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SEAL

JEn (SSC) EXAMINATION : 2015


CIVIL ENGINEERING
FULL LENGTH TEST : 1

Question Booklet No.: EA1004 Question Booklet Series: EA-A

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Duration : 2:00 Hr. Maximum Marks : 200

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ENGINEERS ACADEMY
1 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
1. Which of the following works speaks of the 1. fuEukafdr esa ls fdl xzUFk us Hkkjr dh lhek leqnz ds
boundary of India as being on the north of sea and mÙkj o fgeky; ds nf{k.k esa crk;k gSA
south of the Himalaya?
(a) _Xosn
(a) Rigved
(b) fo".kq iqjk.k
(b) Vishnu Puran
(c) iapfoa'k czkã.k
(c) Panchvinsh Brahmana
(d) 'kriFk czkã.k
(d) Shatpath Brahmana
2. Which of the following is an important Mesolithic 2. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu&lk LFky ,d egÙoiw.kZ e/;
site in Rajasthan? ik"kk.k dkyhu LFky gSA
(a) Ganeshwar (b) Bagor (a) x.ks'oj (b) ckxkSj
(c) Ahar (d) Kalibangan (c) vkgkM (d) dkyhcaxk
3. In the Rigveda the word Arya denotes : 3. ^_Xosn* esa ^vk;Z* 'kCn fdldk okpd gSA
(a) Caste (b) An occupation (a) tkfr (b) O;olk;
(c) Religion (d) Quality (c) /keZ (d) xq.k
4. Satyameva Jayate, the famous saying belongs to :
4. ^^lR;eso t;rs** fdl xzaFk esa feyrk gSA
(a) Rigveda
(a) _Xosn
(b) Tattiriya Aranyak
(b) rSfÙkjh; vkj.;d
(c) Brihdaranyakopanishad
(c) c`gnkj.;dksifu"kn~
(d) Mundakopanishad
(d) eq.Mdksifu"kn~
5. The name of Jain text which refers to sixteen
Mahajanpada is : 5. ftl tSu xzUFk ls lksyg egktuinksa dh lwph izkIr gksrh
(a) Bhagwati Sutra gS og gS&
(b) Anuguttara Nikaya (a) Hkxorh lw= (b) vaxqÙkj fudk;
(c) Kathakosh Prakarana (c) dFkkdks'k izdj.k (d) dFkkdks'k
(d) Kathakosh 6. fQjkst'kkg rqxyd us fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl xzUFk dh
6. Which of the following books was written by jpuk dh FkhA
Firozshah Tughlaq? (a) rkjh[ks fQjkst'kkgh (b) rqxydukek
(a) Tarik-e-Firozshahi (b) Tughlaqnama (c) Qqrqgkrs fQjkst'kkgh (d) fe¶rk&my&Qqrwg
(c) Fatuhat-e-Firozshahi (d) Mifta-ul-Futuh
7. iqf"VekxZ ds laLFkkid Fks %
7. Pushtimarga was founded by :
(a) pSrU; (b) jkekuUn
(a) Chaitananya (b) Ramananda
(c) ehjk (d) oYyHkkpk;Z
(c) Meera (d) Vallabhacharya
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2 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
8. The chronological sequence of Allauddin Khalji’s 8. vykmÌhu f[kyth dh fuEuka f dr fot;ks a dks
following conquests is : dkyØekuqlkj O;ofLFkr dhft, %
(a) Ranthambor (b) Jalore (a) j.kFkEHkkSj (b) tkykSj
(c) Chittor (d) Siwana (c) fpÙkkSM+ (d) flokuk
(1) (a), (c), (d), (b) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d) (1) (a), (c), (d), (b) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (d), (c) (4) (a), (c), (b), (d) (3) (a), (b), (d), (c) (4) (a), (c), (b), (d)
9. Who was the first Portuguese governor in India? 9. Hkkjr esa igyk iqrZxkyh xouZj Fkk %
(a) Albuquerque (b) Almaida (a) vycqddZ (b) vkYehMk
(c) Vasco di Gama (d) De la Mancha (c) okLdks fM xkek (d) Msykekapk
10. Where did the British East India Company establish 10. fczfV'k bZLV bf.M;k dEiuh us Hkkjr esa igyh QSDVjh
its first factory? dgk¡ [kksyh FkhA
(a) Machhalipattnam (b) Surat
(a) eNyhiêue (b) lwjr
(c) Arma (d) Calcutta
(c) vjek (d) dydÙkk
11. The third battle of Panipat was fought in :
11. ikuhir dk rhljk ;q) yM+k x;k FkkA
(a) 1526 (b) 1556
(a) 1526 (b) 1556
(c) 1761 (d) 1764 (c) 1761 (d) 1764
12. Avadh was annexed by the Brithish in : 12. vo/k dk fczfV'k lkezkT; esa foy; dc fd;k x;k FkkA
(a) 1853 (b) 1854 (a) 1853 (b) 1854
(c) 1855 (d) 1856 (c) 1855 (d) 1856
13. Which of the following Mughal rule was anointed 13. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk 'kkld nks ckj xíh ij cSBk
twice to the throne : FkkA
(a) Jahangir (b) Humayun (a) tgk¡xhj (b) gqek;w¡
(c) Akabar (d) Shahjahan
(c) vdcj (d) 'kkgtgk¡
14. Which of the following architects of the Taj Mahal
14. gqek;w¡ o [kku&,&[kkuk ds edcjs dh okLrqdyk ls
was inspired by the architecture of Humayun’s and
izsfjr gksus okyk rktegy dk okLrqdkj FkkA
Khan-e-Khana’s mausoleum?
(a) eqgEen guhQ (b) mLrkn bZlk
(a) Muhammad Hanif (b) Ustad Isa
(c) Amanat Khan (d) Ustad Ahamad (c) vekur [kku (d) mLrkn vgen

15. Match the following : 15. fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr dhft, %


List I List II lwph I lwph II
(i) Gathasaptashati (a) Bana (i) xkFkklIr'krh (a) ck.k
(ii) Mrichchhakatika (b) Harsh (ii) e`PNdfVd (b) g"kZ
(iii) Naganand (c) Shudrak (iii) ukxkuUn (c) 'kwnzd
(iv) Kadambari (d) Hala (iv) dknEcjh (d) gky
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ENGINEERS ACADEMY
3 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
Options : fodYi %
(1) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d) (1) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
(2) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d) (2) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
(3) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(a) (3) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(a)

(4) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a) (4) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)

16. In which of the following Articles of Constitution 16. lafo/kku ds fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vuqPNsn esa
the minorities have the right to establish and vYila[;dksa dks viuh #fp dh f'k{kk laLFkk dh LFkkiuk
administer the educational institution of their choice? vkSj iz'kklu djus dk vf/kdkj gSA
(a) Article 29 (1) (b) Article 29 (2) (a) vuqPNsn 29 (1) (b) vuqPNsn 29 (2)
(c) Article 30 (1) (d) Article 30 (2) (c) vuqPNsn 30 (1) (d) vuqPNsn 30 (2)
17. Directive Principles of State Policy are mentioned 17. jkT; ds uhfr funs'kd rÙo Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds fdl
in which part of Indian constitution? Hkkx esa mfYyf[kr gSaA
(a) Part - III (b) Part - IV (a) r`rh; Hkkx esa (b) prqFkZ Hkkx esa
(c) Part - V (d) Part - VI (c) iape Hkkx esa (d) "k"Be~ Hkkx esa
18. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle
18. fuEufyf[kr esas ls dkSu&lk jkT; dk uhfr funs'kd rÙo
of State Policy?
ugha gSA
(a) Uniform Civil Code
(a) leku flfoy lafgrk
(b) Free Legal Aid
(b) fu%'kqYd fof/kd lgk;rk
(c) Environment Protection
(c) i;kZoj.k dk laj{k.k
(d) Assistance to Private Industries
(d) izkbosV m|ksxksa dks lgk;rk
19. The Governor may appoint a person as a chief
Minister who is not member of the legislature of 19. ,d O;fDr tks jkT; fo/kkue.My dk lnL; ugha gS
the State. jkT;iky eq[;ea=h fu;qDr dj ldsxkA
(a) Yes (a) gk¡
(b) No (b) ugha
(c) Yes but for the period of three month (c) gk¡] ijarq rhu eghus dh vof/k ds fy,
(d) Yes but for the period of six months (d) gk¡ ijarq N% eghus dh vof/k ds fy,
20. In which of the following state the legislature has 20. fuEu esa ls fdl jkT; ds fo/kkue.My dk ,d lnu gSA
one house?
(a) fcgkj (b) fgekpy izns'k
(a) Bhihar (b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) egkjk"Vª (d) mÙkj izns'k
(c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh
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4 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
21. Article 322 of the Indian Constitution deals with 21. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku dk vuqPNsn 322 fdlls lacaf/kr gSA
the : (a) yksd lsok vk;ksx ds O;;
(a) Expenses of Public Services Commission
(b) yksd lsok vk;ksx ds ÑR;
(b) Functions of Public Services Commission
(c) yksd lsok vk;ksx ds izfrosnu
(c) Reports of Public Service Commission
(d) yksd lsok vk;ksx ds ÑR;ksa dk foLrkj djus dh
(d) Power to Extend Functions of Public Service
Commission 'kfDr
22. The Chairman of the legislative Council is : 22. fo/kku ifj"kn~ dk lHkkifr gksrk gSA
(a) Governor (a) jkT;iky
(b) Lieutenant Governor (b) mijkT;iky
(c) Elected by Legislative Assembly (c) fo/kkulHkk }kjk pquk tkuk
(d) Elected by Legislative Council (d) fo/kkuifj"kn~ }kjk pquk tkuk
23. The Judge of a High Court will address his letter of 23. mPp U;k;ky; dk U;k;k/kh'k viuk R;kxi= lacksf/kr
resignation to : djrk gS %
(a) President (a) jk"Vªifr dks
(b) Governor
(b) jkT;iky dks
(c) Chief Justice of India
(c) Hkkjr ds eq[; U;k;k/kh'k dks
(d) Chief Justice of High Court
(d) mPp U;k;ky; ds eq[; U;k;k/kh'k dks
24. The Jharkhand State was formed in the year.........
24. >kj[k.M jkT; dk xBu ......... o"kZ esa fd;k x;kA
(a) 1999 (b) 2000
(a) 1999 (b) 2000
(c) 2001 (d) 2002
(c) 2001 (d) 2002
25. ‘Balwant Rai Mehta Committee’ is realted to :
25. ^cyoar jk; esgrk desVh* lacaf/kr gS %
(a) Panchayati Raj (b) Fundamental Right
(a) iapk;rh jkt ls (b) ewy vf/kdkj ls
(c) Fundamental duties (d) Election Commission
(c) ewy dÙkZO; ls (d) pquko vk;ksx ls
26. Who has the power to dissolve the House of the
26. yksdlHkk dks Hkax djus dk vf/kdkj fdldks gS %
people?
(a) The President (a) jk"Vªifr

(b) The Prime Minister (b) iz/kkuea=h


(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (c) yksdlHkk dk v/;{k
(d) The Council of Ministers (d) eaf=ifj"kn~
27. To be a member of Panchayat a person must attain 27. iapk;r dk lnL; cuus gsrq ,d O;fDr dks vk;q iw.kZ
the age of : djuh pkfg, %
(a) 18 Years (b) 21 Years (a) 18 o"kZ (b) 21 o"kZ
(c) 25 Years (d) 30 Years (c) 25 o"kZ (d) 30 o"kZ

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5 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
28. When was the Constitution of India adopted by the 28. lafo/kku lHkk }kjk Hkkjr ds lafo/kku dks vaxhÑr dc
constituent Assembly? fd;k x;k FkkA
(a) 25th November 1949
(a) 25 uoEcj 1949
(b) 26th November 1949
(b) 26 uoEcj 1949
(c) 27th November 1949
(c) 27 uoEcj 1949
(d) 28th November 1949
29. In which of the following Articles of India (d) 28 uoEcj 1949
Constitution the right to preserve one’s own 29. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds fuEufyf[kr vuqPNsnksa esa ls fdlesa
language script and culture has been given to all ukxfjdkssa dks viuh Hkk"kk fyfi vksj laLÑfr cuk, j[kus
citizen?
dk vf/kdkj gksxkA
(a) Article 29(1) (b) Article 29(2)
(a) vuqPNsn 29(1) (b) vuqPNsn 29(2)
(c) Article 30(1) (d) Article 30(2)
(c) vuqPNsn 30(1) (d) vuqPNsn 30(2)
30. Who was the temporary Chairman of the constituent
Assembly? 30. lafo/kku lHkk dk vLFkk;h v/;{k dkSu FkkA
(a) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha (a) MkW- lfPpnkuUn flUgk
(b) Dr. Ambedkar (b) MkW- vEcsMdj
(c) Dr. Radha Krishnan
(c) MkW- jk/kkÑ".ku
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) MkW- jktsUnz izlkn
31. Approx .......% of Indian population is still
Agriculturist. 31. Ñf"k ij vk/kkfjr Hkkjr dh fdruh tula[;k fuHkZj

(a) 46% (b) 50% djrh gSA


(c) 58% (d) 64% (a) 46% (b) 50%
32. Contribution of agriculture to Gross National (c) 58% (d) 64%
Product is approximately? 32. ldy ?kjsyq mRikn dk Ñf"k esa fdruk ;ksxnku gSA
(a) 14% (b) 15% (a) 14% (b) 15%
(c) 16.5% (d) 17.5% (c) 16.5% (d) 17.5%
33. How much population is living below poverty line 33. Hkkjr esa fdruh tula[;k xjhch js[kk ls uhps fuokl
in India djrh gSA
(a) Approx 24% (b) Approx 25%
(a) yxHkx 24% (b) yxHkx 25%
(c) Approx 26% (d) Approx 27%
(c) yxHkx 26% (d) yxHkx 27%
34. The best indicator of economic development of any
country is? 34. vU; ns'kksa dk vkfFkZd fodkl dk eq[; lwpd D;k gS\
(a) Its agriculture (b) Its transport (a) Ñf"k (b) ifjogu
(c) Its gross production (d) Its per capita income (c) ldy mRiknu (d) izfr O;fDr vk;
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ENGINEERS ACADEMY
6 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
35. What is the mainstay of Indian economy? 35. Hkkjrh; vFkZO;oLFkk dk eq[; mís'; D;k gSA
(a) Manufacturing (b) Business (a) fofuekZ.k (b) O;kikj
(c) Public sector (d) Agriculture (c) lkoZtfud {ks= (d) Ñf"k
36. Who was the father of Operation Flood? 36. gfjr Økafr dk tud dkSu gS\
(a) Dr. Norman Borlaug (a) MkW- ukeZy cksjykWx
(b) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (b) MkW- ,e-,l- LokehukFku
(c) Dr. Verghese Kurien (c) MkW- oxhZl dqfj;u
(d) Dr. William Gande
(d) MkW- fofy;e xqUMs
37. The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project,
37. iSaFku ¼tk;dokM+h½ ty fo|qr ifj;kstuk tkiku dh
completed with the help of Japan, is on the river :
lgk;rk ls fdl unh ij fuekZ.kk/khu gS %
(a) Ganga (b) Cauvery
(a) xaxk (b) dkosjh
(c) Narmada (d) Godavari
(c) ueZnk (d) xksnkojh
38. The percentage of irrigated land in India is about :
38. fdrus Hkw&Hkkx Hkkjr dk flapkbZ ds mi;ksxh gSA
(a) 45 (b) 65
(a) 45 (b) 65
(c) 35 (d) 25
(c) 35 (d) 25
39. The southernmost point of peninsular India, that is,
39. nf{k.k&leqnzrVh; dU;kdqekjh fdl uke ls tkuk tkrk
Kanyakumari, is :
gSA
(a) North of Tropic of Cancer
(a) mÙkj ddZ js[kk (b) nf{k.k /kzqo
(b) South of the Equator
(c) nf{k.k iksy (d) mÙkj dk /kzqo
(c) South of the Capricorn
40. nf{k.k dk rVh; izns'k o uhyfxjh dh igkfM+;ksa dks
(d) North of the Equator
tksM+us okys nf{k.k Hkkjr ds ekxZ dks fdl uke ls tkuk
40. The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri
Hills in south India is called :
tkrk gSA
(a) The Palghat gap (b) The Bhorghat pass (a) iky?kkV (b) Hkksj?kkV

(c) The Thalgat pass (d) The Bolan pass (c) Fkky?kkV (d) cksyuikl
41. Which of the following factors are responsible for 41. xUus ds rhoz mRiknu gsrq ,sls dkSu&ls dkjd gSA ftuds
the rapid growth of sugar production in South India dkj.k mÙkj Hkkjr esa T;knk vkSj nf{k.k Hkkjr esa de xUus
as compared to North India? dk mRiknu gksrk gS %
I. Higher per acre field of sugarcane I. izfr gSDVs;j xUus dk mRiknu vf/kd
II. Higher sucrose content of sugarcane II. mPp lqØkst xUus dk mRiknu vf/kd
III. Lower labour cost III. de Je ykxr
IV. Longer crushing period IV. vf/kd mRiknu dky
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III (a) I and II (b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV

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7 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
42. The year ........... is called a Great Divide in the 42. Hkkjrh; bfrgkl dk izeq[k foHkktu dky dkSulk o"kZ
demographic history of India. ekuk tkrk gSA
(a) 1901 (b) 1921 (a) 1901 (b) 1921
(c) 1941 (d) 1951 (c) 1941 (d) 1951
43. The only private sector refinery set up by Reliance 43. Hkkjr dh futh {ks= dh fjyk;al isVªksdsfedy dgk¡
Petroleum Ltd. is located at : fLFkr gS %
(a) Guwahati (b) Jamnagar (a) xqokgkVh (b) tkeuxj
(c) Mumbai (d) Chennai (c) eqEcbZ (d) psUub
44. The only state in India that produces saffron is : 44. Hkkjr dk dkSulk jkT; dslj dk mRiknu lokZf/kd
(a) Assam (b) Himachal Pradesh djrk gSA
(c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Meghalaya (a) vklke (b) fgekpy izns'k
45. Three important rivers of the Indian subcontinent (c) tEeq&d'ehj (d) es?kky;
have their sources near the Mansarover Lake in 45. rhu eq[; ufn;k¡ tks Hkkjrh; izk;}hi@miegk}hi esa
the Great Himalayas. These rivers are :
cgrh gSA tks ekuljksoj >hy ds egku fgeky; ls
(a) Indus, Jhelum and Sutlej
fudyrh gS& ;s ufn;k¡ dkSulh gSA
(b) Brahmaputra, Sutlej and Yamuna
(a) fla/kq] >sye] lryt
(c) Brahmaputra, Indus and Sutlej
(b) czãiq=] lryt] ;equk
(d) Jhelum, Sutlej and Yamuna
(c) czãiq=] fla/kq] lryt
46. The zonal soil type of peninsular India belongs to :
(d) >sye] lryt] ;equk
(a) Red soils (b) Yellow soils
46. izk;}hih; izns'k esa fdl izdkj dh feêh ikbZ tkrh gS %
(c) Black soils (d) Older alluvium
(a) yky feêh (b) ihyh feêh
47. The Shimla Convention is an agreement that sets :
(c) dkyh feêh (d) tyks<+
(a) Shimla as a tourist spot
47. f'keyk {ks= fdl dkj.k izfl) gS %
(b) Shimla as the capital of Himachal Pradesh
(a) i;ZVd LFky
(c) Boundary between India and Tibet
(b) fgekpy izns'k dh jkt/kkuh
(d) None of the above
48. Which of the following events took place in the (c) lhek Hkkjr o frCcr dh
Cenozoic era? (d) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(a) Formation of the rockies, India collides with Asia 48. flukstkbe dky dh izeq[k ?kVukvksa dk Øe fuEu gS %
and the formation of the Himalayas and the Alps (a) pêku fuekZ.k] Hkkjr dk B.Mk gksuk fgeky; ioZr ds
(b) Formation of the Appalachians and central dkj.kA
European mountains (b) ;wjksih;u ioZr
(c) Splitting of India from Antarctic (c) v.VkdZfVdk egklkxj
(d) Breaking up of Pangaea (d) iSfUt;k dk fuekZ.k
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8 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
49. The oldest oil field in India is the ......... field, in........ 49. Hkkjr dk lcls iqjkuk rsy la;=@rsy dqvk¡ dkSulk gS\
(a) Anleshwar, Gujarat (a) vdsys'oj] xqtjkr
(b) Bombay High, Maharashtra (b) cksEcs gkbZ] egkjk"Vª
(c) Nawagam, Gujarat (c) u;kxk¡o] xqtjkr
(d) Digboi, Assam (d) fMxcksbZ] vle
50. Unlike other parts of the Indian Coast, fishing
50. Hkkjrh; rV fdl dkj.k ls O;kikj ds fy, vPNs ugha gSAa
industry has not developed along the Saurashtra
tcfd lkSjk"Vª rV vPNk gS %
coast because :
(a) pkjksa vksj eNyhikyu
(a) there are few indentions suitable for fishing
(b) Ñf"k ,oa i'kq&ikyu
(b) of overwhelming dependence on agriculture and
animal husbandry (c) leqnzh ikuh yo.kh;
(c) the sea water is relatively more saline (d) vkS|ksfxd fodkl ,oa i;kZIr iznw"k.k
(d) of industrial development leading to widespread
pollution of coastal area
Directions: 51 to 56 55. W, T, P, M, I, F, B, ?, ?
A series is given with one term missing. Choose the
(a) Z, V (b) Y, U
correct alternative from the given ones that will
(c) X, U (d) Y, V
complete the series.
51. 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 29 ? 56. ACZXP, BDYYQ, CEXZR, DFWAS, ?,
FHUCU
(a) 36 (b) 47
(a) FGVBT (b) EGUBT
(c) 41 (d) 51
(c) EGVZT (d) EGVBT
52. 25, 27, 16, ?, 9, 1, 4
Directions: 57 to 62
(a) 12 (b) 13
Find the odd number/letters/ word from the given
(c) 8 (d) 7
alternatives.
53. ABC, CEE, FIG, ?, OTK
57. (a) ACE (b) KLM
(a) JOJ (b) JKL
(c) FHJ (d) SUW
(c) JMD (d) JNI
58. (a) Play-Actor (b) Craft-Artisan
54. cdeb, ceed, cfef, cgeh, ?
(c) Cloth-Skirt (d) Building-Architect
(a) chej (b) chik
59. (a) Z3W (b) Z9W
(c) chjk (d) cghj
(c) Z5W (d) Z7W

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9 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
60. (a) 7 (b) 17 70. A bell rings every 18 minutes. A second bell
(c) 27 (d) 57 rings every 24 minutes. A third bell rings every
61. (a) 4-44 (b) 3-30 32 minutes. If all the three bells ring at the same
time at 8 O’clock in the morning, at what other
(c) 6-64 (d) 5-35
time will they all ring together ?
62. (a) Obstacle (b) Impediment
(a) 12 : 40 hr (b) 12 : 48 hr
(c) Hindrace (d) Obeisance
Directions: 63 to 68 (c) 12 : 56 hr (d) 13 : 04 hr

Select the related letter/word/number from the given 71. Which of the following operations will result in
alternatives. 22 ?
63. Garbage : House : : Gangue : ? (a) 16  12 + 8 – 12 × 15
(a) Ore (b) Factory (b) 16 – 12 × 8  13 + 15
(c) Office (d) Drugs (c) 16 × 12  8 + 13 – 15
64. MOUSE : KPSTC : : LIGHT : ? (d) 16 + 12 – 8 × 13  5
(a) MGHFU (b) JJEIR
72. X and Y are brother. R is the father of Y. S is
(c) JGEFR (d) MJHIU the brother of T and maternal uncle of X. What
65. C : 16 : : F : ? is T to R ?
(a) 62 (b) 49 (a) Mother (b) Sister
(c) 40 (d) 50
(c) Wife (d) Brother
66. Evening Star : Venus : : Morning Star : ?
73. In a row of 20 students Sohan is third to the left
(a) Saturn (b) Earth
of Ram who is fourth from the right end after
(c) Mercury (d) Venus moving five place toward his right. What is
67. 79 : 63 : : 25 : ? Ram’s initial position from the left end ?
(a) 12 (b) 16 (a) 11th
(c) 10 (d) 14
(b) 12th
68. 2764 : 3763 : : ? : 5443
(c) 9th
(a) 2536 (b) 2356
(d) Cannot be determine
(c) 2563 (d) 5236
69. Gunjan travels 10 km towards North from there, 74. In a row of boys Sumit is 20th from left end and
she travels 4 km towards South. Then she travels 12th from right end and in that row Paras is
2.5 km towards East. How far is she from the 15th from right end then how many students are
starting point ? there in between Sumit and Paras?
(a) 6 km (b) 8.5 km (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 6.5 km (d) 12.5 km (c) 4 (d) 5

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10 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
75. If ROAD = 152 80. If MOBILE is written as ZAMSUM, How
and MAP = 90 TUMOR can be written in that code ?

then RAIL = ? (a) BRAIN (b) HGYAD

(a) 120 (b) 140 (c) GGXYA (d) IHZBE

(c) 160 (d) 180 81. Which number appears on the face opposite to
the face with number 2 ?
76. Five Persons (R, S, T, U and V) are in a queue
facing reservation counter. Immediately behind
2 6
S is U. T is standing between R and V, in
between R and U no one is there. Then where 3 4 1 2
is S standing in the queue?
(a) First (b) Second (a) 3 (b) 5
(c) Last (d) Last but one (c) 4 (d) 1
77. Which one of the given responses would be a 82. From the given alternative words select the one
logical order of the following words ? which can be formed using the letters of the given
1. Probation Period 2. Examination word.
3. Application 4. Notification TRANSFORMATION
5. Job 6. Interview (a) INFORMANT (b) TRANSACTION
(a) 4, 3, 2, 6, 5, 1 (b) 4, 3, 2, 6, 1, 5 (c) INFORMER (d) TRANSFER
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5, 6 (d) 4, 3, 1, 6, 2, 5 83. IF GO = 32, SHE = 49 then SOME will be
equal to
Directions: 78 & 79
(a) 56 (b) 58
Arrange the following word as per order is the
dictionary. (c) 62 (d) 64
78. 1. Harrier 2. Hear 84. From the given alternative words select the one
3. Harridan 4. Hang which cannot be formed using the letter of the
given word.
5. Harrow
REHABILITATION
(a) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
(a) RELATION (b) BRITAIN
(c) 4, 3, 5, 1, 2 (d) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
(c) BRITTLE (d) BROACH
79. 1. Fibril 2. Fiddle
3. Fetus 4. Ferule 85. The calender for the year 1982 is the same as
which year ?
5. Fettle
(a) 1988 (b) 1993
(a) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 (b) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2
(c) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2 (d) 4, 3, 5, 1, 2 (c) 1987 (d) 1992

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11 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
86. There are four towns P, Q, R and T. Q is to the 91. Select from the four alternatives diagrams, the
South-West of P, R is to the East of Q and one the best illustrates the relationship among
South-East of P, and T is to the North of R in the three classes Pigeons, Birds, Dogs.
line with QP. In which direction of P is T
located? (a) (b)
(a) South-East (b) South
(c) North-East (d) East
(c) (d)
87. A cube of 4 × 4 × 4 which all sides are coloured
in red are cut into smaller cubes of size 1 × 1 × 1. 92. In the following diagram, a total number of 100
How many two sides red coloured cube will be player play different games.
there? Cricket Football
(a) 8 (b) 48
25 20 13
(c) 24 (d) 16
5
Directions: 88 to 90 15
10
Select the missing number from the given responses.
12
88. 5 8 9 Hockey
7 6 6 How many players play football and hockey
9 7 ? but not cricket?
21 21 21 (a) 20 (b) 25
(c) 15 (d) 5
(a) 7 (b) 6
93. Which answer figure will complete the pattern
(c) 5 (d) 4
in the question figure ?
Question Figure :
89.
5 8 11 ?
256 676
3 7

(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8

90. 14 8 12
?
6 22 0 16 2 22 Answer Figures :

10 14 18 6 12 14 5 ? 15

(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 8 (d) 14 (a) (b) (c) (d)

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12 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
Direction 94 & 95 97. A piece of paper if folded and as shown below in
How many triangles are there in the figure given? the question figure from the given answer figures,
indicate how it will appear. When unfolded.
94. Question figures:

Answer Figures:

(a) 28 (b) 32
(c) 36 (d) 40 (a) (b)

95.

(c) (d)

98. What will be the water image of the question


(a) 26 (b) 29 figure?
Question figure:
(c) 27 (d) 28
96. From the given answer figures, select the one in
which the question figure is hidden/embedded.
Answer figures:
Question figure:

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Direction : 99 & 100


Answer figures:
A word is represented by only one set of numbers as
given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of
numbers given in the alternatives are represented
(a) (b) by two classes of alphabets as in the two matrices
given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are
numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are
numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices
can be represented first by its row and next by its
(c) (d) column, e.g., ‘L’ can be represented by 02, 31, etc.
and ‘N’ can be represented by 55, 69, etc.
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13 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
Matrix-I Matrix-II 106. Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 between
0 D S L O U 5 N R B M Y (a) 10 – 20% (b) 20 – 40%
1 L O D U S 6 Y B M R N
2 O U S D L 7 R Y N B M (c) 50 – 60% (d) None of the above
3 U L O S D 8 M N R Y B 107. The main function of alumina in brick earth is
4 S D U L O 9 B M Y N R
(a) to impart plasticity
99. What is the code of ‘BOOM’ ?
(b) to increase durability
(a) 78, 03, 32, 86 (b) 78, 30, 32, 58
(c) 78, 03, 23, 58 (d) 78, 03, 32, 58 (c) to prevent shrinkage
100. What is the code of ‘BOND’? (d) to increase impermeability
(a) 66, 11, 68, 12 (b) 66, 11, 69, 12 108. For one cubic metre of brick masonary, the
(c) 66, 11, 69, 14 (d) 66, 13, 69, 12 number of bricks required is
101. Marble is a (a) 400 (b) 500
(a) igneous rock (c) 5000 (d) 6000
(b) sedimentary rock 109. Portion oft he brick cut across its width and
(c) metamorphic rock having its length equal to that of a full brick, is
(d) granite rock known as
102. Slate is formed from the metamorphic action on (a) Closer (b) King closer
(a) shale (b) lime stone (c) Queen closer (d) Squint brick
(c) sand stone (d) granite 110. Efflorescence in bricks is classified as moderate
103. Kaoline is a when the deposits of efflorescence cover x%
(a) calcareous rock (b) argillaceous rock of exposed area of the bricks, where x is
(c) silicious rock (d) sandy rock (a) 0 – 10 (b) 0
104. Smith’s test is performed on stones for (c) 10 – 50 (d) None of the above
determining
111. As per IS specification, the minimum time for
(a) Specific gravity
initial setting of ordinary portlon cement is
(b) hardness
(a) 20 minutes (b) 30 minutes
(c) Water absorption
(c) 60 minutes (d) 10 hours
(d) Soluble and clayey matter
112. To produce low heat cement it is necessary to
105. Specific gravity for most of the building stone
reduce the compound
lies between
(a) 1.5 to 2.0 (b) 2.0 to 2.5 (a) C3S (b) C2S

(c) 2.5 to 3.0 (d) 3.0 to 3.5 (c) C3A (d) C4AF

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14 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
113. Plywood is specified by 120. A level line is a
(a) weight (b) volume (a) line parallel to the mean spheroidal surface
(c) thickness (d) numbers of layers of earth
114. If s is the value of one smallest division on main (b) line normal to the plumb line at all points
scale, v is the value of one smallest division on (c) horizontal line
the vernier and n is the number of divisions on (d) both (a) and (b) above
the vernier, then least count is given by 121. Which is an odd instrument with regards to
levelling?
s s
(a) (b) (a) Altimeter
n n 1
(b) Clinometer
(s  1) (n  1)
(c) (d) s (c) Abney hand level
n n
(d) Planimeter
115. For measured distance L along a slope, the
required slope correction is 122. The curvature and refraction correction applied
to staff readings respectively are
(a) 2L sin2 /2 (b) 2L cos2 /2
(a) both + ve (b) both – ve
(c) L tan2 /2 (d) L cot2 /2
(c) + and – ve (d) – ve and + ve
116. A 30m chain was found to be 20 cm too long
123. If the reduced bearing of line AB is N 30 W
after chaining 1500 m. The correct length of the
and legngth is 100 m, then the latitude and
total distance chained will be
departure respectively of the line AB will be
(a) 1495 m (b) 1500 m
(a) + 86.6 m, + 50 m
(c) 1505 m (d) None of the above
(b) + 50 m, + 86.6 m
117. Metallic tapes are made of
(c) + 86.6 m, – 50.0 m
(a) Steel (b) Invar (d) – 86.6 m, + 50.0 m
(c) Cloth and wires (d) Nickel 124. The bowditch method of adjusting a traverse is
118. If W is weight of the chain, L is the span and based on the assumption that
P is the tension or pull, the sag correction for 1
chain line will be (a) e1  l and e 2 
l
W 2 L2 W 2L (b) e1  l and e 2 l
(a) (b)
24P 2 24P
1 1
W2L W 2 L2 (c) e1  and e 2 
(c) (d) l l
24P2 24P
1
119. In chain survey execution, this first step taken is (d) e1  and e 2  l
l
(a) Reference sketches (b) Marking stations
where e 1 and e 2 are linear and angular
(c) Running survey line (d) Reconnaissance measurements respectively
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15 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
125. If  is the angle of deflection of a simple curve 130. The dry density of a soil is 1.5 g/cc. If the
of radius R, length of its long chord is saturation water content were 50%, then its
saturated density and submerged density would,
 
(a) R sin (b) 2R sin respectively, be
2 2
(a) 1.5 g/cc and 1.0 g/cc
  (b) 2.0 g/cc and 1.0 g/cc
(c) R cos (d) 2R cos (c) 2.25 g/cc and 1.25 g/cc
2 2
(d) 2.50 g/cc and 1.50 g/cc
126. Undisturbed soil samples are required for
conducting 131. Shear failure of soils takes place when
(a) hydrometer test (a) the angle of obliquity is maximum

(b) shrinkage limit test (b) maximum cohesion is reached in cohesive soils
(c)  reaches its maximum value in cohesionless
(c) consolidation test
soils
(d) specific gravity test
(d) residual strength of the soil is exhausted
127. Compression index on a soil helps to determine
132. Consider the following statements :
(a) total time required for consolidation
A well-graded sand should have
(b) time required for 50 percent consolidation
1. uniformity coefficient grater than 6.
(c) total settlement of clay layer
2. coefficient of curvature between 1 and 3
(d) pre-consolidation pressure of clay
3. effective size greater than 1 mm
128. By using sieve analysis, the particle size
Of these statements are correct
distribution curve has been plotted for a
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
particular soil. The coefficient of curvature Cc
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
is given by
133. Pitot tube is used to measure the velocity head of
D30 D30 (a) still fluid (b) laminar flow
(a) (b)
D30  D10 D 60  D10 (c) turbulent flow (d) flowing fluid
134. The non-dimensional factor governing frictional
D30 2 resistance is
D30
(c) D 60  D10 (d) (a) Reynolds number(b) Weber number
D 60  D10
(c) Froude number (d) Mach number
129. A soil has a liquid limit of 45% and lies above
135. An ideal fluid is
the A-line when plotted on a plasticity chart.
The group symbol of the soil as per IS Soil (a) similar to a perfect gas
Classification is (b) frictionless and incompressible
(a) CH (b) CI (c) obeys Newton laws of viscosity
(c) CL (d) MI (d) satisfies continuity equation

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16 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
136. Units of kinematic viscosity are (a) zero (b) 7.0
2 2
(a) m /sec (b) kg. sec/m (c) 8.0 (d) 14.0
2 2 143. Maximum permissible turbidity for drinking water is
(c) newton-sec/m (d) newton-sec /m
137. According to Darcy’s formula, loss of head due (a) 1 to 4 ppm (b) 5 to 10 ppm
to friction in the pipe is (c) 15 to 20 ppm (d) 25 to 30 ppm
4flv 2 flv 2 144. The standard turbidity produced by one mg of
(a) (b) silicon dioxide (silica) in one litre of distilled
gd gd
water is called
2flv 2 4flv
(c) (d) (a) one Jackson turbidity unit (JTU)
gd gd
(b) one Formazin turbidity unit (FTU)
138. A1 : 30 model of an ogee spillway crest records
an acceleration of 1.3 m/s2 at a certain location. (c) one Nephelometry turbidity unit (NTU)
The homologous value of the acceleration in the (d) none of the above
prototype, in m/s2, is 145. The product of H ions and OH ions isn a stronger
(a) 0.043 (b) 0.237 acid, is
(c) 1.300 (d) 7.120 (a) 0 (b) 1
–1
(c) 10 (d) 10–14
139. The multiplying factor, as applied to obtain peak
hourly demand, in relation to the average daily 146. Blue baby disease may be caused in infants due
demand, (per hour), is to drinking waters, containing higher
concentrations of
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.8
(a) nitrites (b) nitrates
(c) 2.0 (d) 2.7
(c) lead (d) arsenic
140. Coincident draft in relation to water demand, is
147. Low turbidity of water can be determined by
based on
(a) turbidity tube
(a) peak hourly demand
(b) Jackson’s turbidimeter
(b) maximum daily demand
(c) Baylis turbidimeter
(c) maximum daily + fire demand
(d) Hellice turbidimeter
(d) greater of (a) and (c) above
148. Membrane filter technique is used for testing
141. The population of a town in three consecutive
(a) E-coli (b) coper
decades are : 1 lakh, 1.4 lakh, 1.68 lakh,
respectively. The population of this town in the (c) pathogenic bacteria (d) boron
fourth consecutive decade, according to 149. Alkalinity in water is caused by
geometric method, would be (a) Sodium carbonate
(a) 1.9 lakh (b) 2.184 lakh (b) Potassium carbonate
(c) 2.2 lakh (d) 2.5 lakh (c) Calcium hydroxide
142. For maximum alkalinity in water, the pH value (d) Calcium and Magnesium carbonates
should be (e) all of the above
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17 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
150. Air values are used 157. The sewerage system originates from
(a) at dead ends of water main (a) main sewers (b) branch sewers
(b) at summit points in the water main (c) lateral sewers (d) house sewers
(c) to admit air into the water main 158. The minimum and the maximum diameter of
(d) at intersection points of pipelines sewers, generally adopted in the designs, may be
151. The valve, which allows the flow only in one (a) 15cm & 100cm (b) 15cm & 300cm
direction, is a (c) 25cm & 450cm (d) 60cm & 300cm
(a) reflux valve (b) sluice valve 159. Time of concentration is the time
(c) gate valve (d) none of the above (a) taken for the maximum run off rate to develop
152. The length of rectangular sedimentation tank (b) required for flow of water in sewer to the
should not be more than point under consideration
(a) width of the tank (c) both (a) and (b) above
(b) 2 × width of the tank (d) none of the above
(c) 4 × width of the tank 160. Coal based thermal power stations pollute the
(d) 8 × width of the tank atmosphere by adding
153. Surface loading or overflow rate of a (a) Nox and SO2
sedimentation tank, passing a discharge Q and (b) NOx SO2 and SPM
having length = L, depth = D, width = B is given
(c) NOx, SO2, SPM and CO
by
(d) SOx, SPM and CO
Q Q
(a) (b) 161. If the total hardness and alkalinity of sample of
B.D B.L
water are 300 mg/l and 100 mg/l (CaCO3 scale,
Q
(c) Q.B.D (d) respectively, then its carbonate and noncarbonate
B.D.L
hardness (in units of mg/l) will be respectively
154. The detention time for a water sedimentation tank,
using coagulated raw supplies, may vary between (a) 100 and 200 (b) 400 and 300
(a) 1-2 hr (b) 2-4 hr (c) 100 and 400 (d) 400 and zero
(c) 4-8 hr (d) 16-25 hr 162. Ringelmann’s scale is used to

155. If 2% solution of a sewage sample is incubated (a) measure CO


for 5 days at 20°C and depletion of oxygen was (b) measure SO2
found to be 5 ppm. BOD of sewage is (c) grade density of smoke
(a) 200 ppm (b) 250 ppm (d) grade automobile exhaust gas
(c) 500 ppm (d) none of the above 163. A material obey’s Hooke’s law up to
156. When there is no recirculation of sewage, then (a) Plastic limit
circulation factor is (b) Elastic limit
(a) zero (b) one (c) Yield point
(c) infinity (d) none of the above (d) Limit of proportionality

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18 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
164. Impact strength of a material is an index of its 170. The depth to breadth ratio for the strongest
(a) toughness rectangular beam that can be cut out of a
(b) tensile strength cylindrical wooden log is
(c) capability of being cold worked (a) 3 : 1 (b) 2 :1
(d) hardness (c) 2 : 3 (d) 2 : 1
165. The intensity of stress which causes unit strain 171. Shear stress in a rectangular beam exhibits a
is called (a) parabolic variation
(a) unit stress (b) modulus of rigidity
(b) linear variation
(c) bulk modulus (d) modulus of elasticity
(c) cubic variation
166. The extension of a uniformely tapering bar from
(d) none of the above
diameter D2 at top to diameter D1 at bottom
172. A material having same properties in all
and having length l, under an axial load P is
directions is known as
given by
(a) Orthotropic meterial
4Pl 4EPl
(a) ED D (b) D D (b) Isotropic material
1 2 1 2
(c) Elastic material
4D1D2 4Pl (d) Homogenous material
(c) (d) ED D
EPl 1 2 173. A material subjected to reversal of stresses does
167. Relationship between modulus of elasticity E, not fail at a stress known as
modulus of rigidity G is (a) Fatigue stress (b) Proof stress
(a) E = G(1 + ) (b) G = E(2 – ) (c) Safe stress (d) Endurance stress
174. Number of independent elastic constant for an
E E
(c) G  (d) G  isotropic, homogeneous and elastic material
2(1  ) 1  obeying Hookes law is
168. Deflection at free end of a contilever of span l (a) 1 (b) 2
and carrying a concentrated load W, at distance (c) 5 (d) 6
l1 from the fixed end is 175. A load of 20,000 kg applied to a brass cylinder
40 cm long and 10 cm in diameter caused the
Wl12 Wl12
(a) (3l  l1 ) (b) (3l1  l ) length to increase 0.8 cm and the diameter to
6EI 6EI
decrease to 0.005 cm. Poisson’s ratio of brass is
Wl12 Wl12 (a) 0.25 (b) 0.925
(c) (3l  l1 ) (d) (3l1  l )
6EI 6EI (c) 0.4 (d) 2.5
169. A simply supported rectangular beam 200 mm 176. In a rectangular beam, the maximum shear
wide, 300 mm deep, 4m long carrying a u.d.l. of stress occurs at
10 kN/m experiences a maximum bending stress (a) top fibre of the section
of (b) anywhere cross the depth
(a) 66.67 N/mm2 (b) 0.667 N/mm2 (c) bottom of the section
(c) 6.67 N/mm2 (d) none of the above (d) only at neutral axis
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ENGINEERS ACADEMY
19 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
177. For the continuous beam ABC loaded and 184. Ultimate bending compressive strain in RCC is
supported as shown in the figure, the reaction at (a) 0.003 (b) 0.0035
D shall be
(c) 0.00033 (d) None of the above
W
185. Modular ratio m in terms of permissible
compressive stress due to bending in concrete
A B C
D cbc (in N/mm2) is given by
280 2800
(a) 3 (b) 3
cbc cbc
W 3W
(a) (b)
2 2 2800 280
(c) 3 (d) 
(c) W (d) zero cbc cbc

178. The property of a material by virtue of which it 186. In the working stress design, the allowable
can be beaten or rolled into plates is called
bending compressive strain in RCC is
(a) malleability (b) ductility
(a) 0.003 (b) 0.0003
(c) plasticity (d) elasticity
(c) 0.002 (d) None of the above
179. The ratio of Young’s modulus of elasticity to
modulus of rigidity for a material having Poisson’s 187. If nominal shear stress v exceeds design shear
ratio 0.2 is strength of concrete c the shear reinforcement
(a) 12/5 (b) 5/12 to be provided as per I.S 456-1978 carrying
shear stress is
(c) 5/14 (d) 14/5
180. Approx ratio of the strength of the cement conc (a)  v (b) c
of 7 days to that of 28 days (c) v – c (d) v + c
(a) 0.56 (b) 0.85 188. Minimum percentage of steel in R.C.C slabs if
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.15 mild steel is used is
181. Relation between modulus of rupture fcr and cube (a) 0.12% (b) 0.15%
strength of concrete fck is (c) 0.3% (d) 0.35%
(a) f cr  0.35 f ck (b) f cr  0.7 f ck 189. In the formula for calculating the effective width
l0
(c) f cr  0.5 f ck (d) f cr  1.2 f ck of flange of T-beam bf = +bw +6Df, l0 signifies
6
182. The factor of safety for steel is based on its (a) effective span of T beam
(a) yield stress (b) ultimate stress (b) distance between points of zero moments in
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above the beam
183. Vicat’s apparatus is used for (c) distance between points of maximum
(a) fineness test (b) consistency test moments is the beam
(c) soundness test (d) final setting time (d) clear span of T beam

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ENGINEERS ACADEMY
20 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
190. If the permissible stress in steel in tension is 196. Maximum premissible slenderness ratio of steel
140/mm2 then the depth of neutral axis for a ties likely to be subjected to compression also is
singly reinforced balanced beam will be (a) 250 (b) 350
(a) 0.30 d (b) 0.35 d
(c) 450 (d) No limit
(c) 0.40 d (d) 0.45 d
197. Bolts are most suited for
191. In the limit state design for flexure, the area of
the stress block for concrete is taken as (a) shear (b) tension
(a) 0.36 fck Xn (b) 0.42 fck Xn (c) bencthing (d) both (a) and (c) above
(c) 0.53 fck Xn (d) None of the above 198. Slenderness ratio of lacing flats is limited to
192. Wire mesh provided at the corners of a two-
(a) 350 (b) 250
way slab
(c) 180 (d) 145
(a) prevents corners from lifting
(b) distributes bending moments uniformly 199. Most economical section for a column is
(c) controls cracking of corners (a) square (b) circular
(d) None of the above (c) tubular (d) hexagonal
193. If fcu and are cube compressive strength of 200. When steel members are proportioned for
concrete and yield stress of steel respectively secondary effects without wind or earthquake,
and Es is he modulus of elasticity of steel, for all the permissible stresses for sections and
grades of concrete, the ultimate flxexural strain connections are respectively increased by
in concrete can be taken as
(a) 0.002 (b) fcu/1000 1
(a) 33 %, 25%
(c) 0.0035 (d) fy(1.15 Es) + 0.002 3
194. A butt weld is specified by (b) 25%, 25%
(a) Effective throat thickness
(b) Leg length 1
(c) 25%, 33
3
(c) Plate thickness
(d) Penetration thickness (d) none of the above
195. Maximum pitch of the rivets for a compression 
member should not exceed
(a) 2.5 times nominal diameter
(b) 2.5 times gross diameter
(c) 12t or 200 mm whichever is less
(d) 16t or 200 mm whichever is less
Where t is the minimum thickness of the plates
jointed.
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ENGINEERS ACADEMY
21 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1

ANSWERS SHEET
1. Ans. (b) 21. Ans. (b) 41. Ans. (d) 61. Ans. (c) 81. Ans. (b)

2. Ans. (b) 22. Ans. (d) 42. Ans. (d) 62. Ans. (d) 82. Ans. (a)

3. Ans. (a) 23. Ans. (a) 43. Ans. (b) 63. Ans. (a) 83. Ans. (b)

4. Ans. (d) 24. Ans. (b) 44. Ans. (c) 64. Ans. (b) 84. Ans. (d)

5. Ans. (a) 25. Ans. (a) 45. Ans. (c) 65. Ans. (b) 85. Ans. (b)

6. Ans. (a) 26. Ans. (a) 46. Ans. (a) 66. Ans. (d) 86. Ans. (c)

7. Ans. (d) 27. Ans. (a) 47. Ans. (a) 67. Ans. (c) 87. Ans. (c)

8. Ans. (a) 28. Ans. (b) 48. Ans. (a) 68. Ans. (a) 88. Ans. (b)

9. Ans. (b) 29. Ans. (a) 49. Ans. (d) 69. Ans. (c) 89. Ans. (d)

10. Ans. (b) 30. Ans. (a) 50. Ans. (c) 70. Ans. (b) 90. Ans. (c)

11. Ans. (c) 31. Ans. (d) 51. Ans. (b) 71. Ans. (c) 91. Ans. (a)

12. Ans. (d) 32. Ans. (d) 52. Ans. (c) 72. Ans. (c) 92. Ans. (c)

13. Ans. (b) 33. Ans. (a) 53. Ans. (d) 73. Ans. (b) 93. Ans. (a)

14. Ans. (b) 34. Ans. (d) 54. Ans. (a) 74. Ans. (a) 94. Ans. (c)

15. Ans. (d) 35. Ans. (a) 55. Ans. (b) 75. Ans. (c) 95. Ans. (d)

16. Ans. (c) 36. Ans. (a) 56. Ans. (d) 76. Ans. (a) 96. Ans. (a)

17. Ans. (b) 37. Ans. (d) 57. Ans. (b) 77. Ans. (b) 97. Ans. (b)

18. Ans. (d) 38. Ans. (c) 58. Ans. (c) 78. Ans. (d) 98. Ans. (b)

19. Ans. (d) 39. Ans. (c) 59. Ans. (b) 79. Ans. (b) 99. Ans. (d)

20. Ans. (b) 40. Ans. (a) 60. Ans. (c) 80. Ans. (c) 100. Ans. (b)

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ENGINEERS ACADEMY
22 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1

101. Ans. (c) 121. Ans. (d) 141. Ans. (b) 161. Ans. (a) 181. Ans. (b)

102. Ans. (a) 122. Ans. (d) 142. Ans. (d) 162. Ans. (c) 182. Ans. (b)

103. Ans. (b) 123. Ans. (c) 143. Ans. (b) 163. Ans. (b) 183. Ans. (b)

104. Ans. (d) 124. Ans. (c) 144. Ans. (a) 164. Ans. (a) 184. Ans. (a)

105. Ans. (c) 125. Ans. (c) 145. Ans. (d) 165. Ans. (d) 185. Ans. (a)

106. Ans. (c) 126. Ans. (c) 146. Ans. (b) 166. Ans. (d) 186. Ans. (c)

107. Ans. (a) 127. Ans. (c) 147. Ans. (c) 167. Ans. (c) 187. Ans. (b)

108. Ans. (d) 128. Ans. (d) 148. Ans. (a) 168. Ans. (c) 188. Ans. (d)

109. Ans. (c) 129. Ans. (b) 149. Ans. (c) 169. Ans. (c) 189. Ans. (a)

110. Ans. (c) 130. Ans. (c) 150. Ans. (b) 170. Ans. (b) 190. Ans. (a)

111. Ans. (b) 131. Ans. (a) 151. Ans. (a) 171. Ans. (a) 191. Ans. (a)

112. Ans. (c) 132. Ans. (b) 152. Ans. (c) 172. Ans. (d) 192. Ans. (a)

113. Ans. (d) 133. Ans. (d) 153. Ans. (b) 173. Ans. (d) 193. Ans. (c)

114. Ans. (a) 134. Ans. (d) 154. Ans. (b) 174. Ans. (a) 194. Ans. (d)

115. Ans. (a) 135. Ans. (b) 155. Ans. (b) 175. Ans. (a) 195. Ans. (c)

116. Ans. (c) 136. Ans. (a) 156. Ans. (b) 176. Ans. (d) 196. Ans. (b)

117. Ans. (c) 137. Ans. (a) 157. Ans. (d) 177. Ans. (d) 197. Ans. (d)

118. Ans. (b) 138. Ans. (c) 158. Ans. (b) 178. Ans. (a) 198. Ans. (d)

119. Ans. (d) 139. Ans. (d) 159. Ans. (a) 179. Ans. (a) 199. Ans. (c)

120. Ans. (d) 140. Ans. (c) 160. Ans. (b) 180. Ans. (a) 200. Ans. (b)

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