Sankalp Park, Opp. DAV Public School Gate No. 4, Near Shaswat Hospital, Aundh, Pune - 411007.

COURSE: NDA DATE:

MAX. TIME: 02 hrs. 30 min. TEST BOOKLET MAX. MARKS: 600
GENERAL ABILITY TEST

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.

2. You have to enter your roll number on the Test Booklet

in the box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the
Test Booklet.

3. This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions) .Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). In case you feel that there is more than one correct response,
mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each
item.

4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.

5. All items carry equal marks.

6. Before you proceed to mark in the answer sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particular in the answer sheet as per instructions sent to you with your admission
certificate.

7. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the test booklet.

8. Sheets for rough work are appended in the test booklet at the end.

9. Penalty for Wrong Answers:

THREE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS
(i) There are four alternative for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one third of the marks assigned to the question will be
deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer it will be treated as wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question Is left blank, i.e. , no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
-1- Only For the Students of MUSALE CLASSES
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 2
PART-A 13. His behavior at social gatherings is
LAUDABLE.
Directions (Q. 1 - 8): Each of the following items (a) Condemnable (b) Impolite
consists of a sentence followed by four words or (c) Unpleasant (d) Repulsive
group of words. Select the synonym of the word or 14. The characters in this story are not all
group of words (occurring in the sentence in capital FICTITIOUS.
letters) as per the context. (a) Common (b) Factual
1. The engineer ROUGHED OUT his ideas on a (c) Real (d) Genuine
piece of paper while he talked. 15. The RELUCTANCE of the officer was obvious.
(a) Shaped roughly (b) Rejected (a) Eagerness (b) Hesitation
(c) Drew a quick plan (d) Hollow (c) Enjoyment (d) Unwillingness
2. He fell into an ABYSS of despair. 16. He is a GENEROUS man.
(a) Well (b) Deep pit (a) Stingy (b) Uncharitable
(c) Sea (d) Hollow (c) Selfish (d) Ignoble
3. He had the ABDACITY to interrupt the SPOTTING ERRORS
Governor of the State while the latter was Direction (Q. 17 - 24):
addressing a gathering of academicians. (i) In this section, a number of sentences are given.
(a) Courage (b) Authority The sentences are underlined in three separate
(c) Foolishness (d) Arrogance parts and each one is labelled (a), (b) and (c).
4. After weeks of FRENETIC activity, the ground Read each sentence to find out whether there is
was ready for the big match. an error in any underlined part. No sentence has
(a) Strenuous (b) Hurried more than one error. When you find an error in
(c) Excited (d) Hectic any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c),
5. The students took COPIOUS notes during the indicate your response on the separate Answer
lecture delivered by the visiting professor. Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that
(a) Extensive (b) Exhaustive there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter
(c) Bounteous (d) Abounding (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
6. Very few people are IMPERVIOUS to criticism. (ii) You are to indicate only one response for each
(a) Impenet rable (b) Unaffected item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate
(c) Unstoppable (d) Unmindful more than one response, your answer will be
7. The policemen kept on questioning the criminal considered wrong.) There may be a word
but failed to ELICIT the truth. missing or there may be a word which should be
(a) Evoke (b) Wrest removed.
(c) Obtain (d) Extort (iii) You are not required to correct the error. You
8. Teaching in universities is now considered a are required only to indicate your response on
LUCRATIVE job. the Answer Sheet.
(a) Risky (b) Profitable Examples ‘P’ and ‘Q’ have been solved for you.
(c) Honourable (d) Undignified The young child singed
P.
Directions (Q. 9 - 16): Each of the following items (𝑎) (𝑏)
consists of a sentence followed by four words. Select a very sweer song
the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence (𝑐)
in capital letters) as per the context. No error
9. He is man of EXTRAVAGANT habits. (𝑑)
(a) Sensible (b) Careful We worked very hare throughout the season
(c) Economical (d) Balanced Q.
(𝑎) (𝑏) (𝑐)
10.The employ only DILIGENT workers. No error
(a) Unskilled (b) Lazy (𝑑)
(c) Careless (d) Idle Explanation:
11. His success in the preliminary examination In item P, the word ‘singed’ is wrong. The letter
made him COMPLACENT. under this parts is (b), so (b) is the correct answer.
(a) Discontented (b) Self-satisfied Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the correct answer, as
(c) Curious (d) Militant the sentence does not contain any error.
12. In this competition, he has become the Whenever a person lost anything
VICTOR. 17.
(𝑎)
(a) Beaten (b) Frustrated
(c) Disappointed (d) Vanquished
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 3
the poor folk around are suspected the effect
(𝑏) (𝑐) Z. Some people believe that
P
No error is very bad
(𝑑)
𝑄
Still impressive is that
18. on children of cinema
(𝑎)
we achieve this selective attention 𝑅 𝑆
The correct sequence should be
(𝑏)
through our latent ability to lip−read. No error (a) P – S – R – Q (b) S – P – Q – R
(𝑎) (𝑑)
(c) S – R – P – Q (d) Q – S – R – P
As I entered the famous gallery Explanation:
19.
(𝑎) The proper way of writing the sentence is “Some
my attention was at once drawn people believe that the effect of cinema on children
(𝑏) is very bad”. This is indicated by the sequence
to the large sculpture in thecorner. No error P – S – R – Q and so (a) is the correct answer.
(𝑐) (𝑎) to the people to give relief
25. We are doing
Every day before I start work for my livelihood P 𝑄
20.
(𝑎) (𝑏) all we can but more funds are needed
I do my prayer. No error
𝑅 𝑆
(𝑐) (𝑑)
The correct sequence should be
21. Pooja went to her friend’s house at the (a) P – Q – R – S (b) R – Q – P – S
appointed hour;but she was told
(c) Q – P – R – S (d) S – P – Q – R
(𝑎) (𝑏) when he was
that her friend left half an hour earlier. 26. The man
(𝑐) P
No error
in the office last evening could not finish
(𝑑) 𝑄 R
Rekha is enough old all his work
22. S
(𝑎) (𝑏)
The correct sequence should be
to get married. No error
(a) P – Q – R – S (b) Q – R – S – P
(𝑐) (𝑑) (c) R – P – Q – S (d) R – S – P – Q
As far as I am concerned, they were going
23. 27. The people decided
(𝑎) P
I shall do everything how much to spend
(𝑏) Q R
possible to help ypu. 𝑁𝑜 𝑒𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑟 on the construction of the school building
(𝑐) (𝑑) S
The person in the seat of justice The correct sequence should be
24. (a) Q – P – R – S (b) P – Q – R – S
(𝑎)
should be absolutely partial (c) P – R – Q – S (d) S – Q – P – R
and not those workers
(𝑏) 28. The man said that
treat his nearest and dearest with favour. P
would be given a raise
(𝑐)
𝑄
No error
who did not go on
(𝑑)
R
REARRANGING PARTS OF A SENTENCE strike last month
Directions (Q. 25-32): In the following items, some
S
parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You The correct sequence should be
are required to rearrange these parts which are (a) P – Q – R – S (b) P – R – S – Q
labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct (c) Q – P – R – S (c) R – S – P – Q
sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in the members
your Answer Sheet accordingly. 29. I think
P
Example ‘Z’ has been solved for you.
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 4
are basically in agreement of the group The pilot _______did not see the tower.
Q R (a) likely (b) probably
on the following points (c) scarcely (d) hurriedly
S
37. The car we were travelling in ______a mile
The correct sequence should be from home.
(a) R – Q – P – S (b) S – Q – R – P (a) broke off (b) broke down
(c) P – R – Q – S (d) P – Q – S – R (c) broke into (d) broke up
I had 38. What are you _______in the kitchen cupboard?
30. While it was true that (a) looking in (b) looking on
p
to invest in industry some lands and houses (c) looking to (d) looking for
𝑄 𝑅
39. I did not see the point of ______waiting for
I did not have ready cash them, so I went home.
(a) hanging around (b) hang on
S
The correct sequence should be (c) hang together (d) hanging up
(a) P – Q – R – S (b) P – R – S – Q
(c) S – Q – P – R (d) Q – P – R – S 40. He lost confidence and _______of the deal at
But for your help to finish this work the last minute.
31. (a) backed out (b) backed on
𝑅 𝑄
(c) backed down (d) backed onto
COMPREHENSION
it would not have been possible in time Directions (Q. 41-50): In this section, you have
𝑅 𝑆 two short passages. After each passage, you will
The correct sequence should be find several questions based on the passage. First,
(a) P – R – Q – S (b) S – P – Q – R read a passage and then answer the questions
(c) R – P – Q – S (d) P – Q – R – S based on it. You are required to select your
in the competition answers based on the contents of the passage and
32. The boy
𝑃 opinion of the author only.
who was wearing spectacles won many prizes
Examples ‘I’ and ‘J’ have been solved for you.
Q R PASSAGE (EXAMPLE)
held in our college
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or
S otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely
The correct sequence should be and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security
(a) P – Q – R – S and happiness. Different forms of life at different
(b) R – P – S – Q levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of
(c) Q – R – P – S this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they
(d) Q – P – S – R belong to the higher groups such as human beings
Directions (Q. 33-40): Each of the following items or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings
is followed by four words or groups of words. Fill primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is
in the blanks with the appropriate word or group of as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the
words. lowliest insect strives protection against dangers
33. Although I was ________of his plans, I that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to
encouraged him, because there was no one else live and not to die, so do all other creatures.
who was willing to help. I. The author’s main point is that
(a) skeptical (b) remorseful (a) different forms of life are found on the earth
(c) fearful (d) excited (b) different levels of existence are possible in
34. You have no business to _______pain on a nature
weak (c) peace and security are the chief goals of all
and poor person. living beings
(a) inflict (b) put (d) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve
(c) direct (d) force its life
35. Her uncle died in a car accident. He was quite J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps
rich. She suddenly_______ all her uncle’s is essential in developing the author’s position?
money. (a) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(a) succeeded (b) caught (b) The will to survive of a creature is identified
(c) gave (d) inherited with a desire for peace
36. There was a major accident. The plane crashed. (c) All beings are divided into higher and lower
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6
groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and
life, and pain and death.
Explanation:
I. The idea represents the author’s main point is
“peace and security are the chief goals of all
living beings”, which is response (c). So (c) is
the correct answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is
“The will to survive of a creature is identified
with a desire for peace”, which is response (b).
So (b) is the correct answer.
PASSAGE –I
When we talk of education in our present age, we
think largely in terms of schools and colleges. The
man who is well-to-do spends money in sending his
son to foreign lands, in the belief that some
wonderful process will take place there
transforming a dull fellow into a genius. Yet the
products of expensive schools and uni9versities
often fail to make good. On the other hand, the poor
man who has struggled against adversity often
earns the highest honor. The fact is that the true
background of early education is the home. The
home, the influence of the mother, the inspiring
examples that are held before the child at an age
while he is impressionable, are the true ground
work of character.
41. According to the passage, who helps in our
character-building?
(a) A foreign university
(b) A well-to-do man
(c) Examples that inspire
(d) A man who has earned honour
42. The proper background of early education is
(a) a school
(b) a college
(c) a religious institution
(d) the home
43. From the passage, we get an impression that
the highest honour is earned by
(a) a man who has received education in a foreign
country
(b) a man who has struggled against adversity
(c) a man who has seen prosperity alone
(d) the son of a prosperous man
44. A well-to-do man sends his son to foreign lands
(a) because it is the fashion of the day
(b) in the belief that his dull son will be
transformed into a genius
(c) so that the son may learn the customs of those
countries
(d) in order to make his son familiar with the
persons and places of those countries
5
45. The expression “the products of expensive
schools and universities often fail to make good”
means
(a) they fail to make a mark in life
(b) they fail to become intelligent
(c) they fail to earn proper living
(d) they do not earn good reputation
PASSAGE - II
The functional declines of advancing age are
depressing. The heart’s ability to pump blood drops
about one percent : blood flow to arms and legs
decreases by thirty to forty percent in old age. The
amount of air a person can exhale after a deep
breath lessens and the chest wall stiffens with age.
However, recent studies have shown that most of
these age-associated declines can be delayed by
exercise. Exercise lowers the resting heart-rate and
increases the amount of blood pumped with each
beat in older people. When stress is placed on
bones through exercise, calcium content rises, with
the result that resistance to fracture is improved.
46. Old age is generally a depressing period,
because
(a) old people worry more than others
(b) old people tend to regret their past
(c) various organs of the body function less
efficiently
(d) old people do very little work
47. The strength of bones can be increased by
exercise, because it
(a) increases the amount of blood pumped by the
heart
(b) increases calcium content in bones
(c) Increases the amount of air exhaled by a person
(d) lessens the stiffness of the chest wall
48. The word ‘exhale’ means
(a) breathe in (b) breathe out
(c) breathe slowly (d) breathe fast
49. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
(a) Exercise delays natural decay of old age
(b) Old-age problems increase due to exercise
(c) the resting heart-rate becomes high
(d) the person’s ability to exhale sufficient air
lessens
PART –B
Direction (Q. 51-57): The following questions
consist of two statements, statement I and II. You
are to examine these two statements carefully and
select the answers to these items using the code
given below:
Code:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and
Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement
I
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6
(b) Both the statements are individually true but
Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
51. Statement I:
Coalition in India is always a post-poll
phenomenon.
Statement II:
The United Progressive Alliance was formed after
the Lok Sabha Election of 2004.
52. Statement I:
The Constitution of India is a liberal Constitution.
Statement II:
It provides Fundamental Rights to individuals.
53. Statement I:
In order to create linguistic provinces in India, the
Congress Party constituted Motilal Nehru
Committee in 1928.
Statement II:
The Motilal Nehru Committee suggested creation
of linguistic provinces in India.
54. Statement I:
During the day, winds blow from sea to land.
Statement II:
The land gets more heated than the surrounding sea,
hence lower pressure develops over land as
compared to sea.
55. Statement I:
Winds are deflected to their right in the northern
hemisphere and to their left in the southern
hemisphere.
Statement II:
The Earth’s axis is inclined.
56. Statement I:
Pressure gradients determine the velocity of winds.
Statement II:
When isobars (lines of equal atmospheric pressure)
are closely spaced, the wind velocity would be
gentle.
57. Statement I:
Temperatures of countries like United Kingdom,
Norway, the Netherlands and Denmark are higher
as compared to places located on similar latitudes
during the winter.
Statement II:
United Kingdom, Norway, the Netherlands and
Denmark are located on the coast.
58. Consider the following statement and identify
with the help of the code given below the Viceroy
who made the statement and when:
In my belief, Congress is tottering to its fall and one
of my great ambitions while in India is to assist it to
a peaceful demise.
Code:
6
(a) Lord Curzon, in a letter to the Secretary of
States in 1900
(b) Lord Curzon, while announcing the partition of
Bengal
(c) Lord Dufferin, during the farewell speech at
Calcutta
(d) Lord Minto, while addressing the Muslim
delegation which met him at Shimla in 1906
59. The Copenhagen Summit for Climate Change,
2009 saw
(a) an agreement among the participants over CO2
emission
(b) unanimity of views among the developed and
BASIC bloc of countries
(c) rise of African countries as a bloc
(d) acceptance of US as a leader to attain the
objective of the Copenhagen Summit
60. Consider the following paragraph and identify
with the help of the code given below the write
referred to therein:
She is the winner of the Sahitya Akademi Award,
the Jnanpith Award and is also India’s first
Principal Prince Claus laureate. One of the most
celebrated writers of contemporary Indian
literature, she is noted for her novels which include
The Moth-Eaten Howdah of the Tusker, Pages
Stained with Blood and the Man from
Chinnamasta.
Code:
(a) Anita Desai (b) Indira Goswami
(c) Mahasweta Devi (d) Chitra Mudgal
61. Consider the following paragraph and identify
with the help of the code given below the Church
referred to therein:
Considered as one of the best examples of baroque
architecture in India, this World Heritage
Monument is dedicated to Infant Jesus. It houses
the sacred relics of St. Francis Xavier, the patron
saint, who died in 1552.
Code:
(a) Santa Cruz Basilica
(b) St. Francis Church
(c) Church of the Holy Cross
(d) Basilica of Bom Jesus
62. Ms. Reena Kaushal Dharmshaktu is the first
Indian woman
(a) to reach Antarctica
(b) pilot inducted in Indian Air Force
(c) to ski to the South Pole
(d) to win the gold medal in Asian Boxing
Championship
63. Which one among the following is the latest
milestone of Doordarshan, the public broadcaster of
India?
(a) Launch of enrichment/cultural channel—DD
Bharati
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6
(b) Launch of 24 hours news channel—DD News
(c) Launch of sports Channel—DD Sports
(d) Fromation of Prasar Bharati (Broadcasting
Corporation of India)
64. START (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) is a
treaty between/among
(a) China and Japan
(b) USA and Russia
(c) USA and European Union
(d) China, India, USA and Russia
65. Which one of the following is not a member of
BASIC bloc of countries?
(a) South Africa (b) China
(c) India (d) Australia
66. Which of the following is/are instance (s) of
violation of human rights?
1. A person was detained by the security forces
while going for casting vote in Parliamentary
Election.
2. A civilian was killed by the army while
undertaking combing operation.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
67. Consider the following paragraph about one of
the prominent personalities of India and identify
him/her using the code given below:
One of the founder members of the Progressive
Artists Group, he / she painted several important
series of paintings like the Mahabharata and
Ramayana, Christ and the Lamb, Peace Doves,
Women with Roosters and Mother Teresa. He / She
made a symbolic film, Through the Eyes of a
Painter, which won him / her the Golden Bear
Award at the Berlin Film Festival.
Code:
(a) Dhiraj Choudhury (b) Satish Gujral
(c) M. F. Hussain (d) Amrita Shergil
68. Operation Vajraprahar is the joint counter-
terrorism exercise between Indian Army and
(a) US Army (b) Chinese Army
(c) Russian Army (d) Nepalese Army
69. The notion of saptanga that was introduced in
Arthashastra includes
(a) kings, territory, administration and treasury
(b) music, dance, ragas and wrestling
(c) ministers, civil servants, subalterns and those
involved in espionage
(d) aristocrats, acharyas, traders and monks
70. The immediate cause of the revival of human
rights in post-Second World War period was
(a) massive loss of lives in the War
7
(b) nuclear bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki by
the Americans
(c) growing knowledge of brutal atrocities of Nazis
over the Jews
(d) emergence of Soviet Union as a Superpower
71. Which one of the following with regard to the
Poona Pact, 1932 is not correct?
(a) Adequate representation of depressed sections
in government jobs
(b) Reservation of seats for the depressed classes in
the provincial legislature
(c) Acceptance of joint electorate system
(d) Reservation of seats for the depressed classes in
the central legislature
72. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based
on
(a) the principle of federation and parliamentary
system
(b) the principle of secession of the British Indian
provinces
(c) acceptance of independence of India
(d) acceptance of the idea of a constituent assembly
to draft a constitution
73. Which of the following statements with regard
to freedom struggle are correct?
1. The British rule could prevail in India on the
basis of the consent or acquiescence of many
sections of Indian people.
2. The social basis of the colonial regime was
among the Zamindars and upper classes.
3. The Indian National Army forced the British to
withdraw from India.
4. The Hindu Mahasabha supported the partition of
India.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
74. Which one of the following statements with
regard to ‘Direct Action Day’ is correct?
(a) Hasan Suhrawardy presided over the ‘Direct
Action Day’
(b) ‘Direct Action’ took place in Delhi
(c) ‘Direct Action Day’ led to the Bihar riot
(d) ‘Direct Action’ was endorsed by the Congress
Party
75. Planning in India drew on
(a) the New Economic Programme of Lenin
(b) the Fabian Socialism of Sidney and Beatrice
Webb
(c) the British welfare mechanism
(d) new democratic development packages
76. The Haripura Congress (1938) remains a
milestone in Indian freedom struggle, because
(a) it declared war on the British Empire
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 8
(b) it anointed Jawaharlal Nehru as the future Prime 83. According to Karl Marx, attainment of
Minister of India communism is possible only after
(c) of the introduction of the idea of a planning (a) resolution of tension between the leader and led
commission (b) completion of permanent revolution
(d) of the acceptance of the Government of India (c) emergence of exploitation-free society
Act, 1935 by the Congress (d) disappearance of difference between urban and
77. The Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act deals rural areas
with 84. India’s ‘Look East Policy’
(a) local self-government 1. was articulated during the reign of H.D. Deve
(b) extension of reservation in educational Gowda as India’s Prime Minister
institutions 2. is directed towards South-East Asian countries
(c) basic structure of the Constitution of India 3. is about controlling terrorism
(d) appointment of judges in the Supreme Court of 4. seeks to develop a bond among various countries
India on the basis of economic cooperation
78. Which of the following statements is/are not Select the correct answer using the code given
violative of the principle of federalism? below:
1. The President of India takes over administration Code:
of provinces under the emergency provisions. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
2. The Parliament of India has exclusive power to (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
make any law with respect to any matter not 85. Cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights
enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. because of
3. The distribution of powers between the Union (a) greenhouse effect
and Provinces in done through three different lists (b) depletion of ozone layer
enumerated in the constitution of India. (c) insolation
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) terrestrial radiation
below: 86. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Code: answer using the code given below the Lists:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 List-I List-II (Agent of
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 (Landform) erosion/deposition)
79. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked A. Inselbergs 1. River
with B. Stalagmite 2. Glacier
(a) judicial review (b) judicial activism C. Delta 3. Underground water
(c) judicial intervention (d) judicial sanctity D. Moraines 4. Wind
80. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi was critical Code:
of railways, because they are A B C D
1. carriers of plague germs (a) 4 2 1 3
2. instruments for frequency of famines (b) 3 1 2 4
3. responsible for creating class division in the (c) 1 2 3 4
society (d) 4 3 1 2
4. accident-prone 87. If it is 12 noon in a city located on 900W
Select the correct answer using the code given longitude, what would be the time in a city located
below: on 1050W longitude?
Code: (a) 13 : 00 (b) 12 : 30
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 11 : 30 hours (d) 11 : 00
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 88. As we proceed from equator to poles, the daily
81. Mahatma Gandhi and Rabindranath Tagore did range of temperature tends to
not define India as a ‘nation’, because they were (a) decrease (b) increase
(a) appreciative of cultural divisiveness (c) be constant (d) fluctuate
(b) opposed to the idea of homogeneity 89. Doldrums are characterized by
(c) supportive of ‘oneness’ (a) uniform low pressure
(d) critical of hegemonic culture (b) uniform high pressure
82. Socialism refers to (c) high wind velocity
(a) State-controlled economy (d) low humidity
(b) liquidation of the bourgeoisie 90. Glaciated region are associated with
(c) removal of peasantry from administration (a) V-shaped valley (b) U-shaped valley
(d) establishment of military dictatorship (c) sand dunes (d) stalactites
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 9
91. Which one of the following is generally found Select the correct answer using the code given
in sedimentary rocks? below:
(a) Basalt (b) Silica Code:
(c) Shale (d) Magnesium (a) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4 (b) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
92. The interval between two high tides is (c) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4 (d) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
approximately 99. Which of the following are west-flowing rivers?
(a) 4 hours (b) 6 hours 1. Krishna 2. Narmada
(c) 12 hours (d) 24 hours 3. Mahanadi 4. Sabarmati
93. Xerophytes thrive in 100. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) hot and arid condition 1. In a cyclone, the area of low pressure is at the
(b) cool and wet condition centre surrounded by the areas of high pressure.
(c) hot and wet condition 2. In a cyclone. The areas of low pressure surround
(d) cool and arid condition the area of high pressure.
94. Biodiversity is highest in 3. In an anti-cyclone, the area of high pressure is
(a) Tundra zone (b) Prairie zone surrounded by the areas of low pressure.
(c) Torrid zone (d) Tropic zone 4. In an anti-cyclone, the area of low pressure is
95. Which of the following statements is/are surrounded by the areas of high pressure
correct? Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Lunar eclipse takes place when the Earth comes below:
directly between the Sun and the Moon. Code:
2. Solar eclipse happens when the Moon comes (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
directly between the Sun and the Earth. (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
3. Lunar eclipse takes place when the Sun comes 101. Which part of brain controls fine movement,
directly between the Earth and the Moon. maintains balance and equilibrium of the body and
4. Solar eclipse happens when the Earth comes muscle tone in a human being?
directly between the Sun and the Moon. (a) Cerebrum (b) Thalamus
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) Cerebellum (d) Hypothalamus
below: 102. Leishmania, the causative agent of kala-azar,
Code: multiplies asexually by
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (a) budding (b) binary fission
(b) 3 and 4 (c) multiple fission (d) sporogony
(c) 1 and 2 only 103. Administering a vaccine provides protection
(d) 2 only by inducing synthesis of antibodies (proteins)
96. Iron ore from Kudremukh is most likely to be specific to the vaccine. The cell in the body
exported through responsible for the production of antibodies is
(a) Goa (b) Kochi (a) granulocyte
(c) Mangalore (d) Ennore (b) lymphocyte
97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) erythrocyte (red blood cell)
answer using the code given below the Lists: (d) platelet
List-I List-II 104. Biological catalysts in living organisms are
(Type of vegetation) (State) known as
A. Mangrove 1. Madhya Pradesh (a) hormones (b) vitamins
B. Scrub 2. Karnataka (c) steroids (d) enzymes
C. Teak 3. Rajasthan 105. To which one of the following types of
D. Coniferous 4. Arunachal Pradesh organism do mushrooms belong?
Code: (a) Algae (b) Ferns
A B C D (c) Fungi (d) Lichens
(a) 4 1 3 2 106. Among the following elements, which one is
(b) 2 1 3 4 essential for the transmission of impulses in the
(c) 4 3 1 2 nerve fibre?
(d) 2 3 1 4 (a) Calcium (b) Iron
98. Arrange the following States on the basis of (c) Sodium (d) Zinc
ascending dates of the onset of monsoon: 107. Cure to spinal injury is likely to emerge from
1. Uttar Pradesh 2. West Bengal (a) gene therapy (b) stem cell therapy
3. Kerala 4. Rajasthan (c) xenograft (d) transfusion
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 10
108. Food wrapped in newspaper is likely to get 118. The magnetic lines of force due to a bar
contaminated with magnet
(a) lead (b) aluminium (a) intersect inside the body of the magnet
(c) iron (d) magnesium (b) intersect at neutral points only
109. Which one among the following produces (c) intersect only at north and south poles
seeds but not flowers? (d) cannot intersect at all
(a) Cashew nut (b) Coffee 119. The specific resistance of a conducting wire
(c) Groundnut (d) Pine depends upon
110. Which among the following not a true fruit? (a) length of the wire, area of cross-section of the
(a) Apple (b) Date wire and material of the wire
(c) Grape (d) Plum (b) length of the wire and area of cross-section of
111. ‘Pitch’ is a characteristic of sound that the wire but not on the material of the wire
depends upon its (c) material of the wire only but neither on the
(a) intensity (b) frequency length of the wire nor on the area of cross-section
(c) quality (d) None of these of the wire
112. The ratio of the focal length of the objective to (d) length of the wire only but neither on the area of
the focal length of the eyepiece is greater than one cross-section of the wire nor on the material of the
for wire
(a) a microscope 120. When X-rays are produced
(b) a telescope (a) heat is generated at the target
(c) both microscope and telescope (b) heat is absorbed at the target
(d) neither microscope nor telescope (c) the temperature of the target remains constant
113. The effective resistance of three equal (d) brilliant light is seen at the target
resistances, each of resistance r, connected in 121. Which one of the statements given below is
parallel, is not correct?
(a) 3/r (b) r/3 (a) A vertical plane passing through the axis of
(c) 3 r (d) r3 a freely suspended magnet is called the
114. A fan produces a feeling of comfort during hot magnetic meridian
weather, because (b) A vertical plane passing through the axis of
(a) our body radiates more heat in air rotation of the Earth is called the
(b) fan supplies cool air geographical meridian
(c) conductivity of air increases (c) The degree to which the magnetic field can
(d) our perspiration evaporates rapidly penetrate a medium is known as the relative
115. Which one of the following statements is permeability of the medium
correct? (d) The relative permeability is not a
(a) Only electrons reside inside the nucleus of an dimensionless quantity
atom 122. If an object is placed at the centre of curvature
(b) Both electrons and protons reside inside the of a concave mirror, the position of the image is
nucleus of an atom (a) at the principal focus
(c) Only neutrons reside inside the nucleus of an (b) between the principal focus and the centre
atom of
(d) Both protons and neutrons can reside inside the curvature
nucleus of an atom (c) at the centre of curvature
116. The ratio of velocity of X-rays to that of (d) beyond the centre of curvature
gamma rays 123. The radius of curvature of a plane mirror
(a) is < 1 (a) is zero
(b) is > 1 (b) is infinity
(c) is 1 (c) can be anywhere between zero and infinity
(d) depends upon the ratio of their frequencies (d) None of these
117. Which one of the following pairs of rays is 124. A coin in a beaker filled with water appears
electromagnetic in nature? raised. This phenomenon occurs because of the
(a) Beta rays and gamma rays property of
(b) Cathode rays and X-rays (a) reflection of light
(c) Alpha rays and beta rays (b) refraction of light
(d) X-rays and gamma rays (c) total internal reflection of light
(d) interference of light
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 11
125. A ray of light falls on a transparent glass plate. 132. To produce an erect image larger than the object,
A part of it is reflected and a part is refracted. one should be use a
The reflected and refracted rays can be (a) convex lens
perpendicular to (b) convex mirror
each other for (c) concave lens
(a) angle of incidence equal to 900 (d) concave mirror
(b) angle of incidence equal to zero 133. How many sixty watt (60 W) bulbs may be
(c) only one angle of incidence safely used in a 240-V supply with 4-ampere
(d) more than one angle of incidence fuse?
126. A man with a dark skin, in comparison with a (a) 4 (b) 8
man with a white skin, will experience (c) 12 (d) 16
(a) less heat and less cold 134. A vessel contains oil (density p1) over a liquid
(b) less heat and more cold of density p2; a homogeneous sphere of volume
(c) more heat and less cold V floats with half of its volume immersed in
(d) more heat and more cold the liquid and the other half in oil. The weight
127. Which one among the following denotes the of the sphere is
smallest temperature? (a) V(p2 – p1)/2 (b) V(p2 + p1)g/2
(a) 1o on the Celsius scale (c) V(p2 + p1) (d) V(p2 + p1)/2
(b) 1o on the Kelvin scale
(c) 1o on the Fahrenheit scale 135. For a simple pendulum in simple harmonic
(d) 1o on the Reaumur scale motion, which of the following statements is/are
128. A particle oscillates in one dimension about correct?
the equilibrium position subject to a force Fx (x) that 1. The kinetic energy is maximum at the mean
has an associated potential energy U(x). If k is the position.
force constant, which one of the following relations 2. The potential energy is maximum at the mean
is true? position.
(a) Fx(x) = - kx2 (b) Fx(x) = -kx 3. Acceleration us maximum at the mean position.
1 1 2 Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) U(x) = kx (d) U(x) = kx below:
2 2
Code:
129. When a body moves with simple harmonic (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
motion, then the phase difference between the (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
velocity and the acceleration is 136. The metal atom, which is present in
(a) 0o superphosphate, is
(b) 90o (a) sodium (Na) (b) potassium (K)
(c) 180o (c) calcium (Ca) (d) magnesium (Mg)
(d) 270o 137. The best and the poorest conductors of heat
130. A body is thrown vertically upwards and then are respectively
falls back on the ground. Its potential energy is (a) silver (Ag) and lead (Pb)
maximum (b) copper (Cu) and aluminium (AI)
(a) on the ground (c) silver (Ag) and gold (Au)
(b) at the maximum height (d) copper (Cu) and gold (Au)
(c) during the return journey 138. Which one among the following metals is
(d) both on the ground and at the maximum more reactive than hydrogen?
height (a) Mercury (b) Copper
131. Which one of the following pairs does not (c) Silver (d) Tin
have the same dimension? 139. The number of neutrons in 13AI27 is
(a) Potential energy and kinetic energy (a) 40 (b) 27
(b) Density and specific gravity (c) 14 (d) 13
(c) Focal length and height
(d) Gravitational force and frictional force
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 12
Directions (Q. 140-143): The following questions are based on the Table given below. You are to match
List-I with List-II and List-IV, and select the correct answer using the code given below:

List-I List-II List-III List-IV

(Element) (Property) (Property/Composition) (Property/Composition)
A. Diamond 1. Thermosetting I. Rigid structure i. Non-conductor
polymer
B. Graphite 2. Monomer II. Sheet-like ii. Ester
structure
C. Rayon 3. Soft III. Cellulose iii. Counductor of heat
D. Nylon 4. Viscose process IV. Soft on heating iv. Ether
E. Carbon fibre 5. Synthetic fibre V. Unreactive v. Silk-like thread
F. Polyvinyl chloride 6. High strength VI. Corrosion vi. Spacecraft
G. Terylene 7. Thermoplastic VII. Melts instead vii. Chlorine atom
of burning replaces
hydrogen atom
H. Bakelite 8. Polyester fibre VIII. Ethylene glycol viii. Cross-linked
9. Hardest natural IX. Phenol and ix. Terephthalic
substance formaldehyde acid
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 13
(a) Cu > Mg > Zn > Na
140. List-I List-II List-III List-IV (b) Na > Zn > Mg > Cu
(a) A 9 I i (c) Cu > Zn > Mg > Na
(b) B 3 IV iv (d) Na > Mg > Zn > Cu
(c) A 9 I ii 149. Vinegar is produced from
(d) B 3 II v (a) ethanoic acid (b) valeric acid
141. List-I List-II List-III List-IV (c) methanoic acid (d) butanoic acid
(a) C 4 II i 150. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(b) D 5 VII v answer using the code given below the Lists:
(c) C 6 V vi List-I List-II
(d) D 5 II iv A. Ozone gas 1. Combines with
142. List-I List-II List-III List-IV Haemoglobin
(a) E 6 I vi B. Nitrous oxide 2. Ultraviolet
(b) F 7 IV ix Radiation
(c) E 6 VI vi C. Carbon dioxide 3. Component of
(d) F 3 VI v air in small
143. List-I List-II List-III List-IV D. Carbon monoxide 4. Visible radiation
(a) G 8 I ix 5. Infrared
(b) H 4 IV iii Radiation
(c) G 8 VIII ix Code:
(d) H I VI viii A B C D
144. Which one of the following is a transition (a) 1 4 5 3
metal? (b) 2 3 5 1
(a) Aluminium (AI) (c) 1 4 3 2
(b) Mangenese (Mn) (d) 2 5 3 1
(c) Magnesium (Mg)
(d) Calcium (Ca)
145. Which one of the following gases, present in
the air near the surface of the Earth, has
maximum concentration?
(a) Oxygen (O2)
(b) Hydrogen (H2)
(c) Nitrogen (N2)
(d) Methane (CH4)
146. Which one of the following elements will
replace hydrogen from acids to form salts?
(a) Sulphur (S)
(b) Silicon (Si)
(c) Zinc (Zn)
(d) Phosphorus (P)
147. Which of the following represent a chemical
change?
1. Magnetization of iron
2. Condensation of liquid
3. Burning of fuel
4. Rusting of iron
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
148. Which one among the following is the correct
order of reactivity of the elements?
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 14
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 15
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 16
ANSWERS
GENERAL ABILITYTEST

1 (c) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (d) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (d) 8 (c) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (d) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (b) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (d) 20 (c)
21 (c) 22 (b) 23 (b) 24 (b) 25 (b) 26 (d) 27 (a) 28 (b) 29 (c) 30 (c)
31 (c) 32 (c) 33 (a) 34 (a) 35 (d) 36 (b) 37 (b) 38 (d) 39 (a) 40 (a)
41 (c) 42 (d) 43 (b) 44 (b) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (b) 48 (b) 49 (a) 50 (d)
51 (b) 52 (d) 53 (d) 54 (a) 55 (b) 56 (a) 57 (a) 58 (a) 59 (a) 60 (b)
61 (d) 62 (c) 63 (b) 64 (b) 65 (d) 66 (c) 67 (c) 68 (a) 69 (a) 70 (c)
71 (a) 72 (a) 73 (a) 74 (a) 75 (a) 76 (c) 77 (b) 78 (b) 79 (b) 80 (d)
81 (d) 82 (a) 83 (c) 84 (c) 85 (c) 86 (d) 87 (d) 88 (a) 89 (a) 90 (b)
91 (c) 92 (c) 93 (a) 94 (b) 95 (a) 96 (c) 97 (c) 98 (b) 99 (a) 100 (b)
101 (c) 102 (b) 103 (b) 104 (d) 105 (c) 106 (c) 107 (b) 108 (a) 109 (d) 110 (a)
111 (b) 112 (b) 113 (b) 114 (d) 115 (d) 116 (c) 117 (d) 118 (d) 119 (c) 120 (a)
121 (d) 122 (c) 123 (a) 124 (b) 125 (d) 126 (d) 127 (d) 128 (b) 129 (b) 130 (b)
131 (b) 132 (a) 133 (d) 134 (b) 135 (a) 136 (c) 137 (a) 138 (d) 139 (c) 140 (d)
141 (b) 142 (a) 143 (c) 144 (b) 145 (c) 146 (c) 147 (c) 148 (d) 149 (a) 150 (b)

PART A
1. ‘Roughed out’ is a phrasal verb which means to
draw a rough draft or give a preliminary idea
about something.
Option (a) means shaping something, ans-(c) is
correct as it means to draw a tentative plan.
2. Abyss means a deep hollow infinite cauity well
3. ‘Audacity’ means the rashness or brashness to
do something, since it’s a negative word only
option (d) fits here which is negative and
means the same question word. Option (a) is
positive. Hence, can not, replace audacity in the
sentence.
4. Frenetic means ‘wildlty excited or active;
fuantic flunzied’ the sentence uses the word in a
positive context. Hence, option (c) and (b) can
be easily eliminate option (a) is also not
suitable as strenuous usually means physically
firing.Hence option (d) is most suitable.
5. Copiers means abundant, plentiful. In the given
context the question word means
‘comprehensive’ hence the correct option is (b)
which means the same option (b) is the literal
meaning of the question word but does not fit in
context.
6. Impervious means in-accessible. In the current
context the question word means not ‘disturbed
by’, Hence the correct answer option is (b).
7. Elicit means ‘to extract’ option (a) is the literal
meaning of the word but doesn’t fit in the
context of the sentence. Extort would be correct
and ‘hollow’ however are not right as per the
context as the context means to say that he was
in extremely sorrowful condition.
Hence,contextually
only the word ‘sea’ fits here.
option in this context as mean to extract by use
of authority. Hence option (d).
8. Bucrative means ‘worth while or profitable’ but
since the sentence is referring to teaching as job
it definitely does’nt refer to profit in this case.
Hence option (b) is the literal meaning of the
word. Contextually option (c) is the best fit and
option (a) and (d) our clearly opposites.
9. Extravagant means ‘hardworking’ so opposite
of it will be option (c) option (d) and a donot
go well in current context.
10. Diligent means hardworking, so opposite of it
will be option(b).
11. ‘Status quo’ hence opposite would be (a)
12. Victole mean ‘the winner’ hence opposite is
(d) which means the looser or defeated.
13.Landable means ‘Commandable’. Hence the
opposite is option (a) which means something
that should be condemned or censured.
14. Fictions means ‘something that is not real’ so
opposite will be option (c)
15. Reluctance means ‘unwwillingness’ hence
opposite will be (a)
16. Generous means ‘benevolent’ so opposite will
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6
be option (b) which means not big hearted.
17.Option b is incorrect as it should be poor folks’
since in option (c) we are referring to plurals
(‘are’). Hence as per subject verb agreement
option (b) is incorrect.
18. Option (c) is incorrect and should be ‘with
our’ as the correct preposition is ‘with’ and
‘through’.
20. Option (c) should be ‘I say my prayer’ as the
correct verb to be used with prayers is ‘say’
and not ‘do’.
21. Option (c) should friend had left…we need the
past perfect tense.
22. Option (b) should ‘old enough’ and ‘enough’
as an adverb comes after the adjective it
describes.
23. Option (b) should be ‘I will do’ as ‘shall’ is
used for obligation and not for ‘willingness’.
24. Option (b) should be ‘absolutely impartial’ in
the current context of sentence.
25. R has to be followed by Q, hence option (b) is
correct.
26. R has to be followed by S as the adverbs come
in that order, hence option (d) is correct.
27. Q has to be followed by P as the verb is
contained in these parts, hence option (a) is
correct.
28. P has to be followed by R as it identifies the
(persons mentioned in the previous part of
sentences hence option (b) is correct.
29. P has to be followed by R as it explains the
members mentioned in previous part of
sentences, hence option (c) is correct.
30. S has to be followed by Q as the verb and
adjective phrase needs to come in this order
hence option (c) is correct.
31. P has to follow R as it explains the ‘reasons’
mentioned in the previous part of sentences.
Hence option (c) is correct.
32. Q has to be followed by R as the verb clause is
contained in this part, hence option (c) is
correct.
33. Option (a) spherical means ‘doubt ful’ and is
the correct option as it fits the context. Option
(b) means to ‘repent’ and doesn’t fit in the
context.
34. Option (a) inflict means to ‘to impose’, hence
the correct option in the current context.
35. Option (d) is clearly the answer as one inherits
property.
36. Option (b) is correct as it is the only word that
fits in the context.
37. Option (b) means its stop working hence
option (b) is correct.
17
38. Option (d) means to try and find something,
hence the answer is option (d).
39. Option (a) means ‘to stay’, hence it fits the
current context.
40. Option (a) means ‘to step back or opt out of a
competition’ hence the answer is option (a).
PART B
51. UPA and NDA was formed after Lok Sabha
Election (2004).
52. Constitution of India is a liberal constitution.
In Indian constitution (Part-III) article 13 to 32
the right of citizens are described.
53. The Motilal Nehru committee suggested
creation of linguistic provinces in India. In
order to create linguistic provinces in India,
the Congress Party constituted Motilal Nehru
Committee in 1928.
54. The land gets more heated than the
surrounding sea, hence lower pressure
develops over land as compared to sea, during
the day winds blow from sea to land.
55. Winds are deflected to their right in northern
hemisphere and to their in the southern
hemisphere. Earth’s axis is inclined.
56. Both statements are individually true.
57. Both statements are individually true.
58. Lord Curzon, in a letter to the secretary of
states in 1990.
59. The Copenhagen summit for climate change
2009 saw an agreement among the participants
over CO2 emission.
60. Indira Goswami was born on 14 Nov. 1942.
She achieve Sahitya academy prize in 1983 and
Gyanpeeth Prize (2000), as a famous social
worker. She is India’s first principal prince
clause laureate.
61. Basilica of Bom Jesus is situated near about 8
km from capital of Goa, Panji. Its devoted to
child jesus. This church is effected by Cent
Paul Church.
62. Ms Reena Kaushal Dharmshaktu is 38 years
old, she is experienced instructor.
63. Prasar Bharti is established in 23 Nov. 1997
Sport channel of Doordarshan start at 8 march,
1999. Entertainment channel D.D. News was
telecast on 3 Nov. 2003.
64. START (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) is
a treaty between USA and Russia on July 31,
1991. It was ending on 5 Dec, 2009 after that
‘START-II’, treaty started on 8 April, 2010
between those countries.
65. India, South Africa and China are the member
of ‘BASIC’ while Australia is not.
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6
66. A civilian was killed by army while under
taking combing operating, a person was
detained by security forces while going for
casting vote in Parliamentary election.
67. M.F. Hussain is one of the founder members
of the progressive Artist Group. He made a
symbolic film ‘Through the Eyes of Painter’ in
1966 which won him the Golden Bear Award at
the Berlin Film festival.
68. Operation Vajraprahar is the joint counter-
terrorism exercise between Indian Army and
US Army.
69. The notion of Saptanga that was introduced in
Arthashastra includes kings, territory,
administration and treasury.
70. The immediate cause of revival of human
rights in post-second world war period was
growing knowledge of brutal atrocities of
Nazis over the Jews.
71. Poona act (1932) was between Mahatma
Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar. In which
reservation of seat for depressed classes in the
provincial legislature and in the central
legislature.
72. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based
on the principle of federation and
parliamentary system.
73. The British rule could prevail in India on the
basis of the consent of many sections of
Indian people.
74. Hasan Suhrawardy presided over the ‘Direct
Action Day’.
75. Planning in India drew on the New Economic
Programme of Lenin in Russia in 1924 for
improvement in economical conditions.
76.The Haripura Congress (1938) remains a
milestone in Indian freedom struggle, because
of the introduction of idea of a planning
commission.
77. The constitution (93rd Amendment) act deals
with extension of reservation in educational
institutions.
78. The President of India taxes over
administration of provinces under the
emergency provisions is violative of principle
of federalism.
79. Judicial activism is linked with Public Interest
Litigation (PIL).
80. In Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi was critical
of railways, because they are carriers of plague
germs and accident-prone.
81. Mahatma Gandhi and Rabindranath Tagore did
not defined India as a ‘nation’, because they
were critical of hegemonic culture.
18
82. Socialism refers to state-controlled economy.
83. According to Karl Marx, attainment of
communism is possible only after emergence
of exploitation free society.
84. India’s ‘Look East Policy’ is directed towards
South-East Asian countries, it seeds to develop
a bond among various countries on the basis of
economic cooperation.
85. Cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights
because of insolation.
88. As we proceed from equator to poles, the daily
range of temperature tends to decrease.
89. Doldrums are characterized by uniform low
pressure.
90. Glaciated regions are associated with U-
shaped valley.
91. Basalt is generally found in sedimentary rocks.
92. The interval between two high tides is
approximately 12 hours.
93. Xerophytes thrive in hot and arid condition.
94. Biodiversity is highest in Prairie Zone.
95. Lunar eclipse takes place when earth comes
directly between the sun and moon, solar
eclipse happens when the moon comes directly
between the sun and earth, it takes place when
sun comes directly between the earth and
moon.
96. Iron are from Kudremukh is most likely to be
exported through Mangalore.
99. Krishna and Sabarmati are west flowing rivers.
100. In a cyclone, the area of low pressure is at
centre surrounded by the areas of high
pressure. In an anticyclone, the area of high
pressure is surrounded by areas of low
pressure.
101. Cerebellum (brain) controls fine movements,
maintain balance and equilibrium of body
and musclestone in human being.
102. Leishmania, the causative agent of Kala-azar
multiplies asexually by binary fission.
103. Lymphocyte cells (WBCs) are responsible for
the production of antibodies.
104. Biological catalysts in living organism are
known as enzymes.
105. Fungi is type of organism which belongs to
mushrooms.
106. Sodium is essential for transmission of
impulses in the nerve fibre.
107. Cure to spinal injury is likely to emerge from
stem cell therapy.
108. Food wrapped in newspaper is likely to get
contaminated with lead.
109. Pine tree produces seeds but not flowers.
110. Apple is not a true fruit.
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6
111. ‘Pitch’ is a characteristic of sound that
depends upon its frequency.
112. The ratio of focal length of the objective to
the focal length of eyepiece is greater than
one for a telescope.
113. The effective resistance of three equal
resistances, each of resistance r, connected in
parallel is r/3.
114. A fan produces a feeling of comfort during
hot weather because our perspiration
evaporates rapidly.
115. Both protons and neutrons can reside the
nucleus of an atom.
116. The ratio of velocity of X-rays to that of
gamma rays is 1.
117. X-rays and gamma rays are electromagnetic
in nature.
118. The magnetic lines of force due to bar magnet
cannot intersect at all.
119. The specific resistance of a conducting wire
depends upon material of wire nor on the area
of cross section of the wire
120. When X-rays are produced heat is generated
at the target.
121. The relative permeability is not a dimension-
less quantity.
122. When object is placed at the centre of
curvature of a concave mirror, the position
of the image is at the centre of curvature.
123. The radius of curvature of a plane mirror is
zero.
124. A coin in a beaker filled with water appears
raised, it occurs due to property of refraction
of light.
125. The refracted and reflected rays can be
perpendicular to each other for only one
angle of incidence.
126. A man with a dark skin, will experience more
heat and more cold.
127. 1o on the Reaunur scale denotes the smallest
temperature.
128. A particle oscillates in one dimension about
the equilibrium position subjected to a force
Fx(x) that has an associated potential energy
U(x)x. If k is force constant:
Fx(x) = −kx
129. When a body moves with simple harmonic
motion then the phase difference between
velocity and acceleration is 90o.
130. A body is thrown vertically upwards and then
falls back on ground, its potential energy is
maximum.
131. Density and specific gravity doesnot have
19
same dimension.
132. (a)
133. (Power) P = V × I
P = 240 × 4 = 960 W
960
Number of bulb of 60 watt = = 16 bulb.
60
134. Mass of homogeneous sphere
= mass of upthrust liquid
P +P
Average density (oil + liquid) = ( 2 2 1)
P +P
Mass of sphere (𝑚1 ) = ( 2 2 1 ) g
135. Kinetic energy is maximum at the mean
position.
136. Chemical formula of super phosphate –
Ca(H2 PO4 )2 so calcium atom is present in it.
137. The best and poorest conductors of heat are
respectively silver (Ag) and lead (Pb).
138. Tin is more reactive than hydrogen.
139. Number of Neutrons = Mass Number
−Atomic Number
Atomic Number = 13, Mass Number = 27
Number of Neutrons = 27 – 13 = 14
140. Diamond is allotropic form of carbon. It is
good conductor of temperature and heat,
while graphite is soft and fibrous, sheet like
structure.
141. Rayon is artificial silk polymer. It is obtained
from cellulose by viscous methods while
Nylon is synthesized polymer which melts on
heating.
142. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a thermosetting
plastic which get soft on heating carbon
filaments are very rigid in nature. In PVC
chlorine atom replaces hydrogen atom.
143. Terrelene is polymer of ethylene glycol and
terephthalic acid.
nHOCH2  CH2OH  nHOOC
ethylene glycol
Due to presence of ester bonds terrelene is
also called as polyester.
Bakelite is a polymer of phenol (C6H5OH)
and formaldehyde (HCHO).
144. In transition metal electron enters in
penultimate shell.
Electronic configuration orf given metal
A13 = 2, 8, 3
Mn25 = 2, 8, 13, 2
Mg12 = 2, 8, 2
Ca20 = 2, 8, 8, 2
In Mn, last electron enters in penultimate
shell therefore Mn (Magnese) is a transition
metal.
145. Air contains
MUSALE CLASSES/NDA-NA/GAT/P-6 20
78.09% − Nitrogen − Carbon mono oxide (CO) combine with
20.94% − Oxygen haemoglobin and form
1.9% − Other gases carboxyhaemoglobin, which causes
146. Metal which are more reactive than hydrogen suffocation.
are capable to donate electrons. Zn reacts
with acid to make salts and evolved hydrogen
gas while non-metals like S, Si, P etc are not
capable to donate electrons, so these do not
react with acid.
147. In chemical change, the chemical
composition of a substance is totally change
and new product is formed with different
chemical properties. In Burning cf fuel the
chemical composition is totally change so it is
a chemical change.
In rusting of iron Fe(iron) converts into iron
oxide (Fe2O3. xH2O), here chemical
composition of iron gets change so it is a
chemical change while in magnetization of
iron and condensation of liquid only physical
appearance changes and chemical
composition remains change so both of them
are physical changes.
148. The correct order of reactivity
Na > Mg > Zn > Cu
149. Vinegar (CH3COOH – acetic acid) is present
in ethanoic acid.
150. Ozone gas is the protective blanket of
atmosphere which protect us from ultraviolet
radiation
− Nitrous oxide is a component which is
present in air in small quantity (0.5 PPm)
− Carbondioxide (CO2) absorbs the infrared
radiation and maintains the temperature
of earth.