Baliyans Test 3 Explanations Indian

INSIGHT GEN.
STUDIES & CSAT

INDIAN POLITY - I
(FUNDAMENTAL LEVEL TEST)
1. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian National Congress made the demand for a Constituent Assembly in 1934 itself M N
Roy first proposed the idea of a constituent assembly. The demand was taken up by the Congress Party in 1935 as an
official demand. The British accepted this in the August Offer of 1940.
Statement 2 is correct: Constituent Assembly adopted the principle of Universal Adult Franchise. Adult franchise means
that the right to vote should be given to all adult citizens without the discrimination of caste, class, colour, religion or
sex. The system of adult franchise is the bedrock of a democratic system. Paradoxically, our Constitution which provides
for Universal adult suffrage was drafted by a Constituent Assembly that was composed of members elected by restricted
franchise. The Motilal Nehru report of 1928 advocated unlimited adult franchise and equal rights for women. The
resolution of the 1931 Karachi session of the Indian National Congress adopted a resolution on Fundamental Rights and
Economic Policy which encapsulated the notion of universal adult franchise. India adopted the principle of universal
adult franchise when the present Constitution was enacted in 1949 which as you know was implemented on January 26,
1950.
Thus, Option B is correct.
2. A
Statement 1 is correct: The Rajya Sabha functions primarily as the representative of the states of India in the Parliament.
The Rajya Sabha can also initiate legislation and a bill is required to pass through the Rajya Sabha in order to become a
law. Therefore, it has an important role of reviewing and altering (if alterations are needed) the laws initiated by the Lok
Sabha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative
Assemblies of various states.
Thus, Option A is correct.
3. A
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 79: Parliament comprises of President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In Lok Sabha there are 543 members plus 2 members from Anglo-Community to be
nominated, that is Lok Sabha has both elected as well as nominated members. In Rajya Sabha there are 233 elected
members plus 12 nominated members. Anglo Indians Nomination as per article 331. The Anglo-Indian term was defined
in the Government of India Act, 1935 As per Article 366 (2) of the Constitution, Anglo-Indian is considered to be
someone who lives in India and whose father or any of the male ancestors belong to the European lineage.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The members are nominated by the President and not by the Vice-President (Presiding Officer
of Rajya Sabha). In both the houses, the members are nominated by the President of India. As per Article 80 (Part V) of
the Constitution, President can nominate 12 members in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
4. A
Statement 1 is correct: The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) rests on the principle that any member of the
public can initiate legal proceedings on behalf of an aggrieved person, especially a person who is unable to move to
court on his or her own. The practice of PIL emerged on account of the liberal attitude of the Supreme Court, which
instead of insisting that only a person whose fundamental rights has been infringed can file a petition, permitted public
spirited citizen to move the court for the enforcement of constitutional and legal rights of persons or groups who,
because of their poverty or economically disadvantaged position, were unable to approach the court for relief. It may
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be noted that key role in enunciating the principle of PIL was played by Justice J. Bhagwati. He did not insist on
observance of procedural technicalities and even treated ordinary letters from public-minded individuals as writ
petition.
Statement 2 is incorrect: proceedings can be initiated in either the High Court or the Supreme Court for the
enforcement of the constitution or legal rights of a person or a group of person.
5. D
WHO has recently launched a global campaign urging governments to adopt a tool to reduce the spread of antimicrobial
resistance, adverse events, and, costs. ‘AWaRe’ stands for ‘Access, Watch and Reserve’. In its latest advisory, WHO has
suggested the adoption of ‘Access, Watch and Reserve’, an approach that specifies which antibiotics to use for the most
common and serious infections, which ones ought to be available at all times in the healthcare system, and those that
must be used sparingly, or reserved and used only as a last resort.
Thus, Option D is correct.
6. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The turnout has not increased continuously but there has been elections where the turnout
has decreased.
Statement 2 is correct: In 2019 Lok Sabha election i.e 17th Lok Sabha the voter turn was highest ever clocks at 67.11%
beating the previous turnout of 65.95% notched up in 2014.
7. A
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Question Hour, is usually the first hour of every sitting of the house. Usually, members ask questions and ministers’
answer. There are three kinds of questions viz. starred questions, un-starred questions and short notice questions.

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 A starred question is distinguished by an asterisk and needs an oral answer. Since the answer is oral,
supplementary questions might follow a starred question.
 An un-starred question requires written answer. Since the answer is given in written, there cannot be
supplementary questions that follow an un-stared question
 A question relating to a matter of public importance of an urgent character asked with notice shorter than ten
days is called a “Short Notice Question” Short Notice questions are generally answered orally.
8. A
Statement 1 is correct: The intervention of the State can also be in the form of support. The Indian Constitution grants
the right to religious communities to set up their own schools and colleges.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The State does not enforce any particular religion nor take away the religious freedom of
individuals.
9. A
Statement 1 is correct: Bt cotton is the only Genetically Modified crop allowed to be cultivated in India. When the two
genes viz ‘Cry1Ab’ and ‘Cry2Bc’ are added into the cotton seeds, it becomes a Bt cotton. These genes are obtained from
the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.
Statement 2 is correct: The ‘Cp4-Epsps’ gene is added to a Bt cotton to make it a herbicide-tolerant variety of Bt cotton.
‘Cp4-Epsps’ is obtained from the soil bacterium, Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In India, it is the responsibility of the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is to
assess the safety of a genetically modified plant, and decide whether it is fit for cultivation. But the final approval for
cultivation is given by the Ministry of Environment and Forest.
10. A
Article 53 - The Executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either
directly or through officers subordinates to him in accordance with the constitution.
11. B
Statement 1 is correct: As per article 75 The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers
shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Statement 2 is correct: After the appointment of the Prime Minister, the President appoints other ministers on the
advice of the Prime Minister. The Ministers are usually from the party or the coalition that has the majority in the Lok
Sabha. The Prime Minister is free to choose ministers, as long as they are members of Parliament.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A person who is not a Member of Parliament can also become a minister. But such a person
has to get elected to either Houses of the Parliament within six months of appointment as minister.
12. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: Lok Sabha exercises more powers in money matters. Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of
the government or any other money related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it by
14 days or suggest changes in it. The Lok Sabha may or may not accept these changes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The President of India is a part of the Parliament, although not a member of either House. That
is why all laws made in the Houses come into force only after they receive the assent of the President.

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Statement 3 is correct: Parliament is the highest forum of discussion and debate on public issues and national policy in
any country. Parliament can seek information about any matter.
13. B
A government or police officer cannot arrest or detain any citizen unless he has proper legal justification. Even when
they do, they have to follow some procedures:
Statement 1 is correct: A person who is arrested and detained in custody will have to be informed of the reasons for
such arrest and detention.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A person who is arrested and detained shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within
a period of 24 hours of arrest.
Statement 3 is correct: Such a person has the right to consult a lawyer or engage a lawyer for his defence.
14. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Grey wolf has a wide distribution range that extends from the Indian subcontinent to
Israel. So, it is listed under ‘Least Concern’ category in the IUCN Red List of threatened species.
Statement 2 is correct: In view of the threats faced by the animal across its range in India, it is placed under the
Schedule I Part I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972.
15. D
WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a [SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR
DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC] and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all
FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the [unity and integrity of the Nation];
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO
OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.
16. C
The Constitution mentions three specific evils and declares these illegal.
 Trafficking in Human Beings or Persons is prohibited under the Constitution of India under Article 23 (1). It also
prevents forced labour.
 Article 24 of the Indian constitution clearly states that, "No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed
to work in any factory or mine or employed in any hazardous employment.
 Finally, the Constitution also prohibits child labour.
Thus Option C is correct.
17. A
Statement 1 is correct: Like an interest group, a movement also attempts to influence politics rather than directly take
part in electoral competition. But unlike the interest groups, movements have a loose organisation. Their decision
making is more informal and flexible. They depend much more on spontaneous mass participation than an interest
group.

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Statement 2 is correct: Movements do not directly engage in party politics, they seek to exert influence on political
parties. Most of the movement groups take a political stance without being a party. They have political ideology and
political position on major issues.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Political parties have to face the people in elections, but Movement groups are not
accountable to the people. Pressure groups and movements may not get their funds and support from the people.
Thus Option A is correct.
18. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: The government has begun the process to get UNESCO’s World Heritage Site status for
Godavari Mangroves at Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary, near Kakinada, touted to be the second largest mangroves in India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is neither a Ramasar nor a UNESCO World Heritage site. The state government has sent
proposal for the site to be included in the Ramasar site. It has started the process to get a UNESCO’s World Heritage Site
status.
19. A
Statement 1 is correct: As per the Official Languages Act, 1963 Hindi written in the Devanagari script, as well as English
are designated as official languages of the union.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Census of India held in 2001 found 114 major languages. Of these 22 languages are now
included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore called ‘Scheduled Languages’. Others are
called ‘non-Scheduled Languages’.
20. C
Statement 1 is correct: Other than six parties, most of the major parties of the country are classified by the Election
Commission as ‘State parties’. These are commonly referred to as regional parties.
Statement 2 is correct: Over the last three decades, the number and strength of state parties has expanded. This made
the Parliament of India politically more and more diverse. No one national party was able to secure on its own a majority
in Lok Sabha (before NDA 2). As a result, the national parties are compelled to form alliances with State parties. Since
1996, nearly every one of the State parties has got an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national level
coalition government. This has contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy in our country.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative
Assembly of a State and wins at least two seats is recognised as a State party.
Thus, Option C is correct.
21. C
Federalism is a system of government in which powers have been divided between the centre and its constituent parts
such as states or provinces. It is an institutional mechanism to accommodate two sets of politics, one at the centre or
national level and second at the regional or provincial level. Both the sets of power are autonomous in their own
spheres.
Features of the federal system
1. Governments at least two levels
2. Division of powers between various levels
3. Rigidity of constitution
4. Independence judiciary
5. Dual citizenship
6. Bicameralism

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Statement 1 is incorrect: Under federalism, the states act autonomously in their own their spheres hence they are not
merely agents of the federal government.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The states draw their authority from the Constitution of India.
22. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution was amended to prevent elected MLAs and MPs from changing parties. This
was done because many elected representatives were indulging in Defection in order to become ministers or for cash
rewards. Now the law says that if any MLA or MP changes parties, he or she will lose the seat in the legislature.
Statement 2 is correct: At the same time this has made any dissent even more difficult. MPs and MLAs have to accept
whatever the party leaders decide.
23. C
India for the first time will host the 14th session of the Conference of Parties (COP-14) of the United Nations Convention
to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) in September 2019.The Convention addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry
sub-humid areas, known as the dry lands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found.
Statement 1 is correct: The Bonn Challenge is a global effort to bring 150 million hectares of the world’s deforested and
degraded land under restoration by 2020, and 350 million hectares by 2030.
Statement 2 is correct: The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) was established in 1994. It is
the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management.
24. C
Statement 1 is correct: The first objective is that every citizen must be in a position to claim those rights. If rights are
denied the citizen has every right to approach the judiciary.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 12 of the Constitution of India, the term 'State' denotes the union and state governments,
the Parliament and state legislatures and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of
the Indian government. Since all these authorities make laws, they have to respect the fundamental rights.
25. C
Statement 1 is correct: Every party in the country has to register with the Election Commission. More than 750 parties
are registered with the Election Commission of India
Statement 2 is correct: While the Commission treats all parties equally, it offers some special facilities to large and
established parties. These parties are given a unique symbol – only the official candidates of that party can use that
election symbol.
26. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: An independent institution called the State Election Commission has been created in each
State to conduct panchayat and municipal elections.
Statement 2 is correct- As per provisions contained in Article 243 D of the Constitution, 1/3rd of the Seats of Panchayati
Raj Institutions and 1/3rd offices of the Chairperson at all level of Panchayati Raj Institutions covered by Part IX of the
Constitution are reserved for women.
Statement 3 is correct: A major step towards decentralization was taken in 1992. The Constitution was amended to
make the third-tier of democracy more powerful and effective. Now it is constitutionally mandatory to hold regular
elections to local government bodies.

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27. C
Statement 1 is correct: All States in the Indian Union do not have identical powers. Some States enjoy a special status.
Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution. Article 35A is a provision incorporated in the Constitution giving the
Jammu and Kashmir Legislature a carte blanche to decide who all are ‘permanent residents’ of the State and confer on
them special rights and privileges in public sector jobs, acquisition of property in the State, scholarships and other
public aid and welfare. The provision mandates that no act of the legislature coming under it can be challenged for
violating the Constitution or any other law of the land.
Statement 2 is correct: There are some units of the Indian Union which enjoy very little power. These are areas which
are too small to become an independent State but which could not be merged with any of the existing States. These
areas, like Chandigarh, or Lakshadweep or the capital city of Delhi, are called Union Territories. These territories do not
have the powers of a State. The Central Government has special powers in running these areas.
28. B
Statement 1 is correct: The Seventh Schedule of Constitution has 3 lists Union, State and Concurrent list. The Concurrent
list has subjects that are in common to both Union and States. There are 52 subjects under concurrent list. Both the
Union Parliament as well as the State Legislatures has the power to legislate over the subjects listed in Concurrent List.
In case of conflict over the legislation on Concurrent subjects between state law and union law, union law prevails.
Statement 2 is correct: State List contains subjects of State and local importance such as police, trade, commerce,
agriculture and irrigation. The State Governments alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the State
List.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Subjects that do not fall in any of the three lists or subjects that came up after the constitution
was made are called residuary subjects. According to our constitution, the Union Government has the power to legislate
on these ‘residuary’ subjects.
29. A
"The S-400 Triumph, is an advanced air and missile defence system developed by Russia intended to engage targets at
ranges of up to 400 km". Not only is it highly advanced, but it costs a fraction of its counterparts. The S-400 system costs
around $500 million, in comparison to the Patriot Pac-2 which comes in at around $1 billion. This is one of the major
reasons why the S-400 has garnered interest all over the world.
The S-400 has thus far been exported to China, with export orders placed by India and Turkey. It has been reported that
around 13 countries are interested in purchasing the S-400.
30. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: After Independence, several princely states became a part of the country. The Constitution
declared India as a Union of States. Although it did not use the word federation, the Indian Union is based on the
principles of federalism.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the Union
Government or what we call the Central Government, representing the Union of India and the State governments. Later,
a third tier of federalism was added in the form of Panchayats and Municipalities.
Statement 3 is correct: The sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to the
structure of the Constitution. It is not easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement. The Parliament cannot
on its own change this arrangement. Any change to it has to be first passed by both the Houses of Parliament with at
least two-thirds majority. Then it has to be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the total States.

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31. C
Right to property was a fundamental right enshrined in the Constitution till the government in 1978 changed the law to
reduce it only to a legal right. Originally fundamental rights Article 19(1)(f) guaranteed to every citizen the right to
acquire, hold and against deprivation of his property. State can acquire on two conditions: (a) it should be for public
purpose, and (b) it should provide for payment of compensation (amount) to the owner. 44th CAA, 1978 removed
repeating Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III and included under Article 300A in Part XII under the heading 'Right
to Property'. Thus, the right to property still remains a legal and a constitutional right.
32. B
The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution include:
1. Right to Equality: All persons are equal before the law. This means that all persons shall be equally protected by the
laws of the country. It also states that no citizen can be discriminated against on the basis of their religion, caste or sex.
Every person has access to all public places including playgrounds, hotels, shops etc. The State cannot discriminate
against anyone in matters of employment. But there are exceptions to this that you will read about later in this book.
The practice of untouchability has also been abolished.
2. Right to Freedom: This includes the right to freedom of speech and expression, the right to form associations, the
right to move freely and reside in any part of the country, and the right to practice any profession, occupation or
business.
3. Right against Exploitation: The Constitution prohibits human trafficking, forced labour, and employment of children
under 14 years of age.
4. Right to Freedom of Religion: Religious freedom is provided to all citizens. Every person has the right to practise,
profess and propagate the religion of their choice.
5. Cultural and Educational Rights: The Constitution states that all minorities, religious or linguistic, can set up their own
educational institutions in order to preserve and develop their own culture.
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies: This allows citizens to move the court if they believe that any of their Fundamental
Rights have been violated by the State.
It does not include Rights of Citizenship as that is included in Part II of the Indian Constitution and Fundamental Rights
form Part III of the Indian Constitution.
33. D
The Duckworth-Lewis-Stern or DLS method is a mathematical system employed to calculate target scores and reach
outcomes in rain-shortened limited-overs matches. Devised by English statisticians Frank Duckworth and Tony Lewis and
originally named after them.
34. A
Statement 1 is correct: Currently, in the Lok Sabha, 84 seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes and 47 for the
Scheduled Tribes. This number is in proportion to their share in the total population. Thus the reserved seats for SC and
ST do not take away the legitimate share of any other social group.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The proportion of seats reserved varies from state to state.
35. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Lok Sabha controls the Council of Ministers. Only a person who enjoys a support of the
majority of the members in the Lok Sabha is appointed the Prime Minister. If the majority of the Lok Sabha members

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have ‘no confidence’ in the Council of Ministers, all ministers including the Prime Minister have to quit. The Rajya Sabha
does not have this power. As per article 75(3) the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of
the People. Process of no-confidence motion is mentioned under Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and conduct of Lok
Sabha. The motion needs support of at least 50 members to be admitted. Once admitted, it has to be passed within 10
days in the house. The motion has to be passed by simple majority. If passed, the Union Council of Ministers has to
resign and government at centre falls. is moved against the entire Council of Ministers and not individual ministers or
private members.
Statement 2 is correct: Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in important matters like the impeachment of the
President, removal of the Vice-President, Constitutional Amendments and removal of the Judges of the Supreme Court
and the High Courts.
36. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Sixty-first Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution
(Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988, lowered the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative
Assemblies of States from 21 years to 18 years.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constituent Assembly represented the people of India. There was no universal adult
franchise at that time. So the Constituent Assembly could not have been chosen directly by all the people of India. It was
elected mainly by the members of the existing Provincial Legislatures.
37. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: China and North Korea has a Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: UK has unwritten constitution.
38. B
 Manas National Park is a national park, UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, an
elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve in Assam, India
 It is located in the Himalayan foothills,
 It is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park in Bhutan
 The Manas river flows thorough the west of the park and is the main river within it. It is a major tributary of
Brahmaputra river
 The Manas river also serves as an international border dividing India and Bhutan.
39. B
The most common form that democracy takes in our times is that of a representative democracy. The majority of
people rule through their elected representatives. These become necessary because:
Modern democracies involve such a large number of people that it is physically impossible for them to sit together and
take a collective decision. Even if they could, the citizens do not have the time, the desire or skills to take part in all the
decisions. Moreover it prevents chaos of direct democracy therefore promotes stability.
40. C
Statement 1 is correct: Members of Legislative Assembly are directly elected by the people.
Statement 2 is correct: The party who has majority becomes ruling party. At times, the ruling party may not be a single
party but a group of parties working together. This is called a coalition.

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41. C
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India lists the official languages of the Republic of India. The eighth schedule
includes the recognition of the following 22 languages. They are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi,
Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi,
Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. The Government of India is now under an obligation to take measures for the development of
these languages, such that "they grow rapidly in richness and become effective means of communicating modern
knowledge
As the evolution of dialects and languages is dynamic, influenced by socio eco-political developments, it is difficult to fix
any criterion for languages, whether to distinguish them from dialects, or for inclusion in the Eighth Schedule to the
Constitution of India. Thus, both attempts, through the Pahwa (1996) and Sitakant Mohapatra (2003) Committees to
evolve such fixed criteria have not borne fruit. The Government is conscious of the sentiments and requirements for
inclusion of other languages in the Eighth Schedule and will examine the requests keeping in mind these sentiments, and
other considerations such as evolution of dialects into language, widespread use of a language etc.
42. A
Recently, the Chief Minister of Telangana dedicated one of the largest multi-stage and multi-purpose lift irrigation
schemes, the Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project, to the nation.
Statement 1 is correct: Lift irrigation is a method of irrigation in which water instead of being transported by natural
flow (as in gravity-fed canal systems) requires external energy through animal, fuel based or electric power using pumps
or other mechanical means.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Kaleshwaram lift irrigation project is located in the state of Telangana.
43. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: In the first Lok Sabha, the number of women MPs was only five percent. 24 women MPS were
elected in the first Parliament. Some of the prominent leaders are Amrit Kaur, Rajkumar, Kripalani Sucheta, Mascarene
Kumari Anni, Pandit, Smt. Vijaya Lakshmi.
Statement 2 is correct: The 17th Lok Sabha also has the highest number of women MPs. Women’s representation has
steadily increased in the Lok Sabha. In the first-ever election, only 5% of the House consisted of women. Now, that has
increased to 14%.
44. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is presided over by the Speaker, Rajya Sabha is presided by the Vice-President of India.
Statement 2 is correct: It is the representative of the people of India in the Parliament.
45. C
Statement 1 is correct: The drafting of the document called the Constitution was done by an assembly of elected
representatives called the Constituent Assembly. Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946. The
Constituent Assembly could not have been chosen directly by all the people of India.
Statement 2 is correct.
46. A
As the final interpreter of the Constitution, the judiciary also has the power to strike down particular laws passed by the
Parliament if it believes that these are a violation of the basic structure of the Constitution. This is called judicial review.

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47. D
Option D is correct.
48. C
Statement 1 is correct: The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is appointed by the President of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect: But once appointed, the Chief Election Commissioner is not answerable to the President or the
government. Even if the ruling party or the government does not like what the Commission does, it is virtually
impossible for it to remove the CEC.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is quasi-judicial body.
49. C
Statement 1 is correct: The panchayat works under the overall supervision of the Gram Sabha. All the voters in the
village are its members.
Statement 2 is correct: Gram Sabha has to meet at least twice or thrice in a year to approve the annual budget of the
gram panchayat and to review the performance of the gram panchayat.
50. C
Statement 1 is correct: Popularly known as Voter’s Ink, it is applied to avoid fraudulent casting of multiple votes. Once
applied, it dries in less than 40 seconds and the mark stays on for several days. This ink is being used since India’s third
general elections (1962). It is a violet-coloured ink in India that is applied on a voter’s forefinger after she exercises her
vote.
Statement 2 is correct: The ink typically contains silver nitrate which stains the skin on exposure to ultraviolet light (one
of the components of sunlight), leaving a mark that is impossible to wash off and is removed over time as fresh skin cells
replace the dead ones. The concentration of silver nitrate varies from 7% to 25%.
51. C
Statement 1 is incorrect: In Indian Parliamentary form of Government, President is the head of the state and is the
highest formal authority while Prime Minister is the head of the government and actually exercises all governmental
powers. He takes most of the decisions in the Cabinet meetings in the country. In Presidential System the President is
both the head of the state and the head of the government.
Statement 2 is correct: Parliament consists of the President and two Houses, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The Prime
Minister must have the support of a majority of Lok Sabha members.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In countries like ours that follow the British model, the parliament is supreme. Therefore our
system is called the parliamentary system of government. But the Indian parliamentary system is not completely similar
to the British rule.
52. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Government of India had appointed the Second Backward Classes Commission in 1979. It
was headed by B.P. Mandal. Hence it was popularly called the Mandal Commission. It was asked to determine the
criteria to identify the socially and educationally backward classes in India and recommend steps to be taken for their
advancement.
Statement 2 is correct : In the ‘Indira Sawhney and others Vs Union of India case’, eleven judges of the Supreme Court
heard arguments of both sides on the order passed by the Government of India accepting the recommendations of the
Mandal Commission.. By a majority, the Supreme Court judges in 1992 declared that this order of the Government of
India was valid.

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53. D
Statement 1 is incorrect: A person who is not a member of Parliament can also become a minister. But such a person
has to get elected to one of the Houses of the Parliament within six months of appointment as minister.
Statement 2 is correct: Parliamentary democracy in most, countries is often known as the Cabinet form of government.
The Cabinet works as a team. The ministers may have different views and opinions, but everyone has to own up to every
decision of the Cabinet. No minister can openly criticize any decision of the government, even if it is about another
Ministry or Department.
Statement 3 is correct: As head of the government, the Prime Minister has wide ranging powers. He chairs Cabinet
meetings. He coordinates the work of different Departments. His decisions are final in case disagreements arise
between Departments. He exercises general supervision of different ministries. All ministers work under his leadership.
The Prime Minister distributes and redistributes work to the ministers. He also has the power to dismiss ministers. When
the Prime Minister quits, the entire ministry quits.
54. A
Statement 1 is incorrect: The elected Members of Parliament (MPs) and the elected Members of the Legislative
Assemblies (MLAs) elect the President.
Statement 2 is correct: All governmental activities take place in the name of the President. All laws and major policy
decisions of the government are issued in her name. All major appointments are made in the name of the President.
These include the appointment of the Chief Justice of India, the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts of the
states, the Governors of the states, the Election Commissioners, ambassadors to other countries, etc. All international
treaties and agreements are made in the name of the President. The President is the supreme commander of the
defence forces of India.
Statement 3 is correct: The President exercises all the above powers only on the advice of the Council of Ministers. The
President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider its advice. But if the same advice is given again, she is bound to
act according to it.
55. B
The recently released ‘Trafficking in Persons (TIP)2019’ report, placed India in the Tier 2 country on trafficking scale. It
highlights the need for action against domestic trafficking in human beings.
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is released by the U.S. Department of State.
Statement 2 is correct: The Palermo protocol is an international framework to tackle trafficking.
56. C
Both statements are correct.
57. D
Statement 1 is correct: Rajya Shaba is a permanent body.
Statement 2 is correct: The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state
legislative assemblies. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the
single transferable vote.
Statement 3 is correct: The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to
the states and union territories
58. A
Statement 1 is incorrect: India has an integrated judiciary. It means the Supreme Court controls the judicial
administration in the country. Its decisions are binding on all other courts of the country. It is the highest court of appeal
in civil and criminal cases. It can hear appeals against the decisions of the High Courts.

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Statement 2 is correct: The judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts are appointed by the President on the
advice of the Prime Minister and in consultation with the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. In practice it now means
that the senior judges of the Supreme Court select the new judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court.
Statement 3 is incorrect: A judge can be removed only by a removal motion passed separately by two –thirds members
of the two Houses of the Parliament. It has never happened in the history of Indian democracy.
59. B
Indian Space Research Organisation has launched a special programme for School Children called "Young Scientist
Programme" "YUva VIgyaniK Aryakram" from this year, in tune with the Government's vision "Jai Vigyan, Jai
Anusandhan".
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is an initiative of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). The Program is primarily aimed
at imparting basic knowledge on Space Technology, Space Science and Space Applications to the younger ones with the
intent of arousing their interest in the emerging areas of Space activities.
Statement 2 is correct: Those who have just completed 9th standard (in the academic year 2018-19) and waiting to join
10th Std (or just joined 10th Std) will be eligible for the online registration.
60. B
Statement 1 is correct: The fundamental rights in the Constitution are important because they are enforceable. It is
possible that sometimes our rights may be violated by fellow citizens, private bodies or by the government. When any of
our rights are violated we can seek remedy through courts. If it is a Fundamental Right we can directly approach the
Supreme Court or the High Court of a state.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Fundamental Rights are guaranteed against the actions of the Legislatures, the Executive, and
any other authorities instituted by the government. Courts also enforce the Fundamental Rights against private
individuals and bodies.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Dr. Ambedkar called the Right to Constitutional Remedies, ‘the heart and soul’ of our
Constitution.
61. B
All the statements are correct.
62. C
Statement 1 is correct: National Human Rights Commission {NHRC) is an independent commission set up by law in 1993.
Like judiciary, the Commission is independent of the government. The Commission is appointed by the President and
includes retired judges, officers and eminent citizens.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The NHRC cannot by itself punish the guilty. That is the responsibility of courts. The NHRC is
there to make independent and credible inquiry into any case of violation of human rights. It also inquires into any case
of abetment of such violation or negligence in controlling it by any government officer and takes other general steps to
promote human rights in the country. The Commission presents its findings and recommendations to the government or
intervenes in the court on behalf of the victims.
Statement 3 is incorrect: NHRC focus on helping the victims secure their human rights. These include all the rights
granted to the citizens by the Constitution. For NHRC human rights also include the rights mentioned in the UN
sponsored international treaties that India has signed.
63. A
Article 15 (1) and (2) prohibit the state from discriminating any citizen on ground of any religion, race, caste, sex, place
of birth or any of them.

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ADMIN1: ADMIN2:
64. A
Right to criticize the government is a part of Freedom of Speech and Expression. Any violent movement cannot be
under the purview of fundamental rights. Freedom to strike and call for bandh is a legal right under industrial dispute
Act, 1947.
65. B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Saudi Arabia is not a landlocked country because it touches Red Sea in the west and Persian
Gulf in the East.
Statement 2 is correct: It touches the Red Sea in the west and Persian Gulf in the East.
Statement 3 is correct: The Abha International Airport, recently seen in news, is located in Saudi Arabia. The airport is
news because The United Nations has expressed its concern over the terrorist attack carried out by the alleged Iran-
backed Houthi militia on Abha International Airport in Saudi Arabia.
66. C
Statement 1 is correct: The practice of PIL emerged on account of the liberal attitude of the Supreme Court, which
instead of insisting that only a person whose fundamental rights has been infringed can file a petition, permitted public
spirited citizen to move the court for the enforcement of constitutional and legal rights of persons or groups who,
because of their poverty or economically disadvantaged position, were unable to approach the court for relief.
Statement 2 is correct: Under the PIL any citizen or group of citizens can approach the Supreme Court or a High Court
for the protection of public interest against a particular law or action of the government. One can write to the judges
even on a postcard. The court will take up the matter if the judges find it in public interest.
67. A
Right to property and right to vote are rights granted to citizens. However right to social security and right to health and
safe working conditions are duties of the state (not rights which can be claimed against the state).
68. B
Statement 1 is correct: Fundamental Rights protects citizens against tyranny of the state.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Rights of Individuals are protected against actions of the state and private individuals.
69. A
Statement 1 is correct: Parliament is composed of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct: The Prime Minister of India is the leader of the ruling party in the Lok Sabha. From the MPs who
belong to her party, the Prime Minister selects ministers to work with her to implement decisions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The strength of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha is 245 and 545 respectively.
70. C
Statement 1 is correct: FASTags are now available on e-commerce platform Amazon. FASTag is a radio-frequency
identification (RFID) technology sticker that can be installed on the windshield of any vehicle.
Statement 2 is correct: Using FASTage, toll payments can be made directly from the pre-paid account linked to it, thus
avoiding the need of vehicles to stop at toll plazas for payment of fees.

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71. D
Rule of law - Three elements of rule of law
Absence of arbitrary power - Reason for punishment could only be breach of law.
Equality before law - Equal subjection of all citizens to the ordinary laws
Primacy of rights of individual - Constitution is the result of the rights of the individual as defined and enforced by the
courts of law.
Rule of law symbolises the quest of civilised democratic societies to combine that degree of liberty without which law is
tyranny with that degree of law without which liberty becomes licence.
72. C
Statement 1 is correct: Supreme Court is the apex court presided over by Chief Justice of India. It is the highest court of
appeal in India.
Statement 2 is correct: The decisions made by the Supreme Court are binding on all other courts in India.
73. B
Criminal Law - Deals with conduct or acts that the law defines as offences. For example, theft, harassing a woman for
dowry, murder etc.
Civil Law - Deals with any harm or injury to rights of individuals. For example, disputes relating to sale of land, purchase
of goods, rent matters, divorce cases.
74. B
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Article 22 of the Constitution guarantee to every arrested person the following
Fundamental Rights: The Right to be informed at the time of arrest of the offence for which the person is being
arrested. The Right to be presented before a magistrate within 24 hours of arrest
Statement 3 is incorrect: A boy under 15 years of age and women (CRPC section 160) cannot be called to the police
station only for questioning.
75. D
In the recent past it has been difficult for a single political party to get the majority that is required to form the
government. They then join together with different political parties who are interested in similar concerns to form what
is known as a coalition government.
76. D
The World Population Prospects 2019’ is published by the Population Division of the UN Department of Economic and
Social Affairs. The World Population Prospects 2019’report stated that in 2019, India has an estimated population of
1.37 billion and China 1.43 billion and by 2027, India’s population is projected to surpass China’s. The global population
is projected to increase by another 2 billion people by 2050, from 7.7 billion in 2019 to 9.7 billion thirty years down the
line.
77. D
The Speaker has the power to certify a bill as a money bill (not ordinary bills)

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78. D
Our model of secularism calls of equality for all sections of the population. Articles 25-28 in the constitution provide for
free profession, practice and propagation of religion, freedom to various denominations to manage religious affairs, and
exempt religious institutions from payment of taxes. At the same time, it lays down constitutional protections to
safeguard the religious customs and practices of the minorities and enables them to administer their educational
institutions as a fundamental right. Indian secularism allows the State to interfere in secular affairs related to religion,
such as economic, financial or political activities related with religious practices. State thus manages the Wakf boards as
well as major temples within the country. State cannot promote and discriminate one religion and give freedom to
practice all religions is the essence of Indian secularism.
79. C
The World Sickle Cell Day was recently observed on 19th June 2019. It is observed each year to raise public awareness
about the sickle cell disease and its treatment methods.
About Sickle Cell Anaemia
 Sickle cell anaemia is an inherited form of anaemia — a condition in which there aren't enough healthy red blood
cells to carry adequate oxygen throughout your body.
 This condition leads to shortened red blood cell survival, and subsequent anaemia, often called sickle-cell anaemia.
 This leads to chronic acute pain syndromes, severe bacterial infections, and necrosis (tissue death).
 Normally, your red blood cells are flexible and round, moving easily through your blood vessels. In sickle cell
anaemia, the red blood cells become rigid and sticky and are shaped like sickles or crescent moons.
 These irregularly shaped cells can get stuck in small blood vessels, which can slow or block blood flow and oxygen to
parts of the body.
 There's no cure for most people with sickle cell anaemia. But treatments can relieve pain and help prevent problems
associated with the disease.
80. B
Advisory Jurisdiction: This power implies Court’s right to give advice, if sought. Under advisory jurisdiction, the President
of India may refer any question of law or public importance to Supreme Court for its advice. But the Supreme Court is
not bound to give advice. In case, the advice or the opinion of the Court is sent to the President, he may or may not
accept it. The advice of the Court is not binding on the President.
Appellate system: The power of a superior/higher court to hear and decide appeals against the judgment of a lower
court is called appellate jurisdiction. The Supreme Court has vast appellate jurisdiction. It hears appeals against the
judgment of the High Courts. Thus, it is the highest and the final Court of Appeal. If one of the parties to a dispute is not
satisfied with the decision of the High Court, one can go to the Supreme Court and file an appeal. The appeals can be
filled in Civil, Criminal and Constitutional cases.
Original Jurisdiction: There are certain cases which fall within the exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. It means
that all such cases begin or originate in the Supreme Court, only. It also means that such cases cannot be initiated in any
other court. The cases or disputes that come under the original jurisdiction are given below:
(i) (a) Disputes between the Government of India on the one side and one or more States on the other side.
(b) Disputes between the Government of India and one or more States on one side and one or more States on the other
side.
(c) Disputes between two or more States.
(ii) The Supreme Court has been invested with special powers in the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. In this
connection, it has the power to issue directions or writs.

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(iii) Cases under Public Interests Litigation (PIL) can also be heard directly. (This is an extra Constitutional practice; there
is no mention of PIL in the Constitution).
81. A
Statement 1 is correct: Everyone shall have the right to recognition everywhere as a person before the law.
Statement 2 is correct: Everyone charged with a criminal offence shall have the right to be presumed innocent until
proved guilty according to law.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India has ratified it. China is a signatory but it has not ratified the ICCPR yet.
82. A
Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India has cohesive judiciary system and Supreme Court is the apex court. The High Court is the
supreme judicial body in a state. According to Article 214, each state of India shall have a High Court. It is the final
interpreter of the constitution. There are 24 High Courts in India, three having control over more than one State. Delhi
has a High Court of its own among the Union Territories. Each High Court shall consist of a Chief Justice and such other
judges appointed by the President of India.
83. D
The sweep of the Right to Life, conferred by Article 21 is wide and far reaching. ‘Life’ means something more than mere
animal existence. It does not mean merely that life cannot be extinguished or taken away as, for example, by the
imposition and execution of the death sentence, except according to procedure established by law. That is but one
aspect of the Right to Life. An equally important facet of that right is the right to livelihood because no person can live
without the means of living, that is, the means of livelihood. The courts interpreted Article 21 of the Constitution on the
Right to Life to include the Right to Food. They, therefore, ordered the State to take certain steps to provide food for all
including the mid-day meal scheme. The courts also gave a number of judgments upholding the right to a healthy
environment as intrinsic to the Fundamental Right to Life. The Constitution of India recognizes the right to water as
being a part of the Right to Life under Article 21.
 Right to Food- In this case People's Union for Civil Liberties (Rajasthan) SC has upheld Right to food.
 Right to livelihood - Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation
 Right to Safe drinking water - Bandhua Mukti Morcha vs. Union of India Case, A.P. Pollution Control Board II v.
Prof. M.V. Nayudu
 Right to healthy environment- M.C. Mehta vs. Union of India
84. D
Statement 1 is correct: To give a copy of the charge sheet and all other evidences to the accused. The accused charged
of offence should be defined as a crime in the law.
Statement 2 is correct: The trial to be held on open court and the relatives of the accused could attend the hearings.
Statement 3 is correct: The trial to be held in presence of the accused.
85. D
Statement 1 is correct: In 2016, Parliament amended the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, banning
the employment of children below the age of 14 years in all occupations except those run by his or her own family,
provided that education does not hampered.

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Statement 2 is correct: Banning the employment of adolescents (14-18 years) in hazardous occupations and processes.
It made employing these children or adolescents a cognizable offence. The number of hazardous occupations has been
brought down from 83 to 3. The three occupations are mining, inflammable substances, and hazardous processes under
the Factories Act.
Statement 3 is correct: Anyone found violating the ban must be penalized with a punishment ranging from a jail term of
six months to two years and/or fine of 20,000 to 50,000. The central government had asked state governments to
develop plans to rescue and rehabilitate children who are working.
86. C
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Navy has launched ‘Operation Sankalp’ in the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman as a
measure to assure the safety and security of the Indian vessels, following the recent maritime incidents in the region.
The operation has been launched in the wake of escalating tension in the Gulf of Oman, where two oil tankers were
attacked recently. The U.S. considers Iran responsible for the attacks, heightening tensions between the two countries.
Indian Navy Ships Chennai and Sunayna have been deployed in the Gulf of Oman and Persian Gulf to undertake
maritime security operations. In addition, aerial surveillance by IN aircraft is also being undertaken in the area.
The Information Fusion Centre - Indian Ocean Region is also keeping a close watch on the movement of ships in the Gulf
region.
Statement 2 is correct: Operation Bandar was the code-name given by IAF to the air strikes conducted by its Mirage-
2000 fighters against the major Jaish-e-Mohammed training facility at Balakot in Pakistan on February 26, in response to
the Pulwama terror attack which claimed the lives of 40 security personnel. The idea behind the name 'Operation
Bandar’ was to give a nondescript, mundane tag to the air strikes to maintain operational secrecy. It was chosen to make
it sound like a routine, small-time affair. The Army, in turn, code-named its heightened operational alert and shoring up
of defences along the border to thwart a possible Pakistan retaliation to the air strikes as “Operation Zafran" (saffron
flowers used in cooking).
87. C
Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 22 of the Constitution, every person has a Fundamental Right to be
defended by a lawyer. Article 22 reads as “No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being
informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be
defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice”.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 39A of the Constitution places a duty upon the State to provide a lawyer to any citizen
who is unable to engage one due to poverty or other disability. A of the Constitution provides that the State shall
secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular,
provide free legal aid.
88. C
Cultural Minorities- There is no reference pertaining to Cultural Minorities.
Linguistic Minorities - Article 350-Adurty of the state to provide education in mother tongue for linguistic minority.
Article 350-B empowers the president to appoint a special officer for linguistic minorities.
Religious Minorities- Article 25-28.
89. A
Statement 1 is correct: Article 17 of the Constitution states that untouchability has been abolished.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Untouchability is a punishable crime as enacted by a legislation of the Parliament. Constitution
does not lay down explicit punishments for practicing untouchability.

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90. D
Statement 1 is correct: The Act distinguishes several levels of crimes. It lists modes of humiliation that are both
physically horrific and morally reprehensible and seeks to punish those who (i) force a member of a Scheduled Caste or a
Scheduled Tribe to drink or eat any inedible or obnoxious substance;
(ii) forcibly removes clothes from the person of a member of a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe or parades him or
her naked or with painted face or body or commits any similar act which is derogatory to human dignity
Statement 2 is correct: It lists actions that dispossess Dalits and Adivasis of their meagre resources or which force them
into performing slave labour. Thus, the Act sets out to punish anyone who wrongfully occupies or cultivates any land
owned by, or allotted to a member of a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe or gets the land allotted to him
transferred.
Statement 3 is correct: The Act recognises that crimes against Dalit and tribal women are of a specific kind and,
therefore, seeks to penalise anyone who assaults or uses force on any woman belonging to a Scheduled Caste or a
Scheduled Tribe with intent to dishonor her.
91. D
This recognition of equality includes some of the following provisions in the Constitution.
Statement 1 is correct: Every person is equal before the law. This is explicit in Article 14.
Statement 2 is correct: No person can be discriminated against on the basis of their religion, race, caste, place of birth or
whether they are female or male. Article 15 gives credence to this.
Statement 3 is correct: Every person has access to all public places including playgrounds, hotels, shops and markets. All
persons can use publicly available wells, roads and bathing ghats.
Statement 4 is correct: Untouchability has been abolished under Article 17.
92. C
The Article 326 of the Indian Constitution grants universal adult suffrage, according to which, every adult citizen is
entitled to cast his/her vote in all state elections unless that citizen is “convicted of certain criminal offences” or
“deemed unsound of mind.”
93. D
To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India is a fundamental duty.
94. D
Governing Council of the NITI Aayog comprises the following:
1. Prime Minister of India, Chief Ministers of all the States and UTs with Legislatures and Lt. Governor of Andaman and
Nicobar Islands.
2. Four Union Ministers as ex-officio members and
3. Three Union Ministers as Special Invitees.
95. A
Representative Democracy (also called indirect democracy) is where citizens choose others to represent them, making
important decisions on their behalf.
Advantages of Representative Democracy
 the people cannot be expected to have the time or interest to make important and regular decisions
 representatives can educate the public on political issues

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 representatives ensure the interests of all sections of society (including minorities) are taken into account, and
can be held accountable for their decisions
 representatives are able to ‘aggregate’ the differing demands of people into a more coherent and politically
logical programme
Disadvantages of representative democracies
 representatives may distort peoples’ demands to suit their political preferences
 representatives may not make make themselves accountable enough between elections and can only be
removed by elections if they lose the respect of the people
 the electoral mandate of representatives is flawed, as voters have to accept or reject a whole manifesto, not
being able to make clear which parts of it they oppose, and there is more information in this day and age for
people to be able to make better decisions
 representatives also have to decide whether to be ‘delegates’ for their constituents, merely putting forward
their view, or using their best judgement to ‘represent’ their constituents (a concept called ‘Burkean
representation’).
96. A
Statement 1 is correct: The Gram Sabha is a meeting of all adults who live in the area covered by a Panchayat. This could
be only one village or a few villages. In some states, as in the example above, a village meeting is held for each village.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Anyone who is 18 years old or more and who has the right to vote is a member of the Gram
Sabha.
97. C
Statement 1 is correct: The Gram Panchayat meets regularly and one of its main tasks is to implement development
programmes for all villages that come under it.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is established on the basis of direct election. And elections takes place after every five years.
Statement 3 is correct: The work of the Gram Panchayat has to be approved by the Gram Sabha. The Panchs and the
Gram Panchayat are answerable to the Gram Sabha because it is the members of the Gram Sabha who elected them.
98. B
Municipal Corporations are created for the administration of big cities. They are established in the states by the act of
concerned state legislatures.
99. A
Statement 1 is incorrect: The civil rights movement was a struggle for social justice that took place mainly during the
1950s and 1960s for blacks to gain equal rights under the law in the United States.
Statement 2 is correct: African–American people demanded equal rights and an end to racial discrimination.
100. C
Article 47- It is the duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health

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INSIGHT GEN.

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Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

EBOOKS & UPSC PRELIMS USPC MAINS VIDEO FOR DAILY

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Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

Central Delhi: 73, Second Floor, Old Rajinder Nagar, Delhi - 60

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