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Candidate's Name
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SEAL
ENGINEERS ACADEMY
1 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
1. Which of the following works speaks of the 1. fuEukafdr esa ls fdl xzUFk us Hkkjr dh lhek leqnz ds
boundary of India as being on the north of sea and mÙkj o fgeky; ds nf{k.k esa crk;k gSA
south of the Himalaya?
(a) _Xosn
(a) Rigved
(b) fo".kq iqjk.k
(b) Vishnu Puran
(c) iapfoa'k czkã.k
(c) Panchvinsh Brahmana
(d) 'kriFk czkã.k
(d) Shatpath Brahmana
2. Which of the following is an important Mesolithic 2. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu&lk LFky ,d egÙoiw.kZ e/;
site in Rajasthan? ik"kk.k dkyhu LFky gSA
(a) Ganeshwar (b) Bagor (a) x.ks'oj (b) ckxkSj
(c) Ahar (d) Kalibangan (c) vkgkM (d) dkyhcaxk
3. In the Rigveda the word Arya denotes : 3. ^_Xosn* esa ^vk;Z* 'kCn fdldk okpd gSA
(a) Caste (b) An occupation (a) tkfr (b) O;olk;
(c) Religion (d) Quality (c) /keZ (d) xq.k
4. Satyameva Jayate, the famous saying belongs to :
4. ^^lR;eso t;rs** fdl xzaFk esa feyrk gSA
(a) Rigveda
(a) _Xosn
(b) Tattiriya Aranyak
(b) rSfÙkjh; vkj.;d
(c) Brihdaranyakopanishad
(c) c`gnkj.;dksifu"kn~
(d) Mundakopanishad
(d) eq.Mdksifu"kn~
5. The name of Jain text which refers to sixteen
Mahajanpada is : 5. ftl tSu xzUFk ls lksyg egktuinksa dh lwph izkIr gksrh
(a) Bhagwati Sutra gS og gS&
(b) Anuguttara Nikaya (a) Hkxorh lw= (b) vaxqÙkj fudk;
(c) Kathakosh Prakarana (c) dFkkdks'k izdj.k (d) dFkkdks'k
(d) Kathakosh 6. fQjkst'kkg rqxyd us fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl xzUFk dh
6. Which of the following books was written by jpuk dh FkhA
Firozshah Tughlaq? (a) rkjh[ks fQjkst'kkgh (b) rqxydukek
(a) Tarik-e-Firozshahi (b) Tughlaqnama (c) Qqrqgkrs fQjkst'kkgh (d) fe¶rk&my&Qqrwg
(c) Fatuhat-e-Firozshahi (d) Mifta-ul-Futuh
7. iqf"VekxZ ds laLFkkid Fks %
7. Pushtimarga was founded by :
(a) pSrU; (b) jkekuUn
(a) Chaitananya (b) Ramananda
(c) ehjk (d) oYyHkkpk;Z
(c) Meera (d) Vallabhacharya
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(4) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a) (4) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
16. In which of the following Articles of Constitution 16. lafo/kku ds fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl vuqPNsn esa
the minorities have the right to establish and vYila[;dksa dks viuh #fp dh f'k{kk laLFkk dh LFkkiuk
administer the educational institution of their choice? vkSj iz'kklu djus dk vf/kdkj gSA
(a) Article 29 (1) (b) Article 29 (2) (a) vuqPNsn 29 (1) (b) vuqPNsn 29 (2)
(c) Article 30 (1) (d) Article 30 (2) (c) vuqPNsn 30 (1) (d) vuqPNsn 30 (2)
17. Directive Principles of State Policy are mentioned 17. jkT; ds uhfr funs'kd rÙo Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds fdl
in which part of Indian constitution? Hkkx esa mfYyf[kr gSaA
(a) Part - III (b) Part - IV (a) r`rh; Hkkx esa (b) prqFkZ Hkkx esa
(c) Part - V (d) Part - VI (c) iape Hkkx esa (d) "k"Be~ Hkkx esa
18. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle
18. fuEufyf[kr esas ls dkSu&lk jkT; dk uhfr funs'kd rÙo
of State Policy?
ugha gSA
(a) Uniform Civil Code
(a) leku flfoy lafgrk
(b) Free Legal Aid
(b) fu%'kqYd fof/kd lgk;rk
(c) Environment Protection
(c) i;kZoj.k dk laj{k.k
(d) Assistance to Private Industries
(d) izkbosV m|ksxksa dks lgk;rk
19. The Governor may appoint a person as a chief
Minister who is not member of the legislature of 19. ,d O;fDr tks jkT; fo/kkue.My dk lnL; ugha gS
the State. jkT;iky eq[;ea=h fu;qDr dj ldsxkA
(a) Yes (a) gk¡
(b) No (b) ugha
(c) Yes but for the period of three month (c) gk¡] ijarq rhu eghus dh vof/k ds fy,
(d) Yes but for the period of six months (d) gk¡ ijarq N% eghus dh vof/k ds fy,
20. In which of the following state the legislature has 20. fuEu esa ls fdl jkT; ds fo/kkue.My dk ,d lnu gSA
one house?
(a) fcgkj (b) fgekpy izns'k
(a) Bhihar (b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) egkjk"Vª (d) mÙkj izns'k
(c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh
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(c) The Thalgat pass (d) The Bolan pass (c) Fkky?kkV (d) cksyuikl
41. Which of the following factors are responsible for 41. xUus ds rhoz mRiknu gsrq ,sls dkSu&ls dkjd gSA ftuds
the rapid growth of sugar production in South India dkj.k mÙkj Hkkjr esa T;knk vkSj nf{k.k Hkkjr esa de xUus
as compared to North India? dk mRiknu gksrk gS %
I. Higher per acre field of sugarcane I. izfr gSDVs;j xUus dk mRiknu vf/kd
II. Higher sucrose content of sugarcane II. mPp lqØkst xUus dk mRiknu vf/kd
III. Lower labour cost III. de Je ykxr
IV. Longer crushing period IV. vf/kd mRiknu dky
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III (a) I and II (b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV (c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
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Select the related letter/word/number from the given 71. Which of the following operations will result in
alternatives. 22 ?
63. Garbage : House : : Gangue : ? (a) 16 12 + 8 – 12 × 15
(a) Ore (b) Factory (b) 16 – 12 × 8 13 + 15
(c) Office (d) Drugs (c) 16 × 12 8 + 13 – 15
64. MOUSE : KPSTC : : LIGHT : ? (d) 16 + 12 – 8 × 13 5
(a) MGHFU (b) JJEIR
72. X and Y are brother. R is the father of Y. S is
(c) JGEFR (d) MJHIU the brother of T and maternal uncle of X. What
65. C : 16 : : F : ? is T to R ?
(a) 62 (b) 49 (a) Mother (b) Sister
(c) 40 (d) 50
(c) Wife (d) Brother
66. Evening Star : Venus : : Morning Star : ?
73. In a row of 20 students Sohan is third to the left
(a) Saturn (b) Earth
of Ram who is fourth from the right end after
(c) Mercury (d) Venus moving five place toward his right. What is
67. 79 : 63 : : 25 : ? Ram’s initial position from the left end ?
(a) 12 (b) 16 (a) 11th
(c) 10 (d) 14
(b) 12th
68. 2764 : 3763 : : ? : 5443
(c) 9th
(a) 2536 (b) 2356
(d) Cannot be determine
(c) 2563 (d) 5236
69. Gunjan travels 10 km towards North from there, 74. In a row of boys Sumit is 20th from left end and
she travels 4 km towards South. Then she travels 12th from right end and in that row Paras is
2.5 km towards East. How far is she from the 15th from right end then how many students are
starting point ? there in between Sumit and Paras?
(a) 6 km (b) 8.5 km (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 6.5 km (d) 12.5 km (c) 4 (d) 5
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(c) 160 (d) 180 81. Which number appears on the face opposite to
the face with number 2 ?
76. Five Persons (R, S, T, U and V) are in a queue
facing reservation counter. Immediately behind
2 6
S is U. T is standing between R and V, in
between R and U no one is there. Then where 3 4 1 2
is S standing in the queue?
(a) First (b) Second (a) 3 (b) 5
(c) Last (d) Last but one (c) 4 (d) 1
77. Which one of the given responses would be a 82. From the given alternative words select the one
logical order of the following words ? which can be formed using the letters of the given
1. Probation Period 2. Examination word.
3. Application 4. Notification TRANSFORMATION
5. Job 6. Interview (a) INFORMANT (b) TRANSACTION
(a) 4, 3, 2, 6, 5, 1 (b) 4, 3, 2, 6, 1, 5 (c) INFORMER (d) TRANSFER
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5, 6 (d) 4, 3, 1, 6, 2, 5 83. IF GO = 32, SHE = 49 then SOME will be
equal to
Directions: 78 & 79
(a) 56 (b) 58
Arrange the following word as per order is the
dictionary. (c) 62 (d) 64
78. 1. Harrier 2. Hear 84. From the given alternative words select the one
3. Harridan 4. Hang which cannot be formed using the letter of the
given word.
5. Harrow
REHABILITATION
(a) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
(a) RELATION (b) BRITAIN
(c) 4, 3, 5, 1, 2 (d) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
(c) BRITTLE (d) BROACH
79. 1. Fibril 2. Fiddle
3. Fetus 4. Ferule 85. The calender for the year 1982 is the same as
which year ?
5. Fettle
(a) 1988 (b) 1993
(a) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1 (b) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2
(c) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2 (d) 4, 3, 5, 1, 2 (c) 1987 (d) 1992
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(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 8
90. 14 8 12
?
6 22 0 16 2 22 Answer Figures :
10 14 18 6 12 14 5 ? 15
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 8 (d) 14 (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer Figures:
(a) 28 (b) 32
(c) 36 (d) 40 (a) (b)
95.
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(c) 2.5 to 3.0 (d) 3.0 to 3.5 (c) C3A (d) C4AF
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(b) shrinkage limit test (b) maximum cohesion is reached in cohesive soils
(c) reaches its maximum value in cohesionless
(c) consolidation test
soils
(d) specific gravity test
(d) residual strength of the soil is exhausted
127. Compression index on a soil helps to determine
132. Consider the following statements :
(a) total time required for consolidation
A well-graded sand should have
(b) time required for 50 percent consolidation
1. uniformity coefficient grater than 6.
(c) total settlement of clay layer
2. coefficient of curvature between 1 and 3
(d) pre-consolidation pressure of clay
3. effective size greater than 1 mm
128. By using sieve analysis, the particle size
Of these statements are correct
distribution curve has been plotted for a
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
particular soil. The coefficient of curvature Cc
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
is given by
133. Pitot tube is used to measure the velocity head of
D30 D30 (a) still fluid (b) laminar flow
(a) (b)
D30 D10 D 60 D10 (c) turbulent flow (d) flowing fluid
134. The non-dimensional factor governing frictional
D30 2 resistance is
D30
(c) D 60 D10 (d) (a) Reynolds number(b) Weber number
D 60 D10
(c) Froude number (d) Mach number
129. A soil has a liquid limit of 45% and lies above
135. An ideal fluid is
the A-line when plotted on a plasticity chart.
The group symbol of the soil as per IS Soil (a) similar to a perfect gas
Classification is (b) frictionless and incompressible
(a) CH (b) CI (c) obeys Newton laws of viscosity
(c) CL (d) MI (d) satisfies continuity equation
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178. The property of a material by virtue of which it 186. In the working stress design, the allowable
can be beaten or rolled into plates is called
bending compressive strain in RCC is
(a) malleability (b) ductility
(a) 0.003 (b) 0.0003
(c) plasticity (d) elasticity
(c) 0.002 (d) None of the above
179. The ratio of Young’s modulus of elasticity to
modulus of rigidity for a material having Poisson’s 187. If nominal shear stress v exceeds design shear
ratio 0.2 is strength of concrete c the shear reinforcement
(a) 12/5 (b) 5/12 to be provided as per I.S 456-1978 carrying
shear stress is
(c) 5/14 (d) 14/5
180. Approx ratio of the strength of the cement conc (a) v (b) c
of 7 days to that of 28 days (c) v – c (d) v + c
(a) 0.56 (b) 0.85 188. Minimum percentage of steel in R.C.C slabs if
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.15 mild steel is used is
181. Relation between modulus of rupture fcr and cube (a) 0.12% (b) 0.15%
strength of concrete fck is (c) 0.3% (d) 0.35%
(a) f cr 0.35 f ck (b) f cr 0.7 f ck 189. In the formula for calculating the effective width
l0
(c) f cr 0.5 f ck (d) f cr 1.2 f ck of flange of T-beam bf = +bw +6Df, l0 signifies
6
182. The factor of safety for steel is based on its (a) effective span of T beam
(a) yield stress (b) ultimate stress (b) distance between points of zero moments in
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above the beam
183. Vicat’s apparatus is used for (c) distance between points of maximum
(a) fineness test (b) consistency test moments is the beam
(c) soundness test (d) final setting time (d) clear span of T beam
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Institute for
Specially for
JMRC : MT
BSNL : JTO/TTA
RRB : SSE / JEn
Presents
All India GATE Test Series
JEn Test Series
Regular Classroom Programme
Weekend Clasrooms Programme
Summer Special Batch
Crash Course
Correspondence Courses
Interview Guidance Programme
SEAL
ENGINEERS ACADEMY
21 CE : JEn (SSC) : Test Series Full Length Test : 1
ANSWERS SHEET
1. Ans. (b) 21. Ans. (b) 41. Ans. (d) 61. Ans. (c) 81. Ans. (b)
2. Ans. (b) 22. Ans. (d) 42. Ans. (d) 62. Ans. (d) 82. Ans. (a)
3. Ans. (a) 23. Ans. (a) 43. Ans. (b) 63. Ans. (a) 83. Ans. (b)
4. Ans. (d) 24. Ans. (b) 44. Ans. (c) 64. Ans. (b) 84. Ans. (d)
5. Ans. (a) 25. Ans. (a) 45. Ans. (c) 65. Ans. (b) 85. Ans. (b)
6. Ans. (a) 26. Ans. (a) 46. Ans. (a) 66. Ans. (d) 86. Ans. (c)
7. Ans. (d) 27. Ans. (a) 47. Ans. (a) 67. Ans. (c) 87. Ans. (c)
8. Ans. (a) 28. Ans. (b) 48. Ans. (a) 68. Ans. (a) 88. Ans. (b)
9. Ans. (b) 29. Ans. (a) 49. Ans. (d) 69. Ans. (c) 89. Ans. (d)
10. Ans. (b) 30. Ans. (a) 50. Ans. (c) 70. Ans. (b) 90. Ans. (c)
11. Ans. (c) 31. Ans. (d) 51. Ans. (b) 71. Ans. (c) 91. Ans. (a)
12. Ans. (d) 32. Ans. (d) 52. Ans. (c) 72. Ans. (c) 92. Ans. (c)
13. Ans. (b) 33. Ans. (a) 53. Ans. (d) 73. Ans. (b) 93. Ans. (a)
14. Ans. (b) 34. Ans. (d) 54. Ans. (a) 74. Ans. (a) 94. Ans. (c)
15. Ans. (d) 35. Ans. (a) 55. Ans. (b) 75. Ans. (c) 95. Ans. (d)
16. Ans. (c) 36. Ans. (a) 56. Ans. (d) 76. Ans. (a) 96. Ans. (a)
17. Ans. (b) 37. Ans. (d) 57. Ans. (b) 77. Ans. (b) 97. Ans. (b)
18. Ans. (d) 38. Ans. (c) 58. Ans. (c) 78. Ans. (d) 98. Ans. (b)
19. Ans. (d) 39. Ans. (c) 59. Ans. (b) 79. Ans. (b) 99. Ans. (d)
20. Ans. (b) 40. Ans. (a) 60. Ans. (c) 80. Ans. (c) 100. Ans. (b)
101. Ans. (c) 121. Ans. (d) 141. Ans. (b) 161. Ans. (a) 181. Ans. (b)
102. Ans. (a) 122. Ans. (d) 142. Ans. (d) 162. Ans. (c) 182. Ans. (b)
103. Ans. (b) 123. Ans. (c) 143. Ans. (b) 163. Ans. (b) 183. Ans. (b)
104. Ans. (d) 124. Ans. (c) 144. Ans. (a) 164. Ans. (a) 184. Ans. (a)
105. Ans. (c) 125. Ans. (c) 145. Ans. (d) 165. Ans. (d) 185. Ans. (a)
106. Ans. (c) 126. Ans. (c) 146. Ans. (b) 166. Ans. (d) 186. Ans. (c)
107. Ans. (a) 127. Ans. (c) 147. Ans. (c) 167. Ans. (c) 187. Ans. (b)
108. Ans. (d) 128. Ans. (d) 148. Ans. (a) 168. Ans. (c) 188. Ans. (d)
109. Ans. (c) 129. Ans. (b) 149. Ans. (c) 169. Ans. (c) 189. Ans. (a)
110. Ans. (c) 130. Ans. (c) 150. Ans. (b) 170. Ans. (b) 190. Ans. (a)
111. Ans. (b) 131. Ans. (a) 151. Ans. (a) 171. Ans. (a) 191. Ans. (a)
112. Ans. (c) 132. Ans. (b) 152. Ans. (c) 172. Ans. (d) 192. Ans. (a)
113. Ans. (d) 133. Ans. (d) 153. Ans. (b) 173. Ans. (d) 193. Ans. (c)
114. Ans. (a) 134. Ans. (d) 154. Ans. (b) 174. Ans. (a) 194. Ans. (d)
115. Ans. (a) 135. Ans. (b) 155. Ans. (b) 175. Ans. (a) 195. Ans. (c)
116. Ans. (c) 136. Ans. (a) 156. Ans. (b) 176. Ans. (d) 196. Ans. (b)
117. Ans. (c) 137. Ans. (a) 157. Ans. (d) 177. Ans. (d) 197. Ans. (d)
118. Ans. (b) 138. Ans. (c) 158. Ans. (b) 178. Ans. (a) 198. Ans. (d)
119. Ans. (d) 139. Ans. (d) 159. Ans. (a) 179. Ans. (a) 199. Ans. (c)
120. Ans. (d) 140. Ans. (c) 160. Ans. (b) 180. Ans. (a) 200. Ans. (b)