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ROSE PHARMACY JAIPUR GPAT / NIPER (JEE) / DI

1991
PY: Pharmaceutical Science
Section-I
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 150
Choose the correct answers.

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Q.1 Cortisone is
a) 4-Pregnan-12α, 21-diol-3, 20- di-one b) 4-Pregnen-17α, 21-diol-3, 11, 20- tri-one
c) 4-Pregnan-16α, 21-diol-3, 20- di-one d) 4-Pregnan-17α, 21-diol-3, 11, 20- tri-one
Q.2 Pregnenolone and intermediate in the synthesis of steroids on oppeneur oxidation gives
a) Progesterone b) 9α-Fluorocortisol c) Triamicinolone d) α-methyl prednisolone

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Q.3 In congestive cardiac failure, digitalis glycosides are used because it increase
a) the heart rate b) the force of myocardial contraction c) the venous pressure

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d) the cardiac filling pressure
Q.4 Shrinkage of gel by extrusion of liquid is called
a) Synersis b) Dilatancy c) Plasticity d) Ebullition
Q.5 The sweetening agent commonly used in chewable tablet formula is
a) Sucrose b) Cyclamate sodium c) Saccharin sodium d) Mannitol

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Q.6 Carbamazepine is tricyclic antidepressant. It is classified as
a) Benzodiazepine b) Arylalkanolamine c) Immunnostilbene d) Benzimidazole
Q.7 Sulfa drugs can be conveniently estimated using the reagent.
a) 4, 4’-Dithio bis-(2-nitrobenzoic acid) b) Tris-(hydroxy methyl)-amino methane
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c) N-(1-naphthyl) Ethylenediamine d) N-ethylmaleimide
Q.8 Testosterone can be commercially synthesized from
a) Sarasaspogenin b) Mexogenin c) Oubagenin d) Halotensin
Q.9 Ehrlich’s reagent is
a) Bismuth iodide solution b) p-dimethyl aniline solution in methanol
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c) p-dimethyl amino benzaldehyde solution d) p-dimethyl aniline solution in ethanol

Q.10 The neurotransmitter released at the end of the sympathetic nerve fibre is
a) Epinephrine b) nor-epinephrine c) Acetylcholine d) Physiostigmine
Q.11 The dose of a drug is 5 mg per kg body weight. How much of the drug is required
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for a boy of 12 year who’s weight 21 kg?

a) 0.5 mg b) 1.0 mg c) 1.5 mg d) 2.0 mg
Q.12 Rancidity of a fat is due to
a) Oxidation b) Saponification c) Hydrolysis d) Neutralization
Q.13 Resolution of a Monochromator is the ability to distinguish
a) As separate entities adjacent spectral features b) Separation of different colours
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c) Separation of UV light and visible light d) Dispersing characteristics.

Q.14 Important activities noticed in Testosterone
a) Androgenic, Myotropic and anabolic b) Progesterone, Myotropic and anabolic
c) Estrogenic, Mitotic and anabolic d) Androgenic, Optometric and Katabolic
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Q.15 Fruits which are derived from the plants umbelliferae are all of the type
a) Cremocarp b) Pericarp c) Epicarp d) Mesocarp
Q.16 Amygdaline on hydrolysis gives
a) Mandelonitrile + Benzaldehyde b) Mandelonitrile + Benzaldehyde + Glucose
c) Mandelonitrile + Glucose d) Mandelonitrile + Benzaldehyde + Rhamanose
Q.17 Erythromycin is an antibiotic. It belongs to the class of

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 ROSE PHARMACY JAIPUR GPAT / NIPER (JEE) / DI

a) β-lactam b) Aminoglycoside c) Macrolide d) Peptide

Q.18 Vinblastine and Vincristine act by
a) Interfering with the synthesis of transfer RNA b) Inhibiting the fragmentation of DNA
c) Binding to protein d) Incorporating into folic acid metabolism
Q.19 Water attack test is used to identify the alkalinity in
a) Type I glass b) Type II glass c) Type III glass d) All of these type

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Q.20 Select the drug that will aggravate bronchial asthma
a) Amphetamine b) Morphine c) Propranolol d) Tubocurarine
Q.21 The presence of impaired electron in metal ion complex meant for spectral analysis
is called

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a) Paramagnetic b) Diamagnetic c) Bimagnetic d) Unimagnetic
Q.22 The biological half life of a drug
a) is a constant physical property of the drug b) is a constant chemical property of

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the drug c) may be increased in patient with renal impaired function. d) may be
decreased in patient with renal impaired function.
Q.23 The Ilkovic equation in the polarographic measurement is given by
a) V = πr4t∆P/8l.n. b) Id = 607nCD½m⅔t1/6 c) V = H2R2/2 . e/m d) P0 – P =(1-e-abc)

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Q.24 The vitamin has deodorant property
a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin E
Q.25 A type of flow in which viscosity increases when the substance is agitated is
a) Plastic b) Pseudo plastic c) Dilatant d) Thixotropic
Q.26 Sub-coating is given to the tablets
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a) to increase the bulkiness b) to avoid deterioration due to microbial attack
c) to prevent the solubility in acid medium d) to avoid stickiness
Q.27 Water resistance of glass containers are tested by measuring
a) amount of alkali released into water b) amount of acid released into water
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c) estimation of silicate d) turbidity

Q.28 the pH of a pharmaceutical buffer system can be calculated by
a) pH partition theory b) Noyes Whitney law c) Henderson Hasselbalch equation
d) Michaelis Menten equation
Q.29 Chlorambucil is an anticancer drug its structure is
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HOOC O
a) b) Cl
NH C NH
H2N N(CH2CH2Cl)2 N O

O N(CH2CH2Cl)2
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c) HOOC (CH2)3 N(CH2CH2Cl) 2 d) NH

Q.30 The stationary phase in thin layer chromatography is

a) Adsorbent b) Liquid held between glass plate and adsorbent
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c) Glass plate d) none of these

Q.31 Digoxin
a) has its action terminate metabolism in liver b) has plasma t1/2 of 6 hours
c) should be given half of its normal dose to hypothyroid patient
d) provides benefit in atrial fibrillation increasing the force of contraction
Q.32 The ingredients mentioned below are commonly used as the coating agent for film

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 ROSE PHARMACY JAIPUR GPAT / NIPER (JEE) / DI

coating except
a) Cellulose acetate phthalate b) carnauba wax c) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose
d) sodium carboxy methyl cellulose
Q.33 Morphine is drug of choice for
a) Urinary tract infection b) Colic pain c) Bronchial asthma d) Cardiac asthma
Q.34 Drugs used in the treatment of bronchial asthma usually

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a) Block both α and β-adrenergic receptors b) stimulate α-receptor but block β-
receptor c) Stimulate β-receptor but block α-receptors d) Stimulate α and β-receptors
Q.35 The formula for the preparation of Ascorbic acid injection I.P. may include
a) Glacial acetic acid b) Dilute hydrochloric acid c) Propylene glycol

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d) sodium carbonate or sodium bicarbonate or sodium hydroxide in water
Q.36 The chemical reaction shown below can be carried out by using the reagent listed
from a to e. indicate the correct one.

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CH3COHN COCl
CH3COHN

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O
a) CH3MgBr b) CuCl2 c) AlCl3 d) CH3COONa
Q.37 Lactose is most widely used diluent in the tablet formulation. However, it is not
used in the formulation of one of the following:
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a) Pyrazinamide b) Ibuprofen c) Sulphacetamide d) Isoniazid
Q.38 The area under serum concentration time curve of drug represents
a) The biological half life of the drug b) The amount of drug in the original dosage
form c) The amount of drug absorbed d) The amount of drug excreted in the urine.
Q.39 Vinca alkaloids are isolated from:
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a) Catharanthus roseus and contain indole and indoline moieties. b) Roseo

chromogens and contain indole and indoline moieties c) Catharanthus roseus and
contain quinoline and Quinaldine d) Catharanthus indicus and contain quinoline & Indole
Q.40 Aprotic solvents have
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a) Acidic properties b) Basic properties c) Both Acidic properties and Basic

properties d) No Acidic or Basic properties
Match the followings
Q.1 The antibiotics and their adverse effects are mentioned below. Match them correctly.
i) Chlormphenicol a) Haemolytic anaemia
ii) Erythromycin b) Hepatotoxicity
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iii) Cephalosporin c) CNS toxicity

iv) Streptomycin d) Nephrotoxicity
e) Ototoxicity
Q.2 Permitted limits of ethylene oxide in various products are mentioned below.
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Match them correctly.

i) Ophthalmic preparations a) 5 ppm
ii) Hard gelatin capsule shells b) 10 ppm
iii) Surgical material c) 15 ppm
iv) Intra uterine device d) 25 ppm
e) 35 ppm

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 ROSE PHARMACY JAIPUR GPAT / NIPER (JEE) / DI

Q.3 Expressions for the following terms are given below in a to e. Match them correctly.
i) Beer’s law a) T = I/I0
ii) Absorptivity b) log I0/I = abc
iii) Transmission c) A = log (1/T)
iv) Absorbance d) a = bc
e) Iab = I0 (1 – e-2.3 abc)

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Q.4 The side chains as given from (i) to (iv) is present in local anaesthetics listed a to e..
Match them correctly.
i) COO-CH2-CH2-N(C2H5)2 a) Procaine
ii) COO-CH2-CH3 b) Lidocaine

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iii) COO-CH2-CH2-CH2-CH3 c) Benzocaine
iv) NH-CO-CH2-N(C2H5)2 d) Butamben
e) Dibucaine

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Q.5 Match the suitable test organisms for assaying the antibiotics mentioned below.
i) Doxycycline a) Bacillus cereus
ii) Rifampicin b) Bacillus pumilus
iii) Erythromycin c) Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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iv) Tetracycline d) Bacillus subtilis
e) Micrococcus luteus
Q.6 The region of spectrum for the following are the given in terms of wavelength (cm)
in a to e. Match them correctly.
i) X-rays a) 10-6 – 10-5
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ii) UV- rays b) 10-5 – 10-4
iii) Visible- rays c) 10-8 – 10-6
iv) Infra red rays d) 10-4 – 10-2
e) 10-2 – 10
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Q.7 The causative organism of disease is given and the drug used for the treatment is
indicated in a to e. Match them correctly.
i) E. histolytica a) Clofazimine
ii) P. falciparum b) Chlormphenicol
iii) S. typhi c) Emetine
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iv) M. leprae d) Pyremethamine

e) Mebendazole
Q.8 Match the correct mechanism of action for the diuretic agents mentioned below..
i) Acetazolamide a) Increase serum K+ level
ii) Chlorthalidone b) Competitively antagonizes Aldosterone
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iii) Spironolactone c) Inhibits active Na+ secretion, decreasing K+ excretion in distal nephron
iv) Triamterene d) Inhibits carbonic anhydrase
e) inhibits electrolyte reabsorption in the distal portion of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle
Q.9 The position 5 of barbituric acid is mentioned below have substituents as indicated in
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a to e. Match them properly to identify correct structure.

R1 R2
i) Phenobarbital a) –C2H5, -C2H5
ii) Barbital b) –C2H5, -CH(CH3)2
iii) Probarbital c) –C2H5, –C6H5
iv) Pentobarbital d) –C2H5, -CH(CH3)-C3H7

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 ROSE PHARMACY JAIPUR GPAT / NIPER (JEE) / DI

e) –CH3, –C6H5
Q.10 Following drugs can be prepared starting from the intermediates given in a to e.
Match them appropriately.
i) Atenolol a) 4-OH pheylacetamide
ii) Ibuprofen b) γ-picoline
iii) Haloperidol c) 4-NH2 quinoline

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iv) Isoniazid d) Isobutyl benzene
e) 4-(p-chlorophenyl-4-OH piperidine
Q.11 Choose the most appropriate instrument/apparatus listed from a to e for the study of
the following:

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i) Thiamine a) Calorimeter
ii) Ferrous ions b) pH meter
iii) Acidity of carboxylic acid c) Fluorimeter

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iv) Barium sulphate d) Coulorimeter
e) Nephalometer
Q.12 Following drugs are tested with reagents listed in a to e. Match them correctly.
i) Aspartic acid a) α-naphthol in alcohol

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ii) Dextran b) 2, 6-dichlorophenol indophenol
iii) Nicotine c) Ninhydrin
iv) Vitamin A d) Antimony trichloride in chloroform
e) Potassium Bismuth Iodide solution
Q.13 Match the antibiotics to their mechanism of action correctly:
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i) Ampicillin a) Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
ii) Chlormphenicol b) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
iii) Nystatin c) Inhibition of growth by competitive antagonism
iv) Rifampicin d) Inhibition of protein synthesis
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e) Inhibition of cell membrane function

Q.14 As per Drugs and Cosmetic Act, Match the correct Schedules to their corresponding titles.
i) Schedule P a) Standards for poisons
ii) Schedule Q b) Standards for cosmetics
iii) Schedule S c) Standards for Ophthalmic preparations
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iv) Schedule FF d) Life period of drugs

e) Coal-tar colours used in cosmetics
Q.15 The sources and constituents of the following umbelliferous fruits are listed in a to
e. Match them correctly.
i) Caraway a) Foeniculum vulgare-Anthole/Fenchone
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ii) Fennel b) Carum carvi-Carvone

iii) Dill c) Anethum graveolens-carvone
iv) Coriander d) Cuminuim cyminum-cuminic aldehyde
e) Coriandrum sativum- Linalool
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Q.16 Given below are some of the microscopical diagnostic features of the drugs listed in
a to e. Choose the appropriate one:
i) Cluster crystals of calcium oxalate a) Stramonium leaves
ii) Candelabra trichomes b) Cinnamon Bark
iii) Phloem fibres c) Alexandrian senna
iv) Glandular trichomes d) Digitalis leaves

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 ROSE PHARMACY JAIPUR GPAT / NIPER (JEE) / DI

e) Verbascum thapsus
Q.17 In the preparation of capsule shell, the ingredients mentioned are present for
specific purpose. Match them correctly.
i) Preservatives a) Mineral oil
ii) Acid solubility b) Essential oil
iii) Organoleptic addatives c) Titanium dioxide

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iv) Opacifier d) Fumeric acid
e) Propyl paraben
Q.18 The emulgents and their sources are given below. Match them correctly.
i) Karaya a) Synthetic

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ii) Carageenan b) Collagen
iii) Guar c) Sea weed
iv) Gelatin d) Gum exudates

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e) Seed extract
Q.19 Listed below are some schedules (i) to (iv) and rules a to e. Match them correctly.
i) C a) List of medicine required to be taken only under supervision of R.M.P.
ii) F b) Biological and special products

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iii) G c) Provision applicable to Vaccines, Toxins, Antigens and Sera
iv) M d) GMP requirements of factory premises, plant equipments etc.
e) standards for surgical dressings.
Q.20 Preparations listed (i) to (iv) are assayed by the method given in a to e. Match them
correctly.
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i) Heparin Sodium Injection I.P. a) Biological assay using prostate gland of
immature rats
ii) Gentamycin Injection I.P. b) Biological assay using Clostridium Welchi
Type A antitoxin
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iii) Mixed Gas-gangrene Antitoxin I.P. c) Microbiological assay using method a

iv) Chorionic Gondotropin Injection I.P. d) Biological assay using Sheep plasma
e) Biological assay using human plasma
Answer Key-1991 (Multiple Choice)
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1.b 2.a 3.b 4.b 5.d 6.c 7.c 8.a 9.c 10.b 11.c 12.a 13.a 14.a 15.a 16.c 17.c 18.b
19.b 20.c 21.a 22.c 23.b 24.d 25.c 26.a 27.a 28.c 29.c 30.a 31.d 32.b
33.b 34.c 35.d 36.c 37.d 38.c 39.a 40.d
Match the column
1. (1) a (2) b (3) d (4) e 2. (1) a (2) d (3) c (4) b
3. (1) b (2) d (3) a (4) c 4. (1) a (2) c (3) d (4) b
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5. (1) c (2) d (3) e (4) a 6. (1) c (2) a (3) b (4) d

7. (1) c (2) d (3) b (4) a 8. (1) d (2) e (3) b (4) c
9. (1) c (2) a (3) b (4) d 10. (1) a (2) d (3) e (4) b
11. (1) c (2) d (3) b (4) e 12. (1) c (2) a (3) e (4) d
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13. (1) b (2) d (3) e (4) a 14. (1) d (2) e (3) b (4) c
15. (1) b (2) a (3) c (4) e 16. (1) c (2) e (3) b (4) d
17. (1) e (2) d (3) b (4) c 18. (1) d (2) c (3) e (4) b
19. (1) b (2) c (3) a (4) d 20. (1) d (2) c (3) b (4) a

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