer: Option A
Question No. 19
The most commonly used sections in lateral system to carry shear force in built up columns, are
(A) Rolled steel flats
(B) Rolled angles
(C) Rolled channels
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 20
The stress in the wall of a thin cylinder subjected to internal pressure, is
(A) Hoop compression
(B) Shear
(C) Torsional shear
(D) Hoop tension
Answer: Option D
Question No. 21
The risk coefficient k, depends on
(A) Mean probable design life of structures
(B) Basic wind speed
Answer: Option C
Question No. 22
For eccentrically loaded columns, the bending factor is
(A) Cross-sectional area of column/Radius of gyration
(B) Radius of gyration/Cross-sectional area of column
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(C) Cross-sectional area of column/Section modulus of the section

(D) Section modulus of the section/Cross-sectional area of column
Answer: Option C
Question No. 23
The net area of round bars to resist the tension, is the area of cross section at
(A) Mid-section
(B) Root of the thread
(C) Difference of (a) and (b)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 24
The bracing between two columns of a steel tank will be designed to resist
(A) Horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake only
(B) Horizontal, shear due to wind or earthquake + 2.5% of column loads
(C) Column loads + 2.5% of horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake
(D) Column loads + full horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake
Answer: Option B
Question No. 25
A column splice is used to increase
(A) Length of the column
(B) Strength of the column
(C) Cross-sectional area of the column
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 26
A beam may be designed as a cased beam if
(A) Section is of double open channel form with the webs not less than 40 mm apart
(B) Overall depth and width of the steel section do not exceed 750 and 450 mm respectively
(C) Beam is solidly encased in concrete with 10 mm aggregate having 28 days strength 160
kg/cm2
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 27
The bracing provided in the plane of end posts is called
(A) Sway bracing
(B) Portal bracing
(C) Top lateral bracing
(D) Bottom lateral bracing
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 28
In a built up beam actual bending compressive stress fbc is given by (when y1 is the distance of the
edge of the beam from the neutral axis).
(A) fbc = (M/Ixx) × y
(B) fbc = (Ixx/M) × y
(C) fbc = (Ixx/M) + y
(D) fbc = (M/Ixx) + y
Answer: Option A
Question No. 29
If the thickness of a structural member is small as compared to its length and width, it is classified
as
(A) One dimensional
(B) Two dimensional
(C) Three dimensional
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 30
The statical method of plastic analysis satisfies
(A) Equilibrium and mechanism conditions
(B) Equilibrium and plastic moment conditions
(C) Mechanism and plastic moment conditions
(D) Equilibrium condition only
Answer: Option B
Question No. 31
Lug angle is
(A) Used with single angle member
(B) Not used with double angle member
(C) Used with channel member
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 32
Compression members composed of two channels back-to-back and separated by a small distance
are connected together by riveting so that the minimum slenderness ratio of each member
between the connections, does not exceed
(A) 40
(B) 50
(C) 60
(D) 70
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 33
The connection of intermediate vertical stiffeners to the web, not subjected to external loads,
shall be designed for a minimum shear force (kN/m) of
(A) 75 t²/h
(B) 125 t3/h²
(C) 125 t²/h
(D) 175 t²/h
Where, t = the web thickness in mm and h = the outstand of stiffener in mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 34
When the upper column does not provide full bearing area over lower column, the column splice
is provided with the following assumption
(A) Bearing plate is assumed as a short beam to transmit the axial load to the lower column
section
(B) Axial load is assumed to be taken by flanges
(C) Load transmitted from the flanges of upper column and reactions from the flanges of lower
columns are equal and form a couple
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 35
For the economical design of a combined footing to support two equal column loads, the
projections of beams in lower tier are kept such that bending moment under column is equal to
(A) Bending moment at the centre of the beam
(B) Half the bending moment at the centre of the beam
(C) Twice the bending moment at the centre of the beam
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 36
The allowable shear stress in the web of mild steel beams decreases with
(A) Decrease in h/t ratio
(B) Increase in h/t ratio
(C) Decrease in thickness
(D) Increase in height
Where 'h is thickness
Answer: Option B
Question No. 37
On eccentrically loaded columns, the equivalent axial load may be obtained by
(A) Adding the axial load, eccentric load, the product of the bending moment due to eccentric
load and the appropriate bending factor
(B) Adding the axial load and eccentric load and subtracting the product of bending moment
and appropriate bending factor
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(C) Dividing the sum of axial load and eccentric load by the product of the bending moment and
appropriate bending factor
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 38
Stiffeners are used in a plate girder
(A) To reduce the compressive stress
(B) To reduce the shear stress
(C) To take the bearing stress
(D) To avoid bulking of web plate
Answer: Option D
Question No. 39
As compared to field rivets, the shop rivets are
(A) Stronger
(B) Weaker
(C) Equally strong
Answer: Option A
Question No. 40
A fillet weld whose axis is parallel to the direction of the applied load, is known as
(A) Diagonal filler weld
(B) End fillet weld
(C) Side fillet weld
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 41
In a truss girder of a bridge, a diagonal consists of mild steel flat 4001.S.F. and carries a pull of 80
tonnes. If the gross-diameter of the rivet is 26 mm, the number of rivets required in the splice, is
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Answer: Option C
Question No. 42
When the bolts are subjected to reversal of stresses, the most suitable type of bolt is
(A) Black bolt
(B) Ordinary unfinished bolt
(C) Turned and fitted bolt
(D) High strength bolt
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 43
Factor of safety is the ratio of
(A) Yield stress to working stress
(B) Tensile stress to working stress
(C) Compressive stress to working stress
(D) Bearing stress to working stress
Answer: Option A
Question No. 44
The size of a butt weld is specified by the effective throat thickness which in the case of
incomplete penetration, is taken as
(A) ½ of the thickness of thicker part
(B) ¾ of the thickness of thicker part
(C) ¾ of the thickness of thinner part
(D) 7/8 of the thickness of thinner part
Answer: Option D
Question No. 45
The best arrangement to provide unified behaviour in built up steel columns is by
(A) Lacing
(B) Battening
(C) Tie plates
(D) Perforated cover plates
Answer: Option A
Question No. 46
The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain within elastic limit, is known as
(A) Modulus of elasticity
(B) Shear modulus of elasticity
(C) Bulk modulus of elasticity
(D) Tangent modulus of elasticity
Answer: Option B
Question No. 47
In a built up section carrying a tensile force, the flanges of two channels are turned outward
(A) To simplify the transverse connections
(B) To minimise lacing
(C) To have greater lateral rigidity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 48
The overlap of batten plates with the main members in welded connections should be more than
(A) 3 t
(B) 4 t
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(C) 6 t
(D) 8 t
t
Answer: Option B
Question No. 49
A fillet weld may be termed as
(A) Mitre weld
(B) Concave weld
(C) Convex weld
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 50
Modified moment of inertia of sections with a single web, is equal to moment of inertia of the
section about Y-Y axis at the point of maximum bending moment and is multiplied by the ratio of
(A) Area of compression flange at the minimum bending moment to the corresponding area at
the point of maximum bending moment
(B) Area of tension flange at the minimum bending moment of the corresponding area at the
point of maximum bending moment
(C) Total area of flanges at the maximum bending moment to the corresponding area at the
point of maximum bending moment
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 51
Gantry girders are designed to resist
(A) Lateral loads
(B) Longitudinal loads and vertical loads
(C) Lateral, longitudinal and vertical loads
(D) Lateral and longitudinal loads
Answer: Option C
Question No. 52
The distance between e.g. of compression and e.g. of tension flanges of a plate girder, is known as
(A) Overall depth
(B) Clear depth
(C) Effective depth
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 53
The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position at both ends but not
restrained in direction, is
(A) L
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(B) 0.67 L
(C) 0.85 L
(D) 1.5 L
Answer: Option A
Question No. 54
The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15°, where access is not provided to roof, is taken as
(A) 0.65 kN/m²
(B) 0.75 kN/m²
(C) 1.35 kN/m²
(D) 1.50 kN/m²
Answer: Option A
Question No. 55
(A) Dead load includes self-weight of the structure and super-imposed loads permanently
attached to the structure
(B) Dead loads change their positions and vary in magnitude
(C) Dead loads are known in the beginning of the design
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 56
Design of a riveted joint is based on the assumption:
(A) Bending stress in rivets is accounted for
(B) Riveted hole is assumed to be completely filled by the rivet
(C) Stress in the plate in not uniform
(D) Friction between plates is taken into account
Answer: Option B
Question No. 57
Steel tanks are mainly designed for
(A) Weight of tank
(B) Wind pressure
(C) Water pressure
(D) Earthquake forces
Answer: Option C
Question No. 58
The cross-section of a standard fillet is a triangle whose base angles are
(A) 45° and 45°
(B) 30° and 60°
(C) 40° and 50°
(D) 20° and 70°
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 59
If N is the number of rivets in the joint, the strength of a riveted joint against shearing of rivets, is
given by
(A) Ps = N d2 × Ps
(B) Ps = N × (d × t × ps)
(C) Ps = N × (p - d) × t × Ps
(D) Ps = N × (P + d) × t × ps
Answer: Option A
Question No. 60
The sway bracing is designed to transfer
(A) 2Vi % of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
(B) 10% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
(C) 25% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
(D) 50% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
Answer: Option D
Question No. 61
Column footing is provided
(A) To spread the column load over a larger area
(B) To ensure that intensity of bearing pressure between the column footing and soil does not
exceed permissible bearing capacity of the soil
(C) To distribute the column load over soil through the column footing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 62
Cold driven rivets range from
(A) 6 to 10 mm in diameter
(B) 10 to 16 mm in diameter
(C) 12 to 22 mm in diameter
(D) 22 to 32 mm in diameter
Answer: Option C
Question No. 63
The mechanism method of plastic analysis satisfies
(A) Equilibrium and mechanism conditions
(B) Equilibrium and plastic moment conditions
(C) Mechanism and plastic moment conditions
(D) Equilibrium condition only
Answer: Option A
Question No. 64
Rolled steel beams are designated by Indian Standard series and its
(A) Weight per metre and depth of its section
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(B) Depth of section and weight per metre

(C) Width of flange and weight per metre
(D) Weight per metre and flange width
Answer: Option B
Question No. 65
When plates are exposed to weather, tacking rivets are provided at a pitch in line not exceeding
(where t is the thickness of the outside plate).
(A) 8 t
(B) 16 t
(C) 24 t
(D) 32 t
Answer: Option B
Question No. 66
For a compression member with double angle section, which of the following section will give
larger value of minimum radius of gyration?
(A) Equal angles back to back
(B) Unequal legged angles with long legs back to back
(C) Unequal legged angles with short legs back to back
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 67
(A) The minimum pitch should not be less than 2.5 times the gross diameter of the river
(B) The minimum pitch should not be less than 12 times the gross diameter of the rivet
(C) The maximum pitch should not exceed 10 times the thickness or 150 mm whichever is less in
compression
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 68
The gross section of the web of a beam is defined as
(A) Depth of the beam multiplied by its web thickness
(B) Width of the flange multiplied by its web thickness
(C) Sum of the flange width and depth of the beam multiplied by the web thickness
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 69
Pitch of tacking rivets, when double angles connected back to back and acting as tension members
should not be more than
(A) 500 mm
(B) 600 mm
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(C) 1000 mm
(D) 300 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 70
For a steel grillage footing to support two unequal column loads
(A) Line of action of the resultant of two column loads, is made to coincide with the centre of
gravity of the base of the footing
(B) Trapezoidal shape is used for the base footing
(C) Projections of beams on either side in lower tier are such that bending moments under
columns are equal
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 71
In a tension member if one or more than one rivet holes are off the line, the failure of the member
depends upon:
(A) Pitch
(B) Gauge
(C) Diameter of the rivet holes
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 72
The heaviest I-section for same depth is
(A) ISMB
(B) ISLB
(C) ISHB
(D) ISWB
Answer: Option C
Question No. 73
The effective length of a compression member of length L, held in position and restrained in
direction at both ends, is
(A) L
(B) 0.67 L
(C) 0.85 L
(D) 1.5 L
Answer: Option B
Question No. 74
Efficiency of a riveted joint is defined as the ratio of
(A) Least strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate
(B) Greatest strength of a riveted joint to the strength of solid plate
(C) Least strength of a riveted plate to the greatest strength of the riveted joint
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 75
By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of riveted joint can be
avoided?
(A) Tension failure of the plate
(B) Shear failure of the rivet
(C) Shear failure of the plate
(D) Crushing failure of the rivet
Answer: Option C
Question No. 76
The maximum tensile and compressive bending stress in extreme fibres of rolled I-sections and
channels on the effective section, is
(A) 1500 kg/cm2
(B) 1420 kg/cm2
(C) 1650 kg/cm2
(D) 2285 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 77
When the ratio of the moment M to axial load P is greater than L/6, the resultant of the
compressive bearing pressure which acts at a distance Y from one side, is given by
(A) y = (L/3) - (M/P)
(B) y = (L/2) - (P/M)
(C) y = (L/2) + (M/P)
(D) y = (L/3) + (M/P)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 78
A circular column section is generally not used in actual practice because
(A) It is uneconomical
(B) It cannot carry the load safely
(C) It is difficult to connect beams to the round sections
Answer: Option C
Question No. 79
The safe working pressure for a spherical vessel 1.5 m diameter and having 1.5 cm thick wall not
to exceed tensile stress 50kg/cm2, is
(A) 16 kg/cm2
(B) 18 kg/cm2
(C) 20 kg/cm2
(D) 22 kg/cm2
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 80
Rise of a Jack arch is kept about
(A) 1/2 to 1/3 of the span
(B) 1/3 to 1/4 of the span
(C) 1/4 to 1/8 of the span
(D) 1/8 to 1/12 of the span
Answer: Option D
Question No. 81
Battening is preferable when the
(i) Column carries axial load only
(ii) Space between the two main components is not very large
(iii) Column is eccentrically loaded
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (iii)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 82
For a steel member of slenderness ratio 350, the allowable stress is 76 kg/cm2 if it is
(A) HTW grade of thickness exceeding 32 mm
(B) HT grade of thickness exceeding 45 mm
(C) HT grade of thickness not exceeding 45 mm
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 83
The main type of butt joints, is a double cover
(A) Shear riveted joint
(B) Chain riveted joint
(C) Zig-zag riveted joint
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 84
Bearing stiffener in a plate girder is used to
(A) Transfer the load from the top flange to the bottom one
(B) Prevent buckling of web
(C) Decrease the effective depth of web
(D) Prevent excessive deflection
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 85
The central deflection of a simply supported steel beam of length L with a concentrated load W at
the centre, is
(A) WL3/3EI
(B) WL4/3EI
(C) WL3/48EI
(D) 5WL4/384EI
Answer: Option C
Question No. 86
If d is the distance between the flange angles,
(A) Vertical stiffeners are provided in steel plate girders if the web is less than d/85
(B) Vertical stiffeners are provided in high tensile steel plate girders if the web is less than d/175
(C) Horizontal stiffeners are provided in steel plate girders if the web is less than d/200
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 87
Area of openings for buildings of large permeability is more than
(A) 10% of wall area
(B) 20% of wall area
(C) 30% of wall area
(D) 50% of wall area
Answer: Option B
Question No. 88
In case horizontal stiffeners are not used, the distance between vertical legs of flange angles at the
top and bottom of a plate girder, is known as
(A) Overall depth
(B) Clear depth
(C) Effective depth
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 89
(A) The steel beams placed in plain cement concrete, are known as reinforced beams
(B) The filler joists are generally continuous over three-supports only
(C) Continuous fillers are connected to main beams by means of cleat angles
(D) Continuous fillers are supported by main steel beams
Answer: Option D
Question No. 90
The diameter of base of conical flare of a steel stack is
(A) Less than d
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(B) Equal to d
(C) More than d
is the diameter of the cylindrical part
Answer: Option C
Question No. 91
The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position and restrained in
direction at one end and effectively restrained in direction but not held in position at the other
end, is
(A) L
(B) 0.67 L
(C) 0.85 L
(D) 1.5 L
Answer: Option A
Question No. 92
Working shear stress on the gross area of a rivet as recommended by Indian Standards, is
(A) 785 kg/cm2
(B) 1025 kg/cm2
(C) 2360 kg/cm2
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 93
The least dimensio D
(A) 0.5 D
(B) 0.68 D
(C) 0.88 D
(D) D
Answer: Option C
Question No. 94
The critical load for a column of length I hinged at both ends and having flexural rigidity El, is given
by
(A) Pc = ²EI/l²
(B) Pc = /l²
(C) Pc = /I²
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 95
Length of an outstanding leg of a vertical stiffener, may be taken equal to
(A) 1/10th of clear depth of the girder plus 15 mm
(B) 1/20th of clear depth of the girder plus 20 mm
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(C) 1/25th of clear depth of the girder plus 25 mm

(D) 1/30th of clear depth of the girder plus 50 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 96
In case of plastic design, the calculated maximum shear capacity of a beam as per IS: 800 shall be
(A) 0.55 Aw.fy
(B) 0.65 Aw.fy
(C) 0.75 Aw.fy
(D) 0.85 Aw.fy
Where, Aw = effective cross-sectional area resisting shear fy = yield stress of the steel
Answer: Option A
Question No. 97
If the depth of two column sections is equal, then the column splice is provided
(A) With filler plates
(B) With bearing plates
(C) With filler and hearing plates
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 98
On steel structures the dead load is the weight of
(A) Steel work
(B) Material fastened to steel work
(C) Material supported permanently
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 99
A steel beam supporting loads from the floor slab as well as from wall is termed as
(A) Stringer beam
(B) Lintel beam
(C) Spandrel beam
(D) Header beam
Answer: Option C
Question No. 100

The area Ap of cover plates in one flange of a built up beam, is given by
(A) Ap = Zreqr + Zbeam/h
(B) Ap = Zreqr + Zbeam/A
(C) Ap = Zreqr × Zbeam/h
(D) Ap = Zreqr - Zbeam/h
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 101

The economical depth d of a web plate in which allowable bearing stress is fb, and the maximum
bending moment is M, as suggested by Rawater and Clark, is
(A) d = (M/fb)
(B) d = 1.5 (M/fb)
(C) d = 2.5 (M/fb)
(D) d = 4.5 (M/fb)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 102

Bending compressive and tensile stresses respectively are calculated based on
(A) Net area and gross area
(B) Gross area and net area
(C) Net area in both cases
(D) Gross area in both cases
Answer: Option B
Question No. 103

The thickness t of a single flat lacing should not be less than
(A) 1/30th length between inner end rivets
(B) 1/40th length between inner end rivets
(C) 1/50th length between inner end rivets
(D) 1/60th length between inner end rivets
Answer: Option B
Question No. 104

Minimum pitch of the rivets shall not be less than
(A) 1.5 d
(B) 2.0 d
(C) 2.5 d
(D) 3.0 d
Where d is gross diameter of rivet
Answer: Option C
Question No. 105

Tongue plates are provided in a steel girder at
(A) The upper flange
(B) The lower flange
(C) The upper end of the web
(D) The upper and lower ends of the web
Answer: Option D
Question No. 106

For steel members exposed to weather and not accessible for repainting, the thickness of steel
should not be less than
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(A) 4.5 mm
(B) 6 mm
(C) 8 mm
(D) 10 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 107

The slenderness ratio of a column supported throughout its length by a masonry wall is
(A) Zero
(B) 10
(C) 100
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option A
Question No. 108

The main assumption of the method of simple design of steel frame work, is:
(A) Beams are simply supported
(B) All connections of beams, girders and trusses are virtually flexible
(C) Members in compression are subjected to forces applied at appropriate eccentricities
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 109

Outstanding length of a compression member consisting of a channel, is measured as
(A) Half of the nominal width
(B) Nominal width of the section
(C) From the edge to the first row of rivets
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 110

The use of tie plates in laced columns is
(A) Prohibited
(B) Not prohibited
(C) Permitted at start and end of lacing system only
(D) Permitted between two parts of the lacing
Answer: Option C
Question No. 111

According to IS : 800-1962 the permissible bending stress in steel slab plates, is
(A) 1500 kg/cm2
(B) 1420 kg/cm2
(C) 2125 kg/cm2
(D) 1890 kg/cm2
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 112

The side thrust T on the tie rods provided at the end beam of jack arch of rise R, is calculated from
the formula
(A) T = WL/4R
(B) T = WR/8L
(C) T = WL/8R
(D) T = WL/2R
Answer: Option C
Question No. 113

Intermediate vertical stiffeners in a plate girder need be provided if the depth of web exceeds
(A) 50 t
(B) 85 t
(C) 200 t
(D) 250 t
t
Answer: Option B
Question No. 114

The minimum pitch of rivet holes of diameter d should not be less than
(A) d
(B) 1.25 d
(C) 1.5 d
(D) 2.5 d
Answer: Option D
Question No. 115

Design of a riveted joint, is based on the assumption:
(A) Load is uniformly distributed among all the rivets
(B) Shear stress on a rivet is uniformly distributed over its gross area
(C) Bearing stress in the rivet is neglected
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 116

For the buildings having a low permeability, the internal wind pressure acting normal to the wall
and roof surfaces is taken as
(A) Zero
(B) ±0.2 p
(C) ± 0.5 p
(D) ±0.7 p
Where p is basic wind pressure
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 117

If is the maximum allowable bending stress in a tension member whose radius of gyration
is and depth is 2y, the required cross sectional area is given by
(A) A = My/fr²
(B) A = My²/fr²
(C) A = My/fr
(D) A = My/f²r²
Answer: Option A
Question No. 118

The load on a lintel is assumed as uniformly distributed if the height of the masonry above it, is
upto a height of
(A) The effective span
(B) 1.25 times the effective span
(C) 1.50 times the effective span
(D) 2.0 times the effective span
Answer: Option B
Question No. 119

Maximum pitch of rivets, used in steel stacks, is limited to
(A) 6 t
(B) 10 t
(C) 12 t
(D) 16 t
t
Answer: Option B
Question No. 120

Diameter of a rivet hole is made larger than the diameter of the rivet by
(A) 1.0 mm for rivet diameter upto 12 mm
(B) 1.5 mm for rivet diameter exceeding 25 mm
(C) 2.0 mm for rivet diameter over 25 mm
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 121

According to IS: 800-1962, the coefficient of expansion of steel per degree centigrade per unit
length, is taken as
(A) 0.000008
(B) 0.000010
(C) 0.000012
(D) 0.000014
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 122

In case of timber structures, the simple bending formula M = fz may be applied for
(A) Rectangular beams up to 300 mm depth
(B) All rectangular beams
(C) Solid circular beams only
(D) All square cross-section beams
Answer: Option A
Question No. 123

Perforated cover plates are particularly suitable for built up sections consisting of
(A) Channels placed back to back
(B) Channels placed toe to toe
(C) Four angle box section
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 124

If R is the reaction on the bearing plate, the minimum moment of. inertia of the bearing stiffener
provided at the support of a plate girder of overall depth D, the maximum thickness of the
compression flange T, carrying total load W, is
(A) (D²/250) × (R/W)
(B) (D3T/250) × (R/W)
(C) (DT/250) × (R/W)
(D) (DT/250) × (W/R)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 125

As per IS: 800, in the plastic design, which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Working Loads Load factor
(i) Dead load 1.7
(ii) Dead Load + imposed load 1.7
(iii) Dead load + load due to wind or 1.3 seismic forces
(iv) Dead load + imposed load + load 1.7 due to wind or seismic forces
Of these statements
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) Only (i) is correct
Answer: Option A
Question No. 126

Effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in direction at both ends, is
(A) L
(B) 0.67 L
(C) 0.85 L
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(D) 1.5 L
Answer: Option B
Question No. 127

(A) The ends of a strut, are connected together with two rivets
(B) The members of strut will have at least two connections spaced equidistant in their length
(C) The members when separated back-to-back, the connecting rivets should pass through solid
washer or packing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 128

For rivets in tension with countersunk heads, the tensile value shall be
(A) Reduced by 25 %
(B) Reduced by 33.3%
(C) Increased by 25 %
(D) Increased by 33.3 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 129

Effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in direction at one end but
neither held in position nor restrained in direction at the other end, is
(A) 1.5 L
(B) 0.67 L
(C) 0.85 L
(D) 2 L
Answer: Option D
Question No. 130

The equivalent axial load may be defined as the load which produces a stress equal to
(A) Maximum stress produced by the eccentric load
(B) Maximum stressed fibre
(C) Bending stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 131

If the thickness of thinnest outside plate is 10 mm, then the maximum pitch of rivets in tension
will be taken as
(A) 120 mm
(B) 160 mm
(C) 200 mm
(D) 300 mm
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 132

The connection of one beam to another beam by means of an angle at the bottom and an angle at
the top, is known as
(A) Unstiffened seated connection
(B) Stiffened seated connection
(C) Seated connection
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 133

The channels get twisted symmetrically with regard to its axis
(A) Parallel to flanges
(B) Parallel to web
(C) Perpendicular to flanges
(D) Perpendicular to web
Answer: Option B
Question No. 134

Bolts are most suitable to carry
(A) Shear
(B) Bending
(C) Axial tension
(D) Shear and bending
Answer: Option C
Question No. 135

Rolled steel angle sections are classified as
(A) Equal angles
(B) Unequal angles
(C) Bulb angles
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 136

According to I.S. : 800 - 1871, lacing bars resist transverse shear equal to
(A) 1.0% of the axial load
(B) 2.0% of the axial load
(C) 2.5% of the axial load
(D) 3.0% of the axial load
Answer: Option C
Question No. 137

The effective length of a battened strut effectively held in position at both ends but not restrained
in direction is taken as
(A) 1.8 L
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(B) L
(C) 1.1 L
(D) 1.5 L
Answer: Option C
Question No. 138

The method of design of steel framework for greatest rigidity and economy in weight, is known as
(A) Simply design
(B) Semi-rigid design
(C) Fully rigid design
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 139

For a cantilever beam of length built-in at the support and restrained against torsion at the free
end, the effective projecting length is
(A) l = 0.7 L
(B) l = 0.75 L
(C) l = 0.85 L
(D) l = 0.5 L
Answer: Option B
Question No. 140

Economical depth of a plate girder corresponds to
(A) Minimum weight
(B) Minimum depth
(C) Maximum weight
(D) Minimum thickness of web
Answer: Option A
Question No. 141

Slenderness ratio of a compression member is
(A) Moment of inertia/Radius of gyration
(B) Effective length/Area of cross-section
(C) Radius of gyration/Effective length
(D) Radius of gyration/ Area of cross-section
Answer: Option C
Question No. 142

The least permissible clear dimension of the web of thickness t in the panel of a plate girder, is
restricted to
(A) 150 t
(B) 160 t
(C) 170 t
(D) 180 t
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 143

Bearing stiffeners are provided at
(i) The supports
(ii) The mid span
(iii) The point of application of concentrated loads
(A) Only (i)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 144

Web crippling generally occurs at the point where
(A) Bending moment is maximum
(B) Shearing force is minimum
(C) Concentrated loads act
(D) Deflection is maximum
Answer: Option C
Question No. 145

(A) The slenderness ratio of lacing bars for compression members should not exceed 145
(B) The minimum width of lacing bar connected with rivets of nominal diameter 16 mm, is kept
50 mm
(C) The minimum thickness of a flat lacing bar is kept equal to one-fortieth of its length between
inner end rivets
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 146

The basic wind speed is specified at a height 'h' above mean ground level in an open terrain. The
value of 'h' is
(A) 10 m
(B) 20 m
(C) 25 m
(D) 50 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 147

If d is the distance between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders are spaced not
greater than
(A) d
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(B) 1.25 d
(C) 1.5 d
(D) 1.75 d
Answer: Option C
Question No. 148

If d is the distance between the flange angles of a plate girder, vertical stiffeners are provided at a
distance not greater than
(A) d but not less than 0.20 d
(B) 1.25 d but not less than 0.33 d
(C) 1.5 d but not less than 0.33 d
(D) 2.0 d but not less than 0.50 d
Answer: Option B
Question No. 149

The allowable tensile stress in structural mild steel plates for steel tank is assumed as
(A) 95.0 MPa on net area
(B) 105.5 MPa on net area
(C) 105.5 MPa on gross area
(D) 150.0 MPa on gross area
Answer: Option B
Question No. 150

A second horizontal stiffener is always placed at the neutral axis of the girder if the thickness of
the web is less than
(A) d/250 for structural steel
(B) d/225 for high tensile steel
(C) Both (c) and (b)
(D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 151

The strength of ISA 125 = 75 × 10 mm used as a tie member with its longer leg connected at the
ends by 27 mm diameter rivets, is
(A) 26,000 kg
(B) 26,025 kg
(C) 26,050 kg
(D) 26,075 kg
Answer: Option D
Question No. 152

The effect of racking forces is considered in the design of
(i) Lateral braces
(ii) Chord members
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(A) Only (i)

(B) Only (ii)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 153

For a column of height fixed in position and direction both at its top and bottom, its effective
length, is
(A) L
(B) L
(C) ½ L
(D) 2L
Answer: Option C
Question No. 154

As per ISI, rolled steel beam sections are classified into
(A) Two series
(B) Three series
(C) Four series
(D) Five series
Answer: Option D
Question No. 155

Shape factor is a property which depends
(A) Only on the ultimate stress of the material
(B) Only on the yield stress of the material
(C) Only on the geometry of the section
(D) Both on the yield stress and ultimate stress of material
Answer: Option C
Question No. 156

A tension member, if subjected to possible reversal of stress due to wind, the slenderness ratio of
the member should not exceed
(A) 180
(B) 200
(C) 300
(D) 350
Answer: Option D
Question No. 157

(A) Tacking rivets are used if the minimum distance between centres of two adjacent rivets
exceeds 12 t or 200 mm, whichever is less
(B) Tacking rivets are not considered to calculate stress
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(A) Headers
(B) Trimmers
(C) Stringers
(D) Spandrel beams
Answer: Option C
Question No. 211

With usual notations of the letters, the shear stress fs at any point of the cross-section is given by
(A) fs =FQ/It
(B) fs =Ft/IQ
(C) fs =It/FQ
(D) fs =IF/Qt
Answer: Option A
Question No. 212

According to IS Specifications, the maximum pitch of rivets in compression is
(A) Lesser of 200 mm and 12 t
(B) Lesser of 200 mm and 16 t
(C) Lesser of 300 mm and 32 t
(D) Lesser of 3 00 mm and 24 t
Where t is thickness of thinnest outside plate or angle
Answer: Option A
Question No. 213

Poisson's ratio for steel within elastic limit, ranges from
(A) 0.15 to 0.20
(B) 0.25 to 0.24
(C) 0.25 to 0.33
(D) 0.33 to 0.35
Answer: Option C
Question No. 214

The minimum width B of a solid casing for a cased beam, is equal to
(A) B = b + 25 mm
(B) B = b + 50 mm
(C) B = b + 75 mm
(D) B = b + 100 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 215

Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is provided to safeguard against
(A) Shear buckling of web plate
(B) Compression buckling of web plate
(C) Yielding
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Answer: Option B
Question No. 216

If W and L are the total superimposed load and the span of a plate girder in metres, the
approximate self weight (W) of the girder, is taken as
(A) M = WL/100
(B) M = WL/200
(C) M = WL/300
(D) M = WL/400
Answer: Option C
Question No. 217

Maximum permissible slenderness ratio of a member normally acting as a tie in a roof truss, is
(A) 180
(B) 200
(C) 250
(D) 350
Answer: Option D
Question No. 218

Normally, the angle of roof truss with asbestos sheets should not be less than
(A) 26½°
(B) 30°
(C) 35°
(D) 40°
Answer: Option B
Question No. 219

An imaginary line along which rivets are placed, is known as
(A) Rivet line
(B) Back line
(C) Gauge line
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 220

(A) Loaded columns are supported on column bases
(B) Column bases transmit the column load to the concrete foundation
(C) Column load is spread over a large area on concrete
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 221

The capacity of the smallest pressed steel tank is
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(A) 1000 litre

(B) 1650 litre
(C) 1950 litre
(D) 2450 litre
Answer: Option C
Question No. 222

The permissible stress to which a structural member can be subjected to, is known as
(A) Bearing stress
(B) Working stress
(C) Tensile stress
(D) Compressive stress
Answer: Option B
Question No. 223

Tacking rivets in tension members, are provided at a pitch in line not exceeding
(A) 25 cm
(B) 50 cm
(C) 75 cm
(D) 100 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 224

In case of timber structures, the form factor for solid circular cross-section is taken as
(A) 1.18
(B) 1.414
(C) 1.67
(D) 1.81
Answer: Option A
Question No. 225

The distance between the outer faces of flanges of a plate girder, is known as
(A) Overall depth
(B) Clear depth
(C) Effective depth
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 226

When the depth of a plate girder is at least times the depth of vertical leg of the flange angles,
the girder is known as deep plate girder, if is
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 227

Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied both in elastic and plastic analysis?
(A) Equilibrium condition
(B) Yield condition
(C) Plastic moment condition
(D) Mechanism condition
Answer: Option A
Question No. 228

If the pitch is 6 cm and rivet value is 4 tonnes, the number of rivets required for a riveted
connection carrying an eccentric load of 15 tonnes at a distance of 30 cm from the centre line, is
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 15
Answer: Option B
Question No. 229

In a grillage footing, the maximum shear force occurs at the
(A) Edge of grillage beam
(B) Centre of base plate
(C) Centre of grillage beam
(D) Centre of base plate
Answer: Option B
Question No. 230

The difference between gross diameter and nominal diameter for the rivets up to 25 mm diameter
is
(A) 1.0 mm
(B) 1.5 mm
(C) 2.0 mm
(D) 2.5 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 231

(A) Vertical stiffeners may be placed in pairs one on each side of the web
(B) Single vertical stiffeners may be placed alternately on opposite sides of the web
(C) Horizontal stiffeners may be placed alternately on opposite sides of the web
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 232

The greatest permissible clear dimension of the web of thickness t in the panel of a plate girder, is
restricted to
(A) 180 t
(B) 220 t
(C) 230 t
(D) 270 t
Answer: Option D
Question No. 233

The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead and superimposed
load is
(A) 180
(B) 200
(C) 250
(D) 350
Answer: Option A
Question No. 234

(A) The nominal diameter of a rivet is its diameter before driving
(B) The gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of rivet hole
(C) The gross area of a rivet is the cross-sectional area of the rivet hole
(D) The diameter of a rivet hole is equal to the nominal diameter of the rivet plus 1.5 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 235

Effective length of a column effectively held in position at both ends and restrained in direction at
one end, is
(A) L
(B) 0.67 L
(C) 0.85 L
(D) 1.5 L
Answer: Option C
Question No. 236

As per IS : 800, for compression flange, the outstand of flange plates should not exceed
(A) 12 t
(B) 16 t
(C) 20 t
(D) 25 t
t
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 237

If the unsupported length of a stanchion is 4 metres and least radius of gyration of its cross-section
is 5, the slenderness ratio of the stanchion, is
(A) 60
(B) 70
(C) 80
(D) 100
Answer: Option C
Question No. 238

For a cantilever beam of length continuous at the support and unrestrained against torsion at
the support and free at the end, the effective length is equal to
(A) l = L
(B) l = 2L
(C) l = 0.5L
(D) l = 3L
Answer: Option D
Question No. 239

Hudson's formula gives the dead weight of a truss bridge as a function of
(A) Bottom chord area
(B) Top chord area
(C) Effective span of bridge
(D) Heaviest axle load of engine
Answer: Option A
Question No. 240

(A) When the gauge distance is larger than the pitch, the failure of the section may occur in a
zig-zag line
(B) When the gauge distance is smaller than the pitch, the failure of the section may occur in a
straight right angle section through the centre of rivet holes
(C) When the gauge distance and pitch are both equal, the failure to the section becomes more
likely as the diameter of the holes increases
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 241

The deflection of beams may be decreased by
(A) Increasing the depth of beam
(B) Increasing the span
(C) Decreasing the depth of beam
(D) Increasing the width of beam
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 242

The moment-curvature relation at a plastic hinge is
(A) Linear
(B) Parabolic
(C) Constant moment for all curvatures
(D) Constant curvature for all moments
Answer: Option C
Question No. 243

If the depth of the section of an upper column is smaller than the lower column
(A) Filler plates are provided with column splice
(B) Bearing plates are provided with column splice
(C) Filler plates and bearing plates are provided with column splice
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 244

If the thickness of plate to be connected by a rivet is 16 mm, then suitable size of rivet as per
Unwin's formula will be
(A) 16 mm
(B) 20 mm
(C) 24 mm
(D) 27 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 245

A major beam in a building structure, is known as
(A) A girder
(B) A floor beam
(C) A main beam
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 246

Angle of inclination of the lacing bar with the longitudinal axis of the column should preferably be
between
(A) 10° to 30°
(B) 30° to 40°
(C) 40° to 70°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option C
Question No. 247

In case of cantilever fillers, the ratio of the span L to depth d, should not exceed
(A) 4
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(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 16
Answer: Option C
Question No. 248

The internal pressure coefficient on walls for buildings with large permeability is taken as
(A) ± 0.2
(B) ±0.5
(C) ± 0.7
(D) 0
Answer: Option C
Question No. 249

The gross diameter of a rivet is the diameter of
(A) Cold rivet before driving
(B) Rivet after driving
(C) Rivet hole
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 250

The centrifugal force due to curvature of track is assumed to act on the bridge at a height of
(A) 1.23 m above the rail level
(B) 1.50 m above the rail level
(C) 1.83 m above the rail level
(D) 2.13 m above the rail level
Answer: Option C
Question No. 251

The tensile strength of mild steel for bolts and nuts should not be less than
(A) 32 kg/mm2
(B) 36 kg/mm2
(C) 40 kg/mm2
(D) 44 kg/mm2
Answer: Option D
Question No. 252

Efficiency of a riveted joint, having the minimum pitch as per IS : 800, is
(A) 40 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 60 %
(D) 70 %
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 253

In double lacing, the thickness t of flat lacing is
(A) t < 1/40 th length between inner end rivets
(B) t < 1/50 th length between inner end rivets
(C) t < 1/60 th length between inner end rivets
(D) t < 1/70 th length between inner end rivets
Answer: Option C
Question No. 254

According to IS Specifications, the effective length of a column effectively held in position at both
ends and restrained in direction at one end is taken as
(A) 0.67 L
(B) 0.8 L
(C) L
(D) 1.5 L
Answer: Option B
Question No. 255

If M is the moment due to a couple in a bearing plate whose width is b and allowable bending
stress is P, the thickness (t) of the bending plate of the column splice, is
(A) t b × p)/6M]
(B) t M/(b × p)]
(C) t = 6M/bp
(D) t M/(b × p)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 256

The web crippling due to excessive bearing stress can be avoided by
(A) Increasing the web thickness
(B) Providing suitable stiffeners
(C) Increasing the length of the bearing plates
Answer: Option C
Question No. 257

Allowable working stress corresponding to the slenderness ratio of double angles placed back to
back and connected to one side of a gusset plate, is reduced to
(A) 50 %
(B) 60 %
(C) 70 %
(D) 80 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 258

The number of seismic zones in which the country has been divided is
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(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Answer: Option B
Question No. 259

The critical stress on a column for elastic buckling given by Euler's formula, is
(A) fc = ²E/(I/r)²
(B) fc = (I/r)²/
(C) fc = (I/r)/
(D) fc = ²E/(I/r)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 260

Load factor is
(A) Always equal to factor of safety
(B) Always less than factor of safety
(C) Always greater than factor of safety
(D) Sometimes greater than factor of safety
Answer: Option C
Question No. 261

When a tension member is made of four angles with a plate as a web, the allowance for holes is
made as
(A) Two holes for each angle and one hole for the web
(B) One hole for each angle and one hole for the web
(C) One hole for each angle and two holes for the web
(D) Two holes for each angle and two holes for the web
Answer: Option C
Question No. 262

The effective length of a battened column is increased by
(A) 5 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 20 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 263

To keep the intensity of bearing pressure between the column base and concrete compressive and
to vary from zero to 2P/BL, the ratio of the moment M to the axial load P should be
(A) L/2
(B) L/3
(C) L/4
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Docks and Harbour Engineering
Question No. 01
Which of the following conditions of loading imposes the greatest load on the foundation in case
of dry docks?
(A) When the dock is empty
(B) When the dock is empty with the ship of maximum tonnage
(C) When the dock is full of water
(D) When the dock is dry and is under construction
Answer: Option C
Question No. 02
Which of the following structures are constructed parallel to shore line to develop a demarcating
line between land area and water area?
(A) Sea walls, bulk heads and groynes
(B) Sea walls, bulk heads and revetments
(C) Sea walls, revetments and groynes
(D) Bulk heads, revetments and groynes
Answer: Option B
Question No. 03
In multiple point mooring system, vessel is secured to minimum of
(A) Two points
(B) Four points
(C) Six points
(D) Eight points
Answer: Option B
Question No. 04
As compared to wall type breakwater, mound type breakwater
(A) Requires skilled labour
(B) Requires low maintenance cost
(C) Requires less material
(D) Results in less damage due to gradual failure
Answer: Option D
Question No. 05
In a two lane channel, bottom width of channel is given by
(A) Manoeuvring lane + (2 × Bank clearance lane)
(B) (2 × Manoeuvring lane) + (2 × Bank clearance lane)
(C) (2 × Manoeuvring lane) + (2 × Bank clearance lane + ship clearance lane)
(D) Manoeuvring lane + (2 × Bank clearance lane) + ship clearance lane
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 06
In basins subjected to strong winds and tide, the length of the berthing area should not be less
than
(A) The length of design vessel
(B) The length of design vessel + 10% clearance between adjacent vessels
(C) The length of design vessel + 20% clearance between adjacent vessels
(D) Twice the length of design vessel
Answer: Option C
Question No. 07
A ship strikes the berth generally at an angle
(A) 90° with the face of the dock
(B) 45° with the face of the dock
(C) 30° with the face of the dock
(D) 10° with the face of the dock
Answer: Option D
Question No. 08
respectively are given by

(A) 0.6 Hs and 1.67 Hs
(B) 0.6 Hs and 1.87 Hs
(C) 1.27 Hs and 1.87 Hs
(D) 1.27 Hs and 1.67 Hs
Answer: Option B
Question No. 09
The difference in height between highest high water and lowest low water is called
(A) Mean range
(B) Maximum range
(C) Maximum rise
(D) Mean rise
Answer: Option B
Question No. 10
When a ship floats at its designed water line, the vertical distance from water line to the bottom
of the ship is known as
(A) Beam
(B) Depth
(C) Freeboard
(D) Draft
Answer: Option D
Question No. 11
By increasing the rise of lock-gates,
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(i) The length of the lock gate will increase

(ii) Transverse stress due to water pressure on the gate will increase
(iii) Compressive force on the gate will increase
Of these statements
(C) Only (ii) is correct
(D) Only (iii) is correct
Answer: Option A
Question No. 12
For designing the dock, the proportion of ship load assumed to be borne by keel blocks is
(A) 5/8
(B) 3/8
(C) 3/16
(D) 5/16
Answer: Option A
Question No. 13
As per Berlin's formula, the length of wave in metres is given by
(Where nds for two successive waves to pass the same section.)
(A) 1.3412
(B) 1.5612
(C) 1.7412
(D) 1.9412
Answer: Option B
Question No. 14
When a wave strikes a vertical breakwater in deep water, it is reflected back and on meeting
another advancing wave of similar amplitude merges and rises vertically in a wall of water. This
phenomenon is called
(A) Surf
(B) Clapotis
(C) Fetch
(D) Swell
Answer: Option B
Question No. 15
(A) The progress of work in low level method of mound construction is very slow
(B) Barge method of mound construction is economical
(C) In low level method of mound construction, the area of working is limited
(D) In staging method of mound construction, the work is not interrupted even during stormy
weather
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 16
(A) The regular periodic rise and fall of the surface of the sea, is called tide
(B) The average difference in water level between high tide and low tide at a place, is called
tidal range
(C) The movement of water caused by the action of tide, is called a tidal current
(D) all of the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 17
The significant wave height is defined is the average height of the
(A) One-third highest waves
(B) One-fourth highest waves
(C) One-fifth highest waves
(D) One-tenth highest waves
Answer: Option A
Question No. 18
The fixed mooring does not require
(A) Mooring post
(B) Bollard
(C) Anchors
(D) Capstan
Answer: Option C
Question No. 19
A ship is berthed in a chamber and lifted by principles of buoyancy, such a chamber is called.
(A) Dry dock
(B) Wet dock
(C) Floating dock
(D) Refuge dock
Answer: Option C
Question No. 20
Due to the impact of water wave on a sea shore structure
(A) Hydrostatic pressure coupled with a strong momentary impact is caused
(B) Vibrations are subjected
(C) Internal pressure is developed
Answer: Option D
Question No. 21
Assertion A: Intervention of undulations in the sea bed reduces the depth of wave at the section.
Reason R: No wave can have a height greater than the depth of water through which it passes
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(A) Both A and R is true and R is correct explanation of A

Answer: Option A
Question No. 22
Surf zone is:
(A) The fathom line of 10 m depth
(B) The fathom line of 5 m depth
(C) The swell of the sea breaking on the shore or reefs
(D) The coast line attacked by the waves
Answer: Option C
Question No. 23
Assertion A: Basin walls have to be of much greater height than dock walls.
Reason R: Tidal basins are subject to fluctuations of levels due to tidal variations
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not correct explanation of A
Answer: Option A
Question No. 24
(A) A harbour without any port complex, is called a refuge harbour
(B) A harbour used for fishery, is called fishery harbour
(C) The terminal building of a commercial harbour consists of an administrative block, customs
clearance and ware-houses
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 25
Which of the following structures protects the shore by trapping of littoral drift?
(A) Groynes
(B) Sea walls
(C) Revetments
(D) Moles
Answer: Option A
Question No. 26
(A) The tides at any place occur a little less than 1 hour later, each succeeding day
(B) The influence of the earth's gravity alone produces level-tidal less sea
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(C) The spinning force is maximum at the equator and zero at the poles
Answer: Option D
Question No. 27
The minimum diameter of turning besin, where ships turn by going ahead and without tug
assistance should be
(A) L
(B) 1.5 L
(C) 2.0 L
(D) 4.0 L
L he length of the largest ship to use the port
Answer: Option D
Question No. 28
(A) The maritime structures should be designed to withstand wave motion of air
(B) The wind vortex results in conical depression in the air surface
(C) A tube of air rotating at hundreds of kilometres per hour forms a tornado
Answer: Option D
Question No. 29
At a given port, the fetch is 400 nautical miles, the maximum height of storm wave will be
(A) 2.073 m
(B) 8.169 m
(C) 9.144 m
(D) 6.8 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 30
(A) Spring tides are caused at new and full moon
(B) Neap tides are caused when the moon is in her quarters
(C) Spring tides are roughly twice the height of neap tides
Answer: Option D
Question No. 31
Which of the following is a fixed type mooring accessory?
(A) Bollard
(B) Buoys
(C) Cables
(D) Anchors
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 32
According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in 1912, the ratio of
length to width at the entrance for cargo vessels is
(A) 5.5 and 6.0 to 1
(B) 6.2 and 6.8 to 1
(C) 7.4 and 7.8 to 1
(D) 8.2 and 8.5 to 1
Answer: Option C
Question No. 33
Consider the following statements.
(i) Fender is the cushion provided on the face of the jetty for ships to come in contact,
(ii) Slip is the space of water area between two adjacent piers where ships are berthed,
(iii) Pier head is a structure constructed near the tip of break water near the harbour entrance.
Of the statements
Answer: Option D
Question No. 34
(A) For nautical purposes, low water level is generally referred to by the navigators
(B) The depth of the bed of the sea from the surface of water is called sounding
(C) The contour lines on the bed of a water body are called fathoms
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 35
The maximum harbour depth below lowest low water is generally equal to
(i) Loaded draft +1.2 m when bottom is rock
(ii) Loaded draft +1.8 m when bottom is soft
(iii) Loaded draft +1.2 m when bottom is soft
(iv) Loaded draft +1.8 m when bottom is rock
Of these statements
(C) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(D) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer: Option D
Question No. 36
If F is the fetch, the straight line distance of open water available in kilometres, the height of the
wave in metres is
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(A) 0.15
(B) 0.20
(C) 0.28
(D) 0.34
Answer: Option D
Question No. 37
Minimum width of ship clearance shall be
(A) B or 30 m
(B) 1.5 B or 50 m
(C) 1.5 B
(D) 50 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 38
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) The soundings are made with respect to the mean low water
(B) The soundings which are below the datum are written in black on the map
(C) The spot heights of the features above datum are written in red on the map
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 39
Which of the following are repair docks?
(A) Marine railways, dry docks, floating docks, wet docks
(B) Dry docks, wet docks, floating docks, lift docks
(C) Wet docks, floating docks, lift docks, marine railways
(D) Wet docks, lift docks, marine railways, dry docks
Answer: Option C
Question No. 40
The smoothened surface of the front face of the guay walls, is known as fending which is made of
(A) Granite stone
(B) Timber
(C) Steel
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 41
Assertion A: Depth and width required at the entrance to a harbour are more than those required
in the channel.
Reason R: The entrance to a harbour is usually more exposed to waves as compared to the
harbour itself.
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Answer: Option A
Question No. 42
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: In a dry dock block made of hard wood,
(A) Spacing of the blocks is 1.35 m
(B) The lowest block is 1.8 m long 40 cm × 40 cm in cross-section
(C) The middle block is 1.6 m long 40 cm × 40 cm in cross-section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 43
Which one of the following lines is used for tying a ship with a dock?
(A) Bow line
(B) Stern line
(C) Spring line
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 44
In a wet dock system,
(A) Minimum required depth of water for the vessels is maintained
(B) Entrance locks are provided with massive gates
(C) The cost of construction is quite heavy
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 45
Assertion A: Marine structures are made specially bulky and strong.
Reason R: Sea insects result in undermining of the hardest and the soundest building material
Answer: Option A
Question No. 46
The floating mooring does not require
(A) Cables
(B) Anchors
(C) Bollard
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(D) Buoy
Answer: Option C
Question No. 47
A dock:
(A) Is a marine structure for berthing of vessels for loading and unloading cargo and passengers
(B) Is provided with a dock gate
(C) Is provided with an arrangement to pump out water when required
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 48
Which of the following type of sea walls results in greatest protection of shore structures?
(A) Vertical sea wall
(B) Sea wall with batter
(C) Stepped sea wall
(D) Sea wall with concave face
Answer: Option D
Question No. 49
(A) An artificial barrier which makes the enclosed area safe for anchorage of ships, is known as
break water
(B) The break water whose inside is used as a platform for loading and unloading is called a
mole
(C) The length of the quay wall is governed by the length of the largest vessel likely to be
berthed
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 50
If the maximum spring rise is 2 m and height of the waves expected is 4 m , then the breakwater
height above the datum will be
(A) 2.5 m
(B) 4 m
(C) 5 m
(D) 7 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 51
A low wall built out into the sea more or less perpendicular to the coast line, to resist the travel of
sand and shingle along a beach, is called
(A) Break water
(B) Break wall
(C) Groins
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(D) Shore wall

Answer: Option C
Question No. 52
Pick up the correct statement function following:
(A) The coarse material which has a smaller angle of repose, causes a steeper beach slope
(B) The coarse material which has a greater angle of repose, causes a steeper beach slope
(C) The flattening out of the beach is caused due to the movement of small and uniform
particles leeward
(D) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 53
Consider the following statements in regard to Beaufort scale for wind speeds,
(i) The Beaufort number ranges from 1 to 12.
(ii) Higher Beaufort number indicates higher speed of wind,
(iii) Beaufort number for calm is smallest and for hurricane is highest
Of these statements
Answer: Option B
Question No. 54
The shore line survey includes:
(A) Depicting the shore line
(B) Depicting the prominent details on shore line
(C) Depicting the high water line
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 55
A harbour is a place where
(A) Ships get shelter and protection against destructive forces due to sea waves
(B) Facilities are provided for receiving cargo and passengers
(C) Port buildings are constructed for commercial purposes
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 56
If h and h1 are the heights of a light house and the observer in a ship in metres above M S L then
the horizontal distance from the ship to the light house in kilometres is
(A) h + h1)
(B) h - h1)
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(C) h × h1)
(D) 3.86 h + h1)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 57
Assertion A: Large size stones are required in stone revetment in shore protection.
Reason R: Resistance of stone to wave force is proportional to its volume and wave force is
proportional to the exposed area of the stone.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below.
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
Answer: Option A
Question No. 58
A roadstead:
(A) Is a protected area of water where boats can move safely
(B) Is the end of the road at the harbour
(C) May be protected by break water walls
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 59
In tropical regions,
(A) The surface gets heated more effectively than the arctic areas
(B) After heating, the air becomes lighter and is displaced by cool air from the polar regions
(C) The rising tropical air flows towards the polar region in the upper strata
Answer: Option D
Question No. 60
Buoys which support the cables to which vessels are attached are of
(A) Cylindrical shape
(B) Pear shaped
(C) Spherical shape
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 61
As per Stevenson's empirical formula, the approximate value of the height of the wave in metres is
given by
(A) 0.34 VF
(B) 0.5 VF
(C) 1.5 VF
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(D) 3.4 VF
Whe
Answer: Option A
Question No. 62
At a place the shore line is along North West-South East. The wind is blowing from the north. The
littoral drift will be along
(A) South east
(B) South
(C) South west
(D) North west
Answer: Option A
Question No. 63
The wavelength is computed by Bertin's formula (where T is the period in seconds).
(A) L = (T g
(B) L = (T²/2 ) g
(C) L = (2T/ ) g
(D) L = (2T²/2 ) g
Answer: Option B
Question No. 64
Cretans:
(A) Are the harbours established on the island south east of Greek mainland
(B) Are the natives of Crete, an island south of Greek mainland
(C) Are the plants, grown in the neighbourhood of harbours
Answer: Option B
Question No. 65
Dead weight tonnage of a ship
(i) Varies with latitude and season
(ii) Is more than displacement tonnage
(iii) Is the difference between displacement load and displacement light
Of these statements
(A) i) and ii) are correct
(B) ii) and iii) are correct
(C) i) and iii) are correct
(D) Only iii) is correct
Answer: Option C
Question No. 66
The shape of docks and basins is generally kept
(A) Rectangular ways
(B) Diamond shape guys
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(C) Inclined guys

(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 67
The width of the entrances of the harbours is restricted to
(A) 100 m
(B) 125 m
(C) 150 m
(D) 180 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 68
The beach is built:
(A) With largest material locally available to the waves
(B) With large material locally available to the waves
(C) With fine material locally available to the waves
(D) With finest material locally available to the waves
Answer: Option A
Question No. 69
If H is the height of the wave expected, then the height of the breakwater is generally taken as
(A) 1.2 H to 1.25 H above the datum
(B) 1.2 H to 1.25 H above the low water level
(C) 1.2 H to 1.25 H above the high water level
(D) 1.2 H to 1.25 H above the mean sea level
Answer: Option C
Question No. 70
Littoral drift
(A) Is the raised line of sand, parallel to the sea coast
(B) Is the slow movement of surface water at sea caused by the wind
(C) Is a current parallel to the shore, caused due to tangential component of the wind
(D) Is a current perpendicular to the shore line caused due to wind
Answer: Option C
Question No. 71
Which one of the following statements is not relevant to hydrographic survey?
(A) Establishment of a chain of bench marks near the shore line
(B) Establishment of horizontal control points on the shore
(C) Determination of the sea bed profile
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 72
(A) The breakwater which can be used as a platform for loading and unloading of cargo is called
a mole
(B) The brick masonry retaining wall which is used for loading and unloading of cargo is called
quay wall
(C) Three types of break waters are generally provided in harbours
Answer: Option D
Question No. 73
(A) The Mediterranean Sea is considered to be a huge harbour
(B) The Caspian Sea is considered to be a big harbour
(C) The Red sea is considered to be harbour
Answer: Option A
Question No. 74
For large vessels, the buoys are strengthened by connecting it to a number of anchors having
(A) One legged mooring
(B) Two legged mooring
(C) Three legged mooring
(D) All the types as above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 75
Flow of air from one place to the other is caused due to
(A) The sum of elevation
(B) Pressure head
(C) Velocity head
Answer: Option D
Question No. 76
A lead line or sounding line
(A) Is stretched thoroughly when wet before it is graduated
(B) Should be soaked in water for about one hour prior to taking soundings
(C) Is adjusted at regular interval
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 77
The horizontal angles from the boat between A and B and B and C, the stations on the shore are
1 2. The distances AB = L1 and BC = L2 2 at C between
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the boat and station B

between A and C at B).
(A) 1 2) = (L2 1/L1 2) =K
(B) t 2 = 360° - 1 2
(C) 2 sin /(K +

= )
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 78
For location of soundings a range and one angle from the shore involves the following operations.
Which one is correct?
(A) A range line is established
(B) The first and the last soundings and every tenth soundings are fixed by angular observations
(C) The intermediate soundings are fixed by the time intervals
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 79
Location of soundings by two angles from the shore requires establishing
(A) One range line parallel to shore
(B) One range line perpendicular to shore
(C) Two range lines mutually perpendicular
(D) No range line
Answer: Option D
Question No. 80
(A) The direction of the littoral drift depends upon the direction of the wave with respect to the
coastline
(B) The direction of a river opening to the sea determines the direction of no littoral drift
(C) Harbour in the path of littoral drift is not constructed to avoid a build up of sand on one side
and erosion on the other
Answer: Option D
Question No. 81
The heaviest line is used to democrat
(A) The low water line
(B) The high water line
(C) The limit of swamps
(D) The direction of current
Answer: Option B
Question No. 82
On a hydrographic map, the following feature is shown:
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(A) High and low water lines

(B) Depth contours
(C) Land and water areas
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 83
(A) As a wave of sea water approaches the coast line, it is generally accompanied by a drift of
water in the direction of wave advance
(B) The on-shore wind helps to produce wave action as well as rise of M.S.L.
(C) A falling hydraulic gradient occurs in the direction of the wave
(D) The wave while receding carries finer particles out to deep water
Answer: Option C
Question No. 84
On the sea shore structures, the water wave impact causes
(A) Direct compressive force due to its horizontal component
(B) Shear force due to deflected vertical force
(C) Compressive force due to collapse of the wave
Answer: Option D
Question No. 85
According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in 1912, the ratio of
length to width at the entrance for passenger vessels is:
(A) 7.25 to 1
(B) 7.80 to 1
(C) 8.11 to 1
(D) 8.44 to 1
Answer: Option D
Question No. 86
The important component of a sea port is
(A) Terminal buildings
(B) The docks
(C) The harbour
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 87
(A) The artificial barrier constructed to enclose "n area for safe anchorage, is called break water
(B) The smoothened surface at the top end of the vertical face of a guay wall, is called fending
(C) The effective berthing lengths of inclined guays can be adjusted
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 88
(A) The operation of removing material from the sea or river bed is known as
(B) Dredging
(C) Digging
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 89
Depth of borings for soil investigation, is generally kept below low water level
(A) 30 m
(B) 35 m
(C) 45 m
(D) 40 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 90
Which one of the following land marks on the coast line must be depicted on hydrographic maps?
(A) Shore line
(B) Light houses
(C) Church spires
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 91
The low water datum for a lake is defined as the surface of the lake when it is at elevation
(A) 180.5 m above M.S.L.
(B) 190.5 m above M.S.L.
(C) 170.5 m above M.S.L.
(D) 200.0 m above M.S.L.
Answer: Option A
Question No. 92
The dock wall is designed as a gravity retaining wall and is tested for
(A) Back fill pressure when the dock is empty
(B) Maximum water pressure from the dock without any back fill
(C) The load charge transmitted to the dock by the movement of loaded vehicles or trains on
the way
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 93
Soundings are required for
(A) Making nautical charts for navigation
(B) Ascertaining the areas subject to scour or silting
(C) Obtaining detailed information for construction
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 94
Location of soundings by range and one angle is done by the surveyor
(A) On the shore
(B) On the boat
(C) On the shore or on the boat
Answer: Option C
Question No. 95
The variation of atmospheric potential is caused due to:
(A) Difference in temperature over the surface of the earth
(B) Change in the density of air
Answer: Option C
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Estimating and costing.1-10.pdf

Estimating and costing.11-20.pdf
Estimating & Costing by R.Agor.pdf
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Estimating and Costing
Question No. 01
The rate of payment is made for 100 cu m (per % cu m) in case of
(A) Earth work in excavation
(B) Rock cutting
(C) Excavation in trenches for foundation
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 02
The rate of an item of work depends on
(A) Specifications of works
(B) Specifications of materials
(C) Proportion of mortar
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 03
The main factor to be considered while preparing a detailed estimate, is
(A) Quantity of the materials
(B) Availability of materials
(C) Transportation of materials
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 04
(A) The estimated value of the work excluding the amount for contingencies, work charged
establishment, tool and plants, is called work value
(B) The actual expenditure involved to complete a work including incidental, establishment and
travelling charges, is called actual cost
(C) The formal acceptance by the administrative department for incurring an expenditure on the
work, is called administrative approval
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 05
Brick walls are measured in sq. m if the thickness of the wall is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option A
Question No. 06
The plinth area of a building not includes
(A) Area of the walls at the floor level
(B) Internal shaft for sanitary installations up to 2 sq m. in area
(C) Lift and wall including landing
(D) Area of cantilevered porch
Answer: Option D
Question No. 07
If the formation level of a highway has a uniform gradient for a particular length, and the ground is
also having a longitudinal slope, the earthwork may be calculated by
(A) Mid-section formula
(B) Trapezoidal formula
(C) Prismoidal formula
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 08
While estimating a reinforced cement structure, the omitted cover of concrete is assumed
(A) At the end of reinforcing bar, not less than 25 mm or twice the diameter of the bar
(B) In thin slabs, 12 mm minimum or diameter of the bar whichever is more
(C) For reinforcing longitudinal bar in a beam 25 mm minimum or diameter of the largest bar
which is more
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 09
A cement concrete road is 1000 m long, 8 m wide and 15 cm thick over the sub-base of 10 cm thick
gravel. The box cutting in road crust is
(A) 500 m3
(B) 1000 m3
(C) 1500 m3
(D) 2000 m3
Answer: Option C
Question No. 10
While estimating the qualities for the construction of a building, the correct metric unit is
(A) Metre for length
(B) Cubic metre for area
(C) Square metres for volume
(D) Litre for capacity
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 11
(A) In order to check up the average depth of excavation, 'Dead man s' are left at the mid-
widths of borrow pits
(B) The earthwork calculation in excavation is made from the difference in levels obtained with
a level
(C) The earth work in excavation to form the road embankment includes the formation of
correct profile and depositing the soil in layers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 12
The brick work is not measured in cu m in case of
(A) One or more than one brick wall
(B) Brick work in arches
(C) Reinforced brick work
(D) Half brick wall
Answer: Option D
Question No. 13
(A) Lead is the average horizontal straight distance between the borrow pit and the place of
spreading soil
(B) The lead is calculated for each block of the excavated area
(C) The unit of lead is 50 m for a distance upto 500 m
(D) The unit of lead is 1 km where the lead exceeds 2 km
Answer: Option D
Question No. 14
The assumption on which the trapezoidal formula for volumes is based, is
(A) The end sections are parallel planes
(B) The mid-area of a pyramid is half the average area of the ends
(C) The volume of the Prismoidal is over-estimated and hence a Prismoidal correction is applied
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 15
In the mid-section formula
(A) The mean depth is the average of depths of two consecutive sections
(B) The area of mid-sections is calculated by using mean depth
(C) The volume of the earth work is calculated by multiplying the mid-section area by the
distance between the two original sections
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 16
(A) The earth work of cutting in trenches or borrow pits in fairly uniform ground is measured
with the help of average depths of the dead men
(B) The earth work in trenches or borrow pits in irregular ground is measured by taking the
difference in levels before and after completion of work
(C) The earth work in trenches or borrow pits, where neither a nor b is feasible, are measured
from the fillings after deduction of voids
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 17
The cross-sections for a highway is taken at
(A) Right angle to the centre line
(B) 30 metres apart
(C) Intermediate points having abrupt change in gradient
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 18
Referring of given figure, pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The total length of centre line of four walls is 20 m

(B) Length of long wall out-to-out is 6.80 m
(C) Length of short walls in-to-in is 3.20 m
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 19
Pick up the correct statement regarding the centre line method of estimating a building
(A) Product of the centre line of the walls and area of cross-section of any item, gives total
quantity of the item
(B) The centre line is worked out separately for different sections of walls of a building
(C) The centre line length is reduced by half the layer of main wall joining the partition wall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 20
According to Indian Standards Institute, the actual size of modular bricks is
(A) 23 cm × 11.5 cm × 7.5 cm
(B) 25 cm × 13 cm × 7.5 cm
(C) 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
(D) 20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 21
The following item of earth work is not measured separately.
(A) Setting out of works
(B) Site clearance
(C) Steps in deep excavation
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 22
The measurement is made in square metre in case of
(A) Cement concrete in foundation
(B) R.C.C. structure
(C) Hollow concrete block wall
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 23
The area of the cross-section of a road fully in banking shown in the given figure, is
(A) [sb² + r² (2bd + sd)²]/(r² - s²)

(B) [sb² + r² (2bd + sd)²]/(r² - s5)
(C) [sb² + r² (2bd + sd)²]/(r - s)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 24
Cost of fittings and their fixing is specified for the following sanitary fittings
(A) Water closets
(B) Flushing pipes
(C) Lavatory basins
(D) All the above
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 25
The excavation exceeding 1.5 m in width and 10 sq.m in plan area with a depth not exceeding 30
cm, is termed as
(A) Excavation
(B) Surface dressing
(C) Cutting
(D) Surface excavation
Answer: Option D
Question No. 26
For the construction of buildings, the subheads of the estimate are
(A) Earthwork, Concrete work, Brick work
(B) Brickwork, Stone work, Roofing
(C) Brickwork Flooring, Wood work, Steel work
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 27
(A) Pointing is measured in sq.m
(B) Plastering is measured in sq.m
(C) Glazing is measured in sq.m
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 28
The cross-section of a road partly in banking and partly in cutting is shown in the given figure. The
area of the shaded portion is
(A) b - rd)²/(r - s)
(B) b - rd)²/(r + s)
(C) ½ × (b + rd)²/(r - s)
(D) b - rd)²/(s - r)
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 29
(A) If the bed level is above N.S.L. the canal is called fully in baking and the berms are designed
as 3 d where d is full supply depth of water (F.S.D.)
(B) Area of canal in cutting = BD + Sd2 where B = bed width, d = depth of cutting and S is the side
slope
(C) If F.S.L. is above N.S.L the canal is called partly in cutting and partly in filling and berms are
designed as 2d where d is full supply depth
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 30
(A) No deduction is made for the volume occupied by reinforcement
(B) No deduction is made for the openings upto 0.1 sq.m
(C) No deduction is made for volumes occupied by pipes, not exceeding 100 sq.cm in cross-
section
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 31
The value of 'B' of Indian type W.C. shown in the given figure is:
(A) 45 cm
(B) 50 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 25 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 32
Pick up the excavation where measurements are made in square metres for payment.
(A) Ordinary cuttings up to 1 m
(B) Surface dressing up to 15 cm depths
(C) Surface excavation up to 30 cm depths
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 33
As per Indian Standard Specifications, the peak discharge for domestic purposes per capita per
minute, is taken
(A) 1.80 litres for 5 to 10 users
(B) 1.20 litres for 15 users
(C) 1.35 for 20 users
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 34
In long and short wall method of estimation, the length of long wall is the centre to centre
distance between the walls and
(A) Breadth of the wall
(B) Half breadth of wall on each side
(C) One fourth breadth of wall on each side
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 35
The expected out turn of cement concrete 1 : 2 : 4 per mason per day is
(A) 1.5 m3
(B) 2.5 m3
(C) 3.5 m3
(D) 5.0 m3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 36
The value of 'C' of Indian type W.C. shown in the given figure is:
(A) 400 mm
(B) 450 mm
(C) 500 mm
(D) 550 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 37
The area is measured correct to the nearest
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(A) 0.01 sqm

(B) 0.02 sqm
(C) 0.03 sqm
(D) 0.04 sqm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 38
The measurement is not made in square metres in case of
(A) D.P.C. (Damp proof course)
(B) Form works
(C) Concrete Jeffries
(D) R.C. Chhajja
Answer: Option D
Question No. 39
The value of 'A' of Indian type W.C. shown in the given figure is:
(A) 25 cm
(B) 30 cm
(C) 40 cm
(D) 45 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 40
The trap which is provided to disconnect the house drain from the street sewer is called
(A) Master trap
(B) Intercepting trap
(C) Interception manhole
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 41
Due to change in price level, a revised estimate is prepared if the sanctioned estimate exceeds
(A) 2.0 %
(B) 2.5 %
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(C) 4.0 %
(D) 5.0 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 42
The cost of the earthwork in excavation for the surface drain of cross-section shown in the given
figure for a total length of 5 metres @ Rs. 450% cum, is
(A) Rs. 400

(B) Rs. 425
(C) Rs. 450
(D) Rs. 500
Answer: Option C
Question No. 43
The expected out turn of 2.5 cm cement concrete floor per mansion per day
(A) 2.5 sqm
(B) 5.0 sqm
(C) 7.5 sqm
(D) 10 sqm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 44
(A) The bent up bars at a support resist the negative bending moment
(B) The bent up bars at a support resist the sharing force
(C) The bending of bars near supports is generally at 45°
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 45
While preparing a detailed estimate
(A) Dimension should be measured correct to 0.01 m
(B) Area should be measured correct to 0.01 sqm
(C) Volume should be measured correct to 0.01 cum
(D) All the above
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 46
The item of the brick structure measured in sq.m, is
(A) Reinforced brick work
(B) Broken glass coping
(C) Brick edging
(D) Brick work in arches
Answer: Option B
Question No. 47
The most reliable estimate is
(A) Detailed estimate
(B) Preliminary estimate
(C) Plinth area estimate
(D) Cube rate estimate
Answer: Option A
Question No. 48
The reduced levels of points, 30 metres apart along the longitudinal section of a road portion
between chainages 5 and 9 are shown in the given figure. If there is a uniform up-gradient of the
road 120 in 1, the chainage of the point with no filling or cutting is
(A) (6 + 15) chains

(B) (6 + 12) chains
(C) (6 + 18) chains
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 49
According to ISI method of measurement, the order of the sequence is
(A) Length, breadth, height
(B) Breadth, length, height
(C) Height, length, breadth
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 50
Anti-siphonage pipe is connected to
(A) Main soil pipe
(B) Bottom of P trap W.C.
(C) Top of P trap W.C.
(D) Side of water closet
Answer: Option C
Question No. 51
(A) In a gully trap, a water seal of 6 to 7.5 cm is provided
(B) The gully trap collects waste water from the kitchen, sink, wash basins, etc.
(C) The gully trap disconnects the sullage drain from the main drainage system
(D) The grating provided over gully traps is 23 cm square
Answer: Option B
Question No. 52
(A) Bricks are paid per thousand
(B) Cement is paid per 50 kg bag
(C) Lime is paid per quintal
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 53
(A) All pipes and fittings are classified according to their diameters
(B) The diameter of the pipes is the nominal diameter of internal bore
(C) All pipes are measured along the centre line of the pipes in metres
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 54
A portion of an embankment having a uniform up-gradient 1 in 500 is circular with radius 1000 m
of the centre line. It subtends 180° at the centre. If the height of the bank is 1 m at the lower end,
and side slopes 2:1, the earth work involved.
(A) 26,000 m3
(B) 26,500 m3
(C) 27,000 m3
(D) 27,500 m3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 55
Pick up the correct statement in case of water supply.
(A) Pipes laid in trenches and pipes fixed to walls are measured separately
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(B) Cutting through walls and floors are included with the item
(C) Pipes are classified according to their sizes and quality
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 56
The concrete work for the following part of the building of specified thickness is measured in
square metres
(A) Root slabs
(B) Floors
(C) Wall panels
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 57
The expected out turn of 12 mm plastering with cement mortar is
(A) 2.5 sq m
(B) 4.0 sq m
(C) 6.0 sq m
(D) 8.0 sq m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 58
The total length of a cranked bar through a distance (d) at 45° in case of a beam of effective
length L, is
(A) L + 0.42 d
(B) L + (2 × 0.42 d)
(C) L - (0.42 d)
(D) L - (2 × 0.4 d)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 59
The measurement is made for stone work in square metre in case of
(A) Wall facing
(B) Columns, lintels, copings
(C) Building work
(D) (a) and (d) of the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 60
Carpet area does not include the area of
(A) The walls along with doors and other openings
(B) Bath room and lavatory
(C) Kitchen and pantry
(D) All the above
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 61
(A) The incidental expenses of a miscellaneous character which could not be predicted during
preparation of the estimate, is called contingencies
(B) Additional supervising staff engaged at work site, is called work charged establishment
(C) Detailed specifications specify qualities, quantities and the proportions of materials to be
used for a particular item
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 62
The cross-sectional area of the embankment of a canal fully in embankment in the given figure is
(A) ½ ( + ) h
(B) ( + ) h + sb²
(C) ( + ) + 2sh²
(D) 2 [( + ) (b + sh²)]
Answer: Option C
Question No. 63
The correct Prismoidal formula for volume is
(A) D [first area + last area + Even area + 2 odd areas]
(B) D/3 [first area + last area + 4 Even area + 2 odd areas]
(C) D/3 [first area + last area + 2 Even area + 4 odd areas]
(D) D/6 [first area + odd areas]
Answer: Option B
Question No. 64
In case of laying gullies, siphons, intercepting traps, the cost includes
(A) Setting and laying
(B) Bed concreting
(C) Connection to drains
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 65
The inspection pit or chamber is a manhole provided in a base drainage system
(A) At every change of direction
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(B) At every change of gradient

(C) At every 30 m intervals
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 66
(A) Dimensions are measured to the nearest 0.01 m
(B) Areas are measured to the nearest 0.01 sq.m
(C) Cubic contents are measured to the nearest 0.1 cum
(D) Weights are measured to the nearest 0.001 tonnes
Answer: Option C
Question No. 67
The 'centre line method' is specially adopted for estimating
(A) Circular buildings
(B) Hexagonal buildings
(C) Octagonal buildings
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 68
(A) The built up covered area at the floor level of any storey of a building is called plinth area
(B) The usable covered area of the rooms of any storey of a building is called carpet area
(C) The carpet area of a building along with area of its kitchen, pantry, store, lavatory, bath
room and glazed veranda, is called floor area
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 69
The unit of measurement is per quintal for the following:
(A) Collapsible gates with rails
(B) Rolling shutters
(C) Expanded metal wire netting
(D) M.S. reinforcement of R.C.C. works
Answer: Option D
Question No. 70
The diameter of a domestic sewer pipe laid at gradient 1 in 100 is recommended
(A) 100 mm
(B) 150 mm
(C) 200 mm
(D) 175 mm
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 71
The order of booking dimensions is
(A) Length, breadth, height
(B) Breadth, length, height
(C) Height, breadth, length
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 72
Pick up the incorrect statement regarding a master trap from the following:
(A) It is provided in between the lower end of the house drain and the street sewer
(B) It is provided a cleaning eye at the top of the trap
(C) The mica flap valve which opens inwards only, is fitted at the top of the inlet pipe
(D) The water seal is less than that of ordinary traps
Answer: Option D
Question No. 73
S: 1 and
length is
(A) d × d × s
(B) d2 × (ds)2]
(C) L.D 1 + s2)
(D) 2 L.D 1 + s2)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 74
The detention period in a septic tank is assumed
(A) 20 minutes
(B) 25 minutes
(C) 30 minutes
(D) 40 minutes
Answer: Option C
Question No. 75
If B is the width of formation, d is the height of the embankment, side slope S : 1, for a highway
with no transverse slope, the area of cross-section is
(A) B + d + Sd
(B) Bd + Sd2
(C) B × d - Sd1/2
(D) ½ (Bd + Sd2)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 76
The ground surface slopes 1 in 50 along a proposed railway embankment 150 m in length. The
height of the embankment at zero chainage is 0.5 m, the width is 11 m and side slopes 2:1. If the
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falling gradient of the embankment is 1 in 150, the quantity of the earthwork calculated by
Prismoidal formula, is
(A) 3250 m3
(B) 3225 m3
(C) 3275 m3
(D) 3300 m3
Answer: Option B
Question No. 77
Pick up the item of work not included in the plinth area estimate
(A) Wall thickness
(B) Room area
(C) W.C. area
(D) Courtyard area
Answer: Option D
Question No. 78
The minimum width of a septic tank is taken
(A) 70 cm
(B) 75 cm
(C) 80 cm
(D) 90 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 79
Pick up the item whose weight is added to the weight of respective item, is
(A) Cleats
(B) Brackets
(C) Bolts
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 80
The expected out turn for earth work in excavation in ordinary soil per workman per day is
(A) 1.00 cum
(B) 2.00 cum
(C) 3.00 cum
(D) 4.00 cum
Answer: Option C
Question No. 81
The expected out turn of brick work in cement mortar in foundation and plinth per mason per day,
is
(A) 1.00 m3
(B) 1.25 m3
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(C) 1.50 m3
(D) 1.75 m3
Answer: Option B
Question No. 82
The brick work is measured in sq metre, in case of
(A) Honey comb brick work
(B) Brick flat soling
(C) Half brick walls or the partition
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 83
The height of the sink of wash basin above floor level is kept
(A) 60 cm
(B) 70 cm
(C) 75 cm to 80 cm
(D) 80 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 84
For 12 mm thick cement plastering 1 : 6 on 100 sq.m new brick work, the quantity of cement
required, is
(A) 0.200 m3
(B) 0.247 m3
(C) 0.274 m3
(D) 0.295 m3
Answer: Option C
Question No. 85
The item of steel work which is measured in sq.m, is
(A) Collapsible gates
(B) Rolling shutters
(C) Ventilators and glazing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 86
The damp proof course (D.P.C.) is measured in
(A) Cub. m
(B) Sq. m
(C) Metres
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 87
The volume is measured correct to the nearest
(A) 0.01 cum
(B) 0.02 cum
(C) 0.03 cum
(D) 0.04 cum
Answer: Option A
Question No. 88
If tensile stress of a steel rod of diameter is 1400 kg/cm2 and bond stress is 6 kg/cm2, the
required bond length of the rod is
(A) 30 D
(B) 39 D
(C) 50 D
(D) 59 D
Answer: Option D
Question No. 89
For 100 sq. m cement concrete (1 : 2: 4) 4 cm thick floor, the quantity of cement required, is
(A) 0.90 m3
(B) 0.94 m3
(C) 0.98 m3
(D) 1.00 m3
Answer: Option B
Question No. 90
Size, capacity and materials need be specified for
(A) Bib-cocks
(B) Stop-cocks
(C) Ball valves
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 91
The expected out turn of half brick partition wall per mason per day is
(A) 1.5 m3
(B) 2.0 m3
(C) 4.0 m2
(D) 5.0 m2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 92
The floor area includes the area of the balcony up to
(A) 100 %
(B) 75 %
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(C) 50 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option C
Question No. 93
The slope of the outlet of 'P trap' below the horizontal is kept
(A) 8°
(B) 10°
(C) 12°
(D) 14°
Answer: Option D
Question No. 94
The weight of an item is measured correct to nearest
(A) 0.25 kg
(B) 0.50 kg
(C) 0.75 kg
(D) 1.00 kg
Answer: Option D
Question No. 95
Berms are provided in canals if these are
(A) Fully in excavation
(B) Partly in excavation and partly in embankment
(C) Fully in embankment
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
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highways engg.1-10.pdf
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Highway Engineering
Question No. 01
Group index method of design of flexible pavement is
(A) A theoretical method
(B) An empirical method based on physical properties of sub-grade soil
(C) An empirical method based on strength characteristics of sub-grade soil
(D) A semi empirical method
Answer: Option B
Question No. 02
Which of the following is considered to be the highest quality construction in the group of black
top pavements?
(A) Mastic asphalt
(B) Sheet asphalt
(C) Bituminous carpet
(D) Bituminous concrete
Answer: Option D
Question No. 03
Los Angeles testing machine is used to conduct
(A) Abrasion test
(B) Impact test
(C) Attrition test
(D) Crushing strength test
Answer: Option A
Question No. 04
When the width of car parking space and width of street are limited, generally preferred parking
system is
(A) Parallel parking
(B) 45° angle parking
(C) 65° angle parking
(D) 90° angle parking
Answer: Option A
Question No. 05
When the bituminous surfacing is done on already existing black top road or over existing cement
concrete road, the type of treatment given is
(A) Seal coat
(B) Tack coat
(C) Prime coat
(D) Spray of emulsion
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Answer: Option B
Question No. 06
In the penetration macadam construction, the bitumen is
(A) Sprayed after the aggregates are spread and compacted
(B) Premixed with aggregates and then spread
(C) Sprayed before the aggregates are spread and compacted
Answer: Option A
Question No. 07
The drain which is provided parallel to roadway to intercept and divert the water from hill slopes
is known as
(A) Sloping drain
(B) Catch-water drain
(C) Side drain
(D) Cross drain
Answer: Option B
Question No. 08
The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to
(A) Relieve warping stresses
(B) Relieve shrinkage stresses
(C) Resist stresses due to expansion
(D) Allow free expansion
Answer: Option D
Question No. 09
(A) More the value of group index, less thickness of pavement will be required
(B) More the value of CBR, greater thickness of pavement will be required
(C) Minimum and maximum values of group index can be 0 and 20 respectively
Answer: Option C
Question No. 10
Penetration test on bitumen is used for determining its
(A) Grade
(B) Viscosity
(C) Ductility
(D) Temperature susceptibility
Answer: Option A
Question No. 11
In soils having same values of plasticity index, if liquid limit is increased, then
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(A) Compressibility and permeability decrease and dry strength increases

(B) Compressibility, permeability and dry strength decrease
(C) Compressibility, permeability and dry strength increase
(D) Compressibility and permeability increase and dry strength decreases
Answer: Option D
Question No. 12
The maximum limit of water absorption for aggregate suitable for road construction is
(A) 0.4 %
(B) 0.6 %
(C) 0.8 %
(D) 1.0 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 13
The critical combination of stresses for corner region in cement concrete roads is
(A) Load stress + warping stress frictional stress
(B) Load stress + warping stress + frictional stress
(C) Load stress + warping stress
(D) Load stress + frictional stress
Answer: Option C
Question No. 14
In highway construction, rolling starts from
(A) Sides and proceed to center
(B) Center and proceed to sides
(C) One side and proceed to other side
Answer: Option A
Question No. 15
The most economical lighting layout which is suitable for narrow roads is
(A) Single side lighting
(B) Staggered system
(C) Central lighting system
Answer: Option A
Question No. 16
The ideal shape of a transition curve, is
(A) Clothoid
(B) Cubic spiral
(C) Cubic parabola
(D) Lamniscate
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 17
The full width of land acquired before finalising a highway, alignment is known
(A) Width of formation
(B) Right of way
(C) Carriage way
(D) Roadway
Answer: Option B
Question No. 18
Tyre pressure influences the
(A) Total depth of pavement
(B) Quality of surface course
(C) Both the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 19
Any gradient on a road is said to be an exceptional gradient, if it is
(A) More than ruling gradient
(B) Less than average gradient
(C) More than floating gradient
(D) Less than minimum gradient or more than maximum gradient
Answer: Option D
Question No. 20
During last phase of the reconnaissance, details of the grade line is recorded on 2 metre poles to
indicate
(A) Direction of the proposed alignment
(B) Distance between the previous and forward pegs
(C) Relative elevations of pegs
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 21
The most suitable equipment for compacting clayey soils is a
(A) Smooth wheeled roller
(B) Pneumatic tyred roller
(C) Sheep foot roller
(D) Vibrator
Answer: Option C
Question No. 22
(A) Seasonal cycle of traffic volume during April and November, is usually near the annual
average
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(B) Mid-winter seasonal cycle of traffic is least

(C) Mid-summer seasonal cycle of traffic is highest
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 23
Three points A, B and C 500 m apart on a straight road have 500 m, 505 m and 510 m as their
reduced levels. The road is said to have
(A) No gradient between A and C
(B) A positive gradient between A and C
(C) A negative gradient between A and C
(D) A negative gradient between A and B
Answer: Option D
Question No. 24
(A) Quantity of binder required for tack coat is less than that required for prime coat
(B) Prime coat treatment is given for plugging the voids in water bound macadam during
bituminous road construction
(C) Seal coat is the final coat over certain previous bituminous pavements
(D) A bitumen primer is a high viscosity cutback
Answer: Option D
Question No. 25
The minimum design speed of various types of highways in plain terrain is the same as the ruling
design speed of
(A) Rolling terrain
(B) Mountainous terrain
(C) Steep terrain
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 26
Excessive camber on pavements may cause
(A) Deterioration of central portion
(B) Slip of the speedy vehicles towards the edges
(C) Erosion of the berms
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 27
In hill roads the side drains arc provided
(A) Only on the hill side of road
(B) Only on the opposite side of hill
(C) On both sides of road
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Answer: Option A
Question No. 28
Selection of the routes, of highways depends upon
(A) Feasibility of attaining ruling gradient
(B) Avoidance of cutting hard rocks
(C) Minimum number of bridges
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 29
Maximum number of vehicles that can pass a given point on a lane during one hour without
creating unreasonable delay, is known as
(A) Traffic density of lane
(B) Basic capacity of lane
(C) Probable capacity of lane
(D) Practical capacity of lane
Answer: Option D
Question No. 30
A traffic rotary is justified where
(A) Number of intersecting roads is between 4 and 7
(B) Space is limited and costly
(C) When traffic volume is less than 500 vehicles per hour
(D) When traffic volume is more than 5000 vehicles per hour
Answer: Option A
Question No. 31
(A) Minimum desirable width of medians on rural highways is 5 metres
(B) Minimum width of medians should be 3 metres
(C) On long bridges and viaducts, the width of medians should be 1.5 m
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 32
(A) The cross fall of the shoulder should be at least 0.5% steeper than camber
(B) On super-elevated sections, the shoulders should be provided a cross fall equal to camber
(C) Earthen roads in general are provided steepest cross-fall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 33
If aggregate impact value is 20 to 30 percent, then it is classified as
(A) Exceptionally strong
(B) Strong
(C) Satisfactory for road surfacing
(D) Unsuitable for road surfacing
Answer: Option C
Question No. 34
Design of horizontal curves on highways, is based on
(A) Design speed of vehicles
(B) Permissible friction on the road surface
(C) Permissible centrifugal ratio
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 35
Set-back distance is the distance between
(A) Road land boundary and building line
(B) Road land boundary and control line
(C) Building line and control line
(D) Road land boundary and control line
Answer: Option A
Question No. 36
RC-2, MC-2 and SC-2 correspond to
(A) Same viscosity
(B) Viscosity in increasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
(C) Viscosity in decreasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 37
Speed regulations on roads is decided on the basis of
(A) 60 percentile cumulative frequency
(B) 75 percentile cumulative frequency
(C) 80 percentile cumulative frequency
(D) 85 percentile cumulative frequency
Answer: Option D
Question No. 38
At intersection of roads, the traffic volume study is carried out to ascertain the number of vehicles
(A) Moving along straights
(B) Turning left
(C) Turning right
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 39
Flexible pavement distribute the wheel load
(A) Directly to sub-grade
(B) Through structural action
(C) Through a set of layers to the sub-grade
Answer: Option C
Question No. 40
The most commonly adopted method to provide super-elevation on roads, is by pivoting the road
surface about
(A) Outer edge so that the inner edge is lowered
(B) Crown so that outer edge is raised and inner edge is lowered
(C) Inner edge so that outer edge is raised
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 41
When load is applied on concrete pavement
(A) Away from edges, the maximum bending moment is negative
(B) Away from edges, the maximum bending moment cause compression
(C) On the edges, the maximum stress is parallel to the edge of the slab
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 42
The fundamental factor in the selection of pavement type is
(A) Climatic condition
(B) Type and intensity of traffic
(C) Sub-grade soil and drainage conditions
(D) Availability of funds for the construction project
Answer: Option B
Question No. 43
If the coefficient of friction on the road surface is 0.15 and a maximum super-elevation 1 in 15 is
provided, the maximum speed of the vehicles on a curve of 100 metre radius, is
(A) 32.44 km/hour
(B) 42.44 kg/hour
(C) 52.44 km/hour
(D) 62.44 km/hour
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 44
(A) Various geometric design features and generally guided by ruling design speed
(B) The design speed for a given highway should preferably be uniform
(C) Abrupt change in the design speed should not be permitted
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 45
For the construction of water bound macadam roads, the correct sequence of operations after
spreading coarse aggregates is
(A) Dry rolling, wet rolling, application of screening and application of filler
(B) Dry rolling, application of filler, wet rolling and application of screening
(C) Dry rolling, application of screening, wet rolling and application of filler
(D) Dry rolling, application of screening, application of filler and wet rolling
Answer: Option C
Question No. 46
In case of a multi-lane road, overtaking is generally permitted
(A) From right
(B) From left
(C) From both sides right and left
(D) Not at all
Answer: Option C
Question No. 47
If degree of a road curve is defined by assuming the standard length of an arc as 30 metres, the
radius of 1° curve is equal
(A) 1719 m
(B) 1146 m
(C) 1046 m
(D) 1619 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 48
The walls which are necessary on the hill side of roadway where earth has to be retained from
slipping is known as
(A) Retaining wall
(B) Breast wall
(C) Parapet wall
Answer: Option B
Question No. 49
If cross slope of a country is greater than 60%, the terrain is classified as
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(A) Rolling
(B) Mountainous
(C) Steep
(D) Plain
Answer: Option C
Question No. 50
The length of a transition curve, is governed by
(A) Rate of change of radial acceleration
(B) Rate of change of super-elevation
Answer: Option C
Question No. 51
When a number of roads are meeting at a point and only one of the roads is important, then the
suitable shape of rotary is
(A) Circular
(B) Tangent
(C) Elliptical
(D) Turbine
Answer: Option B
Question No. 52
A gradient along which the vehicle does not require any tractive effort to maintain a specified
speed, is known as
(A) Ruling gradient
(B) Pushing gradient
(C) Floating gradient
(D) Minimum gradient
Answer: Option C
Question No. 53
In welded wire mesh, the longitudinal wire is placed at
(A) 10 cm centres
(B) 15 cm centres
(C) 20 cm centres
(D) 25 cm centres
Answer: Option B
Question No. 54
Percentage of free carbon in bitumen is
(A) More than that in tar
(B) Less than that in tar
(C) Equal to that in tar
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Answer: Option B
Question No. 55
Pavement is said to be flexible if it contains
(A) Water bound macadam surface
(B) Stabilised soil base constructed of lime cement or tar
(C) Bitumen-bound stone layer of varying aggregates
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 56
Hill roads are
(A) Provided camber along spur curves
(B) Provided camber along valley curves
(C) Seldom provided a camber
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 57
The method of design of flexible pavement as recommended by IRC is
(A) Group index method
(B) CBR method
(C) Westergaard method
(D) Benkelman beam method
Answer: Option B
Question No. 58
A district road with a bituminous pavement has a horizontal curve of 1000 m for a design speed of
75 km ph. The super-elevation is
(A) 1 in 40
(B) 1 in 50
(C) 1 in 60
(D) 1 in 70
Answer: Option A
Question No. 59
The head of public works department of any Indian state, is
(A) Transport Minister
(B) Chief Engineer
(C) Superintending Engineer
(D) Executive Engineer
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 60
Tie bars in cement concrete pavements are at
(A) Expansion joints
(B) Contraction joints
(C) Warping joints
(D) Longitudinal joints
Answer: Option D
Question No. 61
As per recommendations of I.R.C., traffic volume study is carried out for rural roads for 7 days
continuously during
(A) Harvesting
(B) Lean season
(C) Harvesting and lean season
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 62
Formation width of a hill road is the distance between
(A) Outer end of side drain to outer end of parapet wall
(B) Outer end of side drain to inner end of parapet wall
(C) Inner end of side drain to outer end of parapet wall
(D) Inner end of side drain to inner end of parapet wall
Answer: Option A
Question No. 63
The camber of shoulders in water bound macadam roads is
(A) Equal to the cross slope of pavement
(B) Less than the cross slope of pavement
(C) Greater than the cross slope of pavement
(D) Zero
Answer: Option A
Question No. 64
Traffic surveys are carried out
(A) To know the type of traffic
(B) To determine the facilities to traffic regulations
(C) To design proper drainage system
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 65
The difference in gradients after full super-elevation and the initial alignment of a road, is known
as
(A) Ruling gradient
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(B) Rising gradient

(C) Compensated gradient
(D) Differential gradient
Answer: Option D
Question No. 66
The camber for hill roads in case of bituminous surfacing is adopted as
(A) 2 %
(B) 2.5 %
(C) 3 %
(D) 4 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 67
If C is basic capacity per lane, V is velocity in km/hour, S is stopping distance plus length of the
vehicles in metres, the formula C = 1000V/S is applicable to
(A) District roads
(B) Two lane roads
(C) Two lane roads in one direction
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 68
To prevent movement of moisture from sub-grade to road pavement on embankments about 0.6
m to 1 m higher than water table, the thickness of cut off layer of coarse sand used, is
(A) 15 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 69
The direct interchange ramp involves
(A) Diverging to the right side and merging from left
(B) Diverging to the left side and merging from right
(C) Diverging to the right side and merging from right
(D) Diverging to the left side and merging from left
Answer: Option C
Question No. 70
Design of flexible pavements is based on
(A) Mathematical analysis
(B) Empirical formulae
(C) A compromise of pure theory and pure empirical formula
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 71
The total value of extra widening required at a horizontal curve on a two lane hill road of radius 42
m for a design speed of 50 kmph and for vehicles with wheel base 6 m, is
(A) 0.500 m
(B) 0.589 m
(C) 1.089 m
(D) 0.089 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 72
Which of the following represents hardest grade of bitumen?
(A) 30/40
(B) 60/70
(C) 80/100
(D) 100/120
Answer: Option A
Question No. 73
The weight of vehicles affects
(A) Pavement thickness
(B) Ruling gradient
(C) Limiting gradient
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 74
(A) The height of head light above road surface, is taken as 0.75 m
(B) The beam of head light is up to one degree upwards from the grade of road
(C) While designing the valley curve, the height of the object is assumed nil
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 75
The number of repetitions, which the pavement thickness designed for a given wheel load should
be able to support during the life pavement is
(A) 1000
(B) 10,000
(C) 1,00,000
(D) 10,00,000
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 76
According to the recommendations of Nagpur Conference, the width formation of an ideal
National Highway in hard rock cutting, is
(A) 8.9 m
(B) 7.9 m
(C) 6.9 m
(D) 6.5 m
Answer: Option B
Question No. 77
Setting out of Lemniscate transition curves, is done with
(A) Perpendicular offsets
(B) Radial offsets
(C) Deflection angles
(D) Polar deflection angles
Answer: Option D
Question No. 78
Maximum daily traffic capacity of bituminous pavements is
(A) 500 tonnes per day
(B) 1000 tonnes per day
(C) 1500 tonnes per day
(D) 2000 tonnes per day
Answer: Option C
Question No. 79
The head light of vehicles should be such that its lower beam illuminates objects at
(A) 10 m
(B) 20 m
(C) 30 m
(D) 40 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 80
The gradients of trace cuts for hilly roads, are kept
(A) Equal to ruling gradient
(B) 10 to 20 per cent easier than ruling gradients
(C) 10 to 20 per cent steeper than ruling gradients
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 81
Which of the following represents a carpet of sand-bitumen mix without coarse aggregates?
(A) Mastic asphalt
(B) Sheet asphalt
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(C) Bituminous carpet

(D) Bituminous concrete
Answer: Option B
Question No. 82
Reinforcement in cement concrete slab of road pavements, is placed
(A) Longitudinally
(B) Transversely
(C) Longitudinally and transversely
(D) In the form of welded wire mesh
Answer: Option D
Question No. 83
The ability of a driver to stop the vehicle moving with the designed speed, depends upon:
(A) Perception time
(B) Brake reaction time
(C) Efficiency of the brakes
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 84
Maximum number of vehicles can be parked with
(A) Parallel parking
(B) 30° angle parking
(C) 45° angle parking
(D) 90° angle parking
Answer: Option D
Question No. 85
On concrete roads, the camber generally provided, is
(A) 1 in 20 to 1 in 24
(B) 1 in 30 to 1 in 48
(C) 1 in 36 to 1 in 48
(D) 1 in 60 to 1 in 72
Answer: Option D
Question No. 86
If d is the economic designed depth of a slab, the thickness of the cement concrete pavement slab
at interior, is kept
(A) 1.275 d
(B) 1.125 d
(C) 0.85 d
(D) 0.75 d
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 87
The ductility value of bitumen for suitability in road construction should not be less than
(A) 30 cm
(B) 40 cm
(C) 50 cm
(D) 60 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 88
If L is the length of a moving vehicle and R is the radius of curve, the extra mechanical width b to
be provided on horizontal curves,
(A) L/R
(B) L/2R
(C) L²/2R
(D) L/3R
Answer: Option C
Question No. 89
Interior thickness of concrete road slab for design wheel load 6300 kg and permissible flexural
stress 21 kg/cm2, is
(A) 17.0 cm
(B) 25.5 cm
(C) 34.0 cm
(D) 42.5 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 90
For rapid curing cutbacks, the oil used is
(A) Gasoline
(B) Kerosene oil
(C) Light diesel
(D) Heavy diesel
Answer: Option A
Question No. 91
The width of different roads as recommended in Nagpur plan by the Indian Road Conference for
hilly region, is
(A) Same for National Highways
(B) Different for National Highways
(C) Same for State Highways
(D) Same for Major District roads
Answer: Option B
Question No. 92
To prevent a head-on-collision of vehicles travelling in opposite directions along four-lane roads
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(A) Markings on the road are provided

(B) Physical dividers are provided
(C) Area dividers are provided
(D) Medians of wide area are provided
Answer: Option D
Question No. 93
The maximum thickness of expansion joint in rigid pavements is
(A) 0
(B) 25 mm
(C) 50 mm
(D) 100 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 94
Length of vehicles does not affect
(A) Extra widening
(B) Minimum radius of turning
(C) Passing sight distance
(D) Width of shoulders
Answer: Option D
Question No. 95
The type of curves generally provided on highways, is
(A) Critical curve
(B) Transition curve
(C) Vertical curve
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 96
The thickness of bituminous carpet varies from
(A) 20 to 25 mm
(B) 50 to 75 mm
(C) 75 to 100 mm
(D) 100 to 120 mm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 97
The advantage of providing super-elevation on roads, is
(A) Higher speed of vehicles
(B) Increased volume of traffic
(C) Reduced maintenance cost of the roads
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 98
Gradient resistance of moving vehicles along down slopes, is
(A) + 7 kg/tonne
(B) + 9 kg/tonne
(C) - 9 kg/tonne
(D) - 7 kg/tonne
Answer: Option C
Question No. 99
As per IRC recommendations, the average level of illumination on important roads carrying fast
traffic is
(A) 10 Lux
(B) 15 Lux
(C) 20 Lux
(D) 30 Lux
Answer: Option D
Question No. 100

Camber in pavements is provided by
(A) Straight line method
(B) Parabola method
(C) Straight at the edges and parabolic at the crown
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 101

Over taking time required for a vehicle with design speed 50 km ph and overtaking acceleration
1.25 m/sec2 to overtake a vehicle moving at a speed 30 km ph, is
(A) 5.0 secs
(B) 6.12 secs
(C) 225.48 secs
(D) 30 secs
Answer: Option B
Question No. 102

The group index for a soil, whose liquid limit is 40 percent, plasticity index is 10 percent and
percentage passing 75 micron IS sieve
(A) 0
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 7
Answer: Option A
Question No. 103

According to Indian Road Congress, the width of carriageway, is
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(A) 3.75 m for single lane

(B) 7.0 m for two lanes without raised kerbs
(C) 7.5 m for two lanes with raised kerbs
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 104

For night travel, the length of a valley curve should be such that the head light beam distance is
the same as
(A) Stopping sight distance
(B) Overtaking sight distance
(C) Sum of (a) and (b)
(D) Difference of (a) and (b)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 105

The binder normally used in flexible pavement construction is
(A) Cement
(B) Lime
(C) Bitumen
Answer: Option C
Question No. 106

Intermediate catch water drains are provided only, if
(A) Catchment area of the watershed above road is large
(B) Intensity of rainfall is heavy
(C) Single catch water drain is inadequate
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 107

In retaining and breast walls, weep holes are provided at
(A) 50 cm vertical height and 50 cm centre to centre horizontally
(B) 100 cm vertical height and 100 cm centre to centre horizontally
(C) 100 cm vertical height and 120 cm centre to centre horizontally
(D) 120 cm vertical height and 100 cm centre to centre horizontally
Answer: Option C
Question No. 108

In highway construction on super-elevated curves, the rolling shall proceed from
(A) Sides towards the centre
(B) Centre towards the sides
(C) Lower edge towards the upper edge
(D) Upper edge towards the lower edge
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 109

An upgrade g1% is followed by a downgrade g2%. The equation of the parabolic curve of
length L to be introduced, is given by
(A) y = g [(g - g L] x²
(B) y = [(g g L] x²
(C) y = [(g - g L] x²
(D) y = [(g g L] x²
Answer: Option B
Question No. 110

(A) Borrow pits are located outside the right of way
(B) Borrow pits may be located on either side of the right of way
(C) Spoil bank is located on one side of the right of way
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 111

Which of the following tests measures the toughness of road aggregates?
(A) Crushing strength test
(B) Abrasion test
(C) Impact test
(D) Shape test
Answer: Option C
Question No. 112

Reconnaissance is best done with the help of
(A) Aerial photographic survey
(B) Cadastral surveys
(C) Topographical surveys
(D) Triangulation surveys
Answer: Option A
Question No. 113

To ensure that bullock carts may not overturn on curves, the maximum value of super-elevation,
recommended by I.R.C., is
(A) 1 in 10
(B) 1 in 12
(C) 1 in 15
(D) 1 in 20
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 114

If the group index value of sub-grade is between 5 and 9, then the sub-grade is treated as
(A) Good
(B) Fair
(C) Poor
(D) Very poor
Answer: Option C
Question No. 115

An Executive Engineer of roads, executes works under direct control of
(A) Superintending Engineer
(B) Secretary to the Govt
(C) Chief Engineer
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 116

The distance travelled by revolving the wheel of a vehicle more than its circumferential
movement, is known as
(A) Slip
(B) Skid
Answer: Option B
Question No. 117

The suitable surfacing material for a bridge deck slab is
(A) Sheet asphalt
(B) Bituminous carpet
(C) Mastic asphalt
(D) Rolled asphalt
Answer: Option C
Question No. 118

If the velocity of moving vehicles on a road is 24 km/per hour, stopping distance is 19 metres and
average length of vehicles is 6 metres, the basic capacity of lane, is
(A) 500 vehicles per hour
(B) 700 vehicles per hour
(C) 1000 vehicles per hour
(D) 1250 vehicles per hour
Answer: Option C
Question No. 119

Traffic census is carried out for
(A) Speed and delay study
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(B) Road parking study

(C) Traffic volume study
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 120

In CBR test the value of CBR is calculated at
(A) 2.5 mm penetration only
(B) 5.0 mm penetration only
(C) 7.5 mm penetration only
(D) Both 2.5 mm and 5.0 mm penetrations
Answer: Option D
Question No. 121

If the radii of a compound curve and a reverse curve are respectively the same, the length of
common tangent
(A) Of compound curve will be more
(B) Of reverse curve will be more
(C) Of both curves will be equal
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 122

The best compromise between the increase of the length of a highway and reduction in its load
carrying capacity, is the ruling gradient
(A) 1 in 10
(B) 1 in 15
(C) 1 in 20
(D) 1 in 25
Answer: Option C
Question No. 123

Bottom most layer of pavement is known as
(A) Wearing course
(B) Base course
(C) Sub-base course
(D) Sub-grade
Answer: Option D
Question No. 124

The number of vehicles moving in a specified direction on a roadway that pass a given point during
specified unit of time, is called
(A) Traffic volume
(B) Traffic density
(C) Basic capacity
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(D) Traffic capacity

Answer: Option A
Question No. 125

Ruling gradient on hill roads 300 m above M.S.L. is kept
(A) 4 %
(B) 5 %
(C) 7 %
(D) 8 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 126

The aggregates required for one kilometre length of water bound macadam road per meter width
and for 10 mm thickness is
(A) 8 cubic meter
(B) 10 cubic meter
(C) 12 cubic meter
(D) 15 cubic meter
Answer: Option C
Question No. 127

The minimum value of camber provided for thin bituminous surface hill roads, is
(A) 2.2 %
(B) 2.5 %
(C) 3.0 %
(D) 3.5 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 128

Roundabouts are not suitable if number of vehicles exceed
(A) 3000
(B) 4000
(C) 5000
(D) 6000
Answer: Option A
Question No. 129

The minimum design speed for hairpin bends in hill roads is taken as
(A) 20 kmph
(B) 30 kmph
(C) 40 kmph
(D) 50 kmph
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 130

Thickness of a pavement may be reduced considerably by
(A) Compaction of soil
(B) Stabilisation of soil
(C) Drainage of soil
(D) Combination of all the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 131

To compensate the loss of tractive force of vehicles along curves of radius R, the percentage
reduction of gradient, is
(A) 50/R
(B) 75/R
(C) 100/R
(D) 125/R
Answer: Option B
Question No. 132

The maximum allowable Los Angeles abrasion value for high quality surface course is
(A) 10 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 30 %
(D) 45 %
Answer: Option C
Question No. 133

The minimum ratio of the radii of two circular curves of a compound curve, is kept
(A) 1.25
(B) 1.5
(C) 1.75
(D) 2.0
Answer: Option B
Question No. 134

The distance travelled by a moving vehicle during perception and brake reaction times, is known
as
(A) Sight distance
(B) Stopping distance
(C) Lag distance
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 135

Rigidity factor for a tyre pressure greater than 7 kg/cm² is
(A) Equal to 1
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(B) Less than 1

(C) Greater than 1
(D) Zero
Answer: Option B
Question No. 136

The formula for calculating the depth of concrete pavements suggested by Gold beck, is
(A) d = 3W/ max
(B) d W/ max)
(C) d W/ max)
(D) d W/ max)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 137
polar angle is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 138

Most suitable material for highway embankments is
(A) Granular soil
(B) Organic soil
(C) Silts
(D) Clays
Answer: Option A
Question No. 139

The road foundation for modern highways construction, was developed by
(A) Tresguet
(B) Telford
(C) Tresguet and Telford simultaneously
(D) Telford and Macadam simultaneously
Answer: Option D
Question No. 140

Longitudinal pavement lines marked broken in white paint
(A) Are for the guidance of the drivers
(B) Are not to be crossed over
(C) May be crossed over at the discretion of the driver
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 141

The recommended grade of tar for grouting purpose is
(A) RT-1
(B) RT-2
(C) RT-3
(D) RT-5
Answer: Option D
Question No. 142

According to Highway Research Board of U.S.A. practical land width, is
(A) 2.7 m
(B) 3.0 m
(C) 3.3 m
(D) 3.6 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 143

If the radius of a main curve is 300 m and length of the transition curve is 100 m, the angle with
tangent to locate the junction point, is
(A) 1° 11'
(B) 2° 11'
(C) 3° 11'
(D) 4° 11'
Answer: Option C
Question No. 144

Which of the following premix methods is used for base course?
(A) Bituminous carpet
(B) Mastic asphalt
(C) Sheet asphalt
(D) Bituminous bound macadam
Answer: Option D
Question No. 145

(A) During reconnaissance, the general route of the alignment is selected
(B) After reconnaissance, a trace is cut for the alignment
(C) Last stage is the detailed surveys for desired geometries' of the highway
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 146

The statement, regarding the size of stones used at the wearing surface. "The size of a stone used
on a road must be in due proportion to the space occupied by a wheel of ordinary dimensions on a
smooth level surface. The point of contact will be found to be longitudinal about 2.5 cm and every
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piece of stone put into the road which exceeds 2.5 cm in any of its dimension is mischievous" was
made by
(A) Telford
(B) Macadam
(C) Tresguet
(D) Sully
Answer: Option B
Question No. 147

Bitumen of grade 80/100 means
(A) Its penetration value is 8 mm
(B) Its penetration value is 10 mm
(C) Its penetration value is 8 to 10 mm
(D) Its penetration value is 8 to 10 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 148

(A) Safety fences are provided on either side of a roadway if embankments are in excess of 6
metres
(B) Safety fences are provided on outside of the curves of radii less than 750 m if the
embankments are between 3 metres and 6 metres
(C) Guard stones are provided at 2.5 metres intervals if embankments are between 1.6 metres
to 3 metres
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 149

I.R.T.D.A. (Indian Roads and Transport Development Association) was set up at Bombay in
(A) 1907
(B) 1917
(C) 1027
(D) 1937
Answer: Option C
Question No. 150

The maximum spacing of contraction joints in rigid pavements is
(A) 2.5 m
(B) 3.5 m
(C) 4.5 m
(D) 5.5 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 151

If N is deviation angle, the length L, of a parabolic vertical curve for safe stopping distance S, is
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(A) NS²/4.4 if L > S

(B) 2S - 4.4/N if L < S
(C) 2S - 4.4/N if L > S
Answer: Option D
Question No. 152

A single lane carriage way whenever changes to two-lane carriage way, is affected through a taper
of
(A) 1 in 10
(B) 1 in 15
(C) 1 in 20
(D) 1 in 15 to 1 in 20
Answer: Option D
Question No. 153

Softening point of bitumen to be used for read construction at a place where maximum
temperature is 40°C should be
(A) Less than 40°C
(B) Greater than 40°C
(C) Equal to 40°C
Answer: Option B
Question No. 154

According to IRC : 52-1973, for a single lane National Highway in hilly region,
(A) Width of the carriageway must be 3.75 m
(B) Shoulders on either side must be 1.25 m
(C) Total width of the road-way must be 6.25 m
(D) Total of the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 155

If a Lemniscate curve of transition throughout is introduced to connect two parallel roads, the
maximum polar angle of the curve, is
(A) 10°
(B) 15°
(C) 20°
(D) 30°
Answer: Option D
Question No. 156

Minimum thickness of a layer of fine sand required to cut off capillary rise of water completely,
should be
(A) 40 cm
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(B) 52 cm
(C) 64 cm
(D) 76 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 157

The standard equation of a cubical spiral transition curve provided on roads, is
(A) y = l²/6RL
(B) y = x3/6RL
(C) y = x2/6RL
(D) y = x/6RL
Answer: Option B
Question No. 158

If N is the algebraic difference of grades, S is the head light beam distance in metres, the length (L)
of a valley curve, is
(A) NS²/4
(B) NS²/6
(C) NS²/9.6
(D) NS²/4.8
Answer: Option A
Question No. 159

To prevent compressive stresses in a rigid concrete pavement, the joint provided, is
(A) Expansion joint
(B) Contraction joint
(C) Hinged joint
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 160

Along high ways confirmatory route markers are generally fixed
(A) Before the crossing on the left side
(B) After the crossing on the left side
(C) Before the crossing on the right side
(D) After the crossing on the right side
Answer: Option B
Question No. 161

If the width of carriage way is 12.5 metres, outer edge 50 cm higher than the inner edge, the
required super elevation is
(A) 50 cm
(B) 1 in 25
(C) 1 in 400
(D) 1 in 40
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Answer: Option B
Question No. 162

If N is the net difference of grades, S is the minimum overtaken sight distance in metres, the
length (L) of a summit curve, is
(A) NS/4
(B) NS²/4
(C) NS²/4.8
(D) NS²/9.6
Answer: Option D
Question No. 163

Super-elevation on roads in snow bound areas, should generally not exceed
(A) 15 %
(B) 12 %
(C) 10 %
(D) 7 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 164

Passing zones are generally not provided on
(A) Summit curves
(B) Horizontal curves
(C) Two lane highways
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 165

In a braking test, a vehicle travelling at 36 km ph was stopped at a braking distance of 8.0 m. The
average value of the vehicle's skid resistance (friction coefficient) is
(A) 0.64
(B) 6.25
(C) 0.16
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 166

The first stage of deciding the alignment of a hill road, is
(A) Reconnaissance
(B) Detailed survey
(C) Trace-out
(D) Preliminary survey
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 167

The normal road land width for a National or State highway, in open areas should be
(A) 45 m
(B) 30 m
(C) 24 m
(D) 20 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 168

Floating gradients are generally provided
(A) Along maximum gradients
(B) Along minimum gradients
(C) At summit curves
(D) At valley curves
Answer: Option C
Question No. 169

If cross slope of a country is upto 10% the terrain is classified as
(A) Plain
(B) Rolling
(C) Mountainous
(D) Steep
Answer: Option A
Question No. 170

Area of steel required per metre width of pavement for a length of 20 m for design wheel load
6300 kg and permissible stress in steel 1400 kg/cm2, is
(A) 70 kg/sq cm
(B) 80 kg/sq cm
(C) 90 kg/sq cm
(D) 100 kg/sq cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 171

In case of a hair pin bend of a highway,
(A) Minimum radius of inner curve is 14 m
(B) Minimum radius of transition is 15 m
(C) Circular compound curve may be provided
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 172

The minimum vertical clearance of overhanging cliffs or any other structure above the surface of a
hill road, should be
(A) 3 m
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(B) 4 m
(C) 5 m
(D) 6 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 173

The camber on pavements, is provided by
(A) Straight line method
(B) Parabolic method
(C) Straight line and parabolic at crown
(D) Elliptical method
Answer: Option C
Question No. 174

One-way streets are generally provided in crowded cities as, these
(A) Are inexpensive means of traffic flow
(B) Reduce delays to vehicles
(C) Permit higher speed
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 175

The width of the right of way, is influenced by
(A) Formation width
(B) Shoulders or berms
(C) Classification of road
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 176

The maximum distance of the apex of a vertical curve of length L from the point of intersection of
two grades + g1%, and - g2% (g1 > g2), is
(A) L(g - g
(B) L(g - g
(C) L(g g
(D) L(g - g
Answer: Option C
Question No. 177

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. On highways circular curves may be
(A) Simple curves
(B) Compound curves
(C) Reverse curves
(D) Vertical curves
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 178

The desirable camber for straight roads with thin bituminous surfacing, is
(A) 1 in 33 to 1 in 25
(B) 1 in 40 to 1 in 33
(C) 1 in 150 to 1 in 140
(D) 1 in 160 to 1 in 140
Answer: Option C
Question No. 179

If brakes of vehicles are effective, the vehicle-running at 30 km/hour comes to a stop in
(A) 10 metres
(B) 12 metres
(C) 15 metres
(D) 18 metres
Answer: Option B
Question No. 180

From the point of tangency before an intersection, the route markers are fixed at a distance of
(A) 15 m to 30 m
(B) 20 m to 35 m
(C) 40 m to 50 m
(D) 100 m to 150
Answer: Option D
Question No. 181

The minimum super-elevation in rolling terrain in plains, is limited to
(A) 4 %
(B) 5 %
(C) 6 %
(D) 7 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 182

In ideal pavement is constructed with
(A) Bricks
(B) Hard soil
(C) Portland cement concrete
(D) Tar
Answer: Option C
Question No. 183

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. If water cement ratio is
(A) Increased, strength of concrete increases
(B) Decreased, strength of concrete increases
(C) Increased, strength of concrete is not affected
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(D) None of these

Answer: Option C
Question No. 184

Design of horizontal and vertical alignments, super-elevation, sight distance and grades, is worst
affected by
(A) Width of the vehicle
(B) Length of the vehicle
(C) Height of the vehicle
(D) Speed of the vehicle
Answer: Option D
Question No. 185

For a comfortable travel on Highways, the centrifugal ratio should not exceed
(A) 0.10
(B) 0.15
(C) 0.20
(D) 0.25
Answer: Option D
Question No. 186

Border Roads Organisation for hilly regions (India), was formed in
(A) 1947
(B) 1954
(C) 1958
(D) 1960
Answer: Option D
Question No. 187

For a poorly graded sub-grade soil, thickness of sub-base, is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 188

The usual width of parapet walls along Highways in hilly region, is
(A) 50 cm
(B) 60 cm
(C) 70 cm
(D) 80 cm
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 189

In scanty rainfall regions, the camber provided will be
(A) Nil
(B) Flatter
(C) Steeper
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 190

In water bound macadam roads, binding material, is
(A) Sand
(B) Stone dust
(C) Cement
(D) Brick dust
Answer: Option B
Question No. 191

Design of flexible pavement, involves
(A) Wheel loads
(B) Intensity of traffic
(C) Climate of the region
(D) Sub-grade conditions
Answer: Option C
Question No. 192

Increase in traffic volume, due to increase in transport vehicles, is known as
(A) Development traffic
(B) Normal traffic growth
(C) Generated traffic growth
(D) Current traffic
Answer: Option C
Question No. 193

Width of a rotary round should be equal to
(A) Twice the width of narrowest radial road
(B) Width of the widest road
(C) Width of the widest road plus the width of one lane
(D) Width of the widest road plus 2 metres
Answer: Option C
Question No. 194

Volume of traffic which would immediately use a new road or an improved one when opened to
traffic, is known
(B) Current traffic
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(C) General traffic

(D) Normal traffic growth
Answer: Option D
Question No. 195

Volume of traffic which is due to improvement carried out in adjacent area, is known as
(B) Generated traffic growth
(C) Normal traffic growth
(D) Current traffic
Answer: Option A
Question No. 196

Maximum number of passenger cars that can pass a given point on a road during one hour under
the most ideal road way and traffic conditions, is known as
(A) Traffic density
(B) Basic capacity of traffic lane
(C) Possible capacity of traffic lane
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 197

Reference pillars fixed on the centre line of a proposed road, provide the following information:
(A) Reduced distance (R.D.)
(B) Horizontal distance of road from the centre line
(C) Reduced level at the top of pillar
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 198

In an ideal transition curve, the radius of curvature
(A) Is constant
(B) At any point is directly proportional to its distance from the point of commencement
(C) Is inversely proportional to the radius of main curve
(D) Is directly proportional to the radius of main curve
Answer: Option C
Question No. 199

Alignment of highways in hilly regions, is decided on
(A) Long stretch of very hard cutting
(B) Number of river crossings
(C) Natural unstable areas
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 200

The desirable camber for straight cement concrete roads, is
(A) 1 in 33 to 1 in 25
(B) 1 in 40 to 1 in 33
(C) 1 in 150 to 1 in 140
(D) 1 in 160 to 1 in 140
Answer: Option D
Question No. 201

In case of cement concrete pavements, pick up the incorrect statement
(A) Tractive resistance is low
(B) Initial cost of construction is high
(C) Initial cost of construction is low
(D) Visibility during nights is high
Answer: Option C
Question No. 202

If D is the degree of a curve, the percentage reduction of gradient, is
(A) 0.01 D
(B) 0.02 D
(C) 0.03 D
(D) 0.04 D
Answer: Option D
Question No. 203

(A) Highways are always constructed in straight line
(B) Highways may be provided horizontal curves
(C) Highways may be provided vertical curves
(D) Highways may be provided both horizontal and vertical curves
Answer: Option A
Question No. 204

(A) Long tangent sections exceeding 3 km in length should be avoided
(B) Curve length should be at least 150 metres for a deflection angle of 5 degree
(C) For every degree decrease in the deflection angle, 30 metre length of curve to be increased
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 205

Minimum number of 50 kg cement bags per cubic metre of concrete for a mix corresponding to
crushing strength 280 kg/cm2 at 28 days, are
(A) 5.0
(B) 6.5
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(C) 7.0
(D) 7.5
Answer: Option B
Question No. 206

For Indian conditions, the water bound macadam roads, are suitable if daily traffic does not
exceed
(A) 2000 tonnes
(B) 2500 tonnes
(C) 3000 tonnes
(D) 3500 tonnes
Answer: Option A
Question No. 207

Indian Road Congress (I.R.C.) was founded and constituted with its head quarters at New Delhi, in
(A) 1924
(B) 1927
(C) 1930
(D) 1934
Answer: Option D
Question No. 208

The steepest gradient permitted on roads which, in ordinary conditions, does not exceed, is
known
(A) Ruling gradient
(B) Maximum gradient
(C) Exceptional gradient
(D) Floating gradient
Answer: Option B
Question No. 209

When each particle of aggregates is thinly coated with cement paste, a heterogeneous solid is
formed, which is known as
(A) Hydration
(B) Gel
(C) Concrete
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 210

Width of the shoulders of carriage way is generally kept
(A) 100 cm
(B) 125 cm
(C) 150 cm
(D) 250 cm
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 211

Reduction of load capacity in a ruling gradient of
(A) 1 in 10, is 10%
(B) 1 in 15, is 15%
(C) 1 in 20, is 10%
(D) 1 in 25, is 25%
Answer: Option C
Question No. 212

The width of road pavements, depends upon
(A) Width of traffic lane
(B) Number of traffic
(C) Width of median strip
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 213

While calculating the overtaking sight distance, the height of the object above road surface, is
assumed
(A) 50 cm
(B) 75 cm
(C) 100 cm
(D) 120 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 214

Minimum thickness of the base of a flexible pavement, is
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 25 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 215

Widening of the roads on curves in hilly region, is done
(A) On the outer side
(B) On the inner side
(C) On the outer and inner sides equally
(D) Less on outer side and more on inner side
Answer: Option B
Question No. 216

Side drains on both sides of a hill road, are essential when the road is
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(A) Along the spur curves

(B) Along the re-entrant curves
(C) In cutting
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 217

The wall constructed for the stability of a back filling portion of a road on the downhill side, is
known as
(A) Retaining wall
(B) Breast wall
(C) Parapet wall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 218

If V is speed of a moving vehicle, r is radius of the curve, g is the acceleration due to gravity, W is
the width of the carriageway, the super elevation is
(A) WV/gr
(B) W²V/gr
(C) WV²/gr
(D) WV/gr²
Answer: Option C
Question No. 219

In a right angle bend of a road provided with a transition throughout, the maximum polar angle
will be
(A) 10°
(B) 15°
(C) 20°
(D) 30°
Answer: Option B
Question No. 220

If V is the design speed in km/hour and R is the radius of the curve of a hill road, the super-
elevation
(A) e = V / 127 R
(B) e = V² / 127 R
(C) e = V ²/ 225 R
(D) e = V / 225 R
Answer: Option C
Question No. 221

Along a hill road, a side drain is provided on
(A) Outer side of a spur curve
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(B) Outer side of a re-entrant curve

(C) Outer side of both (a) and (b)
(D) Inner side of both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 222

The total length of a valley formed by two gradients - 3% and + 2% curve between the two tangent
points to provide a rate of change of centrifugal acceleration 0.6 m/sec 2, for a design speed 100
kmph, is
(A) 16.0 m
(B) 42.3 m
(C) 84.6 m
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 223

If V is speed in km/hour and R is radius of the curve, the super-elevation e is equal to
(A) V²/125 R
(B) V²/225 R
(C) V²/325 R
(D) V²/25 R
Answer: Option B
Question No. 224

The weaving length of a roadway is the distance
(A) Between the channelizing islands
(B) Equal to half circumference
(C) Equal to total width of adjoining radial roads
(D) Equal to diameter of rotary
Answer: Option A
Question No. 225

Following type of pavement is generally known as flexible pavement
(A) Water-bound macadam roads
(B) Stabilised soil roads
(C) Road constructed with various layers of building material well compacted
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 226

First operation during the detailed survey of a hill road, is
(A) Hydrological and soil surveys
(B) Adjustment of alignment along with curves
(C) Derivation of longitudinal and cross-sections
(D) Fixation of Bench Marks
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 227

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The width of the right-of-way is decided so as
to accommodate
(A) Formation width
(B) Side slopes
(C) Horizontal curve
(D) Vertical curve
Answer: Option D
Question No. 228

The type of transition curves generally provided on hill roads, is
(A) Circular
(B) Cubic parabola
(C) Lemniscate
(D) Spiral
Answer: Option D
Question No. 229

When a number of hair pin bends are introduced, a minimum intervening distance in between is
kept
(A) 20 m
(B) 40 m
(C) 60 m
(D) 100 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 230

If cross slope of a country is 10% to 25%, the terrain is classified as
(A) Rolling
(B) Mountainous
(C) Steep
(D) Plain
Answer: Option A
Question No. 231

For the design of cement concrete pavement for corner loading, Indian Road Congress
recommends the use of
(A) Westergaard's formula
(B) Kelly's formula
(C) Goldbeck's formula
(D) Picker's formula
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 232

On the recommendations of Indian Road Congress, the ruling gradient in plains, is
(A) 1 in 15
(B) 1 in 20
(C) 1 in 30
(D) 1 in 45
Answer: Option C
Question No. 233

The tangent length of a simple circular curve of radius R
(A) R tan
(B) R tan
(C) R sin
(D) R sin
Answer: Option B
Question No. 234

While calculating the sight distances, the driver's eye above road surface, is assumed
(A) 90 cm
(B) 100 cm
(C) 110 cm
(D) 120 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 235

On earth roads, the camber should preferably be
(A) 1 in 20 to 1 in 24
(B) 1 in 30 to 1 in 48
(C) 1 in 15 to 1 in 20
(D) 1 in 10 to 1 in 15
Answer: Option A
Question No. 236

At a road junction, 7 cross conflict points are severe if
(A) Both are one-way roads
(B) Both are two-way roads
(C) One is two-way road and other is one-way road
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 237

The safe length L of a valley curve for night travel is
(A) 2S - (1.50 + 0.035 S)/N if L < S
(B) NS²/(1.50 + 0.035 S) if L > S
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 238

Road width 8.8 m of two lane National highways or State highways in mountainous terrain
(A) Excludes the width of parapet (0.6 m)
(B) Excludes the width of side drain (0.6 m)
(C) Excludes the width of parapet and side drain
(D) Includes the width of parapet and side drain
Answer: Option C
Question No. 239

The radius of curvature provided along a transition curve, is
(A) Minimum at the beginning
(B) Same throughout its length
(C) Equal to the radius of circular curve
(D) Varying from infinity to the radius of circular curve
Answer: Option D
Question No. 240

The normal road width of National and State highways
(A) Is kept 45 m
(B) In plain and rolling terrain built-up area, is 30 m
(C) In mountainous built-up area is 20 m
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 241

If R
angle of any point, its radial distance is
(A) 3 R
(B) 3 R
(C) 3 R
(D) 3 R
Answer: Option A
Question No. 242

Raising of outer edge of a road with respect to inner edge, is known
(A) Super elevation
(B) Cant
(C) Banking
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 243

The G.T. road from Lahore to Calcutta in undivided India, was constructed during
(A) 3495-3500 BC
(B) 265-270 BC
(C) 1540-1545 AD
(D) 1440-1450 AD
Answer: Option C
Question No. 244

Endoscope is used to determine
(A) Spot speed
(B) Average speed
(C) Travel time
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 245

The minimum road width is taken
(A) 9 m
(B) 12 m
(C) 16 m
(D) 20 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 246

Newly constructed pavement with ordinary Portland cement attains its working strength after
(A) 7 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 28 days
Answer: Option D
Question No. 247

The maximum comfortable retardation applied to moving vehicles, is
(A) 3.42 m/sec2
(B) 4.42 m/sec2
(C) 5.56 m/sec2
(D) 7.80 m/sec2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 248

For a vehicle moving with a speed of 80 km per hour, the brake reaction time, in ordinary cases, is
(A) 1 sec
(B) 1.5 sec
(C) 2.0 sec
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(D) 2.5 sec

Answer: Option D
Question No. 249

Horizontal curves on highways are provided
(A) To break the monotony of driving
(B) To discourage the tendency to increase speed
(C) To decrease the mental strain on drivers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 250

Bottom-most component of a flexible pavement, is
(A) Sub-grade
(B) Sub-base
(C) Base
(D) Base course
Answer: Option A
Question No. 251

For a properly designed vehicle, the resistance generally ignored, is
(A) Wind resistance
(B) Rolling resistance
(C) Grade resistance
(D) Axle resistance
Answer: Option D
Question No. 252

If the difference in elevation of an edge of the pavement 9 m wide and its crown is 15 cm, the
camber of the pavement, is
(A) 1 in 60
(B) 1 in 45
(C) 1 in 30
(D) 1 in 15
Answer: Option C
Question No. 253

A subsidiary area in a carriageway placed so as to control the movement of the traffic, is
(A) Median strip
(B) Island
(C) Flower bed
(D) Refuge
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 254

Traffic engineering only includes
(A) Planning of regulatory measures
(B) Design and application of control devices
(C) Analysis of traffic characteristics
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 255

The traffic manoeuvre means
(A) Diverging
(B) Merging
(C) Crossing
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 256

If A is the projected area of a vehicle in square metres, V is speed of the vehicles in kilometres per
hour and C is a constant, then the wind resistance R to the moving vehicles, is given by
(A) R = CAV
(B) R = CAV2
(C) R = CAV3
(D) R = C2AV
Answer: Option B
Question No. 257

If the radius of curvature of a hill road is 50 m, the percentage grade compensation should be
(A) 60/R
(B) 70/R
(C) 75/R
(D) 80/R
Answer: Option C
Question No. 258

The efficiency of the brakes of a vehicle depends upon
(A) Condition of road surface
(B) Condition of the tyres
(C) Presence of the show moisture
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 259

On a pavement with parabolic camber, the angle of inclination of the vehicles will be
(A) More at the crown
(B) Less at the edges
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(C) More at the edges

(D) Same at the edges as well as at the crown
Answer: Option C
Question No. 260

Deviation of the alignment of a trace cut may be permitted in areas involving
(A) Land slides
(B) Sand dunes
(C) Dens
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 261

For a 6.6 m wide two lane pavement, berms are provided on either side having a width of
(A) 1.00 m
(B) 1.25 m
(C) 1.50 m
(D) 1.75 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 262

The wall constructed for the stability of an excavated portion of a road on the hill side, is known as
(A) Retaining wall
(B) Breast wall
(C) Parapet wall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 263

Which one of the following transportation systems is not used for the conveyance of passengers in
India?
(A) Railways
(B) Roads
(C) Shipping
(D) Pipe lines
Answer: Option D
Question No. 264

If W is the weight of a vehicle negotiating an upgrade 1 : S along a track having co-efficient of
T is given by
(A) T = p / ( + S)
(B) p = T / ( + S)
(C) S = p / ( + T)
(D) = p / (T + S)
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 265

The normal road land width for a major district road in open area, is
(A) 45 m
(B) 25 m
(C) 15 m
(D) 12 m
Answer: Option B
Question No. 266

Driving vehicles on wet surfaced roads, is dangerous because it may
(A) Skid
(B) Slip
(C) Overturn
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 267

If the rate of change of the super-elevation along a curved portion of a 7 metre wide road is 1 in
150 and the maximum super-elevation allowed is 1 in 15, the maximum length of the transition
curve to be provided at either end, is
(A) 65 m
(B) 70 m
(C) 75 m
(D) 80 m
Answer: Option B
Question No. 268

Transverse joints are provided at distances varying from
(A) 10 m to 15 m
(B) 12 m to 18 m
(C) 16 m to 24 m
(D) 17 m to 27 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 269

Concrete pavement is provided if daily traffic per lane exceeds
(A) 500 tonnes
(B) 750 tonnes
(C) 1000 tonnes
(D) 1250 tonnes
Answer: Option C
Question No. 270

While designing hair pin bends on highways, the minimum
(A) Designed speed is 20 km/hour
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Hydraulics.1-10.pdf
Hydraulics.11-20.pdf
Hydraulics.21-30.pdf
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Hydraulics & Fluid Mechanics:
Question No. 01
When a body is placed over a liquid, it will sink down if
(A) Gravitational force is equal to the up-thrust of the liquid
(B) Gravitational force is less than the up-thrust of the liquid
(C) Gravitational force is more than the up-thrust of the liquid
Answer: Option C
Question No. 02
The property by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between its different layers is
called
(A) Surface tension
(B) Coefficient of viscosity
(C) Viscosity
(D) Osmosis
Answer: Option C
Question No. 03
A weir is said to be narrow-crested weir, if the width of the crest of the weir is __________ half
the height of water above the weir crest.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 04
Euler's dimensionless number relates the following
(A) Inertial force and gravity
(B) Viscous force and inertial force
(C) Viscous force and buoyancy force
(D) Pressure force and inertial force
Answer: Option D
Question No. 05
When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly, it oscillates about
(A) C.G. of body
(B) Center of pressure
(C) Center of buoyancy
(D) Metacentre
Answer: Option D
Question No. 06
The pressure of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a Venturimeter
(A) Remains constant
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(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) Depends upon mass of liquid
Answer: Option C
Question No. 07
When the Mach number is between __________ the flow is called super-sonic flow.
(A) 1 and 2.5
(B) 2.5 and 4
(C) 4 and 6
(D) 1 and 6
Answer: Option D
Question No. 08
In an immersed body, centre of pressure is
(A) At the centre of gravity
(B) Above the centre of gravity
(C) Below be centre of gravity
(D) Could be above or below e.g. depending on density of body and liquid
Answer: Option C
Question No. 09
A vertically immersed surface is shown in the below figure. The distance of its centre of pressure
from the water surface is
(A) (bd²/12) +
(B) (d²/12 ) +
(C) b²/12 +
(D) d²/12 +
Answer: Option B
Question No. 10
The torque required to overcome viscous resistance of a collar bearing is (where R1 andR2 =
External and internal radius of collar)
(A) × -
(B) × -
(C) × -
(D) × -
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 11
Steady flow occurs when
(A) The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(B) The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at successive periods of
time
(C) The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
(D) The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline patterns are identical
in each plane
Answer: Option B
Question No. 12
A flow is called super-sonic if the
(A) Velocity of flow is very high
(B) Discharge is difficult to measure
(C) Mach number is between 1 and 6
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 13
In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Zero
(D) Nonzero finite
Answer: Option D
Question No. 14
The depth of centre of pressure (h) for a vertically immersed surface from the liquid surface is
given by (where IG = Moment of inertia of the immersed surface about horizontal axis through its
centre of gravity, A = Area of immersed surface, and x = Depth of centre of gravity of the immersed
surface from the liquid surface)
(A) (IG/ ) -
(B) (IG/ ) -
(C) ( /IG) +
(D) (IG/ ) +
Answer: Option D
Question No. 15
Mach number is significant in
(A) Supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion
(B) Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(C) Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of discontinuity, gravity
force, and wave making effects, as with ship's hulls
Answer: Option A
Question No. 16
A fluid which obeys the Newton's law of viscosity is termed as
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(A) Real fluid

(B) Ideal fluid
(C) Newtonian fluid
(D) Non-Newtonian fluid
Answer: Option C
Question No. 17
In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the differential pressure between
these points must be more than
(A) Frictional force
(B) Viscosity
(C) Surface friction
Answer: Option D
Question No. 18
The error in discharge (dQ/Q) to the error in measurement of head (dH/H) over a triangular notch
is given by
(A) dQ/Q = 3/2 × (dH/H)
(B) dQ/Q = 2 × (dH/H)
(C) dQ/Q = 5/2 × (dH/H)
(D) dQ/Q = 3 × (dH/H)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 19
For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype, the following in both
cases should also be equal
(A) Ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
(B) Ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
(C) Ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
(D) All the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation, surface tension, and
elasticity
Answer: Option D
Question No. 20
The value of coefficient of velocity for a sharp edged orifice __________ with the head of water.
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 21
If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and glass, then
the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be
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(A) Higher than the surface of liquid

(B) The same as the surface of liquid
(C) Lower than the surface of liquid
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option C
Question No. 22
The ratio of the inertia force to the __________ is called Euler's number.
(A) Pressure force
(B) Elastic force
(C) Surface tension force
(D) Viscous force
Answer: Option A
Question No. 23
A one dimensional flow is one which
(A) Is uniform flow
(B) Is steady uniform flow
(C) Takes place in straight lines
(D) Involves zero transverse component of flow
Answer: Option D
Question No. 24
According to Manning's formula, the discharge through an open channel is (where M = Manning's
constant)
(A) A × M × m1/2 × i2/3
(B) A × M × m2/3 × i1/2
(C) A1/2 × M2/3 × m × i
(D) A2/3 × M1/3 × m × i
Answer: Option B
Question No. 25
Dimensions of surface tension are
(A)
(B) ML°T
(C) ML r²
(D) ML²T²
Answer: Option A
Question No. 26
An opening in the side of a tank or vessel such that the liquid surface with the tank is below the
top edge of the opening, is called
(A) Weir
(B) Notch
(C) Orifice
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(D) None of these

Answer: Option B
Question No. 27
The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called
(A) Surface tension
(B) Adhesion
(C) Cohesion
(D) Viscosity
Answer: Option D
Question No. 28
Coefficient of velocity is defined as the ratio of
(A) Actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity
(B) Area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice
(C) Actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge
Answer: Option A
Question No. 29
A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm² and a volume of 0.039 m3 at
150 kg/cm². The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is
(A) 400 kg/cm²
(B) 4000 kg/cm²
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 30
The mass of 2.5 m3 of a certain liquid is 2 tonnes. Its mass density is
(A) 200 kg/m3
(B) 400 kg/m3
(C) 600 kg/m3
(D) 800 kg/m3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 31
A fluid in equilibrium can't sustain
(A) Tensile stress
(B) Compressive stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) Bending stress
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 32
When a plate is immersed in a liquid parallel to the flow, it will be subjected to a pressure
__________ that if the same plate is immersed perpendicular to the flow.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 33
An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81 kg on a spring balance. The value of 'g' at this place is
(A) 10 m/sec²
(B) 9.81 m/sec²
(C) 9.75 m/sec²
(D) 9 m/sec
Answer: Option A
Question No. 34
A flow is called hyper-sonic, if the Mach number is
(A) Less than unity
(B) Unity
(C) Between 1 and 6
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 35
Liquids
(A) Cannot be compressed
(B) Occupy definite volume
(C) Are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
Answer: Option D
Question No. 36
When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is resolved, the surface of the liquid takes the shape of
(A) A triangle
(B) A paraboloid
(C) An ellipse
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 37
Fluid is a substance that
(A) Cannot be subjected to shear forces
(B) Always expands until it fills any container
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(C) Has the same shear stress at a point regardless of its motion
(D) Cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
Answer: Option D
Question No. 38
The force exerted by a moving fluid on an immersed body is directly proportional to the rate of
change of momentum due to the presence of the body. This statement is called
(A) Newton's law of motion
(B) Newton's law of cooling
(C) Newton's law of viscosity
(D) Newton's law of resistance
Answer: Option D
Question No. 39
The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as
(A) Compressibility
(B) Surface tension
(C) Cohesion
(D) Adhesion
Answer: Option C
Question No. 40
The loss of pressure head in case of laminar flow is proportional to
(A) Velocity
(B) (Velocity)2
(C) (Velocity)3
(D) (Velocity)4
Answer: Option A
Question No. 41
The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared to that of water is
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) More or less depending on size of glass tube
Answer: Option A
Question No. 42
An air vessel is provided at the summit in a siphon to
(A) Avoid interruption in the flow
(B) Increase discharge
(C) Increase velocity
(D) Maintain pressure difference
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 43
The unit of viscosity is
(A) Metres² per sec
(B) kg-sec/metre
(C) Newton-sec per metre²
(D) Newton-sec per meter
Answer: Option B
Question No. 44
(A) Weber's number is the ratio of inertia force to elastic force.
(B) Weber's number is the ratio of gravity force to surface tension force.
(C) Weber's number is the ratio of viscous force to pressure force.
(D) Weber's number is the ratio of inertia force to surface tension force.
Answer: Option D
Question No. 45
Choose the wrong statement. Alcohol is used in manometer, because
(A) Its vapour pressure is low
(B) It provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
(C) Its density is less
(D) It provides longer length for a given pressure difference
Answer: Option A
Question No. 46
When a tank containing liquid moves with an acceleration in the horizontal direction, then the
free surface of the liquid
(A) Remains horizontal
(B) Becomes curved
(C) Falls on the front end
(D) Falls on the back end
Answer: Option C
Question No. 47
A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to
(A) 25 kN/ m²
(B) 245 kN/ m²
(C) 2500 kN/m²
(D) 2.5 kN/ m²
Answer: Option B
Question No. 48
The hammer blow in pipes occurs when
(A) There is excessive leakage in the pipe
(B) The pipe bursts under high pressure of fluid
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(C) The flow of fluid through the pipe is suddenly brought to rest by closing of the valve
(D) The flow of fluid through the pipe is gradually brought to rest by closing of the valve
Answer: Option C
Question No. 49
The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
(A) Up-thrust
(B) Buoyancy
(C) Center of pressure
(D) All the above are correct
Answer: Option B
Question No. 50
When the water level on the downstream side of a weir is above the top surface of a weir, the
weir is known as
(A) Narrow-crested weir
(B) Broad-crested weir
(C) Ogee weir
(D) Submerged weir
Answer: Option D
Question No. 51
If the surface of liquid is convex, men
(A) Cohesion pressure is negligible
(B) Cohesion pressure is decreased
(C) Cohesion pressure is increased
(D) There is no cohesion pressure
Answer: Option C
Question No. 52
The increase in pressure at the outer edge of a drum of radius (r) completely filled up with liquid
(A) r
2 2
(B) 2 2 r2
(C) r /2
2 2
(D) r /4
2 2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 53
The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases
(A) Linearly
(B) First slowly and then steeply
(C) First steeply and then gradually
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 54
the oil, N = Speed of the shaft, R = Radius of the shaft, and t = Thickness of the oil film)
(A) 60t
(B) 60t
(C) 60t
(D) 60t
Answer: Option D
Question No. 55
Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in temperature
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain unaffected
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option A
Question No. 56
According to Bernoulli's equation
(A) Z + p/w + v²/2g = constant
(B) Z + p/w - v²/2g = constant
(C) Z - p/w + v²/2g = constant
(D) Z - p/w - v²/2g = constant
Answer: Option A
Question No. 57
Center of buoyancy is the
(A) Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
(B) Center of pressure of displaced volume
(C) Does not exist
Answer: Option A
Question No. 58
The loss of head due to viscosity for laminar flow in pipes is (where d = Diameter of pipe, l =
Length of pipe, v w = Specific
weight of the flowing liquid)
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 32
Answer: Option D
Question No. 59
For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at
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(A) Bottom surface of the body

(B) C.G. of the body
(C) Metacentre
(D) All points on the surface of the body
Answer: Option D
Question No. 60
Newton's law of viscosity is a relationship between
(A) Pressure, velocity and temperature
(B) Shear stress and rate of shear strain
(C) Shear stress and velocity
(D) Rate of shear strain and temperature
Answer: Option B
Question No. 61
Differential manometer is used to measure
(A) Pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Very low pressure
(D) Difference of pressure between two points
Answer: Option D
Question No. 62
When a body is immersed wholly or partially in a liquid, it is lifted up by a force equal to the
weight of liquid displaced by the body. This statement is called
(A) Pascal's law
(B)
(C) Principle of floatation
(D) Bernoulli's theorem
Answer: Option B
Question No. 63
Non uniform flow occurs when
time
(C) Velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
in each plane
Answer: Option C
Question No. 64
When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water rises in the tube with an upward
__________ surface.
(A) Concave
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(B) Convex
(C) Plane
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 65
A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6. What fraction of its
volume is under mercury?
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.515
(D) 0.5
Answer: Option C
Question No. 66
A flow through an expanding tube at constant rate is called
(A) Steady uniform flow
(B) Steady non-uniform flow
(C) Unsteady uniform flow
(D) Unsteady non-uniform flow
Answer: Option B
Question No. 67
Reynolds number is significant in
(A) Supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
(B) Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(C) Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of discontinuity, gravity
forces, and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
Answer: Option B
Question No. 68
The loss of head due to friction in a pipe of uniform diameter in which a viscous flow is taking
place, is (where RN = Reynold number)
(A) 1/RN
(B) 4/RN
(C) 16/RN
(D) 64/RN
Answer: Option C
Question No. 69
Practical fluids
(A) Are viscous
(B) Possess surface tension
(C) Are compressible
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(D) Possess all the above properties

Answer: Option D
Question No. 70
A compound pipe of diameter d1, d2 and d3 having lengths l1, l2 and l3 is to be replaced by an
equivalent pipe of uniform diameter d and of the same length (l) as that of the compound pipe.
The size of the equivalent pipe is given by
(A) l/d² = + +
(B) l/d³ = + )+
(C) = + +
(D) = + +
Answer: Option D
Question No. 71
The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following property
(A) Cohesion
(B) Adhesion
(C) Viscosity
(D) Surface tension
Answer: Option D
Question No. 72
The Newton's law of resistance is based on the assumption that the
(A) Planes of the body are completely smooth
(B) Space around the body is completely filled with the fluid
(C) Fluid particles do not exert any influence on one another
Answer: Option D
Question No. 73
For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having
(A) Higher surface tension
(B) Lower surface tension
(C) Surface tension is no criterion
(D) High density and viscosity
Answer: Option A
Question No. 74
The flow in a pipe is neither laminar nor turbulent when Reynold number is
(A) Less than 2000
(B) Between 2000 and 2800
(C) More than 2800
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 75
The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken
to act is known as
(A) Meta center
(D) Center of gravity
Answer: Option B
Question No. 76
Stoke is the unit of
(A) Kinematic viscosity in C. G. S. units
(B) Kinematic viscosity in M. K. S. units
(C) Dynamic viscosity in M. K. S. units
(D) Dynamic viscosity in S. I. units
Answer: Option A
Question No. 77
The vapour pressure over the concave surface is
(A) Less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(B) Equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(C) Greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(D) Zero
Answer: Option A
Question No. 78
The velocity at which the flow changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow is called
(A) Critical velocity
(B) Velocity of approach
(C) Sub-sonic velocity
(D) Super-sonic velocity
Answer: Option A
Question No. 79
Mercury is often used in barometer because
(A) It is the best liquid
(B) The height of barometer will be less
(C) Its vapour pressure is so low that it may be neglected
Answer: Option D
Question No. 80
A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. Which of the
following statement is correct?
(A) The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is minimum
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(B) The pressure on the bottom of the wall is maximum

(C) The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is zero, and on the bottom of the wall is
maximum
(D) The pressure on the bottom of the wall is zero
Answer: Option C
Question No. 81
Center of pressure compared to e.g. is
(A) Above it
(B) Below it
(C) At same point
(D) Above or below depending on area of body
Answer: Option B
Question No. 82
The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is called
(A) Centre of gravity
(B) Centre of pressure
(C) Metacentre
(D) Centre of buoyancy
Answer: Option D
Question No. 83
A tank of uniform cross-sectional area (A) containing liquid upto height (H1) has an orifice of cross-
sectional area (a) at its bottom. The time required to bring the liquid level from H1 to H2 will be
(A) 2A × d×a× 2g)
(B) 2A × d×a× 2g)
(C) 2A × - d×a× 2g)
(D) 2A × 3/2
- 3/2
)/Cd × a × 2g)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 84
Gradually varied flow is
(A) Steady uniform
(B) Non-steady non-uniform
(C) Non-steady uniform
(D) Steady non-uniform
Answer: Option D
Question No. 85
The viscosity of water at 20°C is
(A) One stoke
(B) One centistoke
(C) One poise
(D) One centipoise
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 86
The velocity of jet of water travelling out of opening in a tank filled with water is proportional to
(A) Head of water (h)
(B) h²
(C) V/T
(D) h/2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 87
According to Darcy's formula, the loss of head due to friction in the pipe is (where f = Darcy's
coefficient, l = Length of pipe, v = Velocity of liquid in pipe, and d = Diameter of pipe)
(A) flv²/2gd
(B) flv²/gd
(C) 3flv²/2gd
(D) 4flv²/2gd
Answer: Option D
Question No. 88
According to Bernoulli's equation for steady ideal fluid flow
(A) Principle of conservation of mass holds
(B) Velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
(C) Total energy is constant throughout
(D) The energy is constant along a streamline but may vary across streamlines
Answer: Option D
Question No. 89
The discharge through a convergent mouthpiece is __________ the discharge through an internal
mouthpiece of the same diameter and head of water.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-half
(C) Three fourth
(D) Double
Answer: Option D
Question No. 90
Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of
(A) Mass
(B) Momentum
(C) Energy
(D) Work
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 91
surface lies at a distance equal to __________ the centre of gravity.

(A) IG sin² / bellow
(B) IG sin² /
(C) IG sin /
(D) IG sin /
Answer: Option A
Question No. 92
Principle of similitude forms the basis of
(A) Comparing two identical equipments
(B) Designing models so that the result can be converted to prototypes
(C) Comparing similarity between design and actual equipment
(D) Hydraulic designs
Answer: Option B
Question No. 93
The rise of liquid along the walls of a revolving cylinder about the initial level is __________ the
depression of the liquid at the axis of rotation.
(A) Same as
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 94
Hot wire anemometer is used to measure
(A) Pressure in gases
(B) Liquid discharge
(C) Pressure in liquids
(D) Gas velocities
Answer: Option D
Question No. 95
Venturimeter is used to
(A) Measure the velocity of a flowing liquid
(B) Measure the pressure of a flowing liquid
(C) Measure the discharge of liquid flowing in a pipe
(D) Measure the pressure difference of liquid flowing between two points in a pipe line
Answer: Option C
Question No. 96
The two important forces for a floating body are
(A) Buoyancy, gravity
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(B) Buoyancy, pressure

(C) Buoyancy, inertial
(D) Inertial, gravity
Answer: Option A
Question No. 97
The kinematic viscosity of an oil (in stokes) whose specific gravity is 0.95 and viscosity 0.011 poise,
is
(A) 0.0116 stoke
(B) 0.116 stoke
(C) 0.0611 stoke
(D) 0.611 stoke
Answer: Option A
Question No. 98
According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in a fluid will be lifted
up by a force equal to
(A) The weight of the body
(B) More than the weight of the body
(C) Less than the weight of the body
(D) Weight of the fluid displaced by the body
Answer: Option D
Question No. 99
The pressure measured with the help of a pressure gauge is called
(A) Atmospheric pressure
(B) Gauge pressure
(C) Absolute pressure
(D) Mean pressure
Answer: Option B
Question No. 100

The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by the intensity of pressure
at the Centroid, if
(A) The area is horizontal
(B) The area is vertical
(C) The area is inclined
Answer: Option D
Question No. 101

The power absorbed (in watts) in overcoming the viscous resistance of a footstep bearing is
(A) 1800 t
(B) 1800 t
(C) 3600 t
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(D) 3600 t
Answer: Option B
Question No. 102

In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube manometer, one leg is usually inclined by angle .
Sensitivity of inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is equal to
(A) Sin
(B) 1/Sin
(C) Cos
(D) 1/Cos
Answer: Option B
Question No. 103

The most economical section of a rectangular channel is one which has hydraulic mean depth or
hydraulic radius equal to
(A) Half the depth
(B) Half the breadth
(C) Twice the depth
(D) Twice the breadth
Answer: Option A
Question No. 104

Capillary action is due to the
(A) Surface tension
(B) Cohesion of the liquid
(C) Adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface of a solid
Answer: Option D
Question No. 105

The intensity of pressure on an immersed surface __________ with the increase in depth.
(A) Does not change
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 106

Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest possible area due to
the
(A) Force of adhesion
(B) Force of cohesion
(C) Force of friction
(D) Force of diffusion
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 107

Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) In a compressible flow, the volume of the flowing liquid changes during the flow
(B) A flow, in which the volume of the flowing liquid does not change, is called incompressible
flow
(C) When the particles rotate about their own axes while flowing, the flow is said to be
rotational flow
Answer: Option D
Question No. 108

A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended into water without
touching sides of bucket from another support. The spring balance reading will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain same
(D) Increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
Answer: Option C
Question No. 109

A flow through a long pipe at constant rate is called
(A) Steady uniform flow
(B) Steady non-uniform flow
(C) Unsteady uniform flow
(D) Unsteady non-uniform flow
Answer: Option A
Question No. 110

Choose the wrong statement
(A) Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount of its resistance to a
shearing force
(B) Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules
(C) Viscosity of liquids decreases with increase in temperature
(D) Viscosity of liquids is appreciably affected by change in pressure
Answer: Option D
Question No. 111

The unit of dynamic viscosity in S.I. units is
(A) N-m/s2
(B) N-s/m2
(C) Poise
(D) Stoke
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 112

A perfect gas
(A) Has constant viscosity
(B) Has zero viscosity
(C) Is in compressible
Answer: Option D
Question No. 113

In a free nappe,
(A) The pressure below the nappe is atmospheric
(B) The pressure below the nappe is negative
(C) The pressure above the nappe is atmospheric
(D) The pressure above the nappe is negative
Answer: Option A
Question No. 114

In a static fluid
(A) Resistance to shear stress is small
(B) Fluid pressure is zero
(C) Linear deformation is small
(D) Only normal stresses can exist
Answer: Option D
Question No. 115

One litre of water occupies a volume of
(A) 100 cm3
(B) 250 cm3
(C) 500 cm3
(D) 1000 cm3
Answer: Option A
Question No. 116

A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle
(A) Law of gravitation
(B) Archimedes principle
(C) Principle of buoyancy
Answer: Option D
Question No. 117

The maximum discharge over a broad crested weir is
(A) 0.384 Cd × L × H1/2
(B) 0.384 Cd × L × H3/2
(C) 1.71 Cd × L × H1/2
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(D) 1.71 Cd × L × H3/2

Answer: Option D
Question No. 118

The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as
(A) Specific viscosity
(B) Viscosity index
(C) Kinematic viscosity
(D) Coefficient of viscosity
Answer: Option C
Question No. 119

Reynold's number is the ratio of inertia force to
(A) Pressure force
(B) Elastic force
(C) Gravity force
(D) Viscous force
Answer: Option D
Question No. 120

Metacentric height is given as the distance between
(A) The center of gravity of the body and the metacentre
(B) The center of gravity of the body and the center of buoyancy
(C) The center of gravity of the body and the center of pressure
(D) Center of buoyancy and metacentre
Answer: Option A
Question No. 121

In a footstep bearing, if the speed of the shaft is doubled, then the torque required to overcome
the viscous resistance will be
(A) Double
(B) Four times
(C) Eight times
(D) Sixteen times
Answer: Option A
Question No. 122

The continuity equation is connected with
(A) Open channel/pipe flow
(B) Compressibility of fluids
(C) Conservation of mass
(D) Steady/unsteady flow
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 123

The most economical section of a trapezoidal channel is one which has hydraulic mean depth
equal to
(A) 1/2 × depth
(B) 1/2 × breadth
(C) 1/2 × sloping side
(D) 1/4 × (depth + breadth)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 124
(A) Absolute temperature

(B) Temperature
(C) Density
(D) Modulus of elasticity
Answer: Option A
Question No. 125

The absolute pressure is equal to
(A) Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
(B) Gauge pressure - atmospheric pressure
(C) Atmospheric pressure - gauge pressure
(D) Gauge pressure - vacuum pressure
Answer: Option A
Question No. 126

Unit of surface tension is
(A) Energy/unit area
(B) Velocity/unit area
(C) Both of the above
(D) It has no units
Answer: Option A
Question No. 127

A Piezometer tube is used only for measuring
(A) Low pressure
(B) High pressure
(C) Moderate pressure
(D) Vacuum pressure
Answer: Option C
Question No. 128

The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is approximately
(A) 5 mm
(B) 10 mm
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(C) 20 mm
(D) 30 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 129

The Cipoletti weir is a __________ weir.
(A) Rectangular
(B) Triangular
(C) Trapezoidal
(D) Circular
Answer: Option C
Question No. 130

Pressure of the order of 10" torr can be measured by
(A) Bourdon tube
(B) Pirani Gauge
(C) Micro-manometer
(D) Lonisation gauge
Answer: Option D
Question No. 131

The volume of a fluid __________ as the pressure increases.
(A) Remains same
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 132

Buoyant force is
(A) The resultant force acting on a floating body
(B) The resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
(C) Equal to the volume of liquid displaced
(D) The force necessary to maintain equilibrium of a submerged body
Answer: Option B
Question No. 133

A flow through a long pipe at decreasing rate is called __________ uniform flow.
(A) Steady
(B) Unsteady
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 134

Choose the wrong statement
(A) The center of buoyancy is located at the center of gravity of the displaced liquid
(B) For stability of a submerged body, the center of gravity of body must lie directly below the
center of buoyancy
(C) If C.G. and center of buoyancy coincide, the submerged body must lie at neutral equilibrium
for all positions
(D) All floating bodies are stable
Answer: Option D
Question No. 135

The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is __________ to the depth of liquid from the
surface.
(A) Equal
(B) Directly proportional
(C) Inversely proportional
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 136

True one-dimensional flow occurs when
time
(C) The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
in each plane
Answer: Option A
Question No. 137

The discharge in an open channel corresponding to critical depth is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 138

A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its volume under the liquid. The
specific gravity of wood is
(A) 0.83
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.3
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 139

A pitot tube is used to measure the
(A) Velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe
(B) Pressure difference between two points in a pipe
(C) Total pressure of liquid flowing in a pipe
(D) Discharge through a pipe
Answer: Option A
Question No. 140

The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of perfect incompressible fluid
flowing in continuous stream
(A) Keeps on increasing
(B) Keeps on decreasing
(C) Remain constant
(D) May increase/decrease
Answer: Option C
Question No. 141

The critical depth meter is used to measure
(A) Velocity of flow in an open channel
(B) Depth of flow in an open channel
(C) Hydraulic jump
(D) Depth of channel
Answer: Option C
Question No. 142

Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following quantities are same
(A) Friction loss and flow
(B) Length and diameter
(C) Flow and length
(D) Friction factor and diameter
Answer: Option A
Question No. 143

In a footstep bearing, if the radius of the shaft is doubled, then the torque required to overcome
the viscous resistance will be
(A) Double
(B) Four times
(C) Eight times
(D) Sixteen times
Answer: Option D
Question No. 144

Surface tension has the units of
(A) Newton-sec/m
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(B) Newton-m/sec
(C) Newton/m
(D) Newton
Answer: Option C
Question No. 145

The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to determine
(A) Reynold's number
(B) Froude's number
(C) Mach number
(D) Euler's number
Answer: Option C
Question No. 146

Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of
(A) Pressure
(B) Flow
(C) Shape
(D) Volume
Answer: Option C
Question No. 147

The pressure less than atmospheric pressure is known as
(A) Suction pressure
(B) Vacuum pressure
(C) Negative gauge pressure
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 148

The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a point only if
(A) It is incompressible
(B) It has uniform viscosity
(C) It has zero viscosity
(D) It is at rest
Answer: Option D
Question No. 149

The power transmitted through a pipe is (where w = Specific weight in N/m3, and Q = Discharge in
m3/s)
(A) w × Q × H
(B) w × Q × hf
(C) w × Q (H - hf)
(D) w × Q (H + hf)
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 150

w k
intensity at that point will be
(A) h
(B) wh
(C) w/h
(D) h/w
Answer: Option B
Question No. 151

A compound pipe is required to be replaced by a new pipe. The two pipes are said to be
equivalent, if
(A) Length of both the pipes is same
(B) Diameter of both the pipes is same
(C) Loss of head and discharge of both the pipes is same
(D) Loss of head and velocity of flow in both the pipes is same
Answer: Option C
Question No. 152

The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is called
(A) Metacentre
(D) Center of gravity
Answer: Option C
Question No. 153

A flow is called sub-sonic, if the Mach number is
(A) Less than unity
(B) Unity
(C) Between 1 and 6
(D) More than 6
Answer: Option A
Question No. 154

Barometer is used to measure
(A) Pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Very low pressure
(D) Difference of pressure between two points
Answer: Option B
Question No. 155

The hydraulic gradient line lies over the centre line of the pipe by an amount equal to the
(A) Pressure head
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(B) Velocity head

(C) Pressure head + velocity head
(D) Pressure head - velocity head
Answer: Option A
Question No. 156

The center of pressure of a surface subjected to fluid pressure is the point
(A) On the surface at which resultant pressure acts
(B) On the surface at which gravitational force acts
(C) At which all hydraulic forces meet
(D) Similar to metacentre
Answer: Option A
Question No. 157

The variation in the volume of a liquid with the variation of pressure is called its
(A) Surface tension
(B) Compressibility
(C) Capillarity
(D) Viscosity
Answer: Option B
Question No. 158

A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at a velocity of 25 m/sec. The prototype is expected
to attain a velocity of 5 m/sec. What model scale has been used?
(A) 1 : 5
(B) 1 : 2.5
(C) 1 : 25
(D)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 159

The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature is __________ that of water.
(A) Same as
(B) Lower than
(C) Higher than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 160

Flow of water in a pipe about 3 metres in diameter can be measured by
(A) Orifice plate
(B) Venturimeter
(C) Rotameter
(D) Pitot tube
Answer: Option D
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Irrigation
(Section – 1)
1. Borrow pits should preferably be located in
A. field on the left side of the canal
B. field on the right side of the canal
C. fields on both sides of the canal
D. central half width of the section of the canal.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
2. Irrigation canals are generally aligned along
A. ridge line
B. contour line
C. valley line
D. straight line.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
3. The length of a meander is the distance along the river between the tangent
point of one curve to the tangent point of
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A. reverse curve
B. next curve of the same order
C. reverse curve plus the width of the river
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
4. If B and d are the bed width and depth of a channel in metres, the combined
losses due to evaporation and seepage in cumecs per kilometre length of the
channel, is
A. B.
C. D.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
5. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following
Side walls of a venturi head flume are splayed out from the end of the
A.
throat at 1 : 10 for a length of 4.5 m
B. Length of side walls should be such that the width of the flume is
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made equal to 2/3rd the bed width of the distributary
Once the width of the flume becomes 2/3rd of the width of the
C. distributary, the splayed walls are increased to 1 in 3 to get full bed
width
D. None of these.
Answer: Option D
6. The difference in level between the top of a bank and supply level in a canal, is
called
A. berm
B. free board
C. height of bank
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
7. F.S.L. of a canal at its head with respect to parent channel is kept
A. at the same level
B. 15 cm lower
C. 15 cm higher
D. none of these.
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
8. The measure to remove water logging of land, is
A. to reduce percolation from canals and water courses
B. to increase outflow from the ground water reservoir
C. both (a) and (b)
D. neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
9. Attracting groynes are built
A. perpendicular to the bank
B. inclined down stream
C. inclined up stream
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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10. Retrogression of the bed level of a river downstream a weir, occurs due to
A. heavy impact of water
B. increase of the bed level
C. less percentage of silt
D. soft soil strata.
Answer: Option C
11. According to G.W. Pickles the effect of confining the flood water of a river
between levee, is to increase
A. rate of flood wave
B. water surface elevation during floods
C. maximum discharge
D. velocity and scouring action
E. surface slope of streams above the leveed portion.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
12. In a canal syphon, the flow is
A. under atmospheric pressure
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B. pipe flow
C. with critical velocity
D. under negative pressure.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
13. A water-logged land is found suitable for cultivation due to
ease of tillage for preparation of the field for optimum condition of

A.
germination
B. absence of aeration of soil from root zone of the plant
regular supply of water to plants from the water table by capillary

C.
action
D. none of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
14. When a canal and a drainage approach each other at the same level, the
structure so provided, is
A. an aqueduct
B. a syphon
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C. a level crossing
D. inlet and outlet.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
15. For smooth entry of water in a canal, the angle between head regulator and
water is generally kept
A. 80° B. 90°
C. 110° D. 120°
Answer: Option C
16. If L is total length of a canal in kilometres, P is total perimeter of its lining in

metres and C is the cost of lining per square metre, the additional expenditure
involved on lining, is
A. 100 PLC
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option A
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Explanation:
In free flooding irrigation, water is admitted at one corner of a field

A.
and is allowed to spread over the entire area
In check method of irrigation, the field is divided into smaller

B.
compartments and water is admitted to each in turn
In furrow irrigation water is admitted between the rows of plants in

C.
the field
D. None of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
18. Fundamental momentum equation for a hydraulic jump, is
A.
B.
C.
D.
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
19. In a Sarda type fall, the rectangular crest, may be used for discharge upto
A. 6 cumecs
B. 10 cumecs
C. 14 cumecs
D. 20 cumecs
E. 25 cumecs.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
20. When a canal is carried over a natural drainage, the structure provided, is known
as
A. syphon
B. aqueduct
C. super passage
D. syphon-aqueduct.
Answer: Option B
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21. For the stability of a structure against seepage pressure according to Khosla's
creep theory, the critical gradient is
A. zero B. 0.25
C. 0.50 D. 0.75
E. 1.00
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
22. Pick up the correct statement from the following
Approach of the water line in a flumed channel section should not be

A.
steeper than
Departure of the water line from a flumed channel section should not
B.
be steeper than 30°
Approach of the water line should not be steeper than 30° and
C.
departure line not steeper than in a flumed channel section
Approach and departure of the water line in a flumed channel section,

D.
should not be steeper than
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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23. Groynes are generally built
A. perpendicular to the bank
B. inclined up stream up to 30°
C. inclined down stream upto 30°
D. all the above.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
24. The top of the capillary zone
A. lies below the water table at every point
B. lies above the water table at every point
C. coincides the water table at every point
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
25. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. Culturable commanded area
is the gross area of an irrigation canal system less
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A. populated area
B. alkaline area
C. forest area
D. fallow land.
Answer: Option D
In a level crossing, a crest with its top at the canal F.S.L. is provided
A.
across the drainage at its up-stream junction with canal
In a level crossing a regulator is provided across the drainage at its

B.
down-stream
In a level crossing, a cross regulator is provided on the canal below

C.
the crossing
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
27. For the design of major hydraulic structures on the canals, the method generally
preferred to, is based on
A. Bligh's theory
B. Electrical analogy method
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C. The relaxation method
D. Khosla's method of independent variables.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
28. For designing the venturi head,
width of the throat should not be less than one-third of the bed width
A.
of main canal
width of the throat should not be less than the width obtained from
B. the formula B = Q / 1.2d3/2, where d is the difference in levels of
F.S.L. and sill
C. minimum throat width should not be less than 60 cm
length of the throat should be 2.5 times the depth measured to F.S.L.
D.
in the main canal
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
29. The sinuosity of a meander is the ratio of
A. meander length and the width of meander
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B. meander length and half width of the river
C. curved length and the straight distance
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
30. The top soil of a water logged field becomes more alkaline and infertile if its
pH value is
A. 6 B. 8
C. 9 D. 10
E. 11
Answer: Option E
31. The main function of a diversion head works of a canal from a river, is
A. to remove silt
B. to control floods
C. to store water
D. to raise water level
E. all the above.
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Answer: Option D
Explanation:
32. Side slopes generally kept for canals in loam soil, are :
A.
1 : 1 in cutting and : 1 in filling
B.
: 1 in cutting and 2 : 1 in filling
C. Neither (a) nor (b)
D. Both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
33. When a canal flowing under pressure is carried below a natural drainage such
that its F.S.L. does not touch the underside of the supporting structure, the
structure so provided, is called
A. syphon
B. aqueduct
C. super passage
D. syphon-aqueduct.
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
34. For the conditions enumerated to provide a crossing at C1 You will probably
provide
A. an aqueduct
B. a super-passage
C. a syphon aqueduct
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
35. If the straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal with circular bottom of
radius R, make an angle θ with horizontal, the perimeter of the canal is
A. R(θ + tan θ)
B. 2R(θ + tan θ)
C. R(θ + cos θ)
D. 2R(θ + cos θ)
E. none of these.
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Answer: Option D
36. The crest level of a canal diversion head work, depends upon
A. F.S.L. of the canal
B. discharge perimeters
C. pond level
D. all the above
E. none these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
37. The depth of rice root zone, is
A. 50 cm
B. 60 cm
C. 70 cm
D. 80 cm
E. 90 cm
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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38. The intensity of irrigation means
A. percentage of culturable commanded area to be irrigated annually
B. percentage of gross commanded area to be irrigated annually
percentage of the mean of culturable commanded area and the gross

C.
commanded area to be irrigated annually
D. total depth of water supplied by the number of waterings.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
39. The saturation line is the line up to which banks get saturated after the canal
runs for some time. The saturation gradient in ordinary loam soil, is generally
A. 2:1
B. 3:1
C. 4:1
D. 5:1
E. 6:1
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
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40. The depth of the crest of a scouring sluice below the crest of a head regulator, is
generally kept
A. 0.20 m
B. 1.20 m
C. 2.20 m
D. 3.20 m
E. 4.90 m
Answer: Option B
41. The discharge over a trapezoidal crest of a Sarda fall with free over fall
conditions, is
A. 0.45 2g . LH3/2 (H/B)1/3
B. 0.45 2g . LH2/3 (H/B)2/3
C. 0.45 2g . LH3/2 (H/B)1/6
D. 0.45 2g . LH1/6 (H/B)3/2
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
42. If q is the discharge per unit width of a channel and D1 D2 are the depths of
water before and after hydraulic jump, the following relationship is true
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A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
43. A river training work is generally required when the river is
A. meandering
B. aggrading
C. degrading
D. all the above.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
44. For loss of head in a canal inverted syphon barrel, the factor in the Unwin
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formula is a coefficient for loss of head due to
A. friction B. exit
C. entry D. gradient
Answer: Option C
A. If the flexibility is more than one, the outlet is hyper-proportional
If the setting of an outlet is higher than that required for

B.
proportionality, the outlet is hyper-proportional
If the setting of an outlet is lower than that required for

C.
proportionality, the outlet is sub-proportional
D. If the flexibility is zero, it is a rigid module
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
Duty of canal water is defined as the total area irrigated by the

A.
discharge averaging one unit during the base period of the duty
Duty of canal water is usually calculated at the head discharge of a

B.
channel
Duty of canal water at the head of a channel and at the outlet of a

C.
distributary, differ considerably due to progressive losses of water
Duty of canal water at the outlet of a distributary, is generally known

D.
as outlet factor or outlet discharge factor
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E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
47. Water-shed line is abondened for aligning an irrigation canal if
A. water shed forms a sharp loop
B. canal has to take off from a river
C. towns and villages are located on the water shed line
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
48. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following
A. A bank in the cross-section of a canal is provided on the right
B. A bank in the cross-section of a canal is provided on the left
C. A 'dowla' in the cross-section of a canal is provided on the left
D. None of these.
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Answer: Option B
Explanation:
49. For a given discharge in a channel, Blench curves give the relationship between
the loss of head (HL) and
A. specific energy up-stream
B. specific energy down-stream
C. critical depth of water down-stream
D. depth of water down-stream
Answer: Option B
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Irrigation
(Section – 2)
1. A deficit of sediments in flowing water may cause a river
A. meandering type
B. aggrading type
C. degrading type
D. sub-critical type.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A. The full supply level of a canal should be above ground level
According to Lacey, regime conditions require a particular slope for a

B.
given discharge and silt factor
In case the ground slope is less than the required bed slope, the silt
C.
factor must be reduced by permitting the entry of coarse silt
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
3. If Δ is the depth of water in metres, B is the number of days of base period
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and D is the duty in hactare/cumec, the relationship which holds good, is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. none of these.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
4. Meandering of a river generally occurs, in
A. rocky stage
B. delta stage
C. boulder stage
D. trough stage.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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5. The consumptive use of water for a crop
A. is measured as the volume of water per unit area
B. is measured as depth of water on irrigated area
C. may be supplied partly by precipitation and partly by irrigation
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
6. The velocity of drainage water in the barrels of a syphon-aqueduct, is normally

limited to
A. 1 to 2 m per second
B. 2 to 3 m per second
C. 3 to 4 m per second
D. 4 to 5 m per second.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
7. A fall in a canal bed is generally provided, if
A. ground slope exceeds the designed bed slope
B. designed bed slope exceeds the ground slope
C. ground slope is practically the same as the designed bed slope
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D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
8. According to Khosla, the exist gradient of surface flow
A. depends upon the b/d ratio
B. is independent of the b/d ratio
C. is independent of the depths of d/s cut off walls
D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
A. Gravity water is harmful to crops
Hygroscopic water remains attached to soil molecules by chemical

B.
bond
Capillary moisture held in the soil pores against gravity by surface

C.
tension, is utilised by plants
D. All the above.
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
10. If the irrigation efficiency is 80%, conveyance losses are 20% and the actual
depth of watering is 16 cm, the depth of water required at the canal outlet, is
A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 20 cm
D. 25 cm
E. 30 cm
Answer: Option D
11. The scour depth D of a river during flood, may be calculated from the Lacey's
equation
A.
B.
C.
D.
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
12. If V0 is the critical velocity of a channel, its silt transporting power, according to
Kennedy, is proportional to
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
13. The useful moisture of soil, is equal to its
A. field capacity
B. saturation capacity
C. moisture content at permanent wilting point
difference between filed capacity and permanent wilting point within

D.
the root zone of plants.
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Answer: Option D
Explanation:
14. Canals taken off from ice-fed perennial rivers, are known
A. permanent canals
B. ridge canals
C. perennial canals
D. inundation canals
E. ice canals.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
15. The down stream expansion head of a guide bank is extended to subtend an
angle at the centre, equal to
A. 30° B. 45°
C. 60° D. 90°
Answer: Option B
16. Trial procedure of canal design by Kennedy's theory is based upon the equation
A. Q=A.Y
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B.
C.
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
17. The main cause of silting up a channel,
A. non-regime section
B. inadequate slope
C. defective head regulator
D. defective outlets
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
18. In north Indian Plains, optimum depth of kor watering for wheat, is
A. 23.0 cm
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B. 19.0 cm
C. 17.5 cm
D. 13.5 cm
E. 12.0 cm
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
19. Bed bars in a canal are provided
A. to watch the general behaviour of canal
B. to measure the discharge
C. to raise the supply level
D. to control the silting
E. all the above.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
20. The most suitable location of a canal head work, is
A. boulders stage of the river
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B. delta stage of the river
C. rock stage of the river
D. trough stage of the river.
Answer: Option D
21. Useful soil moisture for plant growth, is
A. capillary water
B. gravity water
C. hygroscopic water
D. chemical water
E. all the above.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
22. A hydraulic structure is designed to withstand
A. seepage forces
B. hydraulic jump
C. hydraulic pressure
D. all the above.
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Answer: Option D
Explanation:
23. In gravity canals, F.S.L. is
A. always at the ground level
B. always below the ground level
C. generally 4 to 5 metres above the ground level
D. only a few cm above the ground level.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
24. If d1 is the depth of cutting, d2 is the height of the bank from bed level r2 : 1
and r1 : 1 are the slopes in filling and cutting respectively, the horizontal
distance n between the bed and bank, is
A. x = r1 d1
B. x = r2 d2
C. x = d1 / r 1
D. x = d2 / r 2
Answer: Option B
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Explanation:
25. The structure constructed to allow drainage water to flow under pressure
through an inverted syphon below a canal, is called
A. syphon
B. super passage
C. aqueduct
D. super-aqueduct
E. syphon aqueduct.
Answer: Option E
26. The optimum depth of kor watering for a rice crop, is
A. 23.0 cm
B. 19.0 cm
C. 17.5 cm
D. 13.5 cm
E. 12.0 cm
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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27. Bligh's theory of seepage assumes
A. equal weightage to the horizontal and vertical creep
B. more weightage to horizontal creep than vertical creep
C. less weightage to horizontal creep than vertical creep
D. loss of head follows the sine curve.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
28. The Lacey's regime velocity is proportional to
A. R1/2 S3/4
B. Q3/4 S1/3
C. R3/4 S1/3
D. R2/3 S1/2
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
29. A hydraulic jump is generally formed when a stream moving with
A. a hyper-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a critical velocity
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a hyper-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a hyper-critical

B.
velocity
A hyper-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a sub-critical

C.
velocity
a sub-critical velocity meets a stream moving with a hyper-critical

D.
velocity.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
30. For a unique design of a channel by Kennedy's theory
A. its breadth must only be known
B. its depth must only be known
C. its breadth and depth ratio must only be known
D. all the above.
Answer: Option C
31. In a barrage, the crest level is kept
A. low with large gates
B. high with large gates
C. high with no gates
D. low with no gates.
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Answer: Option A
Explanation:
32. For a standing crop, the consumptive use of water is equal to the depth of water
A. transpired by the crop
B. evaporated by the crop
C. transpired and evaporated by the crop
used by the crop in transpiration, evaporation and also the quantity of

D.
water evaporated from adjacent soil.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
33. The state of the soil when plants fail to extract sufficient water for their
requirements, is
A. maximum saturated point
B. permanent wilting point
C. ultimate utilisation point
D. none of these.
Answer: Option D
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Explanation:
34. The field capacity of a soil is 25%, its permanent wilting point is 15% and
specific dry unity weight is 1.5. If the depth of root zone of a crop, is 80 cm, the
storage capacity of the soil, is
A. 8 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 12 cm
D. 14 cm
E. 16 cm
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
35.
Solution of Laplacian equation in three dimensions of

water in a syphon, is done by
A. analytical method
B. Khosla's method
C. method of relaxation
D. Unwin's method.
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Answer: Option C
36. The length and width of a meander and also the width of the river, vary roughly
as
A. square root of the discharge
B. discharge
C. square of the discharge
D. cube of the discharge.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
37. Regime conditions in a channel may occur if
A. discharge is constant
channel flows uniformly in incoherent alluvium as that transported in

B.
suspension
C. silt grade and silt charge are constant
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
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38. If the optimum depth of kor watering for a crop is 15.12 cm, the outlet factor for
the crop for four week period in hectares per cumec, is
A. 1000 B. 1200
C. 1400 D. 1600
E. 2000
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
39. If H and d are the water depth and drop in the bed level at a Sarda fall, the
width Bof the trapezoidal crest, is given by
A. B = 0.22 H + d
B. B = 0.33 H + d
C. B = 0.44 H + d
D. B = 0.55 H + d
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
40. According to Bligh's creep theory, percolating water flows along
A. straight path under the foundation of the dam
B. circular path under the foundation of the dam
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C. the outline of the base of the foundation of the dam
D. none of these.
Answer: Option D
41. The width of a meander belt is the transverse distance between
A. apex point of one curve and apex point of the reserve curve
B. apex point and the crossing
C. two banks of meandering river
D. none of these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
42. The sensitivity of a rigid module, is
A. 2.00 B. 1.50
C. 1.00 D. 0.50
E. zero
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
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43. An outlet which maintains a constant discharge irrespective of fluctuation in the

water levels of the supplying channel or water course, is known as
A. non-modular outlet
B. semi-modular outlet
C. flexible modular outlet
D. right modular outlet.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
44. Canals constructed for draining off water from water logged areas, are known
A. drains
B. inundation canals
C. valley canals
D. contour canals
E. ridge canals.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
45. A minimum of 90 cm free board is provided if the discharge in the canal is
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between
A. 30 to 33 cumecs
B. 30 to 60 cumecs
C. Over 60 cumecs
D. Over 100 cumecs
Answer: Option C
46. If D is the depth of water upstream of the throat above its sill, B is the width of
the throat, to achieve critical flow in an open venturi flume, the theoretical
maximum flowQ, is
A. Q = 1.71 BD1/2
B. Q = 1.71 BD
C. Q = 1.71 BD3/2
D. Q = 1/71 BD2/3
E. none of these.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
47. If straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal with circular bottom of
radiusR, make an angle θ with horizontal, the area of its cross-section, is
A. R(θ + tan θ)
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B. R(θ + cot θ)
C. R2(θ + tan θ)
D. R2(θ + cot θ)
E. R(θ + tan θ)
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
48. Lacy's regime condition is obtained if
A. silt grade in the channel is variable
B. discharge in the channel is variable
C. silt charge in the channel is variable
channel flows in unlimited, incoherent alluvium of the same character

D.
as that transported material.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
49. In Montague type fall
A. a straight glacis is provided
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B. a circular glacis is provided
C. a parabolic glacis is provided
D. no glacis is provided.
Answer: Option C
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Irrigation
(Section – 3)
1. If the straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal with circular

bottom of radius D, make an angle θ with horizontal, the hydraulic mean
depth is
A. D B. D/2
C. D/3 D. D/4
E. D/5
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
2. If water table is comparatively high, the irrigation canal becomes

useless, due to
A. large amount of seepage
B. water logging of the cultivated areas
C. uncertain water demand
D. spread of malaria
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
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Explanation:
3. A river is said to be of
A. aggrading type if it builds up its bed to a certain slope
B. degrading type if it cuts its bed to a certain slope
C. meandering type if it flows in sinuous curve
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
4. A land is said to be water-logged if its soil pores within
A. a depth of 40 cm are saturated
B. a depth of 50 cm are saturated
C. root zone of the crops are saturated
D. all the above.
Answer: Option C
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Explanation:
5. In case of a trapezoidal notch fall
top width of the notch is kept between 3/4 th of full water

A.
depth above the sill of the notch
B. top length of the piers should not be less than their thickness
C. splay up stream from the notch section is 45°
D.
splay down stream from the notch section is
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
6. If D1 and D2 are depths of water upstream and down stream of a

hydraulic jump, the loss of head at the jump, is
A.
B.
C.
D.
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Answer: Option D
Explanation:
7. If Dc is the critical depth, D is the depth of water down stream and HL is

the total head loss at the cistern of a vertical fall, the depth x of the
cistern below the bed level down stream suggested by Blench, is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
8. The uplift pressure on the roof of an inverted syphon, is maximum when
A. drain in running dry
B. canal is running dry
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C. canal is running with F.S.L.
D. drain is running with H.F.L.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
9. In rigid module, the discharge
is independent of water levels in the distributary and water

A.
course
B. depends upon the water level in distributary
C. depends upon the water level in the water course
depends upon the water levels of both, i.e. distributary and

D.
water course
E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
10. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet and parent
channel, is known as
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A. efficiency
B. sensitivity
C. flexibility
D. modular limit.
Answer: Option C
11. Cross regulators in main canals are provided
A. to regulate water supply in the distributaries
to increase water head upstream when a main canal is running

B.
with low supplies
C. to overflow excessive flow water
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
12. The ratio of the head recovered to the head put in, is known as
A. efficiency
B. sensitivity
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C. flexibility
D. modular limit.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
13. The level of the fioor of a syphon aqueduct can be obtained
by subtracting the depth of the culvert from the canal bed

A.
level
by subtracting the thickness of culvert plus the depth of the

B.
culvert from the canal bed level
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
14. A fall which maintains its depth, is
A. a trapezoidal notch fall
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B. a low weir fall
C. a rectangular notch fall
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
15. The water face of the guide banks, is protected by
A. one men stone pitching
B. two man stone pitching
C. three man stone pitching
D. four man stone pitching
E. five man stone pitching.
Answer: Option A
16. Effective precipitation for a crop may be defined as
A. total precipitation minus the loss due to evaporation
B. total precipitation minus the loss due to infiltration
C. total precipitation during the crop period
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D. available water stored in soil within root zone of the crop.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
17. If average particle size of the silt in millimetres is m, the Lacey's silt
factor f is proportional to
A. m B. m3
C. m1/2 D. m1/3
E. m2/3
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
18. Lane's weighted creep theory assumes
A. equal weightage to horizontal and vertical creeps
double weightage to horizontal creep and one weightage to

B.
vertical creep
triple weightage to horizontal creep and one weightage to

C.
vertical creep
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triple weightage to vertical creep and one weightage to

D.
horizontal creep
double weightage to vertical creep and one weightage to

E.
horizontal creep.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
19. Disposal of extra excavated earth of canals, is utilised to provide a spoil

bank on
A. left side
B. right side
C. both sides
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
20. If A is the area of the surface, x is the depth of its C.G. from the surface
of the water and ω is the density of water, then
A. total pressure on the surface is equal to ω x
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depth of the point at which total pressure acts is equal to its

B.
moment of inertia divided by A x
depth of the centre of pressure is 2/3H vertically below the

C.
surface
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
21. V and R are the regime mean velocity and hydraulic mean depth
respectively in metres. Lacey's silt factor f is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A. Escapes are essential safety valves in a canal system
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The capacity of escapes should not be less than the capacity of

B.
the canal at its location
C. The escapes must lead the surplus water to natural drainages
The escapes are aligned to take advantage of contours of

D.
lower values
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
23. According to Kennedy, the critical velocity (V0) in metres in a channel is

the mean velocity which keeps the channel free from silting or scouring.
Its value is given by (where m is critical velocity ratio and D is the depth
of the channel).
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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24. According to Lacey, depth of scour in a river depends upon the

straightness of the reach. If D is the depth of scour in regime flow in a
right angled bend, it is
A. 1.25 D
B. 1.50 D
C. 1.75 D
D. 2.00 D
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
25. The width of a dowla is generally kept between 30 to 60 cm and its

height above the road level should invariably be more than
A. 10 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 40 cm
Answer: Option C
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26. The field capacity of a soil depends upon
A. capillary tension in soil
B. porosity of soil
C. both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
27. Finally formed berms in canals are provided for
A. protection of banks erosion by the waves
B. control of seepage losses
C. strengthening of banks
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
28. An outlet is said to be proportional if its flexibility, is
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A. zero
B. less than one
C. more than one
D. one
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
29. The ratio of the discharge over a trapezoidal crest to a rectangular crest
of Sarda falls of identical parameters, is
A. 1.084 B. 1.074
C. 1.064 D. 1.054
E. 2.053
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
30. For standing crops in undulating sandy fields, the best method of
irrigation, is
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A. sprinkler irrigation
B. free flooding
C. check method
D. furrow method
E. none of these.
Answer: Option A
31. In a syphon aqueduct
drainage passes over the canal and F.S.L. of the canal is below
A.
the bottom of the drainage trough
drainage passes over the canal and F.S.L. of the canal is

B.
above the bottom of the drainage trough
canal passes over the drainage and H.F.L. of the drainage is

C.
above the bottom of the canal trough
canal passes over the drainage and H.F.L. of the drainage is

D.
below the bottom of the canal trough.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
32. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
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A. The canal system and the drainage system are complementary
The canal system runs on ridges, gets divided into smaller

B.
channels and spreads its water on the land
The drainage system runs along the lowest line, collects

C.
drainage water from the slopes and joins the main stream
D. All the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
33. Garnett's diagrams are used for graphical solution of design equations of
a canal by
A. Lacey's theory
B. Kennedy's theory
C. Gibb's theory
D. Lindlay theory.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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34. A current meter measures the velocity of flow, if it is held
A. on the surface of water
B. at the bottom of channel
C. at any point within the cross-section
D. none of these.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
35. In a concrete canal the approximate permissible velocity of water should

not exceed
A. 0.5 m/sec
B. 1 m/sec
C. 1.5 m/sec
D. 2 m/sec
E. 2.5 m/sec
Answer: Option D
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36. Pick up the correct sequence of the part of a canal system from the
following
A. Head work-distributary-branch canal-minor
B. Head works-main canal-branch canal-dis-tributary-minor
C. Head works-main canal-branch canal-minor-distributary
D. Heads works-branch canal-main canal distributary, minor.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
37. A counter berm is
A. a horizontal benching provided on the inside slope
B. a horizontal benching provided on the outside slope
C. a vertical benching provided on the outer edge of the bank
D. a vertical benching provided on the inner edge of the bank.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
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Water table generally follows the ground surface above it with

A.
a few exceptions
Static level of water in an open well indicates the position of

B.
the water table
Saturated pores of a soil in the capillary zone above water

C.
table have negative pressure
D. At water table, hydrostatic pressure is zero
E. All the above.
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
39. For diversion of flood water of rivers, the type of canal constructed, is
A. ridge canal
B. perennial canal
C. inundation canal
D. canal.
Answer: Option C
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Explanation:
40. To control the silt entry into a distributary at head regulator, King's
vanes are provided which are the walls
A. of R.C.C. or steel plate 8 cm thick
B. of height l/3rd to l/4th the depth of water in the main canal
C.
spaced at interval of times their heights
extending about one metre beyond a line drawn at an

D.
inclination of 2 : 1 to the axis of main canal
E. all the above.
Answer: Option E
41. According to Lacey, in regime conditions
A. silt is kept in suspension by vertical components of eddies
entire cross-section of the channel is generated at all points by

B.
the forces normal to the wetted perimeter
C. both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option C
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Explanation:
42. Process of meandering is due to
A. sediment load of streams
B. discharge and hydraulic properties of streams
C. relative erodibility of the bed and banks
D. all the above.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
43. If the height of the hydraulic gradient line above the floor of
thickness t is h and the specific gravity of the material of the floor is G,
the minimum thickness t of the floor down stream of the crestwall, is
given by the equation
A.
B.
C.
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D.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
44. For cereal crops the most commonly adopted method of irrigation, is
A. free flowing method
B. check method
C. furrow method
D. sprinkling method.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
45. While deciding the alignment of a proposed canal taking off from a river
at B, three alignments of approximately equal lengths are available.
These cross a drainages atC1, C2 and C3 where drainage bed
levels C1 > C2 > C3, you will provide at site C3
A. an aqueduct
B. a syphon aqueduct
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C. a super passage
D. a syphon.
Answer: Option A
46. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet to the rate of
change in level of water surface in a distributary at its normal depth, is
known as
A. efficiency
B. sensitivity
C. flexibility
D. modular limit.
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
47. Lacey's equation for calculating flood discharge in rivers, is
A. V = 10.8 R1/2 S1/2
B. V = 10.8 R2/3 S1/2
C. V = 10.8 R2/3 S1/3
D. V = 10.8 R1/3 S2/3
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Answer: Option C
Explanation:
48. The most suitable section of a lined canal, is
A. triangular section with circular bottom for small canals
B. trapezoidal section with rounded corners for large canals
C. rectangular section with rounded corners for large canals
D. both (a) and (b)
E. both (a) and (c)
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
49. To hold hydraulic jumps, baffle walls are provided in
A. Sarda type falls
B. English type falls
C. Montague type falls
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D. Vertical type falls.
Answer: Option B
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Railway Engineering
Question No. 01
(A) Will be more in the direction of B to A

(B) Will be more in the direction of A to B
(C) Will be maximum at the middle of A and B
(D) Cannot be determined from the given data
Answer: Option B
Question No. 02
A triangle is used for
(A) Changing the direction of engine
(B) Transferring wagons to and from parallel tracks without shunting
(C) Separating all the sidings and shunting lines from main lines
(D) Preventing the vehicles from running off the track
Answer: Option A
Question No. 03
Heel divergence is
(A) Always less than flange-way clearance
(B) Equal to flange-way clearance
(C) Always greater than flange-way clearance
(D) Sometimes greater than flange-way clearance
Answer: Option C
Question No. 04
Stretcher bar is provided
(A) To permit lateral movement of the tongue rail
(B) To maintain the two tongue rails at the exact distance
(C) To ensure exact gauge at the toe of the switch as well as the nose of crossing
(D) To prevent any vertical movement between the wing rail and nose of crossing
Answer: Option B
Question No. 05
Cant deficiency occurs when a vehicle travels around a curve at
(A) Equilibrium speed
(B) Speeds higher than equilibrium speed
(C) Speeds lower than equilibrium speed
(D) Booked speed
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 06
The type of spike used for fixing chairs of bull headed rails to wooden sleepers is
(A) Dog spike
(B) Rail screw
(C) Elastic spike
(D) Round spike
Answer: Option D
Question No. 07
Flat mild steel bearing plates are used
(A) For points and crossings in the lead portion
(B) With wooden sleepers at locations where creep is likely to be developed
(C) On all joints and curves
(D) On all the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 08
Composite sleeper index is the index of
(A) Hardness and strength
(B) Strength and toughness
(C) Toughness and wear resistance
(D) Wear resistance and hardness
Answer: Option A
Question No. 09
Staggered joints are generally provided
(A) On curves
(B) On straight track
(C) When two different rail sections are required to be joined
Answer: Option A
Question No. 10
Creep is the
(A) Longitudinal movement of rail
(B) Lateral movement of rail
(C) Vertical movement of rail
(D) Difference in level of two rails
Answer: Option A
Question No. 11
Due to battering action of wheels over the end of the rails, the rails get bent down and are
deflected at ends. These rails are called
(A) Roaring rails
(B) Hogged rails
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(C) Corrugated rails

(D) Buckled rails
Answer: Option B
Question No. 12
The main function of a fish plate is
(A) To join the two rails together
(B) To join rails with the sleeper
(C) To allow rail to expand and contract freely
Answer: Option A
Question No. 13
The purpose of providing fillet in a rail section is to
(A) Increase the lateral strength
(B) Increase the vertical stiffness
(C) Avoid the stress concentration
(D) Reduce the wear
Answer: Option C
Question No. 14
Two important constituents in the composition of steel used for rail are
(A) Carbon and silicon
(B) Manganese and phosphorous
(C) Carbon and manganese
(D) Carbon and sulphur
Answer: Option C
Question No. 15
Flange-way clearance is the distance
(A) Between the adjoining faces of the running rail and the check rail near the crossing
(B) Between the gauge faces of the stock rail and the tongue rail
(C) Through which the tongue rail moves laterally at the toe of the switch
Answer: Option A
Question No. 16
Which of the following types of sleepers is preferred on joints?
(A) CST-9 sleeper
(B) Steel trough sleeper
(C) Wooden sleeper
(D) Concrete sleeper
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 17
Total effective bearing area of both the bowls of a pot sleeper, is
(A) Slightly more than that of a wooden sleeper
(B) Slightly less than that of a wooden sleeper
(C) Equal to that of a wooden sleeper
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 18
(A) Sleepers hold the rails at proper gauge on straights
(B) Sleepers provide stability to the permanent way
(C) Sleepers act as an elastic cushion between rails and ballast
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 19
On Indian Railways, number of a crossing is defined as
(A) Sine of angle of crossing
(B) Cosine of angle of crossing
(C) Tangent of angle of crossing
(D) Contingent of angle of crossing
Answer: Option D
Question No. 20
Pandrol clips cannot be used with
(A) Wooden sleepers
(B) Concrete sleepers
(C) CST-9 sleepers
(D) Steel trough sleepers
Answer: Option C
Question No. 21
For providing the required tilt of rails, adazing of wooden sleepers, is done for
(A) Bull headed rails
(B) Double headed rails
(C) Flat footed rails
(D) Any type of rails
Answer: Option C
Question No. 22
If n is length of a rail in metres, the number of sleepers per rail length generally varies from
(A) n to (n + 2)
(B) (n + 2) to (n + 4)
(C) (n + 3) to (n + 6)
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(D) (n + 4) to (n + 5)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 23
Normally maximum cant permissible in Meter Gauge is
(A) 75 mm
(B) 90 mm
(C) 140 mm
(D) 165 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 24
Type of switch rails generally adopted for modern track, is
(A) Straight switch
(B) Curved switch
(C) Loose heel switch
(D) Bent switch
Answer: Option B
Question No. 25
(A) An extra width of 7.5 cm ballast is provided on outside a curve if track is laid with short
welded rails
(B) An extra width of 7.5 cm ballast is provided on outside a curve sharper than 3° on B.G. and
M.G. tracks
(C) An extra width of 15 cm ballast is provided on each shoulder if the track is laid with welded
rails
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 26
Lead of crossing is the distance from the
(A) Heel of the switch to the toe of the switch
(B) Heel of the switch to the theoretical nose of the crossing
(C) Toe of the switch to the theoretical nose of crossing
(D) Toe of the switch to the actual nose of crossing
Answer: Option B
Question No. 27
The place where a railway line and a road cross each other at the same level, is known as
(A) Cross over
(B) Railway junction
(C) Road junction
(D) Level crossing
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 28
If the stock rails are B.H. rails, the type of switch generally provided, is
(A) Articulated
(B) Undercut
(C) Over riding
(D) Straight cut
Answer: Option D
Question No. 29
The object of providing a point lock is
(A) To ensure that each switch is correctly set
(B) To ensure that the point may not be operated while the train is on it
(C) To detect any obstruction between and tongue rail
Answer: Option A
Question No. 30
Minimum composite sleeper index for wooden sleepers used in cross-overs, is
(A) 1152
(B) 1252
(C) 1352
(D) 1452
Answer: Option C
Question No. 31
The rails get out of their original positions due to insufficient expansion gap. This phenomenon is
known
(A) Hogging
(B) Buckling
(C) Creeping
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 32
When semaphore and warner are installed on the same post, then the stop indication is given
when
(A) Both arms are horizontal
(B) Semaphore arm lowered but warner arm horizontal
(C) Both semaphore and warner arms lowered
Answer: Option A
Question No. 33
The standard dimensions of a wooden sleeper for M.G. railway track are
(A) 2.74 m × 25 cm × 13 cm
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(B) 1.83 m × 20 cm × 11 cm
(C) 1.52 m × 15 cm × 10 cm
(D) 1.75 m × 20 cm × 12 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 34
To avoid the damage of nose of crossing, the wing rails are ramped so that nose of crossing
remains at a lower level by
(A) 3 mm
(B) 4 mm
(C) 5 mm
(D) 6 mm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 35
Wear of rails is maximum in weight of
(A) Tangent track
(B) Sharp curve
(C) Tunnels
(D) Coastal area
Answer: Option B
Question No. 36
Degree of a railway curve is defined as number of degrees subtended at the centre of a curve by
an arc of
(A) 10 m
(B) 15 m
(C) 20 m
(D) 30.5 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 37
For even distribution of load through ballast, load dispersal is assumed as
(A) 30° to the vertical
(B) 45° to the vertical
(C) 60° to the vertical
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 38
For a sleeper density of (n + 5), the number of sleepers required for constructing a broad gauge
railway track of length 650 m is
(A) 975
(B) 918
(C) 900
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(D) 880
Answer: Option C
Question No. 39
Mr. W. Simms, the consulting Engineer to the Government of India recommended the gauge for
Indian railways
(A) 1.435 m as adopted in England
(B) 1.800 m as per Indian conditions
(C) 1.676 m as a compromise gauge
(D) 1.000 m as a standard gauge
Answer: Option C
Question No. 40
The distance between theoretical nose of crossing and actual nose of crossing for practical
purposes, is
(A) Nose thickness ×
(B) Nose thickness ×
(C) Nose thickness ×
(D) Nose thickness ×
Answer: Option B
Question No. 41
The rail is designated by its
(A) Length
(B) Weight
(C) Cross-section
(D) Weight per unit length
Answer: Option D
Question No. 42
Best ballast contains stones varying in size from
(A) 1.5 cm to 3 cm
(B) 2.0 cm to 4 cm
(C) 2.0 cm to 5 cm
(D) 2.5 cm to 6 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 43
A turn-in-curve is defined as
(A) A curve introduced between two straights
(B) A reverse curve
(C) A reverse curve introduced in continuity of a turn out
(D) A spiral transition curve
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 44
Ordinary rails are made of
(A) Mild steel
(B) Cast iron
(C) Wrought iron
(D) High carbon steel
Answer: Option D
Question No. 45
In India the rails are manufactured by
(A) Open hearth process
(B) Duplex process
Answer: Option C
Question No. 46
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. Required tilt of 1 in 20 is provided
(A) To the tops of rails
(B) At rail seats in bearing plates
(C) At rail seats in chairs
(D) At rail seats in metal sleepers
Answer: Option A
Question No. 47
The formation width for a railway track depends on the
(i) Type of gauge
(ii) Number of tracks to be laid side by side
(iii) Slope of sides of embankment or cutting
(A) Only (i)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 48
If a 0.7% upgrade meets a 0.65% downgrade at a summit and the permissible rate of change of
grade per chain length is 0.10%, the length of the vertical curve, is
(A) 10 chains
(B) 12 chains
(C) 14 chains
(D) 16 chains
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 49
Main disadvantage of steel sleepers, is:
(A) It gets rusted quickly
(B) Its lugs sometimes get broken
(C) Its lugs sometimes get split
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 50
For a Broad Gauge route with (M + 7) sleeper density, number of sleepers per rail length is
(A) 18
(B) 19
(C) 20
(D) 21
Answer: Option C
Question No. 51
Bearing plates are used to fix
(A) Flat footed rails to the wooden sleepers
(B) Double headed rails to the wooden sleepers
(C) Bull headed rails to the wooden sleepers
(D) Flat footed rails to the cast iron sleepers
Answer: Option A
Question No. 52
On a single line track, 10 goods trains loaded with iron ore run from A to B and empty wagons
return from B to A daily. Amount of creep of the rails will be
(A) Zero
(B) More in the direction A to B
(C) More in the direction B to A
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 53
The desirable rate of change of cant deficiency in case of Metre Gauge is
(A) 20 mm/sec
(B) 35 mm/sec
(C) 55 mm/sec
(D) 65 mm/sec
Answer: Option B
Question No. 54
At a rail joint, the ends of adjoining rails, are connected with a pair of fish plates and
(A) 2 fish bolts
(B) 4 fish bolts
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(C) 6 fish bolts

(D) 8 fish bolts
Answer: Option B
Question No. 55
If the standard length of a B.G. crossing is 597 cm, the number of crossing, is
(A) 1 in 8½
(B) 1 in 12
(C) 1 in 16
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 56
Switch angle is the angle between
(A) The gauge face of the stock rail and tongue rail
(B) The outer face of the stock rail and tongue rail
(C) The gauge face of the stock rail and outer face of the tongue rail
(D) The outer face of the stock rail and the gauge face of the tongue rail
Answer: Option A
Question No. 57
(A) Sleepers transfer the load of moving locomotive to the girders of the bridges
(B) Sleepers act as a non-elastic medium between the rails and ballast
(C) Sleepers hold the rails at 1 in 20 tilt inward
(D) Sleepers hold the rails loose on curve
Answer: Option B
Question No. 58
On Broad Gauge main lines with maximum traffic loads, the rail section preferred to, is
(A) 29.8 to 37.3 kg/m
(B) 32.5 to 42.5 kg/cm
(C) 44.7 to 56.8 kg/m
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 59
The treadle bar is provided
(A) In the middle of the track a little in front of the toes of the tongue rail
(B) Near and parallel to inner side of one of the rails
(C) At right angle to the rail
(D) Near and parallel to inner side of both the rails
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 60
Heel of crossing is the line joining
(A) Ends of splice rail and point rail
(B) Ends of lead rails butting the crossing
(C) Ends of wing rails
(D) Throat and actual nose of crossing
Answer: Option A
Question No. 61
The main advantage of a cement concrete sleeper, is:
(A) Its heavy weight which improves the track modulus
(B) Its capacity to maintain gauge
(C) Its suitability for track circuiting
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 62
For laying the railway track, materials required are
(A) Rails
(B) Fish-Plates
(C) Fish Bolts
(D) Bearing Plates
The quantities required for one kilometer of Broad Gauge track will be
Answer: Option B
Question No. 63
Stock rails are
(A) Parts of crossing
(B) Fitted against check rails
(C) Fitted against tongue rails
(D) Laid between heel of switch and nose of crossing
Answer: Option C
Question No. 64
Continuity of electric current across welded rail joints, is maintained by
(A) Welding ends of a wire to each rail
(B) Placing an insulated plate underneath the rails
(C) Placing insulation in expansion gaps
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 65
Consider the following statements about concrete sleepers.
1. They improve the track modulus.
2. They have good scrap value.
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3. They render transportation easy.

4. They maintain the gauge quite satisfactorily. Of these statements
Answer: Option D
Question No. 66
The arrangement of rails which permit trains to cross another track and also to divert to the other
track, is called
(A) Diamond crossing
(B) Diamond crossing with single slip
(C) Diamond crossing with double slip
(D) Cross over
Answer: Option C
Question No. 67
On either side of the centre line of rails, a cant of 1 in 20 in the sleeper is provided for a distance of
(A) 150 mm
(B) 165 mm
(C) 175 mm
(D) 185 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 68
In a B.G. railway track, the specified ruling gradient is 1 in 250. The horizontal curve of 3° on a
gradient of 1 in 250 will have the permissible gradient of
(A) 1 in 257
(B) 1 in 357
(C) 1 in 457
(D) 1 in 512
Answer: Option B
Question No. 69
A CST-9 sleeper consists of
(A) Two inverted triangular pots on either side of rail seat
(B) A central plate with a projected key and box on the top of plate
(C) A tie bar and 4 cotters to connect two cast iron plates
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 70
Staggered rail joints are generally provided
(A) On curves
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(B) On tangents
(C) On bridges
(D) In tunnels
Answer: Option A
Question No. 71
The following tests are conducted for rails:
(i) Falling weight test
(ii) Tensile test
(iii) Hammer test
The compulsory tests are
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iii)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 72
(A) Fish plates fit the underside of the rail head
(B) Fish plates fit the top of the rail foot
(C) Fish plates fit the web of the rail section
(D) Cross sectional area of fish plates, is normally the same as that of the rail section
Answer: Option C
Question No. 73
(A) Length of tongue rail should be greater than rigid wheel base of vehicle
(B) Stock rail should be longer than tongue rail
(C) Length of stock rail ahead of the toe should be a minimum of 1.65 m
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 74
Fish plate is in contact with rail at
(A) Web of rail
(B) Fishing plane
(C) Head of rail
(D) Foot of rail
Answer: Option B
Question No. 75
In railways a triangle is mainly provided for
(A) Diverting trains from the main line to branch line
(B) Crossing over between parallel tracks
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(C) Changing direction of engines through 180°

(D) Shunting wagons in yards
Answer: Option C
Question No. 76
Minimum gradient in station yards is generally limited to
(A) 1 in 1000
(B) 1 in 750
(C) 1 in 500
(D) Zero
Answer: Option D
Question No. 77
The formation width for a single line meter gauge track in embankment as adopted on Indian
Railways is
(A) 4.27 m
(B) 4.88 m
(C) 5.49 m
(D) 6.10 m
Answer: Option B
Question No. 78
If L1 and L2 are actual and theoretical lengths of a tongue rail, d is heel divergence and t is thickness
(A) sin 1 (d - t/
(B) tan 1 (d - t/
(C) sin 1 (d - t/
(D) tan 1 (d - t/
Answer: Option A
Question No. 79
If a is average number of peaks more than 10 mm of unevenness per kilometre, b is average
number peaks more than 6 mm for gauge variation per kilometre and c is average number of
peaks more than 2 mm twist per metre, then composite current recording index (I c), as
recommended by Indian Northern Railways, is
(A) Ic = 10 - a - b - c/4
(B) Ic = 20 - a - b - c/4
(C) Ic = 30 - a - b - c/4
(D) Ic = 40 - a - b - c/4
Answer: Option D
Question No. 80
Minimum depth of ballast cushion for a Broad Gauge wooden sleeper of size 275 × 25 × 13 cm with
75 cm sleeper spacing is
(A) 15 cm
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(B) 20 cm
(C) 25 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 81
On a straight railway track, absolute levels at point A on two rails are 100.550 m and 100.530 m
and the absolute levels at point B 100 m apart are 100.585 m and 100.515 m respectively, the
value of twist of rails per metre run, is
(A) 0.4 mm
(B) 0.5 mm
(C) 0.7 mm
(D) 0.8 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 82
If D gle of crossing, the distance
between the noses of crossing measured parallel to the main track, is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 83
The sleepers resting directly on girder are fastened to the top flange of girder by
(A) Hook bolts
(B) Dog spikes
(C) Fang bolts
(D) Rail screws
Answer: Option A
Question No. 84
The sleepers which satisfy the requirements of an ideal sleeper, are
(A) Cast iron sleepers
(B) R.C.C. sleepers
(C) Steel sleepers
(D) Wooden sleepers
Answer: Option D
Question No. 85
The side of a rail diamond may be obtained by dividing the gauge of track by
(A) Sine of acute crossing
(B) Cosine of acute crossing
(C) Tangent of acute crossing
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(D) Cotangent of acute crossing

Answer: Option A
Question No. 86
The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge and Meter Gauge are respectively
(A) 12 m and 12 m
(B) 12 m and 13 m
(C) 13 m and 12 m
(D) 13 m and 13 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 87
Coning of wheels is provided
(A) To check lateral movement of wheels
(B) To avoid damage to inner faces of rails
(C) To avoid discomfort to passengers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 88
On Indian Railways, angle of crossing between gauge faces of Vee, is generally calculated by
(A) Cole's method
(B) Centre line method
(C) Isosceles triangle method
Answer: Option A
Question No. 89
Which of the following factors govern the choice of the gauge?
(i) Volume and nature of traffic
(ii) Speed of train
(iii) Physical features of the country
(A) Only (i)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 90
Ballast packed below and around the sleepers to transfer the load from sleepers to formation,
generally consists of
(A) Broken stones
(B) Gravels
(C) Moorum
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 91
On Indian Railways, the approximate weight of a rail section is determined from the formula
(A) Weight of the rail/axial load of locomotive = 1/10
(B) Weight of the rail/axial load of locomotive = 1/410
(C) Weight of the rail/axial load of locomotive = 1/510
(D) Weight of the rail/axial load of locomotive = 1/610
Answer: Option C
Question No. 92
The maximum degree of curvature for Meter Gauge is limited to
(A) 10°
(B) 16°
(C) 30°
(D) 40°
Answer: Option B
Question No. 93
The grade compensation on B.G. tracks on Indian Railways, is
(A) 0.02 %
(B) 0.03 %
(C) 0.04 %
(D) 0.05 %
Answer: Option C
Question No. 94
The factor for deciding the type of sleeper, is
(A) Easy fixing and removal of rails
(B) Provision of sufficient bearing area for rails
(C) Initial and maintenance costs
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 95
Number of keys used in CST-9 sleeper is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 96
Wheels of a rolling stock are provided flanges on
(A) Outer side
(B) Inner side
(C) Both sides
(D) Neither side
Answer: Option B
Question No. 97
For inspection and packing of ballast, each pot sleeper is provided with
(A) One hole
(B) Two holes
(C) Three holes
(D) Four holes
Answer: Option B
Question No. 98
The compensation for curvature on gradient for Meter Gauge is given by
(A) 70/R
(B) 52.5/R
(C) 35/R
(D) 105/R
R
Answer: Option B
Question No. 99
To design a cross-over between parallel tracks, the required components are:
(A) Two switch points, two acute angle crossings and two check rails
(B) Two switch points, two acute angle crossings and four check rails
(C) Two switch points, two acute angle crossings and six check rails
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 100

The standard width of ballast for M.G. track in Indian Railways, is kept
(A) 3.35 m
(B) 3.53 m
(C) 2.30 m
(D) 2.50 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 101

The correct relation between curve lead (CL), switch lead (SL) and lead of crossing (L) is given by
(A) CL = L - SL
(B) L =CL - SL
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(C) SL = L + CL
(D) L = (CL + SL)/2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 102

Pot sleepers are in the form of
(A) A number of bowls connected together with a tie bar
(B) Two bowls placed under each rail and connected together with a tie bar
(C) Two bowls placed under two rails and the one between the rails
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 103

Bending of rail ends due to loose packing under a joint and loose fish Bolts, is known
(A) Buckling
(B) Hogging
(C) Creeping
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 104

In a shunting signal if the red band is inclined at 45° it indicates
(A) Stop
(B) Proceed
(C) Proceed cautiously
Answer: Option B
Question No. 105

If D is distance between centres of two parallel track of gauge G, then, total length of cross-over
(from the point of commencement to the point of termination) with an intermediate straight
portion and N crossing, is given by
(A) DN + G [N + N2)]
(B) DN + G [2N + N2)]
(C) DN + G [3N + N2)]
(D) DN + G [4N + N2)]
Answer: Option C
Question No. 106

Rail tops of a track are placed
(A) Horizontal
(B) At an inward slope of 1 in 20
(C) At an outward slope of 1 in 20
(D) At an outward slope of 1 in 30
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 107

A train is hauled by 2-8-2 locomotive with 22.5 tonnes and on each driving axle. Assuming the
coefficient of rail-wheel friction to be 0.25, what would be the hauling capacity of the locomotive?
(A) 15.0 tonnes
(B) 22.5 tonnes
(C) 45.0 tonnes
(D) 90.0 tonnes
Answer: Option B
Question No. 108

The type of switch generally used for B.G. and M.G. tracks, is
(A) Articulated
(B) Undercut
(C) Over riding
(D) Straight cut
Answer: Option C
Question No. 109

For an effective administration, Indian railway system has been divided into
(A) Four railway zones
(B) Six railway zones
(C) Seven railway zones
(D) Nine railway zones
Answer: Option D
Question No. 110

If 'A' is the angle formed by two gauge faces, the crossing number will be
(A) tan A
(B) cot A
(C) sec A
(D) A rad
Answer: Option B
Question No. 111

Heel divergency, the distance between the running faces of stock rail and gauge face of tongue
rail, as recommended for Indian B.G. tracks, is
(A) 100 mm
(B) 119 mm
(C) 125 mm
(D) 135 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 112

(A) Ends of adjoining rails should be in true alignment
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(B) Rail joints should be as strong as the rail section itself

(C) Rail joints should be elastic laterally as well as vertically
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 113

Tensile strength of steel used in rails should not be less than
(A) 450 MPa
(B) 500 MPa
(C) 700 MPa
(D) 850 MPa
Answer: Option C
Question No. 114

On Indian Railways standard length of rails for B.G. track, is
(A) 33 ft (10.06 m)
(B) 36 ft (10.97 m)
(C) 39 ft (11.89 m)
(D) 42 ft (12.8 m)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 115

Wing rails are provided
(A) Near tongue rails
(B) Near check rails
(C) Near stock rails
(D) In crossing
Answer: Option D
Question No. 116

The side slope of embankments for a railway track is generally taken as
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 1.5 : 1
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 117

If S and H are strength and hardness index of a timber at 12% moisture content, the composite
sleeper index, is
(A) (H + 10S)/20
(B) (S + 10H)/20
(C) (20S + H)/10
(D) (S + 20H)/10
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 118

If D is the distance between parallel tracks G
between theoretical noses of two crossings measured parallel to tracks, is
(A) (D - G - G )
(B) (D - G + G )
(C) (D - G - G )
(D) (D + G + G )
Answer: Option A
Question No. 119

Minimum composite sleeper index prescribed on Indian Railways for a track sleeper is
(A) 552
(B) 783
(C) 1352
(D) 1455
Answer: Option B
Question No. 120

To achieve best performance, the type of switch preferred to, is
(A) Undercut switch
(B) Straight-cut switch
(C) Overriding switch
Answer: Option C
Question No. 121

On B.G. tracks the distance of outer signal from station limit is kept
(A) 510 m
(B) 520 m
(C) 530 m
(D) 540 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 122

The limiting value of cant deficiency for Meter Gauge routes is
(A) 40 mm
(B) 50 mm
(C) 75 mm
(D) 100 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 123

The weight of the rails depends upon
(A) Gauge of the tracks
(B) Speed of trains
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(C) Spacing of sleepers

(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 124

The main advantage of a long rail over short one, is
(A) It requires less number of rail fastenings
(B) It provides smooth running of trains
(C) It involves less maintenance cost
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 125

In a scissors crossover, the crossings provided are
(i) 2 obtuse angle crossings
(ii) 4 obtuse angle crossings
(iii) 4 acute angle crossings
(iv) 6 acute angle crossings
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 126

Rail section first designed on Indian railways, was
(A) Double headed
(B) Bull headed
(C) Flat footed
(D) (a) and (b) simultaneously
Answer: Option A
Question No. 127

The lengths of the standard crossings in India for Broad gauge and Metre gauge tracks is same for
(A) 1 in 8½ B.G. and, in 12 M.G.
(B) 1 in 12 B.G. and, 1 in 16 M.G.
(C) 1 in 12 B.G. and 1 in 8½ M.G.
(D) 1 in 16 B.G. and 1 in 12 M.G.
Answer: Option A
Question No. 128

For the purpose of track maintenance, the number of turn out equivalent to one track km is
(A) 1
(B) 2
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(C) 5
(D) 10
Answer: Option D
Question No. 129

Dimensions of a plate girder are:
(A) 851 mm × 851 mm
(B) 255 mm × 254 mm
(C) 851 mm × 254 mm
(D) 551 mm × 254 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 130

The check rails are placed opposite the crossing so that
(A) It is symmetrically placed opposite nose of crossing
(B) Its one-third length is ahead of the nose of crossing
(C) Its two-third length is ahead of the nose of crossing
(D) Its three fourth length is ahead of the nose of crossing
Answer: Option C
Question No. 131

Consider the following surveys.
1. Reconnaissance survey
2. Preliminary survey
3. Traffic survey
4. Location survey
The correct sequence in which these surveys are conducted before the alignment of a track is
finalised is
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 1, 3, 4, 2
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2
(D) 3, 1, 2, 4
Answer: Option D
Question No. 132

The difference in the lengths of two diagonals of a rail diamond is
(A)
(B) -
(C) -
(D) (2G/si -
Answer: Option A
Question No. 133

Check rails are provided on inner side of inner rails if sharpness of a B.G. curve, is more than
(A) 3°
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(B) 5°
(C) 6°
(D) 8°
Answer: Option D
Question No. 134

Largest percentage of material in the rail is in its
(A) Head
(B) Web
(C) Foot
(D) Head and foot both
Answer: Option A
Question No. 135

The spread between the point and splice rails at a distance of 4.25 m is 50 cm. The size of the
crossing is
(A) 1 in 6
(B) 1 in 8½
(C) 1 in 12
(D) 1 in 16
Answer: Option B
Question No. 136

Packing of ballast is done
(A) Near the ends of sleepers
(B) On the shoulders
(C) Under sleepers
(D) Between two rails
Answer: Option C
Question No. 137

The total gap on both sides between the inside edges of wheel flanges and gauge faces of the rail
is kept as
(A) 10 mm
(B) 13 mm
(C) 16 mm
(D) 19 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 138

The rail section which is not used on Indian Broad Gauge tracks, is
(A) 35 R
(B) 40 R
(C) 45 R
(D) 55 R
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Answer: Option B
Question No. 139

In a diamond crossing, numbers of noses are
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
Answer: Option D
Question No. 140

Number of cotters used in CST-9 sleepers is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: Option C
Question No. 141

In Indian railways, plate laying is usually done by
(A) Side method
(B) Telescopic method
(C) American method
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 142

(A) The line which connects a number of parallel tracks, and also provides an access to main
track, is called a gathering line
(B) With a diagonal gathering line, the length of the siding decreases with increase of its
distance from main track
(C) To have sidings of same length, a diagonal line is laid at one end and a parallel gathering line
at the other end
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 143

A Broad Gauge branch line takes off as a contrary flexure from a main line. If the super-elevation
required for branch line is 10 mm and cant deficiency is 75 mm, the super-elevation to be actually
provided on the branch line will be
(A) 10 mm
(B) 64 mm
(C) 85 mm
(D) 65 mm
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 144

The angle between the gauge faces of the stock rail and tongue rail, is called
(A) Switch angle
(B) Angle of crossing
(C) Angle of turnout
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 145

In permanent way, ballast
(A) Transfers load from sleepers to the formation
(B) Provides an elastic bed to the track
(C) Provides a drainage of track
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 146

Which of the following devices is used to transfer the wagons or locomotives to and from parallel
tracks without any necessity of shunting?
(A) Triangle
(B) Turntable
(C) Traverser
(D) Scotch block
Answer: Option C
Question No. 147

If absolute levels of rails at the consecutive axles A, B, and C separated by 1.8 metres are 100.505
m, 100.530 m, and 100.525 m respectively, the unevenness of rails, is
(A) 0.065 m
(B) 0.055 m
(C) 0.045 m
(D) 0.035 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 148

Spacing of sleepers
(A) Throughout the length of a rail is kept uniform
(B) Near rail joints, is kept closer
(C) At the middle of rails, is kept closer
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 149

For a 8° curve track diverging from a main curve of 5° in an opposite direction in the layout of a
broad gauge yard, the cant to be provided for the branch track for maximum speed of 45 km/h on
the main line and 'G' = 1.676 m is (Permitted cant deficiency for the main line = 7.6 cm)
(A) 0.168 cm
(B) -0.168 cm
(C) 7.432 cm
(D) 7.768 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 150

Distance between the inner rail and check rail provided on sharp curve, is
(A) 40 mm
(B) 42 mm
(C) 44 mm
(D) 46 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 151

30 m long rails are used in
(A) India
(B) U.K.
(C) Russia
(D) U.S.A.
Answer: Option D
Question No. 152

The load on each axle of a locomotive is 22 tonnes. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2, then the
hauling capacity due to 3 pairs of driving wheels will be
(A) 26.41
(B) 19.81
(C) 13.21
(D) 6.61
Answer: Option C
Question No. 153

Overall depth of a dog spike, is
(A) 120.6 mm
(B) 155.90 mm
(C) 135 mm
(D) 150 mm
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 154

To prevent creep in rails, the steel sleepers are fixed with rails by clips, bolts and
(A) One key
(B) Two keys
(C) Three keys
(D) Four keys
Answer: Option D
Question No. 155

52 kg rails are mostly used in
(A) Broad Gauge
(B) Metre Gauge
(C) Narrow Gauge
Answer: Option A
Question No. 156

Safe speed (V) on a curve of radius 970 metres provided with two transition curves on Board
Gauge track, is
(A) 112 km/hour
(B) 122 km/hour
(C) 132 km/hour
(D) 142 km/hour
Answer: Option C
Question No. 157

Widening of gauge is provided if degree of the curve, is
(A) 3° or less
(B) 3° to 4½°
(C) More than 4½°
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 158

The height of the rail for 52 kg rail section is
(A) 143 mm
(B) 156 mm
(C) 172 mm
(D) 129 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 159

The life of a wooden sleeper depends upon
(A) Quality of its timber
(B) Ability to resist decay
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(C) Resistance to weathering

(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 160

Anti-creep anchors are fixed to rails by
(A) Wedging
(B) Spring grip
(C) Clamping
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 161

Sleeper density in India is normally kept as
(A) (M + 2) to (M + 7)
(B) M to (M + 2)
(C) (M + 5) to (M + 10)
(D) M
M
Answer: Option A
Question No. 162

Composite sleeper index determines
(A) Number of sleepers per rail length
(B) Suitability of wooden sleepers
(C) Permissible stresses in steel sleepers
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 163

If G is gauge distance and a is crossing, the distance between the nose of acute crossing and nose
of obtuse crossing of a rail diamond, measured along the rail not forming the diamond, is
(A) G
(B) G
(C) G
(D) G
Answer: Option A
Question No. 164

Loose jaws of steel trough sleepers are made of
(A) Cast steel
(B) Mild steel
(C) Cast iron
(D) Spring steel
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 165

Regional Indian railways use different types of sleepers according to their
(A) Availability
(B) Economy
(C) Suitability
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 166

In Indian railways, the ratio of axle load and weight of rail, is
(A) 312
(B) 412
(C) 512
(D) 600
Answer: Option C
Question No. 167

Maximum value of 'throw of switch' for Broad Gauge track is
(A) 89 mm
(B) 95 mm
(C) 100 mm
(D) 115 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 168

Top surface of steel sleepers, is
(A) Kept level throughout
(B) Provided a cant of 1 in 20 inward
(C) Provided a cant of 1 in 20 outward
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 169

If D
distance between the noses of crossing measured parallel to the main track, is
(A) D
(B) D
(C) D
(D) D
Answer: Option B
Question No. 170

Metal sleepers are superior to wooden sleepers with respect to
(A) Cost
(B) Life
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(C) Track circuiting

(D) Fastening
Answer: Option B
Question No. 171

Charles Blacker Vignoles invented the flat footed rails in
(A) 1814
(B) 1836
(C) 1846
(D) 1856
Answer: Option B
Question No. 172

A triangle of railway consists of
(A) Three turn outs
(B) One turn out and two diamonds
(C) Two turn outs and one split
(D) One turn out, one split and one diamond
Answer: Option C
Question No. 173

A treadle bar is used for
(A) Interlocking points and signal
(B) Setting points and crossings
(C) Setting marshalling yard signals
(D) Track maintenance
Answer: Option A
Question No. 174

If L is length of a rail and R is the radius of a curve, the versine h for the curve, is
(A) a = L/4R
(B) a = L²/4R
(C) h = L²/8R
(D) h = L²/16R
Answer: Option C
Question No. 175

For metal sleepers with rounded edges, maximum size of ballast, is
(A) 50 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 30 mm
(D) 25 cm
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 176

Head width of 52 kg rail section is
(A) 61.9 mm
(B) 66.7 mm
(C) 67 mm
(D) 72.33 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 177

Rail joint supported on a single sleeper, is known
(A) Suspended rail joint
(B) Bridge rail joint
(C) Supported rail joint
(D) Square rail joint
Answer: Option C
Question No. 178

Each block of a two-block concrete sleeper is
(A) 722 mm × 295 mm × 271 mm and 215 kg in weight
(B) 250 mm × 154 mm × 196 mm and 260 kg in weight
(C) 525 mm × 350 mm × 275 mm and 280 kg in weight
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 179

The formation width for a double line Broad Gauge track in cutting (excluding drains) as adopted
on Indian Railways is
(A) 6.10 m
(B) 8.84 m
(C) 10.21 m
(D) 10.82 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 180

Arrangement made to divert the trains from one track to another, is known as
(A) Railway point
(B) Railway crossing
(C) Turnout
(D) Railway junction
Answer: Option C
Question No. 181

The standard dimensions of a wooden sleeper for a B.G. railway track are
(A) 2.74 m × 25 cm × 13 cm
(B) 1.83 m × 20 cm × 11 cm
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(C) 1.52 m × 15 cm × 10 cm
(D) 1.75 cm × 20 cm × 12 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 182

The limiting value of cant excess for Broad Gauge is
(A) 55 mm
(B) 65 mm
(C) 75 mm
(D) 100 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 183

Indian Railways detects the rail flow by
(A) Mitsubishi Rail flow dector
(B) Soni Rail flow dector
(C) Audi-gauge Rail flow detector
(D) Kraut Kramer Rail flow detector
Answer: Option D
Question No. 184

The gradient on which an additional engine is required to negotiate the gradient, is called
(A) Momentum gradient
(B) Pusher gradient
(C) Ruling gradient
(D) Steep gradient
Answer: Option B
Question No. 185

One degree of curve is equivalent to
(A) 1600/R
(B) 1700/R
(C) 1750/R
(D) 1850/R
R
Answer: Option C
Question No. 186

If D
between the noses of crossing measured parallel to the gathering line, is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 187

If D is distance between centres of two parallel tracks of gauge G with entire curved leads and
equal angles of crossing, total length of crossover, is
(A) D (4R - 2G - D)]
(B) D (3R - 2G -D)]
(C) D (3R + 2G - D)]
(D) D (4 + 2G - D)]
Answer: Option A
Question No. 188

Which of the following mechanical devices is used to ensure that route cannot be changed while
the train is on the point even after putting back the signal?
(A) Detectors
(B) Point lock
(C) Iock bar
(D) Stretcher bar
Answer: Option C
Question No. 189

Pot sleepers are used if degree of the curve does not exceed
(A) 4°
(B) 5°
(C) 6°
(D) 7°
Answer: Option A
Question No. 190

Burnettising is done for the preservation of
(A) Wooden sleepers
(B) Rails
(C) Ballast
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 191

Automatic signalling system results in
1. Greater risk
2. Higher efficiency
3. Avoidance of block instruments
4. Higher operating cost
Of these statements
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 192

A kink is made in stock rails, ahead of the toe of switch at a distance of
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 193

Rails are fixed on steel sleepers
(A) By bearing plates
(B) By dog spikes
(C) By keys in lugs or jaws
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 194

Largest dimension of a rail is its
(A) Height
(B) Foot width
(C) Head width
Answer: Option A
Question No. 195

The rail section which is not used on Indian metre gauge tracks, is
(A) 25 R
(B) 30 R
(C) 35 R
(D) 40 R
Answer: Option D
Question No. 196

Advantage of automatic signalling, is:
(A) Increased safety
(B) Reduction in delays
(C) Increase in track capacity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 197

For developing thinly populated areas, the correct choice of gauge is
(A) Broad Gauge
(B) Meter Gauge
(C) Narrow Gauge
Answer: Option C
Question No. 198

Coning of wheels
(A) Prevent lateral movement of wheels
(B) Provide smooth running of trains
(C) Avoid excessive wear of inner faces of rail
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 199

An extra 7.5 cm ballast width is not provided on outer side on a curve, if its degree is
(A) 6°
(B) 5°
(C) 4°
(D) 3°
Answer: Option D
Question No. 200

Standard size of wooden sleeper for Broad Gauge track is
(A) 275 × 25 × 13 cm
(B) 180 × 20 × 11.5 cm
(C) 225 × 23 × 13 cm
(D) 250 × 26 × 12 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 201

By interchanging gibs and cotters of a pot sleeper, gauge may be slackened by
(A) 1.2 mm
(B) 2.2 mm
(C) 3.2 mm
(D) 4.2 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 202

The main function of sleepers, is
(A) To support rails
(B) To hold rails at correct gauge
(C) To distribute load from the rails to ballast
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 203

The limiting value of cant gradient for all gauges is
(A) 1 in 360
(B) 1 in 720
(C) 1 in 1000
(D) 1 in 1200
Answer: Option B
Question No. 204

The spike commonly used to fix rails to wooden sleepers in Indian railways, is
(A) Dog spike
(B) Screw spike
(C) Round spike
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 205

Track construction involves preparation of
(A) Sub-grade
(B) Plate laying
(C) Ballasting
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 206

Study the following statements regarding creep.
(i) Creep is greater on curves than on tangent railway track,
(ii) Creep in new rails is more than that in old rails,
(iii) Creep is more on steep gradients than on level track. The correct answer is
(A) Only (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 207

According to Indian Railway Board, no diamond crossing should be flatter than
(A) 1 in 6
(B) 1 in 8½
(C) 1 in 12
(D) 1 in 16
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 208

Smith diamond is provided if the angle of diamond is less than
(A) 2°
(B) 4°
(C) 6°
(D) 8°
Answer: Option C
Question No. 209

60 R rails are mostly used in
(A) Broad Gauge
(B) Metre Gauge
(C) Narrow Gauge
Answer: Option B
Question No. 210

A welded rail joint is generally
(A) Supported on a sleeper
(B) Supported on a metal plate
(C) Suspended
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 211

If the standard length of a crossing is 480 cm, the number of crossing is
(A) 1 in 8½ of B.G.
(B) 1 in 8½ of M.G.
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 212

Width of ballast section for Broad Gauge is
(A) 1.83 m
(B) 2.25 m
(C) 3.35 m
(D) 4.30 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 213

Minimum length of a transition curve required for
(A) 2° curves for a maximum permissible speed of 135 km/hr, is 220 metres
(B) 4° curves for a maximum permissible speed of 95 km/hr, is 220 metres
(C) 6° curves for a maximum permissible speed of 80 km/hr, is 220 metres
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(D) All the above

Answer: Option D
Question No. 214

For points and crossings, maximum size of ballast, is
(A) 50 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 30 mm
(D) 25 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 215

Which of the following methods of designation of crossing is mostly used in India?
(A) Center line method
(B) Right angle method
(C) Isosceles angle method
Answer: Option B
Question No. 216

For calculating the length of curve lead (C.L.), the correct formula is
(A) C.L. = G. /2
(B) C.L. = IG)
(C) C.L. = 2 GN
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 217

In a railway track, permissible gauge with tolerance under loaded condition, is
(A) G + 0.1 mm
(B) G + 1.5 mm
(C) G - 1.0 mm
(D) G - 1.5 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 218

Yellow light-hand signal indicates
(A) Stop
(B) Proceed
(C) Proceed cautiously
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 219

The first Indian railway was laid in
(A) 1775
(B) 1804
(C) 1825
(D) 1853
Answer: Option D
Question No. 220

Sand may be used as ballast for
(A) Wooden sleepers
(B) Steel sleepers
(C) Cast iron sleepers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 221

What will be the curve lead for a 1 in 8.5 turnout taking off from a straight broad gauge track?
(A) 28.49 m
(B) 21.04 m
(C) 14.24 m
(D) 7.45 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 222

A scissors cross-over consists of
(A) Two pairs of points, four acute angle crossings and two obtuse angle crossings
(B) Four pairs of points, four acute angle crossings and four obtuse angle crossings
(C) Four pairs of points, six acute angle crossings and two obtuse angle crossings
(D) Two pairs of points, six acute angle crossings and four obtuse angle crossings
Answer: Option C
Question No. 223

The effective bearing area of all types of sleepers, is
(A) 0.40 m2
(B) 0.42 m2
(C) 0.44 m2
(D) 0.46 m2
Answer: Option D
Question No. 224

The cross-sectional area of 52 kg flat footed rail is
(A) 6155 mm²
(B) 6615 mm²
(C) 7235 mm²
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(D) 7825 mm²

Answer: Option B
Question No. 225

angle and R is radius of the turnout, the length of the tongue rail, is
(A) R
(B) R
(C) /2
(D) /2
Answer: Option D
Question No. 226

Steel sleepers are
(A) Rectangular is cross section throughout
(B) Hollow circular pipes
(C) 6 mm thick steel sheets with ends bent down
(D) 6 mm thick steel sheets with ends bent up
Answer: Option C
Question No. 227

Number of dog spikes normally used per rail seat on curved track is
(A) One on either side
(B) Two outside and one inside
(C) One outside and two inside
(D) Two outside and two inside
Answer: Option B
Question No. 228

If sleeper density is M + 7 for 13 m rails, the minimum depth of ballast under wooden sleepers (25
cm × 13 cm), is
(A) 15 cm
(B) 20 cm
(C) 25 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 229

Minimum composite sleeper index for wooden sleepers used over bridge girders, is
(A) 1455
(B) 1355
(C) 1255
(D) 1155
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 230

The shape of transition curve used by Indian Railways is
(A) Cubic parabola
(B) Spiral
(C) Sine curve
(D) Lemniscates of Bernoulli
Answer: Option A
Question No. 231

Gauge of a permanent way, is
(A) Minimum distance between running faces of rails
(B) Minimum distance between outer faces of rails
(C) Distance between centres of rails
(D) Width of formation
Answer: Option A
Question No. 232

If w is width of sleepers, s is sleeper spacing and d is depth of ballast then
(A) d = (s - w)/2
(B) d = (s - w)/3
(C) d = (s - w)/4
(D) d = (s - w)/5
Answer: Option A
Question No. 233

The reception signal is
(i) Outer signal
(ii) Home signal
(iii) Starter
(iv) Advanced starter
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 234

The standard width of ballast for B.G. Track in Indian Railways, is kept
(A) 3.35 m
(B) 3.53 m
(C) 2.35 m
(D) 2.53 m
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 235

In India, metre gauge permanent way was adopted in
(A) 1855
(B) 1860
(C) 1866
(D) 1871
Answer: Option D
Question No. 236

Which one of the following rail failures is caused by loose fish bolts at expansion joints?
(A) Crushed head
(B) Angular break
(C) Split head
(D) Transverse fissures
Answer: Option A
Question No. 237

Best wood for wooden sleepers is
(A) Chir
(B) Deodar
(C) Sal
(D) Teak
Answer: Option D
Question No. 238

Bull headed rails are generally provided on
(A) Points and crossing
(B) Straight tangents
(C) Curved tracks
(D) Metre gauge tracks
Answer: Option A
Question No. 239

The type of bearing plate used in all joints and on curves to give better bearing area to the rails is
(A) Flat mild steel bearing plate
(B) Mild steel canted bearing plate
(C) Cast iron anti-creep bearing plate
Answer: Option B
Question No. 240

For holding a rail in position, no chairs are used for
(A) Flat footed rails
(B) Bull headed rails
(C) Double headed rails
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Answer: Option A
Question No. 241

Cast iron sleeper, is
(A) Pot sleeper
(B) Box sleeper
(C) Duplex sleeper
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 242

Gauge is the distance between
(A) Center to center of rails
(B) Running faces of rails
(C) Outer faces of rails
Answer: Option B
Question No. 243

(A) Rails are directly laid over hard wooden sleepers and fixed with spikes
(B) Adzing is done on hard wooden sleepers
(C) Bearing plates are used on soft wooden sleepers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 244

Rail section is generally designated by its
(A) Total weight
(B) Total length
(C) Weight per metre length
(D) Area of its cross-section
Answer: Option C
Question No. 245

At points and crossings, the total number of sleepers for 1 in 12 turnouts in Broad Gauge is
(A) 51
(B) 62
(C) 70
(D) 78
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 246

The quantity of stone ballast required per metre tangent length, is
(A) 1.15 m3
(B) 1.14 m3
(C) 1.13 m3
(D) 1.11 m3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 247

Weight and cross section of the rails are decided on
(A) Gauge of tracks
(B) Speed of trains
(C) Spacing of sleepers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 248

Number of switches provided on a Gaunt-letted track is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
Answer: Option D
Question No. 249

If S is cant deficiency in centimetres and V is maximum permissible speed in kmph, the maximum
length of transition curves, is
(A) SV/13.6
(B) SV/19.8
(C) SV/127
(D) SV/16.8
Answer: Option A
Question No. 250

A train is hauled by 4-8-2 locomotive. The number of driving wheels in this locomotive is
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 14
Answer: Option B
Question No. 251

Maximum cant deficiency prescribed on Indian Board Gauge Railways, is
(A) 40 mm
(B) 50 mm
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(C) 75 mm
(D) 100 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 252

Vertical curves are provided where algebraic difference between grades is equal to or
(A) Less than 2 mm/m
(B) More than 2 mm/m
(C) Less than 4 mm/m
(D) More than 4mm/m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 253

A scissors cross over consists of one diamond and
(A) one turn out
(B) Two turn outs
(C) Three turn outs
(D) Four turn outs
Answer: Option D
Question No. 254

The slipping of driving wheels of locomotives on the rail surface causes
(A) Wheel burns
(B) Hogging of rails
(C) Scabbing of rails
(D) Corrugation of rails
Answer: Option A
Question No. 255

Wooden sleepers used on the girders of bridges, are generally made of
(A) Sal
(B) Chir
(C) Teak
(D) Deodar
Answer: Option C
Question No. 256

To ensure exact gauge, the gauge tie plates are provided at
(A) Toe of the switch
(B) Nose of crossing
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 257

If G is gauge is metres, V is speed of trains in km/hour and R is radius of a curve in metres, the
equilibrium super elevation is
(A) GV²/R
(B) GV²/17R
(C) GV²/127R
(D) GV²/130R
Answer: Option C
Question No. 258

The height of the center of arm of a semaphore signal above the ground is
(A) 5.5 m
(B) 6.5 m
(C) 7.5 m
(D) 8.5 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 259

A wing rail is renewed or reconditioned if its maximum vertical wear is
(A) 9.5 m
(B) 7.5 m
(C) 5.5 m
(D) 5.0 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 260

The steepest gradient permissible on a 2.5° curve for Broad Gauge line having ruling gradient of 1
in 200 is
(A) 1 in 250
(B) 1 in 222
(C) 1 in 235
(D) 1 in 275
Answer: Option A
Question No. 261

The tread of wheels is provided an outward slope of
(A) 1 in 10
(B) 1 in 15
(C) 1 in 20
(D) 1 in 25
Answer: Option C
Question No. 262

When the rail ends rest on a joint sleeper, the joint is termed as
(A) Supported rail joint
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(B) Suspended rail joint

(C) Bridge joint
(D) Base joint
Answer: Option A
Question No. 263

To prevent percolation of water into formation, moorum is used as a blanket for
(A) Black cotton soil
(B) Sandy soil
(C) Clayey soil
(D) All the above
Answer: Option A
Question No. 264

Number of fish bolts per fish plate is
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer: Option B
Question No. 265

For flat bottom sleepers, maximum size of ballast, is
(A) 50 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 33 mm
(D) 25 mm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 266

Which of the following turnouts is most commonly used for goods train on Indian Railways?
(A) 1 in 8'/2
(B) 1 in 12
(C) 1 in 16
(D) 1 in 20
Answer: Option A
Question No. 267

On Indian Railways standard length of rails for M.G. track, is
(A) 33 ft (10.06 m)
(B) 36 ft (10.97 m)
(C) 39 ft (11.89 m)
(D) 42 ft (12.8 m)
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 268

The nominal size of ballast used for points and crossings is
(A) 25 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 50 mm
(D) 10 mm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 269

The overall length of a turn out is the distance between the end of stock rail and
(A) Heel of crossing
(B) Actual nose of crossing
(C) Throat of crossing
(D) Toe of crossing
Answer: Option A
Question No. 270

The width of foot for 90 R rail section is
(A) 100 mm
(B) 122.2 mm
(C) 136.5 mm
(D) 146.0 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 271

Monnier, the inventor of R.C.C., suggested the introduction of reinforced cement concert sleepers
for the railways in
(A) 1857
(B) 1867
(C) 1877
(D) 1887
Answer: Option C
Question No. 272

Switch angle depends on
(i) Heel divergence
(ii) Length of tongue rail
(iii) Flange-way clearance
(iv) Throw of switch
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 273

Minimum packing space provided between two sleepers, is between
(A) 20 to 25 cm
(B) 25 to 30 cm
(C) 30 to 35 cm
(D) 35 to 40 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 274

Dog spikes are used for fixing rail to the
(A) Wooden sleepers
(B) CST-9 sleepers
(C) Steel trough sleepers
(D) Concrete sleepers
Answer: Option A
Question No. 275

Distance between inner faces of the flanges, is kept
(A) Equal to the gauge distance
(B) Slightly less than the gauge distance
(C) Slightly more than the gauge distance
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 276

Anti-creep bearing plates are provided on
(A) Bridges and approaches
(B) Joints
Answer: Option D
Question No. 277

A mono-block sleeper has
(A) Square section
(B) Rectangular section
(C) Trapezoidal section
(D) Semi-circular section
Answer: Option C
Question No. 278

The distance through which the tongue rail moves laterally at the toe of the switch for movement
of trains is called
(A) Flange-way clearance
(B) Heel divergence
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(C) Throw of the switch

Answer: Option C
Question No. 279

Coal ash (or cinder) is used in initial stages of a new construction of railway for
(A) Wooden sleepers
(B) Steel sleepers
(C) Cast iron sleepers
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 280

Normally the limiting value of cant is
(A) G/8
(B) G/10
(C) G/12
(D) G/15
G
Answer: Option B
Question No. 281

Width of the top portion of a flat footed, rail, is
(A) 69.85 mm
(B) 63.50 mm
(C) 66.77 mm
(D) 136.52 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 282

Rails are bent to correct curvature if the degree of curve, is more than
(A) 1°
(B) 2°
(C) 3°
(D) 4°
Answer: Option D
Question No. 283

Minimum depth of ballast prescribed of B.G. trunk lines of Indian Railways, is
(A) 20 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 25 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 284

Boxing of ballast is done
(A) Under rails
(B) At the rails
(C) In between two rails
(D) In between two sleepers
Answer: Option B
Question No. 285

Maximum wheel base distance provided on Indian B.G. tracks, is
(A) 4.096 m
(B) 5.096 m
(C) 6.096 m
(D) 7.096 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 286

A triangle used for turning the face of locomotives, consists of
(A) Three turn outs
(B) One turn out and two splits
(C) Two turn outs and one split
(D) Three splits
Answer: Option C
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RCC Structures Design
Question No. 01
An R.C.C. beam of 6 m span is 30 cm wide and has a lever arm of 55 cm. If it carries a U.D.L. of 12 t
per m and allowable shear stress is 5 kg/cm2, the beam
(A) Is safe in shear
(B) Is safe with stirrups
(C) Is safe with stirrups and inclined bars
(D) Needs revision of section
Answer: Option D
Question No. 02
According to I.S. : 456, slabs which span in two directions with corners held down, are assumed to
be divided in each direction into middle strips and edge strips such that the width of the middle
strip, is
(A) Half of the width of the slab
(B) Two-third of the width of the slab
(C) Three-fourth of the width of the slab
(D) Four-fifth of the width of the slab
Answer: Option C
Question No. 03
The load stress of a section can be reduced by
(A) Decreasing the lever arm
(B) Increasing the total perimeter of bars
(C) Replacing larger bars by greater number of small bars
(D) Replacing smaller bars by greater number of greater bars
Answer: Option C
Question No. 04
The diameter of the column head support a flat slab, is generally kept
(A) 0.25 times the span length
(B) 0.25 times the diameter of the column
(C) 4.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column
(D) 5.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column
Answer: Option A
Question No. 05
If is the uniformly distributed load on a circular slab of radius fixed at its ends, the
maximum positive radial moment at its centre, is
(A) 3WR²/16
(B) 2WR²/16
(C) WR²/16
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(D) None of these

Answer: Option C
Question No. 06
The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in one direction, is
(A) 35
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 20
Answer: Option C
Question No. 07
If the width of the foundation for two equal columns is restricted, the shape of the footing
generally adopted, is
(A) Square
(B) Rectangular
(C) Trapezoidal
(D) Triangular
Answer: Option B
Question No. 08
The floor slab of a building is supported on reinforced cement floor beams. The ratio of the end
and intermediate spans is kept
(A) 0.7
(B) 0.8
(C) 0.9
(D) 0.6
Answer: Option C
Question No. 09
(A) Lateral reinforcement in R.C.C. columns is provided to prevent the longitudinal
reinforcement from buckling
(B) Lateral reinforcement prevents the shearing of concrete on diagonal plane
(C) Lateral reinforcement stops breaking away of concrete cover, due to buckling
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 10
In case the factor of safety against sliding is less than 1.5, a portion of slab is constructed
downwards at the end of the heel slab, which is known as
(A) A key
(B) A cut-off wall
(C) A rib
(D) All the above
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 11
Lapped splices in tensile reinforcement are generally not used for bars of size larger than
(A) 18 mm diameter
(B) 24 mm diameter
(C) 30 mm diameter
(D) 36 mm diameter
Answer: Option D
Question No. 12
Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of the same size should not be less
than
(A) One diameter
(B) 2.5 diameters
(C) 3 diameters
(D) 3.5 diameters
Answer: Option A
Question No. 13
For a ribbed slab
(A) Clear spacing between ribs shall not be greater than 4.5 cm
(B) Width of the rib shall not be less than 7.5 cm
(C) Overall depth of the slab shall not exceed four times the breadth of the rib
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 14
A very comfortable type of stairs is
(A) Straight
(B) Dog legged
(C) Geometrical
(D) Open newel
Answer: Option D
Question No. 15
Columns may be made of plain concrete if their unsupported lengths do not exceed their least
lateral dimension
(A) Two times
(B) Three times
(C) Four times
(D) Five times
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 16
The width of the flange of a L-beam, should be less than
(A) One-sixth of the effective span
(B) Breadth of the rib + four times thickness of the slab
(C) Breadth of the rib + half clear distance between ribs
(D) Least of the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 17
A pre-stressed concrete member is preferred because
(A) Its dimensions are not decided from the diagonal tensile stress
(B) Large size of long beams carrying large shear force need not be adopted
(C) Removal of cracks in the members due to shrinkage
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 18
If the ratio of the span to the overall depth does not exceed 10, the stiffness of the beam will
ordinarily be satisfactory in case of a
(A) Simply supported beam
(B) Continuous beam
(C) Cantilever beam
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 19
A pile of length carrying a uniformly distributed load per metre length is suspended at two
points, the maximum, B.M. at the centre of the pile or at the points of suspension, is
(A) WL/8
(B) WL²/24
(C) WL²/47
(D) WL²/16
Answer: Option C
Question No. 20
If is the net upward pressure on a square footing of side for a square column of side , the
maximum bending moment is given by
(A) B.M = pb (c - a)/4
(B) B.M = pb (b - a)²/4
(C) B.M = pb (b - a)²/8
(D) B.M = pb (b + a)/8
Answer: Option C
Question No. 21
To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation, is
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(A) Kept uniform throughout

(B) Increased gradually towards the edge
(C) Decreased gradually towards the edge
(D) Kept zero at the edge
Answer: Option C
Question No. 22
longitudinal bars and lateral stirrups, is

(A) Stress in concrete × area of concrete
(B) Stress in steel × area of steel
(C) Stress in concrete × area of concrete + Stress in steel × area of steel
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 23
If p1 and p2 are mutually perpendicular principal stresses acting on a soil mass, the normal stress
to the principal plane carrying the principal stress p1, is:
(A) [(p - p p p sin 2
(B) [(p - p p p cos 2
(C) [(p p p -p cos 2
(D) [(p p p - p /2] sin 2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 24
The maximum permissible size of aggregates to be used in casting the ribs of a slab, is
(A) 5 mm
(B) 7.5 mm
(C) 10 mm
(D) 15 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 25
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: Tensile reinforcement bars of a rectangular
beam
(A) Are curtailed if not required to resist the bending moment
(B) Are bent up at suitable places to serve as shear reinforcement
(C) Are bent down at suitable places to serve as shear reinforcement
(D) Are maintained at bottom to provide at least local bond stress
Answer: Option C
Question No. 26
Steel bars are generally connected together to get greater length than the standard length by
providing
(A) Straight bar splice
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(B) Hooked splice

(C) Dowel splice
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 27
The minimum thickness of the cover at the end of a reinforcing bar should not be less than twice
the diameter of the bar subject to a minimum of
(A) 10 mm
(B) 15 mm
(C) 20 mm
(D) 25 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 28
Top bars are extended to the projecting parts of the combined footing of two columns Ldistance
apart for a distance of
(A) 0.1 L from the outer edge of column
(B) 0.1 L from the centre edge of column
(C) Half the distance of projection
(D) One-fourth the distance of projection
Answer: Option B
Question No. 29
For M 150 grade concrete (1:2:4) the moment of resistance factor is
(A) 0.87
(B) 8.50
(C) 7.50
(D) 5.80
Answer: Option B
Question No. 30
is the pre-stressed force applied to tendon of a rectangular pre-stressed beam whose area of
cross section is and sectional modulus is . The minimum stress on the beam subjected to a
maximum bending moment is
(A) f = (P/A) - (Z/M)
(B) f = (A/P) - (M/Z)
(C) f = (P/A) - (M/Z)
(D) f = (P/A) - (M/6Z)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 31
If C is creep coefficient, f is original pre-stress in concrete, m is modular ratio, E is Young's modulus
of steel and e is shrinkage strain, the combined effect of creep and shrinkage is:
(A) (1 - C)mf - eE
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(B) (C - 1)mf + eE
(C) (C - 1)mf - eE
(D) (1 - C)mf + eE
Answer: Option B
Question No. 32
In a pre-stressed member it is advisable to use
(A) Low strength concrete only
(B) High strength concrete only
(C) Low strength concrete but high tensile steel
(D) High strength concrete and high tensile steel
Answer: Option D
Question No. 33
An R.C.C. lintel is spanning an opening of 2 m span in a brick wall. The height of the roof is 2.9 m
above the floor level and that of the opening is 2.1 m above the floor level. The lintel is to be
designed for self weight plus
(A) Triangular load of the wall
(B) UDL of wall
(C) UDL of wall + load from the roof
(D) Triangular load + load from the roof
Answer: Option C
Question No. 34
The minimum clear cover for R.C.C. columns shall be
(A) Greater of 40 mm or diameter
(B) Smaller of 40 mm or diameter
(C) Greater of 25 mm or diameter
(D) Smaller of 25 mm or diameter
Answer: Option C
Question No. 35
The minimum thickness of a flat slab is taken
(A) L/32 for end panels without drops
(B) L/36 for end panels without drops
(C) L/36 for interior panels without drop
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 36
The design of heel slab of a retaining wall is based on the maximum bending moment due to:
(A) Its own weight
(B) Weight of the soil above it
(C) Load of the surcharge, if any
(D) All the above
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 37
An R.C.C beam of 25 cm width has a clear span of 5 metres and carries a U.D.L. of 2000 kg/m
inclusive of its self weight. If the lever arm of the section is 45 cm., the beam is
(A) Safe in shear
(B) Is safe with stirrups
(C) Is safe with stirrups and inclined members
(D) Needs revision of the section
Answer: Option A
Question No. 38
The neutral axis of a T-beam exists
(A) Within the flange
(B) At the bottom edge of the slab
(C) Below the slab
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 39
A pre-cast pile generally used, is
(A) Circular
(B) Square
(C) Octagonal
(D) Square with corners chamfered
Answer: Option D
Question No. 40
The spacing of transverse reinforcement of column is decided by the following consideration.
(A) The least lateral dimension of the column
(B) Sixteen times the diameter of the smallest longitudinal reinforcing rods in the column
(C) Forty-eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 41
The self-weight of the footing, is
(A) Not considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing
(B) Also considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing
(C) Not considered for calculating the area of the footing
Answer: Option A
Question No. 42
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(A) In the stem of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided near the earth side
(B) In the toe slab of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided at the bottom of the slab
(C) In the heel slab of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided at the top of the slab
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 43
If the bearing capacity of soil is 10 tonnes/cm2 and the projection of plain concrete footing from
walls, is a cm, the depth D of footing is
(A) D = 0.0775 a
(B) D = 0.775 a
(C) D = 0.775 a
(D) D = 0.775 a2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 44
After pre-stressing process is completed, a loss of stress is due to
(A) Shrinkage of concrete
(B) Elastic shortening of concrete
(C) Creep of concrete
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 45
In a simply supported slab, alternate bars are curtailed at
(A) 1/4th of the span
(B) 1/5th of the span
(C) 1/6th of the span
(D) 1/7th of the span
Answer: Option D
Question No. 46
If R and T are rise and tread of a stair spanning horizontally, the steps are supported by a wall on
one side and by a stringer beam on the other side, the steps are designed as beams of width
(A) R + T
(B) T - R
(C) 2
+ T2)
(D) R - T
Answer: Option C
Question No. 47
If p1 and P2 are effective lateral loadings at the bottom and top exerted by a level earth subjected
to a super-load on the vertical face of height h of a retaining wall, the horizontal pressure p per
unit length of the wall, is
(A) [( - )/2] h
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(B) [( + )/4] h
(C) [( + )/2] h
(D) ( - h
Answer: Option C
Question No. 48
In the zone of R.C.C. beam where shear stress is less than 5 kg/cm 2, nominal reinforcement is
provided at a pitch of
(A) One-half lever arm of the section
(B) One-third lever arm of the section
(C) Lever arm of the section
(D) One and half lever arm of the section
Answer: Option C
Question No. 49
The transverse reinforcements provided at right angles to the main reinforcement
(A) Distribute the load
(B) Resist the temperature stresses
(C) Resist the shrinkage stress
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 50
Long and short spans of a two way slab are ly and lx and load on the slab acting on strips parallel
to lx and ly be wx and wy respectively. According to Rankine Grashoff theory
(A) (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)
(B) (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)²
(C) (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)4
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 51
The pitch of the main bars in a simply supported slab, should not exceed its effective depth by
(A) Three times
(B) Four times
(C) Five times
(D) Six times
Answer: Option D
Question No. 52
High strength concrete is used in pre-stressed member
(A) To overcome high bearing stresses developed at the ends
(B) To overcome bursting stresses at the ends
(C) To provide high bond stresses
(D) All the above
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 53
If is the load on a circular slab of radius , the maximum radial moment at the centre of the
slab, is
(A) WR²/16
(B) 2WR²/16
(C) 3WR²/16
(D) 5WR²/16
Answer: Option C
Question No. 54
If A is the area of the foundation of a retaining wall carrying a load W and retaining earth of
weight w per unit volume, the minimum depth (h) of the foundation from the free surface of the
earth, is
(A) h = (W/Aw) [(1 - )/(1 + sin )]
(B) h = (W/Aw) [(1 + )/(1 + sin )]
(C) h = (W/Aw) [(1 - )/(1 + sin )]²
(D) h W/Aw) [(1 - )/(1 + sin )]²
Answer: Option C
Question No. 55
If the permissible compressive and tensile stresses in a singly reinforced beam are 50 kg/cm2 and
1400 kg/cm2 respectively and the modular ratio is 18, the percentage area At of the steel required
for an economic section, is
(A) 0.496 %
(B) 0.596 %
(C) 0.696 %
(D) 0.796 %
Answer: Option C
Question No. 56
The modular ratio m of a concrete whose permissible compressive stress is C, may be obtained
from the equation.
(A) m = 700/3C
(B) m = 1400/3C
(C) m = 2800/3C
(D) m = 3500/3C
Answer: Option C
Question No. 57
Enlarged head of a supporting column of a flat slab is technically known as
(A) Supporting end of the column
(B) Top of the column
(C) Capital
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(D) Drop panel

Answer: Option C
Question No. 58
Thickened part of a flat slab over its supporting column, is technically known as
(A) Drop panel
(B) Capital
(C) Column head
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 59
If is the sectional area of a pre-stressed rectangular beam provided with a tendon pre-stressed
by a force through its centroidal longitudinal axis, the compressive stress in concrete, is
(A) P/A
(B) A/P
(C) P/2A
(D) 2A/P
Answer: Option A
Question No. 60
Side face reinforcement shall be provided in the beam when depth of the web in a beam exceeds
(A) 50 cm
(B) 75 cm
(C) 100 cm
(D) 120 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 61
A pre-stressed rectangular beam which carries two concentrated loads W at L/3 from either end, is
provided with a bent tendon with tension P such that central one-third portion of the tendon
remains parallel to the longitudinal axis, the maximum dip h is
(A) WL/P
(B) WL/2P
(C) WL/3P
(D) WL/4P
Answer: Option C
Question No. 62
The minimum head room over a stair must be
(A) 200 cm
(B) 205 cm
(C) 210 cm
(D) 230 cm
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 63
If q is the punching shear resistance per unit area a, is the side of a square footing for a column of
side b, carrying a weight W including the weight of the footing, the depth (D) of the footing from
punching shear consideration, is
(A) D = W (a - b)/4a²bq
(B) D = W (a² - b²)/4a²bq
(C) D = W (a² - b²)/8a²bq
(D) D = W (a² - b²)/4abq
Answer: Option B
Question No. 64
For initial estimate for a beam design, the width is assumed
(A) 1/15th of span
(B) 1/20th of span
(C) 1/25th of span
(D) 1/30th of span
Answer: Option D
Question No. 65
In a slab, the pitch of the main reinforcement should not exceed its effective depth
(A) Three times
(B) Four times
(C) Five times
(D) Two times
Answer: Option
Question No. 66
If the length of a combined footing for two columns l metres apart is L and the projection on the
left side of the exterior column is x, then the projection y on the right side of the exterior column,
in order to have a uniformly distributed load, is (where is the distance of centre of gravity of
column loads).
(A) y = L - (l - )
(B) y = L/2 + (l - )
(C) y = L/2 - (l + )
(D) y = L/2 - (l - )
Answer: Option D
Question No. 67
Total pressure on the vertical face of a retaining wall of height h acts parallel to free surface and
from the base at a distance of
(A) h/4
(B) h/3
(C) h/2
(D) 2h/3
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 68
If the tendon is placed at an eccentricity e below the centroidal axis of the longitudinal axis of a
rectangular beam (sectional modulus Z and stressed load P in tendon) the stress at the extreme
top edge
(A) Is increased by PZ/e
(B) Is increased by Pe/Z
(C) Is decreased by Pe/Z
(D) Remains unchanged
Answer: Option C
Question No. 69
The Young's modulus of elasticity of steel, is
(A) 150 KN/mm2
(B) 200 KN/mm2
(C) 250 KN/mm2
(D) 275 KN/mm2
Answer: Option D
Question No. 70
Design of a two way slab simply supported on edges and having no provision to prevent the
corners from lifting, is made by
(A) Rankine formula
(B) Marcus formula
(C) Rankine Grashoff formula
(D) Grashoff formula
Answer: Option C
Question No. 71
Spacing of stirrups in a rectangular beam, is
(A) Kept constant throughout the length
(B) Decreased towards the centre of the beam
(C) Increased at the ends
(D) Increased at the centre of the beam
Answer: Option D
Question No. 72
As per IS : 456, the reinforcement in a column should not be less than
(A) 0.5% and not more than 5% of cross-sectional area
(B) 0.6% and not more than 6% of cross-sectional area
(C) 0.7% and not more than 7% of cross-sectional area
(D) 0.8% and not more than 8% of cross-sectional area
Answer: Option D
Question No. 73
The allowable tensile stress in mild steel stirrups, reinforced cement concrete, is
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(A) 1400 kg/cm2

(B) 190 kg/cm2
(C) 260 kg/cm2
(D) 230 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 74
Bottom bars under the columns are extended into the interior of the footing slab to a distance
greater than
(A) 42 diameters from the centre of the column
(B) 42 diameters from the inner edge of the column
(C) 42 diameters from the outer edge of the column
(D) 24 diameters from the centre of the column
Answer: Option C
Question No. 75
Pick up the assumption for the design of a pre-stressed concrete member from the following:
(A) A transverse plane section remains a plane after bending
(B) During deformation limits, Hook's law is equally applicable to concrete as well as to steel
(C) Variation of stress in reinforcement due to changes in external loading is negligible
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 76
The advantage of reinforced concrete, is due to
(A) Monolithic character
(B) Fire-resisting and durability
(C) Economy because of less maintenance cost
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 77
An R.C.C. column is treated as short column if its slenderness ratio is less than
(A) 30
(B) 35
(C) 40
(D) 50
Answer: Option D
Question No. 78
The zone in which transverse bending is likely to occur may be obtained by drawing a line from the
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
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(D) None of these

Answer: Option B
Question No. 79
The thickness of the topping of a ribbed slab, varies between
(A) 3 cm to 5 cm
(B) 5 cm to 8 cm
(C) 8 cm to 10 cm
(D) 12 cm to 15 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 80
If the length of an intermediate span of a continuous slab is 5m, the length of the end span is kept
(A) 4.5 m
(B) 4.0 m
(C) 3.5 m
(D) 3.0 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 81
If L is the effective span of a R.C.C. beam which is subjected to maximum shear qmax at the ends,
the distance from either end over which stirrups for the shear, are provided, is
(A) (L/2) (1 - 3/qmax)
(B) (L/3) (1 - 5/qmax)
(C) (L/2) (1 - 5/qmax)
(D) (L/2) (1 - 2/qmax)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 82
The angle of internal friction of soil mass is the angle whose
(A) Tangent is equal to the rate of the maximum resistance to sliding on any internal inclined
plane to the normal pressure acting on the plane
(B) Sine is equal to the ratio of the maximum resistance to sliding on any internal inclined plane
to the normal pressure acting on the plane
(C) Cosine is equal to the ratio of the maximum resistance sliding on any internal inclined plane
to the normal pressure acting on the plane
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 83
The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in two directions, is
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 35
(D) 40
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 84
If T and R are the tread and rise of a stair which carries a load w per square metre on slope, the
corresponding load per square metre of the horizontal area, is
(A) w (R + T)/T
(B) w (R² + T²)/T
(C) w (R + T)/T
(D) w (R/T)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 85
If the loading on a pre-stressed rectangular beam, is uniformly distributed, the tendon to be
provided should be.
(A) Straight below centroidal axis
(B) Parabolic with convexity downward
(C) Parabolic with convexity upward
(D) Straight above centroidal axis
Answer: Option B
Question No. 86
For normal cases, stiffness of a simply supported beam is satisfied if the ratio of its span to its
overall depth does not exceed
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: Option C
Question No. 87
If the maximum dip of a parabolic tendon carrying tension P is h and the effective length of the
pre-stressed beam is L, the upward uniform pressure will be
(A) 8hp/l
(B) 8hp/l²
(C) 8hl/p
(D) 8hl/p²
Answer: Option B
Question No. 88
If depth of slab is 10 cm, width of web 30 cm, depth of web 50 cm, centre to centre distance of
beams 3 m, effective span of beams 6 m, the effective flange width of the beam, is
(A) 200 cm
(B) 300 cm
(C) 150 cm
(D) 100 cm
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 89
The steel generally used in R.C.C. work, is
(A) Stainless
(B) Mild steel
(C) High carbon steel
(D) High tension steel
Answer: Option B
Question No. 90
If the ratio of long and short spans of a two way slab with corners held down is r, the actual
reduction of B.M. is given by
(A) (5/6) (r/1 + r²) M
(B) (5/6) (r²/1 + r²) M
(C) (5/6) (r²/1 + r3) M
(D) (5/6) (r²/1 + r4) M
Answer: Option D
Question No. 91
A part of the slab may be considered as the flange of the T-beam if
(A) Flange has adequate reinforcement transverse to beam
(B) It is built integrally with the beam
(C) It is effectively bonded together with the beam
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 92
By over-reinforcing a beam, the moment of resistance can be increased not more than
(A) 10 %
(B) 15 %
(C) 20 %
(D) 25 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 93
Total pressure on the vertical face of a retaining wall of height per unit run exerted by the
retained earth weighing per unit volume, is
(A) wh [(1 - )/(1 + sin )]
(B) wh² [(1 - )/(1 + sin )]
(C) wh² [(1 - )/2(1 + sin )]
(D) wh² [(1 - )/3(1 + sin )]
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 94
A singly reinforced beam has breadth b, effective depth d, depth of neutral axis n and critical
neutral axis n1. If fc and ft are permissible compressive and tensile stresses, the moment to
resistance of the beam, is
(A) bn (fc/2) (d - n/3)
(B) Atft (d - n/3)
(C) ½ n1 (1 - n1/3) cbd²
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 95
According to I.S.: 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edges, is
kept less than
(A) 5 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 15 cm
(D) 20 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 96
If l1 and l2 are the lengths of long and short spans of a two way slab simply supported on four
edges and carrying a load w per unit area, the ratio of the loads split into w1 and w2acting on strips
parallel to l2 and l1 is
(A) w1/w2 = l2/l1
(B) w1/w2 = (l2/l1)²
(C) w1/w2 = (l2/l1)3
(D) w1/w2 = (l2/l1)4
Answer: Option D
Question No. 97
The live load to be considered for an accessible roof, is
(A) Nil
(B) 75 kg/m3
(C) 150 kg/m2
(D) 200 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 98
If Ac, Asc and A are areas of concrete, longitudinal steel and section of a R.C.C. column and m and
c are the modular ratio and maximum stress in the configuration of concrete, the strength of
column is
(A) cAc + m cAsc
(B) c(A - Asc) + m cAsc
(C) c[A + (m - 1)ASC]
(D) All the above
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 99
On an absolutely rigid foundation base, the pressure will
(A) Be more at the edges of the foundation
(B) Be uniform
(C) Not be uniform
(D) Be zero at the centre of the foundation
Answer: Option C
Question No. 100

The diameter of transverse reinforcement of columns should be equal to one-fourth of the
diameter of the main steel rods but not less than
(A) 4 mm
(B) 5 mm
(C) 6 mm
(D) 7 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 101

If longitudinally spanning stairs are casted along with their landings, the maximum bending
moment per metre width, is taken as
(A) wl²/4
(B) wl²/8
(C) wl²/10
(D) wl²/12
Answer: Option B
Question No. 102

If P kg/m2 is the upward pressure on the slab of a plain concrete footing whose projection on
either side of the wall is a cm, the depth of foundation D is given by
(A) D = 0.00775 aP
(B) D = 0.0775 aP
(C) D = 0.07775 aP
(D) D = 0.775 Pa
Answer: Option A
Question No. 103

If the shear stress in a R.C.C. beam is
(A) Equal or less than 5 kg/cm2, no shear reinforcement is provided
(B) Greater than 4 kg/cm2, but less than 20 kg/cm2, shear reinforcement is provided
(C) Greater than 20 kg/cm2, the size of the section is changed
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 104

For a continuous floor slab supported on beams, the ratio of end span length and intermediate
span length, is
(A) 0.6
(B) 0.7
(C) 0.8
(D) 0.9
Answer: Option D
Question No. 105

In a singly reinforced beam
(A) Compression is borne entirely by concrete
(B) Steel possesses initial stresses when embedded in concrete
(C) Plane sections transverse to the centre line of the beam before bending remain plane after
bending
(D) Elastic moduli for concrete and steel have different values within the limits of deformation
of the beam
Answer: Option C
Question No. 106

The ratio of the breadth to effective depth of a beam is kept
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.70
(D) 0.75
Answer: Option B
Question No. 107

In a cantilever retaining wall without a heel slab
(A) Thickness of the stem is kept same throughout
(B) Base slab is made 10 cm thicker than the stem
(C) Width of the base slab is kept 0.7 time the total height of the wall
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 108

is the pre-stressed force applied to the tendon of a rectangular pre-stressed beam whose area
of cross section is and sectional modulus is . The maximum stress in the beam, subjected
to a maximum bending moment , is
(A) f = (P/A) + (Z/M)
(B) f = (A/P) + (M/Z)
(C) f = (P/A) + (M/Z)
(D) f = (P/A) + (M/6Z)
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 109

A T-beam behaves as a rectangular beam of a width equal to its flange if its neutral axis
(A) Remains within the flange
(B) Remains below the slab
(C) Coincides the geometrical centre of the beam
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 110

For the design of a simply supported T-beam the ratio of the effective span to the overall depth of
the beam is limited to
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: Option C
Question No. 111

A reinforced concrete cantilever beam is 3.6 m long, 25 cm wide and has its lever arm 40 cm. It
carries a load of 1200 kg at its free end and vertical stirrups can carry 1800 kg. Assuming concrete
to carry one-third of the diagonal tension and ignoring the weight of the beam, the number of
shear stirrups required, is
(A) 30
(B) 35
(C) 40
(D) 45
Answer: Option C
Question No. 112

The width of the rib of a T-beam, is generally kept between
(A) 1/7 to 1/3 of rib depth
(B) 1/3 to 1/2 of rib depth
(C) 1/2 to 3/4 of rib depth
(D) 1/3 to 2/3 of rib depth
Answer: Option D
Question No. 113

A ribbed slab is provided for
(A) A plain ceiling
(B) Thermal insulation
(C) Acoustic insulation
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 114

To ensure that the hogging bending moment at two points of suspension of a pile of
length L equals the sagging moment at its centre, the distances of the points of suspension from
either end, is
(A) 0.107 L
(B) 0.207 L
(C) 0.307 L
(D) 0.407 L
Answer: Option B
Question No. 115

The stresses developed in concrete and steel in reinforced concrete beam 25 cm width and 70 cm
effective depth, are 62.5 kg/cm2 and 250 kg/cm2 respectively. If m = 15, the depth of its neutral
axis is
(A) 20 cm
(B) 25 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 35 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 116

If the depth of actual neutral axis of a doubly reinforced beam
(A) Is greater than the depth of critical neutral axis, the concrete attains its maximum stress
earlier
(B) Is less than the depth of critical neutral axis, the steel in the tensile zone attains its maximum
stress earlier
(C) Is equal to the depth of critical neutral axis; the concrete and steel attain their maximum
stresses simultaneously
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 117

If the modular ratio is , steel ratio is and overall depth of a beam is , the depth of the
critical neutral axis of the beam, is
(A) [m/(m - r)] d
(B) [m/(m + r)] d
(C) [(m + r)/m] d
(D) [(r - m)/m] d
Answer: Option B
Question No. 118

The maximum diameter of a bar used in a ribbed slab, is
(A) 12 mm
(B) 6 mm
(C) 20 mm
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(D) 22 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 119

A column is regarded as long column if the ratio of its effective length and lateral dimension,
exceeds
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: Option B
Question No. 120

According to the steel beam theory of doubly reinforced beams
(A) Tension is resisted by tension steel
(B) Compression is resisted by compression steel
(C) Stress in tension steel equals the stress in compression steel
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 121

The breadth of a ribbed slab containing two bars must be between
(A) 6 cm to 7.5 cm
(B) 8 cm to 10 cm
(C) 10 cm to 12 cm
(D) 12 cm to 15 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 122

The stem of a cantilever retaining wall which retains earth level with top is 6 m. If the angle of
repose and weight of the soil per cubic metre are 30° and 2000 kg respectively, the effective width
of the stem at the bottom, is
(A) 51.5
(B) 52.5
(C) 53.5
(D) 54.5
Answer: Option C
Question No. 123

If the diameter of the main reinforcement in a slab is 16 mm, the concrete cover to main bars is
(A) 10 mm
(B) 12 mm
(C) 14 mm
(D) 16 mm
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 124

Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of different sizes, should not be less
than
(A) One diameter of thinner bar
(B) One diameter of thicker bar
(C) Twice the diameter of thinner bar
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 125

For a number of columns constructed in a rcjw, the type of foundation provided, is
(A) Footing
(B) Raft
(C) Strap
(D) Strip
Answer: Option D
Question No. 126

A singly reinforced concrete beam of 25 cm width and 70 cm effective depth is provided with
18.75 cm2 steel. If the modular ratio (m) is 15, the depth of the neutral axis, is
(A) 20 cm
(B) 25 cm
(C) 30 cm
(D) 35 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 127

In testing a pile by load test, pile platform is loaded with one and half times the design load and a
maximum settlement is noted. The load is gradually removed and the consequent rebound is
measured. For a safe pile, the net settlement (i.e. total settlement minus rebound) per tonne of
test load should not exceed
(A) 10 mm
(B) 15 mm
(C) 20 mm
(D) 25 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 128

The diameter of main bars in R.C.C. columns, shall not be less than
(A) 6 mm
(B) 8 mm
(C) 10 mm
(D) 12 mm
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 129

If d is the diameter of a bar, ft is allowable tensile stress and fb, is allowable bond stress, the bond
length is given by
(A) ft .d/4fb
(B) ( /4). (ft .d/fb)
(C) ft .d²/fb
(D) ( /4). (ft .d3/fb)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 130

An intermediate T-beam reinforced with two layers of tensile steel with clear cover 13 cm
encasted with the floor of a hall 12 metres by 7 metres, is spaced at 3 metres from adjoining
beams and if the width of the beam is 20 cm, the breadth of the flange is
(A) 300 cm
(B) 233 cm
(C) 176 cm
(D) 236 cm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 131

The length of lap in tension reinforcement should not be less than the bar diameter × (actual
tension / four times the permissible average bond stress) if it is more than
(A) 18 bar diameters
(B) 24 bar diameters
(C) 30 bar diameters
(D) 36 bar diameters
Answer: Option C
Question No. 132

As the percentage of steel increases
(A) Depth of neutral axis decreases
(B) Depth of neutral axis increases
(C) Lever arm increases
(D) Lever arm decreases
Answer: Option B
Question No. 133

The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab, is
(A) One-fourth the width of the panel
(B) Half the width of the panel
(C) Radius of the column
(D) Diameter of the column
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 134

As per IS : 1343, total shrinkage for a pre-tensioned beam, is
(A) 3.0 × 10-2
(B) 3.0 × 10-3
(C) 3.0 × 10-5
(D) 3.5 × 10-5
Answer: Option D
Question No. 135

Dimensions of a beam need be changed if the shear stress is more than
(A) 10 kg/cm2
(B) 15 kg/cm2
(C) 20 kg/cm2
(D) 25 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 136

Based on punching shear consideration, the overall depth of a combined footing under a
column A, is
(A) (Area of the column A × Safe punching stress)/Load on column A
(B) (Perimeter of column A × Safe punching stress)/(Load on column A + Upward pressure ×
Area of the column)
(C) (Perimeter of column A × Safe punching stress)/(Load on column A × Upward pressure ×
Area of the column)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 137

(A) A pile is a slender member which transfers the load through its lower end on a strong strata
(B) A pile is a slender member which transfers its load to the surrounding soil
(C) A pile is a slender member which transfers its load by friction
(D) A pile is a cylindrical body of concrete which transfers the load at a depth greater than its
width
Answer: Option B
Question No. 138

In a combined footing if shear stress exceeds 5 kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups provided are:
(A) 6 legged
(B) 8 legged
(C) 10 legged
(D) 12 legged
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 139

The weight of reinforced concrete, is generally taken as
(A) 2200 kg/m3
(B) 2300 kg/m3
(C) 2400 kg/m3
(D) 2500 kg/m3
Answer: Option C
Question No. 140

If W is the load on a circular slab of radius R, the maximum circumferential moment at the centre
of the slab, is
(A) WR²/16
(B) 2WR²/16
(C) 3WR²/16
(D) Zero
Answer: Option C
Question No. 141

If is weight of a retaining wall and is the horizontal earth pressure, the factor of safety
against sliding, is
(A) 1.0
(B) 1.25
(C) 1.5
(D) 2.0
Answer: Option C
Question No. 142

The effective span of a simply supported slab, is
(A) Distance between the centres of the bearings
(B) Clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of the wall
(C) Clear span plus effective depth of the slab
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 143

In a beam the local bond stress Sb, is equal to
(A) Shear force/(Leaver arm × Total perimeter of reinforcement)
(B) Total perimeter of reinforcement/(Leaver arm × Shear force)
(C) Leaver arm/(Shear force × Total perimeter of reinforcement)
(D) Leaver arm/(Bending moment × Total perimeter of reinforcement)
Answer: Option A
Question No. 144

A continuous beam shall be deemed to be a deep beam if the ratio of effective span to overall
depth, is
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(A) 2.5
(B) 2.0
(C) Less than 2
(D) Less than 2.5
Answer: Option A
Question No. 145

With usual notations the depth of the neutral axis of a balanced section, is given by
(A) mc/t = (d - n)/n
(B) t/mc = (d - n)/n
(C) t/mc = (d + n)/n
(D) mc/t = n/(d - n)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 146

Pick up the true statement from the following:
(A) Plain ceiling provides the best property diffusing light
(B) In the absence of beams, it is easier to install piping
(C) In the absence of beams, it is easier to paint
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 147

If the maximum shear stress at the end of a simply supported R.C.C. beam of 16 m effective span is
10 kg/cm2, the length of the beam having nominal reinforcement, is
(A) 8 cm
(B) 6 m
(C) 8 m
(D) 10 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 148

If the length of a wall on either side of a lintel opening is at least half of its effective span L, the
load W carried by the lintel is equivalent to the weight of brickwork contained in an equilateral
triangle, producing a maximum bending moment
(A) WL/2
(B) WL/4
(C) WL/6
(D) WL/8
Answer: Option C
Question No. 149

The section of a reinforced beam where most distant concrete fibre in compression and tension in
steel attains permissible stresses simultaneously, is called
(A) Balanced section
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(B) Economic section

(C) Critical section
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 150

The length of the lap in a compression member is kept greater than bar diameter x (Permissible
stress in bar / Five times the bond stress) or
(A) 12 bar diameters
(B) 18 bar diameters
(C) 24 bar diameters
(D) 30 bar diameters
Answer: Option C
Question No. 151

The system in which high tensile alloy steel bars (silica manganese steel) are used as prestressing
tendons, is known as
(A) Freyssinet system
(B) Magnel-Blaton system
(C) C.C.L. standard system
(D) Lee-McCall system
Answer: Option D
Question No. 152

An under-reinforced section means
(A) Steel is provided at the underside only
(B) Steel provided is insufficient
(C) Steel provided on one face only
(D) Steel will yield first
Answer: Option D
Question No. 153

The angle of repose of a soil is the maximum angle which the outer face of the soil mass makes
(A) With the horizontal
(B) With the vertical
(C) With the perpendicular to the inclined plane of the soil
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 154

In a doubly-reinforced beam if and is
the effective depth and is depth of critical neutral axis, the following relationship holds good
(A) mc/t = n/(d - n)
(B) (m + c)/t = n/(d + n)
(C) (t + c)/n = (d + n)/n
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Question No. 207

The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than
(A) 6 mm
(B) 8 mm
(C) 10 mm
(D) 12 mm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 208

Post tensioning system
(A) Was widely used in earlier days
(B) Is not economical and hence not generally used
(C) Is economical for large spans and is adopted now a days
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 209

The number of treads in a flight is equal to
(A) Risers in the flight
(B) Risers plus one
(C) Risers minus one
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 210

The amount of reinforcement for main bars in a slab, is based upon
(A) Minimum bending moment
(B) Maximum bending moment
(C) Maximum shear force
(D) Minimum shear force
Answer: Option B
Question No. 211

The shear reinforcement in R.C.C. is provided to resist
(A) Vertical shear
(B) Horizontal shear
(C) Diagonal compression
(D) Diagonal tension
Answer: Option D
Question No. 212

A simply supported beam 6 m long and of effective depth 50 cm, carries a uniformly distributed
load 2400 kg/m including its self weight. If the lever arm factor is 0.85 and permissible tensile
stress of steel is 1400 kg/cm2, the area of steel required, is
(A) 14 cm2
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(B) 15 cm2
(C) 16 cm2
(D) 17 cm2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 213

The anchorage value of a hook is assumed sixteen times the diameter of the bar if the angle of the
bend, is
(A) 30°
(B) 40°
(C) 45°
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 214

A circular slab subjected to external loading, deflects to form a
(A) Semi-hemisphere
(B) Ellipsoid
(C) Paraboloid
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 215

If a rectangular pre-stressed beam of an effective span of 5 meters and carrying a total load 3840
kg/m, is designed by the load balancing method, the central dip of the parabolic tendon should be
(A) 5 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 15 cm
(D) 20 cm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 216

The radius of a bar bend to form a hook, should not be less than
(A) Twice the diameter
(B) Thrice the diameter
(C) Four times the diameter
(D) Five times the diameter
Answer: Option A
Question No. 217

The reinforced concrete beam which has width 25 cm, lever arm 40 cm, shear force 6t/cm 2, safe
shear stress 5 kg/cm2 and B.M. 24 mt,
(A) Is safe in shear
(B) Is unsafe in shear
(C) Is over safe in shear
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(D) Needs redesigning

Answer: Option B
Question No. 218

If a bent tendon is required to balance a concentrated load W at the centre of the span L, the
central dip h must be at least
(A) WL/P
(B) WL/2P
(C) WL/3P
(D) WL/4P
Answer: Option D
Question No. 219

If the effective length of a 32 cm diameter R.C.C. column is 4.40 m, its slenderness ratio, is
(A) 40
(B) 45
(C) 50
(D) 55
Answer: Option D
Question No. 220

If W is total load per unit area on a panel, D is the diameter of the column head, L is the span in
two directions, then the sum of the maximum positive bending moment and average of the
negative bending moment for the design of the span of a square flat slab, should not be less than
(A) WL/12 (L - 2D/3)²
(B) WL/10 (L + 2D/3)²
(C) WL/10 (L - 2D/3)²
(D) WL/12 (L - D/3)²
Answer: Option C
Question No. 221

Piles are usually driven by
(A) Diesel operated hammer
(B) Drop hammer
(C) Single acting steam hammer
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 222

In a combined footing for two columns carrying unequal loads, the maximum hogging bending
moment occurs at
(A) Less loaded column
(B) More loaded column
(C) A point of the maximum shear force
(D) A point of zero shear force
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 223

If the average bending stress is 6 kg/cm2 for M 150 grade concrete, the length of embedment of a
bar of diameter d according to I.S. 456 specifications, is
(A) 28 d
(B) 38 d
(C) 48 d
(D) 58 d
Answer: Option D
Question No. 224

The live load to be considered for an inaccessible roof, is
(A) Nil
(B) 75 kg/m2
(C) 150 kg/cm2
(D) 200 kg/m2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 225

A pile of length carrying a uniformly distributed load per metre length is suspended at the
centre and from other two points 0.15 L from either end ; the maximum hogging moment will be
(A) WL²/15
(B) WL²/30
(C) WL²/60
(D) WL²/90
Answer: Option D
Question No. 226

An R.C.C. roof slab is designed as a two way slab if
(A) It supports live loads in both directions
(B) The ratio of spans in two directions is less than 2
(C) The slab is continuous over two supports
(D) The slab is discontinuous at edges
Answer: Option B
Question No. 227

The design of a retaining wall assumes that the retained earth
(A) Is dry
(B) Is free from moisture
(C) Is not cohesive
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 228

A foundation rests on
(A) Base of the foundation
(B) Sub-grade
(C) Foundation soil
Answer: Option D
Question No. 229

The advantage of a concrete pile over a timber pile, is
(A) No decay due to termites
(B) No restriction on length
(C) Higher bearing capacity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 230

For stairs spanning horizontally, the minimum waist provided is
(A) 4 cm
(B) 6 cm
(C) 8 cm
(D) 12 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 231

The toe projection of foundation slabs is taken
(A) As one third of the base
(B) As one sixth of overall height of the wall
(C) Equal to heel slab
(D) Below ground surface
Answer: Option A
Question No. 232

The horizontal portion of a step in a stairs case, is known as
(A) Rise
(B) Flight
(C) Winder
(D) Tread
Answer: Option D
Question No. 233

The maximum ratio of span to depth of a cantilever slab, is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
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(D) 16
Answer: Option C
Question No. 234

[A + (m - 1)ASC] known as equivalent concrete area of R.C.C. is given by
(A) Modular ratio method
(B) Load factor method
(C) Ultimate load method
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 235

If permissible working stresses in steel and concrete are respectively 1400 kg/cm 2 and 80
kg/cm2 and modular ratio is 18, in a beam reinforced in tension side and of width 30 cm and
having effective depth 46 cm, the lever arms of the section, is
(A) 37 cm
(B) 38 cm
(C) 39 cm
(D) 40 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 236

A pre-stressed concrete member
(A) Is made of concrete
(B) Is made of reinforced concrete
(C) Is stressed after casting
(D) Possesses internal stresses
Answer: Option D
Question No. 237

A flat slab is supported
(A) On beams
(B) On columns
(C) On beams and columns
(D) On columns monolithically built with slab
Answer: Option D
Question No. 238

A foundation is called shallow if its depth, is
(A) One-fourth of its width
(B) Half of its width
(C) Three-fourth of its width
(D) Equal to its width
Answer: Option D
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Elements of Remote Sensing
Question No. 01
(A) Topology describes the geometric characteristic of objects which do not change under
transformations and are independent of any coordinate system
(B) Topological characteristics of an object are independent of scale measurement
(C) The three elements of topology are adjacency, containment, and connectivity
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 02
(A) In remote sensing technique, the observation place, is called a platform
(B) Platforms may be either stationary or mobile
(C) Spatial resolution of the imaging system becomes poorer with increase of platform height
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 03
Formation of snow occurs if the cloud temperature is
(A) Just above the freezing point
(B) At the freezing point
(C) Below the freezing point
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 04
In the given figure the phase of
(A) crest A
(B) B
(C) Trough C is 3
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 05
Coherence of two electromagnetic waves takes place if their phase difference is:
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(A) Constant in time

(B) Constant in space
(C) Constant in time and space
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 06
(A) Indian space effort started in 1962 with the establishment of a rocket
(B) Development of space (DOS) was established by the Government of India in 1972
(C) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is responsible for the space technology and its
application to various activities
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 07
(A) For the same feature, the photograph taken from the satellite vertically above the aircraft,
the height displacement is lesser than the aerial photograph
(B) The scale of the aerial photograph depends upon the scale of the topography
(C) The feature at the principal point has no height displacement
Answer: Option D
Question No. 08
The coherence length over which there is a strong relationship between amplitudes is;
(A) Directly proportional to the bandwidth
(B) Inversely proportional to the bandwidth
(C) The square of the bandwidth
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 09
The reflectance from a surface is called specular reflection if it follows:
(A)
(B) Lambert's cosine law
(C) Planktan's law
(D) All of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 10
(A) A graphical representation of spectral reflectance verses the various growth stages of a crop,
depicts a phonologic pattern
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(B) The changes in the polarisation of the radiation reflected or emitted by an object, is known
as polarisation variation
(C) The degree of polarisation is a characteristic of the object which helps in the identification of
the object
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 11
Repetitive observations of the same area at equal interval of time are useful to monitor the
dynamic phenomena:
(A) Cloud evolution
(B) Vegetative cover
(C) Snow cover
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 12
Which one of the following parameters is considered to determine the reflectance of a vegetation
canopy?
(A) Solar zenith angle
(B) Azimuth angle
(C) Look angle
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 13
A perfectly black body:
(A) Is a diffuse emitter
(B) Absorbs all the radiations of every wave lengths
(C) Emits power of every wave length
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 14
sensor IFOV is
proportional to:
(A) sin2
(B) cos2
(C) sec2
(D) tan2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 15
Which one the following is a correct statement?
(A) The vertical section of the soil extending into the parent material, is called profile
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(B) The layers of the soil parallel to the earth surface are called horizons
(C) The transitional layer between two adjoining horizons is called boundary
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 16
In case of reflection and refraction of electromagnetic radiation,
(A) Angle of incidence = angle of refraction
(B) Angle of incidence = angle of reflection
(C) Angle of refraction = sum of the angles of incidence and refraction
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 17
(A) The minimum frequency of light for which no electrons are emitted, is called threshold
frequency
(B) Polarising angle of glass is 57.5°
(C) At the polarising angle, the reflected and refracted rays are orthogonal
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 18
Which one of the following factors does not affect the scale of the air photographs?
(A) Focal length
(B) Flying height
(C) Ground elevation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 19
Which one of the following statements regarding remote sensing is correct?
(A) The interaction of the electromagnetic radiation with the target
(B) The emission of electromagnetic radiation from the target
Answer: Option C
Question No. 20
The optical property of a water body depends on:
(A) Absorption by the dissolved material
(B) Absorption by the suspended particulate matter
(C) Scattering by the suspended particulate matter
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 21
(A) Frequency is the number of wave crests passing a fixed point in one second
(B) Frequency of a wave is measured in Hertz (Hz)
(C) Amplitude of a wave is the height of its crust from the mid-point
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 22
The object of photo-interpretation is:
(A) Identification
(B) Recognition of objects
(C) Judging the significance of objects
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 23
(A) Phytoplankton contains photosynthetically active pigment
(B) An increase of phytoplankton increases the back scattering in the green region
(C) An increase of phytoplankton absorbs the bule region rapidly
(D) An increase of phytoplankton decreases the back scattering in the green region
Answer: Option D
Question No. 24
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the GPS satellites?
(A) The nominal altitude is about 20,200 km
(B) The inclination of axis satellite is 55°
(C) The satellite transmits two L band signals (L1 with 1575.42 MHz and L2 with 1276.6 MHz)
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 25
(A) During the day, earth reflects solar radiation
(B) During the day, earth reflects both solar radiations the emission from its surface
(C) During the night, earth emits radiation from its surface
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 26
A reduction of nitrogen nutrient in plants:
(A) Affects leaf colour
(B) Reduces pigment concentration
(C) Increase the visible reflectivity
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(D) All of these

Answer: Option D
Question No. 27
Remote sensing techniques make use of the properties of ___________ emitted, reflected or
diffracted by the sensed objects:
(A) Electric waves
(B) Sound waves
(C) Electromagnetic waves
(D) Wind waves
Answer: Option C
Question No. 28
Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding the electromagnetic radiation?
(A) These are produced by the motion of electric charge
(B) The oscillation of charged particles sets up changing electric fields
(C) The changing electric fields induce the changing magnetic fields in the surrounding medium
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 29
The altitudinal distance of a geostationary satellite from the earth is about:
(A) 26,000 km
(B) 30,000 km
(C) 36,000 km
(D) 44,000 km
Answer: Option C
Question No. 30
The ratio of the total solar radiant energy returned by a planetary body to the total radiant energy
incident on the body, the called:
(A) Reflectance
(B) Reflectance factor
(C) Albedo
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 31
Due to scan geometry of a satellite sensor:
(A) The off-nadir resolution is degraded
(B) The ground distance swept by the senor, IFOV is proportional to sec2
of scan measured from the nadir
(C) The details towards the edge of the scan get compressed
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 32
Which one of the following statement is correct?
(A) Radiant energy expressed in Joules, is the energy associated with electromagnetic radiation
(B) The rate of transfer of radiant energy is called flux and is expressed in watts
(C) The radiant energy which falls upon a surface is termed as irradiance
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 33
Which one of the following parameters is accurate for DGPS?
(A) Positional accuracies ~ 1 - 2 m if rover is less than 1-2 km from the reference station
(B) Positional accuracies ~ 2 - 5m if rover is less than 2-5 fm from the reference station
(C) Positional accuracies ~ 5 - 10 m if rover is less than 5-10 km from reference station
(D) Positional accuracies ~ 5 - 10 m if rover is less than 25 km
Answer: Option A
Question No. 34
(A) The surface defined by the locus of points having same phase, is called a wave front
(B) The wave whose surface of constant phase are parallel planes, is known as a plane wave
(C) The relative phase difference between the waves is important and not the absolute phase of
a point on the wave
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 35
(A)
(B) The cone subtended by an area on the sphere at the centre, is called the solid angle
(C) The solid angle is equal to the ratio of the area on the sphere and the square of the radius of
the sphere
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 36
Crop Acreage and Production Estimation (CAPE) was funded and taken up in 1983 by:
(A) USA
(B) European Union
(C) Russia
(D) India
Answer: Option D
Question No. 37
'A time varying electric field produces a magnetic field.' This phenomenon is called:
(A) Hertz's law
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(B) Ampere Maxwell's law

(C) Faraday's law
(D)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 38
The changes in the reflectivity/emissivity with time, is called:
(A) Spectral variation
(B) Spatial variation
(C) Temporal variation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 39
(A) Snow albedo falls at all wave length with the increase of grain size
(B) The effect of grain size on reflection is maximum in the near-IR region
(C) The effect of grain size on reflection is low in the visible region of the spectrum
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 40
Due to perturbation of the orbit, satellite orbit parameters are frequently updated on
measurements carried out by its
(A) Six ground stations
(B) Five ground stations
(C) Four ground stations
(D) Three ground stations
Answer: Option B
Question No. 41
Which one of the following helps to identify the objects on the earth surface?
(A) Atmospheric window
(B) Signature
(C) Radiometric error
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 42
(A) Phase of a wave is expressed as a fraction of a period with respect to a reference
(B) Phase is usually specified by angular measure with one period being 360°
(C) The reference for finding the phase of a wave is taken from the previous passage through
zero from the negative to the positive direction
(D) All of these
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 43
The reflection of solar energy is characterised by the water content in the leaf, in the reflective
optical infrared:
(A) Visible (0.4 -
(B) Near-IR (0.7 -
(C) Short wave-IR (1.3 -
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 44
The interaction of the electromagnetic radiation produced with a specific wave length to
illuminate a target on the terrain for studying its scattered radiance, is called:
(A) Passive remote sensing
(B) Active remote sensing
(C) Neutral remote sensing
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 45
For interpolation of satellite data used for monitoring dynamic changes that occurs on the earth
surface, the most suitable orbit for the satellite is:
(A) Circular orbit
(B) Sun-synchronous orbit
(C) Near polar orbit
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 46
Electromagnetic spectrum contains:
(A) Gamma rays (wave length < 10-10 m)
(B) Ultraviolet rays (wave length < 10-6 m)
(C) Infrared rays (wave length < 10-4 m)
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 47
Which one of the following quantities forms the basis of radiometry?
(A) Radiant energy (Q)
(B) Radiant flux ( )
(C) Radiant intensity (I)
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 48
According to the Snell's law if an electromagnetic wave is incident in a medium (refractive
index n1) on another medium (refractive index m2);
(A) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of refraction
(B) The angle of refraction r) is given by sin i
Answer: Option B
Question No. 49
The refractive index of the ocean water:
(A) Increases with salinity
(B) Increases with temperature
(C) Decreases with salinity
(D) Decreases with temperature
Answer: Option A
Question No. 50
The phase difference of the waves 1 and 2 at A in the given figure is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option B
Question No. 51
Pick up the correct definition from the following with response to GIS.
(A) Common boundary between two areas of a locality is known as adjacency
(B) The area features which are wholly contained within another area feature, is known so
containment
(C) The geometric property which describes the linkage between line features is defined as
connectivity
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 52
The various stages occuring in GPS system are described below:
1. Generation of an output to the user
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2. Detection of the GPS signals

3. Processing the data in the built-in-computer
4. Decoding the GPS signal.
The correct sequence of the stages is:
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 2, 4, 3, 1
(D) 3, 1, 2 , 4
Answer: Option C
Question No. 53
The normal altitude of GPS satellite is about
(A) 16,200 km
(B) 20,200 km
(C) 24,400 km
(D) 36,100 km
Answer: Option B
Question No. 54
Geodimeter is based on:
(A) Propagation of modulated light waves
(B) Propagation of infrared radiation
(C) The visible light as carrier with frequency of the order of 5 × 1014 Hz
(D) High frequency radio waves
Answer: Option A
Question No. 55
The code based GPS receivers are generally used for:
(A) Vehicle tracking
(B) Land navigation
(C) Trans movement
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 56
(A) The refractive index of a medium varies according to the wavelength of the radiation,
(B) The variation of the refractive index with wave length, is called dispersion,
(C) The splitting of colours of white light by passing through a prism is caused due to dispersion
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 57
While propagating through homogeneous, isotropic media,
(A) Directions of both the fields are orthogonal
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(B) Both the fields are at right angles to the direction of propagation
Answer: Option C
Question No. 58
The arrangement of terrain features which provides attributes: the shape, size and texture of
objects, is called:
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 59
Which one of the following errors is produced by platform characteristics of the sensor?
(A) Altitude variation
(B) Altitude
(C) Orbit drift
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 60
(A) When the electric field oscillates in the direction of the electric vector, a plane polarised
wave is formed
(B) When the electric vector is in the plane of incidence, vertical polarisation is formed
(C) When the electric vector is at right angles to the plane of incidence, horizontal polarization
wave is formed
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 61
Leaf reflectance depends primarily on:
(A) The pigments
(B) Internal cell structure
(C) Equivalent water content
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 62
If flying height of a spacecraft is H, the length of air base is B and the parallax difference between
two points is dp, then the difference in height
(A) h = dp/(B/H)
(B) h = (B/H) dp
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(C) h = dp/(H/B)
(D) h = (H/B) dp
Answer: Option A
Question No. 63
Critical angle of electromagnetic radiation takes place if
(A) Angle of incidence is equal to angle of refraction
(B) Angle of incidence is greater than the angle of refraction
(C) Angle of incidence is equal to 90°
(D) Angle of refraction is equal to 90°
Answer: Option D
Question No. 64
Earth observations from a satellite platform provide:
(A) Synoptic view of a large area
(B) Constant solar zenith angles and similar illumination conditions
(C) Repetitive observations of the same area with intervals of a few minutes to a few weeks
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 65
DGPS is based on the concept that bias errors in the position of locations in a given local area, are
same if their distances are within
(A) 25 km
(B) 50 km
(C) 75 km
(D) 100 km
Answer: Option D
Question No. 66
Electromagnetic radiation:
(A) Produces a time varying magnetic field and vice versa
(B) Once generated, remains self-propagating
(C) Is capable to travel across space
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 67
Which one of the following residual biases involves the GPS accuracy?
(A) Satellite dependent biases due to uncertainty in the orbital parameters of the satellite
(B) Receiver-dependent biases due to clock stability with line
(C) Signal propagation biases due to the sphere and troposphere propagation
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 68
A and B are two towers of equal height diametrically opposite on either side of the nadir point,
at 3 km and 5 km distances. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Height displacement of A will be less than that of B
(B) Height displacement of B will be less than that of A
(C) Height displacement of A and B is equal
(D) Height displacement of A and B will be towards each other
Answer: Option A
Question No. 69
The entire range of the electromagnetic spectrum spans a large spectrum of wave lengths varying
from:
(A) 10-10 to 106 m
(B) 10-8 to 106 m
(C) 10-10 to 1010 m
(D) 10-8 to 108 m
Answer: Option A
Question No. 70
Consider the following statements regarding the satellite imaging:
1. The satellite orbit is fixed in the inertial space
2. During successive across-track imaging, the earth rotates beneath the sensor
3. The satellite images a skewed area
Which one of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 3
(C) 2, 3
(D) 1, 2
Answer: Option A
Question No. 71
The GPS space segment consists of Navigation Satellite Timing and Ranging whose number is:
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 16
(D) 24
Answer: Option D
Question No. 72
Pick up the important characteristic of a target which facilitates its identification from the
following:
(D) All of these
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 73
Rayleigh's criterion for a rough surface is: (where letters carry their usual meanings).
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: Option C
Question No. 74
The value of energy quantum for radiation of any frequency is proportional to:
(A) The frequency
(B) The reciprocal of the energy
(C) The square of the frequency
(D) The square root of the frequency
Answer: Option A
Question No. 75
(A) The function of an information system is to improve one s ability to make decisions
(B) The information system is the chain of operations
(C) A map is a collection of stored, analysed data, its stored information is suitability used in
making decisions
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 76
The infrared portion of EMR lies between
(A) 0.4 -
(B) 0.5 mm to 1
(C) 0.7 -
(D)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 77
Which one of the following geometric errors of satellite sensors is random?
(A) Scan skew
(B) Panoramic distortion
(C) Earth rotation
(D) Altitude variation
Answer: Option D
Question No. 78
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(A) The first man-made satellite, Sputnik-l' was launched on 4th October, 1957
(B) The United State's Explorer 6 transmitted the first picture of the earth in August 1959
(C) Television Infrared Observation Satellite (TIROS) designed for meteorological observations,
started systematic earth observations from space from 1, April, 1960
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 79
Which one of the following frequency regions is a part of sun's radiation?
(A) Ultraviolet frequency region
(B) Infrared frequency region
(C) Radio frequency region
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 80
The spectral region of the electromagnetic radiation which passes through the atmosphere
without much attenuation is known as:
(A) Ozone hole
(B) Atmospheric window
(C) Ozone window
(D) Black hole
Answer: Option B
Question No. 81
Which on
speed (C) of the electromagnetic wave is correct?
(A) C = v
(B) C = /v
(C) C = v
(D) C = 1/
Answer: Option C
Question No. 82
In GPS, receivers used are;
(A) Electronic clocks
(B) Atomic clocks
(C) Quartz clocks
(D) Mechanical clocks
Answer: Option C
Question No. 83
For C band Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) with Doppler band width of 1300 Hz, the coherence
length loch is:
(A) 130 km
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(B) 230 km
(C) 250 km
(D) 500 km
Answer: Option B
Question No. 84
Which one of the following attributes is not associated with digital maps
(A) Colour
(B) Symbology
(C) Legends
(D) South arrow
Answer: Option D
Question No. 85
The instruments which provide electromagnetic radiation of specified wave length or a band of
wave lengths to illuminate the earth surface are called:
(A) Sensors
(B) Passive sensors
(C) Active sensors
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 86
The most widely used antenna in GPS is
(A) Parabolic antenna
(B) Microstrip antenna
(C) Horn antenna
(D) Slotted antenna
Answer: Option B
Question No. 87
Orbital radius of GPS satellites is approximately:
(A) 15,200 km
(B) 26,600 km
(C) 18,400 km
(D) 36,000 km
Answer: Option B
Question No. 88
If electric permittivity and magnetic permeability of the medium are respectively and , then
the velocity (Cm) of the electromagnetic wave in the medium is given by:
(A) Cm = 1/
(B) Cm
(C) Cm
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option B
Question No. 89
The part radiation due to scattered/diffused radiation entering the field of view of a remote
sensor other than that from the required target,
(A) Reduces the contrast of the image and also its sharpness
(B) Increases the contrast of the image but reduces the sharpness
(C) Increases both the contrast and sharpness
(D) Reduces the contrast but increases the sharpness
Answer: Option A
Question No. 90
Pick up the correct statement from the following
(A) The ratio of the up flux and down flux just above the snow surface, is called albedo
(B) Spectral albedo of snow is calculated for the semi-infinite snow thickness
(C) Water equivalent height of snow is the height of water column obtained by melting snow
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 91
Spatial variation in horizontal and vertical directions is caused due to:
(A) Physical weathering of rocks
(B) Chemical weathering of rocks
(C) Biological weathering of rocks
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 92
The basic requirement of any sensor system is:
(A) Radiometric resolution
(B) Spatial resolution
(C) Spectral resolution
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 93
The remote sensing techniques applied for the earth's surface features, is generally confined to
the following wave lengths:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 94
(A) Permeability is a measure of conducting the magnetic lines of force in the material
(B) Permeability is a measure of the extent to which magnetic lines of force can penetrate a
medium
(C) Permeability is expressed as the ratio of the magnetic flux density (B) to the field strength of
the magnetizing field
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 95
"An Electromagnetic wave falls on to a boundary between two losses less homogeneous media
with different refractive indices, a part of the wave is reflected back to the incident medium and
the rest is transmitted on to the second media". This phenomenon is known as:
(A) Fresnel reflection
(B) Fresnel refraction
(C) Snell's law
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 96
A passive sensor uses:
(A) Sun as the source of energy
(B) Flash light as a source of energy
(C) Its own source of energy
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 97
Who coined the term, 'Remote sensing'.
(A) Evelyn L. Pruitt, a geographer
(B) Gaspard Felix Tournachon, a French scientist
(C) Wilbur Wright, an Italian scientist
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 98
The maximum sun's radiation occurs around:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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Waste Water Engineering
Question No. 01
For a continuous flow type of sedimentation tanks
(A) Width of the tank is normally kept about 6 m
(B) Length of the tank is normally kept 4 to 5 times the width
(C) Maximum horizontal flow velocity is limited to 0.3 m/minute
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 02
The asbestos cement sewers are
(A) Light in weight
(B) Not structurally strong to bear large compressive stress
(C) Susceptible to corrosion by sulphuric acid
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 03
For efficient working of a sewer, it must be ensured that
(A) Minimum velocity of 0.45 m/sec, is maintained at its minimum flow
(B) A maximum velocity of 0.90 m/sec, is maintained at its maximum flow
Answer: Option C
Question No. 04
(A) The sewer pipes of sizes less than 0.4 m diameter are designed as running full at maximum
discharge
(B) The sewer pipes of sizes greater than 0.4 m diameter are designed as running 2/3rd or 3/4th
full at maximum discharge
(C) The minimum design velocity of sewer pipes is taken as 0.8 m/sec
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 05
(A) Maximum daily flow = 2 times the average daily flow
(B) Maximum daily flow = average daily flow
(C) Sewers are designed for minimum permissible velocity at minimum flow
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 06
Bottom openings 15 cm × 15 cm in the standing baffle wall are provided
(A) 15 cm c/c
(B) 22.5 cm c/c
(C) 30 cm c/c
(D) 50 cm c/c
Answer: Option B
Question No. 07
The pressure exerted by
(A) The sewage when running full from inside, is called internal pressure
(B) The internal pressure if any, causes tensile stress in the pipe material
(C) Pressure sewers are designed to be safe in tension
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 08
For drainage pipes in buildings the test applied before putting them to use, is
(A) Water test
(B) Smoke test
(C) Straightness test
(D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Question No. 09
No treatment of the sewage is given if dilution factor is
(A) Less than 150
(B) Between 150 to 200
(C) Between 200 to 300
(D) More than 500
Answer: Option D
Question No. 10
Which of the following pumps in used to pump sewage solids with liquid sewage without clogging
the pump is?
(A) Centrifugal pump
(B) Pneumatic ejector
(C) Reciprocating pump
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 11
Acid regression stage of sludge digestion at a temperature 21°C extends over a period of
(A) 15 days
(B) 30 days
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(C) 60 days
(D) 90 days
Answer: Option D
Question No. 12
(A) Small sewers are cleaned by flushing
(B) Medium sewers are cleaned by cane rodding
(C) Medium sewers may be cleaned by pills
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 13
The coagulant which is generally not used for treating the sewage, is
(A) Alum
(B) Ferric chloride
(C) Ferric sulphate
(D) Chlorinated copperas
Answer: Option A
Question No. 14
The layers of vegetable wastes and night soil alternatively piled above the ground to form a
mound, is called
(A) A heap
(B) Plateau
(C) Windrow
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 15
If the flame of a miner's safety lamp in the upper layers of the sewer forms an explosive, the
sewer certainly contains
(A) Hydrogen sulphide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Oxygen
Answer: Option C
Question No. 16
The gas which may cause explosion in sewers, is
(A) Carbondioxide
(B) Methane
(C) Ammonia
(D) Carbon monoxide
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 17
(A) The water supply pipes carry pure water free from solid particles
(B) The water supply pipes get clogged if flow velocity is less than self cleansing velocity
(C) The sewers may be carried up and down the hills and valleys
(D) The sewer pipes are generally laid along level hills
Answer: Option A
Question No. 18
(A) The process of decomposing the organic matter under controlled anaerobic conditions, is
called sludge digestion
(B) Sludge digestion is carried out in sludge tank
(C) The gases produced in sludge digestion process, contain 75% carbon dioxide
(D) The gases produced in sludge digestion process, contain 75% methane
Answer: Option C
Question No. 19
The sewer pipes
(A) Carry sewage as gravity conduits
(B) Are designed for generating self-cleansing velocities at different discharge
(C) Should resist the wear and tear caused due to abrasion
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 20
The settling velocity of the particles larger than 0.06 mm in a settling tank of depth 2.4 is 0.33 m
per sec. The detention period recommended for the tank, is
(A) 30 minutes
(B) 1 hour
(C) 1 hour and 30 minutes
(D) 2 hours
Answer: Option D
Question No. 21
The Chezy's constant C in the formula V = C depends upon
(A) Size of the sewer
(B) Shape of the sewer
(C) Roughness of sewer surface
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 22
The discharge per unit plan area of a sedimentation tank, is generally called
(A) Over flow rate
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(B) Surface loading

(C) Over flow velocity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 23
Pick up the incorrect statement from the following for allowing workers to enter sewers
(A) The particular manhole and one manhole on upstream and one manhole on downstream
should remain open for 30 minutes
(B) Proper tests for the presence of poisonous gases must be carried out
(C) The men entering the manhole should be advised to smoke in the sewer
(D) Warning signals should be erected
Answer: Option C
Question No. 24
For the open drain (N = 0.025) shown in the below figure, the discharge is
(A) 26.88 cumecs

(B) 27.88 cumecs
(C) 28.88 cumecs
(D) 29.88 cumecs
Answer: Option C
Question No. 25
To prevent settling down of sewage both at the bottom and on the sides of a large sewer, self-
cleaning velocity recommended for Indian conditions, is
(A) 0.50 m/sec
(B) 0.60 m/sec
(C) 0.70 m/sec
(D) 0.75 m/sec
Answer: Option D
Question No. 26
Assertion (A): The determination of pH value of sewerage is important.
Reason (R): The efficiency of certain treatment methods depends upon the availability of pH value.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
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Answer: Option A
Question No. 27
The normal values of over flow rates for sedimentation tanks using coagulant, ranges between
(A) 25,000 to 35,000 litres/sqm/day
(B) 40,000 to 50,000 litres/sqm/day
(C) 50,000 to 60,000 litres/sqm/day
(D) 80,000 to 100,000 litres/sqm/day
Answer: Option C
Question No. 28
The drainage area of a town is 12 hectares. Its 40% area is hard pavement (K = 0.85), the 40% area
is unpaved streets (K = 0.20) and the remaining is wooded areas (K = 0.15). Assuming the time of
concentration for the areas as 30 minutes and using the formula Ps = 900/(t + 60) the maximum
run off is
(A) 0.10 cumec
(B) 0.12 cumec
(C) 0.15 cumec
(D) 0.20 cumec
Answer: Option C
Question No. 29
Sewer pipes are designed for maximum discharge with 25% to 33% vacant cross-sectional area for
(A) Unexpected large scale infiltration of stream water
(B) Unexpected increase in the population
(C) Under estimates of maximum and average flows
Answer: Option D
Question No. 30
The rational formula for peak drainage discharge, was evolved by
(A) Fruhling
(B) Lloyd David
(C) Kuichling
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 31
The sewer that unloads the sewage at the point of treatment is called
(A) Main sewer
(B) Outfall sewer
(C) Branch sewer
(D) House sewer
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 32
During preliminary treatment of a sewage
(A) Oil and grease are removed from skimming tanks
(B) Floating materials are removed by screening
(C) Girt and sand are removed by girt chambers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 33
For a grit chamber, if the recommended velocity of flow is 0.2 m/sec and detention period is 2
minutes, the length of the tank, is
(A) 16 m
(B) 20 m
(C) 24 m
(D) 30 m
Answer: Option C
Question No. 34
Dry weather flow is:
(A) Average daily rate of flow
(B) Average monthly rate of flow
(C) Average annual rate of flow
(D) Water supply allowance per capita
Answer: Option D
Question No. 35
(A) The mixture of water and waste products, is called sewage
(B) The treated sewage effluents, are generally used for irrigating the crops
(C) The process of collecting, treating and disposing off the sewage, is called sewerage
(D) The old convergence system was definitely better than water carried sewerage system
Answer: Option D
Question No. 36
(A) The maximum rate of storm runoff is called peak drainage discharge
(B) Rational method of estimating peak run off, may be used precisely for areas less than 50
hectares
(C) The period after which the entire area starts contributing to the runoff, is called the time of
concentration
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 37
If q is the average sewage flow from a city of population P, the maximum sewage flow
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(A) Q = [(4 + )/(18 + )] q

(B) Q = [(18 + P)/(4 + )] q
(C) Q = [(18 + )/(4 + )] q
(D) Q = [(5 + )/((15 + )] q
Answer: Option C
Question No. 38
¾th or ¼th extra space is left in sewer pipes at maximum discharge for
(A) Low estimates of the average and maximum flows
(B) Large scale infiltration of storm water
(C) Unexpected increase in population
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 39
If the flame of a miner's safety lamp in a manhole extinguishes within 5 minutes, the sewer
certainly contains
(A) Hydrogen sulphide
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Oxygen
Answer: Option B
Question No. 40
Hydraulic mean radius is
(A) Mean radius of sewer
(B) Difference in heads between two points in circular pipes
(C) Mean of radii in a pipe line of varying cross-sections
(D) Cross-sectional area/wetted perimeter
Answer: Option D
Question No. 41
If the depth of flow in a circular sewer is 1/4th of its diameter D, the wetted perimeter is
(A) /2
(B) /4
(C) /3
(D) D
Answer: Option C
Question No. 42
(A) Anaerobic bacteria flourish in the absence of oxygen
(B) Aerobic bacteria flourish in the presence of oxygen
(C) Facultative bacteria flourish with or without oxygen
(D) All the above
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 43
The Brake Horse power of the motor (efficiency 60%) required for a pump of capacity 0.075 cumec
for a total lift of 12 m, is
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: Option C
Question No. 44
Aerobic bacterias
(A) Flourish in the presence of free oxygen
(B) Consume organic matter as their food
(C) Oxidise organic matter in sewage
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 45
At the junction of sewers
(A) Top of smaller sewer is kept lower
(B) Top of larger sewer is kept lower
(C) Tops of both the sewers are at the same level
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 46
Traps
(A) Are water seals which prevent the entry of foul gases
(B) Are used to trap the rats entering sewers
(C) Dissolve the foul gases
(D) Create symphonic action to increase the quick disposal of sewerage
Answer: Option A
Question No. 47
The sewage treatment units in which anaerobic decomposition of organic matter is used, are
called
(A) Imhoff tanks
(B) Trickling filters
(C) Sludge sedimentation tanks
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 48
(A) In treated sewage, 4 ppm of D.O. is essential
(B) Only very fresh sewage contains some dissolved oxygen
(C) The solubility of oxygen in sewage is 95% that is in distilled water
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 49
If the diameter of a sewer is 150 mm, the gradient required for generating self cleansing velocity,
is
(A) 1 in 60
(B) 1 in 100
(C) 1 in 120
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 50
The sewer which received discharge from two or more main sewers, is known as
(A) A trunk sewer
(B) An outfall sewer
(C) A main sewer
(D) An intercepting sewer
Answer: Option A
Question No. 51
The grit and silt of the grit chambers, may not be used for
(A) Raising low lying areas by dumping
(B) Concreting
Answer: Option B
Question No. 52
For treating the sewage of a large city, you will recommend
(A) A sedimentation tank and an activated sludge treatment plant
(B) A plant consisting of Imhoff tanks with low rate trickling filters
(C) Sedimentation tanks with high rate trickling filters
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 53
Imhoff cone is used to measure
(A) Total organic solids
(B) Total solids
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(C) Total in organic solids

(D) Settleable solids
Answer: Option D
Question No. 54
(A) The ratio of the quantity of the diluting water to that of the sewage, is known as dilution
factor
(B) The automatic purification of polluted water, is known self purification phenomenon
(C) The photosynthesis is carried out in the presence of sun light
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 55
1000 kg of sewage contains
(A) 0.112 kg in suspension
(B) 0.112 kg in solution
(C) 0.225 kg in solution
(D) Both (a) and (c) of above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 56
Dilution method of disposing of sewage, is not preferred to
(A) When sewage is fresh
(B) When diluting water has high dissolved oxygen content
(C) When diluting water is used for water supply near the point of sewage disposed
(D) When the diluting water is having flow currents
Answer: Option C
Question No. 57
If the peak discharge of a storm water drain (S.W. Drain) is expected to exceed 150 cumecs, the
free board to be provided, is
(A) 100 cm
(B) 90 cm
(C) 80 cm
(D) 50 cm
Answer: Option A
Question No. 58
The reduced levels of the string at the consecutive sight rails A and B are 203.575 m, 203.475 m
respectively. If the difference of their R.D.s is 10 m, the gradient of the sewer line is
(A) 1 in 100 upward
(B) 1 in 500 upward
(C) 1 in 100 downward
(D) 1 in 503 upward
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Answer: Option C
Question No. 59
R.M.O. expenses include
(A) Running expenses
(B) Maintenance expenses
(C) Operation expenses
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 60
For the COD test of sewage, organic matter is oxidised by K2Cr2O7 in the presence of
(A) H2SO4
(B) HNO3
(C) HCl
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 61
The sludge does not contain waste water from
(A) Bath rooms
(B) Wash basins
(C) Kitchen sinks
(D) Toilets
Answer: Option D
Question No. 62
In sewers the velocity of flow should not be
(A) More than the self-cleansing velocity
(B) Less than the self-cleansing velocity
(C) Less than 10 m/sec
(D) More than 20 m/sec
Answer: Option B
Question No. 63
(A) Hydrogen sulphide gas in excess, may cause corrosion of concrete sewers
(B) 4 ppm of Dissolved Oxygen (D.O.) is ensured before discharging the treated sewage in river
(C) Solubility of oxygen in sewage is 95% of that of distilled water
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 64
In sewers the effect of scouring is more on
(A) Top side
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(B) Bottom side

(C) Horizontal side
(D) All sides
Answer: Option B
Question No. 65
The rainfall at any place may be determined by
(A) Its intensity
(B) Its direction
(C) Its frequency
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 66
(A) The circular section of sewers provides maximum hydraulic mean depth
(B) The circular sewers are provided for separate sewerage system
(C) The circular sewers work efficiently if the sections run at least half full
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 67
(A) Rate of digestion of sludge is more at higher temperature
(B) Thermophilic organisms digest the sludge if the temperature ranges from 40° to 60°C
(C) Mesophilic organisms digest the sludge if the temperature is between 25° and 40°C
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 68
Sewer ventilating columns are generally placed at
(A) Distances 150 m to 300 m
(B) Upper ends of branch sewers
(C) Every change in the size of sewers
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 69
The sewer which resists sulphide corrosion, is
(A) Brick sewer
(B) Cast iron sewer
(C) R.C.C. sewer
(D) Lead sewer
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 70
In a sedimentation tank (length L, width B, depth D) the settling velocity of a particle for a
discharge Q, is
(A) Q/(B × D)
(B) Q/(L × D)
(C) Q/L
(D) Q/(B × L)
Answer: Option D
Question No. 71
The formula which accepts the value of rugosity coefficient n = 0.012 to be used in Manning's
formula, is given by
(A) Bazin
(B) Crimp and Bruges
(C) William-Hazen
(D) Kutter
Answer: Option B
Question No. 72
The amount of oxygen consumed by the aerobic bacterias which cause the aerobic biological
decomposition of sewage, is known
(A) Bio-Chemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D.)
(B) Dissolved Oxygen (D.O.)
(C) Chemical Oxygen Demand (C.O.D.)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 73
Water content of sewage is about
(A) 90 %
(B) 95 %
(C) 99 %
(D) 9.9 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 74
Skimming tanks are
(A) Used to remove the grease and oil
(B) Those from which sludge is skimmed out
(C) Tanks provided with self-cleansing screens
(D) Improved version of grit chambers
Answer: Option A
Question No. 75
The most efficient cross-section of sewers in a combined sewerage system is
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(A) Parabolic
(B) Circular
(C) Rectangular
(D) New egged
Answer: Option B
Question No. 76
The detention period for plain sedimentation water tanks, is usually
(A) 4 to 8 hours
(B) 8 to 16 hours
(C) 16 to 24 hours
(D) 24 to 36 hours
Answer: Option A
Question No. 77
The factor responsible for purification of sewage in river is
(A) Hydrology
(B) Dissolved oxygen in water
(C) Temperature
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 78
Hume steel pipes are
(A) Steel pipes
(B) Steel shell coated from inside with cement mortar
(C) Steel shell coated from outside with cement mortar
Answer: Option D
Question No. 79
To maintain aerobic biological activity, the moisture content of the compost mass should be about
(A) 45 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 55 %
(D) 60 %
Answer: Option C
Question No. 80
(A) The larger the sewer in size, more will be velocity
(B) The smaller the sewer in size, less will be velocity
(C) The larger the sewer in size, no deposition will take place
(D) The larger the sewer in size, deposition will take place
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 81
The pH value of sewage is determined with the help of
(A) Imhoff Cone
(B) Turbid meter
(C) Potentiometer
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 82
If the length of overland flow from the critical point to the mouth of drain is 13.58 km and
difference in level between the critical point and drain mouth is 10 m, the inlet time is
(A) 2 hours
(B) 4 hours
(C) 6 hours
(D) 8 hours
Answer: Option D
Question No. 83
The normal value of over flow rates for plain primary sedimentation tanks, ranges between
(A) 25,000 to 35,000 litres/sqm/day
(B) 40,000 to 50,000 litres/sqm/day
(C) 50,000 to 60,000 litres/sqm/day
(D) 80,000 to 100,000 litres/sqm/day
Answer: Option B
Question No. 84
(A) Septic tanks are horizontal continuous flow type of sedimentation tanks
(B) Septic tanks are generally provided a detention period of 12 to 36 hours
(C) Septic tanks are completely covered and high vent shafts are provided for the escape of foul
gases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 85
Which one of the following statements regarding septic tanks is wrong?
(A) A gap of 7.5 cm between the bottom of the covering slab and the top level of scum is
provided
(B) The outlet invert level is kept 5 to 7.5 cm below the inlet invert level
(C) The minimum width of septic level is 90 cm
(D) The depth of tank is kept equal to its width
Answer: Option D
Question No. 86
In a trickling filter
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(A) Filtration process is used

(B) Biological action is used
Answer: Option B
Question No. 87
In areas where rainy season is limited to a few months, the type of sewerage system
recommended is
(A) Combined system
(B) Partially separate system
(C) Separate system
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 88
The rate of accumulation of sludge in septic tanks is recommended as
(A) 30 litres/person/year
(B) 25 litres/person/year
(C) 30 litres/person/month
(D) 25 litres/person/month
Answer: Option A
Question No. 89
Dried sewage after treatment is used as
(A) Fertilizer
(B) Building material
(C) Chemical for lowering B.O.D.
(D) Base material for paints
Answer: Option A
Question No. 90
For drains up to 15 cumecs, the depth d and width are related by
(A) d = 0.2 B
(B) d = 0.5 B
(C) B = 0.2 d
(D) B = 0.5 d
Answer: Option B
Question No. 91
In areas where light rains are uniformly distributed throughout the year, the type of sewerage
system to be adopted is
(A) Separate system
(B) Combined system
(C) Partially combined system
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(D) None of these

Answer: Option B
Question No. 92
Self-cleansing velocity is
(A) Velocity at dry weather flow
(B) Velocity of water at flushing
(C) Velocity at which no accumulation remains in the drains
(D) Velocity of water in a pressure filter
Answer: Option C
Question No. 93
5 days-biochemical oxygen demand (BOD5) is taken at a temperature of
(A) 0°C
(B) 15°C
(C) 20°C
(D) 25°C
Answer: Option C
Question No. 94
(A) Inlets are provided on the road surface at the lowest point for draining rain water
(B) Inlets are generally provided at an interval of 30 m to 60 m along straight roads
(C) Inlets having horizontal openings, are called horizontal inlets
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 95
If a 2% solution of sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20°C and the dissolved oxygen
depletion was found to be 8 mg/l. The BOD of the sewage is
(A) 100 mg/l
(B) 200 mg/l
(C) 300 mg/l
(D) 400 mg/l
Answer: Option D
Question No. 96
Pick up the in-correct statement from the following:
(A) Manholes are provided in sewer pipes at suitable intervals
(B) Catch basins are generally provided in sewers for carrying drainage discharge
(C) Inlets are generally provided in all sewers
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 97
A well oxidized sewage contains nitrogen mainly as
(A) Nitrates
(B) Nitrites
(C) Free ammonia
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 98
The moisture content of sludge is reduced from 90% to 80% in a sludge digestion tank. The
percentage decrease in the volume of sludge, is
(A) 25 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 10 %
(D) 5 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 99
In a sludge tank, the gas mainly produced, is
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide
Answer: Option D
Question No. 100

Bio-chemical oxygen demand (BOD) for the first 20 days in generally referred to
(A) Initial demand
(B) First stage demand
(C) Carbonaceous demand
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 101

Stoneware sewers are available in size
(A) 10 cm
(B) 15 cm
(C) 20 cm
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 102

If is the diameter of upper circular portion, the overall depth of New Egg shaped sewer section,
is
(A) 1.250 D
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(B) 1.350 D
(C) 1.425 D
(D) 1.625 D
Answer: Option D
Question No. 103

In normal conditions, the period for sludge digestion, is
(A) 10 days
(B) 20 days
(C) 30 days
(D) 60 days
Answer: Option C
Question No. 104

For evaporation and measurement of settable solids, the apparatus used, is
(A) A jar
(B) A breaker
(C) A test tube
(D) An Imhoff cone
Answer: Option D
Question No. 105

In trickling filter, B.O.D. is reduced to
(A) 30 to 40%
(B) 40 to 60%
(C) 60 to 80%
(D) 80 to 90%
Answer: Option C
Question No. 106

For design of sewers, percentage of sewage discharge is assumed
(A) 65 to 70%
(B) 70 to 75%
(C) 75 to 80%
(D) 85%
Answer: Option C
Question No. 107

The grit chambers of sewage treatment plants, are generally cleaned after
(A) 2 days
(B) 7 days
(C) 12 days
(D) 14 days
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 108

Hard water contains
(A) Calcium
(B) Magnesium bicarbonates
(C) Magnesium sulphate
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 109

The depth of the water table at a place is 45 m below the general ground level. To lift water from a
deep tube well in such a locality, the type of pump to be installed is
(A) Centrifugal pump
(B) Reciprocating pump
(C) Deep well turbine pump
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 110

In a well planned city, the layout of distribution pipes generally adopted, is
(A) Grid-iron system
(B) Interlaced system
(C) Reticulation system
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 111

A water channel supported above the ground over trestles, is generally called
(A) Flume
(B) Canal
(C) Aqueduct
(D) Tunnel
Answer: Option A
Question No. 112

(A) Free surface ground water is subjected to atmospheric pressure
(B) Water table surface rises and falls with seasons
(C) Depth of water table is directly proportional to the rate of drawl of water
(D) Level of water table remains stationary
Answer: Option D
Question No. 113

(A) The flow in strainer type wells is radial
(B) The flow in cavity type wells in spherical
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(C) In strainer type wells, area of flow depends upon the length of the strainer pipe
(D) In cavity type wells, area of flow depends upon the size of the cavity
Answer: Option C
Question No. 114

As per IS : 1172-1963, water required per head per day for average domestic purposes, is
(A) 50 litres
(B) 65 litres
(C) 85 litres
(D) 135 litres
Answer: Option D
Question No. 115

Water to the consumers may be supplied from
(A) Infiltration galleries connected to sump well
(B) Infiltration well dug out on the banks of rivers
(C) Ranney wells sunk to the water level
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 116

The duration of contact of chlorine with water before it is served to the first consumer, should be
at least
(A) 10 to 15 minutes
(B) 15 to 20 minutes
(C) 20 to 30 minutes
(D) 30 to 40 minutes
Answer: Option C
Question No. 117

Water supply system includes
(A) Digging a well for water
(B) Construction of dams
(C) Construction of canals
(D) Entire arrangement from source to distribution
Answer: Option D
Question No. 118

The maximum pressure to which a pipe is subjected to during its operation, is known
(A) Working pressure
(B) Design pressure
(C) Test pressure
(D) Pipe pressure
Answer: Option A
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Question No. 119

For the same draw down in two observations wells at distances r1 and r2, the times after start of
pumping are t1 and t2 hours respectively. The relation which holds good is
(A) t2 = r2/r1 × t1
(B) t2 = (r2/r1)² × t1
(C) t2 = (r2/r1)3 × t1
(D) t2 = (r2/r1) × t12
Answer: Option B
Question No. 120

Q is the discharge from an unconfined tube well with depression head s through its pipe of
radius rw. If the radius of influence is R, the length of the required strainer, is
(A) 2.3Q log10 (R/rw)2
(B) 2.3Q loge (R/rw)2
(C) 2.3Q loge (R/rw)/2
(D) 2.3Q log10 (R/rw)/2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 121

A slow sand filter is cleaned if its filter head is higher than
(A) 10 cm to 20 cm
(B) 20 cm to 40 cm
(C) 40 cm to 70 cm
(D) 70 cm to 120 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 122

The intake opening is generally covered by a screen to prevent entry of debris etc. and its level is
kept
(A) At the level of water of the source
(B) At the bottom of water of the source
(C) At about 2.5 m above the bottom
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 123

If four fires break out in a city of population 40 lakhs and if each hydrant has three streams and
duration of each fire is four hours, the total quantity of water required, is
(A) 1880 kilo litres
(B) 2880 kilo litres
(C) 3880 kilo litres
(D) 4880 kilo litres
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 124

Steel pipe are
(A) Suitable for withstanding high internal pressure
(B) Connected by riveted or welded joints
(C) Generally laid underground and no expansion joint is required
(D) Likely to last 100 years under ordinary conditions
Answer: Option D
Question No. 125

When gravity and pumping systems of water distribution are adopted, the type of distribution
reservoir, is
(A) Elevated tank
(B) Ground source reservoir
(C) Intz tank
(D) Stand pipe
Answer: Option A
Question No. 126

The force which develops in a pressure conduit supported on trestles, is
(A) Tension
(B) Compression
(C) Temperature stress
(D) Flexural stress
Answer: Option D
Question No. 127

Standard unit of turbidity of water is in one litre of distilled water, one milligram of finely divided
(A) Silica
(B) Mud
(C) Clay
(D) Organic matter
Answer: Option A
Question No. 128

For complete stabilisation of organic matter in polluted water, it takes
(A) 5 days
(B) 10 days
(C) 20 days
(D) 30 days
Answer: Option D
Question No. 129

If intensity of rainfall in cm per hour is I, percentage coefficient of run-off is P, area of catchment in
square kilometres is A, the total run-off Q, is given by
(A) Q = 1.758 × 102 × API
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(B) Q = 2.758 × 102 × API

(C) Q = 2.758 × 103 × API
(D) Q = 2.758 × 103 × A/PI
Answer: Option C
Question No. 130

The external load per unit length of
(A) A pipe laid on, or projecting above the undisturbed ground and covered with fills, is
proportional to the square of the external diameter of the pipe
(B) A flexible pipe buried in narrow trenches and thoroughly compacted side fills, is proportional
to the product of the width of the trench and diameter of the pipe
(C) A rigid pipe buried in a narrow trenches and thoroughly compacted side fills, is proportional
to the square of the width of the trench
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 131

Shales are
(A) Porous
(B) Permeable
(C) Porous and permeable
(D) Porous but not permeable
Answer: Option D
Question No. 132

The best process of disinfection of public water supply, is by
(A) Boiling
(B) Chlorination
(C) Adding lime
(D) Adding ozone
Answer: Option B
Question No. 133

(A) Head loss in smaller size pipes at equal velocities, is less
(B) Cost of pumping is less in smaller size pipes
(C) Cost of smaller pipes is comparatively more
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 134

The dilution ratio at which the odour is hardly detectable is generally called threshold odour
number and for public supplies it should not exceed
(A) 3
(B) 5
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(C) 7
(D) 9
Answer: Option A
Question No. 135

Surge tanks are used
(A) For storage water
(B) To increase the velocity in a pipeline
(C) As overflow valves
(D) To guard against water hammer
Answer: Option D
Question No. 136

Normal values of overflow rate for plain sedimentation tanks in litres/hr/m2, generally range
between
(A) 100 to 250
(B) 250 to 500
(C) 500 to 750
(D) 750 to 1000
Answer: Option C
Question No. 137

P.V.C. pipes can withstand pressure bead of water upto
(A) 25 m
(B) 50 m
(C) 75 m
(D) 100 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 138

Most commonly used pump for lifting water in water supply mains, is
(A) Axial flow pump
(B) Reciprocating pump
(C) Rotary type pump
(D) Centrifugal pumps
Answer: Option A
Question No. 139

The fire demand for a city of 50,000 populations, according to Godrich formula, is
(A) 40 mld
(B) 42 mld
(C) 44 mld
(D) 48 mld
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 140

(A) Due to boiling, the bacterias present in water can be destroyed
(B) Lime may be used for softening hard water
(C) Excess lime when added to water, raises the pH value of water
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 141

If V is total consumption of water in litres for a population of N individuals, per capita
consumption or water allowance for the water supply Q, is given by
(A) Q = V/12N
(B) Q = V/24N
(C) Q = V/265N
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 142

According to Buston's formula, fire demand in litres per minute for a population of P thousands, is
(A) 3182 P
(B) 1136.5 [(P/10) + 10]
(C) 4637 P (1 - 0.01 P)
(D) 5663 P
Answer: Option D
Question No. 143

For controlling algae, the most commonly used chemical, is
(A) Copper sulphate
(B) Alum
(C) Lime
(D) Bleaching powder
Answer: Option A
Question No. 144

For centrifugal pumps
(A) Initial cost is low
(B) Limited space is required
(C) The discharge obtained is steady and non-pulsating
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 145

The storage capacity of a reservoir may be divided into three zones. The lowest zone is
(A) Dead storage
(B) Useful storage
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(C) Surcharge storage

(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 146

Economic height of a dam is the height corresponding to which
(A) Cost of the dam per unit of storage is minimum
(B) Amount of silting is less
(C) Cost of dam per unit storage is maximum
(D) Free board provided is least
Answer: Option A
Question No. 147

For maximum alkalinity of water, pH value should be
(A) Zero
(B) Less than 7
(C) More than 7
(D) 14
Answer: Option D
Question No. 148

The efficiency of a pumping set, is generally assumed
(A) 50 %
(B) 55 %
(C) 60 %
(D) 65 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 149

The population growth curve is
(A) S-shaped curve
(B) Parabolic curve
(C) Circular curve
(D) Straight line
Answer: Option A
Question No. 150

The fire demand for ascertaining the empirical formula 1136.5 [(P/10) + 10] known as
(A) Kuichling's formula
(B) Buston's formula
(C) Freeman formula
(D) Under Writers formula
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 151

The bacterias which may survive with or without free oxygen, are called
(A) Aerobic bacterias
(B) Anaerobic bacterias
(C) Facultative bacteria's
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 152

Aeration of water is done to remove
(A) Odour
(B) Colour
(C) Bacterias
(D) Turbidity
Answer: Option A
Question No. 153

The maximum pressure to which cast iron pipes may be subjected to, is
(A) 3 kg/cm2
(B) 5 kg/cm2
(C) 7 kg/cm2
(D) 10 kg/cm2
Answer: Option C
Question No. 154

Water may not contain much impurity if its source is
(A) Reservoirs
(B) Stream flowing in plains
(C) Lakes in lower regions
(D) Spring along hill slopes
Answer: Option D
Question No. 155

If p is total internal pressure, d is diameter of pressure conduit and t is thickness of conduit, the
Hoop's stress is
(A) /t
(B) /2t
(C) dp/2t
(D) dt/2p
Answer: Option C
Question No. 156

Turbidity of water is expressed
(A) In ppm
(B) In numbers in an arbitrary scale
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(C) By pH value
(D) By colour code
Answer: Option A
Question No. 157

In plain sedimentation tanks under normal conditions, impurities are removed upto
(A) 60 %
(B) 70 %
(C) 80 %
(D) 90 %
Answer: Option B
Question No. 158

The equation 0.155
in which Q is yearly run off in cm, P is yearly total
rainfall in cm, H is difference of R.L.s. of lowest and highest points and A is area of catchment in
square metres, is known as
(A) English formula
(B) Khosla's formula
(C) Justin's formula
(D) Vermule's formula
Answer: Option C
Question No. 159

In slow sand filters, the turbidity of raw water can be removed only up to
(A) 60 mg/litre
(B) 75 mg/litre
(C) 100 gm/litre
(D) 150 mg/litre
Answer: Option A
Question No. 160

Pressure relief valves are provided in water mains
(A) To reduce the pressure
(B) At low points
(C) Upstream of sluice
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 161

Quality of water is said to be good if it is
(A) Free from suspended matter
(B) Colourless
(C) Free from pathogenic organism
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 162

Sluice valves in main water supplies
(A) Are used to regulate the flow of water in pipes
(B) Are spaced about 5 km apart
(C) Are usually placed at the summits
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 163

The head against which the motor works for lifting water, is
(A) Maximum depth of water table below ground level
(B) Maximum depression head
(C) Velocity head
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 164

Biochemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D.) of safe drinking water must be
(A) Nil
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 15
Answer: Option A
Question No. 165

Gravity conduits
(A) Carry water under gravity
(B) Follow the hydraulic gradient line
(C) Are carried through tunnels in deep cuttings
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 166

At break point of chlorination,
(A) Chlorine is used to oxidise
(B) Residual chloride is zero
(C) Residual chloride is maximum
(D) Residual chlorine reappears
Answer: Option D
Question No. 167

(A) Detention period for plain sedimentation tanks ranges between 4 to 8 hours
(B) Detention period for sedimentation tanks, using coagulants usually ranges between 2 to 4
hours
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(C) The horizontally flow velocity in sedimentation tanks, is generally limited to 0.3 m/minute
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 168

The capability of a soil mass of full width and depth to transmit water, is known
(A) Porosity
(B) Permeability
(C) Transmissibility
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Question No. 169

The head against which the motor works for lifting water, is
(A) Maximum depth of water table below ground level
(B) Maximum depression head
(C) Velocity head
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 170

By boiling water, hardness can be removed if it is due to
(A) Calcium sulphate
(B) Magnesium sulphate
(C) Calcium nitrate
(D) Calcium bicarbonate
Answer: Option D
Question No. 171

Derivation of Thiem's formula Q = 2 (s1 - s2)/2.3 log10 (r2/r1) is based on the assumption
(A) The aquifer is homogeneous, isotropic and of infinite depth and area
(B) The well is sunk through the full depth of the aquifer
(C) The flow lines are radial and horizontal, and the flow is laminar
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 172

(A) The volume of underground water extracted by gravity drainage from a saturated soil, is
known as yield
(B) The ratio of volume drained to the total volume of material drained, is known as specific
yield
(C) The sum of specific yield and specific retention, is equal to porosity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 173

Percussion drilling is unsuitable in
(A) Unconsolidated sand
(B) Unconsolidated gravel
(C) Quick sand
(D) Consolidated rocks
Answer: Option D
Question No. 174

In an artesian aquifer, the draw downs in two observation wells at distances 100 m, and 200 m
were found same after one hour and x hours respectively. The value of x, is
(A) 2 hours
(B) 4 hours
(C) 9 hours
(D) 16 hours
Answer: Option B
Question No. 175

Rapid gravity filters can remove bacterial impurities up to a maximum of
(A) 50 %
(B) 60 %
(C) 70 %
(D) 80 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 176

Continuous flow of water can be expected from
(A) Gravity springs
(B) Surface springs
(C) Artesian springs
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 177

Reciprocating pumps
(A) Are not suitable for variable heads
(B) Are four times costlier than centrifugal pumps
(C) Are not suitable for pumping water containing sediments
(D) Single stroke produce pulsating flow
Answer: Option A
Question No. 178

Low turbidity of water is detected by
(A) Turbidity tube
(B) Jackson turbidity meter
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(C) Baylis turbidimeter

(D) Hellige turbidimeter
Answer: Option C
Question No. 179

Pick up the correct statement from the following regarding radial flow centrifugal pumps:
(A) These are provided with volute type or turbine type casings
(B) In involute type of radial flow centrifugal pump, the impeller discharges into a gradually
expanding spiral casing
(C) The efficiency of turbine type of radial flow centrifugal pump, is always higher than that of
volute type
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 180

(A) Deposition of calcium carbonate on the inside of the well pipe, causes incrustation of the
pipe
(B) Incrustation of the pipe reduces the discharge
(C) Acidic waters cause corrosion of the pipes
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 181

Silt storage is the same as
(A) Dead storage
(B) Live storage
(C) Effective storage
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 182

P thousands,
is
(A) 3182 P
(B) 1136.5 (P/10 + 10)
(C) 4637 P [1 - 0.01 P]
(D) 5663 P
Answer: Option A
Question No. 183

The type of pipe commonly used in water supply distribution schemes, is
(A) R.C.C. pipes
(B) Hume pipes
(C) Cast iron pipes
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(D) G.I. pipes

Answer: Option C
Question No. 184

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The source of surface water is from
(A) Streams and rivers
(B) Storage reservoirs
(C) Springs
(D) Ponds and lakes
Answer: Option C
Question No. 185

Water supply includes
(A) Collection, transportation and treatment of water
(B) Distribution of water to consumers
(C) Provision of hydrants for fire fighting
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 186

The discharge Q = 2 /2.3 log10 (R/rw) for the confined tube well is obtained from
(A) Thiem's formula
(B) Darcy's formula
(C) Tolman's formula
(D) Dupuits formula
Answer: Option D
Question No. 187

m and n are monsoon duration factor and catchment factor respectively. If P is yearly rainfall in
cm, runoff can be calculated by
(A) Velocity area method
(B) Weir or spillway method
(C) Use of venturi-meter
(D) Using power plant consumption
Answer: Option A
Question No. 188

Acidity in water is caused due to
(A) Mineral acids
(B) Free CO2
(C) Iron sulphate
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 189

The cast iron pipes for water supply system are used for
(A) Durability
(B) Strength
(C) Easy connection
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 190

In a rapid gravity filter
(A) Raw water from the source is supplied
(B) Disinfected raw water is supplied
(C) Raw water passed through coagulation tank is supplied
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 191

The maximum permissible nitrites in public water supplies, is
(A) Nil
(B) 0.5 P.P.M.
(C) 1.0. P.P.M.
(D) 1.5 P.P.M.
Answer: Option A
Question No. 192

Most commonly used section in grade aqueducts, is
(A) Circular
(B) Rectangular
(C) Parabolic
(D) Horse shoe section
Answer: Option B
Question No. 193

The most important and widely used tube well in India, is
(A) Strainer well
(B) Cavity well
(C) Slotted well
(D) Perforated pipe well
Answer: Option A
Question No. 194

The R.L. of ground water table on the sides of a valley is 1505 m whereas R.L. of the stream water
is 1475 m. If 60° slope consists of pervious soil between R.L. 1485 m to 1500 m, the gravity spring
may be expected at the point of reduced level
(A) 1500 m
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(B) 1505 m
(C) 1475 m
(D) 1485 m
Answer: Option D
Question No. 195

Critical time for developing a water hammer, is the time required for
(A) Closing the valve
(B) The wave to travel from valve to the reservoir
(C) The wave to travel from the valve to the reservoir and back
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 196

Bacterias which can survive with or without free oxygen, are known
(A) Aerobic bacterias
(B) Anaerobic bacterias
(C) Facultative bacterias
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 197

The standard B.O.D. at 20°C, is taken for the consumption in
(A) 2 days
(B) 3 days
(C) 4 days
(D) 5 days
Answer: Option D
Question No. 198

Distribution of wash water is provided in
(A) Sedimentation tank
(B) Slow sand filter
(C) Rapid gravity filter
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 199

If P is population of a city in thousands and Q is fire demand in litres per minute, for proper
estimate of water, the Empirical formula Q = 1135 [(P/5) + 10] is suggested by
(A) National Board of fire under-writers
(B) Freeman
(C) Kuichling
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 200

During treatment of water, sedimentation is done
(A) Before filtration
(B) After filtration
(C) Simultaneously with filtration
(D) Along with chlorination
Answer: Option A
Question No. 201

The ratio of the maximum daily consumption to the average daily demand, is
(A) 1.0
(B) 1.2
(C) 1.4
(D) 1.8
Answer: Option D
Question No. 202

Alkalinity in water may be caused due to
(A) Calcium and magnesium bicarbonates
(B) Sodium carbonate
(C) Potassium carbonate
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 203

The main draw-back of centrifugal pump, is
(A) Necessity of priming
(B) Discharge from pump varies with the load of water
(C) For high heads, efficiency is low up to 50%
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 204

The factor to be considered for the source of city water supply, is
(A) Quantity and quality of the available water
(B) Elevation of the source of water
(C) General terrain intervening the area
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 205

From the surface of reservoir, evaporation may be minimised by sprinkling
(A) Spirit
(B) Hydrochloric acid
(C) Acetyl alcohol
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(D) Methane
Answer: Option C
Question No. 206

The transitional middle portion of a logistic curve follows
(A) A geometric growth
(B) A logarithmic growth
(C) A first over curve
(D) A constant rate
Answer: Option D
Question No. 207

For plain chlorination of water, the quantity of chlorine used, is
(A) 0.1 mg/litre
(B) 0.2 mg/litre
(C) 0.3 mg/litre
(D) 0.5 mg/litre
Answer: Option D
Question No. 208

In distribution pipes, air valves are provided at
(A) Lower points
(B) Junction points
(C) Higher points
(D) Anywhere
Answer: Option C
Question No. 209

Manholes along the mains from the source to a city are provided at 500 m intervals in
(A) Steel pipes
(B) R.C.C. pipes
(C) Hume steel pipes
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 210

The valves provided at low points of pipes to drain off water quickly under gravity, are called
(A) Blow off valves
(B) Drain valves
(C) Sewer valves
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 211

The maximum permissible colour for domestic supplies based on cobalt scale, is
(A) 5 ppm
(B) 10 ppm
(C) 15 ppm
(D) 20 ppm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 212

Increase in population of a rapidly growing city, may be estimated by
(A) Arithmetical mean method
(B) Geometrical method
(C) Incremental increase method
(D) Graphical comparison method
Answer: Option B
Question No. 213

(A) Air lift pumps are generally used for pumping water from deep wells
(B) Jet pumps are generally used for pumping water from small wells
(C) The hydraulic ram works on the principle of water hammer
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 214

Per capita demand of water is calculated in litres
(A) Per person per day
(B) Per person per month
(C) Per person per year
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Question No. 215

Hard water for public water supply is discarded because
(A) It consumes more soap
(B) It contains lot of turbidity
(C) It contains pathogenic bacterias
(D) It possesses bad taste and odour
Answer: Option A
Question No. 216

If the specific capacity of a well is 0.3183 × 10-3 per sec, the discharge from a well of 4 m diameter
under a depression head of 4 m, is
(A) 8 litres/sec
(B) 10 litres/sec
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(C) 12 litres/sec
(D) 16 litres/sec
Answer: Option D
Question No. 217

(A) Iron salts produce heavy flocks and hence remove more suspended matter
(B) Iron salts remove hydrogen sulphides
(C) Iron salts can be used over a limited range of pH values
(D) Iron salts impart corrosiveness to water
Answer: Option C
Question No. 218

Asbestos pipes are
(A) Light in weight and easy to transport
(B) Highly resistant to corrosion
(C) High flexible to accommodate deflection upto 12°
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 219

A strainer type well sunk through three previous layers intervened by three impervious
aquicludes, draws water from
(A) Top most pervious layer
(B) Central pervious layer
(C) Lowest pervious layer
(D) All the pervious layers
Answer: Option D
Question No. 220

Runoff is the quantity of water which flows
(A) In sewer pipes
(B) Due to leakage in pipes
(C) In rivers
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Question No. 221

The yield of a rapid gravity filter as compared to that of slow sand filter, is
(A) 10 times
(B) 15 times
(C) 20 times
(D) 30 times
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 222

The most ideal disinfectant used for drinking water throughout the world, is
(A) Alum
(B) Lime
(C) Chlorine
(D) Nitrogen
Answer: Option C
Question No. 223

Perched aquifers generally occur
(A) Below water table
(B) Above water table
(C) In aquicludes
(D) In artesian aquifers
Answer: Option B
Question No. 224

Check valves are installed
(A) On the delivery side of the pumping set
(B) At the interconnections between polluted water system and a potable water system
Answer: Option C
Question No. 225

If average volume of sediment deposits is one-tenth million cubic metres per year in a reservoir of
total capacity 10 million cubic metres, the dead storage will be filled up, in
(A) 10 years
(B) 15 years
(C) 20 years
(D) 25 years
Answer: Option D
Question No. 226

At break point of chlorination,
(A) Chlorine is used to oxidise
(B) Residual chloride is zero
(C) Residual chloride is maximum
(D) Residual chlorine reappears
Answer: Option D
Question No. 227

If pH value of water is
(A) 7 water it is said to be neutral
(B) Less than 7 it is said to be acidic
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(C) More than 7 it is said to be alkaline

(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 228

Dissolved carbon dioxide, can be removed from the supply main by
(A) Sedimentation
(B) Aeration
(C) Chlorination
(D) Coagulation
Answer: Option B
Question No. 229

Grade aqueducts are not allowed to run
(A) Full
(B) ¾th full
(C) ½full
(D) ¼th full
Answer: Option A
Question No. 230

According to IS : 1172-1963, a minimum of 135 litres of water capita per day, is required for
(A) Boarding schools
(B) Nurses home and medical quarters
(C) Hostels
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 231

The temporary hardness of water can be removed by
(A) Boiling
(B) Adding lime
(C) Adding alum
(D) Filtration
Answer: Option A
Question No. 232

The level of underground water is called
(A) Water level
(B) Water table
(C) Negative level
(D) Invert level
Answer: Option B
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Question No. 233

The period of cleaning of a slow sand filter, is usually
(A) 5 to 10 days
(B) Two weeks to three weeks
(C) One month to three months
(D) Three months to six months
Answer: Option C
Question No. 234

Specific yield of a well is
(A) Quantity of water than can be drawn from the well
(B) Flow of water per unit time
(C) Total quantity of water available in the well
(D) Quantity of water per unit time per unit draw-down
Answer: Option C
Question No. 235

By adding 1 ml of Orthotolidine solution to 100 ml chlorinated water taken after contact period,
the residual chlorine makes the colour of solution
(A) Yellowish
(B) Greenish
(C) Bluish
(D) Reddish
Answer: Option A
Question No. 236

Rapid gravity filter can only remove turbidity of water upto
(A) 15 to 25 gm/litre
(B) 25 to 30 gm/litre
(C) 30 to 35 cm/litre
(D) 35 to 40 gm/litre
Answer: Option D
Question No. 237

In pumping stations, the type of joint generally used, is
(A) Socket and spigot joint
(B) Flanged joint
(C) Expansion joint
(D) Dresser coupling joint
Answer: Option B
Question No. 238

Rapid sand filter
(A) Should be preceded by coagulation and sedimentation
(B) Uses rapid sand as filter media
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(C) Is used after slow sand filtering has been done

(D) Can combine disinfection also
Answer: Option A
Question No. 239

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following regarding fire hydrants
(A) Fire hydrants are fitted in water mains at 100 m to 150 m apart at fire
(B) The minimum water pressure hydrants, is kept 1.5 kg/cm2
(C) The water at pressure 1 to 1.5 kg/cm2 is made available for 4 to 5 hours for constant use
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 240

(A) At a particular speed of operation, the head produced decreases with the increase of
discharge
(B) At zero discharge, discharge valve remaining closed, the head developed is maximum which
is known as shut-off head
(C) At a particular speed the discharge at which efficiency of a pump is maximum, is known as
normal discharge
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 241

De-chlorination is followed by
(A) Post-chlorination
(B) Pre-chlorination
(C) Double-chlorination
(D) Super-chlorination
Answer: Option D
Question No. 242

The least thickness of class B cast iron (spun) pipe, is
(A) 7.2 mm
(B) 7.9 mm
(C) 8.6 mm
(D) 10 mm
Answer: Option C
Question No. 243

Water having pH value as 6, is
(A) Alkaline
(B) Acidic
(C) Neutral
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option B
Question No. 244

Maximum permissible colour for domestic water supplies, based on Cobalt scale, is
(A) 5 P.P.M.
(B) 10 P.P.M.
(C) 15 P.P.M.
(D) 20 P.P.M.
Answer: Option D
Question No. 245

The main process to purify water by filtration, is
(A) Mechanical straining
(B) Flocculation and sedimentation
(C) Biological metabolism
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 246

The approximate diameter of a water mains for supplying 7.2 mld with a velocity 1.2 m/sec, is
(A) 24 cm
(B) 26 cm
(C) 28 cm
(D) 30 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 247

For least effect on the water table, the tube wells must be dug one in every
(A) 0.5 sq km
(B) 0.75 sq km
(C) 1.0 sq km
(D) 1.5 sq km
Answer: Option D
Question No. 248

An area is declared drought affected if its mean rainfall is less than
(A) 50 %
(B) 60 %
(C) 75 %
(D) 85 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 249

A circular gravity aqueduct is not generally preferred to because of
(A) Its maximum hydraulic mean depth
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(B) Maximum area per unit of wetted perimeter

(C) Minimum cost of construction
(D) Its proper support on the ground
Answer: Option D
Question No. 250

Efficiency of removing bacterias from raw water by a slow sand filter, is
(A) 80% to 81%
(B) 85% to 86%
(C) 90% to 97%
(D) 98% to 99%
Answer: Option D
Question No. 251

A high velocity of wash water is required for
(A) Rapid gravity filter with strainers
(B) Rapid gravity filter without strainers
(C) Slow sand filter with strainers
(D) Slow sand filter without strainers
Answer: Option B
Question No. 252

In a reservoir the average volume of sediment deposition is 0.15 million cubic per year. If the dead
storage and total capacity of the reservoir are 8 million cubic metres and 36 million cubic metres
respectively,
(A) The reservoir will theoretically be silted in 240 years
(B) The reservoir will start reducing after 60 years
Answer: Option C
Question No. 253

135 litres of water per person per day, is provided in
(A) Nurses homes
(B) Hostels
(C) Residential schools
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 254

(A) Excess quantities of iron and manganese in water, cause discolouration of clothes
(B) Lead and barium salts have toxic effect
(C) Higher copper content affects the lungs
(D) All the above
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 255

Disinfection of drinking water is done to remove
(A) Turbidity
(B) Odour
(C) Colour
(D) Bacterias
Answer: Option D
Question No. 256

Capacity of soil to absorb moisture, is generally known as
(A) Permeability
(B) Porosity
(C) Infiltration capacity
(D) Perviousness
Answer: Option C
Question No. 257

Average annual rainfall at any station is the average of annual rainfall over a period of
(A) 7 years
(B) 14 years
(C) 28 years
(D) 35 years
Answer: Option D
Question No. 258

If Q is discharge is cubic metres per sec and D is the economical diameter of the pipe. According to
Lea
(A) D = 0.67 to 0.87 Q
(B) D = 0.77 to 0.97 Q
(C) D = 0.97 to 1.22 Q
(D) D = 1.22 to 1.33 Q
Answer: Option C
Question No. 259

The flow of water gets retarded, in
(A) Settling tank
(B) Sedimentation tank
(C) Clarifier
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 260

At the socket and spigot joint,
(A) Enlarged end of the pipe is called socket
(B) Normal end of the pipe is called spigot
(C) Spigot is fitted into the socket
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 261

Yield of a drainage basin is:
(A) Run off of the area expressed as instantaneous rate
(B) Average run off over a short period
(C) Total volume of water flowing annually
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 262

Disappearance of pink colour of water of a well due of KMnO4 indicates that water contains
(A) Acidity
(B) Alkalinity
(C) Turbidity
(D) Organic matter
Answer: Option D
Question No. 263

The specific retention is least in case of
(A) Clay
(B) Sand
(C) Silt
(D) Coarse gravel
Answer: Option D
Question No. 264

If w is the weight of water per cubic metre, Q is the discharge in cubic metres per sec and H is the
total head, the required water horse power of the pump, is
(A) wQH/15
(B) wQH/360
(C) wQH/220
(D) wQH/550
Answer: Option A
Question No. 265

Pipes are laid parallel
(A) To increase the capacity of the water supply
(B) To provide a means of repairing without closing water supply
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(C) To meet the requirement of excessive supply

(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 266

The factor affecting per capita demand, is
(A) Size of the city
(B) Climatic conditions
(C) Pressure in water mains
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 267

Filtration of water is done to remove
(A) Colour
(B) Odour
(C) Turbidity
(D) Pathogenic bacteria
Answer: Option C
Question No. 268

An ideal sand for filters should be
(A) Free from dirt and other impurities
(B) Uniform in nature and size
(C) Hard and resistant
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 269

Hardness of water is caused due to
(A) Calcium sulphate
(B) Magnesium sulphate
(C) Calcium nitrates
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 270

Normal values of overflow rate for sedimentation tanks using coagulants in litres/hr/m2, generally
range between
(A) 250 to 500
(B) 500 to 750
(C) 750 to 1000
(D) 1000 to 1250
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 271

Cast iron pipes
(A) Are widely used in city water supplies
(B) Resist corrosion satisfactorily
(C) May last for 100 years
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 272

B.O.D. of treated water should be
(A) 10 ppm
(B) 25 ppm
(C) 20 ppm
(D) Nil
Answer: Option D
Question No. 273

The chloride content of treated water for public supplies should not exceed
(A) 100 ppm
(B) 150 ppm
(C) 200 ppm
(D) 250 ppm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 274

Water is distributed to consumers by gravitational system, in
(A) Dehradun
(B) Mumbai
(C) Delhi
Answer: Option D
Question No. 275

The superimposed load transmitted to the pipe, is generally evaluated by Business formula
(A) pt = 3H3P/2
(B) pt = 3H3P/2 5
(C) pt = 3H3P/2 2
(D) pt = 3H3P2/2 3
Answer: Option B
Question No. 276

If n is porosity, y is specific yield and r is specific retention of any soil, the relationship which holds
good, is
(A) n + y + r = 1
(B) n + y = r
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(C) n + r = y
(D) y + r = n
Answer: Option D
Question No. 277

Estimates of a water supply project depends upon the rate of water supply per capita
consumption and probable population estimated at the end of the design period of
(A) 5 to 10 years
(B) 10 to 15 years
(C) 15 to 20 years
(D) 20 to 30 years
Answer: Option D
Question No. 278

In distribution pipes, drain valves are provided at
(A) Lower point
(B) Higher point
(C) Junction points
(D) Anywhere
Answer: Option A
Question No. 279

Water gets evaporated from water surfaces and land surfaces, get converted into water drops at
lower temperatures, flows over ground surface and finally meets its source, i.e. lake, sea, etc. This
entire process is generally known as
(A) Hydrological cycle
(B) Water cycle
(C) Evaporation and precipitation cycle
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 280

Open channels supported over trestles, are generally known as
(A) Raised canals
(B) Aqueducts
(C) Siphons
(D) Flumes
Answer: Option D
Question No. 281

Corrosion of a pipe
(A) Reduces its life span
(B) Reduces its carrying capacity
(C) Adds colour to water
(D) All the above
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 282

The population of a city in 2000 is 50,000. The average per decade of the previous records of
population is 5000 and average percentage per decade is 20%. The population of the city based on
geometrical increase method, in the year 2020 will be
(A) 56,000
(B) 60,000
(C) 64,000
(D) 72,000
Answer: Option D
Question No. 283

In rapid sand filters the ratio of length and diameter of the lateral, should not be greater than
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: Option C
Question No. 284

Disinfection of drinking water, is done to remove
(A) Odour
(B) Bacterias
(C) Turbidity
(D) Colour
Answer: Option B
Question No. 285

A well is considered to be good if it is sunk into
(A) Clay
(B) Sand
(C) Coarse gravel
(D) Silt
Answer: Option C
Question No. 286

Abyssinian tube well is a special type of
(A) Slotted type wells
(B) Cavity type wells
(C) Strainer type well
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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Question No. 287

Surface water is obtained from
(A) Well
(B) Springs
(C) Artesian well
(D) Rain
Answer: Option D
Question No. 288

The permissible amount of nitrites present in potable water, is
(A) 10 ppm
(B) 15 ppm
(C) 45 ppm
(D) Nil
Answer: Option D
Question No. 289

Detention time for plain sedimentation tank usually ranges from
(A) 2 to 4 hours
(B) 4 to 8 hours
(C) 6 to 10 hours
(D) 8 to 12 hours
Answer: Option B
Question No. 290

The order of existence of three portions of water in a reservoir from the bottom to top is
(A) Useful storage + surcharge storage + dead storage
(B) Useful storage + dead storage + surcharge storage
(C) Dead storage + useful storage + surcharge storage
(D) Surcharge storage + useful storage + dead storage
Answer: Option C
Question No. 291

The maximum non-verticality of the bore of a well 200 m deep, may be permitted up to
(A) 25 cm
(B) 50 cm
(C) 75 cm
(D) 100 cm
Answer: Option D
Question No. 292

(A) Porosity of clay sand soil is 45%
(B) Porosity of pure sand is 35%
(C) Porosity of sand stone is up to 15%
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(D) None of these

Answer: Option D
Question No. 293

Water may contain
(A) Bicarbonate alkalinity
(B) Carbonate alkalinity
(C) Hydroxide alkalinity
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 294

The total domestic consumption in a city water supply, is assumed
(A) 20 %
(B) 30 %
(C) 40 %
(D) 60 %
Answer: Option D
Question No. 295

Surface water may
(A) Contain large amount of impurities
(B) Be contaminated by impurities
(C) Contain disease producing bacterias
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 296

The ratio of total capacity and dead storage is kept
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 3
Answer: Option C
Question No. 297

The maximum permissible chloride content in treated water of public water supplies should not
exceed
(A) 50 P.P.M.
(B) 100 P.P.M.
(C) 150 P.P.M.
(D) 250 P.P.M.
Answer: Option D
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Question No. 298

Most important source of water for public water supply, is from
(A) Lakes
(B) Ponds
(C) Streams
(D) Rivers
Answer: Option D
Question No. 299

Air inlet valve in water mains, is generally provided at
(A) Summit of the pipe
(B) Upstream of sluice valve
(C) Downstream of sluice valve
(D) Both (a) and (c) of above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 300

To detect the turbidity of the order of 0 to 1000 P.P.M. the instrument used is
(A) Turbidimeter
(B) Jackson turbidimeter
(C) Baylis turbidimeter
(D) Hellige turbidimeter
Answer: Option C
Question No. 301

Higher yield may be expected from
(A) Gravity springs
(B) Surface springs
(C) Artesian springs
(D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Question No. 302

Before constructing a dam, the factor to be considered for controlling sedimentation, is
(A) Selection of dam site
(B) Construction of check dams
(C) Providing vegetation screens
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 303

Chlorination of water does not remove
(A) Ammonia content
(B) B.O.D.
(C) Organic matter content
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(D) Dissolved oxygen

Answer: Option D
Question No. 304

While selecting the location of an intake for collecting surface water, the factor considered, is
(A) The intake point should be near as far as possible to the treatment plant
(B) The intake point should be in purer zone of the water source
(C) The intake point in meandering rivers should be on concave banks
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 305

The diameter of pipes in bath rooms and lavatories in domestic water supply, is
(A) 6 mm
(B) 12 mm
(C) 18 mm
(D) 24 mm
Answer: Option B
Question No. 306

Non-pathogenic bacterias cause the following water borne disease,
(A) Cholera
(B) Typhoid
(C) Infections hepatitis
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Question No. 307

Underground water is obtained from
(A) Rains
(B) Rivers
(C) Lakes
(D) Springs
Answer: Option D
Question No. 308

The ensure proper growth of children's teeth, the quantity of fluoride used in water mains, is
(A) 1 mg/litre
(B) 2 mg/litre
(C) 3 mg/litre
(D) 5 mg/litre
Answer: Option A
Question No. 309

For a city developed haphazardly, the layout of distribution pipes preferred to, is
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(A) Ring system

(B) Radial system
(C) Grid iron system
(D) Dead end system
Answer: Option D
Question No. 310

Slow sand filter is used if maximum turbidity of raw water is less than
(A) 10 gm/litre
(B) 20 gm/litre
(C) 30 gm/litre
(D) 50 gm/litre
Answer: Option D
Question No. 311

Raw water treated with only chlorine, is known as
(A) Plain chlorination
(B) Pre-chlorination
(C) First-chlorination
(D) De-chlorination
Answer: Option A
Question No. 312

Total flow in stream is known
(A) Run off
(B) Stream flow
(C) Discharge
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 313

Asbestos pipes are joined by means of
(A) Flanged joint
(B) Flexible joint
(C) Dresser coupling joint
(D) Simplex joint
Answer: Option D
Question No. 314

For estimating the run off of catchments, the mean value of the constant 'K' in the Khosla's
formula Qy = Py - K (1.8 Ty + 32) is
(A) 1.21
(B) 1.23
(C) 1.25
(D) 1.27
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Answer: Option D
Question No. 315

The valve fitted closely in a recess against an opening in a pipe, is generally
(A) Wedge shaped circular disc
(B) Spherical disc
(C) Parallelepiped disc
(D) Conical shaped circular disc
Answer: Option A
Question No. 316

The four major water supply distribution systems, are
(A) Dead end, tree, grid iron and reticulation
(B) Dead end, tree, grid iron and circular
(C) Tree, grid iron, ring and radial
(D) Tree, reticulation, circular and ring
Answer: Option C
Question No. 317

(A) For determination of small colour intensities, tintometer is generally used
(B) The odour of water sample is generally measured by a term called odour intensity
(C) The colour of water sample may be detected by Nessler tube
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 318

The type of joint generally used in cast iron pipes, is
(A) Socket and spigot joint
(B) Flanged joint
(C) Dresser coupling joint
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Question No. 319

The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is roughly
(A) 50 to 60
(B) 30 to 35
(C) 40 to 50
(D) 20 to 25
Answer: Option B
Question No. 320

Normal values of overflow rate for plain sedimentation tank using coagulants, is
(A) 750 to 1000 litres/hr/m2
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(B) 1000 to 1250 litres/hr/m2

(C) 1250 to 1500 litres/hr/m2
(D) 1500 litres/hr/m2
Answer: Option B
Question No. 321

The maximum pressure which the pipe can withstand without any leakage during hydrostatic
pressure test, is called
(A) Working pressure
(B) Design pressure
(C) Test pressure
(D) Hydrostatic pressure
Answer: Option C
Question No. 322

Growth of population can be conveniently represented by
(A) An arithmetical curve
(B) A semi-logarithmic curve
(C) A logistic curve
(D) A straight line curve
Answer: Option C
Question No. 323

An aquiclude is
(A) A non artesian aquifer
(B) An artesian aquifer
(C) A confined bed of impervious material between aquifers
(D) A large water body underground
Answer: Option C
Question No. 324

The pH value of water fit for drinking, is
(A) 13
(B) 11
(C) 9
(D) 7
Answer: Option D
Question No. 325

The coefficient of permeability of soils, is generally expressed in
(A) cm/sec
(B) cm/minute
(C) cm2/sec
(D) cm2/minute
Answer: Option A
Page 830 of 830

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05 Construction Planning and 371-404

applied mechanics and Graphic.1-10.pdf

Applied Mechanics and Graphic Statics

(D) All are correct

(D) Is mw2r/g kgf

(A) Original velocity in the same direction

corresponding velocities of separation are v1 and v2 wton's law of collision of elastic

(A) r ( - 0.75)/( - 0.5)

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(A) 0.5 m/sec2

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