FOR ROUGH WORK/TH wre @ fare14U/113/10(Set-II) No. of Quostions : 180 weal ot wea: 180 Time :2 Mours } [Full Marks +450 wre: 2 ae | . 1 gr Instructeon : Pree: This paper consists of Objective Type Questions and is divided into ‘Two Sections (I & {1) as under : we Faas weftwetta weal oe onnfa Beet at awe! MC & WY, ser a ae 8. 4 fora 2 (a) Section - I : Consists of 120 Objective Type Questions on General ‘Awareness, Mental Ability, Compreheision and Subject Awareness in some major subjects. @) aes - 1:3 120 agRacdra oer aE ery, AR are em Te feed & qe ow oenfta Br (b) Section - If : Consists of 30 Objective Type Questions on (English Language and (II) Hinds Language fa) Wes - 11: 4 30 agftwetta sen Cy sitet ar of OD fea wm ah gt OF at The candidate is required to attempt as many questions as he/she can of Section-l, and Questions on ANY ONE of the TWO Language papers (1 English OR (i) Hindi in Section - Il ana @ onfad ¢ fe we - 1d aero wer men ws FD wt TMU RO ais gv orenBe seh wt eT eR Note: (1) Each question carries 3 (Three) marks. One mark will be deducted for eack imenerert answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unaltempted question. weds We 3 (fa) se wr bi rede Tera gue @ fire ow sim oreT aT wee ergerfter se pr ser aR eT (3) P.O,14U/N13N0(Settl) 2) [f more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct angwet, chose the Uusest une. aig vans defers oar ad wee & Pree safer a a) Maer a sae 21 (3) Each question is followed by Four alternative answers (1), @), @) and @) One of these answers is correct. Select the correct and record il against the relevant question in the ANSWER-SHEET by darkening the circle with Ball Point Pen as per guidelines. rele vet HOR dale TeR Yara ud z fers (1), (2), G) men (4) sat 7 Galas ta 81 eth G boot Yo veW A aE Bi Ue vere Ga aan sad Geb ot wreafier 3 acrmmh aad ard Adega afta ya (leg) wt are igor da gen aan aah ete ‘SECTION ~1 ast 1. A worker may claim Rs. 15 for each km which he travels hy taviand Re 8 for each km which he drives his ewn car. If in one week he claimed Rs. 500 for wavelling 80 km how many kms did he travel by taxi? we whet eat ent A mg arn & fey wo 15 oft fat od one ard gH pe ETE aA ng war & xo 6 wf fot av Mopar ate ae ee BL aR we oar F Tew afant 9 80 fart a BR ara A Wa fo 500 aoe fear at aeTey fe aA FE arar & fey Geet ere fort feecinirer ah oar HH? (i) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (ay 40 2, Ina group of cows and hens, the number of legs are 14 more than twice the number of heads. The number of cuws iv arat a aft dogo wae A ger A af wear qe RA A der d dy Bs ware 2 | mE A ga met A de oh ms a7 (3) 10 (4) 12 3. Ina chess tournament each of six players will play every other player exactly once. How many matches will be played during the tournament ? ve ana afta 46 RrenfSat Fa veda se a feats AT OTe a ae Ga are Be) Sa TER wftatfto Fas fad Aa Ev? ay 12 (2) 15 (3) 30 (36 (4)10. 14U/11310(Set-) If the sum of two numbers iy 15 anc the sunt of theiv reciprocals iv 2/10, the numbers will be : a a Q) 411 Q) 6,9 (3) 8.7 @) 10,5 Find the odd one from the following : fea Boot aa te 27 a) 16 Q) 8 @) 64 G) 3% 15x 4215, 7x 8=49and 6x 5= 24, then what willbe ¥ x4 =/ aft 5x 4=15, 7x8=49 TH 6x 5=24 el a 8x4 HAT ETT a) 4 Q) 8 (3) 2 4) 36 If the probahility of a problem being solved by two students is % and %, respectively, then the probability of that problem being solved is af 2 frend 3 awe wa a a ao A ofan oT 4 ca iA Bat Ba Ge at gal fed GA wT wfa@e EMT 2 3 1 1 a) 3 Q) 7 Q) 3 @ 3 Choose the missing number from the given series ~ 3,9,27,81, 0.0? & gg ah ae He gs Fem aga - 3,9, 27,81, ...? (a) 162 @) 210 (3) 243 (ay324 POPULAR is coded as QPQVMBS, then the code of GBNPYT will be af POPULAR a1 &@ QPQVMBS #), * GBNPVT m1 a 2m 4) FAMOSU Q) FAMOUS (3) FASOUM (3) FOSAUM If Room is called Bed, Bed is called Window, Window 1s called Flower, Flower is called Cooler, then on what would aman sleep ? 0) Window 2) Bed G) Flower (2) None Oe He at Ren wat OTe & Aen By aget we aH e, Reset aH yet BH Sra @, el HY eaere et oti A, ae Re oe THT ? Q) Rxsat (2) faxae 3) a7 (yerg 7A (8) PTO.14U/113/10(Set-l) 1 14, A man said tu y wont “Your mother’s husband's sister 1s my aunt’, How 1s the woman related to the man? (1) Daughter 2) Grand daughter(3) Sister (@) Aunt leh afta A ye after S wer, conan oh Se oA A ET AR oe br ge afer wi Qa Gam waa BP () at a (2) wat ar (3) Fea aT (4) ore aT 41 Q is the brother of R, P is the sister of Q, T is the brother of §, $ is the daughter of R, who are cousins of Q? (1) Rand P ©) Rand T Q) QanaT () Sand mz QmwER a Pate Qa taesmsaerawoas wee RR one sae ai & ? Q) Ree Q) BaenT 3) Qrant (4) SaenT 1115 Apples and 20 Oranges cost as much as 20 Apples and 15 Oranges. how do you compare the cost of two ? (1) Apples are as costly as Organges (2) Oranges are more costly than Apples (8) Apples are more costly than Oranges (4) Given data is inadequate af& 15 Ba Ten 20 ve a Te wer At Per BW 20 Ya aon 15 wed He ah Bi arTa BA Tea ory fre wor wet? (1) Ba geen ager & fOrear fe ear (2) ¥a atte wet 2 aa a (3) Ae Wael Sain wet = (4) Gn my Parr orate & Ihave a few siveets to distribute. If I keep 2, 3, or 4 ina pack, I am left with one sweet. If T pack 3 int a pack, I am left with none. What is the minimam number of sweets Ihave to pack and distribute ? 8 BO Reread wet 1 oR A 2, 3 serm 4 wh yw RY Fer Yih cw Rod ae ord 81 ale 2 5 wm Pa W eegen fo aye EL maT) Prone a aaa Aral eR PS A Tears art maa uy 38 @) 37 @) 54 4) 65 (6)16. 18. 20. 14U/113/10(Set-Il) A bag contains 4 white and 6 red balls. Two draws af ane hall each are made without replacement. The probability that one is red and the other is white is : we aS 4 4 ade ae 6 ae TS 2) We Ow SRE BI aR fOr aE we te Part wordt 2) ge are wh confer Pe ye de ore cen Gah whe eh, & 6 8 10 4 wos a) 2 3) 2 Be, Og Qs OG WE ‘Two dices are thrown simultaneously. The probability of obtaining a total score of Bis: 2 sgn (Gree) w) ye ee Far ee) ge are a eae fh Ba 8 aeT, 2 a 2 @s 8) 3 oF Today is Sunday. After 50 days it will be ? (1) Wednesday (2) Friday (3) Monday (4) Saturday ana Vda 2 | 50 fea & ae et Q) gaan Q) pea Q) amar 4) war How many days are there from 3rd February, 2013 to 9th June, 2013 ? 3 weal, 2013 dem 9 oF, 2013 B aa frat fea e 7 ay 152 @ 14 @) 130 (@) 127 Ashok goes 30 meters North then turns right and walks 40 meters, then again turns right and walks 40 metres. How many metres is he away from his original position 7 ) Om (2) 10m (3) 20m (4) 40m arate Gee Pra 8 30 Hex weer 2 foe ae cet oe yraR 40 hex aera & Pe Jara ae TARA aie Ea 40 Htew eT Bae sre eft Ree Rev gee? 1) 0% 2) 10 @) 20% (a) 40 4 324: 162 is the same as = (1) 64:36 @20 (3) 22:10 (4) 134: 112 324: 1e2 wet THR ee (1) 64:36 Q@) 22 (3) 22:10 (4) 134: 112 (7) PTO.14U/113/10(Set-Il) mn. 22, 23. 24, 25, 26. Who, among the following is popularly krwwn as, “Frontier Gandhi" ? (1) Feroz Gandhi 2) M.K. Gandhi (3) Lala Lajpat Rai () Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan Pre 8 fee otfre we Shear a wer Gar 8 7 (1) Per meh Q) Go Bo ant 3) OTe arava a 4) Ur aga TER Gr The Luurndiry of which Indian State does not touch with that of Chhatisgarh ? (1) Jharkhand 2) Bihar @) Orrisa (4) Uttar Pradesh ance & ira vom af aftr otters @ mee Prem 8? (1) aang Q) Pew @) oer 4) sow weer The world Literacy Day is celebrated on : (1) 8th September Q) 3thJune 3) 15th August (4) 5th September fava meren fre were caren & (1) 8 Riera at Q) 5 oR a Q) 15 sore at 4) 5 Rte at The Planet nearest to earth is : () Mercury 2) venus 3) Mars (4) Neptune edt} wae aude aE 2 OF Q) @) 16 a) rar IC chips used in computer are made of : () Lead Q) Siticon @) Chromium — (4) Gold rERY Yo ogee A ud 1C fim Prat a3 aa 8? Q) tren 2) fattest @) =P (4) ert Sachin Tendulkar and C.N.R. Rao have been awarded Bharat Ratna in the year BAT aga Te Ho To gio Ta Bones ea A oY @ firm ad aaron mn A? a) 2010 2011 (3) 2012 (4) 2013 (8)ar. 28. at. 44U13/10(Set-H) The number of countries which are members of World Trade Organisation (WTO) presently is = fave mame inrea (safe fo site) B amen eh A eho aches Be (1) 160 (2) 150 3) 140 (4) 136 ‘Who among the following reapient of Bharat Ratna, 18 associated with Varanasi ? ()) Ustad Bismillah Khan (2) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi (3) Pandix Ravishankar (4) Dr, Rajenuce Prasad Re TT OY are cafe AS fara Ger aero B eer F ? Q) wang fate oore wri (2) 30 Med aie 3) uPBe eaxiene (4) Sto ore wee Which is responsible for Acid rain ? (1) Carbondioxide Q) Chloroflorocarbon (3) Sulphurdioxide () Hydrocarbon Prafated 28 or ope oat o fay freer 8? () arrestee Q) Rinweter 3) HeatsaraMgS @) aggro A group of 1200 persons consisting of captains and soldiers is travelling in a train. For every 15 soldiers there is one captain. The number of captains in the group is: 1200 arefed ar we cet fore es Ce Aw aa & WATS A ars a 2) ote 15 SPH oR ye Has 21 ge Ta FS HTH H toe a) 8 2) 80 3) 75 (4) 70 Arrange the following in a meaningful sequence : {a) Consultation {b) [ness {) Doctor (4) Treatment (©) Recovery Q) bade Q beodae 8) deabe @ eadeb (9) PTO.368 37. 38. 39. 40. a. 1AUII 13/1 0(Set-Hl) A.B. and D are playing cards A and R are pariners 1 faces tnwards North If A faces towards west, then who faces towards south ? A,B,C ak D oa # 08 Ga @ 2) A BR B eTsER 21D ore fen wR aT aft a often fer af afk @ ot efter fee a} B ac Nehru Gold cup is related to: () Hockey (2) Cricket Rew tise a uraftrea & Gy eat a (2) Bree & ain Bye 7 @) D aya Q) Polo (4) ootball (3) cet & @) gear a Heating uf water ina kettle is an example of (1) Convection (3) Radiation ref ah a} ahr sere e Q) ae a (3) fete aT Richter scale is used to measure = (1) Speed of wind (3) Depth of sea Rerex wha GT pair eit e Q) ay af aa A (3) wae BH mars ary e (2) 4) Conduction Condensation (2) @ aera BT WaT a (2) (4) Intensity of earthquake Temperature af body Q) pes A dim ee (4) 8 8R ar aA AMA A Who among the following saints wrote ‘Bijak'? () Kabir (3) Tuslidas Q @ Ramdas Guru Aun Preafeftat wictt 4S fer “Atores’ ferear a? () ade @) Fete @ @ rere Te at ‘World Environment Day’ is observed on: () November 9 ) July 3 eva vateen fear Aare OTe & Q) Fa OT @) Berg 31 at (11) @ a September 4 June 5 ) freer 4 at @ 5a PTO14U/113/10(Set-II} 42, 43. 44, 45, 46. 47. 4a. Which was the first newspaper published in India ? (1) Bengal Gazette (2) Bombay Samachar (8) Bengal Chronicle (4) The Hindu ae @ wana 8 gen sert Ware Ta GAA eT ? () re nae (Q) wes wero G) oa wifes 4) 3 BR Kolar mines are famous for : (1) Damond (2) Cold (2) Platinum (4) Silver olan @ art fared fog way & 7 a) @a (2) aT (3) Serer (4) did Mata tila muttipurpose project is located on (1) Son river @) Ken river (3) Betwariver (4) Yamuna river met alo agugdvita ufedraat era & () a ay we (2) da aa ue (3) aan wet oR (a) aa ad) ae First nuclear energy plant in India was established in : (1) Nellore (2) Kalpakkam (3) Bengaluru (4) Hyderabad saree an worm sna Grant viet ret went gon a? (i) Faire (2) carer (3) agR (4) Sera Which of the following is the leading producer of Chromium in the World ? ( USA (2) Russia (3) Norway (4) China fae A waite mifan cern tf (1) qowHege Q) oF (3) art ) dr Which is the most important instrument in weather observation ? (1) Clinometer (2) Radiograph (3). Barometer (4) Bumpy level She afer or mend aeah wameT aly 8? (1) dewaMer (2) ¢ftore, (3) Aatitey (4) seh doe The trade winds aro: 0) regular (2) partially irregular 3) irregular (4) seasonal amiftes vat 2 (1) ert Q) aiftrela sare (3) sea a) heh (12)49. st 52. 53. 54, 55. 14U/113/N0(Set-lt) Hnreieanes and Typhoons are : (1) Calm Q) Violent (G3) Weak @ Strong ates a crea 8 . Q) aT (2) Peete 3) BR (a) ARG During, which period of the year does the earth receives more solar energy ? (1) January (2) March 3) June (4) October a & fore waa gest walter epi oat wre are 8? (1) saa (2) ard 3) (4) sragae Which 6 the cingle mnctitient of air comprising more than 70% of volume of ary air? () Oxygen (2) Nitrogen (Q) Carbon dioxide (4) Ozone we He aca 2 ot 70% IE FAT BT UR TEM aRaT 2 ? (1) attains Q) Eg G) ar agains (4) sites Which planet is known as morning star ? (1) Mars Q) Mercury G) Jupiter 4) Venus era ue aie or arr Bae ST a 2 7 (t) ata Q) 3) gecatt a) oF Which planet is known as Blue planet ? (1) Bauth 2) Mass ©) Uranus (4) Meptune daar ve ae oe & am ST oT 2? (1) year (2) Fret @) ea RA) A) TET Who propounded Big Bang theory ? (1) George Lamenter (2) Raschjen (3) Quiper (4) Autoschmid far am feregrat feet fear en? G1) mt ercx (2) TI (3) fae (4) sites Who gave gaseous hypothesis ? (1) Chamberlin (2) Kant (3) Laplace (4H) Ravel Angra oRacuat Pret fear ex ? (1) tafe Q) wre (3) areara (4) wet (13) P.O.14U/113/10(Set-IN) 56. 87. 58. 53. 60. 61. ‘Which planet 1s known as red planet / (1) Venus @) Jupiter @) Mars (4) Uranus wham ng are ae bara A oT one? G) oF Q) Teeter (3) 7s @) Se (RTH) Which one of the following country is largest producer of Sugarcane ? (1) India Q) Cuba @) Brazil (4) USA Pret eet tos or eM ger eee & () ara Q) em 3) area (4) Jo Who to Largest producer of Wool in the World is : (1) New Zealand (2) Canada (3) Australia (4) Argentina fovea 8 oa or omroh geree ter 2 () spate Q) ws (2) itera (4) eciety Which of the following is nota primary activity ? (1) Agriciuture (2) Fishing Q) Mining (@) Infrastructuring fenfha a a ata we mete: anf Brora adh &? Q) (2) ARE Q) ar (4) RRater Which of the fullowing grassland is not best for Wheat cultivation ? (1) Downs Q) Prairies (3) Savanna (4) Steppes Penfia ery & tat Ay aha we A ph og oqeged #? a) Sr (Q) data @) vant @) eis Major pulses producing State in India is (2) Uttar Pradesh (2) Madhya Pradesh (3) Maharashtra (4) Rajasthan area 4 cored of aad aevepl veres woe Q) sae se (2) Rar wee (3) Fenny (4) sore (14)62. 67, 14U/113/10(SetIl) Demographic transition theory was given by : @) J. Clark Q) GT. Trewartha (@) FW. Notsteen (4) J.J. Spengalar arifeata tara fires ot ufeerea fare on (1) Wo Fe F 2) Sto fio Prarit a (Q) Ww Gaye ate a (4) do Ho re A Who has given the optimum population theory ? Q) Dawwie @) Malilus 8) Daltun () Hewy aya wee Rrara & wade a a? a) ofa (2) sree (3) weet 4) ee Country with highest fertility rate in the World is (1) Somalia Q) Yemen (3) Uganda (4) Mali fava 4 watts wort ee aren ta zz i) aeaferar Q) wat G3) qirsr (a) Arch What is the Indian population growth rate during the decade 2UUL-20L1 ¢ ara oh cerita wage gfe 2001-2011 cere ¥ wea ef ? (1) 24.86% QQ) 25.80% (3) 17 64% (4) 19.19% According to Census 2011 which State of India has maximum populanon after Uttar Pradesh ? (1) West Bengal (2) Maharashtra (3) ‘Bihar (4) Tamil Nadu wae 2011 B aM aR S fra wea A one oR wi Ss we Tt afte 8 > (1) Wer are 2) TERT 3) fren 4) afrerng Tn India mangroves forests are found in: (1) Malabar Coast 2) Sunderban 3) Runn of Kutch (4) Coastal Orissa ane 4 tata a uy are & () Tear ae 4 0) yeah Q) Fm Aa R aaa asta 4% Which of the following places in India has Uranium deposit of great economic importance ? (1) fhatia (2) Keonjhar (3) Singhbhumi —@) Siliguri ure & firs vara oR onfthes gfe A erage PTH TAT wT & 7 Q) afar @ Fie @) eg @) Preity (15) P.T.O.14/1 13/10(Set-ll) 70. 7h 72. 73. 74, ‘Which uf the following is fresh water lake? (1) Pholidi Q) Koleru (3) Sambhar (4) Pullicut Prafefirr § 8 ata AS ort at vite 8? ) went Q) eS G) aR @) Fete The tropical Savanna type of climate is typically located between : (1) 5° - 50° Latitude (2) 5° 40° Latitude (3) 5°-30° Latitude (4) 3° -20° Latitude 98 Hai MoE a totaly eT: Powe RT OTg UB (1). 5° ~ 50° afer (2) 5° —40° sieter (3) 5° — 30° suerier (1) 5° 20% starr Which of the following does not contribute to Global Warming ? (1) Nitrogen Oxide (2) Methane (3) Carbon dioxide (4) Sulphur dioxide Profafia 4a at pesca sor 8 unre aeF we? (1) Age shrgs Q) Ae Q) or sais (4) FoR tress ‘The disease Beri-beri is due to deficiency of : () Vitamin Q) VitaminB = @) VitaminC (4). Vitamin D ata We fre faeries at ah & etn 2? (1) Raf Q) fafa & (3) fret a 4) tert & Which of the following is an endocrine disorder ? (2) Asthma 2) Arthritis (3) Hepatitis (4) Diabetes Pra a eo ata ww avard drt 2? 1) sem Q) arenes (3) fetergite 4) safer Malaria is caused by biting of : () Male culew (2) Femole culex (3) Male Anopheles (4) Female Anopheles wraftar fret aay & act & shen 2? (DFR ager Q) aE aH BR Vitae (4) Ter ries (16)75. 76. 78, 79, at. 44UN113/10(Set-t) What ir the cause of Dengue fever ? Q) Virus 2) Fungus (3) Bacteria (@) Protozoa Sy way fea gra erat B ? (1) aR Q) wa 3) dee (4) aetater ‘The communicable disease that has been fully controlled by a national programme is (1) Malaria (2) Tuberculosis (3) Smallpox (4) Silaria Ww SRA AT A fee TTA ATSIT sete yeh ww A Praia frat or yet a Q) wafer Q) mife 3) wie dea (4) bafta Flectroencephalogram (EEG) measures the activity of : 1) Brain (Heart (3) Lung, (4) Kidney saaggafntatars ¢ € A) Pre sin A ste a rae & ? () afer Q) eee Q) rs 4) Tre Fish is the rich source of dietary + (@) Protein (2) Carbohydrate (3) Fat @) Vitamins age % myc freer UG ert Bit 2? (1) ates Q) ortege —G) TT (a) Presta Sphygmomanumeter is the instrument used for the measurement of (1) Hemoglobin content Q) Blood pressure (3) Blood cell count (4) Pulse rate Reorrermareres oa A da a wie B 7 (QQ) Greta a Arar 2) ars te (3) Fae eftrerstt FST (4) dea 3 Which of the following vitamin is essential for blood clotting ? (1) VitaminK (2) VitaminE ——(@) VitaminC (4) Vitamin D fea HA ahr Pers cat S GTA A wevaw ete BR? 0) Ra & Q) fre S (3) free () Bt a Q) ort ae @) pie arr @) ae ease Barr European Renaissance started first in : (0) Russia Q) England @) France (4) Italy Bite grote af a yo gan 7 Q) we Q) Fars (3) vit (4) scoh In which region did the Birsa Munda revolt take place ? (2) United Province (2) Bihar (3) Maharashtra (4) Kerala fave Bsr an fete Rew mar ¥ gon a > (2) jrges ARR (gan oen) (2) fear (3) Ferre (4) Aer (20)99, 100. 101. 102. 103. 14U/13/O(Set-I) Wiu is ie author vf "Poverty and Ur-British Rule ir India"? (1) M.G. Ranade (2) B.C. Dutta (3) Dada Bhai Naoroji (4) C.K. Gokhale curd te amfatesr wa ga eftear & oeam ata & ? (1) Ye Bio Tas Q) Ske te TAT 3) ararong AA (4) fo o Thad Who founded “Satyashodhak Samaj" ? (1) Jyotiba Phule (2) B.R. Ambedkar (3) Ramaswamy Niacker (4) Narayan Guru Wes WAT Gwe wr 7 (1) wanftar at (2) Fo ao sSHy (3) TaRaMh EEE (4) FRR Te Where did the Revolt of 1857 begin ? (1) Bareilly 2) Lucknow (3) Meerut (4) Jhansi 1857 ar fests wet YS ET aT? (1) att Q) wears (3) AR (4) ‘Who was the leader of Kakori train conspiracy ? (1) Ram Prasad Bismil (2) Bhagat Singh (3) Barkatullah (4) Batukeshwar Dutta aerate) Ser were Ager Prey ra ? (Q) wm yere faferet (2) wa fis @) wgeTE () agarer oH Who established the Hindu Mahasabha ? (1) Motilal Nehru (2) Madan Monan Malviya (3) Chittaranajan Das (4) Te Bahadur Sapru tees serene BT frets Fart fan? () Fitters 7s (2) sre as era (3) Faro ere (4) Sr Tg HR (21) PIO.14U/113/1 0(Ser-) 404, 105. 106. 107. 108, 109. When did India first pai ticipate in the Olyanpic Gannes ? sierra: Geil A oer A geht ae aa aT fee eae 7 4) 1916 2) 1920, (3) 1924 (1928 Which of the following Viceroy established railways in India ? (1) Curzon @) Dalhousie (3) Mountbatten (4) Dufferin Freafafac 8 8 fea amrera 4 ue A tard By were ah? Q) oie Q) sect (3) aeedea @) waht East India Company fought the Battle of Plassey against : (1) Mir Kasim (2) Alivardhi Khan (3) Siraj ud Daulah (4) Murshid Quli Khan fad fee fe aftgen wert A conf or ge aren? (y aR Re (2) sighed] cain @) Peggcter (4) ate Ech at Who was the editor of Al-Hilal newspaper? () Muhammad Abi Jinnah (2) Iqbal (3) Badruddin Tayabji (4) Abul Kalam Azad om-fteta wrens B aes aa ay ? (1) rere ae Ren (2) same 3) aeeqé dart (4) Sga wera ates Where was the headquarter of Theosophical Saciety in colonial India ? (1) Varanasi (2) Adyar (3) Bangalore (4) Allahabad ataPehine ure 8 Patetfhare chredt a qaree at or 7 (1) are 0) arma @) Arar (4) wrenra Where was Guru Gobind Singh born ? (2) Lahore @) vatma (3) Amvitsar (4) Rawalpindi Te aS fie ar oct wel ga eT? Q) eee (2) ver (3) ogee (4) Tere (22)110, Wh 142. 113. 114, 115 Which place is associated with the ‘Asiatic Society’? 14U/113/10(Set-Il) @) Mumbai Q) Chennai (3) Delhi 4) Kolkata aa wie ‘Urnes Gerger 8 dae 2 ? ) Te Q) oe 3) Reet (4) Steerer Which state is associated with Tanjore Paintings ? (1) Kerala (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Odisha SEU ard dale rere a Wag e ¢ () ea (2) are wee @) ataerTg (a) sdRean Qutubuddin Aibak belonged to which dynasty ? (1) Tughlag Q) Ghulam (3) Khilji (4) Lodhi aqgger tae few wade A gor an? Q) Fre (2 gen (3) fare (4) art Name the script used in most Ashokan inscriptions. (1) Devanagari (2) Kharoshti 3) Brahmi (4) Prakrit aire & sfrerizr ciftyerer fare fate 4 & ? Q) gaat Q) art (3) ret (4) WIeT What is Ashtadhyayi ? (1) Bharata'> work on drama 2) Kalidasa's Sanskrit play @) Purana (4) Paninis work on Sanskrit grammar wena wat & ? () aRe rece (2) arfrera ga depa aes 3) gem (a) Bape carer oe TAMA BA eT The Varaha is considered avatar of : (1) Shiv (2) Durga 3) Vishnu (4) Brahma are Prey aS Pree sae aT GET B Q) fre Q ot (3) Fy Qe (23) PTO.14U/113/10(Set-Il) 116, 118, 149, 120. Coins issued by the Gupta dynasty were made af which metal ? (1) Only Gold Q) Gold and Silver (3) Gold and Copper (4) Gold, Silver and Copper Wo aa are ant fay my ad fea oq S a a? (1) @aa Sr Q) arn a wid 8) Br a dita (4) art, ara a cian According to Jaina raditiun, how many Tirthankaras preceded Mahavira ¢ ats ore orga, rere ugar? Aelare ee ? a) 2 @) 2% @) 29 ) 20 Which of the following contains the odd name ? (t) Babur, Akbar, Shah Jahan 2) Sarojini Naidu, Aruna Asaf Ali, Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay @) Udham Singh, Bhagat Singh, Jogat Scth (4) Bijapur, Golkunda, Ahmednagar Praferftn 3 2 Prt ata am 8? Q) TR, oe, eeu Q) eReiferh aay, arson arene ach, ereredt wedtena @) TF Rig. ere fie, oe ae @) fom, thes, sere Who among the Indian kings defeated Muhammad Ghori first ? (1) Prithviraj Chauhan @) Jaichand ©) Vidyadhar Chandel (@ Bhimdev 0 Prefertter oredta wont 9 8 fry steers tt wt eek oer Pra ? ) yetera cher Q) ware Q) Femme a (8) fete Which religion does Mahayana philosophy relate to? @) Jainism @) Buddhism (3) Vaishnavism (4) Shaivism seat aeit fou ed S eater @ 7 Q) Sa et 2) te at (3) aera ers (4) a nf (24)14/113/10(Set-t) SCCTION - II Language - English (For Candidates Opting English Language? Note : Four alternatives are given as possible answers to each question. Give the correct choice as an answer Directions :(Q. No. 121-124) : Select the word nearest in meaning of the given word 121, Hypocrisy: (1) retirement (2) sweetness (3) enterprise (4)_ pretension 122, Drag: (1) burn (2) tolerate 3) pull (4) decrease 423. Brag: (1) swim Q) boast 3) beat (4) hoist 124, Feeble () weak Q) strong Q) hot (4) simple Directions : (Q. No, 125-128) : Select the word opposite in meaning to the given word 125. Robust: (1) effulgent Q) dull 3) basic (4) energetic 126. Kind: (1) ruined (2) flexible @) friendly (4) nasty 127. Optimistic: (1) realistic (2) fantashe (3) egoistic {4) pessimistic 128, Affluence (1) poverty (2) prosperity) superiority (4) availability Directions : (Q. No. 129-132) : Choose the explanation that catches the spirit of the idiom given in each question 129, In the nick of time: (12) at the outset 2) at the very last moment (3) at lunch time (4) at night (25) PTO.14U/113/10(Set-I) 130. As the crow thes: (1) as you like 2) by an indirect route (3) as and when required (4) ina steaight line 131. Get the hang of ; {1) getthe main idea (2) utilize the last moments (3) hang something outside (4) postpone something 132. Play havoc: (1) play the fool @) create a conducive envisuruent (3) do great damage to () play exceedingly well Directions : (Q. No. 133-136) : Select the right word to fill in the blanks m the given sentences 133. Shehas.. disclosed it (1) yet (2) never @) then (8) yesterday 134. Heis.... . than I. (1) elder Q) old (3) eldest (4) older 135. He............. yonrletter yesterday (1) hasreceived (2) had received (3) received (4) would receive 136. India ............. the cricket match. (1) has wen (2) have won (3) wins . (4) had won Directions : (Q. No. 137-140) : Select the part of speech of the underlined word in the given sentences 137, He came here. (1) transitive verb Q) intransitive verb (@) awsnary verb (4) modal verb 138. She ran fast. Q) noun Q) adjective @) adverb (4) determiner (26)14U/113/10(Set-lt) 139. We played well (1) Adverb of degree (2) Adverb of manner (3) Adverb of frequency (4) Adverb of reason 140. I don't object to your coming late. (1) present participle (2) past participle @) gerund (4) finite verb Directions :(Q. No. 141-144) : Select the correct plural of the given word 141. Have -not (1) haves- not (2) have -not (3) have - nots (4) had - nots 142. Bacteria (1) bacterium (2) bacterias (3) bacteriums (4) bacteria 148, Axio: (1} axis (2) axes (3) axises {4) axies 144. Wolf: (1) wolts (2) wolfes @) wolves () walvse Directions : (Q, No, 145-147) : Select the word which has been wrongly spelt 445. (1) comparizion —@) eupervision (3). provision (4) unison 146. (1) punctuation (2) accumulation (3) pronounciation (4) derivation 147. (1) bref (2) concieve (3) thrive (4) shriek Directions : (Q. No. 148-130) : Fill in the blanks with the correct word/group of words 148. Ithas developed.............. More than a mere camping ground. (1) fainly 2) many (3) much @) very 449, Lam cooccoe-- for this mishap. (1) tobe biamed (2) to blame (9) blarmable (4) Dlaneworthy 150. He, as well as I, serene going to Allahabad. () am (2) are (3) is (8) were (27) PTO.44UN13/10{Set-N) 151, 152. 153. 154, 155. 156. 157. 158, 159, 160. (28) SECTION - ws -M are - feat (Rd aa ara Rented @ fry) 2 Tet met tt oreare datere aire fered rt & Rerrd wet sow ara oe 2 oe Bet ome at ghty) ‘Pate we Fayed corte @ & 2) @) PR @ BR wat we aw Sher TM o fay fa maa a su wet? Gy Qa @ @s cara A Breer ward & 7 a fy (@) odenve © og @) 6% ame Fre ware 2 ? QQ) ater (2) aaihte Q) seardrne 4) degre Prafafaa § a ate eq ame & ? () var Q) a Q) 28 (4) Wa Pratetad 48 aga meg aire 8? Q) ye (2) Te Q) sara (4) fq ye ahh a2? (Q) ent (2) wh @) ee (4) erg ge oth an om Ae (1) sr Q) seer G) ornate @) are Profefter 4 eh eR at 2? Qa () (3) (4) at at at 8 fet ath or dr 8? () %+9 Q mee G) %+e Gasa104. 162. 163. 164, 165. 187. 169. 170. wt. Sh 8 gem we wregraw wat & ? 14Uf113/10(Set-tl) Q oR (2) weatta (3) atta (a) waren Peafafte 8a ate we aafdraram den 8? Q) an (2) vers (3) 7a (4) ae safety a catzarh & ay at ) Pas @ () we, ald wet a cafuant aa? Q) afr QQ) aaa @ wR (4) ay wae ar fie 8 O we Q) sie (3) singe (a) Rega Bie at sel 8 () cas fern rar @ ww (3) aah Boa gaT (4) Ww ate A ae “qee ae ort A ae ART wr ete Q) age a eT @ wae @) ag0 eifua et (@ Pre er oh fea wa aver at ara 2, we eT Hey ? Q) par @ om (Q) er @) Fa Rawat oraR se a et gad fag shit wee (1) Pert Q) orem 3) ae () ae cardia afters § fee) or em wee? () was ore Q) TST (3) wanTeT @) ART sereRtenpra” fire rer 4 ferat rar 2? Q) arr Q) arage @) ae at (4) sent eT. (29)14U/113/10(Set-tl) 172. 173. 174, 175. 176. VW. 178, 174. axenan Bret carr 8? Q) Tere QQ) arent Q) wart aa (4) ee a at tara a wf we 2? (1) fart (2) eg (3) UaAs (4) fBtA BT wr creme wd are ee go 8? (1) suffer BIS 0) ean wane Bad G) FR Reet (4) Terdy were each ata yee daeie are eae el & ? 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