REVIEW QUESTIONS 25.

What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of

162.5 grams and an oven – dried weight of 138.2 grams?
1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a 162.5-138.2/138.2
structural concrete? Answer: 17.58%
Answer: concrete cylinder sample
26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?
2. What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete? Answer: the soil is clayey
Answer: Slump test
27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed
3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test? in the oven is already oven – dried?
Answer: 1.0 m/10,000kg/size/shipment Answer: if the sample reaches its constant weight

4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh 28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be
concrete? maintained?
Answer: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample Answer: 110 ± 5°C

5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets? 29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is
Answer: 3 pcs-60mm x 60mm in 1 sht/100shts advisable?
Answer: because it can affect its weight
6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads?
Answer: Reflectorized paint
30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from
7. What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark natural moisture content?
brown to black cementitious material in which the predominating Answer: HYGROSCOPIC MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture
substance is bitumen? content of an air – dried sample while NATURAL MOISTURE
Answer: asphalt CONTENT is the moisture content of the original sample from
the field.
8. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat be
left undisturbed? 31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs sample are presents?
Answer: 24 hours Answer: 2000 bags

9. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat? 32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality
Answer: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq. m Test?
Answer: 2 pcs – 1 m sample
10. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt?
Answer: 0 to 30 penetration grade 33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture for
heavily reinforced concrete structure using a pump Crete to pump
11. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test? out the fresh concrete mix, what admixture should it be?
Answer: concrete beam sample Answer: Super plasticizer

12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate 34. What is the use of blown asphalt?
Base Course)? Answer: as joint filler and water proofing
Answer: CBR, abrasion, GPCD
35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade
13. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow asphalt?
topping (Item 104)? Answer: Asphalt Cement
Answer: 3 grading tests
36. How many days does the sample for Immersion – Compression Test be
14. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find out that soaked in water?
the materials to be used as Item 200 if finer than the required Answer: 4 days @ 50°C
materials?
Answer: blend Item 200 with coarser materials 37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement?
Answer: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on
15. What is the standard specification for LL Ignition
and PI of Item 201?
Answer: maximum of 25% and 38. Paint is composed of _____
maximum of 6% respectively Answer: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads

16. What is the CBR requirement for Item

201? 39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete sample?
Answer: 80% maximum Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with hemispherical tip

17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken 40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its
plane joint of concrete pavement? initial curing?
Answer: Blown Asphalt Answer: 23°C ± 1.7°C

18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH 41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between
Specification (Blue Book)? 63°F to 85°F are permitted for a period not to exceed _____ hours
Answer: Portland Cement Concrete immediately prior to test if free moisture is maintained on the surface
Pavement of the specimen at all times.
Answer: three (3)
19. What is the machine used for abrasion
test? 42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after
Answer: Los Angeles Abrasion initial curing of _____ hours and should be cured to the standard
Machine curing temperature of 73.4 °F ± 3°F
Answer: Twenty – four (24)
20. How to determine the degree of
compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201? 43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil?
Answer: by Field Density Test Answer: high degree of compressibility

21. What is the formula in obtaining the 44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to
value of PI? what sieve?
Answer: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Answer: No. 40 (0.425 mm)
Limit
45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given for Moisture –
22. What are the other terms for sieve Density Relation Test (MDR) is T – 180?
analysis? Answer: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop
Answer: Grading Test, Particle Size
Distribution Test, Mechanical 46. A beam mold measuring 6” x 6” x 20 is to be used for sampling
Analysis concrete, how many blows/tamps per layer shall be applied?
Answer: 60 blows/layer if 21in=63blows
23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200
kg/m3, with an actual moisture content of 10.2% and a maximum dry 47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing
density of 1,960 kg/m3? 2,865.98g, what is the % asphalt by weight of mix?
Answer: 101.86% dry den = wet den/mc+1 deg c =dd/mdd Answer: 5.10%

24. How many concrete cores shall be taken
for one (1) kilometer concrete pavement?
Answer: 5 holes/km/lane
48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?
Answer: Cut – back asphalt
49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread
over the surface at the rate of approximately _____?
Answer: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2
50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in
prob. 47, what is the acceptable range of asphalt content?
Answer: 4.7% to 5.5%
51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is
the degree of compaction for this kind of soil?
Answer: 95% degree of compaction
52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9 bags/cu.m, how
about for concrete Class “B”?
Answer: 8 bags/cu.m
53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of
the_____?
Answer: Contractor
54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and
testing aggregates?
Answer: Once the source is identified
55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “P” is 5,000 psi,
what is the minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “C”?
Answer: 3,000 psi
56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the mixer’s
nominal capacity in cu.m as shown on the manufacturer’s standard
plate on the mixer, except that an overload up to _____ percent
above the mixer’s nominal capacity may be permitted provided
concrete test data for strength, segregation, and uniform consistency
are satisfactory, and provided that no spillage of concrete takes
place.
Answer: Ten (10)
57. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core
taken from pavement is deficient in thickness by more than 25 mm?
Answer: at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the
centerline in each direction from the affected location
58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration grade or
hard asphalt?
Answer: hot climate (cold climate – higher penetration grade
or soft asphalt)
59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction
material?
Answer: Materials test results/reports
60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to _____?
Answer: consistency
61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine
_____?
Answer: consistency of concrete
62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each full
day’s operation?
Answer: at least one but not to exceed three samples
63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how many
measurements?
Answer: four (4)
64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based on how many
measurements?
Answer: nine (9)
65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it represents
is defective, why?
Answer: may be the sampling is incorrect
66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer,
which of the following amount of water is most likely required for the
mix?
Answer: 20 liters
67. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______.
Answer: overheating during the process of manufacture
68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall
enamel paint are to be used in the project?
Answer: four (4) pails
69. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be
laid in a 15cm compacted depth. How many samples shall be
submitted for CBR test and for sieve analysis?
Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis
70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons of
Bituminous Prime Coat is to be used in the project?
Answer: Two (2) samples
71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201 having a
volume of 8,250 cu.m?
Answer: Six (6) compaction tests
72. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly Reports?
Answer: Summary of field tests and status of test
73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with
sufficient water
74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and
Storm Drains)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with
sufficient water
75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the technician must
have a program on how many samples for each item of work should
be tested based on the minimum testing requirements. What
program or report is this?
Answer: Quality Control Program
76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for test,
what is the alternative way of reducing sample for testing size?
Answer: apply quartering method and get two opposite sides
as sample
77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and
cured have attained the minimum strength requirements. If such
tests are not conducted prior to the specified age the pavement shall
not be operated to traffic until _____ days after the concrete was
placed.
Answer: Fourteen (14)
78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should know how many
sample has been submitted and tested and how many samples are to
be submitted, in other words the ME must refer to what report so
that he/she may be updated on the balance and on file quality test of
the construction materials being used in the project?
Answer: Status of Test
79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded
without breaking or crumbling up to 1/8” (3.2 mm).
Answer: Plastic Limit
80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25
blows.
Answer: Liquid Limit
81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a slump
cone with base and tamping rod. After the test, the height of
concrete measured is 178 mm. what is the slump of the concrete?
Answer: 127 mm
82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used
for testing the mass percent of wear?
Answer: 30 – 33 rpm
83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch
weights: cement = 40 kgs, fine aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse
aggregate = 115 kgs, and water = 15 liters. What is your actual
batch weights for 1 cu.m Class “A” concrete?
Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates;
1035 kgs coarse aggregates; 130 liters water
84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of
wear computed is equal to 21%. If this material is for Item 201, does
it pass the DPWH specs?
Answer: Yes, because the specs is 50% maximum
85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every _____?
Answer: week
86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the
construction materials be tested:
Answer: before it is incorporated into work
87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal
layer in loose measurement?
Answer: 200 mm loose measurement
88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete
masonry?
Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples
for absorption
89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the
project, the quantity represented, kind of sample, original source,
who sampled and who submitted it, the date sampled and date
submitted and etc. What is the common name of that tag for you as
Materials Engineer?
Answer: Sample Card
90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how
many layers should a 40 cm thick Aggregate Base Course is placed?
Answer: Three (3)
91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the
number of days of a quality test that takes place. Since not all
construction materials can be tested just for a day or even a week
so, what is the lead time should he consider for a quality test of a
cement sample?
Answer: One (1) month
92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for
how many days before testing?
Answer: Four (4)
93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what
test that its result be used in field density test?
Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test
94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density
test, are you going to pursue your schedule? Why?
Answer: No, because the moisture content is high and can
affect the result
95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of
asphalt mix can be done by what test?
Answer: Extraction Test
96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool
97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test?
Answer: glass plate
98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix?
Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 – 60 cm interval
99. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an erosion
control measures and also to improve the stability of the slope.
Answer: Berm
100. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control design of
foundation condition, a soil sample was taken for field and laboratory
tests. The test required for soil was taken, except
Answer: specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg
Limits, gradation, compaction, relative density
101. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit
shall be laid at least _____ above the top of the conduit.
Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m
102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a maximum of 70
kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 50 kgs.
Answer: Class B
103. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a maximum of 25
kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 20 kgs.
Answer: Class A
104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a maximum of 100
kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 80 kgs.
Answer: Class C
105. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a maximum of 200
kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 1500 kgs.
Answer: Class D
106. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry.
Answer: 150 mm
107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300.
Answer: 1 inch
108. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300.
Answer: 35%
109. Required plasticity index range on Item 300.
Answer: 4% to 9%
110. Range of sand size.
Answer: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm Ø
111. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids.
Answer: void ratio
112. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids.
Answer: moisture content
113. Significance of grading test are, except
Answer: Gives particle size distribution, measures
permeability, capillarity, measures the potential cohesion of
soil
114. Significance of plasticity index are, except
Answer: indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the
clay fraction of a binder material, measures the shearing
resistance of soil
115. Properties of concrete are, except
Answer: workability, strength, durability, cracking
116. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the following will
determine the economical thickness, except
Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base
117. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state.
Answer: Liquidity Index
118. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except
Answer: shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group
index
119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for centering
under girders, beams, frames and arches.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 80%)
120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor slabs.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for columns.
Answer: 2 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams
and all other vertical surfaces.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
124. A mass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group
of piles to ensure that act as a unit to support the imposed load.
Answer: Pile cap
125. An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer.
Answer: 150 mm
126. Class of concrete deposited in water.
Answer: Class Seal
127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily reinforced
substructures. The important parts of the structure included are
slabs, beams, girders, columns, arch ribs, box culverts, reinforced
abutments, retaining walls, and reinforced footings.
Answer: Class A
128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe
bedding and gravity walls, unreinforced or w/ only a small amount of
reinforcement.
Answer: Class B
129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast
piles, cribbing, and for filler in steel grid floors.
Answer: Class C
130. Class of concrete used in
pre–stressed concrete structures and
members.
Answer: Class P
131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit.
Answer: 1.50 m
132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings. What Item ______?
Answer: Item 612
133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for Item 300.
Answer: + 15 mm and – 5 mm
134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of _____.
Answer: 3% to 5 %
135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____.
Answer: plain bars
136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third – Point Method shall
have a flexural strength of _____ when tested in 14 days.
Answer: 3.80 MPa
137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the
aggregate sub – base shall spread and compacted in ____
` Answer: two or more layers
138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____.
Answer: 80%
139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201.
Answer: ± 10 mm
140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US
standard
Answer: No. 40
141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the minimum density
is _____
Answer: 1,120 kg/m3
142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of
concrete specimens for PCCP which 10% to less than 15%.
Answer: 70%
143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there is an
interruption of more than 30 minutes in the concreting operation.
Answer: Transverse Construction Joint
144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight
edge between contacts with the surface in Item 310
Answer: 6.0 mm
145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course (Item 206) after the
completion of the final rolling, the surface will be treated with
bituminous curing seal, how much is the rate of application?
Answer: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2
146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The
required number of CBR test is _____
Answer: four (4)
147. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except
Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density
148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except
Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures
the potential cohesion of soil, fineness and shape of grain,
Atterberg limits
 Answer: 1 inch
149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the ff.,
except 178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil
Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4 aggregate, lime, water in proper proportion, road – mixed and
constructed on a prepared subgrade/subbase.
150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)
material.
Answer: Group Index 179. The required plasticity index for Item 203
Answer: 4% to 10%
151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate 200 ln.m,
half width per paving day, how many sets of concrete beam samples 180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on Item
shall be required. Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m, 203
thickness = 230 mm Answer: 50%
Answer: 353 sets
181. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and B
152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings. Answer: 2”
Answer: 30%
182. Item number for water?
153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings. Answer: Item 714
Answer: 6%
183. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent of lime to be
154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic added to the soil aggregate?
limit exceeds Answer: 3% to 12%
Answer: 80% and 55% respectively
184. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203
155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is Answer: 100%
______________.
Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower 185. Required percent compaction for
Item 203
156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with Answer: 100%
Answer: AASHTO T 90
186. Equipment to be used for initial rolling
157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with Answer: Pneumatic tire roller
Answer: AASHTO T 89
187. Equipment to be used for final rolling
158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer Answer: 3 – wheel tandem type steel wheel roller
Answer: 95%
188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in an
159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment. open cup and passing a small test flame.
Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long Answer: flash point

160. At least how many days in – situ density tests should be carried out
for each 500 m2 of each layer of compacted fill?
Answer: three (3)
161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200
Answer: 12%
189. It is a manually – operated device for deriving a measurement of
roughness from the surface profile which may be expressed in terms
of International Roughness Index.
Answer: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device

162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200 190. It is used for the rapid in – situ measurement of the structural
Answer: 35% properties of existing pavement with unbound granular properties.
Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer
164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is
determined in accordance with. 191. What is the thinnest cut – back asphalt?
Answer: AASHTO T 96 Answer: MC – 3000

165. The required abrasion loss for Item 200 192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method used to
Answer: 50% determine the casting length of the regular piles?
Answer: Test Pitting
166. The minimum CBR required for Item 200
Answer: 25% 193. It is an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection
between joints of a concrete pavement, to determine the modulus of
167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is the existing slabs for use in the design of an overlay, and to
determined by determine the remaining life of existing pavement.
Answer: AASHTO T 193 Answer: Falling Weight Deflectometer

168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub- 194. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars, conduits, pipes, nails
base course. and other metals embedded in concrete before cutting or drilling?
Answer: 100% Answer: Rebar Locator

169. In – place density determination of aggregate sub-base course
material shall be made in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 191
170. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are
scarce or non – available, the use _____ allowable percent
weathered limestone (anapog) blended with crushed stones or
gravel.
Answer: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)
172. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202.
Answer: 45%
173. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured
face of Item 202.
Answer: 50%
174. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202.
Answer: 80%
195. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure for surface test
of concrete and asphalt pavements as soon as the concrete has
hardened sufficiently or as soon as the asphalt mix has been initially
compacted?
Answer: 3 – meter straight edge
196. What is the latest state of the art equipment consuming radioactive
material which is commonly used in the compaction control of earth
and asphalt road construction and in the measurement of moisture
content?
Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge
197. It is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting
from vehicle wheel loadings. The results of the elastic deformation
tests are used to evaluate the structural condition of roads, and to
help in the design of road strengthening measures and road capacity
improvement.
Answer: Benkelman Beam and
Deflection Logger

163. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200 198. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid
Answer: 2” materials such as rocks and concrete? This instrument is a non –
destructive portable instrument with dimensions of 110 mm x 180
171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B mm x 160 mm and its main uses includes the determination of
Answer: 1 ½ inch concrete strength (either in – situ or pre – cast),also to determine the
presence of voids, cracks and other imperfections.
176. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under grading A Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete
Answer: 2” Tester

175. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading A

Answer: 1 ½ inch 199. Soil stabilizing agent
Answer: Lime – for silty and
177. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B. clayey soil
 Cement – for sandy 222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be
soil taken from each 330 sq. m of pavement of fraction thereof placed
each day?
200. Water content at which soil passes Answer: 1 set
from plastic to liquid state.
Answer: LIQUID LIMIT 223. What is the required compressive
strength that concrete piles be moved?
201. Water content at which soil passes Answer:
from semi – solid to plastic state. 80% of the designed 28 – day compressive strength
Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT
224. The required circular pin diameter
202. Water content at which soil passes used to bend 10 – 20 mm Ø reinforcing
from solid to semi – solid. steel. Answer: 6d (20 mm – 25 mm
Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT Ø = 8d: 28 mm Ø and above = 10d)

203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining slabs 226. What is the slump of concrete Class A
together are called _____. deposited in water?
Answer: tie bars Answer: 10 to 20 cm

204. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of 15 mm in a 3 – 228. What item no. is Bituminous Surface
m straight edge. The concrete in the area represented by these Treatment?
high spots _____. Answer: Item 304
Answer: shall be removed and replaced (but if high spots
being noted exceeds 3 mm but not exceeding 12 mm, it shall 229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job – mix
be ground down only. formula for Item 310?
Answer: ± 0.4%
205. The calibration of the Universal testing
machine is conducted _____ 227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base
Answer: Once a year course preparatory to the construction of a bituminous surface
course.
206. What is the sampling requirement of Answer: Prime Coat
bituminous mixture?
Answer: 1 sample per 130 tonnes 230. This item consists of an application of bituminous material with or
without the application of aggregate on existing bituminous
207. What is the depth of the thermometer surface?
inserted in the bituminous mixture? Answer: Seal Coat
Answer: 2”
239. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing
208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under bituminous or cement concrete surface with bituminous materials
the Marshall Stability Method for heavy traffic is ____ preparatory to the construction of bituminous surface course.
Answer: 1800 lbs Answer: Tack Coat

209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum
load resistance that a specimen will develop at _____ 232. What is the size of the sample in Item
Answer: 60° 310 taken for each full day’s operation?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100mm Ø
210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each
end for a heavy traffic design under the Marshall Stability Method?
Answer: 75 blows 231. Job – mix tolerance for temperature in
the mixture for Item 310.
211. In a penetration test, if the penetration Answer: ± 10°C
is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt?
Answer: 85 – 100 233. What is the required temperature of
mix in item 310 when placed?
212. In case of scarcity or non – availability of Type I Portland cement, Answer: 107°C
what type of pozzolan shall be used?
Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement 225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer
Type 1P during batching.
Answer: 4 to 6 rpm
213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of Item 311
when tested by the midpoint method. 234. The required speed in rolling in Item
Answer: 4.50 MPa 310.
Answer: 5 kph
214. The required forms to be used in
concrete pavement are _____. 235. It is the resulting difference in
Answer: Steel forms of an approved elevation across a joint or crack.
section Answer: faulting

215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints 236. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness determination, it shall have a
shall be done usually at _____. diameter of at least ______.
Answer: Within 24 hours Answer: 100 mm

216. Removal of forms of concrete 237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy
pavement __________. of cement content shall be _____.
Answer: 24 hours Answer: ± 1.0 mass %

217. The required slump of concrete using 238. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the slope using Class D
slip – form method of paving is _____. stones for riprap.
Answer: 1 ½ inches Answer: 800 mm
(Class A – 300 mm; Class B – 500 mm; Class C – 600 mm)
218. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein no payment of
contract price allowed is _____. 240. What is the rate of application of
Answer: 25% or more bituminous seal coat using asphalt
cement? Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2
219. What is the length of a lot of pavement
when a single traffic lane is poured? 241. What is the rate of application of
Answer: 1,000 ln.m bituminous seal coat using cut – back
asphalt? Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2
220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane are
poured concurrently?
Answer: 500 ln.m 242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item
310 from the testing edge of the straight edge between any two
221. What is the required size of concrete contacts with the surface?
beam sample? Answer: 6 mm
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm
243. What is the minimum dry compressive
of Item 310? Answer: 1.40 MPa

244. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310 when
tested by AASHTO T 65?
Answer: 70% minimum
245. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days
grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve.
Answer: ±7 269. Tact coat must be at what condition
prior to the application of asphalt mix?
246. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for Answer: tacky
grading, passing No 8 to No. 100
(inclusive). Answer: ±4 270. The use of sea water in reinforced
concrete may _____
247. .Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for Answer: induce risk of corrosion in
grading, passing No. 200 sieve. Answer: ±2 reinforcing steel

248. The property of asphalt mix to resist 271. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or
deformation from imposed load. less is considered _____
Answer: stability Answer: weak subgrade

249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of air, 272. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15%
water, temperature and traffic. or more is considered _____
Answer: durability Answer: very stable

250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing caused by 273. Subgrade other than those defined in
the passage of wheel loads. the two above categories is considered.
Answer: fatigue resistance Answer: normal

251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking and to 274. What are the three (3) major groups of
conform to gradual settlements and moments of the base and soil?
subgrade. Answer: granular soil, fine grained
Answer: flexibility soil, organic soil

252. The range of aggregates composition 275. What is the significance of field density
in Item 310. test?
Answer: 92% to 95% Answer: to determine the degree of compaction of soil. It is
also a control test in embankment construction to ensure
253. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of water adequate compaction.
on the cohesion of the mix?
Answer: Immersion – Compression Test 276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy
of the result. True or false?
254. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is the most Answer: true
commonly used grade of asphalt cement?
Answer: 60 – 70 and 85 – 100 277. How to prepare or to come up with an
air – dried sample?
255. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt, Immersion – Answer: air dry the sample under
Compression Test is performed. the heat of the sun
Answer: stability
278. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the heat of the sun,
256. Percent air voids will _____ as percent what alternative should be used?
asphalt increases in Marshall Stability. Answer: oven – dry the sample @
Answer: decrease 60°C

257. To determine the temperature of 279. Sample for compaction test should
delivered asphalt mix, what apparatus is pass to what sieve size?
used? Answer: Method A & B – use
Answer: armored thermometer sample passing No. 4
Method C & D – use sample
258. Peat and muck soils are considered as: passing ¾ inch
Answer: highly organic soils
280. What is the difference between T – 99
259. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub – base or base course and T – 180 compaction test method?
construction? Answer: T – 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with a 12” drop
Answer: to check the suitability of materials, efficiency of the while T – 180 uses 4.54 kg (10lbs) rammer with an 18” drop.
equipment used and the construction method.
281. What is particle size analysis?
260. What does it mean when there is Answer: It is the determination of particle size distribution in
bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road? soils by sieve, hydrometer or a combined analysis
Answer: excessive asphalt content
282. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it
261. A good subgrade soil should have the deals with chemicals?
following: Answer: distilled water
Answer: low liquid limit and low
plastic limit 283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply
on the base through a height of _____?
262. Concrete samples may be tested at an Answer: 10 mm
earlier stage in order to _____
Answer: determine the trend of its 284. How many rotations per second will
strength development the crank of a liquid limit be rotated?
Answer: 2 rps
263. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe tested in a three
– edge bearing test machine? 285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø
Answer: 0.3 mm crack will the soil thread begin to break?
Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8”)
264. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load should be
continuous without shock at a constant rate within the range of 286. What is specific gravity?
_____ Answer; It is used in a gravimetric – volumetric relationship
Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second in soils (or defined as the ratio of the wt. in air of an equal
(compression); 125 – volume of water at a stated temperature)
175 psi/second (flexural)
287. What is the approximate area for
265. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time and that density control strips?
there is already doubt as to its quality should: Answer: 335 sq. m
Answer: be retested prior to use
288. What Item of work is embankment?
266. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more Answer: Item 104
suitable for a particular purpose.
Answer: Stabilization 289. What kind of material for Item 200?
Answer: Aggregate sub – base
267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each course
other, third test is taken. What will be this test? Answer:
referee test

268. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete

pavement, is it allowed in DPWH specs to use core samples to 290. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings
determine the strength. What is the required compressive under Item 104?
strength?
 Answer: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm or 3”
openings and not more than 15 mass % will pass 0.075 mm.
(AASHTO T 11)
291. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201?
Answer: 100%
292. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the
moisture density relation test or compaction test?
Answer: Maximum dry density (MDD) and Optimum moisture
content (OMC)
293. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test
(FDT)?
Answer: Any clean, dry, free – flowing, uncemented sand
passing No. 10 and retained No. 200 sieve
294. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT sand cone?
Answer: ½ inch (12.7 mm)
295. What are the apparatus used in FDT?
Answer: sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate,
moisture cans, calibrated sand, weighing scale, oven with
temperature control, chisel or digging tool, plastic bags and
labeling materials (tag name)
296. How many hours does a fine aggregate tested for specific gravity and
absorption be soaked in water?
Answer: 15 to 19 hours
297. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated dry
condition?
Answer: It is determined by the use of cone test for surface
moisture. If the molded shape of fine aggregate slumps
slightly, it indicates that it has reached a surface dry
condition
298. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates?
Answer: Fine aggregate = grading, specific gravity,
absorption, dry unit weight: Coarse aggregate = grading,
specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight and abrasion.
Note: Soundness test is also performed as per request
299. What are the size or diameter and
weight of cast – iron spheres used in
abrasion test?
Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm Ø and each weighing
between 390 – 455 grams
300. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse
aggregate, grading A with 12 as number of spheres?
Answer: 5,000 grams ± 25 grams
301. What is significance of abrasion test?
Answer: It evaluates the structural strength of coarse
aggregate. It gives an indication of quality as determined by
resistance to impact and wear. It also determines whether
the aggregates will have degradation during traffic or rolling.
302. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test?
Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm)
303. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural
test?
Answer: 14 days
304. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested
at third point?
Answer: R = PL
bd2
305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested
at center point?
Answer: R = 3PL
2bd2
306. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling concrete?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with the tamping end
rounded to a hemispherical tip of the same Ø as the rod.
307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many
samples are required?
Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs
if more than 10,000 units)
308. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry
units?
Answer:
Individual = 5.5 MPa
(800 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) =
6.9 MPa (1000 psi) minimum
309. What is the strength requirement for non – load bearing concrete
masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 3.45 MPa (500
psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) =
4.5 MPa (600 psi) minimum
310. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars?
Answer: To determine the yield and tensile strength of the
bar as well as its elongation and is used to classify the
bars into grade.
311. What is the significance of bending test for RSB?
Answer: To evaluate the ductile properties of RSB
312. What is the required testing requirement for paints?
Answer: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100 cans (gal or pail)
313. SS – l or SS – lh is what kind of
asphalt?
Answer: slow – setting emulsified
asphalt
314. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat be left
undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours
315. What kind of asphalt is used as tack
coat?
Answer: cut – back asphalt
316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how
many pieces of RCCP?
Answer: 25 pieces
317. What is being determined in a core
sample from asphalt pavement?
Answer: thickness and density of
pavement
318. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily
activities, weather, etc. are recorded in a _____
Answer: Materials logbook
319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is
an in – situ test that measures what?
Answer: depth of soil layer
320. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying
concrete is called _____
Answer: segregation
321. A one – lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width
of 0.5 m on each side of the pavement was designed to have sub-
base and base courses with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the
thickness of the sub-base is 125 mm, the spreading and compaction
of the base and sub-base courses shall be carried out in?
Answer: three (3) layers over the
full width of 4.5 m
322. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____
rate of loading shall be permitted?
Answer: higher
323. Quality of factory – produced RCCP
may be best established through what?
Answer: Test of concrete pipe
samples
324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of
subgrade preparation. If you were the ME assigned to the project,
what is the most effective and cheaper method that you would
recommend to stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the sub
base course?
Answer: geotextiles
325. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6”
x 6” x 21” beam mold be rodded?
Answer: 63 blows/layer
326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to
produce excessive _______ or _______. Answer: pulverizing of
the aggregate, displacement of the mixture
327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than
____
Answer: 29ºC
328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs RCCP?
Answer: 12 sets
329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how many
pipes shall be subjected to test?
Answer: 6 pcs RCCP
330. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order to
increase its workability (provided concrete does not excced
specified slump), how many minutes after the initial time of mixing
does adding water be permitted?
Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that water – cement
ratio is not exceeded.
331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the
bituminous mixture?
Answer:
TAR – is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of
coal or wood.
 PETROLEUM ASPHALT – are the products of the Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non –
distillation of crude oil. agitating trucks and 90 minutes if hauled in truck mixers or
agitators
332. What are the three (3) major
petroleum asphalts? 354. How is concrete consolidated?
Answer: Asphalt cement, cut – Answer: by the use of vibrator inserted in the concrete
back asphalt, emulsified asphalt vertically

333. What are the solvents of cut – back asphalts? 355. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a form of
Answer: a keyway is used?
GASOLINE – for rapid – curing type Answer: longitudinal construction joint
KEROSENE – for medium curing type
DIESEL – for slow curing type 356. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in the
334. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or _____. preceding problem?
Answer: Answer: deformed steel tie bars
CATIONIC EMULSION – works better with wet
aggregates and in cold weather. It is a 357. What is the depth of the weaken
positively charge electron. plane joint when sawed with a concrete
ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to aggregates saw? Answer: not less than 50 mm
which have positive charge. It is a negatively charge
electron. 358. The width of the weaken plane joint is
_____. Answer: not less than 6 mm
335. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310?
Answer: asphalt cement 359. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the
time of sawing?
336. What greatly affects the service of Answer: sawing shall be omitted
asphalt cement?
Answer: grade and quantity of 360. Tie bars shall not be coated or
asphalt painted with _____
Answer: asphalt or other materials
337. What influences primarily the grade of
asphalt selected? 361. What is the material that is used as a load transfer device held in a
Answer: climatic condition position parallel to the surface and center line of the slab of
pavement?
Answer: dowel
338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor
shall submit the job – mix formula? 362. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete,
Answer: three (3) weeks it shall be coated with _____
Answer: thin film of bitumen
339. Who will approve the job – mix
formula? 363. The surface of the pavement shall be
Answer: DPWH PE and ME roughened by means of _____
Answer: brooming
340. The job – mix formula contains
provisions the following: 364. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the
Answer: surface of the pavement?
a. grading of aggregates Answer: 1.5 mm
b. percentage and type of asphalt
c. temperature of aggregates and asphalt 365. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set shall
d. temperature of mixture upon delivery or time be cured for a period of _____
of compaction Answer: 72 hours

341. When tar is used, what is the 366. The curing of the pavement is done
temperature that the mixture shall be by means of the following:
placed? Answer: 66ºC to 107ºC Answer:
a. by covering the concrete with mats saturated
342. When is the right time to compact in with water
order to attain the required density? b. by thoroughly wetting the pavement
Answer: when the mixture is still c. by ponding
hot and workable d. by applying curing compound immediately
after finishing of the surface
343. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that
would attain the required density? 367. When is the right time to seal the
Answer: trial section joints?
Answer: after the curing period or
344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and before it is opened to traffic
is of great significance in the strength of the resulting pavement?
Answer: temperature 368. What is the difference between Item
504 and Item 505 (bluebook ’95)?
345. In Item 310, how is rolling be done? Answer: the placement of stone or boulders and the ratio of
Answer: It should begin from the sides and proceed cement and fine sand
longitudinally parallel towards the center line, each trip
overlapping one half the roller’s width. 369. The ME of the contractor is directly
under the supervision of the _____?
346. After the final rolling, what will be checked? Answer: Materials Engineer of the
Answer: degree of compaction DPWH
347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater
than _____ 370. The requisites in transporting samples
Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted density of the laboratory is _____
Answer: Well packed in durable containers to avoid
348. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the pavement? damages in transit, accompanied by a sample card filled up
Answer: when the pavement has cooled to atmospheric in detail and duly signed by the ME
temperature
371. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or rejection of
349. How do we take sample from the finish pavement? construction materials for use in the project based on test
Answer: by the use of core drill or saw results?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH
350. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated?
Answer: 40 mm – 75 mm 372. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and
hardness.
351. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if vibrated? Answer: asphaltene
Answer: 10 mm – 40 mm

352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of 373. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix is passing
mixing? sieve?
Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds Answer: No. 200

353. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the time 374. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____
water is added to the mix until the concrete is deposited in – place Answer: pothole patching
at the site?
375. VMA means
Answer: Voids in Mineral Aggregates
376. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous mixture 402. A maximum time of _____ shall be
specimen permitted for wet mixing, lay down and
Answer: 124ºC finishing when this method is used
(Item 206)
377. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is Answer: two (2) hours
Answer: 163ºC
403. Traffic shall be prohibited from
378. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is traveling at the speeds in excess of
Answer: 121ºC - 188ºC _____ until the asphaltic material has
set. Answer: 40 kph
379. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from
Answer: 177ºC - 191ºC 404. Mortar shall be used within _____
after its preparation.
380. The maximum absorption content of CHB Answer: 90 minutes
Answer: 240 kg/m3 405. In placing concrete for slab, using
buggies, the correct method that
381. The maximum moisture content of CHB should be followed is
Answer: 45% Answer: concrete should be dumped into the face of the
previously placed concrete.
382. SPT means
Answer: Standard Penetration Test 406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you are the
ME of your firm, what will you recommend?
383. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed sample Answer: conduct recoring
Answer: Shelby tube
407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material
384. Used in sealing undisturbed sample peaked or doomed up and a load suddenly appears in which the material
Answer: wax lies flat, it indicates
Answer: excessive asphalt
385. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample
Answer: split spoon sampler 408. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement?
Answer: Bellafontaine,Ohio (1893)
386. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results
which can be used to estimate shear strength and bearing capacity
Answer: Standard Penetration Test 409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25 th blow is projected
in order to determine the liquid limit of the soil.
387. A type of coring bit used in rock coring Answer: Flow curve
Answer: diamond bit
410. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____. Answer:
388. CQCA means abrasion loss
Answer: Certificate of Quality Control Assurance (submitted
weekly) 411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the
concrete mix that produces a slump of 76.2 mm?
389. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from Answer: 24.7 liters
Answer: 1.01 – 1.04
412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____. Answer:
390. The type of electron present in rapid curing emulsified asphalt? 2.75
Answer: cationic
413. The standard packaging weight of cement. Answer: 40 kg/bag
391. How many group of three in – situ densities are required if the
compacted volume of embankment laid was estimated to be 1,500 414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before
cu. m with a thickness of 200 mm/layer? its initial setting that prevents rapid evaporation of water from the mix.
Answer: fifteen (15) Answer: curing compound

392. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing steel is

Answer: 6% maximum under nominal stress 415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes and
parking spaces which is rapid drying, resistant to abrasion and weather
393. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of a deformed and conditions and possess improved visibility at night.
plain billet steel bar is Answer: reflectorized paint
Answer: 0.06%
416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time.
394. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars? Answer: glass beads
Answer:
TENSILE STRENGTH YIELD POINT 417. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units. Answer:
GRADE 40 483 MPa Latex
276 MPa
GRADE 60 621 MPa 418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test.
414 MPa Answer: Triple spot test
GRADE 75 689 MPa
517 MPa 419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating.
395. Plasticity index is an indication of Answer: Single spot test
percent. Answer: clay content
420. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is a special type
396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction of paint made with varnish as the vehicle.
test is Answer: Enamel
Answer: air – dried condition
421. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under
397. The method in the determination of density of soil in – place average conditions of good drainage and adequate compaction. The
Answer: Sand cone method supporting value of a material as subgrade may be assumed as an
inverse ratio to its group index, that is a group index of zero indicates
398. Air –dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing Answer: good subgrade material
Answer: sieve No. 10 retained No. 200
422. It determines the target density which is constructed at the
399. Which of the following items does not need CBR? beginning of the work on each course of material to be compacted.
Answer: Answer: Control strips
a. subbase materials
b. surfacing materials 423. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass
c. base course materials in its final position.
Answer: tremie with 250 mm Ø
400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge
shall consist of cast – iron spheres or 424. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint. Answer:
steel spheres. 2.15
Answer:
GRADING A – 12 spheres 425. The softening point of a thermoplastic paint. Answer: 102.5ºC
GRADING B – 11 spheres
GRADING C – 8 spheres 426. The maximum drying time of thermoplastic paint. Answer: 10
GRADING D – 6 spheres minutes

401. In truck mixing, the minimum number 427. The rate of application of traffic paint.
of revolutions after all ingredients Answer: 0.33 lit/m2
including water is in the drum is
Answer: 100 rpm
428. The maximum drying time of traffic paint. Answer: 15 – 30
minutes 457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by
air permeability
429. The minimum weight of sample for reflectorized paint. Answer: 10 Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus
kg
458. A mixture of cement and water is
430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of Answer: cement paste
compacted bituminous paving mixture.
Answer: vernier caliper 459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of
Portland cement in the laboratory.
431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the degree Answer: Gillmore needle
of compaction of the asphalt pavement.
Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous 460. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in 7 days is
mixtures using saturated surface dry specimens. Answer: 19.3 MPa

432. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen. Answer: gasoline 461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to
meet the autoclave?
433. The percent of bitumen is computed based on Answer: crumbled
Answer: mass of dry aggregates
462. The critical number of days of curing of concrete
434. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted Answer: first seven (7) days
from bituminous mixture.
Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates 463. It is equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall use every
precaution to obtain samples that will show the nature and condition of
435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt. the materials which they represent.
Answer: penetrometer Answer: sampling

436. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to 464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by
oil. reducing aggregations of particles into sizes which will pass certain
Answer: Distillation sieves.
Answer: disturbed samples

437. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to melt. 465. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable
Answer: Softening point laboratory tests of structural properties.
Answer: thin – walled tube sampling
438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the
formula 467. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an
Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100% accredited laboratory.
Answer: government
439. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for Item 310.
Answer: 200˚F to 225˚F 468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using
any drilling equipment that provides clean hole before insertion of thin –
440. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked? walled tubes that is, both the natural density and moisture content are
Answer: yellowish brown preserved as much as practicable.
Answer: undisturbed samples
441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement
are there in the blue book? 469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh
Answer: seven (7) concrete.
Answer: retarder
442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement
are there in the blue book? 470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early
Answer: two (2) compressive strength of concrete.
Answer: accelerator
443. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at
Answer: approximately quarter points 471. The best enemy of construction.
Answer: water
444. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes
Answer: bleeding 472. The following are considered unsuitable materials:
Answer:
445. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler? a. Materials containing detrimental quantities of
Answer: not greater than 4 organic materials such as grass, roots and
sewage
446. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by dislodging of b. Highly organic soils such as peat and muck
aggregate particle. c. Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/or PL
Answer: raveling exceeding 55%
d. Soils with a natural moisture content
447. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks exceeding 100%
resembling an alligator’s skin or chicken wire. e. Soils with very low natural density, 800kg/m3
Answer: alligator cracking f. Soils that cannot be properly compacted as
determined by the engineer
448. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and
specifies the kind and number of test of each item of work. 473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for
Answer: Minimum Testing Requirements aggregate base course?
Answer: 0 – 12%
449. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium
sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed 474. The rate of application of special
Answer: 10 mass % curing agent
Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m
450. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate
soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed 475. The method of measurement for
Answer: 12 mass % determining the depth of the river
channel. Answer: sounding
451. Additives used in concrete mixing.
Answer: admixtures 476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what Atterberg limit
test can be performed?
452. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to Answer: Liquid limit test
disintegration by saturated solutions of sodium sulfate or magnesium
sulfate. 477. The minimum penetration of the
Answer: Soundness test preservatives into the surface of timber is
Answer: 20mm
453. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook is based on
Answer: Absolute Design Method 478. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the treating
process of timber.
454. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than Answer: 10 days
Answer: 45 minutes
479. All grout shall pass through a screen
455. The final setting time of Portland cement with a _____ maximum clear opening.
Answer: 10 hours Answer: 2mm

456. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland
cement 480. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid injury using
Answer: Ottawa sand gravity hammer.
 Answer: 2.5m – 3.5 (concrete) 506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline for new road
4.5m (timber) on swampy or marshy ground.
Answer: 100m (2m along the centerline of new road)
481. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size,
shape and gradation. 507. The required spacing of bore holes for bridge project
Answer: Compaction Answer:
1 deep drill for each abutment (30m run)
482. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are poor as 1 boring for each pier for multi – span (3m into the
engineering materials. bed rocks)
Answer: liquid limit of fines
508. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over foundation area
483. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay depending of dam.
on the expected traffic and the modulus of the cracked and seated Answer: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along centerline
pavement section. Depth = ½ times base width
Answer: 3” to 5”
484. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean 509. For ports and harbors projects:
deflection is ____ or the differential deflection is ____. Answer: 30m to 150m; 1m below dredged bottom (12m
Answer: greater than 0.14”, minimum for piers & wharves)
greater than 0.002”
485. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by _____ and 510. For buildings (large area – greater than 930 m2):
increase the 24 – hour strength by _____. Answer: 1 bore hole at each corner of the structure and one
Answer: 25% to 35%, on the interior (9m below lowest foundation)
50% to 70%
511. For buildings less than 930 m2
486. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks and areas that Answer: two (2) boring at opposite corners
have previously patched by asphalt by _____ with nominal _____
air pressure. 512. This reflector shall be the short type having a minimum base area
Answer: power sweeping and air of 180mm x 140mm.
blowing, 100 psi Answer: Flush Surface Reflector

487. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled amount of air

on the form moist in concrete during mixing without significantly 513. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened plane is delayed.
altering the setting or the rate of characteristic of concrete. Answer: shrinkage cracking
Answer: air entraining admixtures
514. What is the primary purpose in establishing design criteria in
488. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against actual design?
and by speed task to make – up for the past or future loss of time. Answer: consistency
Answer: Delivery control
515. Positional tolerance of duct tubes during casting operations.
489. Bowl – shaped holes of various sizes in the pavement surface. Answer: ± 4mm
` Answer: potholes
516. This method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of
490. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) termite infestation.
across the pavement. Answer: Cordoning
Answer: corrugation
517. This method is used when soil shows termite infestation.
491. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized bulging of the Answer: Drenching
pavement.
Answer: shoving 518. Moisture content of rough lumber should not exceed _____
Answer: 22%
492. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths.
Answer: rutting 519. Moisture content of dressed lumber should not exceed _____
Answer: 14%
492. It is the chief load – bearing of gravel road?
Answer: base or subbase course 520. Design pressure of glass in glazed position.
Answer: 244 kg/m2
493. The maximum distance of the discharge point from the point of
deposit by pneumatic means. 521. The minimum pressure of testing water tank.
Answer: 3 meters Answer: 1,033.50 KPa

494. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic in the 522. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on concrete/steel
subbase and subgrade. pile at each stroke.
Answer: base course Answer: 831.48 kg/m

495. Minimum separation of splices when staggered. 523. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion of the splice
Answer: 40 times bar Ø below ground line or seabed.
Answer: 2.5 meters
496. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all structures
except pavements conforming to the lines, grade and dimension. 524. Consist of the excavation of river beds, bottom of creeks or esteros
Answer: Structural concrete and other bodies of water.
Answer: dredging
497. Minimum grouting pressure of bonding tendons. 525. The slope of batter piles
Answer: 0.6984 MPa (100 psi) Answer: 1:6

498. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry the roadway 526. Longitudinal gutter grades shall not be flatter than ____
structure. Answer: 0.12%
Answer: transom
527. Allowance for sediments or debris provided in design
499. Coring sampling shall be done at _____ interval by using split Answer: 20%
spoon sampler and the depth needed is _____.
Answer: one (1) meter,. 30m 528. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the building
outline has been established on the ground.
500. What is the diameter of split spoon sampler? Answer: Minor excavation
Answer: 50mm
529. It requires wide excavation of total extraction bearing capacity.
501. The uniform sampling run in core drilling. Answer: footing
Answer: 1.50m length
530. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3) storey and above.
502. The initial diameter of bore hole. Answer: Boring test
Answer: 76mm
531. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other minor structure
503. What is the core bit diameter? on the ground.
Answer: 67mm Answer: 700mm

504. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for 532. The minimum depth of footing on a well compacted fill.
300 VPD traffic. Answer: 100mm
Answer: 250m (1.5m below subgrade)
533. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is usually provided to
505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for support a column.
less than 300 VPD traffic. Answer: Spread footing
Answer: 500m (along centerline)
534. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of _____ of the Transportation Officials
manufactured state.
Answer: ± 3% 556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has prepared a
revised laboratory
535. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the testing procedure manual, in order to have be consistent with the
subgrade indicates that latest methods as prescribed under
Answer: compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction Answer: ASTM & AASHTO
specs and needs additional compaction
557. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to
536. Liquid limit is usually have laboratory equipments or apparatus in pre – bidding
Answer: greater than plastic limit qualifications?
Answer: large
537. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least
Answer: 100% modified proctor 558. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104?
Answer: ½ of the thickness
538. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the delivered
materials are different from the on tested passed. If you are in 559. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve?
doubt, what will you do? Answer: colloids
Answer: conduct immediate re – testing for verification
560. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____ above
539. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Materials the specimen
Engineer? Answer: 25mm
Answer:
a. sampling of material 561. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone,
b. analysis of test result of material gravel or sand and containing silt – clay materials
c. scheduling of delivery of materials Answer: soil aggregates
d. design of concrete mix
562. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi – rounded with an
540. Measure of construction materials for average dimension between 75mm – 305mm
concrete structure shall be Answer: boulders
Answer: volume
563. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside
541. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the to make them denser and grow straight.
ff statement is true? Answer: Pruning
Answer:
a. granular, well graded soil generally have 564. The road near or abutting a bridge.
fairly high maximum density at low optimum Answer: Approach
moisture content
b. clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, 565. Settlement of right of way problems should be done
well graded soil Answer: before the construction
c. granular, well graded soil have greater densities work
than uniform soil at OMC
d. none of the above 566. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity
Answer: sand and gravel
542. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture
content of 10% higher than the optimum moisture content? 567. In hydrographic survey, sounding joints should be made at a
Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required maximum interval of
thickness and compact Answer: 20 meters
568. The use of geofabric material to increase the strength of the
543. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for asphalt pavement subgrade
thickness material for road construction is classified as
Answer: - 5mm Answer: Soil Reinforcement
Method
544. Geosynthetics may be used for 569. What to recommend if the surface test of newly asphalted which
Answer: filtration or drainage, reinforcement, erosion showed a lump
control Answer: remove and replace the
pavement area with irregularity
545. Which of the ff. is not included in determining moisture content? 570. Controlled Density Method in embankment construction involves
Answer: Answer: Depositing and spreading materials in layers of not
a. beam balance more than 225mm depth, loose materials and extending
b. oven to the full width of the embankment
c. moisture can
d. extruder 571. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it was not cured
immediately after final placement especially during the first seven
546. Steel bars are considered undersize if days?
Answer: its nominal diameter as determined by caliper Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks
doesn’t meet the manufactured size
572. What is commonly used as curing media for fresh concrete?
547. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the Answer: Liquid membrane forming
requirements
except grading. What will you recommend? 573. What is the work sequence on cylinder specimen?
Answer: reprocess the materials by blending Answer: cylinder shall be prepared, cured and tested at the
specified date
548. Concrete curing refers to
Answer: procedure done to maximize concrete strength 574. When to remove the false work of continuous structure?
Answer: when the 1st and 2nd adjoining span on each side
549. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering have reached the specified strength
properties?
Answer: organic 575. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay,
organic deposit or loose sand having high void rather and usually
550. What is the testing soil that involves the application of energy and not high water content
addition of water as lubricant? Answer: Weak Subgrade
Answer: Moisture – Density relation test
576. What is Twelve – Inch Layer Method Embankment?
551. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete pavement is Answer: the material shall be deposited and spread in
Answer: No. 10 layers not more than 300 mm in depth (12”) loose
measure, parallel to the finished grade and extending to
552. What is the volume of the mold using 6” for AASHTO T – 180 D the full width of the embankment
method in compaction test?
Answer: 0.002124 m3 577. What is Rock Embankment Method?
Answer: the material shall be deposited on the fill and push
553. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or crushing of over the end of the fill by means of bulldozer. This method
rock and which will pass 2.00mm sieve and be retained on the is only applicable to fill ≥ 1.2 m in depth. It shall not be
0.075mm sieve placed within 600 mm of the other grade
Answer: sand

554. What is ASTM?

Answer: American Society for Testing & Materials 578. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment?
Answer: the material shall be taken from borrow locations
555. What is AASHTO? and shall be deposited so as to form the grade and cross
Answer: American Association of section and shall be thoroughly compacted
State Highway &
579. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of 603. What type of cement is the Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)?
the pavement? Answer: Type I
Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE (deterioration due to
frustration move also be considered) 604. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Resistant Portland
Cement?
580. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Embankment? Answer: Type II
Answer: were unsuitable material is present under the
embankment corrective work consists of placing a 605. What type of cement is the Rapid Hardening Portland Cement?
surcharge constructed to the full width of the road bed. Answer: Type III
The surcharge shall remain in place until the embankment
has reached stability or the required settlement 606. What type of cement is the Low Heat Portland Cement?
Answer: Type IV
581. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment?
Answer: this involves the introduction of water into the 607. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant Portland
embankment to accelerate consideration Cement?
Answer: Type V
582. Mixture of fine – grained aggregates, bituminous binder and water
for surface sealing 608. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement?
Answer: slurry seal (bituminous slurry) Answer: Type 1S

583. What is the formula for percentage of wear? 609. What type of cement is the Portland Pozzolan Cement?
Answer: Answer: Type 1P
Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. – wt. retained
@ sieve # 12) x 100 610. Type I is for general use such as
original wt. Answer: pavements & sidewalks, buildings & bridges and
tanks & water pipes
584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates a
shiny, glass – like reflecting surface that usually becomes quite 611. Type III cement is used for
sticky Answer: early stripping of forms & high early strength
Answer: bleeding
612. Type IV is used for
585. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint caused by Answer: massive structures such as dams
excessive expansion of the slabs during hot weather
Answer: buckling 613. Type V cement is used for
Answer: when sulphate content of groundwater is very high
586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the concrete
pavement 614. The inventor of Portland cement was
Answer: crushing Answer: Joseph Aspdin

587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the free haul 615. Portland cement is composed of blended materials containing
distance Answer: calcium, alumina, iron and silica
Answer: Overhaul

588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical slurry ratio? 616. The simple recipe of Portland cement is
Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic Answer: 2 parts of crushed limestone, 1 part
meter of water clay/pulverized shale, 1 pinch of iron ore, then 1 pinch of
gypsum added to clinker
589. What is the amount of cement to be added to the soil aggregates
in Item 204? 617. Pozzolan cement is composed of a raw material called
Answer: 6 – 10 mass % of the dry Answer: volcanic earth
soil
618. The 75% compressive strength of Portland cement is composed of
590. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics? Answer: C3S and C2S
Answer: Dr. Karl Terzhagi
619. The 25% setting time of Portland cement is controlled by
591. What is quality? Answer: C3A and C4AF
Answer: It the degree of
excellence 620. When water is added to Portland cement, _____ process is
developed
592. What is control? Answer: hydration
Answer: Is to regulate
621. Calcium Silicate Gel (C–S–H) and lime [Ca(OH) 2] are developed
593. What is quality control? when _____ is added to Portland cement
Answer: It is conformance to requirements Answer: water

594. What is assurance? 622. When Portland cement contains a low C3A, it means
Answer: it the degree of certainty Answer: the setting time is larger

595. What are the two kinds of control activities?
Answer: Inspection and Testing
596. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade level?
Answer: 4 – 5 feet
597. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable
properties to produce good grading on gravel, sand, silt and clay?
Answer: Mechanic Stabilization
623. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when mixed with water
takes care of the concrete’s
Answer: alkalinity
624. Coarse aggregates can be taken from
Answer: crushed rock, slags and river gravel
625. The water required for concrete mix should be
Answer: fresh water

598. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture 626. Sea water is deleterious to concrete mix unless on admixture is
content of soil or liquid and hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in added because it contains
the compaction process by slowing the rate of evaporation of Answer: chloride
moisture from the soil 627. The entrapped air in concrete is
Answer: Calcium chloride or rock salt Answer: accidental and unwanted

599. When do clay and granular soils become unstable? 628. The entrained air in concrete is
Answer: Clay soil becomes unstable if moisture content Answer: deliberate and desirable
increases. Granular material becomes unstable if it has
dried 629. We use aggregate in concrete as
Answer: filler materials in concrete
600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road construction aside
from asphalt cement? 630. Aggregates are important in concrete because they strongly
Answer: It was introduced in order to save heating costs influence:
and from convenience in road – mixing or priming Answer: the properties of concrete, its mix proportion and
its economy
601. The theory of concrete design mix is to
Answer: Optimize aggregate packing and optimizes 631. Which of the following is not deleterious material to concrete?
properties of cement mortar Answer:
a. calcium
602. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar, one has to b. chloride
depend on c. coal
Answer: cement type, cement content and water content d. sulphate
 632. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require more water to be what will happen if air content is involved?
workable, but making it so will only result to sacrifice in Answer: the strength of concrete is reduced
Answer: strength 665. What will happen if you lower the water – cement ratio and
maintaining other values of its ingredients?
633. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered Answer: it will acquire strength
adequate if the average strength of the cores is equal to or at 666. What is the mixing time of concrete?
least _____ of the specified strength, fc’ and no single core is less Answer:
than _____ 1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥
Answer: 85% of f’c, 75% of f’c 60 seconds
Above1.5 m3 capacity mixer,
634. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the _____ for T ≥ 90 seconds
organic impurities 667. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates, batch made by
Answer: Colormatic Test mix will be disallowed beyond ____
Answer: 1 ½ hours
635. Portland cement may be/shall be rejected if:
Answer: it has partially set, it contains lumps of cake 668. How many hours should an aggregate be washed and stockpiled
cement and it comes from a discarded or used bag before batching starts?
636. A measurement of the coarseness or fineness of aggregates Answer: 12 hours prior to batching shall be stockpiled or
Answer: fineness modulus binned for draining
637. An excess water needed for
absorption of coarse aggregates 669. When will truck mixing start?
Answer: free water Answer: mixing shall begin within 30 minutes upon cement
has due added 15 minutes when wet aggregates is used, as 32ºC
638. What do you mean by SSD? temperature is present
Answer: Saturated Surface Dry
670. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must be discharged
639. A general term relating to the character of a mix with respect to its within 1 hour or 250 revolutions of the drum or Olader. Why?
fluidity Answer: to avoid over mixing and initial setting of concrete
Answer: consistency
671. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid, what is the
640. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is maximum size of pipe that is negligible in the volume
Answer: objectionable computation?
Answer: pipes with Ø of 4” or less
641. Type A admixture is classified by ASTM C494 as
Answer: Water – reducing admixture

642. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into how many equal
segments?
Answer: five (5)

643. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement occur
leading to failure
Answer: bearing capacity

644. The recommended thickness of hot mixed asphalt overlay.

Answer: 2”

645. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the

beam balance should be sensitive up to. Answer: 0.1g
646. If a sample can not be weighed within the prescribed time after
being removed from the oven, it will placed inside a
Answer: dessicator
647. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to
dry at constant weight/mass
Answer: 4 hours
648. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed
after it has been removed from the oven within
Answer: 1 hour
649. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at a
prescribe temperature; the drying time depends on the kind of soil
and size of sample. A 25-gram sample of sandy material will be
dried in about
Answer: 2 hours
650. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above
Answer: Boring Test
651. A test to determine the moisture content of soil
Answer: calcium tri – chloride
652. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate is. Answer:
low
653. The kind of asphalt used in overlaying seated pavement
Answer: hot – mix asphalt
654. The minimum width of paved sidewalk. Answer: 1.5 m
655. The limit of water – cement ratio of concrete. Answer: 0.50 –
0.60
656. A cement which has a cementitious effect. Answer: Portland
cement
657. A concrete where compression is induced before the application of
working load so that tension under these loads is reduced
Answer: Pre – stressing
658. What laboratory test is used in determining the phosphorus
content of steel materials?
Answer: Phospho - molydate
659. What chemical property in the composition of steel material that
will cause brittleness or cold shortness when its content goes
beyond 0.05% to 0.10%. Answer: phosphorous
660. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of proposed
concrete pavement
Answer: 0.60 m
661. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, how do you it?
Answer:
± 10 mm slump = ± 2 kg/m3
from (water)
± air entrapment = ± 3 kg/
m of average (water)
3

662. In non – entrained concrete, what is

the range of % air entrained? Answer: 3% - 0.2% (small –
bigger aggregates)
663. In air – entrained concrete, what is
the range of air entrained?
Answer: 8% - 3% (small – bigger
aggregates)
664. For a constant water – cement ratio,