Solutions to Pset1

PB13000648 ÷g

2016 c 10 3F

(1)

Proof. (a). Define f : G → G such that f (g) = g 2 (∀g ∈ G). Then f is continuous since µ is
continuous and f = µ|{(g,g)|g∈G} . Note that f (e) = e, then f −1 (U ) is a neighborhood of
e, i.e there exists an open neighborhood of e ,called Uf1 ⊂ f −1 (U ). Define U f1 ∩ U ,
f2 = U
which is an open neighborhood of e. One can easily see that U f2 ⊂ U and
f2 2 = f (U
U f2 ) ⊂ f (U
f1 ) ⊂ U
e.

Next, It is trivial to see that i is a homeomorphism on G if one can see i −1 = i .

Therefore i −1 (U
f2 ) is an open neighborhood of e. Let V = i −1 (U
f2 ) ∩ U f2 ) ∩ U
f2 = i (U f2 .
Then V −1 = i (V ) = i (i (U
f2 ) ∩ U f2 ) = V . Moreover V 2 ⊂ U since V ⊂ U
f2 ∩ i (U
f2 ) = U f2 .

(b). Take an open neighborhood V of U as above. Without loss of generality, we turn

∞
V n . To begin with, we define a map, called lg , assigning ∀h ∈ G
S
to prove G =
n=1
to gh. It is a homeomorphism on G because it is continuous and its inverse is lg−1 .
Therefore, it maps an open set to another open set. Note that V 2 =
S
lg (V ), and we
g∈V
can conclude that V 2 is an open set. Then we can prove inductively that V n (∀n ∈ N)
∞ ∞
V n is an open set. On the other hand, if g ∈ G \ ( V n ),
S S
is an open set. Thus
n=1 n=1
consider the open neighborhood of g, lg (V ). Suppose there exists an element, v ∈ V ,
∞
V n , set gv = v1 v2 . . . vn , where vi ∈ V (i = 1, 2, . . . n). Then
S
such that lg (v) ∈
n=1
g = v1 v2 . . . vn v −1 . Note that v −1 is still in V since V −1 = V , and we deduce that
∞ ∞ ∞
V n , which is a contradiction. So lg (V ) ⊂ G \ ( V n ) and thus G \ ( V n ) is
S S S
g∈
n=1 n=1 n=1
∞
Vn
S
also an open set. Finally, we get that G is the union of two disjoint open sets,
n=1

1
 ∞ ∞
V n ). However, since G is connected and V n is not empty(e is in it), it
S S
and G \ (
n=1 n=1
∞
V n.
S
must be G =
n=1

(2)

Proof. To see M is second-countable, note first that A := {(x, y)|x ∈ R, y = ±1} is second-
countable as a subset of R2 . In addition, it is clear that the projection map p is an open map.
Therefore, if denote {B1 , B2 , . . .} as the topology basis of A, then {p(B1 ), p(B2 ), . . .} forms a
topology basis of M .
To see M is locally Euclidean, take any point (x, y) ∈ A and consider its open neighbor-
hood, Ox = {(x0 , y 0 )| |x0 − x| < 1, y 0 = y}. p(Ox ) is an open neighborhood of p(x) in M . It
is clear that p(Ox ) is homeomorphic to an open interval of R.
When it comes to the separation, consider the two points p((0, 1)) and p((0, −1)). Let
U be the neighborhood of p((0, 1)) and V that of p((0, −1)). Thus,p−1 (U ) is an open neigh-
borhood of (0, 1) and p−1 (V ) that of (0, −1). It implies that there exists x 6= 0 such that
(x, 1) ∈ U and (x, −1) ∈ V . One can thus deduce that U ∩ V 6= ∅ since p((x, 1)) is in it. This
shows that M is not Hausdorff.

(3)
Solution.
Cover M by two subsets U0 and U1 , where U0 is the set of all non-vertical lines, and
U1 is the set of all non-horizontal lines. Define Ψ on U0 as follows: each line l ∈ U0 is
determined by the point (0, a) where l and y-axis intersects and the degree of the angle
formed by the line and y-axis ,θ ∈ (0, π)(If on the line, when x > 0, y > a, then θ < π/2,
otherwise θ ≥ π/2). Then Ψ(l) = (a, θ) ∈ R × (0, π). Ψ is a bijection. Thus we define the
open sets of M contained in U0 as follows: U ⊂ U0 is an open set of M when Ψ(U ) is an
open set of R × (0, π). This guarantees Ψ to be a homeomorphism. Similarly, in U1 , define
Φ : U1 → R × (− π2 , π2 ) to assign l ∈ U1 into (b, α), where b is the the number of the first
component of the coordinate of the point where l and x-axis intersects and α is the degree
of the angle formed by the line and x-axis(If on the line, when x > a, y > 0, then α > 0,
otherwise α ≤ 0). Thus we define the open sets of M contained in U1 in the same way above.
Φ is also a bijection. Moreover, on U0 ∩U1 , Φ◦Ψ−1 (a, θ) = (−a tan θ, π/2−θ)(where θ 6= π/2),
which is a diffeomorphism. This guarantees that U ⊂ U0 ∩ U1 is an open set in the sense of Φ

2
if it is open in the sense of Ψ. Therefore, these open sets are well-defined. They can generate a
topology that is Hausdorff and second-countable since the canonical topology of R × (0, π) has
such properties. It makes M into a manifold, and M is a smooth manifold since on U0 ∩ U1 ,
Φ ◦ Ψ−1 (a, θ) = (−a tan θ, π/2 − θ)(where θ 6= π/2) is a diffeomorphism, as stated above.

(4)

(a). Solution.Let f (x) = x3 , which is a smooth bijective. However, g(x) = x1/3 , which is the
inverse of f , is not smooth at 0.

(b). Proof. First prove that such a function f is monotone. Note that f |[0,1] can attain the
maximal and minimal value. If it attains the maximal value at x, where 0 < x < 1. Then
1
by the intermediate value theorem, there exists n large enough such that for f (x) − n
there exist 0 ≤ y1 < x < y2 ≤ 1 so that f (y1 ) = f (y2 ) = f (x)− n1 . This is a contradiction
since f is a bijection. Thus the maximal value can be attained either at 0 or 1, so is the
case of the minimal value.
If f (0) < f (1), take 0 < x1 < x2 < 1. Suppose f (x1 ) > f (x2 ), then f (x2 ) < f (x1 ) <
f (1). Again by the intermediate value theorem, we get a contradiction. Thus, f (x1 ) <
f (x2 ) and therefore f is monotonically increasing on [0, 1]. For x3 > 1, by the same token,
we get f is monotone on [1, x3 ]. Suppose f is monotonically decreasing on [1, x3 ], then
again by the intermediate value theorem we get a contradiction since f is monotonically
increasing on [0, 1] but decreasing on [1, x3 ]. And It is similar to prove that for x4 < 0,
f is monotonically increasing in [x4 , 0]. Therefore, we deduce that f is monotonically
increasing on R.
If f (0) > f (1), we can easily prove that f is monotonically decreasing.
Thus, we have proved that f is monotone.
f itself is continuous.Without loss of generality, Suppose f is monotonically increasing.
Note that f −1 is still monotonically increasing. Suppose f −1 is not continuous, then it
can only have jump discontinuities. However, this will contradicts with the fact that
f −1 is bijective. Therefore, f −1 is continuous and thus f is a homeomorphism.

3
(5)

Proof. Let m and n be the dimension of M and N respectively. Take Uα × Uβ and Uα0 × Uβ0 ,
whose intersection is not empty.
On (φα × ψβ )(Uα × Uβ ∩ Uα0 × Uβ0 ) ⊂ Rm × Rn ,

−1
(φ0α × ψβ0 ) ◦ (φα × ψβ )−1 = (φ0α ◦ φ−1 0
α ) × (ψβ ◦ ψβ )

−1
It is smooth since φ0α ◦ φ−1 0
α and ψβ ◦ ψβ are both smooth. Therefore, the atlas gives the
smooth structure on M × N .
For the ”universal” property, ∀(p, q) ∈ M × N , take a coordinate of (p, q),
(φα × ψβ , Uα × Uβ ). Note that (φα , Uα ) is a coordinate of p. Then consider π1 , we have

(φα ) ◦ π1 ◦ (φα × ψβ )−1 (φα (p), ψβ (q)) = φα (p)

So this is obviously a smooth map from (φα × ψβ )(Uα × Uβ ) to φα (Uα ). Thus π1 is smooth,
so is π2 , similarly. This proves (a).
To prove (b), the ”only if” part is trivial. πi ◦ f (i = 1, 2) is smooth since πi and f are
both smooth.
For the ”if part”, ∀a ∈ P , take its coordinate (Φ, W ) and take the coordinate of f (a) =
(p, q) as above. Then

((φα × ψβ ) ◦ f ◦ Φ−1 )(Φ(a)) = φα ◦ π1 ◦ f ◦ Φ−1 (Φ(a)), ψβ ◦ π2 ◦ f ◦ Φ−1 (Φ(a))

Since φα ◦ π1 ◦ f ◦ Φ−1 and ψβ ◦ π2 ◦ f ◦ Φ−1 are both smooth, ((φα × ψβ ) ◦ f ◦ Φ−1 )(Φ(p)) is
a smooth map. Thus f is smooth. This proves (b).

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(6)
Solution. First, construct a smooth structure on S 1 . View S 1 as R/Z, then its topology is
induced from R.
Let U+ = S 1 \ {(0, −1)}, and U− = S 1 \ {(0, 1)}. On U+ , we define
ϕ+ : U+ → (−π/2, 3π/2). Use eit (−π/2 < t < 3π/2) to denote the element of U+ . Define
ϕ+ (eit ) = t. Similarly, use eiθ (π/2 < θ < 5π/2) to denote the element of U− and define
ϕ− (eiθ ) = θ. Then on ϕ+ (U+ ∩ U− ), when θ ∈ (−π/2, π/2) , ϕ− ◦ ϕ−1
+ (θ) = θ + π, and when

θ ∈ (π/2, 3π/2), ϕ− ◦ϕ−1 −1

+ (θ) = θ −π. Thus ϕ− ◦ϕ+ is smooth, this gives the smooth structure

on S 1 .
With the charts on S 1 defined above, we can construct the charts of T2 = S 1 × S 1 in the
way used in Problem(5), and the compatibility of the charts has been proved in Problem(5).

(7)

Proof. (a). Take U0 = M \ A and U1 = M \ B. Then {U0 , U1 } is an open cover of M . Take

the partition of unity {ρ1 , ρ2 } subordinated to {U0 , U1 }. Then letting f = ρ1 will meet
the requirement.

(b). Take a smooth function g̃ so that g̃ is nonnegative and g̃ −1 (0) = B, and take another
smooth function h̃ so that h̃ is nonnegative and h̃−1 (0) = A. Then define g(x) =
2 2
π
arctan(g̃(x)) and h(x) = π
arctan(h̃(x))(∀x ∈ M ). Then 0 ≤ g < 1 ,0 ≤ h < 1 and
also g −1 (0) = B, h−1 (0) = A. Finally, let f = ρ1 · (1 − g) + ρ2 · h.
∀x ∈ A, ρ1 (x) = 0 and h(x) = 0, so f (x) = 0.
∀x ∈ B, ρ2 (x) = 0, ρ1 (x) = 1 and 1 − g(x) = 1, so f (x) = 1.
∀x ∈ M \ (A ∪ B), since f (x) > 0, g(x) < 1 and ρ1 , ρ2 ≥ 0, f (x) = ρ1 (x)(1 − g(x)) +
ρ2 (x)f (x) < ρ1 (x) + ρ2 (x) = 1. In addition, in this case,f (x) > 0 since ρ1 (x) and ρ2 (x)
cannot both vanish.
Therefore, the f meets the requirement.

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(8)

Proof.

Definiton 1 (Manifolds with boundary). A topological n-dimension manifold with

boundary is a Hausdorff, second-countable space in which every point has a neighborhood
homeomorphic to an open subset of Euclidean half-space:

Rn+ = {(x1 , x2 , . . . , xn ) ∈ Rn : xn ≥ 0}

Moreover, The interior of M , denoted IntM , is the set of points in M which have neigh-
borhoods homeomorphic to an open subset of Rn . The boundary of M , denoted ∂M , is the
complement of IntM in M .
To prove that ∂M is a topological (n − 1)-dimension manifold without boundary, one
first needs to induce the topology of ∂M from that of M , viewing it as the subspace of M .
Then we need a lemma as follows:

Lemma 1. If x ∈ ∂M , and {ϕ, U, V } is one of its charts in the sense of manifold M . Then
it must hold that the last component of ϕ(x) is 0.

To prove this lemma, let ϕ(x) = (x1 , . . . , xn ). Suppose otherwise xn > 0, then there
fx , so that ∀y = (y1 , . . . , yn ) ∈ Vx , yn > 0. That
exists a small neighborhood of ϕ(x), called V
fx is an open neighborhood of ϕ(x) that is homeomorphic to an open set of Rn via
implies V
ϕ|ϕ−1 (Vfx ) . Then x ∈IntM , which contradicts with the definition.
Therefore, for each x ∈ ∂M , take a chart {ϕ, U, V }, we consider the neighborhood of x in
∂M , ∂M ∩ U . ∀y ∈ ∂M ∩ U , by the lemma above, denote ϕ(y) = (y1 , y2 , . . . , yn−1 , 0). Then
we define ψ : ∂M ∩ U → Rn−1 to assign y into (y1 , y2 , . . . , yn−1 ), which is a homeomorphism
from ∂M ∩ U to an open set of Rn−1 . Therefore, {ψ, ∂M ∩ U } gives the chart around x, and
thus we make ∂M into a (n − 1)-manifold without boundary.