Canadian Airline Transport Pilot Licence Workbook Acomprehensive guide to prepare pilots to write the ATPL examination. hy Peter Shewring and Rick Stevens AeroCoursé) ————— Sthedition‘This publication is to be used for personal study only and is not (o be used for instruction without prior ‘ consent from Aero Course. All sight reserved © 2010 Aero Course. Itis a violation 10 reproduce or transmit any portion of this book by any process or fo enter its content into a computer ‘without writen permission of the Publisher. First edition 1999 Second edition 2000 ‘Third edition 2004 Fourth edition 2006-3 Fifth edition 2010 Printed in Canada, Published by: Aero Conrse ‘Box 53033, 5100 Erin Mills Parkway Mississauga, ON L5M 5A7 (905) 271-8857 . 1-800-461-8857 ‘www.aerooourse.com ISBN 0-9681270-1-0 Cover Design: Michael Hetherington Cover Photography: Courtesy of Boeing Commercial Airplane Group ‘Maps and charts have been reprinted with the ‘permission of NAV Canada. In the flying business, things seem to change at great speed, manuals like this are extremely difficult to keep current, Due to constantly changing regulations ‘ and publications (ie, the ALND, certain questions may become dated. We have endeavored to ensure there are no typographical errors in the publication, if you notice any inconsistencies or errors in the book please contact us via e-mail, telephone ot fax so changes ‘can be made to future editions. Thank you in advance,Acknowledgements ‘We wish to thank the many students who have provided comments, constructive criticism and advice. Our sincere gratitude extends also to all ofthe ‘Acro Course instructors and staff, who constantly provide suggestions and input to improve the manual ‘with a special thank you, to Linda Fuller and Cheryl Rinaldo, for their ongoing suppor and patience. Finally, we are grateful to NAV Canada for supplying ‘excerpts of maps included in this workbook and to the Boeing Commercial Airplane Company for providing the B767 cavee photo.Introduction Aguide to using the book the Canadian Airline Transpoxt Pilot Licence ‘Workbook was developed from the Aero Course unique ground school programs which has enabled pilots and dispatchers to pass their ‘Transport Canada exams. This manual was developed specifically to help students prepare for the ATPL, and TATRA exams. It provides a thorough review of the ATPL and IATRA material as well as an introduction ‘o air carrier operations. It embodies the lessons we have leamed from the many years of teaching, ATPL/IATRA, IFR and Dispatch ground schools and it is written by pilots with thousands hour of experience, flying the line for Canada’s largest airlines and corporate flight departments. Intended to help students prepare fo successfully write the Transport Canada exams, it also provides exposure to the airline industry. The manual has over $00 theoretical and practical questions, that provide the confidence and knowledge, enabling students to artive at the correct solutions on their Transport Canada Exams, ‘This manual consists of six sections of questions that have been arranged based on subject material as presented on the exams. Each section covers a specific topic in detail, including: regulations, meteorology, radio systems, performance, weight and balance, navigation, advanced aircraft systems and ais carrier operations. Acro Course has been publishing ground school ‘manuals and conducting aviation seminars for over 22 years. We pride ourselves on being leaders in advanced aviation materials providing current knowledge and experienced based manuals and. seminars, Our publications and seminars provide you ‘with a solid foundation for your aviation career, ‘We have also recently introduced an TFR online procedures course that can be used as an IFR refresher and we will continue to add and enhance our course offerings as opportunities become available, Check our web site for new information, ‘www.aerocourse.com.SECTION HIGHLIGHTS Canadian Aviation Regulations ‘This section provides a series of questions to ensure an in-depth understanding of the Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARS) as it pertains to air carier operations, aircraft in commercial service, airspace and genenil regulations, ‘Met General It is important for students to have a good understanding of weather theory to help deal with the weather conditions that the today's ATPL. licenced pilot is expected to handle when flying the line. This chapter provides a review of basic weather theory as well as covering advanced weather theory such as high altitude meteorology. Met Practical In this section students interpret and analyze an example of a complex weather system including forecasts, reports and charts. This section also proves examples of various upper level charts as they relate (o high alitude meteorology. The weather reports and charts ate presented in the same sequences as they appear on the NAV Canada web site and the questions are designed to help the student go through the material in a logical step-by-step manner. Radio Aids and Flight Planning This sections of questions covers the legal requirements, basic operating theory and practical applications of VEEP radios, VOR/ILS, DME, ADF, LORAN C, RNAV, INS, GPS, RADAR and TCAS. Italso Introduces the students to advanced zitcraft systems such as GPWS, Air Data Computers and FFIS systems Fight planning, Navigation and Miniswum Navigation Performance Specifications (MNPS) airspace questions are also included in this section. Performance and Weight & Balance A basic understanding of aitrat performance and ‘weight & balance as it relates to large aircraft is essential for every professional pilot. This section consists of numerous questions on performance theory and actual performance calculations on various chars, graphs and tbles as they eelate to line ‘operations. This section also includes two weight and balance exercises for practice purposes. Flight OPS General & Human Factors This section ofthe manual consists of questions on aireraft systems (engines, hydraulics, pressurization, fuel, electical, ight controls and wheelv/brakes), basic aerodynamics, advanced aerodynamics, human factors and aireraft icing/deicing procedures. Maps and Charts A number of questions contained in the book refer to charts or maps included as references. These charts and maps are to be used for training purposes only and are not to be used for flight planning or navigationSection 1 Section 2 Section 3 Section 4 Section 5 Section 6 Table of Contents Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs) Met Practical... Radio Aids and Plight Planning... Performance and Weight & Balance...... Flight Operations General ATPL Formulas 0.0 References and recommended reading .... sel-L to 1-24 uD to 2-34 3-1 10 3-52 adel to 4-26 5-1 t0 5-36 6-1 to 6-40 seendppendix I sveeeppendix ILCanadian Aviation Regulations CANADIAN AVIATION REGULATIONS 1, The minimum number of hours of instrument flying experience that must have been acquired by an applicant for the Airline Transport Licence is: a) 25 hours. b) 100 hours. ©) 7Shours. 4) S0hours. 2 1 ‘A 40 year old Airline Transport pilot can maintain a Category 1 Medical Certificate by having: @) a medical examination every 6 months, an ECG every 12 months and an audiogram as required. }) —_a medical examination every 12 months, an EOG every 24 months and an audiogram every 5 years ©) amedical examination every 6 months, an ECG every 24 months and an audiogram as clinically indicated. 4) amedical examination every 12 months, an ECG every 12 months and an audiogram and a chest x-ray every 10 years. 3. What privileges may be exercised by an ATPL pilot whose Category 1 Medical Certificate expires? a) Commercial Pilot privileges. b) Private Pilot privileges. ©) All flying privileges will be immediately suspended. 4) Recreational Pilot privileges. 4. When the Group 1 instrument rating of an ATPL pilot expires, what licence privileges may then be ‘exercised by that individual? a) Private Pilot privileges. b) —_ ATPL Pilot privileges restricted to daytime VFR operations. ©) Student Pilot privileges since the ATPL certificate would be revoked. 4) Commercial Pilot privileges; no PIC privileges on aeroplanes that have a minimum of 2 crew requirement. AeroCourse 7 AeroCourse)12 Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘The normal 30 calendar day flight time limitation for an Air Taxi pilot is: 2) 150 hours b) 120 hours. ©) 110 hours. 4) 90hours. ‘The maximum flight duty day assignment for an Air Taxi pilot in a 24 consecutive hour period is normally: a) 15 hours. b) — 18hours. ©) hours. 4) 12 hours. With respect to Flight Duty Time extensions, who is permitted to extend the Flight Duty Day beyond the normal 14 hour maximum? ek: eee rhe Operations Manager. ©) The Chief Pilot @) The Duty Dispatcher. ‘A correct statement concerning the requirements for “Time Free From Duty” for flight crew members involved in Commuter operations is: a) An Air Operator shall provide each flight crew member with one period of at least 24 consecutive hours free from duty within each 7 consecutive days or one period of at least 3 consecutive calendar days free from duty within each 30 consecutive days. b) An Air Operator shall provide each flight crew member with one period of at least 36, consecutive hours free from duty within cach 7 consecutive days ot one period of at least 3 calendar days free from duty within each 17 consecutive days. 6) _ An Air Operator shall provide each flight crew member with one period of at least 24 ‘consecutive hours free from duty 13 times within 90 consecutive days and 3 times within each 30 consecutive days. 4) An Air Operator shall provide each flight crew member with at least 24 consecutive hours free from duty following 3 consecutive duty days that exceed 10 consecutive hours. Night flying currency for carrying passengers will be maintained by a pilot who has performed: a) —_S night take-offs and landings within the preceding 6 months. 1b) 3 night take-offs and landings within the preceding 60 days. ©) 5 night take-offs and landings within the preceding 3 months. 4) 3 night take-offs and landings within the preceding 120 days. AeroCourse Acro’Ours10, LL 12, Canadian Aviation Regulations Which of the following statements listed below are regulatory requirements to conduct a RVR, 1200 feet (1/4 mile) visibility take-off in a turbine-powered twin-engined aeroplane flown in a Commuter operation with more than 9 passengers? 1. The captain and first officer attitude instruments on the aircraft shall incorporate pitch attitude index lines in appropriate increments above and below zero pitch reference lines to at least 15°, 2. The captain and first officer must have received initial and recurrent RVR 1200 feet (1/4 mile) training if the captain and first officer are authorized to conduct lower than standard visibility take-off. 3, The runway is equipped with at least one of the following: serviceable and functioning high intensity runway lights or runway centre line lights or with runway centre line markings that are plainly visible to the captain throughout the take-off run, 4. The runway is equipped with all of the following: serviceable and functioning high intensity runway lights, runway centre line lights and centre line markings that are plainly visible to the captain throughout the take-off run 5. The runway has at least two ninway visual range sensors, one situated at the approach end and one situated at the mid-point reading not less than 1200 RVR. The captain shall have at least 200 hours of pilot-in-command on the aeroplane type. A take-off altemate aerodrome is specified in the IFR flight plan that is located within a distance that can be flown in 60 minutes at normal eruise speed. 8. A take-off altemate aerodrome is specified in the IFR flight plan that is located within a distance that can be flown in 60 minutes at one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, a) 12,46 12,38 ) 13,67 dD 24,68 Both the PIC and the SIC of an aircraft for which a type rating is required will be current on type if they have completed at least _ take-off and landings on type within the preceding days. ‘The missing numbers are: a) Gand 180, b) Sand 120, ©) Sand 150, Sand 90. Atthe completion of each Initial Ground ‘Training phase provided by an Air Carrier, the proficiency of ‘each pilot shall be determined by: a) aflight test. b) simulator test ©) awritten test. d)— anoral test, AeroCoursé13, 14, 16. 17. Canadian ATPL Workbook High Altitude Training is required for all flight crew members employed by Air Carriers who operate aeroplanes above: a) 10,000 feet ASL; before the first assignment and every year thereafter. b) 13,000 feet ASL; before the first assignment and every 3 years thereafter. ©) 18,000 feet ASL: before the first assignment and every year thereafter. d) 25,000 feet ASL; before the first assignment and every 5 years thereafter. The subject areas that should be included in High Altitude Training for flight erew members are: a) Respiration, hypoxia, the duration of consciousness at altitude without supplemental 02, gas expansion and gas bubble formation, b) hypoxia, hyperventilation, barotrauma, high altitude-related vision problems and nutrition. ©) oxygen deprivation, nitrogen bubble formation within body tissues, vision problems associated with reduced oxygen partial pressure, explosive decompression and high altitude aerodynamics. 4) respiratory problems associated with the use of supplementary oxygen, Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressures, embolic events, barotrauma, the Valsalva technique and nutrition Consider an unpressurized aircraft that had been flying for one hour and thirty minutes at an altitude of 12,000 feet ASL. In this case, it’s two crew members should have been wearing their oxygen masks and using supplemental oxygen for what period of time? a) 30minutes. b) 45 minutes. ©) 60 minutes. 4) 90 minutes. Each person on board the aircraft shall be weating an 02 mask and using supplemental 02 for the duration of that portion of any flight which takes place at cabin pressure altitudes above: a) 18,000 feet ASL. b) 15,000 feet ASL. ©) 13,000 feet AS d) 12,000 feet ASL. For any flight that will be operating for more than 30 minutes at cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 feet ASL but not exceeding 13,000 feet ASL, the required minimum number of 02 masks (and 02 supply) that must be available when 20 passengers are carried would be: a 20 0 Qo 5 d) 2 AeroCourse Acro’ ours18, 19. 20. 2 22.7 23. Canadian Aviation Regulations ‘The validity period for a Transportation of Dangerous Goods (TDG) Training Certificate, after its date of issuance, is: a) 36 months. b) 24 months. ©) 18 months. 12 months. Airoraft seat belts are required to be worn during flight by: a) _all;passengers during take-off and landing only. b) infant passengers at all times. ©) all passengers at all times. 4) at least one pilot at all times. Airline Operations require flight crew members who are on flight deck duty to remain at their respective stations with their seat belt and shoulder harnesses fastened below: a) 18,000 feet ASL. b) 12,500 feet AST. ©) 10,000 feet ASE. 4) 3,500 feet AGL. How soon after an aircraft accident should the relevant information pertaining to its occurrence be reported {o the Transportation Safety Board of Canada? a) Within 7 days and by registered mail. 1) As soon as possible and by the quickest means of communication available. ©) Within 10 days and by telephone. 6) Within 24 hours and either by telephone or email. Any aircraft that has been involved in an accident causing death or injury may not be moved or interfered with in any way in order to without first obtaining permission from the Minister. The missing words are: a) remove the Aircraft Joumey Log. ) avoid danger to any person or property. ©) extricate a person. 4) prevent destruction by fire, ‘The “Operator” of an aircraft is: 8) the pilot-in-command. 6) the owner of the aircraft. ©) _ the person in possession of the aircraf @) the lessee of the airerat AeroCourse) i AcroCourse’)Canadian ATPL Workbook A LARGE aircraft is a term used to describe which of the following: a) anaircraft with a maximum certificated take-off weight of more than 5,700 kg or 12,500 Ibs. b) —_aturbine engine-powered aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off weight of more than 44,000 Ibs. ©) anaircraft with 2 maximum certificated take-off weight of 15,000 kg (33,069 Ibs) or more. 4) anaircraft with 2 maximum certificated take-off weight of 50,000 Ibs or more. For wake turbulence categorization purposes, the term “Heavy” is used to indicate an aircraft certificated for a maximum take-off weight of: a) 150,000 kg or more. ) 200,000 Ibs or more. ©) 300,000 kg or more. 4) 300,000 tbs or more. ICAO wake turbulence categories use the term “Light” to indicate an aircraft type with a maximum certificated take-off mass of: a) 15,500 Ibs or less. b) 12,500 Ibs or less. ©) 7,500 Ibs or less. 4) 6,000 Ibs or less. ‘The term INFANT is used to designate a person whose age range is: a) Otoless than 1 year. b) —_Otoless than 2 years. ©) Oto, and including, 6 months. 400, and including, 12 months. ‘The number of entries from the previous Joumey Log to be carried forward to become the first entries of anew Joumey Log would be: a) a sufficient number of relevant entries to ensure some sort of meaningful continuity. b) the last 5 entries ©) the number of consecutive entries required to include the last maintenance action performed on the aircraft 4) the last page of entries. AeroCourse AcrosOur29, 30. 31 32. 33, Canadian Aviation Regulations Identify the correct statement with respect to the completion of aircraft tasks by a pilot that are identified as Elementary Work: 8) The pilot is required to sign a maintenance release prior to the next flight. b) The pilot should make signed entries in both the Aircraft Technical Log and the Aircraft Journey Log detailing the tasks completed. ©) An AME or an Authorized Person must sign a maintenance release before another flight in that aircraft is undertaken. 4) The pilot shall make an entry in the Aircraft Joumey Log detailing the completed tasks and accompany this entry with his/her signature. ‘A Third Attitude Indicator that is powered from a source independent of the aircrafts electrical generating system must be aboard: ) any lange aeroplane powered by reciprocating engines. b) any turbine-powered aeroplane that operates above FL250. ©) any large turbo-jet-powered aeroplane or any turbine-powered Transport Category aeroplane operated by an air carrier. 4) any turbine-powered aeroplane used in Commercial Air Service operations. When a Third Attitude Indicator is required to be aboard an aixeraft it must: a) beable to provide pitch and roll signals to an autopilot. b) provide a pitch and roll reference within the 5 second period immediately following the failure of the aircraft's electrical generating system. ©) havea fast-erect mechanism which will provide an audio waning when its gyro has reached its, normal operating speed. @ provide a minimum of 30 minutes of reliable operation following the failure of the aircraft's electrical generating system. A multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane that was manufactured afler October Ith, 1991, configured for 10 or more passengers and for which a minimum of 2 crew is required by the type certificate, must have which of the following types of equipment aboard? a) Flight Data Recorder only. b) Cockpit Voice Recorder only. ©) Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice Recorder. 4 Flight Data Recorder and Enhanced GPWS. For those aircraft which are required to have a functioning Cockpit Voice Recorder on board, it must be ‘operated continuously from: 4) the time at which electrical power is first provided to the recorder before the flight to the time at which electrical power is removed from the recorder after the flight. 6) the commencement of the take-off roll to the completion of the landing roll. ©) the beginning of the start checklist to the completion of the shutdown checklist engine start-up to clearing the landing runway at the destination, AeroCourse) Acrofours:34, 35, 37. 18 Canadian ATPL Workbook Consider an aircraft with no approved Minimum Equipment List and which is required to have a functioning Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and a functioning Plight Data Recorder (FDR) on board. If the CVR is unserviceable, this aircraft may: a) only be flown back to its maintenance base via a direet route b) _be flown for a maximum period of 90 days provided the FDR remains serviceable. ©) not be flown with passengers aboard until itis repaired. note flown until a flight permit has been obtained. ‘When the Altitude Alerting System of a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane, that requires such a device aboard, is unserviceable, what type of flights are permitted if'no MEL has been approved for this aircraft? a) _ only flights that will operate in the low level airspace structure. }) only those flights that are designated as test flights, Pilot Proficiency Checks or training flights. ©) any flight that is restricted to day VFR conditions. @) only flight crew training flights. ‘The requirement to have a functioning GPWS aboard a turbo-jet-powered aeroplane that is involved in either Commuter or Airline operations commences at what MCTOW and authorized passenger configuration? 8) More than 5,700 kg (12,566 Ibs); more than 6 passengers. b) More than 8,618 kg (19,000 Ibs); more than 9 passengers, ©) More than 15,000 kg (33,069 lbs); 20 or more passengers. 4) More than 15,000 kg (33,069 Ibs); 10 or more passengers. In addition to the fuel estimated for contingencies, an aeroplane flown in a Commuter operation and that is equipped with turbo-jet engines, shall have on board at the commencement of an IFR flight sufficient {uel to allow the aeroplane to: 8) fly to its destination, execute an approach and missed approach, then fly to the alternate airport and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes at 1,500 feet above the alternate airport. b) fly to its destination airport and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. ©) fly toand execute an approach and a missed approach at the destination aerodrome, to fly to and land at the alternate aerodrome and then fly for a period of 30 minutes, Additional fuel must be carried to allow the aeroplane to descend at any point along the route to the lower of the single- engine service ceiling or 10,000 feet, to cruise at that altitude to a suitable aerodrome, to conduct an approach and missed approach and to hold for 30 minutes at an altitude of 1,500 ft above the elevation of that aerodrome. 8) fly toand execute an approach and missed approach at the destination aerodrome, then to fly to the alternate aerodrome and to be able to fly at cruise power for a further 45 minutes. AeroCourse)38. 39, 40. 41. 42, Canadian Aviation Regulations Unless otherwise authorized, when an aeroplane in Airline Operations conducis a VER flight, it must carry sufficient fuel to fly to: 4) _its destination, then to an altemate aerodrome and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. b) its destination and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. ©) its destination and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. 4) its destination, then to an altemate aerodrome and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. ‘The additional aircraft equipment requirement for single-pilot operation in IMC is: a) a functioning 2-axis auto-pilot (lateral and longitudinal axes). ») headset with boom microphone and a transmit button on the control column. ©) alighted chart holder that is placed in an easily readable position. 4) allofthe above. ‘The farthest distance that a land aeroplane may operate from shore without having to carry a life preserver or flotation device for each person on board is: a) 200mm, >’) 100mm, °) 50mm. 25am. A Transport Category aeroplane which carries a life preserver or flotation device for each person on board is about to operate on a flight over the water. In this case, the maximum distance from a suitable emergency landing site that this aeroplane may fly without having to carry life rafis on board would be the lesser of: a) 400 nm or the distance that can be covered in 120 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed. b) 200 nm or the distance that ean be covered in 60 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed. ©) 100 nmor the distance that can be covered in 30 minutes of flight at the filed cruising speed. @ —50nmor the distance that can be covered in 15 minutes of flight atthe filed cruising speed. A true statement regarding the use of the flight control lock system of an aircraft would be: a) The aircraft engines can not be started when this mechanism is engaged, b) An unmistakable waning must be provided to the pilot when the flight control lock is engaged. ©) When this mechanism is engaged, it will lock the elevator in the fall nose-up position. 4) If this system is installed in an aircraft powered by reciprocating engines, the mixture control, can not be adjusted when the flight control lock is engaged. AeroCourse) e rs SY43, 44, 45. 46. 110 Canadian ATPL Workbook You are the owner of a foreign-manufactured aircraft that is now registered in Canada. If that foreign manufacturer issues an Airworthiness Directive (AD) applicable to your aircraft type, you would know that: a) Your compliance with the AD would not be required until it had been published in the “Index of Airworthiness Directives Applicable in Canada”, b) An exemption for compliance with any AD issued by a foreign goverment can always be obtained from the nearest TC Maintenance and Manufacturing office. ©) _Evenif' compliance with a foreign AD is not met, the Certificate of Airworthiness for your aircraft will continue to remain in force until its next Annval Inspection, 4 You, the aircraft owner, must ensure that compliance with the AD is met. Which of the items or statements listed below are regulatory requirements for the operation of a single- engine aeroplane in an Air Taxi VER night flight carrying passengers? 1) The acroplane must be factory built and turbine powered. 2) Two ATPL-licenced pilots on board. 3) A radar altimeter. 4) The aeroplane must operate at least 1500 feet above all obstacles within 5 nm of the aeroplane 5) Two independent power generating sources. 6) A maximum of 12 passengers may be carried 7). This type of operation must be authorized in the Air Operator Certificate of the operator. 8) A functioning landing light. a) 1,2, 5,6, 8. b) 2,3, 4,7, 8. 2 1,3,4, 6,7. ¢) 1,3, 5,7,8. A setviceable transponder with automatic pressure-altitude reporting equipment is required by all aircraft that intend to operate within: a) the Canadian high level airspace. b) all Class A, B and C airspace as well as within any Class D or B airspace that has been specified as transponder airspace. ©) ‘any controlled low level airspace above 9,500 feet ASL. 4) all Class B, C and D airspace and within any active Restricted airspace. The correct method of operating the aircraft transponder for a VFR flight that will climb to a cruise altitude above 12,500 feet ASL would be to adjust the transponder to reply on code: 8) 1200 until the aircraft leaves 12,500 fect ASL in the climb and then to code 1400 for operation above that altitude, b) 1000 until the aircraft climbs above 12,500 feet ASL and then to code to 2000. ©) 1200 unfil the aircraft has reached its cruising altitude and then code 1400. 4) 1200 until the aircraft reaches 12,500 feet ASL and then to code 1000 for operation above that altitude, AeroCourse)47. 48. 49, 50. SI Canadian Aviation Regulations Pilots of IFR aircraft operating within controlled or uncontrolled high level airspace shall, unless otherwise instructed by ATC, adjust their transponder to reply on Mode A, Code: a) 1000 and on Mode C. b) 1500 and on Mode C. ©) 2000 and on Mode C. 4) 3000 and on Mode C. ‘As a measure of enhancing safety, a pilot should adjust the aircraft transponder to reply on Mode A, Code 1000, plus Mode C (if available) for which of the following occasions? a) A VER flight along a low level airway above 12,500 feet ASL. b) —_AMIER flight that is operating at FL180 or above and for which ATC has not assigned a transponder code, ©) A VER flight that is operating within the Canadian ADIZ. 4) AnJFR flight along a low level Air Route. An aircraft that had been using Code 7500 on its transponder subsequently changes to code 7700. This sequence of transponder operation would indicate that: a) the aircraft had developed an unrelated emergency following the unlawful interference. b) the aireraft is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance. ©) the aircraft is unable to transmit any ETA"s and changes to planned destination following unlawful interference. @ the pilot is making every effort to inform ATC of how serious this hijack situation is by using this code sequence to activate their radar monitor alarm systems. Consider the situation during which a CF-18 military aircraft assumes a position in front of, and to the Jef of, your civilian aircraft while in cruising flight and then commences to rock its wings. This visual signal initiated by the military jet means: a) Yow are operating in an active Restricted airspace; call the interceptor on 121.5 MEZz for instructions. b) Youre to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and phone the Search and Rescue Centre in your region as soon as possible. ©) You have been intercepted, 4) You have been identified as not being hostile and may proceed to your destination aerodrome. With respect to VFR flight operations within the Canadian ADIZ, the tolerances for ETA’s, projected, ADIZ, boundary entry point positions and flight plan track centerline deviation are: a) 43 minutes and 20 nm. 6) 43 mimutes and 10 nm. ©) 45 minutes and 20 nm. 4) +5 minutes and 10 nm. AeroCourse mu AeroCourse’)52. 53. 54, 58. 56. 57. Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘Any aircraft that is not involved in forest fire control activities should not fly tower than __feet AGL ‘when operating closer than _nm from the limits of a forest fire area. The missing numbers are, respectively: a) 5,000 and 3. b) 1,300 ands. ©) 2,000 and 3. @, 3,000 and 5. Other than for the purpose of taking off or landing, an aircraft shall not be flown over an aerodrome at a height less than: a) 500 feet AGL. b) 1,000 feet AGL. ©) 1,500 feet AGL. 4) 2,000 feet AGL. ‘The movement area of an aerodrome includes: 8) the manoeuvring area plus aprons. b) only the taxiways and the ramp areas, c) all runways and taxiways but excludes any aprons. 4) only the aprons and any ramp surfaces used for engine run-ups, ‘The dimensions of a Mandatory Frequency Area associated with an aerodrome are published a) onthe appropriate Enroute Low Altitude Charts. b) im the applicable FIR General NOTAM Summary. ©) onthe appropriate VNC or WAC VER Navigation Charts. @ inthe Canada Flight Supplement. When flight planning over mountainous terrain during the winter months when air temperatures may be much lower than ISA, pilots should select an operating altitude which is at least __feet higher than the MEA/MOCA. The missing number is a) “2,500 b) 2,000 2) 1,500 4) 1,000 Within Designated Mountainous Regions 1 and 5, the minimum IFR altitude to be used by an TF aircraft that is operating outside of areas for which minimum IFR altitudes have been established is at least: a) 3,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 10 nm of the aireraf b) 2,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within 5 nm of the aircraft ¢) 1,500 ft. above the highest obstacle within 10 nm of the aircraft @) 1,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within 5 nm of the aircraft AeroCourse)58, 59. 61. 02 63 Canadian Aviation Regulations Determination of the appropriate altitude for cruising flight in the Northem Domestic Airspace is based on the aircraft's: a) magnetic heading, b) —trucheading, ©) magnetic track, 4) true track. ‘The base of the Arctic Control Area is: a) FL330 b) —FL290 °) FL270 d FL230 An aircraft would be operating in Class A airspace anytime that it was flying within: a) any portion of Canadian Controlled High Level Airspace at FL600 and below. b) _allof'the Northern Domestic Airspace above 18,000 f.ASL. ©) Military Terminal Control Area between 12,500 {LASL. and 17,999 f.ASL. 4) _allofthe Canadian Domestic Airspace above FL600. IER flight only is permitted for aircraft that wish to operate within the Northem Control Area from: a) FL230 and above. b) L230 to FL600 inclusive. ©) FL250 and above. 4) FL270 to FL600 inclusive. What airspace would a northbound aircraft flying at FLL260 enter immediately after departing the northem boundary of the Southern Control Area? a) The Artic Control Area. b) Uncontrolled high level airspace, ©) The Northem Control Area. 4 Canadian Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace. Consider an aircraft flying at FL190 that has just exited the northern boundary of the Southern Control Area northbound. If the pilot now wishes to climb to and maintain FL220, he/she should: a) request the desired flight level change from ATC. b) broadcast the intended change on 122.8 MHz and then make the change. ©) inform the nearest Flight Information Centre of the intended change in flight level and then make the change. 4) broadcast the intended change on 126.7 MH¥z and then make the change. AeroCoursé) aad64. 65. 66. 67. 68. Canadian ATPL Workbook All high level controlled airspace above FL.600 within the Canadian Domestic Airspace structure has been designated: a) Class A. b) Class G. ©) Chass E. @) ChassF. Which of the following regions would constitute Class B Airspace? 8) That portion of a control area extension above 9,500 ft. ASL up to, but not including, 18,000 ft. ASL. b) Airspace that underlies the Northern Control Area and extends from 12,500 8. ASL up to, but not including, FL230. ©) Transition Areas adjacent to Class C control zones that extend vertically from 700 ft. ASL up to 2,200 ft. ASL @) Within Low Level Airways above 12,500 ft. ASL or at and above the MEA, whichever is the higher. ‘That airspace within a Victor Airway at 12,500 ft. ASL and below would be designated as: a) Class B. b) Class E °) The airspace classification that applies to that portion of a Low Level Air Route that extends above 12,500 ft. ASL up to, but not including, 18,000 ft. ASL is: a) Class G. b) Class B. ©) Class B. Class. Consider an airport with a Class C control zone. What would be the status of this airport and its control zone airspace classification when the tower is not operating? a) —_Conttolled airport; Class B airspace. b) Controlled airport; Class D airspace ©) Uncontrolled airport; Class B airspace. 4) Uncontrolled airport; Class G airspace. AeroCoursé)69. 10. n, 72. 3B. Canadian Aviation Regulations An example of Class D airspace would be: a) by °°) 4g A Military Flying Area, A control zone without an operating control tower. ‘The transition area which underlies the lateral limits of the CMNPS Airspace. ‘A control zone with an operating control {ower and whose airspace has not been designated as Class B or Class C. ‘Which of the following types of controlled airspace that are based in the Low Level airspace can extend ‘upwards into the High Level airspace structure? a) b) °) ad Victor Airways. Control Area Extensions. ‘Terminal Control Areas. Class C control zones associated with Canada’s major airports. ‘A tue statement regarding an active Restricted Area would be: a) b) °°) ad Flight through an active Restricted Area is prohibited at all times. A pilot may fly through an Active Restricted Area provided that either an IFR or DVER flight plan has been filed for the flight and during that time the aircraft operates within the Restricted ‘Area the pilot maintains a continuous listening watch on 121.5 MHz. Aircraft on an IFR flight plan or on an IER flight Itinerary will automatically be cleared by ATC to fly through an active Restricted Area. A pilot may fly through an active Restricted Area if prior permission has been obtained from the controlling suthority. With respect to Class F advisory airspace, pilots should know that: a) ») 9 g an advisory area is a region of positively controlled airspace. specific instructions that apply to the use of advisory airspace are detailed in the Planning section of the CFS. pilots of activity-participating aircraft within an advisory area, as well as pilots of aircraft lying through the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance. TER aircraft that are transiting an advisory area will always receive ATC vectoring to resolve potential conflicts with any VER aircraft within the area. ‘An advisory area charted as CYA134(A) informs a pilot that: a) ») °°) @) ‘To 6000 acrobatic flight is conducted in this area. aircraft test flights take place in this area. aircraft test activities may be conducted up to, but not including 6,000 ft. AGL. this advisory area is located in Ontario (due to its regional identifying mumber of 134). AeroCoursé _ AeroCourse)74, 758. 16. 2B. Canadian ATPL Workbook RVSM-ceriified aircraft that intend to fly along a High Level Airway between F290 and FL410 inclusive and with a published track of 265°M should be operated at: a) odd flight levels at 4,000 foot intervals. b) _even flight levels at 4,000 foot intervals. ©) odd flight levels at 2,000 foot intervals. 4) even flight levels at 2,000 foot intervals. ‘The next four RVSM flight levels immediately above FL290 that would be appropriate for the operation of an RVSM-certified aircraft whose track is 000°M would be: a) FL310, FL330, FL350, FL370. b) _FL300, FL320, FL340, FL360, ©) FL310, FL350, FL390, FLA30, @) —_ FL300, FL340, FL380, FL420, When ATC has temporarily suspended RVSM within selected non-radar coverage areas due to adve ‘weather conditions, controllers will then provide ___ feet vertical separation for opposite direction traffic and feet vertical separation for same direction traffic, The missing numbers are, respectively: 2) 1,000 feet; 2,000 feet. b) © 2,000 feet; 2,000 feet. ©) 2,000 feet; 4,000 feet. d) 4,000 feet; 2,000 feet. In order to increase a VHF/UHF airway’s basic width of__NM, __° splay (diverging) lines are projected either side of the airway centre line and intersect the basic airway width boundary at a distance of __NM from the navigation facility. The missing numbers are, respectively: a) 4555508 bd) 854.5; 50.8 ©) 8.68; 5; 49.66 D 4,45; 49.66 ‘The basic width of an airway that is based on NDB navigational facilities is: a) _8.68.NM total out to 49.66 NM from the facility, then plus 5° splay. b) —-4.34.'NM out to 50.8/NM from the facility, then plus 4.5° splay. ©) _ 8 NM total out to 50.8 NM from the facility, then plus 5° splay. @) 434M out to 49.66 NM from the facility, then plus 4.5° splay. AeroC urse)79. 80, 81. 82 Canadian Aviation Regulations ‘As you near your destination airport which is located within the Standard Pressure Region, you brief yourself on the instrument approach procedure to be used and prepare for initial descent. The correct altimeter-setting procedure you should use for this approach is: 8) Continue with 29.92” (Hig) on the altimeter until crossing the primary approach fix cutbound, and then set the altimeter to the current airport setting. ») Set the aircraft altimeter to the current airport setting 15 minutes prior to commencing the instrument approach, ©) Change the aircraft altimeter from 29.92” to the current airport setting immediately after intercepting the final approach track inbound during the approach, 4) Set the aircraft altimeter to the current airport altimeter setting prior to commencing descent with the intention to land, When conducting a holding procedure prior to landing at an aerodrome located within the Standard Pressure Region, the pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall: ) set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome of intended landing immediately afler completing the hold entry procedure. ) not set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the landing aerodrome until departing the holding fix for the purpose of conducting an approach procedure. ©) not set the aireraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the aerodrome of intended landing until immediately prior to descending below the lowest flight level at which the holding procedure is conducted. @) set the aircraft altimeter to the current altimeter setting of the landing aerodrome immediately prior to commencing the hold entry procedure. You have just departed IFR on a planned flight between two aerodromes in the Standard Pressure Region and are climbing to a cruising level of FL130. You should set the aircraft altimeter to standard pressure (29.92” of Hg): a) _ immediately prior to take-off. b) after ensuring that all obstacles along the departure track have been cleared by at least 1,000 fect. ©) just after Ievel-off at F130. 4) immediately prior to reaching FL130, ‘The pilot of an IFR aircraft that is climbing during departure out of Edmonton International Aixport is cleared to climb to and maintain FL270. In this case, the pilot should set the aircraft altimeter to standard pressure (29.92” of Fig) immediately: a) after level-off at FL270. ) after climbing through 18,000 feet ASL. ©) prior to reaching FL270, 4) prior to reaching 18,000 feet ASL. 1-17 AeroCourse’)83. 84, 85, 86. 87. Canadian ATPL Workbook With the exception of aircraft on departure or as permitted by CAR 603, no person shall operate an aircraft in Canada below 10,000 feet ASL at an indicated airspeed of more than: a) 230k, db) .250kts, 0) 265k, d) 275kts Unless otherwise authorized in an air traffic control clearance, the pilot of an aircraft that is operating below 3,000 feet AGL within 10 NM of a controlled airport shall not operate at a speed of more than: a) 200k. b) 230 kts ©) 250 kts. 26515. ‘The maximum holding speed for a civil turbojet aircraft at an assigned altitude of 14,000 feet ASL is: a) 175KIAS. ) 200 KIAS. ©) 230KIAS. 4) 265 KIAS. The pilot ofa civil turbojet aircraft operating at an indicated airspeed of 305 Kts. is assigned a hold at 16,000 feet ASL. In this case, the pilot should: 8) ross the holding fix at 305 kts or less and after completing the entry procedure, reduce to an indicated airspeed of 230 kts. of less. b) reduce aircraft speed to 300 kts. or less prior to crossing the holding fix and then ensure that the speed is back to 230 kts. as the aircraft becomes established in the hold, ©) reduce aircraft speed so as the cross the holding fix at 265 kts. or less and then fly the hold at 265 Mts. or less. 4) cross the holding fix at 305 kts. or less and extend the outbound leg of the entry procedure so as to cross the holding fix the second time at 265 kts. or below. ‘When a turboprop aircraft operating at 30,000 feet ASL or below is assigned a holding procedure, the pilot must ensure that the holding pattern is entered and flown at or below: a) 150s, b) 175 kts. ©) 200kts, 4 230k,88. 89. 90, 1 92. (Canadian Aviation Regulations ‘An adjusted speed that has been assigned to an aircraft by an ATC radar controller should be maintained within: a) 420 kts, b) 41S kts. ©) 410 kis, 4) £5 kis, ATC must be notified as soon as practicable by the pilot of an aircraft on an IFR flight plan when he/she intends to operate at a speed that differs from the filed TAS by ___ or more, or the filed Mach No. by ___or more, The missing numbers are: a) S%and.01M. b) —-Skts, or 01M. ©) 5% and 05M. ¢) Sits. and 10M, ‘The radar separation minimum that ATC controllers will apply between a preceding IFR/VFR heavy aircraft and a medium aircraft vectored directly behind it and at less than 1,000 feet below is 2) 6 miles b) Smiles 3 4miles, 3 miles. With respect to the non-radar departure of a light aircraft from the threshold of the same runway as a preceding medium aitcraft, what spacing interval will ATC apply? a) a four-minute interval. b) a three-minute interval. ©) a two-minute interval... 4) no interval, but ATC will issue a wake turbulence advisory to the light aircraft. Consider a fight itinerary that was filed with an FIC and in which no SAR time was specified. The pilot ‘who terminates this flight itinerary shall ensure that an arrival report is filed with the FIC as soon as possible after landing but no later than: a) 48 hours after landing, b) 12 hours after the last reported ETA. ©) 24 hours after the last reported ETA. 4) 48 hours after the last reported ETA. AeroCourse) _ Acrotourse )94. 95. 96. 97, 1-20 Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘An uncontrolled aerodrome has no published MF or ATF. In this case, the common frequeney to be used for the broadcast of aircraft position and the intentions of pilots flying in the vicinity of this aerodrome would be: a) 122.8 MHz, b) 123.2 Mz. ©) 126.7 Miz, d) 1223 MHz. A VER aircraft has received a SVFR clearance to enter a control zone at night and as been cleared by the tower for a straight-in approach to the active runway. Due to the prevailing low ceiling and reduced ‘light visibility, the pilot is unsure as to the exact location of a TV broadcast antenna in the immediate vicinity. The responsibility for avoiding this obstacle is: 8) assumed by the tower controller who will provide vectors if required. b) shared equally by the tower controller and the pilot. ©) assumed by the pilot @) shared by both the nearest terminal control unit and the tower controler. From the statements conceming IFR flight planning which follow, identify the one which is correct: a) An JER flight from Montreal to Cancun, Mexico does not require the filing of an ICAO flight plan. b) A composite flight plan may be filed for an aircraft that will enter American airspace controlled by the FAA. ©) An IFR flight plan will be automatically closed by ATC for an aircraft whose pilot has stated “cancelling IFR”. @) Intermediate stops may not be included in a single TFR flight plan. The Touchdown Zone of the landing runway comprises whichever isthe lesser a) the first 3,500 feet or the first one-half of the runway. b) the first 3,000 feet or the first third of the runway. ©) the first 2,000 feet or the first one-quarter of the runway. @) the first 1,000 feet or the first one-fifth of the runway. ‘The simultaneous use of intersecting runways known as land and hold short operations (LAHSO) may be carried out under certain conditions. One of these would be: a) A pilot who has accepted the hold short clearance must remain 200 feet short of the closest edge of the runway being intersected. bd) A tailwind of 10 kts. or less for ether a dry or a wet runway is acceptable for normal LAHSO. ©) The weather minima of a 1,500 foot ceiling and a visibility of 5 statute miles are required. 4) Only those runways with average coefficients of friction above 0.45 will be approved for wet runway LAHSO.98, 100. » 101. Canadian Aviation Regulations ‘As you analyze the weather for a proposed IFR flight, you determine that abnormally high pressure conditions will be present on arrival at the destination aerodrome producing an altimeter setting there of 31.29 inches(Hg). This aerodrome has an ILS approach with a Decision Height (DE) of 320 (200- 3/4), Since you are unable to set the current altimeter setting on the aircraft altimeter, you must apply adjustments to the weather requirements(ceiling and visibility) which would now become: a) 620-2% Ree bv) 500-1% ) — 800-2% 4d) 620-1% A true statement regarding an ATC clearance would be: @) A clearance is authorization to proceed under specified conditions within controlled and uncontrolled airspace. b) A clearance issued to an IFR aircraft is predicated on the movements of all other IFR and VER ithin a section of controlled airspace. ° tive issued to an aircraft by an ATC controller that requires the pilot to take a specific action. 4 Once a pilot supplies a read-back of an ATC clearance, then compliance shall be made with that clearance. 090249 NOTAMN CYYT ST. JOHN’S INTL ZYT- OUTER COVE NDB 246 U/S TIL APRX 0906101630 With respect to this NOTAM, a correct statement would be: a) The referenced NDB will be usable at approximately1630Z on October 6, 2009. b) The NOTAM will expire on October 6, 2009. ) Either a replacing or cancelling NOTAM will be issued regarding the future serviceability of the ZYT NDB. @) Twas issued at 02492, June 10, 2009 and operational use of the ZYT NDB will be permitted after 1630Z unless a Replacing NOTAM is issued. North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace (NAT MNPSA) exists over the North Atlantic between: a) FLI80 and FL410. b) — FL275 and FL4I0. ©) FL230 and FL430. d) —-FL285 and FL420, ) AeroCoursé te AeroCours (Canadian ATPL Workbook AeroCourse)Canadian Aviation Regulations Answer Key Canadian Air Regulations cee ocKasoscoacacoscoagstocacee 31 32, 33. 34, 35, 36. 37. 38 39, 40. 4, 42, 43, 45, 46. 47. 48. 49, 50. SL 52. 53 54, 35, 36. 37. 58. 59, 60. 61 2. 63. 6A, 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. n. 72. B. 74, 75, 76. 71. 8. 19. 80, 81 82, 83 84, 86. 87. 88) 89. eenceeranoognesseagsoacoaroe oe AeroCoursé Aeoours' ceoceoceeracan cone canace seo noS 91. 92. 93. 95, 96. 98, 100. 101 poaceraocen1-24 Canadian ATPL Workbook AeroCourse)Meteorology General MET GENERAL 1, That part of the earth’s atmosphere which contains all the elements of the weather is a) The insolation zone. b) The mesosphere. ©) The troposphere. @) The terrestrial radiation zone. 2. That region of the atmosphere between the stratopause and the mesopause is known as: a) The exosphere. b) The thermosphere. ©) The ionosphere. The mesosphere. 3. A nearly colorless gas that is a very strong absorber of ultraviolet radiation and which is found at all altitudes in the atmosphere is: a) b) °) 4d Carbon monoxide. Nitrogen pentoxide, Ozone. ° ‘Methane. 4. The earth’s surface is heated by: a) Short wave solar radiation. b) Kinetic activity in the lower troposphere. ©) Long wave solar radiation, 4) Conduction. 5. Temperatures in the lower stratosphere approximate those: a) That exist at the 300 hPa pressure surface. b) Of the stratopause, ©) That are observed at the midpoint of the earth’s laminar boundary layer, 4) Of the tropopause. AeroCoursé) a AeroCourse)10. LL 22 Canadian ATPL Workbook In the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) the temperature at Sea Level is 15°C and the pressure at ‘that level is 1013.2 hPa, What would be the ISA temperature for FL300? a -75°C b) 45°C 3) 60°C d 565°C ‘The actual temperature at FL280 today is 48°C. How would this temperature be expressed in terms of an ISA deviation? a) ISA-10°C b) ISA+PC ) ISA-7°C d) ISA#8°C ‘Whenever air moves horizontally it is influenced by the Coriolis force which is caused by: a) Rotation of the earth b) ——_-Vorticity in the lower atmosphere ©) Mesoscale gravity waves @)—— Geostrophie acceleration ‘The term that refers primarily to atmospheric motions in the vertical direction is: a) Adveetion b) Convection ©) Dispersion, d) Convergence. ‘eat transfer from molecule to molecule without significant movement of the molecules is called: a) Conveetion. b) Kinetic transfer. ©) Convergence. 4) Conduction, ‘When surface temperatures rise due to daytime heating, this heating effect is transmitted aloft by: a) Convection >) Transpiration ©) Conduction. a) Evaporation. AeroCourse)12, 13. \. 15, 16. 11. Meteorology General Which of the following would experience the least diumal range in temperature a) ‘Tropical rain forest. b) Temperate zone oceans. ¢) Desert. 4) Mountain valleys ‘The lifting process responsible for the choppy type of turbulence often encountered during flight within the lower 3000 feet of the troposphere is: a) Orographic lif. b) Convergence. ©) Mechanical turbulence. 4) Advectional cooling, Which of the following is not a lifting agent? a) Evaporation. b) Convection, ©) Mechanical turbulence. 4) Convergence. “Meteorologists use the term convergence fo depiet ar that is a) Jamming into an area. b) Lifting orographicalty. ©) Spreading out from an area, 4) Becoming conditionally stable. Which of the following processes can result in expansional cooling, subsequent condensation and formation of cloud? a) Subsidence, b) Divergence. ©) Frontolysis. d)—— Overrumning ‘The clouds and precipitation often associated with a eyelone are due to: a) The presence of strong winds and associated mechanical turbulence. b) The associated cold outflow leads to a steep lapse rate and instability. ©) Convergence and ascending air. 4) —__Advectional heating of moist air that inflows across the surface isobars. AeroCourse) z aan18, 19. 20, 21. 22, 23. 24 Canadian ATPL Workbook Which of the following would be used to describe the process whereby a rising, expanding parcel of air does not undergo any heat transfer in or out of the parcel as it ascends? a) b) °°) ad Osmotic. Diabatic. Isentropic. Adiabatic, Subsiding air, even if itis initially saturated, will: a) »d) ° 4) Continue to warm at the saturated adiabatic lapse rate ‘Warm at the dry adiabatic lapse rate Warm at the environmental lapse rate Increase in temperature at the ISA lapse rate. With respect to air that is descending rapidly down the lee slopes of a mountain range, which of the following statements is true? . a) b) °) a Considerable cloud will be found near the end of its descent. This air will warm atthe dry adiabatic lapse rate almost immediately after the start of its descent. ‘The relative humidity of this air increases rapidly during its descent. ‘Warming of this air will be at the saturated adiabatic lapse rate during most of its descent. ‘When air subsides, normally the: 2) » °) d Pressure gradient steepens. Moisture content increases. ‘Temperature decreases. Relative humidity decreases. During the condensation process which of the following is true? 2) » °) % ‘The relative humidity of the surrounding air decreases. Latent heat is released to the surrounding air. Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air. The condensed water vapor molecules will enter a higher energy state. The rate at which rising dry air cools or subsiding dry air warms when no heat is transferred to or from other surrounding sources is: a) b) °) @ 1.5°C/1000 feet. 2.0°C/1000 fet. 3.0°C/1000 feet. 3.5°C/1000 feet. AeroCoursé)24, 25, 26. 27. 28. 29. Meteorology General Rising saturated air cools less rapidly than rising unsaturated air because: 8) Moist air rises much faster resulting in a greater heat retention. b) The condensed water vapor is able to store incoming solar radiation. ©) Saturated airhas a greater allowable molecular movement. @) Heats released during the condensation of water vapor. With a surface temperature of 28°C and a dewpoint temperature of 16°C reported at your airport, you ‘would predict the base of any convective cloud that might form to be approximately: a) 7600 fect AGL. b) 6400 feet AGL. ©) 4900 feet AGL. @ 2900 feet AGL. With respect to a rising parcel of air which commences to ascend from a Sea Level airport where the temperature is 30°C, what would be its temperature at 14,000 feet above sea level if it became saturated at 6,000 feet above sea level? a 42°C. oe. Qo 1 dd 46°C. ‘When discussing the stability/instability of the atmosphere, we are referring to: a) The diurnal fluctuations in the height of pressure surfaces aloft b) ——_Approperty of the atmosphere which suppresses or promotes vertical motion, ©) The varying speeds and slopes of frontal surfaces and their effect on the surface temperature field. 4 The effects of macro-scale temperature distribution in the upper troposphere. ‘The stability of warm, dry air depends on the relationship between the: a) Saturated adiabatic lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate. b) Dry adiabatic lapse rate and the standard lapse rate. ©) Dry adiabatic lapse rate and the environmental lapse rate. 4) Saturated adiabatic lapse rate and the environmental lapse rate. Stable air is most likely to be associated with: a) Coldair advecting over a warm surface. b) —_Showery precipitation. ©) Gusty winds. 4) Sustained low visibility. AeroCourse) ced ere)30, 31 32, 33. 34, 35, 26 Canadian ATPL Workbook Haze layers, drizzle and fog are features of: a) Overrunning air. b) Stable ai. ©) Aconvergence zone. @)——_Advectional heating of cold air. ‘One weather condition that may affect visibility in unstable air is: a) Haze layers. b) Snow showers oc) Drizale dé) Fog Stable air becomes unstable as a result of: a) Subsidence. b) —_Radiational cooling. ©) Addition of moisture. @) Heating from below. A good signpost of mid-level instability would be the presence of: a) Stratocumulus. b) ——Citrocumulus. ©) Altocumulus castellanus. 4) Cumulus fractus. Which of the following effectively inhibits or blocks the rising currents of air? a) —_A frontal depression. b) A supercooled layer aloft ©) Aninversion, @)—— Acconvergence zone. ‘The pilot of an aircraft would expect the smoothest low level flight during a hot summer afternoon when passing over which of the following surface features? a) A forest b) — Aplowed field o) lake d — Avineyard AeroCoursé)36. 37, 38, 39. 40. al. Meteorology General A pressure of 200 hPa is closest to which of the following levels in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere? a FL600, bd) FLASO. ©) -FL390, 4) L340, FL450 is associated with which pressure level in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere? a) 250 hPa, b) 150 hPa. ©) 200hPa. ) 300nP a. The vertical distance between any two specific pressure levels is: ) Greater in cold air than in warm aie. b) Not affected by the temperature of the air. ©) Less in cold air than in warm air. Solely determined by the adiabatic Lapse rate. Flying in the lower levels towards the centre of an anticyclone which has a strong pressure gradient, a pilot would expect: a) High winds and increasing barometric pressure, b) Light winds and relatively constant barometric pressure. ©) Clear weather and relatively low barometric pressure. @) _ High winds and decreasing barometric pressure, Which of the following statements relating to an anticyclone is not true? a) _ Within this pressure region there is a general increase in relative humidity. b) _ Fair weather and clear skies normally prevail within the region of an anticyclone. ©) Amanticyclone is generally characterized by a downward vertical movement. 4 Anticyclones can be described as strong or weak and strengthening or weakening. A trough is: a) A wedge-shaped extension of an anticyclone. ») An upper-troposphere contour pattern which is associated with warm air moving towards the North Pole. 3 An elongated area of relatively low atmospheric pressure. d) An indefinite isobar configuration located between two highs and two lows. AeroCourse) Zt AeroCourse)42, 43, 4, 45, 46. 28 Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘A neutral arca, not bounded by any one isobar, within which light winds are blowing and the weather is changing very slowly, exists between two high and two low pressure systems. The name given to this indefinite pressure area is a) A secondary depression. b) A geostrophic divergence zone. ©) Asurface occhusion. d — Acol. During descent from 3000 feet AGL to the surface, you would expect the wind to: a) Veer and increase. b) Veer and decrease. ©) Back and increase. (a) Back and decrease. ‘The wind at 3000 fect over the land is parallel to the isobars at 30 kts, What would be the most probable angle to the isobars and speed of the surface wind assuming it is not affected by local topography? a) and 20 kts b) 10° and 30 kts _ <-3e) 30° and 20 kts 6) 40° and 40 kts Given the same pressure gradient over the land and over the adjacent water, what is the most probable wind angle to the isobars and wind speed over the water if the surface wind over the land is blowing across the isobars at an angle of 30° and at a speed of 30 kts? a) 40° and 20 kts b) 30° and 30 kts ©) 20° and 20 kts <) 20° and 40 kts AA flight from Vancouver to Montreal ata constant pressure level experiences winds that gradually veer from the southwest to the northwest. The aircrait’s actual height above mean sea level will have:(Hlint: port drift-A/C true altitude is increasing; starboard drift-A/C true altitude is decreasing) a) —_ Increased steadily. b) _Increased for a time and then decreased steadily thereafter. ©) Decreased steadily. 4) Decreased for a time and then increased steadily thereafter.41. 48, 49. 50. 51. Meteorology General If the temperatures to the southeast today are warmer than those to the northwest, the wind would be blowing from the: (recall Buys-Ballot’s Law and point your left hand to where the temperatures are lower and pressure surfaces are lower...) a) Northeast. b) Southeast. ©) Northwest. Southwest From the statements listed below which relate to density altitude, select the one which is false: a) The calculation of the density altinide at a given aerodrome consists of correcting the existing pressure altitude with the ISA temperature for that level. b) The density altitude is that altitude in the standard atmosphere which coresponds oa given density value ©) Am increase in density altitude comesponds to a decrease in density. 4) The density altitude for a given aerodrome is changing continually in response to changes in pressure and temperature. ‘An aerodrome’s density altitude is calculated with a flight computer using the: a) The acrodrome’s published elevation matched with the ambient air temperature. b) The aerodrome's pressure altitude matched with the aerodrome’s outside air temperature. ©) The true altitude of the aerodrome matched with the ISA temperature for that altitude. ) The aerodrome altitude above sea level matched with the average sea level temperature during the previous 12 hours. An aircraft's true altitude would be greater than its indicated altitude in conditions of: a) Warm air and high pressure. b) Warm aii and low pressure. ©) Cold air and high pressure. 4) Cold airand low pressure. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the term MSL Pressure? 2) _Ttis station pressure reduced to MSL assuming ISA conditions. b) Iti station level pressure extracted from the appropriate synoptic chart. ©) _Itis station pressure reduced to MSL using the average surface temperature for the last 12 hours, @) Its the average sea level pressure reading at a given station during the previous 3 hour period. 29 AeroCoursé)32. 33. 54. 58. 56. Canadian ATPL Workbook Altimeter Setting a) Measured MSL pressure corrected for non-standard temperature. b) _ Station pressure reduced to sea level with a 12 hour average temperature correction applied to it, ©) Measured MSL pressure with ISA deviation correction applied. 4) Station level pressure reduced to MSL assuming ISA conditions. ‘Terrain clearance should be closely monitored by a pilot who is flying in the Standard Pressure Region when: a) Pressures are high and temperatures are high, b) Operating in an air mass having a variable pressure gradient ©) Pressures are low and temperatures are low. d) The current altimeter setting is greater than 31.00 inches (He). An aireraft descends from FL380 for an approach to the Kelowna Airport, During the descent, the pilot forgets to reset the altimeter subscale. Ifthe published decision height (D.HL) is 2060 f.ASL, what ‘would be the actual height of the aircraft on reaching the indicated D.EL? (Refer to the following METAR) METAR CYLW 281700Z 18010KT SSM-SHRA OVCO15 10/06 A2962 RMK SF8 SLP150- a) 2060 feet ASL. b) 2360 feet ASL ©) 1760 feet ASL. 4) 1460 feet ASL The relationship between the amount of water vapor actually present in the air and the maximum. possible amount of water vapor that could be held by the air at that temperature and pressure (without condensation occurring) is expressed by which of the following terms? a) Dewpoint temperature. b) —_ Saturation vapour pressure. ©) Relative humidity. 4) Saturation index. Relative humidity depends upon: 2) The absolute amidity and the temperature. b) The temperature and the unsaturated vapor pressure. ©) The rate of cooling and the absotute humidity. d) The dewpoint and the saturated adiabatic lapse rate, AeroCoursé)37, 58, 59, 60. 61 2. Meteorology General ‘The air surrounding a weather observing station has a relative humidity of one hundred per cent. In this case, the wet-bulb thermometer reading would be: 8) Considerably lower than the dry-bulb thermometer reading, }) _ Inversely related to the amount of condensation occurring, ©) Higher than the dry-bulb thermometer reading. 4) The same as the dry-bulb thermometer reading. An instrument that is used to measure the humidity of the air is a a) Spectroscope. b) —_Psychrometer. ©) Aspirator. d)——_Refractometer ‘The height of a cloud base is most dependent upon the: 8) Moisture content of the air. b) The dry adiabatic lapse rate. ©) The amount of cooling that is taking place at the earth’s surface. @) The strength of any vertical motion present at the 400 hPa level. Clouds and precipitation are common in areas 8) Of subsiding air. b) Located immediately above an isothermal layer. ©) Where katabatie flow is present. 4) Ofascending air. Which of the following types of cloud frequently forms as a result of evaporation from rain rather than from expansional cooling? a) Orographie cloud. >) ——_Altocumulus castellanus, ©) Cumulus fractus. Stratus cloud . ‘Wisps or streaks of water or ice particles that fall from the bottom of a cumuliform cloud and evaporate or sublimate before reaching the ground appear as: 8) Refractive cloud. b) Curtain cloud. ©) Virga 4) —_Nimbostratus opacus. AeroCourse) 2163, 64. 65. 66, 67. 68. 212 Canadian ATPL Workbook Drizzle forms by the: a) Splitting of large supercooled droplets as they descent from higher altitudes. b) Meeting of large snowflakes at the base of stratocumulus cloud. ©) _ Mingling of large droplets whose weight allows them to escape from the base of altocumulus cloud. 4 Coalescence of stratus cloud droplets, Snow falling fiom a layer of stratocumulus cloud would indicate that: a) The liquid water content in the cloud is decreasing 6) The population of large supercooled water droplets will increase in the cloud as the snow continues to fall. ©) Anabove-freezing layer is present aloft. @) The liquid water content of the cloud will increase due to the melting of the ice erystals. An airport weather observer reports snow grains; this type of precipitation would imply: a) That freezing rain exists aloft. b) That a layer of snow aloft had melted and then, during its descent, had passed through a sub- freezing layer. ©) Thata layer composed of ice pellets lies above the airport. @) That freezing drizzle is present aloft ‘A large area of land or ocean of relatively uniform characteristics and above which an air mass can form, is known as a: 2) Synoptic region. b) Source region, ©) Semizpermanent air mass cell. @)—_Tropospheric mixing zone. ‘A true statement with respect to air masses would be: a) They have uniform properties of temperature and moisture in the vertical. b) —_ Air masses are classified according to their moisture content. ©) The transition zone between adjacent air masses is always very wide and diffuse 4) Air masses are seldom more than several hundred kilometres across. ‘When Continental Arctic (cA) air moves southbound over the Great Lakes during the winter you would expect a) Steam fog over the southem shorelines, b) _ Freezing rain over the southern portions of the lakes. ©) _ Radiation fog to form over the northern shorelines. 4) Snow showers immediately to the south of the southern shorelines AeroCoursé)69. 10. 1. 72. 2B. 74, Meteorology General Which of the following would you expect to occur when Maritime Tropical (mT) air moves northwards over the Great Lakes in the spring and early summer? a) Scattered thunderstorm activity. b) The formation of nimbostratus cloud layers over the middle of the lakes. ©) Rain showers over the southem shores. 4) Low stratus cloud, drizzle and fog over the north shores. Continental Aretic (CA) air southbound over the Great Lakes in the early autumn would, initially, most likely produce: a) —_ Extensive stratocurmulus cloud development over the northem shorelines. ») —_ Widespread advection fog over the southern shorelines. ©) Steam fog over the northem portions of the lakes. 4) Snow showers over the middle portions of the lakes. Fronts are named according to: a) The steepness of the lapse rate in the warmer air mass. b) The direction of movement of the colder air mass. ©) The pressure gradient across the frontal surface. 4) The direction of movement of the warmer air mass. Which of the following warm fronts would most likely be present on Canadian weather charis during the winter months? a) Maritime Polar and Maritime Tropical. ) Continental Arctic and Maritime Polar. ©) Maritime Arctic and Maritime Polar. Continental Aretic and Maritime Arctic. ‘The sequence of clouds that you would expect to encounter as you fly in the cold air towards an approaching warm front would be: a) CS, CUFRA, AC, NS. b) CICS, AS, NS. ©) CS, AC, SC, SF. @ CL. CC, ADD, ST. ‘The extensive stratiform cloud decks commonly associated with warm fronts are caused by: a) The cold air being conditionally unstable. 1b) Pronounced conductive cooling of the warm air. ©) The cold air having a high relative humidity. 4) —_Expansional cooling of the overrunning warm air. AeroCourseé) cau AcroCourse)1S. 16. 77. 2B, 80. 214 Canadian ATPL Workbook During flight in the lower levels toward a warm front (ic., from the cold air side), you notice that the precipitation changes from steady rain to heavy showers. You would then assume that: a) The front was slow moving but had a steep frontal slope, b) The cold air was moist and unstable. ©) The front had a shallow slope but was retreating rapidly. 4) The warm air was moist and unstable, [As you fly in the lower levels of the cold air mass side toward a winter warm front (mA air overrunning ‘cA ait), you encounter ice pellets. In this case, you would know that there was: a) Very unstable air aloft. b) Freezing rain above, ©) Widespread sublimation occurring in the layer immediately above. 4) Aregion of dry snow immediately above you. Which of the following cold fronts are likely to be found on Canadian weather charts during the summer months? a) Continental Aretic and Maritime Arctic. b) Maritime Arctic and Maritime Polar. ©) Maritime Polar and Maritime Tropical. 4) Continental Arctic and Maritime Polar. Cold frontal weather is determined by: a) The stability of the warm air mass, b) The moisture content of the watm air mass. ©) The speed of the front and the steepness of its frontal surface, @)—— Allof the above. ‘The cloud and precipitation associated with a cold front develop because: a) The warm air that is in contact with the cold air is cooled conductively. b) The warm air that is lifted up the frontal surface cools by expansion. ©) The cold air becomes saturated as it overruns the warm air. 4) _Advectional heating of the cold air occurs as it advances over ground recently occupied by the warm air ‘A rapidly moving cold front with a steep frontal surface has moved into your region. You note, however, that no extensive areas of vertical development cloud have formed along the front. This would indicate that: a) The warm air had a low relative humidity, b) An inversion was present in the cold air mass. ©) The warm air must have been conditionally stable, @) The cold air was dry and stable. AeroCourse Acrot_our81 82. 83. 85, 86, Meteorology General ‘You are at an airport which experiences the passage of a cold front in the early aftemoon. Shortly afterwards, the clouds scatter out leaving a clear sky. During the next 12 hours, you would expect the ‘temperature to: a) —_Deorease, then increase slightly. b) ——Steadily decrease. ©) Remain relatively constant. d) Increase slightly then decrease, A cold front with a steep frontal surface that is advancing with great rapidity upon moist, unstable air produces a suitable environment for: a) A frontal depression. b) A squall line thunderstorm. ©) Orographic subsidence. d) A “bent back” occlusion. A combination of both cold front and warm front weather conditions would most likely be associated with which of the following? a) An upper cold front. b) A pronounced mid-level inversion °) A warm high situated above the 300 BPA level. d) A trowal. A pilot who flies westbound through a trowal would observe which of the following temperature indications? a) Arise, than a fall, b) A fall only. ) A fall, then arise. d) Arise only. ‘The future movement of the centre a frontal depression and its attached mature wave, in the Northem, Hemisphere, tends to be parallel to the: a) _Isobars behind the cold front, b) Warm sector isobars. ©) Surface isobars in the air immediately to the north of the crest of the wave. €) Contours of the 500 hPa surface, Ata stationary front, the cold air moves: a) Towards the front. b) Against a steep surface pressure gradient. ©) Parallel to the front. Away from the front, urse) 215 AeroCoursé)87. 88, 89. 90. an. 92. 2-16 Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘When a frontal zone or boundary separates two different air masses, neither of which is strong enough to replace the other, it will be referred to as: 8) Amoceluded front b) col ©) A stagnation zone. €) A stationary front Aland breeze: 2) Blows from water to land during the day. b) Blows from land to water during the night. ©) __Isalways more pronounced and more regular than the 4) May spring up very suddenly, especially during the mi A condition favourable for the development of strong katabatic winds would be: a) region of extensive glaciers, b) _Sloping terrain whose temperature is warmer than the air that rests upon it. c) _ Anarea of gently rolling hills that adjoin a snow-covered plain. 4) Daytime heating of ice-free slopes in the Canadian Arctic during the summer months. A warm katabatic wind would be the: a) Mistral, b) Coast winter outflow wind. ©) Bora. Chinook. Anabatie winds can best be characterized as: a) _ Strong winds associated with mid-latitude cyclones and frontal boundaries. b) A gusty mountain breeze that results from nocturnal cooling ©) Very cold and intense winds that have been fimnelled through narrow mountain passes and are ppulled towards low pressure systems to the east. 4) —_Upslope winds that arise from intense heating of mountain slopes which are oriented toward the sun. ‘The distance to the farthest point on the ground that can be seen from an aircraft is a definition of a) Slant (oblique) visibility. b) Prevailing horizontal visibility. c) Optimum flight visibility d) Vertical visibility. AeroCourse)93, 94, 95, 96. 97. 98. Meteorology General ‘The requirement for the formation of all types of fog is: a) High relative humidity b) ——Cloudless nights c) _Light breezes that do not exceed 13 kts. @) The presence of an inversion A south-westerly flow of mT air moving over the Labrador Current would produce: a) Steam flog. b) —_Advection fog. ©) Radiation fog. d) Adiabatic fog. ‘The fogs that form ahead of a warm front (pre-frontal) result from: a) _Rain that is falling from the overrunning cold air. b) —__Radiational cooling of the warm air as it advects over the cold ground. ©) _Expansional cooling of the cold air as itis forced alot. 4) The evaporation of rain that falls from the warm air into the cold air, ‘Which of the following cooling processes is involved in the formation of the fog that frequently follows wan front? a) Expansion. b) Radiation, ©) Advection. @) Evaporation. Which of the following types of fog forms as a result of raising the dewpoint to the air temperature (rather than lowering the air temperature to the dewpoint)? a) Steam fog. ») Tee fog ©) Advection fog. 4) Upstope fog. Steam fog forms when: a) Warm moist air moves over a cdler surface b) A strong wind blows moist, cool air towards the land during the winter. ©) Moistairis cooled expansionally. 4) Water vapor is added to very cold air. AeroCourse) a99. 100. 101 102, 103, 218 Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘When very cold, dry air drifts across the relatively warm waters of lakes, streams or marsh surfaces on cold aufuzna momings, you would expect the formation of: a) Radiation fog b) ——_Stratocumulus cloud. ) — leefog. 4) Steam for Both steam fog and radiation fog require which of the following for their formation? a) Cold, moist air moving horizontally over a cold surface. b) Condensation nuclei, ©) __Expansional cooling. 4) Contact with a surface that is undergoing radiational cooling. From the conditions listed below, choose those that are favourable for the production of radiation fog High relative humidity ‘An overcast sky at approximately the 6000 to 8000 ft. ASL level. ‘The presence of industrial smoke. ‘An air temperature that is much higher than the dewpoint temperature, A light wind (2-8 kts.) ‘The presence of an anticyclone. A very small spread between the frost point and the dewpoint. Ravepre 1 oe 2 i 1 aoe Radiation fog does not form over the ocean surface since: a) Favourable low-level, anticyclonic conditions do not prevail over the oceans. b) The continuous presence of strong winds over the ocean surface prevents radiational cooling. ©) A dry layer aloft that arises from subsidence and which enhances radiation cooling at the surface never exists over an ocean. 4) This surface does not cool by radiation at night ‘The development of radiation fog can be aided by: a) A mid-level overcast layer of cloud, b) The presence of pronounced low-level subsidence. ©) The absence of any wind at the surface. 4) The presence of industrial smoke. AeroCoursé)104, 105. 106. 107. 108. Meteorology General ‘When comparing advection fog to radiation fog, you would know that: a) —_Both advection and radiation fog depend on the presence of clear skies at night for their formation. b) —_Advection fog requires a considerably higher relative humidity for its formation than does radiation fog. ©) —_Adveetion fog can form over both land and water, whereas radiation fog forms only over the land. Both advection and radiation fog require a very strong wind to assist in their formation. ‘Which of the following types of fog is caused by adiabatic cooling? a) Adveetion fog. b) —_Upslope fog. ©) Radiation fog dee fog. ‘When moist air moves westward across the Prairies, you would expect which of the following to occur? a) Widespread rain showers and low level turbulence. 1b) —_Extensive build-ups of stratocumulus cloud with good visibilities undemeath and moderate ‘turbulence. ©) Unstable conditions with considerable convective cloud development. 0) Widespread upslope fog increasing toward the foothills of the Rocky Mountains. ‘The physical process involved in the formation of Lee Fog is: a) _Expansional cooling b) Sublimation. ©) Advectional cooling 8) Condensation, When temperatures are very low, a jet aircraft that takes off from a northem airport can trigger the formation of which of the following types of fog? 2) Upslope fog +b) Prefrontal fog c) Advection fog d) Tee fog 2-19Canadian ATPL Workbook 109, With respect to airframe icing, choose from the factors listed below those that determine the rate of catch (collection efficiency): a) b) °) d Supercooled water droplet size. The number of freezing layers present. ‘The temperature of the individual supercooled droplets. ‘The number of supercooled water droplets present. Aircraft speed. ‘The length of time that the aircraft has been flying in cloud. Shape of the aircraft wing, 23,47 1.4.5.7 23:56 1.2.46 110, Large supercooled water droplets are most likely to be found in the: 2) ») °) a Upper levels of cloud that has formed in stable air where temperatures are well below freezing. Lower levels of cloud that has formed in stable air where temperatures are well below freezing. Upper levels of cloud that has formed in unstable air where temperatures are well below freezing, Lower levels of cloud that has formed in unstable air where temperatures are only a few degrees below freezing. 111, You would expect that rime ice accumulation rather than mixed or clear ice accumulation would occur when the rate of catch is: a) » °) a Low and the droplets are small High and the droplets are large. Low and the droplets are large. High and the droplets are small 112. During an IFR cross-country flight, your aircraft has been encountering light to moderate mixed icing. ‘You notice that an increasing mumber of ice crystals are beginning to form within the cloud and would, therefore, expect that the further accumulation type and intensity would change to: a) b) °° Oo) 2-20 Clear icing and increasing intensity Rime icing and decreasing intensity. Clear icing and decreasing intensity. Rime icing and increasing intensity.113. 4, us, 116. 17, 1g, Meteorology General ‘The shape of the wing is an important factor in determining its collection efficiency. When comparing a thin wing to a thick wing traveling at the same airspeed, it can be demonstrated that the leading edge of a thin wing will collect: a) The same amount of ice per square inch whea flying through cloud whose liquid water content is high, b) —_Lessice per square inch. ©) The same amount per square inch when skin temperatures are not far below freezing and the Groplets are large. @ More ice per square inch. With respect to airbome icing, the collection efficiency of a wing would be increased with: a) "Thin leading edges, high speeds, and large droplets. b) Thick leading edges, low speeds and small droplets. ©) Thin leading edges, high speeds and small droplets. 4) Thick leading edges, low speeds and large droplets. ‘There is considerable variation in the liquid water content in the vertical of a cloud that has been formed in stable air. In fact, the amount of supercooled water in this type of cloud usually: ) Remains relatively constant with height when temperatures are far below freezing, b) Increases with height when temperatures are not far below freezing. ©) Decreases with height when temperatures are not far below freezing 4) _nereases with height when temperatures arc far below freezing. Which of the following statements is true with respect to freezing drizzle? 2) This type of precipitation always requires @ layer of warm air aloft for its formation. b) Freezing drizzle always forms a deposit of rime ice on an airframe, ©) Freezing drizzle is most often associated with cumuliform clouds that have a relatively low liquid water content. @ —_Teing in freezing drizzle is at its worst near the base of the cloud. Freezing rain occurs when: a) Supercooled water vapor sublimates upon being disturbed. b) Rain falls into a sub-freezing layer of ai. ©) Snow melts and becomes very small supercooled cloud droplets. 4) Supercooted rain falls into an above-freezing layer of air. Rime ice forms when: 8) Supercooled water droplets partly freeze on contact with the wing leading edge and then flow backwards for some distance before completely freezing. b) Water vapor sublimates onto an airfiame whose temperature is below freezing. ©) Snow or ice pellets adhere to the airframe, then melt and almost immediately refreeze. 4) —_Supercooled water droplets freeze almost instantaneously without spreading. AeroCourse) ot119. 120, 121. 122. 123, 124, 222 Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘An airoraft that is flying through which of the following phenomena could accumulate a deposit of rime ice on its wings? a) Snow grains. b) Bail ©) Freezing fog. 4) lwepellets. Supercooled rain that freezes while falling through a sub-freezing layer becomes: a) Snow grains, >) Graupel. ©) Sleet. d)—_Teepellets ‘When the dewpoint temperature is below -0.5°C, it is sometimes referred to as the: a) Frost point. b) Freezing saturation point. ©) Crystallization point. 4) Supercooled saturation point. ‘The term used to describe the growth of a descending ice particle as it collides with nearby water droplets which then freeze onto the particle is: 8) Aggregation. b) Frosting, ©) Sublimation. d)—— Riming [A jet aircraft which had been cruising for three hours at a flight level where the outside air temperature ‘was -35°C descends for an approach to an airport that has a surface temperature of 11°C and a dewpoint temperature of 10°C. During descent the pilot of this aircraft would expect: a) Considerable ice accumulation upon the entire airframe. b) Hoar frost accumulation on wing areas. ©) Noiice accumulation on the aircraft since the airport temperature is above freezing. 4) Clear ice to form on the leading edges of the wing and on the horizontal stabilizer. ‘The formation of clear ice on an aircraft is due to; a) The sublimation of water vapor onto a very cold airframe. b) The slow freezing of a heavy concentration of small supercooled droplets intercepted by the airframe. ©) _ The melting and instant re-freezing of ice pellets that impact the airframe. @) The interception of large supercooled water droplets by the airframe which then spread as they freeze. Aero yursé)128, 126. 127, 128, 129, 130. Meteorology General Which of the following statements relating to the effects of aerodynamic heating of an airfoil in overall icing conditions is true? a). An airspeed of 350 to 450 knots is required to de-ice airfoil surfaces. bd) Anairspeed of at least 500 knots is required to ensure no ice will collect. ©) There will be an increased risk of leading edge icing if the wing temperature rises to just above orc, 4) Anairspeed of 500 to 600 knots is required to remove any airfoil ice, As well as a lifting force or triggering action, the other conditions necessary for the formation of a well- developed thunderstorm are: 8) A low relative humidity and conditionally stable air atthe surface. b) A copious amount of moisture and a stable atmosphere to great heights, ©) A steep lapse rate in the lower atmosphere and a low relative humidity. @) An abundant supply of moisture and a steep lapse rate. The arrival of the mature stage of a thunderstorm cell is indicated by: a) The appearance of a fibrous anvil cloud at the top of the cell, b) The termination of cloud-to-ground lightning discharges. ©) The onset of precipitation at the surface. 4) The beginning of warm downdrafts at the surface The commencement of the dissipating stage of a storm cel is characterized by: a) —_ Intense rain showers at the surface. b) The presence of downdrafts throughout nearly the whole cell. ©) The appearance of accessory clouds at the ceil’s trailing edge. 4) The domination of updrafts in the interior of the cell. Flight beneath the anvil cloud of a thunderstorm cell should be avoided due to: a) The serious hazard of encountering hail that has been thrown out of this overhanging cloud by the strong upper wind flow. 1) —_ The possibility of entering a region of very large supercooled water droplets, even at temperatures less than -40°C. ©) The fact that serious lightning strikes often occur in this region. 4) The possibility of large altimeter errors caused by the accelerated horizontal airflow that exists in this underlying area, At what stage of development of a thunderstorm cell would the most serious icing problem be present? a) Midway through the mature stage. b) At the beginning of the dissipating stage. ©) Just before the cell enters the mature stage. @) Midway through the cumulus stage. 2-23 AeroCourseé)131 132. 133. 134, 135. 2-24 Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘The probability of lightning strikes occurring to aircraft that are flying in a thunderstorm area is greatest when operating at altitudes where temperatures are between: a) -5*Cand 45°C. db) -10°C and +10°C. ) 15°C and +15°C. a) -20°C and 420°C, ‘Mammatus clouds are frequently associated with: a) _ Violent thunderstorms and tornadoes. b) —_Low level nocturnal jet stream flow over the prairies. ©) Outilow winds from coastal inlets. d) _Frontogenesis of a stationary front ‘What is the name given to a low-level, tube-shaped, detached accessory cloud that is frequently observed at the leading edge of a cumulonimbus cloud base which is part of a line of thunderstorms? a) Nacreous cloud. b) ileus cloud. ©) Roll cloud. 4) Undulatus cloud. ‘Funnel clouds can form as cone-shaped columns or protuberances extending downwards from the main cloud base of a towering cumulus or cumulonimbus cloud. From the statements that follow relating to funnel clouds, select the one that is false: a) A funnel cloud is a vortex of condensated water vapor and air spinning at high velocity b) Ifa funnel cloud is in contact with the ground, then it becomes a tornado. ©) Conditions of very low humidity and the absence of vorticity in the air favour the formation of funnel clouds. : d) _Ifadebris swirl is present on the ground underneath a funnel cloud, then meteorologists classify it as a tornado, Meteorologists involved with the forecasting of severe weather phenomena would agree that one of the identifiable features associated with tornado development would be: a) The frequency of upper trough movement over a given area. b) Satellite measurement of the heat balance in the upper atmosphere. ©) Mesocyclonie movement detected by high-resolution Doppler radars. 4) The continued presence of an omega high over an area which has a very low relative humidity.136. 137, 138. 139, Meteorology General ‘The recommended technique following the inadvertent penetration of a thunderstorm cell is: a) Slow to turbulence penetration speed and execute an immediate 180° tum. }) Slow to endurance speed and turn 90° to your present track to escape. ©) Slow to minimum cruise speed and descend to smoother conditions. @) Slow to turbulence penetration speed, do not attempt to maintain a rigid altitude or airspeed and maintain present heading. ‘The shaft of a microburstat the surface is normally about___ wide? a) 1Snmorless b) 2.2 nmor less ©) Snm 20mm A large change in wind direction or speed over a short distance is known as: a) Zonal wind flow. b) —— Vorticity. ©) Wind shear. @)—— Freeconvection A condition or phenomenon associated with potentially dangerous wind shear, especially during take- off and landing, would be: 8) A Tow level temperature inversion (with strong winds above the inversion). b) A quasi-stationary front that is undergoing frontolysis. ©) Awarm high with a mid-level isothermal layer. @ The presence of an anticyclone that has undergone considerable elongation. With respect to low level Nocturnal Jet Streams, which of the following statements are true? ‘They occur mostly in winter. ‘They are always associated with a surface occlusion. ‘They occur mostly in summer. ‘They generally form over flat terrain during the presence of southwest winds. ‘They are usually associated with temperature inversions ‘They require unstable air up to high altitudes for their formation. ar ReRe a) 236 db) 45,2 ) 143 QD 345 2.25 AeroCour: AeroCours141, 142, 143. 144, 14s. 146. 2.26 Canadian ATPL Workbook A pilot taxiing an aeroplane for take-off notes that rain is falling from convective cloud (based at approximately 15,000 ft. ASL), but which is evaporating before it reaches the ground. He/she should be awware that this occurrence could signal the presence of: a) A low level temperature inversion, b) Ary microburst ©) A.warm occlusion at the 700 hPa level. 4) Anair mass within which the environmental lapse rate is considerably less steep than both the DALR and the SALR. Which of the following statements is false with reference to “dry” microbursts? a) They usually occur in areas where the air is very humid. b) They can often be identified by the presence of ‘virga’. c) Theyre linked with high-based cumulus and altocumulus type clouds. 4) With this type of microburst, evaporative cooling intensifies the downdraft Downdrafts associated with a microburst could be as strong as: a) 2500 feet/minute. b) 4000 feet/minute. ©) 6000 feet/mimute. 6) 7500 feet/minute. Localized meteorological conditions that produce intense wind shears at Arctic airports as well as at aizports situated along the coasts of Canada’s mountainous regions could be due to the presence of: a) Nocturnal jet streams b) —_ High level temperature inversions. ©) __Eroding anticyclonic ridges. @) Valley, katabatic, or funnel winds. One of the signposts for the existence of a mountain wave is: a) Widespread convective cloud development downwind of the mountain range. b) The presence of very strong anabatic winds. ©) The formation of scud roll cloud downwind from the first wave crest. d) The presence of altocumulus standing lenticular clouds, The lowest group of stationary clouds associated with a mountain wave is: a) —_Altocumulus standing lenticular. b) Rotor cloud. ©) Wall cloud. 4 ——Altocumutus castellanus, AeroCoursé)147, 148, 149, 150, 151 152, Meteorology General A tue statement relating to a mountain wave rotor and to rotor cloud is: a) The air in the rotor cloud rotates around an axis at 90°o the mountain range. ) The existence of a mountain wave rotor is always indicated by the presence of rotor cloud, ©) Rotor clouds are normally centred beneath the standing lenticular clouds (i.e, below each wave crest.) 4) In contrast to the standing lenticulars, rotor clouds never remain stationary. ‘The most powerful rotor associated with the presence of a mountain wave is located: a) Under the first wave crest. b) Approximately 50 nm. downwind from the Iee slopes. ©) _ Always well below the crest of the mountain ridge and usually topped at 2000 feet above the ground. 4) _Tust below the tropopause, downwind of the third wave crest. ‘The part of a mountain wave system that usually presents the most severe turbulence is located: a) In that area where the cap clouds spill over the leeward slopes. b) Near the wave that is farthest from the mountain range. ©) Within that layer that is bounded by the ground and the top of the rotor cloud. 4) Just above the downwind portion of each wave crest Severe turbulence at very high altitudes is likely to be associated with a mountain wave system when: ) A warm high pressure system at the 400 hPa level lies just upwind of the mountain range and parallel to it. b) The wavelength of the standing wave is less than Snm, ©) The air mass is statically unstable and a very unstable layer lies above the mountain range. S) There is a jet stream wind aloft that is oriented perpendicular to the axis of the mountain range. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to a mountain wave system? ) Altimeter readings are likely to read too high when flying through the crest of a mountain. wave. b) This system can be easily located because characteristic cloud types are always present. ©) The freezing level is at a uniform altitude downwind from the range. 4) The most severe wave is the one that is the greatest distance downwind from the mountain range. Ona constant pressure, upper-air chart the contour of altitude gradient can be considered as the: a) ‘Height of the pressure surface in decametres. b) Slope of the pressure surface. °) ‘Change in pressure along the contours. ad Pressure rate of change measured at right angles to the contours. AeroCoursé) eee AeroCourse)153, 154, 155, 156. 157, 2.28 Canadian ATPL Workbook Upper-air charts provide information on upper levels of the troposphere and, thus, complement the surface weather charts. From the statements that follow relating to upper-air charts select the one which is false: 2) The information used to prepare these charts is obtained by radiosondes. b) _ Analyses of upper-air charts and surface weather charts seldom agree. ©) Conditions on upper-air charts correspond to specific pressure levels rather than to elevations above sea level 4) A three-dimensional image of weather conditions ean be visualized when these charts are used in combination with surface charts. ‘When considering upper-air contour charts, you should know that: 8) Lowand high pressure centres at a given altitude are given in hectopascals. }) The contour lines connect points having equal MSL pressure. ©) Centres of low and high mean temperatures are depicted by an “L” or an “I” &) The wind blows along the contours in the same way that the 2000 ft. wind blows along the surface isobars. Which of the following statements is false in relation to upper-air contour charts and the determination of winds at different levels? a) The wind blows parallel to the height contours, with lower heights on the left. b) _ Ifthe height contours are curved, then centrifugal force acts on the wind. ©) The closer the contours, the stronger the wind. @ Curvature of the height contours does not affect the speed of the wind ifthe contour spacing is the same. Ifthe __ Kt. isotachs are spaced closer together than __ nm. on the 250 hPa upper-air chart, you can expect sufficient horizontal shear for the occurrence of CAT (Clear Air Turbulence). Select those numbers that correctly fill the blanks: a) 20; 60. b) 30; 90, ©) 40; 100. 50,120 ‘The tropopause is defined as the boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere. The tropopause can be identified during a climb in the upper troposphere by the occurrence of: 8) Asudden change in the direction of the thermal wind. b) —_Anabrupt change in the temperature lapse rate. ©) A marked increase in air density. @) A dramatic increase in the static air temperature. AeroCourse Aerotours158. 159. 160. 161 162, 163. Meteorology General The tropopause: a) Shows little change in height across upper fronts. b) —_Is lower over the equator than over the pole. ©) Is located just above a region of very weak westerly flow. 4) Acts as a lid on the clouds and weather of the troposphere. ‘There is an abrupt change in the height of the tropopause over each: a) —_Region of surface pressure-field change. b) Major topographical feature such as a prominent mountain range. ©) Latitude interval of 15 degrees. 4) Frontal surface. ‘Which of the following air masses would most likely have the highest tropopause height? amt. b) mA, mp. cy The tropopause is: a) Higher and colder over a warm air mass. ») Lower and warmer over a warm air mass. ©) Higher and colder over a cold air mass. Lower and colder over a cold air mass. ‘With respect to the tropopause, which of the following is a true statement? a) Tt is found at a constant altitude over North America, 9 b) Its altitude is greater over the polar region than over the equatorial region. ©) The International Standard Atmosphere assumes the height of the tropopause to be 39,060 feet ASL. 4) Its altitude is lower over the polar region than over the equatorial region. Jn the Intemational Standard Atmosphere the height of the tropopause and its temperature are specified as: a) 29,000 ft. and -43°C. b) 36,090 ft. and -56.5°C. ©) 39,060 ft. and -55.6°C. 4) 45,000 ft. and -75°C. AeroCoursé) 7 SROs)164, 165. 166. 167. 2:30 Canadian ATPL Workbook Along with presence of steep horizontal pressure gradients, which of the following constitutes a major factor in the formation of jet streams? a) Centripetal force. b) ——_ Linear momentum. ©) Mesoscale force. Coriolis force, Select the true statement from those listed below concerning jet streams: 8) Jet streams usually occur in an area of intensified temperature gradients that normally exist across upper fronts and with their jet cores positioned just under the warm air tropopause, adjacent to the tropopause ‘break’ b) A jet stream located in or near the tropics is generally stronger than one that is present in the mid-latitudes. ©) _Extensive, dense cirrus cloud, when associated with a jet stream, is located on the cold air side of the jet core, 4) The cores of jet streams can usually be found just above the warm air tropopause. ‘You would expect a north-to-south jet stream flow when: a) The temperatures below the jet core are colder to the north than to the south. b) ‘The air beneath the jet stream is colder to the east than to the west. ©) The 200 hPa contours are higher to the north than to the south. 4) Their is considerably warmer than ISA above the jet stream core. One of the prime areas where CAT (Clear Air Turbulence) is found is in the vicinity of jet streams. Several statements relating to’ CAT and jet streams appear below. Identify those which are correct: 1, Severe CAT is likely to be present when the vertical wind shear associated with ajet stream attains a value of at least 2 kts,/1000 feet. 2, The threshold wind speed of a jet stream for the occurrence of CAT is approximately 90 kts, 3. Curving jet streams are more likely to have turbulent edges than straight jet streams especially those which curve around a deep pressure trough. 4. ‘The most severe CAT associated with a very fast-moving jet stream is always located on the high pressure side of the jet stream core. 5. Wind shear and the accompanying CAT adjacent to jet streams are most intense above and to the lee side of mountain ranges. 6. The confluence of two jet streams can be a producer of CAT a) 1,23, 246 356 ad 38 AeroCourse AerotoursMeteorology General 168. The directional changes that occur as very fast, high level winds flow around upper level troughs and ridges can result in the development of CAT. With respect to such wind flow changes and resultant turbulence, which of the following statements is true? a) Upper level ridges tend to curve more sharply than do upper level troughs. b) Turbulence associated with upper level ridges usually tends to be more severe than with upper level troughs. ©) Upper level troughs and ridges usually have the same contour curvature since they are both elongations of pressure systems. 4) Turbulence associated with upper level troughs tends to be more severe than with upper level ridges. 169. The vertical extent of clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream will be the greatest on the side of the jet stream core. From the choices listed below select the one which is correct. a) Low pressure, warm air mass. b) Low pressure, cold air mass. ©) High pressure, warm air mass. 4) High pressure, cold air mass. 170. While flying actoss a jet stream in North America, an aeroplane encounters some CAT. The pilot checks the OAT gauge and notes a temperature rise. To quickly escape from the turbulence, he/she should: a) Climb the aeroplane, b) —_Descend the aeroplane, ©) Alter the aeroplane’s track to the south. 4) Alter the aeroplane’s track to the north, 171. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the Polar Jet Stream, a) Its core speeds will be less when there is a marked temperature contrast across the upper front, b) This jet stream moves north in the winter and its core speeds are less than in the summer. ©) The most severe turbulence associated with this jet stream is usually encountered on the equatorial side, @) This jet stream moves south in the winter and has higher core speeds than in the summer as well as occurring at a lower altitude. 172, Flying near a jet stream in a crosswind situation and encountering moderate CAT, the pilot checks the OAT and notes that it remains constant. In this case, in order to escape from the turbulence, the pilot should: 8) Maintain the current altitude b) Alter track so as to parallel the jet stream axis, ©) Alter track to the south. @) Either climb or descend the aircraft 231Canadian ATPL Workbook cad AeroCourse AcrotourocoaKheacseonocagcacnssocsarsogasone = Meteorology General ANSWER KEY MET GENERAL 36. nb 106. 4 oe aed 107. b aah ue 108. 39. a 4, 109. b 40. a Bd 10. 4c 1. b UL a 4a od 7 ob 112. b 3B. od Bd 13. d 44. 9. b M4 a aoe (eo Tis) 2) oe) sled 116. 47d 82 M7. b 8&8 8. d us. d 49. b 84.0 119. ¢ 350. 85. b 120. 4 Sle 8. © 1 oa 32.0 d 87d 12. d Sec Bab eb 540 6 89. a 124. d 58. € 90. 125, b 56. a 1d 126. 4 sd 92. a 127. 38 B. a 128. b oes One u 2 60. 93. d 130. old 9%. BL oa 8. ¢ 7. 132. a 8. d od 133. Ge pone cd) 134, ost 100. b 135] 10 66. tol. 136. 67. b 102. d 137. b 68d 103. 138. © 0. d 104. ¢ 139. a io 105, b 140. AeroCoursé Agrosours 141 142, 143, 144, 145. 146. 147. 148, 149, 150, 151 152. 153, 154, 155, 156, 157, 158. 159, 160, 161 162, 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168, 169. 170. 1m. 172, pas ceogs acne eaarcearce RoR ogTeAO RSCanadian ATPL Workbook 234Met Practical MET PRACTICAL MET Exercise 1 Charlottetown (CYYG) METAR CYYG 0711002 08009KT 25M -SN OVCOO7 MO5/MOG A2964 RUK SFE SLPO4 METAR CY¥G 071200z 10010GiSKT 2 1/25M -SN DRSN BKNO17 OVCO23 m0S/MOS 42957 RUK SCSSC3_/803/ PRESFR OBS TAKEN +07 SLPO17= SPECI CY¥¢ 0712372 10010G15KT 5SM ~SN DRSN OVCO22 RUK SCB= METAR CY¥G 0713002 09013KT 10SM -SN DRSN FEWO10 OVCO21 m04/U05 A2952 RUK SFISC7 SLP001= TAF AMD C¥¥G 0713162 0713/0724 09012G25KT PGSM -SN OVCO10 TEMPO 0713/0715 ism -SNPL OVC006 PROB3O 0713/0715 15M -FZRA BR FM071500 05015G30KT 36M -SNPL OVCO10 TEMPO 0715/0722 ISM -PZRA -SNPL BR OVCOO6 ¥M072200 36012G25KT 6SM -SN OVCO10 TEMPO 0722/0724 2SM ~SN OVCOO7 REK NKT FCS? BY 071800: Deer Lake (CYDF) METAR CYDF 0711002 23008KT 155M OVCO19 M04/M07 A2978 RMK Sc® sLPOSS= METAR CYDF 0712002 20010Kr 158M BKNO20 OVC120 W04/M08 A2979 RUK SC6AC2 SLPOSS= METAR CYDF 0713002 21012G20KT 158M BKNO21 BKN150 MO4/M06 A2975 RMK SCSAC2 SLPO7S= TAF CYDF 071134z 0712/0724 24005KT PGSM BKNO20 TEMPO 0712/0714 SCT020 ¥FMO71400 15040KT P6S_ BKNO30 TEMPO 0714/0717 25M -SHSN OVCO20 ¥M071700 10010G20KT 3/4SM -SN VVOO8 TEMPO 0717/0724 6SM -SN OVCO20 BECMG 2124 06015G30Kr RMK NXT FCST BY 071800: Fredericton (CYFC) METAR CYFC 071100z 04012Kr 65M ~SW OVCO13 MO6/M07 A2956 RUK NSB SLPOL METAR CYFC 0712002 03008KT 125M -SN OVCO12 M06/K08 A2953 RUK SC8 SLPOO: METAR CYFC 071300z 01008Kr 12s —sN OVCO13 MOG/MOS A2953 RMK SC@ SLPOO: SPECI CYFC 0713212 02009KT 35M -SN OVCO13 RMK SC8= TAP C¥FC 0711292 0712/0724 06012KT GSM -SN OVCO10 TENPO 0712/0714 25M -FZRA -SNPL BR oveo0s FMO71400 04010KT GSM -SN OVCO15 TEMPO 0714/0720 25M -SNPL PROB4O 0714/0720 16M -FaDz BR woos ¥M072000 03010G20Kr 6S¥ -SHSN OVCO30 TEMPO 0720/0724 45M -SHSN OVCOI5 MK NXT FCST BY 071600z= —— AeroCourse) 34Canadian ATPL Workbook Sable Island (WSA) METAR CWSA 071100Z AUTO 15029KT 2S! RA OVCO27 01/MO1 A2971 RMK ICG PAST HR PCPN 2.01 PAST HR PRESFR SLPO61= SPECI CWSA 071115Z AUTO 15028G35KT 1 3/8SM RA OVCO25 OVCO46 02/H00 A2970 RMK ICG PAST HR PRESFR= SPECI CWSA 0711172 AUTO 15027G35KT 1 3/8SM RA OVC023 CVCO46 02/M00 A2969 RMK ICG PAST HR PRESFR= SPECI CWSA 071154Z AUTO 14022G30KT 1 1/4SM RA OVCO13 OVCO34 03/01 A296 SPECI CWSA 071159Z AUTO 15028KT 1 1/45 RA OVCO0S OVCO34 03/01 A2964: METAR CWSA 0712002 AUTO 15027KT 1 1/4SM RA OVCOO7 OVCO34 03/01 A2964 RMK PCPN 5.5HM PAST HR PRESFR SLPO37= SPECI CWSA 0712532 AUTO 17026G31KT 1SM RA OVCOO6 04/03 A2956= METAR CWSA 0713002 AUTO 17025G32KT 3/45M RA BKNOO6 04/03 A2955 RMK CPN 5.0MM PAST HR PRESFR SLPOO! SPECI CWSA 0713082 AUTO 18025G32KT 3/45M RA OVCO04 05/04 A2955 RMK PRESFR= SPECI CWSA 071330Z AUTO 17027G33KT 5/8SM +RA SCTO04 OVCO12 05/04 2951" SPECI CWSA 071332% AUTO 18027G34KT 5/85M +RA BKNOO4 OVCO12 05/04 2952: SPECI CWSA 0713362 AUTO 18026G34KT 5/8SM +RA OVCO12 05/05 A2952= SPECI CWSA 0713382 AUTO 18025G34KT 5/8SM +RA VVO04 05/04 A2951= TAF CWSA 0713322 0714/0722 18020G35KT 3/45M —RA BR OVCOO3 TEMPO 0714/0722 2SM -RA BR BKNOO6 OVvco12 RMK FCST BASED ON AUTO OBS. NXT FCST BY 072000Z= Gander NF (CYQX) METAR CYQX 0711002 25010KT 20SM FEWO17 FEW150 BKN230 MO7/M10 A2974 RMK SC1AC2CI2 SLPO8O= METAR CYQX 071200Z 23013KT 20SM FEW130 BKN230 07/M11 A2976 RMK AC2CI2 SLPO90= METAR CYQX 0713002 23013KT 20SM FEW130 FEW190 BKN230 M06/M10 A2976 RNK AC2ACICS4 SLPOSi TAP CYQX 0711292 0712/0712 25010K7 P6SM SCTO1S BKN230 FMO71800 18010KT 25M -SN OVCO20 TEMPO 0718/0720 65M -SN BKNO4O ¥M072000 14010G20KT 1sM ~SN BLSN Vv010 FMO72200 11015G25KT 1/2SM SN VVOOS TEMPO 0800/0804 2SM -FZRA -SNPL BR OVCOO4 FM080400 VRBOSKT 1/2SM -Dz FG vv002 FU080900 27010G25KT 25M -SHSN BKNOOS BKNO15 RMK NXT FCST BY 18z= Saint John NB (CYSJ) SPECI CYSg 0711452 07005KT 12sM OVCOO8 RMK SFB= METAR CYSI 0712002 07007KT 128M OVCOO8 M01/MO2 A2945 RMK SF8 /S01/ SLP976= METAR C¥SI 0713002 36005KT 12SM OVCO08 M02/MO2 A2942 RMK SFB SLP969= TAF AND CYS 071204Z 07120724. 05010G20KT P6SM OVCO10 TEMPO 0712/0716 2SM -FZRA -SN ovcoos ¥M071600 36010KT 6SM -SN OVCO15 TEMPO 0716/0721 2SM -SNPL Ovco09 PROB30 0716/0721 1sM -FzDz BR VvO04 FM072100 34012G22KT PGSM OVCO30 TEMPO 0721/0724 45M -SHSN OVCO15 RMK Nxt FCS? BY 0718002= 2 AeroCourse AeroCourse)Met Practical Moncton NB (CYQM) METAR CYQM 071100Z 0S009KP 1 3/45M -SN VV018 M05S/MO7 AZ95@ RMK SNe /S07/ SLPO2 SPECI CYQM 0711112 05007KT dsm ~SN OVCO30 RMK SCe= METAR CYQM 071200z 05009KP SSM -SN OVCO35 M05/MO7 A2951 RNK SC7 PRESFR SLP996= SPECI CYQM 0712142 05008KT 25M -SHSN FEWO0S BKNO30 BKNO9O RMK SF2SC5AC: SPECI CYQM 0712272 05010KT 48M -SHSN FEWOOS BKNOLO OVCO30 RMK SFISF6SC1= SPECI C¥QM 0712532 06007KT SSM -SHSN OVCOO7 RUK SF3= METAR CYQM 0713002 07008KT SSM -SHSW OVCOO7 MOS/MOS A2949 RNK SFB SLP992= SPECI CYQM 0713312 03010KT 75M ~SN OVCOO4 RMK SF TAF AMD CYQM 0713142 07130724 0700SKT P6SM SW OVCO25 TEKPO 0713/0715 3/4SM -SNPL OVC007 PROB3O 0713/0715 25M ~FZRA -PL BR FU071500 O4010KT 38M ~SNPL OVCO10 TEMPO 0715/0721 18M -FZRA -SWPL BR OVCO06 ¥FU072100 36012G25KT 65u -SN OVCO15 TEMPO 0721/0724 25M -SN OVCOO9 RMK NXT FCST BY 0718002= ‘Stephenville NL (CYJT) METAR CYT 071100Z 24015KT 155M SCTO18 OVCO23 MO4/MOS A2982 RMK SC3SC5 SLP101= METAR CYOT 071200z 23015Kr 15sM FEWO18 OVCO24 MO4/MOS A2980 RUK SC2SC6 SLPOS2= METAR CYST_071300Z 18012KT 155M FEWO18 OVCO24 MO4/MOS A297 RMK SC2SC6 SLPOB2= AF CyoT 071129z 0712/0812 VRBO3KT P6SI BKNO20 TEMPO 0712/0714 sct020 071400 15010KT P6SM BKNO30 TEMPO 0714/0717 25M -SN OVCO20 071700 10010G20KT 3/45M ~SN VVOO8 TEMPO 0717/0804 GSK ~SN OVCO20 BECMG 0721/0724 06025G30Kr Fu080400 360i0G20KT 2sM -SHSN BxNOOs ovcO1s ¥M080600 33010G20KT 2SM -SHSN BKNOO6 OvcO12 RUK NXT FCST BY 0718002: ST. Leonard NB (CYSL) METAR CYSL 071200z 03002Kr 10sM OVCO25 MO8/m10 A2952 RMK sc8 SLPO15= METAR CYSL_071300z 36001KT 105M BKNO25 OVC100 MOB/M11 22950 RMK SCSAC3 SLPOO9= AF CYS 071332z 0714/0721 36005KF PSM BKNO2S OVC100 TEMPO 0714/0718 SSM SEEN SCTOOS oveo20 FHO71800 3400SKT SSM -SW OVCO20 ‘TEMPO 0718/0821 25M -SN BKNOOS OvcO20 MK NXT FCST WILL BE ISSUED AT 061045Z= Halifax NS (CYHZ) METAR CYHZ 071100Z 11008KT 3/4SM R15/P6000P7/0 -RA BR OVCO02 00/00 A2950 RMK SP@ REFRZA SLP997= METAR CYHZ 071200z O8004KT 3/4SM R15/4500FT/D -RA BR OVCOO2 00/00 A2945 RMK SFS SLP978~ METAR CYHZ 071300Z 08002Kr 18M R15/P6000FT/D -RA BR OVCOO2 00/00 A2942 RMK SF@ SLP970= SPECI CYHZ 0713297 O8002KT 1 1/4SM R15/3500VP6000FT/D -RA BR OVCO03 RMK SFI TAP AMD CYHZ 071135z 0712/0812 11012G22KT 35M -RA BR OVCO08 TEMPO 0712/0718 1/2SM -RA FG ovco03 FMO71800 VRBO3KT 1/2SM -DZ FG OVCOO7 TEMPO 0718/0721 GSM -DZ BR OVCOLO PROBA 0718/0721 1/280 FG FM072100 30008KT 68M -SHSW OVCO20 TEMPO 0721/0803 2SM -FZDZ BR OVCO09 FM080300 VRBOIKT PGSM OVCO15 TEMPO 0803/0812 4SM -SHSN MK NXT FCST BY 0715002= 33Canadian ATPL Workbook St. John’s (CYYT) METAR CYYT 0711002 27008KT 155M BKNO16 BKNI40 BKW1G0 MO3/MOG A2984 RMK SCSACLCIO SEPi1: METAR CYYT 0712002 26010KT 155M BKNO16 OVC140 M03/MOS A2986 RUK SCSAC2 SLP120= METAR CYYT 0713002 24006KT 15SM BKNO15 OVC140 403/MO4 42987 RMK SC6AS2 SLP124= METAR CYYT 071300Z CCA 24006KT 155M BKNOLS OVC140 m03/MO4 A2927 RUK SC6AS2 UUA/OV ¥¥T 000000 1053 Fi, 370/ TP 747/ TB MDT-SVR CAT SLP12 ‘PAF C¥YT 0711292 0712/0812 26010KT P6SM BKNO1S TEMPO 0712/0715 SCT015 ¥M071500 23010G20KT 25M -SN OVCO15 TEMPO 0715/0718 GSM -SN BRNO3O ¥M071800 19015G25Kr isu -sN vv010 ¥M072100 15020G30KT 1/2SM SN BLSN VVO0S PROB4O 0721/0724 25M -FZRA -SNPL BR OVCOO4 ¥m080000 17025G40KT 1/28 -Dz FG vv002 FM080300 20025G40Kr ist -Dz BR ovcoOd ¥M081000 23025G40KT 2s -SHSN OVCOO8 RMK NXT FCST BY 071800Z= ‘Sydney NS (CYQY) MBTAR CYQY 071100Z 09006KT 3/45M -SN VVOO4 M06/M08 A297 RUK SN@ S02/PRESFR SLPOB METAR CYOY 0712002 10009KT 3/45M -SN VVO04 M04/MO6 A2972 RUK SN8 S04 SLPOG: SPECT CYOY 0712372 09009KT 1/2SM SN VVOOS RMK SNS RO7/2400FT R19/2800FT= METAR CYQY 071300z 09012KT 1/25M SN OVCO10 MO3/H0S A296 RUK SN6SF2 PRESFR /S01/ RO7/3000FT R19/3000FT SLPO48= SPECI CYQY 071312Z 09010KT 3/45M -SN OVCOO8 RMX SN6SF2 R19/4000FT RO7/4000FT- SPECI C¥OY 0713282 O9O11KT 15M -SNPL OVCO06 RNK SFS R19/6000PT RO7/SSO0FT= TAF AND CYQY 0713382 0713/0724 09012G25KT 1sM -SNPL OVCO0G TEMPO 0713/0717 35M -SN OVCO15 PROB30 0713/0717 15M -FZRA BR 7H071700 14010G20KT GSM -RA BR OVCOO6 TEMPO 0717/0724 1/2SM -DZ FG Vv002 BECMG 0722/0724 26010G20KT RMK NXT FCST BY 071800Z= AeroCourse AerosourMet Practical N Snel GFACNS4 CWAO eek} ATLANTIC REGION REGIONDE L'ATLANTIGUE CLOUDS AND WEATHER aL. A 136-p Ace-\6a— joce- Save Bash Deer Lake wr Saint John xsa Charlottetown YG St. Leonard SL Fredericton YRC St. John's wr Gander YOx Stephenville Yor Halifax az Sydney yoy Moncton you ‘Yarmouth YOr AeroCoursé) Brun aripeyenee tvan2 Yuo 7/02/2004 1200z LEGEND /LEGENDE 5 Bo Wome Cieecor ste alaaore COMMENTS /COMMENTAIRES SToKY 28y -F202 of NSERC F5, (BTS AS ines wOTED CB TOU AND ACC PLY "na tuo Anis ioe ‘Se wrces tows, ENVIRGHMENT CANADA ENVIRGRMEMENT CaHaDa 35Canadian ATPL Workbook GFACN34 CWAO ATLANTIC REGION Je-seu suo REGIONDE L'ATLANTIOUE love t/2sw sian CLOUDS ANO WEATHER NUAGES ET TEMPS BRE" orreazaooe 1a | VLD 07/02/2004 18002 LEGEND/LEGENDE eu bebe 9 6. 120 ION PTCHY 25M -F207 88 a | ONSHR/GSSLP RWLY FLO, 2S aH was ONO TELTou ANG Acc WrLY | meus Low TLV IRORMEWT. “EANADA | ERVIROMNEMENT CANADA Deer Lake wr Saint John xso Charlottetown Y¥G st. John's wr Predericton YF Stephenville YUT Gander YOx sydney yor Halifax EZ Yarmouth Yor Moncton You 3-6Met Practical {ss 7 GFACN34 CWAO ATLANTICRESION = REGIONE 'ATLANTIOUE a fove Cras Sap CLOUDS AND WEATHER ais ee NUAGESET TEMPS, [sor orate te aor ype ovo i/esu ssn BERL OT/oe 2008 1131z ON wee cog ee VLD 08/02/2004 0000z Spee \ igft|_ CzeenonseeNoe ‘sbio Bae Neu «of a A | ave’ eet 310 | Ras ba ote encise { | e PIRA Fz0z | \ ef oe) 1 10M a COMMENTS /COUMENTA | RES ‘2004 NRF AND foo rat Serie’ an ova San 8S FERS aaa ath Plize-sow -pz eared Fret onree Plsstomces eget foie: IX ee oe oe LO LL JOB cuvitonnenewr cauana Deer take vor seine gona vay fusetscrseee| ora aise Fredericton Fc Stephenville YT Gander ‘YOx Sydney Yor Halifax YHZ Yarmouth ‘YOR Moncton ‘You - AeroCourse) 37Canadian ATPL Workbook GFACN34 CWAO ATLANTIC REGION REGION DE L'ATLANTIOUE (cs TuRa a FZLVL. F HENE o1yo2/2006 11412 | j VLD 07/02/2004 12002 LEGEND /ESENDE SY orice A aor-une | 4 ceven Aaeveo | a zo 1a0Ne cama 1RES| GRIGG, FEDZ IN ganian PTOI 5 = LP ALY FL. | Neh ot \ ~~ YeTS Ast UMLESS NOTED . ‘Sa-TCU AND, AEC IMPLY x. gun ans ice “Eo wrLES LOWE. Tv onwENT. CANADA ENVIRONNEMENT EAWADA | Deer Lake oF Saint John ysa Charlottetown ¥¥G St. John's wr Fredericton YRC Stephenville Yor Gander xox Sydney yor Halifax ‘Yaz Yarmouth Yor Moncton you “ AeroCourse)Met Practical @FAGNS4 CWAO ATLANTIC REGION REGIONDE L'ATLANTIOUE ios Tuna 2eZLVL gtyozse0ne 11412 Veo o7/02/2004 18002 ‘LEGEND/LEGENDE FBV wean Wo xories A. ter -ure “Weewes LA ccew nana © 39 wo wom COWNENTS /COMMENTA IRE “A PTGHY SEY GLA 65 2K F2DZ IN SNSHR-USSLP ALY FLO. Te 1Gy AND Ace WPLY “yo TuRe Ako Ice, ‘SeMPCeS WS, Wee eee ee ENV IRONMEMEWT CANADA | ysa Course) 3S | 39Canadian ATPL Workbook GFACN34 CWAO ATLANTIC REGION REGION DE L’ATLANTIOUE | | VLD 08/02/2004 00002 | 62. 120. 160K ‘Garey AND ACC WELT "ag. Tutte AND Ic8, ENVIROMENT CANADA | ENVIRONNEMENT EANA08 Deer Lake wr Saint John ysa Charlottetown ¥¥G St. John's wr Fredericton YRC Stephenville JT Gander xox sydney yor Halifax EZ Yarmouth YOr Moncton You oe AeroCoursé)Met Practical x oxy ’ f z1_o78 | ~~ 5, Pee 5% tom —eie00 O93! By ie sua 2A0] ~ oN af 1 078 A toe” 221 noel eee i ?, oot JO ONN GF ORAg 294 198, oerfors at 2 aA0' oer CEVA Y) AROLe PRS we res 088, Soy L534 ? BB RADA Tes “gai 30 gNIVvina9 3. s20NL LL “51u0s $04.90 §343000 aovualauno 19 Sona ana Vo 30 CS Miano i 930-13 nol “do aufitnag WoLavDtaRt 0 Satoh “Hae, casuanON Wi cage ay SRR aly ningun aaavaUD 0, aLVASOON ATA O94 ONY nod 03° -anivaran ZoImUaiLO. S897 Of/11/6002 NNT/NOM ZOOA AN OOF -002 91S SdNL/KM DIS db anv warwtstia OV ND BE OE poy aos | 90: ez 21978 7} ny) [DAKD] So) ‘Ozi. O02] NOE. MATL NG) / Bt Ee ye aT oy Poa o@tpone Ay ‘ost Dov /a'igs | es orc ep BES OAS] “OReHES ‘an084 | 022, aL Hin | dei NRioar °° sre8¢ Mb i suAg NE 2 | oid av 19s) oeT ATL NGI < reCanadian ATPL WorkbookMet Practical Questions 1 through 40 are based on the information provided on pages 3-1 to 3-10. 1, With reference to the GRACN34 CWAO forecast which of the following statements is correct? 8) The GFA was issued at 1130 UTC on the 07 of the February and is a 24 hour forecast valid from 1200 UTC. b) The GFA was issued on the 07 of the month and is a 12 hour forecast valid from 1200Z, covering Ontario and Quebec regions. ©) The GFA was issued at 1200 UTC on the 07 of February and is valid for 6 hours, with the next routine graphic area forecast due out at 0000Z. 4) The GFA was issued at 1130Z on February 07 and is valid ftom 12002. for 12 hours with an outlook for a further 12 hours on the O8th. 2. With reference to the Title Box on the GRA chart on page 3-6 which of the following is true? 8) The GFA icing and turbulence chart was issued at 1800Z on February 07 and is valid until 0600Z on the 08" b) The GFA clouds and weather chart was issued at 1130Z on February 07 and is valid at 18007 ©) The GFA clouds and weather chart was issued at 1800Z on the 07" and is based on observed weather taken at 1130, d ‘The GFA clouds and weather chart was issued at 1130Z on the 07" and is valid from 1800 on the 07" to 12002 on the 08%. 3. Winds are depicted on GFA clouds and weather charts whenever they are forecast to be___kts. or greater; and visibility is depicted whenever itis forecast to be__ statue miles or less, The missing numbers are: a) 20,6 b) 25,6 ) 10,6 4) 20,10 4, A dashed line enclosing an area of diagonal lines on a clouds and weather GFA chart represents? 8) Anarea of showery precipitation. ) —Anarea of continuous precipitation, ©) Anarea of low level wind shear. 4) Amarea of freezing rain, 5. According to the GFA’s, what is the probable location of the warm front at 22Z if the system were fo move as forecast? a) 100nm southwest of St John's b) Just east of St, John’s ©) 90 nm west of Halifax @) Over Gander AeroCourse) a810. 344 ATPL Workbook Referring to the GFA, what clouds and weather are forecast over Halifax (YHZ) at 14002? a) ») ° 4d) Overcast cloud with bases at 2,000 feet and tops at 22,000 fect ASL. Visibilities of 2-5 miles in freezing rain, ice pellets, mist. Stratus/obscured ceilings 200 fect above ground, Broken cloud between 3,000 and 13,000 feet. Visibilities better than 6 miles with isolated altocumnlus castellanus to 16,000 feet giving 3 miles in light snow showers. Overcast cloud between 2,000 and 22,000 feet ASL. Visibilities of 1/2-3 miles in light rain, mist, light drizzle and fog. Extensive stratus/obscured ceilings 200 feet above ground. Cloud based at 2,000 feet ASL topped at 22,000 feet. Visibilities 2-6 miles in light snow. Scattered altocumulus castellanus to 20,000 feet giving 1/2 mile in snow and snow ceiling 400 above ground. Referring to the GFA’s, what clouds and weather could a flight crew expect for the Sydney (¥QY) area at 162. a » ° 4 Overcast cloud between 2,000 and 22,000 feet ASL. Visibilities of 2-5 miles in light freezing rain, ice pellets and mist. Extensive stratus/obscured ceilings 200 fect above ground. Broken cloud between 3,000 and 13,000 feet, visiilities better than 6'miles with isolated altocunsulus castellanus to 16,000 feet giving 3 miles in Tight snow showers, Overcast cloud based at 2000 feet ASL with tops to 20,000 feet. Visibilities of 1/2-3 miles in light rain, mist, light drizzle and fog. Extensive stratus/obscured ceilings 200 feet above ground. Bases of cloud at 2,000 feet ASL with tops at 22,000 feet. Visibilities 2-6 miles in light snow, Scattered altocumulus castellanus to 20,000 feet giving 1/2 mile in snow and snow ceiling 400 above ‘ground. According to the GFA’s, what clouds and weather could be anticipated for the St. John’s area at 222? a) ») °) 4) Overcast cloud between 2,000 and 22,000 feet ASL. Visibilities of 2-6 sm in light snow. Scattered areas of snow ceilings of 400 above ground with 1/2 in snow. Overcast cloud between 2,000 and 22,000 feet ASL. Visibilities of 2-5 miles in freezing rain and ice pellets Overcast cloud between 3,000 and 16,000 feet ASL. Visibilities of 4-6 miles in light rain and mist. Overcast cloud bases at 2000 feet and tops at 22,000 fect ASL. Visibilities of % -2 sm in snow. On GFA clouds and weather charis, which of the following sky conditions represent unorganized cloud formations which are not encompassed by scalloped borders? a) b) °) d) FEW, SCT, BKN BKN, OVC SKC, FEW, SCT ACC, SCT, BKN ‘According to the GFA charts what is the forecast low level wind south of the warm front at 1200 a) b) 9 8 Less than 20 kts 150° magnetic at 35 kts. 230" true at 30 Kt 150° tra at 35 kts AeroC e)WL 12, 1B. 14, 15 Met Practical ‘Where is the freezing level at St John’s (YYT) and Halifax (YHZ) at 18Z. 8) Surface at YYT, between 7500 and 10,000 feet at YHZ. b) 2500 feet at YYT and between 7500 and 10,000 feet at YHZ. ©) Surface at YYT and 7500 fect at CYHZ. @ Surface at YYT and between 5000 and 7500 feet at YHZ. Which of the following statements is true with reference to the freezing level and icing conditions forecast for ‘light operations near Sydney (YQY) at 17302? a) The freezing level is located at the surface and moderate mixed icing can be anticipated in cloud on departure up to 14,000 fect. b) The freezing level is located at the surface and severe clear icing can be anticipated on departure below 2000 feet in freezing precipitation. ©) Patchy severe clear icing due to freezing drizzle is forecast for the Sydney area due to an on shore upslope northerly flow. 4) There is an above freezing layer between 2,000 and 7,000 feet ASL. Severe clear icing is forecast below 2,000 feet in freezing precipitation and moderate mixed icing in cloud is forecast between 2,000 and 14,000 feet ASL. What type and intensity of icing can be expected during a descent into to the ST. John’s airport from 8,000 feet at 2030Z, assuming the weather systems move as forecast? a) Moderate mixed icing in cloud through out the descent. b) No icing until nearing YYT then severe clear icing below 2,000 feet in freezing precipitation. ©) Light rime icing in cloud during descent. 4) Moderate mixed icing in cloud and severe clear icing in the descent below 2000 feet in freezing precipitation, Referring to the GFACN34, the greatest turbulence at 00Z can be found. a) involved with ACC and CB's, b) northeast of the warm front, ©) SEC to 3,000 feet above sea level in Halifax and St John’s. 4) between 20,000 to 40,000 feet over the southern portion of the GFA region. In the IPR Outlook portion, “IFR CIG/VIS SN/BR/FG OVR NRN NF” would be decoded as: a) —_IFR conditions due to fog and mist with ceilings between 1000 and 3000 ASL. b) _IFR conditions due to fog causing visibilities of less than three miles. ) _IFR conditions due to ceilings and visibility due to snow, mist and fog over Northen Newfoundland. 4) —_IFR conditions due to ceilings and fog/mist causing visibilities of less than one mile, 3-15 A AeroCourse’)16, 17, 18, 19, 3.16 ATPL Workbook Referring to the outlook section of the GFACN34, which of the following statements is correct with reference to the expected weather over northern Newfoundland? Dy ») °) ® After 1800Z, the ceiling is expected to less than 1000 feet AGL, visibility is expected to be less than 3 statue miles due to rain and fog ‘After 00007, the ceiling is expected to between 1000 and 3000 feet AGL, visibility is expected to be between 3 and 5 statue miles due to snow, mist and fog. ‘The wind is expected to be 20 knots or more or gust of 30 kmots or more, ‘After 0000Z the ceiling is expected to less than 1000 feet AGL, visibility is expected to be less than 3 sm due to snow, mist and fog, ‘After 0000Z the ceiling is expected to less than 1000 feet ASL, visibility is expected to be between 3 and 5 statue miles due fo snow, mist and fog. ‘Which of the following statements is true with reference to SIGMETS: a) b) °) ’ ‘They are weather alerts valid for 4 hours reporting hazardous flight conditions covering all weather phenomena of any significance. ‘They are weather alerts valid for the length of time hazardous conditions exists for flight. ‘They are weather warnings valid for 4 hours reporting hazardous flight conditions covering weather phenomena such as: active thunderstorms, severe icing, severe turbulence etc. ‘They are weather advisors valid for 6 hours reporting hazardous flight conditions covering weather phenomena such as: active thunderstorms, moderate icing, moderate turbulence, bail, etc ‘Which of the following statements is true with reference to the following SIGMET: WSCN33 CWTO 162128 SIGMET BI VALID 162130/170130 CWTO- WTN 30 NM OF LN /4548N08235W/90 NW WIARTON - /4559N07855W/30 SE NORTH BAY. SVR TURBC RPRTD BTN 380-390 BY B777 130 NM N OF TORONTO. PTCHY SVR ‘TURBC FCST BTN 220 AND 390, LTL MOVEMENT. LN GRDLLY DSIPTG DURG PD. a) » °) ¢d This SIGMET is valid on the 30 of the month between 1621Z to 1701Z. Patchy severe turbulence is forecast on a line thru 90 Northwest Wiarton to 30 Southeast North Bay between FL220 and FL390 and it is forecast to gradually dissipate during the period. ‘A Boeing 777 reported severe turbulence between FL380 and 390 outside the forecasted area. Severe turbulence is forecast within 90 nm of a line 30 nm Northwest Wiarton to 30am Southeast North Bay. Aerodrome forecasts normally provide forecast weather conditions a) %) °) ad ‘wind, visibility, weather, and cloud heights above ground that relate to flight operations within 5 NM of an aerodrome runway complex. intended primarily for aircraft in flight to notify pilots of conditions at a specific aerodrome. expected to occur below FL240 over a given area, along with the most probable time of occurrence. wind, visibility, weather, and cloud heights above sea level that relate €o flight operations within 10 NM of an aerodrome runway complex. AeroCoursé)20, 20 22, 23. 25, Met Practical ‘What is the date of issue and validity period for Fredericton's aerodrome forecast? a) Feb 07 and it is valid for 12 hours starting at 12002, b) Feb 07 and itis valid from 1200Z to 1200Z on Feb 08 ©) Feb 07 and itis valid from 1200Z to 0600Z on Feb 08 4) Feb 07 and it is valid from 1200Z, for 6 hours. ‘What is the validity period for the following aerodrome forecast? TAF CYAY 0723482 0800/0802 14020G30KT 18M -SN VVO10 TEMPO 0800/0802 1/4SM “SN BLSN VV004 RMK NXT FCST WILL BE ISSUED AT 081200z= 8) 00002 on Feb 08 to 12002 on Feb 08 b) 0000 local on the 08 of the month to 0200 local on the 08 ©) 00002 on the 07" of the month for 26 hours. 4) 00002 on the 08" of the month for 2 hours. ‘You arrive at the Halifax weather office at 1440Z. for a briefing for a projected two hour flight to St John’s eparting Halifax at 1530Z, You would expect that the most current weather forecasts available would be? a) The 18 GFA’s and the TAF's given with this exercise. b) The GFA’s and the TAF's given with this exercise. ©) The GFA’s given and the 18 TAP’. 6) The 12Z GFA’s, the current TAF's for CYFC, CYQX, CYJT, CYYT and the 152 TAF for CYHZ. According to the aerodrome forecasts, when is the warm front forecast to pass through CYYT? a) 21002 b) —0000z ©) 10002 &) — 1800z - As you approach CYQM at 1400Z, the latest ATIS states: wind 07005KT, visibility 1 1/2SM -FZRA -SNPL, ceiling OVC006, temp -5, dew point -6, altimeter 2946, runway 08 in use. a) The weather is about as forecast. b) The ceiling and visibility is lower than forecast, ©) The terminal forecast is not reliable. 4) The winds are less than forecast. Which of the following statements is correct, referring to: "BECMG", "TEMPO" and "PROB30"? 8) BECMG is a permanent but gradual change of the stated elements, occurting over the indicated period. b) TEMPO is a temporary fluctuation of the stated elements, occurring over the indicated period. ©) PROB30 is a probability (30% or 40% for PROB40) that a hazard to aviation will occur during the specified time, 4 — Allof the above. AeroCourse) Ee26. 20. 28. 29. ATPL Workbook If the terms "TEMPO" or "PROB" are included in a part period of an aerodrome forecast, can this aerodrome still meet the requirements for an altemate airport? a) No. You can not have any of these terms in an alternates aerodromes forecast. ) Yes. But only if the forecast "TEMPO" condition is not below the alternate minima and the forecast "PROB" condition is not below the appropriate landing minima of the aerodrome. ©) Yes. These are acceptable terms in an aerodromes forecast, but only if they are all above the non- precision alternate minima of that aerodrome. 4) The term "PROB" is the only condition that is not acceptable in an aerodrome forecast being used as an alternate airport If you were considering using Charlottetown as an alternate aerodrome, what is the lowest forecast visibility and ceiling at 1100Z, Feb 08? (Use the TAF given below) TAF CY¥G 0716452 0718/0818 11020KT 3sM ovco20 #M072100 11020G35RT 3/4SM -SNPI, BLSN Vv00O #M072200 11020G35KT 2SM -FZRA OVCO20 FM080800 14025KT 1SM -RA BR OVCO15 BECMG 0810/0812 PéSM OVCOBO MK NXT FCST BY 080000 a) TSM or better and overcast cloud at 15000 feet. >) _greater than 6SM and broken cloud at 1000 feet. ©) 1SMaand overcast cloud at 1500 feet. 4) The FT does not cover this time. ETCN CWHX 072355 TAF CYFC 072345% 0800/0812 04015KT 1SM -RA BR OVCO10 TEMPO 0801/0804 11/25M -RA BR OVCOO7 RMK NXT FCST BY 080600z= TAF CYYT 072345z 0800/0812 14025G35KT 2SM -SN OVCO12 TEMPO 0801/0804 2SM SN OVCO06 RMK NxT FCST BY 080600z= TAF CYHZ 0723452 0800/0812 18006KT 5SM -RA BR SCTO03 OVCO09 TEMPO 0802/0805 25M BR RMK NXT FCST BY 080600Z= TAF C¥OK 0723452 0800/0812 16025G35KT 11/25M -SN OVCOO9 RMK NXT FCST BY 080600Z= Which of the above arodromes could be used on an IFR flight plan as an alternate aerodrome if each had alternate limits of 800-2 and the estimated time of arrive was 0300Z. a) CYFC b) —Alllexcept CYYT ©) CYHZand CYQX 4d) Allof the aerodromes Which of the following airports could be used as a legal altemate, if you have determined the alternate minima to be 600-2 for all the aerodromes? Your estimated time of arrival is 20Z. (Refer to the TAFs on pages 3-1 to 3-4). a) CYQY b) — CYFCorCYQM ©) CYFC @ — CYoM AeroCoursé)30. 31. 32, 33, Met Practical After reviewing Gander’s approach plates you have determined the alternate Minima to be 600-2, What would be the earliest time you could depart Halifax for St. John's and use Gander as a legal alternate, assuming a two hour flight time between Halifax and St, John's and an hour flight time between St John’s and Gander? (Refer to the amended Gander terminal forecast below.) TAF AMD CYQX 0719402 0720/0818 13025G35KT 1SM -PLSN OVCO0S TEMPO 0720/0822 3sM - SN ovcO10 FH072200 10030G45KT 25M PLSN SCTO04 OVCOOB TEMPO 0722/0804 1SM -FZRA BR OVCOO4 M0040 16030G40KT 18M -RA BR OVCOO4 ™M081000 20025G40KY 28m -RA OVCOO8 NXT FCST BY 080000z= a) UZ b) — 00z ) — 10z 4 According to the weather forecasts, what would be the probable location of the warm front at 23Z. if the system were to move as forecast? a) Near Stephenville (CYJT). b) Approaching St John's (CYY. ©) North of Gander (CYQX). 4) 60 nmeast of Sydney (CYQY). An aircraft departs CYQM at 15Z on a three hour flight to CYDF at 9000 fi. ASL. What icing and turbulence can be expected during the climb, enroute and descent segments, assuming the weather systems move as forecast. a) Severe clear icing in freezing precipitation during the climb to 1,500 feet ASL, then moderate mixed icing in cloud until nearing Newfoundland and no icing thereafter. Turbulence associated with scattered ACC is forecast. b) No icing and turbulence during climb and cruise, In descent severe clear icing and severe turbulence below 3000 feet ©) Severe clear icing and turbulence below 3,000 feet ASL. Moderate icing during cruise and in descent moderate mechanical turbulence below 3,000 feet ASL. 4) Moderate to severe turbulence on departure t0 4,000 feet AGL, light rime icing at the top of climb, cruise and in descent, with severe clear icing and turbulence below 4,000 feet AGL at CYDF. Surface wind velocities in aviation weather reports are given in: a) degrees magnetic and knots. b) degrees true and knots. ©) degrees magnetic and M.P.H. 4) are not given unless they are expected to be 30 kts, or greater. 319 AeroCourse)34, 35. 36. 37, 38, 3-20 ATPL Workbook ‘When included in a METAR; R36/1000V2400F T/D would mean: a). The runway visual range for the runway 36 is 1000 feet for RVR A and 2400 feet for RVR B, b) Departing runway 36, windshear has been reported between 1000 feet and 2400 feet AGL ©) The wind on runway 36 is varying from 100° true to 240° true and the speed exceeds 3 knots. 4) The runway visual range for the touch down zone on runway 36 is fluctuating between 1000 feet and 2400 feet; and the trend is downward. Given the following Aviation Weather Report. What is the minimum increase in opacity of the surface based layer at YOY, in order for it to constitute a ceiling? METAR CYOY 0713002 09012KP 1/2SM SN OVCO10 M03/MOS A2966 RMK SNSSF3 SLE994= 8) none, it already constitutes a ceiling b) 28 38 jd 18 On checking the hourly weather reports associated with the weather system you note the following for Feb 07. MBTAR CYOY 071500z 1410G15KT 3/4SM -RA BR OVCOO2 00/00 A2945 RMK SF@ SLPS7O= METAR CYQY 0716002 1410G20KT 1SM -RA BR OVCOO2 00/00 A2942 RMK SF8 SLP970= SPECI CYOY 0716292 1610G20KT 45M -RA BR OVCOO4 RMK SF8= ‘This information would indicate that the weather system was moving in the same direction... a) and speed as forecast b) _but slower than forecast. ©) with the fronts merging. d) but faster than forecast. ‘When using a surface weather map for flight planning purposes, a pilot must be aware that: a) It portrays the pressure patterns, frontal positions and weather that exists at the time of issue to the various weather stations b) __It shows weather conditions that existed 2 to 3 hours before the weather map was issued ©) Its issued every 6 hours starting at 1200 UTC 4) __Itportrays expected pressure pattems, frontal positions, and weather for a time in the future With respect to a surface weather chart, the surface pressure patterns can be considered representative of the atmosphere up to: a) 1,000 f. b) 1,500 ft ©) 4,500. d 3,000.8.39, 40. Met Practical Match up the following surface weather map symbols with the following types of precipitation: Fog, Drizzle, Snow Showers, Ice Pellets yD Qn (Yellow Shading) 3) @ DZ] crensatings 4) A a) 13.64 b) 2.4.65 ) 23.56 d 1465 From the weather map symbols presented below select those that represent, respectively: frontolysis of stationary front frontogenesis of a warm front stationary front frontolysis of an occluded front 7 = 2 oA Od ty hye pap> fa ais b) 4312 o Bid : 3) 3142 Questions 41 to 47 are based on the P SIG WX/TMPS 700 — 400 MB Chart provided on page 3-11. 41. 42, Referring to the Sig Prog WX chart legend, which of the following statements is true with reference to the time of issue and the validity period? a) The chart was issued at 00Z on November 30 and is valid for 24 hours b) The chart was issued at 00Z on November 30 and is valid at 127, ©) The chart is based on 00Z data and was issued 2 to 3 hours afler the observation, 4) The chart was issued at 12Z on November 29 and is valid at 00Z on the 30th. Fronts and pressure centres depicted on P SIG WX charts are representative of: a) their positions at FL180. 8) their positions at the surface two to three hours before the chart was issued. ©) their surface positions at the chart validity period d) —_anaverage height of 10,000 fect in the aimosphece. 3-21 AeroCourse)43 44. 45, 46. 41. 3-22 ATPL Workbook On a 700-400 MB P SIG WX chart what do the following symbols refer to; 23 Aw K a) Cloud area, severe turbulence, severe icing and thunderstorms b) Clear airturbulence, moderate turbulence, severe icing and thunderstorms ©) Clear air turbulence, severe turbulence, moderate icing and freezing rain a) Cloud area, moderate icing, severe turbulence and thunderstorms The term CB on SIG Charts implies: a) Severe thunderstorms >) Moderate or greater turbulence and icing ©) Moderate icing and severe turbulence. 4) Severe icing in thunderstorms ‘The term OCNL CB represents? a) Embedded thunderstorms with coverage between 1/8 and 4/8 b) Thunderstorms with coverage between 1/10 and 4/10. ©) Embedded thunderstorms which are well separated. d) Embedded thunderstonms with little or no separation. Which of the following statements is true with reference to “Area 1” (in eastem Canada) depicted on the SIG WX/TMPS chart? a) Overcast cloud with tops of 18,000 feet and scattered ACC topped at 22,000 feet. Moderate or greater ‘turbulence and icing are associated with the ACC. b) Broken cloud between 10,000 and 14,000 feet, Moderate Mixed icing is forecasted below 14,000 feet. ©) ACC with bases of 10,000 feet and tops of 18,000 feet is forecast in the area. 4) Overcast cloud topped at 12,000 feet with bases below the level of the chart. Scattered ACC topped at 18,000 feet. Patchy moderate mixed icing is forecast below 12,000 fect. Reviewing the P SIG WX chart in preparation for a flight from Vancouver (CYVR) to Fairbanks (FIA) Alaska, what significant weather would you expect to encounter at a planned cruise altitude of FL230? a) Overcast cloud with moderate mixed icing during the climb to 18,000 fect and isolated ACC topped at 15,000 feet. Nearing northern BC, moderate CAT with a narrow ban of patchy severe, No significant weather is forecast thereafter. b) Broken layers to 12,000 fect and broken cloud from 16,000 to 22,000 feet. Nearing northern BC @ narrow ban of moderate to severe turbulence and no significant weather thereafter. ©) Scattered ACC with moderate turbulence and icing in the climb to 15,000 feet. Possible moderate to severe clear air turbulence is forecasted in a narrow ban after levelling off at FL2S0. 4) Moderate turbulence to 14,000 feet due to mountain waves and ACC up to 15,000 feet. Overcast cloud with moderate mixed icing during the climb to 18,000 feet. Neating northern BC moderate CAT with a narrow ban of patchy severe. AeroCourse)Met Practical Questions 48 through 53 are based on the WAFC SIG WX FL250- FL630 chart provided on page 3-12, 48. Which of the following statements is true with reference to the SIG WX FL250 - FL630? a) It was issued at 1130Z on February 06 and is valid at 12002. b) —_Itdepiets significant weather between FL250 to FL630 and it was issued at 1200UTC on February 06. ©) The observed weather depicted on this chart occurred 2 to 3 hours before the chart issue time. 4) Itwas issued on February 5 at approximately 202, and is valid at 122 on the 6th. 49. What does the following symbol represent when it is depicted on a jet stream? | | a) A Jet stream break b) A marked change in direction of 10° or more, ©) Either an inerease or decrease in wind velocity of 20 knots. 6) The jet stream’s height equates to that of the tropopause in the area where the symbol is indicated. 50, With reference to the jet stream that crosses over the Great Lakes and Newfoundland, which of the following statements is true? a) The jet stream is forecast to have a core height of 29,000 fect and the maximum wind speed is variable between 180 and 200 knots, Moderate to severe turbulence is forecast from FL410 to below FL250. ) The jet stream is forecast to have a core height of 29,000 feet and has a maximum wind speed of 200 nots. A large area of moderate turbulence is forecast from below the level of the chart to FL410 and a smaller area of severe turbulence is forecast from FL330 to below FL250. ©) The jet stream’s average core height is 29,000 feet and varies from 16,000 to 46,000 feet; maximum wind speed of 200 kts is expected at the core. 4) The jet stream’s core height is 43,000 feet and a maximum wind speed.of 140 kts is forecast, Moderate turbulence is forecast from FL.260 to 390, 51, Which of the following statements is true with reference to the jet stream that rans over Mexico and the south- eastern United States? a) The jet stream is forecast to have a core height of 43,000 feet and the maximum wind speed is 140 Knots, Moderate turbulence is forecast from FLA10 to below FL250. b) The jet stream’s average core height is 43,000 feet and varies from 31,000 to 52,000; maximum wind speed of 140 kts is expected at the core. ©) The jet streams core height is 29,000 fect with 2 maximum core speed of 140 knots. Moderate turbulence is forecast from FL410 to below the level of the chart 4) The jet stream’s core height is FL430 feet and the vertical depth to the 80 knot wind field is from FL310 feet to FLS20. 52. What is the lowest level of the tropopause depicted on the SIG WX chart? a) FLI90 b) FL220 ©) FL250 ad 38,000 feet. ae, 3.23 AeroCourse) eS)53 3.24 ATPL Workbook Which of the following statements is true with reference to forecast flight conditions associated with the depicted significant weather south of the Great Lakes? a) b) °) 4d Individual embedded thunderstorms with expected tops to FL350 are forecast over the whole area. Individual embedded CBs with tops forecast to FL370 within a larger area of individual CBs forecast up to FL420. Well separated embedded CBs with tops to FL370 within a larger area of individual CBs with tops to FL3S0. ‘A solid line of thunderstorms is forecast with tops up to FL370 along the front.Met Practical MET Exercise 2 OPRANA/ON METAR CYOW 141700z 19014KT 105M SKC 28/18 A2984 RMK HAZY SLP1O. METAR CYOW 141700z 19014KT 105M SKC 28/18 A2984 RMK HAZY SLP10d= METAR CYOW 1418002 20011G18KT 1OSM SKC 29/18 A2983 RK HAZY SLP1O: METAR CYOW 141900% 21015G21KT 10sM FEWOSS FEW150 29/17 A2901 RMK CUIAC1 AC TR SLPOSS= TAF CYOW 141741z 1418/1518 20012KT PGSM SCT100 scr250 ¥u142200 200126227 PGSM BRNO40 TEMPO 1422/1512 SSM -SHRA BR OVCO30 PROB3O 1500/1512 28M TSRA BR OVCO20CB BECMG 1500/1502 3200@KT FM151200 O5005KT 65M BR SCTO08 OVCO30 TEMPO 1512/1518 3SM -SHRA BR BKNOOB OvCO20 RMK NXT FCST BY 142100: PETERSOROUGH/ON METAR CYPQ 141700z AUTO 22015G24KT 45M CLR 28/20 A2985 RMK SLP108= METAR CYPQ 1418002 AUTO 21014G20KT 45M CLR 27/19 A2984 RMK SLP103= METAR CYPQ 141900z AUTO 23020G26KT SSM FEWO70 28/18 A2983 RMR SLPLOO= TAF AMD C¥PQ 1418072 1418/1502 21012G22KT 4sM HZ SCT100 SCT260 TEMPO 1418/1419 6su HZ FMi41900 22012G22KT PéSM SCTO20 BKNOSO TEMPO 1419/1423 SSM -SHRA BR OVCO25 PROB3O 1419/1423 2SM TSRA BR OVCO20CB ¥N150000 27008KT P6SM SCTO15 BKNO4O RNK FCST BASED ON AUTO OBS. NXT FCST BY 142200= QUEBEC/JBAN LESAGE INTL/QC METAR CYQB 141700Z 23007KT 85M SKC 27/20 A2987 RNK HAZY SUP1AS: METAR CYQB 1418002 23007KT 105M SKC 28/20 A29@5 RMK HAZY SLP1O: METAR C¥QB 141900z 23011Kr 12sM FEWO40 29/20 A2984 RNK CU1 RAZY SLPLO. TAF CYQB 1417412 1418/1518 23008Kr Pesm sCTO40 scT250 FM150600 24008KT P6SM BKNO4O OVCOO TEMPO 1506/1512 3SM BR BXNO15 OVvcO4O ¥M151200 22005KT 6SM -SHRA BR SCTO10 OVCO20 TEMPO 1512/1518 35M -SERA BR OVCO12 BECMG 2513/1515 o5008Kr MK NXT FCST BY 1500002= SARNIA (CHRIS HADFIELD) /ON METAR CYZR 1417002 AUTO Oi008KT 9SM CLR 24/18 A2987 RUK SLP113= SPECI C¥ZR 1417432 AUTO 01007KT 96M -RA FEWOS® 23/19 a29B8= MBTAR CYZR 141800Z AUTO 01005KT 9SM -RA FEWO41 FEWOSS 22/19 A2988 RMK SLP117= SPECI CYZR 1418172 AUTO 34006KT 25M +RA FEWO36 FEWOAO 21/20 A2988 RMK VSBY VRBL 0.6V7.0= METAR CYZR 141900Z AUTO 36004KT SSM -RA CLR 21/20 A2989 RNK PCPM 1.5™M PAST HR SLP119= SPECI CYZR 141906z AUTO 31003KT 65M CLR 20/20 A298: TAF CyZR 141940z 1420/1502 3200SKT PGSM BKNO30 TEMPO 1420/1502 36M -SHRA BR BKNOLS ovco2s RMK FCST BASED ON AUTO OBS. NXT FCST WILL BE ISSUED AT 151145z= 3-25 ~ AeroCourseATPL Workbook HANTLITON/ON METAR CYHM 141700z 20017KT 125M SKC 27/20 A2986 RNK SLP1O! METAR CYHM 141800Z 23018KT 12SM FEWO38 SCT220 28/19 A2986 "RMK CU2CI1 SLP108= METAR CYEM 1419002 21011KT 6SM HZ VCSH FEWO36 BKNO43 BKN1G0 OVC250 26/19 A2986 RMK SC2SC4ACICI1 SLP108= SPECI CYHM 1419447 2900SKT SSM -SHRA HZ BKNO34 BKNOS4 OVCO80 RMK SCSSC2AC: TAF CYHM 1417412 1418/1518 20015G25KT P6SM SCTO40 BKNOGO TEMPO 1420/1424 SSM ~SHRA BR OVCO25 PROB30 1421/1424 25M TSRA BR BKNOL2 OVCO20CB 150000 24008XT PSSM BKNOGO TEMPO 1500/1505 4SM -SHRA BR BKNO12 OVCO20 FM150500 36008KT PSI BKNO30 ¥M151200 33008KT Pésu_BKNO4O MK NXT FCST BY 150000z= SUDBURY /ON METAR CYSB 141700Z 21010KT 15SM BKNO14 OVCO72 20/18 A2979 RMK SC6AC2 TCU EMBD DIST SH S SLPOa6= SPECI CYSB 141708Z 21011KP 156M -SHRA BKNO14 OVCO72 RMK SC5SAC3 TCU EMBD PCPN VRY LGTs SPECI CYSB 141724z 20011KT 15sM FEWOO8 BKNO13 OVCO77 RMK SFLSC5AC: METAR CYSB ‘1418002 20013KT 155M FEWO12TCU OVCO83 20/17 42979 RMK TCU2AC6 SLPOS7= METAR CYSB 141900Z 22012KT 15S FENO20TCU BKNI90 OVC210 21/17 A979 RUK TCULASGCIO CUTR DFUS SUN VISBL AC ASOCTD SLPOS5= TAF CYSB 1419392 1420/1508 22012KT PGSM BKNOSO OVCO80 TEMPO 1420/1422 45M -SHRA BR oveo20 ¥M142200 28008KT PSSM BKNOAO BECMG 1503/1505 36008KT RMK NXT CST BY 150200z= Kingston/on METAR CYGK 1417002 20012G17KT 5sM BZ SKC 24/19 A2989 RNK SUP22: METAR CYGK 141800z 21013KT 55M HZ SKC 25/19 A2989 RMK SLP119= METAR CYGK 1419002 21011KT 5M HZ SKC 24/20 A2987 RMK SLP115. TAF CYGK 1419402 1420/1503 20012KT 6SM HZ SCT100 TEMPO 1420/1423 45M HZ ¥M142300: 21010KT P6SM SCTO30 OVCOB0 TEMPO 1423/1503 SSM -SHRA BR OVCO25 PROB30 1500/1503 35M TSRA BR OVCO20CB BECNG 1501/1503 36008KT RMK NXT FCST WILL BE ISSUED AT 151145Z= KITCHENER /WATERLOO/ON SPECI CYRF 1417012 AUTO 28020KT 2 1/2SM +RA FEWOOS OVCO32 OVCOSS OVCOSS 23/19 2987 RMK VSBY VRBL 0.6V6.0: METAR CYKF 141700Z AUTO 28016G22KT 3 1/2SM +RA OVCO34 OVCOSS OVCOSS 25/19 A2987 RNK SLP1I1= SPECI CYKF 141703Z AUTO 29016G22KT 1 1/45! +RA BKNOO3 OVCO32 OVCOSS OVCO85 22/19 A2967 RMK VSBY VRBL 0.5V6.0= ‘SPECI C¥KF 1417062 AUTO 29013G22KT 1 1/8SM +RA BKNOOO OVCOi2 OVCO32 22/19 A2987 RMK VSBY VRBL 0.5V6.0= SPECI CYKF 1417092 AUTO 30008G22KT 1SM +RA FEWOOO SCTO11 OVCO32 oVvco49 21/19 A2987 METAR CYRF 141800Z AUTO 30007KT 3 1/2SM SCTO30 BKNOGO BKNO85 22/19 A2988 RMK PCPN 4.00 PAST ER SLP116- METAR CYRF 141900Z AUTO 31003KT 3 1/2SM CLR 21/18 2988 RK SLP115= ‘SPECI CYKF 1419032 AUTO 30003KT 3 1/2SM -RA CLR 21/19 A2986~ SPECI CYKF 141929Z AUTO 30007KT 2 1/4SM -RA FEWO31 21/18 a2988= TAF CYEF 1419392 1420/1504 29010KT GSM -SHRA BR SCTO20 OVCO40 TEMPO 1420/1502 25M TSRA BR BENOO8 OVCO12CB FM150200 33008KT P6SM SCT012 BKNO30 TEMPO 1502/1504 2SM BR BKNO12 MK FCST BASED ON AUTO OBS. NXT FCST BY 1502002= ited AeroCourse)Met Practical TmMINs/oN METAR CYTS 141700Z 30010G1SKT 15SM FEWO10 BKNO20 16/13 A2974 RMK SF1SC6 CU EMBD SLPO7: METAR C¥TS 1418002 28008KT 15SM BKNO20 BKNOBO 17/13 A2976 RMK SCSAC2 NCU ASOCTD SLPOS METAR CYTS 141900z 29008GiSKF 210V330 15SM FEWO23 SCTO80 SCT200 19/12 A2976 RUK cU2ACICIO SLPOS! TAF CYTS 1419392, 1420/1508 29008KT PGSM BKNO30 TEMPO 1420/1500 BKNO20 FM150000 31008KT PGSM SCTOSO BECNG 1502/1504 VREO3KT RMK NXT FCST BY 1502002 TOROWTO/LESTER B. PEARSON INTL/OM METAR CY¥Z 1417002 22015KT 75M FEWO40 29/19 A2963 RMK CF1 SLP100. METAR CY¥Z 141800 23014G20Kr 7SM BKWO45 BKNO70 30/19 A2983 RMK SC6AC2 SLPOE~ SPECI CY¥Z 1418432 29019G24Kr SSM HZ BKNOSO OVC280 27/ RMK SC7CI1 WSHFT= METAR CY¥Z 141900z 29016G21KT 5SM HZ BKNOGO BKNOO OVC270 26/19 A2984 RANK SCéACICS2 SLPLOL= SPECI CY¥z 1419232 32017KT ASM -RA HZ BKNO70 OVC140 25/ RMK AC6AS2= TAF AMD CYYZ 1419012 1419/1524 28012G22KT PGSM BKNO4O BKNOGO TEMPO 1419/1424 S5SM_-SHRA BR BKNO30 OVCO80 PROB30 1419/1424 25M TSRA BR BKNO2 OVCO20CB FM150000 28012KT PGSM BKNO4O TEMPO 1500/1508 4SM BR BKNO12 OVCO25 BECNG 1504/1506 32010KT FM151200 32008KT PGSM BKNOGO TEMPO 1514/1520 scTOSO MK NXT FCS? BY 212= LONDON/ON METAR CYXU 1417002 28008KT 75M OVCO35 26/17 A2988 RNK CUB HAZE TCU ASOCTD SLP1iS= METAR CYXU 141800Z 32006RY 75M FEWO6O FEWO90 OVC130 25/17 A29G@ RNK CULACIASS HAZE SLPLI3= SPECI CYXU 1418492 DO000KT 10SM -TSRA 004cB OVCO90 24/ RMK CBSAC3= SPECI CYXU 141854z CCA 00000KT 105M ~TSRA BKNOGOCB OVCO90 24/ RMK CBSAC3: METAR CYXU 141900Z 30007KT 3Su -TSRA OVCO37CB 23/18 A2990 RMK CBS SLP120= SPECI C¥XU 1419032 27013KT 1/25M R15/PSOOOFT/N TSRA OVCO22CB 21/ RUK CBG SPECI CYXU 1419072 29010G1SKT 1/2SM R15/3500VP6000FT/D *TSRA OVCO1SCB 20/ RUK FG6CB2= SPECI CYXU 1419212 34005KT SSw R1S/3000VP6000F7/U -TSRA BKNO1SCA OVC100 19/ RUK CBSAC3= TAF AMD CYXU 1419187 1419/1518 29010KT P6SM -SHRA BKNO30 OVCO80 TEMPO 1419/1420 11/25 SRA BR OVCO1SCE FM142000 29008KT PGSM -SHRA BKNO30 OVCO70 TEMPO 1420/1424 4sM -SHRA HZ BKNO20 OVCOSO FM150000 29006KT P6SH BKNO30 OVCOSO TEMPO 1500/1503 55M BR BKNO20 OVCDAO FM150300 36006KT 5SM BR FEWOO8 OVCO20 TEMPO 1503/1507 PSSM NSW BKNO30 ¥M150700 36006KT P6SM BKNO30 FM151400 36010KT P6SH FEWO5O RMK NXT FCST BY 1500002 MONTREAL INTL (MTRABEL) /QC METAR CYMX 141700Z 22007KT Seu HZ SKC 28/19 A2986 RK SLP112. METAR CYMx 1417002 22007KT SSM HZ SKC 28/19 A2986 RNK SLP112 METAR CXMX 1419002 22012KT SsM HZ SKC 28/18 A2984 RUK SLP104 ‘TAF CYMX 1417412 1418/1518 22005Kr GSM BR SCT260 TEMPO 1418/1424 4sm Hz BECMG 1421/1423 22012G22KT ¥M150200 31008KT 6SM HZ BKNO40 BKNOGO TEMPO 1502/1506 2su BR Fm150600Z 29008KT GSM -SHRA BR SCTOO8 OVCO30 TEMPO 1506/1518 3SM -~SHRA BR BKNOOS OVCO12 PROB30 1510/1518 18M TSRA BR BECMG 1513/1515 05008KT UK NXT FCST BY 150000Z=ATPL Workbook MONTREAL /PIERRE-ELLIOT-TRUDEAU INTL/QC METAR CYUL 141700Z 22012KT SSM FEW190 SCT240 28/18 A2987 RMK ACOCTO SLPi1¢= METAR CYUL 141800% 22010KT 8sM FEW240 29/18 A2985 RNK CIO SLP109= METAR CYUL 141900Z 23011KT OSM FEW220 29/19 A2984 RK CIO SLP106= TAF CYUL 1417412 1418/1518 23012KT PesM SCT100 scT240 ¥M150300 30008KT P6SM BKNO40 BKNOGO TEMPO 1503/1507 3SM -SHRA BR BKNO15 FM130700 33008KT 6SM -SHRA BR SCTO0@ OVCO30 TEMPO 1507/1518 3SM -SHRA BR BKNOOS OVCO12 PROB30 1510/1518 1SM TSRA BR BECNG 1513/1515 04012KT RMK Nev FCST BY 142100Z= NORTH BAY/ON METAR CYYB 141700% 25009KT 2SM SHRA BR BKNOO3 OVCO20 18/18 A2982 RNK SF6CU2 RETS SLPO94= METAR CYYB 141700Z CCA 25009KT 2SM SHRA BR BKNOO3 OVCO20 18/18 A2982 RETS RMK SF6CU2 RETS SLPOS4= METAR CYYB 141800Z 23009KT 2SM SHRA BR OVCOO2 18/1@ A2982 RNK SFE SLPOS7= METAR CYYB 141900Z 23010KT 2 1/2SM -SHRA BR OVCOO2 18/18 A2982 RMK SF8 SLPOS= SPECI CYYB 141920z 25009G1SKT 158M BKNOO2 OVCO15 RMK SF6SC2= SPECI C¥¥B 141934Z 23010G16KT 15sM BKNOO2 OVCO15 RMK SF6SC2= SPECI CYB 1419342 CCA 23010G16KT 15SM -SHRA BKNOO2 OVCO15 RNK SF6SC2 TAP CYYB 1419392 1420/1508 25012KT P6SM SCTO12 BKNO40 TEMPO 1420/1423 3SM -SHRA BR BKNO02 oVvco12 71142300 25008KT 65M HZ BKNO30 OVCO70 TEMPO 1423/1508 2SM BR BKNO12 OVCO30 BECNG 1504/1506 01008KT RUK NXT FCST BY 150200z= WINDsOR/OW METAR CYQG 141700Z 22008KT GSM -SHRA HZ SCT063 BKN140 OVC240 25/17 A2989 RMK Sc4ac2cs2 SLP117= METAR CYQG 141800Z 29013K7T 6SM -SHRA HZ BKNO37 OVCO6S 25/17 A2990 RMK CUSSC2 SLPi2: SPECI CYQG 141815Z 26008KT 9s! SCTO35 BKNO73 OVC240 RMK CU3AC3CS2= METAR CYQG 141900Z 29007KT @SM FEWO35 BKNOS7 OVC240 24/17 2990 RMK CU2Sc2cs2 sLP12 TAF CYQG 1417492 1418/1512 25010KT P6SM SCTO40 OVC120 TEMPO 1418/1422 55M ~SHRA BZ BKNO20 OVCO50 BECNG 1419/1421 29008KT ¥1142200 2900SKT PSSM BKNO30 OVCOSO TEMPO 1422/1503 SSM BR BKNO20 OVCO40 FM150300 0200SKT PGSM FEWOOS OVCO20 TEMPO 1503/1509 3sM BR OVCOOS FM150900 02008KT P6SM BKNO25 BKNOSO TEMPO 1509/1513 BKNO20 BKNOSO ¥M151600 02010KT P6sM ScTOSO RMK NXT FCST BY 00Z= 328 AeroCourse soonMet Practical re ‘-asucna aR isccokee 24 Hamilton Kingston GK Kitchener/waterloo London Montreal (Trudeau) Montreal (iirabel) North Bay Ottawa a oa4 Le GFAGNSS CWAO REGION ontario-cuescc | CLOUDS ANOWEATHER | NUAGESET TEMPS | SIE Leyooyz005 1731Z | _ VLD 14/09/2008 18007 | LEGENO/LEGENDE »FzDR ——— © 50 120 Bows $/COMNENTAIRES) mp FOREST aN ON CH LELY FoResY PRES 2828 ANB Ces 6 Sra | | aioe Ta, 3.29ATPL Workbook GFACNS3 CWAO | REGION | | ONTARIO - QUEBEC CLOUDS AND WEATHER NUAGES ET TEMPS ve LYRE, a ans OAT 14y09/2005 17312 VLO 15/09/2005 00002 _ "LESEND/L EGENDE ice. Srumeriwe | ENVIROMENT EAUIDA| BB ENviroane wr cana | Hamilton Peterborough xe Kingston quebec OB Kitchener/waterloo Sarnia aR London sudbus SB ‘Timmins vrs Montreal (Trudeau) sonaddda Montreal (Mirabel) Toronto wz. North Bay windsor yoo Ottawa oo AeroCourse Acrolourse’)Met Practical GFACNS3 GWAO | REGION | ONTARIOWOUESEC | CLOUDS ANOWEATHER | NUAGESET TEMPS | E26" 1470392008 17312 VLD 15/09/2005 06002 _ "LEGEND ALES! DE 3egranna aA om cer \ \e Sea fan A ove Ree OC (STS AGL UMLESS NOTED 20 ARO, ACG WPT Sig Tue AND ica ENT. CANADA | ELE HT CANADA | Hami1ton va Peterborough wo Kingston GK Quebec x03 Kitchener/Waterloo ¥RP Sarnia van London xu Sudbury x55 Montreal (Trudeau) Yor ‘inning yas Montreal (uirebel) © Yk Toronto vz North Bay ve Windsor x06 ottawa yow i 3-31 AeroCourse)) oh oursATPL Workbook GFACN33 CWAO REGION ONTARIO = QUEBEC les Tune & FZLVL MEST eyosre005 tT3ez |e aa | _ Sars WS Ye eo BES BEI aINe ar canena| Hamilton aM Peterborough xeQ Kingston ‘YOK Quebec ‘YOR Kitchener/waterloo RF Sarnia aR London xu ys Montreal (Trudeau) you, ‘Timmins vrs Montreal (Mirabel) vane ‘Toronto vez North Bay we windsor Os Ottawa Yow Be AeroCourse AeroCourse’)Met Practical Hamilton, Kingston Kitchener/Waterloo London, Montreal (Trudeau) Montreal (Mirabel) North Bay Ottawa, Segedded Peterborough Quebec Sarnia sudbury Timmins Toronto Windsor AeroCourse) GFACNS3 CWAO REGION ONTARIO = QUEBEC (ce TURE eFZLVL ADOT arosyeo0s rTs2z VLD 15/09/2008 00002 LEGEND/LEGENDE, F2WL-+ === == Vapricg A. wor une sevice AL sev-una —— © 20 Rome | CONMENTS /COMNENTATRES, Ler 70 mi tesie «BV FzLVL WETS ASL URLESS NOTED ta TCU AND Ace PLY ‘516_TuRS AND ict, __ COMPLIES (EWS __ EMVIROUWEUT Cava | I IROHHEUE WT DA | weg YOR YER ¥SB yooATPL, Workbook GFACN33 CWAO ~ j REGION . > ONTARIO = QUEBEC a * | eG TURB BFZLVL \. 20 1470972908 17412 _¥LO 15/09/2005 06002 I LEGEND/ALEGENDE | Ke } siilitewenaee | a NW aorice A aor sues | 1 ' MW sevies A. sev7une 4 | 0 60 I ‘COMMENTS /COMMENTA RES) her ro ax reste aay Behe orvSN a Gereu ano Acc MPL “sg Tuma Ane ICS, ENVIRONMENT CANADA ENV RONNEMENT CANADA Hamilton xa Peterborough weg Kingston YoR Quebec ¥OB Kitchener/waterloo EF Sarnia aR London xu Sudbury xsB Montreal (Trudeau) you Timmins vis Montreal (Wirabel) vex ‘Toronto wz North Bay we Windsor vos ottawa ‘Yow tall AeroCourse Aerot_oursMet Practical na oamaneaing VO Bh 3.35 AeroCourse)ATPL Workbook AeroCourse) Sao]Met Practical urse) 3.37 AeroCo3.38 ATPL WorkbookMet Practical ‘Questions 54 through 74 are based on the information provided on pages 3-25 to 3-34. 54, 55. 56. 37. 58, Which of the following statements is true with reference to the Sarnia (CYZR) TAF? a) ») 9 Oo) ‘The TAF was issued on the 14" of the month at 1940 UTC and is valid at 2000 UTC for six hours. ‘The amended TAF was issued on the 14* of the month at 1940 UTC and is valid from 2000 UTC to 0600 UTC on the 15*. ‘The TAF is based on an auto forecast and can not be use as a legal altemate on an TER flight plan. ‘The TAF indicates an improving weather trend. ‘The next routine aerodrome forecast for CYYZ will be valid from: a) ») ©) a) 12Z 182, 21Z. 00z ‘What is the lowest ceiling and visibility forecast for CYYB at 222? a) b) °) ad ‘A broken layer at 3000 feet AGL and better than 6 SM visibility A broken layer at 200 AGL with a visibility of 3 SM. An overcast layer at 1200 feet AGL with a visibility of 3 SM A broken layer at 200 feet ASL with a visibility of 3 SM. Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Hamilton (CYHM) TAF? a) by 9 4) From 20 to 242 the ceiling is forecast to be temporarily 2500 AGL and there is also a 30% chance of ‘thunderstorms from 21 to 24Z reducing the visibility to 28M and ceiling to 1200 AGL. From 20 to 242 the ceiling is forecast to lower from 8000 to 2500 feet. ‘There is also a 30% chance of ‘thunderstorms from 21 to 24Z reducing the visibility to 28M and ceiling to 1200 AGL. From 18 to 00Z the ceiling is forecast to fluctuate from 8000 to 1200 fect for periods of not longer than an hour.’ There is also a 30% chance of thunderstorms reducing the visibility to 2SM and ceiling to 1200 AGL. ‘From 21 to 24Z the ceiling is forecast to fluctuate from 8000 to 2500 feet for periods of not longer than an hour. There is also a 30% chance of thunderstonns reducing the visibility to 2M and ceiling to 1200 AGL. ‘The lowest visibility and wind forecast for Ottawa (CYOW) at 01002 is; a) b) °) Oy 5 statue miles in light rain and 200° true at 12 gusting to 22 kts. 2 statue miles in thunder showers and 320° true at 08 kets 2 statue miles in thunders showers and 200" true at 12 gusting to 22 kis, 5 statue miles in light rain and 200° magnetic at 12 gusting to 22 kts. a, 3.39 AeroCourse) DeTOSOUrse))59. 60. 61 02 63, 3-40 ATPL Workbook ‘After reviewing the London (CYXU) TAF, METARs and SPECIs at approximately 19Z, you determine that the weather is a) as forecast. b) the visibility and ceiling is lower than forecast ©) __ the visibility and ceiling higher than forecast. a With reference to your altimeter, what is the lowest altitude you would expect t6 have ground contact on the approach to the North Bay (CYYB) airport at 21302? (The aerodrome elevation is 1175) a) 200 b) 1200 B75 2100 According to forecasts, where would the cold front be located at 23002? a) ust west of Montreal b) Just east of Ottawa, ©) Just east of Samia, 4) Over Toronto. Surface winds are not included in GFA's when they are expected to be less than _- a) 20s b) —10kts, 15k dQ 5kts [As you approach CYGK at 2000Z, you contact Kingston Radio and receive the following advisory: ‘Wind 200° at 12 Kts.; visibility 4 in light rain and haze; 5000 broken 14,000 overcast; temperature 25, dewpoint 19; altimeter 29.84; the IF Approach runway 19; landings and departures ont runway 19. In this case, which of the following statements is true? a), The weather is better than forecast. b) The light rain and haze were not forecast. ©) The frontal system appears to be moving faster than forecast. @) ——Thewinds are much stronger than forecast.65. 67. Met Practical ‘What flight conditions would a crew expect to encounter on departure, enroute and descent on an eastbound flight fom CYXU to CYOW? (Planned departure is 2100Z with a flight time of | hour and 53 minutes at a ‘light planned cruise altitude of 10,000 feet), a) » °) ad Light rain with broken cloud based 2,000 feet AGL on departure, layer clouds with scattered thunderstorms topped at 40,000 feet enroute and 5 miles in light rain in overcast cloud with bases at 3000 feet on the approach. Light rain and overcast cloud based at 5000 feet on departure, layer clouds with scattered thunderstorms topped at 40,000 feet enroute and better than 6 miles visibility with high seattered cloud on the approach. Light rain and overcast cloud based at 3000 feet and the possibility of thunderstorms reducing visibility to 1 1/2 miles on departure, layer clouds with scattered thunderstorms topped at 40,000 feet enzoute and 5 miles in light rain with overcast cloud based at 3000 feet on the approach, Light rain and overcast cloud based at 3000 feet on departure, layer clouds with scattered thunderstorms topped at 40,000 feet enroute, and 5 miles in light rain and overcast cloud based at 3000 feet. There is a possiblity of thunderstorms giving 2 miles visibility in on the approach. Which of the following statements is true with reference to precipitation forecast at 18Z within 100 nm north of the warm front? a b) °) a ‘The solid line encloses an area of continuous precipitation with 3 to 6 miles in light rain, The solid Tine encloses an atea of intermittent or showery precipitation with 3 10 6 smiles in patchy rain showers, The solid line enclosing green dots represents an area of fog. The solid line encloses an area of scattered thunderstorms with tops as high as 40,000 feet Referring to the “Low” depicted on the 0000Z GFA, what icing conditions would you expect to encounter if you were flying through this area? a) Light to nil icing in cloud above the freezing level. }) Moderate mixed icing from 7500 to 15,000 feet ~ ©) Light icing in layer type clouds, moderate to severe clear icing in thunderstorms near the low. Moderate mixed icing from approximately 5000 to 15,000 feet with significant turbulence and icing associated with ACC. Ee ‘Which of the following statements is true with reference to the turbulence forecast at 182? a) b) °) gd Significant turbulence associated with CB's topped at 40,000 feet. ‘Moderate mechanical turbulence from the surface to 3000 feet AGL is associated with a low level jet stream, Severe turbulence is forecast from the surface to 3,000 feet ASL west of the low. Nil to light turbulence is forecast for the entire region, oe 3-41 AeroCourse)68, 69. 70. 1 ATPL Workbook ‘The latest weather reported at London is as follows: SPECI CYXU 1419072 29010GIS5KT 1/2SM R15/3500VP6000FT/D +TSRA OVCO1SCB 20/ RMK FG6CE2 What is the necessary increase in the opacity of the obscuring phenomenon for it to constitute a ceiling? a) ») °) a) 218 ais 68 None, the weather given already constitutes a ceiling. ‘Which of the following group of symbols is used on weather maps to indicate a Trowal, Upper Warm Front and Cold Front? Qaas Aan A Da47> AAA AAA Q- a- - aco aoe aan AAA ‘The following symbol found on surface weather charts represent: a) >) °) d Snow. Continuous rain, Continuous snow. Intermittent snow. (On surface weather charts what do the following symbols represent: ) ») °) ad Freezing drizzle, Thunderstorms Freezing rain, Thunderstorms Intermittent drizzle, Showers Freezing drizzle, Showers AeroCourse72. 3, 4. Met Practical SIGMETS can be received from __ and are valid for___ hours: a) FSS,4 b) any ATIS,2 ©) arrival controllers, 6 6) anyunicom, 4 ‘Which of the statements is true with respect to the following SIGMET? WSCN CwLW 181810 SIGMET F1 181810/182210 MDT-SVR RIME ICG RPRTD DH8 FL 160-180 VCNTY ENDERBY. MDT-SVR RIME ICG FCST FL140-200 VCNTY AND WITHIN 100 NE FNT. WRM FNT VCNTY CLINTON ARC SEWD VCNTY CASTLEGAR MOVING EWD 15RTS. NO CEG XCPT NXT 4HRS a) _ FI SIGMET will time expire at 0800Z October 22. b) Moderate to severe icing was reported between 187, and 227. in the vicinity of Enderby. ©) FI SIGMET is valid from 1810Z to 22107. on the 18 of the month. 6) Moderate to severe icing is forecasted between 1400 feet and 2000 fect north east of the front. WSCNO1 CYHX 181845 SIGMET Al VALID 181900/182300 cyHx- LN BKN TSTMS OBSERVED ON WX RADAR MONCTON YARMOUTH TOPS TO 35 THSD MovG 5 30 ‘With reference to the above SIGMET which of the following statements is true: a) There are scattered thundershowers in a line from Moncton to Yarmouth moving from the east at 30 knots, b) There is a line of broken thunderstorms which is 30 NM wide from Moncton to Yarmouth moving easterly with tops of 35,000 feet. ©) There is solid line of thundershowers from Moncton to Yarmouth moving easterly at 30 knots. @) There isa line of broken thunderstorms from Moncton to Yarmouth moving east at 30 knots with tops 0f 35,000 feet, 3-43 AeroCoursé xeroCoursQuestions 75 through 82 are based on the Weather Chart provided on page 3-35, 15. 16. 71. 2B. 3-44 ATPL Workbook Which of the following statements is te regarding the times of issue and the validity periods of P SIG WX/TMPS 700-400 MB charts? a) The charts are issued twice a day 00Z & 122, and are valid for 12 hours b) The charts are issued four times a day 00Z, 062, 122 & 187 and are valid for 12 hours after the issuing time displayed on the chart. ©) The charts are prepared 4 times daily, based on 00Z & 12Z data and are issued 12 hours before the validity time displayed on the charts. 4) The charts are issued four times a day based on 00Z, 062, 12Z & 18Z data. They are valid for 12 hours after the issuing time displayed on the chart. Referring to the Sig WX Prog chart legend on page 3-35, which of the following statements is true with reference to time of issued and validity period. a) b) ° @) ‘The chart is valid from 127, to 00Z on October 31 and was issued at approximately 11302. ‘The Chart was issued at 00Z on October 31 and is valid at 12Z. ‘The chart is based on 12Z.data on October 31 and was issued 2 to 3 hours after 122. ‘The chart was issued 12Z October 31 and is valid at 002 November OL (Ona SIG WX 700 - 400 MB chart presentation the following Isotherm would indicate: a) »d) °) ad N - XN o Ss oe XN oe Clear air turbulence at 10,000 feet ‘Marked mountain waves ‘The freezing level at 10,000 feet A trough line ‘The term FRQ CB represents? a) b) °) ad Embedded thunderstorms with coverage between 1/8 and 4/8. Thunderstorms with coverage between 1/10 and 4/10. Embedded thunderstorms which are well separated ‘An area of thunderstorms with little or no separation. AeroCourse)79. 80, 81 82, Met Practical Which of the following groups of symbols indicate severe turbulence, moderate icing and a trowal line: a A Gy — b WY axe °) A Wy — d) A qy — Jil] idl ‘The term CB forecast for a particular area automatically implies: a) b) °) a severe thunderstorms within the depicted area of cloud. greater than 5/8 thunderstorms within the depicted area of cloud, significant thunderstorms not located within the depicted area of cloud. moderate or severe turbulence and icing with no symbols being used, Reviewing the P SIG WX chart in preparation for a flight from Vancouver to Anchorage Alaska departing at (092, what significant weather would you expect to encounter ata flight planned cruise altitude of FL200? a) ») °) 4d) Broken layers topped at 20,000 feet and a narrow band of localized moderate to severe clear air turbulence in southem part of BC. Overcast cloud topped at 22,000 feet with moderate to severe mixed icing in the elimb to 18000 feet, moderate to severe turbulence to 16000 feet and localized moderate to severe clear ait turbulence in southern part of BC. No significant weather is forecast nearing Alaska. After departure overcast cloud until the top of climb, moderate to severe mixed icing in the climb to 18000 feet and localized moderate to severe clear air turbulence in the southem part of BC. No significant weather is forecast nearing Alaska. After departure layer clouds topped at 20,000 feet with severe clear turbulence in northem BC and layer clouds with moderate icing nearing Alaska. ‘What mid level conditions are forecast with the Low located just north of the great lakes at 12Z? a >) °) ad) No significant weather is forecast for that time period Cloud layers topped at 12,000 feet, individual ACC up to 16,000 feet. Overcast cloud topped at 18,000 feet and scattered ACC topped at 22,000 feet. Overcast cloud with tops of 18,000 feet, embedded ACC/TCU up to 22,000 and moderate turbulence below 16,000 feet. ~ 3.45 AeroCourséATPL Workbook 83. Which of the following statements is true with reference to Upper level winds and temperature forecasts (FD): a) b) °) a Forecast wind speeds are in knots, to the nearest 10°T Forecast wind speeds are in MPH, to the nearest 10°M Forecast wind speeds are in knots, to the nearest 5°T Are issued four times a day. 84, The FD wind forecast for FL240 is 740538, it would be decoded as: a) b) °) d 050°T at 74KTS temperature ISA +5°C 240°T at 105 KTS temperature ISA 15°C 040°T at S MPH temperature ISA -8°C 240°T at 105 KTS temperature ISA -5°C 85. Decode the following upper level wind report: CYYF 39,000 823359 320° magnetic at 133 knots and -59°C 320° true at 133 knots - 59° C 330° magnetic at 82 knots and -59° F 330° true at 82 knots and -59° C 86. Upper Level Chart - PROGs are prepared for flight levels 240, 340 and 450. What are the issue and validity times for these charts? a) They are issued twice a day (00Z,12Z) and are valid for twelve hours after they are issued. b) They are issued four times a day (00Z, 062, 12Z & 18Z) and are valid for twelve hours after they are issued. ©) Theyare issued once a day and they are valid for 24 hours. @) They are issued four times a day, twelve hours before the validity times of 00Z, 062, 122, 182. 3.46 AeroCourse)Met Practical FL240 24HR PROG WINDS/TEMPS VALID 00Z SUN 25 JAN 2007 With reference to the Prog Chart above you would expect the wind and temperature at point C to be? a) 275°/5Skts. ISA -8°C b) —265°/50kts. ISA -13°C ©) 250°/7Skts. ISA -11°C d)275°/5Skts. ISA +8°C For questions 88 through 93 refer to the WAFC SIG WX Chart FL250-FL630 on page 3-36 Clear air turbulence associated with jet streams occurs most often when; a) _jet stream wind speeds exceed 110 knots at the core. b) jet steams have a significant curve or bend, especially around a deep pressure trough. ©) jet stream passes just north of a surface frontal wave. @)_allofthe above. 3.4789. 90, 1 92. 93, 348 ATPL Workbook A forecast area of turbulence implies a probability of encountering turbulence somewhere swithin the depicted area. a) 30% b) 50% ©) 10% 100% Jet streams are depicted on WAFC SIG WX charts when their core speeds are forecast to attain _ knots or a 60 b) 80 °) 100 a 120 Which of the following statements is true with reference to the most northerly jet stream located over north- ‘westem Ontario? a) The core height is FL35 FL290 to FLA20. ) The average core height is FL350 and varies from F290 to FL420. The maximum core speed is 120 knots and moderate to severe turbulence is forecast from FL330 to FI.380 ©) The core height is FL350 and the vertical depth to the cighty knot isototach varies from 4200 feet above to 2900 feet below the jet core. 4) The core height is FL350 and has a maximum speed of 130 knots. There are 3 areas of CAT forecast along the jet with the most severe area from FL330 to FL380, the maximum speed is 130 knots and moderate turbulence is forecast from With reference to the WAFC SIG WX chart, what does the following symbol represent? rN a) Tropical storm Tungurahua is forecast to be located at 01°50°S 78°40"W 0600Z 27 June 2009. b) A high altitude weather balloon is being released at 0600Z, June 27 from 01°50°S 78'40"W. c) The Tungurahua volcano located 01°50°S 78°40°W has erupted; there is a potential of a volcanic ash plume being present in the area, 4) The Tungurahua forecast centre is located 01°50°S 78°40°W From the Sig Wx FL 250-630 chart presentation what is the meaning of "ISOL EMBD CB" associated with the cloud area depicted south east of the Great Lakes? a) 1/8 to.4/8 CB, tops 40,000 feet bases below the level of the chart b) 1/8 CB to 45,000 feet, bases not known ©) Individually embedded thunderstorms with ops to 40,000 feet and bases below the level of the chart. d) 5/8 10 8/8 CB, tops to 40,000 feet, bases below the level of the chart. AeroC yurse)Met Practical For questions 94 to 100 refer to the 250 hPa chart on 3-37 94, 95. 96. 91. 98, 99. ‘What are the observed times and times of issue of the 250 hPa constant pressure analysis charts? a) 002, 12Z, over three hours after the observation. b) — 00Z, 062, 12Z, 18Z, two to three hours after the observation ©) 002, 06Z, 12Z, 182, observed twelve hours before the issue time. 4) 002, 12Z, 30 minutes after the observed times. ‘What is the height and maximum wind speed of the jet stream core depicted southeast of Nova Scotia (Area ©)? a) 9960 metres and 178 kts. b) 10560 metres and 109 kts. ©) 1008 decametres and 150 kts. 4) 35,000 feet and 193 kts. On a constant pressure upper air chart, the contours or altitude gradient can be considered as the: a) Height of the pressure surface in decametres. b) Slope of the pressure surface. ©) Change in pressure along the contours, 4) Pressure rate of change measured at right angles to the contours. If the__kt isotachs are spaced closer together than __NM on the 250 hPa upper air chart, you can expect sufficient horizontal shear for the occurrence of Clear Air Turbulence (CAT), a) 20,60 b) 30,90 c) 40, 100 4) 50,120 . Which of the following areas have a high probability for CAT? a) Area A bd) AreaB °) Area @) Areas A and Contours on upper air charts usually form wavy patterns which are referred to as macro scale waves. As a macro scale wave ridge passes over your station, what will happen to the height of the tropopause? a) It will decrease for a time then increase. b) - _ Iewill increase for a time then decrease. ©) twill remain at a constant height 4) The tropopause will tend to be higher in the summer and lower in the winter. —= 349 AeroCourse))100. 3-50 ATPL Workbook ‘Which of the following areas is a macro scale wave trough? 3) » °) a Area A AreaB AreaC ‘Areas A and C AeroCoursé) AeroCoursAck tne oO tee TRAE TOO ORB AB AO EEO REESE Answer Key MET Practical 35. 36. 37. 38, 39. 4 42. 43, 45, 47. 48. 49. 50, SL 52 33. 54, 55, 56, 57. 58 59, 6. 62, 6 65. 66, 61 68. Met Practical Aen owacnoago Bo RaAToas Ao geo Ra hacae Bob a ee AeroCour “sous Ourse SO 69. 70, n. 2. B. 74, 15. 16. 7 B. 79. 80. 81 82. 83. 84. 85, 86, 87. 88. 89, 90, 1 92, 93, 95, 96. 98, 99, 100. boagcesocagcasagasocanaccoacepas 3.5ATPL Workbook 3.52 AeroCourse)Radio Aids & Flight Planning RADIO AIDS & FLIGHT PLANNING ‘With respect to the propagation of radio waves, the term "Skip Zone" refers to: 8) that space between the end of ground wave coverage and the point at which the first sky wave is retuned to earth }) that region of space that is situated between the first two reflecting layers, ©) that area where interference occurs between sky waves and ground waves from the same source @) the distance from the transmitter where the ground wave becomes undetectable, The distance between the transmitting antenna and the point where the sky wave first returns to the surface of the earth is called the a) Skip Zone b) Space Wave Distance ©) Skip Distance 4) LF Radio Wave Propagation Distance. ‘Which of the following statements is true with reference to propagation of radio ground waves? a) Reception of ground wave signals can only be accomplished at varying distances from the transmitter. b) —_As the frequency increases ground wave attenuation decreases to provide a greater reception distance ©) As the frequency increases ground wave attenuation increases to provide less reception distance. 4) The distance from where the ground wave can no longer be received is dependant on the height and distance of the ionosphere, time of day, season and latitude. AeroCourse 41 AcroCourse’)42 Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘Which of the following statements is true with reference to Single Sideband (SSB) HF radios. » SSB radios incorporate a sideband carrier wave circuit which is used to obtain better reception of unmodulated AM carrier wave transmissions. SSB radios having long range, high quality and good propagation qualities, provide HF data link capability SSB transmitters utilize high frequency ground wave signals which are least affected by attenuation and bending due to diffraction to allow for ranges of several thousand mils. SSB transmitters eliminate one sideband and all or most of the carrier wave in order to increase ‘transmission power; the carrier is reinserted by the receiver to reproduce the original message. SELCAL operates with a single selective call consisting of a combination of four preselected audio tones requiring approximately two seconds transmission time. ‘The tones are generated: in the ground station coder and are received by a decoder in the airbome receiver in the airborne transmitter and are received by the ground station decoder in one airborne transmitter and are received by a paired airborne receiver in enother aireraft in the ground station coder and are transmitted on all co-located navigation aid frequencies A pilot is flying IFR within controlled airspace. ‘The aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers, two DME’s and one ADF. The ADF malfunctions and is rendered unserviceable. The pilot should: a) >) °° gd Which of the following statements about the VOR is a) ») 2 ad depart controlled airspace advise ATS of the failure immediately request a change of flight plan to VFR ssquawk 7600 on the transponder sorrect? it depends upon a simultaneous comparison of several phased signals it depends upon a time difference between signals transmitted: from the aircraft to a ground station. it depends upon a phase difference between two signals transmitted simultaneously from a ground station it measures the frequency difference between two signals received from a ground station transmitter. The tolerance of published VOR airway radials is maintained by Nav Canada to within how many degrees? a) -ELS degrees b) 42.5 degrees ©) 43.0 degrees @) $4.0 degrees10. wL 12. Radio Aids & Flight Planning ‘What is the minimum reception distance and height for a VOR signal assuming no terrain interference? a) » ©) ¢ 100 mm at 7000 feet 60 nm at 3000 feet 80 nm at 3000 feet, 40 nm at 1000 feet When flying an aircraft equipped with dual VOR receivers, you may check the accuracy of the sets against each other on the ground or in the air. Which of the following tolerances are correct? a) b) ) 4) 43° ground, 4° air 44° ground, £4° air 44° ground, £6° air 43° ground, +6° air Acceptable tolerances for VOR and DME receivers at VOR check points are respectively: a) b) °) a £10 degrees and 1.5 nm ‘3degreesand.Snm- — ———~ ~ £4 degrees and 5 nm £4 degrees and 1.5 nm You are passing abeam a VOR station and you note that the CDI is fully deflected, and there is no TO/FROM indication. The reason for this indication is: a) b) ° @) that the TO/FROM indicator is not serviceable that the VOR station is of the Doppler type and does not provide valid TO/FROM indications unless the aircraft is actually established on the radial selected that the aircraft is crossing a radial at 90 degrees to the one selected on the OBS that the aircraft VOR set is receiving erroneous signals that have been reflected from the ground or from a nearby object AeroCoursé 43 AcroGourse’)44 13, 4, Canadian ATPL Workbook With reference to the CDI and the TO/FROM flag what should you expect to see for positions A & B. a) ») °) d ON rif Ran Figure 3 Figure 2 then figure 3 Figure 3 then figure 4 Figure 4 With the OBS (Omni Bearing Selector) set at 300° the track bar (or Course Deviation Indicator) centres but the sense (TO/FROM) indicator appears to be unserviceable. To resolve directional ambiguity, the OBS is set to 310° with the knowledge that if the sens« a) ») ©) gd "FROM" the station, the track bar will deflect right "FROM" the station, the track bar will deflect left "TO" the station, the track bar will deflect right over the station, the track bar will remain centred AeroCourse)15, 16. Radio Aids & Flight Planning With reference to the instruments below, ATC has cleared you to intercept the 320° radial inbound at an intercept angle of 90 degrees. You would fly aheading of and select ___ on the OPS. a) b) °) d) 030", 320 050°, 140 360°, 090 230", 140 Identify from the statements which follow, the one that correctly describes the operating principle of Distance Measuring Equipment (DMB): a) b) °) a) the measurement of the time between the transmission of an aircraft interrogating signal and the receipt of a matched pulse reply signal from a ground station (the 2 signals having different frequencies) pulse width measurement of coded signals that are transmitted every 37.5 seconds from a DME station measurement of the time that clapses between aircraft responder signals and successive interrogation signals transmitted from a particular DME station the airbome set measures the exact phase of the DME station's interrogation signal, the value of which undergoes electronic translation into a DME slant range readout Can a civilian aircraft equipped with DME obtain distance information from a military TACAN station? a) b) 2 4 no - because only military aircraft can receive TACAN signals no - but bearing information can be received by selecting the paired VOR frequency found in the “anada Flight Supplement yes - by selecting the paired VOR frequency that is depicted on the appropriate Canadian LO chart yes - provided there is a co-located VOR station46 18, 19, 20, 2 22, 23. Canadian ATPL Workbook An aircraft equipped with DME would experience the greatest slant range error when flying ata .. a) high altitude and long distance from the station. b) high altitude and short distance from the station ©) __lowaltitude and long distance from the station 4) _Jowaltitude and short distance from the station, An ILS localizer provides valid and reliable signal coverage of degrees either side of the front course out to a distance of 10nm. a) 10 b) 28 3 35 d 36 An ILS localizer signal is considered to be reliable to approximately 10 degree splay between __ and Ms: a) Oand 10nm_ b) 17 and 35.nm ©) 10 and 18m @)— 10.and35nm The CDI Needle indications from centre to "full scale" for VOR and ILS/Localizers are respectively’ a) 12 degrees and 3 degrees b) 10 degrees and 2.5 degrees ©) 4.0 NMper side and 35 degrees 4) There is no minimum to tolerance ‘What is the beam depth of an ILS glide path? a) 0.7 degrees b) 4 degrees ©) 05 degrees d) 25 degrees You have been cleared for an approach to your destination airport. As you scan the approach plate, you “observe the 3-letter identifier for the localizer begins with an 'X'. What does this signify? 8) The locatizer is not monitored and must be used at your own discretion. 6) Thisis a private approach facility. ©) The localizer signal coverage is available for both front and back course approaches. The localizer alignment exceeds 3° from the rmway heading. AeroCourse Acro’ours25. 26. 27. 28. Radio Aids & Flight Planning When navigating by use of the ADF, pilots should be aware that coastal refraction error is most Pronounced when the radio beam being received by the aircraft from an inland NDB crosses the shoreline at an angle of: a) 90 degrees b) 60-90 degrees ©) 30-60 degrees, 4) less than 30 degrees ADF night effect is most pronounced... a) —_justafter sunset and just before sunrise. b) when lower frequencies are used. ©) when the receiver is close to the station. 4) flying in mountainous terrain, NDB systems are flight checked to an accuracy of at least__for an approach and for enroute navigation. a) ba; BP b) £53 + 10° co) £3%) 46° d) 45°; 412° ‘Which of the following statements is true with reference to a Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMD. 8) The RMI bearing indicators always points to the navigation facility and therefore can display ‘magnetic bearing to ADF, VOR or Localizer transmitters, 2) The VOR/RMI needle head always displays the radial that the aircraft is tracking ©) Ifthe RMI compass card fails the ADF/RMI will function as fixed card ADF, but the VOR/RML will continue to function normally. 4) The RMI is an instrument which can provide heading and magnetic bearing information to ‘LE/MF and VHF omnidirectional range facilities. Which of the following statements is false with reference to Horizontal Situation Indicator’s (HSI) track bar. a) The azimuth scale inner and outer dots indicate 5° and 10° respectively when a VOR station is, selected. b) The azimuth scale inner and outer dots indicate 1%? and 214° respectively during ILS applications. ©) On a localizer back course you will get positive sensing when the track bar selected to the inbound heading. 4) The track bar must be selected to the outbound course on localizer back course approaches in order to obtain positive track bar sensing. AeroCor e) 4748 29, 30. 31 33. Canadian ATPL Workbook A pilot is west bound on J596 to the NORTH BAY VOR/DME, he/she sets the OBS to 345 on the second VOR and tunes it to the OTTAWA VORTAC. What will the CDI and TO/FROM flag indicate on the ‘umber two VOR prior to crossing the AVTAK intersection? (see pages 4-09 and 4-10) a) Right and From. g Left and From c) — Rightand To d)— Leftand To While tracking outbound from the VAL-D'OR VOR on the 147 degree radial (1567), you dial up the OTTAWA VORTAC on the number two VOR and set 210 on the OBS. What will your CDI and TO/FROM flag indicate after crossing the TUFAX intersection? (see pages 4-09 and 4-10) a) Right and From. b) —_Leftand From ©) Right and To @)— Leftand To While flying along J551 southwest bound from VAL-D'OR and maintaining a heading of 216° M, you tune your ADF to the 218 YUY NDB. What will your RMI pointer indicate on arrival at the REZIN intersection? (see pages 4-09 and 4-10) a) 146 degrees b) 326 degrees ©) 110 degrees 4) 290 degrees ‘The slaved gyro magnetic compass (gytosyn) minimizes the oscillation and turning errors associated with P-type magnetic compasses through the utilization of a: a) magnetic compensator assembly : b) stabilized gyro to keep the flux valve in a horizontal position ©) directional gyro unit slaved to a remote compass transmitter 4) remote "sensing unit" equipped with a torque levelling actuator ‘The definition of a VORTAC-telated RNAV "waypoint" is: a) geographical position determined by a VOR radial and DME distance. b) a fix located on a VHF navigation aid airway. ©) final approach fix determined by a localizer beam and DME distance. 4) the latitude and longitude of any VOR or NDB station. AeroCourse)ease Qvon Krone SPrvorme “Pract Sneath ae [oe a Be tain ee ara SHS34, 35, 36, 37, 38. Radio Aids & Flight Planing A Track Line Computer (TLC) arca navigation system reflects lefVright CDI needle scalar deviation as: a) _one dot of deflection for every 0.5° off course for enroute navigation, b) one dot of deflection for every 2.0° off course for enroute navigation, ©) one dot of deflection for every 0.5 NM off course for enroute navigation. d) one dot of deflection for every 2.0 NM off course for enroute navigation, DME-DME (RHO-RHO) RNAV systems have the location of DME facilities in their data bases. The system uses numerous DME signals to provide position and time and distance information, What are the minimum inputs for this type of RNAV system to become operational?” a) Two DMFs plus true altitude to compensate for slant range error. b) Two DMEs plus bearing to resolve fix ambiguity. ©) Three DMEs or two DMEs plus one VOR. 4) Four DMEs Loran C is a type of a long range navigation system. ‘The airbome equipment measures the time Gifference between the arrival of pulsed signals transmitted fom a Master Station and at least __or more Secondary Stations to provide a position fx. a2 v3 Qo 4 d 6 Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to Loran-C? a) Ground wave signals are subject to local interference from such sources as LF transmitters and high tension power lines. b) The system lacks the integrity to wam pilots that signals are providing inaccurate position information, °) Itis certified for use during non-precision instrument approaches. a) The receiver system is susceptible to precipitation static. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the principle of operation of an Inertial Navigation System (INS)? @) _ it depends upon a phase difference between two independently mounted gyroscopic platforms. b) it requires extemal references in order to determine aircraft position and velocity. ©) it must utilize a radial and DME distance to determine its initial geographical position. 4) _itmeasures acceleration against time to determine speed and position. AeroCourse 41 Ours412 Canadian ATPL Workbook 39. An INS system is capable of providing: 1. steering information to the autopilot. 2. ground proximity sensing. 3. runway alignment and glideslope information for precision approaches, 4, aircraft attitude information for flight instruments 5. antenna stabilization for airborne weather radar 6. yaw dampening information to the autopilot. 7. horizontal navigation data. 8. control surface actuation. a) 1247 b) 1457 ) 2457 a) 25,68 40. Select the true statement with reference to an Inertial Navigation System (INS). 8) It utilizes highly stable cesium frequency transmissions which are synchronized with up to eight {ground stations to provide an accurate position fix. b) It isa completely self-contained unit which can provide accurate measurement of aircraft position by comparing transmitted and received radio beams to determining the airplane’s relative motion in relation to the earth, ©) Itutilizes accelerometers, in a gimbal assembly, to sense all vertical and horizontal accelerations to provide position and steering information @) Tt calculates the elapsed time between aircraft responder signals and successive interrogation signals transmitted from the INS transmitter to provide a position readout. 41, Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the operation of GPS? 4) Position triangulation is provided by measuring distances from satellites by precise timing of radio signals. =a b) It measures the phase difference between two signals transmitted simultaneously from a satelite ©) It calculates the elapsed time between aircraft responder signals and successive interrogation signals transmitted from a particular satellite. @) It computes the exact phase of the satellite radio signal, the value of which undergoes an tion readout. electronic translation to provide a pos 42. low many GPS satellites are required to obtain a three dimensional position fix for an aircraft a 2 i 8 ). 4 d 643. 44, 45. Radio Aids & Flight Planning Which of the following statements is true with reference to GNSS overlay approaches? ) GPS overlay approaches may be used for either precision or non-precision type approaches. ») Ground based NAVAIDS may be used in conjunction with GPS to establish way points that are not in the GPS data base but depicted on the approach plate. ©) The appropriate navaid(s) which define the published approach must be operational. The pilot ‘must revert to traditional means of navigation if there are any discrepancies between GPS and the traditional navaid{s), 4) Pilots are also allowed to fly a GPS overlay approach when the traditional underlying navigation aid is temporarily out of service. A pilot may take credit for a GPS based approach at an alternate airport when which of the following are met? ) Ausable approach at the destination is served by a functioning traditional Nav-aid b) Published LNAV minima arc the lowest landing limits for which credit may be taken when determining alternate weather minima requirements. ©) For GPS units that do not have FDE (fault detection & exclusion), the pilot must perform a RAIM prediction at least once before the mid point of the flight to the destination. 4) Allofthe above. One of the requirements imposed on pilots who wish to take credit for a GPS approach at an alternate aerodrome is that the destination aerodrome must be served by @ functioning traditional approach aid. Another requirement is: ) that a minimum of 8 satellites will be available at the altemate at the ETA at the altemate. b) the aircraft has 2 functioning GPS receivers. ©) that alternate aerodrome weather minima become 1000 & 3. @) that approach-level RAIM must be available at the alternate aerodrome at the expected time of arrival atthe altemate, for pilots that have TSO C129/C129a avionies installed in their aircraft. Without RAIM capability, the pilot of a Non-WAAS GPS-cquipped aircraft @) may still navigate IFR for enroute and terminal operations and even fly GPS approaches if the CDI display sensitivity can be manually changed. b) can execute @ GPS stand-alone approach if a DME source is available for position updating at the destination airport. ©) is permitted to continue using GPS as the primary navigation source for IFR flight as long as a baro-input from the aircraft’s altitude encoder is continuously available. 4) will have no assurance of the accuracy of the GPS position AeroCourse 413 \eroCourse)41. 48. 49, 414 Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘TSO C129(a}-compliant GPS avionics must be capable of automatically increasing the CDI display sensitivity as an aigcraft moves closer to the airport during a GPS approach. This ‘stepping-up’ or ‘tightening’ of CDI sensitivity provides for the greater tracking accuracy required during the terminal and approach phases, From the following statements regarding GPS avionics operation during an approach, select those which are correct: 1, When the aircraft reaches 30 nm. or less from the destination and an approach for that airport has been loaded info the flight plan, the CDI sensitivity automatically changes from £5 nm. to the terminal value of +1 nm, (full scale deflection), 2. Manually setting the CDI display sensitivity automatically changes the RAIM sensitivity on all IFR certified GPS avionics. 3, Atadistance of 2 nm, inbound to the final approach fix waypoint the CDI display sensitivity begins to transition to the approach value of #0.3 nm. and will have achieved this extra sensitivity by the time the aircraft passes the FAF waypoint. 4, When the aircraft arrives at the missed approach waypoint, waypoint sequencing for the missed approach segment is always automatic and directs the pilot to fly to the missed approach holding waypoint. 5, As the aircraft starts to fly the missed approach segment the CDI display sensitivity reverts to the enroute value of 45 nm, 6. IfRAIM is not available when crossing the final approach fix waypoint, the pilot must execute the missed approach procedure. a) 235 ») 345 2 13,6 d 45,6 From the following statements that relate to the RAIM component of receiver, select the one which is correct: ‘TSO C-129 compliant GPS a) _ RAIMis able to predict the scheduled removal of satellites from service as well as being able to predict satellite failure. b) _ IF RATM is not available prior to crossing the final approach waypoint during an approach, the GPS receiver will not go into the approach “ACTIVE” mode. ©) RAIM function requires continuous input from ground-based navaids or facilities, @) The RAIM alert level will automatically change when a pitot manually sets the CDI seale factor (or sensitivity) on any TSO C-129 receiver. WAAS-corrected GPS signals offer approximately 5 times greater position accuracy than basic or uncorrected GPS signals. Another true statement related to the use of this satellite-based augmentation system would be: : a) The data bases of WAAS-enabled GPS receivers are compatible with those of earlier non-WAAS. receivers. b) _ WAAS-capable GPS receivers use differential correction signals to improve the accuracy of the position solutions but still rely on RAIM function to provide integrity ©) _ WAAS geo satellites provide a ranging signal which improves availability. 4) WAAS-capable receivers are able to predict the availability of LPV approaches at destination imports, AeroCourse50. si. 92. 53. Radio Aids & Flight Planning ‘The statements that follow relate to GPS stand-alone approaches. Identify those that are correct. 1, Stand-alone approach design is usually based on a “T” pattem of waypoints which eliminates the need for a procedure tur. 2. GPS stand-alone approaches are charted as “RNAV(GNSS) RWY XX” 3._ Pilot verification of GPS stand-alone approach waypoints is not required if they have been retrieved from a current data base supplied by a Transport Canada approved vendor. 4, GPS stand-alone approaches are charted as “(GNSS)” which appears following the runway identification, 5. Stand-alone approach waypoints retrieved from a current data base and inserted into the active flight plan may be deleted and replaced by manually entering the new coordinates for pilot-defined ‘waypoints that facilitate direct routings to the FAF. 6. General aviation pilots do not require a special licence endorsement to qualify them to conduct GPS stand-alone approaches a 126 345 236 a) 134 Prior to commencing a GPS-based approach, pilots using TSO C129/129(a) avionics should: a) Ensure that ATC approval has been received to descend to the equivalent of Category 1 ILS minima, b) Determine that the avionics will present all of the approach waypoints as Fly-over waypoints. ©) Ensure that the CDI sensitivity is operating in the terminal mode if conducting an overlay approach, 4) Use the RAIM prediction feature to ensure that approach-level RAIM will be supported for the ETA (15min). Which of the following statements is true with reference to TCAS eollision avoidance systems? a) TCAS I processors are able to issue visual and audio advisories for appropriate vertical avoidance ‘manocuvres, should a possible collision hazard exis. b) —_TCAS Il processors are able to issue visual and audio advisories for appropriate vertical and horizontal avoidance manoeuvres, should a possible collision hazard exist. ©) _TCAS is able to detect any intruding aircraft with or without an operating transponder. 4) TCAS is unable to detect any intruding aircraft that does not have an operating transponder. When a TCAS unit computes data from a Mode A transponder, the TCAS cockpit indicator will display the intruder’s.... a) range only b) range and bearing ©) range, bearing and relative altitude. 4) range, bearing, relative altitude and intercept track AeroC 3) 4.1554. 58. 56. 37. 58. 416 Canadian ATPL Workbook TTCAS II or ACAS Il (Airborne Collision Avoidance System) operational features are correctly described by which of the following statements? a) Can provide traffic advisories but can not generate resolution advisories. b) sable to provide both horizontal and vertical plane resolution advisories. ©) Consists of a computer unit, 2 Mode § transponder, cockpit displays and controls and provides both traffic advisories and resolution advisories in the vertical plane only. d) Utilizes a sophisticated absolute altimeter when computing the vertical flight paths of intruder aircraft. +02 ‘What does the following symbol denote for a TCAS IT system: ~ a) _A Traffic Advisory has been issued for an intruder 200 feet above you and climbing. b) Resolution Advisory has been issued for an intruder 200 feet below you and descending. ©) _A Traffic Advisory has been issued for an intruder 2000 feet above you and climbing. @ A Resolution Advisory has been issued for an intruder 200 feet below you and descending, ‘With regards to Pilot/Controller actions in response to a TCAS/ACAS waming; which of the following is, comtect? a) Pilots should only manoeuvre their aircraft in response to @ TCAS/ACAS (RA) resolution advisory. b) Pilots shall notify ATC as soon as possible any deviation from an ATC instruction or clearance in response to an appropriate TCAS waming. ©) Pilots who deviate from an ATC instruction ot clearance in response to a TCAS warning, shall promptly retum to the terms of that instruction or clearance when the conflict is resolved. 4) Allofthe above. ‘The purpose of the Ground Proximity Waring System (GPWS) is to alert flight crews to the existence of ‘unsafe conditions due to terrain proximity. Which of the following is not one of the hazardous conditions identified by a GPWS system during flight? a) Excessive closure rate with respect to rising terrain. b) Excessive altitude loss during climb-out (take-off or go-around) ©) Insufficient terrain clearance when not in landing configuration. @) Excessive nose up in the take-off configuration, For a typical GPWS installation, which of the following aural message and visual indication mode is, capable of being inhibited while the aircraft is airborne? a) Excessive descent rate. b) _Excessive speed with respect to rising terrain ©) __ Insufficient terrain clearance when not in landing configuration. 4) _Excessive deviation below the glide slope in landing configuration. AeroCourse)59, 61. 62. 63 Radio Aids & Flight Planning A complex Air Data Computer is a unit which senses, evaluates and outputs: ) quantities associated with altitude, IAS/Mach number, vertical speed, and cabin pressurization. b) —_wamings for wrong aircraft configurations. ©) cautions and warnings for aircraft system and subsystem failures. 4) video signals which are sent to EFIS systems CRTs. An Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) utilizes cathode ray tubes (CRTs) to electronically display ‘light information, receive inputs from various aircraft systems, respond to these inputs and changes the data into video signals which are sent to the respective CRTs for display. a) Attitude heading and reference systems (AHRS) b) Symbol generator units (SGUs) ©) Digital air data computers 4) BFIS control panels An EFIS comparison fault refers to the: a) _EFIS control panels detection of a difference in the captain’s and first officer’s BFIS mode Primary Flight Display (PFD) or Navigation Display (ND). b) digital air data computers detection of a disagreement between the captain’s and first officer's EFIS systems of attitude, air or navigation data. ©) symbol generators detection of a disagreement between the captain's and first officer's EFIS systems in attitude, air or navigation data, @) attitude heading and reference systems (AIRS) detection of a deviation from the aircraft desired Aight path, ‘In many aireraft such as the Dash 8, EFIS composite mode display refers to the: @) selection of the EHSI or ND heading display on an ARC showing 45° either side of actual Heading, b) selection of the standby source for atitude, air or navigation data. ©) selection of the rising runway to aircraft symbol display. 4) combining of EHSI and EADI information onto the remaining CRT following the failure of one of the CRTs. With regards to Primary (PSR) and Secondary (SSR) Surveillance Radar, whi statement is true, a) PSR requires the aircraft be equipped with a transponder and is capable of detecting weather, b) —_ SSR requires the aircraft be equipped with a transponder and is capable of detecting weather. ©) PSR does not require a transponder and is capable of detecting weather. 4) SSR does not require a transponder and is incapable of detecting weather. AeroCoursé 41764, 65, 66. 67. 68, 418 Canadian ATPL Workbook A pilot forgets to set 29.92 from 30.22 climbing through FL180 to FL220. After levelling at his assigned altitude, the pilot realizes the problem and then sets 29.92 on the altimeter subscale, What indication will be seen by the ATS controller monitoring the aircraft's altitude read-out? a) >) °) d an immediate indication of 300 feet altitude loss nothing because the subscale is not geared to the encoding altitude read-out an immediate indication of 300 feet altitude gain no noticeable indication provided the subscale is moved very slowly Which of the following is true with respect to airborne weather radar? a) b) °) d drop size determines radar echo intensity to a much greater extent than does drop number. loud that is visible to the naked eye will always be displayed on the indicator drops of frozen precipitation provide stronger radar retums than do drops of liquid precipitation the intensity of radar echoes depends solely upon the number of drops of frozen precipitation present per unit volume of storm cell cloud ‘Two characteristic weather radar scope pattems known as "hooks" and "fingers" identify areas of: a) b) °) Oo) lightning and heavy static discharge moderate to heavy icing in cloud convergent air flow and ice crystal formation hail and turbulence Which of the following statements is true with respect to airbome weather radar? 3) b) °) 4 ‘A thunderstorm echo displayed at 90 nm on your aircraft indicator will decrease in intensity as distance is decreased from the antenna. ‘The intensity of a thunderstorm echo displayed at 90 nm on your aircraft indicator would decrease as the distance from the echo increased. [As the gain control is adjusted, the radar beam width changes to give greater penetration of target storm cells ‘A thunderstorm echo will displayed the same intensity at various distances from the antenna, ‘A thunderstorm contouring red on your airborne weather radar set that is estimated to have a radar top over 30,000 feet and displaying a steep gradient should be avoided by at least__. a » ° ¢ Sam 10 nm 20 nm 30 nm AeroCourse)69. 70. 1 2. 734 Radio Aids & Flight Planning ‘When a thunderstorm contours on an airbomae weather radar indicator, it should be avoided by at least: a) Sum when the aircraft is flying above the freezing level b) —5;nm when the aireraft is flying below the freezing level ©) 10 nm when the aircraft is flying below the freezing level 4) 10 nm when the aircraft is flying near the tropopause ‘Am airborne weather radar system is susceptible to a significant reduction in storm cell detection capability known as ATTENUATION. This loss of effectiveness is caused by: 8) antenna side lobe energy reflecting back from ground to aireraft b) —_overcompensation by the sensitivity time control circuit when intense storm cells move to within 20 nm of the aireraft ©) an uneven deposition of rime ice on the radome 4) the presence of moderate to heavy rainfall areas in the antenna near field. ‘When flying in moderate rain and attempting to locate embedded CBs, the pilot should: a) use the tilt control "up" to assess the weather above the rain b) do nothing because rain attemuates the radar returns ©) use different range scales 6) use various methods such as reducing the gain for brief periods to identify the ‘most intense areas of precipitation, Selection of the REACT or Contour funetions on the radar control unit may also be useful Use of the tilt function on airborne weather radar to provide an indication of @ thunderstorm threat can be best accomplished by tilting the antenna beam to scan: a) the middle/lower area of a CB first. b) the top 5% ofa CB. ©) upper region of a cell d) the lower 5% of the CB. A true statement regarding the main advantage of a Lightning Detection System would be: a) in addition to detecting lightning, it is able to detect intense precipitation. b) _itprovides accurate bearing and distances to lightning strikes. ©) __ itis able to detect electrical activity associated with a thunderstorm that is located behind a mountain range. 4) turbulence detection is enhanced when compared to normal airborne weather radar equipment.. AeroCoursé 4-19Canadian ATPL Workbook NAVIGATION & FLIGHT PLANNING 74, Which of the following types of projection is used in the preparation of World Aeronautical charts? a) Transverse Mercator b) Polar Stereographic ©) Lambert Conformal Conie Mercator 75. Considering Lambert Conformal Conic, Mercator and Transverse Mercator map projections, any great circle track is or approximates, a straight line on: 8) all_projections except the Mercator b) all projections. ©) the Mereator and Transverse Mercator projections only d) all projections except the Lambert Conformal Conic 76. When considering rhumb line tracks and great circle tracks, you should know that: a) In the polar regions, a rhumb line track is always the shortest distance between two points. b) A great circle track has the property of “ constant direction” ©) A thumb line track cuts each meridian at a different angle. 4) The equator is both a great circle and a thumb line 71. What is distance between the following geographic reference points? N47 54.82 W74 22.6 N46 54.82 W74 22.6 a) 60nm ») — 90nm °) 120mm 4d) _Itdepends on how far north or south any location is from the equator. 78. When completing a flight plan form how would you indicate a medium sized aircraft is equipped with TCAS? a) _List the appropriate prefixes in the Type of aircraft box. b) List TCAS in the other information box. ©) List the appropriate suffix in the equipment box. 4d) Thisnot required to list any equipment. 4.20 AeroCo se)19. 80. 81. 82 83, Radio Aids & Flight Planning ‘A commercial IFR flight is planned with three intermediate stops in controlled airspace. How would this proposed flight be filed. ) _Stopovers may be indicated in the route section provided the stops are not in uncontrolled airspace. b) —_AnIFR flight plan is required for each flight leg. ©) Only one flight plan is required provided the total fight time including the total time of all the stops is included in the remarks box. 4 Only one flight plan is required provided the cach intermediate stop is indicated in the route section, Which of the fotlowing statements about flight planning in Canada is correct? a) stopovers may not be indicated on a single flight plan b) when proceeding VFR to a military airfield, a flight plan is not required ©) only IFR flight plans may be filed whenever operating into or within the CADIZ or DEWIZ 4) flights to the USA are not considered intemational and do not require an ICAO flight plan ‘What type of flight plan is required for an IFR flight between Canada and Mexico? a) ICAO forall aircraft. b) ICAO for aircraft in commercial air service. ©) Anormal domestic IFR flight plan, 4) Anommal domestic IFR flight plan for privately registered aircraft What is the minimum fuel required for a large turbo prop aircraft on a night commercial VER trip, if the flight time is estimated at 4 hours and 15 minutes of which 25 minutes will be at climb power? (Add 200 Ibs. for contingencies) Fuel Burns: 585 Ib/hr for climb 470 Ib/r for cruise 370 lb/hr for holding a) "1845 Ibs. b) 2245 Ibs. ©) 2600 Ibs. 4) 2790 Ibs. A large turbojet aircraft in commercial air service on @ 2 hour and 30 minute VFR flight bums 2500 Ibfhour for cruise and hold, and 3600 Ib/hour in the climb, What is the minimum day VFR fuel requirement ifthe aircraft took 20 minutes to climb to flight planned altitude. a) 7850 Ibs. b) 8465 Ibs. ©) 10,800 Ibs. d) 12,150 Ibs. AeroCourse) 4-21Canadian ATPL Workbook 84, What information does a VOLMET include: a) Forecasts, actual weather and notams transmitted on selected FSS frequencies, b) _ GFAs, TAFs, and SIGMETs transmitted on selected FSS VHF frequencies, ©) _ GPAs, TAFs, and METAR transmitted on Oceanic Control frequencies, d) _ TAFs, METARs and SIGMETS transmitted on frequencies found in the CFS. ‘The following data is related to a flight from Halifax to Santa Maria and is to be used for questions 85, 86 & 87. Rhumb Line Track 108°T Four-engined TAS 470.Kts Rhumb Line Distance 2,080 nm Three-engined TAS G90 kts Forecast Winds 240°T/60 kis Safe Fuel, 7 Hours 85. The distance to the Critical Point (CP) from Halifax is: a) 8640m b) 925mm ©) 988m @ 1077 nm 86, ‘The ime tothe Critical Point (CP) from Halifaxis: ye 4 Qu TAS a) Lhour and 48 minutes b) 2 hours and 03 minutes ©) 2hours and 52 minutes 4) 3 hours and 18 minutes 87. What effect will an increase in tail wind component have on the CP while enroute to Santa Maria? 42 a) The increased tailwind will have no effect on the distance or time to CP. b) The distance to the CP will move further from Halifax and the time to CP will increase. ©) The distance to the CP will move closer to Halifax and the time to CP will be less, 4) The distance to the CP will move closer to Halifax but the time to CP will remain the same. AeroCourse’ Acro*oursRadio Aids & Flight Planning ‘The following data is related to a flight from Vancouver to Honolulu and is to be used for questions 88 & 89. Rhumb Line Track 224°T Four-engined TAS 460 kts Rhumb Line Distance 2,350 nm Three-engined TAS 380 kts, Foreeast Winds 260° 1/65 Kts Safe Fuel 6.5 Hours 88. The distance to the Critical Point (CP) from Vancouver is: 89, OL 92. a 1024nm 6) 1261nm ©) 1339am d 1456 0m ‘The time to the Critical Point (CP) from Vancouver is: a) T hours and 47 minutes b) 2 hours and 03 minutes ©) 2 hours and 52 minutes @) 3 hours and 18 minutes North Atlantic Minimum Navigation Performance Specification Airspace (NAT MNPSA) exists over the North Atlantic between: a) FL180 and FLA1O. bd) FL275 and FL410. ©) FL230 and FL430, @)— FL285 and FL420, An aircraft with which of the following combinations of Navaids would likely gain state approval in order to justify consideration for state approval for operation within the MNPS airspace? a) Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS's). b) Two Global Navigation Satellite Systems certified under TSO C129. ©) One loran C receiver and one FMS with IRS input. 4 Onc VOR DME and one INS. Which of the following is not correct with respect to North Atlantic MNPS airspace flight planning procedures: a) south of 70°N for flights on predominately east-west directions, planned tracks shall be defined at each half or whole degrees of latitude and each 10° of longitude. b) north of 70°N for fights on predominately east-west directions, planned tracks shall be defined at each half or whole degrees of latitude and each 20° of longitude. ©) for fights on predominately north-south directions, planned tracks shall be defined at each whole degrees of longitude and each 5° of latitude. 4) for flights on predominately north-south directions, planned tracks shall be defined at each whole degrees of longitude and each 10° of latitude, AeroCourse>) 423 Acrosourse’)94. 95. 96. 97. 424 Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘The vertical dimensions of the Northem Control Area (NCA), the Arctic Control Area (ACA) and the northern part of the Southem Control Area (SCA) which has been designated CMNPS airspace in which special procedures apply is that airspace from: a) F290 To FL350 b) —_ FLI80 To FL600 ©) FL330 To FL410 @)— FL310 To FL450 Except as required over designated compulsory reporting points or requested by ATC, flights operated in the CMNPS airspace whose tracks are predominantly north or south shall report over fixed reporting lines coincident with each: a) 15° of latitude’ b) 10° of latitude ©) Poflatitude 3° offlatitude Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is the application 1,000 ft vertical separation at and above FL290 between RVSM certified aircraft operating within designated RVSM airspace. RVSM and RVSM transition airspace is defined as controlled airspace extending from a) F1290 to FL330 for RVSM transition airspace and FL330 to FLA20 RVSM airspace. b) L290 to FL410 inclusive for RVSM and RVSM transition airspace. c) _ FL230 to FL 410 for RVSM transition airspace and FL270 to FL410 RVSM airspace. 4) FL230 to FL 410 inclusive for RVSM and RVSM transition airspace Prior to entering RVSM airspace pilots are required to ensure which the following equipment is functioning normally? 4) Two separate and independent altimeter systems. 7 b) One auto pilot with an altitude hold function ©) Oneallitude alerting device 4) Allofthe above ‘Any Canadian Air Operator who intends to conduct flights using twin-engine, turbine-powered aeroplanes outside of the Canadian Domestic Airspace and along routes which traverse large bodies of ‘water or over sparsely populated areas must be familiar with the ETOPS (Extended-range Twin-engine Operations) regulatory requirements, ETOPS authorization is required as an Operations Specification for an Air Operator who wishes to dispatch a flight along a route containing a point that is farther than what ‘maximum distance or time from an adequate aerodrome (based on engine-out cruise speed)? a) that distance flown in 60 minutes. >) 60m, ©) 150mm. 4) that distance flown in 90 minutes. AeroCourse)come ceseachnacroao gon eH aoe sano eH Anon Radio Aids & Flight Planning ANSWER KEY RADIO AIDS & FLIGHT PLANNING 36. 37. 38, 39, 4a. 42, 43, 45. 47, 48, 49. 50. 51 52. 53. 54. 56. 56. 37. 38, 59, 61. 62. 63. 65. 67. 68. 9. 70. acocaeconecsanano cone oToReRAl PO TRON i. DR. B. 14, Ts 16. 11. 2B. 2. 80. 81. 82. 83, 84, 85. 86. 87. 88. 89, 90. 91. 93. 94, 95. 96. 97. Baccceasancoecacoracosanooee 4.25Canadian ATPL Workbook 4-26Performance and Weight & Balance PERFORMANCE and WEIGHT & BALANCE ‘V1 is the speed at which it must be possible: a) to stop an aeroplane on the remaining runway plus clearway b) to take-off and attain the V; climb speed at 35 fect above the runway surface ©) to apply full braking and what ever lift dump devices, bring the aeroplane to a full stop on the runway plus stopway or continue and be at V2 at 400 feet AGL to abort the take-off and bring the aeroplane to a stop on the runway plus stopway or continue and be at Vp at 35 feet above the departure end of the runway Which of the following would cause V1 speed to increase? a) An increase in gross take-off weight b) Reverse thrust capability ©) ‘Snow or slush on the ninway @) Am increase in tailwind component ‘The symbol "Voi" represents: a) the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable 1d) that speed above which shock-induced buffet will cause airflow separation to occur ©) the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration 4) the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration ‘The definitions for V,, V3, Vp would be respectively: a) rotation speed, flap retraction speed and maximum gust intensity speed b) rotation speed, gear retraction speed and rough air speed ©) rough air speed, critical engine failure speed and manoeuvring speed d) rotation speed, gear retraction speed and maximum gust intensity speed AeroCoursé) a od52 Canadian ATPL Workbook In the blank space at the right of each item in Column B, write the letter of the "V" speed from Column A that is defined by that item. Column A Column B a) Ve 1) Computed approach speed 1) b) Vio 2) Maximum operating limit speed 2) ) V2 3) Critical engine failure speed 3) ) Vinca 4) Manoeuvring speed 4) ©) Vsi 5) Stall speed in the landing configuration 5) jv 6) Take-off safety speed 6% g) Veet 7) Stall speed in a specified configuration 7) h) Vimo 8) Speed for maximum gust intensity 8) i) Vo 9) Airborne minimum control speed 9% Which of the following "V" speeds represents the maximum speed at which full deflection of the primary {light controls will not cause overstressing of the aircraft? a) Va b) Va °) Vase a Vic ‘Vinca Air Minimum Control Speed is defined as the lowest calibrated airspeed at which control of an aircraft can be maintained following the failure of the critical engine with the remaining engine(s) operating at take off power. Vmea is determined at gross weight with the C of G at the aft limit, the flaps in take-off position, the and the a) landing gear extended, propeller windmilling if no auto feathering system is installed. b) _ landing gear extended, propeller feathered if an auto feathcring system is installed. ©) _ landing gear retracted, propeller windmilling if no auto feathering system is installed 4) landing gear retracted, aircraft banked a maximum of 5° towards the inoperative engine. Which of the following symbols represents the take-off safety speed of a multi-engine aeroplane? a) Vx b) V2 2) Vs a) vi10. u 12. 1B. Performance and Weight & Balance A referenced airspeed obtained after the aeroplane lifts off and at which the required one-engine-inoperative climb performance can be achieved is designated as: a) Ven ’) —-Vvca. 2 Ve d Vane Which of the following take-off and landing distances published in the Canada Air Pilot aerodrome charts includes the length of the clearway? a) LDA (Landing Distance Available) b) —TORA (Take-off Run Available) ©) ASDA (Accelerate-Stop Distance Available) 4) TODA (Take-off Distance Available) A runway is 8800 ft in length, It has a published clearway of 1000 ft and also includes a stopway of 1500 ft. ‘Therefore TORA and TODA would be respectively; a) 8800 ft and 9,800 ft b) 8800 ft and 10,800 ©) 10,300 ft and 9,800 ft 4) 10,300 fe and 10,800 When departing the runway illustrated below in the direction indicated, a turbo-jet aeroplane operated by an. air carrier must be able to accelerate to V1: thereafter, lose its most critical engine and continue to a height of 35 feet within a total distance of: 1000 fi a) 7,000 feet b) 8,500 feet ©) 8,000 feet &) 9,000 feet ‘The computed landing approach speed is: a) Vina db) Vio fo) Van a Veer AeroCoursé) “314 15. 16. wy 54 Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘A Critical Field Length or Balanced Field Length means the length of runway: a) Required to accommodate the take-off of a heavy aircraft when the runway maximum weight-bearing capacity is reached. b) Required for an aircraft to accelerate to computed rotation speed (V1), experience an engine failure and to come to complete stop on the runway remaining, ©) Required for an aircraft to accelerate to critical engine failure speed, experience an engine failure and to either continue the take-off or reject it. 4) Required to stop an aireraft following the failure of its critical engine at its take-off safety speed ‘The following information relates to a weight and balance computation for the Super King Air: WEIGHT AIC Empty Weight 7,800 Ibs. 2 Pilots and Equipment 380 Ibs. 2 Passengers (row 1) 170 Ibs. each 1 Passenger (row 2) 200 Ibs. Baggage (foyer) 50 Ibs. Baggage (AFT cabin, F.S. 325") 80 Ibs. Fuel Take Off Weight Referring to the above information. What is the C of G position at take-off, ifall ofthe Super King Air's tanks are filled on the ramp; fourteen gallons of Jet B fuel are used for taxi operations prior to take-off. (See pages 5-5 t0 5-7) a) 183.8" AFT of Datum b) 184.3" AFT of Datum ©) 185.9" AFT of Datum d) 186.5" AFT of Datum Referring to the above weight and balance information for the Super King Air, assume that take-off field length requirements have limited the maximum allowable take-off weight to 12,200 Ibs.. There are 270 U:S. gallons of Jet B fuel (6.4 Ibs/gal) already in the fuel tanks, What would be the maximum payload for the aircraft in this case? (See pages 5-5 to 5-7) a) 2,350 Ibs. b) 2,292 Ibs. ©) 2,672 Ibs. 2,220 ibs. If the airerafi's CG was 179" AFT of Datum and the Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) is from 160" to 240” ‘AFT of Datum, what would be the CG in terms of % MAC? a) 1% 24% 2% d 31% AeroCourse)Performance and Weight & Balance cocker CABIN FOYER AFT CABIN S348 F530 FS129FS17%6 Fs2s FS259 FS 292 FLIGHT STATIONS CREW ROW I ROWIL ROW IL Li FS129 FS176 ‘FS215 FS259 FS 292 OCCUPANTS crew (CHAIR FOstTIONS LAVATORY SEATS rsiz9 | esi | rsize | sais | 15250 | 5202 | rss weno MovENT/ 100 20 203_[ 137 141 a2 207 234 268 90 axe [asa |ise—[az [233] 83 | a0 100 229 171. 176 215 259 292 335 110 142 188 194° 237 285 321 369. aan ~ass [2052 _[ ase [sr [a0 [a0 Tat | “ies_| 292 [998 | ~“200| “337 [300] as [a0 zia_[gas | aor | “36 [409 | 408 150 [rast [“aea [3s [380 | a3 | so [eo 506 | ae ae] 4a aie pet ss x10 [219 [291 | “959 [ 306 [440 [a6 ser 280 232308 [317 | 301] a6 525) 603 100; as 3 an saea[ec0a rac sss |e 200 [250342] ase a0 sie | 880 | 60 mo [a7 | 359} a0] asa] sea} asso 220 [sea [316 [307 [arg saa} 3 230 297 333 405 495 596 pee eee 240 ‘310 410 422 S16 622 701 804 AeroCourse) oe ourse))Canadian ATPL Workbook BAGGAGE WEIGHT | FOYER |) AFT CABIN FUEL JET “B? (6.4 LB/GAL) GALLONS _| WEIGHT _| MOMENT/100 FS292 | FS325 a configuration 12 5 a 2 a 2 7 at en ath om 312 308 56 is m7 iia foe oat 78 139 2 1136 56 as 56) 13 99 | 268 298 332 wee 152 a 999 | as et ee} en 200 650 1216 2209 300 975 a = 370 1203 | taae a 400 | 1300 a | 410 1333 un 26 136 306 tan 208 Test 58 rr: Set [2 | 136 hem ro 321 98d 364i 2018 316 Tai | a0 26 | 0 a1 208 ‘ut ase 368 202 a a a2 om meen 22 2589 2688 ay) 2152 18 “2816 558 2280, | Sout cucees S08 Ses 3072 srs 3136 S307 300 0 | 510 en 1 520 2508 ‘emt a 50 i 6s set aan ee26 AeroCoursé)Performance and Weight & Balance waa Rot iyevoe ~ Foun MOMENT LIMITS vs WEIGHT a Se) aes iar Tae BHT Lancing eine 5 5718. Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘The following information relates to a weight and balance computation for a business jet. Aircraft Loading: Weight Arm Moment B) in) 71000 Basic Operating Weight 11,596 2710 3,213 Passengers: Seats No. 1,2&3 510 218 Seats No. 4&5 315 Doty Seats No. 6&7 350 Seat No. 8 140 = Baggage:8 bags at 25 Ibs. per 200 361.5 Fuel: Wing and Fuselage Tanks - a ‘Wing Tip Tanks - _ ZA lo GO? If the fuselage and wing tanks only were full at the time of engine start-up and21 IMP, Rallons of fuel were consumed during taxi operation, the location of the C of G at take off would be: (See pages 5-9 to 5-11) a) ») ©) 4) ‘The following weights are given for a typical business jet: Empty Operating Weight - 11,640 Ibs 23.78% MAC 25.42% MAC. 26.91% MAC. 28.98% MAC Crew (2 pilots) 360 Ibs You are field length limited to 18,700 Ibs max. for take off. 500 gallons of fuel are in the tanks. What would be the maximum payload under these conditions? (See pages 5-9 to 5-11) » » 3 ‘The following weights are given for a typical business jet: Empty Operating Weight - 11,380 Ibs 2,440 Ibs 2,500 tbs 2,800 Ibs, 3,160 Ibs Crew (2 pilots) 360 Ibs ‘You are field length limited to 19,500 Ibs maximum for take-off. 750 gallons of fuel are in the tanks. What ‘would be the maximum payload under these conditions? (See pages 5-9 to 5-L1) °) 4d) 1,905 Ibs 2,760 Ibs. 3,600 Ibs. 7,760 Ibs.Performance and Weight & Balance ARM ARM ARM ‘ARM ARM 1328 128 2046 2518 3615 JET AIRCRAFT SEATING DIAGRAM. FUELLOADINGCHART FUELTAKEN AS7.807 LB PERIMP. GALLON/ MOMENTS ARE INN JLB FUSELAGE AND WING TANKS _| FUSELAGE AND WING TANKS (cond) [FUSELAGE AND WING TANKS (on) iw. GAL_[ we (LB) [wows000] mie. GAL | wt. «c6)_[MoMrto00 | mapa. | wa (ta) [wom 000 10 a 2 xo zess | orm so | 5231 1504 2» | ise 28 50 zis | 703 eo | suo | tsa6 Ey || en 8 30 zai | 815 co | ser | ise a | 32 a1 a0 zee | 837 mo | 5885 | t571 s | wo | is | se Zeer | 800 ro | seis | te99 oo | as | a7 | 30 382 no | Beat 1615 mo | oe | se | 40 904 no | 5809 | t6a7 wm | os | i | 40 26 mo | srr | tee0 % 20s | 420 ee | ro | S055 | tear 100 20 | 40 o70 reo | 5833 | t704 v0 22 | uo os | 7 | oon 1728 ‘20 278 | 40 wos | ran | ooo) tra9 ‘ta 26 | 40 rose | 70 | si | 770 4a sa | am rosa. | soo | czas | 150 3a | eo tos | so | és | fais ‘0 353 | 490 riot | mao | coz | tase 170 asa | 500 11s | eso | aig} so ‘0 a2 | 5i0 14a | oo | esse | 2 10 435 | 20 aim | aso | 638 | toot 200 a0 | sa 113 | ago | srig | 1025 210 480 540 1218 | pamo> | rez asa> 20 503 550 soar |" a 8370, i Zo 525 | 580 vaso | as: | e850 | 2000 240 sa | 570 +281 250 sr | 580 308 200 503 | 50 4328 WG T TANKS 20 sis | 0 1349 280 os | io 1370 10 200 esp | 1303 | | Sen mM soo eee | x0 was || sar 531 30 mo | 60 x0 mm | eo woo] ye] tage | aaa x0 7as_|__ oso 1482 Aero Se) Course)Canadian ATPL Workbook @ ca OVIN% OF uy - HEYD UO|sI8AOD owl % eeaeneeeeow a 26+06 00x aoe ee “OM ‘Ovi 01 uy eps LOOMS ume sovetojs140 ye 996 ESz 81 9¥N 1037. sowpu 608 S10", o z i 4 2 papeoaxa. 11 -0°9 wo 04 0-042 wun yons popugses 99 Isr DONDE 80 fry au) Buz Sha UNA SHH ION on OH87-AR J} Z ONO ssiun -9°9 Bupecoxe aug dey eo 27 Sip UNM SH} NEREMA ONS O07 O81 | UC, pm su edojenug Ayavig 40 anu ‘910004 -14610m $3019Performance and Weight & Balance Conversion: Arm to %MAC: ARM (IN,) - 253.964 90.197 MACIS 90.197 IN. LEMAC is 253.964 IN aft of reference datum, FORMULA: O% MAC = 100 AeroCour: AcroCours®) 5-121 22, 5-12 Canadian ATPL Workbook An aircraft which weighs 16,000 Ibs is found to have a C of G 1.5" aft of the aft limit, What would be the ‘weight of the item that must be moved from cargo compartment "B" (F.S 310") to cargo compartment "A (F.S.160") in order to bring the C of G to the aft limit? a) 175 Ibs b) 160 bs ©) 195 Ibs 225 Ibs After loading an aircraft, it was determined that the C of G was 2 inches aft of the allowable limits. If the gross weight of the aircraft was 18,000 Ibs., what minimum cargo weight must be shifted from the rear cargo compartment (FS. 310 inches to the forward cargo compartment (FS. 150 inches) to bring the C of G within limits? a) LIS Ibs b) 165 Ibs ©) 195 Ibs d) 225 Ibs AeroCoursePerformance and Weight & Balance WIND COMPONENTS EXAMPLE: WIND SPEED. . 5-13 20° + JOKNOTS 40 Q » [CROSSWIND COMPONENT VKNOTS AeroCor ANGLE BETWEEN WIND DIRECTION AND FLIGHT PATH. || 2 HEADWIND COMPONENT CROSSWIND COMPONENT 1” fuva anor ‘SLON1~. LN3NOANOO GNIMSHCanadian ATPL Workbook siouy{- uauodwog pula spunog-16ieM | Do « eunyeted wor sty episino Of 02 OF 0 000 _000'OL | 000'L goo'z 08 -OS-—OF OF OZ OL O Ob OZ Of OF ° 00°F 000'% po0'e _, 000'F & ooo's g z 000'9 B ooo 3 coos 5 F oov's be 000°0b E e oats 00°21 “yiBuo} Aemuns ey Jo %Sz Well 7A peaoxe jouued Aemieei2 aiqesy ‘e Ty Lon 2A, ‘(paads uoyejos) “A ay. 66 _*A (spunog oZb'01) speeds. srenbo (paads asnijey oul6ue) ‘A “2 wee siya yovoye, 30405 9 satmep ay “10M gau'o 0gg'ob ¥, 7 . Og6'Or oos'2) 4 ora . Touy-poedg | -1N6Iem ono ‘pared Kemuny yeed- Mbue7 spundod Jaye yoRjay Jeep Bulpuey pil4 HO-eNeL ]-1UBIeM HO-exeL Lipa eee sdeiy SIOUM S'6 jueuodwiog pumpeey ea yoo oes Soniuy esnscoud eet coral gens seid Teonod gaye, samo v9 Svomptiog poretses aug %0 Sdej4 - OH-a}219/999y pao parepansy =23, 24, Q ee Performance and Weight & Balance ACCELERATEIGO - 0° FLAPS Given the following data, determine the maximum allowable take-off weight for the Super King Air: (See pages 5-13 and 5-14) Wind - 090° M/10 KTS. Temperature 20°C Z Take-Off Runway is RWY 07 (1,700 ft ASL); 6,000 Ft. Long Altimeter - 29.62" 00 0 1090 a) 12,250 Ibs. a2N Sy 11,980 bs. 11,780 Ibs. 4) 11,400 Ibs. ACCELERATE/GO - 0° FLAPS Given the following information: ‘Wind = 290° M/30 kts Temperature 26°C 24.92 3007 oe ‘Take-Of RWY 26 (2,800 ft ASL); 4,600 ff. Long iS Allimeter Setting = 29.72" - “. 99 ' What is the maximum allowable Take -off gross weight under the above conditions? (See pages 5-13 and 5-14) @> 10,550 Ibs b) 11,450 Ibs ©) 11,900 Ibs 4) 12,200 Ibs ACCELERATE/GO - 0°FLAPS Given the following information: Wind = 090° MY/L8 kts, - ‘Temperature 16°C {ooo ‘Take-Off RWY 20 (1,400 ft ASL); 6,200 ft. Long Altimeter Setting = 30.32" AAL ‘What is the maximum allowable Take -off gross weight under the above conditions? (See pages 5-13 and 5-14) ~ Ad a) 11,450 Ibs By) 11,700 Ibs o 12,050 Ibs a) 12,400 tbs AeroCourse) 5Canadian ATPL Workbook yu90184 WUeIPe10 (sroup) pum povoden “sq 00h 8019 sr aumjesadwa, z+ 0 @ % oF 0 Oo | eh zi sk Ob zh oo SL_ 0s 9z@_0 Fro] a Tee r TS, S a Ste ‘sq7 o0z) Toney 60S Asz DOE tuouoduo9 BUNBEDH F “pkoe wleuodueg puympest Woe APHUTES ON & 97 o9sa Nien S015, ‘onjeusdo rS-au Z vg 0007 1g ooze ejaoyeny Bue" Pas | “hoe Zo1dwex 1a 098s26. Performance and Weight & Balance Determine the Limited Weight for the take-off of a business jet using the following data: (See pages 5-13 and 5-16) . Field Length Available - 5400 feet Ani-Skid - Operative Runway Gradient - Nil Active Runway -Rwy. 26 ‘Tower Reported Wind - 290 degrees M at 20kts. Runway Elevation - 2600 feet A.S.L, altimeter Setting - 29.52 (inches Hg.) ‘Temperature 75 degrees Fahrenheit a) 15,100 Ibs Db) 13,600 tbs. ©) 14,800 Ibs d) 13,950 Ibs Determine the Limited Weight for the take-off of a business jet using the following data: (Sce pages 5-13 and 5-16) Field Length Available - 6400 feet Anti-Skid - Operative ‘Runway Gradient - Nil Active Runway -Rwy. 27 ‘Tower Reported Wind - 140 degrees M at 13kts. Runway Elevation - 4400 feet A.S.L. altimeter Setting - 30.32 (inches Hg.). ‘Temperature 85 degrees Fahrenheit, a) 15,100 Ibs b) 14,250 Ibs ©) 13,430 Ibs d) 12,880 tbs AeroCourse)) 5-17Canadian ATPL Workbook Takeoff Performance Flap 15 Dash 8 100 RUNWAY 18 33 LENGTH sa00 | 5300 SLOPE 010 | 010 temp °c | Torque | CLIMB cum) [wis -18 20 | 34500 | aa70 | 24500 =16 920 | 34500 | 34a70 | 34500 a4 920 | 34500 | 34370 | 34500 32 920 | 4500 | 34370 | 34600 10 20 | sasoo | 34370 | 34500 4 20 | 34500 | 4370 | 34500 2 920 | 24500 | 34350 | 34500 4 g20 | 34s00 | s4z70_| 34500 2 a20 | 4500 | a41g0 | 34500 FOR ° 920 | s4s00 | 34120 | 34500 | S20 | S00 | Smo | Sesto TRAINING 6 e20 | 24s00 | 33030 | 34500 PURPOSES 8 | sao | aes00 | 33040 | 34sco 10 | 20. | 3ac00 | sro | 4600 t2__| so | 34s00 | sees0_| 24500 ONLY v4 | 20 | 4000 | sose0 | 4500 16 s20 | deo | S490 | 32500 18 eo | sas00 | 30420 | 34500 zm __| _s20_| 4500 | 33030 | 34600 zm | 20 | s4s00 | ss2s0 | s4500 24 sia | aaa | Saigo | 3¢500 Fs sar | a4s00 | Sanco | 34500 28 a2 | s4500 | 32x20 | 34600 ao | es | sao | rao | 4200 so | eet | asm | Sommo | asr00 Ea sss | so | 30700 | 33160 se | ats | seco | sooo | 22460 as | coo | ai7e0 | aosr0 | stez0 40 yes | 31s00 | 20900 | 31330 2 72 | oreo | 22370 | 30990 4 r8_| soao0 | 22050 | 30470 Fading ADD LBSKKnat 75 s Tainind SUB LASIKnot 75 ‘Acceleration Height oo 400 ‘QNH Less than 29,92 SUB 50 LBS per 02 in Ho ‘QNH greater than 29.92 no correction Maximum talwind 10 Kt. AeroCourse)28, 29. 30, 31 Performance and Weight & Balance Given the following data determine the maximum allowable take weight for a Dash 8-100 regional turbo-prop aircraft. (Refer 5-13 & 5-18). Flap 15 Wind 180/15 kts, QNH 29.98" Temp. 24° C a) 33,140 Ibs. b) 32,815 lbs c) 33,465 Ibs. d) 34,500 Ibs. Given the following data determine the maximum allowable take weight for a Dash 8-100 regional turbo-prop aircraft. (Refer 5-13 & 5-18). Flap 15 ‘Wind 100/09 kts QNH 29.98" ‘Temp. 30°C a) 31,930 Ibs. 7 b) 33,750 Ibs. ) 34,160 Ibs 34,200 Ibs, Determine the maximum take-off weight for a large turbo-prop if the altimeter setting is 30.02" and the ‘temperature is 32°C with a headwind component of 8 knots favoring runway 33. (Refer 5-18). a) 33,520 Ibs. b) 33,700 Ibs ©) 34,100 Ibs. d) 34,500 Ibs. Given the following data determine the maximum allowable take weight for a Dash 8-100 regional turbo-prop aircraft. (Refer 5-13 & 5-18). Flap 15 ‘Winds 150/12 kts. (QNH 29.76" ‘Temp. 27°C a) 33,500 Ibs, b) 33,220 Ibs ©) 32,890 Ibs. d) 32,490 Ibs. ) AeroCourse etCanadian ATPL Workbook "sy ge1 peedg 2a 7 a as HA 4 "319 021 UO 901 Muy ‘Dood In ¢ “id 201 H 531 914,20 29).uy ‘Beads +A oujeseg ran woaiad | eas tenting eso 9 ‘0 y's wouodilen pum 4 's 10g, eres aig Sh ety 9 a "eRbT eee dommiy autseau ames ‘Shoe ameodus| ay ea RA ee nea TaMWKs ob uy swovodwoo, oon ‘ 0 Pun yoo) paucae 2. 0) 4 SESSH=d os pure, ple peu unos ei 4 NO em, a0 Se ommeseda, sty uody or 0 a ‘al ogg SgnieiG erat sabe WO uotezunssaig wae) ‘sooitoq ot ste 7p Mp tp spoads yo-o1eL32 Performance and Weight & Balance The following information is to be used to determine the take-off speeds for a business jet aircraft: Anti-Skid Operative Runway Gradient Nil Airport Elevation 3800 feet A.S.L. Altimeter Setting ‘29.72 (inches Hg.) ‘Air Temperature 420° Celsius Headwind Component- 10 kts Anti-lee - Off Gross Weight at Brake Release - 18,000 tbs With reference to the given data, you would determine the V1, Vr and V2 speeds to be: (See page 5-20) a) 13 kts, 119 kets., 131 kts, b) 14 kts, 117 kts., 133 kts, ©) 112 kts, 120 kts., 134 kts. d) 115 kts., 118 kts., 133 kts. ‘The following information is to be used to determine the take-off speeds for a business jet aircraft: Anti-Skid Operative Runway Gradient 5% uphill Airport Elevation 4200 feet A.S.L. Altimeter Setting 30.12 (inches Hg.) Air Temperature ~ _ +20° Celsius Tailwind Component 10 kts, Anti-Ice - on Gross Weight at Brake Release - 20,000 Tbs With reference to the given data, you would determine the V1, Vr and V2 speeds to be: (See page 5-20) a) - -LI7kts., 124 kts., 132 kts. _ ee Db) 114 kts., 117 kts, 133 kts. ©) 114 kts., 126 kts., 138 kts, d) 119 kts., 126 kts, 139 kis. 5-21Canadian ATPL Workbook SLONM - daHaSuIV BOUL 008. ost oor ‘Gua 0081) pA anesrou EH Ly oor a oon 00g H foooar: =f 09008| Soo" 00s. = gQndLLy: EH year oot FE {GT 0006 ~ LHOTHM SSO. JONVA JIsIDadS 90 Jan/ ‘WV 'N- ZONE olaIOgas AeroCourse) 5.2234, 35, (5) Performance ond Weight & Balance ‘What would be the fuel flow for the Beech A-90 when flying under the following conditions? (See page 5-22) | Ve p41 = 200 Ag OAT © 20 TAS - 200 Kts, S ie - Altitude - 8,000 ft. ASL ‘Temperature - ISA + 10°C AIC Gross Weight - 9,000 Ibs. X= bo a) 365 Ibs. OAA b) 382 Ibs. oa ©) 435 Ibs. > 488 Ibs. ‘The following data is provided for the pilot of a small turbojet aircraft who is Planning a westbound fight and wishes fo set up for maximum range cruise: EL10 L350 ‘TAS 330 kts. 310 kts. wv 270/30 270/60 Fuel Flow 1,100 Ibs./hr. 950 Ibs./hr. From the information, determine the best flight level for eruise, a) FL350--- SAR (Specific Air Range) is 32 nmv/lb. of fuel >) —_-FL350--- SGR (Specific Ground Range) is .26 nm/lb. of fuel ©), FL310--- SAR is 30 nm/b. of fuel @) FL310—-SGRis 27 nm/b of fuel ‘The following data is provided for the pilot of small turbojet aircraft who is planning a westbound flight and ‘wishes to set up for maximum range cruise: FL310 FL350 TAS 440 430 Wind 270/60 270/90- Fuel Flow 4500 RB 1250 From the information, determine the best flight level for cruise? FL350 SAR is 284 nmilb, FL350 SGR is 272 nmilb. FL310 SAR is 294 nmilb, FL310 SGRis 262 nmilb. AeroCourse) ae) oe)Canadian ATPL Workbook TWO ENGINE FLIGHT PLANNING: LONG RANGE CRUISE - 35,000 ft (ISA = -54.3°C) Headwind -kt- Tailwind 2 g 5 $ ak wi Tomo TOGW Increasing —>37, ey &) Performance and Weight & Balance Given the following information, determine the time enroute and the landing weight for a business jet lying at 75 Indicated Mach cruise: (See page 5-24) Cruising Altitude 35,000 feet A.S.L. HW ‘Headwind Component 50 kis. Distance to be flown 1000N.M. ‘Temperature at Flight Altitude ISA +10° C ‘Take-Off Weight 18,500 Ibs. ~ 60 a) hrs, $0 mins., 13,400 Ibs. b) 3 brs, 00 mins., 14,300 Ibs. c) 3 hrs. 30-mins., 13,550 Ibs. @, 3 hrs. 04 mins., 14,950 Ibs. oe Given the following information, determine the time enroute and the fuel required for a business jet flying at 75 Mach eruise: (See page 5-24) Cruising Altitude 35,000 feet A.S.L. Tailwind Component 50 kts. Distance to be flown 1400 NM. ‘Temperature at Flight Altitude ISA -10° C ‘Take-Off Weight 18,700 Ibs. a) 4 hrs, 22 mins., 4750 Ibs. b) 3 hrs. 50 mins., 4600 Ibs. ©) 3hrs, 25 mins., 3850 Ibs. 6) hrs. 18 mins., 3800 Ibs. Given the following information, determine the time enroute and the landing weight for # business jet flying at 75 Indicated Mach cruise: (See page 5-24) Cruising Altitude 35,000 feet A.S.L. ‘Temperature at Flight Altitude ISA +10° C ‘Take-off Weight 17,400 Ibs. a) 4 hrs. 08 mins., 12,840 Ibs. b) 3 hs. $5 mins., 13,150 Ibs, ©) 3 hrs, 05 mins., 13,860 Ibs. d)—-2hrs, 43 mins., 14,250 Ibs. AeroCoursé oeCanadian ATPL Workbook ‘LRC CRUISE 250/0.70 CUMB = 0.70/250 DESCENT ISA ~ 25% C.G, - NORMAL ACUIs — A/I OFF bo 1600 1700 1800 Ice (GROUND Nu) 24 AeroCourse OS Ours) 1416 18 202 5] LANDING WEIGHT (1000 KG)Performance and Weight & Balance 40. Given the following information, determine the time enroute and the fuel required for a regional jet flying at long range cruise: (See page 5-26) Cruising Altitude 35,000 feet A.S.L. Headwind Componest 50 kts. Distance to be flown 1500 N.M. ‘Temperature at Flight Altitude ISA. Landing Weight 16,000 kgs. (4 hs. 42 mins., 3850 kgs. ) 3 hrs. 00 mins., 2600 kgs. ©) 4hrs. 12 mins., 4150 kgs. @)—-3hrs. 48 mins., 3150 kgs. san 2 ~ Gr pret (ay & Given the following information, determine the time enroute and the fuel required for a regional jet flying at “tong range eruise: (See page 5-26) * Cruising Altitude 31,000 feet A.S.L. Tailwind Component 50 kis. Distance to be flown 1500 N.M. ‘Temperature at Flight Altitude ISA Landing Weight 17,000 kgs. a) —-Dhrs, 22 mins., 2250 kgs. b) 3 hrs. 06 mins., 2800 kgs. ©) 3 hrs. 36 mins., 3300 kgs. @) 4 hrs. 42 mins., 4000 kgs. _ Given the following information, determine the time enroute and the fuel required for a regional jet flying at Ne long range cruise: (See page 5-26) Cruising Altitude 10,000 feet A.S.L. __...Tailwind Component 40 kt Distance to be flown 1260 NM. ‘Temperature at Flight Altitude ISA Landing Weight 19,000 kgs. a) 2 hrs. 42 mins., 2800 kgs. b) 3 hrs, 18 mins., 3250 kgs. \ 4 hs. 24 mins., 4500 kgs. 4) 4 hrs. 36 mins., 4150 kgs. AeroCourse) oo12 1" 10 Trip Time - Hours © ‘ ‘3 20 10 0 -10 ISA Dev. °C} 50-# x : 3 2 Wind-Kts 8 100-# 0 5-28 Canadian ATPL Workbook LONG RANGE CRUISE 1000 2000 Trip Distance - Na Based on: 340/.84 climb 84/290/250 descent ce. i ‘400 450 500 550 600 650 Landing Weight - 1000 Ib 3000 © 4000» 5000 -al Ground Miles AeroCourse) 280 260 240 220 200 180 160 140 120 100 80 60 40 20 Fuel Required - 1000 Ib,Performance and Weight & Balance 6) Given the following information, determine the time enroute and the fuel required for a heavy jet transport \ 7 aizcrat fying at 84 Indicated Mach: (See page 5-28) Cruising Altitude 37,000 feet A.S.L. Headwind Component 50 kts Distance to be flown 2400 N.M. ‘Temperature at Flight Altitude ISA +10 degrees C Landing Weight 550,000 LBS. a) hrs. 30 mins., 97,000 Ibs. b) 4 hrs. 50 mins., 97,000 Ibs. @© Shs. 45 mins., 124,000 Ibs. ) 6 hrs. 00 mins., 124,000 Ibs. 44.) Given the following information, determine the time enroute and the fuel required for a heavy jet transport (A aircraft lying at 84 Indicated Mach: (See page 5-28) Cruising Altitude 29,000 feet A.S.L. ‘Tailwind Component 50 kts. Distance to be flown 3200 N.M. ‘Temperature at Flight Altitude ISA -10 degrees C Landing Weight 600,000 LBS. a) 8 hrs. 12 mins., 196,000 Ibs. b) — Ghrs, 38 mins., 156,000 Ibs. ©) Shrs, 47 mins., 124,000 tbs. d) — Shrs. 00 mins., 118,000 Ibs. we) Given the following information, determine the time enroute and the fuel required for a heavy jet transport aircraft flying at .84 Indicated Mach: (See page 5-28) Cruising Altitude 37,000 feet A.S.L. ‘Headwind Component 50 kts. Distance to be flown 3500 NM. ‘Temperature at Flight Altitude ISA -10 degrees C Landing Weight 600,000 LBS. a) 6 hrs. 30 mins., 160,000 Ibs. b) —Thrs. 00 mins., 160,000 Ibs. ©) 8hrs. 20 mins., 198,000 Ibs. d) 8 hrs, 30 mins., 198,000 Ibs. 5-29 AeroCourse)Canadian ATPL Workbook 46. Given the following information, determine the minimum landing distance for a heavy jet transport aircraft with good braking conditions reported: (see table below & if required, other graphs/tables from this section) Landing Weight — 145,000 KG. Brake Configuration ~ MED ‘Active Runway — Runway 23 ‘Tower Reported Wind ~ 290 degrees M at 20 kts. ‘Runway Elevation ~ 3540 feet A.S.L, Altimeter Setting - 29.72 (inches Hig) ‘Temperature ~ (+ 28°C) Runway Slope ~ Nil Approach Speed ~ VREF plus 10 Reverse Thrust — Normal a) 6540 ») 7300 ©) 7760 8680 47. Given the following information, determine the minimum landing distance for a heavy jet transport aircraft with poor braking conditions reported: (see table below & if required, other graphs/tables from this section) Landing Weight ~ 135,000 KG. Brake Configuration ~ MAX Manual Active Runway ~ Runway 35 Tower Reported Wind - 230 degrees M at 20 kts, Runway Elevation — 1870 feet A.S.L. Altimeter Setting 29.72 (inches Hg,). ‘Temperature — (101° C) Runway Slope ~ 1% down Approach Speed ~ VREF plus 10 Reverse Thrust — One Inoperative a) 7650 b) 8100 ©) 10020 11860 Normal Configuration Landing Distance Flap 25 ~ Dry Runway ‘Good Reported Braking Action 3725 /708 144 LANDING DISTANGE AND ADJUSTMENT (FT) Re wr ‘AT | whDAD | —SLOPEAD) | TEMPADU ] VREF | REVERSE pst_| as | aos_|_ per toxts PERS periore | ad) _| THRUSTADS BRAGG | T5000 | FERSOODKG | PER 100) [READ | TAL | GOWN | UP | ABV | aLw [PERIOKTS) ONE | NO’ consiguranon | WONG | asvELW | FTaBOvE | wwo | wind | iL | Hu | ie& | Ish | ABove "| Rev | REV weort | tons |seaceve| ig Z ers macaw | ao | ivan —[ ofa | ao | so | | | mo | oo | oo [a0 wed emo | sense | 10 | ooo | wo | o | 2 [|] 7 | o [0 Low a0 | —zzoraa0 | 250 [ago | sa60_| 170 | ze0 | 20 | 250 | seo [iso [oo Medium Reported Braking Action HAKMANUAL [6030 — [70860 [A] SO] 00 fae | ED aro vaocsro | 200 | sn | v260 | 100 | to | ao [oo | m0 Tso | 1100 Poor Reported Braking Action waxwanuaL | 7790 | 20-20 [20 | 400 | raw | om | wo | ao | ao | ex | 160 | sero ED Tero | 2a | a0 — [a [“se0 [10 | 0 anor 100 Tet aad AeroCoursé)sh. 52. Performance and Weight & Balance ‘CRFI (Canadian Runway Friction Index) readings are included in runway surface condition reports when runways are contaminated with... a) b) °) ad ‘The following CRFI report was issued at 1400 GMT for the Lethbridge Airport a) by 2B a5 ‘The CRF reading at the Moncton Airport is given as 35 and the wind is blowing from 250 degrees (M). What would be the maximum wind speed that an aireraft should accept for landing on Runway 29 in this rain, ice, slush or wet snow ice and snow, slush or wet snow rain, ice, packed snow or slush, mist, rain, ice, slush or packed snow. ‘CRET YQL RWY 05/23 -5 .28 14002 Calculate the maximum recommended crosswind component that the pilot of a jet aircraft should accept for a landing on Runway 05 (See pages 5-32) 13 kets 11 kts. 8 kts, kts. situation? (Refer to page 5-32) @ ») °) a ‘The following CRFI report was issued at 2100 GMT for the Timmins Airport: d °) d) ‘The following CRFI report was issued at 1800 GMT for the Stephenville Airport: a) b) °) d 20 kts, 16 kts. IB kts. 11 kts CREI YTS RWY 03/21 -4.30 21002, Calculate the minimum runway required for a jet aireraft with a landing weight of $7,000 Ibs. for Runway 21, if the wind is blowing from 250 degrees at 13 kts, and the field elevation is 967 ft. (See pages 5-32 and 5-33) 5430 fi. 5770 ft 5950 ft 6500 1. a TOF EAT CRFI-YIT RWY 10/28 -6 .28 18002, Calculate the minimum runway requited for a jet aircraft with a landing weight of 50,000 Ibs. on Runway 28, if the wind is blowing from 150 degrees at 15 kts. and the field elevation is 208. (See pages 5-32 and 5-33) 5500 ft. 5950 ft. 6380 ft. 6950 ft. —— AeroCourse) ee) 531Performance and Weight & Balance Canadian Runway Friction Index (CRFY — Recommended Landing Distances Lea as Joss] os | oas | a4 | 035 | 02 | o28 8 | Landing Field Length Landing Bare and Dey Distance ean Recommends Landing Distinces (Dispatch Fctors Removed) Dispatch Factors Unfactored 95% Confidence Level am | tH soo | 2150 |2260] 3390 | 3880 [3750 aon [asso] aaoo | erso | siso [5450 | 5820 | 3000 | asrn 2000 | 3540 | 360} 3810 | 3990 |azio | aaxo [asco] san | sa20 | si00 | Goce | e3eo | sss | 2857 2200 | 3010 | 4ns0] anu | saro | css0| 2940 |320| sson | seao | «200 | esoo | sco | cer | sian 2400 | 4260 J-420] 4590 | 4800 | S060 | ss70cfs720] s9s0 | earn | oo | asm | 2320 | 4009 | 3429 2600 | 4500 | 770} soo | siso J54s0 | sr [186] caso | cro | T100 | 200 | rao | assy | ante 2800 | 4920 | 00] sao0 | sao [5820] 160 |osso] 6770 | z110 | 7500 | suo | s1s0 | 30a? | 4000 3000} 5230 | sea | soso | se70 J 120 | e320 Joss0| riso | z480 | 7870 | s170 | io | sooo | dase 3200] 5520 |5720| 5540 | 6200 [e300 | son {7200} 7500 | 7ea0 | g230 | &s20 | saso | 3353 | as7l 3400 | S10 Jeo10| e240 | 6500 Jast0| zis 20] 7520 | s170 | 500 | sseo | o1s0 | Sccr | ass7 360 | aso | sam | 6830 | 6800 J7i20] 2400 [2040] a1so | e490 | s8s0 | 170 | 980) sooo | saa sac0 | so {sn ea0o | 7080 | 400] 7790 |s2v0] sso | e790 | 9180 | 70 J 90 | sss | a9 000, 6600 |ska0| z070 | 7350 [7680 so70 fas29| 750 | soso | 4c0 | ors0 | i000] caer | sria JET 60% Factored Landing Distance Required ——~_Flap 25 a rane exc | owe | rome | wort | soon ome [aso | e200 | aa00 | ewe] ere = exon | ao | Zara, | an80 5 | ao | 000 seono [see [sore | e170 | eno seo este [see | aoa [ore ee so s4ano | ~ eo —[ 3060 | —2on0 | nso | sae - et er a aE | sro00 | seo | —s7a0 | —a670 | ato [nen somo» [ssw [oa | asia aeons «ecco [2800 | ~see0 | aro] ano] sean ‘acm0 | azo | —se00 | —a080 | arto | —aseo a7ec0 | — 0 | ~s600 | ats | a0 | son ‘ecco [sa] —steo | 3500 | ano] aren zst00 [580 | en | 3500 ssn Lar CONDITIONS: ZERO WIND ZERO SLOPE Inxs ang distance by 1801 des ownspe incest P00" 10 eat Boxsse lana tne 150 ot hes nd AeroCourse) a33. 54, 55. 5-34 Canadian ATPL Workbook “The take-off second segment climb gradient for a large two-engine turbine-powered aircraft starts at the time the landing gear is fully retracted and continues until the airplane reaches an altitude, above the runway, of at Jeast 400 ft or a specified level off height. The aircraft must maintain a climb gradient of ___in this climb segment, a) 12% ) 400 ft/min, ©) 300 ft/min, @) 200 ft/min. AeroCourse))10000 Flight Operations & Human Factors Pressurization Schedule Table 8000 6000 4000 2000 sk 32. 33, 34, Normal Pressurization Envelope =| er nN Maximum Pressure] Les Differential aes Schedule 8.6 PSI sf 2) - 5000 40000 18000 20000 26000 With reference to the pressurization schedule table above what would the cabin altitude be iff you were flying at 20,000 feet following the Auto/Normal aircraf, pressurization schedule. a) 8000 feet. b) 5000 feet. ©) 2000 feet. 4) 1000 feet. ‘The pressurization system of a large commuter turbo-prop aircraft has been given a maintenance release for the auto mode part of the system provided itis operated in the manual mode only. What cabin altitude would you selec, if your flight planned cruise altitude is 16000 feet and you wanted to obtain the maximum aircraft pressure differential? 8) 8000 ») 4000 ©) 2500 d) 500 hundred feet above elevation. A battery temperature overheat warning on the cockpit advisory panel could be an indication of a: a) Tow battery voltage. b) high battery voltage ©) battery thermal runaway 4) ground power failure causing battery depletion,6-10 35 37. 38, Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘What functions do Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs) and Inverters (INVs) perform on aireraft electrical systems? 2) —_TRU’sare employed to convert direct current to alternating current and INV’s are employed to convert alternating current to direct current. b) —_TRU’s are employed to covert alternating current to direct current and INV’s are employed to ‘convert direct current to alternating current. ©) TRU’s provide automatic bus fault protection on an aircraft DC systenrand INV"s provide automatic overload protection on an aircraft AC system. 4) TRU’sare employed as voltage regulators in AC systems and INV’s are employed as voltage regulators of DC systems. “An aircraft's electrical bus bar system can best be described as: 2) carefully organized bunch of separate but interconnected circuits which allow important circuits to be isolated or powered by alternate sources in the event of component failure. b) multifunctional devices which provide voltage regulation, generator current direction, circuit and generator protection. ©) __asystem of electrical circuits used to control power fluctuations or surges. @)_apassive system which transfers electrical power between AC and DC powered systems depending on system demand. ‘Aircraft electrical circuit protection is provided by which of the following devices. 1, Transformer Reotifier Unit (TRU) 2. Generator Control Unit (GCU) 3. Variable Frequency Generator (AC GEN) 4. Inverter (NV) 5. Cireuit Breaker (CB) 6 AC and DC Emergency Busses (EMER BUS) a) 126 135 2) 25 d 236 Many large turbine aireraft employ jet pumps to draw fuel into collector lines in order to ensue the high pressure fuel pump has enough fucl to supply the engine. These jet pumps are activated by: 2) high pressure fuel from the high pressure fuel pump. b) electrical boost pumps located in the fuel tanks. ©) the hydromechanical fuel control unit. @) direct drive from the engine accessory section. AeroCourse)Flight Operations & Human Factors 39. Magnasticks are fuel quantity measuring devices which: a) —_are located beneath the fuel caps and allow for manual measuring of fuel quantity. b) are located in the refueling panel to permit selection of the desired fuel load and automatic shut-off of the refueling valves when the desired fuel load is boarded. ©) are located beneath the wings and allow for manual measuring of fuel quantity. 4) are located within the fuel tanks and transmit accurate quantity measurements to the fuel ‘quantity gauges in the cockpit. 40, What function(s) are preformed by an accumulator on an aircraft hydraulic system? a) To prevent fluid flow in the event of a serous system leak. b) To absorb power fluctuations or surges in the system during high system demands and store system pressure to provide backup for key operations in case of pump failure. ©) _Diverts fluid back to the reservoir as system pressure increases beyond a prescribed level. 4) To selectively channel hydraulic fluid to a component or components to accomplish specific tasks, 41. The accumulator of an aireraft hydraulic system is pre-loaded to 1,000 PSI. If the system normally ‘operates at a pressure of 3,000 PSI, the system pressure gauge and the accumulator gauge reading after engine start-up would be respectively: a) Oand 1,000 PSI b) 3,000 and 4,000 PSI ©) 3,000 and 3,000 PST 4,000 and 1,000 PST 42. One method to compensate for variable system demands when one or more subsystems are activated on a hydraulic system is through the installation of a) pressure control valves . b) fixed displacement hydraulic pumps ©) ___vatiable displacement hydraulic pumps 4) actuating eylinders 43, Which of the following statements best describe the operation of a typical anti-skid device? a) __Asanaircraft begins to skid, pumping of the brakes initializes the anti-skid system to control brake pressure in order to obtain maximum stopping performance. b) When the anti-skid control module detects that the wheel speed transducer velocity is lower than the reference speed velocity, a brake release signal is commanded. ©) When a wheel speed transducer detects a rapid deceleration, a signal is sent to the normal brake metering valve so that a constant metered pressure is applied to the brakes. 4) When the anti-skid contro! module detects 2 rapid deceleration in wheel speed, a signal is sent to the anti-skid warning system to advise the crew that a full skid condition is imminent. AeroCourse) a AcroCourse’)Canadian ATPL Workbook 44, Which of the following statements is true with reference to an anti-skid system's lock wheel and ‘touchdown protection? a) Lock wheel protection is implemented to automatically brake the main gear wheels following, selection of landing gear retraction. 1b) Lock wheel protection prevents tire scuffing by commanding full brake release following a bounced landing ©) Touchdown protection is implemented when a skid condition is detected within 5 seconds after main gear compression. 8) Touchdown protection prevents inadvertent brake application prior to wheel spin up on low friction runways, SAMPLE MEL BELOW IS FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY 2. NUMBER INSTALLED SYSTEM & SEQUENCE ITEM bearers 3. NUMBER REQUIRED FOR DISPATCH 4, REMARKS OR EXCEPTIONS 71-1 Engine Intake 2 (0) One may be inoperative in the closed Bypass Doors position provided the flight is not ‘conducted in known or forecast icing conditions. 2 (M) (©) May be inoperative in the open position provided: ‘a)OAT along the route flown is less than ISA + 25 degrees C, b)Related engine oil temperature indicator is operative and is monitored,and c)Associated engine intake heater is verified operational before each departure into known or forecast icing conditions Inoperative Engine Intake Bypass Door(s) must be placarded in the flight compartment. Operating procedures Case 1 (Engine Intake Bypass door Closed). 1. Ensure aircraft is not dispatched into known ieing conditions. on AeroCourse AeroCourse)Flight Operations & Human Factors Case 2 (Engine Intake Bypass Door Open). 1. ‘The OAT (outside air temperature along the route of flight Is less than ISA. + 25° C} 2, Start and run the associated engine(s) to ground idle. Check that engine oll temperature, when stabilized, is in the normal range (GREEN ARC) on ENG OIL indicator. 3. Shut down associated engine(s). 4. Monitor engine ofl temperature during fight. Maintenance Procedures Case I (Engine Intake Bypass door Closed). 1 2 Placard ENGINE INTAKE BYPASS DOOR panel in flight compartment, Make appropriate entry in the journey log. Case 2 (Engine Intake Bypass Doors Open). Z Start associated engine(s) and run to ground idle. Ensure all busses are powered Select VARABLE FREQUENCY switch, at AC SYSTEM power monitor panel, to 115 VAC electrical bus associated with inoperative Engine Bypass Door and monitor load. Check that OAT outside air temperature is below 7° C Press associated OPN/HTR switch on ENGINE INTAKE BYPASS DOOR panel and cheek that: a. associated HITR light at ENGINE INTAKE BYPASS DOOR panel illuminates; and b. selected VARIABLE FREQUENCY LOAD reading is decreasing. Press associated CLOSED switchlight on ENGINE INTAKE BYPASS DOOR panel and check that: a, associated H'TR light at ENGINE INTAKE BYPASS DOOR panel illuminates; and b, selected VARIABLE FREQUENCY LOAD reading is decreasing. ‘Shut down engine(s) 45. With reference to MINIMUM EQUIPMENT LISTS (MEL) which of the following statement is true? a) A Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) is the basis for development of individual ‘operator MELs which take into consideration the operator's particular aircraft equipment configuration and operational conditions. b) Any equipment not listed in an MEL, which is related to the airworthiness or operating regulations of the aircraft must be operative. ©) _An MEL is intended to permit operation with inoperative items of equipment for a period of ~~" time until Fepairs cam be accomplished. It is important that repairs be accomplished at the carliest opportunity. @)— Allof the above. 46. Referring to the sample MEL above which of the following statements is true, a) With the engine bypass doors in the open position the flight can be operated unrestricted. ) The aircraft may be operated unrestricted with one engine bypass door inoperative during the summer months only. ©) The aircraft may be flown with both engine intake bypass doors inoperative in the open position, provided itis done in accordance with the operating and maintenance procedures. A maintenance release is not required to depart if the aircraft is not going to be flown in icing conditions. AeroCourse) ee nue ae41. 48, 49, 50. 51 Canadian ATPL Workbook Upon reviewing the logbook for a large turbo-prop aircraft, a flight crew ascertains that one Engine Intake Bypass Door is unserviceable in the open position, After reviewing MEL 71-1 and noting that icing conditions are forecasted along their intended routing, the crew determines... a) that maintenance personnel must conduct an engine intake heater test prior to each departure from any aerodrome along their intended routing. b) that either the flight crew or maintenance personnel can perform the engine intake heater test, prior to departure from any aerodrome along their intended routing ©) that the flight crew only has to monitor the engine oil indications once maintenance personnel has tested the Engine Intake Bypass Door heater on the first flight of the day. d) that maintenance personnel must conduct an engine intake heater test prior to each departure from an aerodrome where there is a maintenance base along their intended routing. INDUCED drag is: a) proportional to the square of the speed b) _ proportional to the product of the coefficient of skin friction and the length of the mean camber line ©) inversely proportional to the square of the speed 4) directly proportional to the product of the speed and the square of the wing span section When operating an aircraft in the slow flight speed range, the requited power is greater than that for endurance because: a) more of the aircraft's total weight is acting along the longitudinal axis b) the L/D ratio is reduced and the drag increased ©) greater deflection of elevator control surface is causing a reduced downwash and a distorted boundary layer 4) the L/Dratio is increased and the drag is increased In order to obtain maximum range in a constant wind condition, a pilot who is flying a turbojet aircraft at near optimum altitude and at the recommended airspeed should: a ») 9 a maintain airspeed and reduce power as the fuel weight decreases due to bun-off reduce power and indicated airspeed as fuel weight decreases ‘maintain a constant power setting and allow the indicated airspeed to attain the maximum allowable value fly at an airspeed which comesponds to 0.66 x L/D max. x V" To cruise a particular aeroplane at a 100 kts., which is its best L/D speed, a thrust of 1,000 Ibs. is needed. In order to cruise this same aeroplane at 200 kts., the requited thrust would be a) b) °) 4d) 1,500 tbs 2,000 Ibs. 4,000 Ibs. 8,000 Ibs. AeroCourse)52, 33, 54, 56. 57. Flight Operations & Human Factors Which of the following features will improve the lateral stability of an aeroplane? a) wing dihedral. b) ——_ayaw damper system. ©) servo tabs. 4) a differential aileron system, ‘An aircraft having wings with a pronounced DIHEDRAL encounters turbulence which causes one ‘wing to lower. Before the dihedral design feature can provide the forces needed to restore the original "wings-level" position: a) the aircraft must initiate a tum towards the "raised" wing b) the aircraft must develop @ sideslip towards the "dropped" wing ©) the aircraft must develop a yawing movement towards the “raised” wing 4) the aircraft must initiate a skid towards the "dropped" wing, If the C of G of an aircraft is at the most aft limit, what would be the effect on the stability of this aircraft a) increased longitudinal stability about the lateral axis. b) increased lateral stability about the longitudinal axis. ©) decreased longitudinal stability about the lateral axis. @) decreased lateral stability about the longitudinal axis, An aircraft has greater longitudinal stability when: a) the centre of pressure is forward of the C of G b) the wings have @ high angle of incidence ©) the Cof Gis well forward of the centre of pressure 4) the wings have a high dihedral angle To execute a correctly coordinated Rate One turn when flying at a TAS of 200 kis., the angle of bank shouldbe: i a a) 18 b) 22° °°) 2? da ww If the normal stalling speed of an aeroplane is 95 kts, what would it be while executing a 60 degree banked tum? a) 190 kts. b) 143 its. ©) 134Kts. 122k. urse’\ 6-15 AeroCourse6-16 58, 59, 60, 6. 62, 63, Canadian ATPL Workbook Wing tip vortices of MINIMUM strength would be developed by an aircraft: a) flying at a low speed, having a short wing span, and with a clean configuration b) flying at a high speed, having a long wing span, and with a clean configuration ©) flying at a low speed, having a long wing span, and with a landing configuration d) flying ata high speed, having a short wing span, and with a clean configuration With respect to departing aircraft, itis known that vortex generation is most severe: a) in that airspace immediately following the point of rotation b) during the initial acceleration period following the application of take-off thrust ©) at that moment when the aircraft climbs through an altitude equal to three times its wing span @) during the third segment of the aircraft's take-off flight path profile ‘Wake turbulence research has disclosed that wing tip vortices of maximum strength are generated by aircraft operating under conditions of: 2) high gross weight, clean configuration and high speed b) —_lowgross weight, landing configuration and low speed ©) high gross weight, clean configuration and low speed 4) low gross weight, landing configuration and high speed Considering the flight in turbulent conditions ata given airspeed, what will the effect of « decrease in aircraft gross weight be: a) acceleration forces will be higher b) positive acceleration forces will be higher while negative acceleration forces will be lower ©) acceleration forces will be lower @) acceleration forces will show no appreciable variation ‘The "Critical Engine" on a 4-engine propeller-driven aircraft is considered as: a) either #2 or #3 inboard depending upon propeller rotation b) either #1 or #4 outboard depending upon propeller rotation ©) _ the engine whose hydraulic pump provides the flow of fluid to operate the power boost controls 4 theengine which has the "Master" propeller of the synchrophaser system ‘The speed of sound in the atmosphere is solely dependent upon: a) air temperature >) trucaltitude ©) pressure altitude d) the mumber of ionized particles present in a given volume of air AeroCourse)65, 66. 67. 68, Within which of the following Mach ranges does the transonie flight regime usually occur? a) b) °) ad Flight Operations & Human Factors 1.20M to 2.25M. 0.85M to 1.50M. 0.75M to 1.20M. 0.50M to 1.15M. ‘The type of airflow normally present within the transonie regime of flight is: a) D °) a subsonic and hypersonic. transonic and supersonic. supersonic and hypersonic, subsonic and supersonic, As airflow passes through a shock wave, pressure, temperature and velocity are affected. Which of the following statements would be correct? a) b) °) ad pressure increases, temperature decreases, velocity decreases pressure decreases, temperature increases, velocity increases pressure decreases, temperature decreases, velocity increases pressure increases, temperature increases, velocity decreases Critical Mach Number may be defined as: a) b) ° @ the speed at which maximum buffeting is experienced by an aircraft in high mach flight the speed at which supersonic airflow covers the entire wing area of an aircraft the boundary between transonic and supersonic airflow the highest flight speed possible without supersonic airflow over any part of the aircraft Limiting Mach Number may be defined as: 2 aaa), 09. db) °°) ad the speed at which supersonic airflow covers the entire wing area of an aircraft. the Mach speed at which a shock wave first appears on the aircraft. ‘the maximum operating speed of an aircraft in relation to the speed of sound. the speed at which boundary layer separation first occurs. Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to the Mach Meter? a) b) °° ad ‘This instrument contains an airspeed capsule and an altitude capsule. Temperature and density errors occur and must be corrected by using a flight computer. This instrument calculates the ratio between the aircraft's TAS and the local speed of sound. ‘The same Mach number can occur at markedly different indicated air speeds. AeroCourse) —— 617Canadian ATPL Workbook 0001): UBIO S010, f9'=WV ‘Gr'=W ‘6 12 yosuo HEUNA of aiBuy yueg ,1¢ ‘Bo'L 1 18840 JUNG y.o00'0s 2 80 = ‘q) 000°001 - iw’ :sojdusexs| BIVONNOS LSNO 133218] "AL 0001) 14B19M SSID} AeroCourse) 6-18Flight Operations & Human Factors 70. In high speed aircraft, SWEEPBACK design is utilized to: a) _prevent wing tip stalling at approach speeds ) increase Critical Mach Number ©) prevent aileron control reversal during transonic flight @) prevent Mach Tuck Ti. A large aircraft with a conventional straight wing, relative to one with a swept wing, will have: a) the same Critical Mach Number b) — ahigher Critical Mach Number ©) no Critical Mach Number at all 6) a lower Critical Mach Number 72, Anundesitable effect of Sweepback design in a jet aircraft is: a) tendency to enter “Jet Upset" when flying in turbulence at high altitudes. b) the formation of leading edge vortices at maneuvering speeds. ©) "Dutch Roll" tendency. 4) Tongitudinal instability during operation at subsonie speeds. 73. A DC-9 aircraft wishes to cruise at FL350 on a scheduled flight and will have an estimated gross ‘weight of 90,000 Ibs. at that altitude. If this aircraft were to encounter turbulence causing it to experience a Load Factor of 1.3, what would happen to both the low speed buffet boundary and the high speed buffet boundary? (see page 6-18) a) _ the low speed buffet boundary would decrease while the high speed buffet boundary would increase b) both the high speed and low speed buffet boundaries would inerease <@y the low speed buffet boundary would increase while the high speed buffet boundary would decrease ® ___ both the high speed and low speed buffet boundaries would de 74, What is the highest altitude that « crew of a DC-9 aircraft should fly, with an estimated gross weight ‘of 100,000 Ibs. utilizing a safety factor of 1.5 ? (see page 6-18) a) 35,000 feet b) 30,000 feet ©) 25,000 feet. 8) 20,000 feet. AeroCoursé ols AcroCours i)| (0) uous avon oz st on (avn x) nouvoor °9°2 or oF, 0 Benn HON GBLYOIONI ras 09'0 SFO O50 S¥°O OF'0 SEO OFO Canadian ATPL Workbook CRUISE MANEUVERING SPEED oa a75, 71, 2B. ~~~ a) ~~ “increase lateral stability during high speed cruise 79. Flight Operations & Human Factors ‘What is the highest altitude that a crew of a CL-65 should fly on a scheduled flight, with an estimated ross weight of 25,000 kgs. and a C of G 15% MAC utilizing a safety factor of 1.4? (see page 6-20) a) 33,000 feet b) 35,000 feet ©) 37,000 feet. 4) 39,000 feet. ‘What speed range could a crew of a CL-65 regional jet fly with a 25% MAC C of G at an estimated ‘gross weight of 23000kgs., uilizing a safety factor of 1.5 for forecasted turbulence at an altitude of 39,000 feet? (see page 6-20) @ — Mach 74 10.78 b) Mach .68 to.82 ©) Mach 61 to.85 @)—_Youare unable to climb to FL390 ‘When jet transport aircraft are flown at high altitudes, which of the following factors should be considered in preventing the onset of Mach Buffet. 1) Aircraft Weight 2) Fuel Loading 3) Angle of Bank 4) Upper Level Winds 5) Temperature 6) Turbulence Gust Loads ~ 7) Mach Crit Speed 8) Altitude a) 1267 bd) 13,68 oS) 23,57 d 3458 Wing VORTEX GENERATORS are employed on jet aireraft to: b) improve control response while in the approach configuration ©) delay boundary layer separation @) prevent Mach "tuck" and "roll-off" at transonic speeds On a large transport aircraft, what is the purpose of leading edge flaps? a) to increase the angle of attack at low airspeeds, b) to increase the coefficient of lift by changing the camber of wing ©) to increase the aspect ratio of the wing 4) prevent boundary layer separation AeroCourse) ») 6-21622 80. 8L 82, 83, 84, 85. Canadian ATPL Workbook Leading edge slats on large jet transport aircraft provide lift augmentation by: a) increasing the angle of attack at the wing root as compared to the wing tip. b) changing the geometrical or aerodynamic twist of the wing “washout”. ©) reducing the Reynolds number and drag against the surface of the wing. 4) delaying air flow separation High performance wings often incorporate a mechanisin whose function is to direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge through a slot and along the top of the wing at high angles of attack. This mechanism is known as a: a) slat. >) spoileron. ©) Krueger flap. 4) boundary layer energizer. Which of the following devices installed on sweptback wings dectease the tendency to develop spanwise airflow and increase low-speed control effectiveness? a) stall strips. b) vortex generators. ©) wing fence @) boundary layer energizers. are installed on the upper wing surfaces directly forward of the flaps and consist of ‘panels that assist the ailerons in obtaining maximum roll rates. a) High speed ailerons b) _Loadalleviation devices, ©) Roll spoilers @—Aileron trim tabs On large transport aircraft spoilers provide which of the following aerodynamic characteristics? a) Reduce lift and increase drag, b) —_Inerease lift and decrease drag, ©) Increase lift and drag, @) Increase the camber of the wing to produce more lift. Which of the following is true with respect to winglets? a) they reduce profile drag but increase induced drag b) _theyreduce induced drag but do cause some increase in form drag. ©) they increase profile drag and induced drag @) they increase induced drag but reduce parasite drag AeroCourse AeroCourse)86. 87. 88. 89. Flight Operations & Human Factors ‘An automatic system on large transport category aircraft which utilize inputs from air data computers to provide yaw damping and tum coordination is known as a: a) Rudder Trim Actuator b) Yaw Damper ©) Auto Fight Control System 4) Digital Flight Rudder Controller One of the main advantages of CANARD design is: a) _areduction of "Dutch Roll" tendency b) —_adelay of boundary layer separation ©) areduced stall speeds 4) anincrease in critical mach number The calibrated airspeed corrected for adiabatic compressible flow for a certain altitude is known as: a) Te Airspeed b) Rectified Airspeed ©) Absolute Airspeed 4) Equivalent Airspeed Which of the following air conditions would provide the highest indicated airspeed? a) cold, moist. b) hot, humid. ©) cold, dry. hot dry. ‘The following information relates to a turbojet aircraft cruising at FL330: licated Airspeed: 267 kts, Indicated Outside Air Temperature: -28°C_ Instrument & Position Error: +8 kts. ‘Temperature Rise: 20°C Compressibility Error: “13 kts, ‘The computed True Air speed a) 456 kts b) 477 kts, ©) 427 kts, 2 433 kts 6-23 AeroCoursé))6-24 91 93. 95. Canadian ATPL Workbook An aircraft is cruising at FL370 at a T.A.S. of 470 kts., If the speed of sound at that altitude is 580 Ikis,, what is the Mach No.? a) 0.78 @) —O8t 0.91 d 1.00 ‘The following, wind report relates to a westbound flight of a small business jet aircraft 27aods How long would this aircraft take to cover a distance of 150 NM. iit cruised at 83 Mach? 484 mach tase SAG, a) 31 mins. -40 b) 25 mins. = 20 mins. ayy @) 17 mins ‘Hydroplaning is a phenomenon that occurs when a tire loses contact with the runway surface duc to a ‘buildup of water between the tire and the runway. Hydroplaning is a function of: a) the square of the tire pressure. b) _the gross weight of the aircraft. ©) themumber and size of the aircraft tires. 4) the speed of the airplane, tire pressure and water depth. Which of the following statements is true with reference to dynamic hydroplaning? a) It may occur when a runway is contaminated by a thin film of water b) —_Itnormally occurs with a thin film of water on smooth runways or where rubber deposits are ~ present causing the tire to loose partial contact with the runway. ©) The tre lifts off the pavement and rides on a wedge of water which causes wheel rotation to stop. It normally does not occur unless a severe rain storm is in progress. 4) _Ttoccurs when heat is generated during 2 locked wheel condition, which causes the tire to revert back to its chemical properties. A small executive jet aircraft has a main wheel pressure of 135 PSI, and a nosewheel pressure of 45 PSI. Which of the following statements about hydroplaning would be correct? a) the main wheels will hydroplane at a lower speed than the nosewheel b) the nosewheel will hydroplane at a lower speed than the main wheels ¢) both the nosewheel and main wheels will hydroplane at the same speed 4) the main wheels will only hydroplane in a crosswind situation and the nosewhee! will only hydroplane in a tum AeroCourse)98, 100. i 4! Flight Operations & Human Factors An aircraft that is flying an ILS approach initially in a headwind situation encounters an abrupt wind shear zone which involves a headwind to a calm wind shear. Which of the following represents the power management reqiuired to track the 3 degree glide slope at a constant airspeed during the conditions given? 2) _ Initially, a higher than normal power setting followed by a further power increase as the shear” is encountered; then a reduction in power to stabilize on glide slope. b) Initially, a lower than normal power setting followed by a further power decrease as the shear zone is encountered; then an increase in power to stabilize on glide slope. ©) Initially, a higher than normal power setting followed by a decrease at the shear zone; then an inerease when on glide slope. 4) Initially, a lower than normal power setting followed by an increase at the shear zone; no further power change required. When @ constant headwind component shears {0 a calm wind, the initial cockpit indications to a pilot would be: a) aircraft pitches up; altitude and indicated airspeed increase b) aircraft pitches down; altitude and indicated airspeed decrease ©) iteraft pitches up; indicated airspeed decreases; allitude increases 4) aircraft pitches down; altitude decreases; indicated airspeed increases (On take off you encounter vertical wind shear. What actions should be taken with the aircraft with respect to angle of attack and airspeed? 2) Increase the angle of attack to 10° nose up b) Ease the nose forward to increase the airspeed © Set full power and increase the angle of atack to achieve an airspeed just above the stick ‘ shaker. 4) Set the power and angle of attack to achieve turbulent penetration speed An aeroplane flying at a given altitude experiences a complete blockage ofits static air source. Ifthe acroplane were to depart from that altitude, the airspeed indicator would: = a) —_over-read during either descent or climb b) show no change during any change of altitude ©) under-read during either descent or climb 4) under-tead during a climb and over-read during a descent ‘The pendulous unit and the vanes of a pressure-driven attitude indicator are responsible for the acceleration errors noticeable during the take-off phase of flight. ‘The false indications presented to the pilot are: a) a false left bank b) a false right bank ©) afalse climb 4) a false descent AeroCourse) os ——Canadian ATPL Workbook (9. Your approach is such that you arrive over the landing threshold with a higher than normal airspeed. Which technique should you use to achieve the shortest landing ground roll? a) set the aircraft down normally and use aerodynamic braking ) let the aircraft float until the normal touchdown speed is achieved then use ‘medium braking 9 set the aircraft down as soon as possible and use maximum braking {) flare the aircraft slightly lower than normal and apply the brakes before touchdown, 102. Anaireraft flying an approach to a runway with a PAPI (Precision Approach Path Indicator) system would have which of the following indications, if it was slightly above the approach slope? LM smh oom! fi [i a) b) °) d) 103, Aircraft with an EWH of 25 fect or less would have which of the following indication on a 3 - Bar VASIS if the aircraft was on the glideslope? [N sali sefi\ ee(i a) b) °) d) OOn On ooo Ooo 104, A light aircraft is about to take-off on a non-radar departure following a heavy aircraft. What delay period should be applied between the two departures if both aircraft commence the take roll from the threshold? a) 2minutes, b) minute ©) 3 minutes @) none , but the controller will. provide wake turbulence advisory Gee AeroCourse)105, 106. 107. 108, 109. Flight Operations & Human Factors " The Clean Aircraft Concept" refers to: 8) The in-flight use of aircraft de-icing and anti-icing equipment. b) —_Desicing and anti-icing fluids application principals. ©) Takeoff being prohibited when frost, snow or ice is adhering to any critical surface of the aircraft An Air Carrier’s operating philosophy with regards to passenger public relations. ‘With reference to ground icing operations, the critical surfaces of an aircraft means: a) wings, control surfaces, horizontal stabilizers, antennas, vertical stabilizers and windscreens. 'b) wings, control surfaces, propellers, horizontal stabilizers, vertical stabilizers and the upper surface of fuselage in the case of aircraft with rear mounted engines. ©) wings, landing gear, propellers, horizontal stabilizers, vertical stabilizers, windscreens. @) wings, landing gear, propellers, horizontal stabilizers, vertical stabilizers and the upper surface of fuselage in the case of aircraft with rear mounted engines. Frost, ice or snow formations having the thickness and surface roughness similar to medium/coarse sand paper on the leading edge and the upper surface of a wing can: a) Decrease lift by 30% and increase drag by 40% b) Decrease lift by 10% and increase drag by 20% ©) Decrease lift by 40% 4) Tnerease drag by 20% Following the application of Type I and Type IV fluid, the crew observe snow on top of the applied fluids. Which of the following is true? a) Takeofis permitted when the aircrafts rotation speed over 100 knots. b) —Takeoffis not permitted. c) _Takeoffis permitted provided the appropriate maximum hold over time is not exceeded, @)—Takeoffis permitted ifthe aireraft is de-iced first and then later anti-iced Following the application of Type I and Type TV fluid, the erew members observe snow on the aircraft's critical surfaces. Which of the following is true? a) Takeoff is permitted when the aircraft's rotation speed over 100 knots. b) Takeoff is not permitted ©) Takeoff'is permitted provided the appropriate maximum hold over time is not exceeded. @ —_Takeoffis permitted ifthe aircraft is de-iced first and then later anti-iced. AeroCourse) oar pete ours6-28 110. i. 12. 13. 114. Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘The wing icing phenomenon called Cold-Soaking has been known to: 8) cause the formation of clear ice on top of the wing areas above the fuel tanks. b) cause frost to form on the upper and lower part on the wings near the fuel tanks, ©) cause frost to form in conditions of high relative humidity even when temperatures are well above freezing, d) _allof the above. ‘The formation of clear ice above the fuel tanks of cold soaked wings is dependant on: a) the type, depth and liquid content of precipitation, ambient air temperature and wing temperature b) the type fuel, the temperature of the fuel at altitude is cruise and liquid content of precipitation at altitude. ©) the type, depth and liquid content of precipitation, ambient air temperature and the type of de- icing fluid applied prior to takeoff. 4) the type of fuel and speed at which the aircraft is fueled, ambient air temperature and wing temperature In flight as ice accumulates on a wing... 2) the stalling speed will increase and the angle at which the wing will stall will decrease. }) the stalling speed will decrease and the angle at which the wing will stall will increase. ©) there will be no change in the stall characteristics of the aircraft 4) the aircraft will not be able to be loaded to the MCTOW. ‘Type I De-Ieing fluid with a higher concentration of Glycol would be able to do which of the following with respect to re-freezing and further accumulation after being applied to aircraft surfuces; a) prevents re-freezing and further accumulation for the duration of holdover time. b) is strictly used for removal of contamination and does nothing to prevent re-freezing or further accumulation, ©) provides some protection against re-freezing but not much against further accumulation, d) Only prevents further accumulation. Holdover time is the estimated time that the application of de-icing/anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost, ice of the accumulation of snow on treated surfaces of an aircraft. Holdover time begins... 8) when the application of a de-icing/anti-icing fluid is completed, and expires when the fluid losses it’s effectiveness, b) __ when the final application of a de-icing/anti-icing fluid commences, and expires when the fluid blows off during the takeoff roll ©) when the final application of a de-icing/anti-icing fluid commences, and expires when the fluid losses it’s effectiveness. 4) when the first application of a de-icing/anti-icing fluid commences, and expires when the fluid losses it’s effectiveness. AeroCourse)1s. 116. Flight Operations & Human Factors Following the application of Type I fluid, what is the maximum time before a pre-takeoff inspection is required if the outside air temperature is -5°C in snow? (refer to page 6-30) a) G minutes, b) — 3:minutes, ©) 25 minutes 1:15 minutes, Following the application of Type IV fluid during nighttime operations, what is the maximum time before a pre-takeoff inspection is required if the temperature is -6°C in light freezing rain? (refer to page 6-30) 8) 1:00 minutes, b) 47 minutes ©) 35 minutes @) 30 minutes AeroCourse aad AeroCoursCanadian ATPL Workbook SAE TYPE I FLUID HOLDOVER TABLE (For Training Purposes Only) APPROXIMATE HOLDOVER TIMES (HOURS:MINUTES) UNDER VARIOUS WEATHER CONDITIONS: 2 anon oat | ssrost | ereezne | wooerare | “FREEZNG | wewT | FCoiD | omer 260] | roe | MSxow soxteo | Ss 3 ean” | SOME #90] ous | eros | corare | oasoce | oo-ces | ox200s oT0 GAITON: ~7 | ous | oosos | cosccs | oos-cce | co200s | yo GAUTON ye _} Siidethes exer seiow | os | cccccs | ooocor | ] : NOTE (1) During conditions that apply to aircraft protection for active frost. (2) Use light freezing rain holdover times if positive identification of freezing drizzle is not possible. (1) Heavy snow, snow pellets, snow grains, ice pellets, moderate and heavy freezing rain, and hail TYPE IV FLUID HOLDOVER TABLE (For Training Purposes Only) APPROXIMATE HOLDOVER TIMES (HOURS:MINUTES) UNDER VARIOUS WEATHER CONDITIONS uci oat Freeze ~weneezine otal) | -enost | "Foo" | snow | “orzzie™ | FREEZING | RAIN ON COLD T anoveo | asoveo | 2c | 220-300 | aso-rao| 00200 | casa | oxo-080 eros | x00 | 220s | casrts| ooze | oas-r00 | Gauiow No HOLDOVER BELOW ~ [tm 8100] som | oso-s00 | o2s088 | woso-1as | ~o20080 | THES wes ! East BELOW | {BE9%,,] 000 | 020200 | c2004s | BELOW | Uva Pu huis probed fr wo blow 24°C. Consider us of SAE Type Mlsbalow -2°C ea During conditions that apply to aircraft protection for active frost. The lowest use temperature is limited to -10°C. Use light freezing rain holdover times if positive identification of freezing drizzle is not possible. 7 AeroCoursé AeroCourse’)417, 1s. 19. 120. 121. 122. Flight Operations & Human Factors Human Factors ‘Oxygen is transported by the circulating blood to the tissues of the body combined with which of the following carrier molecules: a) gamma globulin b) activated blood platelets ©) hemoglobin in the erythrocytes d) fibrinogen Hypoxia may be defined as: 8) a deficiency in the amount of oxygen reaching bodily tissues, b) an excessive accumulation of carbon monoxide bodily tissues. ©) _atype of neuromuscular irritability due to excess carbon dioxide in the blood. 4) an abnormally low level of carbon dioxide in the blood. Which of the following parts of the human body is the most sensitive to the occurrence of hypoxia? a) The vestibular apparatus b) The pineal gland ©) The adrenal medulla 4) The retina of the eye. Some of the subjective symptoms of hypoxia might include: a) combative behavior, loss of hearing, delirium. b) apprehension, headache, euphoria ©) slight nausea, ringing in the ears, laryngeal edema. : @) vertigo, itching, gastrointestinal pain ‘The duration of “Useful Consciousness” for an altitude of 40,000 feet is: a) Sto 12 seconds b) 15 to 30 seconds ©) 30 to45 seconds @) 40 t055 seconds What would the duration of useful “Useful Consciousness” for a person at 30,000 feet following a rapid depressurization: a) 8 to 13 seconds b) 15 to 30 seconds, ©) 45 to 75 seconds. 401055 seconds. AeroCoursé) Gl a123. 124, 125, 126, 127. Canadian ATPL Workbook While cruising at altitude, the pilot of a commercial aircraft notices that one of his/her passengers is having respiratory difficulties, and from the symptoms presented, is unable to ascertain whether the cause is hypoxia or hyperventilation. He/She should immediately: a) check the passenger's fingernails for any sign of discoloration and treat accordingly 5) treat the passenger for hyperventilation ©) descend immediately until the symptoms are recognizable or have disappeared 4) treat the passenger for hypoxia Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to hyperventilation? a) hyperventilation symptoms always develop very rapidly. b) it isan abnormal increase in the rate and depth of breathing. ©) itresults in an abnormally low level of carbon dioxide in the blood. d) there are very few distinguishable differences between the signs and symptoms of hyperventilation and hypoxia. ‘A condition characterized by a variety of symptoms resulting from exposure to low barometric pressures that cause inert gases (mainly nitrogen) to come out of solution and form bubbles in body tissues and fluids is known as: a) denitrogenation disorder. b) _hypobaric syndrome. ©) pulmonary syndrome. 4) decompression sickness. A very painful disorder caused by nitrogen bubbles in the blood migrating to joint spaces is called: a) paresis. b) ~ the chokes, ©) pulmonary edema, d) the bends. ‘A potentially very dangerous condition due to nitrogen bubbles present in the smaller blood vessels of the lungs and in the tissue of the trachea is: a) parasthesia. b) _thebends. ©) the chokes. 4) pulmonary stenosis.Flight Operations & Human Factors 128, Carbon Monoxide is: a) A highly toxic pungent gas that is often produced by faulty hot water heaters, b) A constituent of the natural gas molecule. ©) Ahighly toxic, odorless gas that is a product of incomplete fuel combustion. @) A flammable, odorless, toxic gas released by aircraft batteries during charging. 129, From the statements listed below concerning the physiological aspects of exposure to carbon ‘monoxide, select those which are true ‘The binding affinity of carbon monoxide for hemoglobin is about 210 times that of oxygen. ‘The symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning can be easily recognized, ‘The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood is reduced in heavy smokers. Severe carbon monoxide poisoning can be very quickly cured once the source of the gas is removed and fresh air is breathed, BE, Heavy smokers may become hypoxic at altitudes below 10,000 feet ASL. pomp a) A,B,D bd) AGE 3) B&D ® BDE 130, An initial symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning would be: 2) euphoria. b) rapid, shallow respiration. ©) tingling in the extremities, @) blurred thinking. 131. The lethal effect of carbon monoxide on humans is due to the fact that it: a) can cause irritation of the small airways and subsequent alveolar collapse 1b) __hasamuch greater binding affinity to hemoglobin than does O,, ©) inactivates dehydrogenase enzymes and precipitates fatal convulsions. 4) is selectively toxic to central nervous system tissue. 132. The four areas of the body that are most sensitive to the mechanical effect of trapped gas are the: 8) joints, pericardial sac, inner ear, cerebral ventricles, }) outer ear, pleural cavity, subdural space, eye sockets. c) middle ear, sinuses, teeth, gastrointestinal tract, 4) spinal eord, outer ear, medulla, pleural cavity ase 6-33 AeroCourse))6-34 133, 134, 137, 138, Canadian ATPL Workbook ‘The pilot of an aircraft climbing to an assigned altitude experiences a “popping” sensation within the ears, He/she should be aware that: a) this is anormal occurrence and is due to air escaping through the Eustachian tubes into the back of the throat. b) this sensation can indicate a severe sinus infection that requires medical attention. ©) airis trying to enter the inner ear and is causing a pulsating movement of the fluid in the semicircular canals. 4) outside ambient air pressure is forcing the eardrum to push inward against trapped air bubbles which subsequently burst. Which of the following could be utilized by a pilot in order to equalize the pressure in the middle ear during descent from cruise altitude? a) the aerosinusitis technique. b) _ the barotrauma technique. ©) __ the valsalva technique. d) the isobaric technique. ‘The primary focusing clement of the human eye (i... that structure through which most of the light refraction occurs) is the a) pupil. b) optic disk. ) lens 4) comea. “The two types of photoreceptor cells in the retina of the eye are known as rods and cones. The rods: a) are responsible for daylight vision as well as for all high resolution vision. b) ate Jess numerous and less sensitive than are the cones. ©) _ are very sensitive to color. 4) are responsible for night vision. Any flight crew member donating blood should not fly: a) until he/she has consulted with a physician b) until he/she has consulted with a Regional Aviation Medical Officer ©) _ forat least 48 hours 4d) forat least 8 hours Alcohol consumption, even in small quantities can: a) result in enhanced cognitive ability. b) increase the susceptibility of an individual to hypoxia ©) drastically lower a person's blood pressure. €) temporarily improve short term memory AeroCourse’ =eFlight Operations & Human Factors 139. With reference to reducing the alcohol content in an individual’s bloodstream, you should know that: a) Therate at which alcohol leaves the blood due fo metabolic processes in the liver is always much faster in a person who is a frequent consumer. b) Such a reduction can only be attained over the passage of time. ©) Alcohol removal from the blood can be accelerated. by taking an analgesic such acetaminophen or ASA (acetylsalicylic acid). @ Drinking strong, black cofice, breathing 100% oxygen or taking a cold shower are effective ‘ways of speeding up the of alcohol metabolism or removal, 140, A very insidious illusion known as the “Black Hole Tlusion” can be experienced by pilots while on approach at night over dark terrain with no lights below or to the sides of the approach path, and with only the distant airport runway lights to provide visual stimuli, This illusion induces a false perception of aircraft altitude and results in the pilot flying the approach: 8) toohigh. b) not aligned with the runway centerline and below Vase ©) toolow. @) ata speed that is well above Vase 141, When you stare at an isolated, small, fixed light at night, it may appear to: a) move b) fluctuate in size. ©) change in intensity 4) altemate in color through the visible spectrum. 142, While holding on a taxiway, an aeroplane that was holding next to you with its wing tip in line with, yours, edges forward to proceed to the active runway. Your brain interprets this peripheral visual information as though you were moving backwards and causes you to apply additional brake pressure. The illusion that you have just experienced is known as the: a) aitokinetic illusion. 7 a = b) false visual reference illusion. ©) veetion illusion 4) coriolis illusion. 143. During the transition from instrument to visual reference, the pilot of an aircraft on a night approach to alighted, downslope runway is likely to develop the illusion of being: a) high, resulting in a dangerously low approach, b) low, causing the aircraft to cross the threshold low and slow ©) high, resulting in an abnormally high rate of descent close to the threshold ) Tow, causing the aircraft to cross the threshold high and fast AeroCourse) sad AeroCourse)144, 14s 146, 141, 148, Canadian ATPL Workbook Rain on an aircraft's windscreen may cause a runway to appear? a) Farther away and higher. b) Closer and lower. ©) Farther away and lower. ) Closer and higher. Shortly after commencing a missed approach you enter cloud, what sensations are you likely to have? a) Anormal climb. b) A high nose up attitude thus having the tendency of lowering the nose. ©) A descent thus having the tendency of raising the nose. 4) Nosensation at all, ‘You are on an instrument approach at night. During the transition phase to a lighted up slope runway there is the possible illusion of ‘when there is rain on the windscreen. a) being too low and thus decreasing the rate of descent b) _being very low and thus increasing the rate of descent ©) __ being very high and thus increasing the rate of descent @) being too high and thus decreasing the rate of descent ‘You are flying a low altitude on a downwind with a strong tailwind. What illusions will be sensed as ‘you enter the base turn? a) aircraft slipping, airspeed decreasing b) aircraft skidding, airspeed increasing ©) aircraft skidding, airspeed decreasing @) aircraft slipping, airspeed increasing It is known that improper pilot seat height adjustment has been responsible for a number of specific anding problems and accidents. A pilot seat that has been adjusted to a height position that is too low would most likely: a) adversely affect a pilot’s instrument scan technique. b) result in an undetected undershoot during a visual approach. ©) cause the pilot to fly a visual approach at a too low a speed. 4) result in an undetected overshoot during a visual approach. AeroCourse))149. 150, 151 Flight Operations & Human Factors Which of the following tum and slip indicators show the greatest angle of bank? 8 A B Cc aA iB °). ¢ A a and C Consider the scenario where a VER pilot with limited flying experience encounters deteriorating weather conditions during a cross-country flight and decides to press on. In this case, which of the following statements would best describe this pilot's decision making behavior? a) A person will tend to react only to information that confirms that his/her decision was right and to discount or ignore other subsequent information that doesn’t support that decision, b) False assumptions once made can still be easily changed ©) _ A person’s subconscious will tend to focus on unfavorable incoming information during times of stress, 4) __Ttis very difficult to shape new information to support personal preferences. CFIT (Controlled Flight Into Terrain) continues to pose a major threat to the safety of aircraft passengers and crew worldwide. The definition of CFIT accident is an event which: 8) Anacroplane impacts the ground, water, or an obstacle during the approach and landing phase of flight b) An aeroplane is inadvertently flown into the ground, water, or an obstacle while the crew was involved with an in-flight emergency. ©) Anairworthy and normally fimetioning aeroplane is inadvertently flown into the ground, ‘water, or an obstacle with no prior awareness by the crew. 4) Anaeroplane that was mechanically sound is inadvertently flown into the terrain while the crew was following erroneous navigation signals from ground based navigation aids or was receiving radar vectors from ATC6-38 Canadian ATPL Workbook AeroCourse Acrotourscoace ogokoeceoego sags arsaacoAs ceo oorrasos Flight Operations & Human Factors Answer Key Flight OPS General 2 4B 45, 47. 48, 49, 50, 51 52. 33. 54, 55. 56. 37. 58. 59. 61. 62. 65. 66. 67. 68. 70. 1 2. B, 74, 75. 76. 71. 28. 79. 80, gl. 82, 83. 85. 86, 87. 88. aL. 92. 93. 95. 98, 100. 104, 108. 109, 110, ul 112, 1S, 116. 17 121 122, 123 os acccsogcocarcoanno ETE OR TOOOOTEOT TORO RATO AeroCourse) ence) 101. 402. 103. 105. 106. 107. 14. 118, 119. 120. nogcaeca toons agra cose cooRo rE sone Teo Ao eres 124, 125. 126, 127, 128. 129, 130, 131. 132, 133, 134, 135, 136. 137, 138, 139. 141 142, 143, 144, 145, 146. 147, 148. 149, 150. 151. opecoorcacsorcoaacsocarcoaas 6-39)Canadian ATPL WorkbookCANADIAN ATPL WORKBOOK ATPL FORMULAS DISTANCE TO STATION = MAX PAYLOAD = MZFW - BOW BOW VHF RECEPTION DISTANCE = 1.23 “WALT ALT = Aircraft’s Altitude above the station in feet GS x TIME IN MINUTES DEGREES OF BEARING CHANGE MZEW - Max Zero Fuel Weight ~ Basie Operating Weight TRE OF GRAVITY SHIFT. = 5 DISTANCE TO CRITICAL POINT ‘SPECIFIC AIR RANGE = D x BR TAS FUEL FLOW SPECIFIC GROUND RANGE = GROUND SPEED. FUEL FLOW agg 9 oe Weight of the object that must be moved Gross Weight of the Aircraft Number of inches that the C of G must be moved Distance between cargo compartments Total Trip Distance Reduced or 3 Engine Groundspeed Home Reduced or 3 Engine Groundspeed OutCANADIAN ATPL WORKBOOK $= The Speed of Sound at Flight Temperature STALL SPEED OF AN 60" = 2G AIRCRAFT EXECUTING = NORMAL STALLSPEED *-V LOAD FACTOR 43" = 1.46 A BANKED TURN NON-ROTATING TIRE HYDROPLANING SPEED = 7.77V TIRE PRESSURE DURING LANDING ROTATING TIRE, DURING TAKE-OFF HYDROPLANING SPEED ~ 9.07V TIRE PRESSURE AeroCourseé)CANADIAN ATPL WORKBOOK, References and Recommended Reading Barr, James C. 1993. Airborne Weather Radar: A User's Guide. 1" edition. Ames, Iowa. Iowa State University Press Brown, Gregory N. and Mark J. Holt. 1995. The Turbine Pilot's Flight Manual 1" edition. Ames, Iowa. Iowa State University Press Department of National Defense Canada, 1993. Air Command Weather Manual (TP 9352B). Winnipeg MAN, CFIMPC DND Dole, Charles E. 1989. Flight Theory for Pilots 3 edition Casper , WY. IAP, Inc 1996, From The Ground Up. Ottawa Canada: Aviation Publishers Co. Limited Hurt , Jr, H. H, 1965. Aerodynamics for Naval Operators 2* edition. Office of the Chief of Naval Operations Aviation Training Division. Lester, Peter F. 1993. Turbulence : a new perspective for pilots. 1" edition. Englewood, CO. Jeppesen Sanderson, Inc, Lombardo, David. 1993. Advanced Aircraft Systems : understanding your airplane, \* edition, Blue Ridge Summit, PA. TAB Books- a division of McGraw-Hill, Inc Pommainville, Piette 1996. AWARE Aviation Weather .. Playing By The Rules 2" edition Montreal QUE ‘Environment Canada Pratt and Whitney Technical Services Department. 1998. The Aircraft Gas Turbine Engine and Its Operation. 6° edition, United Technologies Aircraft Corporation. ‘Transport Canada. 1997. Instrument Procedures Manual (TP2076E) 4" edition, Ottawa ON. Aeronautical Publication Services (AARNG) a ‘Transport Canada (AARA). The Pilot’s guide to Medical Human Factors Ottawa ON. Canada Communication Group - Publishing ‘Transport Canada (AARA). 1999. Aeronautical Information mANUAL (TC AIM.) Canada (TP 14371E) Ottawa ON. ‘Canada Communication Group - Publishing ‘Transport Canada 1999 Canadian Aviation Regulations (CARs), Part IV TP 12603 B, Part VI General Operating and Flight Rules TP 12604 E, Part VII Commercial Air Services TP 12605 E Ottawa ON Canada Communication Group - Publishing Webb Jim, 1990. Fly The Wing. 2" edition Ames, Towa. Towa State University Press In addition to the above references, Pilot Training Manuals for many aircraft type were consulted, ineluding de Havilland Dash 8, Aerospatiale/Actitalia ATR 42, Beechcraft King Air BE-200 and BE-1900, McDonnall Douglas DC-10 and Boeing 737. AeroCoursé)Online IFR Procedures Course now available to refresh your IFR knowledge Learn at home, at your own pace, with our new online IFR Procedures Course. This online course will refresh your IFR knowledge prior to taking the ATPL in-class seminar or it can be taken asa stand-alone course at anytime to enhance your knowledge of some of ‘the more complex IFR topics. The online course provides students with the added value of learning the core IFR information in an easy to access format through the internet. The course takes approximately 4-6 hours and guides you step-by-step through the Canada Air Pilot approach plates and the more complicated procedures of IFR flight. When you sign up, a password is provided that allows you access to the program online, The online course is recommended to be taken in-addition to one of our leading aviation seminars. The AeroCourse IFR and ATPL seminars are three-day courses, designed to lead students in a logical progression through the steps and knowledge necessary to obtain their IFR or ATPL ratings. The seminars are in-class sessions run across Canada, taught by highly experienced and knowledgeable pilots. Register online today at www.aerocourse.com or call 1-800-461-8857 The online Procedures Course can be purchased online, itis included in the cost when you sign up for an Aero Course IFR Ground School seminar. 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Results guaranteed! ATPLSeminar ‘This three day couse is designed to show pilos all the aspects of the ATPL license, The curriculum is complete and provides a solid foundation on regulations, advanced alrraft systems, meteorology and Ait Cartier procedures, Ii intended to help students prepare forthe ATPL SAMRA and SARON exams, and provide pilots with the knowledge framework air car's expect of today’s ATP, plot. We regularly canvass the air cariers to ensure our material is on the ‘mark. This course Is also reconimended as a refresher to pilots ‘wishing t0 upgrade their skills, Course content + Revlew of Met theory and practical Met + High alttuce meteorology, Jestreams, turbulence, thunderstarms, ‘aitbome weather radar and wind shear + Basic and advanced radio ads including VOR, ADF, DME, INS, IRS/FMS, GPS, EFIS and TCAS + CARs, CARS’ standards and ze cartier operations + Advanced aircraft systems including gas turbine engines, ight controls, aydraulies, braking systems, pressurization and electrical sjstems + Basic and high speed aerodyremics + Advanced navigation Including PNR and CP + Weight and balance, practical exercises and alr camler procedures + Akcraft performance during take-of,cruse and landings and associated chars and tables TER Seminar This three day course Is designed (0 lead students in a logical progression trough the steps and knowledge necessary to camry ut an IFR fight. Is not only intended to help students prepare for the IFR INRAT exam, lt show pilots the practical world of instrument flying, The course provides a sold foundation in all the practical and theoretical aspects of IFR fight The course is further ‘enhanced by our instructors actual FR experiences. Course content ‘+ CARs, CARS’ standards and air canter operations + IERMINIMA take-off, approach, landing and alternate + Canada Air Pilot approach plates, LO charts + TFR fight planning ‘TER departure, terminal and approach provedures + TFR procedures, holds, approach ents, contact and visual approaches, etc ‘Basie Met theory and practical Met including aviation forecast, reports and chars + Introduction to thunderstonns, aitbome weather radar, ‘and wind shear + Detalled weather exercises ‘+ Radio aids — VOR, ADB, ILS, DME and GPS + A tafic control procedures and communication ‘+ Alrmanship including Canadian Runway Friction Index, ‘VASIS & PAPI and approach lighting Review sample exam questions and exam wailing techniques Por a schedule of national IFR and ATPL seminars or to register for a ground school seminar, call toll-free 1 800 461-8857 AeroCourse ES