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Public Prosecutor and Civil Judge MCQs
2600+ MCQ previous year questions
Q1. Which of the following is/are correct
statement(s)?
(A) Evidence excluded by the Evidence Act is
inadmissible even if it seems essential for
ascertainment of truth.
(B) Parties cannot contract themselves out of the
provisions of the Evidence Act.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (C)
Q2. Which of the following qualifies to be
treated as ―Fact‖ within the meaning assigned
to it under the Evidence Act?
(A) That a man heard or saw something.
(B) That a man holds a certain opinion.
(C) That a man acts in good faith.
(D) All these
ANS: (D)
Q3. According to the Evidence Act, a fact is said
to be ‗not proved‘, when the—
(A) court believes that the fact does not exist
(B) fact is vague
(C) fact is neither proved nor disproved
(D) All these
ANS: (C)
Q4. ‗A‘ prosecutes ‗B ‘ for adultery with ‗C‘, wife
of ‗A‘. ‗B‘ contested by denying the allegation.
‗B‘ was found guilty and convicted in said case.
Subsequently, ‗C‘ was prosecuted on charge of
bigamy on allegations that she had married ‗B‘
during subsistence of her marriage with ‗A‘. ‗C‘
contested by denying that she was ever married
to ‗A‘. In the case against ‗C‘, the judgement in
the first case against ‗B‘ is—
(A) relevant
(B) irrelevant
(C) binding
(D) None of these
ANS: (B)
Q5. Mark the incorrect statement. A court may
take the assistance of expert for forming
opinion on point of—
(A) foreign law
(B) art
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (C)
Q6. Which of the statements given below is/are
correct?
(A) In civil cases, the character to prove the conduct
imputed to a party is not relevant.
(B) In criminal proceedings bad character of the
accused is not relevant, unless evidence of good
character has been given.
(C) In criminal proceedings previous conviction of
accused is relevant as evidence of bad character.
(D) All these
ANS: (D)
Q7. ‗A‘ is on trial for the murder of ‗C‘. There is
evidence to show that ‗C‘ was murdered by ‗A‘
and ‗B‘, and that ‗B‘ said—‗A‘ and I murdered
‗C‘. As against ‗A‘, this evidence is—
(A) not to be taken into consideration as the
evidence is hearsay
(B) to be taken into consideration as it is direct
(C) not to be taken into consideration as ‗A‘ and ‗B‘
are not being jointly tried
(D) to be taken into consideration as ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ are
accomplices
ANS: (C)
Q8. The essential conditions for the dying
declaration to be relevant include the—
1. statement is made by a person as to the
cause of his death.
2. statement is made by a person as to any of
the circumstances of the transaction which
resulted in his death.
3. person must have been under expectation of
death at the time of making the statement.
Which of the above propositions is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) All these
ANS: (A)
Q9. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(A) Confession caused by inducement, threat or
promise flowing from person in authority, giving
reasonable impression to the accused that he
would thereby avoid punishment, is relevant.
(B) Confession by accused while in custody of
police, even if made in the immediate presence of a
magistrate, shall not be proved.
(C) The confession of the accused made while in
custody of police may be proved if as a consequence
of information received thereby a relevant fact is
discovered.
(D) None of these
ANS: (D)
Q10. ‗A‘ is accused of receiving stolen goods
knowing them to be stolen. He offers to prove
that he refused to sell them below their value.
Which of the following is correct?
(A) ‗A‘ may prove the statements, though in the
nature of admission, because they are explanatory
of conduct influenced by facts in issue.
(B) ‗A‘ may not prove the statements because they
are self-serving admissions.

(C) ‗A‘ may not prove the statements because as
accused he cannot be a witness in his own defence.
(D) All these are incorrect
ANS: (A)
Q11. Which of the following is incorrect under
the Evidence Act?
(A) In a case where ‗A‘ is charged with receiving a
particular stolen wristwatch knowing the same to
be stolen—The fact that at the same time he was in
possession of other such stolen articles is relevant.
(B) In a case where ‗A‘ is tried for the murder of ‗B‘
by intentionally shooting him to death—The fact
that ‗A‘ was in the habit of shooting at people with
intent to murder them is relevant.
(C) In a case where ‗A‘ is sued for damages for bite
injury caused by his dog to ‗B‘, ‗A‘ having known
the dog to be ferocious–The fact that the dog had
previously bitten ‗X‘, ‗Y‘ and ‗Z‘ is relevant.
(D) In a case where ‗A‘ is accused of defaming ‗B‘ by
publishing an imputation intended to harm the
reputation of ‗B‘—The fact of previous publications
by ‗A‘ respecting ‗B‘, showing ill-will on the part of
‗A‘ towards ‗B‘ is relevant.
ANS: (B)
Q12. ‗C‘ is employed as cashier by a firm to
receive money at its sale counter. It is his duty
to make entries in the ledger showing the
amounts received by him. He is prosecuted on
the charge of criminal breach of trust in respect
of rupees ninety thousand on the basis of
evidence showing he made an entry showing
that he had received rupees ten thousand only
whereas he had actually received rupees one
lakh. ‗C‘ has taken the plea that the wrong
entry was accidental and unintentional. The
fact that other entries made in the same ledger
are false, each showing receipt of less amount
by ‗C‘ is—
(A) relevant as it has a bearing on the question of
intention
(B) not relevant as the other entries are not basis of
charge
(C) not relevant as the evidence is extraneous
(D) not relevant as other entries are not in issue
ANS: (A)
Q13. Mark what is not a ‗public document‘
within the meaning of the expression used in
the Evidence Act?
(A) The records of Motor Accident Claims Tribunal.
(B) The register of private documents maintained in
the office of Sub-Registrar under the Registration
Act.
(C) The record of proceedings of the House of the
People maintained in the Lok Sabha Secretariat.
(D) Pronote executed by ‗A‘ while taking loan from a
money lender.
ANS: (D)
Q14. Which of the following is correct?
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(A) There is a presumption that maps of various
States and Union Territories made by the Survey of
India are accurate.
(B) There is a presumption that map prepared by a
registered architect for the purpose of a civil
dispute is accurate.
(C) Both (A) and (B).
(D) Neither (A) nor (B).
ANS: (A)
Q15. The evidence of contents of the
information recorded or stored in a computer
may be given through computer output, without
production of the original, provided certain
conditions are satisfied. The said conditions
include that—
(A) if the computer was not operating properly
during the material part of the period over which it
was used to store or process the information for
purposes of the relevant activities, it was not such
as to affect the electronic record or the accuracy of
its content.
(B) the information contained in the electronic
record is derived from such information fed into the
computer in the ordinary course of such activities.
(C) Neither (A) nor (B).
(D) Both (A) and (B).
ANS: (D)
Q16. In which case oral evidence cannot be
given?
(A) ‗A‘ hired lodgings of ‗B‘ and gives to ‗B‘ a
card on which he wrote ―Rooms, 2000 a
month‖. ‗A‘ in a suit wants to prove verbal
agreement that the terms included partial
board.
(B) ‗A‘ hired lodgings of ‗B‘ for a year. A
regularly stamped agreement was drawn up by
an attorney and signed by both of them. The
document is silent on the subject of board. ‗A‘
in a suit wants to prove verbal agreement that
the terms included partial board.
(C) Both in
(A) and in
ANS: (B)
Q17. The burden of proving that the case of the
accused comes within any of the General
Exceptions in the Indian Penal Code is upon
the—
(A) prosecution
(B) court
(C) accused
(D) investigating police officer
ANS: (C)
Q18. The facts of which the court must take
judicial notice include the—
(A) Gazetted Holidays observed by the Government
of India
(B) Rules of road
(C) Neither (A) nor (B)

(D) Both (A) and (B)
ANS: (D)
Q19. Leading questions may be asked in
examination-in-chief—
(A) with permission of the court as to matters which
are introductory
(B) if in the opinion of the court the matter involved
has been already sufficiently proved
(C) Neither (A) nor (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
ANS: (D)
Q20. For deciding whether or not a witness shall
be compelled to answer questions, the court
shall have regard to considerations which
include as to whether such questions are—
(A) proper if the truth of imputation conveyed
thereby would seriously affect the opinion of the
court as to the credibility of the witness on the
subject matter of his deposition.
(B) improper if the truth of imputation conveyed
thereby would affect in a slight degree the opinion
of the court as to credibility of the witness on the
subject matter of his deposition
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
ANS: (C)
Q21. Which of the following is correct?
(A) Rebuttable presumption arises that a man is
alive if it is shown that he was alive within thirty
years.
(B) Rebuttable presumption arises that a man is
dead if it is proved that he has not been heard of
for seven years by those who would naturally have
heard from him if he had been alive.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
ANS: (C)
Q22. The court may presume that—
(A) when a document creating an obligation is in
the hands of the obligor, the obligation has been
discharged
(B) judicial and official acts have not been regularly
performed
(C) a bill of exchange, accepted or endorsed, was
accepted or endorsed for deficient consideration.
(D) All these are incorrect
ANS: (A)
Q23. ‗A‘ intentionally and falsely led ‗B‘ to
believe that a plot of land belonged to him. On
that basis, he induced ‗B‘ to buy and pay for it.
Afterwards the plot of land became the property
of ‗A‘. ‗A‘ brought a suit to set aside the sale in
favour of ‗B‘ on the ground that, at the time of
sale, he had no title. In such suit—
(A) ‗A‘ may prove want of title at the time of sale
(B) ‗A‘ cannot be allowed to prove want of his title
(C) It depends on the value of the property
(D) All these are incorrect
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ANS: (B)
Q24. All persons are competent to testify unless
the court considers that they are prevented
from understanding the questions put to them
because of—
(A) tender years
(B) extreme old age
(C) mental disease
(D) All these
ANS: (D)
Q25. The Judge‘s power to put questions or
order production of documents does not include
authorization to—
(A) compel a witness to answer any question which
such witness is entitled to refuse to answer if the
question were asked by the adverse party
(B) to ask a question which would be proper for any
other person to ask.
(C) to elicit on a point
(D) None of these
ANS: (A)
Q26. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 does
not apply to—
(A) suits
(B) execution petitions under Order 21 CPC
(C) petitions for divorce under the Hindu Marriage
Act, 1956.
(D) All these
ANS: (D)
Q27. Which of the following is not a disability
under Section 6 (legal disability) of the
Limitation Act, 1963?
(A) Minority
(B) Insanity
(C) Insolvency
(D) Idiocy
ANS: (C)
Q28. In case of a suit for property which the
plaintiff has conveyed while insane, the time
from which the period of limitation (three years
under Article 102 of the Schedule of the
Limitation Act, 1963) begins to run is—
(A) when the plaintiff is restored to sanity
(B) the date the property was conveyed
(C) when the plaintiff has knowledge of the
conveyance
(D) Both (A) and (C)
ANS: (D)
Q29. A suit to set aside a transfer of property
made by the guardian of a ward, by the ward
who has attained majority, can be filed within
three years (Art. 60 (1) of the Schedule of the
Limitation Act, 1963) from when the—
(A) transfer of the property was made
(B) person in possession is served notice
(C) ward attains majority

(D) person in possession refuses to hand over
possession
ANS: (C)
Q30. In case of a suit by a person excluded from
a joint family property to enforce a right to
share therein, the time from which the period of
limitation (12 years under Article 110 of the
Schedule of the Limitation Act, 1963) begins to
run is—
(A) from the date of exclusion
(B) when the exclusion becomes known to the
plaintiff
(C) when the plaintiff makes known his intention to
recover possession
(D) the date of refusal to hand over possession to
the plaintiff
ANS: (B)
Q31. The Supreme Court in Collector Land
Acquisition, Anantnag v. Katiji, AIR 1987 SC
1353 laid down the—
(A) guiding principles for deciding an application
under Section 5 of Limitation Act, 1963
(B) principles governing the nature of
acknowledgement under Section 18 of the
Limitation Act, 1963.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
ANS: (A)
Q32. The period of limitation for preferring an
appeal from a decree passed by a court
subordinate to the High Court to a High Court
from the date of the decree is—
(A) 90 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 30 days
(D) One year
ANS: (A)
Q33. Section 21 (Effect of substituting or adding
new plaintiff or defendant) of the Limitation
Act, 1963 does not apply in case of which of the
following?
(A) Addition of a new defendant for the first time.
(B) Substitution of a new plaintiff for the first time.
(C) Transposition of parties.
(D) Addition of a new plaintiff for the first time.
ANS: (C)
Q34. Which of the following is correct with
regard to acknowledgement of liability under
Sec. 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963?
(A) Acknowledgement cannot be undated.
(B) Acknowledgement can be made to a person
other than the person entitled to the property.
(C) Acknowledgement need not be in writing.
(D) Acknowledgement can be made after the expiry
of the period of limitation.
ANS: (B)
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Q35. Under Sec. 18 of the Limitation Act, 1963
fresh period of limitation has to be computed
from the date of—
(A) expiry of half of the extended period of limitation
(B) delivering the acknowledgement
(C) signing of the acknowledgement
(D) expiry of the initial period of limitation
ANS: (C)
Q36. The relation of partnership according to
Section 5 of Indian Partnership Act, 1932 arises
from—
(A) status
(B) contract
(C) friendship
(D) None of these
ANS: (A)
Q37. The authority of a partner to bind the firm
by his acts done in the usual course of business
is called his ‗implied authority‘. Such authority
does not include—
(A) selling the firm‘s goods
(B) to borrow in a trading firm
(C) settling accounts with the persons dealing with
the firm
(D) withdraw a suit or proceeding filed on the firm‘s
behalf
ANS: (D)
Q38. A partnership firm may be dissolved—
(A) with the consent of all the partners
(B) in accordance with a contract between the
partners
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
ANS: (C)
Q39. When a minor elects to become a partner
he becomes personally liable to third parties for
all acts of the firm done since
(A) he was admitted to the benefits of partnership
(B) from the date of his attaining majority
(C) from the date of his becoming a partner
(D) Both (B) and (C)
ANS: (C)
Q40. In which of the following cases, a partner
may cease to be a partner without the
dissolution of the firm?
(A) Retirement
(B) Insolvency
(C) Death
(D) All these
ANS: (D)
Q41. A court may deny specific performance of
an agreement to sell an immovable property if—
(A) it is of the opinion that the consideration is
inadequate
(B) the court feels that the contract is onerous to
the defendant

(C) the performance of the contract would involve
hardship on the defendant which he did not foresee
and non-performance would involve no such
hardship on the plaintiff.
(D) All these
ANS: (C)
Q42. The relief of injunction cannot be
granted—
(A) when equally efficacious relief can be obtained
by any other usual mode of proceeding
(B) the plaintiff has not come to the court with
clean hands
(C) to prevent nuisance when it is not reasonably
clear
(D) All these
ANS: (D)
Q43. ‗S‘ a shopkeeper has kept the goods for
sale on the pavement outside the shop and
constructed temporary overhead shed. Flying
squad of NCT of Delhi demolished the temporary
construction and seized the goods from the
pavement, without giving him any notice. After
one year, ‗S‘ filed a suit for recovery of
possession of pavement against NCT of Delhi
u/s 6 of Specific Relief Act, 1963. The suit is
barred as filed—
(A) against the Government
(B) after the period prescribed
(C) without the title over the pavement
(D) Both (A) and (B)
ANS: (D)
Q44. The engagement diamond ring of ‗N‘ was
stolen by ‗T‘, a thief who sold it to ‗J‘ a jeweller.
‗N‘ filed a suit for recovery of ring against ‗J‘. ‗J‘
contended that he is ready to pay the price of
the ring. Whether the decree for recovery of
diamond ring can be refused on the ground
that—
(A) compensation in terms of money would be
adequate relief for the loss of ring
(B) ‗J‘ is bonafide purchaser of ring for
consideration
(C) there is no jural relation between ‗N‘ & ‗J‘
(D) None of these
ANS: (D)
Q45. It is the principle of law that a person who
has been in long and continuous possession can
protect the same by seeking injunction against
any person in the whole world other than the
true owner. The above statement is—
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partly true
(D) Partly false
ANS: (A)
Q46. Which of the following statements is/are
correct in the light of provisions of Article 356?
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(A) President must proclaim emergency only on the
basis of a report from the Governor of the State.
(B) Governor can recommend President to proclaim
emergency on the basis of personal information
suggesting large scale defection of legislators.
(C) President can proclaim emergency only on the
advice of Council of Ministers.
(D) All these
ANS: (C)
Q47. In which case it was held by the Supreme
Court that—‗Delay in deciding mercy petition is
a sufficient ground for commuting the death
sentence to life imprisonment‘?
(A) Shatrughan Chouhan v. Union of India
(B) Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India
(C) Rajat Prasad v. CBI
(D) Uday Gupta v. Aysha
ANS: (A)
Q48. Which of the following is correct about the
preamble to the Constitution of India?
(A) It was adopted after adoption of operative
Articles of Constitution.
(B) It envisages that all citizens have fundamental
rights.
(C) It seeks to secure good livelihood to all.
(D) It is not a part of the Constitution.
ANS: (A)
Q49. Which of the following is true about
Supreme Court of India?
(A) Supreme Court shall sit in such places, as are
approved by the Chief Justice of India under
intimation to the President of India.
(B) No judgement shall be delivered by the Supreme
Court save in open Court.
(C) President of India can enlarge the jurisdiction
and powers of Supreme Court.
(D) All authorities including armed forces in the
territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme
Court.
ANS: (B)
Q50. Which of the following writ is not
amenable to the principle of ‗res judicata‘?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Certiorari
(C) Quo Warranto
(D) Habeas Corpus
ANS: (D)
Q51. ‗Curative Petition‘ may be entertained by
the Supreme Court in the following
situation/situations
(A) when a Judge on the Bench having heard the
matter did not disclose his connection with the
subject matter
(B) the petitioner filing the petition was not a party
before the Court but has suffered a grave prejudice
by the decision
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(C) the grounds mentioned in the Curative Petition (C) To provide for participation of workers in
had been agitated in the Review Petition which was management of industries.
dismissed in circulation (D) To take steps for separation of judiciary from
(D) All these legislature.
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q52. The President shall have the power under Q58. Which of the following is a Fundamental
Article 72 of the Constitution of India where Right?
(A) punishment or sentence is by a Court Marshal (A) To assemble with arms.
(B) Punishment or sentence is for an offence (B) To form co-operative societies.
against law relating to a matter to which the (C) Right to employment.
executive power of the Union extends (D) Right of religious denominations to own
(C) sentence is a sentence of death immovable property only for charitable purpose.
(D) All these ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q59. Which of the following is a State for the
Q53. Which of the following is not a purposes of Article 12?
requirement under Article 311 of the (A) National Council of Educational Research and
Constitution while dealing with disciplinary Training.
proceedings for dismissal, removal or reduction (B) Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary
in rank of a civil servant? Studies.
(A) A departmental inquiry is held against the (C) Indian Oil Corporation.
delinquent employee after serving him with the (D) High Court of Delhi.
charge-sheet. ANS: (C)
(B) A reasonable opportunity of being heard in
respect of the charges. Q60. Which of the following Articles was
(C) A reasonable opportunity of making amended by the 42nd Constitutional
representation on the penalty proposed. Amendment Act?
(D) None of these (A) Article 330
ANS: (C) (B) Article 13
(C) Article 131
Q54. Amendment to which of the following (D) Article 354
provisions of Constitution require ratification ANS: (A)
by the state?
(A) Article 242 Q61. Which of the following writs can be sought
(B) List-I of Seventh Schedule to be issued to quash unconstitutional
(C) Chapter V of Part IV appointment to a public office:
(D) Chapter II of Part XI (A) Quo-Warranto
ANS: (B) (B) Mandamus
(C) Prohibition
Q55. Right to form association under Article 19 (D) Certiorari
(3) of the Constitution includes. ANS: (A)
(A) Right to strike
(B) Right to collective bargaining Q62. Parliament of India shall consist of—
(C) Right to lockout (A) two Houses
(D) None of these (B) two Houses and Ministers
ANS: (D) (C) two Houses, Ministers and Attorney General
(D) two Houses and the President
Q56. Which of the following is not a ANS: (D)
Fundamental duty under Article 51-A?
(A) To abide by the Constitution and respect its Q63. Which of the following is not a
ideals and institutions. Constitutional body?
(B) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our (A) Election Commission
composite culture. (B) Planning Commission
(C) To provide opportunity of education to the child (C) Finance Commission
below the age of six by his parent or guardian. (D) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(D) To have compassion for living creatures. ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q64. Which of the following is not a
Q57. Which of the following is a Directive requirement to be satisfied by the State to
Principles of State Policy? exercise their discretion while providing for
(A) To provide paternity leave. reservations in promotions in favour of SCs and
(B) To organize Gram Sabhas. STs?

(A) Backwardness of the class.
(B) Not crossing of 50% ceiling in a particular year.
(C) Inadequacy of representation in Public
Employment
(D) Efficiency in administration.
ANS: (B)
Q65. Which of the following Articles was
inserted by the Constitution (Ninety-Eighth
Amendment) Act, 2012?
(A) 371-J
(B) 19(1) (h)
(C) 243--P
(D) 396
ANS: (A)
Q66. The difference between Sec. 34 and Sec.
149 of the Indian Penal Code is that—
(A) whereas in Sec. 34 there must be at least five
persons, Sec. 149 requires only two persons
(B) Sec. 149 is only a rule of evidence whereas Sec.
34 creates a specific offence
(C) Sec. 34 requires active participation in action
whereas Sec. 149 requires mere passive
membership of the unlawful assembly
(D) Both (B) and (C)
ANS: (C)
Q67. ‗A‘ is carried off by a tiger. ‗Z‘ fires at the
tiger in good faith intending to rescue ‗A‘,
knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill
‗A‘. The shot fired by ‗Z‘ gives ‗A‘ a mortal
wound. ‗Z‘ has committed—
(A) no offence
(B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) offence of causing death by negligence
(D) murder
ANS: (A)
Q68. Which is not the ‗stolen property‘?
(A) Possession whereof was obtained by cheating.
(B) Possession whereof was obtained by robbery.
(C) Possession whereof was obtained by extortion.
(D) Possession whereof was obtained by criminal
breach of trust.
ANS: (A)
Q69. In which of the following cases, the offence
of ‗house-breaking‘ is committed?
(A) A commits house-trespass by entering Z‘s house
through the door, having lifted a latch by putting a
wire through a hole in the door.
(B) A finds the key of Z‘s house-door, which Z had
lost, and commits housetrespass, by entering Z‘s
house through that key.
(C) Z, the doorkeeper of Y, is standing in Y‘s
doorway. A commits housetrespass by entering the
house, having deterred Z from opposing him by
threatening to beat him.
(D) All these
ANS: (D)
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Q70. ‗P‘ is found in possession of a document
purporting to be a will of ‗Q‘ in favour of ‗P‘,
bearing forged signatures of ‗Q‘, intending that
the will shall be fraudulently used as genuine
after the death of ‗Q‘. ‗P‘ has committed—
(A) no offence as it is mere preparatory to lay a
claim
(B) no offence till the will is used
(C) has committed an offence as mere possession of
such document in such circumstances is penal
(D) None of these
ANS: (C)
Q71. ‗A‘, finds a gold ring on the road, knowing
it be the property of ‗Z‘, he having unknowingly
lost it there. ‗A‘ picks up the ring and pledges it
with a money-lender to raise a loan. ‗A‘ has
committed—
(A) dishonest misappropriation of property
(B) criminal breach of trust
(C) theft
(D) no offence
ANS: (A)
Q72. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
(A) In conspiracy, there is no distinction between
principal and accessory.
(B) In conspiracy, principal and accessory are
distinct.
(C) There has to be a distinction between principal
and accessory in all offences.
(D) None of these
ANS: (A)
Q73. If a person sitting across to a girl in public
transport deliberately shows a pornographic
picture to her, it amounts to the offence of—
(A) voyeurism
(B) sexual assault
(C) sexual harassment
(D) None of these
ANS: (C)
Q74. ‗B‘ and his girlfriend ‗G‘, both adults,
engage in consensual sexual intercourse in the
privacy of the bedroom of the latter and ‗B‘ with
her consent prepares a video clip on his mobile
camera and later shows it in total privacy to his
friend ‗F‘, it amounts to—
(A) stalking
(B) voyeurism
(C) rape
(D) None of these
ANS: (B)
Q75. A woman approaches ‗X‘, an officer in
charge of a police station and alleges that her
boy friend tried to forcibly remove her shirt in a
dress shop, seeking legal action to be taken, but
‗X‘ refuses to take note of the incident and
asked her to file a criminal complaint before a
magistrate. Here, ‗X‘ has committed a—

(A) misconduct but not any penal offence
(B) cognizable offence
(C) non-cognizable offence
(D) None of these
ANS: (B)
Q76. ‗S‘ is found in possession of property
reasonably suspected to be stolen by him and is
arrested by ‗P‘, a police officer. ‗S‘ is excited to
sudden and violent passion by the arrest and
fires at him but kills ‗D‘ who was standing near
‗P‘, neither intending nor knowing himself to be
likely to kill ‗D‘. This is—
(A) culpable homicide not amounting to murder,
because ‗S‘ had been deprived of the power of self
control by grave and sudden provocation
(B) murder, because provocation was given by a
thing done by a public servant in lawful discharge
of his powers
(C) culpable Homicide not amounting to murder,
because the death of ‗D‘ occurred by mistake or
accident
(D) None of these
ANS: (B)
Q77. ‗A‘ was sentenced to fine of rupees one
thousand and in case of default to suffer simple
imprisonment for six months. He did not pay
the fine and was taken in custody. After six
weeks, an amount of rupees one hundred was
realised through warrant for recovery and he
further deposited rupees four hundred, the
balance remaining unpaid. ‗A‘ would be—
(A) entitled to immediate release from custody
(B) entitled to release as soon as three months
elapse
(C) liable to undergo imprisonment for the period of
six months
(D) entitled to release after such period as the court
may further direct on such realisation or deposit
ANS: (B)
Q78. The right of private defence of property
extends to causing death of the wrongdoer
under certain descriptions. Which one of the
following descriptions is not included in those?
(A) Robbery
(B) House-breaking by night
(C) Lurking house trespass
(D) Mischief by fire on any human dwelling
ANS: (C)
Q79. Consider the following statements. To
constitute abetment, it is—
1. necessary that the act abetted must be
committed
2. not necessary that the act abetted must be
committed
3. necessary that the person abetted must have
the same intention or knowledge as that of the
abettor Which of the statements given above
represent(s) the correct position of law?
(A) Only 2
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(B) Both 2 and 3
(C) Only 1
(D) Only 3
ANS: (A)
Q80. Consider the following statements.
1. every murder is culpable homicide
2. every culpable homicide is murder
3. every robbery is either theft or extortion
4. every extortion is robbery Which of the
statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
ANS: (A)
Q81. With respect to the difference between
kidnapping from lawful guardianship and
abduction which of the following statements is
correct?
(A) Kidnapping is committed only in respect of a
minor or a person of unsound mind. Abduction is
committed in respect of a person of any age.
(B) In former, the person kidnapped is removed out
of lawful guardianship. Abduction has reference
exclusively to the person abducted.
(C) In kidnapping, consent of the person
kidnnapped or enticed is immaterial. In abduction,
consent of the person moved, if freely and
voluntarily given, condones abduction
(D) All these
ANS: (D)
Q82. ‗X‘ along with four other armed associates
seizes the child of ‗Y‘ and threatens to kill him
unless ‗Y‘ parts with his watch and diamond
ring compelling him to do so. ‗X‘ has committed
the offence of—
(A) robbery
(B) dacoity
(C) attempt to murder
(D) extortion
ANS: (B)
Q83. For the offence of cheating—
(A) the person deceived must have been
fraudulently or dishonestly induced to deliver
property
(B) as a consequence of the intentional inducement,
damage or harm in body, mind, reputation or
property is caused or likely to be caused to the
person deceived.
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(D) None of these
ANS: (C)
Q84. ‗A‘ and ‗Z‘, both adults, agree to engage
each other in fencing for amusement. In course
of such fencing, without any foul play, ‗A‘
causes a superficial hurt to ‗Z‘. Here, ‗X‘
(A) is guilty of causing hurt by sharp edged weapon
as he attacked ‗Z‘.

(B) is not guilty as there is an implied consent on
the part of ‗Z‘ to suffer such harm
(C) is guilty because fencing is a dangerous sport
(D) Both (A) and (C)
ANS: (B)
Q85. In answer to the charge of defamation,
which of the following is/are good defence(s)?
(A) Imputation which is true and published for the
public good.
(B) Opinion respecting the conduct of a public
servant concerning discharge of duties of office
expressed in good faith.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
ANS: (C)
Q86. Consider the following statement(s). A
police officer has the power to arrest any person
without an order from a magistrate or warrant
of arrest, if he has reason to suspect his
complicity in a cognizable offence punishable
with imprisonment which may extend to seven
years, provided that he is satisfied for reasons
in writing that such arrest is necessary—
1. to prevent such person from committing any
further offence
2. for proper investigation of the offence
3. to prevent such person from tampering with
or causing the evidence of the offence to
disappear
4. to compel the absconding co-accused to
surrender Which of the statements given above
are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANS: (C)
Q87. What is the period of limitation prescribed
for taking cognizance of an offence which is
punishable with imprisonment for a term
exceeding three years?
(A) Three years
(B) Five years
(C) Seven years
(D) No limitation
ANS: (D)
Q88. Which of the following statements is/are
true?
(A) Inquiry means every inquiry including a trial
conducted under the Code of Criminal Procedure
by a magistrate or court.
(B) Inquiry means every inquiry other than a trial
conducted under the Code of Criminal Procedure
by a magistrate or court.
(C) Investigation includes all the proceedings under
the Code of Criminal Procedure for the collection of
evidence conducted by a magistrate.
(D) All these
ANS: (B)
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Q89. Indicate the correct statement regarding
the rights of an arrestee. A person arrested
without warrant has the right to—
1. be informed of the particulars of the offence
for which he is arrested
2. have a relative or friend named by him to be
informed about his arrest
3. have an advocate of his choice remain
present throughout interrogation
4. be medically examined by a medical officer
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANS: (D)
Q90. In order to compel appearance of a person
who is absconding in spite of a warrant of arrest
being issued against him, his property may be
ordered to be attached simultaneously with
issuance of a proclamation under section 82 of
the Code of Criminal Procedure, provided that
the court is satisfied that such person is—
(A) about to dispose of the whole or any part of his
property
(B) about to remove the whole or any part of
property from the local jurisdiction of the Court.
(C) Either condition in (A) or
(B) exists.
(D) Both conditions in
(A) and
(B) co-exist
ANS: (C)
Q91. Which of the following is not an essential
search-procedure under Sec. 100 of Code of
Criminal Procedure?
(A) Calling upon two independent and respectable
inhabitants of the locality to witness the search
(B) Signing of search-memo by the witnesses to
search
(C) Attendance of occupant of the place during the
search
(D) Signature of the accused on the searchlist
ANS: (D)
Q92. No wife shall be entitled to receive
maintenance from her husband under Sec. 125
of Code of Criminal Procedure if she—
(A) has obtained a divorce from her husband and
has not remarried
(B) is unable to maintain herself
(C) refused to live with her husband on the ground
that he keeps a mistress
(D) is living in adultery
ANS: (D)
Q93. On the non-completion of investigation,
i.e., failure of the prosecution to file charge

sheet within the prescribed period of 90 or 60
days, as given in Section 167 of Code of
Criminal Procedure, the—
(A) accused person is to be discharged
unconditionally
(B) accused person shall be released on bail if he is
prepared to and does furnish bail
(C) right of the accused person to be released on
bail could be defeated by the subsequent filing of
the charge sheet under any circumstance
(D) None of these
ANS: (B)
Q94. ‗G‘, a 17 years old girl, was married to ‗H‘.
‗H‘ during the subsistence of the said marriage
entered into another marriage with ‗P‘. The
court may take cognizance for the offence of
bigamy, if the complaint is brought by—
(A) her father, mother, brother, sister, son or
daughter or by her father‘s or mother‘ brother or
sister
(B) any other person related to her by blood,
marriage or adoption, with the leave of the court
(C) some other person on her behalf, with leave of
court, but where there is a guardian appointed in
her respect, then only after such guardian has been
heard.
(D) All these
ANS: (D)
Q95. ‗A‘ is accused of an act which may amount
to theft, or receiving stolen property or criminal
breach of trust or cheating. At trial, formal
charge is framed only for the offence of theft.
The evidence adduced at trial shows that he
committed the offence of criminal breach of
trust. He may be convicted—
(A) for the offence of theft only for which formal
charge was framed
(B) for the offence of criminal breach of trust
though he was not charged with such offence
(C) the trial is vitiated
(D) None of these
ANS: (B)
Q96. The categories of persons who may,
without their consent, be charged and tried
together include persons accused of—
(A) different offences committed in the course of the
same transaction
(B) more than one offence of the same kind
committed by them within the period of twelve
months
(C) Neither (A) nor (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
ANS: (A)
Q97. ‗F‘, a French National on a tourist visa to
India was raped by a group of four boys, two
days prior to her scheduled departure from
India. FIR was registered on her statement and
the offenders were chargesheeted. On being
summoned by the Court to depose as a witness
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during trial, she refused to come to India on the
ground of fear and inconvenience. Which of the
following options is most appropriate for the
Trial Court?
(A) Issue non-bailable warrants against ‗F‘ through
Ministry of Home Affairs to compel appearance.
(B) Initiate proceedings for punishment for non-
attendance by ‗F‘ under Section 350 Cr. P.C.
(C) Drop ‗F‘ as a witness and acquit the accused
persons
(D) Issue a Commission for examination of ‗F‘.
ANS: (D)
Q98. ‗A‘ was acquitted of the charge for
voluntarily causing grievous hurt by throwing
acid on ‗X‘, as the victim did not support the
police version about involvement of ‗A‘ in the
incident, though grievous hurt by acid was
proved. ‗X‘ seeks compensation from the Tril
Court. The Trial Court may—
(A) dismiss the claim because the accused was
acquitted
(B) dismiss the claim because the victim turned
hostile during trial
(C) consider making recommendation to the State
Legal Services Authority for compensation to victim
(D) direct the accused to pay compensation to the
victim on humanitarian grounds
ANS: (C)
Q99. ‗A‘ faced trial for cheating ‗Z‘ by
dishonestly inducing him to lend money by
knowingly pledging fake diamonds. ‗Z‘ died
during trial and was survived by a son ‗X‘. ‗X‘
moved an application in the Trial Court to
compound the offence. Which of the following is
the correct legal preposition?
(A) ‗X‘ is not competent to compound the offence.
(B) On the death of complainant ‗Z‘, the trial
proceedings shall abate.
(C) Court cannot entertain such an application
after death of the complainant.
(D) ‗X‘ can compound the offence with the consent
of the Court.
ANS: (D)
Q100. Who can file an application for
PleaBargaining in the court in which an offence
is pending for trial?
(A) The Public Prosecutor
(B) The victim of the offence
(C) The Investigating Officer
(D) None of these
ANS: (D)
Q101. A criminal court, at conclusion of trial,
may order—
(A) restoration of possession of immovable property
to the person who had been dispossessed therefrom
by use of criminal force or by criminal intimidation
by the person convicted
(B) the destruction of pornographic material in
respect of which conviction was recorded

(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (C)
Q102. A Metropolitan Magistrate may release an
accused on bail in non-bailable offence except in
following case(s) if—
(A) there are reasonable grounds for believing that
he has been guilty of an offence punishable with
death or imprisonment for life
(B) there are reasonable grounds for believing that
he has been guilty of a cognizable offence and he
has been previously convicted of an offence
punishable with imprisonment for seven years
(C) he had been previously convicted on two or
more occasions of a cognizable offence punishable
with imprisonment for three years.
(D) All these
ANS: (D)
Q103. In computing the period of limitation,
the period which may be excluded includes
the—
(A) time during which any person has been
prosecuting with due diligence another prosecution
on the same facts, in good faith and in a court
without jurisdiction.
(B) period for which the prosecution in respect of
such offence has been stayed by an injunction or
order
(C) period during which the application of the
accused for release on bail was pending
(D) Both (A) and (B)
ANS: (D)
Q104. The proceeding before a criminal court
are vitiated if the presiding magistrate who is
not empowered by law to do so—
(A) issues search warrant erroneously but in good
faith
(B) holds inquest under section 176 of Code of
Criminal Procedure erroneously but in good faith
(C) tries an offender summarily
(D) All these
ANS: (C)
Q105. Prosecution of a case involving
misappropriation of property belonging to the
Central Government can be withdrawn by—
(A) any Public Prosecutor on the direction of the
State Government
(B) the Public Prosecutor appointed by the Central
Government on the direction of the State
Government
(C) the Public Prosecutor appointed by the State
Government on permission granted by the Central
Government
(D) any Public Prosecutor on the direction of the
Central Government
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ANS: (C)
Q106. Consider the following statement(s): A
‗decree‘ means and includes
1. formal expression of an adjudication which,
so far as regards the court expressing it,
conclusively determines the rights of the
parties with regard to all or any of the matters
in controversy in the suit.
2. any adjudication from which an appeal lies
as an appeal from an order
3. any order of dismissal of suit for default
4. rejection of plaint Which of the statements
given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) All these
ANS: (C)
Q107. Which is the correct essential conditions
for applicability of the rule of sub judice?
(A) The matter in issue in the subsequent suit must
be directly and substantially in issue in the
previous suit.
(B) The parties must be litigating under the same
title in both the suits
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (C)
Q108. The expression ‗former suit‘ in the
context of rule of res judicata means a suit
which has been—
(A) instituted prior to the suit in question
(B) decided prior to the suit in question
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (B)
Q109. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) A suit for recovery of immovable property shall
be instituted in the court in whose jurisdiction the
property is situated
(B) A suit for partition of immoveable property shall
be instituted in the court in whose jurisdiction the
defendant resides or works for gain
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (A)
Q110. Consider the following statement(s).
1. A defendant may set up, by way of a counter-
claim against the claim of the plaintiff any right
or claim in respect of the cause of action
accuring to him.
2. The counter-claim may be submitted by the
defendant evenafter he hasdelivered his
defence.
3. The counter-claim shall not exceed the
pecuniary jurisdiction of the court. Which of the
statements given above are correct?
(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) All these
ANS: (B)
Q111. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
(A) A representative suit may be instituted by one
or more persons for the benefit of all interested
persons with the permission of the court.
(B) Notice of the institution of a representative suit
must be given by public advertisement at the
plaintiff‘s expense to all interested persons whereby
reason of their number, personal service is not
reasonably practicable.
(C) Any person for whose benefit a representative
suit has been instituted may apply to join as a
party thereto.
(D) The person(s) who instituted the suit or
person(s) who joined as party have unrestricted
right to compromise with the defendant.
ANS: (D)
Q112. Where the defendant is absent at the
time when service of summons is sought to be
effected on him at his residence, there being no
likelihood of his availability within reasonable
time and in absence of an empowered agent, the
service may be made on—
(A) any adult male member of his family
(B) any adult female member of his family
(C) a servant engaged by the defendant at his
residence
(D) Both (A) and (B)
ANS: (D)
Q113. A suit may be dismissed where—
(A) summons are not served on the defendant in
consequence of the failure of the plaintiff to take
proper steps like filing of court fee, postal charges
or requisite number of copies of plaint.
(B) neither party appears when the suit is called on
for hearing
(C) plaintiff, after summons to defendant has
returned unserved, fails to apply for fresh
summons for seven days.
(D) All these
ANS: (D)
Q114. Consider the following statements—
Admissions for forming the basis of judgement
may be secured from the opposite party to a
civil suit by way of notice
1. of admission of the case
2. to admit documents
3. to admit facts Which of the statements given
above are correct?
(A) None of these
(B) All these
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2 and 3
ANS: (B)
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Q115. When a civil suit reaches the stage of
hearing and examination of witnesses?
(A) the plaintiff has the right to begin
(B) if the defendant admits the facts alleged by the
plaintiff and contends that on some additional facts
alleged by the defendant, the plaintiff is not entitled
to any relief, the defendant has the right to begin
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (C)
Q116. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
(A) Where issues both of law and of fact arise and if
the court is of opinion that the case may be
disposed of on an issue relating to jurisdiction, it
may postpone the settlement of other issues until
after the issue of jurisdiction has been determined.
(B) Where a suit may be disposed of on preliminary
issue, the court need not pronounce judgment on
other issues settled in the case.
(C) The preliminary issue may relate to a bar to the
suit created by any law for the time being in force.
(D) None of these
ANS: (B)
Q117. Which of the following statements is
correct? The court which passed the decree may
transfer it to another competent court if the—
(A) judgement debtor carries on business within the
jurisdiction of the latter court
(B) judgment debtor has no property within the
jurisdiction of the former court sufficient to satisfy
such decree but has property within the
jurisdiction of the latter court
(C) decree directs the sale of immovable property
situated outside the local jurisdiction of the former
court
(D) All these
ANS: (D)
Q118. A money decree may be executed by—
(A) attachment and sale of any property of the
judgment debtor
(B) arrest and detention in prison of the judgment
debtor for indefinite period
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (A)
Q119. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(A) No suit, not involving urgent or immediate relief,
may be instituted against the Central Government
except after serving a notice of two months
(B) A decree against the Union of India may not be
executed unless it remains unsatisfied for a period
of three months
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
(D) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.
ANS: (C)

Q120. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(A) Where on the death of a defendant the right to
sue survivers against the other surviving defendant
alone, the case may proceed against the surviving
defendant.
(B) Where on the death of a defendant the right to
sue does not survive against the other surviving
defendant alone, the case shall abate against the
deceased defendant if no application is made within
the time limited by law for the legal representative
of the deceased defendant to be made a party.
(C) There shall be no abatement by reason of death
of either party between the conclusion of the
hearing and the pronouncing of the judgment.
(D) All these
ANS: (D)
Q121. In the context of withdrawal of suit,
which is the correct statement?
(A) If the Court is satisfied that a suit must fail by
reason of some formal defect, the plaintiff may be
allowed to withdraw the suit with liberty to institute
a fresh suit in respect of the same subject matter.
(B) If the plaintiff withdraws from a suit without
permission of the court he may bring fresh suit in
respect of the same subject matter.
(C) If there are more than one plaintiffs, one of
them may withdraw the suit without the consent of
other plaintiffs.
(D) All these
ANS: (A)
Q122. Which is the correct statement in context
of summary procedure for civil suits?
(A) May be invoked for recovery of a liquidated
demand in money payable by the defendant arising
out a written contract.
(B) May be applied suo motu by any civil court in
its discretion in the interest of expenditious
adjudication.
(C) Requires the defendant which, if granted, must
be unconditional.
(D) All these statements are not correct.
ANS: (A)
Q123. In case of breach of any of the terms on
which temporary injunction was granted, the
court may order—
(A) the person in breach to be detained in civil
prison for indefinite period but not after the breach
has ceased
(B) attachment of the property of the person in
breach and, if the breach continues for more than
one year, sell the attached property and award the
entire sale proceeds to the injured party as
compensation
(C) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.
(D) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
ANS: (C)
Q124. The leave may be granted by the civil
court to deliver interrogatories—
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(A) only to the defendant since the plaintiff is the
master of the suit
(B) even if they relate to matters not in question in
the suit
(C) notwithstanding the objection taken by the
opposite party
(D) if it considers the same necessary for disposing
of the case fairly
ANS: (D)
Q125. A decree becomes final when—
(A) it conclusively determines the rights of the
parties
(B) no appeal has been preferred against the decree
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
ANS: (C)
Q126. An international commercial arbitration
is an arbitration where at least one of the
parties is—
(A) a body corporate incorporated in any country
other than India
(B) a body of individuals whose central
management and control is exercised in any
country other than India
(C) the Government of a foreign country
(D) All these
ANS: (D)
Q127. As per Section 3(2) of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996, a communication is
deemed to have been received on the day
when—
(A) it is dispatched to the addressee
(B) it is delivered to the addressee
(C) written acknowledgement of the receipt is sent
to the sender
(D) written acknowledgement of the receipt is
received by the sender
ANS: (B)
Q128. Which of the following is not an essential
condition for an arbitration agreement as per
Section 7 of the Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996?
(A) The agreement must be registered.
(B) The agreement must be to submit to arbitration
all or certain disputes which have arisen or which
may arise in respect of a defined legal relationship
whether contractual or not.
(C) The arbitration agreement must be in writing.
(D) None of these
ANS: (A)
Q129. Which of the following is not a ground for
setting aside an arbitration award under Section
34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act,
1996?
(A) incapacity of a party.
(B) arbitration agreement not being valid under the
law in force.
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(C) award contains decisions on matters beyond the (C) supervening impossibility or illegality as laid
scope of the submission to arbitration. down in Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act,
(D) None of these 1872
ANS: (D) (D) the principle of unjust enrichment
ANS: (C)
Q130. In which of the following cases it was
held by the Supreme Court the Part I of the Q136. An agreement is void if its object or
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 would consideration is—
have no application to International commercial (A) forbidden by law
arbitrations held outside India and therefore (B) of such nature that if permitted, it would defeat
such awards would only be subject to the the provisions of law or is fraudulent
jurisdiction of Indian courts when the same are (C) the Court regards it as immoral or against
sought to be enforced in India in accordance public policy
with Part II of the said Act? (D) All these are correct.
(A) Bharat Aluminum Company etc. v. Kaiser ANS: (D)
Aluminum Technical Services Inc. etc. (Balco) 2012
(9) SCC Q137. Which of the following is not a
quasicontract?
ANS: (A) (A) Obligation of a person enjoying benefit of non-
gratuitous act.
Q131. The term consensus ad idem means— (B) Responsibility of finder of goods.
(A) no agreement can have more than one meaning (C) Quantum meriut
(B) to agree the same way (D) Novation
(C) to agree on the same thing with same sense ANS: (D)
(D) to agree for different objects in the same sense
ANS: (C) Q138. ‗A‘ applies to a banker for a loan at a time
when there is stringency in the money market.
Q132. In which case it was held that a contract The banker declines to make the loan except at
through telephone is concluded at the place an unsually high rate of interest. ‗A‘ accepts the
where acceptance is heard? loan on these terms. In this case the contract
(A) Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt (1913) XL ALJR is—
489 (All.). (A) vitiated by undue influence
(B) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (1981-4) All (B) valid because this is a transaction in the
ER Rep. ordinary cause of business
(C) void because the banker took unfair advantage
ANS: (C) of stringency in the money market
(D) voidable at the option of ‗A‘ who was deceived by
Q133. ‗A‘ saves ‗B‘s property from fire, the the banker
circumstances indicated that he had done so ANS: (B)
gratuitously. Whether ‗A‘ is entitled to—
(A) compensation from ‗B‘ Q139. Inadequacy of consideration is relevant in
(B) no compensation determining the question of—
(C) compensation from the Government (A) fraud
(D) compensation from heirs of ‗B‘ (B) misrepresentation
ANS: (B) (C) undue influence
(D) free consent
Q134. The doctrine of privity of contract means ANS: (D)
that—
(A) a contract is a private affair between the parties Q140. ‗P‘ a wholesale dealer in sugar, sells sugar
(B) consideration can be supplied only by the to ‗Q‘ with a condition that ‗Q‘ shall not sell the
parties to contract sugar beyond one kilometer of ‗P‘s godown. The
(C) the contract can be enforced only by a civil and agreement is—
private action (A) valid
(D) only parties to contract can sue and be sued (B) without free consent
upon the contract (C) in restraint of trade and thus void
ANS: (D) (D) voidable at the option of ‗P‘
ANS: (C)
Q135. In India, the doctrine of impossibility of
performance of a contract being void, is based Q141. While determining damages for breach of
on— contract, which of the following are taken into
(A) the theory of implied term account?
(B) the theory of just and reasonable solution (A) Motive
(B) Indirect loss
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(C) Means of remedying the inconvenience caused Q147. Mark the correct answer in respect of
by non-performance. Contract of Guarantee—
(D) All these (A) It may be in writing.
ANS: (C) (B) It may be oral.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
Q142. In case of acceptance by post, at what (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
point the acceptance is complete as against the ANS: (C)
proposer?
(A) When the letter of acceptance is put in the Q148. An agreement which is enforceable by law
course of transmission so as to be out of power of at the option of one or more of the parties there
the acceptor. to, but not at the option of the other or others,
(B) When the letter of acceptance has been written. is a—
(C) When the letter of acceptance has been (A) valid contract
received. (B) unenforceable contract
(D) When the letter of acceptance has been read by (C) voidable contract
the proposer. (D) quasi-contract
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q143. A person who finds goods belonging to Q149. An agency can be terminated by—
another and takes them into his custody, is (A) the principle revoking his authority
subject to the same responsibility as a/an— (B) the agent renouncing the business of agency
(A) bailor (C) either the principle or agent dying
(B) indemnitee (D) All these
(C) agent ANS: (D)
(D) bailee
ANS: (D) Q150. If the time of performance of contract is
the essence of contract and the promisor fails
Q144. ‗A‘ contract to sing for ‗B ‘ at a concert to perform the contract by the specified time,
for 50,000 which are paid in advance. ‗A‘ is too the contract is—
ill to sing on the day of the concert. The (A) void
consequence is— (B) valid
(A) ‗A‘ is bound to make compensation to ‗B‘ for the (C) voidable at the option of the promise
loss of the profits which ‗B‘ would have made if ‗A‘ (D) infructuous.
had been able to sing ANS: (C)
(B) ‗A‘ is bound to refund to ‗B‘ 50,000 paid in
advance Q151. Which of the following is not mentioned
(C) ‗A‘ can be forced to sing at the concert in the Indian Constitution?
(D) ‗A‘ is bound to refund only that money out of (A) Election Commission
50,000 that he has not spent (B) Finance Commission
ANS: (B) (C) Planning Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission
Q145. Where persons reciprocally promise, ANS: (C)
firstly to do certain things which are legal and
secondly, under specified circumstances, to do Q152. By which Constitutional Amendment the
certain other things which are illegal the— number of ministers have been limited to 15%
(A) first set of promise is a contract, but the second of the total number of members of the lower
is a void agreement house?
(B) first set of promise is voidable but the second (A) Ninety First Amendment
set is a void agreement (B) Ninety Second Amendment
(C) entire set of promises is void (C) Ninetieth Amendment
(D) entire set of promises is valid (D) None of the above
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q146. If the compensation to be paid on breach Q153. Point out the mismatched pair—
of contract is the genuine pre-estimate of the (A) Power of Parliament to legislate on a matter in
prospective damages, it is known as— the State list in the national interest—Article 249
(A) special damages (B) Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to
(B) penalty any matter in the State List of a proclamation of
(C) un-liquidated damages emergency is in operation—Article 250
(D) liquidated damages (C) Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more
ANS: (D) States by consent—Article 251
(D) Legislation for giving effect to international
agreements—Article 253
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ANS: (C) Q160. ‗Zonal Council‘ in India is—
(A) Dispute Settling Agency
Q154. Which one of the following is not an (B) Law Making Body
essential element of a State in international (C) Advisory Body
law? (D) Administrative Body
(A) Population ANS: (C)
(B) Armed forces
(C) Territory Q161. In which among the following States in
(D) Capacity to enter into relation with other States India, Legislative Council does not exist?
ANS: (B) (A) State of Bihar
(B) State of Maharashtra
Q155. The name of the first woman judge of the (C) State of Rajasthan
International Court of Justice is— (D) State of Karnataka
(A) Rosalyn Higgins ANS: (C)
(B) Rosa E. Oturnbayeva
(C) Gertrude Mongella Q162. Who among the following is not a legal
(D) Sadako Ogata person?
ANS: (A) (A) The Kumaon University
(B) State Bank of India
Q156. Point out the mismatched pair— (C) The President of India
(A) Chiranjitlal V/s Union of India (1950)— Article (D) The State of Uttarakhand
14 ANS: (C)
(B) Dinesh Trivedi V/s Union of India (1997)—
Article 19 Q163. The Headquarters of world Food and
(C) Sunil Batra V/s Delhi Administration (1978)— Agricultural Organisation (FAO) is at—
Article 21 (A) Rome
(D) Bhim Singh V/s State of J & K (1986)— Article (B) Paris
29 (C) New York
ANS: (D) (D) Ohio
ANS: (A)
Q157. Read the following carefully— Statement
(1): Recognition is a process through which a Q164. The readjustment of current strength of
political community acquires international the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies in India
personality by becoming a member of family of has been freezed upto—
nation. Statement (2): Hegel, Anzilloti and (A) year 2026
Oppenheim are chief exponents of Constitutive (B) year 2016
theory of recognition. Of the above— (C) year 2018
(A) Only 1 is true (D) year 2020
(B) Only 2 is true ANS: (A)
(C) Both 1 and 2 are true
(D) Both 1 and 2 are false Q165. The father of ‗Local Self Government‘ in
ANS: (C) India was—
(A) Lord Dalhousie
Q158. Who said ―Inclusion of any matter in the (B) Lord Canning
agenda of General Assembly, discussion on it, (C) Lord Curzon
its study or the passing of a General Resolution (D) Lord Ripon
would not amount to intervention‖? ANS: (D)
(A) Prof. Hans Kelsen
(B) Prof. Quincy Wright Q166. Who is known as the Father of
(C) Oppenheim International Law?
(D) None of the above (A) Hugo Grotius
ANS: (B) (B) Oppenheim
(C) Edward Collins
Q159. A Member of Parliament of India or (D) Philip C. Jessup
Member of Legislative Assembly of a State ANS: (A)
cannot be arrested in a civil action within a
period of …… before or after the session. Q167. Voltaire was a—
(A) 40 days (A) Greek Philosopher
(B) 45 days (B) British lawyer
(C) 50 days (C) French writer and philosopher
(D) 55 days (D) American jurist
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)
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Q168. The year of the Hague Convention for the (D) Article 42
Pacific Settlement of Internationl Disputes, is— ANS: (D)
(A) 1900
(B) 1903 Q176. Where is the World Trade Centre situated
(C) 1905 in India?
(D) 1907 (A) Noida
ANS: (D) (B) Mumbai
(C) New Delhi
Q169. The tenure of every Panchayat in India is (D) Chennai
five years from the—
(A) data appointed for its first meeting Q177. Justice Dalveer Bhandari is—
(B) date of notification of election (A) a judge in Supreme Court of India
(C) date of declaration of election results (B) Chief Justice of Delhi High Court
(D) date of oath of office by members (C) Chief Justice of Bombay High Court
ANS: (A) (D) a judge in the International Court of Justice
ANS: (D)
Q170. The World Conference on Human Rights
and Peace, 2013 was held in— Q178. Which of the following declaration deals
(A) China exclusively with the peaceful settlement of
(B) Pakistan International disputes?
(C) United States (A) Paris Declaration, 1856
(D) Bangladesh (B) Manila Declaration, 1982
ANS: (B) (C) UN Declaration, 1943
(D) Moscow Declaration, 1943
Q171. Setu Samudram ship Channel Project is ANS: (B)
approved by—
(A) Government of Tamil Nadu State Q179. Which of the following method of
(B) Government of Sri Lanka settlement of International Disputes has been
(C) Government of India expressedly recognised in the Constitution of
(D) Government of India and Sri Lanka India?
ANS: (D) (A) Arbitration
(B) Negotiation
Q172. In which case the Supreme Court (C) Conciliation
observed that Central Bureau of Investigation is (D) None of the above
a ‗caged parrot‘? ANS: (A)
(A) Rail Board bribery case
(B) Vineet Narayan V/s Union of India Q180. Read the following carefully— Statement
(C) 2G Spectrum Scam case (1): Right to Vote in an election is a
(D) Coalgate Scam case Fundamental Right of every person in India.
ANS: (D) Statement (2): Right to contest in an election is
a Fundamental Right of every citizen. Of the
Q173. The World Chairman of International above—
Human Rights Commission is— (A) 1 is true but 2 is false
(A) Dr. Muhammad Shahid Amin Khan (B) 1 is false, but 2 is true
(B) H.E. Adnan Mansour (C) Both 1 and 2 are true
(C) Dr. Prathavi Ravish Singh (D) Both 1 and 2 are false
(D) Rafal Marcin Wasik ANS: (D)
ANS: (A)
Q181. Which of the following case is related to
Q174. National Green Tribunal Act was passed Right to Information Act, 2005?
in the year— (A) Lily Thomas V/s Union of India
(A) 2008 (B) Nandini Sundaram V/s Union of India
(B) 2010 (C) Namit Sharma V/s Union of India
(C) 2011 (D) None of the above
(D) 2009 ANS: (C)
ANS: (D)
Q182. Balaji Raghwan V/s Union of India AIR
Q175. Under which Article of the United Nations 1996 SC 770 is related with which of the
Charter the Security Council has power to use following Article of the Constitution of India?
force against a State? (A) 25
(A) Article 24 (B) 29
(B) Article 2(4) (C) 18
(C) Article 41 (D) 12
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ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q183. Article 239 AB of the Constitution
provides—
(A) Power of administrator to promulgate
ordinances during recess of legislature
(B) Power of the President to make regulations for
certain Union Territories
(C) Provisions in case of failure of constitutional
machinery of National Capital Territory
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C)
Q189. Read the following— Assertion (1):
Parliament has passed the National Food
Security Act, 2013. Assertion (2): The Supreme
Court has held that it is the duty of the State to
provide food to every needy. Of the above—
(A) Only 1 is true
(B) Only 2 is true
(C) Both 1 and 2 are true
(D) Both 1 and 2 are false
ANS: (C)

Q184. Article 371 E of the Constitution deals Q190. ‗Full faith and credit shall be given
with— throughout the territory of India to public acts,
(A) Establishment of Central University in Andhra records and judicial proceedings of the Union
Pradesh and of every State,‖ is provided under which
(B) Special provisions with respect to the State of Article of the Constitution of India?
Sikkim (A) Article 261
(C) Special provision with respect to State of (B) Article 260
Mizoram (C) Article 32(3) and Article 226(3)
(D) None of the above (D) Article 226(2)
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q191. Which one of the following case is not

related with Article 19(1)
(a) of the Indian Constitution?
Q185. Medha Kotwal Lele V/s Union of India
(A) Prakash Jha International Ltd. V/s Union of
2012 S.C. is related with—
India
(A) Mercy Killing
(B) Secretary, Ministry of I & B V/s C.A.B.
(B) Sexual Harassment of Women at work place
(C) Communist Party of India V/s Bharat Kumar
(C) Domestic violence
(D) Kathi Ranning V/s State of Saurashtra
(D) Fake encounter
ANS: (D)
ANS: (B)
Q192. Under Article 338A of the
Q186. ‖International Law may be defined as the
IndianConstitution ‗There shall be a
body of law which is composed for its greater
Commission known as—
part of the principles and rules of conduct
(A) National Commission for Women
which the States feel themselves bound to
(B) National Commission for Minorities
observe.‖ Defined by—
(C) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(A) Charles Cheney Hyde
(D) None of the above
(B) Kent
ANS: (C)
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Westlake
Q193. Article 15(5) was declared as the ‗basic
ANS: (C)
strucutre‘ of Indian Constitution in which of the
following case by the Supreme Court?
Q187. Which of the following case is associated
(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur V/s Union of India
with the issue of ‗domicile‘ in the State
(B) Indian Medical Association V/s Union of India
concerned for getting elected to the Council of
(C) Bachpan Bachao Andolan V/s Union of India
States?
(D) All of the above
(A) Rameshwar Prasad V/s Union of India
ANS: (B)
(B) Kuldip Nayar V/s Union of India
(C) S.R. Bommai V/s Union of India
Q194. Who was awarded Bharat Ratna in 2013?
(D) Satwant Singh V/s Asst. Passport Officer
(A) Raghu Nath Mahapatra
ANS: (B)
(B) Sharmila Tagore
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
Q188. In which Article of the Constitution of
(D) None was awarded Bharat Ratna
India, provision has been made for ―Finance
ANS: (C)
Commission‖?
(A) 366(12)
Q195. Untouchability in any form has been
(B) 280
abolished by which of the following articles of
(C) 265
Constitution of India?
(D) None of the above
(A) Article 14
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(B) Article 16 (A) a civil court
(C) Article 17 (B) a court exercising jurisdiction under Hindu
(D) Article 15 Marriage Act, 1955
ANS: (C) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Q196. Read the following— Statement (A): The ANS: (B)
Supreme Court in February 2012, in the famous
‗2G–Spectrum Scam‘ case, quashed the 2-G Q202. A Father Karta can alienate a part of joint
Spectrum allotment and directed for its public family property out of love and affection to—
auction. Reason (R): Article 39 (A) Daughter
(b) of the Constitution of India provides that the (B) Son
ownership and control of material resources of (C) Wife
the community are so distributed as best to (D) All of the above
subserve the common good. Now answer using ANS: (D)
the codes given below—
(A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the reason of Q203. By 2005 Amendment of the Hindu
(A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not the reason Succession Act, 1956 a son is liable to pay
of which of the following?
(A) is true, but (2) is false (A) Untainted debt of father
(A) is false, but (R) is true (B) Tainted debt of father
ANS: (B) (C) Untainted debt procured by father before the
amendment in the Act
Q197. Who can seek advisory opinion from the (D) None of the above
International Court of Justice according to UN ANS: (C)
Charter?
(A) Security Council Q204. In the absence of the class I heir who
(B) General Assembly inherits the property of a Hindu male?
(C) Other organs and specialised Agencies of the (A) Father
United Nations duly authorised by the General (B) Brother
Assembly (C) Sister
(D) All of the above (D) All of the above
ANS: (D) ANS: (A)

Q198. Who can expel any State from the Q205. In case of ‗desertion‘ the wife has to
membership of the United Nations? prove which of the following facts?
(A) General Assembly (A) The husband has abandoned her
(B) Security Council (B) That he has done so without any reasonable
(C) General Assembly on the recommendation of cause and against her wish and without her
the secretary General consent
(D) General Assembly on the recommendation of (C) That he has wilfully neglected her
the Security Council (D) All of the above
ANS: (D) ANS: (D)

Q199. Which Article of the United Nations Q206. Which of the following is not a ground of
Charter empowers the Security Council to divorce under the Special Marriage Act, 1954?
implement the judgements of the International (A) Adultery
Court of Justice? (B) Cruelty
(A) Article 24 (C) Conversion
(B) Article 25 (D) Desertion
(C) Article 94 ANS: (C)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q207. Under Muslim Law the following are
guardians for marriage of a minor— I. Father II.
Q200. Which of the following case is related to Mother III. State IV. Brother Choose the correct
the Prize Courts? order in which their guardianship accrues—
(A) The Zamora case (A) I, II, III, IV
(B) Dr. Babu Ram Saxena V/s State (B) II, I, IV, III
(C) S.S. Lotus case (C) I, IV, II, III
(D) Re Castioni Part-II Law (D) III, IV, II, I
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q201. Alimony under Section 25 of the Hindu Q208. Muta marriage comes to an end by—
Marriage Act, 1955 can be ordered by— (A) Talaq
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(B) Hiba-i-Muddat Q216. Who is the natural guardian of a Muslim
(C) Talaq-i-Tafweez female child?
(D) None of the above (A) Father
ANS: (B) (B) Mother
(C) Grandfather
Q209. A muslim woman need to observe iddat in (D) Grandmother
which of the following? ANS: (A)
(A) Muta marriage
(B) Irregular marriage Q217. Implied and contingent Talaq is not
(C) Valid marriage approved by—
(D) All of the above (A) Maliki
ANS: (D) (B) Shia
(C) Shafei
Q210. Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 (D) All of the above
is based on the principles of which school of ANS: (B)
Muslim law?
(A) HanafiSchool Q218. A Muslim woman can seek divorece if the
(B) Shafei School husband is not traceable for a period of—
(C) Maliki School (A) 7 years
(D) Zaidi School (B) 5 years
ANS: (C) (C) 4 years
(D) 3 years
Q211. Khilwat of Sahida connotes— ANS: (C)
(A) Valid retirement
(B) apostasy Q219. Under the Muslim Woman (Protection of
(C) consent under compulsion Rights on Divorce) Act, the option to be
(D) option of puberty governed by the provision of S. 125 Cr. P.C. may
ANS: (A) be given by the parties—
(A) either jointly or separately
Q212. A dower debt is— (B) separately
(A) a secured debt (C) jointly
(B) an actionable claim (D) None of the above
(C) a preferential debt ANS: (A)
(D) a mere right to sue
ANS: (B) Q220. A Muslim divorced woman can apply
directly to the Wakf Board when there is no
Q213. Which of the following is of the legal relative to support her. This was held in which
consequences of divorce under Muslim Law? one of the following cases?
(A) The parties acquire the right to contract another (A) Yusuf V/s Sowramma
marriage (B) A.A. Abdullah V/s A.B. Mohmuna Syed Bhai
(B) Cohabitation becomes unlawful (C) Secretary, T.N. Wakf Board V/s Syed Fatima
(C) Mutual rights of inheritance ceases Nachi
(D) All of the above (D) Mohd. Ahmad Khan V/s Shah Bano Begum
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q214. When a Muslim mother loses her right of Q221. ‗M‘, the mother of a Muslim minor
Hizanat (custody)? daughter contracted her in marriage in the life
(A) By her apostasy time of the father who had become an apostate.
(B) By her misconduct The marriage is—
(C) By marrying within degree of prohibited (A) Bad in law
relationship (B) Valid
(D) All of the above (C) Void
ANS: (D) (D) Irregular
ANS: (C)
Q215. Among Muslims which school does not
mention minimum amount of dower? Q222. A marriage of a Mahomedan, who is of
(A) Hanafi sound mind and has attained puberty, is
(B) Maliki brought about without his consent. The
(C) Shafei marriage will be—
(D) None of the above (A) Valid
ANS: (C) (B) Irregular
(C) Unlawful
(D) Void
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ANS: (B) Q230. ‗Good faith‘ within the meaning of the
I.P.C., means—
Q223. The rules against perpetuity do not apply (A) an act done with due care and attention
to which of the following? (B) an actual belief that the act done is not contrary
(A) Movable properties to law
(B) Charities (C) an act in fact done honestly
(C) Immovable properties (D) an act done under bonafide belief
(D) All of the above ANS: (A)
ANS: (D)
Q231. Who prepared the first draft of Indian
Q224. The provision as to ‗exchange of money‘ Penal Code?
has been provided under which of the following (A) Canning
sections of T.P. Act? (B) Stephen
(A) Section 118 (C) Bentinck
(B) Section 119 (D) Macaulay
(C) Section 121 ANS: (D)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q232. In which of the following Sections of
I.P.C. ‗preparation‘ is punishable?
Q225. Persons competent to transfer a property (A) Sections 121, 125, 398
have been defined under which of the following (B) Sections 122, 125, 399
sections of the T.P. Act? (C) Sections 122, 126, 399
(A) Section 6 (D) Sections 121, 126, 398
(B) Section 7 ANS: (C)
(C) Section 8
(D) Section 9 Q233. Mc Naughten case is related to which of
ANS: (B) the following Section of the I.P.C.?
(A) Section 83
Q226. Under which one of the following sections (B) Section 84
of the T.P. Act, English mortgage has been (C) Section 85
defined? (D) Section 86
(A) Section 58(e) ANS: (B)
(B) Section 58(d)
(C) Section 58(g) Q234. Which of the following case is known as
(D) Section 58(f) Nasik Conspiracy case?
ANS: (A) (A) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar‘s case
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak‘s case
Q227. Which one of the following group of (C) Madhu Limaye‘s case
sections deals with lease under T.P. Act? (D) None of the above
(A) Section 102 to 119 ANS: (A)
(B) Section 105 to 119
(C) Section 102 to 117 Q235. Which of the following is not correctly
(D) Section 105 to 117 matched under I.P.C.?
ANS: (D) (A) Furnishing false information—S. 177
(B) Giving false evidence—S. 191
Q228. In which one of the following cases Lord (C) Causing disapperance of evidence of offence —S.
Summer said, ―they also serve who stand and 205
wait.‖? (D) Counterfeiting coin—S. 231
(A) Mahboob Shah V/s Emperor ANS: (C)
(B) Inder Singh V/s Emperor
(C) Barendra Kumar Ghosh V/s Emperor Q236. Which one of the following set of Section
(D) None of the above of I.P.C. provides for the right of private
ANS: (C) defence?
(A) Sections 107 to 120
Q229. ‗Local Law‘ mentioned under Section 42 (B) Sections 121 to 133
of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 means a law (C) Sections 76 to 105
applicable to— (D) Sections 96 to 106
(A) Whole of India ANS: (D)
(B) a particular part of India
(C) any part of India Q237. ‗A‘ having joint property with Z in a
(D) None of the above horse, intending thereby to cause wrongful loss
ANS: (B) to Z, shoots the horse. Under what section of
I.P.C. ‗A‘ shall be charged with?
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(A) Section 426 (C) Only Section 420 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 429 (D) None of the above
(C) Section 437 ANS: (A)
(D) Section 438
ANS: (B) Q245. Under which one of the following
Sections of I.P.C. rash and negligent driving of
Q238. To which one of the follwoing section of vehicle on a public way is an offence?
I.P.C., Hicklin rule is related to? (A) Section 278
(A) Section 292 (B) Section 279
(B) Section 291 (C) Section 273
(C) Section 290 (D) Section 280
(D) Section 294 ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q246. ‗Unlawful assembly‘ is defined in which of
Q239. ‗A‘ fires on a crowd for no reason. As a the following section of the I.P.C.?
result of which ‗B‘ dies. What offence has ‗A‘ (A) Section 34
committed? (B) Section 149
(A) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder (C) Section 146
(B) Grievous hurt (D) None of the above
(C) Murder ANS: (D)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q247. Section 153-AA has been inserted in the
I.P.C. 1860, by which of the following Criminal
Q240. Which of the following is/are essential Law Amendment Act?
element/s of offence of grievous hurt? (A) Act of 2001
(A) Emasculation (B) Act of 2003
(B) Privation of any member or joint (C) Act of 2005
(C) Permanent disfiguration of head or face (D) Act of 2006
(D) All of the above ANS: (C)
ANS: (D)
Q248. ‗X‘ along with four other armed hoodlums
Q241. ‗A‘ voluntarily throws into a river a ring seizes the child of ‗Y‘ and threaten to kill him
belonging to ‗Z‘ with the intention to cause loss unless ‗Y‘ parts with his watch and diamond
to ‗Z‘, ‗A‘ has committed the offence of— ring. ‗X‘ has committed the offence of—
(A) theft (A) robbery
(B) robbery (B) dacoity
(C) cheating (C) attempt to murder
(D) mischief (D) theft
ANS: (D) ANS: (B)

Q242. What should be the age of minor to
constitute the offence of kidnapping?
(A) 16 years
(B) 18 years
(C) Below 16 years in case of male and below 18
years in case of female
(D) Below 18 years in case of male and below 21
years in case of female
ANS: (C)
Q243. Which one of the following is a case
decided by Federal Court on S. 124 A of I.P.C.?
(A) Kedar Nath V/s State
(B) Niharendu Dutt V/s Emperor
(C) Q. Empress V/s Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Emperor V/s Sadashivanarayan
ANS: (B)
Q244. To which of the following offences the
Apex Court judgement in Abhayanand Mishra
V/s State of Bihar is related to?
(A) Section 420 and 511 of I.P.C.
(B) Only Section 511 of I.P.C.
Q249. In which one of the following cases
Section 303 of I.P.C. declared unconstitutional?
(A) Mithu V/s State of Punjab
(B) Bachan Singh V/s State of Punjab
(C) Jagdish V/s State of M.P.
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
Q250. A mixed sugar in B‘s food knowing it to
be arsenic. ‗B‘ did not take that food. What
offence has ‗A‘ committed?
(A) A has committed no offence
(B) A is guilty for assault
(C) A is not guilty for assault
(D) A is guilty for attempt to murder
ANS: (D)
Q251. The offence of Section 361 of the I.P.C. is
basically against—
(A) family
(B) society
(C) any person
(D) lawful guardian
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ANS: (D) (C) Only III
(D) Both II and III
Q252. ‗A‘ has consensual sexual relation wih ‗Z‘s ANS: (D)
wife. She gives to ‗A‘ a valuable property which
‗A‘ knows to belong to her husband ‗Z‘ and she Q259. Which one of the following sections of the
has no authority from ‗Z‘ to give. ‗A‘ takes the Cr.P.C. provides that a person once convicted or
property dishonestly. Which one of the following acquitted shall not be tried again for the same
offences has been committed by ‗A‘? offence?
(A) Criminal breach of trust (A) Section 303
(B) Theft and cirminal breach of trust (B) Section 20(3)
(C) Theft (C) Section 300(1)
(D) Criminal misappropriation (D) None of the above
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q253. Which of the following is not correctly Q260. Who among the following may withdraw
matched? prosecution of any person at any time before
(A) Inquiry—Section 2(g) the judgement is pronounced?
(B) Judicial proceedings—Section 2(i) (A) The State Government
(C) Police Station—Section 2(o) (B) The Public Prosecutor
(D) Pleader—Section 2(q) (C) The aggrieved person
ANS: (C) (D) The Writer of F.I.R.
ANS: (B)
Q254. Classification of ‗compoundable and
noncompoundable offences‘ has been provided
under—
(A) Ist Schedule of Cr.P.C.
(B) 2nd Schedule of Cr.P.C.
Q261. Which one of the following Sections of Cr.
(C) Section 320 of Cr.P.C.
P.C. provides free legal aid to the accused?
(D) Section 321 of Cr.P.C.
(A) S. 304
ANS: (C)
(B) S. 306
(C) S. 301
Q255. Section 25A was inserted in Cr. P.C. by
(D) S. 302
which of the following Amendment Act?
ANS: (A)
(A) Cr. P.C. Amendment Act, 2008
(B) Cr. P.C. Amendment Act, 2005
Q262. Under Cr.P.C., which of the following is
(C) Cr. P.C. Amendment Act, 2009
correctly matched?
(D) Cr. P.C. Amendment Act, 1978
(A) Procedure where judges of Court of appeal are
ANS: (B)
equally divided—Section 392
(B) Finality of judgement and orders on appeal—
Q256. Which of the following is correct answer?
Section 394
I. Provisions of Cr.P.C. do not apply to the State
(C) Reference to the High Court —Section 396
of Jammu and Kashmir. II. All provisions of
(D) Arrested of accused in appeal from acquital—
Cr.P.C. do not apply to the State of Nagaland.
Section 391
Choose the correct answer—
ANS: (A)
(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only II is correct
Q263. An accused may apply for pleabargaining
(C) Both I and II are incorrect
where he has committed?
(D) Both I and II are correct
(A) an offence for which the punishment extends for
ANS: (D)
imprisonment exceeding seven years
(B) An offence which affects socioeconomic
Q257. Inquiry is conducted by—
condition of the country
(A) Magistrate only
(C) an offence against a woman
(B) Police officer only
(D) an offence of theft
(C) Session Court only
ANS: (D)
(D) Magistrate or court
ANS: (D)
Q264. Which one of the following group of
sections of Cr.P.C. deals with proclamation and
Q258. Which of the following is not a Criminal
attachment?
Court? I. Executive Magistrate II. Children‘s
(A) Sections 80 to 85
court under Juvenile justice Act, 2000 III.
(B) Sections 82 to 86
Panchayati Adalats
(C) Sections 82 to 90
(A) All of the above
(D) Sections 80 to 86
(B) Only II
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ANS: (B) (C) Section 55A
(D) Section 60A
Q265. Which one of the following sections of the ANS: (B)
Cr.P.C. provides as to security for good
behaviour from habitual offenders? Q272. Who of the following may order for
(A) Section 110 maintenance of wives, children and parents
(B) Section 109 under Cr.P.C. 1973?
(C) Section 108 (A) Only Executive Magistrate
(D) None of the above (B) Judicial Magistrate 2nd Class
ANS: (A) (C) Magistrate of the Ist Class
(D) All of the above
Q266. In which of the following cases a wife is ANS: (C)
not entitled to maintenance?
(A) If she is living in adultery Q273. Consider the following statement and
(B) If without sufficient reason refuses to live with choose the correct answer with the help of code
her husband given below— I. Investigation is conducted by
(C) If the parties are living separately by matual Police officer. II. Magistrate cannot interfere in
consent investigation. III. Investigation is a judicial
(D) All of the above proceeding. IV. Investigation is not a judicial
ANS: (D) proceeding. Codes:
(A) I and IV are correct
Q267. ‗Victim Compensation Scheme‘ has been (B) I, II and IV are correct
provided under Criminal Procedure Code by (C) II and IV are correct
which of the following amendment? (D) II, III and IV are correct
(A) Cr. P. Code (Amendment) Act, 2008 ANS: (B)
(B) Cr. P. Code (Amendment) Act, 2009
(C) Cr. P. Code (Amendment) Act, 2005 Q274. Under Cr.P.C. where two or more courts
(D) None of the above have taken congnizance of the same offence and
ANS: (B) question arises as to which of them ought to try
that offence, the question shall be decided— I.
Q268. Which one of the following section of by the Supreme Court II. If the Courts are
Cr.P.C. provides power of the High Court to subordinate to the same High Court by that
confirm sentence or annul conviction? High Court III. If the Courts are not subordinate
(A) Section 366 to the same High Court, by the High Court
(B) Section 367 within the local limits of whose appellate
(C) Section 369 criminal jurisdiction the proceedings were first
(D) Section 368 commenced. Choose the correct answer:
ANS: (D) (A) Only I is correct
(B) II and III are correct
Q269. The State Government may by (C) I, II and III all are correct
notification declare any city or town for the (D) I and III are correct
purposes of Cr. P.C. as a ‗Metropolitan‘, whose ANS: (B)
population—
(A) exceeds ten lakhs Q275. A High Court under the inherent powers
(B) below ten lakhs conferred under Section 482 of Cr.P.C. passes
(C) is five lakhs the following orders— I. It quashes the F.I.R. II.
(D) None of the above It quashes proceeding of case pending before a
ANS: (A) Ciriminal court. III. It expunges the derogatory
remarks against a member of subordinate court.
Q270. Which one of the following section of Cr. Having in view the validity of above order
P.C. provides public to give information of choose the correct answer given below—
certain offences to the Police Officer? (A) Only I is valid
(A) Section 38 (B) I and II are both valid
(B) Section 40 (C) I, II and III all are valid
(C) Section 39 (D) I and III are valid
(D) All of the above ANS: (C)
ANS: (C)
Q276. In which of the following cases it was
Q271. Which one of the following Section of held that a person has a right to protection
Cr.P.C. provides identification of arrested under Section 161(2) of Cr.P.C. against
person? question, the answer of which would have a
(A) Section 54 tendency to a criminal charge?
(B) Section 54A (A) Nandini Satpathy V/s P.L. Dani
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(B) Gian Singh V/s State
(C) Rupan Deol Bajaj V/s K.P.S. Gill Q284. Under C.P.C. the Court may not issue
(D) R.K. Dalmia V/s Delhi Administration commissions in the following matter—
ANS: (A) (A) to examine any person
(B) to examine accounts
Q277. Under which of the following sections of (C) to make a partition
the Cr.P.C. the magistrate shall dismiss the (D) for execution of a decree
complaint? ANS: (D)
(A) Section 202
(B) Section 201 Q285. Under C.P.C. which one of the following is
(C) Section 203 liable to attachment and sale in execution of a
(D) None of the above decree?
ANS: (C) (A) Necessary wearing-apparel
(B) Promissory Notes
Q278. Which one of the following Sections of (C) Tools of artisans
the C.P.C. deals with institutions of suits? (D) Books of accounts
(A) Section 29 ANS: (B)
(B) Section 13
(C) Section 27 Q286. Which section of the C.P.C. prohibits the
(D) Section 26 arrest or detention in the civil prison of a
ANS: (D) woman in execution of a decree for the payment
of money?
Q279. Which one of the following is NOT a suit (A) Section 55
of civil nature? (B) Section 56
(A) Suit relating to rights of worship (C) Section 57
(B) Suit involving purely religious rights (D) Section 58
(C) Suit for rent ANS: (B)
(D) Suit for rights to hereditary office
ANS: (B) Q287. Under C.P.C. a decree may be executed
by—
Q280. A residing in Dehradun, beats B in (A) Tehsildar
Lucknow. B may sue A under C.P.C.— (B) Collector
(A) Either in Lucknow or in Dehradun (C) District Judge
(B) Only in Lucknow (D) the court which passed it or by the Court to
(C) Only in Dehradun which is sent for execution
(D) Anywhere else ANS: (D)
ANS: (A)
Q288. Does the pendency of a civil suit in a
Q281. The Sections in the Code of Civil foreign Court preclude the courts in India from
Procedure can be amended by— trying a suit founded on the same cause of
(A) the Parliament action?
(B) a High Court (A) Yes
(C) the Court hearing the suit (B) No
(D) the parties to the suit (C) Will depend on the nature of the suit
ANS: (A) (D) Will depend on the pecuniary valuation of the
suit
Q282. Inherent powers of the court can be ANS: (B)
exercised under C.P.C.—
(A) for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of the Q289. ‗Mesne Profits‘ has been defined in which
process of the court of the following Sections of the C.P.C.?
(B) to help the plaintiff (A) Section 2(4)
(C) to help the defendant (B) Section 2(8)
(D) to grant interim relief (C) Section 2(12)
ANS: (A) (D) Section 2(14)
ANS: (C)
Q283. Under C.P.C. the provision of notice
before instituting a suit against the Government Q290. Which one of the following sections of the
is given in— Code of Civil Procedure provides for the trial in
(A) Section 180 Open Courts where public may have access?
(B) Section 6 (A) Section 153 A
(C) Section 80 (B) Section 153 B
(D) Section 21 (C) Section 153 C
ANS: (C) (D) Section 153 D
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ANS: (B) (C) Plaints
(D) interlocutory orders
Q291. Under which one of the following ANS: (D)
Sections of the C.P.C. the Court may ask parties
to a dispute to go for mediation? Q299. Rules relating to interpleader suit have
(A) Section 88 been provided in the C.P.C. under which of the
(B) Section 89 following orders?
(C) Section 87 (A) Order 50
(D) Section 86 A (B) Order 35
ANS: (B) (C) Order 55
(D) Order 40
Q292. By which one of the amendments of ANS: (B)
C.P.C. scope of summary trial was substantially
widened? Q300. In which of the following case Sir
(A) CPC (Amendment) Act, 1999 Lawrence Jenkins has observed that ―the rule of
(B) CPC (Amendment) Act, 2002 resjudicata, while founded on account of
(C) CPC (Amendment) Act, 1976 precedent, is directed by a wisdom which is for
(D) None of the above all times‖?
ANS: (C) (A) Lal Chand V/s Radha Kishan
(B) Sheopersan V/s Ramanand Singh
Q293. Under which provision of C.P.C. an (C) Sulochana Amma V/s Narayanan Nair
Ambassador can be sued? (D) Pandurang Ramchandra V/s Shantibai
(A) Section 86 ANS: (B)
(B) Section 88
(C) Section 88A Q301. What is the essence of pleadings?
(D) He cannot sued (A) Plead facts not law
ANS: (A) (B) Plead law not facts
(C) Plead facts and law
Q294. Morgan Stanley Mutual Fund V/s Kartik (D) All of the above
Das case related to which of the following? ANS: (A)
(A) Issuance of Commission
(B) Attachment before judgement Q302. The Bill of Evidence Act was prepared
(C) Interim injunction by—
(D) Affidavits (A) Fourth Law Commission
ANS: (C) (B) Sir Henry Maine
(C) Sir James Stephen
Q295. When a Court can reject a plaint? (D) None of the above
(A) Where plaintiff fails to comply with Rule 9 ANS: (C)
(B) Where suit is barred by law
(C) Where plaint is not in duplicate Q303. Rule of Res Gestae which means facts
(D) All of the above forming the part of the same transactions which
ANS: (D) is the facts in issue is discussed in—
(A) Section 6
Q296. Under C.P.C. find the incorrect match of (B) Section 7
the following— (C) Section 5
(A) Revenue Courts—Section 5 (D) Section 8
(B) Provincial Small Causes Courts— Section 7 ANS: (A)
(C) Pecuniary Jurisdiction of Courts— Section 9
(D) Presidency Small Causes Courts— Section 8 Q304. The principle of ‗res judicata‘ is provided
ANS: (C) in which of the following section of the Indian
Evidence Act?
Q297. Under Section 13 of CPC which of the (A) Section 140
following judgements shall not be conclusive? (B) Section 40
(A) Judgement not on merit (C) Section 160
(B) Judgement founded on breach of Indian law (D) Section 164
(C) Judgement against International law ANS: (B)
(D) All of the above
ANS: (D) Q305. The principle which preclude a person
from denying some statement previously made
Q298. Rules 6 to 10 of order 39 of C.P.C. deal by him is known as—
with— (A) Admission
(A) attachment of property (B) Confession
(B) arrest of persons (C) Res subjudice
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(D) Estoppel (B) Kashmira Singh V/s State of M.P. 1952 ACR
ANS: (D) 536
(C) Varendra Kumar Ghosh V/s Emperor ILR
Q306. Which one of the following is correctly (1910) 37 Cal, 474
matched under the Indian Evidence Act? (D) Pushpa Devi Ramjatia V/s M.L. Wadhwa AIR
(A) Burden of proof—Section 101 1987 SC 1748
(B) Dowry Death—Section 122 ANS: (A)
(C) Dumb witness—Section 107
(D) Accomplice—Section 119 Q314. ‗H‘ says that ‗Y‘ told him that ‗A‘ killed
ANS: (A) ‗B‘. This is—
(A) Primary evidence
Q307. Rules relating to ‗identification of parade‘ (B) Best evidence
are contained in which of the following section (C) Hearsay evidence
of Indian Evidence Act? (D) Admission
(A) Section 9 ANS: (C)
(B) Section 19
(C) Section 29 Q315. ―An accomplice is a competent witness
(D) Section 39 against an accused‖ is provided in which of the
ANS: (A) following Section of Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Section 130
Q308. Section 74 of the Indian Evidence Act, (B) Section 131
1872 deals with— (C) Section 132
(A) Testamentary document (D) Section 133
(B) Non-Testamentary document ANS: (D)
(C) Personal document
(D) Public document Q316. Among the following which is not a public
ANS: (D) document?
(A) An unregistered family partition deed
Q309. Under which section of Evidence Act (B) A registered sale deed
legitimacy of a child born during the lawful (C) A decision of High Court
wedlock is presumed? (D) A decision of Civil Court
(A) Section 112 ANS: (A)
(B) Section 113
(C) Section 114 Q317. Which one of the following is not
(D) Section 115 privileged communication?
ANS: (A) (A) Matrimonial communication
(B) Paternal communication
Q310. Any question suggesting the answer is (C) Professional communication
called— (D) Official communication
(A) Oral question ANS: (B)
(B) Special question
(C) Leading question Q318. Under which one of the following
(D) Hearsay question Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, a witness
ANS: (C) under examination gets the right to refresh his
memory?
Q311. ‗Not proved‘ means— (A) Section 158
(A) It is not proved (B) Section 159
(B) It has been disproved (C) Section 160
(C) It is neither proved nor disproved (D) Section 162
(D) It is denied ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q319. Under which one of the following
Q312. ‗Proof‘ is the result of— Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, the judge
(A) Inquiry determines as to admissibility of fact?
(B) Evidence (A) Section 54
(C) Investigation (B) Section 148
(D) Statement (C) Section 136
ANS: (B) (D) Section 23
ANS: (C)
Q313. ―A fact in personal knowledge of the
judge can not be taken in evidence.‖ In which Q320. The fact sought to be proved is called—
case this had been held? (A) Factum probana
(A) Har Prasad V/s Shiva Dayal (1876), 31A 259 (B) Factum probandum
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(C) Lex Fori Q327. A gives a field to B, reserving to himself,
(D) Lex Loci with B‘s assent, the right to take back the field
ANS: (B) in case B and his descendants die before A. B
dies without descendants in A‘s life time. Can
Q321. The affidavit given to the Court is— ‗A‘ take back the field?
(A) not an evidence (A) Yes
(B) an evidence (B) No
(C) merely a written statement (C) Condition is void
(D) a proof (D) None of the above
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q322. Which one of the following section of the Q328. Every transfer of immovable property
Transfer of Property Act provides that made with intent to defeat or delay the
‗mereright to sue‘ can not be transferred? creditors of the transferor shall be—
(A) Section 5 (A) Voidable at the option of such creditors
(B) Section 6 (B) Not void
(C) Section 7 (C) Void
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q323. Which of the following are actionable Q329. In the light of provisions of the T.P. Act,
claims? I. A share in partnership. II. A decree. a minor—
III. Claim for arrears of rent. IV. Right to get (A) Can transfer a property
damages for breach of contract. (B) Cannot transfer a property
(A) Only I (C) Can accept transfer of property in his favour
(B) Only II (D) Both (B) and (C)
(C) Only IV ANS: (D)
(D) Only I and III
ANS: (D) Q330. ‗Redemption is the heart of mortgage‘
was observed by—
Q324. The test to decide, whether something (A) Lord Develin
attached to the earth has to be regarded as (B) Lord Davey
immovable or not, depends on any one of the (C) Lord Halsburry
following? (D) None of the above
(A) The degree or mode of annexation ANS: (C)
(B) Place of annexation
(C) The object of annexation Q331. In which of the following sections of T.P.
(D) Both (A) and (C) Act ‗transfer by ostensible owner‘ is provided—
ANS: (D) (A) Section 39
(B) Section 41
Q325. A tranfers property to B in trust for C and (C) Section 40
directs B to give possession of the property to C (D) Section 42
when he attains the age of 25. C‘s interest in ANS: (B)
the property is—
(A) Contingent Q332. In which of the following sections of T.P.
(B) Vested Act, ‗transfer in favour of unborn person can be
(C) Neither contingent nor vested made?
(D) Public interest (A) Section 13
ANS: (B) (B) Section 12
(C) Section 14
Q326. If a property is tranferred with the (D) Section 15
conditions that an interest created therein for ANS: (A)
the benefit of the transferee shall cease on his
becoming insolvent, such a condition is void Q333. Which one of the following sections of the
under which of the following sections of the T.P. Act provides that when there is a conflict
Transfer of Property Act? between marshalling and contribution,
(A) Section 10 marshalling shall prevail?
(B) Section 11 (A) Section 80
(C) Section 12 (B) Section 81
(D) Section 13 (C) Section 82
ANS: (C) (D) Section 83
ANS: (C)
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Q334. Muhammad Afzal V/s Ghulam Kasim (C) judicial separation and divorce both
(1903) ILR Cal 843 is a leading case on which of (D) only divorce and not judicial separation
the following? ANS: (C)
(A) Rule against perpetuity
(B) Equity of redemption Q341. A Hindu wife can adopt a boy and a girl
(C) Doctrine of election simultaneously—
(D) Doctrine of holding over (A) without consent of husband
ANS: (C) (B) with the consent of husband
(C) cannot adopt
Q335. In case of transfer of property for the (D) None of the above
benefit of the public which of the following ANS: (B)
restrictions shall not apply?
(A) Rule against perpetuity Q342. Disposal of immovable property of a
(B) Transfer to take effect on failure or prior interest minor by his natural guardian is—
(C) Direction of accumulation (A) valid
(D) All of the above (B) void
ANS: (D) (C) voidable at the option of transferee
(D) voidable at the option of minor
Q336. Which of the following is not correctly ANS: (D)
matched under T.P. Act? I. Universal donee—S.
128 II. Doctrine of Part performance —S. 53A Q343. In India a decree of restitution of
III. Marshalling by subsequent purchaser— S. 65 conjugal rights can be executed by—
IV. Mortgagee‘s right to forclosure or sale—S. 67 (A) attachment of the property of respondent
Choose the right answer— (B) arrest of the respondent
(A) Only I (C) attachment of property and arrest of
(B) Both I and II respondent, both
(C) Only III (D) either attachment of property or by arrest of
(D) Both III and IV respondent and fine
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q337. The following leading cases are related to Q344. Bigamous marriage under the Hindu
which of the following subjects? I. Gopal V/s Marriage Act, 1955 is—
Parsottam II. Santely V/s Wilde III. Kedar Lal (A) Valid
V/s Hari Lal IV. Ali Hussain V/s Nilla Kundan (B) Void
Choose the correct answer: (C) Voidable
(A) Lease (D) Irregular
(B) Gift ANS: (B)
(C) Mortgage
(D) None of the above Q345. Punishment for violation of condition as
ANS: (C) to age as provided under Section 5 (III) of the
Hindu Marriage Act, 1956 has been provided
Q338. Under the Constituion of India all aspects under which of the following section of the
of family law are provided in the— Hindu Marriage Act, 1956?
(A) Union List (A) Section 18(b)
(B) State List (B) Section 17
(C) Concurrent List (C) Section 18(a)
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q339. A marriage under Hindu Law between Q346. Hanuman Prasad V/s Mst. Babooee
Sapindas parties shall be valid— Mumraj case is related to which of the
(A) If the custom or usage governing each of them following?
permits (A) Adoption
(B) If the custom or usage governing any of them (B) Guardianship
permits (C) Marriage
(C) Either A and B (D) Maintenance
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) ANS: (C)
ANS: (A)
Q347. A Hindu husband converting to Islam and
Q340. Adultery is a ground under Hindu marrying again will be guilty of bigamy. It was
Marriage Act, 1955 for— held in which of the following case?
(A) judicial separation (A) Bahurao V/s State of Maharashtra
(B) divorce (B) Dr. A.N. Mukherji V/s State

(C) Sarla Mudgal V/s Union of India
(D) P.V. Venkatraman V/s State
ANS: (C)
Q348. Under Hindu law where the husband
creates a condition in which the wife is
compelled to leave the conjugal home and live
separately—
(A) the husband may sue for divorce
(B) the wife will be held guilty of desertion
(C) the marriage is irretrievably broken down
(D) the husband is guilty of constructive desertion
ANS: (D)
Q349. An illegitimate minor child under Section
20 of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
is entitled to claim maintenance during his
minority from—
(A) Father
(B) Mother
(C) Grandfather
(D) Both (A) and (B)
ANS: (D)
Q350. A Hindu father-in-law is bound to
maintain widow daughter-in-law if—
(A) She is having no property or income
(B) She is unable to obtain maintenance out of
estate of deceased husband
(C) she cannot obtain maintenance from children
(D) All of the above
ANS: (D)
Q351. Which offence is constituted under
Section 366-A of Indian Penal Code?
(A) Kidnapping
(B) Kidnapping for begging
(C) Procuration of minor girl
(D) Importing of girl from Jammu and Kashmir
State
ANS: (C)
Q352. Point out the statement which is wrong.
(A) International destruction of property for causing
wrongful loss to any person is ‗mischief‘
(B) Intentionally putting any person in fear of injury
and thereby dishonestly inducting him to deliver
any property is ‗extortion‘
(C) Five or more persons conjointly committing
robbery amounts to ‗dacoity‘
(D) Two or more persons quarrelling anywhere
commit ‗affray‘
ANS: (D)
Q353. Assertion (A): Homicide is the killing of a
human being by another human being. Reason
(R): Homicide is always unlawful. Give the
correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct
explanation of (A)
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(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) is false, but (R) is true
ANS: (C)
Q354. ‗A‘ picked up a match box belonging to
‗B‘ and lighted his cigarettee with it. ‗B‘ charged
‗A‘ with the offence of theft of his match box. In
these circumstances ‗A‘ can defend himself with
the help of which one of the following maxims?
(A) Non compos mentis
(B) Dole Incapax
(C) Deminimis non curat lex
(D) Ignorantia juris non excusat
ANS: (C)
Q355. Match List-I with
List-II and select the correct answer by using
the codes given below the lists— List-I
(a) Delivery of Property
(b) Taking of Property
(c) Entrustment of Property
(d) Convertibility of Property innocently got to
one‘s own use
List-II
1. Criminal Breach of Trust
2. Criminal Misappropriation of Property
3. Theft
4. Extortion Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
ANS: (B)
Q356. Which one of the following is not a mode
of abetment under the Indian Penal Code?
(A) Attempt
(B) Instigation
(C) Aiding
(D) Conspiracy
ANS: (A)
Q357. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
no women shall be arrested and detained in civil
prison in the matter regarding to the decree
relates to—
(A) family disputes
(B) matrimonial disputes
(C) legitimacy of children disputes
(D) payment of money disputes
ANS: (D)
Q358. Point out the incorrect statement—
(A) A member of Parliament is not entitled to
exemption from personal appearance in a court
(B) A judicial officer may be arrested under a civil
process at any time except when he is going to,
presiding in or returning from his court
(C) An original suit may be filed in the High Court
on the ground of pecuniary jurisdiction
(D) The High Court cannot vary or reverse in its
revisional jurisdiction any decree or order against
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which an appeal lies either to the High Court or to (D) 1 and 4 are incorrect
any court subordinate thereto ANS: (C)
ANS: (C)
Q363. Under Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
Q359. Match List-I with which one of the following is not exempted from
List-II and select the correct answer by using personal appearance in the court?
the code given below the lists— List-I (A) Ministers of Union
(a) Interpleader Suit (B) Ministers of State
(b) Letter of Request (C) Vice-President of India
(c) Precepts (D) Chairman of Public Service Commission
(d) Power to order discovery ANS: (D)
List-II (Sections of C. P. C.)
1. Section 46 Q364. Inherent powers conferred under Section
2. Section 88 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, may
3. Section 30 be exercised by the—
4. Section 77 Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Supreme Court only
(A) 4 3 1 2 (B) High Court only
(B) 2 4 1 3 (C) District Court only
(C) 3 2 4 1 (D) Supreme Court, High Court, District Court as
(D) 2 1 3 4 well as by any Civil Court
ANS: (B) ANS: (D)

Q360. Where a compromise was arrived between
parties to a suit by playing fraud,
misrepresentation or mistake and a decree was
passed with the consent of the parties, then the
suffering party may select which one of the
following alternatives for setting aside such
decree?
(A) Through appeal
(B) Through revision
(C) Through review
(D) Through a second suit
ANS: (D)
Q361. The documents on which the plaintiff
relies upon in support his claim shall be filed by
him in the court.
(A) along with the plaint
(B) within seven days from the date of order by the
court for issue of summons
(C) on the date fixed for forming of issues by the
court
(D) at the time or before the hearing of the suit
ANS: (B)
Q362. Consider the following statements—
1. Where the High Court calls for the record of
any case in its revisional jurisdiction, it
operates as a stay of such case before the
subordinate court.
2. No second appeal shall lie in money suits
where the value of the subject matter does not
exceed 25,000. 3. A plaintiff cannot be allowed
by the court to sue afterwards for any relief
omitted by him in the suit
4. A plaintiff may relinquish any portion of his
claim in order to bring the suit within the
jurisdiction of any court. Of the above
statements—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect
(B) 2 and 3 are incorrect
(C) 1 and 3 are incorrect
Q365. ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ sue ‗C‘ for recovery of 1,000.
‗C‘ has a debt due to him by ‗A‘ alone. Here ‗C‘
can—
(A) set off the debt against ‗B‘
(B) set off the debt against ‗A‘
(C) set off the debt against ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ both
(D) cannot set off a debt due to him by ‗A‘ alone
ANS: (D)
Q366. The term ‗prescribed‘ under Section 2(16)
of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 means—
(A) prescribed by court
(B) prescribed by society
(C) prescribed by rules
(D) none of the above
ANS: (C)
Q367. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
for the first time provision for compensatory
costs in respect of false or vexatious claims or
defences, has been made under—
(A) Section 35 of the Code
(B) Section 35 B of the code
(C) Section 35 A
(D) Section 34 of the Code
ANS: (C)
Q368. ‗A‘ deposits a box of jewels with ‗B‘ as his
agent. ‗C‘ alleges that the jewels were
wrongfully obtained by ‗A‘ from him and claims
them from ‗B‘. Here ‗B‘.
(A) can institute interpleader suit against ‗A‘
(B) can institute interpleader suit against ‗C‘.
(C) can institute interpleader suit against ‗A‘ and ‗C‘
both
(D) cannot institute an interpleader suit against ‗A‘
and ‗C‘
ANS: (D)
Q369. Point out the wrong statement—
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(A) Where the defendant appears and the plaintiff Q374. What is the nature of a statement given
does not appear, when the suit is called for hearing, in NARCO Test?
the court shall dismiss the suit and the plaintiff (A) It is not an evidence
shall be barred from filing a fresh suit on the same (B) It is a scientific evidence
cause of action (C) It is an oral evidence
(B) No appeal may lie from an original decree (D) It is a circumstantial evidence
passed exparte. ANS: (C)
(C) The plaintiff may apply to the court which
passed an exparte decree against him, for an order Q375. Cognizance of the offence of defamation
to set it aside under Chapter XXI of the Indian Penal Code can
(D) No court shall set aside a decree passed exparte be taken—
merely on the ground that there has been an (A) on a police report
irregularity in the service of summon upon the (B) on a complaint made by an aggrieved person
defendant (C) suo motu by the court
ANS: (B) (D) all the above
ANS: (B)
Q370. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
objection to jurisdiction as to the place of suing Q376. Statement recorded by police officer
shall not be allowed by any Appellate or during investigation under Section 161 of the
Revisional Court. Unless such objection was Criminal Procedure Code can be used during
taken— trial—
(A) in the court of first instance (A) for contradicting the witness
(B) at the earliest possible opportunity (B) for corroborating the witness
(C) and there has been a consequent failure of (C) both for A and B
justice Neither A nor B
(D) when all the conditions of A, B and C are ANS: (A)
fullfilled
ANS: (D) Q377. Under the Criminal Procedure Code,
examination of witness in the absence of
Q371. The nature of Revision under Code of absconded accused can be done under—
Civil Procedure is that— (A) Section 299
(A) it operates as a stay of the proceedings (B) Section 321
(B) it operates as a stay of the suit (C) Section 224
(C) it operates as a stay of proceedings and suit (D) Section 301
both ANS: (A)
(D) it shall not operate as a stay of the suit or
proceedings except where such suit or proceedings Q378. Under Criminal Procedure Code, for an
is stayed by the High Court. offence punishable with fine only, the period of
ANS: (D) limitation is—
(A) three months
Q372. Justice J. S. Verma Committee Report of (B) six months
January 23, 2013 has recommended that (C) one year
nonpenetrative forms of sexual contact should (D) three year
be regarded as— ANS: (B)
(A) Rape
(B) Sexual Assault Q379. Section 183 of Criminal Procedure Code—
(C) An offence under Section 354 of Indian Penal (A) applies to voyage on the high seas
Code (B) does not apply to voyage on high seas
(D) Defamation (C) applies to voyage within India as well as on
ANS: (B) voyage on high seas
(D) has been declared unconstitutional
Q373. Who can issue a search warrant to search ANS: (B)
a Post Office?
(A) District Magistrate Q380. Under which section of Criminal
(B) Civil Court Procedure Code, provision for security for
(C) Revenue Court keeping the peace on conviction exists?
(D) High Court (A) Section 108
ANS: (A) (B) Section 106
(C) Section 109
(D) Section 111
ANS: (B)
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Q381. Under Section 41 of Criminal Procedure (B) Section 122
Code, the power of police to arrest a person— (C) Section 123
(A) covers all cases (D) Section 124
(B) is limited to cases of mere suspicion ANS: (C)
(C) is confined to cases of reasonable suspicion
(D) does not cover cases of Army deserters Q388. The Law of Evidence consists of which
ANS: (C) one of the following?
(A) Ordinary rules of reasoning
Q382. Under Section 27 of the Criminal (B) Legal rules of evidence
Procedure Code, the age of Juvenile is— (C) Rules of logic
(A) 16 years (D) All the above
(B) 18 years ANS: (B)
(C) 12 years
(D) None of the above Q389. ‗X‘ sues ‗Y‘ for damage done by a dog of
ANS: (A) ‗Y‘, which ‗Y‘ knew to be ferocious. The fact that
the dog had previously bitten ‗A‘, ‗B‘ and ‗C‘
Q383. Who writes evidence in a criminal trial? are—
(A) Any employee of the court (A) relevant
(B) Magistrate (B) irrelevant
(C) Advocate (C) inadmissible
(D) Expert (D) unreliable
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q384. Which section of Criminal Procedure Q390. Which one of the following sections of the
Code applies when the officer-incharge of a Indian Evidence Act makes relevant opinions as
Police Station receives information that a to existence of custom?
person has committed suicide, he will (A) Section 47
immediately report to the Executive (B) Section 48
Magistrate? (C) Section 49
(A) Section 169 (D) Section 50
(B) Section 173 ANS: (B)
(C) Section 174
(D) Section 178 Q391. Which one of the following does not come
ANS: (C) within the meaning of ‗Document‘ under the
Indian Evidence Act?
Q385. ‗A‘ is accused of an act which may (A) a writing
amount to theft or receiving stolen property or (B) a map
criminal breach of trust. ‗A‘ is only charged with (C) a telephonic talk
‗theft‘. It appears that he committed the offence (D) a word photographed
of criminal breach of trust ANS: (C)
(A) He may be convicted of criminal breach of trust,
though he was not charged with such offence Q392. ‗A‘ is tried for the murder of ‗B‘ by
(B) He may not be convicted of criminal breach of beating with a club with the intention of
trust because he was not charged with such offence causing his death. At ‗A‘s‘ trial which one of the
(C) He may neither be convicted of theft nor of following is not fact in issue?
criminal breach of trust (A) ‗A‘ s‘ beating ‗B‘ with the club
(D) He may only be convicted of theft because he (B) ‗A‘ s‘ conversation with ‗C‘
was charged with theft (C) ‗A‘ s‘ causing ‗B‘ s‘ death with the club
ANS: (A) (D) ‗A‘ s‘ intention to cause ‗B‘ s‘ death
ANS: (B)
Q386. While exercising the power of revision
under the Code of Criminal Procedure, the High Q393. The case Dudhnath Pandey V. State of U.
Court cannot— P. is related to—
(A) discharge the accused (A) Res Gestae
(B) acquit the accused (B) Plea of alibi
(C) grant bail to the accused (C) Admission
(D) convert a finding of acquittal into one of (D) Accomplice
conviction ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q394. Under which one of the following
Q387. In Indian Evidence Act, the maxim provisions of Indian Evidence Act the words
―SALUS POPULI SUPREMA LEX‖ is related to— ‗forming part of the same transaction‖ occurs?
(A) Section 121 (A) Section 5
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(B) Section 6
(C) Section 11 Q399. How many years old electronic record will
(D) Section 12 be deemed to be proved, if it is produced from
ANS: (B) any custody which the court in the particular
case considers proper?
Q395. Which one of the following is not a (A) Five years
secondary evidence? (B) Thirty years
(A) Copies made from the original by mechanical (C) Twenty years
process (D) Ten years
(B) Copies made from or compared with the original ANS: (A)
(C) Counterparts of documents
(D) Lithography Q400. Which one of the following sections of the
ANS: (D) Indian Evidence Act applies to the pleaders
relating to professional communications?
Q396. Point out the incorrect statement— (A) Section 128 only
(A) If a contract is contained in several letters, all (B) Sections 129 and 130
the letters in which it is contained, must be proved (C) Sections 133 and 134
(B) If a contract is contained in a bill of exchange, (D) Sections 126 and 127
the bill of exchange must be proved ANS: (D)
(C) If a bill of exchange is drawn in a set of three,
one only need be proved Q401. Section 7 of the Evidence Act does not
(D) If ‗A‘ gives ‗B‘ receipt for money paid by ‗B‘, oral include which one of the following?
evidence is offered of the payment, the evidence is (A) Occasion
not admissible (B) Cause
ANS: (D) (C) Purpose
(D) Effect
Q397. Match List-I with ANS: (C)
List-II and select the correct answer by using
the code given below the lists— List-I Q402. Match List-I with
(Provisions) List-II and select the correct answer by using
(a) Burden of Proof the code given below the lists— List-I
(b) On whom burden of proof lies (Provisions)
(c) Burden of Proof as to particular fact (a) Transfer in perpetuity
(d) Burden of proving fact especially within (b) When unborn person acquires vested interest
knowledge on transfer for his benefit
List-II (Sections of Evidence Act) (c) Transfer ‗ostensible owner‘
1. Section 106 (d) Transfer by co-owner
2. Section 103 List-II (Sections of Transfer of Property Act)
3. Section 102 1. Section 20
4. Section 101 Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) 2. Section 18
(A) 3 4 1 2 3. Section 44
(B) 2 3 4 1 4. Section 41 Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) 4 3 2 1 (A) 1 2 4 3
(D) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 4 3
ANS: (C) (C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
Q398. Select the incorrect statements using the ANS: (B)
code given below—
1. The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to Q403. Which of the following case decided by
arbitration proceedings the Privy Council, relates to ‗fraudulent
2. The Indian Evidence Act does not apply to transfer‘?
proceedings before a Commissioner appointed (A) Musahar Sahu V. Hakim Lal
by the court for recording evidence (B) Middleton V. Pollock
3. The Indian Evidence Act applies to affidavits (C) Union of India V. Rajeshwari & Co.
presented to courts (D) All the above
4. The Indian Evidence Act applies to judicial ANS: (A)
proceedings held before all kinds of military
courts Codes: Q404. Which of the following would be
(A) 2 and 3 are incorrect considered as ―transfer of property‖ under the
(B) 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect Transfer of Property Act? Select the answer by
(C) 1 and 3 are incorrect using the code given below—
(D) None of the above is incorrect 1. Grant of an easementary right of way over a
ANS: (B) piece of land
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2. Exchange of two things (C) licence
3. A family settlement (D) easement
4. Creation of charge on a immovable property ANS: (C)
by operation of law Codes:
(A) 1 and 3 Q409. Remedy of ‗Foreclosure‘ is available in
(B) 1, 2 and 3 which one of the following mortgages?
(C) 3 and 4 (A) Usufructuary mortgage
(D) 2 and 4 (B) Mortgage by conditional sale
ANS: (D) (C) Simple mortgage
(D) English mortgage
Q405. In which of the following mortgage, the ANS: (B)
mortgagor binds himself personally to pay the
mortgage money? Q410. Which of the following sections of
(A) Simple mortgage Transfer of Property Act contains exception to
(B) Usufructuary mortgage the maxim ―Nemo dat quad non habet‖?
(C) Anomalous mortgage (A) Sections 41 and 42
(D) Mortgage by assurance (B) Sections 43 and 44
ANS: (A) (C) Section 41 and 44
(D) Section 41 and 43
Q406. Which one of the following statement is ANS: (D)
not correct?
(A) ‗A‘ transfers a farm to ‗B‘ for her life and if she Q411. Which is a right of the Mortgagee and not
does not desert her husband to ‗C‘. ‗B‘ is entitled to that of a Mortgagor?
the farm during her life as if no condition had been (A) Right to foreclosure
insisted (B) Right to redeem
(B) ‗A‘ transfers 50,000 to ‗B‘ on condition that he (C) Right to recover possession
shall marry with the consent of ‗C‘, ‗D‘ and ‗E‘. ‗B‘ (D) Right to inspect documents
marries without the consent of ‗C‘, ‗D‘ and ‗E‘ but ANS: (A)
obtains their consent after marriage. The condition
shall be deemed to be fulfilled as it has been Q412. In case of gift, the donee dies before
substantially complied with acceptance, then
(C) A living person can transfer the property to (A) gift is valid
himself in present or in future (B) gift is void
(D) A vested interest is not defeated by the death of (C) gift is reduced
the transferee before he obtains possession (D) court has to decide
ANS: (B) ANS: (B)

Q407. Which of the following are ‗immovable
property‘ under the Transfer of Property Act?
Select the correct answer by using the code
below—
1. The equity of redemption
2. A hut
3. Mortgage debt
4. Right to recover maintenance allowance
charged on immovable property Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 2 only
ANS: (B)
Q408. A Municipal Board, under a resolution
gave possession of a land to ‗X‘ and ‗Y‘ with a
right to make construction on the said land
subject to a condition that after termination of
lease, the construction shall belong to the
Municipal Board. ‗X‘ and ‗Y‘ accepted the
condition and made construction on the land.
The effect of resolution and acceptance was to
create—
(A) lease
(B) usufructuary mortgage
Q413. In which one of the following sections of
Transfer of Property Act, an Amendment was
made in the year 2002?
(A) Section 100
(B) Section 106
(C) Section 108
(D) Section 110
ANS: (B)
Q414. Doctrine which requires that the
transferor must deliver the subsequently
acquired property to the transferee who acted
upon his false representation and did harm to
himself by paying money for what he could not
get is called—
(A) Rule against unjust enrichment
(B) Implied consent
(C) Feeding the grant by estoppel
(D) Doctrine of substantial compliance
ANS: (C)
Q415. ―For an acceptance mere mental resolve
to accept would not be sufficient; there must be
some external manifestation of the intent by
speech, writing or other act.‖ It was held by
Supreme Court in—
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(A) Fazal Ilahi V. East Indian Railway Co. (A) losses caused by human conduct
(B) M. Nanjappa V. M. P. Muthuswamy (B) losses caused by accident
(C) Dugdale V. Lovering (C) losses caused by natural calamity
(D) Bhagwan Das V. Girdhari Lal & Co. (D) none of the above
ANS: (D) ANS: (A)

Q416. Which one of the following relation does Q422. ‗A‘ contract to sing for ‗B‘ at a concert
not come within the undue influence and gets 1,000 as advance. ‗A‘ is too ill to sing,
relationship? here—
(A) Doctor and Patient (A) ‗A‘ is bound to sing
(B) Customer and Shopkeeper (B) ‗A‘ is bound to compensate ‗B‘ for loss
(C) Lawyer and Client (C) ‗A‘ is bound to return the amount of advance
(D) Master and Servant (D) None of the above
ANS: (B) ANS: (C)

Q417. Difference between a contract and social Q423. ‗A‘ owes ‗B‘ 5,000. ‗A‘ pays to ‗B‘ 2,000
agreement is that of— and ‗B‘ accepts it in satisfaction of whole claim
(A) consideration on ‗A‘, here—
(B) intention to create legal relationship (A) whole debt is discharged
(C) consensus ad idem (B) no debt is discharged
(D) certainty of performance (C) a part of debt is discharged
ANS: (B) (D) none of the above
ANS: (A)
Q418. Match List-I with
List-II and select the answer by using the code Q424. A contingent contract dependent on the
given below the lists— List-I happening of future uncertain event can be
(a) Satyabrat Ghosh V. Manganeeram enforced when the event.
(b) Raj Rani V. Prem Adib (A) happens
(c) Entores Ltd. V. Miles for East Corporation (B) becomes impossible
(d) Harvey V. Facey (C) does not happen
List-II (D) none of the above
1. Invitation to Offer ANS: (A)
2. Communication of Acceptance
3. Minor‘s Agreement Q425. Point out the incorrect statement—
4. Doctrine of Frustration Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) A party who rightfully rescinds a contract is
(A) 1 2 3 4 entitled to compensation for his damages
(B) 4 3 1 2 (B) Where a person gives any bond for the
(C) 2 1 4 3 performance of any act in which the public is
(D) 4 3 2 1 interested, he shall be liable upon its breach, to pay
ANS: (D) the whole sum mentioned therein
(C) A party to the contract complaining of the
Q419. Assertion (A): A stranger to a contract can breach is not entitled to receive any compensation
not enforce the contract. Reason (R): He is not from the other party, if no actual damage or less is
party to contract and can not take benefit. proved to have been caused thereby
Codes: (D) The rule of compensation for loss or damages
(A) and (R) both are true and (R) is correct caused due to the breach of a contract contained in
explanation of (A) Section 73 of the Contract Act, does not apply to
(A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not the correct void agreements
explanation of (A) ANS: (C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false
(A) is false but (R) is true Q426. A promise to pay a debt barred by the law
ANS: (A) of limitation, has been made enforceable under
which section of the Indian Contract Act?
Q420. Damages allowed under Section 73 of the (A) Section 32
Indian Contract Act, are— (B) Section 47
(A) liquidated damages (C) Section 25
(B) compensatory damages (D) Section 8
(C) penal damages ANS: (C)
(D) none of the above
ANS: (B) Q427. Match List-I with
List-II and select the correct answer by using
Q421. Section 124 of Indian Contract Act, the code given below— List-I
includes under Contract of Indemnity the— (a) A Railway Time Table
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(b) Public Notification for Tender (D) International Labour Organization
(c) Picking up an article from shelves and ANS: (D)
putting it in his basket in a ‗Self-service Mall‘
(d) ‗A‘ says to ‗B‘ that if ‗A‘ s‘ offer is not Q433. Consider the following statements—
accepted, ‗B‘ should say ‗No‘ immediately. ‗B‘ 1. The General Assembly can request the
keeps silent International Court of Justice to give an
List-II advisory opinion on any legal question.
1. is invitation to offer 2. The General Assembly may authorize other
2. is a general offer organs and specialized agencies of the United
3. is acceptance of an offer Nations to seek such advise from International
4. it is not the acceptance of the offer Codes: Court of Justice.
(a) (b) (c) (d) 3. The Security Council has independent power
(A) 2 1 4 3 to seek advisory opinion on a legal question
(B) 1 2 3 4 from International Court of Justice. Of the
(C) 4 2 1 3 above statements—
(D) 3 4 2 1 (A) 1 and 2 are correct, but 3 is wrong
ANS: (A) (B) 1 and 3 are correct, but 2 is wrong
(C) 2 and 3 are correct, but 1 is wrong
Q428. Assertion (A): Agreement without (D) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
consideration is void. Reason (R): Consideration ANS: (D)
may be given by promisee or any other person.
Codes: Q434. What is the name of the Sixth Committee
(A) and (R) both are true and (R) is correct of the United Nations General Assembly?
explanation of (A) (A) Legal Committee
(A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not the correct (B) Economic and Financial Committee
explanation of (A) (C) Social, Humanitarian and Cultural Committee
(A) is true, but (R) is false (D) Disarmament and International Security
(A) is false but (R) is true Committee
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q429. Unlawful consideration and object have Q435. The year 2013 has been declared by the
been mentioned under which section of the United Nations General Assembly as—
Indian Contract Act, 1872? (A) International Year of Economic Cooperation
(A) Under Section 18 (B) International Year of Water Coopeeration
(B) Under Section 20 (C) Global Year of Social Co-operation
(C) Under Section 26 (D) Global Year of Cultural Co-operation
(D) Under Section 23 ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q436. United Nations Member States voted
Q430. On 27 January, 2012, G-4 made a joint overwhelmingly on 18 Nov., 2011 to readmit
bid focussing on expansion in both permanent which State as member of the United Nations
and non-permanent categories and improving Human Rights Council?
the working methods of the Security Council G- (A) Sudan
4 consisted of— (B) Congo
(A) India, Germany, Japan and Brazil (C) Libya
(B) India, Russia, Brazil and Egypt (D) Macedonia
(C) India, Indonesia, Japan and Brazil ANS: (C)
(D) Indonesia, Malaysia, Pakistan and Brazil
ANS: (A) Q437. The idea of Peace Building Commission
(PBC) was raised by—
Q431. Which country has conducted Nuclear (A) United States President Bush
Test in February 2013? (B) KofiAnnan
(A) Iran (C) Ban Ki Moon
(B) Israel (D) Shashi Tharoor
(C) South Korea ANS: (B)
(D) North Korea
ANS: (D) Q438. The name of the Italian vessel from
which the two Italian marine killed two Indian
Q432. Which one of the following is not a fisherman on Feb. 18, 2012 is—
principal organ of the United Nations? (A) Santa Maria
(A) International Court of Justice (B) Boz-Kourt
(B) Economic and Social Council (C) Lotus
(C) Trusteeship Council (D) Enrica Lexi
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ANS: (D) (C) Justice Arijit Pasayat
(D) Justice A. K. Patnaik
Q439. Which ‗World Bank Group‘ institution is ANS: (B)
not a ‗Specializied Agency‘ of the United
Nations? Q446. Which of the following State is not a
(A) International Development Association member of ‗SAARC‘?
(B) International Finance Corporation (A) Maldives
(C) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (B) Afghanistan
(D) International Bank for Reconstruction and (C) Myanmar
Development (D) Bhutan
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q440. On which date India became a member of Q447. The five year term for the Secretary
the United Nations? General of the United Nations has been fixed by
(A) On 24 October, 1945 the—
(B) On 30 October, 1945 (A) United Nations Charter
(C) On 26 June, 1945 (B) Resolution of United Nations General Assembly
(D) On 15 August, 1947 (C) Resolution of United Nations Security Council
ANS: (B) (D) On the basis of an advisory opinion of the
International Court of Justice
Q441. In which country the United Nations ANS: (B)
envoy Vijay Nambiar is working for peace in the
inter-communal violance between Rakhine Q448. The official language of the International
Buddhists and Rohingya Muslims? Court of Justice are—
(A) In Sri Lanka (A) French and English
(B) In Pakistan (B) Arabic and English
(C) In Bangladesh (C) German and English
(D) In Myanmar (D) Spanish and English
ANS: (D) ANS: (A)

Q442. What is EURO-III? Q449. What was the ‗theme‘ for the world
(A) A European Currency Human Rights Day, 2012?
(B) A Third European Film Festival (A) All Human Rights for all
(C) A one of the Group of European Countries (B) Women‘s Right as Human Right
(D) A Pollution Control Scale (C) Inclusion and the right to participation in public
ANS: (D) life
(D) Human Rights as People‘s Rights
Q443. Who has been appointed as the next ANS: (C)
permanent representative of India to the United
Nations on Feb. 13, 2013? Q450. Does United Nations, as an organisation
(A) Ashok Kumar Mukherjee has the capacity to bring an international claim
(B) Hardeep Singh Puri against a State in the International Court of
(C) Dilip Joshi Justice?
(D) Shashi Tharoor (A) Yes, because United Nations is also deemed to
ANS: (A) be a State
(B) No, because International Court of Justice is
open to the State parties to the Statute only
(C) Yes, because United Nations has a legal
personality
(D) None of the above is correct
Q444. In which city is the United Nations
ANS: (B)
Human Rights Council is based?
(A) Paris
Q451. Pope Benedict XVI has announced his
(B) London
resignation on 11 Feb., 2013 because of—
(C) Geneva
(A) current international terrorism
(D) New York
(B) frequent violation of human rights
ANS: (C)
(C) poor health
(D) dwindling world economy
Q445. Which Judge of the Supreme Court of
ANS: (C)
India was elected as a Judge of the International
Court of Justice in April, 2012?
Q452. On 29 November, 2012, the United
(A) Justice Swatanter Kumar
Nations General Assembly voted to make
(B) Justice Dalbir Bhandari
Palestine as—
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(A) the 194th Member State of United Nations symbol of a political party, during election
(B) the Non-voting Member of the United Nations period—
(C) a Non-member Observer State (A) does not violate Article 25 of the Constitution
(D) a Parmanent Invitee to General Assembly (B) violates Article 25 of the Constitution
Meetings (C) offends Preamble of the Constitution
ANS: (C) (D) infringes Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution
ANS: (A)
Q453. What is the number of States with
‗nuclear capabilities‘ as listed in Annexure 2 of Q460. The salaries and allowances of the Judges
C. T. B. T. (Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban of the Supreme Court of India are charged on—
Treaty)? (A) Ministry of Home Affairs
(A) 8 States (B) Ministry of Law
(B) 44 States (C) Contingency Fund of India
(C) 15 States (D) Consolidated Fund of India
(D) 35 States ANS: (D)
ANS: (B)
Q461. While deciding cases of terrorists, which
Q454. Which original member of the United procedure is to be followed?
Nations was not represented at the (A) Procedure established by law
SanFrancisco Conference in 1945 and did not (B) Procedure established by the Constitution
therefore sign the United Nations Charter on 26 (C) Both (A) and (B) above
June, 1945? (D) None of the above
(A) India ANS: (C)
(B) Belarus
(C) Poland Q462. In which of the following cases the Five
(D) Ukraine Judges Constitutional Bench observed that the
ANS: (C) ‗doctrine of postponement‘ was aimed at
balancing the right of an accused to be
Q455. Tripartite charter is the outstanding presumed innocent till completion of trial with
feature of— the media‘s Right to Freedom of Expression?
(A) International Labour Organization (A) Ajai Kumar Parmar V s. State of Rajasthan
(B) International Civil Aviation Organization (B) Sahara India Real State Corporation Ltd. and
(C) International Criminal Court others. Vs. Securities and Exchange Board of India
(D) None of the above (C) R. Rajagopal Vs. State of Tamil Nadu
ANS: (A) (D) Ajay Goswami Vs. Union of India
ANS: (B)
Q456. In Bhanumati V. State of U. P. (2010), the
Supreme Court in interpreting Article 243 C of Q463. Which one of the following is not the way
the Constitution applied the— of Termination of Citizenship?
(A) Doctrine of Colourable legislation (A) By renunciation
(B) Doctrine of Silence (B) By acquisition
(C) Doctrine of Pith and Substance (C) The tour journey of another State for few
(D) Doctrine of Basic features months
ANS: (B) (D) By deprivation
ANS: (C)
Q457. P. A. Sangma V. Pranab Mukherjee (2013)
case was decided by the Supreme Court— Q464. ―It shall be the duty of every citizen of
(A) unanimously India, who is a parent or guardian to provide
(B) by a majority of 3: 2 opportunities for education to his children or as
(C) by a majority of 6: 1 the case may be; ward between the age of six
(D) by a majority of 4: 1 and fourteen years.‖ By which Constitutional
ANS: (B) Amendment Act, this duty included?
(A) By 42nd Amendment
Q458. In which list is the subject ‗Pilgrimages (B) By 44th Amendment
Places outside India‘ enumerated? (C) By 86th Amendment
(A) Union List (D) By 92nd Amendment
(B) State List ANS: (C)
(C) Concurrent List
(D) None of the above Q465. Which one of the following is not
ANS: (A) included in Article 21 of the Constitution of
India?
Q459. Order of the Election Commission to (A) Right to Die
cover statutes of elephants being election (B) Right to Life
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(C) Right to Livelihood 3. M. R. Balaji V. State of Mysore
(D) Right to Dignity 4. A. I. I. M. S. Students‘ Union V. A. I. I. M. S.
ANS: (A) Codes:
(A) 3, 1, 2, 4
Q466. Which one of the following does not apply (B) 1, 2, 3, 4
to the term of office of Governor? (C) 4, 3, 2, 1
(A) The Governor shall hold the office during the (D) 2, 1, 4, 3
pleasure of the President ANS: (A)
(B) Minimum age for the post of Governor shall be
thirty-two year Q472. The binding force behind the Directive
(C) The Governor may resign by handwritten signed Principles of State Policy is—
addressed to the President (A) Public Opinion
(D) The term of Governor shall be five years (B) Government
ANS: (B) (C) Constitution
(D) Administration
Q467. In which of the following case the ANS: (A)
Supreme Court called Article 22 of the
Constitution as ―Ugly provision of the Q473. ‗Prorogation‘ means—
Constitution‖? (A) Inviting the Members of Parliament
(A) Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India (B) Asking Speaker to hold Session of Lok Sabha
(B) Keshvanand Bharti Vs. State of Kerala (C) Dissolution of Lok Sabha
(C) Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India (D) Termination of Session
(D) A. K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q474. Which one of the following statement is
Q468. The person associated with PIL is— not correct?
(A) Justice Bhagawati (A) No mandamus can be issued to enforce an Act
(B) Justice R. N. Mishra which has been passed by the Legislature
(C) Justice Venkitachelliah (B) Court can not issue any direction to the
(D) None of the above Legislature to make any particular kind of
ANS: (A) enactment
(C) Supreme Court may give a direction for
Q469. In which of the following decisions of the amending an Act
Supreme Court of India, a Seven Judges Bench (D) Under the Constitutional Scheme, Parliament
explained the concept of Public Interest and the States Legislatures exercise sovereign
Litigation? powers to enact law
(A) Mumbai Kamgar Sabha Vs. Abdullah ANS: (C)
(B) Akhil Bhartiya Shoshit Karamchari Sangh Vs.
Union of India Q475. In which provision of the Constitution of
(C) S. P. Gupta Vs. Union of India India is incorporated the ―principle of collective
(D) Neeraj Chaudhary Vs. State of U. P. responsibility‖ of the Council of Ministers?
ANS: (C) (A) Article 75(3)
(B) Article 75(1)
Q470. In which of the following decisions, the (C) Article 171(4)
Supreme Court observed that ―mercy petitions (D) Article 118(4)
filed under Articles 72 and 161 should be ANS: (A)
disposed of within a period of three months
from the date when it is received, as unwanted Q476. Discrimination by law in the marriageable
delays tend to shake the confidence in the age of a boy (21 years) and a girl (18 years)—
system of justice‖? (A) offends Article 14 of the Constitution
(A) Kuljeet Singh V. Lt. Governor of Delhi (B) does not offend Article 14 of the Constitution
(B) Maru Ram V. Union of India (C) is against Rule of Law
(C) Sher Singh V. State of Punjab (D) violates Human Right
(D) Kehar Singh V. Union of India ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q477. Who said that ―law is not to be deduced
Q471. Mention the chronology of the following from the rule but the rule from the law‖?
judgements of the Supreme Court of India, (A) Paulus
starting from the earliest upto the latest case. (B) Gray
Use the code given below— (C) Ulpian
1. Akhil Bhartiya Shoshit Karamchari Sangh V. (D) Salmond
Union of India ANS: (A)
2. Indra Sawhney V. Union of India
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Q478. ―The only right which any man can ANS: (A)
possess is the right always to do his duty‖, says:
(A) Ihering Q486. Which one of the following case is related
(B) Ehrlich to possession?
(C) Roscoe Pound (A) R. V. Chissers
(D) Duguit (B) Merry V. Green
ANS: (D) (C) R. V. Hudson
(D) Gallie V. Lei and others
Q479. Point out best response— According to
Austin, law has the following attributes— Q487. Which one of the following is not a legal
(A) Command, sovereign and enforceability person?
(B) Command, sovereign and sanction (A) Idol of Goddess Durga
(C) Command, sovereign and legal remedy (B) State of Kerala
(D) Command, sovereign and obedience by subject (C) A registered society
ANS: (B) (D) Mosque
ANS: (D)
Q480. Which one of the following jurists belongs
to ancient theories of natural law? Q488. Which one of the following is not an
(A) Acquinas element of legal right?
(B) Grotius (A) The subject i.e. holder of right
(C) Kohler (B) The object of right
(D) Socrates (C) The act or forbearance
ANS: (D) (D) Legal remedy
ANS: (D)
Q481. Which one of the following is not an
essential element of custom? Q489. Jurisprudence as a separate branch of
(A) Antiquity discipline was started by—
(B) Certainty (A) Hindu Scholars
(C) Peaceful enjoyment (B) Christian Community
(D) Inconsistency (C) Romans
ANS: (D) (D) Jews
ANS: (C)
Q482. Give correct response—
(A) The obiter dictum has binding force Q490. The ―Province and Function of Law‖
(B) Ratio decidendi has binding force named book was written by—
(C) Ratio decidendi and obiter dictum both have (A) Hart
binding force (B) Kelsen
(D) Neither ratio decidendi nor obiter dictum has (C) Pound
binding force (D) Julius Stone
ANS: (B) ANS: (D)

Q483. Which one of the following is not a Q491. Time barred debt is a—
safeguard against delegated legislation? (A) Perfect Right
(A) Parliamentary control (B) Imperfect Right
(B) Judicial control (C) Right in rem
(C) Publication (D) None of the above
(D) Public control ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q492. Punishment provided for kidnapping for
Q484. Point out incorrect response— Ownership ransom in Indian Penal Code is—
is classified in the following ways— (A) upto seven years imprisonment
(A) Corporeal and Incorporeal ownership (B) life imprisonment only
(B) Mediate and Immediate ownership (C) death sentence or life imprisonment
(C) Sole and Co-ownership (D) ten years rigorous imprisonment
(D) Vested and Contingent ownership ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
Q493. Which one of the following pairs is
Q485. Who prefers to call Austin‘s Analytical correctly matched?
School as Imperative School? (A) Counterfeit — Section 28
(A) Allen (B) Valuable security — Section 29
(B) Paton (C) Document — Section 30
(C) Salmond (D) Omission — Section 31
(D) Holland ANS: (A)
 MockTime.com
(b) Tabu Chetia V. State of Assam
Q494. In which one of the following offences (c) Vijayan V. State of Kerala
‗mens rea‘ is not an essential element? (d) State of U. P. V. Virendra Prasad
(A) Assault List-II
(B) Bigamy 1. Murder
(C) Defamation 2. Criminal conspiracy
(D) None of the above 3. Insanity
ANS: (B) 4. Mistake of fact Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
Q495. ‗A‘ handed over his watch to a (B) 1 3 4 2
watchsmith for repairing. In order to not pay (C) 4 3 2 1
the repairing charges ‗A‘ picked up his watch (D) 3 4 2 1
from the shop, when the watchsmith was not ANS: (C)
looking. In this case—
(A) ‗A‘ is guilty of criminal breach of trust Q500. Which one of the following statements is
(B) ‗A‘ is guilty of cheating correct?
(C) ‗A‘ is guilty of theft (A) In conspiracy, there is no distinction between
(D) ‗A‘ is not guilty of any offence because the principal and accessory
watch, he picked up was his own. However, he (B) In conspiracy principal and accessory are
should pay the repairing charges to watch-smith distinct
ANS: (C) (C) There has to be a distinction between principal
and accessory in all offences
Q496. Use of violence by a member of an (D) None of the above is correct.
assembly of five or more persons in furtherance ANS: (A)
of common object will constitute the offence
of— Q501. Under Indian Constitution, in
(A) Affray performance of his duties, Attorney-General for
(B) Assault India, shall have right of audience—
(C) Rioting (A) Only in Supreme Court
(D) Unlawful Assembly (B) Only in All the High Courts
ANS: (C) (C) In All Courts of India
(D) Only in Supreme Court and Tribunals
Q497. The phrase ―in furtherance of common established by Central Government
intention of all‖ used in Section 34 of Indian ANS: (C)
Penal Code, is—
(A) in the original draft Q502. Under Indian Constitution, Fundamental
(B) added by Amending Act of 1870 duties enshrined under Article 51 A does not
(C) not at all there includes the duty—
(D) added by Amending Act of 1986 (A) To uphold and protect sovereignty of India
ANS: (B) (B) To defend the country when called upon to do
so.
Q498. ‗A‘ meets a girl aged fifteen years in a (C) To value and preserve rich heritage of our
park. She tells him that she is sixteen years of composite culture
age and she is ill-treated at her house by her (D) To protect monuments, places and objects of
father and that she would be happy to be taken national importance
away from there. Thereafter ‗A‘ takes the girl to ANS: (D)
his house and allows her to remain there. In this
case— Q503. Which Article of Indian Constitution
(A) ‗A‘ has committed no offence as the girl has provides for reservation in matters of promotion
come with him with her own consent in services under the state in favour of
(B) ‗A‘ has committed no offence as the girl Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
misrepresented her age and ‗A‘ believed her (A) Article 16 (4-A)
matured and capable of consenting (B) Article 16 (4-B)
(C) ‗A‘ has committed the offence of kidnapping of (C) Article 16 (4)
minor from the lawful guardian (D) Article 15 (4)
(D) ‗A‘ has committed the offence of kidnapping and ANS: (A)
wrongful confinement
ANS: (C) Q504. Under Indian Constitution, the Supreme
Court may make rules for regulating the
Q499. Match List-I with practice and procedure of the Court with the
List-II and select the correct answer by using approval of—
the code given below the lists— List-I (A) Parliament
(a) Rex V. Levett (B) President

(C) Government of India
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
Q505. ―Indian National Anthem is a reflection of
the real India as a country—a confluence of
many religions, races, communities and
geographical entities. It is a message of unity in
diversity.‖ The above phrase of the Supreme
Court was taken from which of the following
judgement?
(A) Sanjeev Bhatnagar Vs. Union of India
(B) Union of India Vs. Naveen Jindal
(C) Sushanta Tagore Vs. Union of India
(D) Aruna Roy Vs. Union of India
ANS: (A)
Q506. Right to vote is a—
(A) Statutory right
(B) Constitutional right
(C) Fundamental right
(D) Customary Right Transfer of Property Act
ANS: (B)
Q507. Section 41 of the T. P. Act, 1882 is the
statutory application of the law of—
(A) Waiver
(B) Estoppel
(C) res judicata
(D) res subjudice
ANS: (B)
Q508. Under Transfer of Property Act, in the
absence of a Contract or local Law, Monthly
lease is terminable—
(A) By 15 days notice expiring with the end of a
month of the tenancy
(B) By One month‘s notice
(C) By Three month‘s notice to the opposite party
(D) By Sixty days notice
ANS: (A)
Q509. Under Transfer of Property Act, which of
the following is not transferable?
(A) Salary of a public officer after it has become
payable
(B) Right to receive offerings
(C) Right to receive verified compensation amount
(D) Right to repurchase
ANS: (A)
Q510. Under Transfer of Property Act, in which
of the following matter, the doctrine of lis
pendens does not apply?
(A) Court sales
(B) Property included in the plaint by an
amendment subsequent to sale
(C) Property belonging to a minor
(D) All of the above
ANS: (B)
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Q511. According to Sec. 54 of Transfer of
Property Act; a contract for the sale of
immovable property—
(A) Create any interest in the property
(B) Create charge on the property
(C) Confer title on the property
(D) A contract that a sale of such property shall
take place on term settled between the parties Civil
Procedure Code, 1908
ANS: (D)
Q512. Under Section-151 of Civil Procedure
Code, inherent powers can be exercised by the—
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court
(C) District Court
(D) Any Court
ANS: (D)
Q513. Under C.P.C. 1908, on death of either
parties to the suit after conclusion of hearing
and pronouncement of judgement, the suit—
(A) Shall abate
(B) Shall not abate
(C) May abate with the permission of court
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
Q514. Under C.P.C. 1908, if the court finds at
any stage that it has no pecuniary jurisdiction
with respect to the subject matter of the suit, it
will—
(A) dismiss the suit
(B) proceed with the suit
(C) amend the suit
(D) return the suit
ANS: (D)
Q515. Under C.P. Code, which of the following is
not a decree?
(A) Dismissal of suit in default
(B) Rejection of a plaint
(C) Dismissal of suit in default and Rejection of a
plaint Both
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
Q516. According to order 20 Rule 7 of civil
procedure code the decree shall bear the date
of—
(A) The day on which the judgement was
pronounced
(B) The day on which the decree was made
(C) The day on which plaint was filed
(D) The day on which final argument was heard
ANS: (A)
Q517. In a summary suit presented under order
37 Civil Procedure Code it is necessary for the
defendant to appear before the court within how
many days of the service of the summon of
appearance?
(A) 10 days

(B) 15 days
(C) 30 days
(D) 2 Month
ANS: (A)
Q518. Under C.P.C., which of the following is
not a suit of a civil nature?
(A) Suit for correcting the date of birth in the
service record
(B) Suit for declaration of the right to worship
(C) Suit for vindication of a mere dignity connected
with an office
(D) Suit for a religious office
ANS: (C)
Q519. Under C.P.C., a plaint can be rejected;
where the suit is instituted in a Court having—
(A) no inherent jurisdiction
(B) no pecuniary jurisdiction
(C) no territorial jurisdiction
(D) all of the above Indian Contract Act
ANS: (A)
Q520. Under Indian Contract Act, when does an
agreement becomes a contract?
(A) It is enforceable by law
(B) It is between parties competent to contract
(C) It is by the free consent of parties
(D) All of the above
ANS: (D)
Q521. ‗A‘ agree with ‗B‘ to discover treasure by
magic. Under Indian Contract Act, the
agreement is—
(A) Void
(B) Illegal
(C) Legal
(D) Valid agreement
ANS: (A)
Q522. A sent his servant B to trace his lost
nephew. When the servant had left ‗A‘
announced a reward of 501 to any one who
traces the boy. B found the boy and brought him
home. Then he came to know about the reward.
Under Indian Contract Act, can he claim the
reward?
(A) Yes, because offer is open for all
(B) Yes, after knowing the offer he could accept it
(C) No, because he did not know about the offer
when he found the missing boy
(D) No, because he is the servant of A
ANS: (C)
Q523. A hires a carriage of B. The carriage is
unsafe, though B is not aware of it, and A is
injured. Under Indian Contract Act, B is—
(A) responsible to A for the injury
(B) not responsible to A for the injury
(C) not responsible for A‘s injury because the injury
was not caused by B
(D) not responsible for A‘s injury because A should
have been alert himself Specific Relief Act, 1963
MockTime.com
ANS: (A)
Q524. Under Specific Relief Act, 1963, Specific
Relief may be granted—
(A) For enforcing individual civil rights
(B) For enforcing a Penal law
(C) For enforcing both Civil law and a Penal law
(D) For enforcing public rights
ANS: (A)
Q525. The declaration given U/S 34 of the
Specific Relief Act is binding on whom?
(A) Only on the parties to the Suit
(B) On the persons claiming through parties to the
Suit
(C) Trustee of the trust which is party to the Suit
(D) All of the above
ANS: (D)
Q526. Which of the following contract cannot be
specifically enforced as per the provisions of
section 14 of the specific relief act?
(A) A contracts to marry B
(B) A contracts with B, that, in consideration of
1000 to be paid to him by B, he will paint a picture
for B
(C) A, an author, contracts with B, A publisher, to
complete a literary work
(D) All of the above
ANS: (D)
Q527. An order or decree passed in a suit
presented u/s 6 of the Specific Relief Act is—
(A) Appealable
(B) Reviewable
(C) Neither Appealable nor Reviewable
(D) Appealable and Reviewable Both Limitation Act,
1963
ANS: (C)
Q528. Under Limitation Act 1963, in computing
the period of limitation for any suit, the day
from which such period is to be reckoned—
(A) Shall be excluded
(B) Shall be included
(C) May not be excluded
(D) May be included
ANS: (A)
Q529. As per Section 5 of Limitation Act 1963,
prescribed period of limitation may not be
extended in case of—
(A) Any appeal
(B) Any application
(C) An application under Order 21 of the Code of
Civil Procedure
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C)
Q530. Under Limitation Act 1963, the
prescribed period of limitation for suit for
compensation for a malicious prosecution is—
(A) one year
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(B) two years ANS: (A)
(C) three years
(D) five years Q537. Under M.P. Accommodation Control Act,
ANS: (A) 1961, where a landlord has acquired any
accommodation by transfer, no suit for the
Q531. Law of Limitation ordinarily bars a eviction of tenant shall be maintainable on the
remedy, but does not extinguish a right.‘ Which ground of bonafide need for residence, unless a
of the following Section of the Limitation Act, period of…has elapsed from the date of the
1963, provides for exception to the said rule? acquisition.
(A) Section 5 (A) six months
(B) Section 9 (B) one year
(C) Section 25 (C) two years
(D) Section 27 M. P. Accommodation Control Act, (D) three years
1961 ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q538. Under M.P. Accommodation Control Act,
Q532. Under M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961, in a suit for eviction, the tenant shall
1961, when the defence against eviction of the deposit in the Court or pay to the landlord the
tenant can be struck out? arrears of rent within which period from the
(A) On non payment of amount as per Section 13 service of writ of summons—
(B) When tenant is not personally present in the (A) fifteen days
court (C) one month
(C) When tenant has not filed his written (B) two months
submission within prescribed time (D) six months
(D) On furnishing false information in the ANS: (B)
application
ANS: (A) Q539. Under M. P. Accommodation Control Act,
1961, where shall the tenant file a complaint
Q533. Under which provision of M.P. when the landlord with holds the essential
Accommodation Control Act, 1961, penalties supply?
can be imposed on a landlord and tenant? (A) Sub Divisional Officer
(A) Section 42 (B) Collector
(B) Section 43 (C) Rent Controlling Authority
(C) Section 44 (D) Civil Court M. P. Land Revenue Code, 1959
(D) Section 45 ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
Q540. Under M. P. L. R. C., 1959, on all lands on
Q534. The Provisions of M. P. Accommodation which the assessment has not been made, the
Control Act applies to— assessment of land revenue shall be made by—
(A) Only Municipal corporation area (A) Tahsildar
(B) Only Municipal corporation and Nagar Palika (B) Sub Divisional Officer
area (C) Collector
(C) Only those areas as specified in the first (D) State government
schedule ANS: (C)
(D) Whole of Madhya Pradesh
ANS: (C) Q541. Under M.P.L.R,C., 1959, within how many
days can the non tribal Bhumiswami may apply
Q535. Under M.P. Accommodation Control Act, for restoration of possession of his land from
1961, what is the maximum period for which where he has been illegally dispossessed?
standard rent shall be fixed for a tenancy? (A) 2 years
(A) Six month (B) 1 year
(B) One Year (C) 6 months
(C) Two Year (D) 3 months
(D) Three Year ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q542. Any dispute between the state
Q536. Which of the following is not a ‗member government and any person in respect of any
of the family‘ for the purpose of M.P. right under sec 57(1) of the M. P. Land Revenue
Accommodation Control Act, 1961? Code shall be decided by the—
(A) Married daughter (A) Sub divisional officer
(B) Major unmarried sister (B) Collector
(C) Brother‘s major unmarried daughter (C) Commissioner
(D) All of the above (D) State government

ANS: (D)
Q543. The offence under Section 250-B of the
M.P. Land Revenue Code, is—
(A) Non-cognizable and bailable offence
(B) Cognizable and non-bailable offence
(C) Cognizable and bailable offence
(D) Non-cognizable and non-bailable offence
ANS: (B)
Q544. Under M.P. L.R.C., 1959, which of the
following Revenue Officer is empowered, after
the closure of the revenue surveys and during
the term of settlement, to correct any errors in
the area of any holding due to mistake of
arithmetical miscalculation?
(A) Sub-Divisional Officer
(B) Collector
(C) Settlement Commissioner
(D) Commissioner
ANS: (A)
Q545. A person who, at the time of coming into
force of the M.P. Land Revenue Code. 1959,
held a land as a pattedar tenant in the Vindhya
Pradesh region, shall be called—
(A) Bhumiswami
(B) Government lessee
(C) Occupancy tenant
(D) Bonafide agriculturist
ANS: (A)
Q546. Under M.P.L.R.C., 1959, which of the
following matter is not in exclusive jurisdiction
of revenue authorities?
(A) Any claim to modify a decision determining
abadi made by a Settlement Officer or Collector
(B) The amount of Land Revenue assessed or
reassessed under this Code or any other enactment
for the time being in force
(C) Any claim against the State Government to have
any entry made in any land records or to have any
such entry omitted or amended
(D) Any dispute to which the State Government is
not a party relating to any right which is recorded
in the record of rights
ANS: (D)
Q547. Under which section of M.P.L.R.C
occupancy tenants defined?
(A) Section 158
(B) Section 181
(C) Section 183
(D) Section 185
ANS: (D)
Q548. Any right lawfully acquired by a person in
any land shall be reported by the person u/s
109 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code to—
(A) Patwari
(B) Tahsildar
(C) Sub Divisional Officer
(D) Settlement Officer Indian Evidence Act, 1872
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ANS: (A)
Q549. Under Indian Evidence Act, the evidence
given by dog squad is—
(A) Not admissible
(B) Not admissible because dependent on the
canine inference
(C) Dogs cannot give evidence on oath
(D) Admissible
ANS: (D)
Q550. If an accused voluntarily consents for
brain mapping and narco-analysis, then such
information is relevant under which section of
Evidence Act?
(A) Section 7
(B) Section 17
(C) Section 27
(D) Section 30
ANS: (C)
Q551. An, accused of murder, alleges that, by
grave and sudden provocation, he was deprived
of the power of self-control. Under Indian
Evidence Act, the burden of proof is on—
(A) Prosecution
(B) Accused
(C) Victim
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
Q552. A prosecutes B for adultery with C, A‘s
wife. B denies that C is A‘s wife, but the Court
convicts B of adultery. Afterwards C is
prosecuted for bigamy in marrying B during A‘s
lifetime. C says that she never was A‘s wife.
Under Indian Evidence Act, the judgement
against B is—
(A) Irrelevant
(B) Relevant
(C) Conclusive proof
(D) Taking effect of estoppel
ANS: (A)
Q553. A, agrees, in writing, to sell a horse to B
for ― 1,000 or 1,500. To show which price was to
be given, under Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Evidence can be given
(B) Evidence cannot be given
(C) Evidence can be given by the Court‘s permission
(D) Can be proved as secondary evidence
ANS: (B)
Q554. A sues B for 1000 and shows entries in
his account-books showing B to be indebted to
him to this amount. Under Indian Evidence
Act—
(A) The entries are relevant but are not sufficient,
without other evidence, to prove the debt.
(B) The entries are sufficient, without other
evidence, to prove the debt.
(C) The entries are not relevant but are sufficient,
without other evidence, to prove the debt
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(D) The entries are neither relevant nor sufficient, ANS: (C)
to prove the debt
ANS: (A) Q561. A holds B down and fraudulently takes
B‘s cell phone from B‘s trouser without his
Q555. The term ‗Court‘, as defined in the Indian consent. Under Indian Penal Code, A commits
Evidence Act, 1872, does not include— the offence of—
(A) Presiding Officer of a Labour Court (A) robbery
(B) Tahsildar (B) extortion
(C) Arbitrator (C) dacoity
(D) Commissioner appointed by a Civil Court Indian (D) criminal misappropriation
Penal Code, 1860 ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q562. A obtains a decree against B for a sum
Q556. Which section of IPC is based on the not due. It may be an offence under I.P.C. if ‗A‘
maxim ―de minimis non curat lex‖ (the law has done so—
takes no account of trifles)? (A) negligently
(A) Section 91 (B) fraudulently
(B) Section 92 (C) in good faith
(C) Section 94 (D) None of the above
(D) Section 95 ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q563. Under I.P.C., sexual intercourse by a man
Q557. Under which provision of the IPC with a woman who is not his wife with her
appropriate Government may commute the consent is a rape, if she is below the age of—
punishment of imprisonment for life? (A) 16 years
(A) Section 52 (B) 17 years
(B) Section 53 (C) 18 years
(C) Section 54 (D) 19 years Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
(D) Section 55 ANS: (C)
ANS: (D)
Q564. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973,
Q558. According to Indian Penal Code, taking who empowers the Judicial Magistrate First
property dishonestly from the dead body Class for summary trails?
(A) Does not amount any offence (A) The State Government
(B) Amount to the offence of theft (B) The High Court
(C) Amount to the offence of Criminal (C) The Sessions Court
misappropriation (D) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(D) Amount to the offence of criminal breach of ANS: (B)
trust
ANS: (C) Q565. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973,
who shall record the information of rape being
Q559. According to Indian Penal Code, Any man given by a rape victim?
who monitors the use by a woman of the (A) Officer incharge of the police station
internet, email or any other form of electronic (B) Deputy Superintendent of Police
communication commits the offence of— (C) Officer not below the rank of a Sub Inspector
(A) Voyeurism (D) Woman Police Officer or any Woman Officer
(B) Stalking ANS: (D)
(C) Watching
(D) Searching Q566. Who can record statement and confession
ANS: (B) U/S 164 of the Cr. P.C.?
(A) Police Officers
(B) Judicial Magistrate
(C) Executive Magistrate
(D) Investigating Officer
ANS: (B)
Q560. Under Indian Penal Code, the
imprisonment, which the Court imposes in
Q567. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, a
default of payment of fine, may be of the
magistrate can commit a case to Court of
following description—
Session which is not exclusively triable by the
(A) only simple
Court of Session if it appears to him that the
(B) rigorous
case is such that—
(C) of either description
(A) Which could not be adequately punished by him
(D) depends on the quantum of fine

(B) Some question of law of unusual difficulty is
likely to arise
(C) He has no jurisdiction to try the case
(D) The case is one which ought to be tried by the
court of session
ANS: (D)
Q568. Under Criminal Procedure Code, when the
inquiry or trial relates to an offence u/s 376 to
376 D of the Indian Penal Code within which
period the inquiry or trial shall as far as possible
be completed from the date of filling of the
charge sheet?
(A) One month
(B) Two months
(C) Three months
(D) Sixth months
ANS: (B)
Q569. Under Cr. P.C., a Magistrate First Class
may order to make a monthly allowance for the
maintenance at the monthly rate of—
(A) five hundred rupees
(B) three thousand rupees
(C) five thousand rupees
(D) as Magistrate think fit
ANS: (D)
Q570. Inherent power under section 482 of the
Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 can be
exercised by—
(A) Sessions Court
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(D) Any Judicial Magistrate
ANS: (B)
Q571. When may an accomplice be tendered
pardon under Section 306 of Criminal Procedure
Code?
(A) Only at the stage of investigation
(B) Only at the stage of enquiry
(C) Only at the stage of trail
(D) At any stage of enquiry of investigation or the
trail Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881
ANS: (D)
Q572. To Constitute an offence under section
138, Negotiable Instrument Act, within how
many days the cheque should be presented to
the bank from the date on which it is drawn?
(A) No limit
(B) 1 Month
(C) 3 Months
(D) 6 Months or within the period of its validity
ANS: (D)
Q573. Under Section 118 of Negotiable
Instrument Act 1881, what presumption shall
not be made?
(A) the holder of a cheque received the cheque for
the discharge of any debt or other liability
(B) consideration
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(C) time of acceptance
(D) order of endorsements
ANS: (A)
Q574. The maximum amount of fine which can
be imposed u/s 138 of Negotiable Instrument
Act is—
(A) Ten thousand rupees
(B) One lakh rupees
(C) Equal to the cheque‘s amount
(D) Twice of the cheque‘s amount
ANS: (D)
Q575. Under Negotiable Instrument Act 1881,
how many times, a holder of a cheque can
present it before a bank during the period of its
validity?
(A) Only once
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) Any number of times
ANS: (D)
Q576. As per section 2(12) of CPC, ‗mesne
profits‘ of property are profits received by a
person in—
(A) Unlawful possession of the property
(B) Wrongful possession of the property
(C) Lawful possession of the property
(D) Effective possession of the property
ANS: (B)
Q577. A decree is preliminary—
(A) When it is issued in the preliminary stages of
the suit
(B) When further proceedings have to be taken or
the suit to be completely disposed of
(C) When it deals with some preliminary issues
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
Q578. That a petition dismissed under Article
226 would operate as res judicata so as to bar a
similar petition in the Supreme Court under
Article 32 of the Constitution was held in the
case of—
(A) Daryao Vs. State of U.P.
(B) Arjun Singh Vs. State of M. P.
(C) Sudhir Chandra Vs. State of W.B.
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
Q579. Which of the following is true?
(A) The pendency of suit in a foreign court
precludes the courts in India from a trying a similar
suit
(B) The pendency of a suit in a foreign court
precludes the courts in India from trying a similar
suit provided the suit is founded on the same cause
of action
(C) The pendency of a suit in a foreign court does
not preclude the courts in India from trying similar
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suit even if it is founded on the same cause of Q586. The stipulation that in a suit by the
action Central Government, the authority to be named
(D) None of the above as plaintiff shall be ‗The Union of India‘ has
ANS: (C) been provided for in Section—
(A) 78
Q580. ―Any relief claimed in the plaint, which is (B) 79
not expressly granted by the decree, shall, for (C) 79A
the purposes of this section, be deemed to have (D) 77
been refused.‖ This provision is incorporated ANS: (B)
in—
(A) Section 11, Explanation II Q587. Which of the following is true?
(B) Section 11, Explanation III (A) Alien enemies residing in Indian can never sue
(C) Section 11, Explanation IV (B) Alien enemies residing in India may sue with
(D) Section 11, Explanation V the permission of the Central Government
ANS: (D) (C) Alien enemies residing in India may sue with
the permission of the State Government in whose
Q581. The general power to transfer suits under jurisdiction they are residing
section 24 has been granted to— (D) Alien enemies can sue in any court
(A) High Court ANS: (A)
(B) District Court
(C) Both (A) and (B) Q588. Under Section 89 of CPC, the court
(D) Supreme Court cannot make a reference for—
ANS: (C) (A) Arbitration
(B) Conciliation
Q582. Under Section 32 of CPC, the maximum (C) Negotiation
fine which can be imposed by the court for (D) Mediation
compelling the attendance of any person to ANS: (C)
whom a summons has been issued under
Section 30— Q589. No second appeal shall lie from any
(A) Two thousand rupees decree when the subject matter of the original
(B) Three thousand rupees suit is for recovery of money not exceeding—
(C) One thousand rupees (A) Fifteen thousand rupees
(D) Five thousand rupees (B) Twenty thousand rupees
ANS: (D) (C) Twenty-five thousand rupees
(D) Thirty thousand rupees
Q583. Precepts are issued under Section 46 of ANS: (C)
CPC for—
(A) Serving summons on persons residing beyond Q590. The authority to annul, alter or add to
local jurisdiction the rules in the First Schedule of the Code of
(B) Serving a warrant on the judgmentdebtor Civil Procedure rests with the—
(C) Attaching the property of the judgmentdebtor (A) High Court
(D) None of the above (B) State Government
ANS: (C) (C) Supreme Court with the previous approval of
rules by the Central Government
Q584. Under Section 58 of CPC, a person (D) High Court with the previous approval of rules
detained shall be released from the detention on by the State Government
the amount mentioned in the warrant of his ANS: (D)
detention being paid to—
(A) The officer appointed by the court Q591. Assault or use of criminal force otherwise
(B) The court than on grave provocation under Section 353 of
(C) The officer in charge of the civil prison the IPC is which kind of offence?
(D) None of the above (A) Bailable and Cognizable
ANS: (C) (B) Bailable and Non-cognizable
(C) Non-bailable and Cognizable
Q585. Which of the following property is not (D) Non-bailable and Non-cognizable
liable to be attached and sold in the execution ANS: (C)
of a decree?
(A) Money Q592. Attempt to commit suicide is triable by—
(B) Hundis (A) Court of Session
(C) Electricity (B) Magistrate of the first class
(D) None of the above (C) Any Magistrate
ANS: (C) (D) Executive Magistrate
ANS: (C)
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security for good behaviour from habitual
Q593. The definition of the ‗victim‘ was offenders within his local jurisdiction?
incorporated in the Code of Criminal Procedure (A) Judicial Magistrate First Class
by the Amendment Act of— (B) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(A) 2009 (C) District Magistrate
(B) 2010 (D) Executive Magistrate
(C) 2011 ANS: (D)
(D) 2008
ANS: (D) Q599. Which of the following person cannot
claim maintenance under Section 125 of
Q594. The stipulation that all offences under Cr.P.C.?
Indian Penal Code would be tried according to (A) A legitimate child who after attaining majority
the provisions in Code of Criminal Procedure, is cannot maintain himself by reason of economic
contained in which Section? hardship
(A) 5 (B) An illegitimate child who after attaining majority
(B) 4 cannot maintain himself by reason of economic
(C) 3 hardship
(D) 6 (C) Both (A) and (B)
ANS: (B) (D) None of the above
ANS: (C)
Q595. In relation to the commission of which of
the following offence, the general public does Q600. Which one of the following is not an act
not have a duty under Section 39 of Cr.P.C. to for the prevention of which and order cannot be
give information to the nearest Magistrate or made under Section 144 Cr. P.C.?
police officer? (A) Disturbance of the Public Tranquillity
(A) Criminal breach of trust by public servant (B) Annoyance to any person lawfully employed
(B) Kidnapping for ransom (C) Injury to any person lawfully employed
(C) Mischief by destroying a lighthouse (D) None of the above
(D) House-trespass in order to commit offence ANS: (D)
punishable with imprisonment
ANS: (B) Q601. Which of the following is a ground on
which a witness under Section 161(2) of Cr.P.C.
Q596. Which one of the following is not a may refuse to answer questions put by a police
necessary requirement for a proper procedure of officer?
arrest under Section 41B of Cr.P.C.? (A) Answers would have a tendency to expose him
(A) The police officer shall bear an accurate to a criminal charge
identification of his name (B) Answers would have a tendency to expose him
(B) The police officer shall bear a visible and clear to a penalty
identification of his name (C) Answers would have a tendency to expose him
(C) The police officer shall prepare a memorandum to a forfeiture
of arrest to be countersigned by the person arrested (D) All of the above
(D) The police officer shall inform the person ANS: (D)
arrested that he has the right of legal counsel
during interrogation Q602. Any court may alter or add to any charge
ANS: (D) any time before—
(A) The closing of arguments
Q597. Under Section 53A of Cr.P.C. when a (B) The judgement is written
person is arrested on the charge of committing (C) The judgement is pronounced
rape, the arrestee may be examined by a (D) None of the above
registered medical practitioner other than a ANS: (C)
registered medical practitioner employed in a
hospital run by the Government or by a local Q603. Chapter XXIA ofthe Cr.P.C.
authority when the later is not available within wasincorporated in the year—
a radius of sixteen kilometres from the place— (A) 2005
(A) Where the offence has been committed (B) 2006
(B) Where the arrest was made (C) 2004
(C) Where the nearest police station is situated (D) 2003
(D) Where the nearest court is situated ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q604. In case of plea Bargaining by the parties—
Q598. Which one of the following Magistrate is (A) No judgement may be delivered by the court
authorised under Section 110 Cr.P.C. to require (B) Judgement may be delivered in private to the
parties
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(C) Judgement shall be delivered in the open court (B) Rashness
(D) The bargain struck by the parties is to operate (C) Motive
as the Judgement (D) Ill-will
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q605. In which of the following cases it has Q612. Oral admission as to contents of
been held that presence of a lawyer at the time electronic records are relevant when—
of interrogation cannot be demanded as a (A) The party proposing to prove them shows that
matter of right? he is entitled to give secondary evidence of the
(A) Poolpandi and other Vs. Superintendent, same
Central Excise (B) The genuineness of the electronic record
(B) Senior Intelligence Officer Vs. Jugol Kishore produced is in question
Samra (C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above ANS: (C)
ANS: (C)
Q613. Which one of the following has not been
Q606. The Information Technology Amendment mentioned as a ground under section 24
Act came into force in— rendering a confession by an accused person
(A) 2008 irrelevant?
(B) 2009 (A) Inducement
(C) 2007 (B) Promise
(D) 2010 (C) Deceit
ANS: (B) (D) Threat
ANS: (C)
Q607. Which of the following is not a ‗fact‘?
(A) Mental condition Q614. Section 32 of Evidence Act does not
(B) Relation of things speak of which of the following kind of persons?
(C) State of things (A) Person who is dead
(D) None of the above (B) Person who cannot be found
ANS: (D) (C) Person who is unwilling to give evidence
(D) Person who has become incapable of giving
Q608. Which one of the following has not been evidence
mentioned in the definition of ‗Documents‘ as ANS: (C)
the means by which any matter is expressed or
described upon any substance? Q615. Under Section 45 of Evidence Act, which
(A) Letters of the following have not been mentioned as
(B) Figures points on which opinion of experts is relevant?
(C) Symbols (A) Point of foreign law
(D) Marks (B) Point of art
ANS: (C) (C) Point of domestic law
(D) Point of science
Q609. ‗Res Gestae‘ literally means— ANS: (C)
(A) Things done
(B) Things spoken Q616. Under Section 57 of the Evidence Act,
(C) Same transaction the court is not bound to take judicial notice of
(D) Things then which of the following facts?
ANS: (C) (A) The existence of every state recognised by the
Government of India
Q610. The stipulation that facts which enable (B) The title of every state recognised by the
the court to determine the amount of damages Government of India
are relevant is incorporated in Section ……… of (C) The national flag of every state recognised by
Evidence Act. the Government of India
(A) 12 (D) The national emblem of every state recognised
(B) 10 by the Government of India
(C) 8 ANS: (D)
(D) 11
ANS: (A) Q617. The Best Evidence Rule in relation to
documentary evidence is incorporated in
Q611. Which of the following state of minds has section—
not been expressly mentioned in section 14 of (A) 61
the Indian Evidence Act? (B) 64
(A) Intention (C) 65
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(D) 66 (B) There can be further cross-examination after re-
ANS: (D) examination as per Section 137
(C) There can be further cross-examination after re-
Q618. Which one of the following is not a public examination as per Section 138
document? (D) There can be further cross-examination after re-
(A) Documents forming records of acts of tribunals examination as per Section 139
(B) Documents forming records of acts of public ANS: (C)
officers of India
(C) Documents forming records of acts of public Q625. Indecent and scandalous questions may
officers of a foreign country be forbidden by the court under—
(D) Public records kept of private documents (A) Section 149
ANS: (D) (B) Section 150
(C) Section 151
Q619. A person is presumed to be alive if it is (D) Section 152
shown that he was alive within ……… years. ANS: (C)
(A) fourteen
(B) twenty Q626. In relation to devolution of joint
(C) seven liabilities, as a general rule the Indian Contract
(D) thirty Act incorporates the principle of—
ANS: (D) (A) Survivorship
(B) Succession
Q620. The rule that once the terms of any (C) Both (A) and (B)
contract have been proved by documentary (D) None of the above
evidence, no evidence of any oral statement ANS: (A)
shall be admitted for contradicting such terms
has ……… provisos establishing variations to the Q627. An agreement enforceable by law at the
rule. instance of one party and not of other party
(A) 6 under Section 2(i) is called—
(B) 4 (A) A valid contract
(C) 3 (B) An illegal contract
(D) 7 (C) A void contract
ANS: (A) (D) A voidable contract
ANS: (D)
Q621. If a child is born within ……… days after
the dissolution of a valid marriage, it is a
conclusive proof of the legitimacy of the child.
(A) 270
(B) 275
Q628. Competency to contract relates to—
(C) 280
(A) Age of the parties
(D) 285
(B) Soundness of mind of the parties
ANS: (C)
(C) Both age and soundness of mind
(D) Intelligence of the parties
Q622. Which of the following does not figure in
ANS: (C)
section 115 while dealing with applying the
principle of Estoppel?
Q629. A general offer open for world at large can
(A) Conduct
be accepted—
(B) Act
(A) By sending a communication `of acceptance
(C) Omission
(B) By complying with the conditions of offer
(D) Declaration
(C) By tendering himself to comply the conditions of
ANS: (A)
offer
(D) None of the above
Q623. The provisions of Section 126 of the
ANS: (B)
Evidence Act dealing with confidentiality of
professional communication shall apply to—
Q630. A sub-agent is responsible to the
(A) Clerks of barristers
principal on which of the following grounds?
(B) Servants of pleaders
(A) Fraud or Negligence
(C) Interpreters of barristers
(B) Negligence or Deceit
(D) All of the above
(C) Wilful wrong or Fraud
ANS: (D)
(D) Wilful wrong or Negligence
ANS: (C)
Q624. Which of the following is true?
(A) There cannot be further cross-examination after
re-examination
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Q631. Which of the following Section of the (D) Prohibition
Indian Contract Act provides that the ANS: (B)
responsibility of finder of goods is similar to
that of a bailee? Q638. Which one of the following is a ground on
(A) 69 which the state can impose reasonable
(B) 70 restrictions on the right to move freely
(C) 71 throughout the territory of India?
(D) 72 (A) Security of the State
ANS: (C) (B) Decency
(C) Morality
Q632. Under Section 6 of the Specific Relief (D) Protecting the Interests of any Scheduled Tribe
Act, 1963, a person cannot sue for recovering ANS: (D)
the possession of immovable property—
(A) After six months from the date of dispossession Q639. As per Article 21A, the state shall provide
(B) After nine months from the date of free and compulsory education to all children of
dispossession the age of—
(C) After twelve months from the date of (A) Six to fourteen years
dispossession (B) Six to twelve years
(D) After twenty-four months from the date of (C) Six to ten years
dispossession (D) Six to eighteen years
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q633. Which one of the following is not a Q640. According to Article 50, the state shall
ground on which a reasonable restrictions on take steps to—
the right to freedom of speech and expression (A) Separate the judiciary from the executive in the
can be imposed? public services of the state
(A) Security of the State (B) Separate functioning of judiciary from executive
(B) Public Order (C) Separate the powers of judiciary from the
(C) Morality executive
(D) Public Policy (D) Separate the powers of judiciary from the
ANS: (D) legislature
ANS: (A)
Q634. Which of the following is included in the
definition of ‗law‘ as provided in Article 13? Q641. What is the minimum age to be eligible
(A) Bye-Law for becoming the President of India?
(B) Custom having the force of law (A) 35
(C) Usage having the force of law (B) 45
(D) All of the above (C) 55
ANS: (D) (D) 25
ANS: (A)
Q635. Which one of the following is a ground
which is not mentioned in both Articles 15 and Q642. When the President is to be impeached,
Article 16 on which the State cannot the charge shall be preferred by—
discriminate? (A) Either House of the Parliament
(A) Race (B) The Upper House of the Parliament
(B) Caste (C) The Lower House of the Parliament
(C) Residence (D) Both the Houses of the Parliament
(D) Place of Birth simultaneously
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q636. Practising untouchability is—
(A) Violation of a constitutional right
(B) A criminal offence
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Violation of a legal right only
ANS: (C)
Q643. What is the meaning of ‗lex loci‘?
(A) Law of land
(B) Sovereignty is essential for enacting laws
(C) Law of the land is supreme
(D) Crown has supreme authority
ANS: (A)

Q637. Petitions to the Supreme Court under Q644. The words ‗Socialist‘ and ‗Secular‘ were
Article 32 are subject to the rule of Res judicata inserted in the Preamble by amendment of the
except— Constitution—
(A) Quo Warranto (A) 15th
(B) Habeas Corpus (B) 39th
(C) Certiorari (C) 42th
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(D) 44th Q651. Which of the following Section deal with
ANS: (C) an implied warranty in every contract of sale?
(A) 14(a)
Q645. As far as Armed Forces are concerned the (B) 14(b)
fundamental rights granted under Articles 14 (C) 15
and 19 of the Constitution are— (D) 16(2)
(A) Not available at all ANS: (B)
(B) Available to armed forces but not to other forces
(C) Available only at the discretion of the Chief of Q652. Which of the following rights of an
Army Staff unpaidseller can be exercised only when the
(D) Available only according to law made by buyer has become insolvent and not otherwise?
Parliament (A) Right of lien
ANS: (D) (B) Right of Re-sale
(C) Right of Stoppage in transit
Q646. The following are not included in the (D) Right to Sue
right to personal liberty— ANS: (C)
(A) Right to go abroad
(B) Right to human dignity Q653. As per Section 41, the buyer must have
(C) Right to undertrial prisoners not to be detained the reasonable opportunity to examine the
for unreasonably long period goods for the purpose of ascertaining—
(D) Right not to be detained beyond 24 hours in (A) The goods are in a deliverable state
police custody (B) The goods are of merchantable quality
ANS: (D) (C) The goods are in conformity with the contract
(D) All of the above
Q647. During the Proclamation of Emergency, ANS: (C)
the duration of the House of People may be
extended by the Parliament for a period not Q654. Within how many months of attaining
exceeding ……… at a time. majority, a minor admitted into the benefits of
(A) one year a partnership firm must decide whether he
(B) six months wants to become a partner in the firm?
(C) nine months (A) Two
(D) eighteen months (B) Three
ANS: (A) (C) Six
(D) Twelve
Q648. When the President refers a matter to the ANS: (C)
Supreme Court—
(A) The court is bound to render its opinion Q655. Generally, an introduction of a new
(B) The court is bound to render its opinion when it partner in a partnership firm would require the
is a dispute of the kind mentioned in the Proviso to consent of—
Article 131 (A) The majority of the partners
(C) The court is bound to render its opinion when it (B) All the partners
is a dispute of the kind mentioned in Article 71 (C) The majority of partners barring the dormant
(D) The court is bound to render its opinion when it partners
is a dispute of the kind mentioned in Article 72 (D) The partners havingmajority share in the firm
ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q649. Which of the following grounds is Q656. Which of the following Sections deals
necessary to be proved in order to remove a with Personal bars to the remedy of specific
speaker of any Legislative Assembly? relief?
(A) Misbehaviour (A) 14
(B) Incapacity (B) 15
(C) Conduct involving moral turpitude (C) 16
(D) None of the above (D) 17
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q650. Questions as to the age of a judge of a Q657. The period of limitation for a suit to
High Court are to be decided by— claim compensation for false imprisonment is—
(A) President (A) One year
(B) Chief Justice of the concerned High Court (B) Two years
(C) Governor (C) Three years
(D) Chief Justice of India (D) Twelve years
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)
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Q658. Which section of the Haryana Urban ANS: (D)
(Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973 deals
with eviction of tenants? Q665. A Hindu man wants to adopt a girlchild.
(A) 10 The difference in age between the two should
(B) 11 be—
(C) 12 (A) At least 21 years
(D) 13 (B) At least 15 years
ANS: (D) (C) At least 24 years
(D) None of the above
Q659. A petition for divorce may be presented ANS: (A)
under Section 13(1) A if even after the passing
of a decree for restitution of conjugal rights, Q666. Under the Hindu Adoptions and
which have not been restored for a period of at Maintenance Act, a wife will not be entitled to
least— maintenance if—
(A) 2 years (A) She is unchaste
(B) 6 months (B) Her husband has ceased to be a Hindu
(C) 1 year (C) She is suffering from a venereal disease in
(D) 18 months communicable form
ANS: (C) (D) All of the above
ANS: (A)
Q660. Naveen Kohli Vs. Neelu Kohli‘s case dealt
with— Q667. A Nikah solemnised in the absence of
(A) Irretrievable breakdown of marriage Qazi is—
(B) Adultery (A) Valid
(C) Divorce by mutual consent (B) Void
(D) Conversion (C) Irregular
ANS: (A) (D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
Q661. The decree of Restitution of Conjugal
Rights can be enforced under the following Q668. As a general rule, interest in the
provision of CPC— coparcenary property is acquired by virtue of—
(A) Order 21 Rule 32 (A) Birth
(B) Order 22 Rule 31 (B) Inheritance
(C) Order 21 Rule 25 (C) Marriage
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q662. The period of limitation for seeking an Q669. Customs are an important source of
annulment of marriage on the ground of Fraud Hindu Law. One of the following is not a
is— necessary feature of Customs—
(A) One year from the date of knowing the fact of (A) Uniformity
Fraud (B) Certainty
(B) Six months from the date of knowledge of Fraud (C) Conformity with public policy
(C) Within two years from the incident of Fraud (D) None of the above
(D) Within fourteen months ANS: (D)
ANS: (A)
Q670. The term ‗offence‘ is defined under
Q663. Forced intercourse by a man with his wife Section ……… of IPC.
while a decree of judicial separation is in (A) 41
effect— (B) 42
(A) Is punishable under the Hindu Marriage Act (C) 40
(B) Is punishable under the Indian Penal Code (D) 43
(C) Is not an offence in India ANS: (C)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B) Q671. In the IPC, nothing is an offence when it
is done by a child below—
Q664. One of the following is not a condition for (A) 12 years of age
determining the capacity of a male Hindu to (B) Above seven but below 12 years of age
adopt— (C) Below 14 years of age
(A) Consent of wife under certain circumstances (D) None of the above
(B) Majority ANS: (D)
(C) Soundness of mind
(D) Must be necessarily married
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Q672. A, under the influence of grave (C) Trespass
provocation by Z, kills Y, Z‘s child. A is guilty (D) None of the above
of— ANS: (A)
(A) Culpable homicide
(B) Murder Q680. If the offender is armed with deadly
(C) Grievous hurt weapons at the time of attempting dacoity, he is
(D) No offence as he was under provocation liable to be punished with—
ANS: (B) (A) Rigorous imprisonment of at least 7 years
(B) Rigorous imprisonment up to 7 years
Q673. Under section 376 of the IPC, A public (C) Rigorous imprisonment not exceeding 5 years
servant committing rape on a woman in his (D) None of the above
custody shall be punishable with— ANS: (A)
(A) Rigorous imprisonment up to 7 years
(B) Rigorous imprisonment of at least 8 years Q681. A was attempting to kill a deer in a
(C) Rigorous imprisonment up to 10 years sanctuary. While doing so, the gunshot hit a
(D) None of the above man who died instantly. A is guilty of—
ANS: (D) (A) Culpable Homicide
(B) Murder
Q674. A crime under section 399 can (C) Grievous hurt
sufficiently attract punishment under the IPC at (D) None of the above
the stage of— ANS: (A)
(A) Intention
(B) Preparation Q682. The maxim ‗ignorantia juris non excusat‘
(C) Attempt means—
(D) Commission (A) Ignorance of law is no excuse
ANS: (B) (B) Ignorance of fact is no excuse
(C) Ignorance of law is an excuse
Q675. Section 511 of the Indian Penal Code (D) Ignorance of fact is an excuse
applies to offences punishable under the— ANS: (A)
(A) Indian Penal Code
(B) Any Special Law Q683. ‗Infancy‘ as an exception has been
(C) Any Local Law provided under Section …… IPC.
(D) All of the above (A) 80
ANS: (A) (B) 81
(C) 82
Q676. Under section 103 of IPC, the right to (D) 84
Private defence of property extends to causing ANS: (C)
death if the offence is—
(A) Mischief per se Q684. Irresistible impulse is a defence—
(B) Robbery per se (A) In India
(C) Theft per se (B) In England
(D) All of the above (C) In India and England both
ANS: (B) (D) Neither in India nor in England
ANS: (D)
Q677. Smith Vs. Desmond is a leading case on—
(A) Rape Q685. Abettor is a person—
(B) Extortion (A) Who commits the offence
(C) Sedition (B) Who instigatesthe commission of offence
(D) Criminal Conspiracy (C) Against whom the offence is committed
(D) Who is innocent
Q678. In the Indian Penal Code, the offence of ANS: (B)
Criminal Breach of Trust has been dealt with in
……… Section. Q686. 10 persons were charged for offence
(A) 405 under Section 302/149 IPC, out of which six
(B) 402 persons were acquitted, the remaining four—
(C) 404 (A) Cannot be convicted for offence under Section
(D) 401 302/149 of IPC
ANS: (A) (B) Cannot be convicted for offence under Section
302 of IPC
Q679. For which of the following offences, mens (C) Cannot be convicted for offence under Section
rea is not a requisite? 149 of IPC
(A) Kidnapping (D) All of the above
(B) Robbery ANS: (C)
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(A) Gallantry otherwise than in the face of the
Q687. In the context of the exception of grave enemy
and sudden provocation, which of the following (B) Most conspicuous bravery or some act of self
is correct? sacrifice
(A) Provocation should not be voluntarily provoked (C) Gallantry in the presence of enemy
by the offender (D) None of the above
(B) Lawful exercise of the right of private defence ANS: (B)
does not give provocation
(C) Lawful exercise of powers by a public servant in Q695. What is the effect of deficit financing on
obedience to the law does not amount to economy?
provocation (A) Inflation
(D) All of the above (B) Deflation
ANS: (D) (C) Depression
(D) Recession
Q688. Grave and sudden provocation is— ANS: (B)
(A) Question of fact
(B) Question of law Q696. Mother Teresa was born in—
(C) Mixed question of fact and law (A) Switzerland
(D) A presumption under the law (B) India
ANS: (A) (C) Germany
(D) Albania
Q689. Which one of the following is not a ANS: (D)
‗Public Servant‘?
(A) Liquidator Q697. Who is known as ‗Little Corporal‘?
(B) A Civil Judge (A) Adolf Hitler
(C) Member of a panchayat assisting a Court of (B) Napolean Bonaparte
justice (C) William E. Gladstone
(D) Secretary of a Cooperative Society (D) None of the above
ANS: (D) ANS: (B)

Q690. Navy Day is observed on— Q698. Asian Games have been organised in
(A) Dec. 4 India—
(B) Dec. 25 (A) Once
(C) Dec. 31 (B) Thrice
(D) Jan. 1 (C) Five times
ANS: (A) (D) Twice
ANS: (D)
Q691. The shorter version of India‘s National
Anthem has a playing time of— Q699. Ranji Trophy and Aga Khan Cup are
(A) 12 second respectively associated with—
(B) 15 second (A) Cricket and Football
(C) 20 second (B) Cricket and Volleyball
(D) 26 second (C) Cricket and Hockey
ANS: (C) (D) Badminton and Hockey
ANS: (C)
Q692. The highest airfield in India is—
(A) Bhuntar Q700. The term ‗deuce‘ is common in which of
(B) Pantnagar the following two games?
(C) Chushul (A) Basketball and Badminton
(D) Parapani (B) Badminton and Tennis
ANS: (C) (C) Volleyball and Tennis
(D) None of the above
Q693. Who among the following had the longest ANS: (B)
tenure as the President of India?
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussain Q701. If offence is punishable with
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan imprisonment and fine both, then in default of
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad payment of fine, the maximum term, may be
(D) V. V. Giri ……… the prescribed maximum term.
ANS: (C) (A) Equal to
(B) Half of
Q694. Shaurya Chakra made up of bronze is (C) One third of
awarded for— (D) One fourth of
ANS: (D)
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Q708. Intention of cause death is not essential
Q702. Which of the following sections of IPC, under Sec. 300 (clause)—
Act done in pursuant to judgement or order of a (A) Firstly
court is not an offence? (B) Secondly
(A) Section 78 (C) Thirdly
(B) Section 79 (D) Fourthly Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
(C) Section 90 ANS: (D)
(D) Section 91
ANS: (A) Q709. The code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
can be amended by—
Q703. ‗A‘ by putting ‗B‘ in fear of grievous hurt, (A) Parliament or any State Legislature
dishonestly induces ‗B‘ to sign on a blank paper (B) The Parliament only
and deliver it to ‗A‘. ‗A‘ has committed the (C) The Supreme Court and Parliament
offence of— (D) State Legislature only
(A) Cheating ANS: (A)
(B) Extortion
(C) Criminal breach of trust Q710. The Judgement of acquittal passed by
(D) Forgery judicial magistrate is appealable before Sessions
ANS: (B) Court in any ……… offence.
(A) Cognizable and non-bailable
Q704. C, under the influence of passion excited (B) Cognizable and compoundable
by a provocation given by A intentionally kills (C) Non-cognizable and non-bailable
A‘s child named B.C. has committed an offence (D) Non-cognizable and bailable
of— ANS: (A)
(A) murder
(B) culpable homicide not amounting to murder Q711. Under Section 313 of the code, purpose
(C) not committed any offence because he kills ‗B‘ of examination of accused is—
due to provocation (A) To enabling the accused personally to explain
(D) causes the death of ‗B‘ by doing rash or any circumstances appearing in the evidence
negligent act not amounting to culpable homicide against him
ANS: (A) (B) To enabling to accused to know his defence
(C) To enabling to accused to know about the
Q705. Word ‗Dishonestly‘ as defined in Section charges
24 of IPC means— (D) All of the above
(A) With the intention of causing wrongful gain to ANS: (A)
one person
(B) With the intention of causing wrongful loss to Q712. FIR (First Information Report) is
another person registered under the following Section—
(C) With the intention of causing wrongful gain to (A) Section 152
one person and with the intention of causing (B) Section 153
wrongful loss to another person (C) Section 154
(D) All of the above are true (D) Section 155
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q706. Which one of the following acts is not a Q713. Under Section 125 the Court can order to
mode of abetment under the IPC? make a maximum monthly allowance for the
(A) Instigation maintenance upto—
(B) Aiding (A) 3,000
(C) Conspiracy (B) 4,000
(D) An attempt (C) 5,000
ANS: (D) (D) Unlimited
ANS: (D)
Q707. The accused was entrusted with some
silver for the purpose of making ornaments and Q714. Where it appears to the Court that the
he dishonestly mixed copper into the accused do not have sufficient means to engage
ornaments. The offence committed is— a pleader, the Court shall assign a pleader for
(A) Fraud his defence at the expense of the State. This
(B) Cheating provision is in—
(C) Extortion (A) Section 104
(D) Criminal breach of trust (B) Section 144
ANS: (D) (C) Section 303
(D) Section 304
ANS: (D)
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ANS: (B)
Q715. Any Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public
Prosecutor in charge of a case may before the Q722. Attachment before judgment in a suit
judgement is pronounced, withdraw from the dismissed for default/non-prosecution revives
prosecution of any person. For this he has to automatically on the restoration of a suit—
take consent of— (A) True
(A) Central Government (B) Partly true
(B) State Government (C) False
(C) Court (D) None of the above
(D) All of the three ANS: (C)
ANS: (C)
Q723. Which final judgment, order or decree of
Q716. Sentence of death awarded by court of a Competent Court, among the following is a
Sessions, the proceeding shall be submitted to judgment in rem?
confirmation before— (A) In a money suit
(A) The State Government (B) In a suit for permanent injunction
(B) The Central Government (C) In exercise of matrimonial or insolvency
(C) The High Court jurisdiction
(D) The Supreme Court Negotiable Instrument Act, (D) None of the above
1881 ANS: (C)
ANS: (C)
Q724. In civil proceedings where a decree is
Q717. Under Section 138 of the Act, complaint silent as regards future interest; future interest
may be made from the date on which the cause shall be deemed to have been refused and a
of action arises— separate suit shall not lie—
(A) 15 days (A) True
(B) One month (B) False
(C) 45 days (C) Partly true
(D) Two months (D) None of the above
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q718. Under Section 138 of the Act, maximum Q725. A transfer of immovable property made
term of imprisonment is— with the intent to defeat or delay the creditors
(A) One year of the transferor shall be—
(B) Two years (A) Void
(C) Three years (B) Voidable at the discretion of the Court
(D) Depends upon discretion of the Court (C) Voidable at the option of any creditor so
ANS: (B) defeated or delayed
(D) All the above
Q719. Which of the following is not a Bill of ANS: (C)
Exchange?
(A) Share Q726. Right to redeem a mortgage can be
(B) Demand Draft enforced by following—
(C) Post-dated Cheque (A) A suit for redemption of the mortgage
(D) None of these (B) A suit for possession of the mortgaged property
ANS: (A) (C) A suit for declaration that the mortgage property
is redeemed
Q720. The term ―a cheque in the electronic (D) A suit for cancellation of the mortgage
form‖ is defined in the Negotiable Instrument ANS: (A)
Act, 1881 under—
(A) Section 6(a) Q727. An easement is extinguished—
(B) Section 6(b) (A) Only when either the dominant or the servient
(C) Explanation 1(a) of Section 6 heritage is completely destroyed
(D) None of these (B) Only when the same person becomes entitled to
ANS: (C) the absolute ownership of the whole of the
dominant and servient heritages
Q721. Under which provision of the C.P.C., is a (C) Both (A) and (B)
suit to set aside a decree on the ground of lack (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
of territorial jurisdiction barred? ANS: (C)
(A) Section 21
(B) Section 21-A Q728. An instrument stating I promise to pay
(C) Section 22 the bearer the sum of rupees five hundred
(D) Section 37 guaranteed by the Central Government and
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signed by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of
India is—
(A) A cheque issued by the Central Government
(B) A promissory note
(C) A currency note
Q734. In a suit for recovery of possession by the
(D) Both
Government who will sign the plaint?
ANS: (C)
(A) The Chief Secretary to the Government
(B) The District Collector
Q729. Aditya threatens to publish defamatory
(C) The Governor of the State
statement concerning Anand, unless he is given
(D) The Person nominated by the Government
money. What is the offence committed by
ANS: (D)
Aditya?
(A) Extortion
Q735. After completion of the trial, the judge
(B) Theft
pronounced the judgment but did not sign the
(C) Criminal intimidation
decree and he is transferred. Then—
(D) Misrepresentation
(A) The decree prepared can be signed by the newly
ANS: (A)
posted Judge
(B) The decree prepared is sent for the approval of
Q730. Which one of the following is correct?
the High Court
(A) A person summoned to produce a document
(C) The decree is sent for signature to the Court to
becomes a witness by mere fact that he produces it
which the trial Court is subordinate
(B) A person summoned to produce a document
(D) The new Judge has to rehear the arguments in
becomes a witness by mere fact that he produces it
the suit
and can be cross examined without calling him as
ANS: (A)
witness
(C) A person summoned to produce a document
Q736. In a suit for recovery of money based
does not become a witness by the mere fact that he
under mortgage interest is awarded to the
produces it, and cannot be cross examined unless
plaintiff—
and until he is called as a witness
(A) On the principle amount found due on the
(D) None of the above
mortgage
ANS: (C)
(B) On the value of the mortgage property
(C) Only on the cost of the suit awarded
Q731. A gives B a receipt for money paid by B.
(D) None of the above
Oral evidence is offered to prove the non-
ANS: (A)
payment—
(A) The evidence is admissible
Q737. A proposes, by letter sent by post, to sell
(B) The evidence is not admissible
his house to B. The proposal of A is accepted by
(C) Section 90 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
B by letter sent by post. When can A revoke his
this aspect
proposal?
(D) None of the above
(A) A may revoke proposal after B sent letter of
ANS: (A)
acceptance by post
(B) A can revoke proposal at any time before B sent
Q732. The right of the villagers of a particular
letter of acceptance
village to use the water of a particular well is a
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
general custom or right within the meaning of
(D) None of the above
one of the following Sections of the Indian
ANS: (B)
Evidence Act—
(A) 48
Q738. Ramaiah and Laxmaiah jointly owe
(B) 47 A
10,000 to Sattaiah, Ramaiah pays the amount
(C) 114
to Sattaiah. Laxmaiah not knowing this fact
(D) None of the above
again pays 10,000 to Sattaiah. In law he is
ANS: (A)
bound to repay the amount to Laxmaiah. Which
provision of India Contract Act 1872, contains
Q733. The good faith of a sale by a client to an
the principle?
attorney is in question in a suit brought by the
(A) Section 73
client—
(B) Section 83
(A) The burden of proving the good faith of the
(C) Section 93
transaction is on the attorney
(D) Section 72
(B) The burden of proving the good faith of the
ANS: (D)
transaction is on the client
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
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Q739. In a suit for specific performance of (A) Numerous persons are parties in another suit
agreement of sale of immovable property, the (B) Numerous persons belong to the same family
plaintiff must aver and prove the following— (C) Numerous persons have the same interest in
(A) That plaintiff paid entire sale consideration one suit
(B) That plaintiff obtained clearance from all (D) None of the above
authorities ANS: (C)
(C) That plaintiff obtained encumbrance certificate
(D) That plaintiff is ready and willing to perform his Q746. In a suit for payment of money, the Court
part of contract may pass installment decree—
ANS: (D) (A) When defendant admits the claim
(B) At the time of passing decree or thereafter
Q740. Saroja was granted government land. She before execution petition
was dispossessed without her consent. She (C) At execution stage
instituted suit against the government under (D) At the time of sale of property
Section 6 of Specific Relief Act, 1963, for ANS: (B)
recovering possession of the property. The court
rejected the plaint under Order VII Rule 11 Q747. The expression spes succession is
(d) of CPC. Whether rejection is proper? means—
(A) Yes, because suit under Section 6 against the (A) No chance of succession
government would not lie (B) Mere chance or hope of succession
(B) Rejection of plaint is improper (C) Absolute succession
(C) Plaintiff must be given opportunity to rectify the (D) None of the above
mistakes ANS: (B)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A) Q748. What is the limitation for filing a suit for
recovery of arrears of rent?
Q741. An universal donee gets— (A) Three years from the date the arrears become
(A) The ownership of whole property due
(B) The whole property and donor‘s property in (B) Three years from the date when the notice is
litigation given
(C) Donor‘s property and liabilities of the donor in (C) Three years from the date when the demand for
respect of all the debts due rent is made
(D) Only the right to perform last rites (D) None of the above
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q742. When proper Court fees is not paid by the Q749. Can the right of free passage of air over
plaintiff, the Court shall— an open space or ground be acquired by
(A) Reject the plaint prescription?
(B) Shall grant time to the plaintiff to pay deficit (A) Yes
Court fees (B) No
(C) The Court shall send a report to the government (C) In certain circumstances alone
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
ANS: (B) ANS: (B)

Q743. The following two documents require Q750. One of the following is not a ground for
attestation and registration— divorce, under Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage
(A) Marriage contract and divorce contract Act, 1955?
(B) Indemnity bond and warranty (A) Adultery
(C) Mortgage deed and exchange deed (B) Cruelty
(D) Development agreement and sale agreement (C) Desertion
ANS: (C) (D) Irretrievable break down of marriage
ANS: (D)
Q744. A petition for review of judgment would
lie only when— Q751. If a right to sue survives, will the suit be
(A) The person partly obeyed the judgment abated by a party‘s death?
(B) Deposits entire decretal amount (A) Yes
(C) An appeal is allowed by CPC but no appeal has (B) No
been preferred (C) If the opposite party agrees
(D) Leave of the Court is obtained for filing review (D) None of the above
ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q745. Representative Suit under Order 1 Rule 8 Q752. Under the Protection of Women from
of CPC may be permitted by the Court when— Domestic Violence Act, 2005, one of the
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following reliefs cannot be claimed, by a Q759. What is the distinction between
woman— injunction order and attachment order?
(A) Divorce (A) There is no distinction, both are one and the
(B) Protection same
(C) Monetary (B) Injunction order binds not only the parties to
(D) Residence the suit but also third parties and whereas
ANS: (A) attachment order binds only parties to the suit
(C) Injunction order binds only the parties to the
Q753. A judgment contains— suit and whereas attachment order not only binds
(A) Concise statement of the case the parties to the suit but also the third parties
(B) The decision on the point of determination and (D) None of the above
the reason thereof ANS: (C)
(C) The point for determination
(D) All the above Q760. Question that can be determined by the
ANS: (D) Court executing the decree is—
(A) Relating to execution alone
Q754. ‗Quantum meruit‘ means— (B) Relating to discharge alone
(A) The amount involved (C) Relating to part-payment alone
(B) Extent and quality (D) Relating to execution, discharge or satisfaction
(C) To the extent of the work done ANS: (D)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q761. Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure
relates to—
Q755. A contract of life insurance falls under (A) Supplemental proceeding in a suit
the category of— (B) Suits by indigent persons
(A) Contract of indemnity (C) Execution of decree
(B) Contract of guarantee (D) Settlement of disputes outside the court
(C) Contingent contract ANS: (D)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q762. What is the meaning of restitution?
(Section 144 C.P.C.)—
Q756. A woman with an intention of committing (A) Dispossessing a person in occupation of suit
suicide by throwing herself in a well, actually property
ran towards it, but changed her mind on the (B) Re-adjudication of the claim
way and returned home. Her act constitutes— (C) Restoration of suit
(A) An offence under Section 306 I.P.C. (D) Restoring to a party on the modification,
(B) An offence under Section 309 I.P.C. variation or reversal or decree
(C) An offence under Section 306 read with 511 ANS: (D)
I.P.C.
(D) No offence Q763. If no time is prescribed in the order for
ANS: (D) carrying out amendment, what is the period
within which amendment is to be carried out
Q757. A died leaving behind him, son‘s under Order 6 Rule 18 of the Civil Procedure
daughter‘s son, son‘s daughter‘s daughter, Code?
daughter‘s son‘s son and daughter‘s son‘s (A) 30 days
daughter. The property of A will devolve upon— (B) 14 days
(A) Son‘s daughter‘s son and daughter‘s son‘s son (C) 60 days
(B) Son‘s daughter‘s daughter and daughter son‘s (D) 45 days
daughter ANS: (B)
(C) Son‘s daughter‘s son and son‘s daughter‘s
daughter Q764. Assistant Sessions Judge is empowered to
(D) Daughter‘s son‘s son and daughter‘s son‘s pass sentence of imprisonment for a term not
daughter exceeding—
ANS: (C) (A) Five years
(B) Ten years
Q758. Who is guardian at litem? (C) Three years
(A) A person appointed by the Court to take legal (D) Seven years
action on behalf of a minor ANS: (B)
(B) Guardian of the child
(C) Step father of the child Q765. What is enunciated in Section 52 of the
(D) None of the above Transfer of Property Act?
ANS: (A) (A) Effect of lis pendens
(B) Fraudulent transfer
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(C) Part performance (B) Voidable at the option of the judgment debtor
(D) Transfer by co-sharer (C) Void ab initio
ANS: (A) (D) Void as against all claims enforceable under the
attachment
Q766. The proposition of law laid down in ANS: (D)
Thulasamma v. Seshareddy (AIR 1977 SC 1944)
relates to— Q773. Which document requires stamp duty?
(A) Essential ingredients of gift deed (A) Acknowledgement of debt in order to supply
(B) Essential ingredients of will deed evidence of such debt
(C) Right of a female Hindu under sub-sections (1) (B) Acknowledgement of a debt in order to extend
and (2) of Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act period of limitation for recovery of that debt
(D) Right of a reversioner (C) Record of past transaction
ANS: (C) (D) In none of the above three cases
ANS: (A)
Q767. To constitute adverse possession,
possession must be— Q774. Where a document is deficitly stamped
(A) For a longer period and unregistered?
(B) Without paying any rent to the owner (A) It is totally inadmissible in evidence
(C) With the permission of the owner (B) It can be admitted in evidence
(D) Open and hostile enough to the parties (C) It can be admitted in evidence for all purposes,
interested in the property after payment of deficit stamp duty and penalty
ANS: (D) (D) It would be admissible in evidence for collateral
purposes
Q768. Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 in ANS: (A)
the case of intestate succession of a male Hindu
father is— Q775. ‗X‘ sells to ‗Y‘ property belonging to ‗Z‘.
(A) Class-I heir Subsequently ‗Z‘ dies and the property devolves
(B) Class-II heir on ‗X‘. By which doctrine the said sale is valid—
(C) Special grade heir (A) Doctrine of estoppel
(D) Class-III heir (B) Doctrine of promissory estoppel
ANS: (B) (C) Doctrine of feeding the grant of estoppel
(D) Doctrine of estoppel by conduct
Q769. For a suit for possession of immovable ANS: (C)
property based on title, period of limitation is—
(A) 12 years from the date of dispossession Q776. The following contract cannot be
(B) 12 years from the date of threat of dispossession specifically enforced—
(C) 12 years from the date when possession of the (A) A contract in which the executant dies
defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff subsequently
(D) None of the above (B) A contract in which the executant subsequently
ANS: (C) becomes insane
(C) A contract which is in its nature determinable
Q770. Formal expression of an adjudication (D) A contract, non-performance of which cannot be
which, so far as records the court expressing it, compensated in terms of money as adequate relief
conclusively determines rights of the parties, ANS: (C)
is—
(A) Decree Q777. ‗X‘ obtains money decree against ‗Y‘. In
(B) Order execution of the money decree, ‗X‘ attaches
(C) Judgment moneys belonging to ‗Y‘ lying with ‗Z‘. Then ‗Z‘
(D) Appellate order is called—
ANS: (A) (A) Decree holder
(B) Judgment debtor
Q771. A robbery becomes dacoity— (C) Banker
(A) When two or more persons together commit (D) Garnishee
robbery ANS: (D)
(B) When committed armed with deadly weapons
(C) When five or more persons together commit the Q778. In what branch of law does the principle
robbery ‗res ipsa loquitor‘ applies?
(D) None of the above (A) Criminal Law
ANS: (C) (B) Specific Relief Act, 1963
(C) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1882
Q772. Private alienation of property after (D) None of the above
attachment of the same is— ANS: (D)
(A) Voidable at the option of the decree holder
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Q779. Can a suit be laid after withdrawal of the Q786. In the case of a breach of contract to sell
same? immovable property the Court shall draw a
(A) No presumption that—
(B) Yes (A) Breach of contract cannot be adequately relieved
(C) Yes, if permission is obtained from the court at by money compensation
the time of withdrawal with liberty to file a fresh (B) That the breach can be compensated by money
suit (C) That the suit can be decreed
(D) Yes, subject to the condition that the cause of (D) That the suit cannot be decreed
action for both the cases is identical ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q787. Suppose if a Court of Senior Civil Judge
Q780. Supplemental and incidental proceedings tries a suit which is triable by the Court of
are stated in— Junior Civil Judge. Is the decree—
(A) C.P.C. (A) Valid
(B) Cr.P.C. (B) Invalid
(C) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (C) Invalid under certain circumstances
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q781. Perpetual injunctions are governed by— Q788. When and in what circumstances a
(A) Specific Relief Act, 1963 Judicial First Class Magistrate of First Class can
(B) Contract Act add a person as accused in a criminal case?
(C) Sale of Goods Act (A) After taking cognizance of the case and before
(D) Civil Procedure Code framing a charge
ANS: (A) (B) During the course of an enquiry in trial when it
appears from the evidence
Q782. A building fetching a rent o f 2000 and (C) After framing of the charge and before the trial
situated in municipal corporation area is is commenced
governed by— (D) None of the above
(A) A. P. Buildings (Lease, Rent and Eviction) ANS: (B)
Control Act, 1960
(B) Transfer of Property Act, 1882 Q789. ‗A‘ purchases stamp paper worth 10,000
(C) Registration Act for obtaining sale deed and then dies. Whether
(D) None of the above ‗B‘ who is the son of ‗A‘ can use that stamp
ANS: (A) paper for obtaining sale deed in his name?
(A) Yes
Q783. Whether a Junior Civil Judge‘s Court on (B) No
its own or suo motu direct addition of a party (C) Under certain circumstances
whom it considers a necessary party to a suit? (D) None of the above
(A) Yes ANS: (A)
(B) No
(C) With the permission of District Court Q790. Whether a court can dismiss an appeal on
(D) With the permission of High Court the ground of the Limitation Act even if
ANS: (A) limitation is not pleaded as a ground?
(A) Yes
Q784. If a woman, who has inherited property (B) No
from her mother, dies without children, then (C) Under certain circumstances
such property devolves on? (D) If High Court premises
(A) The heirs of her father ANS: (A)
(B) The heirs of her maternal grand father
(C) The heirs of her mother in law Q791. A First Information Report means—
(D) On her husband (A) A complaint made to the High Court
ANS: (A) (B) A complaint made to a Magistrate
(C) A complaint filed under Section 199(1) Cr.P.C.
Q785. ‗A‘ promises ‗B‘ a job in government (D) Information relating to the commission of a
service and ‗B‘ promises to pay 10,000 for it. cognizable offence given to an officer in charge of a
The agreement is— police station
(A) Void ANS: (D)
(B) Voidable
(C) Enforceable on the direction of Government Q792. The Court may presume that a man who
(D) Enforceable on the direction of the High Court is in possession of marked currency notes soon
ANS: (A) after the theft, is either the thief or has
received the currency notes knowing them to be
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stolen, unless he can account for his ANS: (B)
possession—
(A) Correct Q798. What is not true with regard to
(B) A Court may not so presume where a ‗Complaint‘ under Section 2
shopkeeper is in possession of a marked currency (d) of Cr.P.C.?
note soon after it was stolen and cannot account (A) It is made to Magistrate with a view to his taking
for its possession specifically, but is continually action under the code
receiving rupees in the ordinary course of his (B) It is an allegation made orally or in writing
business (C) That some person, whether known or unknown
(C) Neither (A) nor (B) has committed an offence
(D) Both (A) and (B) (D) It includes a Police Report
ANS: (D) ANS: (D)

Q793. Which provision requires that evidence
must be taken in the presence of the accused?
(A) Section 302 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 154 of the Evidence Act
(C) Section 277 of Cr.P.C.
(D) Section 273 of Cr.P.C.
ANS: (D)
Q794. A police report under Section 173(2) or
Cr. P.C. must contain the particulars such as—
(A) Inquest particulars, post mortem particulars
and Doctor‘s name
(B) Name of the parties, names of suspects or
accused and nature of information
(C) Name of the police officer, name of investigating
officer and police station
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
Q795. For taking cognizance of an offence
committed by a public servant while acting in
the discharge of his official duty, the essential
requisite is—
(A) Accused must be Gazetted Officer
(B) Accused must be within the jurisdiction of the
Court
(C) Previous sanction of the government is required
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C)
Q796. Sections 451 and 452 of Cr.P.C.
essentially deal with disposal of property by the
Criminal Court. The basic difference between
the two is—
(A) Both the provisions deal with release of property
produced before the Court
(B) Section 451 is attracted during enquiry of trial
and Section 452 is attracted after conclusion of the
Criminal Trial
(C) There is no difference between the two
provisions
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
Q797. Under Cr.P.C. the period of limitation
shall commence—
(A) On the date of taking cognizance
(B) On the date of offence
(C) On the date of filing the complaint
(D) None of the above
Q799. In a criminal proceedings, the standard of
proof that is required for finding the accused
guilty of an offence, so as to convict him for the
said offence is—
(A) Beyond all reasonable doubt
(B) Preponderance of probabilities
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
Q800. Under Section 482 Cr.P.C., the High
Court exercises—
(A) Inherent powers
(B) Appellate powers
(C) Revisional powers
(D) Review powers
ANS: (A)
Q801. Which of the following is correct?
(A) The defacto complaint/victim can file revision
against order of acquittal
(B) The defacto complainant can file appeal against
order of acquittal
(C) The prosecution can only file either revision or
appeal against order of acquittal
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
Q802. What is the sentence of imprisonment
provided for the offence under Section 354 of
I.P.C., in the State of Andhra Pradesh?
(A) For a term up to two years
(B) For a term not less than three years
(C) For a term not less than two years
(D) None of the above
ANS: (D)
Q803. What is the maximum sentence of
imprisonment that can be imposed in default of
payment of fine?
(A) One-half of the maximum imprisonment fixed
for the offence
(B) One-third of the maximum imprisonment fixed
for the offence
(C) One-fourth of the maximum imprisonment fixed
for the offence
(D) Equal to the maximum imprisonment fixed for
the offence
ANS: (C)

Q804. What is the distinction between Sections
161 and 164 of Cr.P.C.?
(A) Both are one and the same
(B) Sec. 161 Cr.P.C., statement is recorded by the
Magistrate and whereas Sec. 164 Cr.P.C.,
statement is recorded by the police
(C) Sec. 161 Cr.P.C., statement is recorded by the
police and whereas Sec. 164 Cr.P.C., statement is
recorded by the Magistrate
(D) Sec. 161 Cr.P.C., statement is recorded on oath
and whereas no oath is administered in recording
under Sec. 164 Cr.P.C.
ANS: (C)
Q805. ‗A‘ is arrested and detained in custody on
an accusation for the offence punishable with
imprisonment for life. He is entitled to
statutory bail as provided under sub-section (2)
of Section 167 of Cr.P.C., after expiry of—
(A) 30 days
(B) 60 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 45 days
ANS: (C)
Q806. What is primary object of inquest report
under Section 174 of Cr.P.C.?
(A) To know the name of the assailants of the
deceased
(B) To know the motive for the commission of
offence
(C) To know the apparent cause of death
(D) To know the place of occurrence
ANS: (C)
Q807. What is the meaning of payment of
cheque crossed specially?
(A) The banker on whom it is drawn shall not pay it
otherwise than to the banker to whom it is crossed,
or his agent for collection
(B) The banker on whom the cheque is drawn shall
not pay it otherwise than to a banker
(C) Payment of cheque amount across the counter
(D) Payment of cheque amount to the agent of
payee
ANS: (A)
Q808. What is the essential ingredient of
promissory estoppel?
(A) Promisee has altered his position in reliance on
the promise
(B) Promisor has recalled his promise
(C) Promisee has recalled his acceptance
(D) Promisee should suffer any detriment
ANS: (A)
Q809. Presumption under Section 139 of the
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is in respect
of—
(A) That the cheque was signed by the accused
(B) That the cheque was dishonoured by the banker
(C) That the cheque was issued for discharge of any
debt
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(D) That the cheque is valid under banking laws
ANS: (C)
Q810. Can anticipatory bail be granted in
respect of bailable offences, and if so in what
circumstances?
(A) Anticipatory bail cannot be granted in bailable
offences
(B) Bail can be granted only in case the petitioner is
a woman, a minor or a sick person
(C) There is no distinction between bailable and
non-bailable offences so far as anticipatory bail is
concerned
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
Q811. When can charges be framed?
(A) At any stage but before judgment
(B) At any stage subject to permitting the cross-
examination of the prosecution witnesses
(C) At any time in offences exclusively triable by
Sessions Court but in cases triable by a Judicial
First Class Magistrate, charges should be framed
within 3 months after taking cognizance of the case
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
Q812. As per IPC a document whereby any legal
right is created, extended, restricted or
released, is—
(A) Conveyance deed
(B) Gift deed
(C) Will
(D) Valuable security
ANS: (D)
Q813. Who is the person competent to
compound an offence of criminal trespass under
Section 447 of IPC?
(A) The person in possession of the property
trespassed upon
(B) Investigating officer
(C) The person who gave the complaint of trespass
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
Q814. Does a will deed require stamp duty and
registration for its validity?
(A) No
(B) Yes
(C) Under certain circumstances
(D) When value of property covered by will in excess
of 100
ANS: (A)
Q815. Pecuniary jurisdiction of civil court is
specified in—
(A) A.P. Court Fees and Suits Valuation Act, 1956
(B) A.P. Civil Courts Act, 1972
(C) Civil Procedure Code
(D) Civil Rules of Practice
ANS: (B)
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Q816. Whether an unstamped promissory note ANS: (D)
can be admitted in evidence after collection of
stamp duty and penalty? Q823. ―Death sentence should be awarded in
(A) Yes can be admitted rarest of rare cases‖ was held in—
(B) Cannot be admitted (A) Bachan Singh Vs. State of Punjab
(C) Can be admitted if the suit filed is under the (B) Rameshwar Vs. State of U.P.
Negotiable Instruments Act (C) T. V. Vatheeswaran Vs. State of Tamil Nadu
(D) Can be admitted only by the High Court (D) State of U. P. Vs. M. K. Anthony
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q817. Circumstantial evidence is— Q824. ―Right to live with human dignity does
(A) Direct evidence not include right to terminate natural life‖, was
(B) Indirect evidence held in—
(C) Neither of (A) P. Rathinam Vs. Union of India
(A) and B and D (B) Gian Kaur Vs. State of Punjab
ANS: (A) (C) Rajendra Prasad Vs. State of U.P.
(D) Machhi Singh Vs. State of Punjab
Q818. Under the Indian Penal Code, a person is ANS: (B)
defined as—
(A) Including any company or body of persons Q825. Use of violence by a member of an
whether incorporated or not assembly of five or more persons in furtherance
(B) Meaning only individual human beings of common object will Constitute the offence
(C) Meaning only as men of—
(D) None of the above (A) Unlawful assembly
ANS: (A) (B) Assault
(C) Affray
Q819. ‗A‘ in good faith accuses ‗Z‘ before a (D) Rioting
Magistrate— ANS: (D)
(A) ‗A‘ has committed no offence
(B) ‗A‘ has committed the offence of defamation Q826. Culpable homicide is not murder if it is
(C) ‗A‘ has committed the offence of defamation but committed—
he can take defence u/s 93 of I.P.C. (A) When the offender is acting in anger
(D) None of the above (B) When the offender is acting under the spell of
ANS: (A) madness
(C) With the consent of the victim, who has
Q820. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of completed 18 years of age
rape is punishable under which section of (D) With the consent of the victim who has
I.P.C.? completed 12 years of age
(A) Section 228 ANS: (C)
(B) Section 228 A
(C) Section 376 A Q827. An employer deducts a certain
(D) Section 376 B percentage from the salary of his employees
ANS: (B) telling that it is their contribution to the
provident fund but fails to credit it in the fund.
Q821. Which one of the following is an Employer commits—
illustration of criminal attempt? (A) Criminal misappropriation
(A) ‗A‘ tries to kill ‗B‘ by witch-craft (B) Criminal breach of trust
(B) ‗A‘ goes to Mumbai to buy dye to make (C) Theft
counterfeit currency notes (D) Cheating
(C) ‗A‘ intending to kill ‗B‘ fires at ‗B‘s coat hanging ANS: (B)
in his room treating it ‗B‘
(D) ‗A‘ takes away his own umbrella thinking it to Q828. Under Section 498-A of I.P.C. cruelty
be of someone else includes—
ANS: (C) (A) Physical cruelty only
(B) Mental cruelty only
Q822. When a criminal act is done by several (C) Harassment of the woman
persons in furtherance of common intention of (D) Cruelty by wife
all, each one of them is liable— ANS: (C)
(A) For an attempt to commit the act
(B) For the abetment of the act Q829. ‗A‘ was on his journey by car from Delhi
(C) Only for the part each one has done to Agra. ‗B‘ met him in the way and requested
(D) As if it was done by each one of them in for a lift up to Mathura, an intermediate town.
singular capacity ‗A‘ acceded to his request, but on reaching

Mathura, did not drop ‗B‘ there in spite of his
repeated requests. ‗B‘ was carried over to Agra
against his wishes.
(A) ‗A‘ is not guilty of any offence
(B) ‗A‘ is guilty of offence of abduction
(C) ‗A‘ is guilty of offence of wrongful confinement
(D) ‗A‘ is guilty of using criminal force
ANS: (C)
Q830. ‗A‘ a school teacher for the purposes of
enforcing discipline inflicts moderate
punishment upon a pupil aged about 11 years.
In this case—
(A) ‗A‘ is entitled to claim defence under section 89
of I.P.C.
(B) ‗A‘ is guilty of causing simple hurt
(C) ‗A‘ is guilty of using criminal force
(D) ‗A‘ is entitled to claim defence under section 88
of I.P.C.
ANS: (A)
Q831. A‘s illegal marriage with B was performed
by a priest ‗P‘ knowing that the marriage was
illegal; because ‗A‘ was already married. A‘s
father ‗C‘ and two other persons ‗D‘ and ‗N‘ were
present at the time of marriage. In this case—
(A) ‗C‘, ‗D‘ and ‗N‘ are liable for abetment
(B) Only A‘s father ‗C‘ is liable for abetment
(C) ‗C‘, ‗D‘, ‗N‘ and the priest ‗P‘ all are guilty of
abetment
(D) Only the priest ‗P‘ is liable for abetting the
offence of bigamy
ANS: (D)
Q832. Which one of the following combinations
is correctly matched?
1. K. M. Nanawati Vs. State of Maharashtra —
Grave and sudden provocation
2. State of Himachal Pradesh Vs. Asha Ram —
Rape
3. Karan Singh Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh—
Right of Private Defence
4. Harjit Singh Vs. State of Punjab—Dowry
death Select the correct answer using the code
given below— Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
ANS: (D)
Q833. The punishment for general form of
Public Nuisance is provided in—
(A) Section 268 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 269 of I.P.C.
(C) Section 290 of I.P.C.
(D) Section 291 of I.P.C.
ANS: (C)
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Q834. On account of an agitation the lawyers
ceased to participate in court proceedings and
resorted to ‗Satyagrah‘. An editorial in a
newspaper criticised as to whether it behoves to
the lawyers as a class to resort to strike. The
lawyers were interalia described as ‗Kajia dalal‘
i.e. dispute broker, in the editorial—
(A) Editor of the newspaper is guilty of offence of
defamation
(B) Editor of the newspaper is not guilty of offence
of defamation
(C) Not only editor, but Chairman of Board of
Directors and its General Manager are also guilty of
defamation
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
Q835. According to Mc naughten‘s Rule, legal
insanity is quite different from medical
insanity. It relates to the—
(A) Total loss of conative faculties
(B) Total loss of cognitive faculties
(C) Congenital insanity
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
Q836. For the defence of mistake of fact under
the Indian Penal Code—
(A) Actual mistake is sufficient
(B) The act must be reasonable
(C) The act must be reasonable as well as
committed in good faith
(D) None of the above is correct
ANS: (C)
Q837. In which of the following cases, the
Supreme Court has observed that there is no
right of private defence against the right of
private defence?
(A) State of Punjab Vs. Sohan Singh
(B) Surjeet Singh Vs. State of Punjab
(C) State of U. P. Vs. Ram Swaroop
(D) M. R. Singh Vs. State of Gujarat
ANS: (C)
Q838. The mens rea required under Section 299
of the Indian Penal Code is—
(A) Intention or knowledge
(B) Intention or negligence
(C) Intention or recklessness
(D) Negligence or malice
ANS: (A)
Q839. When two or more persons agree to do or
cause to be done an illegal act, or an act which
is not illegal, by illegal means, such an
agreement is—
(A) Designated as a criminal conspiracy
(B) Designated as a criminal abetment
(C) Both, criminal conspiracy and abetment
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)

Q840. ‗A‘ incites his dog to spring upon ‗B‘
without ‗B‘s consent. ‗A‘ is guilty of—
(A) Assault
(B) Criminal intimidation
(C) Criminal force
(D) Grievous hurt
ANS: (C)
Q841. Under Section 308 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973, an accomplice, who
does not comply with the conditions of pardon,
may be prosecuted and tried separately for the
offence of giving false evidence, but with the
sanction of the—
(A) Sessions Court
(B) High Court
(C) State Government
(D) Chief Justice of High Court
ANS: (B)
Q842. Under Section 77 of Cr. P.C. a warrant of
arrest may be executed—
(A) Within the local jurisdiction of court issuing
warrant
(B) Within the session division
(C) At any place within the State
(D) At any place in India
ANS: (D)
Q843. Under which provision of Cr. P.C. on
receipt of First Information Report for the
commission of an offence, the officer-in-charge
of the police station will send the copy to the
concerned Magistrate?
(A) Under Section 154 Cr. P.C.
(B) Under Section 159 Cr. P.C.
(C) Under Section 156 Cr. P.C.
(D) Under Section 157 Cr. P.C.
ANS: (D)
Q844. Non-cognizable offence means an offence
wherein—
(A) A police officer cannot arrest without warrant
(B) A police officer can arrest at his discretion
(C) A police officer has authority to arrest without
warrant
(D) On request of complainant, arrest can be made
ANS: (A)
Q845. Whether any criminal court can impound
any document produced before it?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Only civil court can impound
(D) With the consent of the senior officer it can be
impounded
ANS: (A)
Q846. Can a Magistrate order the search of any
place in his presence, for the search of which he
is empowered to issue a search warrant?
(A) Yes, under Section 103 Cr. P.C.
(B) Yes, under Section 104 Cr. P.C.
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(C) No
(D) Yes, under Section 105 Cr. P.C.
ANS: (A)
Q847. Summon‘s case means—
(A) A case which is not a warrant case
(B) A case in which security is not required
(C) A case through which offence of theft is tried
(D) A case in which only summons can be served
during trial
ANS: (A)
Q848. Which one of the following cases is
related to defective investigation?
(A) D. K. Basu Vs. State of West Bengal
(B) Zahira Habibullah Sheikh Vs. State of Gujarat
(C) Sakshi Vs. Union of India
(D) Dipesh Chandak Vs. Union of India
ANS: (B)
Q849. Which of the following statements is not
correct, with reference to Section 125 of the
code of criminal procedure?
(A) Section 125 cannot be used against a person
who does not possess sufficient economic means
(B) The obligation to maintain a married daughter
whose husband is unemployed, is of the father of
such daughter
(C) A married daughter also has an obligation to
maintain her parents who are unable to maintain
themselves
(D) A woman who has taken divorce from her
husband and has not remarried may claim
maintenance from her exhusband
ANS: (B)
Q850. When a case is instituted under Section
199(2) of Cr. P.C., the procedure of trial adopted
in such a case is—
(A) Session trial
(B) Trial of warrant case instituted on police report
(C) Trial of warrant case instituted on otherwise
than a police report
(D) Summons trial
ANS: (A)
Q851. The offence committed under which
section of I.P.C. is not compoundable under
section 320 of Cr. P.C.?
(A) Section 352
(B) Section 353
(C) Section 354
(D) Section 355
ANS: (B)
Q852. ―The object of proceedings under Section
145 Cr. P.C. is to ward-off danger of breach of
peace and not to determine the title.‖ It was
observed in the case of—
(A) Union of India V s. Ajee-bunissan Khatoon
(B) Nandi Ram Vs. Chandi Ram
(C) Roshan Lal Vs. State
(D) Ramadhin Vs. Shyama Devi

ANS: (A)
Q853. In which case, the presence of accused
may be dispensed with at the time of delivering
the judgement?
(A) When the personal attendance of the accused
has already been dispensed with
(B) When the judgement is that of acquittal
(C) In both (A) and (B) above
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C)
Q854. In the interest of justice a Magistrate has
the power to try a summons case as a warrant
case, wherein the offence to be tried thereunder
is punishable with the imprisonment—
(A) Exceeding 6 months
(B) Exceeding 4 months
(C) Exceeding 1 year
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
Q855. In every criminal trial, when the
Magistrate finds the accused guilty, he shall
pass the sentence after hearing the accused.
(A) Right, without hearing the accused, no sentence
can be passed
(B) Wrong, it is not required in summons case
(C) It is required only before sending the conviction
warrant
(D) Not required at all in any case
ANS: (A)
Q856. The procedure for trial before a court of
sessions is provided in the following sections of
Cr. P.C.—
(A) 260 to 265
(B) 238 to 250
(C) 251 to 259
(D) 225 to 237
ANS: (D)
Q857. Which of the following statements is not
correct under the Code of Criminal Procedure?
(A) Where a private person or an authorised person
has a right to arrest a person and hand him over to
the custody of police; such private person can also
make search of such arrested person
(B) Enquiry and trial, both are included in ‗judicial
proceedings‘
(C) Complaint may be made by any person and it is
not necessary that the injured or the affected only
should complain
(D) Charges are framed only in warrant cases; there
is no need to frame charge sheet in petty summons
cases
ANS: (A)
Q858. Under Section 125 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure, a Magistrate—
(A) Has the power to grant interim maintenance
and the expenses of the proceedings
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(B) Has no power to grant interim maintenance and
the expenses of the proceedings
(C) Has power to grant interim maintenance but no
power to grant expenses of the proceedings
(D) Has no power to grant interim maintenance but
has the power to grant expenses of the proceedings
ANS: (A)
Q859. Where any judge or Magistrate is
personally interested in a case, he shall neither
try nor commit for trial such case, nor shall
hear any appeal in such case, provided—
(A) Prior permission of High Court has been
procured
(B) Prior permission of the Chief Justice of High
Court has been procured
(C) Prior permission of its appellate court has been
obtained
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C)
Q860. In which of the following cases, it was
held that provisions of chapter VIII of Cr. P.C.
being in public interest are not violative of
Article 19 of the Constitution of India—
(A) Ram Charan Vs. State
(B) Shiv Narain Vs. Ban Mali
(C) Madhu Limaye Vs. S.D.M., Monghyr
(D) Ram Prasad Vs. Emperor
ANS: (C)
Q861. By Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act,
2005, in Section 459 of Cr. P.C. the words ‗less
than ten Rupees‘ have been substituted by the
words—
(A) Less than five hundred Rupees
(B) Less than fifty Rupees
(C) Less than one hundred Rupees
(D) Less than two hundred and fifty Rupees
ANS: (A)
Q862. When there is dispute between two courts
relating to exercise of jurisdiction in a criminal
matter and said courts are under subordination
of different High Courts, the matter shall be
decided under Section 186 of Cr. P.C. by the—
(A) Supreme Court
(B) High Court of the larger State
(C) High Court having more judges
(D) High Court within whose area the proceedings
first commenced
ANS: (D)
Q863. Period of limitation for an offence
punishable with a term of two years, as per
Section 468 of Cr. P.C. is—
(A) Six months
(B) One year
(C) Two years
(D) Three years
ANS: (D)
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Q864. The power of Magistrate to detain a Q870. Section 7 of the Police Act, 1861 deals
person for the purposes of police investigation with the following—
is for a maximum period of— (A) Departmental proceedings
(A) 15 days (B) Judicial proceedings
(B) 60 days (C) A and B
(C) 90 days None
(D) 30 days ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q871. Which of the following statements is
Q865. On refusal by any witness to answer a incorrect regarding history-sheets?
question or to produce a document upon being (A) History-sheet of class ‗B‘ is for a period of three
asked for, he may be sentenced to years and it need not be starred
imprisonment for a period of— (B) History-sheet of class ‗A‘ for an active member of
(A) 30 days a gang of dacoits must be starred
(B) 7 days (C) No history-sheet should be opened for persons
(C) 14 days with no permanent residence
(D) One month (D) No history-sheet is required to be opened for a
ANS: (B) person detained under Section 109 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure
Q866. According to which section of the Police ANS: (A)
Act, 1861, a police officer may be deployed in
any part of the District? Q872. When it shall appear that any unlawful
(A) 20 assembly, or riot or disturbance has taken place
(B) 21 and police force is not sufficient for
(C) 22 preservation of peace, Special Police Officers
(D) 23 may be appointed by—
ANS: (C) (A) The Magistrate on application of Police Officer
not below the rank of inspector
Q867. Under Paragraph 169 of U. P. Police (B) The Superintendent of Police of the District
Regulations, it is the duty of the Public concerned
Prosecutor to bring to the notice of the (C) The Deputy Inspector General of Police of the
Magistrate concerned all cases in which range
unclaimed property has been lying in Malkhana (D) The Inspector General of Police of the zone
for more than— ANS: (A)
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year Q873. Which chapter of U. P. Police Regulations
(C) 3 months deals with Mounted Police?
(D) 2 years (A) Chapter 5
ANS: (A) (B) Chapter 6
(C) Chapter 7
Q868. Paragraph 140 of U. P. Police Regulations (D) Chapter 8
requires that when a police officer sends a ANS: (D)
person for examination by a medical officer—
(A) He should clearly explain the object of such Q874. Which of the following is not a correct
examination statement regarding case diary? The
(B) He should fix the time within which the medical investigating officer should note in the case
examination must be completed diary the time and place—
(C) He should send an escort along with the person (A) At which he received the information on which
to be medically examined he acts
(D) He should take all care so that the person may (B) At which he begins investigation
not abscond (C) At which investigation is closed
ANS: (A) (D) When he was called by the Superintendent of
Police for enquiry regarding the progress of
Q869. What type of officer is a reserved investigation
inspector in the Reserve Line according to U. P. ANS: (D)
Polic Regulations?
(A) A General Officer Q875. Under the Police Act, 1861 the word
(B) Officer incharge ‗Police‘ includes such persons who have under
(C) Deputy Chief Officer the Act been—
(D) None of the above (A) Enrolled
ANS: (B) (B) Trained
(C) Appointed
(D) Selected

ANS: (A)
Q876. Which para of U. P. Police Regulations
deals with postmortem examination and
procedure?
(A) 137
(B) 138
(C) 139
(D) 140
ANS: (C)
Q877. In which of the following decisions it was
laid down that departmental proceedings can
also be initiated against a police officer who has
been held guilty under Section 29 of the Police
Act, 1861?
(A) Asha Ram Vs. G. C. Saxena
(B) State of Uttar PradeshVs. Harish Chandra Singh
(C) Som Nath Sahu Vs. State
(D) Arya Veer Saxena Vs. State
ANS: (B)
Q878. Match List-I with
List-II and select the correct answer with the
help of the code given below— List-I
(a) Surrender of the certificate of the police
officer
(b) Deployment of additional police force at rail
and other works
(c) Village police officer
(d) Regulation of public assemblies and
processions
List-II (Section of Police Act)
1. Section 21
2. Section 8
3. Section 30
4. Section 14 Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 2 4 1
ANS: (B)
Q879. The Public Prosecutor shall maintain at
the headquarter a register for the whole district
containing the names only of those absconding
offenders—
(A) Who are triable in the district
(B) Whose names, caste, residence and antecedents
have been verified beyond all possibility of doubt
(C) Whose real names, residence and antecedents
have not been ascertained
(D) Who are non-residents of the district concerned
ANS: (A)
Q880. In which of the following decisions it was
laid down that the accused cannot use the case
diary? Neither the accused nor his counsel can
requisition the case diary and they cannot claim
to go through it?
(A) U. P. State Vs. Harish Chandra Singh
(B) Arya Veer Saxena Vs. State
(C) State of Kerala Vs. Amini and Others
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(D) Mukand Lal Vs. Union of India
ANS: (D)
Q881. The object of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
as set out in the Preamble is—
(A) To define and amend the law of evidence
(B) To consolidate, define and amend the law of
evidence
(C) To highlight, define and consolidate the law of
evidence
(D) To highlight, consolidate, define and amend the
law of evidence
ANS: (B)
Q882. When a number of documents are all
made by one uniform process, as in the case of
printing, lithography or photography, each is—
(A) Secondary evidence of the contents of the rest
(B) Primary evidence of the contents of the rest
(C) Direct evidence of the contents of the rest
(D) Documentary evidence of the contents of the
rest
ANS: (B)
Q883. Assertion (A): In criminal cases the fact
that accused is of good character is relevant.
Reason (R): In criminal cases bad character of
the accused is always irrelevant. Select the
correct answer using the code given below—
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(A) is true but (R) is false
(A) is false but (R) is true
ANS: (C)
Q884. A marriage was solemnized in a general
customary form. What is the rule for proving
that it is a legal wedlock?
(A) The custom shall be proved by evidence
(B) The court takes judicial notice of the custom
(C) The court shall evaluate the effect of custom on
general public
(D) All the above
ANS: (B)
Q885. Which one of the following sections of
Indian Evidence Act contains provisions
regarding cross-examination of witnesses to
character?
(A) Section 140
(B) Section 141
(C) Section 142
(D) Section 139
ANS: (A)
Q886. A confession made by an accused person
is relevant—
(A) If it has proceeded from a person in authority,
unless made in the immediate presence of a
Magistrate
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(B) If it is made to a police officer, unless made in (C) A conclusive proof that the right of way exists
the immediate presence of a Magistrate (D) Relevant but not a conclusive proof that the
(C) If it is made to a Magistrate provided the police right of way exists
officer is present ANS: (D)
(D) If it is made whilst he is in custody of a police
officer, and is made in the immediate presence of a Q893. Examination, after the cross-examination
Magistrate of a witness by the party who has called him is
ANS: (D) called—
(A) Main examination
Q887. The evidence unearthed by the sniffer (B) Additional examination
dog falls under— (C) Re-examination
(A) Oral evidence (D) Re-cross-examination
(B) Documentary evidence ANS: (C)
(C) Hearsay evidence
(D) Scientific evidence Q894. Evidence of custom cannot be given to
ANS: (D) establish—
(A) A civil right
Q888. The question is, whether ‗A‘ committed a (B) An easementary right
crime at Kolkata on a certain day. In answer to (C) A customary right
this question, which of the following fact is (D) A criminal right
relevant? ANS: (D)
(A) That ‗A‘ was out that day at Mumbai
(B) That ‗A‘ habitually goes to Kolkata Q895. The object of cross-examination is—
(C) That ‗A‘ habitually commits crime (A) To examine the intelligence of the witness
(D) None of the above (B) To examine the impartiality of the witness
ANS: (A) (C) To examine the credibility of the witness
(D) To examine the good character of the witness
Q889. Whenever it is directed by the ANS: (C)
IndianEvidence Act, 1872 that the court shall
presume a fact, it shall regard such fact as— Q896. ‗A‘ accused of murder, alleges that by
(A) Proved, unless and until it is disproved grave and sudden provocation, he was deprived
(B) Proved, unless and until it is disproved or may of the power of self-control. ‗B‘ denies this
call for proof of it fact—
(C) Proved (A) The burden of proof must be shared by both ‗A‘
(D) Proved and shall not allow evidence to be given and ‗B‘
for the purpose of disproving it (B) The burden of proof is on ‗B‘
ANS: (A) (C) The burden of proof is on prosecution
(D) The burden of proof is on ‗A‘
Q890. Who amongst the following is an ANS: (D)
accomplice?
(A) A spy Q897. The father of accused did not support the
(B) A person giving bribe under coercion prosecution during the trial that he told the
(C) A raped girl (Prosecutrix) witness that his son (accused) had committed
(D) A prostitute the murder. The statement of the witness would
ANS: (D) be in the nature of—
(A) Secondary evidence
Q891. Relevancy and admissibility under the (B) Hearsay evidence
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 are— (C) Res gestae
(A) Synonymous (D) None of the above
(B) Co-extensive ANS: (B)
(C) Neither synonymous nor co-extensive
(D) Synonymous and co-extensive, both Q898. A dying declaration—
ANS: (C) 1. Cannot form the sole basis of conviction
unless corro-borated.
Q892. ‗A‘ sues ‗B‘ for trespass on his land. ‗B‘ 2. Is a weak kind of evidence.
alleges the existence of a public right of way 3. Stands on same footing as any other piece of
over the land, which ‗A‘ denies. The existence of evidence.
a decree in favour of the defendant, in suit by 4. Has to be subjected to a very close scrutiny
‗A‘ against ‗C‘ for a trespass on the same land in for reliability. Select the correct answer using
which ‗C‘ alleged the existence of the same right the code given below— Codes:
of way, is— (A) 1 and 4
(A) Relevant, but it will not operate as estoppel (B) 2 and 3
(B) Irrelevant, but it may be considered (C) 3 and 4

(D) 1 only
ANS: (C)
Q899. A wife had only seen a speeding vehicle,
which had crushed the husband at a little
distance. She had not seen the accident herself.
The husband died of heart attack a day later.
Can wife‘s evidence be taken of what the injured
husband said to her after the accident?
(A) Yes, it being a dying declaration
(B) No, it is merely a hearsay evidence
(C) No, because it is a privileged communication
(D) Yes, it being a part of resgestae
ANS: (D)
Q900. If the digital signature of any subscriber
is alleged to have been affixed to an electronic
record the fact that such digital signature is the
digital signature of the subscriber must be
proved, except in the case of a—
(A) Secure digital signature
(B) Certified digital signature
(C) Computerised digital signature
(D) Official digital signature
ANS: (A)
Q901. The question between ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ is,
whether a certain deed is or is not forged. ‗A‘
affirms that it is genuine, ‗B‘ that it is forged—
(A) ‗A‘ may prove a statement by ‗B‘ that the deed is
genuine, and ‗B‘ may prove a statement by ‗A‘ that
the deed is forged
(B) ‗A‘ may prove a statement by ‗B‘ that the deed is
forged, and ‗B‘ may prove a statement by ‗A‘ that
the deed is genuine
(C) ‗A‘ may prove a statement by himself that the
deed is genuine
(D) ‗B‘ may prove a statement by himself that the
deed is forged
ANS: (A)
Q902. The man who has disappeared and
remained unheard of for seven years by those
who would have naturally heard of him, if he
was alive; the presumption then arises that he
is dead. What shall be the presumption as to
time of death of such person?
(A) The presumption is that the man died on the
date seven years after he was last heard
(B) The presumption is that the man died at the
beginning of the particular period during these
seven years
(C) Those who allege that the death should be taken
to have occurred at a particular time, will have to
prove that fact
(D) The presumption is that the man died on the
date of judicial pronouncement
ANS: (C)
Q903. In a prosecution for rape, where sexual
intercourse by the accused is proved and the
woman states in her evidence before the court
that she did not consent—
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(A) The court may presume that she did not
consent
(B) The court may regard her evidence as
conclusive proof that she did not consent
(C) The court may require further proof that she did
not consent
(D) The court shall presume that she did not
consent
ANS: (D)
Q904. Confession can be result of self-talk,
communication of confession to another person
is not necessary, was held in the case of—
(A) Sankaria Vs. State of Rajasthan
(B) Buta Singh Vs. State of Punjab
(C) Sahoo Vs. State of U. P.
(D) Nishikant Jha Vs. State of Bihar
ANS: (C)
Q905. An approver‘s evidence—
1. Must be reliable.
2. Must be corroborated.
3. Must be reliable and preferably corroborated.
4. Is not admissible. Select the correct answer
using the code given below— Codes:
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 3 and 2
(D) 2 and 4
ANS: (B)
Q906. Principle of vicarious liability was first
time decided in the case—
(A) R. Vs. Huggins
(B) R. Vs. Stephenson
(C) R. Vs. Tolson
(D) R. Vs. Prince
ANS: (A)
Q907. Which one of the following sets correctly
identifies the specific defences available in
action for defamation?
(A) Privilege, truth, fair comment
(B) Fair comment, mistake, privilege
(C) Fair comment, mistake truth
(D) Mistake, privilege, truth
ANS: (A)
Q908. Some provisions of the I. P. C. have been
amended by the—
(A) Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
(B) Arbitration and Reconciliation Act, 1996
(C) Information Technology Act, 2000
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C)
Q909. Which of the following is a leading case
on intoxication?
(A) Nathulal Vs. State of M. P.
(B) Director Public Prosecutions Vs. Beard
(C) Barrow Vs. Issacs
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
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Q915. The offence of theft becomes robbery
Q910. Match List-I with when it is—
List-II and select the correct answer using the (A) Committed by 5 or more persons
code given below the list? List-I (B) Committed by 2 or more persons, but less than
(a) Dowry death five persons
(b) House-breaking (C) Coupled with force
(c) Assault (D) Coupled with imminent danger to life
(d) Wrongful confinement ANS: (D)
List-II
1. Section 340 I.P.C. Q916. Deception is an essential element of the
2. Section 351 I.P.C. following—
3. Section 304 B I.P.C. (A) Criminal breach of trust
4. Section 445 I.P.C. Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (B) Forgery
(A) 4 3 2 1 (C) Cheating
(B) 3 4 1 2 (D) All the above
(C) 3 4 2 1 ANS: (C)
(D) 1 2 3 4
ANS: (C) Q917. ‗A‘ by putting ‗B‘ in fear of grievous hurt
dishonestly induces ‗B‘ to sign in a blank paper
Q911. Under which of the following sections of and delivers it to ‗A‘. ‗B‘ after signing that paper
I.P.C., there is provision of death sentence? delivers it to ‗A‘. ‗A‘ has committed—
Answer with the help of code given below— (A) Theft
1. Sections 194 and 449 (B) Dacoity
2. Sections 132 and 194 (C) Robbery
3. Sections 364 A and 396 (D) Extortion
4. Sections 124 A and 132 Codes: ANS: (D)
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only Q918. Which of the following is not an essential
(C) 3 and 4 only element of ‗unlawful assembly‘?
(D) 1 and 4 only (A) Five or more persons
ANS: (B) (B) Common object
(C) Common intention
Q912. Which one of the following is not (D) To resist the execution of any law or of any legal
punishable under the Indian Penal Code? process
(A) Preparation to wage war against the State ANS: (C)
(B) Preparation to commit murder
(C) Preparation to commit dacoity Q919. Point out wrong answer— An order
(D) Preparation to commit depredation on the maintenance may be passed under section 125
territory of a friendly power of Cr. P. C. where a person neglects or refuses to
ANS: (B) maintain—
(A) his wife even if living separately by mutual
Q913. Which one of the following is an inchoate consent
crime? (B) his legitimate or illegitimate minor child
(A) Public nuisance (C) his legitimate or illegitimate child who is by
(B) Criminal attempt reason of any physical or mental abnormality or
(C) Unlawful assembly injury, unable to maintain itself
(D) Riot (D) his father or mother
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q914. Which of the following statements is not Q920. An order of discharge—

true?
(A) Rioting and affray have been defined in Sections
146 and 159 of I.P.C. respectively
(B) Rioting must be committed in public place,
affray may be committed in any place
(C) Rioting is punishable with imprisonment
extending to two years, affray is punishable with
imprisonment extending to one month
(D) Rioting is committed by 5 or more persons and
affray is committed by 2 or more persons
ANS: (B)
(A) is not a judgement
(B) is not a defence against fresh proceedings
without fresh facts and better evidence
(C) takes place after formal framing of charges
(D) establishes innocence of accused
ANS: (A)
Q921. Section 50 of Cr. P. C. provides that
every person arrested without warrant shall be
informed of grounds of arrest and of right to
bail, if the arrest is made for a bailable offence.
What is the effect of non-compliance of these
provisions?

(A) It shall not render the arrest and detention of
the person concerned illegal
(B) Even if the provisions of this section are
overlooked, error may be corrected later
(C) It shall render the arrest and detention of the
person concerned illegal and shall enable the
person arrested move for habeas-corpus to obtain
his release
(D) It is simply a procedural error and the
provisions of this section are not very material
ANS: (C)
Q922. In sub-section (1) of section 24 of the Cr.
P. C., after the words ‗Public Prosecutor‘, the
words inserted are—
(A) One or more additional public prosecutors
(B) Two or more additional public prosecutors
(C) At least five additional public prosecutors
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
Q923. The offences which can be compounded
are provided under—
(A) Schedule first of Cr. P. C.
(B) Schedule second of Cr. P. C.
(C) Section 320 of Cr. P. C.
(D) Section 321 of Cr. P. C.
ANS: (C)
Q924. In which case, it was held that at the
time of framing charge or taking cognizance,
accused has no right to produce any material?
(A) Anil Royal v. State of Bihar
(B) State of Orissa v. Debendra Nath Padhi
(C) Bani Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(D) Pratap Singh v. State of Jharkhand
ANS: (B)
Q925. In which sections of Cr. P. C., the
procedure for trial before a court of Sessions is
provided?
(A) 260 to 265
(B) 238 to 250
(C) 251 to 259
(D) 225 to 237
ANS: (D)
Q926. Investigation includes all the proceedings
conducted by a police officer—
(A) For the collection of evidence
(B) For enquiry than a trial
(C) For trial
(D) All the above
ANS: (A)
Q927. ―If the complainant is absent on the day
fixed for the hearing of the case, the magistrate
may, in his discretion, discharge the accused in
certain circumstances.‖ In which one of the
following circumstances the accused cannot be
discharged?
(A) When the charge has been framed
(B) When the offence is compoundable
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(C) When the offence is non-cognizable
(D) When the proceeding has been instituted on
complaint
ANS: (A)
Q928. A warrant of arrest and a proclamation
under section 82 of Cr. P. C. were issued
simultaneously and later a consequential order
of attachment under section 83 was also issued.
What is the legality of these orders?
(A) All the orders are perfectly legal
(B) The order under section 82 is legal but order
under section 83 is illegal
(C) The order under section 82 is illegal and
improper vitiating the consequential order of
attachment
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C)
Q929. An offence is committed by a British
citizen on an aircraft registered in India. The
offender may be dealt with under which
provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973?
(A) Section 188
(B) Section 183
(C) Section 182
(D) Section 186
ANS: (A)
Q930. In which of the following cases it was
held that the accused cannot use the case
diary? Neither the accused nor his counsel can
requisition the case diary and they cannot claim
to go through it?
(A) State of Uttar Pradesh v. Harish Chandra Singh
(B) Madhu Limaye v. Union of India
(C) Mukund Lal v. Union of India
(D) J. M. Desai v. State of Bombay
ANS: (C)
Q931. Which section of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 deals with the power of
Sessions Judge to transfer cases and appeals?
(A) Section 409
(B) Section 408
(C) Section 407
(D) Section 406
ANS: (B)
Q932. Consider the following statements—
1. Illegal arrest does not vitiate the trial.
2. A confession is not invalidated by the illegal
arrest.
3. Mere keeping a person in police station or
restricting his movement within the precincts
of a police station amounts to arrest.
4. Arrest need not be by handcuffing a person,
but could be complete by spoken words. Select
the correct answer using the codes given
below— Codes:
(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1 and 4 are correct

(C) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct
ANS: (C)
Q933. Under section 77 of Cr. P. C., a warrant of
arrest may be executed—
(A) Within the local jurisdiction of court issuing
warrant
(B) At any place within the state
(C) At any place in India
(D) Within the jurisdiction of District court
ANS: (C)
Q934. ―Summons case‖ means a case relating to
an offence, punishable with—
(A) Imprisonment for life
(B) Imprisonment for a term of 10 years
(C) Imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
(D) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two
years
ANS: (D)
Q935. Who can commute the sentence of
imprisonment for life under Cr. P. C.?
(A) Appropriate Government
(B) The President of India
(C) The Governor of the State
(D) The Home Minister of the State
ANS: (A)
Q936. In a cognizable offence a police officer—
(A) cannot arrest an accused without warrant
(B) can keep the accused in police custody without
a remand order
(C) is not required to produce the accused before a
magistrate
(D) may arrest an accused without warrant
ANS: (D)
Q937. The objective of the Police Act, 1949 is—
(A) To reorganise the police and to make it a more
efficient instrument for the prevention and
detection of crime
(B) To amend the law relating to the regulation of
police force
(C) To provide for the constitution of a general
police district embracing two or more Union
Territories and for the establishment of a police
force therefore
(D) To give more powers to the Inspector General
and Director General of Police
ANS: (C)
Q938. Police Diary is—
(A) Case Diary
(B) General Diary
(C) General Register
(D) Any of the above
ANS: (A)
Q939. For patrolling of roads ordinarily—
(A) Civil police shall be employed
(B) Armed police shall be employed
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(C) Mounted police shall be employed
(D) Village Chaukidar shall be employed
ANS: (A)
Q940. The Public Prosecutor should inspect the
Malkhana once is—
(A) A month
(B) Two months
(C) Three months
(D) A fortnight
ANS: (A)
Q941. Which of the following is not correct?
(A) The police may control and regulate the
processions
(B) The police has power to forbid or issue order
banning the procession in public interest
(C) Those who convene a public assembly, may be
required to obtain a licence from the Police
Superintendent
(D) The police may lay down conditions for the
conduct of the public assembly or procession
ANS: (C)
Q942. Special police officers may be appointed
under section 17 of the Uttar Pradesh Police
Act, 1861 by—
(A) Inspector General of Police
(B) Any Magistrate suo motu
(C) Magistrate on application of Police Inspector
(D) Senior Superintendent of Police
ANS: (C)
Q943. Village Chaukidars are appointed by—
(A) Gram Pradhan
(B) In charge of the Police Station
(C) Superintendent of Police
(D) District Magistrate
ANS: (D)
Q944. Shall it be lawful for a police officer to
take into custody a person who throws or lays
down any dirt, filth, rubbish or any stones on
any road or street, which causes inconvenience
or annoyance to public?
(A) Yes, even without warrant
(B) Yes, only under a warrant of arrest
(C) No, because it is not an offence
(D) No, because the police officer is not empowered
ANS: (A)
Q945. Particulars of which of the following
organised gangs should not be entered in the
‗gang register‘ of a police station of the district?
(A) Gang of Dacoits
(B) Gang of cattle thieves
(C) Gang to burglars
(D) Gang of railway goods wagon thieves
ANS: (B)
Q946. Is the Investigation Officer bound to
reduce in writing any statement made to him in

the course of examination under section 161 of
the Code of Criminal Procedure?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Only when directed by the court to do so
(D) Only in cases of cognizable offences
ANS: (B)
Q947. Which of the following is not required to
be recorded in the General Diary?
(A) Details contained in a First Information Report
(B) Departure and return of police officers on and
from duty
(C) Receipt and disbursement of cash
(D) Arrests made at the police station
ANS: (A)
Q948. Which of the following is not a duty of
the police officer?
(A) To obey and execute all orders and warrants
issued to him by any competent authority
(B) To collect and communicate intelligence
affecting the public peace
(C) To prevent the commission of offences and
public nuisances
(D) To take charge of all unclaimed property and
dispose the same as the circumstances demand
ANS: (D)
Q949. History-sheet of class A, that is for
dacoits, burglars, cattle thieves, railway goods
wagon thieves and abettors thereof, may be
discontinued with the sanction of—
(A) Superintendent of Police
(B) District Magistrate
(C) Deputy Inspector General of Police
(D) Inspector General of Police
ANS: (A)
Q950. Which of the following entries is not
made in the village crime Note-Book Part-I?
(A) Main Castes and Tribals
(B) Specialities of the Population
(C) Entries of offences against the State
(D) The village choukidar
ANS: (C)
Q951. No warrant of arrest in a non-cognizable
offence shall for any reason be kept by the
police for more than—
(A) One month
(B) Two months
(C) Six weeks
(D) Fifteen days
ANS: (C)
Q952. ‗In every Statute mens rea is to be
implied unless contrary is shown from the
language of the Statute.‘ This view was
expressed in—
(A) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen
(B) R. Vs. Dudley and Stephen
(C) Queen Vs. Tolson
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(D) R. Vs. Arnold
ANS: (A)
Q953. A national of Pakistan fires from the
other side of the borders and a person within
the Indian border is killed. The relatives, friends
and other Indians rush and drag the Pakistani to
border Indian Police Station. Can the Indian
courts try the accused for murder?
(A) No, Indian courts have no jurisdiction
(B) Yes
(C) He shall be handed over to the Pakistani
authorities for trial in Pakistan
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
Q954. Who among the following is not a public
servant?
(A) Chief Minister of a State
(B) Chairman of the Central Board of Film Censors
(C) Surveyor of an Insurance Company
(D) Employee of a ‗Nationalized Bank‘
ANS: (C)
Q955. Match List-I (Case) with
List-II (Subject) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists— List-I
(a) Kehar Singh Vs. Delhi Administration
(b) Nawab Ali Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Vishwanath Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
(d) Mehboob Shah Vs. Emperor
List-II
1. Right of private defence
2. Criminal Conspiracy
3. Common Intention
4. Common Object
5. Mistake of fact Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 1 5 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 5 3
ANS: (A)
Q956. ‗A‘ makes an attempt to steal jewels by
breaking open box, and finds after so opening
the box, that there was no jewel in it. What
offence ‗A‘ has committed?
(A) Attempt to theft
(B) Theft
(C) Criminal breach of trust
(D) All of the above
ANS: (A)
Q957. ‗A‘ sought to appear in LL.B. examination
on the basis of forged marks-sheet of B.A., but
forged marks-sheet was detected before the
commencement of examination—
(A) ‗A‘ is not guilty of cheating
(B) ‗A‘ is guilty of attempt to cheat
(C) ‗A‘ is guilty of cheating
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C)

Q958. Which of the following is not correct?
(A) A person made non compos mentis by illness is
exempted from criminal liability, if the act was
committed under the influence of his mental
disorder
(B) The intoxication, in order to be available as
defence must be of that degree and extent as
renders the accused practically an automation
(C) Voluntary drunkenness is an excuse for
knowledge
(D) Except murder and offences punishable with
death, compulsion is an excusable defence, if the
act is done under the fear of instant death
ANS: (C)
Q959. Which of the following is not a meaning
of the expression ‗common intention‘ under
section 34 of the Indian Penal Code?
(A) A prearranged plan, prior meeting of minds,
prior consultation in between all the persons
constituting the group
(B) A desire to commit a criminal act without any
contemplation of the consequence
(C) The mens rea necessary to constitute the
offence that has been committed
(D) Evil intent to necessarily commit the same
offence which is committed
ANS: (B)
Q960. In which of the following cases ‗necessity‘
under section 81 of Indian Penal Code cannot be
pleaded as a defence?
(A) Self-defence and prevention of violence
(B) Prevention of harm to the accused at the
expense of an innocent person
(C) Self-preservation is an absolute necessity
(D) Choice of evils affecting person other than the
accused
ANS: (C)
Q961. In which section of Indian Penal Code the
maxim ‗ignorantia juris non excusat‘ is
incorporated?
(A) Section 78
(B) Section 76
(C) Section 79
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
Q962. ‗A‘, a child of exact seven years of age
commits an offence. ‗A‘ will—
(A) not be guilty under section 82 of Indian Penal
Code
(B) be guilty if he is of sufficient maturity
(C) not be covered by section 82 and 83 of Indian
Penal Code
(D) be guilty under section 83 of Indian Penal Code
ANS: (C)
Q963. ‗A‘ holds ‗Z‘ down, and fraudulently takes
Z‘s money and jewels from ‗Z‘s clothes, without
‗Z‘s consent. ‗A‘ is guilty of committing—
(A) Theft
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(B) Extortion
(C) Robbery
(D) Dacoity
ANS: (C)
Q964. Distinction between Section 34 and 149
of IPC has been authoritatively expounded by
the Supreme Court in—
(A) State of Maharashtra v. M. H. George
(B) Guru Deo Singh v. State of Punjab
(C) Ram Kumar v. State of Haryana
(D) Nanak Chand v. State of Punjab
ANS: (D)
Q965. Which of the following is not necessary to
constitute abetment by conspiracy?
(A) A conspiracy between two or more persons
(B) An act or illegal omission must take place in
pursuance of that conspiracy
(C) Such an act or illegal omission must also take
place in order to do the thing conspired
(D) The abettor should concert the offence with the
person who commits it
ANS: (D)
Q966. Match List-I with
List-II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists— List-I
(a) Tukaram Vs. State of Maharashtra
(b) State Vs. Nalini
(c) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor
(d) State of Maharashtra Vs. Sukh Deo Singh
List-II
1. General A.S. Vaidya case
2. Mathura rape case
3. Post-master murder case
4. Rajeev Gandhi murder case Codes: (a) (b) (c)
(d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
ANS: (A)
Q967. If in a trial for ‗causing death by
negligence‘ it is established that the accused
had been at fault though victim had also been
equally at fault—
(A) The fact that the actual injury was brought
about by carelessness or contribution of the victim
also, will be no defence
(B) Contributory negligence would be a good
defence
(C) The degree of culpability as to the amount of
negligence on his part shall be deciding factor
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
Q968. Which one of the following is punishable
as sedition?
(A) Bitter criticism of the government to overthrow
it

(B) Inducing people to cease to obey law and lawful
authority
(C) A publicist attack on the policies of the
government
(D) An attempt to remove the Ministers from power
ANS: (B)
Q969. ‗A‘, for the purpose of inducing ‗B‘ to
desist from prosecuting a civil suit, threatens to
burn ‗B‘s house. What offence was committed by
‗A‘ in this case?
(A) Abetment
(B) Criminal assault
(C) Criminal force
(D) Criminal intimidation
ANS: (D)
Q970. ‗A‘, with the intention of murdering ‗Z‘,
instigates ‗B‘, a child below seven years at age,
to do an act which causes ‗Z‘s death. ‗B‘, in
consequence of instigation, did the act in the
absence of ‗A‘, thereby causes ‗Z‘s death. What
offence has been committed by ‗A‘?
(A) No offence, because ‗A‘ was not present at the
time of murder
(B) Committed simple offence of causing hurt
(C) Committed offence of attempt to murder
(D) Committed murder
ANS: (D)
Q971. The Supreme Court of India has upheld
the constitutional validity of section 497 of
Indian Penal Code (Adultery) in—
(A) Smt. Sowmithri Vishnu Vs. Union of India
(B) K. M. Nanawati Vs. State of Maharashtra
(C) Priya Bala Ghosh Vs. Suresh Chandra Ghosh
(D) Sukhbeer Singh Vs. State of Haryana
ANS: (A)
Q972. Point out correct response— In theft
there must be—
(A) Dishonest intention to take any kind of property
(B) Dishonest intention to take any valuable
security
(C) Dishonest intention to take any movable
property
(D) Dishonest intention to take only immovable
property
ANS: (C)
Q973. Which of the following is not an
illustration of assault?
(A) ‗A‘ takes up a stick saying to ‗B‘, ―I will beat you‖
(B) ‗A‘ threatens ‗B‘ to see him later on
(C) ‗A‘ medically examines a woman ‗B‘ without her
consent
(D) ‗A‘ throws brickbats into the house of ‗B‘
ANS: (B)
Q974. ‗A‘ places men with firearms at the
outlets of a building, and tells ‗Z‘ that they will
fire at ‗Z‘ if ‗Z‘ attempts to leave the building—
(A) ‗A‘ wrongfully restrains ‗Z‘
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(B) ‗A‘ wrongfully obstructs ‗Z‘
(C) ‗A‘ wrongfully confines ‗Z‘
(D) ‗A‘ wrongfully orders ‗Z‘
ANS: (C)
Q975. Which one of the following is an
illustration of criminal attempt?
(A) ‗A‘ tries to kill ‗B‘ by witchcraft
(B) ‗A‘ administers a poisonous drug to a woman ‗B‘
with an intention to cause miscarriage, but the
woman was not pregnant
(C) ‗A‘ takes away his own umbrella thinking it to
be of someone else
(D) ‗A‘ goes to Kolkata to buy dyes to make
counterfeit currency notes
ANS: (B)
Q976. ‗A‘ has knocked down four teeth of ‗B‘. ‗A‘
has committed the offence of—
(A) Attempt to cause hurt
(B) Causing hurt
(C) Causing grievous hurt
(D) Attempt to murder
ANS: (C)
Q977. Which one of the following is not
punishable under the Indian Penal Code?
(A) Preparation to commit murder
(B) Preparation to commit dacoity
(C) Preparation to wage war against the state
(D) Preparation to commit depredation on the
territory of a friendly power
ANS: (A)
Q978. A minor girl of 15 years of age left her
father‘s house with Rs. 10,000 and accompanied
‗Z‘ to various places. All the travelling as well as
Hotel charges were paid out of the said amount
as ‗Z‘ had no money. During the course of their
journey ‗Z‘ had sexual intercourse with her
thrice with her consent. Here ‗Z‘ is liable under
section—
(A) 363 of Indian Penal Code
(B) 366 of Indian Penal Code
(C) 366-A of Indian Penal Code
(D) 376 of Indian Penal Code
ANS: (D)
Q979. Assertion (A): Homicide is the killing of a
human being by a human being. Reason (R):
Homicide is always unlawful. Select the correct
answer with the help of codes given below—
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(A) is true but (R) is false
(A) is false but (R) is true
ANS: (C)
Q980. Match List-I with
 MockTime.com
List-II and select the correct answer using the Q985. Which one of the following is an
codes given below the Lists— List-I inchoatecrime?
(a) Act of Judge when acting judicially (A) Riot
(b) Accident in doing a lawful act (B) Criminal attempt
(c) Act of a child under seven years of age (C) Unlawful assembly
(d) Act of a person of unsound mind (D) Public nuisance
List-II ANS: (B)
1. Section 82 of I.P.C.
2. Section 84 of I.P.C. Q986. Assault in order to outrage the modesty
3. Section 77 of I.P.C. of a woman is punishable under—
4. Section 80 of I.P.C. Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Section 350 I.P.C.
(A) 4 1 2 3 (B) Section 351 I.P.C.
(B) 3 4 1 2 (C) Section 353 I.P.C.
(C) 1 2 3 4 (D) Section 354 I.P.C.
(D) 2 3 4 1 ANS: (D)
ANS: (B)
Q987. Which of the following would not be
Q981. ‗X‘ and ‗Y‘ agreed to commit murder of ‗Z‘ relevant in evidence under section 8 of Indian
by poisoning and ‗Y‘ was to procure poison, but Evidence Act?
he did not procure it. ‗X‘ and ‗Y‘ are guilty of— (A) Evidence of the existence of a motive for the
(A) Abetment of murder by conspiracy crime charged
(B) Attempt to murder with the aid of section 34 of (B) Evidence of a statement which accompanies
Indian Penal Code some conduct
(C) No offence (C) Evidence of a statement which influences and
(D) Criminal conspiracy to murder Z affects the conduct of a person, whose conduct is
ANS: (D) otherwise relevant
(D) Evidence of a statement of the act of robbery
Q982. Which of the following statements is without making any complaint
correct? ANS: (D)
(A) The right of private defence under Indian Penal
Code is available even against an act which is not Q988. In a case where a doctor commits rape on
offence under the code a woman of 30 years of age under his treatment
(B) The right of private defence can be exercised to and the woman says that she did not consent,
repeal unlawful aggression and also to retaliate the court—
(C) The right of private defence is available to (A) will need proof
defend only one‘s own person and property (B) shall presume that she did not consent
(D) The right of private defence extends to the (C) may need corroboration
causing of death when the assault is made with the (D) may presume or may not presume her consent
intention of wrongfully confining a person ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q989. Which one of the following is a
Q983. ‗A‘ shakes his fist at ‗Z‘, intending or judgement-inpersonam?
knowing it to be likely that he may thereby (A) A final judgement in a suit for divorce
cause ‗Z‘ to believe that ‗A‘ is about to strike ‗Z‘. (B) A final judgement in a suit for restitution of
‗A‘ has committed— conjugal rights
(A) Use of force (C) A final judgement in a suit for insolvency
(B) Use of criminal force (D) A final judgement in a suit for admiralty
(C) Assault matters
(D) Use of force and assault both ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q990. Which of the following is not correct for
Q984. ‗A‘ sent through the post office, a packet relevancy of evidence to prove conspiracy?
containing seditious publications, with a (A) There must be reasonable ground to believe that
covering letter requesting the addressee to two or more persons have entered into a conspiracy
circulate it to others. It was intercepted and (B) The act in question must have been done after
never reached the addressee. ‗A‘— the time when the intention to conspire was first
(A) Committed the offence of sedition entertained by any of them
(B) Did not commit any offence (C) The actmust have been done in reference to
(C) Is guilty of inciting communal riot their common intention
(D) Is guilty of an attempt to commit sedition (D) It can also be used in favour of the other party
ANS: (D) or for the purpose of showing that such a person
was not a party to the conspiracy
ANS: (D)
 MockTime.com

Q991. Who amongst the following is not an

accomplice?
(A) A bribe giver
(B) A detective
Q996. When can a person prove his own
(C) A prostitute
statement constituting admission, or it may be
(D) A person receiving stolen property
proved on his behalf?
ANS: (B)
(A) When it is relevant as dying declaration
(B) When it is relevant as admission
Q992. The English doctrine of Res Gestae—
(C) When it is relevant as confession
(A) has no place in India
(D) When it is only an oral admission as to content
(B) has place in India
of electronic record
(C) has place in India and has been incorporated
ANS: (A)
under Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(D) has been incorporated under section 7 of the
Q997. Assertion (A): A confession always goes
Indian Evidence Act, 1872
against the maker of it, provided it has been
ANS: (C)
made freely and voluntarily. Reason (R): A
confession is inadmissible against a co-accused.
Q993. Assertion (A): An admission can be used
Choose the correct answer using the codes
against a co-defendant. Reason (R): An
given below— Codes:
admission binds the maker of it. It may be used
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
in his favour as well. Select the correct answer
explanation of (A)
from the codes given below— Codes:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
correct explanation of (A)
explanation of (A)
(A) is true but (R) is false
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(A) is false but (R) is true
correct explanation of (A)
ANS: (C)
(A) is true but (R) is false
(A) is false but (R) is true
Q998. A statement before the police officer in
ANS: (B)
the course of investigation was that the design
was carried out according to plan; but no
Q994. Which of the following statements is not
reference was made to persons who were
correct regarding ‗admission‗ under section 17
involved in murder or to the maker of
of Indian Evidence Act?
statement himself—
(A) Admission operates as waiver of proof
(A) Prosecution shall not be allowed to prove this
(B) Admission is a statement which is necessarily
statement, being hit by section 25 of Indian
against one‘s own interest
Evidence Act
(C) A statement which suggests some inference as
(B) Prosecution may prove this statement. It is not
to fact-in-issue or relevant fact, may be admission
hit by section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
(D) It is generally irrelevant as to whom an
(C) Only that part of the statement may be proved
admission is made
which leads to discovery of a fact in consequence of
ANS: (D)
information received
(D) None of the above is correct
Q995. Match List-I with
ANS: (C)
List-II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists— List-I
Q999. Admissions are—
(a) Section 46 of Indian Evidence Act
(A) Conclusive proof
(b) Section 47 of Indian Evidence Act
(B) Not conclusive proof
(c) Section 47A of Indian Evidence Act
(C) Not estoppel
(d) Section 48 of Indian Evidence Act
(D) None of the above is correct
List-II
ANS: (B)
1. Opinion as to digital signature
2. Opinion as to existence of right or custom,
Q1000. What is the evidentiary value of the
when relevant
confession of a co-accused implicating himself
3. Facts bearing upon opinion of experts
as well as his other non-confessing co-accused?
4. Opinion as to handwriting when relevant
(A) Such a confession is relevant against all the co-
Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
accused
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) It shall not be relevant against non-confessing
(B) 1 2 3 4
co-accused
(C) 2 1 4 3
(C) Such a confession amounts to proof of guilt of
(D) 3 4 1 2
all the co-accused
ANS: (D)
 MockTime.com
(D) If the confessing co-accused is acquitted of the Q1007. The principle of Promissory Estoppel
main offence, his confession shall cease to be found its root—
admissible (A) As an exception to the doctrine of consideration
ANS: (A) (B) As a rule of future consideration in the law of
contract
Q1001. Relevancy and admissibility under (C) As a rule of past consideration in the law of
Indian Evidence Act are— contract
(A) Synonymous (D) None of the above
(B) Neither synonymous nor co-extensive ANS: (B)
(C) Co-extensive
(D) Synonymous and co-extensive both Q1008. Under which section of Evidence Act, a
ANS: (B) tenant of immovable property is estopped from
denying a title of the landlord to that property?
Q1002. Which section of the Indian Evidence (A) Section 115
Act defines ‗Leading Question‘? (B) Section 116
(A) Section 140 (C) Section 117
(B) Section 141 (D) None of the above
(C) Section 142 ANS: (B)
(D) Section 143
ANS: (B) Q1009. The case of Pakala Narain Swamy v.
Emperor relates to—
Q1003. The case of Sarat Chander Dey v. Gopal (A) Res gestae
Chander Laha, (1891) 19 I.A. 203 is related to (B) Dying declaration
which of the following section of Indian (C) Accomplice
Evidence Act, 1872? (D) Co-accused
(A) Section 6 ANS: (B)
(B) Section 115
(C) Section 124 Q1010. An accused charged under section 302
(D) Section 45 and 304 B of the Indian Penal Code is acquitted
ANS: (B) of the offence under section 302 of Indian Penal
Code. The presumption under section 113 B of
Q1004. In which year the electronic evidence the Evidence Act is—
was incorporated in the Indian evidence Act as a (A) Automatically refuted
part of documentary Evidence? (B) Not refuted
(A) 2001 (C) Not relevant
(B) 2002 (D) Irrelevant and otiose
(C) 2000 ANS: (B)
(D) 1999
ANS: (C) Q1011. Assertion (A): ‗B‘ writes to his wife ‗C‘ a
letter, which contains defamatory matters about
Q1005. Which of the following is not a public ‗D‘. ‗C‘ cannot be compelled to disclose this
document? communication. Reason (R): Any
(A) Records of a nationalised Bank communication made during subsistence of
(B) A post-mortem report marriage by a husband to his wife or vice-versa
(C) A private waqf deed, recorded in the office of is protected as privileged communication.
sub-registrar Select the correct answer from the codes given
(D) Entries made by a police officer in the site below— Codes:
inspection map and site memo (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
ANS: (B) explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
Q1006. Where a married woman, dying of burns correct explanation of (A)
was a person of unsound mind and the medical (A) is true but (R) is false
certificate vouchsafed her physical fitness for a (A) is false but (R) is true
statement and not the state of mind at the ANS: (A)
crucial moment; in which of the following cases
the court said that the statement could not be Q1012. Any condition imposed by a Magistrate
relied upon? when releasing any person on bail—
(A) Ravi Chander Vs. State of Punjab (A) Can be set aside or modified only by the
(B) Shripatrao Vs. State of Maharashtra Supreme Court
(C) Uka Ram Vs. State of Rajasthan (B) Cannot be modified by any court
(D) Baldev Raj Vs. State of Himachal Pradesh (C) Can be modified by Sessions Court or High
ANS: (A) Court
(D) Can be set aside only by Sessions Court
 MockTime.com
ANS: (C) (C) Duty to record the confessionalstatement in the
form of questions and answers
Q1013. During investigation of an offence of (D) Duty to be satisfied and have reason to believe
committing rape, medical examination of the the confession was voluntary
alleged victim may be done— ANS: (C)
(A) Only on the order of a Magistrate
(B) Necessarily on the request of concerned Q1018. Which one of the following is a case
investigation officer, if he deems it fit relating to anticipatory bail?
(C) After the investigation officer obtains permission (A) D. K. Ganesh Babu Vs. P. T. Manokaran
of his Superintendent of Police (B) Tama Vs. State of West Bengal
(D) With the consent of such woman victim or of (C) Dinesh Dalmia Vs. C. B. I.
any person competent to give such consent on her (D) Dimple Gupta Vs. Rajiv Gupta
behalf ANS: (A)
ANS: (D)
Q1019. 1.Who propounded the theory that ―the
Q1014. The main characteristic of the Code of earth moves round the sun‖?
Criminal Procedure, 1973 is— (A) Galileo
(A) The separation of the judiciary from the (B) Einstein
executive (C) Copernicus
(B) The separation of the legislature from the (D) Graham Bell
executive ANS: (A)
(C) The separation of the revenue work from the
executive Q1020. Gerontology is a branch of study related
(D) To provide judicial powers to the executive to diseases associated with—
magistrates (A) Children
ANS: (A) (B) Young adults
(C) Old age
Q1015. Which of the following is not correct (D) Women
regarding provisions of bail in case of non- ANS: (C)
bailable offences?
(A) Bail may be granted, if the court concerned Q1021. What is the title of the former US
comes to the conclusion that prosecution has failed President Mr. Bill Clinton‘s autobiography?
to establish a prima-facie case (A) My Days
(B) Bail may be granted, if the court is satisfied that (B) My Life
in spite of existence of a prima-facie case there is (C) My Story
need to release such person on bail in view of facts (D) My Years
and circumstances of case ANS: (B)
(C) Bail cannot be granted to an accused who may
be required for being identified by witness during Q1022. On which date of the year is ‗World
investigation Environment Day‘ celebrated?
(D) If the offence is punishable with death, (A) January 5
imprisonment for life or imprisonment for 7 years (B) March 5
or more, no person can be released on bail without (C) June 5
giving an opportunity of hearing to the public (D) November 5
prosecutor ANS: (C)
ANS: (D)
Q1023. Who was the first Indian Prime Minister
Q1016. Under which section of Code of Criminal to address the UN General Assembly in Hindi?
Procedure, security is taken of good behaviour (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
from habitual offenders? (B) Morarji Desai
(A) Section 109 (C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(B) Section 110 (D) Atal Behari Vajpayee
(C) Section 111 ANS: (D)
(D) Section 112
ANS: (B) Q1024. Recently, which Indian cricketer set a
record by scoring the highest runs in Test
Q1017. Which of the following is not a duty of Cricket?
the Magistrate while recording confession under (A) Saurav Ganguly
section 164 Cr. P. C.? (B) Sachin Tendulkar
(A) Duty to explain to the person making the (C) Rahul Dravid
confession that he is not bound to make confession (D) Yuvraj Singh
(B) Duty to work that if he makes a confession, it ANS: (B)
may be used as evidence against him
 MockTime.com
Q1025. In the last Olympics at Beijing, who won (C) Septuagenarian
the first ever individual Gold Medal for India? (D) Nonagenarian
(A) Bijender Singh ANS: (A)
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Sushil Kumar Q1033. Which one, from amongst the choices
(D) Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore given, would mean the same as the following
ANS: (B) sentence? I feel an aching void.
(A) I feel lonely
Q1026. Till date, who is the only Indian to have (B) I feel pain
been awarded the Nobel Prize for literature? (C) I feel hungry
(A) Ramdhari Singh ‗Dinkar‘ (D) I feel irritation
(B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee ANS: (A)
(C) Rabindranath Tagore
(D) R. K. Narayan Q1034. From amongst the choices given, which
ANS: (C) one of the clauses correctly completes the
following sentence? I shall have left this place
Q1027. Which State of India has bagged two by the time……….
National Awards associated with tourism in (A) she will come
2008? (B) she would come
(A) Rajasthan (C) she comes
(B) Kerala (D) she will have come
(C) Tamil Nadu ANS: (C)
(D) Gujarat
ANS: (A) Q1035. Such words as are similar in sound but
different in meaning are called—
Q1028. What is the full name of the President of (A) Synonyms
India? (B) Antonyms
(A) Pratibha Patil (C) Homonyms
(B) Pratibha Devi Singh Patil (D) Homophones
(C) Pratibha Devi Patil ANS: (D)
(D) Pratibha Singh Patil
ANS: (B) Q1036. Select the appropriate ‗article‘ to be
filled in the blank in the given sentence. He is
Q1029. Identify the type of the sentence given ……… SP.
below: John proposed that we should sing (A) an
together. (B) a
(A) Assertive (C) the
(B) Optative (D) None of the above
(C) Exclamatory ANS: (A)
(D) Imperative
ANS: (A) Q1037. Identify the ‗figure of speech‘ that best
defines the following sentence. The camel is the
Q1030. Which part of the given sentence ship of the desert—
contains an error? If I was you/ I would not/ (A) Simile
agree to/ that (B) Metaphor
(A) (C) Irony
(B) (D) Sarcasm
(C) foolish proposal. ANS: (B)
(D)
ANS: (A) Q1038. Identify the ‗part of speech‘ in which
the word ‗round‘ has been used in the following
Q1031. Fill in the blank with appropriate sentence. The earth moves round the sun—
‗preposition‘. I cannot come back …… a month. (A) Noun
(A) before (B) Preposition
(B) in (C) Adjective
(C) within (D) Adverb Part—II Law
(D) between ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q1039. The commission to make local
Q1032. Give one word for the following group of investigation can be issued for the purposes of—
words. A person aged between 60 and 70— 1. Collecting evidence on a fact
(A) Sexagenarian 2. Elucidating any matter in dispute
(B) Quinquagenarian 3. Ascertaining the amount of mesne profit

4. Ascertaining the market value of the
property Which of the above are correct? Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
ANS: (B)
Q1040. Where a decree is passed against the
Union of India or a State for the act done in the
official capacity of the officer concerned, under
Section 82 C.P.C., execution shall not be issued
on any such decree unless the decree remains
unsatisfied for a period of—
(A) 3 months from the date of the decree
(B) 6 months from the date of the decree
(C) 1 year from the date of the decree
(D) 2 years from the date of the decree
ANS: (A)
Q1041. Assertion (A): The rule of constructive
res judicata is applicable to writ petitions.
Reason (R): Public policy considerations
underlying res judicata also hold true in relation
to writ proceedings. Codes:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
ANS: (A)
Q1042. A residing in Delhi publishes in Kolkata
statements defamatory of B. B may sue A in—
(A) Delhi only
(B) Kolkata only
(C) Either Delhi or Kolkata
(D) Anywhere in India with the leave of the court
ANS: (C)
Q1043. Which one of the following suits is not
of a civil nature?
(A) Suits relating to rights to property
(B) Suits for rents
(C) Suits for recovery of voluntary payments or
offerings
(D) Suits against dismissals from service
ANS: (C)
Q1044. Which of the following is not a sufficient
cause for granting adjournment?
(A) Sickness of a party, his witness or his counsel
(B) Non-examination of a witness present in the
court
(C) Non-service of summons
(D) Reasonable time for preparation of a case
ANS: (B)
Q1045. Where a plaintiff sues upon a document
in his power or possession, he must produce it
or a copy thereof—
(A) Along with the plaint
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(B) At the time of giving of evidence
(C) At the time of framing of issues
(D) When ordered by the court
ANS: (A)
Q1046. Voluntary amendment is provided for
under—
(A) Order 6, R.7, C.P.C.
(B) Order 6, R.15, C.P.C.
(C) Order 6, R.17, C.P.C.
(D) Order 6, R.19, C.P.C.
ANS: (C)
Q1047. A plaint is liable to be returned, when—
(A) Plaint is on an insufficiently stamped paper
(B) Plaint is not filed in duplicate
(C) Relief is undervalued in the plaint
(D) Plaint is filed in a court having no jurisdiction
ANS: (D)
Q1048. The expression, ―Each party shall bear
his own costs‖ implies that—
(A) Both the parties are entitled to cost from each
other
(B) Both the parties are not to be deprived of costs
(C) Both the parties are to be deprived of costs
(D) Both the parties are not entitled to cost from
each other
ANS: (A)
Q1049. Which of the following questions is not
to be determined by an executing court?
(A) Discharge of decree
(B) Execution of decree
(C) Modification of decree
(D) Satisfaction of decree
ANS: (C)
Q1050. In which of the following cases the
Supreme Court has upheld the validity of
Section 51 of Code of Civil Procedure?
(A) Xavier Vs. Bank of Canara
(B) The Visaka case
(C) Indian Gramophone Co. Vs. Birendra Bahadur
Pandey
(D) Jolly George Verghese Vs. Bank of Cochin
ANS: (D)
Q1051. In which of the following cases the
Supreme Court has upheld the constitutionality
of the Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment)
Acts of 1999 and 2002?
(A) Salem Advocate Bar Association, Tamil Nadu
Vs. Union of India
(B) Delhi High Court Bar Association Vs. Union of
India
(C) Allahabad High Court Bar Association Vs. Union
of India
(D) Punjab and Haryana High Court Bar
Association Vs. Union of India
ANS: (A)
 MockTime.com
Q1052. Which one of the following is a true 3. Debtor of the judgment-debtor liable for
statement in relation to Section 80 of Civil payment or delivery
Procedure Code? 4. Setting aside ex parte decree and rehearing
(A) A suit without service of notice can be instituted the case Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
generally, with the leave of the court (A) 2 3 1 4
(B) A suit without service of notice can be instituted (B) 4 3 2 1
in cases of urgent or immediate relief, with the (C) 4 1 2 3
leave of the court (D) 3 4 2 1
(C) In cases of urgent or immediate relief where ANS: (C)
leave to institute the suit without service of notice
has been granted, interim or otherwise ex parte Q1056. In execution of a decree for the
relief can be granted maintenance, salary of a person can be attached
(D) No suit under Section 80 can be instituted to the extent of—
without the compliance of the requirement of notice (A) One-fourth
ANS: (B) (B) One-third
(C) Two-third
Q1053. Match List–I with List–II and select the (D) One-half
correct answer using the code given below the ANS: (C)
Lists— List-I
(a) Set-off Q1057. Under Order XVIII, Rule 4(1) of C.P.C.,
(b) Mesne profit the examination in chief of a witness shall be
(c) Indigent recorded—
(d) Subsistance allowance (A) By the Judge
List-II (B) By the Commissioner appointed by the court
1. Amount paid by the decreeholder for (C) On affidavit
detention of the judgment-debtor in civil prison (D) All of the above
2. Person allowed to file suit or appeal without ANS: (C)
court fee
3. Adjustment of defendant‘s claim with the Q1058. When a party is called upon by notice to
plaintiff‘s claim admit facts by the other party, under Order XII,
4. Gains from property by a person having Rule 4 of C.P.C., the party on whom the notice
wrongful possession Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) has been served has to admit the facts within—
(A) 4 3 1 2 (A) 15 days of the service of notice
(B) 3 4 2 1 (B) 9 days of the service of notice
(C) 2 1 4 3 (C) 7 days of the service of notice
(D) 3 1 2 4 (D) 6 days of the service of notice
ANS: (B) ANS: (D)

Q1054. Which of the following pairs is/are Q1059. Assertion (A): Subject to some
correctly matched? (1) Right to file caveat— exceptions the provisions of the Code of
Section 148-A, C.P.C. (2) Pauper suit—Section Criminal Procedure are not applicable to tribal
33, C.P.C. (3) Privileged document—Section 29, areas in undivided Assam. Reason (R): These
C.P.C. (4) Powers of appellate court—Section areas enjoy special status like the State of
102, C.P.C. Codes: Jammu and Kashmir. Codes:
(A) 1 only (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(B) 4 only explanation of A
(C) 1 and 2 (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(D) 2, 3 and 4 explanation of A
ANS: (A) (C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Q1055. Match List-I with ANS: (C)
List-II and select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists— List-I Q1060. Reasons for non-applicability of some of
(a) Restitution afresh the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code
(b) Next friend to the State of Nagaland have been stated by the
(c) Legal representative Supreme Court in—
(d) Garnishees (A) State of Nagaland Vs. Rattan Singh
List-II (B) Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura Vs.
1. Representative of a minor or a plaintiff of Province of Assam
unsound mind in a civil suit (C) Zarzoliana Vs. Government of Mizoram
2. Person representing the estate of the (D) State of Nagaland Vs. Chung
deceased ANS: (A)

Q1061. Who can appoint a police officer as an
assistant public prosecutor for courts of
Magistrates?
(A) Superintendent of Police
(B) District and Sessions Judge
(C) District Magistrate
(D) High Court on the request of the State
Government
ANS: (C)
Q1062. Who among the following can be
arrested without warrant by any Magistrate?
(A) Any person committing offences within the local
jurisdiction of such Magistrate but not in his
presence
(B) Any person committing offences anywhere, but
in the presence of such Magistrate
(C) Any person within his local jurisdiction for
whose arrest he is competent to issue a warrant
(D) All of the above
ANS: (C)
Q1063. Match List-I with
List-II and select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists— List-I
(a) Special Metropolitan Magistrate
(b) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(c) Judicial Magistrate of Second Class
(d) Assistant Sessions Judge
List-II
1. Imprisonment up to 7 years or/and fine
2. Imprisonment up to 10 years or/and fine
3. Imprisonment up to 3 years or/and fine
4. Imprisonment up to 1 year or/and fine up to
Rs. 1,000 Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
ANS: (D)
Q1064. Where two or more courts have taken
cognizance of the same offence and a question
arises as to which of them ought to inquire into
or try the offence, the question shall be
decided—
1. If the courts are subordinate to the same
High Court, by that High Court
2. By the High Court within the local limits of
whose appellate criminal jurisdiction the
accused resides, carries on business or is
engaged in a gainful employment
3. If the courts are subordinate to the same
High Court, by the High Court in consultation
with the State Government concerned
4. If the courts are not subordinate to the same
High Court, by that court within the local limits
of whose appellate criminal jurisdiction the
proceedings were first commenced Which of the
above are correct? Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
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(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
ANS: (C)
Q1065. Assertion (A): Power of the State to
order cases to be tried in different sessions
divisions is very limited. Reasons (R): This
extraordinary power is to be used when
consideration of public justice justifies its
exercise. Codes:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
ANS: (A)
Q1066. There shall be no appeal by a convicted
person where a Chief Judicial Magistrate
imposes only a sentence of fine not exceeding—
(A) Rs. 1,000
(B) Rs. 200
(C) Rs. 100
(D) Rs. 300
ANS: (C)
Q1067. ―Too many appeals and revisions are a
bane of the Indian Judicial System, involving as
it does sterile expense and delay and fruitless
chase of perfection.‖ Justice Krishna Iyer made
this observation in—
(A) Harnam Singh Vs. State of HP
(B) Mohd. Sauman Ali Vs. State of Assam
(C) Sitaram Vs. State of UP
(D) Jawaharlal Singh Vs. Naresh Singh
ANS: (A)
Q1068. In a case the Supreme Court observed
thus— ―We are unable to find any magic or
charm in the ritual of a charge. It is the
substance of these provisions(relating to charge)
that count and not their outform. To hold
otherwise is only to provide avenues or escape
for the guilty and afford no protection to the
innocent.‖ The court made these observations
in relation to—
(A) Alteration of charge
(B) Joinder of charges
(C) Persons who may be charged jointly
(D) Error, omission or irregularity in charge
ANS: (D)
Q1069. Which of the following offences is triable
summarily?
(A) Theft where the value of the property stolen
does not exceed Rs. 500
(B) Lurking house trespass
(C) Assisting in the concealment of stolen property
of the value not exceeding Rs. 300
(D) Receiving or retaining stolen property under
Section 411, I.P.C. when the value of the property
does not exceed Rs. 250
 MockTime.com
Q1070. The period of limitation prescribed for (D) All of the above
taking cognizance of the offence punishable ANS: (D)
with imprisonment up to 3 years is—
(A) 1 year Q1076. A Magistrate has power to deal with
(B) 2 year urgent cases of apprehended danger or nuisance
(C) 3 years under—
(D) 4 years (A) Section 133, Cr.P.C.
ANS: (C) (B) Section 144, Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 145, Cr.P.C.
Q1071. In which of the following cases the (D) Section 107, Cr.P.C.
constitutional validity of Section 433-A, Cr.P.C. ANS: (B)
was upheld?
(A) Ashok Kumar Golu Vs. Union of India Q1077. Which of the following Magistrates have
(B) Babu Pahalwan Vs. State of MP power to prohibit repetition or continuance of
(C) Ramesh Vs. State of MP public nuisance?
(D) Karan Singh Vs. State of HP 1. District Magistrate
ANS: (A) 2. Sub-Divisional Magistrate
3. Judicial Magistrate
Q1072. Which of the following is an 4. Executive Magistrate duly empowered in this
interlocutory order for the purposes of behalf Codes:
revisional powers of the High Court or a (A) 1 and 4
Sessions Court? (B) 2 and 3
(A) Orders summoning witnesses (C) 1, 2 and 4
(B) An order of bail granted by a Magistrate (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) An order rejecting the plea of the accused on a ANS: (C)
point which when accepted, will conclude the
particular proceeding Q1078. Assertion (A): The provisions for
(D) Interlocutory orders which are without reviewing the decision of a criminal court are
jurisdiction and nullities essential for the due protection of life and
ANS: (A) liberty. Reasons (R): They are based on the
notion that Judges and Magistrates are not
Q1073. A is only charged with theft and it infallible. Codes:
appears that he committed the offence of (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
criminal breach of trust. In this context, which explanation of A
one of the following is correct? (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(A) He may be acquitted explanation of A
(B) He may be convicted only of theft (C) A is true but R is false
(C) He may be convicted of criminal breach of trust (D) A is false but R is true
(D) He may not be convicted of criminal breach of ANS: (D)
trust
ANS: (C) Q1079. The question is, whether A was robbed.
The fact that he said, he had been robbed
Q1074. Which of the following courts can set without making any complaint—
aside or modify the conditions imposed by a (A) Is relevant showing preparation for relevant
Magistrate when granting bail? facts
(A) High Court or Court of Sessions under Section (B) Is relevant showing conduct
439, Cr.P.C. (C) Is relevant showing effect of relevant facts
(B) High Court under Section 482, Cr.P.C. (D) May be relevant under Section 32 or Section
(C) Sessions Court under Section 465, Cr.P.C. 157 of the Evidence Act
(D) Court of Sessions under Section 438, Cr.P.C. ANS: (D)
ANS: (A)
Q1080. A is accused of receiving stolen goods
Q1075. An offence of bigamy punishable under knowing them to be stolen. He offers to prove
Section 494, I.P.C. was committed by A in that he refused to sell them below their value.
Patna. The place where A resided with his first He may—
wife B was Gaya and the place where his first (A) Not prove this statement
wife took up a permanent residence after the (B) Prove if it is relevant otherwise than an
commission of the offence is Bhagalpur. The admission
offence may be inquired into or tried by a court (C) Prove it as it is explanatory of conduct
of competent jurisdiction at— influenced by facts in issue
(A) Patna (D) None of the above
(B) Bhagalpur ANS: (C)
(C) Gaya

Q1081. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
(A) An admission by a guardian and litem against a
minor is evidence
(B) Admission on a point of law made by a pleader
in court on behalf of the client is evidence
(C) Admission by one of the several defendants in a
suit against another defendant is evidence
(D) Admission of fact made by a pleader in court on
behalf of his client is evidence
ANS: (D)
Q1082. Which one of the following is the true
statement in relation to the relevancy of
character?
(A) In criminal cases, previous good character is
irrelevant
(B) In criminal proceedings, previous bad character
is relevant
(C) In civil cases, character to prove conduct
imputed is relevant
(D) In civil cases, character of any person affecting
the amount of damages is relevant
ANS: (D)
Q1083. When the court has to form an opinion
as to the digital signature of any person, the
opinion of which of the following is relevant?
(A) Certifying Authority
(B) Controller appointed under the Information
Technology Act
(C) Internet Service Provider
(D) Certifying Authority which had issued digital
signature certificate
ANS: (D)
Q1084. In which of the following cases the
Supreme Court raised doubts regarding the
applicability of the doctrine of equitable
estoppel beyond Section 115, Evidence Act?
(A) Mercantile Bank of India Ltd. Vs. Central Bank
of India Ltd.
(B) Madanappa Vs. Chandramma
(C) Turner Morrison and Co. Vs. Hungerford
Investment Trust Ltd.
(D) Sitaram Vs. State of UP
ANS: (A)
Q1085. No revenue officer shall be compelled to
say whence he got any information as to the
commission of any offence against the public
revenue. This provision is contained in—
(A) Section 125, Evidence Act
(B) Section 124, Evidence Act
(C) Section 123, Evidence Act
(D) Section 126, Evidence Act
ANS: (A)
Q1086. No confession made to a police officer
shall be proved as against a person accused of
any offence. The rationale of this rule is stated
in—
(A) Queen Empress Vs. Abdullah
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(B) Queen Empress Vs. Babulal
(C) Queen Vs. Lillyman
(D) Pakla Narayan Swamy Vs. Emperor
ANS: (B)
Q1087. Where a bill of exchange is drawn in a
set of five, how many of them need to be
proved?
(A) Five
(B) Three
(C) One
(D) Two
ANS: (C)
Q1088. Assertion (A): A gives B a receipt for
money paid by B. Oral evidence is offered for
the payment. The evidence is admissible.
Reason (R): A receipt is not a contract or grant
in respect of which oral evidence is barred.
Codes:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
ANS: (A)
Q1089. Assertion (A): Section 91 and 92,
Evidence Act should be read together. Reason
(R): These two Sections supplement each other.
Codes:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
ANS: (A)
Q1090. The court shall take judicial notice of—
(A) Foreign judicial records
(B) National Flag of a State not recognized by India
(C) Stephen‘s Digest on Criminal Law
(D) Rule of Road on land (and in sea)
ANS: (D)
Q1091. Which of the following is an example of
‗may presume‘?
(A) Presumption as to electronic records
(B) Presumption as to digital signature certificate
(C) Presumption as to electronic messages
(D) Presumption as to electronic agreements
ANS: (C)
Q1092. Section 58 of the Evidence Act deals
with—
(A) Formal admissions
(B) Evidentiary admissions
(C) Formal as well as evidentiary admissions
(D) Proof of facts by oral evidence
ANS: (C)
 MockTime.com
Q1093. Which of the following pairs is not (C) Copies made from or compared with the
correctly matched? original—Evidence
(A) Relevancy of statements as to law contained in (D) Facts connected to a fact in issue in such a
law books—Section 38, Evidence Act, manner as to constitute part of the same
(B) Relevancy of statements in maps, charts, etc.— transaction—Rule nisi
Section 35 Evidence Act ANS: (D)
(C) Relevancy of certain evidence for proving in
subsequent proceedings the truth of facts therein Q1098. Match List-I with
stated—Section 34, Evidence Act List-II and select the correct answer using the
(D) Relevancy of statement as to facts of public code given below the Lists— List-I
nature—Section 37, Evidence Act (a) Confession caused by inducement, threat,
ANS: (C) promise
(b) Confession to a customs officer
Q1094. In which of the following instances (c) Confession in the FIR given by the accused
there is no reasonal ground for asking the (d) Discovery of a fact pursuant to a statement
witness the question whether he is a dacoit? in police custody
(A) A barrister is instructed by an attorney that an List-II
important witness is a dacoit 1. Aghnoo Nagesia Vs. State
(B) A pleader is informed by a person in court that 2. State of Punjab Vs. Barkatram
an important witness is a dacoit. The information 3. Pyarelal Bhargava Vs. State of Rajasthan
on being questioned by the pleader gives 4. State of Bombay Vs. Kathi Kalu Oghad
satisfactory reasons for his statement Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(C) A witness of whom nothing whatsoever is (A) 1 4 3 2
known, is asked randomly, whether he is a dacoit (B) 2 3 4 1
(D) A witness of whom nothing whatsoever is (C) 2 1 3 4
known, being questioned as to his mode of life and (D) 3 2 1 4
means of living gives unsatisfactory answers ANS: (D)
ANS: (C)
Q1099. Which one of the following is not
Q1095. Husband and wife— provided in Sections 4 and 5 of the Contract
(A) Are competent witnesses against each other in Act?
matrimonial cases (A) Communication of offer
(B) Are not competent witnesses against each other (B) Communication of acceptance
as they are one person in law (C) Revocation of proposal and acceptance
(C) Are competent witnesses against each other in (D) Revocation of contract
civil cases only Ans: (d)
(D) Are competent witnesses against each other in
civil as well as criminal cases Q1100. Which one of the following does not
ANS: (D) amount to fraud?
(A) Active concealment of a fact
Q1096. Match List-I with (B) A promise made without any intention of
List-II and select the correct answer using the performing it
code given below the Lists— List-I (C) Suggestion as a fact of that which is not true by
(a) Bloodstains and blood group one who does not believe it to be true
(b) Automatic camera (D) A represenation made without knowing it to be
(c) Tape-recorded statement false, honestly believing it to be true
(d) Handwriting ANS: (D)
List-II
1. Reg Vs. Dodson Q1101. A stipulation for increased interest from
2. State of Gujarat Vs. Chhota Lal Patni the date of default is known as—
3. B Vs. Attorney-General (A) Damage
4. Yusufalli Vs. State of Maharashtra Codes: (a) (B) Penalty
(b) (c) (d) (C) Liquidated damage
(A) 3 4 2 1 (D) Compensation
(B) 3 1 4 2 ANS: (B)
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 1 2 4 3 Q1102. Match List-I with
ANS: (D) List-II and select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists— List-I
Q1097. Which of the following pairs is not (a) Tinn Vs. Hoffman and Co.
correctly matched? (b) Fisher Vs. Bell
(A) That a man heard or said something— Fact (c) Carlill Vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(B) A map or plan—Document (d) Harvey Vs. Facey
 MockTime.com
List-II ANS: (B)
1. Invitation to treat
2. Offers at large Q1107. Adomsen Vs. Jarvis is a leading case
3. Cross offers on—
4. Quotation of price Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) Bailment
(A) 3 1 4 2 (B) Contract of Indemnity
(B) 1 2 3 4 (C) Contract of Guarantee
(C) 2 1 3 4 (D) Pledge
(D) 2 4 1 3 ANS: (B)

Q1103. Which one of the following propositions
is correct?
(A) A minor‘s contract being void, a minor is not
bound to pay for necessities supplied to him
(B) A minor‘s contract being voidable he is bound to
pay for necessities supplied to him
(C) A minor is bound to pay for necessities supplied
to him because a minor‘s contract is valid
(D) A minor‘s contract is void but he is bound to
pay for necessities supplied to him
ANS: (D)
Q1104. Match List-I with
List-II and select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists— List-I
(a) Supervening impossibility
(b) Consideration
(c) Good faith
(d) Dunlop Tyre Co. Vs. Selfridge and Co.
List-II
1. Uberrima fides contract
2. Frustration
3. Privity of contract
4. Quid pro quo Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 2 1 3 4
ANS: (C)
Q1105. Assertion (A): Marriage brokerage
contract is valid. Reason (R): Marriage brokerage
contract is opposed to public policy. Codes:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
ANS: (D)
Q1106. Which of the following are the duties of
a bailee?
1. Duty to take reasonable care of goods
2. Duty not to make unauthorised use of goods
3. Duty not to mix his own goods with the
goods bailed
4. Duty to compensate when goods is damaged
despite of the care of the bailee Codes:
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Q1108. The principle of agency of necessity is—
(A) Applicable in emergent situations where
communication with the principal is not possible
(B) Applicable in normal situations if the
communication with the principal is possible
(C) Unknown to the law of agency
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
Q1109. A gives woolen cloth to B, a tailor, for
making a suit. The tailor‘s charges are settled at
Rs. 500. After the suit is ready, A tenders Rs.
500 for the charges but the tailor refuses to
deliver the suit till A pays an old due. In such
case—
(A) B can refuse to deliver the suit
(B) B cannot refuse to deliver the suit
(C) B can refuse in certain circumstances
(D) B can sell the suit
ANS: (B)
Q1110. Which of the following is correct?
(A) Pledge made by a person having a limited
interest is valid to the extent of that interest
(B) Pledge made by a person under voidable
contract is valid
(C) Pledge made by a mercantile agent is valid
(D) Goods may be pledged by the servant in the
absence of owner
ANS: (A)
Q1111. Assertion (A): The liability of the surety
is coextensive with that of the principal debtor
unless it is otherwise provided by the contract.
Reason (R): Any variance, made without the
surety‘s consent, in the terms of the contract
between the principal debtor and the creditor,
discharges the surety as to transactions
subsequent to variance. Codes:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
ANS: (B)
Q1112. A without the request of anybody
extinguishes the fire of B‘s godown. A suffers
injury thereby. B promises to compensate A for
the whole amount he has spent for his
treatment. The contract is—
(A) Unenforceable
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(B) Void (A) Can be enforced if the event does not happen
(C) Voidable within the fixed time
(D) Enforceable (B) Cannot be enforced at all, being void
ANS: (D) (C) Can be enforced if before the expiry of fixed
time, it becomes certain that such an event shall
Q1113. Promissory estoppel is sometimes not happen
spoken of as a substitute for— (D) Both (A) and (C)
(A) Novation ANS: (D)
(B) Quasi-contract
(C) Consideration Q1118. Which one of the following is a
(D) Coercion contract?
ANS: (B) (A) An agreement to do a lawful act by an unlawful
means
Q1114. X, a trader, leaves goods at Y‘s house by (B) An undertaking in writing duly signed to pay
mistake. If Y uses the goods, then which one of the timebarred debt
the following is correct when X demands the (C) An agreement in restraint of a lawful trade
price of goods and Y refuses to pay? (D) An agreement to pay Rs. 10,000 without
(A) Y is not bound to pay as he becomes the owner consideration
of the goods left at his home ANS: (B)
(B) Y is bound to pay as X did not intend to supply
goods gratuitously and Y enjoyed the benefits of X‘s Q1119. How many languages are there in the
act Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(C) Y is not bound to pay as he did not ask for the (A) 16
goods (B) 18
(D) X must suffer for his mistake and he cannot (C) 20
recover the price of goods from Y (D) 22
ANS: (B) ANS: (D)

Q1115. X contracted with a tent house for
erecting a shamiana for performing the marriage
of his daughter. On the day of marriage, a
curfew was clamped in the area preventing the
celebration of the marriage. The shamiana
owner claims the charges agreed to be paid by
X. In the light of the above, which one of the
following is correct?
(A) X has to pay the contracted charges
(B) X need not pay the agreed charges but only
reasonable charges
(C) X can require the State to bear the claim for
damages
(D) X need not pay anything as the celebration of
the marriage was impossible on account of the
curfew
ANS: (D)
Q1116. In which of the following instances has
the discharge of agreement not been effected?
(A) A promises to paint a picture for B. B afterwards
forbid him to do so
(B) A owes B Rs. 5,000. C pays to B Rs. 1,000
which B accepts in satisfaction of his claim against
A (D) C. K. Jain Vs. State of Uttaranchal
(C) A awaits arrival of B to finish the painting for B
(D) A owes B Rs. 2,000 and is also indebted to
other creditors. A makes an arrangement with his
creditors, including B, to pay them, half of the loan
amount. A pays to B Rs. 1,000
ANS: (C)
Q1117. A contingent contract based on the
specified uncertain event not happening within
a fixed time—
Q1120. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution
deals with—
(A) Backward Classes Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) Finance Commission
ANS: (A)
Q1121. In which year ‗Advocate‘s Welfare Fund
Act‘ was enacted by Parliament of India?
(A) 1999
(B) 2001
(C) 2003
(D) 2008
ANS: (B)
Q1122. In which one of the following cases it
has been held that prohibition on sale of eggs
within municipal area of Rishikesh is not
violative of Article 19(1)g of the Constitution?
(A) B. R. Enterprise Vs. State of U.P.
(B) Sreeniwas General Traders Vs. State of
Uttarakhand
(C) Om Prakash Vs. State of U.P.
ANS: (C)
Q1123. ‗Right to Information‘ is defined under—
(A) Section 2(f) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(B) Section 2(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(C) Section 4 of the Right to Information Act, 2005
(D) Section 2(b) of the Right to Information Act,
2005
ANS: (B)
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Q1124. In Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly ANS: (B)
one member is nominated from—
(A) Christian Community Q1132. ‗www‘ on the internet stands for—
(B) Muslim Community (A) Words Words Words
(C) Anglo-Indian Community (B) Wide Word Words
(D) Parsi Community (C) World Wide Web
ANS: (C) (D) When Where Why
ANS: (C)
Q1125. A Supreme Court‘s Judge retires at an
age of— Q1133. To which of the following companies,
(A) 58 years the Delhi High Court has ordered to remove its
(B) 70 years ‗Logo‘?
(C) 62 years (A) Pepsico India
(D) 65 years (B) TISCO
ANS: (D) (C) Reliance Petrochemicals
(D) None of the above
Q1126. Who is the head of the ‗State- ANS: (A)
Executive‘?
(A) The State Legislature Assembly Q1134. The Article of the Indian Constitution
(B) The State Cabinet which automatically become suspended on
(C) The Chief Minister Proclamation of Emergency is—
(D) The Governor (A) Article 14
ANS: (D) (B) Article 19
(C) Article 21
Q1127. Case of I. R. Coelho V. State of Tamil (D) Article 32
Nadu is related with— ANS: (B)
(A) Judicial review of Article 356 of the Constitution
(B) Judicial review of Article 226 of the Constitution Q1135. Which State in India implemented the
(C) Judicial review of Ninth Schedule Laws ‗Panchayati Raj System‘ first?
(D) Judicial review of action taken by Speaker (A) Rajasthan
under Article 105 of the Constitution (B) Maharashtra
ANS: (C) (C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Q1128. Humanisation and decrimanisationof ANS: (A)
attempts to suicide was recommended by—
(A) 210th Report of Law Commission Q1136. In India, which institution holds
(B) 212th Report of Law Commission ultimate authority to accept ‗Five Year Plans‘?
(C) 216th Report of Law Commission (A) Planning Commission
(D) 215th Report of Law Commission (B) National Development Council
ANS: (A) (C) Central Cabinet
(D) Parliament
Q1129. Jaya Bachchan V. Union of India, A.I.R. ANS: (B)
2006 S.C. 2119 is related with—
(A) Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution Q1137. On whose recommendation the financial
(B) Article 109 of the Constitution distribution between the ‗Union‘ and ‗States‘
(C) Article 190 of the Constitution takes place?
(D) Article 226 of the Constitution (A) The Finance Commission
ANS: (A) (B) The National Development Council
(C) The Planning Commission
Q1130. Joint Meeting of both Houses of (D) The Inter-State Council
Parliament is chaired by— ANS: (A)
(A) President of India
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha Q1138. Who is to certify that any bill is a Money
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha Bill?
(D) None of the above (A) Finance Minister
ANS: (C) (B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
Q1131. Who among the following was the (D) None of the above
Chairman of the Sixth Pay Commission? ANS: (B)
(A) Justice A. K. Majumdar
(B) Justice B. N. Srikrishna Q1139. The Court which has jurisdiction over
(C) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan election disputes under Section 80 of the
(D) Justice R. C. Lahoti Representation of People Act, 1951 is—
 MockTime.com
(A) Supreme Court (D) Forty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(B) High Court ANS: (B)
(C) District Court
(D) Election Tribunal Q1146. Under which Article of the Constitution
ANS: (B) of India, Parliament may admit a new State in
the Indian Union?
Q1140. Who can remove Election Commissioner (A) In Article 1
from his office? (B) In Article 2
(A) Chief Election Commissioner (C) In Article 3
(B) Prime Minister (D) In Article 4
(C) Home Minister in the same way as the Judge of ANS: (B)
the High Court can be removed
(D) President of India on the recommendation of Q1147. Which of the following is not mentioned
Chief Election Commissioner in Directive Principles of State policy under the
ANS: (D) Constitution of India?
(A) Right to adequate means of livelihood
Q1141. In which of the following cases (B) Right to equal pay for equal work
constitutionality of the Central Educational (C) Promotion of international peace and security
Institutions (Reservation in Admissions) Act, (D) Free and compulsory education for children
2006 was challenged? upto fourteen years of age
(A) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. Union of India ANS: (D)
(B) Ashok Kumar Vs. State of U.P.
(C) Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs. State of Bihar Q1148. The Charter of the United Nations was
(D) None of the above signed at San-Francisco on—
ANS: (A) (A) June 26, 1945
(B) August 15, 1943
Q1142. How many times the emergency has (C) January 26, 1946
been proclaimed in India on the ground of (D) December 30, 1941
internal disturbance? ANS: (A)
(A) Once
(B) Twice Q1149. Where the head office of the United
(C) Thrice Nations is situated?
(D) Never (A) Washington
ANS: (A) (B) Geneva
(C) New York
Q1143. In which year financial emergency was (D) The Hague
proclaimed under Article 360 in India? ANS: (C)
(A) 1962
(B) 1965 Q1150. How many members are in the Security
(C) 1975 Council?
(D) Never (A) 5
ANS: (D) (B) 9
(C) 10
Q1144. Who appoints the Chairman of the State (D) 15
Public Service Commission in India? ANS: (D)
(A) The President of India
(B) The President of India in consultation with the Q1151. Which one of the following Article of
Governor of the State United Nations Charter is related to the
(C) The Governor of the State procedure of voting?
(D) Chairman of Union Public Service Commission (A) Article 16
in consultation with the Governor (B) Article 18
ANS: (C) (C) Article 10
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)

Q1152. Which one of the following is not one of

the principal organ of United Nations?
Q1145. By which Amendment of the Indian
(A) Economic and Social Council
Constitution Sikkim was included as full-fledged
(B) Trusteeship Council
State of the Indian Territory?
(C) International Labour Organization
(A) Thirty-Second Constitutional Amendment
(D) International Court of Justice
(B) Thirty-Sixth Constitutional Amendment
ANS: (C)
(C) Forty-Fourth Constitutional Amendment
 MockTime.com
Q1153. Two official languages of the United ANS: (C)
Nations are—
(A) English and Hindi Q1160. Article 21-A was added in the
(B) English and German Constitution by—
(C) English and Urdu (A) 86th Constitutional Amendment
(D) English and French (B) 88th Constitutional Amendment
ANS: (D) (C) 89th Constitutional Amendment
(D) 90th Constitutional Amendment
Q1154. The Directive Principles of State Policy ANS: (A)
in the Constitution of India have been taken
from which one of the following? Q1161. Socialist and secular words were added
(A) The Constitution of Ireland in the Preamble of Indian Constitution by—
(B) The Constitution of United States of America (A) 44th Amendment
(C) The Constitution of Australia (B) 42nd Amendment
(D) The Constitution of Canada (C) 45th Amendment
ANS: (A) (D) 48th Amendment
ANS: (B)
Q1155. P‘s passport was cancelled by the
authority without giving him any reasonable Q1162. Which one of the following Articles of
opportunity of being heard which was Indian Constitution is not related to the
mandatory. In such case— environmental protection?
(A) A writ of mandamus can be issued (A) Article 48 A
(B) A writ of mandamus cannot be issued as the (B) Article 51 A(i)
authority has no obligation to act fairly (C) Article 51 A(g)
(C) Since cancellation of passport is always done in (D) Both (A) and (C)
interest of security of India, no one can challenge ANS: (B)
the cancellation
(D) A writ of prohibition can be issued Q1163. In International Court of Justice, there
ANS: (A) are—
(A) President and 15 other members
Q1156. The maximum period of continuation of (B) President, Vice-President and 15 other members
emergency under Article 356 of the Indian (C) President, Vice-President and 14 other members
Constitution is— (D) President, Vice-President and 13 other members
(A) 3 years ANS: (D)
(B) 6 months
(C) 1 year Q1164. International Human Rights Day is
(D) 2 years celebrated on—
ANS: (A) (A) 26th January
(B) 10th December
Q1157. Which one of the following Schedule was (C) 14th July
added in the Constitution by the 73rd (D) 26th November
Constitutional Amendment? ANS: (B)
(A) Schedule XII
(B) Schedule VI Q1165. The Headquarters of International Court
(C) Schedule XI of Justice is at—
(D) Schedule IX (A) New York
ANS: (C) (B) Geneva
(C) The Hague
Q1158. The procedure for the removal of (D) Paris
Supreme Court Judge is given in— ANS: (C)
(A) Article 124 (4)
(B) Article 124 (5) Q1166. Sarkaria Commission was set up for the
(C) Article 125 review of relations between—
(D) Article 126 (A) The Prime Minister and The President
ANS: (A) (B) Legislature and Executive
(C) Executive and Judiciary
Q1159. Participation of workers in management (D) Centre and States
of industries is provided under Indian ANS: (D)
Constitution—
(A) In Article 44 A Q1167. Under which Article of the Constitution
(B) In Article 48 A the Inter-State Council is constituted?
(C) In Article 43 A (A) Article 254
(D) In Article 45 (B) Article 260
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(C) Article 263 (D) Section 147 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(D) Article 267 ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q1175. Arrest of a person in execution of a
Q1168. By which Amendment of the decree has been provided—
Constitution the Service Tribunals were (A) Under Section 53 of the Code of Civil Procedure
established? (B) Under Section 54 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(A) 39th Amendment (C) Under Section 56 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) 44th Amendment (D) Under Section 55 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(C) 40th Amendment ANS: (D)
(D) 42nd Amendment Part—II Law
ANS: (D) Q1176. Under Order VI Rule 17 of the Code of
Civil Procedure, the court can allow to alter or
Q1169. Under Section 30 of the Hindu amend the proceedings to—
Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of (A) Either party
his interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary (B) To plaintiff only
property by— (C) To defendant only
(A) Will (D) To only one defendant, if there are more than
(B) Gift one defendant
(C) Sale ANS: (A)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A) Q1177. Which of the following Sections of the
Code of Civil Procedure defines the ‗Mesne
Q1170. Presumption that the younger survived Profit‘?
the elder under Section 21 of the Hindu (A) Section 2(4)
Succession Act, 1956 is a— (B) Section 2(14)
(A) Presumption of fact (C) Section 2(6)
(B) Mixed presumption of fact and law (D) Section 2(12)
(C) Rebuttable presumption of law ANS: (D)
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law
ANS: (C) Q1178. Order 42 of the Code of Civil Procedure
deals with—
Q1171. Rule 2 under Section 10 of the Hindu (A) Appeal to Supreme Court
Succession Act, 1956 is a— (B) Appeal by indigent person
(A) Per capita rule (C) Appeal against orders
(B) Per stirpes (D) Appeal from appellate decrees
(C) Per stirpes per capita rule ANS: (D)
(D) Rule of exclusion
ANS: (A) Q1179. Preliminary Decree can be passed in a
suit—
Q1172. A decree may be executed by— (A) For partition
(A) Tehsildar (B) For partnership
(B) Collector (C) For possession and mesne profit
(C) District Judge (D) All of the above
(D) Either by the court which passed it or to which ANS: (D)
it is sent
ANS: (D) Q1180. Under Section 15 of the Code of Civil
Procedure, every suit shall be instituted in—
Q1173. On which of the following maxim the (A) District Court
doctrine of ‗Res Judicata‘ is based? (B) The court of lower grade
(A) Qui facit per alium facit per se (C) The court of higher grade
(B) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio (D) All of the above
(C) Respondent superior ANS: (B)
(D) Interest republica ut sit finish litium
ANS: (D) Q1181. Pleading has been defined in—
(A) Order VI, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
Q1174. Right to lodge a ‗caveat‘ has been (B) Order VI, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
provided under— (C) Order VIII, Rule 1 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(A) Section 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (D) Order VIII, Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(B) Section 148-A of the Code of Civil Procedure, ANS: (A)
1908
(C) Section 148-B of the Code of Civil Procedure,
1908
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Q1182. Which Provision of the Code of Civil Q1189. Who can tender pardon to accomplice
Procedure provides that one person may sue or under Section 306 of the Code of Criminal
defend on behalf of all in same interest? Procedure?
(A) Order 1, Rule 1 (A) Chief Judicial Magistrate only
(B) Order 2, Rule 2 (B) Metropolitan Magistrate only
(C) Order 1, Rule 8 (C) Magistrate of the First Class only
(D) Order 1, Rule 9 (D) All of the above
ANS: (C) ANS: (D)

Q1183. Which one of the following authorities is Q1190. The procedure of trials held before the
not entitled to try a case summarily under the Court of Sessions is provided in the Code of
Code of Criminal Procedure? Criminal Procedure under—
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate (A) Sections 204 to 210
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate (B) Sections 220 to 224
(C) Judicial Magistrate of the First Class (C) Sections 225 to 237
(D) 2nd Class Judicial Magistrate (D) Sections 238 to 245
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q1184. Which one of the following Sections of Q1191. On being submitted the sentence of
the Code of Civil Procedure deals with death by Court of Sessions, the High Court
‗Revision‘? may—
(A) Section 110 (A) Confirm the sentence
(B) Order VI, Rule 13 (B) Annul the conviction
(C) Section 115 (C) May pass any other sentence warranted by law
(D) Section 120 (D) All of the above
ANS: (C) ANS: (D)

Q1185. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Q1192. Section 2(h) of the Code of Criminal
Procedure provides a protection to the members Procedure defines the term—
of Armed Forces from arrest? (A) Investigation
(A) Section 41 (B) Charge
(B) Section 45 (C) Inquiry
(C) Section 46 (D) Offence
(D) Section 50 ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q1193. Which ‗Section‘ of the Code of Criminal
Q1186. In a summary trial the maximum period Procedure provides for prosecution for offences
of imprisonment is— against marriage?
(A) Not exceeding three months (A) Section 196
(B) Not exceeding six months (B) Section 197
(C) Not exceeding one year (C) Section 198
(D) Not exceeding two years (D) None of the above
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q1187. Which of the following are liable under Q1194. Which Section of the Code of Criminal
Section 125(1) Procedure provides that ―no statement made by
(d) of the Code of Criminal Procedure for any person to a police officer if reduced to
payment of maintenance to their parents, who writing, be signed by the person making it‖?
are unable to maintain themselves? (A) Section 161
(A) Sons only (B) Section 162
(B) Daughters only (C) Section 163
(C) Sons and daughters both (D) Section 164
(D) None of the above ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q1195. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a
Q1188. Section 2 sentence of imprisonment—
(c) of the Code of Criminal Procedure defines— (A) Not exceeding seven years
(A) Bailable offence (B) Exceeding seven years
(B) Non-bailable offence (C) For life
(C) Cognizable offence (D) None of the above
(D) Non-cognizable offence ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
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Q1196. Which one of the following Sections of Q1203. The maxim ‗Ignorantia facit excusat‘
the Code of Criminal Procedure provides for relates to—
anticipatory bail? (A) Section 75 of the Indian Penal Code
(A) Section 436 (B) Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code
(B) Section 438 (C) Section 77 of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 439 (D) None of the above
(D) Section 437 ANS: (B)
ANS: (B)
Q1204. Which Provision of the Indian Penal
Q1197. In which of the following cases some Code says, ―nothing is an offence which is done
important principles regarding the defence of by accident‖?
unsoundness of mind were propounded? (A) Section 79 of I.P.C.
(A) Mc‘Naughten Case (B) Section 78 of I.P.C.
(B) R. V. Prince (C) Section 80 of I.P.C.
(C) R. V. Dudley and Stephen (D) None of the above
(D) Reg V. Govinda ANS: (C)
ANS: (A)
Q1205. Which one of the following Sections of
Q1198. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code has been declared
the Indian Penal Code defines ‗affray‘? unconstitutional as violative of Articles 14 and
(A) Section 159 21 of the Constitution of India?
(B) Section 160 (A) Section 301
(C) Section 161 (B) Section 303
(D) Section 148 (C) Section 306
ANS: (A) (D) Section 314
ANS: (B)
Q1199. ‗A‘ attempts to pick the pocket of ‗Z‘ by
thrusting his hand into ‗Z‘s‘ pocket. ‗A‘ fails in Q1206. Which one of the following Sections of
his attempt as ‗Z‘ had nothing in his pocket. the Indian Penal Code relates to punishment for
What offence ‗A‘ has committed? abetment to commit suicide?
(A) Theft (A) Section 306
(B) Attempt to commit theft (B) Section 307
(C) Mischief (C) Section 308
(D) No offence (D) Section 309
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q1200. Which one of the following provisions of Q1207. Which one of the following cases is not
the Indian Penal Code relates to vicarious correctly matched?
liability? (A) Mc‘Naughten‘s case—Section 84 of I.P.C.
(A) Section 120A (B) D.P.P. V. Beard—Section 84 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 121 (C) Basudeo V. State—Section 86 of I.P.C.
(C) Section 154 (D) Bhawoo Jiwaji V. Mooljee Dayal— Section 79 of
(D) Section 159 I.P.C.
ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q1201. Which one of the following cases is a Q1208. How many kinds of hurts are included
case relating to Section 34 of the Indian Penal under grevious hurt under Section 320 of the
Code? Indian Penal Code?
(A) K. M. Nanavati Vs. State of Maharashtra (A) 5
(B) Niharendu Dutta Vs. King Emperor (B) 6
(C) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. King Emperor (C) 7
(D) Kedar Nath Vs. State of West Bengal (D) 8
ANS: (C) ANS: (D)

Q1202. Which one of the following Provisions of Q1209. Which one of the following Sections of
the Indian Penal Code defines ‗Unlawful the Indian Penal Code relates with punishment
Assembly‘? for cheating?
(A) Section 141 (A) Section 415
(B) Section 142 (B) Section 417
(C) Section 146 (C) Section 416
(D) Section 149 (D) None of the above
ANS: (A) ANS: (B)
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Q1210. Which Provision of the Indian Penal (D) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor
Code makes water pollution punishable? ANS: (D)
(A) Section 277
(B) Section 278 Q1218. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code
(C) Section 279 deals with those conditions, when consent is
(D) Section 280 said to be, not free consent?
ANS: (A) (A) Section 87
(B) Section 90
Q1211. In which of the following offences under (C) Section 92
the Indian Penal Code, preparation of the (D) Section 89
offence is punishable? ANS: (B)
(A) Murder
(B) Dowry death Q1219. Point out incorrect response. The
(C) Waging war against Government of India following are modes of abetment—
(D) Theft (A) Instigation
ANS: (C) (B) Engaging in conspiracy
(C) Aiding
Q1212. Adultery is an offence committed— (D) None of the above
(A) With the consent of a married woman ANS: (D)
(B) With the consent of a woman
(C) Without the consent of a woman but with the Q1220. In which of the following cases the
consent of her husband principles relating to the defence of intoxication
(D) With the consent of a minor girl were laid down?
ANS: (A) (A) Mc‘ Naughten Case
(B) Director of Public Prosecution Vs. Beard
Q1213. How many exceptions have been (C) R. Vs. Dudley and Stephen
provided for the offence of defamation under (D) R. Vs. Prince
Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code? ANS: (B)
(A) 4
(B) 10 Q1221. ‗A‘ administers poisonous drug to a
(C) 6 woman ‗B‘ to cause miscarriage. It is found that
(D) 9 ‗B‘ was not pregnant. In this case—
ANS: (B) (A) ‗A‘ is not guilty of attempt to cause miscarriage
(B) ‗A‘ is guilty of attempt to cause miscarriage
Q1214. The case of S. Varadrajan Vs. State (C) ‗A‘ is guilty of murder
related to— (D) ‗A‘ is guilty of no offence
(A) Section 366-A of I.P.C. ANS: (B)
(B) Section 364-A of I.P.C.
(C) Section 363 of I.P.C. Q1222. Which is the secondary source of
(D) None of the above Muslim Law under the following?
ANS: (C) (A) Custom
(B) Ijmaa
Q1215. Which one of the following cases relates (C) Qiyas
to right of private defence? (D) None of the above
(A) Jaidev Vs. State ANS: (A)
(B) Ram Rattan Vs. State
(C) Guljar Singh Vs. State Q1223. Which of the following modifies the
(D) Rajesh Kumar Vs. Dharamveer application of Muslim Law?
ANS: (A) (A) Shariat Act, 1937
(B) Muslim Marriage Dissolution Act, 1939
Q1216. ‗A‘ enters ‗Z‘ house through a window. (C) Muslim Woman (Protection of Rights on Divorce)
Here ‗A‘ commits— Act, 1986
(A) Trespass (D) All the above
(B) House trespass ANS: (D)
(C) House breaking
(D) All of the above Q1224. Which of the following Muslim Laws
ANS: (C) applies in India?
(A) Muslim Penal Law
Q1217. Which one of the following cases is not (B) Muslim Law of Evidence
related to Mens rea? (C) Muslim Law of Sales of goods
(A) R. Vs. Prince (D) Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce)
(B) Queen Vs. Tolson Act, 1986
(C) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen ANS: (D)
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(A) Father‘s mother
Q1225. Who applied Qiyas for the first time as (B) Mother‘s mother
source of Muslim Law? (C) Sisters
(A) Imam Abu Hanifa (D) Maternal aunt
(B) Imam Yusuf ANS: (B)
(C) Imam Jafer
(D) Imam Ahmad Q1233. A Muslim can marry any number of
ANS: (A) wives not exceeding four, if a Muslim marries a
fifth wife such a marriage shall be—
Q1226. Under Muslim Law, marriage is— (A) Valid
(A) An institution legalising male and female (B) Void
conjugal relations (C) Irregular
(B) A civil contract (D) Either A or B
(C) Sunnet ANS: (C)
(D) All the above
ANS: (D) Q1234. In Sunni-te Law, the guardian of the
minor‘s property is—
Q1227. Who can be a guardian in minor‘s (A) Mother
marriage in Sunni Law? (B) Father
(A) Mother in the presence of father (C) Mother‘s mother
(B) Grand-mother in the presence of mother (D) Father‘s father
(C) Maternal uncle in the presence of real uncle ANS: (B)
(D) Father
ANS: (D) Q1235. After divorce a Muslim woman—
(A) Cannot remarry
Q1228. Under the following which is absolute (B) Can remarry immediately
incapacity for marriage? (C) Can marry only after completion of ‗Iddat‘ period
(A) Consanguinity (D) None of the above
(B) Affinity ANS: (C)
(C) Fosterage
(D) All the above Q1236. How many witnesses are necessary in
ANS: (D) Shia Muslim marriage?
(A) Two males
Q1229. Which is a relative incapacity for (B) One male and two females
marriage? (C) No witness is required
(A) Marriage with wife‘s sister when wife is alive (D) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Marriage with fifth woman in the presence of ANS: (C)
four wives
(C) Absence of required number of witnesses at the Q1237. In Shia School of Muslim Law the
time of marriage amount of Mehar is—
(D) All the above (A) Not legally fixed
ANS: (D) (B) 10 dirhams
(C) 100 dirhams
Q1230. Mahar-e-Misl determined on what (D) 500 dirhams
ground? ANS: (A)
(A) Personal characteristics of wife such as age,
extraordinary beauty Q1238. Doctrine of ‗cy-pres‘ is related with—
(B) Her father‘s family social status (A) Marriage
(C) Dower paid to women in her husband‘s family (B) Dower
(D) All the above (C) Gift
ANS: (D) (D) Wakfs
ANS: (D)
Q1231. What are the wife‘s rights when husband
does not pay the dower? Q1239. The term ‗Musha‘ under Muslim Law
(A) Refuse consummation means—
(B) File suit for recovery of dower (A) Divided property
(C) Keep possession over dead husband‘s property (B) Joint property
(D) All the above (C) Separate property
ANS: (D) (D) Undivided share in property
ANS: (D)
Q1232. In the absence of mother, which of the
following females has the first priority to have Q1240. A Sunni Muslim performs marriage
the custody of a Muslim child? during the period of ‗Iddat‘, the marriage is—
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(A) Void
(B) Valid Q1248. Under the Provisions of Transfer of
(C) Irregular Property Act, the unborn child acquires vested
(D) Voidable interest—
ANS: (C) (A) Upon his birth
(B) 7 days after his birth
Q1241. A Muslim mother is entitled to the (C) 12 days after his birth
custody of her female child until she attains— (D) 18 years after his birth
(A) The age of 7 years ANS: (A)
(B) Puberty
(C) Age of 11 years Q1249. Which one of the following Sections of
(D) Age of 15 years the Transfer of Property Act defines ―Transfer of
ANS: (B) Property‖?
(A) Section 3
Q1242. Dissolution of Muslim marriage by (B) Section 4
agreement is known as— (C) Section 5
(A) Talaq in ahsan (D) Section 6
(B) Illa ANS: (C)
(C) Zihar
(D) Khula Q1250. Which one of the following sections of
ANS: (D) the Transfer of Property Act, defines ‗Notice‘?
(A) Section 2
Q1243. Which ‗Wasiyat‘ is invalid in Muslim (B) Section 3
Law? (C) Section 5
(A) Wasiyat made in favour of religious school (D) Explanation II of Section 3
(B) Wasiyat made to the killer of legator ANS: (B)
(C) Wasiyat made for charity
(D) Wasiyat made to a non-muslim Q1251. The Privy Council decision in Tilakdhari
ANS: (B) Lal V. Khedan Lal relates to—
(A) Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act
Q1244. Which of the following is not a ground of (B) Section 41 of the Transfer of Property Act
divorce under the ‗Dissolution of Muslim (C) Section 107 of the Transfer of Property Act
Marriage Act‘, 1939? (D) Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act
(A) Absence of husband for four years or more ANS: (A)
(B) Imprisonment of husband for two years
(C) Failure of husband to maintain his wife Q1252. Which one of the following is not
(D) Impotency of husband correctly matched?
ANS: (B) (A) Oral transfer—Section 9 of the Transfer of
Property Act
Q1245. Which of the following statement is not (B) Rule against perpetuity—Section 14 of the
correct with regard to Muslim Law? Transfer of Property Act
(A) Nephew gets twice the share of niece (C) Doctrine of election—Section 35 of the Transfer
(B) Son gets twice the share of a daughter of Property Act
(C) Brother gets twice the share of a sister (D) Transfer by Ostensible Owner—Section 40 of
(D) Widower gets twice the share of a widow the Transfer of Property Act
ANS: (A) ANS: (D)

Q1246. What is right of ‗Pre-emption‘? Q1253. Which one of the following Provisions of
(A) A right to seek eviction of tenant and get vacant the Transfer of Property Act relates to
possession ‗usufructuary mortgage‘?
(B) A right to purchase property in preference to (A) Section 58 (a)
other person (B) Section 58 (b)
(C) A right to presume adversely (C) Section 58 (d)
(D) None of the above (D) Section 58 (e)
ANS: (B) ANS: (C)

Q1247. Rule against perpetuity will not be Q1254. Which one of the following cases does
applicable in— not pertain to the doctrine of ‗part
(A) Perpetual transfer for gift performance‘?
(B) Personal contracts (A) Arrif Vs. Jadu Nath
(C) Vested interest (B) Prabodh Kumar Vs. Dantmara Tea Co.
(D) All of the above (C) Sardar Govind Rao Mahadik Vs. Devi Sahai
ANS: (D) (D) Ram Baran Prasad Vs. Ram Mohit Hazra
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ANS: (D) (A) Share in copyright
(B) Interest in mortgaged property
Q1255. Which Provisions of the Transfer of (C) Right to future maintenance
Property Act defines ‗lease‘? (D) Immovable property
(A) Section 105 ANS: (C)
(B) Section 106
(C) Section 107 Q1263. Which of the following sections of the
(D) Section 108 Transfer of Property Act deals with ―effect of
ANS: (A) holding over a lease‖?
(A) Section 114 A
Q1256. The provision of fraudulent transfer is (B) Section 115
given in— (C) Section 115 A
(A) Section 49 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (D) Section 116
(B) Section 50 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 ANS: (D)
(C) Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(D) Section 53 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 Q1264. In which of the following conditions the
ANS: (D) lease can be terminated?
(A) Efflux of time
Q1257. The gift of future property is— (B) On termination of lessor‘s interest or power
(A) Void (C) On merger
(B) Voidable (D) All the above
(C) Valid ANS: (D)
(D) Conditionally void
ANS: (A) Q1265. The doctrine of ―lis pendens‖ is
explained in famous case of —
Q1258. Which Section of the Transfer of (A) Bellamy Vs. Sabine
Property Act, 1882 was amended in the year (B) Musahur Sahu Vs. Hakim Lal
2002? (C) Muhammad ShafiVs. Muhammad Sayed
(A) Section 106 (D) Tulk V. Moxhay
(B) Section 100 ANS: (A)
(C) Section 108
(D) Section 110 Q1266. Transfer of a right to enjoy the
ANS: (A) immovable property for a certain time is—
(A) Mortgage
Q1259. The rule of lis pendens applies when— (B) Agreement to lease
(A) The suit or proceeding in which right to (C) Licence
immovable property is indirectly in question (D) Lease
(B) A suit or proceeding in which right to ANS: (D)
immovable property is pending between two
persons and one of them sells the property Q1267. In case of gift, the donee dies before
(C) The suit or proceeding is pending in a court acceptance, then—
which does not have jurisdiction (A) Gift is voidable
(D) Litigation is not bonafide but collusive (B) Gift is valid
ANS: (B) (C) Gift is void
(D) None of the above
Q1260. Transfer of Property Act came into force ANS: (C)
on—
(A) July 01, 1882 Q1268. The mortgagor‘s right to redeem the
(B) August 01, 1882 mortgaged property accrues—
(C) September 01, 1882 (A) At any time after the mortgage
(D) October 01, 1882 (B) At any time after the mortgage money has
ANS: (A) become due
(C) At any time when the mortgagor wants
Q1261. In the Transfer of Property Act, (D) At any time mortgagee demands the money
immovable property does not include— ANS: (B)
(A) Building
(B) Land Q1269. Which one of the following mortgages
(C) Pond does not require writing and registration?
(D) Standing timber (A) Usufructuary mortgage
ANS: (D) (B) Simple mortgage
(C) English mortgage
Q1262. Which of the following properties cannot (D) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds
be transferred? ANS: (D)
 MockTime.com
Q1277. Which one of the following Sections of
Q1270. Which of the following is included in the the Indian Evidence Act says ―facts admitted
term ‗living person‘ under Section 5 of the need not be proved‖?
Transfer of Property Act? (A) Section 18
(A) A company (B) Section 21
(B) An association (C) Section 55
(C) Body of individuals (D) Section 58
(D) All of the above ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q1278. Section 113-B, ‗presumption as to dowry
Q1271. Section 11 of the Transfer of Property death‘ was added to the Indian Evidence Act
Act will be applicable only when the interest in—
transferred in the property is— (A) 1986
(A) Limited (B) 1983
(B) Absolute (C) 1961
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) 1962
(D) None of the above ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q1279. Which one of the following is not
Q1272. Which statement is not correct? correctly matched?
(A) Some facts are relevant but not admissible (A) Child witness: Section 118
(B) Some facts are admissible but not relevant (B) Dumb witness: Section 120
(C) All relevant facts are admissible (C) Hostile witness: Section 154
(D) All admissible facts are not relevant (D) Expert witness: Section 45
ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q1273. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Q1280. The illustration that, ―A and B are
Act deals with ―Doctrine of confirmation by jointly tried for the murder of C. It is proved
subsequent facts‖? that A said, ‗B and I murdered C‘,‖ relates—
(A) Section 27 (A) Section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 115 (B) Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 102 (C) Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 165 (D) Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q1274. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Q1281. Identification parade is relevant under—
Act is not on ‗shifting of burden of proof‘? (A) Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act
(A) Section 101 (B) Section 9 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 102 (C) Section 10 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 105 (D) Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 108 ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q1282. Which of the following Sections was
Q1275. Which Section of the Indian Evidence amended by the Indian Technology Act, 2000?
Act is related with doctrine of ‗Res ipsa (A) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act
loquitor‘? (B) Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act
(A) Section 102 (C) Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 104 (D) Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 106 ANS: (B)
(D) Section 108
ANS: (C) Q1283. Section 113–A of the Indian Evidence
Act was added in—
Q1276. Which one of the following Sections of (A) Year 1982
the Indian Evidence Act provides for (B) Year 1983
admissibility of secondary evidence? (C) Year 1988
(A) Section 60 (D) Year 1980
(B) Section 61 ANS: (B)
(C) Section 63
(D) Section 65 Q1284. The Indian Evidence Act deals with—
ANS: (D) (A) ‗presumptio juris‘ only
(B) ‗presumptio huminis‘ only
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

ANS: (C)
Q1285. Indian Evidence Act deals privilege—
(A) As a right only
(B) As a duty only
(C) As a right and duty both
(D) Neither as a right nor as a duty
ANS: (C)
Q1286. Facts supporting or rebutting
opinion of the experts are relevant under—
(A) Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 46 of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 50 of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 51 of the Indian Evidence Act
ANS: (B)
Q1287. Which one of the following cases does
not relate to ‗dying declaration‘?
(A) Queen Emperess Vs. Abdullah
(B) Pakala Narayan Swamy Vs. King Emperor
(C) Zafar Vs. State of U.P.
(D) Ratangond Vs. State of Bihar
ANS: (C)
Q1288. Case of Pakala Narayan Swami V s. King
Emperor is related with—
(A) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act
(B) Section 21(1) of the Indian Evidence Act
(C) Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act
ANS: (C)
Q1289. Who amongst the following is an expert
under the Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Hand-writing expert
(B) Finger print expert
(C) Ballistics expert
(D) All of the above
ANS: (D)
Q1290. Under which Section of the Indian
Evidence Act the principle of ‗Res Gestae‘ is
given?
(A) Section 12
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 2
(D) Section 15
ANS: (B)
Q1291. Under Section 17 of the Indian Evidence
Act, the ‗admission‘ is—
(A) Written only
(B) Oral only
(C) Both written or oral
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C)
Q1292. Which of the following Sections of the
Indian Evidence Act relates to accomplice?
(A) Section 30
(B) Section 133
(C) Section 134
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(D) Section 29
ANS: (B)
Q1293. Under Section 122 of the Indian
Evidence Act, ‗privilege‘ is available to—
(A) Judges
(B) Advocates
(C) Magistrates
(D) Husband and Wife
the ANS: (D)
Q1294. In which of the following cases hearsay
evidence is not admissible?
(A) Statement of experts expressed in treaties, if the
author is dead or cannot be found
(B) Where eye-witness told the facts to another
person, statement of that person
(C) If the statement is of a deceased person, when it
related to cause of his death
(D) If the statement is part of the transactionin-
issue
ANS: (B)
Q1295. Which one of the following is not a
document under the Indian Evidence Act?
(A) An inscription on a stone of a building
(B) A photograph
(C) A printout of a message sent through mobile or
computer
(D) A knife recovered by police from the possession
of an accused and produced in the court
ANS: (D)
Q1296. Which Section of the Indian Evidence
Act provides that contents of the document
must be proved by primary evidence?
(A) Section 61
(B) Section 62
(C) Section 63
(D) Section 64
ANS: (D)
Q1297. A Hindu couple having the decree of
judicial separation wants to live together—
(A) They can live together
(B) They cannot live together
(C) They can live together after re-marriage
(D) They can live together only after the permission
of the court
ANS: (A)
Q1298. ‗A‘, a Hindu male, having undivided
interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary property
dies leaving behind two sons and one daughter.
The daughter is entitled to the following share
in the property—
(A) 1 3
(B) 1 4
(C) 1 9
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
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Q1299. Hindu law does not apply to a person (B) Cognates, Agnates, Class I heirs, Class II heirs
who is a Hindu by— (C) Class I heirs, Class II heirs, Agnates, Cognates
(A) Birth (D) Class I heirs, Class II heirs, Cognates, Agnates
(B) Conversion ANS: (C)
(C) Re-conversion
(D) None of the above Q1307. Provisions of Section 24 of the Hindu
ANS: (D) Marriage Act, 1955 corresponds to—
(A) Section 36 of the Special Marriage Act, 1954
Q1300. Who is a Hindu among following? (B) Section 36 of the Indian Divorce Act, 1869
(A) A legitimate child of Sikh male and Jain female (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) An illegitimate child of Sikh male and Jain (D) None of the above
female ANS: (C)
(C) An illegitimate child of Hindu male and Parsi
female and who was brought up as a Hindu Q1308. Consent theory of divorce was
(D) All of the above introduced in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 in
ANS: (D) the year—
(A) 1979
Q1301. ‗Dayabhaga‘ is authored by— (B) 1976
(A) Vijnaneshwara (C) 1964
(B) Yagyavalkya (D) 1956
(C) Jimutavahana ANS: (B)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q1309. ―A person is not disqualified from
succeeding to any property on the ground of
Q1302. Vijnaneshwara is a famous commentator any disease, defect or deformity‖ is provided
of— under—
(A) Manu Smriti (A) Section 28 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(B) Narad Smriti (B) Section 29 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(C) Yagyavalkya Smriti (C) Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q1303. In regard to a Hindu marriage, ‗Sapinda Q1310. Which one of the following Sections of
relationship‘ of any person is counted upto— the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with
(A) Fifth generation in the line of ascent through ―Restitution of Conjugal Rights‖?
father only (A) Section 5
(B) Third generation in the line of ascent through (B) Section 9
mother only (C) Section 10
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Section 11
(D) None of the above ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q1311. If parties to a Hindu marriage are
Q1304. Pre-martial relation of a spouse is a sapinda to each other, the marriage is—
statutory ground for— (A) Void
(A) Judicial separation (B) Voidable
(B) Divorce (C) Valid
(C) Nullity of marriage (D) None of the above
(D) None of the above ANS: (A)
ANS: (D)
Q1312. A Hindu married woman of 32 years of
Q1305. A Hindu male of 28 years of age adopts a age adopts a male child of 8 years with the
female child of 13 years of age. The adoption consent of her husband. The adoption is—
is— (A) Valid
(A) Valid (B) Not valid
(B) Voidable (C) Voidable at the option of husband
(C) Illegal (D) None of the above
(D) Void ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q1313. A Hindu dies intestate leaving behind
Q1306. Order of succession under the Hindu two sons, one daughter and widow. His property
Succession Act of a male Hindu dying intestate shall devolve to—
is as follows— (A) Sons only
(A) Agnates, Cognates, Class I heirs, Class II heirs (B) Sons and daughter only
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(C) Widow only
(D) Sons, daughter and widow all Q1321. Which one of the following is a leading
ANS: (D) case on entries in books of account when
relevant?
Q1314. Under Hindu Succession Act, 1956, who (A) R. V. Govinda
amongst the following is not in Class I heir? (B) Pakla Narayan Swamy V. King Emperor
(A) Father (C) Moti Singh V. State of U.P.
(B) Mother (D) L. K. Advani V. C.B.I.
(C) Son ANS: (D)
(D) Daughter
ANS: (A) Q1322. Which one of the following is a leading
case on confession to persons in authority?
Q1315. Under Mitakshara School Coparcenary (A) Ramesh Chandra Mehta V. State of W.B.
interest devolves by— (B) Pyare Lal Bhargawa V. State of Rajasthan
(A) Representation (C) Queen Empress V. Babu Lal
(B) Survivorship (D) Sita Ram V. State
(C) Obstructed heritage ANS: (B)
(D) Unobstructed heritage
ANS: (B) Q1323. Who among the following is not an
accomplice?
Q1316. Under the Hindu Adoption and (A) Trap witness
Maintenance Act, 1956, which of the following (B) A raped girl
is not entitled to adopt? (C) An eye witness to a murder
(A) An unmarried person (D) All the above
(B) Husband with the consent of wife ANS: (D)
(C) Wife who is divorced
(D) Husband without the consent of wife Q1324. Under which one of the following
ANS: (D) Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
a police officer can arrest a person without an
Q1317. Under which Section of the Hindu order from a Magistrate and without warrant?
Marriage Act, 1955, the provision relating to (A) Section 40
registration of marriage is given? (B) Section 51
(A) Section 8 (C) Section 42
(B) Section 7 (D) Section 41
(C) Section 6 ANS: (D)
(D) Section 5
ANS: (A) Q1325. Under which one of the following
Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 an
Q1318. Under which Section of the Hindu accused person can himself be a competent
Marriage Act, 1955, husband and wife may file a witness?
petition of divorce by mutual consent? (A) Section 315
(A) Section 13–A (B) Section 313
(B) Section 13–B (C) Section 300
(C) Section 14 (D) Section 317
(D) Section 9 ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q1326. Which one of the following Sections of
Q1319. Things said or done by conspirator in Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that
reference to common design is relevant fact ―No statement made by any person to a Police
under which Section of the Evidence Act? Officer in the course of investigation shall, if
(A) Section 11 reduced in writing, be signed by the person
(B) Section 13 making it‖?
(C) Section 10 (A) Section 164
(D) Section 12 (B) Section 163
ANS: (C) (C) Section 162
(D) Section 161
Q1320. Indian Evidence Act came into force ANS: (C)
on—
(A) 1st September, 1872 Q1327. Under which one of the following
(B) 1st January, 1872 Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
(C) 9th September, 1872 armed forces can be used to disperse assembly
(D) 9th January, 1872 for maintaining of public security?
ANS: (A) (A) Section 132
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(B) Section 131 ANS: (A)
(C) Section 129
(D) Section 130 Q1334. Which one of the following Sections of
ANS: (D) Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is applied when
the officer in-charge of a police station receives
Q1328. Under which Section of the following of any information that a person has committed
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the accused suicide?
shall be supplied the copy of police report and (A) Section 154
other documents by the Magistrate? (B) Section 174
(A) Section 205 (C) Section 147
(B) Section 209 (D) Section 181
(C) Section 207 ANS: (B)
(D) Section 208
ANS: (C) Q1335. Under which Section of the Code of
Criminal Procedure a person who is avoiding
Q1329. An Assistant Session Judge is appointed execution of a warrant may be proclaimed
by— absconder?
(A) State Government (A) Section 81
(B) State Public Service Commission (B) Section 83
(C) Session Judge (C) Section 82
(D) High Court of the concerned State (D) Section 84
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q1330. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 Q1336. ―The Public Prosecutor or Assistant
the nature of non-cognizable offence is— Public Prosecutor in-charge of a case may with
(A) Bailable and simple the consent of the Court, at any time before the
(B) Bailable and grave judgment is pronounced withdraw from the
(C) Only of grave nature prosecution of any person either generally or in
(D) All the above respect of any one or more of the offences for
ANS: (A) which he is tried.‖ This is related with which of
the following Sections of the Code of Criminal
Q1331. Under which one of the following Procedure?
Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 (A) Section 323
summons to produce documents may be issued (B) Section 322
to the person in whose possession they are? (C) Section 321
(A) Section 90 (D) None of the above
(B) Section 95 ANS: (C)
(C) Section 94
(D) Section 91 Q1337. Which one of the following is not
ANS: (D) correctly matched?
(A) Conditional order for removal of nuisance —
Section 133
(B) Procedure where existence of public right is
denied — Section 137
(C) Dispute concerning right of use of land or water
Q1332. In which one of the following Sections
— Section 147
of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
(D) Power to issue order in urgent cases of nuisance
provisions relating to free legal aid has been
or apprehended danger— Section 145
provided?
ANS: (D)
(A) Section 304
(B) Section 305
Q1338. Which one of the following Sections of
(C) Section 307
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides that a
(D) Section 310
person once convicted or acquitted cannot be
ANS: (A)
tried again for the same offence?
(A) Section 298
Q1333. Which one of the following Sections of
(B) Section 299
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides
(C) Section 300
sentence of imprisonment by the Court of
(D) Section 301
Magistrate in default of fine?
ANS: (C)
(A) Section 30(1)
(B) Section 31
Q1339. Which one of the following Sections of
(C) Section 32
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 provides for
(D) Section 34
joint trial of several offences?
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(A) Section 224 ANS: (A)
(B) Section 221
(C) Section 222 Q1346. Which one of the following Sections of
(D) Section 223 Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is related to
ANS: (D) ―Interpretator is bound to interpret truthfully‖?
(A) Section 272
Q1340. Which one of the following Sections is (B) Section 284
related to the appointment of Assistant Public (C) Section 280
Prosecutor under Criminal Procedure Code, (D) Section 282
1973? ANS: (D)
(A) Section 20
(B) Section 24 Q1347. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
(C) Section 13 the object of investigation is—
(D) Section 25 (A) To arrest the accused
ANS: (D) (B) To punish the accused
(C) To collect evidence against the accused
Q1341. Which one of the following offence is (D) None of the above
triable summarily? ANS: (C)
(A) Wrongful restraint
(B) Abduction Q1348. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 a
(C) Mischief reference can be made to—
(D) Offences not punishable with death, (A) Supreme Court
imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term (B) High Court
exceeding two years (C) Session Court
ANS: (D) (D) High Court or Session Court
ANS: (B)
Q1342. Under which one of the Sections of
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 High Court‘s Q1349. Under Section 18 of the Uttarakhand
Power of Revision is provided? Police Act, 2007 who may appoint a Legal
(A) Section 399 Advisor and a Financial Controller to assist and
(B) Section 400 advise the Director General of Police on legal
(C) Section 401 and financial matters respectively?
(D) Section 403 (A) Director General of Police himself
ANS: (C) (B) Police Establishment Committee
(C) On the recommendation of the Police
Q1343. Under which one of the following Establishment Committee by the State Government
Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 (D) State Government
inherent powers can be exercised by the High ANS: (D)
Court?
(A) Section 482 Q1350. Under which Section of the Uttarakhand
(B) Section 483 Police Act, 2007 it is contained that it shall be
(C) Section 484 the duty of every officer in-charge of a police
(D) Section 480 station to keep a general diary?
ANS: (A) (A) Section 44
(B) Section 47
Q1344. Under which of the following Sections of (C) Section 48
the Code of Criminal Procedure provides issue (D) Section 46
of commission for the examination of the ANS: (B)
President or the Vice President of India as a
witness? Q1351. Who is authorised for overall
(A) Section 286 administration of Public Force under the
(B) Section 284 Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007?
(C) Section 287 (A) Inspector General of Police
(D) None of the above (B) Director General of Police
ANS: (B) (C) Superintendent of Police
(D) None of the above
Q1345. Which one of the following Sections of ANS: (B)
Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is related to the
prosecution for offences against marriage? Q1352. Under the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007,
(A) Section 198 a Police Officer posted as an officer-in-charge of
(B) Section 199 a police station, shall have a minimum term
(C) Section 196 of—
(D) Section 197 (A) Two years
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(B) One year Q1359. Section 31 of Uttarakhand Police Act,
(C) Three years 2007 contains—
(D) Six months (A) Terms and privileges of Independent Members
ANS: (B) (B) Removal of Independent Members
(C) Selection of Independent Members of the State
Q1353. Under which Section of the Uttarakhand Police Board
Police Act, 2007, penalties for neglect of duty (D) Composition of the Board
by police officer are given? ANS: (C)
(A) Section 85
(B) Section 88 Q1360. Under which Section of the Uttarakhand
(C) Section 86 Police Act, 2007 police officer is mandated not
(D) Section 87 to withdraw himself from duties of his office?
ANS: (A) (A) Section 44
(B) Section 42
Q1354. Under the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007, (C) Section 45
who creates police station? (D) Section 31
(A) Director General of Police ANS: (A)
(B) State Government
(C) High Court of the State Q1361. ―A senior police officer may perform any
(D) District Magistrate duty assigned by law or by a lawful order to any
ANS: (B) officer subordinate to him.‖ This has been
provided in which of the following Sections of
Q1355. The administration of Police District the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007?
shall be vested in— (A) Section 30
(A) Superintendent of Police (B) Section 38
(B) Inspector General of Police (C) Section 40
(C) Deputy Inspector General of Police (D) Section 41
(D) Superintendent of Police under the general ANS: (D)
coordination and direction of the District
Magistrate Q1362. Under the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007
ANS: (D) to whom appeal lies against the punishment
given by the Director General of Police?
Q1356. Who amongst the following may create a (A) Police Establishment Committee
State Intelligence Department? (B) State Government
(A) Legislature of the Uttar Pradesh (C) Home Minister of the State
(B) Director General of Police (D) High Court
(C) Inspector General of Police ANS: (B)
(D) State Government
ANS: (D) Q1363. Who shall prescribe an insurance
coverage for all police officers against injury,
Q1357. Section 84 of the Uttarakhand Police disability or death caused while on duty?
Act, 2007, deals with— (A) Police Establishment Committee
(A) Penalties for neglect of duty by Police Officer etc. (B) Police Welfare Bureau
(B) Unauthorised use of Police uniform (C) Director General of Police
(C) Power to make Rules and Regulations (D) State Government
(D) Offences of disorderly conduct ANS: (B)
ANS: (B)
Q1364. The distinction between culpable
Q1358. Which of the following punishments homicide and murder as defined in I.P.C. was
may be awarded as disciplinary penalties under pointed out in the decision of—
Section 23 of the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007? (A) R. V. Beard
1. Dismissal (B) R. V. Tolson
2. Removal from service (C) R. V. Govinda
3. Reduction in salary (D) R. V. Prince
4. Withholding promotion Select the correct ANS: (C)
answer with the help of the codes given below—
Codes: Q1365. The maxim ―de minimis non curat lex‖
(A) 1, 2 and 3 is related to which of the following Sections of
(B) 1, 3 and 4 the I.P.C.?
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (A) Section 95
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) Section 89
ANS: (D) (C) Section 94
(D) Section 93
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ANS: (A) crime. Under which Section of I.P.C. the police
officer is guilty of an offence?
Q1366. Attempt to commit culpable homicide is (A) Section 325
provided in Indian Penal Code under— (B) Section 326
(A) Section 305 (C) Section 328
(B) Section 306 (D) Section 330
(C) Section 307 ANS: (D)
(D) Section 308
ANS: (D) Q1373. ‗A‘ threatens to set a savage dog at ‗Z‘, if
‗Z‘ goes along a path which ‗Z‘ has a right to go.
Q1367. Against which of the following offences In this case ‗A‘ commits—
right of private defence of body does not extend (A) No offence
to the causing of death? (B) Offence of hurt
(A) Rape (C) Wrongful restraint
(B) Gratifying unnatural lust (D) Wrongful confinement
(C) Causing miscarriage ANS: (C)
(D) Kidnapping
ANS: (C) Q1374. ‗A‘ forcibly carries or entices ‗B‘ away
from his home in order that ‗B‘ may be
Q1368. Which one of the following is presumed murdered. ‗A‘ has committed the offence in
under law to be ‗doli incapax‘ to commit a Indian Penal Code under—
crime? (A) Section 362
(A) A child of under 7 years of age (B) Section 364
(B) A child of under 10 years of age (C) Section 365
(C) A child above 7 years and under 12 years of age (D) Section 367
(D) A child between 10 years and 14 years of age ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q1375. Which of the following Section of the
Q1369. There were verbal exchanges between Indian Penal Code is related to ‗dowry death‘?
the husband ‗A‘ and wife ‗B‘. A fell the wife, sat (A) Section 304
on her chest with a knife in his hand. On her (B) Section 304-B
cries her sister and mother working nearby in (C) Section 113-A
the same field ran to her rescue. B snatched the (D) Section 113-B
knife and inflicted wounds of which A died. ANS: (B)
Choose the correct answer given below—
(A) B has committed offence of murder of A Q1376. In which of the following Provision of
(B) B has acted in her right of self defence the Indian Penal Code ‗forgery‘ is defined?
(C) B has committed offence of culpable homicide (A) Section 460
(D) B, her sister and mother all has committed (B) Section 461
offence of murder of A (C) Section 462
ANS: (A) (D) Section 463
ANS: (D)
Q1370. ‗A‘ i s at work with proper caution with
a hatchet. The head flies off and kills a man who Q1377. Which one of the following defences is
is standing by. ‗A‘ is guilty of the offence of— related to Mc‗Naghten‘s Case (1843)?
(A) Murder (A) Infancy
(B) Attempt to murder (B) Insanity
(C) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder (C) Intoxication
(D) None of the above (D) Consent
ANS: (D) ANS: (B)

Q1371. Imputations, assertions prejudicial to Q1378. The abetment of an abetment is an

national integration have been provided under offence in Indian Penal Code under—
which of the following Sections of the Indian (A) Section 107
Penal Code? (B) Section 108
(A) Section 154 (C) Section 109
(B) Section 153 A (D) Section 110
(C) Section 153 B ANS: (B)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C) Q1379. ‗A‘ commits sexual intercourse with his
own wife aged under 15 years with her consent.
Q1372. ‗A‘, a police officer, tortures ‗B‘ in order ‗A‘ is guilty of—
to induce ‗B‘ to confess that he committed a (A) No offence
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(B) Rape
(C) Assault Q1387. Under Indian Penal Code, in robbery
(D) Use of criminal force there is—
ANS: (B) (A) Theft and dacoity
(B) Extortion and dacoity
Q1380. In which of the following Section of the (C) Neither theft nor extortion
Indian Penal Code, the provision relating to (D) Either theft or extortion
intercourse by public servant with woman in his ANS: (D)
custody is given?
(A) Section 376-A Q1388. Under which one of the following
(B) Section 376-C Sections of Indian Penal Code, the principle of
(C) Section 376-B ‗joint criminal liability‘ is applicable?
(D) Section 376 (A) Section 36
ANS: (C) (B) Section 39
(C) Section 34
Q1381. Which one of the following offences (D) Section 40
cannot be committed at a private place? ANS: (C)
(A) Murder
(B) Riot Q1389. How many kinds of hurt are designated
(C) Assault as ‗grievous hurt‘ under Section 320, I.P.C.?
(D) Affray (A) Five
ANS: (D) (B) Six
(C) Seven
Q1382. With whom the offence of adultery may (D) Eight
be committed under the Indian Penal Code? ANS: (D)
(A) Married woman
(B) Unmarried woman Q1390. Which Section o f IPC defines criminal
(C) Both (A) and (B) above conspiracy?
(D) None of the above (A) Section 120 A
ANS: (A) (B) Section 120 B
(C) Section 121
Q1383. The term ‗thug‘ has been defined in (D) Section 121 A
which of the following Sections of the Indian ANS: (A)
Penal Code?
(A) Section 306 Q1391. ‗A‘ makes an attempt to steal some
(B) Section 307 jewels by breaking open a box and finds after so
(C) Section 310 opening the box, that here is no jewel in it.
(D) Section 311 What is the offence of ‗A‘?
ANS: (C) (A) Theft
(B) Attempt to commit theft
Q1384. The case of K. M. Nanawati Vs. State of (C) Robbery
Maharashtra is related to— (D) No offence
(A) Theft ANS: (B)
(B) Dacoity
(C) Abetment Q1392. Section 387 I.P.C. relates to—
(D) Grave and sudden provocation (A) Extortion by putting a person in fear of death
ANS: (D) (B) Putting person in fear of death or of grievous
hurt in order to commit extortion
Q1385. ‗A‘ spits over ‗B‘ which caused (C) Extortion by threat of accusation of an offence
annoyance to ‗B‘. In this case ‗A‘ is guilty of— punishable with death or imprisonment for life etc.
(A) Hurt (D) None of the above
(B) Assault ANS: (B)
(C) Using criminal force
(D) Both (B) and (C) above Q1393. A, finds a rupee on the highway not
ANS: (C) knowing to whom the rupee belongs. A picks up
the rupee. A, has committed the offence of—
Q1386. Point out the case where actual (A) Dishonest appropriation of property
commission of an offence cannot be punished— (B) Theft
(A) Theft (C) Dishonestly receiving stolen property
(B) Attempt to theft (D) None of the above
(C) Suicide ANS: (D)
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C)
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Q1394. Z, under the influence of madness ANS: (B)
attempts to kill A. In this case which of the
following is correct? Q1400. Which one of the following Sections of
(A) Z is guilty of attempt to murder, but A has right Indian Evidence Act deals with relevancy of
of private defence opinion as to digital signature?
(B) Z is guilty of no offence, but A has the right of (A) Section 48 A
private defence (B) Section 46 A
(C) Z is guilty of no offence, but A has no right of (C) Section 49 A
private defence (D) Section 47 A
(D) None of the above is correct ANS: (D)
ANS: (B)
Q1401. Facts which form part of the same
Q1395. The maxim ignorantia jun‘s non transaction are relevant under which Section of
excusat— Evidence Act?
(A) Does not apply to criminal offences (A) Section 6
(B) Admits exceptions (B) Section 7
(C) Admits exception only in case of a foreigner who (C) Section 5
cannot reasonably be supposed to know the law of (D) Section 9
the land ANS: (A)
(D) Admits no exception
ANS: (D) Q1402. Tape recorded statements are—
(A) Documentary evidence
Q1396. Which in the following is not inchoate (B) Oral Evidence
crime? (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Attempt (D) None of the above
(B) Criminal conspiracy ANS: (A)
(C) Abetment
(D) Kidnapping Q1403. Confession made by a person in police
ANS: (D) custody shall not be proved as against such
person under which Section of the Evidence
Q1397. A, a school teacher for the purposes of Act?
enforcing discipline inflicts moderate (A) Section 25
punishment upon a student aged about 11 (B) Section 26
years. In this case— (C) Section 27
(A) A is entitled to claim defence under Section 89 (D) Section 28
of I.P.C. ANS: (B)
(B) A is guilty of causing simple hurt
(C) A is guilty of using criminal force Q1404. Queen Empress V. Abdullah is a leading
(D) A is entitled to claim defence under Section 88 case on—
of I.P.C. (A) Admission
ANS: (A) (B) Confession
(C) Statement
Q1398. A, knows Z to be behind a bush, B does (D) Dying declaration
not know it, A intending to cause or knowing it ANS: (D)
to be likely to cause Z‘s death, induced to B to
fire at the bush. B, fires and killed Z. In this Q1405. How many Sections and Chapters are
case what would be the offence of A and B? there in Indian Evidence Act?
(A) B is not guilty of any offence, but A has (A) 164 Sections and 10 Chapters
committed the offence of murder (B) 167 Sections and 10 Chapters
(B) B is guilty of culpable homicide and A has (C) 167 Sections and 11 Chapters
committed the offence of murder (D) 167 Sections and 9 Chapters
(C) B is not guilty of any offence, but A has ANS: (C)
committed the offence of culpable homicide.
(D) B and A both have not committed any offence Q1406. Under Section 8 of the Evidence Act,
ANS: (C) which of the following is relevant?
(A) Motive
Q1399. ‗A‘ says to ‗B‘ that he has finished his (B) Preparation
wife forever. Under Indian Evidence Act this (C) Conduct
statement amounts to— (D) All the above
(A) Admission ANS: (D)
(B) Confession
(C) Statement Q1407. Admissibility of electronic records is
(D) All the above prescribed under—
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(A) Section 65 A Q1414. Anything, state of things or relation of
(B) Section 65 B things, capable of being perceived by the senses,
(C) Section 65 is—
(D) Section 66 (A) An evidence
ANS: (B) (B) Fact
(C) Facts in issue
Q1408. Death may be presumed, if it is proved (D) None of the above
that one has not been heared of for— ANS: (B)
(A) 10 years
(B) 20 years Q1415. The principle of estoppel is given under
(C) 12 years which of the following Sections of the Indian
(D) 7 years Evidence Act?
ANS: (D) (A) Section 115
(B) Section 114
Q1409. The question is, whether a certain (C) Section 114 A
document was written by A. In this case which (D) None of the above
of the following is/are relevant? ANS: (A)
(A) Another document is produced which is written
by A Q1416. Dagdu V. State of Maharashtra is related
(B) The opinions of experts on the question whether with—
the two documents were written by A (A) Accomplice
(C) The opinions of experts on the question whether (B) Burden of proof
the two documents were written by different (C) Res-gestae
persons (D) Hostile witness
(D) Both (B) and (C) ANS: (A)
ANS: (D)
Q1417. The object of cross-examination is to
Q1410. Which Section of the Indian Evidence examine—
Act makes the Provision that there shall be no (A) The intelligence of the witness
new trial on the ground of improper admission (B) Impartiality of the witness
or rejection of evidence? (C) Reliability of the witness
(A) Section 166 (D) Good behaviour of the witness
(B) Section 165 ANS: (C)
(C) Section 167
(D) Section 161 Q1418. Which Provision of the Indian Evidence
ANS: (C) Act deals with dying declaration?
(A) Section 32(4)
Q1411. Evidence of an accomplice is relevant— (B) Section 32(1)
(A) Under Section 133 (C) Section 125
(B) Under Section 124 (D) Section 131
(C) Under Section 134 ANS: (B)
(D) Under Section 167
ANS: (A) Q1419. Who administers oath to the Governor
of a State?
Q1412. What is the definition of ‗not proved‘ in (A) President of India
the Indian Evidence Act? (B) Chief Justice of the State High Court
(A) A fact is said not to be proved when it is not (C) Advocate General of the State
proved (D) None of the Above
(B) A fact is said not to be proved when it is not ANS: (B)
disproved
(C) A fact is said not to be proved when it is neither Q1420. A person whose fundamental rights are
proved nor disproved violated can move the High Court under—
(D) None of the above (A) Article 20
ANS: (C) (B) Article 226
(C) Article 32
Q1413. Leading questions may be asked in— (D) Article 22
(A) Examination-in-chief ANS: (B)
(B) Cross-examination
(C) Re-examination Q1421. Which of the following protects personal
(D) All the above freedom?
ANS: (B) (A) Quo-warranto
(B) Mandamus
(C) Habeas Corpus
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(D) Certiorari
ANS: (C) Q1429. An Agreement in restraint of marriage of
any person other than a minor is a—
Q1422. Preamble of the Constitution declares (A) Legal Contract
India as— (B) Voidable Contract
(A) A Socialist Democratic Republic (C) Fraudulent Contract
(B) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic (D) Void Contract
Republic ANS: (D)
(C) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(D) A None of the above Q1430. ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ contract to marry each other,
ANS: (B) before the time fixed for the marriage, ‗A‘ goes
mad, the contract becomes—
Q1423. Who among the following was the (A) Voidable Contract
Chairman of the Constitution Drafting (B) Conditional Contract
Committee? (C) Contingent Contract
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (D) Void Contract
(B) Motilal Nehru ANS: (D)
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Sardar Patel Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 Q1431. ‗A‘ proposes by a letter to sell his house
ANS: (A) to ‗B‘ for certain price, communication of this
proposal is complete when—
Q1424. Power granted to a Court under Section (A) ‗A‘ dispatches the letter
151 of the Code of Civil Procedure is known as— (B) ‗A‘ has completed writing the letter
(A) Inherent power (C) ‗B‘ gets information about posting of the letter
(B) Appellate power (D) ‗B‘ receives the letter
(C) Revisional power ANS: (D)
(D) Reviewing power
ANS: (A) Q1432. Where the order in which reciprocal
promises are to be performed is expressly fixed
Q1425. An application for amendment of by the contract, they shall be performed in that
pleadings is filed under— order; and where the order is not expressly fixed
(A) Order 6 Rule 17 it shall be performed—
(B) Order 6 Rule 5 (A) In that order which the nature of transaction
(C) Order 38 Rule 5 requires
(D) Order 21 Rule 1 (B) In the order as one of the parties prefer
ANS: (A) (C) As desired by the proposal
(D) None of the above
Q1426. Provisions with regard to res judicata ANS: (A)
are provided in Section …… of the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908. Q1433. ‗A‘ promises to obtain for ‗B‘ an
(A) Section 9 employment in public service and ‗B‘ promises
(B) Section 12 to pay Rs. 1,000 to ‗A‘, the agreement between
(C) Section 100 ‗A‘ and ‗B‘—
(D) Section 11 (A) Is legal and proper
ANS: (D) (B) Can be enforced at the instance of ‗B‘
(C) Is void agreement
Q1427. A person instituting a suit in ‗form of a (D) None of the above
pauper‘ is known as— ANS: (C)
(A) Intelligent person
(B) Juristic person Q1434. A person employed to do any act for
(C) First person another or to represent another in dealings with
(D) Indigent person the third person is—
ANS: (D) (A) A principal
(B) A pawnor
Q1428. A suit shall be instituted in a Court (C) An agent
within the local limits of whose jurisdiction— (D) A bailor
(A) The plaintiff resides ANS: (C)
(B) The Stamp Paper for entering into the contract
was purchased Q1435. Insurance is a—
(C) Where no cause of action in part or full arose (A) Contingent contract
(D) Where the cause of action wholly or in part (B) Wagering contract
arose Indian Contract Act (C) Contract of indemnity
ANS: (D)
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(D) Contract of guarantee Indian Evidence Act, (C) Tahsildar
1872 (D) Superintendent of Land Record
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q1436. Copies made from or compared with the Q1443. Which amongst the following is not the
original is— duty of a Patel appointed under the Madhya
(A) Primary evidence Pradesh Land Revenue Code?
(B) Secondary evidence (A) To collect and pay Land Revenue into the Gram
(C) Inadmissible evidence Kosh
(D) None of these (B) To furnish reports regarding state of his village
ANS: (B) (C) To prevent encroachment on waste land, public
path and roadways
Q1437. Whether confession made to a Police (D) To maintain land records
Officer (while not in custody) by an accused of ANS: (D)
an offence can be proved against him and is a
……… Evidence. Q1444. Who is competent to transfer a revenue
(A) Admissible case from one District to another under Section
(B) Not admissible 29 of the M. P. Land Revenue Code?
(C) Partially admissible (A) State Government
(D) None of these (B) Board of Revenue
ANS: (B) (C) Chief Secretary
(D) Revenue Minister
Q1438. The following is not the exception to the ANS: (B)
rule of hearsay—
(A) Dying declaration Q1445. If a Bhumiswami is dispossessed of the
(B) Res gestae land otherwise then in due course of law who
(C) Medical Expert‘s Opinion can be ordered for restoration of the
(D) Confession possession?
ANS: (C) (A) Tahsildar
(B) Commissioner
Q1439. ‗A‘ is charged with travelling on a (C) Collector
railway without a ticket, the proving that he (D) S.D.O.
had a ticket is on— ANS: (A)
(A) Prosecution
(B) Accused Q1446. Wajib-ul-arz of a village is maintained by
(C) Complainant the—
(D) Prosecution witness The Madhya Pradesh Land (A) Patwari
Revenue Code (B) Kotwar
ANS: (B) (C) Sub-Divisional Officer
(D) Tahsildar
Q1440. Amongst the following who is not a ANS: (C)
Revenue Officer as defined under the Madhya
Pradesh Land Revenue Code? Q1447. Which one of the following matter is not
(A) Commissioner provided for in a Nistar Patrak; terms and
(B) Collector conditions on which—
(C) Settlement Officer (A) Grazing of cattle in the village is permissible
(D) Chairman, Board of Revenue (B) The right to fishing may be obtained by a
ANS: (D) resident
(C) Wood, Timber or Fuel may be obtained by a
Q1441. Revision powers are exercised by the resident
Board of Revenue under ………… of the Madhya (D) Mooram, Kankar or Sand may be obtained by a
Pradesh Land Revenue Code. resident
(A) Section 40 ANS: (B)
(B) Section 44
(C) Section 46 Q1448. ………is not defined in the Code?
(D) Section 50 (A) Orchard
ANS: (D) (B) Arrears
(C) Cooperative Society
Q1442. A Bhumiswami can seek partition of his (D) Alluvion Specific Relief Act, 1963
agricultural land amongst his legal heirs during ANS: (D)
his life time by applying to the—
(A) Patwari Q1449. The relief provided under the Specific
(B) Village Kotwar Relief Act, is—
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(A) Discretionary (A) Execution of a formal deed of partnership
(B) Mandatory (B) Contract for the construction of any building or
(C) Statutory execution of any other work on land
(D) Obligatory (C) Contract which is determinable in its nature
ANS: (C) (D) Contract to execute a mortgage or furnish any
other security for repayment of any loan which the
Q1450. In a suit for specific performance of borrower is not willing to repay at once Transfer of
contract the plaintiff can seek a relief only if he Property Act
establishes that— ANS: (C)
(A) Prima facie case is in his favour
(B) He was willing and ready to perform his part of Q1456. An instrument as defined under Section
the contract 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 means—
(C) Balance of Convenience is in his favour (A) A Negotiable Instrument
(D) He may suffer irreparable loss (B) A Transferable Instrument
ANS: (C) (C) A non-testamentary Instrument
(D) A will
Q1451. Find out the correct statement. Specific ANS: (C)
Relief can be granted—
(A) For enforcing individual civil rights and not for Q1457. Where on a Transfer of Property, an
enforcing a penal law interest therein is created in favour of a person
(B) For enforcing penal law and not for enforcing to take effect only on the happening of a
civil rights specified uncertain event, the Transfer is
(C) Only for enforcing penal law called—
(D) For enforcing civil rights and a penal law (A) Conditional Transfer
ANS: (A) (B) Transfer by Interest
(C) Absolute Transfer
Q1452. No suit for recovery of possession may (D) Contingent Transfer
be instituted under Section 6 of Specific Relief ANS: (D)
Act—
(A) Against Government Q1458. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(B) Against a Public Company covers—
(C) Against a Private Company (A) Movable Property
(D) Against all of these (B) Immovale Property
ANS: (A) (C) None
(D) A and B
Q1453. Find out the incorrect statement in ANS: (D)
respect of temporary injunctions—
(A) Preventive relief granted at the discretion of the Q1459. Under the Transfer of Property Act,
Court 1882 a person is said to have notice of a fact
(B) Such as are to continue until a specified time or when—
until the further order of the Court (A) He actually knows the fact
(C) Regulated by the Code of Civil Procedure (B) May have knowledge about the fact
(D) Cannot be granted at any stage of a suit (C) Could with reasonable cause know the fact
ANS: (D) (D) Is not at all aware of the fact
ANS: (A)
Q1454. In which of the following cases would
the specific performance of any contract not be Q1460. A mortgage by deposit of title deed is
enforced by the Court? called—
(A) Where the property is not an ordinary article of (A) Anomalous mortgage
commerce (B) English mortgage
(B) Where the property consists of goods which are (C) Equitable mortgage
not easily obtainable in the market (D) Usufructuary mortgage
(C) Where compensation in money can be afforded ANS: (C)
for non-performance of the contract as an adequate
relief Q1461. Which of the following is not an
(D) Where there exists no standard for ascertaining actionable claim?
the actual damage caused by nonperformance of (A) Right to a Provident Fund Account
the contract (B) Promise to pay Rs. 500 if the promisee succeed
ANS: (C) in L.L.B. examination
(C) Agreement to pay Rs. 500 if the promisee
Q1455. Which of the following contracts cannot marries a particular woman
be specifically enforced as per the provision of (D) Right to claim benefit of a contract coupled with
Section 14 of the Act? a liability
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ANS: (D) Q1468. A Gram Nyayalaya should make
endeavour to—
Q1462. ……… is defined as a security for (A) Compromise a dispute
repayment of a loan. (B) Should not compromise
(A) Pledge (C) Should make endeavour to punish the wrong
(B) Mortgage doer
(C) Lease (D) None of the above Madhya Pradesh
(D) None of these Madhya Pradesh Gram Nyayalaya Accommodation Control Act
Adhiniyam ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q1469. If a landlord contravenes the provision
Q1463. The normal term of office of a member of Subsection (1) of Section 38 of the M. P.
nominated to a Gram Nyayalaya constituted Accommodation Control Act, he shall be
under the Madhya Pradesh Gram Nyayalaya punished with imprisonment for a term which
Adhiniyam, 1996 is— may extend to—
(A) Two years (A) Two years
(B) Three years (B) Six months
(C) Five years (C) One month
(D) Six years (D) Three months
ANS: (C) ANS: (D)

Q1464. The State Government establishes Gram Q1470. A suit for eviction of a tenant on the
Nyayalaya for every— ground of bonafide need for non-residential
(A) District purpose is covered under Section ……of the
(B) Tahsil Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act.
(C) Block (A) 12(1)(a)
(D) Circle (B) 12(1)(b)
ANS: (D) (C) 12(1)(e)
(D) 12(1)(f)
Q1465. Every person nominated as a member of ANS: (D)
the Gram Nyayalaya before assuming office shall
submit a declaration to the effect that— Q1471. The special provision for eviction of a
(A) He shall continue to be a member of political tenant on the ground of bonafide requirement of
party a landlord as provided under Chapter III-A of the
(B) He shall not pay subscription to any political Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act is
party applicable to—
(C) He shall not hold any office of profit (A) A widow or a divorced wife
(D) He shall cease to be a member of political party (B) A woman in employment in non-governmental
from the date he assumes office establishment
ANS: (C) (C) A married woman living with her husband
(D) A business woman
Q1466. A Gram Nyayalaya constituted under the ANS: (A)
M.P. Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 1996 is not
empowered to inquire or to try an offence under Q1472. Madhya Pradesh Accommodation
Section— Control Act, 1961 is not applicable to—
(A) 326 I.P.C. (A) Accommodation which is used for nonresidential
(B) 323 I.P.C. purpose
(C) 336 I.P.C. (B) Accommodation which is the property of the
(D) 426 I.P.C. Government
ANS: (A) (C) Accommodation which is the property of a
widow
Q1467. A Gram Nyayalaya shall not have (D) Accommodation which is the property of a
exclusive jurisdiction under Section 16(ii) of minor children
M.P. Gram Nyayalaya Adhiniyam, 1996 to ANS: (B)
inquire and try offences under—
(A) Cattle Trespass Act Q1473. No suit for the eviction of a tenant shall
(B) M. P. Juvenile Smoking Act be maintainable on the grounds specified under
(C) Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Section 12(1)(e) or 12(1)(f), unless a period of …
Act has elapsed from the date of acquisition.
(D) Secton 13 of the Public Gambling Act (A) One year
ANS: (C) (B) Two years
(C) Three years
(D) Five years

ANS: (A)
Q1474. An appeal shall lie from every order of
the Rent Controlling Authority made under
Madhya Pradesh Accommodation Control Act,
1961—
(A) District Judge
(B) Collector
(C) Commissioner
(D) High Court
ANS: (A)
Q1475. Which of the following act cannot form
ground of eviction of the tenant?
(A) Nuisance
(B) Disclaimer of the title of the landlord
(C) Material structural alteration
(D) Holding over Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
ANS: (A)
Q1476. Anticipatory bail under Section 438 of
the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 means—
(A) A direction to release a person on bail issued
after a person is arrested
(B) A direction to release a person on bail issued
even before a person is arrested or is in
apprehension of arrest
(C) A direction to release a person on bail from
judicial custody
(D) A direction to release a person on bail when he
is in police custody after being arrested
ANS: (A)
Q1477. Inherent Powers under Section 482 of
the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 can be
exercised by—
(A) Judicial Magistrate First Class
(B) Sessions Judge
(C) High Court
(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate
ANS: (C)
Q1478. Information regarding occurrence of a
cognizable offence is recorded by an officer
Incharge of a Police Station under which
provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973?
(A) Section 149
(B) Section 154
(C) Section 155
(D) Section 200
ANS: (B)
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Q1480. The Court of Magistrate of the First
Class may pass a sentence of imprisonment for
a term—
(A) Not exceeding three years or a fine not
exceeding Rs. 10,000
(B) Not exceeding one year or a fine not exceeding
Rs. 5,000
(C) Not exceeding three years or a fine not
exceeding Rs. 5,000
(D) Not exceeding seven years or a fine prescribed
under the code
ANS: (A)
Q1481. An offence of voluntarily causing
grievous hurt by dangerous weapons or means
as provided under Section 326 of the Indian
Penal Code is—
(A) Compoundable
(B) Non-Compoundable
(C) Compoundable with the permission of Court
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
Q1482. An inquest report must contain—
(A) The names of accused
(B) The apparent cause of death
(C) The details of weapons
(D) The details of incident
ANS: (B)
Q1483. If it appears to the Magistrate that the
offence complained of is triable exclusively by
the Court of Session, he, under Section 202 Cr.
P.C., postponing the issue of process against the
accused—
(A) Shall commit the case to the Court of Session
(B) May direct an investigation to be made by a
police officer
(C) Shall call upon the complainant to produce all
his witnesses and examine them on oath
(D) Shall return the complaint for presentation
before the Court of Session Indian Penal Code
ANS: (C)
Q1484. A person himself does not commit an
offence, he helps or aids another person, he is
guilty of—
(A) Abetment
(B) Conspiracy
(C) Incitement
(D) None of these
ANS: (A)

Q1479. A …… is not entitled to maintenance Q1485. ……… of the Indian Penal Code defines
under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal ‗Murder‘.
Procedure, 1973. (A) Section 299
(A) Wife unable to maintain herself (B) Section 300
(B) Divorced wife (not re-married) (C) Section 301
(C) Minor daughter (D) Section 302
(D) Divorced wife re-married ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
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Q1486. Which of the following is not ‗Public (D) A Landlord shall claim or receive the payment of
Servant‘ within the meaning of Section 21 of any sum as premium of ‗pugree‘ for giving his
the Code? consent to the subletting
(A) Municipal Commissioner ANS: (D)
(B) Member of Parliament
(C) MLA Q1493. Which of the following is not a legal
(D) Examiner of University ground of eviction?
ANS: (D) (A) Tenant has built up, acquired vacant possession
of or has been allotted an accommodation suitable
Q1487. A married man commits adultery if he for his residence
has sexual intercourse with a/an— (B) Tenant has caused substantial damages to the
(A) Unmarried woman accommodation
(B) Married woman except his wife (C) Landlord desires to increase the rent and tenant
(C) Any woman except his wife refuses for increase
(D) Unmarried woman without her consent (D) Tenant has been convicted for an offence of
ANS: (B) using the building or allowing the building to be
used for immoral or illegal purposes
Q1488. Cruelty to a woman by husband or ANS: (C)
relative of husband is defined under—
(A) Section 498 A of the Indian Penal Code Q1494. Against any order passed by Rent
(B) Section 498 of the Indian Penal Code Controlling Authority under any Section of
(C) Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code Chapter 3-A of the Act,—
(D) Section 496 of the Indian Penal Code (A) Only appeal shall lie
ANS: (A) (B) Appeal shall not lie
(C) Only revision shall lie
Q1489. After a notice for demand of arrears of (D) Both appeal and revision shall lie
rent has been served on a tenant, he should pay ANS: (C)
or tender the arrears of rent, to save himself
from eviction within— Q1495. According to S. 2(e) of the Act who is
(A) 15 days not a member of the family, even though living
(B) One month jointly with the landlord—
(C) Two months (A) Paternal uncle‘s wife
(D) Three months (B) Brother‘s son
ANS: (C) (C) Sister‘s son
(D) Grandmother
Q1490. In a case of eviction on the ground of ANS: (C)
bona fide need for residential purpose, the
landlord cannot obtain possession of the Q1496. A, a landlord, brings a suit for eviction
accommodation before— of B, his tenant on the ground of bona fide need.
(A) One month During the pendency of the suit, he sells the
(B) Two months suit accommodation C. C requires the
(C) Three months accommodation bona fide for himself. Advice
(D) Six months C—
ANS: (B) (A) He can continue with the suit after making
necessary amendments therein
Q1491. Cognizance of offence, punishable under (B) He can file a fresh suit or maintain a suit for
the Act, can be taken by— eviction on any ground
(A) Judicial Magistrate Second Class (C) A fresh suit for eviction on the ground of Bona
(B) Judicial Magistrate First Class fide need is maintainable after one year
(C) Sessions Court only (D) Suit is not maintainable unless ‗B‘ elects to
(D) High Court only treat him as his landlord
ANS: (B) ANS: (C)

Q1492. Which of the following is Q1497. In case of usufructuary mortgage the

incorrectstatement? mortgagee is placed in possession who has a
(A) Tenant can sublet the accommodation held by right to receive the rent and other profits till—
him as tenant with previous consent in writing of (A) Mortgage money is paid
Landlord (B) Contract is rescinded
(B) Tenant can transfer or assign his rights in the (C) Period of thirty years
tenancy or in any part thereof with the previous (D) Period of 99 years
consent in writing of Landlord ANS: (A)
(C) For subletting, the previous written consent of
landlord is a mandatory provision
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Q1498. In which case, a lease of immovable
property does not determine? Q1505. Tender is—
(A) By efflux of time (A) An offer
(B) By express surrender (B) An invitation to offer
(C) Service of a notice to quit (C) A counter-offer
(D) By forfeiture (D) A promise
ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q1499. Transfer of property has no relation Q1506. A ‗consideration‘ may be—

with— (A) Only in the future
(A) Air (B) Only in the present
(B) Water (C) Only in the past
(C) Light (D) In past, present or future
(D) All of these ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q1507. Which is the terminology used to
Q1500. The doctrine of Lis Pendens applies, describe a situation when two parties make
where— identical offers to each other in ignorance of
(A) The suit is collusive each other‘s offer?
(B) The transfer is made after the decree of the trial (A) Offer
court but before filing of an appeal (B) Cross-offer
(C) Right to movable property is in question (C) Counter-offer
(D) Property is situated outside the territorial (D) Conditional-offer
jurisdiction of the Court ANS: (B)
ANS: (B)
Q1508. In the formation of a Contract which is
Q1501. Which of the following gifts is valid? not among the three essentials?
(A) A gives 5,000 to B on condition that he shall (A) Damages
murder C (B) Consideration
(B) A makes a gift of his field to B with a proviso (C) Offer
that if B becomes insolvent, B‘s interest in the field (D) Acceptance Specific Relief Act, 1963
shall cease ANS: (A)
(C) A makes a gift of his field to B with a condition
that if B does not within a year set fire to C‘s house, Q1509. No suit u/s 6 of the Act for recovery of
his interest shall cease possession of immovable property, may not be
(D) A makes a gift of a house to B on the condition instituted by a person dispossessed without his
that the gift will be forfeited if B does not reside in consent—
it (A) Against the government
ANS: (D) (B) After expiry of three months from the date of
dispossession
Q1502. In case of ‗part performance‘ what is not (C) If the suit is instituted by any person claiming
necessary with a transferee? through him
(A) Possession (D) If the suit is also to establish the title alongwith
(B) Contract for consideration recovery of possession
(C) Notice to transferer ANS: (A)
(D) Readiness on his part Indian Contract Act, 1872
ANS: (C) Q1510. Which of the following contracts cannot
be specifically enforced as per the provision of
Q1503. A contract with or by a minor is a Section 14 of the Act?
contract— (A) Execution of a formal deed of partnership
(A) Valid (B) Contract for construction of a building
(B) Void (C) Contract which is determinable in its nature
(C) Voidable (D) Contract to execute a mortgage against loan
(D) Voidable at option of either party ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
Q1511. A, B and C are coparceners. A is in
Q1504. A contingent contract is a— separate possession of joint family property. He
(A) Valid contract sells it to D and puts D in possession. B and C
(B) Voidable contract sue for declaration of title that the property is
(C) Contract void-ab-initio joint family property. The Court—
(D) Contract becomes void when the event becomes (A) Will issue a declaration that property is joint
impossible family property
ANS: (A)
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(B) Will direct the plaintiff to implead A as a party
before granting decree of declaration Q1518. Robbery is dacoity if committed
(C) May ask the plaintiffs to claim consequential conjointly by—
relief of possession (A) Less than five persons
(D) May order D to give up the possession (B) Five or more persons
ANS: (A) (C) At least seven persons
(D) At least ten persons
Q1512. A threatens to publish statements ANS: (B)
concerning B which would be punishable under
Chapter XXI of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. B Q1519. Which of the following is not a ‗public
files a suit for injunction praying for restraining servant‘?
A from publishing the statement— (A) Municipal Commissioner
(A) Court may grant injunction even though it is (B) Member of Parliament
shown that is not injurious to B‘s property (C) M.L.A.
(B) Court may refuse injunction as publication is (D) Examiner of University Code of Criminal
not injurious to B‘s property Procedure, 1973
(C) Court may dismiss the suit as plaintiff has not ANS: (D)
claimed declaration
(D) Court may dismiss the suit as no cause of Q1520. Under section 428, the period of
action has arisen Indian Penal Code, 1860 detention undergone by a convict cannot be set
ANS: (A) off during—
(A) Investigation of the case
Q1513. The offence of attempt to commit (B) Trial of the case
‗culpable homicide‘ is punishable under (C) Enquiry of the case
section— (D) Another case
(A) 304 ANS: (D)
(B) 308
(C) 307 Q1521. Appeal against an order of acquittal by
(D) 301 JMFC in respect of an offence u/s 138
ANS: (B) Negotiable Instruments Act can be filed in—
(A) High Court
Q1514. A kills C thinking C is B. A is guilty of (B) Court of Sessions
offence punishable under section— (C) High Court with leave of Court
(A) 301 (D) C.J.M. Court
(B) 304 Part-1 ANS: (A)
(C) 302
(D) 304 Part-2 Q1522. Who may record any confession or a
ANS: (A) statement made to him in the course of an
investigation?
Q1515. Section 195-A IPC is related to— (A) Any senior police officer
(A) Protection of witness (B) Judicial Magistrate having jurisdiction
(B) Protection for victim (C) Executive Magistrate
(C) Threat to give false evidence (D) Any Judicial Magistrate
(D) None of these ANS: (D)
ANS: (C)
Q1523. Compounding of offence under the
Q1516. Imprisonment for life means, provisions of the Code in a criminal case when
imprisonment for— charge was framed, results in—
(A) 20 years (A) Acquittal of accused
(B) 24 years (B) Discharge of accused
(C) 14 years (C) Release only
(D) Whole of the remaining life (D) Case filed only
ANS: (D) ANS: (A)

Q1517. X knows Y is suffering from a disease in Q1524. An inquest report must contain the—
his head and a blow to Y on his head is likely to (A) Names of accused
cause his death. X gives a first blow to Y on his (B) Apparent cause of death
head. Y died, X is guilty of— (C) Details of the weapons
(A) Culpable homicide only (D) Details of the incident
(B) Murder ANS: (B)
(C) Causing hurt
(D) No offence Q1525. A charge-sheet is filed under section
ANS: (A) 302 of the IPC against five accused—A, B, C, D
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and E. A and B are absconding, C is exempted
from personal appearance by the order of the Q1532. Opinion of HandwritingExpert—
Court, D and E are present in the Court. The (A) Always needs corroboration
case can be committed to Sessions Court (B) Is inadmissible in evidence
against— (C) Is always binding on the courts
(A) A and B (D) Can be acted upon without corroboration
(B) D and E ANS: (A)
(C) C, D and E
(D) All the accused Q1533. Test Identification Parade is—
ANS: (C) (A) Substantive evidence
(B) Corroborative evidence
Q1526. Offences in which a compromise can be (C) No evidence
arrived at between the parties are— (D) Hearsay evidence Right to Information Act,
(A) Bailable offences 2005
(B) Non-cognizable offences ANS: (B)
(C) Compoundable offences
(D) Non-compoundable offences Q1534. General Limitation for filing second
ANS: (C) appeal under the Act is—
(A) 30 days
Q1527. The provisions of plea bargaining are (B) 60 days
applicable— (C) 90 days
(A) To juvenile offenders (D) 45 days
(B) At appellate stage ANS: (C)
(C) Where punishment is for more than 7 years
imprisonment Q1535. Chief Information Commissioner holds
(D) After issuance of process under section 204 office for a term of—
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (A) 3 years
ANS: (C) (B) 4 years
(C) 5 years
Q1528. The presumption u/s 114-A is a— (D) 6 years
(A) Rebuttable presumption ANS: (C)
(B) Presumption of fact
(C) Mixed presumption of law and fact Q1536. Provision of the Act do not apply to—
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law (A) Public Authority
ANS: (A) (B) Private Organization
(C) Public Undertaking
(D) Registry of High Court Part—II
ANS: (B)

Q1537. ―Directive Principles of State Policy are

Q1529. Under Evidence Act, a statement made
the conscience of the Constitution, which
by coaccused at the time of commission of the
embody the social philosophy of the
offence is—
Constitution.‖ Who of the following made this
(A) Admissible u/s 6
statement?
(B) Admissible u/s 8
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Admissible u/s 30
(B) K. C. Wheare
(D) Not at all admissible
(C) Granville Austin
ANS: (C)
(D) H. M. Seervai
ANS: (C)
Q1530. Leading questions can be asked during—
(A) Examination in chief
Q1538. The doctrine of prospective overruling
(B) Cross-examination
in relation t o the powers of the Parliament to
(C) Re-examination
amend the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by
(D) Under no circumstances
the Constitution, was applied in—
ANS: (B)
(A) Menaka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
(B) Sajjan Singh Vs. State of Rajasthan
Q1531. The following is not the exception to the
(C) I. C. Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab
rule of hearsay—
(D) Keshvanand Bharati Vs. State of Kerala
(A) Dying declaration
ANS: (C)
(B) Res Gestae
(C) Expert‘s opinion
Q1539. Articles 19(1) (f) and 31 were deleted
(D) Confession
and Article 300-A was inserted by the following
ANS: (D)
Constitution Amendment Act—
 MockTime.com
(A) 44th Constitution Amendment Act ANS: (B)
(B) 38th Constitution Amendment Act
(C) 42nd Constitution Amendment Act Q1546. How is the number of judges of the
(D) 25th Constitution Amendment Act Supreme Court of India increased?
ANS: (A) (A) By Presidential Notification
(B) By Amendment of the Constitution
Q1540. The gap between two sessions of the Lok (C) By the Supreme Court itself
Sabha is termed as— (D) By Parliamentary Act
(A) Adjournment period ANS: (D)
(B) Suspension period
(C) Dissolution period Q1547. Every proclamation of Emergency under
(D) Prorogation period Article 352 shall be laid before each House of
ANS: (D) the Parliament—
(A) Within two months
Q1541. Consider the following statements— The (B) Within six months
fundamental duties provided in the Constitution (C) Within six weeks
are: (D) Within one month
(A) To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of ANS: (D)
India
(B) To abide by the constitution Q1548. By which one of the following, the
(C) To defend the country and render national President of India is elected?
service when called upon to do so (A) All the members of the Parliament
(D) All of the above (B) All the elected members of the Parliament
ANS: (D) (C) All the elected members of the Parliament and
State Legislative Assemblies
Q1542. Which one of the following statements is (D) All the people of India
correct regarding Rajya Sabha? ANS: (C)
(A) One-third of its members retire every two years
(B) One-third of its members retire every year Q1549. In the case of resignation, to whom the
(C) One-third of its members retire every three President will address the letter?
years (A) To the Vice-President
(D) One-half of its members retire every three years (B) To the Prime Minister
ANS: (A) (C) To the Chief Justice of India
(D) To the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Q1543. The Indian Constitution provides for the ANS: (A)
appointment of adhoc judges in the—
(A) High Courts Q1550. Under which Article of the Constitution
(B) District and Session Courts of India the Speaker is being elected and by
(C) Supreme Court whom?
(D) All of these (A) Under Article 75 by the President of India
ANS: (C) (B) Under Article 93 by the members of the House
of People
Q1544. 93rd Amendment of the Constitution of (C) Under Article 178 by the members of Legislative
India deals with— Assemblies
(A) Right in respect of physically handicapped (D) Under Article 124 by the President of India
persons in the services under the State ANS: (B)
(B) Reservation in the matters of promotion in the
services in favour of Other Backward Classes Q1551. By which one of the following, the Chief
(C) Reservation for admission in central educational Justice of a State High Court is appointed?
institutions (A) Governor of the concerned State
(D) Right to education (B) Chief Justice of India
ANS: (C) (C) President of India
(D) Prime Minister of India
Q1545. Judges of the High Courts are appointed ANS: (C)
by the President in consultation with—
(A) A collegium consisting of Chief Justice of India Q1552. Who shall take step to separate the
and two senior most judges of the Supreme Court Judiciary from the Executive in the Public
(B) Chief Justice of India and Governor of the Service under Article 50 of the Constitution of
concerned state India?
(C) Chief Justice of India and Chief Justice of the (A) President
concerned High Court (B) Prime Minister
(D) A collegium consisting of Chief Justice of India (C) State
and four senior most judges of the Supreme Court (D) Governor

ANS: (C)
Q1553. Who amongst the following is sovereign
in India?
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister
(D) ‗We the people of India‘
ANS: (D)
Q1554. On which one of the following dates, the
Constitution of India was a dopted and finalised
by the Constituent Assembly?
(A) 26th January, 1950
(B) 26th November, 1949
(C) 26th November, 1950
(D) 26th January, 1949
ANS: (B)
Q1555. Which one of the following writs can be
issued only against judicial and quasijudicial
authorities?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Quo-warranto
(C) Habeas Corpus
(D) Certiorari
ANS: (D)
Q1556. In which one of the following cases, the
expression, ―procedure established by law‖ used
in Article 21, has been interpreted by the
Supreme Court in terms of ―right, just and fair
procedure‖?
(A) Kharak Singh Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
(B) Menaka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
(C) A. K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
(D) Govind Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh
ANS: (B)
Q1557. Point out the correct answer— An
agreement without consideration—
(A) Is illegal
(B) Is void ab initio
(C) Is voidable contract at the option of the
promisor
(D) Barring certain circumstances is void
ANS: (D)
Q1558. Which statement of the following is
correct? When consideration in an agreement is
inadequate—
(A) Such inadequate consideration may be an
evidence of immoral motive
(B) Such inadequate consideration makes the
agreement void
(C) Such inadequate consideration makes the
agreement illegal
(D) Such inadequate consideration may be an
evidence of proving the absence of free consent
ANS: (D)
Q1559. As an act is done by the promisee at the
desire of the promisor although the promisor is
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not benefitted by such an act of the promise.
Which one of the following is the correct
answer?
(A) The act of the promisee is no consideration
(B) The act of the promisee is adequate
consideration
(C) The act of the promisee is inadequate
consideration
(D) The act of the promisee is illegal consideration
ANS: (B)
Q1560. If a person, who finds goods belonging
to another, takes them into his custody, then
he has, which one of the following options?
(A) He is under the liability to possess it as a bailee
(B) He is under the liability to pledge it
(C) He is under the liability to gift it
(D) He is under the liability to use it himself
ANS: (A)
Q1561. Point out the correct answer— A
voidable contract is such an agreement which
is:
(A) Enforceable only at the option of one of the
parties thereto
(B) Not enforceable by any of the parties thereto
(C) Enforceable by either of the parties thereto
(D) Enforceable only with the permission of the
court
ANS: (A)
Q1562. Who is competent to contract amongst
the following?
(A) A minor
(B) A person of unsound mind
(C) A person debarred by any law from entering into
contract
(D) A blind woman
ANS: (D)
Q1563. In which of the following circumstances
a party to a contract will be discharged from
performing the contract?
(A) When the performance of the contract becomes
onerous
(B) When the performance of the contract becomes
impossible
(C) When the performance of the contract becomes
commercially inviable
(D) When the performance of the contract becomes
expensive
ANS: (B)
Q1564. Point out the correct answer— An
accepted proposal is—
(A) A contract
(B) A quasicontract
(C) A promise
(D) An agreement
ANS: (C)
 MockTime.com
Q1565. Point out the correct answer— The Q1572. Which one of the following elements is
performance of a contingent contract depends not necessary for a contract?
on: (A) Free consent
(A) The discretion of the court (B) Lawful consideration
(B) The happening or non-happening of an (C) Competent parties
uncertain event in the contract (D) Reasonable terms and conditions
(C) Demand by any party of the contract ANS: (D)
(D) The parties of the contract
ANS: (B) Q1573. Which impossibility tenders a contract
void?
Q1566. In which of the following circumstances, (A) Legal
the acceptance will be treated valid? (B) Practical
(A) When acceptance is sent by fax (C) Physical
(B) When acceptance is sent by parrot (D) All of these
(C) When acceptance is made by making the ANS: (D)
highest bid in case of auction
(D) When acceptance letter is sent at wrong address Q1574. Which one of the following elements is
ANS: (C) necessary for a contract?
(A) Free consent
Q1567. An advertisement in a newspaper (B) Lawful consideration
inviting tenders is— (C) Competent parties
(A) An invitation for proposal (D) All of these
(B) A promise ANS: (D)
(C) An invitation for negotiation
(D) A proposal Q1575. A contract stands discharged—
ANS: (A) (A) By agreement
(B) By breach of the contract
Q1568. A person has the capacity to contract— (C) By performance of contract
(A) If he can fully understand the nature of his (D) By all of these modes
contract ANS: (D)
(B) If he is not disqualified from contracting by any
law to which he is subject Q1576. If an infant obtains property or goods by
(C) If he is major and of sound mind misrepresenting his age, he may be compelled
(D) If he fulfils all the above conditions to return the same. This is known as—
ANS: (D) (A) Subrogation
(B) Restitution
Q1569. In order to convert a proposal into a (C) Contribution
promise, the acceptance must be— (D) Redemption
(A) Qualified ANS: (B)
(B) Absolute or qualified
(C) Absolute and unqualified Q1577. Which one of the following is an
(D) Absolute essential component of a valid contract?
ANS: (C) (A) Social and economic pressures, the parties are
exposed to
Q1570. Point out correct response— An (B) Dominance of one party over the other
agreement by way of wager is— (C) Competence and the contractual capacities of
(A) Illegal the parties
(B) Void (D) Equality in the bargaining power between the
(C) Void and illegal parties
(D) Voidable ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
Q1578. Where the law prescribes that a contract
Q1571. Which of the following statements is not must be in writing, it is necessary that it must
correct? be in writing. Non-fulfilment of this condition
(A) Void contracts do not affect collateral renders it—
transactions (A) Invalid
(B) Statutory compulsions do not amount to (B) Unenforceable
coercion (C) Voidable
(C) Illegal agreements affect collateral transactions (D) Void
(D) A contract must always be executed ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q1579. Consider the following statements— A
valid contract must have—

(A) Consideration
(B) Free consent of the parties
(C) Lawful object
(D) All of these
ANS: (D)
Q1580. When a person without expressing his
final willingness, proposes certain terms on
which he is willing to negotiate, he makes—
(A) Standing offer
(B) Offer
(C) Invitation to treat offer
(D) Counter offer
ANS: (C)
Q1581. Which one of the following falls into the
category of offer?
(A) Announcement of reward to the public
(B) An advertisement for a concert
(C) Display of goods by a shopkeeper in his window
with prices marked on them
(D) Advertisement in newspaper regarding a sale
ANS: (D)
Q1582. The communication of acceptance
through telephone is regarded as complete
when—
(A) Acceptance comes to the knowledge of party
proposing
(B) Acceptance is put in course of transmission
(C) Acceptor has done whatever is required to be
done by him
(D) Acceptance is spoken on phone
ANS: (A)
Q1583. A contract without consideration is
void– there are exceptions. Which one of the
following exceptions is correct?
(A) Natural love and affection
(B) Promise to pay time-barred debt
(C) To create an agency
(D) Both (A) and (B)
ANS: (D)
Q1584. Lending money to a borrower at high
rate of interest when the money market is tight,
renders the agreement of loan—
(A) Valid
(B) Voidable
(C) Illegal
(D) Void
ANS: (A)
Q1585. Which one of the following is not a
characteristic of a contingent contract?
(A) The event must be uncertain
(B) The event must be collateral to the contract
(C) There must be reciprocal promises
(D) The performance depends upon a future event
ANS: (C)
Q1586. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
MockTime.com
(A) Illegal agreements are always void
(B) Void agreements are always illegal
(C) Illegal agreements are voidable
(D) Illegal agreements can be ratified by the parties
ANS: (A)
Q1587. Which one of the following statements is
correct with regard to the nature of a valid
contract?
(A) All agreements are contracts
(B) Contract is an agreement between consenting
parties whether sane or insane
(C) Contract is an agreement without consideration
(D) The agreement enforceable by law, is contract
ANS: (D)
Q1588. Which one of the following is not a
wagering agreement?
(A) Contract of insurance
(B) A lottery
(C) An agreement to buy a ticket for a lottery
(D) Commercial transaction, the intention of which
is not to deliver the goods but only to pay the
difference in price
ANS: (A)
Q1589. Which one of the following is the correct
meaning of ―An agreement not enforceable by
law‖?
(A) Unlawful contract
(B) Void contract
(C) Voidable agreement
(D) Void agreement
ANS: (B)
Q1590. Which one of the following can be called
a ‗promisee‘ according to Indian Contract Act?
(A) A person to whom proposal is made
(B) A person accepting the proposal
(C) A person furnishing the consideration
(D) A person to whom a promise is made
ANS: (B)
Q1591. For a binding contract both the parties
to the contract must—
(A) Agree upon the same thing in the same sense
(B) Put the offer and counter offers
(C) Agree with each other
(D) Stipulate their individual offer and
consideration
ANS: (A)
Q1592. When goods are displayed in a shop
window with price tag attached to them, the
offer comes from the—
(A) Offerer
(B) General public
(C) Customer
(D) Shop owner
ANS: (D)
Q1593. ‗A‘ out of love and affection promises to
give his newly wedded daughter-in-law a golden

necklace worth Rs. 20,000. ‗A‘ made the
promise in writing and signed it and delivered
the same to the daughter-in-law. The promise
is—
(A) Valid
(B) Voidable
(C) Unenforceable
(D) Without consideration
ANS: (A)
Q1594. An agreement without consideration is
void except in case of compensation for—
(A) Voluntary services rendered
(B) Reimbursement of expenses incurred
(C) Voluntary services rendered at the request of
another
(D) Voluntary services rendered at the request of
the other party to the agreement
ANS: (A)
Q1595. A contract entered into by a minor is—
(A) Valid and binding
(B) Void ab initio
(C) Voidable at the option of the minor
(D) Voidable at the option of either party
ANS: (B)
Q1596. Mohori Bibee Vs. Dharmodas Ghose
isrelated to—
(A) Minor‘s contract
(B) Frustration of contract
(C) Quasi-contract
(D) Recession of contract
ANS: (A)
Q1597. Which one of the following Judges is
considered pioneer in the growth of the
―Principle of Absolute Liability‖, in tort?
(A) Chief Justice P. N. Bhagwati
(B) Chief Justice A. M. Ahmadi
(C) Lord Halsbury
(D) Lord Denning, M. R.
ANS: (A)
Q1598. Which one of the following is no defence
in tort?
(A) Necessity
(B) Infancy
(C) Statutory authority
(D) Mistake
ANS: (B)
Q1599. Which one of the following statements
defines the maxim ‗ubi jus ibi remedium‘?
(A) Where there is right, there is remedy
(B) Right and remedy are same things
(C) Without a remedy, there may be right
(D) Right and remedy are different things
ANS: (A)
Q1600. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
(A) Tort is a civil wrong
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(B) Tort is a crime
(C) Tort is not a civil wrong
(D) Tort is an omission of a duty
ANS: (A)
Q1601. Which one of the following defences can
be pleaded by the defendant, when heavy losses
are inflicted to the plaintiff due to extraordinary
natural forces?
(A) Act of God
(B) Act of a stranger
(C) Contributory negligence
(D) Inevitable accident
ANS: (A)
Q1602. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
(A) In tort, damages are unliquidated, but in breach
of contract, they are liquidated
(B) Proof of malice is generally necessary for an
action in tort while it is not relevant in case of
breach of contract
(C) In tort, the duty is towards persons generally
while in contract the same is towards the parties to
the agreement
(D) The duty in tort, is primarily fixed by the law,
but in a contract the same is created by the parties
themselves
ANS: (B)
Q1603. The principle of Rylands Vs. Fletcher,
does not apply when the escape is due to—
(A) Vis Major
(B) Negligence of the defendant
(C) Mistake
(D) Inevitable accident
ANS: (A)
Q1604. Which one of the following statements is
correct?
(A) Tortious liability arises from breach of a duty
primarily fixed by the law
(B) This duty is towards persons generally
(C) Breach of this duty is redressable by an action
for unliquidated damages
(D) All of the above
ANS: (D)
Q1605. A and B entered C‘s premises to search
for an escape of gas. Each one of them applied
naked light to the gas pipe. A‘s application
resulted in an explosion causing damage to C‘s
premises. In this case, which one of the
following statements is legally sustainable?
(A) A alone is responsible
(B) A and B are not joint tort-feasors
(C) Neither A nor B is liable
(D) Both A and B are joint tort-feasors and jointly
liable
ANS: (D)
Q1606. ―The law of torts consists of a body of
rules establishing specific injuries. There is no
 MockTime.com
general principle of liability for torts.‖ This view
was propounded by— Q1613. The principle that ―mere knowledge of
(A) Salmond the risk is not consent to it‖ was firmly
(B) Fleming established in which one of the following cases?
(C) Winfield (A) Dann Vs. Hamilton
(D) James (B) Smith Vs. Charles Baker and Sons
ANS: (A) (C) Thomas Vs. Quartermaine
(D) Nettleship Vs. Weston
Q1607. Which one of the following defences is a ANS: (B)
specific defence in tort?
(A) Statutory Authority Q1614. State Bank of India Vs. Shayma Devi is a
(B) Act of God case related to—
(C) Contributory negligence (A) General defence
(D) All of these (B) Vicarious liability
ANS: (D) (C) Absolute liability
(D) Negligence
Q1608. ‗Pigeon Hole‘ theory is of— ANS: (B)
(A) Salmond
(B) Paton Q1615. In which one of the following torts, the
(C) Winfield liability is not based on ―fault‖?
(D) None of these (A) Conversion
ANS: (A) (B) Negligence
(C) Trespass
Q1609. In vicarious liability— (D) Malicious prosecution
(A) Liability is based on fault ANS: (C)
(B) The employer and the employee are not joint
tort-feasors Q1616. Torts actionable per se are those torts
(C) The employer is liable in the place of the in which—
employee (A) Liability arises without fault
(D) The employer isliable for the employee‘s tort, (B) Some public right is infringed coupled with
but the employee remains liable as well particular damage
ANS: (C) (C) The plaintiff can sue even though he has
suffered no damage
Q1610. Which one of the following judges laid (D) The plaintiff will have to prove special damage
down ―the rule in Rylands Vs. Fletcher‖ in the ANS: (C)
court of Exchequer Chamber?
(A) Justice Blackburn Q1617. Which of the following is not correct
(B) Lord Cairns matched?
(C) Chief Justice Holt (A) Conditional transfer – Section 24
(D) Lord Porter (B) Vested interest – Section 19
ANS: (A) (C) Contingent interest – Section 21
(D) Rule against perpetuity – Section 14
Q1611. Distinction between sovereign and ANS: (A)
nonsovereign functions was drawn for the first
time in the context of state‘s liability in tort for Q1618. Section 41 of the Transfer of Property
the acts of state‘s servants in which one of the Act, 1882 is the statutory application of the law
following cases? of estoppel. The statement is—
(A) Kasturi Lal Vs. State of U.P. (A) False
(B) State of Rajasthan Vs. Vidyawati (B) Partly true
(C) P&O Steam Navigation Company Vs. Secretary (C) True
of State (D) None of these
(D) Overseas Tankship (U.K.) Ltd. Vs. Miller ANS: (C)
Steamship Co.
ANS: (A) Q1619. Which of the following cases is related
to the right of redemption?
Q1612. In which one of the following cases, the (A) Noakes Vs. Rice
principle that ―there can be no contribution (B) Kreglinger Vs. New Pentagonia Meat and Cold
between joint tort-feasors‖ was propounded? Storage Co. Ltd.
(A) Merry Weather Vs. Nixon (C) Stanley Vs. Wilde
(B) Adamson Vs. Jarvis (D) All of the above
(C) Hardy Vs. Motor Insurance Bureau ANS: (D)
(D) Gardiner Vs. Moore
ANS: (A)
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Q1620. Which one of the following statements is (B) Based on pious obligation
incorrect according to the Transfer of Property (C) Limited to a reasonable amount
Act? (D) To the extent of the value of the gifted property
(A) A transfer of property is usually made by one in his hand
living person to another living person ANS: (A)
(B) A transfer of property can be made where
transfer will operate only after the death of the Q1627. Which statement is not correct about
transferor mortgage?
(C) A transfer of property can be made even without (A) It is a transfer of interest in specific immovable
writing where writing is not expressly required by property
law (B) There is transfer of ownership in mortgage
(D) A transfer of property can be made by the act of (C) There have been described six types of
the parties mortgages in Transfer of Property Act, 1882
ANS: (B) (D) Consideration is an essential element in
mortgage
Q1621. Fraudulent transfer is defined in— ANS: (B)
(A) Section 21, Transfer of Property Act
(B) Section 53, Transfer of Property Act Q1628. For creating an interest in favour of an
(C) Section 35, Transfer of Property Act unborn person, which one of the following is
(D) Section 19, Transfer of Property Act essential?
ANS: (B) (A) Creation of absolute life interest in favour of
living persons
Q1622. By which of the following ways, an (B) Absolute interest is to be given to unborn
actionable claim can be made? person
(A) By oral agreement (C) Unborn person must be born before the
(B) By registered instrument termination of last prior interest
(C) By an instrument in writing signed by the (D) All of the above
transferor ANS: (D)
(D) By a registered instrument attested by two
witnesses Q1629. Which of the following sections of
ANS: (C) Transfer of Property Act contains exception to
the maxim ‗Nemo dat quod non habets‘?
Q1623. Which of the following interests is not (A) Sections 43 and 44
transferable? (B) Sections 41 and 44
(A) Vested interest (C) Sections 41 and 43
(B) Contingent interest (D) Sections 41 and 42
(C) Interest of lessee ANS: (B)
(D) Spes successionis
ANS: (D) Q1630. Which one of the following is not
essential element for a valid transfer of
Q1624. A makes a gift of Rs. 50,000 to B. A property?
reserves right with B‘s consent to take back at (A) Transferable property
pleasure Rs. 10,000— (B) Competent transferor
(A) Gift is valid (C) Object of transfer must be lawful
(B) Gift is void (D) Transferee may not be competent to take the
(C) Gift is voidable transfer
(D) Gift is valid upto Rs. 40,000 and void as to ANS: (D)
taking back Rs. 10,000
ANS: (D) Q1631. In which one of the following Sections
of Transfer of Property Act, the doctrine of
Q1625. A sells his house to B with a condition election has been described?
that B cannot transfer his house to anyone (A) Section 13
except C. The sale is— (B) Section 14
(A) Valid but condition is void (C) Section 35
(B) Unlawful (D) Section 36
(C) Void ANS: (C)
(D) Voidable
ANS: (A) Q1632. Section 37 of the Transfer of Property
Act on right to proceeds of revenue
Q1626. A universal donee is liable to the compensation on acquisition is based on—
creditors of the donor. The liability of the (A) Doctrine of contribution
universal donee is— (B) Doctrine of election
(A) Personal (C) Doctrine of marshalling
 MockTime.com
(D) Doctrine of substituted security ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q1640. Order XXIII of the Civil Procedure Code
Q1633. Rule against property is not applicable prescribes which None of the following?
to a case where— (A) Appeals
(A) Interest in property is created ‗generation after (B) Execution proceedings
generation‘ (C) Withdrawal of suits
(B) Property is transferred for the benefit of the (D) All of these
public ANS: (C)
(C) Contingent interest has been created by transfer
(D) Transfer of property purports to be effective Q1641. Dasti summons for service on the
beyond minority of ultimate transferee who has not defendant under Civil Procedure Code, can be
been in existence at the date of the transfer given to the plaintiff under—
ANS: (B) (A) Order V Rule 9-A
(B) Order IV Rule 7
Q1634. The doctrine of election is applicable (C) Order VI Rule 6
to— (D) Order V Rule 9
(A) Muslims ANS: (A)
(B) Hindus
(C) Christians Q1642. Under which explanation of Section 11
(D) All of these of Civil Procedure Code, constructive Res
ANS: (D) judicata has been explained?
(A) Explanation—I
Q1635. Remedy of ‗foreclosure‘ is available in (B) Explanation—III
which one of the following mortgages? (C) Explanation—IV
(A) Mortgage by conditional sale (D) Explanation—II
(B) English mortgage ANS: (C)
(C) Usufructuary mortgage
(D) Simple mortgage Q1643. A person may sue a foreign state—
ANS: (A) (A) With consent of the State Government
(B) Only with the consent of Central Government
Q1636. In which one of the following Sections, (C) With the consent of President of India
the ‗doctrine of part performance‘ has been (D) With the consent of Central as well as State
described? Government
(A) Section 53 ANS: (B)
(B) Section 53-A
(C) Section 54 Q1644. A decree may be executed by—
(D) Section 55 (A) Collector
ANS: (B) (B) District Judge
(C) Tehsildar
Q1637. ‗Rejection of Plaint‘ is mentioned (D) Either by the court which passed it or to which
under— it is sent
(A) Order VII Rule 11 ANS: (D)
(B) Order VI Rule 13
(C) Order VIII Rule 4 Q1645. Objection as to place of suing shall be
(D) Order VII Rule 12 allowed in the court of first instance under
ANS: (A) which one of the following sections of Civil
Procedure Code?
Q1638. On which of the following ground the (A) Section 21-A
Second Appeal shall lie for hearing before the (B) Section 22
High Court? (C) Section 21
(A) From an appellate decree passed exparte (D) Section 20
(B) From substantial question of law and facts ANS: (C)
(C) On the satisfaction of High Court
(D) From every appellate decree of District Judge Q1646. The period of limitation within which
ANS: (A) defendant shall submit his written statement is
ordinarily within—
Q1639. Section 115 of the Civil Procedure Code (A) 60 days from service of summons
provides for— (B) 15 days from service of summons
(A) Review (C) 90 days from the date of service of summons
(B) Revision (D) 30 days from the date of service of summons
(C) Appeal to the Supreme Court ANS: (D)
(D) Reference
 MockTime.com
Q1647. Which one of the following is not a rule (C) Any court having jurisdiction concurrent to the
of pleading? court that passed the decree
(A) Plead the fact, not the law (D) Either by court A and B
(B) Plead material facts only ANS: (D)
(C) Plead facts, not evidence
(D) State the law and plead the facts Q1654. Which one of the following Section of
ANS: (A) Civil Procedure Code prohibits arrest or
detention of women in the execution of a decree
Q1648. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of for money?
courts are uncertain, the place of institution of (A) Section 35
suit shall be decided according to— (B) Section 59
(A) Section 17 C.P.C. (C) Section 60
(B) Section 19 C.P.C. (D) Section 56
(C) Section 20 C.P.C. ANS: (D)
(D) Section 18 C.P.C.
ANS: (D) Q1655. Section 114 of Civil Procedure Code,
should be read with the provisions of which one
Q1649. Under which provision Civil Courts have of the following orders?
inherent powers and for what purpose? (A) Order 46, Rule 1
(A) Under Section 151 (CPC 1908) for necessary for (B) Order 41
the ends of justice (C) Order 47, Rule 1
(B) Under Section 152 (CPC 1908) for necessary for (D) Order 47, Rule 3
the ends of justice ANS: (C)
(C) Under Section 152 (CPC 1908) to prevent abuse
the process of the Court Q1656. Under which one of the following
(D) None of the above Sections of Civil Procedure Code, inherent
ANS: (A) power has been provided to the courts?
(A) Section 151
Q1650. In which one of the following Sections (B) Section 150
of Civil Procedure Code, it has been provided (C) Section 148
that ―No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by (D) Section 149
the Court with the consent of the parties ?‖ ANS: (A)
(A) Section 96(1)
(B) Section 96(3) Q1657. Which statement of the following is
(C) Section 96(4) correct in the context of objectives of Right to
(D) Section 96(2) Information Act, 2005?
ANS: (B) (A) To promote transparency in the working of
Government
Q1651. Under Order 8 Rule 6 of Civil Procedure (B) To ensure accountability in the working of
Code, set off may be permitted, if— government bodies
(A) The suit is for the recovery of money (C) To protect public interest
(B) Value of property recoverable is less than (D) All of the above
rupees two lacs ANS: (D)
(C) Defendant presents a written statement of
accounts at any stage of hearing of the suit Q1658. In the definition of Right to
(D) Set-off claimed by the defendant, is ascertained Information, which of the following has been
sum of money included?
ANS: (A) (A) Inspection of work, documents, records
(B) Taking notes, extracts or certified copies of
Q1652. Under Civil Procedure Code, which one documents
of the following combinations is not correctly (C) Taking sample of materials
matched? (D) All of the above
(A) Temporary Injunction — Order 39 ANS: (D)
(B) Right to file caveat — Section 148–A
(C) Suit by indigent person — Order 33 Q1659. Under which Section of Right to
(D) Power of Appellate Court — Section 102 Information Act, 2005, the right to information
ANS: (D) is available to the citizens?
(A) Section 3
Q1653. Point out incorrect answer— A decree (B) Section 2
passed by a Civil Court can be executed by— (C) Section 4
(A) The court that passed that decreee (D) None of these
(B) The court to which the decree is transferred for ANS: (A)
execution by the court passing the decree
 MockTime.com
Q1660. Under which one of the following
Sections of Right to Information Act, 2005, Q1666. Under the Prevention of Women from
exemption from disclosure of information has Domestic Violence Act, 2005, the appointment
been provided to government bodies? of Protection Officers is made by—
(A) Section 8 (A) State Government
(B) Section 6 (B) District Magistrate
(C) Section 5 (C) Governor of the State
(D) Section 7 (D) Chief Minister of the State
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q1661. Under which one of the following Q1667. Which of the following amendments of
Sections of Right to Information Act, 2005, the constitution gave priority to the Directive
except the provision of appeal, bar of Principles of State Policy over Fundamental
jurisdiction of courts has been provided? Rights?
(A) Section 20 (A) 40th Amendment
(B) Section 21 (B) 42nd Amendment
(C) Section 22 (C) 45th Amendment
(D) Section 23 (D) 38th Amendment
ANS: (D) ANS: (B)

Q1662. Information Technology Act, 2000 has Q1668. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha will
made amendments in— address his letter of resignation to—
(A) Only Section 463 I.P.C. (A) The Prime Minister
(B) Only Sections 466 and 477-A I.P.C. (B) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Section 463, 466 and 477-A I.P.C. (C) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(D) Section 462 I.P.C. only (D) The President
ANS: (C) ANS: (B)

Q1663. Under the Prevention of Women from Q1669. Rajya Sabha does not have co-equal
Domestic Violence Act, 2005 in the context of powers with the Lok Sabha in—
the definition of domestic violence, which of (A) Passing of a Constitutional Amendment Bill
the following statements is the most relevant? (B) Passing of a Money Bill
(A) To inflict harm or injury or endangering the (C) Removal of a Supreme Court Judge
health, safety, life, limb or wellbeing of aggrieved (D) The impeachment of the President
woman ANS: (B)
(B) To demand dowry, any property or valuable
security from the aggrieved woman Q1670. By which of the following provisions of
(C) To threaten the aggrieved woman or any person the Constitution of India, power to promulgate
related to her ordinances is vested in the President?
(D) All of the above (A) Article 123
ANS: (D) (B) Article 124
(C) Article 125
Q1664. Under which one of the following (D) Article 122
Sections of the Prevention of Women from ANS: (A)
Domestic Violence Act, 2005, right to file
domestic incident report, has been provided? Q1671. By misusing the powers given in the
(A) Section 3 Constitution, the Indian President can become a
(B) Section 4 dictator? Who had expressed this
(C) Section 5 apprehension?
(D) Section 6 (A) Dr. K. M. Munshi
ANS: (B) (B) Dr. A. Gledhill
(C) Dr. Graham Williams
Q1665. Which of the following assistances are (D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
provided to the aggrieved women by the ANS: (B)
Protection Offices under the Protection of
Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005? Q1672. In case of constitutional disputes
(A) To assist the aggrieved person in making a between the Government of India and the State
complaint Governments, the Supreme Court of India has—
(B) To provide her information as given in Form-4 (A) Appellate Jurisdiction
on the rightsof aggrieved persons (B) Original Jurisdiction
(C) To provide safety to aggrieved person (C) No Jurisdiction
(D) All of the above (D) Advisory Jurisdiction
ANS: (D) ANS: (B)

Q1673. Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to
civil matters is limited only to a—
(A) Substantive question of law
(B) Mixed question of fact and law
(C) Question of law
(D) Question of fact
ANS: (A)
Q1674. In which of the following cases, the
Supreme Court declared that a Constituent
Assembly should be convened to amend the
fundamental rights?
(A) Golaknath‘s case
(B) Menaka Gandhi's case
(C) Keshavanand Bharti‘s case
(D) A. K. Gopalan‘s case
ANS: (A)
Q1675. Once a proclamation of emergency is
made, the right of a citizen to move the
Supreme Court for enforcement of his
fundamental rights is suspended by the—
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
ANS: (B)
Q1676. Under Article 368 of the Constitution,
Parliament has no power to repeal fundamental
rights because these are—
(A) Human Rights
(B) Transcendental Rights
(C) Parts of basic structure or essential framework
of the Constitution
(D) Enshrined in Part III of the Constitution
ANS: (C)
Q1677. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
(A) Supreme Court may issue writs for enforcement
of any legal right
(B) Supreme Court has the power to punish any
person for its contempt
(C) Salary of judges of the Supreme Court is not
subject to vote of the legislature
(D) A retired judge of the Supreme Court is
prohibited from appearing and pleading in any
court within the territory of India
ANS: (C)
Q1678. The principle of absolute liability was
propounded by—
(A) Justice Krishna Iyer
(B) Justice A. N. Ray
(C) Justice Patanjali Shastri
(D) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
ANS: (D)
MockTime.com
Q1679. Which one of the following statements is
not correct? The Supreme Court of India may
review its earlier decision—
(A) If there is mistake or error apparent on the face
of record
(B) If the circumstances of a substantial and
compelling character make it necessary to do so
(C) If it is satisfied of its error and its harmful effect
on the general interest of public
(D) If a new interpretation of a statutory provision is
brought to its knowledge
ANS: (C)
Q1680. By which of the following Constitutional
Amendment, Article 31-C was added to the
Constitution?
(A) 22nd Constitution Amendment
(B) 24th Constitution Amendment
(C) 25th Constitution Amendment
(D) 26th Constitution Amendment
ANS: (C)
Q1681. In which of the following articles of the
Constitution of India, the members of State
Legislative Assembly are required to take oath
of their office?
(A) Article 188
(B) Article 164(3)
(C) Article 124(6)
(D) Article 99
ANS: (A)
Q1682. When a Constitutional Amendment Bill
is presented to the President for his assent—
(A) He may or may not give his assent
(B) He may return the Bill for reconsideration
(C) He may withhold his assent
(D) He shall give his assent to the Bill
ANS: (D)
Q1683. The Supreme Court of India has held
that sexual harrassment of working women
amounts to violation of their right of gender
equality and right to life and personal liberty. In
which one of the following cases the Apex Court
has held as such?
(A) Hussainara Vs. State of Bihar
(B) Vishaka and others Vs. State of Rajasthan and
others
(C) Srimati Gyan Kaur Vs. State of Punjab
(D) Nilabati Behera Vs. State of Orissa
ANS: (B)
Q1684. When Emergency under Article 352 of
the Constitution is proclaimed, the President
has the power to suspend the Fundamental
Rights but it is not possible to suspend the
Rights contained in the following Articles—
(A) Articles 21 and 22
(B) Articles 19, 20 and 21
(C) Articles 20 and 21
(D) Articles 19 and 20
ANS: (C)
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(D) Not punishable when the preparation is with
Q1685. Which one of the following features, we the intention of waging war
have not borrowed from the Constitution of ANS: (C)
United Kingdom?
(A) Parliamentary type of Government Q1692. ―P gives grave and sudden provocation
(B) Supreme Court to M. M fixes a pistol at P. Neither intending nor
(C) Privilege of Members of the Parliament knowing himself to be likely to kill Q, who is
(D) Two Houses of the Parliament near him but out of the sight. M kills Q.‖ M has
ANS: (B) committed—
(A) Murder
Q1686. An Amendment of the Constitution of (B) Culpable homicide
India for the purpose of creating a new state in (C) Neither a murder nor culpable homicide
India, must be passed by— (D) All of the above
(A) A simple majority in Parliament ANS: (B)
(B) Two-thirds of the members of both the Houses
of Parliament present and voting Q1693. In which of the following cases it was
(C) A simple majority in Parliament and ratification held that the death sentence should be given in
by not less than half of the states ‗rarest of rare‘ cases?
(D) A simple majority in the Parliament with the (A) R. Vs. Govinda
approval of the concerned state Paper–II (B) Hussainara Khatoon Vs. State of Bihar
ANS: (D) (C) Sunil Batra Vs. Delhi Administration
(D) Bachhan Singh Vs. State of Punjab
Q1687. Grave and sudden provocation is— ANS: (D)
(A) A question of fact
(B) A question of law Q1694. A, an 11 year aged boy, entered in the
(C) A mixed question of fact and law room of a girl B, aged about 8 years who was
(D) A presumption underthe law sleeping. A injured her private parts. In this
ANS: (A) case—
(A) A has committed no offence
Q1688. Grievous hurt is defined under— (B) A is guilty of an offence under Section 354 of
(A) Section 321, IPC IPC
(B) Section 320, IPC (C) A is guilty of rape
(C) Section 322, IPC (D) A is guilty of attempt to rape
(D) Section 325, IPC ANS: (B)
ANS: (B)
Q1695. Which Section was inserted into IPC by
Q1689. Assault in order to outrage the modesty Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005?
of a woman is punishable under which of the (A) Section 498-A
following Sections of the IPC? (B) Section 153-AA
(A) Under Section 363 (C) Section 229-A
(B) Under Section 354 (D) Section 195-A
(C) Under Section 509 ANS: (D)
(D) Under Section 511
ANS: (B) Q1696. To sit at an examination falsely
personating another and signing papers in that
Q1690. A takes a camera belonging to B, out of others name amounts to—
the possession of B, without the consent of B, (A) Cheating as well as forgery
with the intention of keeping it until he gets (B) Forgery only
reward from B for its restoration. A is guilty of— (C) Cheating only
(A) Criminal misappropriation (D) Both cheating and forgery by personation
(B) Extortion ANS: (D)
(C) Theft
(D) Cheating Q1697. A incites a dog to spring upon Z,
ANS: (C) without Z‘s consent and with intend to cause
injury, fear or annoyance to Z. A has
Q1691. Preparation for the commission of a committed—
crime is— (A) Use of criminal force
(A) Punishable under the IPC (B) Assault
(B) Not punishable under the IPC (C) Grave provocation
(C) Punishable when the preparation is with (D) Use of force
intention of waging war against the Government of ANS: (A)
India or committing dacoity
 MockTime.com
Q1698. In which Section of Criminal Procedure (A) Section 260 to 265
Code, 1973 ‗cognizable offence‘ has been (B) Section 251 to 259
defined? (C) Section 238 to 250
(A) Section 2(a) (D) Section 225 to 237
(B) Section 2(c) ANS: (D)
(C) Section 2(i)
(D) Section 2(i) Q1706. Complaint as provided under Section 2
ANS: (B) (d) of Cr. P.C.; can be—
(A) In writing only
Q1699. Under which Section of Cr.P.C. (B) Oral only
Government can appoint Assistant Public (C) Either in writing or oral
Prosecuters? (D) By gestures
(A) Section 23 ANS: (C)
(B) Section 24
(C) Section 25 Q1707. The power of Supreme Court to transfer
(D) Section 26 criminal cases and appeals from one High Court
ANS: (C) to another High Court is conferred under—
(A) Section 407, Cr.P.C.
Q1700. The Local Jurisdiction of a Judicial (B) Section 406, Cr.P.C.
Magistrate is under the control of— (C) Section 421, Cr.P.C.
(A) State Government (D) Section 408, Cr.P.C.
(B) High Court ANS: (B)
(C) The High Court by Chief Judicial Magistrate
(D) None of the above Q1708. In a bailable offence, the bail is to be
ANS: (C) granted as a matter of right—
(A) By the Police Officer
Q1701. Under Cr. P.C. an inquiry is— (B) By the Court
(A) A judicial proceeding (C) Both by the Police Officer and the Court
(B) A police proceeding (D) By the Executive Magistrate
(C) A private proceeding ANS: (B)
(D) A specific proceeding
ANS: (A) Q1709. Classification of compoundable and
noncompoundable offences has been provided
Q1702. In a cognizable case,the police has under—
authority— (A) First Schedule of Cr.P.C.
(A) To arrest without warrant (B) Second Schedule of Cr.P.C.
(B) To investigate the offence without the (C) Section 320 of Cr.P.C.
permission of the magistrate (D) Section 321 of Cr.P.C.
(C) Both (A) and (B) above ANS: (C)
(D) Either
ANS: (C) Q1710. Which one of the following provisions of
Cr.P.C. is not related to appeal?
Q1703. A Magistrate has a power to direct the (A) Section 86
police to investigate into an offence under— (B) Section 449
(A) Section 156(1), Cr. P.C. (C) Section 450
(B) Section 156(2), Cr. P.C. (D) Section 454
(C) Section 156(3), Cr. P.C. ANS: (C)
(D) All of these
ANS: (C) Q1711. Who can issue a search warrant for
document or thing?
Q1704. Which court can try in a summary way (A) Any Court
offences mentioned in Section 260 of the (B) Police Superintendent
Cr.P.C.? (C) Magistrate of First Class only
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate (D) Sessions Court only
(B) Metropolitan Magistrate ANS: (A)
(C) Any Magistrate of first class specially
empowered by the High Court in this behalf Q1712. When the police registers a case
(D) All of the above regarding commission of a cognizable offence,
ANS: (D) the registration of the case is—
(A) Under Section 154 Cr.P.C.
Q1705. In which of the following Sections of (B) Under Section 155 Cr.P.C.
Cr.P.C. the procedure for Sessions Trial is (C) Under Section 156(3) Cr.P.C.
provided? (D) Under Section 190 Cr.P.C.
 MockTime.com
ANS: (A) (A) Section 473
(B) Section 468
Q1713. Which Section of Cr.P.C. permits the (C) Section 472
public prosecuter in charge of a case to (D) Section 471
withdraw prosecution? ANS: (A)
(A) Section 304
(B) Section 321 Q1721. Addition or alteration of charge has
(C) Section 313 been provided under—
(D) Section 323 (A) Section 214, Cr.P.C.
ANS: (B) (B) Section 215, Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 216, Cr.P.C.
Q1714. A confession under Section 164 Cr.P.C. (D) Section 218, Cr.P.C.
may be recorded by— ANS: (C)
(A) Any Metropolitan or Judicial Magistrate
(B) Executive Magistrate Q1722. A was wounded in Uttar Pradesh and
(C) Police officer on whom power of a Magistrate dies of his wounds in Bhopal. The offence of
has been conferred causing A‘s death may be inquired into and tried
(D) Either A or B in—
ANS: (A) (A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bhopal
Q1715. Maintenance of a case diary by an (C) Uttar Pradesh or Bhopal
investigating officer is mandatory under— (D) Anywhere the F.I.R. is lodged
(A) Section 162 Cr.P.C. ANS: (C)
(B) Section 167 Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 172 Cr.P.C. Q1723. Which Section of Cr.P.C. requires
(D) Section 174 Cr.P.C. confirmation by the High Court of an order of
ANS: (C) death sentence passed by the Sessions Court?
(A) Section 366
Q1716. Which court has power to set aside the (B) Section 368
declaration of forfeiture under Section 95 of (C) Section 369
Cr.P.C.? (D) Section 371
(A) Sessions Court ANS: (A)
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Judicial Magistrate Q1724. Examination of witnesses in the absence
(D) Supreme Court of accused can be done, under—
ANS: (B) (A) Section 299, Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 321, Cr.P.C.
Q1717. Section 125 of Cr.P.C. is applicable to— (C) Section 224, Cr.P.C.
(A) Hindus (D) Section 298, Cr.P.C.
(B) Muslims ANS: (A)
(C) Christians
(D) Persons belonging to any religion Q1725. In which of the following cases the
ANS: (D) prosecution witness was prosecuted for perjury?
(A) Jessica Lal Case
Q1718. A criminal case can be committed to the (B) Nitish Katara Case
Court of Sessions by Judicial Magistrate under— (C) Priyadarshni Mattoo Case
(A) Section 209, Cr. P.C. (D) None of these
(B) Section 323, Cr. P.C. ANS: (A)
(C) Section 324, Cr. P.C.
(D) Both (A) and (B) above Q1726. The Code of Criminal Procedure
ANS: (D) (Amendment) Act, 2005 came into force on—
(A) 22nd June, 2006
Q1719. Jurisdiction to grant bail under Section (B) 21st June, 2005
438 of Cr. P.C. vests with— (C) 23rd June, 2006
(A) Judicial Magistrate (D) 23rd July, 2006
(B) Court of Sessions ANS: (C)
(C) High Court
(D) Both (B) and (C)
ANS: (D)

Q1720. Which Section of Cr. P.C. authorise any

Q1727. Security for good behaviour from
court to take cognizance of an offence after the
habitual offenders may be taken under—
expiry of the period of limitation?
 MockTime.com
(A) Section 107 of Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 109 of Cr.P.C. Q1735. In which Section of Indian Evidence
(C) Section 110 of Cr.P.C. Act, irrelevant facts may become relevant?
(D) Section 133 of Cr.P.C. (A) Section 9
ANS: (C) (B) Section 10
(C) Section 11
Q1728. In the following, who is authorised for (D) Section 12
removal of public nuisance? ANS: (C)
(A) Judicial Magistrate First Class
(B) Judicial Magistrate Second Class Q1736. Under which Section of the Evidence
(C) Executive Magistrate Act, admissibility of evidence shall be decided
(D) Sessions Judge by the Judge?
ANS: (C) (A) Section 135
(B) Section 136
Q1729. Under which of the following Sections of (C) Section 138
Cr.P.C. police can arrest an accused without (D) Section 144
warrant? ANS: (B)
(A) Section 38
(B) Section 41 Q1737. Admissions bind the maker—
(C) Section 39 (A) In so far as it relates to facts
(D) Section 40 (B) In so far as it relates to law
ANS: (B) (C) Both on questions of facts and law
(D) None of the above
Q1730. Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to— ANS: (A)
(A) Proceedings before a Tribunal
(B) Proceedings before an Arbitrator Q1738. ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ were jointly tried for the
(C) Judicial proceedings in Courts murder of ‗C‘. During the trial ‗A‘ said—―‗B‘ and
(D) All of the above I murdered ‗C‘‖. What is the nature of this
ANS: (C) evidence against ‗B‘?
(A) Substantive evidence
Q1731. ‗Facts in issue‘ means— (B) Corroborative evidence
(A) Fact existence or non-existence of which is (C) Hearsay evidence
admitted by the parties (D) Direct evidence
(B) Fact existence or non-existence of which is ANS: (B)
disputed by the parties
(C) Fact existence or non-existence of which is not Q1739. Confession made to police officer is
disputed by the parties inadmissible under—
(D) All of the above (A) Section 24
ANS: (B) (B) Section 25
(C) Section 26
Q1732. Which is not an evidence in the (D) Section 27
following? ANS: (B)
(A) Personal knowledge or observation of a judge
about the case during hearing Q1740. Section 27 of the Evidence Act applies—
(B) Oral statement of a witness before the Court (A) When the person giving information is an
(C) Document produced for the inspection of Court accused but is not in police custody
(D) Electronic C.D. (B) When the person giving information is an
ANS: (A) accused and is in police custody
(C) When the person is in police custody but is not
Q1733. The facts forming part of the same an accused
transaction are relevant under— (D) When the person is neither in police custody
(A) Section 5 nor an accused
(B) Section 6 ANS: (B)
(C) Section 7
(D) Section 4 Q1741. A dying declaration to be relevant—
ANS: (B) (A) Must be made before a Magistrate
(B) Must be made before a Police officer
Q1734. Under Section 8 of the Evidence Act— (C) May be made before a Doctor or a private
(A) Motive is relevant person
(B) Preparation is relevant (D) May be made either before a Magistrate or a
(C) Conduct is relevant Police officer or a private person
(D) All of the above are relevant ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
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Q1742. Under the Indian Evidence Act, a public (D) Section 75 I.E.A.
document can be proved— ANS: (C)
(A) By certified copy
(B) By oral evidence Q1750. Admissibility of electronic record has
(C) By the evidence of the writing of the certified been provided under—
copy (A) Section 65 of Indian Evidence Act
(D) Any of the above (B) Section 66 of Indian Evidence Act
ANS: (A) (C) Section 65-A of Indian Evidence Act
(D) Section 65-B of Indian Evidence Act
Q1743. Opinion of an expert under Section 45 ANS: (D)
of the Evidence Act—
(A) Is a conclusive proof Q1751. In criminal proceedings the burden of
(B) Is not a conclusive proof proof lies—
(C) Is a supportive and corroborative proof (A) On the prosecution to prove the guilt of the
(D) Either A or C accused
ANS: (C) (B) On the accused to prove his innocence
(C) On both the parties
Q1744. Facts, of which judicial notice is to be (D) None of the above
taken, are stated in— ANS: (A)
(A) Section 56, I.E.A.
(B) Section 57, I.E.A. Q1752. Husband and wife both are competent
(C) Section 58, I.E.A. witnesses for or against each other—
(D) Section 55, I.E.A. (A) In civil proceedings
ANS: (B) (B) In criminal proceedings
(C) In both civil and criminal proceedings
Q1745. Contents of a document may be proved (D) Neither in civil nor in criminal proceedings
under Section 61 of the Indian Evidence Act— ANS: (C)
(A) By primary evidence
(B) By secondary evidence Q1753. Section 108 of the Evidence Act relates
(C) Either by primary or by secondary evidence to—
(D) None of the above (A) Presumption of death
ANS: (C) (B) Presumption of life
(C) Presumption of legitimacy of child
Q1746. ―The court may presume the existence (D) Presumption of relationship
of certain facts‖ has been provided under which ANS: (A)
of the following sections of the Evidence Act—
(A) Section 114 Q1754. The principle that ―possession is the
(B) Section 113 prima facie proof of ownership‖ is contained
(C) Section 113-A in—
(D) Section 114-A (A) Section 109, I.E.A.
ANS: (C) (B) Section 110, I.E.A.
(C) Section 111, I.E.A.
Q1747. Which of the following are Public (D) Section 112, I.E.A.
Documents? ANS: (B)
(A) Documents of Sovereign Authorities
(B) Documents of Official Bodies Q1755. Estoppel is a rule of—
(C) Documents of Tribunals (A) Civil action
(D) All of the above (B) Criminal action
ANS: (D) (C) Both Civil and Criminal actions
(D) Only
Q1748. ―No new trial for improper admission of ANS: (A)
evidence‖ has been provided in which of the
following Sections of Evidence Act? Q1756. A dumb person is a competent witness
(A) Section 165 as provided under—
(B) Section 166 (A) Section 118, I.E.A.
(C) Section 167 (B) Section 119, I.E.A.
(D) None of these (C) Section 120, I.E.A.
ANS: (C) (D) Section 121, I.E.A.
ANS: (B)
Q1749. Public documents are mentioned in—
(A) Section 72 I.E.A. Q1757. Leading questions can be asked during
(B) Section 73 I.E.A. the—
(C) Section 74 I.E.A. (A) Examination in chief
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(B) Cross-examination (A) Section 17
(C) Re-examination (B) Section 18
(D) All of these (C) Section 19
ANS: (B) (D) Section 20
ANS: (B)
Q1758. Examination of witness in criminal
cases through video-conferencing is— Q1765. Whether provisions of Section 360 of
(A) Permissible Cr.P.C. are applicable to a person above the age
(B) Not permissible of 18 years who is found guilty under SC/ST
(C) Permissible at the option of the witness Act?
(D) Permissible at the option of the accused (A) Not applicable
ANS: (A) (B) Applicable
(C) Applicable with the sanction of the State
Q1759. The Scheduled Caste and Scheduled (D) Applicable with the sanction of the Supreme
Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 Court
defines ―atrocity‖ under— ANS: (A)
(A) Section 2(a)
(B) Section 3(i) Q1766. Who has the power to make rules for
(C) Section 4 carrying out the purpose of SC/ST Act?
(D) Section 5 (A) State Government
ANS: (A) (B) Central Government
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
Q1760. ‗A‘ a person of scheduled caste, attacks (D) Supreme Court
on a women of scheduled tribe with intent to ANS: (B)
rape. In which section of SC/ST (Prevention of
Atrocity) Act, he is liable for prosecution? Q1767. If a person is likely to commit offence
(A) Section 5 under SC/ST Act, can be removed, under—
(B) Section 3 (A) Section 8
(C) Section 4 (B) Section 9
(D) None of these (C) Section 10
ANS: (B) (D) Section 7
ANS: (C)
Q1761. If a public servant not belonging to S.C.
or S.T. wilfully neglects his duties under the Q1768. The subject ‗Protection of wild animal
SC/ST Act, he shall be punished— and birds‘ in the Constitution of India is
(A) Imprisonment of one year enumerated—
(B) Rigorous imprisonment for a term of two years (A) In the Union List
(C) Imprisonment for a term of three years (B) In the State List
(D) Simple imprisonment for less than six months (C) In the Concurrent List
ANS: (A) (D) In all of the above
ANS: (C)
Q1762. Who constitutes the Special Court under
the SC/ST Act? Q1769. Under which Section of the Wild-life
(A) Central Government by notification (Protection) Act, 1972 the National Board for
(B) Central Government with consultation of Chief Wildlife is constituted?
Justice of India (A) Section 6
(C) State Government with the concurrence of the (B) Section 8
Chief Justice of the High Court (C) Section 9
(D) Governor of the concerned State (D) Section 10
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q1763. Who is responsible for preventing
atrocities in prone areas declared under the
SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocity) Act?
(A) District Magistrate
(B) Sub-Divisional Magistrate
(C) Police officer not below the rank of a Deputy
Superintendent
(D) All of the above
ANS: (D)
Q1764. Under which Section of the SC/ST Act
anticipatory bail is prohibited?
Q1770. Who can give permission to kill a
dangerous animal to human life specified in
Schedule-1 of Wild-life (Protection) Act?
(A) Forest Conservator
(B) Divisional Forest Officer
(C) Chief Wild-life Warden
(D) State Government
ANS: (C)
Q1771. ―No person shall hunt any wild animal‖
has been specified in which of the following
schedules of the Wild-life (Protection) Act?
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(A) Schedule I (B) Trial before Sessions Court
(B) Schedule IV (C) Trial of warrant case
(C) Schedule III (D) Trial of summons case
(D) All of these ANS: (A)
ANS: (D)
Q1779. A prosecution for an offence under the
Q1772. In the following, for what purpose Prevention of Food Adulteration Act may be
special permit to hunt wild animals may be instituted by a purchaser, under—
granted? (A) Section 9
(A) Educational (B) Section 12
(B) Scientific Research (C) Section 16
(C) Scientific Management (D) Section 20
(D) All of these ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q1780. Who is empowered to make rules for
Q1773. Who can declare an area to be a carrying out the provisions of the Prevention of
Sanctuary under Section 18 of the Wild-life Food Adulteration Act, 1954?
(Protection) Act? (A) State Government
(A) Central Government (B) Central Government
(B) State Government (C) Both (A) and (B) above
(C) Forest Department (D) Food Controller
(D) District Magistrate ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
Q1781. In relation to certain articles of food,
Q1774. Causing fire to a sanctuary is prohibited what is prohibited under Section 7 of the
under— Prevention of Food Adulteration Act?
(A) Section 30 Wild-life (Protection) Act (A) Manufacture for sale
(B) Section 28 Wild-life (Protection) Act (B) Storage
(C) Section 31 Wildlife (Protection) Act (C) Distribution
(D) Section 29 Wild-life (Protection) Act (D) All of these
ANS: (A) ANS: (D)

Q1775. Provisions relating to prevention and Q1782. Which Section of the Prevention of Food
detection of offences under the Wild-life Adulteration Act provides for defences which
(Protection) Act are provided in— may or may not be allowed in prosecutions?
(A) Chapter V (A) Section 17
(B) Chapter VI (B) Section 18
(C) Chapter IV (C) Section 19
(D) Chapter III (D) Section 21
ANS: (B) ANS: (C)

Q1776. Under which Section of Prevention of Q1783. Under the PFA Act, if any food items is
Food Adulteration Act, 1954 the powers of Food so coloured, coated or powdered that the fact
Inspectors are provided? that the article is damaged is concealed, it shall
(A) Section 8 be deemed to be—
(B) Section 9 (A) An imitated article
(C) Section 10 (B) A misbranded article
(D) Section 11 (C) A polluted article
ANS: (C) (D) An adulterated article
ANS: (B)
Q1777. Who is responsible to give warranty of
any food article under the Prevention of Food Q1784. Under which Section of the Prevention
Adulteration Act? of Corruption Act, 1988 demanding and
(A) Manufacturer receiving illegal gratification constitutes an
(B) Distributor offence?
(C) Dealer (A) Section 7
(D) All of these (B) Section 13(1)(d)
ANS: (D) (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Section 12
Q1778. The trial of offences under Section 16-A ANS: (C)
of the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act,
shall be—
(A) A summary trial case
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Q1785. Whether Probation of Offenders Act, (D) It extends to the State of M.P. only
1958 is applicable to offenders of Section 13 of ANS: (A)
the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988?
(A) Yes Q1792. Who has powerto restrict or prohibit
(B) No Provision transport of arms?
(C) May be applicable with the permission of the (A) Central Government
Government (B) State Government
(D) May be applicable on request of the offender (C) District Magistrate
ANS: (B) (D) Police Commissioner
ANS: (A)
Q1786. By which Section of the Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988, Sections 161 to 165-A of Q1793. Which Section of the Arms Act, 1959
the Indian Penal Code has been omitted? defines ‗Prohibited Ammunition‘?
(A) Section 31 (A) Section 3
(B) Section 28 (B) Section 2(e)
(C) Section 30 (C) Section 2(h)
(D) Section 29 (D) Section 2(c)
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q1787. Offences referred to in Section 139(1)(e) Q1794. A person cannot acquire firearms—
of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 shall (A) Who has executed a bond for keeping good
be investigated by— behaviour
(A) The police officer in charge of a police station (B) Who is below the age of 21 years
(B) Any subordinate Police Officer with the order of (C) Who has been sentenced for violence
a Police Officer not below the rank of (D) All of the above
Superintendent of Police ANS: (D)
(C) Police Sub-Inspector
(D) Any Police Inspector Q1795. Licence for import and export of arms is
ANS: (B) compulsory under which of the following
Sections of the Arms Act?
Q1788. Under the Prevention of Corruption Act, (A) Section 9
the onus to prove that ―the assets found were (B) Section 10
not disproportionate to the known sources of (C) Section 7
income of the accused‖, is on— (D) Section 8
(A) The accused ANS: (B)
(B) The prosecution
(C) The investigating officer Q1796. A licence under Section 3 of the Arms
(D) The Government Act shall, unless revoked earlier, continue in
ANS: (B) force for the period of—
(A) One year
Q1789. Presumption under Section 20 of the (B) Two years
Prevention of Corruption Act is— (C) Three years
(A) Rebuttable (D) Five years
(B) Irrebuttable ANS: (C)
(C) Rebuttable with the permission of the court
(D) Neither (A) nor (B) Q1797. Where the licensing authority prior to
ANS: (C) grant of licence to any person under the Arms
Act, calls for a report from the concerned police
Q1790. Under which Section of the Prevention station but the police station did not send the
of Corruption Act previous sanction is necessary report within the prescribed time, then—
for prosecution of certain offences? (A) The application for licence shall be cancelled
(A) Section 16 (B) Police report will be asked again
(B) Section 17 (C) Licence without report will not be valid
(C) Section 18 (D) Licence may be granted without police report
(D) Section 19 ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q1798. Under which Section of the Arms Act,
Q1791. Under the Arms Act, 1959 which one of 1959 a Magistrate may make search and seizure
the following statements is correct? of any arm or ammunition?
(A) This Act extends to the whole of India (A) Section 20
(B) It extends to the whole of India except Jammu & (B) Section 22
Kashmir (C) Section 21
(C) This Act extends to all Union Territories (D) Section 23
 MockTime.com
ANS: (B) Q1806. The appeal against an order made by the
Appropriate Commission under the Electricity
Q1799. The punishment for carrying any Act, 2003 may be preferred to—
firearm without licence is— (A) The High Court
(A) Not less than three years, but may be extended (B) Appellate Tribunal for Electricity
to seven years with fine (C) The Supreme Court
(B) 5 years imprisonment (D) The District Court
(C) 2 years imprisonment and fine ANS: (D)
(D) 5 years imprisonment and fine
ANS: (A) Q1807. Punishment for receiving stolen electric
line or material is provided under which section
Q1800. The offences under the Narcotic Drugs of Electricity Act?
and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 are— (A) Section 137
(A) Cognizable (B) Section 142
(B) Non-Cognizable (C) Section 139
(C) Cognizable and non-bailable (D) Section 140
(D) Bailable ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q1808. For which of the following purposes a
Q1801. Who can get benefit of release on licence is essential under the Electricity Act?
probation under the NDPS Act, 1985? (A) To transmit electricity
(A) An accused under Section 27 (B) To distribute electricity
(B) An accused under Section 27-A (C) Trading in electricity
(C) An accused under Section 28 (D) All of these
(D) An accused under Section 29 ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q1809. Who has jurisdiction to punish for
Q1802. Which Section of the NDPS Act provides electricity offences?
death penalty for certain offences? (A) Chief Electrical Inspector
(A) Section 32 (B) Special Court
(B) Section 32-A (C) State Regulatory Commission
(C) Section 31 (D) Sessions Court
(D) Section 31-A ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q1810. Provision for compounding of offence of
Q1803. The offences under the NDPS Act, 1985 theft of electricity is provided in Electricity Act,
are triable by— 2003 in—
(A) Court of Sessions (A) Section 151
(B) Special Court (B) Section 150
(C) Chief Judicial Magistrate (C) Section 152
(D) Magistrate of First Class (D) Section 149
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q1804. Who has power to issue a search warrant Q1811. Exemption to the members of scheduled
under Section 41 of the NDPS Act? tribes from certain provisions of M.P. Excise
(A) Metropolitan Magistrate Act, 1915 is granted in—
(B) Magistrate of First Class (A) Section 61
(C) Any Magistrate of SecondClass specially (B) Section 61-A
empowered by the State Government in this behalf (C) Section 61-C
(D) All of the above (D) Section 61-D
ANS: (D) ANS: (D)

Q1805. Which Section of NDPS Act provides for Q1812. Which authority is empowered to
attachment of opium poppy, cannabis plant or restrict the import, export or transport of
coca illegally cultivated? intoxicant under Section 8 of the M.P. Excise
(A) Section 46 Act, 1915?
(B) Section 47 (A) Excise Commissioner
(C) Section 48 (B) State Government
(D) Section 49 (C) Excise Officer
ANS: (C) (D) Revenue Officer
ANS: (B)
 MockTime.com
Q1813. Who amongst the following has power to (A) Motive, mens rea and actus reus
arrest without warrant under Section 52 of the (B) Motive, intention and knowledge
M.P. Excise Act? (C) Mens rea and actus reus
(A) Excise Officer (D) Knowledge, intention and action
(B) Police Officer who is empowered in this behalf ANS: (C)
(C) Revenue Officer who is empowered in this behalf
(D) All of the above Q1821. In which of the following offences
ANS: (D) criminal intention (mens rea) is irrelevant?
(A) Attempt to commit crime
Q1814. Under the Madhya Pradesh Excise Act, (B) Food adulteration
penalty for manufacturing liquor unfit for (C) Bigamy
human consumption is provided in— (D) Dacoity
(A) Section 49-A ANS: (C)
(B) Section 48-A
(C) Section 49 Q1822. X and Y go to murder Z. X stood on
(D) Section 48 guard with a spear in hand but did not hit Z at
ANS: (A) all. Y killed Z. In this case—
(A) Only Y is liable for murder of Z
Q1815. In which Section of the Madhya Pradesh (B) X and Y both are liable for murder of Z
Excise Act, a licence is required for sale of (C) X is not liable as he did not perform any overt
intoxicants? act
(A) Section 14 (D) Both (A) and (C) are correct
(B) Section 15 ANS: (B)
(C) Section 16
(D) Section 17 Q1823. In connection with the right of private
ANS: (D) defence of body, give the correct response—
(A) This right is not available against an unsound
Q1816. Excisable article means— person
(A) Alcoholic liquor for human consumption (B) This right is not available against a person
(B) Intoxicating drug below 7 years of age
(C) Opium and poppy straw (C) This right is available against any person
(D) All of the above (D) This right is not available against parents
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q1817. Wrongful gain means— Q1824. In case of an offence punishable with

(A) A gain by lawful means of property which the fine only, imprisonment for non-payment of
person gaining is not entitled fine, will be—
(B) A gain by unlawful means of property to which (A) Rigorous
the person gaining is not legally entitled (B) Simple
(C) A gain by unlawful means of property which the (C) Rigorous or simple both
person gaining is entitled (D) Partly rigorous and partly simple
(D) All of the above ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q1825. Under Section 498-A ofIPCcruelty
Q1818. Which Section of Indian Penal Code includes—
defines ‗personation at elections‘? (A) Harassment of woman
(A) Section 171-A (B) Physical cruelty only
(B) Section 171-B (C) Mental cruelty only
(C) Section 171-C (D) All of the above
(D) Section 171-D ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q1826. Under Indian Penal Code act of a child
Q1819. In which of the following cases the Privy under seven years of age is provided as an
Council made a distinction between ‗common exception—
intention‘ and ‗similar intention‘? (A) Section 80
(A) Barendra Kumar Ghose Vs. Emperor (B) Section 81
(B) Mahboob Shah Vs. King Emperor (C) Section 82
(C) Srinivasmal Barolia Vs. Emperor (D) Section 84
(D) Bannumal Vs. Emperor ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
Q1827. For ‗rioting‘ which one of the following
Q1820. The essential and chief ingredients of a is correct?
‗crime‘ are— (A) Actual force or violence must be used
 MockTime.com
(B) Mere show of ‗force‘ is sufficient city where police caught them. What offence
(C) Mere possession of deadly weapon is sufficient has been committed by ‗A‘?
(D) All of the above (A) Kidnapping
ANS: (A) (B) No offence because B has gone with her own
consent
Q1828. Punishment for criminal conspiracy is (C) Abduction
provided in— (D) A is himself minor, hence A has committed no
(A) Section 120-B IPC offence
(B) Section 124 IPC ANS: (A)
(C) Section 120-A IPC
(D) Section 121-A IPC Q1835. Abetment is complete as soon as—
ANS: (A) (A) The abetor has instigated another to commit an
offence
Q1829. The maxim ―actus non facit reum, nisi (B) The person instigated has done some overt act
mens sit rea‖ means— towards the commission of the offence
(A) Crime has to be coupled with guilty mind (C) The offence abetted has been committed
(B) There can be no crime without a guilty mind (D) Both (B) and (C) of the above
(C) Crime is the result of guilty mind ANS: (A)
(D) Guilty mind leads to crime
ANS: (B) Q1836. Culpable homicide has been defined—
(A) Under Section 299 IPC
Q1830. A intending or knowing himself to be (B) Under Section 300 IPC
likely to disfigure Z‘s face permanently, gives Z (C) Under Section 302 IPC
a blow which does not permanently disfigure Z‘s (D) Under Section 304 IPC
face, but which causes Z to suffer severe bodily ANS: (A)
pain for the space of twenty days. What offence
has A committed? Q1837. A muslim goes to any country of the
(A) Attempt to murder world—
(B) Voluntarily causing grievous hurt (A) With his personal law
(C) Voluntarily causing hurt (B) Without his personal law
(D) Simple hurt (C) Leaving his personal law in his country
ANS: (B) (D) With an object of obeying the laws of the
country concern which includes personal law
Q1831. Promoting enmity between different ANS: (D)
groups on grounds of religion is punishable
under which Section of IPC? Q1838. Where a muslim male and a muslim
(A) Section 151 female contract their marriage under the
(B) Section 153 Special Marriage Act. 1954, muslim personal
(C) Section 153-A law—
(D) Section 153-B (A) Applies to such marriage
ANS: (D) (B) Does not apply
(C) Applies with some modifications
Q1832. A makes an attempt to pick the pocket (D) Applies with the Indian Contract Act.
of B, by thrusting his hand into B‘s pocket. A ANS: (B)
fails in the attempt in consequence of B‘s
having nothing in the pocket. A is guilty of— Q1839. Under the Shia Law, if the husband has
(A) No offence capacity to speak but announces Talak in
(B) Theft writing the Talak is—
(C) Attempt to theft (A) Valid
(C) Using criminal force (B) Voidable
ANS: (C) (C) Void
(D) Valid barring certain circumstances
Q1833. Under which Section of IPC punishment ANS: (C)
for ‗wrongful confinement‘ is provided?
(A) Section 339 Q1840. Under the Muslim Law, marriage is
(B) Section 340 regarded as a—
(C) Section 341 (A) Sacrament
(D) Section 342 (B) Contract
ANS: (D) (C) Social need
(D) Tradition
Q1834. A and B, both are 16 years of age. A ANS: (B)
entices B for marriage and takes her to another
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Q1841. The essential condition of a gift under (C) Divorce by mutual consent has been provided
Muslim Law is— under Sec. 13-A of the Hindu Marriage Act
(A) Declaration of the gift by the donor (D) A petition for divorce by mutual consent must
(B) Acceptance of the gift by the donee be presented within one year of marriage
(C) Delivery of possession of subject matter of the ANS: (B)
gift
(D) All the above Q1849. Match List-I and List–II and select the
ANS: (D) correct answer using the code given below the
lists— List-I
Q1842. Wakf can be made by— (a) Marriage between parties within degrees of
(A) A Muslim only prohibited relationship
(B) A Hindu only (b) Impotency
(C) Both Hindu and Muslim (c) Marriage between two sapindas of each other
(D) Neither by Hindu nor by Muslim (d) Pregnancy of wife at the time of marriage by
ANS: (A) some person other than the petitioner List–II 1.
Voidable 2. Void 3. Voidable 4. Void Code: (a) (b)
Q1843. Hanooman Prasad V/s Musammat (c) (d)
Babooee is a case on— (A) 2 1 4 3
(A) Powers of a Karta of the Hindu joint family (B) 2 3 1 4
(B) Avyavaharik debt (C) 2 1 3 4
(C) Power of adoption of a widow (D) 2 4 1 3
(D) None of the above ANS: (A)
ANS: (A)
Q1850. Assertion (A): A bigamous marriage is
Q1844. Which section of the Hindu Marriage void under Hindu Law. Reason (R): A child born
Act, 1955 provides for conditions of marriage? out of void marriage is legitimate child of his
(A) Section 5 parents. Choose the correct answer by using the
(B) Section 9 code given below— Code:
(C) Section 10 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(D) Section 11 explanation of (A)
ANS: (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
Q1845. In which section of the Hindu (A) is true but (R) is false
Succession Act, 1956 general rules of (A) is false but (R) is true
succession in the case of female Hindus is ANS: (A)
provided?
(A) Section 15 Q1851. Assertion (A): Extra judicial confession,
(B) Section 14 if voluntary, can be relied upon with other
(C) Section 18 evidence. Reason (R): Extra judicial confession
(D) Section 16 is a weak piece of evidence. Code:
ANS: (A) (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
Q1846. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 came into (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
force on— correct explanation of (A)
(A) 1st January, 1955 (A) is true but (R) is false
(B) Ist May, 1955 (A) is false but (R) is true
(C) 26th January, 1955 ANS: (A)
(D) 18th May, 1955
ANS: (D) Q1852. Which one of the following sections of
the Evidence Act defines admission?
Q1847. Dastane V/s Dastane is a case on— (A) Section 16
(A) Adoption (B) Section 17
(B) Divorce (C) Section 20
(C) Marriage (D) None of these
(D) Maintenance ANS: (B)
ANS: (B)
Q1853. Which of the following does not find a
Q1848. Which one of the following is a correct mention as showing state of mind under Sec. 14
statement? of the Evidence Act?
(A) Divorce by mutual consent has been provided (A) Intention
under the Hindu Marriage Act, from its inception (B) Knowledge
(B) Divorce by mutual consent was introduced by (C) Motive
Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Act, 1976 (D) Good faith
 MockTime.com
ANS: (C) (C) Section 115
(D) Section 123
Q1854. Which one of the following is not ANS: (D)
essential condition for admissibility of dying
declaration? Q1861. A fact neither proved nor disproved is
(A) Death of the person making dying declaration known as—
(B) Statement must be as to the cause of his death (A) Proved
(C) Person making statement was under (B) Disproved
expectation of death at the time he made the (C) Not proved
statement (D) Conclusive proof
(D) Statement is as to any of the circumstances of ANS: (C)
the transaction which resulted into his death
ANS: (C) Q1862. The case, Pakala Narain Swamy V/s
Emperor relates to—
Q1855. Under which of the following provisions (A) Doctrine of estoppel
of the Evidence Act the word ―forming part of (B) Dying declaration
the same transaction‖ occurs? (C) Accomplice
(A) Under Sec. 5 (D) Cross-examination
(B) Under Sec. 6 ANS: (B)
(C) Under Sec. 7
(D) Under Sec. 8 Q1863. Match List-I and List–II and select the
ANS: (B) correct answer using the code given below the
lists— List-I (Relevancy of facts)
Q1856. ―A‘s‖ death is caused due to negligent (a) Facts as effect of facts in issue
driving of ‗B‘. In the suit for damages against ‗B‘ (b) Facts forming part of same transaction
which of the following fact is not relevant? (c) Facts which constitute preparation for any
(A) The fact that ‗A‘ was an young man of 30 years fact in issue
(B) The fact that ‗A‘ was an young man with good (d) Facts necessary to explain or introduce
physique relevant facts List–II (Section of Evidence Acts)
(C) The fact that ‗A‘ had qualified in P.C.S. (J) 1. Sec. 9 2. Sec. 8 3. Sec. 7 4. Sec. 6 Code: (a) (b)
(D) The fact that ‗B‘ was in the habit of driving (c) (d)
negligently (A) 1 2 3 4
ANS: (C) (B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
Q1857. The provision relating to estoppel is (D) 2 3 1 4
contained in the Evidence Act in— ANS: (C)
(A) Section 115
(B) Section 117 Q1864. Which one of the following provisions of
(C) Section 118 the Evidence Act provides that previous bad
(D) Section 114 character of an accused is not relevant?
ANS: (A) (A) Section 54
(B) Section 52
Q1858. Presumption as to abetment to commit (C) Section 53
suicide by a married woman has been given— (D) Section 118
(A) Under Sec. 114 of the Evidence Act ANS: (A)
(B) Under Sec. 113-A of the Evidence Act
(C) Under Sec. 113-B of the Evidence Act Q1865. Which of the following section of the
(D) Under Sec. 112 of the Evidence Act Evidence Act says that confession caused by
ANS: (B) inducement, threat or promise is irrelevant?
(A) Section 25
Q1859. Which one of the following is not a (B) Section 26
public document? (C) Section 27
(A) An unregistered family settlement (D) None of these
(B) A registered sale deed ANS: (D)
(C) Judgement of a High Court
(D) Judgement of a Civil Judge Q1866. In which of the following cases it was
ANS: (A) held that Sec. 27 of the Evidence Act is an
exception to Sections 24, 25 and 26?
Q1860. Which Sec. of IndianEvidence Act is (A) Pakala Narain Swamy V/s King Emperor
based on the maxim SALUS POPULIEST (B) Inayatullah V/s State of Maharashtra
SUMREMA LEX? (C) State of U.P. V/s Deoman Upadhyay
(A) Section 119 (D) Kotayya V/s King Emperor
(B) Section 120 ANS: (D)
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(D) Sections 398
Q1867. A witness who is unable to speak, gives ANS: (C)
his evidence in writing in the open court,
evidence so given shall be deemed to be— Q1874. Under which section of Cr.P.C. an order
(A) Oral evidence from attachment of property of person
(B) Documentary evidence absconding may be passed at any time after the
(C) Primary evidence issue of the proclamation?
(D) Secondary evidence (A) Section 83
ANS: (A) (B) Section 82
(C) Section 84
Q1868. Any question suggesting the anwer (D) Section 85
which the person putting it wishes or expects to ANS: (A)
receive is called—
(A) Indecent question Q1875. Which section of the Cr.P.C. provides for
(B) Scandalous question confirmation by the High Court of an order of
(C) Question intended to annoy death sentence passed by Sessions Court prior
(D) Leading question to its execution?
ANS: (D) (A) Section 368
(B) Section 366
Q1869. Leading question— (C) Section 371
(A) May be asked in examination-in-chief (D) Section 369
(B) May be asked in cross-examination ANS: (B)
(C) May be asked in re-examination
(D) Cannot be asked in any circumstances Q1876. When the Sessions Judge or the High
ANS: (B) Court calls for to examine the record of any
proceeding before any inferior criminal court, it
Q1870. Which one of the following statements is is known as—
correct? (A) Reference
(A) Admissions can be oral only (B) Review
(B) Admissions can be documentary only (C) Revision
(C) Admissions can be oral or documentary (D) None of these
(D) Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters ANS: (C)
admitted
ANS: (C) Q1877. Which one of the following orders can be
passed after the trial of a case is over?
Q1871. The facts, though not in issue, are so (A) Only an order of acquittal
connected with fact in issue, as to form part of (B) Only an order of conviction
same transaction are— (C) Order of discharge
(A) Relevant under the rule of res gestae (D) Either an order of acquittal or conviction
(B) Not relevant ANS: (D)
(C) Hearsay evidence
(D) Primary evidence Q1878. First Information Report—
ANS: (A) (A) Relates to cognizable or non-cognizable offence
(B) Is given to a Magistrate or Police Officer
Q1872. Admissions and confessions are— (C) Relates prima facie to a cognizable offence
1. Exception to the hearsay evidence (D) May be given to the District Magistrate
2. Part of hearsay evidence ANS: (C)
3. Form relevant evidence
4. Admitted in evidence on proof Select the Q1879. Under which Section of the Cr.P.Code
correct answer by using the code given below— anticipatory bail may be granted to a person
Code: apprehending his arrest?
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (A) Section 438
(B) 1, 3 and 4 (B) Section 439
(C) 1 and 2 (C) Section 436
(D) 2 (D) Section 437
ANS: (B) ANS: (A)

Q1873. Under which section of Cr.P.C. Sessions Q1880. Which of the following combinations are
Court exercises power of appeal from correctly matched?
convictions? 1. Made by a Magistrate Investigation
(A) Sections 372 2. Object is to collect evidence Inquiry
(B) Sections 397 3. Ordinarily second stage of Inquiry a criminal
(C) Sections 374 case
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4. It is not a judicial Investigation proceeding (D) Neither an Executive Magistrate nor a Judicial
Select the correct answer with the help of the Magistrate
code given below— Code: ANS: (C)
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3 Q1887. Under Section 482 Cr.P.C. inherent
(C) 3 and 4 powers can be exercised by—
(D) 2 and 4 (A) Sessions Court
ANS: (C) (B) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(C) High Court
Q1881. Assertion (A): The purpose of criminal (D) Both by the High Court and Sessions Court
law is to prevent crimes. Reason (R): In certain ANS: (C)
situations even a private person can arrest
another person. Code: Q1888. The object of investigation is—
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (A) To arrest the accused
explanation of (A) (B) To punish the accused
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (C) To collect evidence against the accused
correct explanation of (A) (D) None of these
(A) is true but (R) is false ANS: (C)
(A) is false but (R) is true
ANS: (A) Q1889. Which of the following offence is not
compoundable?
Q1882. An offence punishable with (A) Offence under Sec. 334 of I.P.C.
imprisonment for a term exceeding two years (B) Offence under Sec. 342 of I.P.C.
relates to— (C) Offence under Sec. 307 of I.P.C.
(A) Summon case (D) Offence under Sec. 506 of I.P.C.
(B) Warrant case ANS: (C)
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of these Q1890. Any dispute relating to possession of
ANS: (B) immovable property is decided by—
(A) Judicial Magistrate
Q1883. Under which section of Cr.P.C. a Police (B) Executive Magistrate
Officer can arrest a person without an order (C) Either by Judicial or Executive Magistrate
from a Magistate and without warrant? (D) Neither by Judicial nor Executive Magistrate
(A) Section 42 ANS: (B)
(B) Section 40
(C) Section 51
(D) Section 41
ANS: (D)
Q1891. Section 304 Cr.P.C. deals with—
(A) Protection to accused against double
Q1884. Under which section of the Cr.P.C. a
prosecution for the same offence
person who is avoiding execution of a warrant
(B) Legal aid to the accused at Sate expenses
may be proclaimed absconder?
(C) Withdrawal from prosecution
(A) Section 81
(D) Order to release on probation of good conduct
(B) Section 83
ANS: (B)
(C) Section 82
(D) Section 84
Q1892. Procedure for summary trial is provided
ANS: (C)
in which sections of the Cr.P.C.?
(A) Section 251 to Section 260
Q1885. Under which section of Cr.P.C. an
(B) Section 238 to Section 250
accused person can himself be a competent
(C) Section 260 to Section 265
witness?
(D) Section 255 to Section 265
(A) Section 315
ANS: (C)
(B) Section 300
(C) Section 313
Q1893. A conditional order for removal of public
(D) Section 317
nuisance under Sec. 133 Cr.P.C. may be passed
ANS: (A)
by—
(A) District Magistrate only
Q1886. Who among the following is authorised
(B) Sub-Divisional Magistrate only
to record a confessional statement under
(C) Executive Magistrate only
Section 164 Cr.P.C.?
(D) Any of the above Magistrates
(A) A Police Officer
ANS: (D)
(B) An Executive Magistrate
(C) A Judicial Magistrate
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Q1894. In which of the following cases it was
held by the Supreme Court that Sec. 125 Cr.P.C. Q1901. The court can record demeanour of a
was applicable to all irrespective of their witness under which section of criminal
religion? procedure code?
(A) Mohd. Ahmed Khan V/s Shah Bano Begum (A) Section 280
(B) Mohd. Umar Khan V/s Gulshan Begum (B) Section 279
(C) Subana alias Saira Banu V/s A.M. Abdul Gafoor (C) Section 278
(D) Sirajmohamed Khan V/s Hafizunnissa Yaseen (D) Section 281
Khan ANS: (A)
ANS: (A)
Q1902. Provision relating to the prosecution of
Q1895. Which section the Cr.P. Code provides Public servants is given in—
that a person once convicted or acquitted (A) Section 196 Cr.P.C.
cannot be tried again for the same offence? (B) Section 197 Cr.P.C.
(A) Section 304 (C) Section 198 Cr.P.C.
(B) Section 300 (D) Section 198-A Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 321 ANS: (B)
(D) Section 302
ANS: (B) Q1903. A spits over B. A would be liable for the
offence of—
Q1896. Which of the following sentence may be (A) Annoyance
passed by a Magistrate of Second Class? (B) Assault
(A) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two (C) Using criminal force
years (D) Defamation
(B) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year ANS: (B)
(C) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding six
months Q1904. A, a creditor takes movable property out
(D) Only a fine not exceeding five thousand rupees of B‘s (debtor) prossession without his consent
ANS: (B) with the intention to coerce him to pay his
debt. A is—
Q1897. Who can withdraw a case from (A) Guilty of theft
prosecution under Sec. 321 Cr.P.C.? (B) Guilty of extortion
(A) The State Government (C) Not guilty
(B) The Public Prosecutor Incharge of a case with (D) Guilty of robbery
the permission of the Court ANS: (A)
(C) The Public Prosecutor Incharge of a case even
without permssion of the Court Q1905. Assertion (A): Rape is a stigma on a
(D) All the above woman, hence is a punishable offence. Reason
ANS: (B) (R): Sexual intercourse by a man with his wife is
not rape. Code:
Q1898. Point out the incorrect response under (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
the Cr.P.C.— explanation of (A)
(A) Inquiry is conducted by a Court (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(B) Inquiry is conducted after framing of the charge correct explanation of (A)
(C) Inquiry is conducted prior to framing of the (A) is true but (R) is false
charge (A) is false but (R) is true
(D) Inquiry is conducted by a Magistrate ANS: (B)
ANS: (B)
Q1906. The Indian Penal Code, 1860 came into
Q1899. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a— force on—
(A) Sentence of imprisonment not exceeding 7 years (A) 6th October, 1860
(B) Sentence for life imprisonment (B) 6th December, 1860
(C) Death sentence (C) 1st January, 1861
(D) Sentence of imprisonment exceeding 7 years (D) 1st January, 1862
ANS: (A) ANS: (D)

Q1900. When the Criminal Procedure Code 1973 Q1907. Two brothers were abusing each other
came into force? on a public road without actual fight. A large
(A) On April 1, 1973 crowd gathered and there was a traffic jam. The
(B) On April 1, 1974 two brothers are guilty of—
(C) On January 1, 1974 1. Affray
(D) On March 1, 1974 2. Riot
ANS: (B) 3. Mischief

4. None of the above Find out the correct
answer by using the code given below— Code:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
ANS: (C)
Q1908. X and Y were about to travel from
Jammu Tawi to Delhi by the same train. Y had
two tickets from Pathankot and X had a ticket
from Delhi. X voluntarily handed over his ticket
to Y in order to check that it was the right one.
Y under the pretence of returning X‘s ticket
substituted it by one of his own and kept X‘s
ticket. What offence did Y commit?
(A) Theft
(B) Extortion
(C) Criminal Misappropriation
(D) Cheating
ANS: (C)
Q1909. Y owed some money to X. X removed
the bullock of Y grazing by the side of a stream
and kept it tied in his own house. When Y asked
him to release the bullock, X told him that he
would do so when the money was paid. X is
guilty of—
(A) Criminal breach of trust
(B) Criminal misappropriation
(C) Extortion
(D) Theft
ANS: (C)
Q1910. A person who was not expected to be in
office, created a belief that he would be in office
and obtained gratification. Which one of the
following offences has been committed by him?
(A) Bribery
(B) Misappropriation
(C) Cheating
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C)
Q1911. One of the following is not a public
servant—
(A) Liquidator
(B) A Civil Judge
(C) Member of a Panchayat assisting a court of
justice
(D) Secretary of a Co-operative society
ANS: (D)
Q1912. Which one of the following is punishable
as sedition?
(A) Bitter criticism of the Government to overthrow
it
(B) Inducing people to cease to obey law and lawful
authority
(C) A publicist attack on policies of the government
(D) An attempt to remove the ministers from power
ANS: (B)
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Q1913. In which of the following cases, Sec. 303
I.P.C. was declared unconstitutional?
(A) Sita Ram V/s State of M.P.
(B) Darshan Singh V/s State of Punjab
(C) Mithoo Singh V/s State of Punjab
(D) Mahabir Ghose V/s State of Tamil Nadu
ANS: (C)
Q1914. A by putting Z in fear of grievous hurt
dishonestly induces Z to sign or affix his seal on
a blank paper and deliver it to A. Z signs and
delivers the paper to A. A has committed—
(A) Robbery
(B) Dacoity
(C) Theft
(D) Extortion
ANS: (D)
Q1915. The offence of theft becomes robbery
when it is—
(A) Coupled with force
(B) Committed by two or more but less than five
persons
(C) Committed by five or more persons
(D) Coupled with imminent danger to life
ANS: (D)
Q1916. X and Y agreed to commit murder of Z
by poisoning and Y was to procure poison, but
he did not procure it. X and Y are guilty of—
(A) Abetment of murder by conspiracy
(B) Attempt to murder with the aid of Sec. 34, IPC
(C) No offence
(D) Criminal conspiracy to murder Z
ANS: (D)
Q1917. X and Y, swimming in the sea, after a
ship wreck, got hold of a plank. The plank was
not large enough to support both. X having no
other option, pushed Y who was drowned. X has
committed—
(A) Culpable homicide
(B) Murder
(C) The offence of causing death by neligence
(D) No offence
ANS: (D)
Q1918. Which one of the following is not an
essential element of the offence of theft?
(A) Dishonest intention to take property
(B) Property must be movable
(C) Property should be taken out of the possession
of another person
(D) Property must be immovable
ANS: (D)
Q1919. In which one of the following cases
distinction between culpable homicide and
murder was made?
(A) R.V/s Lipman
(B) Reg V/s Govinda
(C) Barendra Kumar Ghosh V/s Emperor
(D) K.M. Nanavati V/s State of Bombay
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ANS: (B) Q1927. Which section of I.P.C. defines sedition?
(A) Section 124
Q1920. Which one of the following is not an (B) Section 124-A
essential element of crime? (C) Section 122
(A) Mens rea (D) Section 123
(B) Actus reus ANS: (B)
(C) Injury
(D) Motive Q1928. In a quarrel between husband and wife,
ANS: (D) the husband tries to beat the wife with a stick
which accidentally falls on the newly born baby
Q1921. Which one of the following cases is not in her hand and the baby dies instantly.
related to principle of joint liability based on Husband is guilty of the offence of—
common intention? (A) Murder
(A) Barendra Kumar Ghosh V/s Emperor (B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(B) Mahboob Shah V/s Emperor (C) Grievous hurt
(C) J.M. Desai V/s State of Bombay (D) Causing death by negligent act not amounting
(D) Reg V/s Govinda to culpable homicide
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q1922. Which one of the following cases is Q1929. In which section of I.P.C. forgery has
related to the defence of necessity? been defined?
(A) M‘c Naugten Case (A) Section 463
(B) DPP V/s Beard (B) Section 464
(C) R.V/s Dudley and Stephen (C) Section 468
(D) K.M. Nanavati V/s State of Bombay (D) Section 470
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q1923. Which one of the following is not a kind Q1930. A puts his hand in the pocket of B for
of punishment under the I.P. Code? stealing money, but the pocket was empty. A is
(A) Imprisonment for life guilty of—
(B) Transportation (A) Theft
(C) Death sentence (B) Not guilty of theft
(D) Simple imprisonment (C) Guilty of attempt to commit theft
ANS: (B) (D) Not guilty of any offence
ANS: (C)
Q1924. In which of the following the right of
private defence of body does not extend to Q1931. Criminal trespass has been defined in
causing of death? which section of I.P. Code?
(A) An assault with the intention of committing rape (A) Section 441
(B) An assault with the intention of kidnapping (B) Section 440
(C) An assault with the intention of abducting (C) Section 452
(D) An assault with the intention of committing (D) Section 457
wrongful restraint ANS: (A)
ANS: (D)
Q1932. There is no offence of adultery if it is
Q1925. In which of the following the right of committed with the consent of—
private defence of property does not extend to (A) Woman
causing of death? (B) Husband of the woman
(A) Robbery (C) Member of the family of the woman
(B) House breaking by night (D) Wife of the adulterer
(C) Theft ANS: (B)
(D) Mischief by fire
ANS: (C) Q1933. The rule of constructive res judicata is—
(A) A product of judicial interpretation
Q1926. A is cutting wood with an axe at a place (B) A rule of equity
where children are playing. The axe flies off and (C) Contained expressly in the C.P.C.
kills a child. A is liable for— (D) A part of Supreme Court rules
(A) Causing death by negligence ANS: (C)
(B) Murder
(C) Culpable homicide Q1934. Which one of the following is a newly
(D) No offence added ground for rejection of a plaint under
ANS: (C) Order 7 Rule 1 of C.P.C.?
(A) Non-disclosure of cause of action
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(B) Under valuation of relief claimed
(C) Barred by any law Q1941. The Code of Civil Procedure
(D) Plaint not filed in duplicate (Amendment) Act, 2002 came into force on—
ANS: (D) (A) 1st April, 2002
(B) 1st June, 2002
Q1935. Which one of the following is not (C) 6th June, 2002
included in the powers of the appellate court? (D) 1st July, 2002
(A) To determine the case finally ANS: (D)
(B) To try the case de novo
(C) To remand the case Q1942. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of
(D) To take additional evidence courts are uncertain, the place of institution of
ANS: (B) suit shall be decided according to the provision
of—
Q1936. In which of the following cases it was (A) Section 17 of C.P.C.
held that ―inherent power has not been (B) Section 18 of C.P.C.
conferred on a court, it is a power inherent in (C) Section 19 of C.P.C.
the court ……‖? (D) Section 20 of C.P.C.
(A) Manoharlal V/s Seth Hiralal ANS: (B)
(B) Cotton Corporation of India V/s United
Industrial Bank Q1943. In which of the following provisions
(C) Satyabrat Biswas V/s Kalyan Kumar Kisku ‗mesne profit‘ has been defined in the C.P.C.?
(D) Rajani Bai V/s Kamala Devi (A) Section 2(4)
ANS: (A) (B) Section 2(8)
(C) Section 2(12)
Q1937. An executing court cannot determine (D) Section 2(14)
the questions relating to which of the following? ANS: (C)
(A) Execution of decree
(B) Discharge of decree Q1944. The period of limitation within which
(C) Satisfaction of decree defendant shall submit his written statement
(D) Modification of decree is—
ANS: (D) (A) 30 days from service of summons
(B) 40 days from service of summons
Q1938. A person against whom summons has (C) 60 days from service of summons
been issued may be compelled under Sec. 32 of (D) 90 days from service of summons
C.P.C. to attend by— ANS: (A)
1. Issue of a warrant
2. Attachment and sale of his property Q1945. In which of the following writs, the
3. Imposing a fine doctrine of res judicata is not applicable?
4. Ordering him to furnish security for his (A) Certiorari
appearance Select the correct answer with the (B) Mandamus
help of the code given below— Code: (C) Quo Warranto
(A) 1 and 4 (D) Habeas Corpus
(B) 3 and 4 ANS: (D)
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4 Q1946. Which one of the following properties is
ANS: (C) liable to attachment and sale in the execution
of a decree?
Q1939. Provision for interpleader suit is (A) Right to future maintenance
contained in which of the following sections of (B) A promissory note
C.P.C.? (C) Book of account
(A) Section 87 (D) A right of personal service
(B) Section 88 ANS: (B)
(C) Section 89
(D) Section 90 Q1947. Which one of the following is not a suit
ANS: (B) of civil nature under C.P.C.?
(A) A suit against deprivation from attending social
Q1940. Which one of the following is not a suit functions
relating to immovable property? (B) A suit for arrears of salary
(A) Suit for recovery of immovable property (C) A suit for right of burial
(B) Suit for partition of immovable property (D) A suit for restitution of conjugal rights
(C) Suit for redemption of mortgaged property ANS: (A)
(D) Suit for rent in respect of immovable property
ANS: (D)
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Q1948. Which one of the following does not find 2. Claim of a muslim — Actionable wife for
a place under the provisions of Sec. 94, C.P.C. unpaid dower Claim
relating to supplemental proceedings? 3. Unsecured debt — Actionable Claim
(A) Arrest before judgement 4. Profit under a sale of — Actionable goods
(B) Attachment before judgement contract Claim Select the correct answer using
(C) Temporary injunction the code given below— Code:
(D) Appointment of executors (A) 2, 3 and 4
ANS: (A) (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
Q1949. Which one of the following is not (D) 1 and 4
required in filing a representative suit under ANS: (A)
Order 1 Rule 8 of the C.P.C.?
(A) Numerous parties Q1955. Remdey of ‗foreclosure‘ is available in
(B) Same interest which one of the following mortagages?
(C) Leave of the court (A) Usufructuary mortage
(D) Written permission of those who are being (B) Simple mortagage
represented (C) Mortagage by conditional sale
ANS: (D) (D) English mortage
ANS: (C)
Q1950. The provision for the institution of suits
is given in which of the following sections of Q1956. Which one of the following is not an
C.P.C.? essential element of sale?
(A) Section 26 (A) Parties
(B) Section 30 (B) Subject matter
(C) Section 28 (C) Transfer or conveyance
(D) Section 25 (D) Payment of price in cash
ANS: (A) ANS: (D)

Q1951. A right to sue for damages is— Q1957. ‗Rule against double possibilities‘ was
(A) An actionable claim recognised in which one of the following cases?
(B) Not an actionable claim (A) Girjesh Dutt V/s Datadin
(C) Not only a mere right to sue (B) Whitby V/s Mitchell
(D) Transferable (C) Ardeshir V/s Dadabhoy
ANS: (B) (D) Sopher V/s Administrator General of Bengal
ANS: (B)
Q1952. The doctrine of part performance as
given in Sec. 53-A of T.P. Act is— Q1958. Which one of the following sections of
1. A statutory right T.P. Act deals with doctrine of ‗substituted
2. An equitable right security‘?
3. Availabe in defence Code: (A) Section–68
(A) 1 and 3 (B) Section–70
(B) 1 and 2 (C) Section–71
(C) 2 (D) Section–73
(D) 2 and 3 ANS: (C)
ANS: (D)
Q1959. Which is correct answer in the
Q1953. Assertion (A): Property is a following?
comprehensive term and includes copy right. (A) Section 60 of T.P. Act is enforceable on
Reason (R): Transfer of property Act deals with mortagage decrees
all kinds of property including patents. Choose (B) Sale or purchase agreements are saleable
the correct answer using the codes given properties and liable for attachment
below— Code: (C) ‗Hereditary profession‘ is liable for attachment
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (D) Motor pump which is used in irrigation is liable
explanation of (A) for attachment
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the ANS: (A)
correct explanation of (A)
(A) is true but (R) is false Q1960. Ram Coomar Kundoo V/s Mc Queen
(A) is false but (R) is true (1872) is related to—
ANS: (B) (A) Lis pendens
(B) Ostensible owner
Q1954. Which of the following combinations are (C) Part performance
correctly matched? (D) Mortgage
1. Mesne profit — Actionable Claim ANS: (B)
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(A) Valid
Q1961. The principle of the maxim ―nemo dat (B) Void
quad non habet‖ is incorporated in which of the (C) Voidable
following sections of T.P. Act? ANS: (B)
(A) Sections 41, 42, 43 and 44
(B) Sections 41, and 42 Q1968. An adoption made by a Hindu male
(C) Sections 41 and 44 without the consent of his wife is—
(D) Sections 41 and 43 (A) Void
ANS: (A) (B) Voidable
(C) Valid
Q1962. Doctrine of Marshalling has been (D) Invalid
provided in which of the following sections of ANS: (A)
the T.P. Act?
(A) Sections 56 and 81 Q1969. Coparcenary property of a Hindu—
(B) Sections 56 and 82 1. Devolves by succession
(C) Sections 56, 81, 82 2. Devolves by survivorship
(D) Sections 81 and 82 3. Can be partitioned
ANS: (A) 4. Cannot be partitioned Select the correct
answer with the help of code give below— Code:
Q1963. Section 58 (A) 1 and 2
(a) of the T.P. Act defines— (B) 2 and 3
(A) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgagee and mortgage (C) 1 and 4
money (D) 2 and 4
(B) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgagee and mortgage ANS: (B)
deed
(C) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgagee, mortgage Q1970. The statement ―While there is no rose
money and mortgage deed which has no thorn but if what you hold is all
(D) Mortgage, mortgagor, mortgage money and thorn and no rose, better throw it away‖ relates
mortgage deed to—
ANS: (C) (A) Restitution of conjugal rights
(B) Judicial separation
Q1964. Under the Hindu Adoption and (C) Divorce by mutual consent
Maintenance Act, a mother is— (D) Irretrievable break-down of marriage theory of
(A) Entitled to live along with her son‘s family divorce
(B) Not entitled to live along with her son‘s family ANS: (C)
(C) Morally entitled to her son‘s care
(D) Entitled to have separate accommodation from Q1971. Under the Hindu Adoption and
her son Maintenance Act, 1956 a female Hindu has the
ANS: (D) capacity to take a son or daughter in adoption
if—
Q1965. Which of the following ancient forms of (A) She is not married
marriages were not approved by Hindu Law? (B) She is married
1. Gandharva (C) She is widow and has no son or daughter but
2. Arsha has a widowed daughter-in-law
3. Prajapatya (D) She cannot adopt at all
4. Asura ANS: (A)
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 Q1972. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 contains
(C) 3 and 4 the provision regarding divorce in—
(D) 1 and 4 (A) Section 10
ANS: (D) (B) Section 11
(C) Section 13
Q1966. A boy of 17 years marries a girl of 15 (D) Section 15
years. The marriage is— ANS: (C)
(A) Void
(B) Voidable Q1973. Which Section of the Hindu Marriage
(C) Valid and not punishable Act provides for the restitution of conjugal
(D) Valid and punishable rights?
ANS: (D) (A) Section 9
(B) Section 10
Q1967. (C) Section 12
(A) marries ‗B‘, the widow of his elder brother. The (D) Section 13
marriage is— ANS: (A)
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(C) Mother
Q1974. Which one of the following is not (D) Meternal uncle
included in the term ‗Hindu‘ used in the Hindu ANS: (C)
Marriage Act, 1955?
(A) Sikhs Q1982. Which one of the following is not
(B) Jains essential for a valid marriage under Muslim
(C) Parsis Law?
(D) Buddhists (A) Offer and acceptance
ANS: (C) (B) Competent parties
(C) Fosterage
Q1975. A marriage under the Hindu Marriage (D) Free consent
Act, 1955 between two persons within ANS: (C)
prohibited degrees of relationship is—
(A) Valid Q1983. Dower in Muslim Law is—
(B) Void 1. Dowry
(C) Voidable 2. An obligation imposed upon the husband as a
(D) Irregular mark of respect for wife
ANS: (B) 3. Consideration for marriage
4. A legal right of the wife Select the correct
Q1976. Adultery by a Hindu husband is— answer by using the code given below— Code:
(A) Ground of divorce only (A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) Not a ground of divorce (B) 2 and 4
(C) Ground of judicial separation only (C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) Ground of divorce and Judicial separation of the (D) 2 and 3
both ANS: (C)
ANS: (D)
Q1984. Talak-ul-biddat is—
Q1977. The natural guardian of a minor Hindu (A) Complete and irrevocable divorce
boy is— (B) Incomplete and irrevocable divorce
(A) Only mother (C) Complete and revocable divorce
(B) Only father (D) None of the above
(C) Grand father ANS: (A)
(D) Father and mother both
ANS: (D) Q1985. In respect of family relations, the law
applicable in India is—
Q1978. Which one is not a source of Muslim (A) Secular law in India
Law? (B) Statutory law
(A) The Quran (C) Religious law
(B) Shariat (D) Personal law of the parties
(C) Hadis ANS: (D)
(D) Ijmaa
ANS: (B) Q1986. Under the Constitution of India, all
aspects of family law are in the—
Q1979. On the ground of fosterage a muslim (A) Union list
marriage is— (B) State list
(A) Void (Batil) (C) Concurrent list
(B) Vaild (Sahih) (D) None of the above
(C) Irregular (Fasid) ANS: (C)
(D) Muta
ANS: (A) Q1987. Who amongst the following is an
accomplice?
Q1980. Which of the following are sources of (A) A prostitute
Muslim Law? (B) A raped girl
(A) Quran (C) A spy
(B) Ijmaa (D) A person giving bribe under coercion
(C) Kiyas (Qiyas) ANS: (A)
(D) All the above
ANS: (D) Q1988. The case of Pakala Narain Swamy V/s
Emperor relates to—
Q1981. The legal guardian of a muslim (A) Doctrine of estoppel
minorfemale is— (B) Accomplice
(A) Father (C) Dying declaration
(B) Grandfather (D) Hostile witness
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ANS: (C) Q1995. Assertion (A): An accomplice shall be a
competent witness against an accused person.
Q1989. Match list-I with list-II and select Reason (R): An accomplice is unworthy of credit,
correct answer using the codes given below the unless he is corroborated in material
lists— List-I (Section) particulars. Codes:
(a) Section 159 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(b) Section 154 explanation of (A)
(c) Section 60 (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(d) Section 141 correct explanation of (A)
List-II (Provision) (A) is true but (R) is false
1. Leading question (A) is false but (R) is true
2. Oral evidence ANS: (A)
3. Refreshing memory
4. Hostile witness Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d) Q1996. A confession is admissible if it is made
(A) 3 4 1 2 by the accused to—
(B) 3 4 2 1 (A) A police officer
(C) 1 2 3 4 (B) A doctor whilst he is in the custody of a police
(D) 2 1 4 3 officer
ANS: (B) (C) His friend whilst he is in the custody of a police
officer
Q1990. A confession is inadmissible if it is made (D) A spiritual adviser under the inducement for the
by the accused— good of his soul
(A) To a Magistrate whilst he is inthe custody of a ANS: (D)
police officer
(B) To his friend whilst is not in the custody of a Q1997. The case of Kashmira Singh V/s. State
police officer of Madhya Pradesh relates to—
(C) To a doctor whilst he is in the custody of a (A) Dying declaration
police officer (B) Privileged communication
(D) To a spiritual adviser under the inducement for (C) Confession to police officer
the good of his soul (D) Confession of a co-accused
ANS: (C) ANS: (D)

Q1991. Leading questions may be asked in— Q1998. Which one of the following Sections of
(A) Examination-in chief the Indian Evidence Act has been substituted
(B) Cross-examination for the old Section by the Information
(C) Re-examination Technology Act, 2000?
(D) All the above (A) Section 39
ANS: (B) (B) Section 22
(C) Section 47
Q1992. Extra-judicial confession means a (D) Section 65
confession made— ANS: (A)
(A) Before the Magistrate in the court
(B) To the police officer Q1999. Which one of the following is primary
(C) To the doctor evidence?
(D) None of the above (A) Copies made from the original
ANS: (B) (B) Document produced for the inspection of the
court
Q1993. Who amongst the following is not a (C) Certified copies of a document
competent witness? (D) Photostat copies of a document
(A) A child ANS: (B)
(B) An idiot person
(C) A lunatic person Q2000. Character of a person for purposes of
(D) A dumb person the law of evidence is not relevant in one of the
ANS: (B) following situations—
(A) Previous good character of the accused in
Q1994. Hostile witness means— criminal cases
(A) An unfavourable witness (B) Previous bad character in reply to evidence of
(B) A witness who is desirous of telling the truth good character in criminal cases
(C) A witness who is not desirous of telling the (C) Character as affecting the amount of damages
truth in civil cases
(D) An overpowered witness (D) Character to prove conduct imputed in civil
ANS: (A) cases
ANS: (D)
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Reason (R): In all cases, an extra-judicial
Q2001. Which one of the following is not a confession must be corroborated. Codes:
public document? (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(A) An unregistered family settlement explanation of (A)
(B) A registered sale deed (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(C) Judgment of High Court correct explanation of (A)
(D) Judgment of Civil Judge (A) is true but (R) is false
ANS: (A) (A) is false but (R) is true
ANS: (B)
Q2002. A witness who is unable to speak gives
his evidence in writing in the open court, Q2008. In case of suicide by a married woman,
evidence so given shall be deemed to be— the court under Section 113-A of the Indian
(A) Documentary evidence Evidence Act, may presume that suicide had
(B) Primary evidence been abetted by her husband, if—
(C) Secondary evidence 1. Suicide was committed by the wife within a
(D) Oral evidence period of seven years from the date of her
ANS: (D) marriage.
2. The wife was subjected to cruelty.
Q2003. Assertion (A): Extra-judicial confession, 3. The wife was illiterate and from a poor
if voluntary, can be relied upon with other family.
evidence. Reason (R): Extra-judicial confession 4. The wife was deserted by the husband. Select
is a weak piece of evidence. Codes: the correct answer using the codes given
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct below— Codes:
explanation of (A) (A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (B) 1, 3 and 4
correct explanation of (A) (C) 2 and 4
(A) is true but (R) is false (D) 1 and 2
(A) is false but (R) is true ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q2009. Assertion (A): A dying declaration is
Q2004. An admission under Section 17 of the admissible in evidence. Reason (R): Its
Indian Evidence Act is— admissibility is founded upon the principle of
(A) Only an oral statement necessity. Codes:
(B) Only a documentary statement (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(C) An oral, documentary or a statement contained explanation of (A)
in electronic form (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
(D) An oral or documentary statement correct explanation of (A)
ANS: (C) (C)
(A) is true but (R) is false
Q2005. Under Section 57(1) of the Evidence Act, ANS: (A)
the form court shall take judicial notice of—
(A) All laws enforce in India Q2010. Admissions are—
(B) All laws including foreign laws (A) Not conclusive proof of the matters admitted
(C) All Indian and Asian laws (B) Conclusive proof of the matters admitted
(D) All Indian and British laws up to 1950 (C) Not to operate as estoppel
ANS: (A) (D) Of no value
ANS: (A)
Q2006. ‗Document‘ produced for the inspection
of the court includes— Q2011. Which one of the following is a correct
1. A written document statement relating to cross-examination?
2. A caricature (A) Witnesses to character may be cross examined
3. An electronic record (B) Leading questions cannot be asked in cross-
4. An inscription on stone Select the correct examination
answer using the codes given below— Codes: (C) A person summoned to produce a document
(A) 1 and 4 can be cross-examined
(B) 1, 2 and 4 (D) A witness may not be cross-examined as to
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 previous statements made by him in writing
(D) 1, 2 and 3 ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q2012. In a cognizable offence a police officer—
Q2007. Assertion (A): In certain cases (A) Cannot arrest an accused without warrant
corroboration of confession is necessary. (B) May arrest an accused without warrant
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(C) Can keep the accused in police custody without ANS: (D)
a remand order
(D) Is not required to produce the accused before a Q2019. Under which Section of the Code of
Magistrate Criminal Procedure a proclamation for person
ANS: (B) absconding may be issued?
(A) Section 83
Q2013. Who amongst the following is not (B) Section 82
entitled for maintenance under Section 125 of (C) Section 81
the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973? (D) Section 80
(A) Illegitimate minor child ANS: (B)
(B) Uterine brother
(C) Father Q2020. Which Sections of the Code of Criminal
(D) Divorced wife Procedure provide for Trial before a Court of
ANS: (B) Session?
(A) Sections 225 to 237
Q2014. The main characteristic of the Code of (B) Sections 238 to 243
Criminal Procedure, 1973 is— (C) Sections 251 to 259
(A) The empowerment of Executive Magistrate with (D) Sections 260 to 265
Judicial power ANS: (A)
(B) The separation of the Legislature from the
Executive Q2021. Which Section of the Code of Criminal
(C) The separation of the Judiciary from the Procedure provides for prosecution for offences
Executive against marriage?
(D) The separation of the Revenue work from the (A) Section 198
Executive (B) Section 199
ANS: (C) (C) Section 196
(D) Section 197
Q2015. Who can commute the sentence of ANS: (A)
imprisonment for life under the Code of
Criminal Procedure? Q2022. When an accused does not have
(A) The appropriate Government sufficient means to engage pleader the Sessions
(B) The President of India Court may assign a pleader for his defence at
(C) The Governor of the State the expense of the State. It is ensured by which
(D) The Central Government Section of the Cr.P. Code?
ANS: (A) (A) Section 301
(B) Section 304
Q2016. The power of the Supreme Court to (C) Section 306
transfer cases and appeals from one High Court (D) Section 305
to another High Court can be exercised on an ANS: (B)
application by which one of the following—
(A) Registrar of the concerned High Court Q2023. Who among the following is not
(B) Attorney General of India empowered to tender pardon to accomplice
(C) Chairperson of the Bar Council of India under Section 306 of the Code of Criminal
(D) Solicitor General of India Procedure?
ANS: (B) (A) Metropolitan Magistrate
(B) Magistrate of Second Class
Q2017. A sentence of Imprisonment for a term (C) Chief Judicial Magistrate
of ten years may be passed by which one of the (D) Magistrate of the First Class
following? ANS: (B)
(A) The Court of a Magistrate of the First Class
(B) The Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate Q2024. Which Section of the Cr.P. Code
(C) An Assistant Sessions Judge provides that ―no statement made by any
(D) The Court of a Chief Metropolitan Magistrate person to a police officer in the course of an
ANS: (C) investigation shall, if reduced to writing, be
signed by the person making it ?‖
Q2018. A private person may arrest any person (A) Section 164
who? (B) Section 163
(A) Is reported to be a criminal (C) Section 162
(B) In his presence commits a non-cognizable (D) Section 161
offence ANS: (C)
(C) In his presence commits a bailable offence
(D) In his presence commits a cognizable and non- Q2025. Point out incorrect answer— The First
bailable offence Information Report means:
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(A) Report about cognizable offence (B) To acquit the accused
(B) Information given to the police officer (C) To collect the evidence
(C) Information first in point of time (D) To convict the accused
(D) It must always be given in writing ANS: (C)
ANS: (D)
Q2032. Under which Section of Cr.P. Code a
Q2026. Point out incorrect answer— Under Session Judge exercises power of appeal?
Section 125(4) Cr.P. Code wife will not be (A) Section 373
entitled to maintenance allowance if: (B) Section 376
(A) She is living in adultery (C) Section 397
(B) She refuses to live with her husband without (D) Section 398
sufficient reason ANS: (A)
(C) She is living separately by mutual consent
(D) She embraces some other religion Q2033. Under which Section of the Code of
ANS: (D) Criminal Procedure an accused person can
himself be a competent witness?
Q2027. Which Section of the Code of Criminal (A) Section 311
Procedure authorises a private person to arrest (B) Section 313
any person committing cognizable offence? (C) Section 315
(A) Section 44 (D) Section 319
(B) Section 42 ANS: (C)
(C) Section 43
(D) Section 45 Q2034. An offence punishable with
ANS: (C) imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
relates to—
Q2028. Point out incorrect answer— The (A) Summon case
requisites of a valid warrant are: (B) Warrant case
(A) It shall be in writing (C) Either of the above two
(B) It shall be signed by presiding officer of the (D) Neither of the above
Court ANS: (B)
(C) It shall bear the seal of the Court
(D) It must state the name of the accused but Q2035. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a—
address is not necessary (A) Sentence of imprisonment not exceeding seven
ANS: (D) years
(B) Sentence for life imprisonment
Q2029. An order of life imprisonment may be (C) Sentence of imprisonment exceeding seven
passed by— years
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate (D) Death sentence
(B) Sessions Judge ANS: (A)
(C) Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) Any Magistrate of the First Class Q2036. A conditional order for removal of public
ANS: (B) nuisance under Section 133 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure may be passed by—
Q2030. Which of the following statements are (A) District Magistrate
correct? (B) Sub-Divisional Magistrate
1. Investigation is made by a police officer. (C) Executive Magistrate specially empowered
2. The object of police investigation is to (D) Any of the above Magistrate
collect evidence. ANS: (D)
3. Investigation is a judicial proceeding.
4. Investigation is not a judicial proceeding. Q2037. ‗A‘ intentionally fired a shot from his
Select the correct answer using the codes given pistol at ‗B‘ but it hit ‗C‘ and ‗C‘ died. The
below— offence committed by ‗A‘ is—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (A) Attempt to murder
(B) 1, 2 and 4 (B) Culpable homicide
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (C) Murder under Section 300
(D) 1, 3 and 4 (D) Murder under Section 301
ANS: (B) ANS: (D)

Q2038. ‗A‘ makes a false entry in his electronic

record for the purpose of using it as
corroborative evidence in the trial court. ‗A‘
Q2031. Object of investigation is—
has—
(A) To punish the accused
(A) Fabricated false evidence
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(B) Not fabricated false evidence 4. Active participation in commission of crime.
(C) Committed forgery Select the correct answer using the codes given
(D) None of the above below— Codes:
ANS: (A) (A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2 and 4
Q2039. A workman throws snow from a roof (C) 3 and 4
giving proper warning. A passer by is killed. The (D) 1 and 3
workman is— ANS: (D)
(A) Guilty of murder
(B) Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to Q2045. Assertion (A): Homicide is the killing of
murder a human being by a human being. Reason (R):
(C) Guilty of causing death by negligence Homicide is always unlawful. Codes:
(D) Not guilty since death was accidental (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
ANS: (D) explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
Q2040. Which Section of the Indian Penal Code correct explanation of (A)
defines ‗sedition‘? (A) is true but (R) is false
(A) Section 122 (A) is false but (R) is true
(B) Section 123 ANS: (C)
(C) Section 124
(D) Section 124-A Q2046. Which one of the following is not a
ANS: (D) correct ingredient of the offence of theft?
(A) Dishonest intention of take property
Q2041. ‗A‘ puts his hand in the pocket of ‗B‘ for (B) Property must be movable
stealing money, but the pocket was empty. ‗A‘ is (C) Property must be taken without the consent of
guilty of— the person in whose possession it is
(A) Theft (D) Property must be taken without consent of the
(B) Attempt to commit theft owner of the property
(C) Mischief ANS: (D)
(D) No offence
ANS: (B) Q2047. Which one is not an essential ingredient
of a crime?
Q2042. Which one of the following Sections of (A) Motive
the Indian Penal Code deals with vicarious (B) Evil intent
liability? (C) Human being
(A) Section 120-A (D) Act
(B) Section 121 ANS: (A)
(C) Section 154
(D) Section 159 Q2048. Common intention means—
ANS: (C) (A) Similar intention
(B) Same intention
Q2043. Assertion (A): Nothing is an offence (C) Sharing of intention by all persons
which is done in the exercise of the right of (D) Common plans
private defence. Reason (R): Where the aid of ANS: (C)
the society cannot be obtained, individual may
do everything necessary to protect himself. Q2049. Sexual intercourse by a man with a
Codes: woman even with her consent is a rape, if she is
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct below the age of—
explanation of (A) (A) 17 years
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (B) 16 years
correct explanation of (A) (C) 19 years
(A) is true but (R) is false (D) 18 years
(A) is false but (R) is true ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q2050. Which one of the following is not a
Q2044. The ingredients of Section 149 of the punishment under Section 53 of the Indian
Indian Penal Code are— Penal Code, 1860?
1. Knowledge of the probability of the (A) Fine
commission of the offence (B) Transportation
2. Common intention (C) Forfeiture of property
3. Unlawful objects stated in Section 141 of the (D) Death
I.P.C. ANS: (B)
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Q2051. In which of the following case the right (c) Section 441 3. Criminal intimidation
of private defence of body does not extend to (d) Section 503 4. House-breaking Codes: (a) (b)
causing of death? (c) (d)
(A) Assault with the intention of committing (A) 2 4 1 3
kidnapping (B) 2 4 3 1
(B) Assault with the intention of gratifying (C) 2 1 3 4
unnatural lust (D) 1 2 4 3
(C) Wrongful restraint ANS: (A)
(D) Assault with the intention of committing
abduction Q2058. The case of Gian Kaur V/s State of
ANS: (C) Punjab is related to—
(A) Murder
Q2052. ‗Unlawful Assembly‘ has been defined in (B) Culpable homicide
the Indian Penal Code, 1860 under— (C) Abetment of suicide
(A) Section 141 (D) Attempt to commit suicide
(B) Section 146 ANS: (D)
(C) Section 149
(D) Section 159 Q2059. In which of the following cases the
ANS: (A) Supreme Court declared Section 303 of the I.P.
Code as unconstitutional?
Q2053. Which one of the following statements is (A) Sher Singh V/s State of Punjab
not correct? (B) Mithu V/s State of Punjab
(A) Abetment of an abetment is not an offence (C) Bachan Singh V/s State of Punjab
(B) Abetment of illegal omission may be an offence (D) Triveni Ben V/s State of Gujarat
(C) To constitute the offence of abetment the effect ANS: (B)
requisite to constitute the offence need not be
caused Q2060. ‗A‘ removes B's book from his house
(D) The person abetted need not be capable by law without his consent with the intention to return
of committing an offence it to him if he as a friend rewards him for the
ANS: (A) return. ‗A‘ is liable for—
(A) Theft
Q2054. Attempt to commit robbery is (B) Attempt to theft
punishable under— (C) Criminal breach of trust
(A) Section 392 I.P.C. (D) Attempt to criminal breach of trust
(B) Section 393 I.P.C. ANS: (A)
(C) Section 390 I.P.C.
(D) Section 394 I.P.C. Q2061. ‗A‘ incites ‗B‘ to beat ‗C‘. Subsequently
ANS: (B) ‗A‘ reaches the place where ‗B‘ is beating ‗C‘. ‗A‘
is liable under—
Q2055. Which one of the following is not an (A) Section 34
essential ingredient of the offence of kidnapping (B) Section 109
under the Indian Penal Code? (C) Section 114
(A) Minor Child (D) Section 115
(B) Intention of the accused ANS: (C)
(C) Without the consent of lawful guardian
(D) Out of the keeping of the lawful guardian Q2062. ‗A‘ cheats by pretending to be ‗B‘, a
ANS: (B) person who is deceased ‗A‘ is liable to be
punished under—
Q2056. Making preparation to commit dacoity (A) Section 420 of I.P.C.
is punishable in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (B) Section 419 of I.P.C.
under— (C) Section 418 of I.P.C.
(A) Section 393 (D) Section 417 of I.P.C.
(B) Section 395 ANS: (B)
(C) Section 398
(D) Section 399 Q2063. In exercise of the right of private
ANS: (D) defence of property death cannot be caused in
the case of—
Q2057. Match list-I with list-II and select (A) Robbery
correct answer using the codes given below the (B) House breaking by night
lists— List-I (C) Mischief by fire in a dwelling house
List-II (Section) (Offence) (D) Theft
(a) Section 463 1. Criminal Trespass ANS: (D)
(b) Section 445 2. Forgery
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Q2064. Assertion (A): ‗A‘ a boy aged nine years (B) Incapacity produced due to drunkenness
intentionally kills ‗B‘. ‗A‘ is liable to be (C) Incapable of knowing the nature of act
convicted. Reason (R): A child up to the age of committed
12 years is immune from criminal liability. (D) Diseased mind
Codes: ANS: (D)
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) Q2071. ‗A‘ finds a purse with money, not
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the knowing to whom it belongs; he afterwards
correct explanation of (A) discovers that it belongs to ‗B‘ and appropriates
(A) is true but (R) is false to his own use. ‗A‘ is guilty of—
(A) is false but (R) is true (A) Theft
ANS: (C) (B) Criminal misappropriation
(C) Criminal breach of trust
Q2065. In a dark night ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ were fighting. (D) Cheating
B's wife keeping her child on her shoulder ANS: (B)
reached there for separating them. In the
meantime A's fist fell on the back of the child Q2072. Which one of the following Sections of
and the child died ‗A‘ is liable for— the police Act, 1861 has not been repealed?
(A) Hurt (A) Section 06
(B) Grievous hurt (B) Section 44
(C) Culpable homicide (C) Section 41
(D) Murder (D) Section 11
ANS: (A) ANS: (B)

Q2066. In which of the following offences ‗Mens Q2073. What is the date of enforcement of the
rea‘ is not an essential ingredient? Police (U.P. Amendment) Act, 2001?
(A) Murder (A) 15 August, 2001
(B) Theft (B) 26 January, 2001
(C) Robbery (C) 10 August, 2001
(D) Bigamy (D) 14 March, 2001
ANS: (D) ANS: (B)

Q2067. ‗A‘ beat his wife. She fell down and Q2074. Which paragraphs of the U.P. Police
became unconscious. Believing her to be dead Regulations deal with the absconding offences?
and to save himself from being arrested for (A) 196 to 214
murder ‗A‘ hanged her in the fan with rope. (B) 215 to 222
Postmortem report disclosed her death from (C) 190 to 195
hanging. ‗A‘ is liable for— (D) 223 to 276
(A) Murder ANS: (B)
(B) Culpable homicide
(C) Hurt Q2075. Who is the Head of Criminal
(D) Grievous hurt administration in a District?
ANS: (B) (A) Superintendent of Police
(B) District Magistrate
Q2068. The word ‗good faith‘ is defined in the (C) Additional District Magistrate (Administration)
Indian Penal Code in— (D) None of the above
(A) Section 44 ANS: (B)
(B) Section 51
(C) Section 52 Q2076. A police constable compels a person to
(D) Section 52-A remain in police station on false case of theft
ANS: (C) and allowing him to go after receiving money
from him. He is liable for—
Q2069. ‗A‘ is cutting the wood with an axe at a (A) Forgery
place where children are playing? The axe files (B) Cheating
off and kills a nearby child. ‗A‘ is liable for— (C) Extortion
(A) No offence (D) Wrongful confinement
(B) Murder ANS: (B)
(C) Culpable homicide
(D) Causing death by negligence Q2077. Under which Section of Police Act
ANS: (D) additional police force is provided in a district
on certain conditions—
Q2070. Insanity is— (A) Section 13
(A) Lack of free will (B) Section 16
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(C) Section 14 (C) District-Magistrate
(D) Section 15 (D) Every Police Officer
ANS: (D) ANS: (D)

Q2078. Under which Section of Police Act the Q2085. The statutory powers of the Inspector
State Government is empowered to make Rules General of Police under Section 7 of the Police
and Regulations governing the service Act, 1861 is subject to—
conditions of members of Police Force— (A) Article 32 of the Constitution of India
(A) Section 2 (B) Article 226 of the Constitution of India
(B) Section 3 (C) Article 311 of the Constitution of India
(C) Section 4 (D) Article 309 of the Constitution of India
(D) None of the above ANS: (C)
ANS: (A)
Q2086. Special Police officer under the Police
Q2079. Which Section of Police Act deals with Act, 1861 can be appointed by—
the duties of police officers? (A) A Magistrate suo motu
(A) Section 21 (B) The Inspector General of Police
(B) Section 22 (C) The Senior Superintendent of Police
(C) Section 23 (D) A Magistrate on an application by an Inspector
(D) Section 24 of Police
ANS: (C) ANS: (D)

Q2080. Which one of the following Sections of Q2087. A person shall be eligible to be
Police Act contains provisions relating to appointed as an Additional Public Prosecutor
General Diary? only if he has been in practice as an advocate
(A) Section 43 for not less than—
(B) Section 44 (A) Five
(C) Section 45 (B) Six
(D) Section 46 (C) Seven
ANS: (C) (D) Three years.
ANS: (C)
Q2081. Regulation of public assemblies and
processions and licensing of the same is Q2088. The Central Government or the State
provided in Police Act, 1861 under— Government may appoint for the purposes of
(A) Section 25 any case or class of cases, a person who has
(B) Section 28 been in practice as advocate for not less than—
(C) Section 30 (A) Five
(D) Section 32 (B) Seven
ANS: (C) (C) Eight
(D) Ten years as a Special Public Prosecutor.
Q2082. Under the U.P. Police Regulations a ANS: (D)
village chowkidar is responsible to the—
(A) District Superintendent of Police Q2089. The Court of a Magistrate of first class
(B) Superintendent of Police (Rural) may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term
(C) Village Pradhan not exceeding—
(D) District Magistrate (A) Three years
ANS: (D) (B) Five years
(C) Seven years
Q2083. The power of the District (D) Four years
Superintendent of Police to regulate the volume ANS: (A)
of music on the roads on the occasion of
festivals is provided under— Q2090. The Court of a Magistrate of the second
(A) Clause (4) of Section 15-A of the Police Act. class may pass a sentence of fine not
(B) Clause (2) of Section 27 of the Police Act. exceeding—
(C) Clause (4) of Section 30 of the Police Act. (A) One thousand
(D) Clause (3) of Section 16 of the Police Act. (B) Three thousand
ANS: (C) (C) Five thousand
(D) Ten thousand rupees.
Q2084. Under Section 25 of the Police Act, ANS: (A)
1861, the charge of unclaimed property is to be
take by— Q2091. If a person in lawful custody escapes,
(A) Deputy Superintendent of Police the person from whose custody he escaped may,
(B) Superintendent of Police immediately pursue and arrest him—
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(A) Within local limits of the police station (C) Public Prosecutor or Assistant Public Prosecutor
concerned incharge of the case
(B) Within local limits of the district (D) Person aggrieved by the offence
(C) Within local limits of the state ANS: (C)
(D) In any place in India
ANS: (D) Q2097. Magistrate by whom the case is heard
may award such compensation, not exceeding—
Q2092. In proceeding under Section 107 of (A) One thousand
Code of Criminal Procedure an Executive (B) Five hundred
Magistrate may require to execute a bond for (C) Three hundred
keeping peace for such period, not exceeding— (D) Three thousand rupees to be paid to any person
(A) One year groundlessly arrested by the person so causing the
(B) Two years arrest.
(C) Three years ANS: (A)
(D) Six months as the Magistrate thinks fit.
ANS: (A) Q2098. There shall be no appeal by a convicted
person where a Magistrate of the first class
Q2093. In reference of information relating to passes only a sentence of fine not exceeding—
the commission of a cognizable offence, which (A) One hundred
of the following statements is not correct? (B) Two hundred
(A) It may be given orally to an officer incharge of a (C) Three hundred
police station (D) Two hundred and fifty rupees.
(B) It is reduced to writing by or under the direction ANS: (A)
of the officer incharge of the police station
(C) Information reduced to writing is to be signed by Q2099. No Court shall take cognizance of an
the person giving it offence punishable with fine only, after the
(D) Copy of information cannot be given, free of expiry of the period of limitation of—
cost, to the informant (A) Two months
ANS: (D) (B) Three months
(C) Ninety days
Q2094. Any person, who has accepted a tender (D) Six months
of pardon made under Section 306 or Section ANS: (D)
307, has, either by willfully concealing anything
essential or by giving false evidence, not Q2100. Three years period of limitation is
complied with the condition on which the prescribed for taking cognizance of the offence
tender was made. Who will certify this fact? punishable with imprisonment for a term not
(A) District Magistrate exceeding—
(B) Sessions Judge (A) One year
(C) Public Prosecutor (B) Three years
(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate (C) Five years
ANS: (C) (D) Seven years
ANS: (B)
Q2095. When the person who would otherwise
be competent to compound an offence under Q2101. That there are certain objects arranged
Section 320 of Code of Criminal Procedure is in a certain order in a certain place—
dead, then— (A) Is a fact
(A) Offence cannot be compounded (B) Is an opinion
(B) Offence can be compounded by any of the eye- (C) Is a document
witnesses (D) Is a motive
(C) Legal representative of such person can ANS: (A)
compound the offence without the consent of the
Court Q2102. An inscription on a metal plate or
(D) Legal representative of such person can stone—
compound the offence with the consent of the Court (A) Is a fact
ANS: (D) (B) Is a document
(C) Is an opinion
Q2096. At any time before the Judgement is (D) Is a motive
pronounced, prosecution of any person may be ANS: (B)
withdrawn with the consent of the Court by—
(A) On whose instance first information report was Q2103. ‗A‘ is accused of waging war against the
recorded Government of India by taking part in an armed
(B) Investigating officer of the case insurrection in which property is destroyed,
troops are attacked and goals are broken open.

‗A‘ is not present at all of them yet the
occurrence of these facts is relevant because—
(A) They constitute a motive for relevant fact
(B) They show preparation for relevant facts
(C) They are effect of relevant facts
(D) They form part of the general transaction
ANS: (D)
Q2104. ‗A‘ sues ‗B‘ for a libel imputing
disgraceful conduct to ‗A‘. ‗B‘ affirms that the
matter alleged to be libelous is true. The
position and relations of the parties at the time
when the libel was published may be relevant—
(A) As constituting a motive for fact in issue
(B) As conduct influenced by fact in issue
(C) As introductory to facts in issue
(D) As preparation for fact in issue
ANS: (C)
Q2105. The question is, whether ‗A‘ committed
a crime at Calcutta on a certain day. The fact
that, on that day, ‗A‘ was at Lahore is relevant—
(A) As a motive for fact in issue
(B) As introductory to fact in issue
(C) As preparation of relevant fact
(D) As it makes the existence of fact in issue highly
improbable
ANS: (D)
Q2106. ‗A‘ is accused of defaming ‗B‘ by
publishing an imputation intended to harm the
reputation of ‗B‘. The fact of previous
publication by ‗A‘ respecting ‗B‘, showing ill-will
on the part of ‗A‘ towards ‗B‘ is relevant—
(A) Because it proves the preparation for harming
‗A‘s‘ reputation
(B) As it is necessary to explain fact in issue
(C) As proving intention to harm ‗B‘s‘ reputation
(D) As it is the effect of relevant fact
ANS: (C)
Q2107. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(A) Admissions could be oral only
(B) Admissions could be documentary only
(C) Admissions could be oral or documentary
(D) Admissions are conclusive proof of the matters
admitted
ANS: (C)
Q2108. Which of the following statements is not
correct?
(A) No fact of which the Court will take notice need
be proved
(B) Facts admitted need not be proved
(C) All facts and the contents of documents may be
proved by oral evidence
(D) Oral evidence must be direct
ANS: (C)
Q2109. A document is said to be in the
handwriting of ‗A‘. That document is produced
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from proper custody. If the document is
purporting or proved to be—
(A) Thirty
(B) Fifteen
(C) Twenty
(D) Twelve years old, Court may presume that it is
in ‗A‘s‘ handwriting.
ANS: (A)
Q2110. A witness who is unable to speak, gives
his evidence by writing in open Court. Evidence
so given shall be deemed to be—
(A) Orgal evidence
(B) Documentary evidence
(C) Primary evidence
(D) Secondary evidence
ANS: (A)
Q2111. The examination, after the cross-
examination of a witness by the party who has
called him, is called—
(A) Main examination
(B) Additional Cross-examination
(C) Re-examination
(D) Recross-examination
ANS: (C)
Q2112. A person summoned to produce a
document when produces the document then—
(A) He becomes a witness
(B) He is cross-examined by both the parties
(C) He is cross-examined with the permission of the
Court
(D) He does not become witness and cannot be
cross-examined unless and until he is called as a
witness
ANS: (D)
Q2113. Any question suggesting the answer
which the person putting it wishes or expects to
receive is called—
(A) Indecent question
(B) Scandalous question
(C) Question intended to annoy
(D) Leading question
ANS: (D)
Q2114. ‗Accommodation‘ means any building or
part of building whether residential or non-
residential and does not include—
(A) Garden appurtenant to such building
(B) Grounds appurtenant to such building
(C) Any land which is being used for agricultural
purposes
(D) Any furniture supplied by the landlord for use
in such building
ANS: (C)
Q2115. Suit against a tenant for his eviction
from any accommodation could be filed on the
ground that the tenant has neither paid nor
tendered the whole of the arrear of the rent
legally recoverable from him within—
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(A) Thirty days (D) Two months from the date of service of the
(B) Two months summons and obtains leave from the Rent
(C) Fifteen days Controlling Authority as provided.
(D) Sixty days of the date on which a notice of ANS: (C)
demand for the arrears of rent has been served on
him by the landlord in the prescribed manner. Q2120. A landlord making false and frivolous
ANS: (B) application under Section 23 (A) of M. P.
Accommodation Control Act, may be saddled
Q2116. Suit for eviction on the ground under with compensatory costs not exceeding—
Section 12(1) (A) Six month's
(d) of M.P. Accommodation Control Act is filed if (B) Nine month's
the accommodation has not been used without (C) Eleven month's
reasonable cause for which it was let, for a (D) One year's rent of the accommodation at a time.
continuous period of— ANS: (D)
(A) Three months
(B) Six months Q2121. The stay of the operation of the order of
(C) Ninety days eviction passed by a Rent Controlling Authority
(D) Two months immediately preceding the date of or by the High Court shall not enure for a total
the filing of suit for the recovery of possession period of more than—
thereof. (A) Two months
ANS: (B) (B) Four months
(C) Six months
Q2117. Where an order for the eviction of a (D) Sixty days
tenant is made on the ground that the ANS: (C)
accommodation is required bonafide by the
landlord for occupation as a residence for Q2122. Every tenant shall pay rent within the
himself, the landlord shall not be entitled to time fixed by the contract or in absence of any
obtain possession thereof before the expiration such contract by the—
of period of— (A) Sixteenth day
(A) Two months (B) Twenty-first day
(B) Three months (C) Fifteenth day
(C) Six months (D) Last day of the month next following the month
(D) One year from the date of order. for which it is payable.
ANS: (A) ANS: (C)

Q2118. If after the tenant has delivered Q2123. Essential supply enjoyed by a tenant in
possession on or before the date specified in the respect of the accommodation let to him is cut-
order under clause (g) or clause (h) of subSection off by the landlord, who will make an order to
(1) of Section 12 of the M.P. Accommodation restore such supply?
Control Act, landlord fails to commence the (A) Collector
work of repairs or building or rebuilding (B) Civil Court
within— (C) Rent Controlling Authority
(A) Two months (D) Municipal Corporation or Municipality as the
(B) Three months case may be
(C) One month ANS: (C)
(D) Six months of the specified date on an
application made to it, Court may order landlord to Q2124. If the essential supply enjoyed by the
place the tenant in occupation of the tenenat is found to be cut-off by the landlord
accommodation or part thereof. without just and sufficient cause, Rent
ANS: (C) Controlling Authority may direct that
compensation not exceeding—
Q2119. When an application for eviction of a (A) One hundred rupees
tenant on the ground of bonafide requirement is (B) Three hundred rupees
filed before the Rent Controlling Authority and (C) Five hundred rupees
summons in prescribed form is served on the (D) Fifty rupees to be paid by the landlord to the
tenant, he shall not contest the prayer for tenant.
eviction from accommodation unless he files ANS: (D)
application, in prescribed manner, to obtain
leave to contest within— Q2125. No court shall take cognizance of an
(A) Thirty days offence punishable under the M.P.
(B) One month Accommodation Control Act, unless the
(C) Fifteen days complaint in respect of the offence has been
made within—
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(A) Six months (D) Be entitled to redeem any one such mortgage
(B) One year separately, or any two or more of such mortgages
(C) Three years together
(D) Three months from the date of commission of ANS: (D)
the offence.
ANS: (D) Q2132. A lease of immoveable property from
year to year is terminable, on the part of either
Q2126. Provisions of Transfer of Proeprty Act lessor or lessee, by—
shall be applicable— (A) One month
(A) Where property is transferred in execution of (B) Six months
decree of the Court (C) Three months
(B) Where the property of insolvent vests in (D) Sixty days notice expiring with the end of a year
Receiver by the order of the Court of the tenancy.
(C) Where the property is transferred by the act of ANS: (B)
parties
(D) To intestate succession Q2133. A lease of immoveable property from
ANS: (C) year to year, can be made by—
(A) Oral agreement
Q2127. ‗Attested‘ in relation to an instrument (B) Oral agreement accompanied by delivery of
means and shall be deemed always to have mean possession
attested by at least— (C) Simple instrument
(A) One witness (D) Only by a registered instrument
(B) Two witnesses ANS: (D)
(C) Three witnesses
(D) Four witnesses Q2134. Where a lease of immoveable property is
ANS: (B) made by a registered instrument, such
instrument shall be executed—
Q2128. Which one of the following statements is (A) By lessor only
not correct, in context of ‗transfer of property‘? (B) By leassee only
(A) It means an act by which a living person (C) By either of the two
conveys property (D) By both the lessor and the lessee
(B) He conveys property in present or in future ANS: (D)
(C) He conveys property to one or more other living
persons Q2135. What is not required in ‗Gift‘?
(D) He cannot transfer property to himself and one (A) Donor and donee
or more other living persons (B) Consideration
ANS: (D) (C) Moveable or immoveable property
(D) Transfer and acceptance
Q2129. To be competent to transfer property it ANS: (B)
is not essential that—
(A) Person be major Q2136. For the purpose of making a gift of
(B) Person be of sound mind immoveable property, the transfer must be
(C) Person is competent to contract affected—
(D) Transferable property is his own (A) By delivery of possession
ANS: (D) (B) By a registered instrument signed by or on
behalf of the donor and duly attested
Q2130. How many types of mortgages are there (C) By simple instrument
in Section 58 of Transfer of Property Act? (D) By simple instrument accompanied by delivery
(A) Four of possession
(B) Five ANS: (B)
(C) Six
(D) Seven Q2137. A gift comprising both existing and
ANS: (C) future property—
(A) Is void
Q2131. A mortgagor who has executed two or (B) Is valid
more mortages in favour of the same mortgagee, (C) Is void as the existing property
in absence of a contract to the contrary— (D) Is void as the future property
(A) Is bound to redeem all such mortgages together ANS: (D)
(B) Is not entitled to redeem any one such mortgage
separately Q2138. A patient in a lunatic asylum, who is at
(C) Is bound to redeem at least two such mortgages intervals of sound mind—
together (A) May not contract
(B) May contract
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(C) May contract during those intervals when he is (B) A is neither bound to refund 1,000 rupees paid
of sound mind in advance nor is bound to make compensation to
(D) May contract only after he becomes completely B for the loss of profits which B would have made if
of sound mind A had been able to sing
ANS: (C) (C) A is not bound to make compensation to B for
the loss of profits which B would have made if A
Q2139. Number of ingredients of ‗Promise‘ is— had been able to sing, but must refund to B the
(A) Two 1,000 rupees paid in advance
(B) Three (D) A is not bound to make compensation to B for
(C) Four the loss of profits which B would have made if A
(D) Five had been able to sing but must refund to B half of
ANS: (A) the amount paid in advance
ANS: (C)
Q2140. A proposal when accepted—
(A) Becomes a promise Q2146. A leaves a cow in the custody of B to be
(B) Becomes an agreement taken care of. The cow has a calf. In the absence
(C) Becomes a contract of any contract to the contrary—
(D) Becomes a consideration (A) B is bound to deliver only the cow to A
ANS: (A) (B) B is bound to deliver the calf as well as the cow
to A
Q2141. A contract without consideration will (C) B is bound to deliver the calf as well as the cow
be— if he is paid half the price of the calf
(A) Voidable (D) B is bound to deliver the calf as well as the cow
(B) Void if he is paid one-third of the price of the calf
(C) Illegal ANS: (B)
(D) Inoperative
ANS: (B) Q2147. Finder of a lost thing which is
commonly the subject of sale, may sell it when
Q2142. ‗A‘ promises to paint a picture for ‗B‘— the lawful charges of the finder, in respect of
(A) ‗A‘ may employ a competent person to perform the thing found amount to—
the promise (A) One-fourth
(B) Representatives of ‗A‘ may employ a competent (B) Half
person for the purpose (C) One-third
(C) ‗A‘s‘ sons may perform the promise (D) Two-thirds of its value.
(D) ‗A‘ must perform this promise personally ANS: (D)
ANS: (D)
Q2148. Which of the following statements is
Q2143. Every agreement in restraint of the correct in relation to ‗sub-agent‘?
marriage of any person other than a minor— (A) He is employed by the principal in the business
(A) Is voidable of the agency
(B) Is illegal (B) He is employed by the original agent in the
(C) Is void business of the agency
(D) Is valid (C) He acts under the control of the principal
ANS: (C) (D) The agent is not responsible to the principal for
the acts of the sub-agent
Q2144. In the case of an alternative promise, ANS: (B)
one branch of which is legal and the other
illegal— Q2149. A gives authority to B to sell A‘s land
(A) Such a promise can be enforced and to pay himself out of the proceeds, the
(B) Any of its branch cannot be enforced debts due to him from A. In the absence of an
(C) The legal branch alone can be enforced express contract—
(D) With the permission of the court, both the (A) A can revoke this authority
branches can be enforced (B) Authority can be terminated by the insanity of A
ANS: (C) (C) Authority can be terminated by the death of A
(D) A cannot revoke this authority, nor can it be
Q2145. A contracts to sing for B at a concert for terminated by his death or insanity
1,000 rupees which are paid in advance. A is too ANS: (B)
ill to sing—
(A) A is bound only to make compensation to B for Q2150. ‗Agriculture‘ does not include—
the loss of the profits which B would have made if A (A) Horticulture
had been able to sing but not bound to refund (B) The planting and unkeep of orchards
1,000 paid in advance (C) The reserving of land for fodder, grazing or
thatching grass
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(D) Forest of big bushes
ANS: (D) Q2157. Any person lawfully acquiring any right
of interest in land, shall under Section 109 of
Q2151. ‗To cultivate personally‘ does not mean M.P.L.R.C., report his acquisition of such right
to cultivate on one‘s own account— to—
(A) By the labour of any member of one‘s family (A) Collector
(B) By servants on wages payable in crop share (B) Sub-divisional Officer
(C) By hired labour under one‘s personal (C) Patwari
supervision (D) Revenue-Inspector
(D) By hired labour under personal supervision of ANS: (C)
any member of one‘s family
ANS: (B) Q2158. All disputes regarding boundaries of
villages, survey numbers and plot numbers,
Q2152. Revenue inspectors, Measurers and where such boundaries have been fixed under
Patwaris shall not enter into any building or the provisions of Section 124 of M.P.L.R.C. shall
upon any enclosed court or garden attached to a be decided—
dwelling house without the consent of— (A) By Collector
(A) Collector (B) By Sub-divisional Officer
(B) Tehsildar (C) By Patwari
(C) Real owner (D) By Tehsildar
(D) Occupier thereof to do acts connected with their ANS: (D)
duties under M.P. Land Revenue Code.
ANS: (D) Q2159. Where the boundary has been fixed
under the provisions of Section 124 of
Q2153. Which Revenue Officer cannot make M.P.L.R.C. and a person holding wrongful
over any case for enquiry and report from his possession over any land has been summarily
own file to any Revenue Officer subordinate to ejected from such land, he may, within the
him? period of—
(A) Sub-divisional Officer (A) Two years
(B) Collector (B) One year
(C) Naib Tehsildar (C) Three years
(D) Tehsildar (D) Four years from the date of ejectment, institute
ANS: (C) a civil suit to establish his title thereto.
ANS: (B)
Q2154. A party against whom an order has been
passed in his absence by a Revenue Officer may Q2160. By whose order the tenancy of an
apply to have it set-aside within— occupancy tenant in his holding can be
(A) Sixty days terminated?
(B) Two months (A) The Collector
(C) One month (B) The Tehshildar
(D) Thirty days from the date of order or knowledge (C) The Sub-divisional Officer
of the order in case summons was not duly served. (D) The Commissioner
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q2155. A Revenue Officer may award costs Q2161. Allotment of house site under Gramin
incurred in any case or proceeding arising under Avas Yojna to a landless person shall be subject
M.P. Land Revenue Code to the extent— to condition that the allottee shall build a house
(A) Three hundred rupees on such land within a period of—
(B) Five hundred rupees (A) One year
(C) One thousand rupees (B) Three years
(D) As he thinks fit (C) Five years
ANS: (D) (D) Seven years from the date of allotment.
ANS: (C)
Q2156. Which one of the following shall not be
taken into account in estimating the cost of Q2162. In reference of District Court, which one
cultivation? of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Market value of the land (A) It can transfer any suit, appeal or other
(B) The depreciation of stock and buildings proceeding pending before it for trial to any
(C) The money equivalent of the cultivator‘s labour Courtsubordinate to it and competent to try or
and supervision dispose of the same
(D) The money equivalent of the cultivator‘s family‘s (B) It can withdraw any suit and appeal or other
labour and supervision proceedinig pending in any Court subordinate to it
ANS: (A)

(C) It can try or dispose of the suit, appeal or other
proceeding withdrawn from any Court subordinate
to it or it may transfer the same for trial or disposal
to some other Court subordinate to it and
competent to try or dispose of the same
(D) It cannot retransfer any suit, appeal or other
proceeding to the Court from which it was
withdrawn
ANS: (D)
Q2163. Under Section 34 of Civil Procedure
Code, Court can award interest from the date of
decree to the date of payment or such earlier
date as the Court thinks fit. Rate of such
interest shall not exceed……per annum.
(A) Nine per cent
(B) Ten per cent
(C) Six per cent
(D) Twelve per cent
ANS: (C)
Q2164. Any amount which a Court will order to
be paid as compensatory costs in respect of
false or vexatious claims or defences, shall not
exceed the amount of—
(A) Two thousand rupees or the amount within its
pecuniary jurisdiction whichever is less
(B) Three thousand rupees or the amount within its
pecuniary jurisdiction, whichever is less
(C) Four thousand rupees or the amount whithin
its pecuniary jurisdiction, whichever is less
(D) Five thousand rupees or the amount within its
pecuniary jurisdiction whichever is less
ANS: (B)
Q2165. During the proceeding of execution of a
decree, a question arises as to whether any
person is or is not the representative of a party,
such question shall be determined by—
(A) The court which passed the decree
(B) The court executing the decree
(C) The appellate court
(D) A separate suit
ANS: (B)
Q2166. A judgment-debtor is arrested in
execution of a decree for the payment of money
and the Judgement-debtor pays the amount of
the decree and the costs of the arrest to the
officer arresting him, such officer—
(A) Shall send the judgement-debtor to civil prison
(B) Shall take judgement-debtor to the court
(C) Shall atonce release him
(D) Shall release him after taking security from him
ANS: (C)
Q2167. Under Section 80 of Civil Procedure
Code—
(A) Ninety days
(B) Sixty days
(C) Three months
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(D) Two months notice in writing is required to be
delivered before institution of a suit against the
Government.
ANS: (D)
Q2168. ‗A‘ lets a house to ‗B‘ at a yearly rent of
rupees five hundred. The rent for the whole of
the years 1905, 1906 and 1907 is due and
unpaid. ‗A‘ sues ‗B‘ in 1908 only for the rent
due for 1906—
(A) ‗A‘ can afterwards sue ‗B‘ only for the rent due
for 1905
(B) ‗A‘ can afterwards sue ‗B‘ only for the rent due
for 1907
(C) ‗A‘ can afterwards sue ‗B‘ for the rent due for
1905 and 1907 both
(D) ‗A‘ cannot afterwards sue ‗B‘ for the rent due for
1905 or 1907
ANS: (D)
Q2169. Any court will order a party who resides
without the local lmits of the court‘s ordinary
original jurisdiction, to appear in person, if he
resides—
(A) Within India
(B) Within the local limits of that state in which the
court is situated
(C) Within the local limits of that district in which
the court is situated
(D) Within certain limits from the place where the
court is situated
ANS: (D)
Q2170. A suit may be dismissed where, after a
summons has been issued to the defendant and
returned unserved, plaintiff fails to apply for
fresh summons for the period of—
(A) Thirty days
(B) Sixty days
(C) One month
(D) Two months from the date of such return.
ANS: (C)
Q2171. Date appointed by any Court for
presenting list of witnesses by the parties to
obtain summons to them for their attendance in
Court, shall not be later than—
(A) Ten days
(B) Fifteen days
(C) Eighteen days
(D) Thirty days
ANS: (B)
Q2172. In a suit, plaintiff himself wishes to
appear as a witness. Without any permission of
Court, he may so appear—
(A) At any time before evidence from plaintiff‘s side
is over
(B) At any time before evidence from defendant‘s
side is over
(C) At any time before arguments are heard
(D) Only before any other witness on his behalf has
been examined
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ANS: (D) (D) Eleven
ANS: (B)
Q2173. After the passing of a decree for
payment of money, on the application of the Q2180. ‗Y‘ gives grave and sudden provocation
Judgementdebtor, Court shall not order that to ‗A‘. ‗A‘, on this provocation, fires a pistol at
payment of the amount of decree shall be made ‗Y‘, neither intending nor knowing himself to be
by instalments— likely to kill ‗Z‘, who is near him, but out of
(A) Without recording evidence of both parties sight. ‗A‘ kills ‗Z‘. ‗A‘ is guilty of—
(B) Without obtaining affidavits from both parties (A) Murder
(C) Without obtaining the documents regarding the (B) Culpable homicide
financial condition of the Judgement-debtor (C) Attempt to murder
(D) Without the consent of decree-holder (D) No offence as act falls under generalexceptions
ANS: (D) ANS: (B)

Q2174. ‗A‘ who is a citizen of India commits Q2181. Any hurt is ‗grievous‘ if it causes the
murder in Uganda. He is arrested in Delhi. He sufferer to be in severe bodily pain or unable to
can be tried and convicted of murder— follow his ordinary pursuits during the space
(A) Only in Uganda of—
(B) Only in that country of which the deceased was (A) Fifteen days
a citizen (B) Twenty days
(C) In any one of the above (C) Twenty-five days
(D) In Delhi (D) Thirty days
ANS: (D) ANS: (B)

Q2175. Which of the following punishments Q2182. How many kinds of kidnapping are there
cannot be awarded under the Indian Penal in the Indian Penal Code?
Code? (A) One
(A) Forfeiture of property (B) Two
(B) Imprisonment with hard labour (C) Three
(C) Transportation for life (D) Four
(D) Death ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q2183. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any child
Q2176. Where no sum is expressed to which a with the intention of taking dishonestly any
fine may extend there the amount of fine to movable property from the person of such child
which the offender may be liable will be— shall be punished under Section 369 of I.P.C. if
(A) Not exceeding rupees fifty thousand the age of such child is under—
(B) Not exceeding rupees twenty-five thousand (A) Ten
(C) Not exceeding rupees ten lakh (B) Twelve
(D) Unlimited but not excessive (C) Fourteen
ANS: (D) (D) Fifteen years.
ANS: (A)
Q2177. Nothing is an offence which is done by a
child under— Q2184. What is minimum number of persons
(A) Eight years required to commit ‗dacoity‘?
(B) Ten years (A) Five
(C) Seven years (B) Six
(D) Twelve years (C) Two
ANS: (C) (D) Ten
ANS: (A)
Q2178. Minimum number of persons required to
form an ‗unlawful assembly‘ is— Q2185. ‗A‘ has sexual intercourse with an adult
(A) Seven married woman whom he knows to be wife of
(B) Five another man, without the consent or
(C) Ten connivance of that man but with the consent of
(D) Six that woman. ‗A‘ is guilty of—
ANS: (B) (A) Rape
(B) Adultery
Q2179. Minimum number of persons required to (C) Insulting the modesty of the woman
‗Commit an affray‘ is— (D) No offence
(A) Five ANS: (B)
(B) Two
(C) Ten
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Q2186. State Government may, by notification ANS: (A)
declare any area to be a metropolitan area for
the purposes of the Code of Criminal Procedure Q2193. Where the suit is dismissed under rule 2
whose population exceeds— or 3 of order 9 C.P.C. the plaintiff?
(A) Ten lakhs (A) May bring a fresh suit subject to Law of
(B) Five lakhs Limitation
(C) Seven lakhs (B) Cannot bring a fresh suit
(D) Three lakhs (C) May bring a fresh suit with the leave of High
ANS: (A) Court
(D) May bring a fresh suit with the leave of District
Q2187. If in any case in which the defendant Judge
sets up counter-claim, the suit of the plaintiff is ANS: (A)
stayed, discontinued or dismissed the
counterclaim— Q2194. In which condition the officer in charge
(A) Shall be stayed of the prison may refuse to produce the prisoner
(B) Nevertheless be proceeded with for evidence despite Court's order?
(C) May be continued with the leave of High Court (A) Where the prisoner is related to Ruling Party
(D) No specific provision (B) Where the prisoner is Ex-minister
ANS: (B) (C) Where the prisoner is Government Servant
(D) Where the Medical Officer has certified that
Q2188. Where the decree is for the payment of prisoner is unfit to be removed by the reason of
sum of money exceeding one thousand rupees sickness
the period of civil prison? ANS: (D)
(A) Shall not exceed three months
(B) Shall not exceed six months Q2195. Where any property has been attached
(C) Shall not exceed nine months in execution of decree and the court, for any
(D) Shall not exceed one year reason, passes an order dismissing the
ANS: (A) execution-application but omits to give any
direction as to attachment?
Q2189. Who among the following is not entitled (A) Attachment shall be deemed to have ceased
to exemption from personal appearance in the (B) Attachment shall cease after three months
Court? (C) Attachment shall cease after six months
(A) Former Indian Ruler (D) Attachment shall cease after one year
(B) Chairman of the State Legislative Councils ANS: (A)
(C) The Ministers of States
(D) Collector Q2196. Where any party dies after conclusion
ANS: (D) and before pronouncing of Judgement?
(A) The suit shall abet
Q2190. Caveat shall not remain in force after (B) The suit shall not abet
expiry of— (C) The suit shall not abet if cause of action
(A) Ninety days survives
(B) Sixty days (D) It will be deemed that judgement has been
(C) Thirty days pronounced after death of a party
(D) Fifteen days ANS: (B)
ANS: (A)
Q2197. Where a decree of compromise which
Q2191. If a party who has obtained an order for was not lawful, there—
leave to amend pleading does not amend the (A) Suit shall lie to set aside such decree
same within how many days, he shall not be (B) Complaint has to made to High Court
permitted to do without leave of Court? (C) No suit shall lie to set aside such decree
(A) Fifteen days (D) Suit may lie to set aside such decree with the
(B) Fourteen days leave of District Judge
(C) Twenty days ANS: (C)
(D) Thirty days
ANS: (B) Q2198. Where an indigent person succeeds the
court fee shall be recovered?
Q2192. Where the plaint has been rejected the (A) From the defendant
plaintiff on the same cause of action? (B) From the State Government
(A) May present a fresh suit (C) Not recoverable
(B) Cannot present a fresh suit (D) From the Plaintiff
(C) May present a fresh suit with the leave of High ANS: (D)
Court
(D) None of the above
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Q2199. An attachment made before judgement (A) Sixteen years
in a suit which is dismissed for default— (B) Eighteen years
(A) Shall not become revived merely by reason of (C) Under sixteen years of age, if a male, and under
the fact the order for dismissal of the suit for eighteen years of age, if a female
default has been set aside (D) Under twenty one years of age, if a male, and
(B) Shall become revived merely on the basis of under eighteen years of age, if a female
restoration of suit ANS: (C)
(C) Shall become revived on the order of Appellate
Court Q2206. What is not correct about ‗Rape‘?
(D) Shall become revived on the order of High Court (A) Consent is immaterial if she is under 16 years of
ANS: (A) age
(B) Penetration is sufficient
Q2200. If the offence be punishable with fine (C) Intercourse by a man with his own wife, the wife
only, and accused has been awarded with fifty not being under fifteen years of age, is not Rape
rupees fine then the period of imprisonment in (D) Death penalty may be awarded.
default shall— ANS: (D)
(A) Not exceeding one month
(B) Not exceeding two months Q2207. ‗A‘ threatens to publish a defamatory
(C) Not exceeding three months libel concerning ‗B‘, unless ‗B‘ gives him money.
(D) Not exceeding four months He thus induces ‗B‘ to give him money. A has
ANS: (B) committed—
(A) Extortion
Q2201. ‗A‘ instigates ‗B‘ to give false evidence. (B) Defamation
Here, if ‗B‘ does not give false evidence, what (C) Criminal intimidation
offence ‗A‘ has committed? (D) Robbery
(A)‗A‘ is guilty of no offence ANS: (A)
(B) Attempt to give false evidence
(C) Offence punishable with imprisonment of any Q2208. What is the offence preparation whereof
description provided for that offence for a term is also punishable?
which may extend to one-fourth part of the longest (A) Theft
term provided for that offence and with fine (B) Dacoity
(D) None of the above (C) Murder
ANS: (C) (D) Rape
ANS: (B)
Q2202. What punishment is provided for Dowry
death? Q2209. A makes an attempt to pick the pocket
(A) Not less than three years of B by thrusting his hand into B's pocket. A
(B) Not less than five years fails in the attempt in consequence of B's
(C) Not less than seven years and in rare having nothing in his pocket. A is guilty of—
circumstances may extend to death sentence (A) No offence
(D) Not less than seven years but which may extend (B) Theft
to imprisonment for life (C) Attempt to theft
ANS: (D) (D) Using criminal force
ANS: (C)
Q2203. Which is not the ‗stolen property‘?
(A) Possession whereof was obtained by cheating Q2210. A voluntarily throws into a river a ring
(B) Possession whereof was obtained by robbery belonging to B with intention thereby causing
(C) Possession whereof was obtained by dacoity wrongful loss to B. A has committed—
(D) Possession whereof was obtained by criminal (A) Theft
breach of trust (B) Extortion
ANS: (D) (C) Robbery
(D) Mischief
Q2204. A police officer arrested and detained a ANS: (D)
person in the lockup despite production of a bail
order from the Court. Police officer is guilty of— Q2211. What punishment may be awarded to
(A) Wrongful restrain the person whose act is covered under general
(B) Wrongful confinement exceptions?
(C) Abduction (A) No punishment
(D) Kidnapping (B) Half of the punishment prescribed for that
ANS: (B) offence
(C) One-fourth of the punishment prescribed for
Q2205. What must be the age of a minor with that offence
regard to the offence of kidnapping? (D) Depends upon discretion of the Court

ANS: (A)
Q2212. What sentence an Assistant Sessions
Judge may award?
(A) Life imprisonment
(B) Any sentence authorised by law except a
sentence of death or of imprisonment for life or of
imprisonment for a term exceeding ten years
(C) Up to fourteen years
(D) Up to twenty years
ANS: (B)
Q2213. A person arrested by a police officer
may be kept in custody for—
(A) Two days
(B) Three days
(C) Twenty-four hours
(D) One week
ANS: (C)
Q2214. Now how much amount of monthly
maintenance may be awarded in favour of a wife
under Section 125 of Cr.P.C.?
(A) Three hundred rupees
(B) Four hundred rupees
(C) Five hundred rupees
(D) As such Magistrate thinks fit
ANS: (D)
Q2215. In a first information an offence is
cognizable and other is non-cognizable the
whole case shall be deemed to be—
(A) Cognizable
(B) Non-cognizable
(C) It is to be seen whether it is a warrant case
(D) It is to be seen whether it is a summon case
ANS: (A)
Q2216. What is true about Court of Session?
(A) It can take cognizance without commitment
(B) It cannot take cognizance without commitment
(C) It can take cognizance on the recommendation
of District Magistrate
(D) It can take cognizance if the challan is put up
by the Superintendent of Police
ANS: (B)
Q2217. No person shall be appointed as a Public
Prosecutor for the District unless his name
appears in the panel of names prepared by—
(A) Sessions Judge
(B) High Court
(C) District Magistrate
(D) Superintendent of Police
ANS: (C)
Q2218. How much punishment may be awarded
to an accused who is found guilty under a
summary trial?
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(A) Not exceeding two years
(B) Not exceeding one year
(C) Not exceeding six months
(D) Not exceeding three months
ANS: (D)
Q2219. Whether an accused may be a
competent witness in his own defence?
(A) If he applies in writing on his own request
(B) No
(C) With the leave of Court of Session
(D) With the leave of High Court
ANS: (A)
Q2220. Whenever a Magistrate is of opinion,
after hearing the evidence for prosecution and
the accused, that the accused is guilty, and that
he ought to receive a severe punishment, then
such Magistrate is empowered to inflict, the
Magistrate may forward the case to—
(A) Session Judge
(B) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(C) District Magistrate
(D) Concerned Police Station
ANS: (B)
Q2221. In one trial A is awarded with the
sentence which is not appealable whereas
sentence against B is appealable. Whether A can
file an appeal against his sentence?
(A) No
(B) Only with special leave
(C) Yes
(D) There is no such provision
ANS: (C)
Q2222. If in a criminal appeal an accused dies
and his near relatives wish to continue the
appeal, then within how much period they must
apply?
(A) Four months
(B) Three months
(C) Sixty days
(D) Thirty days
ANS: (D)
Q2223. When can a trial court release an
accused on bail under Section 389(3) of Cr.P.C.
after conviction?
(A) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is
not exceeding 3 years
(B) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is
not exceeding 5 years
(C) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is
not exceeding 7 years
(D) Where offence is exclusively bailable whether
accused is on bail or not
ANS: (A)
Q2224. What is effect of trial conducted in
wrong place?
(A) Vitiated itself
(B) Vitiated if caused failure of justice
 MockTime.com
(C) Seriousness has to be seen (D) His evidence is relevant under Section 114 and
(D) Is to be referred to High Court 133 of Evidence Act
ANS: (B) ANS: (D)

Q2225. When will proceedings be vitiated if the Q2232. What number of witnesses will be
Magistrate is not empowered to do so? required for the proof of any fact?
(A) To issue a search warrant under Section 94 of (A) No particular number
Cr.P.C. (B) At least one eye-witness
(B) To hold on inquest under Section 176 of Cr.P.C. (C) Two witnesses with regard to documents
(C) Tries an offender summarily (D) One party and one witness
(D) To tender a pardon under Section 306 of Cr.P.C. ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q2233. Leading question—
Q2226. The question is, whether ‗A‘ was (A) May be asked in examination in-chief
ravished and thereafter murdered? The fact (B) May be asked in cross-examination
that, without making a complaint, she said that (C) May be asked in re-examination
she had been ravished— (D) Cannot be asked in any circumstances
(A) Is relevant as a conduct ANS: (B)
(B) Is relevant as a substantive evidence
(C) Is relevant as a secondary evidence Q2234. Which is not the main principle that
(D) May be relevant under Section 32(1) or 157 of underlies the law of evidence?
Evidence Act (A) Evidence must be confined to the matterin-issue
ANS: (D) (B) Hearsay evidence must not be admitted
(C) Hearsay evidence must be admitted
Q2227. A relevant confession will become (D) The best evidence must be given in all cases
irrelevant when— ANS: (C)
(A) Made to a police officer
(B) Made under a promise of secrecy Q2235. A witness was asked whether he was not
(C) When the accused was drunk dismissed from a post for dishonesty. He denies
(D) In consequence of a deception practised on the it. The evidence is offered to show that he was
accused dismissed for dishonesty—
ANS: (A) (A) The evidence is admissible if it comes from
plaintiff side
Q2228. Admissions are— (B) The evidence is admissible if it comes from
(A) Conclusive proof defendant side
(B) May operate as estoppels (C) The evidence is admissible
(C) Always irrelevant (D) The evidence is inadmissible
(D) None of the above ANS: (D)
ANS: (B)
Q2236. When a party refuses to produce a
Q2229. A agrees, in writing, to sell a horse to B document which he had noticed to produce—
for Rs. 1,000 or Rs. 1,500. To show which price (A) He cannot use the document as evidence
was to be given— without the consent of opposite party or the order
(A) Oral evidence can be given of the court
(B) Antecedents of the parties are to be seen (B) Objection of opposite party is worthless
(C) Oral evidence cannot be given (C) Order of court not necessary
(D) None of the above (D) Document will be deemed to be an admitted
ANS: (C) document
ANS: (A)
Q2230. A is charged with travelling on a railway
without a ticket. The burden of proving that A Q2237. Where does Madhya Pradesh
had a ticket is on— Accommodation Control Act, 1961 apply?
(A) Ticket-checker (A) Whole Madhya Pradesh
(B) Railway (B) Area specified in Schedule 1
(C) ‗A‘ (C) Area recommended by State Reorganisation
(D) Prosecution Commission
ANS: (C) (D) Excluding area of old Vidarbha
ANS: (B)
Q2231. What is provision about an
‗Accomplice‘? Q2238. Who fixes the standard rent?
(A) He is not a competent witness (A) Civil Court
(B) His evidence is irrelevant (B) District Court
(C) His evidence should be believed blindly (C) Rent Controlling Authority
 MockTime.com
(D) Collector Q2245. An appeal shall lie against the order
ANS: (C) passed by Rent Controlling Authority to—
(A) High Court
Q2239. M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 (B) District Court
does apply to— (C) Collector
(A) Property of Government (D) State Government
(B) Property of local authority used exclusively for ANS: (B)
non-residential purposes
(C) Property of Municipal Corporation used Q2246. Who is not a member of family for the
exclusively for non-residential purposes purpose of M.P. Accommodation Control Act?
(D) Property of Municipal Corporation used for (A) Unmarried daughter
residential purpose (B) Unmarried sister
ANS: (D) (C) Grandson living separately
(D) Grandfather
Q2240. The provisions of M.P. Accommodation ANS: (C)
Control Act, 1961 will not be applicable to a
newly constructed house for a period of— Q2247. The proceeding pleading when the M.P.
(A) Five years Accommodation Control Act. 1961 came into
(B) Seven years being will be—
(C) Three years (A) Decided according to provisions of New Act
(D) One year (B) Referred to the High Court
ANS: (A) (C) Returned to the Plaintiff
(D) Decided according to provisions of Old Act
Q2241. Who is not a landlord for the purpose of ANS: (D)
Section 23(J) of M.P. Accommodation Control
Act, 1961? Q2248. Rules made under the provisions of M.P.
(A) A retired servant of any Government Accommodation Control Act have to be sent
(B) A servant of any Government to—
(C) A divorced wife (A) Assembly
(D) A physically handicapped person (B) High Court
ANS: (B) (C) President
(D) Supreme Court
Q2242. The Rent Controlling Authority should ANS: (A)
not below the rank of—
(A) Tahsildar Q2249. ‗A‘ proposes, by letter, to sell a house to
(B) Asstt. Suptd. Land Records ‗B‘ at a certain price. The communication of
(C) Deputy Collector proposal is complete when—
(D) Civil Judge (A) ‗A‘ puts letter in letter-box
ANS: (C) (B) ‗B‘ receives the letter
(C) ‗B‘ puts reply in letter-box
Q2243. Where an order for the eviction of (D) ‗A‘ receives reply of ‗B‘
tenant is made on the ground specified in clause ANS: (B)
(e) of sub-Section (1) of Section 12, the landlord
shall not be entitled to obtain possession Q2250. A sells, by auction, to B a horse which A
thereof before expiration of a period of— knows to be unsound. A says nothing to B about
(A) One year the horse's unsoundness. A does—
(B) Six months (A) Fraud
(C) Three months (B) Misrepresentation
(D) Two months (C) No fraud
ANS: (D) (D) Undue influence
ANS: (C)
Q2244. Where a landlord has acquired any
accommodation by transfer, he cannot bring a Q2251. Where both parties are under mistake as
suit for eviction on the ground specified in to matter of fact, the agreement will be—
clause (e) or (f) sub-Section (1) of Section 12 so (A) Enforceable
long? (B) Voidable
(A) One year has not elapsed (C) Not void
(B) Six months has not elapsed (D) Void
(C) Three months has not elapsed ANS: (D)
(D) Two months has not elapsed
ANS: (A) Q2252. What will be effect of mistakes as to law
in force in India on the agreement?
(A) Not voidable
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(B) Voidable (A) Yes
(C) Void (B) Not from B, but from Government
(D) Not void (C) Not from B, but from his heirs
ANS: (A) (D) No
ANS: (C)
Q2253. A promises, for no consideration, to give
to B Rs. 1,000. This agreement is— Q2260. A, the captain of B's ship, signs of bill of
(A) Voidable lading without having received on board the
(B) Void goods mentioned therein. As between B and
(C) Enforceable pretended consignor is concerned the bill of
(D) Not enforceable not being in writing lading are—
ANS: (B) (A) Void
(B) Voidable
Q2254. Agreements, the meaning of which is (C) Enforceable
not certain, or capable of being made certain, (D) None of these
are— ANS: (A)
(A) Voidable
(B) Illegal Q2261. Who is not a Revenue Officer?
(C) Void (A) Settlement Officer
(D) Enforceable (B) Revenue Inspector
ANS: (C) (C) Asstt. Suptd. land records
(D) Naib Tahsildar
Q2255. Where no application is made and no ANS: (B)
time is specified for performance of promise,
there the agreement must be performed Q2262. When does agriculture year begin?
within— (A) 1st January
(A) Three years (B) 1st April
(B) Two years (C) 1st July
(C) One year (D) 15th August
(D) Reasonable time ANS: (C)
ANS: (D)
Q2263. When any person neglects to give
Q2256. A agrees with B to discover treasure by information required under Section 109 of M.P.
magic. This agreement is— Land Revenue Code within stipulated period the
(A) Void Tahsildar may impose penality?
(B) Voidable (A) Not exceeding Rs. 100
(C) Enforceable (B) Not exceeding Rs. 75
(D) Valid and enforceable in Bengal (C) Not exceeding Rs. 50
ANS: (C) (D) Not exceeding Rs. 25
ANS: (D)
Q2257. In case of an alternative promise, one
branch of which is legal and the other illegal— Q2264. If any person wilfully defaults to pay
(A) Both branches will be enforceable land revenue within one month after stipulated
(B) The legal branch alone can be enforced period, the Sub-divisional Officer may impose
(C) No branch is enforceable penalty—
(D) None of the above (A) Not exceeding 10%
ANS: (B) (B) Not exceeding 15%
(C) Not exceeding 20%
Q2258. A supplies B, a lunatic, with necessaries (D) Not exceeding 25%
suitable to his condition in life. Whether A is ANS: (A)
entitled for reimbursement from the property of
B? Q2265. Land revenue for different lands will be
(A) No assessed by—
(B) Yes, if the value of property is more than one (A) Collector
lakh (B) Settlement Officer
(C) Yes (C) Settlement Commissioner
(D) None of the above (D) Commissioner of Division
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q2259. A saves B's property from fire. Q2266. The term of settlement shall not be less
Circumstances show that he intended to act than—
gratuitously. Whether A is entitled for (A) 100 years
compensation from B? (B) 50 years
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(C) 30 years ANS: (A)
(D) 20 years
ANS: (C) Q2273. Which is not the immoveable property?
(A) A lease of land
Q2267. No mortgage of any land by a (B) Growing crops
Bhumiswami shall be valid unless the following (C) A right of way
land is left with him free from charge— (D) A life interest in the income of immoveable
(A) 2 acres irrigated or 3 acres unirrigated land property
(B) 3 acres irrigated or 4 acres unirrigated land ANS: (B)
(C) 1 acre irrigated or 2 acres unirrigated land
(D) 5 acres irrigated or 10 acres unirrigated land Q2274. What kind of property is transferable?
ANS: (D) (A) Right to re-entry
(B) Public Office
Q2268. Where the settlement operations are (C) Any kind of property if not prohibited by law
closed all applications pending before (D) Pension
Settlement Officer shall be transferred to? ANS: (C)
(A) Collector
(B) Tahsildar Q2275. What kind of transfer may be made
(C) Sub-divisional Officer orally?
(D) Asstt. Suptd. land records (A) Gift of immoveable property
ANS: (A) (B) Transfer of actionable claim
(C) Sale of immoveable property of value upward
Q2269. No usufructuary mortgage of any land by Rs. 100
a Bhumiswami shall be valid if it is for a period (D) Surrender of lease
exceeding— ANS: (D)
(A) 5 years
(B) 6 years Q2276. Whether a transfer can be made in
(C) 7 years favour of an unborn person?
(D) 10 years (A) Yes, by machinery of trust
ANS: (B) (B) Yes
(C) Guardian has got to be appointed first
Q2270. Where a Bhumiswami effects a mortgage (D) None of the above
the total amount of interest under Section ANS: (B)
165(3) of M.P.L.R. Code shall not exceed?
(A) Equal to principal amount Q2277. When does an unborn person acquire
(B) One-fourth of principal amount vested interest on transfer?
(C) Half of the principal amount (A) As soon as he is born
(D) One-third of the principal amount (B) On attaining majority
ANS: (C) (C) On attaining 21 years
(D) After marriage, if female
Q2271. Under provisions of M.P.L.R. Code a ANS: (A)
Bhumiswami may relinquish his rights by giving
notice to Tahsildar. How much prior before Q2278. A lets to B a farm on the condition that
commencement of Agriculture year this notice B shall walk 100 miles in an hour. Lease is—
should be given? (A) Voidable
(A) 120 days (B) Void
(B) 90 days (C) Valid
(C) 60 days (D) Enforceable
(D) 30 days ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q2279. A has let his house at a rent of Rs. 100
Q2272. Where a Bhumiswami desires to take his payable on the last date of each month. A sells
land back possession whereof was taken by house to B on the 15th of June. On 30th June
Tahsildar under Section 176 of M.P.L.R. Code he what will be apportionment?
should apply— (A) A will get Rs. 100
(A) Within three years from the commencement of (B) B will get Rs. 100
next Agriculture year (C) Rs. 50 to A and Rs. 50 to B
(B) Within two years from the commencement of (D) The tenant will be exempted from payment of
next Agriculture year rent in that month
(C) Within one year from the commencement of ANS: (C)
next Agriculture year
(D) Within six months from the commencement of Q2280. Which is not the ingredient of Section
next Agriculture year 53 (A) of T.P. Act?
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(A) Agreement for transfer (B) Writ of Mandamus
(B) Consideration (C) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(C) Transferee has performed his part (D) Writ of Quo Warranto
(D) Moveable property ANS: (C)
ANS: (D)
Q2288. The Directive Principles of State Policy
Q2281. Whether simple mortgage must always have been borrowed from the Constitution of—
be registered? (A) U.S.A.
(A) Yes (B) Canada
(B) If value of property is more than Rs. 100 (C) Ireland
(C) Registration not necessary (D) Russia
(D) None of the above ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
Q2289. Give the correct response— Article 15(1)
Q2282. Who may make rules consistent with prohibits that the state shall not discriminate
the provisions of T.P. Act? against any citizen on ground only of—
(A) State Government (A) Religion, race, sex and place of birth
(B) High Court (B) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth and
(C) Supreme Court descent
(D) State Secretariat (C) Religion, race, caste, creed, sex or place of birth
ANS: (A) (D) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of
them
Q2283. In absence of contract or local law or ANS: (D)
usage to the contrary, a lease of immoveable
property shall be deemed to be— Q2290. Under which of the following Articles
(A) Month to month laws inconsistent or abridging fundamental
(B) Bimonthly rights are declared void?
(C) Year to year (A) Article 12
(D) Biannual (B) Article 13
ANS: (C) (C) Article 11
(D) Article 21
Q2284. A gives a lakh of rupees to B, reserving ANS: (B)
to himself, with B's assent, the right to take
back Rs. 10,000 at pleasure out of that amount. Q2291. Which one of the following does not fall
This gift is— within the meaning of ‗State‘ under Article 12
(A) Absolutely valid of the Indian Constitution?
(B) Absolutely invalid (A) Barkatullah Vishwavidyalaya, Bhopal
(C) This cannot be said to a gift (B) Government of India and the Parliament
(D) Holds good as to Rs. 90,000 but it is void as to (C) British Airways Corporation
Rs. 10,000 (D) Bhopal Municipal Corporation
ANS: (D) ANS: (C)

Q2285. In criminal proceedings the fact that Q2292. Fundamental Freedoms given under
the accused is of good character is— Article 19 of the Constitution are available only
(A) Relevant to—
(B) Irrelevant (A) Citizens of India
(C) Unrebuttable (B) Citizens of India and Foreigners
(D) None of these (C) Both (A) and (B) above
ANS: (A) (D) Foreigners living in India
ANS: (A)
Q2286. What is not the necessary ingredient for
attracting the provisions of Section 27 of Q2293. In which of the following Articles of the
Evidence Act? Constitution provision regarding unified civil
(A) The person must be an accused of an offence code has been given?
(B) Male or female (A) 43rd
(C) He should give information (B) 44th
(D) Discovery of any fact in consequence of (C) 46th
information (D) 47th
ANS: (B) ANS: (B)

Q2287. What writ can be issued for an illegal Q2294. For the post of President of India the
detention? minimum age of the person should be—
(A) Writ of Prohibition (A) 21 years
 MockTime.com
(B) 25 years (D) Article 353
(C) 30 years ANS: (A)
(D) 35 years
ANS: (D) Q2301. Under which one of the following
Articles of the Constitution the Supreme Court
Q2295. Who does not have the right to vote in has powers to review its decisions?
the election of President of India? (A) Article 135
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) Article 136
(B) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha (C) Article 137
(C) President's nominee in Rajya Sabha (D) Article 143
(D) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha ANS: (C)
ANS: (C)
Q2302. Which one of the following is not
Q2296. By the Presidents Employment and essential for an offence?
Pension (Amendment) Act, 1998, the salary of (A) Intention
the President has been enhanced to— (B) Motive
(A) From Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 20,000 per month (C) Prohibited act
(B) From Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 25,000 per month (D) Punishment for act
(C) From Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 50,000 per month ANS: (B)
(D) From Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 45,000 per month
ANS: (C) Q2303. In which of the following mens rea has
been considered to be an essential element of an
Q2297. When the office of the Chief Justice of offence?
India is vacant or when the Chief Justice is by (A) Srinivasmal Barolia V/s Emperor
reason of absence or otherwise unable to (B) R. V/s Tolson
perform the duties of his office, the duties of his (C) Nathulal V/s State of Madhya Pradesh
office shall be performed by— (D) In all of the above
(A) Any judge of the Supreme Court appointed by ANS: (D)
the Chief Justice of India
(B) Any judge of the Supreme Court appointed by Q2304. The grounds for punishing Prince in R.
the President of India V/s Prince was—
(C) Any seniormost judge of the Supreme Court (A) Prohibited act done by Prince
after the Chief Justice (B) Illegal act done by Prince
(D) Any one of the above (C) Knowingly committing of civil wrong by Prince
ANS: (B) (D) Illegal and prohibited act done by Prince
ANS: (D)
Q2298. Legal sovereignty in India resides in the
Constitution itself and not in ‗we the people of Q2305. Who amongst the following has observed
India‘. This ideology was expressed in— that under the Indian Penal Code such a maxim
(A) Lucknow Development Authority V/s A.K. ‗Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea‘ is
Gupta case wholly out of place?
(B) Sankari Prasad case (A) J.D. Mayne, Criminal Law of India
(C) Golak Nath case (B) H.S. Gour, Penal Law of India
(D) Keswanand Bharti's case (C) Ratan Lal Dheeraj Lal, Law of Crimes
ANS: (D) (D) All of the above
ANS: (D)
Q2299. In which of the following cases the
Supreme Court observed that labour taken from Q2306. Which one of the following preparation
prisoners without paying proper remunerations is not an offence?
comes within forced labour? (A) Preparation for robbery of a Bank
(A) Deena V/s Union of India (B) Preparation of dacoity in a Bank
(B) Menka Gandhi V/s Union of India (C) To make die for counterfeiting coins
(C) Sanjit Roy V/s State of Rajasthan (D) To make die for counterfeiting Indian coins
(D) All of the above ANS: (A)
ANS: (A)
Q2307. For abduction the abducted person
Q2300. Under which of the following Articles should be—
the President of India has a right to suspend the (A) Below 16 years of age
implementation of fundamental rights during (B) Below 18 years of age
proclamation of emergency? (C) Insane person
(A) Article 359 (D) Of any age
(B) Article 360 ANS: (D)
(C) Article 354

Q2308. A does sexual intercourse with a widow
below 16 years of age with her consent—
(A) A has not committed rape
(B) A has committed adultery
(C) A has committed rape with B
(D) Nothing above is correct
ANS: (C)
Q2309. A male teacher during examination,
while conducting search, put his hands in the
pocket of the pant of a girl candidate thinking
her to be a boy. Here the teacher, under the
Penal Code, has committed the offence under
Section—
(A) 354
(B) 323
(C) 509
(D) No offence
ANS: (D)
Q2310. The case of Bachan Singh V/s State of
Punjab is concerned with—
(A) Capital punishment in India
(B) Custody of under trial prisoners
(C) Prosecution for attempted suicide
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
Q2311. In which of the following cases the Privy
Council made a distinction between ‗common
intention‘ and ‗similar intention‘?
(A) Barendra Kumar Ghosh V/s Emperor
(B) Mahboob Shah V/s King Emperor
(C) Srinivasmal Barolia V/s Emperor
(D) Bannu Mal V/s Emperor
ANS: (B)
Q2312. In connection with the right of a private
defence of body give the correct response—
(A) This right is not available against an unsound
person
(B) This right is not available against a person
below 7 years of age
(C) This right is available against any person
(D) This right is not available against parents
ANS: (C)
Q2313. A and B both are of 16 years of age. A
entices B for marriage and takes her to another
city. What offence has been committed by A?
(A) A has committed kidnapping
(B) A has committed no offence as B has gone with
her own consent
(C) A has committed abduction
(D) A is himself minor. Hence A has committed no
offence
ANS: (A)
Q2314. A abets B to commit a theft from the
house of C.B finding an opportunity picks C's
pocket while C was travelling by a bus. Give the
correct answer—
(A) A is responsible for abetment of theft
MockTime.com
(B) A is not responsible for abetment of picking of
pocket
(C) A is not responsible for abetment of committing
theft because theft has not been committed from
the house
(D) All the above are correct
ANS: (A)
Q2315. Which one of the following statements is
not correct?
(A) In every robbery there are at least two persons
(B) In every robbery there is a fear of violence
(C) In every robbery there is either theft or extortion
(D) In every Dacoity there is robbery
ANS: (A)
Q2316. Which one of the following cases does
not relate to intoxication?
(A) D.P.P. V/s Beard
(B) Basudeo V/s State of Pepsu
(C) R. V/s Mcnaughten
(D) R. V/s Tandy
ANS: (C)
Q2317. A snake-charmer while showing his play
claims to cure the snake bite. The deceased got
himself a snake bite believing on assurance of
the snake-charmer. The snakecharmer could not
cure the deceased. The snake-charmer is liable
for—
(A) Murder
(B) Cheating
(C) May be liable for culpable homicide
(D) Liable for nothing
ANS: (A)
Q2318. Which one of the following is not
correct?
(A) For theft property must be movable
(B) For theft property must be removed out of the
possession of the owner of property
(C) For theft property should have been removed for
taking it away
(D) For theft property should be removed
dishonestly
ANS: (B)
Q2319. A meets B on high roads, shows a pistol
and demands B's purse. B in consequence,
surrenders his purse. Here A has committed—
(A) Theft
(B) Extortion
(C) Robbery
(D) Dacoity
ANS: (C)
Q2320. Six persons are prosecuted for dacoity.
The court released two of them for benefit of
doubt of their identity. The rest four—
(A) Can be convicted for dacoity
(B) Cannot be convicted for dacoity
(C) Can be convicted for robbery because their
number falls short of five
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(D) None of the above is correct has power to release the offender on security for
ANS: (A) keeping the peace and for good behaviour?
(A) Sessions Court
Q2321. Which one of the following is not (B) Magistrate Ist Class
essential for the offence of affray? (C) Appellate or Revisional Court
(A) Number of persons is two or more than two (D) All of the above
(B) Persons are members of unlawful assembly ANS: (D)
(C) Fighting is at public place
(D) Public peace is disturbed Q2328. Now under Section 125 of Criminal
ANS: (B) Procedure Code what payments permonth can
be ordered for maintenance?
Q2322. Mark the correct answer— The (A) 50% on the basis of salary of the person
conditional order passed by a Magistrate under (B) Upto Rs. 500
Section 133 of the Criminal Procedure Code (C) Upto Rs. 3,000
cannot be challenged in civil court. This (D) As the Magistrate deems necessary in the
statement is— circumstances
(A) Wrong ANS: (D)
(B) Correct
(C) Partly wrong Q2329. Which of the following cannot claim
(D) Partly correct maintenance under Section 125 of the Criminal
ANS: (B) Procedure Code?
(A) Wife who cannot maintain herself
Q2323. A was travelling from Bhopal to Jabalpur (B) Mother or father who cannot maintain herself or
by Rajkot-Jabalpur Express Train. At Itarsi A himself
caused grievous hurt toB who was the resident (C) Major married daughter who cannot maintain
of Jabalpur. Where will the case be tried? herself
(A) At Bhopal fromwhere A started his journey (D) Minor illegitimate daughter who cannot
(B) At Jabalpur ofwhere B was the resident maintain herself
(C) At Itarsi where A caused grievous hurt to B ANS: (C)
(D) At the place where M.P. High Court decides
ANS: (C) Q2330. For invoking Section 133 of Cr.P.C.
where should not be the inconvenience or
Q2324. Which of the following Court can try a invasion on—
murder case? (A) Public rights
(A) Magistrate 1st Class (B) Public place
(B) Chief Judicial Magistrate (C) Private place or private persons
(C) Additional Sessions Judge (D) All of the above
(D) Any of these Courts ANS: (D)
ANS: (C)
Q2331. Under Section 29 of the Criminal
Q2325. Warrant case relates to an offence Procedure Code the second class Magistrate can
punishable with— pass sentence upto—
(A) More than one year imprisonment (A) 1 year
(B) More than three years imprisonment (B) 2 years
(C) Death penalty, life imprisonment or (C) 3 years
imprisonment more than two years (D) All of these
(D) More than five years imprisonment ANS: (A)
ANS: (C)
Q2332. Which one of the following offences
Q2326. Under Section 145 of the Cr. P.C. in cannot be summarily tried?
connection with a dispute on immovable (A) Grievous hurt
property, the executive magistrate prior to (B) Theft when the value of stolen property is below
passing his orders as regards to possession over Rs. 2000
such property which one of the following (C) Offences relating to Sections 454 and 456 of the
periods he takes into consideration? Indian Penal Code
(A) One month (D) Offence of abetment of the offences enumerated
(B) Two months under Section 260(vii) of the Criminal Procedure
(C) Four months Code
(D) Six months ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q2333. Under Chapter XXI of Criminal
Q2327. Under Section 106 of the Criminal Procedure Code while adopting summary trial
Procedure Code which of the following courts
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maximum punishment cannot be passed more Q2340. How are the summons served?
than— (A) By a police officer
(A) Two months (B) By an officer of the court
(B) Three months (C) By any authorised public servant
(C) Four months (D) By any of the above
(D) One month ANS: (D)
ANS: (B)
Q2341. To set aside the forfeiture under Section
Q2334. Under Section 198 of the Criminal 95 of the Criminal Procedure Code, application
Procedure Code the court can take cognizance may be given to the—
of any offence laid down under Section 497 and (A) Sessions Court
498 of the Indian Penal Code on the complaint (B) High Court
of— (C) Supreme Court
(A) Husband of the woman (D) Any of these
(B) Father of the woman ANS: (B)
(C) Mother of the woman
(D) Any of these Q2342. Which one of the following is a fact?
ANS: (A) (A) Hari said
(B) Mohan saw
Q2335. Which one of the following proceedings (C) Ram told a lie
is known as judicial proceeding? (D) All of these
(A) Investigation ANS: (D)
(B) Enquiry and Investigation
(C) Enquiry and Trial Q2343. To what facts of the following the rules
(D) Trial and Investigation of relevancy have been discussed under Section
ANS: (C) 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?
(A) Motive
Q2336. Under Criminal Procedure Code to what (B) Preparation
maximum period an accused can be ordered to (C) Previous or subsequent conduct
be kept in polic custody by the Magistrate? (D) All of the above
(A) Three days ANS: (D)
(B) Seven days
(C) Ten days Q2344. The facts showing the existence of any
(D) Fifteen days state of mind under Section 14 of the Indian
ANS: (D) Evidence Act relate to—
(A) Intention
Q2337. Who is authorised for removal of public (B) Knowledge
nuisance? (C) Good faith
(A) Judicial Magistrate Ist Class (D) All of these
(B) Judicial Magistrate IInd Class ANS: (D)
(C) Executive Magistrate
(D) Sessions Judge Q2345. Who can take identification parade?
ANS: (C) (A) Police officer
(B) Magistrate
Q2338. Which of the following Magistrates can (C) Any citizen
order the habitual offenders of robbery or house (D) Any of these
breaking to execute a bond with or without ANS: (B)
sureties?
(A) Judicial Magistrate IInd Class Q2346. The question is, whether A committed
(B) Judicial Magistrate Ist Class murder of a person on a particular day at
(C) Executive Magistrate Kolkata, the fact that on that day A was at
(D) Any of these Lahore—
ANS: (C) (A) Is relevant
(B) Is irrelevant
Q2339. Under which of the following Sections of (C) Is not relevant
Criminal Procedure Code police can arrest an (D) None of these
accused without warrant? ANS: (A)
(A) Section 37
(B) Section 40 Q2347. The question is, whether a particular
(C) Section 42 letter reached A. The fact that it was posted in
(D) Section 41 due course and was not returned through the
ANS: (D) dead letter office—
(A) Are not relevant
 MockTime.com
(B) Are irrelevant Q2355. Under which of the following Sections of
(C) Are relevant the Indian Evidence Act, the evidence of a dumb
(D) None of these witness is taken into consideration?
ANS: (C) (A) Section 116
(B) Section 117
Q2348. Under which Section of the Indian (C) Section 118
Evidence Act, the confession before the (D) Section 119
Magistrate is relevant? ANS: (D)
(A) Section 24
(B) Section 25 Q2356. When can leading questions be asked?
(C) Section 26 (A) In cross-examination
(D) Section 27 (B) In examination in chief with the permission of
ANS: (C) the court
(C) In re-examination with the permission of the
Q2349. Confession before the police— court
(A) Will be proved (D) In all the above situations
(B) Will not be proved ANS: (D)
(C) Will be considered confession
(D) Will not be considered confession Q2357. Give the correct answer— ―All the
ANS: (B) admissions are confessions but all the
confessions are not admissions.‖
Q2350. Under which Section of the Indian (A) The statement is correct
Evidence Act, the expert opinion is relevant? (B) The statement is incorrect
(A) Section 44 (C) The statement is partly correct and partly
(B) Section 45 incorrect
(C) Section 46 (D) All the above statements are incorrect
(D) Section 41 ANS: (B)
ANS: (B)
Q2358. Mark the correct statement—
Q2351. In criminal proceedings the fact that (A) The doctrine of estoppel is applied only in civil
the accused person has a bad character is— matters
(A) Irrelevant (B) The doctrine of estoppel is applied only in
(B) Relevant criminal matters
(C) Above (A) is right unless evidence has been (C) The doctrine of estoppel is applied in civil and
given that he has a good character criminal matters
(D) All the above are incorrect (D) All the above statements are wrong
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q2352. Public document under Indian Evidence Q2359. Under which of the following Sections of
Act can be proved by— the Indian Evidence Act the previous
(A) Certified copy judgements are relevant to bar a second suit or
(B) Oral evidence trial?
(C) The writer of certified copy (A) Section 39
(D) Any of the above (B) Section 40
ANS: (A) (C) Section 11
(D) Section 42
Q2353. When is it not necessary to call the ANS: (B)
certifying writer of the document to prove the
document? Q2360. Under which of the following Sections of
(A) When the document is not a will the Indian Evidence Act the contents of
(B) When the document is 30 years old electronic records may be proved?
(C) A and B (A) Section 65-A
(A) and B are wrong (B) Section 65-B
ANS: (C) (C) Section 66
(D) Section 67
Q2354. On whom does the burden of proof lie? ANS: (B)
(A) On prosecution
(B) On accused Q2361. Under which of the following Sections of
(C) On both the Indian Evidence Act opinion as to digital
(D) On the discretion of the court signature is relevant?
ANS: (A) (A) Section 34
(B) Section 39
(C) Section 47-A
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(D) Section 85-A Atrocities) Act, 1989, A has committed an
ANS: (C) offence?
(A) Section 3
Q2362. Which one of the following statements (B) Section 4
in relation to the scope of the Arms Act, 1959 is (C) Section 5
correct? (D) None of these
(A) It extends to the whole of India ANS: (D)
(B) It extends to the whole of India except Jammu
and Kashmir Q2368. Who does constitute the special court
(C) It extends to all union territories under Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(D) It extends to the state of M.P. only (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
ANS: (A) (A) Through notification by Central Government
(B) By Central Government with consultation of
Q2363. Give the correct answer— Where the Chief Justice of India
licensing authority prior to grant of licence to (C) By State Government with the consultation of
any person under the Arms Act, calls for a the Chief Justice of the State High Court
report about the person from the concerned (D) By giving special status to Sessions Court by
police station but the police station did not the Governor
send the police report in the prescribed time. ANS: (C)
Then—
(A) The order of licence will be cancelled Q2369. For the execution of the provisions of
(B) Report will be again asked to be sent the S.C. and S.T. (Prevention of Atrocities) Act,
(C) After the prescribed time licence may be given 1989 through the notification of the Official
without report of the police Gazette u/s 23 of the Act rules can be made
(D) Licence without report will not be valid by—
ANS: (C) (A) Central Government
(B) State Government
Q2364. Under which Section of the Arms Act, (C) Supreme Court
the provisions of appeal against the licensing (D) All of these
authority have been given? ANS: (A)
(A) Section 16
(B) Section 18 Q2370. Power to add or delete any substance in
(C) Section 20 the list of psychotropic substances lies with
(D) Section 21 the—
ANS: (B) (A) State Government
(B) Central Government
Q2365. Mark the wrong statement— (C) Central and State Government both
(A) There is no provision of appeal against the order (D) High Court
of the licensing authority ANS: (B)
(B) Appeal may be filed against the orders of the
licensing authority Q2371. What is the nature of offences under the
(C) Appeal against the orders of the licensing Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances
authority can be filed within the time limit Act, 1985?
prescribed under Limitation Act (A) Cognizable
(D) Duration of appeal after lapse of prescribed time (B) Non-cognizable
can be extended for legal reasons (C) Partly cognizable, partly non-cognizable
ANS: (A) (D) As are in Cr. P.C.
ANS: (A)
Q2366. Give the correct answer— Can any
person possess any weapon after the lapse of Q2372. Offence committed under which of the
licence period? following Sections of the N.D.P.S. Act, 1985
(A) He can have possession for sixty days cannot be tried summarily?
(B) He can have possession for ninety days (A) Section 26
(C) If he keeps weapon it is an offence (B) Section 27
(D) All the above statements are wrong (C) Section 32
ANS: (C) (D) Section 18
ANS: (D)
Q2367. A, a person of scheduled caste attacks
on B, a woman of scheduled tribe with the
intention of her molestation. Under which one
of the following Sections of the Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
 MockTime.com
Q2373. What qualifications are required for a (C) Section 9
judge of a special court under the N.D.P.S. Act, (D) Section 9-A
1985? ANS: (B)
(A) At least 7 years experience of advocacy
(B) At least 5 years experience of being judicial Q2380. Which authority has right to prohibit
magistrate the import, export or transportation of narcotic
(C) Sessions judge drugs under Section 8 of M.P. Excise Act, 1915?
(D) None of the above (A) State Government
ANS: (C) (B) Commissioner Excise
(C) Excise Officer
Q2374. Under which Section of the N.D.P.S. Act, (D) Revenue Officer
1985 any import in India or export from India is ANS: (A)
punishable?
(A) Section 21 Q2381. If any constituent of the article has
(B) Section 22 been wholly or in part abstracted so as to affect
(C) Section 23 injuriously the nature, substance or quality
(D) Section 18 thereof, that substance under the Prevention of
ANS: (C) Food Adulteration Act, 1954 is known as—
(A) Imitated article
Q2375. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, (B) Adulterated article
1955, the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 does (C) Polluted article
not apply to persons above the age of— (D) Any of these
(A) 18 years ANS: (B)
(B) 16 years
(C) 15 years Q2382. Under the Prevention of Food
(D) 14 years Adulteration Act, 1954 which of the following
ANS: (D) u/s 21 of the Indian Penal Code will be the
public servant?
Q2376. In the context of the Protection of Civil (A) Food Inspector
Rights Act, 1955, civil right means any right (B) Public Analyst
accruing to a person by reason of the abolition (C) Director, Central Laboratory
of untouchability under the following Article of (D) Any of the above
the Constitution— ANS: (A)
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 16 Q2383. Under which one of the following
(C) Article 17 Sections of the Prevention of Food Adulteration
(D) Article 18 Act, 1954 convicted person's article of food in
ANS: (C) respect of which contravention is committed, is
forfeited to the Government?
Q2377. Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, (A) Section 15
1955 the provision for punishment for enforcing (B) Section 16
religious disabilities is given in which of the (C) Section 17
following Sections? (D) Section 18
(A) Section 5 ANS: (D)
(B) Section 4
(C) Section 3 Q2384. Under Section 22 of the Prevention of
(D) Section 2 Food Adulteration Act, 1954 the defence of
ANS: (C) Good faith is available in—
(A) Civil cases only
Q2378. Which of the following authorities can (B) Criminal cases only
be an excise officer within the M.P. Excise Act, (C) In civil, criminal or other legal proceedings
1915? (D) In none of the above
(A) Collector ANS: (C)
(B) Any officer appointed u/s 7 of this Act
(C) Revenue officer Q2385. The place to which the public are
(D) Any one of the above admitted and in which an entertainment is
ANS: (B) provided or held is called—
(A) Hotel
Q2379. Which of the following Sections of the (B) Motel
M.P. Excise Act, 1915 deals with the (C) Entertainment house
establishment of Flying Squades? (D) Place of public entertainment
(A) Section 7 ANS: (D)
(B) Section 7-A
 MockTime.com
Q2386. Which of the following authority is ANS: (B)
empowered to impose collective fine on the
inhabitants of an area concerned under Section Q2392. Point out incorrect response— The
10-A of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, period of limitation for taking cognizance of an
1955? offence shall be—
(A) Central Government (A) Six months if offence is punishable with fine
(B) State Government only
(C) High Court (B) One year, if the offence is punishable with
(D) Judicial Magistrate Ist Class imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year
ANS: (B) (C) Three years, if the offence is punishable with
imprisonment for a term exceeding one year but not
Q2387. Application for anticipatory bail may be exceeding three years
made before— (D) Five years, if the offence is punishable with
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate death sentence
(B) High Court ANS: (D)
(C) Sessions Court
(D) Both (B) and (C) Q2393. In which case has the Supreme Court
ANS: (D) held that Section 125 Cr.P.C. was applicable to
all irrespective of their religion?
Q2388. Point out the incorrect statement— (A) Mohd. Umar Khan V/s Gulshan Begum
(A) In cognizable offence any police officer may (B) Mohd. Ahmed Khan V/s Shah Bano Begum
without an order from a Magistrate and without a (C) Mst. Zohara Khatoon V/s Mohd. Ibrahim
warrant arrest any person (D) Noor Saba Khatoon V/s Mohd. Quasim
(B) A private person may arrest or cause to be ANS: (B)
arrested any person committing a cognizable
offence Q2394. Which of the following offences is not
(C) An Executive Magistrate may arrest the offender compoundable?
when any offence is committed in his presence and (A) Offence u/s. 323 I.P.C.
within his jurisdiction (B) Offence u/s. 334 I.P.C.
(D) None of the above is correct (C) Offence u/s. 448 I.P.C.
ANS: (B) (D) Offence u/s. 307 I.P.C.
ANS: (D)
Q2389. The power of the Supreme Court to
transfer cases and appeals from one High Court Q2395. Match list-I with list-II and select the
to another High Court can be exercised on an correct answer using the code given below—
application by which one of the following? List-I
(A) Registrar of the High Court concerned (a) Security for keeping peace on conviction
(B) Attorney General of India (b) Security for good behaviour from suspected
(C) Chairperson of the Bar Council of India persons
(D) Solicitor-General of India (c) Security for good behaviour from habitual
ANS: (B) offenders
(d) Security of keeping peace in other cases
Q2390. Which section of the Cr.P.C. provides for List-II
confirmation by the High Court of an order of 1. Section 110 Cr.P.C.
death sentence passed by the Sessions Court 2. Section 107 Cr.P.C.
prior to its execution? 3. Section 109 Cr.P.C.
(A) Section 366 4. Section 106 Cr.P.C. Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) Section 368 (A) 2 3 1 4
(C) Section 369 (B) 4 3 1 2
(D) Section 371 (C) 1 2 3 4
ANS: (A) (D) 4 1 2 3
ANS: (B)
Q2391. Which one of the following statements is
wrong? If a person forcibly resists the Q2396. Which section of the Criminal Procedure
endeavour to arrest him, the Police Officer Code provides that the Public Prosecutor in
may— charge of a case may, with the consent of the
(A) Use all the means necessary to effect the arrest court at any time before the judgment is
(B) Cause the death of such person irrespective of pronounced, withdraw from the prosecution of
the offence he has committed any person in respect of any offence for which
(C) Cause the death of such person accused of he is tried?
murder (A) Section 304
(D) Cause the death of such person accused of (B) Section 306
culpable homicide not amounting to murder (C) Section 321
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(D) Section 313 (D) Cross examination
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q2397. Which one of the following sections of Q2404. ‗A‘ commits a crime and goes to Police
the Indian Evidence Act has been substituted Officer. He makes confession and gives other
for the old section by the Information information. ‗A‘ is charged with the offence. The
Technology Act, 2000? confession—
(A) Section 39 (A) Cannot be proved against him because of
(B) Section 22 Section 25 of the Evidence Act.
(C) Section 47 (B) Can be proved against him because of Section
(D) Section 65 27 of the Evidence Act.
ANS: (A) (C) Can be proved against him because of Section
25 of the Evidence Act.
Q2398. Which one of the following is not (D) Cannot be proved against him being voluntary
included in the expression ‗Court‘ under the ANS: (A)
Indian Evidence Act?
(A) All judges Q2405. Which of the following statements is
(B) All persons legally authorized to take evidence incorrect regarding dumb witnesses?
(C) All Magistrates (A) A dumb witness may give his evidence by
(D) Arbitrator writing in open court
ANS: (D) (B) A dumb witness may give his evidence by signs
in open court
Q2399. The case of Sanwal Das V/s State of (C) Evidence given by a dumb witness in writing
Bihar is related to— before the court shall be deemed to be documentary
(A) Plea of Alibi evidence
(B) Rule of Res gestae (D) A dumb witness may give evidence in any
(C) Rule of Estoppel manner which can make it intelligible
(D) Rule of Res judicata ANS: (C)
ANS: (B)
Q2406. In a Trial of murder of ‗B‘ by ‗A‘, which
Q2400. Which Section of the Indian Evidence fact is not relevant?
Act makes the provision that there shall be no (A) ‗A‘ was absconding immediately after the
new trial on the ground of improper admission murder of ‗B‘
or rejection of evidence? (B) ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ were seen together before murder
(A) Section 166 (C) ‗A‘ had borrowed Rs. 50,000 from B.
(B) Section 165 (D) ‗A‘ was in Bombay on that day while murder of
(C) Section 167 ‗B‘ was committed in Chennai
(D) Section 161 ANS: (C)
ANS: (C)
Q2407. Any question suggesting the answer
Q2401. A confession by an accused can be used which the person putting it wishes or expects to
against a co-accused under Section 30 of receive is called—
Evidence Act— (A) Indecent question
(A) As hearsay evidence (B) Scandalous question
(B) Only as corroborative evidence (C) Question intended to annoy
(C) As substantive evidence (D) Leading question
(D) None of the above ANS: (D)
ANS: (C)
Q2408. Which of the following combinations are
Q2402. Under Section 57(1) of the Indian not correctly matched?
Evidence Act, the Court shall take judicial 1. Voluntary and direct acknowledgement of
notice of— guilt — Admission
(A) All laws in force in India 2. Self-exculpatory confession of accused- —
(B) All laws including foreign laws cannot be used against co-accusedwhen
(C) All Indian and Asian laws confessing accused is not on trial
(D) All Indian and British laws upto 1950 3. Extra judicial confession — Corroboration is
ANS: (A) must
4. Evidence of ained police officer in andling
Q2403. The case of Pakala Narain Swamy V/s guns — can be taken as expert opinion Select
Emperor relates to— the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) Doctrine of estoppel Code:
(B) Accomplice (A) 1 and 2
(C) Dying declaration (B) 1 and 3

(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
ANS: (B)
Q2409. Under Proviso of Section 146(3) of the
Evidence Act, in a prosecution for rape in her
cross-examination, the prosecutrix—
(A) Can be put questions as to her general immoral
character
(B) With the permission of the Court can be put
questions as to her general immoral character
(C) Cannot be put questions as to her general
immoral character
(D) Cannot be put questions as to her rape
ANS: (C)
Q2410. Which one of the following is a correct
statement relating to cross examination?
(A) Witnesses to character may be crossexamined
(B) Leading questions cannot be asked in cross-
examination
(C) A person summoned to produce a document
can be cross-examined
(D) A witness may not be cross-examined as to
previous statements made by him in writing
ANS: (A)
Q2411. Burden of introducing evidence under
Section 102 of the Evidence Act—
(A) Shifts at times
(B) Never shifts
(C) Constantlyshifts
(D) None of these
ANS: (C)
Q2412. Civil Procedure Code (U.P. Amendment)
Ordinance, 2003 relates to—
(A) Section 105 C.P.C.
(B) Section 103 C.P.C.
(C) Section 115 C.P.C.
(D) Section 100 C.P.C.
ANS: (C)
Q2413. Which one of the following is not a rule
of pleading?
(A) Plead the fact and not the law
(B) State the law and plead the facts
(C) Plead material facts only
(D) Plead facts not evidence
ANS: (B)
Q2414. Which one of the following combinations
are not correctly matched?
1. Res subjudice — Section 11
2. Res judicata — Section 10
3. Judgement and decree — Section 33
4. Summon to witness — Section 80 Select
correct answer by using code given Code:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
ANS: (B)
MockTime.com
Q2415. Which one of the following cases is
related to the principle of Resjudicata?
(A) Satyacharan V/s Devrajan
(B) M.S. Cooperative Marketing Federation Ltd. V/s
Indian Bank Bombay
(C) P.C. Jairath V/s Amrit Jairath
(D) All the above
ANS: (A)
Q2416. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of
courts are uncertain, the place of institution of
suit shall be decided according to—
(A) Section 17 of C.P.C.
(B) Section 18 of C.P.C.
(C) Section 19 of C.P.C.
(D) Section 20 of C.P.C.
ANS: (B)
Q2417. All civil courts have jurisdiction to try—
(A) All suits of a civil nature
(B) All suits of civil nature except suits of which
their cognizance is expressly not barred
(C) All suits of civil nature except suits of which
their cognizance is impliedly not barred
(D) All suits of civil nature except suits the
cognizance of which is expressly or impliedly barred
ANS: (D)
Q2418. In which one of the following cases it
was held that ―Inherent power has not been
conferred on a court, it is a power inherent in a
court‖?
(A) Manoharlal V/s Seth Hiralal
(B) Cotton Corporation of India V/s United
Industrial Bank
(C) Satyabrath Biswas V/s Kalyan Kumar Kisku
(D) Rajani Bai V/s Kamla Devi
ANS: (A)
Q2419. ―No appeal shall lie from a decree passed
by the court with the consent of the parties.‖ It
is provided in—
(A) Section 96(1) C.P.C.
(B) Section 96(2) C.P.C.
(C) Section 96(3) C.P.C.
(D) Section 96(4) C.P.C.
ANS: (C)
Q2420. Under Order 8 Rule 6 C.P.C. set-off may
be permitted if—
(A) The suit is for recovery of property
(B) Set-off claimed by the defendant is ascertained
sum of money
(C) Value of property recoverable is less than
rupees two lacs
(D) Defendant presents a written statement of
accounts at any stage of hearing of the suit
ANS: (B)
Q2421. Which of the following combinations are
correctly matched?
1. Temporary injunction — Order 39 C.P.C.
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2. Suit by indigent person — Order 33 C.P.C. Q2427. Who categorised the subject of
3. Powers of Appellate Court — Section 102 Jurisprudence as Expositorial Jurisprudence
C.P.C. and censorial Jurisprudence?
4. Right to file caveat — Section 148 A.C.P.C. (A) Holland
Select correct answer using the code given (B) Bentham
below— Code: (C) Kelsen
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (D) Paton
(B) 1, 2 and 3 ANS: (B)
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4 Q2428. Who described Jurisprudence as
ANS: (A) Lawyer's extroversion?
(A) Savigny
Q2422. Point out incorrect answer— A decree (B) Salmond
passed by a civil court can be executed by— (C) Julius Stone
(A) The court which passed that decree (D) Buckland
(B) The court to which the decree is transferred for ANS: (C)
execution by the court passing the decree
(C) Any court having jurisdiction concurrent to the Q2429. About the positive approach of law who
court that passed the decree said, ―This is a confluence of command,
(D) Either by court A or B sanction and sovereignty‖?
ANS: (C) (A) Hart
(B) Holland
Q2423. A civil court cannot issue commission in (C) Austin
the following case— (D) Kelsen
(A) For examining a person ANS: (A)
(B) For examining accounts
(C) To execute partition Q2430. The constitutional basis of precedent in
(D) To execute a decree India is—
ANS: (D) (A) Article 12
(B) Article 141
Q2424. Which of the following combinations are (C) Article 136
correctly matched? (D) Article 14
1. Equity of judgement debtor — Section 49 ANS: (B)
C.P.C.
2. Priviledged documents — Section 29 C.P.C. Q2431. Fiction Theory is related to which of the
3. Legal representative — Section 50 C.P.C. following concepts?
4. Pauper suit — Order 33 C.P.C. Select correct (A) Ownership
answer using the code given below— Code: (B) Liability
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (C) Justice
(B) 1, 2 and 4 (D) Legal personality
(C) 2, 3 and 4 ANS: (A)
(D) 1, 3 and 4
ANS: (D) Q2432. Which of the following Acts protects the
possession in India?
Q2425. Which section of Civil Procedure Code (A) Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
prohibits arrest or detention of women in the (B) Specific Relief Act, 1963
execution of a decree for money? (C) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Section 55 (D) None of these
(B) Section 56 ANS: (C)
(C) Section 59
(D) Section 60 Q2433. Which Theory is not connected with the
ANS: (B) concept of property?
(A) The Natural law theory
Q2426. Section 114 of C.P.C. should be read (B) The labour theory
with— (C) Psychological theory
(A) Order 46, Rule 1 (D) Realist theory
(B) Order 47, Rule 1 ANS: (D)
(C) Order 47, Rule 3
(D) Order 41 Q2434. In the dark age, natural law was given a
ANS: (B) new interpretation by—
(A) St. Augustine
(B) Thomas Acquinas
(C) Paul
 MockTime.com
(D) Ulpion (D) Immanuel Kant
ANS: (A) ANS: (A)

Q2435. Who has rejected the concept of Right Q2441. National character of law was introduced
as, ―Immoral and against the interest of the in jurisprudence by—
society‖? (A) Karl Marx
(A) Laski (B) Savigny
(B) Edward Jenks (C) Montesquieu
(C) Buckland (D) Hans Kelsen
(D) Duguit ANS: (B)
ANS: (D)
Q2442. Possession through an agent or servant
Q2436. Frederick Karl Von Savigny has is an example of—
observed that— (A) Immediate possession
1. Custom precedes legislation (B) Incorporeal possession
2. Legislation must conform customary (C) Mediate possession
practices (D) Corporeal possession
3. Custom is not important than legislation ANS: (C)
4. Custom is superior to legislation Select the
correct answer using the code given below— Q2443. The main purpose of the corporation
Code: sole is to—
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (A) Make the property easily inheritable
(B) 1, 3 and 4 (B) Make the property easily transferable
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (C) Maintain continuity of an office
(D) 1, 2 and 3 (D) Protect the property of the State
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q2437. Kelsen's theory of law is called pure
theory because Kelsen—
(A) Purely discussed jurisprudence only
(B) Defined law in accordance with morality and
purity
(C) Separated law from religion, ethics, sociology
and history
(D) Discussed law purely in terms of justice
ANS: (C)
Q2444. In which of the following cases the
Supreme Court held that secularism is the basic
structure of the Constitution?
(A) S. P. Mittla V/s Union of India
(B) Sri Jagannath Temple Puri Management
Committee V/s Chintamani Khuntia
(C) Aruna Roy V/s Union of India
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)

Q2438. The law declared by the Supreme Court
is binding on all courts within the territory of
India but the Supreme Court is not bound by its
own decisions was held by the Supreme Court
itself in—
(A) Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. V/s State of Bihar
(B) Keshavanand Bharti V/s State of Kerala
(C) Indira Nehru Gandhi V/s Raj Narain
(D) Madhav Rao Scindia V/s Union of India
ANS: (A)
Q2439. Who has made a distinction between
‗Law Properly So-called‘ and ‗Law Improperly
Socalled‘?
(A) Jeremy Bentham
(B) G.W. Paton
(C) John Austin
(D) Oliver Wendell Holmes
ANS: (A)
Q2440. Analytical, Historical and Ethical
jurisprudence are three different parts of
Jurisprudence according to—
(A) Salmond
(B) Ihering
(C) H.L.A. Hart
Q2445. In which of the following case it was
ruled that the Government servant has no right
to go on strike?
(A) T.K. Rangrajan, V/s State of Tamilandu
(B) Javed V/s State of Haryana
(C) Shyam Narain Chouksey V/s Union of India
(D) Cehat V/s Union of India
ANS: (A)
Q2446. Which of the following are included in
the list of fundamental duties in the
Constitution?
1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its
ideals and institutions
2. To safeguard public property and to abjure
violence
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity
and integrity of India
4. To uphold and protect secularism Select the
correct answer using the code given below—
Code:
(A) 1, 3, 4
(B) 1, 2, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3
ANS: (D)
 MockTime.com
(D) Review jurisdiction
Q2447. A law which disqualifies a person with ANS: (B)
more than two children from holding the post of
Panch/Sarpanch is valid and not violative of Q2453. Parliament has power to legislate with
Article 14 of the Constitution. In which of the respect to a matter in the State list provided it
following recent case the Supreme Court gave is in the—
such decision? (A) National interest
(A) P.U.C.L. V/s Union of India (B) Interest of the minority
(B) Javed V/s State of Haryana (C) Interest of the public
(C) Indira Jaysing V/s Registrar General (D) Interest of the State concerned
(D) Mohd. Aslam V/s Union of India ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q2454. The Constitutional Authority vested
Q2448. Match list-I with list-II and select with power of declaring castes or Tribes as
correct answer using the code given below the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes is the—
lists— List-I (Right) (A) Parliament
(a) Freedom of assembly (B) Chairman SC/ST Commission
(b) Freedom of profession, trade and occupation (C) President of India
(c) Freedom of speech (D) Home Minister
(d) Freedom of association ANS: (C)
List-II (Restriction)
1. Article 19(2) Q2455. What is imperative to show the requisite
2. Article 19(4) respect to the National Anthem?
3. Article 19(3) (A) Sing and stand respectfully
4. Article 19(6) Code: (a) (b) (c) (d) (B) Stand respectfully
(A) 3 4 1 2 (C) Sing the same
(B) 1 3 2 4 (D) To bow
(C) 3 2 1 4 ANS: (B)
(D) 2 4 1 3
ANS: (A) Q2456. Under the Constitution of India, which
one of the following is not a specific ground on
Q2449. ―What cannot be done directly cannot which the State can place restrictions on
be done indirectly.‖ This statement relates to freedom of religion?
the doctrine of— (A) Public order
(A) Anciliary power (B) Social justice
(B) Pith and substance (C) Health
(C) Colourable legislation (D) Morality
(D) Implied power ANS: (B)
ANS: (C)
Q2457. The proclamation of Emergency under
Q2450. Who was the Chairman of ―National Article 352, when Lok Sabha stands dissolved,
Commission to review the working of the has to be approved by—
Constitution‖? (A) Rajya Sabha and then it will continue till the
(A) Hon'ble Justice J.S. Verma reconstitution of New Lok Sabha which must
(B) Hon'ble Justice O.P. Chinappa Reddy approve it within thirty days of its first sitting
(C) Hon'bel Justice R.S. Sarkaria (B) Rajya Sabha only
(D) Hon'ble Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah (C) Lok Sabha in the next session after six months
ANS: (D) (D) New Lok Sabha within six months of its
constitution
Q2451. Who among the following holds his ANS: (A)
office at the pleasure of the President?
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha Q2458. Money Bill can be introduced—
(B) Attorney General of India (A) In either House of Parliament
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (B) Only in Lok Sabha
(D) Chairman of the Union Public Service (C) Only in Rajya Sabha
Commission (D) None of the above
ANS: (B) ANS: (B)

Q2452. Disputes between States in India come
to the Supreme Court under—
(A) Appellate jurisdiction
(B) Original jurisdiction
(C) Advisory jurisdiction
Q2459. Which is not a qualification to become a
High Court Judge?
(A) He should be a citizen of India
(B) He has at least ten years of experience as an
advocate of High Court
 MockTime.com
(C) He has completed the age of 35 years (B) Sections 30 and 31
(D) He has, for at least ten years, held a judicial (C) Sections 32 and 33
office in India (D) Sections 26 and 29
ANS: (C) ANS: (A)

Q2460. In which case the Supreme Court of Q2466. Fraudulent transfer is defined in—
India held that the ―Non-smokers cannot be (A) Section 19, Transfer of Property Act
compelled to be victim of air pollution‖? (B) Section 21, Transfer of Property Act
(A) M.C. Mehta V/s Union of India (C) Section 53, Transfer of Property Act
(B) Murli S. Deora V/s Union of India (D) Section 35, Transfer of Property Act
(C) Satpal Dang V/s State of Punjab ANS: (C)
(D) Sardarilal V/s State of Rajasthan
ANS: (A) Q2467. Which of the following interests is not
transferable?
Q2461. In which one of the following cases did (A) Vested interest
the Supreme Court rule that the principle of (B) Contingent interest
sovereign immunity will not apply to a (C) Spes-successions
proceeding for award of compensation for (D) Interest of lessee
violation of fundamental rights? ANS: (C)
(A) G.K. Krishnan V/s State of Tamilnadu
(B) Nalabati Behera V/s State of Orissa Q2468. For creating an interest in favour of an
(C) Kasturilal V/s State of U.P. unborn person, which of the following is
(D) State of Rajsthan V/s Vidyawati essential?
ANS: (B) (A) Creation of a prior life interest in favour of living
persons
Q2462. Which one of the following statements is (B) Unborn person must be born before the
incorrect according to the Transfer of Property termination of last prior life interest
Act? (C) Absolute interest is to be given to unborn
(A) A transfer of property is made by the act of the person
parties (D) All of the above
(B) A transfer of property is usually made by one ANS: (D)
living person to another living person
(C) A transfer of property can be made even without Q2469. ‗A‘ sells his house to ‗B‘ with a condition
writing where writing is not expressly required by that ‗B‘ cannot transfer his house to any one
law except ‗C‘. The sale is—
(D) A transfer of property can be made where (A) Valid but constitution is void
transfer will operate only after the death of the (B) Void
transferor (C) Unlawful
ANS: (D) (D) Voidable
ANS: (A)
Q2463. Which of the following is an actionable
claim? Q2470. ‗A‘ makes a gift of Rs. 50,000 to ‗B‘, A
(A) Muslim woman's claim for unpaid dower reserves right with B's consent to take back at
(B) Right to get damages under the law of torts pleasure Rs. 10,000 out of Rs. 50,000.
(C) Claim for mense profits (A) Gift is void
(D) Copyright of a book (B) Gift is valid
ANS: (A) (C) Gift is valid upto Rs. 40,000 and void as to
taking back Rs. 10,000
Q2464. An actionable claim can be transferred (D) Gift is voidable
by— ANS: (C)
(A) A registered instrument
(B) An instrument in writing signed by the Q2471. A Universal donce is liable to the
transferor creditors of the donor. The liability of the
(C) A registered instrument attested by two Universal donee is—
witnesses (A) Personal
(D) Oral agreement (B) To the extent of the value of the gifted property
ANS: (B) in his hand
(C) Based on pious obligation
Q2465. ‗Law favours vesting of and disfavours (D) Limited to a reasonable amount
divesting of interest‘ is clear from the ANS: (B)
provisions contained in the following sections of
the Transfer of Property Act. 1882—
(A) Sections 27 and 28
 MockTime.com
Q2472. ―The choosing between two rights where
there is a clear intention that both were not Q2478. Which one of the following is not
intended to be enjoyed‖, is known as— generally an essential element of crime?
(A) Doctrine of lis pendens (A) Actus reus
(B) Doctrine of election (B) Mens rea
(C) Doctrine of part performance (C) Motive
(D) Doctrine of estopped (D) Human being
ANS: (B) ANS: (C)

Q2473. In the absence of a contract or local law Q2479. Which one of the following case is not
or usage to contrary, a lease of immovable related to criminal attempt?
property for manufacturing purposes shall be (A) Abhayanand Misra V/s State of Bihar
deemed to be— (B) Sudhir Kumar Mukherjee V/s State of West
(A) For 5 years Bengal
(B) From year to year (C) State of Maharashtra V/s Mohd. Yakub
(C) From month to month (D) State of Rajasthan V/s Om Prakash
(D) For a reasonable period ANS: (D)
ANS: (B)
Q2480. The case of R V/s Dudley and Stephen is
Q2474. Which of the following is a ground for related to the defence of—
determination of a lease by forfeiture— (A) Insanity
(A) On breach of express condition (B) Intoxication
(B) On expiry of lease period (C) Mistake of fact
(C) On surrender by lessee (D) Necessity
(D) On vesting of lessors interest in the leassee ANS: (D)
ANS: (A)
Q2481. Which of the following combinations are
Q2475. Match list-I with list-II and select not correctly matched?
correct answer using the code given below the 1. SherrasV/s De Rutzen — Mens rea
lists— List-I 2. Barendra Kumar Ghosh V/s Emperor —
List-II Intoxication
(a) Holding over 1. Mortgage 3. Abhayanand MisraV/s State of Bihar — Right
(b) Universal donce 2. Gift to die
(c) Redemption 3. Lease 4. Gian Kaur V/s State of Punjab — Criminal
(d) Purchaser 4. Sale Code: (a) (b) (c) (d) attempt Select correct answer using the code
(A) 3 2 1 4 given below— Code:
(B) 2 3 4 1 (A) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 4 1 2 3 (B) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 4 3 2 (C) 1, 3 and 4
ANS: (A) (D) 1, 2 and 4
ANS: (B)
Q2476. Assertion (A): Legal incidents of a gift
include absolute enjoyment of the gift. Reason Q2482. Assertion (A): Nothing is an offence
(R): Donee cannot be restrained in his which is done by a person who, at the time of
enjoyment of gift by any condition. Code: doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct incapable of knowing the nature of the act.
explanation of (A) Reason (R): Mistake of fact is a good defence
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the and mistake of law is no defence. Code:
correct explanation of (A) (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false explanation of (A)
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
ANS: (A) correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
Q2477. Which statement is not correct about (D) (A) is false but (R) is true
mortgage? ANS: (B)
(A) It is a transfer of interest in specific immovable
property Q2483. The right of private defence of property
(B) There is a transfer of ownership in mortgage extends to causing of death when the offence
(C) Consideration is an essential element in apprehended is—
mortgage (A) Theft
(D) There are six types of mortgages in Transfer of (B) Mischief
Property Act, 1882 (C) House trespass
ANS: (B) (D) Dacoity

ANS: (D)
Q2484. Which one of the following is not an
essential element of Section 34 of Indian Penal
Code?
(A) Criminal act done by several persons
(B) Criminal act done in furtherance of a common
intention
(C) Pre-arranged plan between persons doing
criminal act
(D) Act done in furtherance of common object
ANS: (D)
Q2485. Which one of the following is not a
valuable security?
(A) A postal receipt for an insured parcel
(B) A rent note
(C) A promissory note
(D) A deed of divorce
ANS: (D)
Q2486. A, in India instigates B, a foreigner in
Pakistan to commit a murder in Pakistan. B
commits murder. In this case—
(A) A is guilty of abetting murder
(B) A is not guilty of any offence
(C) A is liable for committing murder
(D) None of the above is correct
ANS: (A)
Q2487. ‗J‘, a priest, beats a boy for curing him
from evil spirit. The boy dies ‗J‘ is—
(A) Not liable for any offence
(B) Liable for culpable homicide
(C) Entitled to the defence of good faith
(D) Liable for attempt to murder
ANS: (B)
Q2488. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of
rape is punishable under—
(A) Section-376 D, IPC
(B) Section-229, IPC
(C) Section-228, IPC
(D) Section-228A, IPC
ANS: (D)
Q2489. Use of violence by a member of an
assembly of five or more persons in furtherance
of common object will constitute—
(A) Affray
(B) Assault
(C) Rioting
(D) Unlawful assembly
ANS: (C)
Q2490. ‗A‘ having lost the receipt for debt
which he has paid to ‗B‘ makes out another
receipt himself and when ‗B‘ sues him puts up
the made-up receipt in evidence. In this case—
(A) ‗A‘ is guilty of the offence of forgery
(B) ‗A‘ is guilty of no offence
(C) ‗A‘ is guilty of cheating ‗B‘
(D) None of the above answers is correct
MockTime.com
ANS: (A)
Q2491. ‗A‘ intending to commit theft enters the
house of ‗B‘ at night and removes from one of
the rooms a box to the courtyard where he
opens it. He does not find in the box anything
worth-taking and leaving the box there goes
away. In this case—
(A) ‗A‘ is liable only for house trespass
(B) ‗A‘ is liable for theft
(C) ‗A‘ has committed no offence
(D) ‗A‘ is liable for house trespass and attempt to
commit theft
ANS: (D)
Q2492. ‗A‘, house owner tortures his tenant ‗B‘
in order to compel him to pay his rent and
realises his dues without causing any hurt to
‗B‘. Here—
(A) ‗A‘ is liable for criminal intimidation under
Section 503 of Indian Penal Code
(B) ‗A‘ is liable for using criminal force under
Section 350 of Indian Penal Code
(C) ‗A‘ is liable for extortion under Section 383 of
Indian Penal Code
(D) ‗A‘ is liable for assault under Section 351 of
Indian Penal Code
ANS: (A)
Q2493. Which one of the following combinations
is not correctly matched?
1. Dowry death — Section 498-A
2. Rape — Section 377
3. Adultery — Section 497
4. Robbery — Section 391 Select the correct
answer using the code given below— Code:
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
ANS: (B)
Q2494. ‗A‘ was on his journey by car from
Allahabad to Lucknow. ‗B‘ met him in the way
and requested for a lift upto Rae Bareli, an
intermediate town. ‗A‘ agreed to his request but
on reaching Rae Bareli did not drop ‗B‘ there in
spite of his repeated requests. ‗B‘ was carried
over to Lucknow against his wishes. Here—
(A) ‗A‘ is guilty of kidnapping ‗B‘
(B) ‗A‘ his committed no offence
(C) ‗A‘ is guilty of wrongfully confining ‗B‘
(D) ‗A‘ is guilty of abducting ‗B‘
ANS: (D)
Q2495. In which case the right of private
defence of body does not extend to causing of
death?
(A) An assault with the intention of wrongfully
restraining a person
(B) An assault with the intention of committing
rape
(C) An assault with the intention of kidnapping

(D) An assault with the intention of gratifying
unnatural lust
ANS: (A)
Q2496. Which of the following combinations is
correctly matched?
(A) Involuntary Intoxication — Section 86
(B) Basudeo V/s State of Pepsu — Section 86
(C) Attempt to Commit suicide — Section 306
(D) Bigamy — Section 497
ANS: (B)
Q2497. A proposal when accepted becomes—
(A) A promise
(B) A contract
(C) An agreement
(D) None of the above
ANS: (A)
Q2498. Which of the following is a valid
acceptance of a proposal?
(A) When an acceptance is made in ignorance of the
proposal
(B) When an acceptance is made in usual and
reasonable manner but not in a manner prescribed
by the proposer
(C) When an acceptance is made in a manner
prescribed by the proposer
(D) None of the above
ANS: (C)
Q2499. An agreement made without
consent is—
(A) Always void
(B) Voidable
(C) Unlawful
(D) Either void or voidable
ANS: (B)
Q2500. A contract through telephone is
considered concluded at the place where
acceptance is heard. In which of the following
cases it was held?
(A) Bhagwandas V/s Girdharilal
(B) Cardill V/s Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(C) Lalman Shukla V/s Gauridutt
(D) Satyabrata Ghosh V/s Mugneeram
ANS: (A)
Q2501. Which of the following cases is related
to the doctrine of frustration?
(A) Hadley V/s Baxendale
(B) Carlill V/s Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(C) Satyabrat Ghosh V/s Mugneeram
(D) State Bank of India V/s Quality Bread factory
ANS: (C)
Q2502. Which one of the following cases is not
related to the damages for breach of contract?
(A) Hadley V/s Baxendale
(B) State of Rajasthan V/s Novelty Stores
(C) Madras Railway Co. V/s Govind Rao
(D) Dominion of India V/s All India Reporter Ltd.
MockTime.com
ANS: (B)
Q2503. Assertion (A): All illegal agreements are
void, but all void agreements are not illegal.
Reason (R): Only those agreements, of which the
object o r consideration is unlawful, are known
as illegal agreements. Select the correct answer
using the code given below— Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
ANS: (A)
Q2504. Which of the following agreements is
not void?
(A) ‗A‗ agrees to sell two hundred tons of oil to ‗B‘
(B) An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings
(C) An agreement in restraint of marriage of any
person
(D) A funds B's purse and gives it to him. B
promises to give ‗A‘ Rs. 100
ANS: (D)
Q2505. Match list-I with list-II and select
correct answer using the code given below the
lists— List-I
(a) Novation
(b) Unjust enrichment
free (c) Party competent to contract
(d) Dispossession of property induced by threat
to cause death
List-II
1. Sec. 70 I.C.A.
2. Sec. 62 I.C.A.
3. Sec. 15 I.C.A.
4. Se. 11 I.C.A. Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
ANS: (A)
Q2506. A contingent contract dependent on the
happening of future uncertain event can be
enforced when the event—
(A) Happens
(B) Becomes impossible
(C) Does not happen
(D) None of the above is correct
ANS: (A)
Q2507. When prior to the due date of
performance, the promisor absolutely refuses to
perform the contract, it is known as—
(A) Abandonment of contract
(B) Actual breach of contract
(C) Remission of contract
(D) Anticipatory breach of contract
ANS: (D)
 MockTime.com
Q2508. When the agent contracts without (D) All of the above
disclosing name and existence of his principal, ANS: (C)
in such a case on knowing about the principal,
the third party may file a suit against— Q2515. Assertion (A): Minor's contract is void.
(A) Principal alone Reason (R): Mortgage executed in favour of a
(B) Agent alone minor is enforceable by him. Code:
(C) Either agent or principal or both (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(D) None of the above explanation of (A)
ANS: (C) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
Q2509. ‗A‘ is indebted to ‗B‘. He authorises ‗B‘ (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
to sell his house and to pay himself out of the (D) (A) is false but (R) is true
sale proceeds the debts due to him. In the ANS: (C)
absence of express contract—
(A) ‗A‘ can revoke the agency Q2516. Which of the following is not a purpose
(B) ‗A‘ cannot revoke the agency of the United Nations under Article 1 of the
(C) Agency is not terminated by ‗A‘s death Charter?
(D) Both (B) and (C) are correct (A) To achieve international co-operation is solving
ANS: (B) international problems of social character
(B) To bring about adjustment of international
Q2510. Pledge by a seller in possession of goods disputes by peaceful means
alter sale is— (C) To develop friendly relations among nations
(A) Valid (D) To ensure democratic governance and the rule
(B) Void of law in the States of the world
(C) Voidable ANS: (D)
(D) Unlawful
ANS: (A) Q2517. Which of the following combinations are
not correctly matched? Tribunal/Court Number
Q2511. ‗A‘ hires a carriage of ‗B‘. The carriage is of Judges
unsafe. ‗B‘ is not aware of faults existing in the 1. Permanent Court of 07 Arbitration
carriage. Because of faults in carriage. ‗A‘ is 2. International Criminal 15 Court
injured— 3. International Tribunal 21 for the Law of the
(A) ‗B‘ is liable Sea
(B) ‗B‘ is not liable 4. U.N. War Crimes 15 Tribunal for Yugoslavia
(C) ‗A‘ and ‗B‘ both are liable jointly Select the correct answer using the code given
(D) All the above are correct below— Code:
ANS: (A) (A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
Q2512. A guarantee which the creditor has (C) 1, 2 and 3
obtained by means of keeping silence as to a (D) 1, 2 and 4
material circumstance is— ANS: (A)
(A) Valid
(B) Invalid Q2518. On which date the statue of the
(C) Voidable International Criminal Court has come into
(D) None of these force?
ANS: (B) (A) 10 December, 2003
(B) 24 October, 2002
Q2513. Which of the following sections of (C) 01 July, 2002
Indian Contract Act embodies the rule of (D) 01 January, 2003
Clayton's case relating to appropriation of ANS: (D)
payments?
(A) Section 59 Q2519. Under which Article of the U.N. Charter
(B) Section 61 the Security Council has the power to use force
(C) Section 60 against a State?
(D) Section 58 (A) Article 41
ANS: (A) (B) Article 2(4)
(C) Article 24
Q2514. The rule enunciated by Section 65 of (D) Article 42
the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is applicable to ANS: (C)
agree-ments which are reduced void by—
(A) Mistake Q2520. Who can request the International Court
(B) Failure of Consideration of Justice to give an advisory opinion on any
(C) Impossibility of performance of contract legal question?
 MockTime.com
(A) Any member of the United Nations Q2527. Under which of the following the former
(B) The highest court of Justice of any nation President of Iraq Saddam Hussain has been
(C) The General Assembly of the United Nations granted the status of prisoner of war?
(D) Any permanent member of the Security Council (A) The United Nations Charter, 1945
ANS: (A) (B) The Geneva Convention No. III, 1949
(C) The Hague Convention No. I, 1907
Q2521. Which one of the following organs of the (D) The Pact of Paris, 1928
United Nations performs legislative functions? ANS: (B)
(A) The General Assembly
(B) The Economic and Social Council Q2528. What is the name of the Anti-Terrorism
(C) The Trusteeship Council law enacted by the U.S.A. just weeks after the
(D) The Security Council September 11, 2001 attacks on World Trade
ANS: (A) Centre?
(A) U.S. Patriot Act
Q2522. A new member of the U.N. is admitted (B) U.S. Prevention of Terrorism Act
by— (C) U.S. Security Act
(A) The General Assembly (D) U.S. National Safety Act
(B) The Security Council ANS: (A)
(C) The General Assembly on the positive
recommendation of the Security Council Q2529. Which country has declared in
(D) The General Assembly on the positive December, 2003 to destroy all Weapons of Mass
recommendation of the Security Council including Destruction (WMDs) and abandon all
concurring voles of permanent members programmes to develop them?
ANS: (D) (A) Israel
(B) Brazil
Q2523. The Secretary General of the United (C) North Korea
Nations is appointed— (D) Libya
(A) By the permanent members of the Security ANS: (D)
Council
(B) By the General Assembly on the Q2530. First Muslim woman to win the Nobel
recommendation of the Security Council Prize in its 102 year's history is—
(C) In a joint session of the Security Council and (A) Taslima Nasreen
General Assembly (B) Benazir Bhutto
(D) By the Security Council on the recommendation (C) Shirin Ebadi
of the General Assembly (D) Nafisa Sadiq
ANS: (B) ANS: (C)

Q2524. Little Assembly is the body created by— Q2531. Who has been appointed as the U.S.
(A) Security Council Civilian Administrator in Iraq after Saddam
(B) General Assembly Hussain's ouster from power?
(C) Secretary General (A) Hans Blix
(D) G-8 (B) Kristin Gilmore
ANS: (B) (C) Salim Lone
(D) Paul L. Bremer
Q2525. Which of the following countries is not ANS: (D)
the member of SAARC?
(A) Singapore Q2532. Inquiry under Criminal Procedure Code
(B) India is conducted by—
(C) Pakistan (A) Magistrateonly
(D) Bhutan (B) Police officer
ANS: (A) (C) Sessions Court
(D) Magistrate orCourt
Q2526. Which one of the following States had ANS: (D)
proposed the creation of Trioka in place of
Secretary General of United Nations? Q2533. Which of the following courts can try
(A) U.S.S.R. summarily offences mentioned in Section 260
(B) U.S.A. of Criminal Procedure Code?
(C) U.K. (A) Any Chief Judicial Magistrate
(D) China (B) Any Metropolitan Magistrate
ANS: (A) (C) Any Magistrate of the first class specially
empowered by the High Court in this behalf
(D) All the above
ANS: (D)
 MockTime.com
date of payment or such earlier date as the
Q2534. Which one of the following combinations court thinks fit. Rate of such interest shall not
are not correctly matched? exceed … per annum.
1. Anticipatory bail — Section 437 of Cr.P. (A) Nine per cent
Code (B) Ten per cent
2. Summary dismissal — Section 384 of Cr.P. (C) Six Percent
Code (D) Twelve percent
3. Appeal in case of acquittal — Section 376 ANS: (C)
Cr.P. Code
4. Reference to High Court — Section 397 of Q2540. Caveat shall not remain in force after
Cr.P. Code Select correct answer using the code expiry of—
given below— Code: (A) Ninety days
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) Sixty days
(B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) Thirty days
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) Fifteen days
(D) 2, 3 and 4 ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q2541. Where the plaint has been rejected the
Q2535. The procedure for summary trial is plaintiff on the same cause of action—
provided in the following sections of the Cr. P. (A) May file new suit
Code— (B) Can't file new suit
(A) Sections 251 to 259 (C) May present with the leave of HighCourt
(B) Sections 238 to 250 (D) None of these
(C) Sections 260 to 265 ANS: (A)
(D) Sections 266 to 271
ANS: (C) Q2542. Where decree is for the partition of an
undivided estate assessed to the payment of
Q2536. Which of the following provisions of the revenue to the government, the partition of the
Criminal Procedure Code is not related to estate, in accordance with the law for the time
Appeal? being in force, shall be made by—
(A) Section 86 (A) The Naib Tahsildar
(B) Section 449 (B) The Nazir
(C) Section 450 (C) The Collector
(D) Section 454 (D) The Commissioner appointed by the court
ANS: (C) ANS: (C)

Q2537. Decree shall be deemed to include the
rejection of a plaint and the determination of
any question within Section 144 of C.P.C.—
(A) Wrong
(B) Right
(C) It includes rejection of plaint but does not
includes the determination of any question within
Section 144 of C.P.C
(D) It includes determination of any question within
Section 144 but shall not include the rejection of a
plaint
ANS: (B)
Q2538. Whether an issue heard finally decided
by a competent court of limited jurisdiction,
shall operate as resjudicata in a subsequent suit
that the aforesaid court was not competent to
try?
(A) No
(B) Yes
(C) Answer would depend upon the nature of the
issue
(D) None of the above
ANS: (B)
Q2539. Under secction 34 of C.P.C. court can
award interest from the date of decree to the
Q2543. During the proceeding of execution of a
decree, a question arises as to whether any
person is or not the representative of a party,
such question shall be determined by—
(A) The Court which passed the decree
(B) The Court executing the decree
(C) The appellate Court
(D) A Separate Suit
ANS: (B)
Q2544. In a suit, which relates to a railway, the
authority to be named as plaintiff or defendant
shall be—
(A) The General Manager of the railway
(B) A Secretary to the Central Government
(C) The Collector of the District
(D) The Station Master of the Railway
ANS: (A)
Q2545. During service of summons defendant
was found absent from his residence and within
reasonable time no chance to get back at his
residence, service of the summons may be made
on—
(A) On servant
(B) Minor daughter
(C) Adult son

(D) Munim
ANS: (C)
Q2546. In which condition the officer incharge
of the prison may refuse to produce the prisoner
for evidence despite court's order—
(A) Where the prisoner is related to Rulling party
(B) Where the prisoner is Ex-Minister
(C) Where the prisoner is Government Servant
(D) Where the medical officer has certified the
prisoner in unfit to be removed
ANS: (D)
Q2547. A Suit may be dismissed where, after a
summons has been issued to the defendant and
returned unserved, plaintiff fails the apply for
fresh summons for the period of—
(A) Thirty days
(B) Sixty days
(C) One month
(D) Two months when the plaintiff fails to apply for
fresh summons from the court
ANS: (A)
Q2548. Where any party dies after conclusion
and before pronouncing Judgement—
(A) The suit shall abet
(B) The suit shall not abet
(C) The suit shall not abet if cause of action
survives
(D) It depends on the discretion of the court
whether it shall abet or not
ANS: (B)
Q2549. After the passing of a decree for
payment of money, on the application of the
judgement debtor court shall not order that
payment of amount of decree shall be made by
installments—
(A) Without recording evidence of both parties
(B) Without obtaining affidavits from both parties
(C) Without obtaining documents regarding the
financial position of the debtor
(D) Without of consent of decree holder
ANS: (D)
Q2550. Where an indigent person succeeds, the
court fee shall be recovered—
(A) From the defendant
(B) From the state Govt.
(C) Not recoverable
(D) From the plantiff
ANS: (D)
Q2551. Appointment of receivers of any
property can be made when—
(A) Before decree
(B) After decree
(C) Only appellate court can made order
(D) When it appears to the court to be just and
convenient whether before or after decree
ANS: (D)
MockTime.com
Q2552. Right of private defence of the body
extends to voluntarily causing death if the
offence which occasions the exercise of right—
(A) Reasonably causes apprehension that death will
be caused
(B) Reasonably causes an apprehension of simple
hurt
(C) Recovery to be made from thief who escaped
(D) When the person is escaping after causing hurt
ANS: (A)
Q2553. Which of the following punishments
cannot be awarded under the Indian Penal
Code—
(A) Forfeiture of property
(B) Rigorous imprisonment
(C) Transportation for life
(D) Death
ANS: (C)
Q2554. Nothing is an offence which is done by a
child by—
(A) Eight years
(B) Ten years
(C) Seven years
(D) Twelve year
ANS: (C)
Q2555. What is not correct about ‗Rape‘?
(A) Consent is immaterial if she is U/16 years
(B) Penetration is sufficient
(C) Intercourse by a man with his own wife and the
wife is not being under 15 years, is not rape
(D) Death penalty may be awarded
ANS: (D)
Q2556. ‗A‘ instigates ‗B‘ to instigate ‗C‘ to
murder ‗Z‘. ‗B‘ accordingly instigate ‗C‘ to
murder ‗Z‘ and ‗C‘ commits that offence in
consequence of ‗B‘'s instigation. ‗A‘ is—
(A) Not guilty of any offence
(B) Not guilty of abetting murder
(C) Guilty of abetment by conspiracy
(D) Guilty of abetting murder
ANS: (D)
Q2557. What is the offence, where preparation
whereof offence is also punishable?
(A) Theft
(B) Dacoity
(C) Murder
(D) Rape
ANS: (B)
Q2558. ‗Z‘ stikes ‗B‘. B is by this provocation
excited to violent rage. ‗A‘ a by stander,
intending to take advantage of ‗B‘'s rage and to
cause him to kill ‗Z‘ puts a knife in to ‗B‘'s hand
for that purpose. ‗B‘ kills ‗Z‘ with knife. What
offence ‗A‘ is guilty of?
(A) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(B) Abetting culpable homicide
(C) Attempt to murder

(D) Murder
ANS: (D)
Q2559. What punishment may be awarded to
the person whose act is covered under general
exceptions?
(A) No punishment
(B) Half of the punishment prescribed for that
offence
(C) One fourth of the punishement prescribed for
that offence
(D) Depends upon discretion of the court
ANS: (A)
Q2560. ‗A‘ finds the key to ‗Y‘'s house door,
which ‗Y‘ had lost and commits home trespass
by entering ‗Y‘'s house having opened the door
with that key. What offence has ‗A‘ committed?
(A) Lurking house trespass
(B) Criminal misappropriation
(C) Attempt to commit theft
(D) House breaking
ANS: (D)
Q2561. ‗A‘ in good faith says of a book
published by ‗Z‘ that Z's book is indecent, ‗Z‘
must be a man of impure mind. Is this
defamation punishable u/s 500 of IPC?
(A) Yes, because the opinion respects ‗Z‘'s character
(B) No, because it falls within one of the exceptions
of Section 499 of IPC
(C) No, because it is slander
(D) No, because it has not been repeated
ANS: (B)
Q2562. Which is not the stolen property?
(A) Possession whereof was obtained by cheating
(B) Possession whereof was obtained by robbery
(C) Possession whereof was obtained by dacoity
(D) Possession whereof was obtained by criminal
breach of trust
ANS: (A)
Q2563. Any hurt is ‗grevious‘ if it causes the
sufferer to be in severe bodily pain or unable to
follow his ordinary pursuits during the space
to—
(A) Fifteen days
(B) Twenty days
(C) Twenty five days
(D) Thirty days
ANS: (B)
Q2564. Under Section 498–A cruelty means
mental and physical torture—
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
(C) Only demand of dowry includes
(D) Only physical torture includes
ANS: (A)
Q2565. Whoever kidnaps or abducts any child
with intention of taking dishonestly any
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movable property from the person of such child,
shall be punished under Section 369 of I.P.C. if
the child is under—
(A) Ten years
(B) Twelve years
(C) Fourteen years
(D) Fifteen years
ANS: (A)
Q2566. ‗A‘ makes an attempt to pick the pocket
of ‗B‘ by trusting his hand into ‗B‘'s pocket. A
fails in attempt in consequence of ‗B‘'s having
nothing in his pocket. A is guilty of—
(A) No offence
(B) Theft
(C) Attempt of theft
(D) Using criminal force
ANS: (C)
Q2567. Warrant case means a case—
(A) In which a police officer cannot arrest without
warrant
(B) In which the court in first instance, shall issue
a warrant of arrest against the accused
(C) Relating to an offence punishable with
imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years
(D) Relating to an offence punishable with death,
for life or for a term exceeding two years
ANS: (D)
Q2568. In a first information an offence is
cognizable and other is non cognizable the
whole case shall be deemed to be—
(A) Congnizable
(B) Non-cognizable
(C) It is to be seen whether it is a warrant case
(D) It is to be seen whether it is a summons case
ANS: (A)
Q2569. The court of magistrate 1st class may
pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not
exceeding—
(A) Three years
(B) Five years
(C) Seven years
(D) Four years
ANS: (A)
Q2570. The maximum term of imprisonment
awardable in a summary trial is—
(A) Three months
(B) Six months
(C) One year
(D) Two years
ANS: (A)
Q2571. Whenever a Magistrate is of opinion,
after hearing the evidence for prosecution and
the accused, that the accused is guilty and that
he ought to receive a severe punishment, then
such Magistrate is empowerd to inflict the
Magistrate may forward the case to—
(A) Session Judge

(B) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(C) District Magistrate
(D) Concerned Police Station
ANS: (B)
Q2572. Inherent powers, under Section 482
Cr.P.C. can be exercised by—
(A) Any Criminal Court
(B) The Supreme Court only
(C) The Court of Session and High Court
(D) The High Court
ANS: (D)
Q2573. When the person who would otherwise
be competent to compound an offence under
Section 320 of Cr.P.C. is dead, then—
(A) Offence cannot be compounded
(B) Offence can be compounded by any eye witness
(C) Offence can be compounded by the legal
representative of such person without the consent
of the court
(D) Legal representative of such person can
compound the offence with the consent of the court
ANS: (D)
Q2574. When will proceeding be vitiated if the
Magistrate is not empowered to do so?
(A) To issue a search warrant U/S 94 of Cr.P.C.
(B) To hold an inguest U/S 176 of Cr.P.C.
(C) Tries an offender summarily
(D) To tender a pardon under Section 306 of Cr.P.C.
ANS: (C)
Q2575. No wife shall be entitled to receive
maintenance from her husband U/S 125 of
Cr.P.C. if—
(A) She has obtained a divorce from her husband
and has not remarried
(B) She is unable to maintain herself
(C) She refused to live with her husband on the
ground that keeps a mistress
(D) She is living in adultery
ANS: (D)
Q2576. If a person in Lawful custody escapes,
the person from whose custody, he escaped
may, immediately pursue and arrest him—
(A) Within Local limits of the police station
concerned
(B) Within Local limits of the District
(C) With Local limits of the state
(D) In any place in INDIA
ANS: (D)
Q2577. What is true about Court of sessions?
(A) It can take cognizance without commitment
(B) It can't take cognizance without commitment
(C) It can take cognizance on DM's recommendation
(D) It can take cognizance if chalan put up by S.P.
ANS: (B)
Q2578. In relation to F.I.R., which of the
following statements is not correct?
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(A) It is not a substantive evidence
(B) It merely marks the beginning of the
investigation
(C) It cannot be used as a previous statement for
any purpose
(D) The informant need not be an eye witness
ANS: (C)
Q2579. If in a criminal appeal an accused dies
and his near relatives wish to continue, within
how much time they must apply?
(A) Four months
(B) Three months
(C) Sixty days
(D) Thirty days
ANS: (D)
Q2580. Three year period of limitation is
prescribed for taking cognizance of the offence
punishable with imprisonment for a term not
exceeding—
(A) One year
(B) Three years
(C) Five years
(D) Seven years
ANS: (B)
Q2581. In relation to expressions defined in S. 3
of the Indian Evidence Act which of the
following statement is not correct?
(A) Facts include not only physical facts but also
psychological facts
(B) Court includes Arbitrators
(C) An inscription on a stone is a document
(D) A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither
proved nor disapproved
ANS: (B)
Q2582. A voluntarily confession is admissible in
evidence—
(A) When made to a police officer
(B) To Magistrate having competent jurisdiction
(C) To a village sarpanch with request to save him
from police
(D) Where it leads to no discovery of facts and made
to the police officer
ANS: (B)
Q2583. For proving execution of a registered
will—
(A) Be necessary to call at least two attesting
witness
(B) Be necessary to call at least one attesting
witness
(C) Not necessary to call any attesting witness
(D) Be necessary to call the registrar
ANS: (B)
Q2584. Unless non-access is proved, the
presumption as to legitimacy of any child born
during the continuance of a valid marriage
between his mother and any man is—
(A) Rebuttable presumption of Law
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(B) Presumption of fact that, on that day ‗A‘ was at Chennai is
(C) Mixed presumption of law and fact relevant—
(D) Irrebuttable presumption of law (A) As a motive for fact in issue
ANS: (D) (B) As introductory to fact in issue
(C) As preparation of relevant fact
Q2585. Admissions are— (D) As it makes the existence of fact in issue highly
(A) Conclusive proof improvable
(B) May operate as estoppels ANS: (D)
(C) Always irrelevent
(D) None of the above Q2592. A person summoned to produce a
ANS: (B) document when produces the document then—
(A) He becomes a witness
Q2586. ‗A‘ is charged with travelling on a (B) He cross-examined by both the parties
railway without ticket, the burden of proving (C) He is cross-examined with the permission of the
that ‗A‘ had a ticket is on— court
(A) Ticket checker (D) He does not become witness and cannot cross-
(B) Railway examined unless and until he is called as a witness
(C) ‗A‘ ANS: (D)
(D) Prosecution
ANS: (C) Q2593. The examination, after the cross-
examination of a witness by the party who has
Q2587. ‗A‘ document is said to be in the called him, is called—
handwriting of ‗A‘. That document is produced (A) Main examination
from proper custody. If the document is (B) Additional cross-examination
purporting or proved to be— (C) Re-examination
(A) Thirty (D) Re-cross examination
(B) Fifteen ANS: (C)
(C) Twenty
(D) Twelve years old, court may presume that is in Q2594. Which of the following is not an
‗A‘'s handwriting. ‗accommodation‘ as defined in 2
ANS: (A) (a) of the C.G.A.C. Act—
(A) House
Q2588. What number of witnesses will be (B) Agriculture land
required for the proof of any fact? (C) Shop
(A) No particular number (D) Gumti
(B) At least one eye witness ANS: (B)
(C) Two witnesses with regard to documents
(D) One party and one witness Q2595. Who is not a land lord for the purpose of
ANS: (A) Section 23(J) of C.G.A.C. Act—
(A) A retired servant of any Government
Q2589. Leading question— (B) A servant of any Government
(A) May be asked in examination in chief (C) A divorced wife
(B) May be asked in cross-examination (D) A handicapped person
(C) May be asked in re-examination ANS: (B)
(D) Cannot be asked in any circumstances
ANS: (B) Q2596. Where an order for the eviction of a
tenant is made on the ground that the residence
Q2590. Which of the following statements is for himself, the landlord shall not be entitled to
correct? obtain possession thereof before the expiration
(A) Estoppel is not a rule of Evidence of period of—
(B) Estoppel form record constitutes bar of (A) Two months
resjudicata (B) Three months
(C) There can be estoppel on a point of law (C) Six months
(D) There can be not estoppel when the truth of the (D) One year from the date of order
matter is known to both parties ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q2597. No Court shall take cognizance of an
offence punishable under Accommodation
Control Act, unless the complaint in respect of
the offence has been made within—
(A) Six months
Q2591. The question is, whether ‗A‘ committed
(B) One year
a crime at Kolkata on a certain day. The fact
(C) Three years
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(D) Three months from the date of commission of Q2604. Which is not the immovable property?
the offence (A) A lease of land
ANS: (D) (B) Growing crops
(C) A right of way
Q2598. After the service of notice of demand, (D) A life interest in the income of immovable
no suit for eviction of a tenant on the ground of property
default in payment of arrears of rent shall be ANS: (B)
instituted until the expiration of—
(A) One month Q2605. In which of the following cases, a
(B) Two months transfer of immovable property can be made
(C) Three months without writing—
(D) Fifteen days (A) Sale of property of a value more than Rs. 100
ANS: (B) (B) Lease for a term of 11 months
(C) Exchange
Q2599. The rent controlling Authority should (D) Actionable claim
not below the rank of— ANS: (B)
(A) Tahsildar
(B) Asstt. Supd. land records Q2606. The doctrine of Lispendese applies
(C) Deputy collector where—
(D) Civil Judge (A) The suit is collusive
ANS: (C) (B) The transfer is made after the decree the filing
of an appeal
Q2600. A landlord making false the frivolous (C) Right to movable property is in question
application U/S 23A of A.C. Act may be saddled (D) Property is situated outside the territorial
with compensatory costs not exceeding— jurisdiction of the court
(A) Six months ANS: (B)
(B) Nine months
(C) Eleven months Q2607. What kind of property is transferable?
(D) One year rent of the accommodation at a time (A) Right of re-entry
ANS: (A) (B) Public Office
(C) Any kind of property if not prohibited by law
Q2601. Essential supply enjoyed by a tenant in (D) Pension
respect of the accommodation let to him is cut ANS: (C)
off by the landlord. Who will make an order to
restore such supply? Q2608. ‗Attested‘ in relation to an instrument
(A) Collector means and shall be deemed always to have mean
(B) Civil Court attested by least—
(C) Rent Controlling Authority (A) One witness
(D) Municipal Corporation or Municipality as the (B) Two witnesses
case may be (C) Three witnesses
ANS: (C) (D) Four witnesses
ANS: (B)
Q2602. On the complaint of tenant if he is
satisfied that the landlord without any Q2609. Whether a transfer can be made in
reasonable cause refused to accept rent he may favour of an unborn person?
levy on the landlord a fine who is he? (A) Yes, by machinery of trust
(A) Judicial Magistrate first class (B) Yes
(B) Rent controlling Authority (C) Guardian has got to be appointed first
(C) District Magistrate (D) None of the above
(D) District Judge ANS: (A)
ANS: (B)
Q2610. A mortgage by deposit of title deeds is
Q2603. No Court shall take cognizance of an called—
offence punishable under the Accommodation (A) Anomalous mortgage
Control Act, unless the complaint in respect of (B) English mortgage
the offence has been made within— (C) Equitable mortgage
(A) Six month's (D) Usufructuary mortgage
(B) One year ANS: (C)
(C) Three years
(D) Three months from the date of commission of Q2611. A lease of immovable property from year
the offence to year is terminable, on the part of either
ANS: (D) lessor or leasee, by—
(A) One month
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(B) Six month's (D) Reasonable time
(C) Three month's ANS: (D)
(D) Sixty days notice expiring with the end of a year
of the tenancy Q2619. A proposal when accepted—
ANS: (B) (A) Becomes a promise
(B) Becomes an agreement
Q2612. Which of the following transfer is valid? (C) Becomes a contract
(A) An unregistered usufructuary mortgage for Rs. (D) Becomes a consideration
99 ANS: (A)
(B) An unregistered gift of immovable property of
the value of Rs. 99 Q2620. Every agreement in restraint of the
(C) An oral lease of immovable property from year to marriage of any person other than a minor—
year (A) Is voidable
(D) An oral assignment of debts (B) Is illegal
ANS: (A) (C) Is void
(D) Is valid
Q2613. In which of the following cases, a lease ANS: (C)
of immovable property doesn‘t determine?
(A) By efflux of time limited there Q2621. ―X‖ hires a carriage of ―Y‖. The carriage
(B) By express surrender is unsafe, though ―Y‖ is not aware of it and ―X‖
(C) On the service of a notice to quit is injured. For the injury to ―X‖. ―Y‖ is—
(D) By forfeiture (A) Liable
ANS: (C) (B) Not liable
(C) Liable to the extent of 50%
Q2614. What is not required in Gift? (D) None of these
(A) Donor and Donee ANS: (A)
(B) Consideration
(C) Movable or immovable property Q2622. X entrusts Y with negotiable
(D) Transfer and acceptance instruments endorsed in blank. Y sells them to
ANS: (B) Z is violation of private orders from X. The sale
is—
Q2615. What will be effect of mistake at the law (A) Void
in force in India on the agreement? (B) Valid
(A) Not voidable (C) Voidable at the option of Y
(B) Voidable (D) Voidable at the option of Z
(C) Void ANS: (B)
(D) Not Void
ANS: (A) Q2623. ―A‖ supplies ―B‖ a lunatic, with
necessaries suitable to his condition in his life.
Q2616. ―A‖ promises for no consideration to Whether ―A‖ is entitled for reimbursement from
give to ―B‖ Rs. 1000 (one thousand rupees) the property of ―B‖—
agreement is— (A) No
(A) Voidable (B) Yes, if the value of property is more than one
(B) Void lakh
(C) Enforceable (C) Yes
(D) Not enforceable on being in writing (D) None of these
ANS: (B) ANS: (C)

Q2617. Which of the following is not a quasi- Q2624. Which of the following statements is
contract? correct in relation to sub-agent?
(A) Obligation of person enjoying benefit of non- (A) He is employed by the principal in the business
gratuitous act of the agency
(B) Responsibility of finder of goods (B) He is employed by the original agent in the
(C) Quantum one suit business of the agency
(D) Novation (C) He acts under the control of the principal
ANS: (D) (D) The agent is not responsible to the principal for
acts of the sub-agent
Q2618. Where no application is made and no ANS: (B)
time is specified for performance of promise,
there the agreement be performed within— Q2625. ―A‖ gives authority to ―B‖ to sell ‗A‘s
(A) Three years land and to pay himself out of the proceeds.The
(B) Two years debts due to him from A. In the absence of an
(C) One year express contract—
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(A) ―A‖ can revoke this authority (B) 6 years
(B) Authority can be terminated by the insanity of (C) Seven years
―A‖ (D) 10 years
(C) Authority can be terminated by the death of ―A‖ ANS: (B)
(D) ―A‖ cannot revoke this authority nor can it be
terminated by his death or insanity Q2632. Where Bhumiswami desires to take his
ANS: (D) land back possession whereof was taken by
Tahsildar U/S 176 of the land reserve code he
Q2626. The jurisidiction to decide any dispute should apply within—
to which the state Govt. is not a party relating (A) Three years from the commencement of next
to any right which is recorded in the record of agriculture year
rights is concerned on— (B) Two years from the commencement of next
(A) Civil-Court agriculture year
(B) Tahsildar (C) One year from the commencement of the next
(C) Sub-division officer agriculture year
(D) Collector (D) Six months from the commencement of next
ANS: (B) agriculture year
ANS: (B)
Q2627. Agriculture does not include—
(A) Horticulture Q2633. In respect of which of the following
(B) The planting and unkeep of orchards matters, jurisidiction of civil court is not
(C) There serving of land for fodder, grazing of excluded—
thatching grass (A) Electment of a government lessee
(D) Forest of big bushes (B) Restoration of possession to an occupancy
ANS: (D) tenant
(C) Any claim to modify any entry in the Nistar
Q2628. Who is not a Revenue Officer? patrak
(A) Settlement Officer (D) Partition holding
(B) Revenue Inspector ANS: (B)
(C) Asstt. Suptd. land record
(D) Naib Tahsildar Q2634. For recovery of arrears of land revenue
ANS: (B) the following shall not be attached and sold—
(A) Cooking vessels of the defaulter
Q2629. Land revenue for different lands will be (B) Less than six hectares of land held by the
assessed by— defaulter in any sheduled area
(A) Collector (C) If the defaulter is an agriculturist implements of
(B) Settlement Officer husbandry driven by mechanical power
(C) Settlement Commissioner (D) Tools of artisans
(D) Commissioner of Div. ANS: (C)
ANS: (A)
Q2635. The Term of settlement shall not be less
Q2630. Which one of the following shall not be than—
taken into account in estimating the cost of (A) 100 years
cultivation? (B) 50 years
(A) Market value of the land (C) 30 years
(B) The depreciation of stock and buildings (D) 20 years
(C) The money equivalent of the cultivator‘s labour ANS: (C)
and supervision
(D) The money equivalent of the cultivator‘s family‘s Q2636. Where the Bhumiswami effects a
labour and supervision mortgage the total amount of interest U/165 (3)
ANS: (A) of Land Revenue Cost shall not exceed—
(A) Equal to principal amount
Q2631. No usufructuary mortgage of any land by (B) One-fourth of the principal amount
a Bhumiswami shall be valid if it is for a period (C) Half of the principal amount
exceeding— (D) One-third of the principal amount
(A) 5 years ANS: (C)