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TEST:-INDIAN CONTRACT ACT AND H.P COURTS TIME—1 Hour

ACT.
a) Intention to create moral
1) Which of the following statement is
relationship
true:
b) Intention to create social
I) All Void agreements are illegal
relationship
II) All illegal Agreements are void
c) Intention to create legal
III) All void agreements are
relationship
opposed to public policy
d) Intention to create agreement
IV) All Illegal agreements are
7) Standard form contract
opposed to Public policy
a) All expressed contracts are
a) II and IV
standard contracts
b) I,II and IV
b) All contracts are standard contract
c) I,III, and IV
c) Contracts requiring compulsory
d) I,II, and III
registration are standard contracts
2) Tender is a/an
d) Contract with pre drafted matter
a) Offer
are generally prepared by one
b) Invitation to offer
party, which the other to agree to
c) Acceptance
8) Promissory estoppel is a
d) Promise
a) Form of contract
3) A contract is an agreement defining the
b) An equitable doctrine of estoppel
obligation between the parties, This
c) Not a form of contract
definition is given by:
d) Both A and B
a) Salmond
9) Consensus –ad-idem implies
b) Sir Federick Pollock
a) Same thing in same sense
c) Anson
b) Same thing in different sense
d) None of Above
c) Same thing in objective sense
4) The definition of contract given in
d) Same thing in subjective sense
Indian Contract is based on
10) Government of India gives an
a) Pollock’s definition
Advertisement calling for tender for
b) Anson’s Definition
selling the stock of raw iron, It amounts
c) Salmond’s Definition
to
d) Austin’s Definition
a) An offer
5) A promises B “from tomorrow onwards
b) An invitation to offer
I will accompany you during morning
c) An agreement
walk” A fails to keep his word, B .
d) Contract
a) Can sue A for breach of contract
11) A organize an auction to sell his
b) Can sue A for breach of agreement
household articles , here contract will
c) Can sue A for breach of legal duty
arise as soon as
d) Cannot sue A
a) bid is made
6) Agreement of Social nature is
b) highest bid is made
unenforceable because it lacks
c) highest bid is accepted by A
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d) the goods are displayed for auction d) It is a voidable contract

12) Which of the following is not a 18) Tender is
condition for valid offer . a) A standing offer
a) Offer must intend to create a legal b) A standard offer
relation c) A latent offer
b) Terms of offer must be certain d) An offer
c) Offer must be communicated 19) The communication of acceptance is
d) All the above complete
13) Mere declaration of Intention a) As against the acceptor when it
a) May amount to offer comes to the knowledge of the
b) Cannot be an offer offeror
c) Depends on words used b) As soon as it is put into course of
d) Is an offer transmission against the acceptor
14) A gives an offer to give rupees 1000 to c) After the lapse of eight hours since
whoever finds his lost dog, This is the time of posting
a) A specific offer d) None of the above
b) A general offer 20) Is in past consideration for a promise
c) Not certain valid to create a contract?
d) Amount to acceptance a) It is valid only in the Indian law and
15) Advertisement for tenders not in the English Law.
a) Is an offer b) It is valid only in the English law and
b) Is an invitation to offer not in the Indian law
c) Is a promise c) It is valid in both
d) Is an implied promise for highest d) It is neither valid in Indian nor in
offer England
16) Which of the following cases deals with 21) A promise without consideration is gift ,
invitation to offer one made for a consideration is a
a) Harris v Nickerson bargain, it was stated by
b) Pharmaceutical society of great a) Salmond
Britain vs Boots Cash chemists Ltd b) Hoffmann
c) Havey v Facie c) Hobbes
d) None of the above d) None of the above
17) A hires a room in a hotel, inside a room 22) Which if the following case laid down
there was a notice board having the foundation of privity of contract
instruction “ Hotel authority will not be a) Dutton vs Pool
liable for any kind of mishappening” b) Tweddle vs Atkinson
a) Condition is valid c) Dunlop Phneumatic tyre co. Ltd vs
b) Condition is not valid Self fridge an company Ltd
c) Condition is invalid, No effort is d) None of the Above
there on the part of the hotel 23) A acknowledges B , that he has received
owner to bring the condition in rupees 5000/- in an agreement from C
knowledge of occupants to pay B ,
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a) A is liable to pay amount to B after b) From contractual benefits

such Acknowledgement c) From monetary benefits
b) A is liable to pay B even without d) All the above
such acknowledgement. 30) Ruffles v/s Wichelhaus is a leading case
c) B is a stranger to the therefore on:
cannot enforce the contract a) Misrepresentation
d) A is liable to pay B , only if A and C b) Mistake
both acknowledge the matter to B c) Undue influence
24) A request B to find out his lost Dog , d) Fraud
after B has done so , A promises to pay 31) A and B make a contract grounded on
him rupees 1000, This is an example of the erroneous belief that a particular
a) Past consideration’ debt is barred by law. The contract is
b) Present consideration a) Voidable
c) Future consideration b) Not voidable
d) None of the above c) Immoral
25) Which of the following statement is d) Illegal
true, minor bears no liability 32) In case of misrepresentation
a) Arising out of contract a) There should be a false statement
b) For tort arising out of contract Made innocently
c) Both A and B b) There should be a false statement
d) None of the above Made maliciously
26) The doctrine of restitution does not c) There should be a false statement
applies to Made innocently or maliciously.
a) Goods d) Fraud must be played on the party
b) Property to contract
c) Money 33) Agreement in restrain is void in which
d) All of the above Section
27) The rule laid down in Lesile v. Sheill a) Section 27
a) Is applicable in India b) Section 26
b) Is not applicable in India c) Section 25
c) Is applicable in south India d) Section 23
d) Is applicable under specified 34) Frost vs Knight is a leading case on
circumstances a) Section 32
28) The principle , “ Restitution stops b) Section 33
where repayment begins” can be c) Section 34
applied against d) Section 35
a) An alien enemy only 35) Which of the following statement is
b) Minors only true
c) Lunatic and idiots only I) The payment shall be applied in
d) Any Incapable person discharge of the debts in order of
29) Main purpose of law is to save minor time.
a) From contractual obligations

II) The payment shall not be applied to
the debts barred by the law
III) If the debts are of equal standing ,
the payment shall be applied in
discharge of each proportionally
a) I and III
b) II and III
c) I and II
d) I , II and III
36) The doctrine of frustration is really an
aspect or part of the law of discharge of
contract by reason of supervening
impossibility or illegality of the act
agreed to be done …….
It was said by
a) Bhagwati J.
b) Mukherjee .J
c) Lord Atkin
d) None of the above
37) Frustration of Contract theory applies
to
a) Acts which are turned impossible
b) Acts which are turned useless
impracticable
c) Acts which are turned illegal
d) All the above
38) Can the Section 65 be taken advantage
by the parties who know from the
beginning that the agreement was void
a) Yes
b) No
c) In some cases
d) Not certain
39) An action of Quantum Meruit
a) Puts the injured party in a position
in which he would have been had
the contract not been entered into
b) Puts the injured party in a position
in which he would have been had
the contract been performed
c) An action for compensation for
breach of contract
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d) None of the above
40) Remedy through Quantum Meruit is
not available to
a) the party who breaks the contract
b) who suffered by the breach
c) who has performed his part of
obligation
d) All the above
41) Assertion (A) : Minor’s contract is void.
Reason(R ) : mortgage executed in
favour of a minor is enforceable by him.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is not
the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
42) X entrust Y with negotiable Instruments
endorsed in blank. Y sells then to Z is
violation of private orders from X. The
sale is:
a) Void
b) Valid
c) voidable at the option of Y
d) voidable at the option of Z
43) “A supplies “B” a lunatic, with
necessaries suitable to his condition in
his life. Whether A is entitled for
reimbursement from the property of
‘B’.
a) No
b) Yes, if the value of property is more
than One lakh.
c) Yes
d) None of these
44) The Judicial basis of quasi contractual
obligation can be explained through the
principle of :
a) Voluntary benefits
b) Just and reasonable solution

c) Unjust Enrichment
d) “Indebitus Assumpsit”
45) The principle of assessment of the
damages for the breach is given in:
a) Hadley v. Baxendale
b) Scarf v. Zodine
c) King v. Horr
d) Hyde v. Wrench
46) Assertion (A) : Marriage brokerage
contract is valid.
Reason(R ): Marriage brokerage
contract is opposed to public policy.
Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is
not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
47) In Carlill V. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(1892) ,the court ruled that
a) That an offer made to public at
large is a nudun pactum
b)That a general offer is no offer
c)That an offer can be made only to
a particular person
d)An offer need not be made to an
ascertained person
48) Which one of the following contracts is
specifically enforceable?
a) ‘A’ an author ,contract ‘B’ a
publisher , to complete a literary
work
b) ‘A’ contracts to sell and ‘B’
contracts to buy a residential
building
c) ‘A’ contracts to marry ‘B’
d) A’ contract by a guardian to
purchase immovable property on
behalf of a minor
49) Crossword competition is
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a) wagering agreement
b) contingent contract
c) illegal agreement
d) valid agreement
50) ‘A’ enters into a contract with ‘B’ for
which ‘B’ is guilty of fraud. A can:
a) set aside the contract but cannot
recover damages.
b) only recover damages
c) set aside the contract and can
recover damages also.
d) none of the above
51) Under the Himachal Pradesh Courts
Act,1976 who may make rules to
regulate the issue of licenses to petition
writers ?
a) State Government
b) Governor
c) High Court
d) Supreme Court
52) Section 20 of the H.P. Courts Act,1976
contains the provision appeals from
a)District Judge
b) Subordinate Judge
c) High Court
d) State Government
53) Who appoints the Additional Sessions
Judge under Section 6 of the
Himachal Pradesh Courts Act,1976 ?
a) State Government
b) High Court
c) District Judge
d) Governor
54) Section 14 of the H.P. Courts Act,
provides that the High Court may
authorize any civil Judge to take
cognizance of proceedings under:
a) The provincial small cause courts
Act,1887
b) Code of civil procedure,1908
c) The provincial Insolvency Act,1920
d) Code of criminal procedure ,1973
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55) Which provision deals with the place of c) Section 21

sitting of court: d) Section 21 A
a) Section 14
b) Section 15
c) Section 16
d) Section 17
56) The superintendent of the District Court
shall be appointed by the :
a) State Government
b) High Court
c) District Judge
d) Any of the above
57) A District Judge may with the previous
sanction of the High Court can delegate
the powers conferred on him to any
civil Judge in the district under Section :
a) Section 18
b) Section 19
c) Section 20
d) Section 19 A
58) Under Section 14 of the Himachal
Pradesh Court Act 1976, the High Court
may authorize any civil Judge to take
cognizance of proceeding under:
a) The Indian Succession Act,1925
b) The Guardians and Wards Act 1890
c) The Provisional Insolvency Act,1920
d) All of the above
59) Under Section 17 of the Himachal
Pradesh Courts Act,1976 who is
empowered to distribute the civil
business?
a) District Judge
b) Civil Judge
c) High Court
d) State Government
60) Which Provision of the Himachal
Pradesh Courts Act, provides for
Appeals from District Judges and
Additional District Judge?
a) Section 19
b) Section 20
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Test series—1 Contract act+ HP. Courts (Answer Key)

Act:

1A
2B 43 C
3A 44 C
4A 45 A
5D 46 C
6C 47 D
7D 48 B
8D 49 D
9A 50 C
10 B 51 C
11 C 52 A
12 D 53 A
13 B 54 C
14 B 55 B
15 B 56 B
16 B 57 B
17 C 58 D
18 A 59 A
19 A 60 B
20 A
21 A
22 B
23 A
24 A
25 A
26 C
27 B
28 B
29 A
30 A
31 B
32 A
33 A
34 C
35 C
36 B
37 D
38 B
39 B
40 A
41 B

42 B