ChE 603 – Chemical Engineering Principles

Refresher Exam 8

1. A vertical furnace wall is made up of an inner wall of firebrick 20 cm thick followed by an insulating brick 15 cm
thick and an outer wall of steel 1 cm thick. The surface temperature of the wall adjacent to the combustion chamber
is 1200⁰C while that of the outer surface of steel is 50⁰C. The thermal conductivities of the wall material in W/m-K
are firebrick, 10; insulating brick, 0.26; and steel, 45. Neglecting the film resistances and contact resistance of joints,
determine the heat loss per square meter of wall area.
a. 2.55 kW b. 1.93 kW c. 0.93 kW d. 1.45 kW
2. A 6-in thick wall is 12 ft high and 16 ft wide. One face is at 1500⁰F and the other at 300⁰F. The thermal
conductivity of the wall is 0.15 Btu/hr-ft-⁰F. How much heat flows through the wall?
a. 6900 Btu/hr b. 20252 W c. 20256 kW d. 160 J/s
3. A 1-¼ -inch schedule 40 steel pipe is insulated with a 2-in layer of asbestos covered by a 3-in layer of 85%
magnesia. If the temperature inside the pipe wall is 300⁰F and the atmospheric temperature is 80⁰F, what is the heat
loss per foot of pipe? Thermal conductivities are 26 Btu/hr-ft-⁰F for steel, 0.087 Btu/hr-ft-⁰F for asbestos, and 0.034
Btu/hr-ft-⁰F for magnesia.
a. 25.4 Btu/hr b. 39.1 Btu/hr c. 48.7 Btu/hr d. 58.9 Btu/hr
4. From #3, what is the temperature between the two insulations?
a. 212.2⁰F b. 200.9⁰F c. 188.5⁰F d. 177.5⁰F
5. Methyl alcohol flowing in the inner pipe of a double pipe exchanger is cooled with water flowing in the jacket. The
inner pipe is made from 1-in schedule 40 steel pipe with k = 26 Btu/hr-ft-⁰F. The individual coefficients and fouling
factors are ho = 300 Btu/hr-ft2-⁰F, hi = 180, hdo = 500, and hdi = 1000. What is the overall heat transfer coefficient
based on the outside area of the inner pipe in Btu/hr-ft2-⁰F?
a. 80.9 b. 89 c. 26 d. 71
6. A single pass surface condenser with 5/8 in OD tubes whose thickness is 0.046 inch and length of 18 feet receives
112,000 lb/hr of steam at 84⁰F with an enthalpy of 960 Btu/lb. The resulting condensate leaves saturated at 84⁰F
with little change of kinetic energy. Circulating water enters the tubes counterflow at 68⁰F and leaves at 78⁰F. If the
heat transfer coefficient is U = 630 Btu/hr-ft2-⁰F, find the flow rate of water in lb/hr.
a. 10,180,000 b. 12,200,000 c. 12,800,200 d. 14,300,000
7. From #6, calculate the heating surface required in ft2.
a. 13,500 b. 14,680 c. 15,850 d. 16,900
8. From #6, calculate the number of tubes required.
a. 5,200 b. 5290 c. 5,300 d. 5,380
9. From #6, calculate the average velocity of water in ft/s.
a. 4.22 b. 5.00 c. 6.25 d. 5.44
10. A theoretical body where the absorptivity and emissivity are independent of the wavelength over a spectral region of
the irradiation and the surface emission is called
a. Black body b. gray body c. opaque body d. none of these
11. The transmission of heat from one place to another by fluid circulation between spots of different temperatures is
called
a. Conduction b. convection c. radiation d. evaporation
12. The Graetz number is concerned with
a. Mass transfer between a gas and a liquid c. absorption with chemical reaction
b. Heat transfer in turbulent flow d. heat transfer in laminar flow
13. Dropwise condensation occurs
a. Clean and dirt-free surfaces c. contaminated cooling surfaces
b. Smooth and clean surfaces d. polished surfaces
14. What do you call the effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given temperature?
a. Absorptivity b. conductivity c. emissivity d. reflectivity
15. Thermal conductivity of animal wool at 30⁰C in Btu/hr-ft-⁰F.
a. 0.006 b. 0.084 c. 0.021 d. 0.108
16. Emissivity of sandstone is
a. 0.90 b. 0.78 c. 0.59 d. 0.23
17. The ratio of molecular diffusivity and momentum in liquid is known as
a. Grashof number b. Nusselt number c. Reynold’s number d. Prandtl number
18. It is the value for a process variable that is desired to be maintained.
a. Setpoint b. goal c. offset d. load
19. It a mathematical expression of a control function.
a. Control algorithm b. control equation c. loop algorithm d. none of these
20. What is the equivalent of Prandtl number in convective mass transfer?
a. Sc b. Sh c. Bi d. Pe
21. A control structure with two feedback controllers with the output of the primary controller changing the setpoint of
the secondary controller whose output goes to the final controller.
a. Feedforward b. ratio c. cascade d. override
22. A sensor usually made of a semiconductor that utilizes the effect of temperature on the resistance to current.
a. Thermocouple b. thermistor c. resistor d. capacitor
23. A frequency response measure of how well the system responds to the variations in the output signal.
a. Feedback b. control system c. continuous time d. MPC
24. It is a device that translates a mechanical signal into an electrical signal.
a. Transducer b. converter c. amplifier d. detector
25. It is a device that converts one type of a signal into another type of signal.
a. Transducer b. converter c. transmitter d. detector
26. It is a device that converts a reading from a sensor into a standard signal and transmits that signal to a monitor or
controller.
a. Transducer b. converter c. transmitter d. detector
27. These are signals produced by changing the air pressure in a signal pipe in proportion to the measured change in a
process variable.
a. Pneumatic b. analog c. digital d. disturbance
28. These are usually computers connected to a set of input/output devices. The computers are programmed to respond
to inputs by sending outputs to maintain all processes at setpoint.
a. Programmable logic computers c. model predictive control
b. Distributed control systems d. none of these
29. It is the part of a final control device that causes a physical change in the final device when signaled to do so.
a. Sensor b. actuator c. transmitter d. detector
30. It is used where no offset can be tolerated, where noise may be present, and where excessive dead time is not a
problem.
a. P control b. PI control c. PD control d. PID control
31. If the total percentage of particles larger than the screen opening in the feed, oversize and undersize are 36%, 89%
and 3% respectively., the effectiveness of the screen if the undersize is the product is
a. 0.98 b. 0.89 c. 0.76 d. 0.65
32. To get ultrafine particles, the equipment to be used is
a. Ball mill b. hammer crusher c. fluid energy mill d. rod mill
33. As the product becomes finer, the energy required for grinding
a. Decreases c. is the same for coarser grinding
b. Increases d. cannot be determined
34. In roll crushers, it is the angle formed by the tangents to roll faces at the point of contact with a particle to be
crushed.
a. Angle of repose b. angle of nip c. angle of sliding d. contact angle
35. The main differentiation factor between tube mill and ball mill is the
a. Length to diameter ratio c. final product size
b. Size of the grinding media d. operating speed
36. Calculate the power needed to reduce 100 ton/hr of quartz (work index = 17.5 kW-hr/ton) in a grinding ball mill
from 80% passing size of 2 inches to an 80% passing size of 1/8 inch.
a. 233 kW b. 292 kW c. 939 kW d. 1174 kW
37. Which of the following is the hardest?
a. Talc b. apatite c. topaz d. feldspar
38. Size reduction used in Jaw crushers is
a. Attrition b. cutting c. compression d. impact
39. Feed size of > 25 cm can be accepted by
a. Ball mill b. fluid energy mill c. rod mill d. jaw crusher
40. Ultrafine grinders operate principally by
a. Slow compression b. attrition c. impact d. cutting action
41. What is the terminal velocity of a 2-inch diameter aluminum sphere falling in air? Assume that the sphere has a drag
coefficient of 0.5, the density of aluminum is 5.12 slug/ft3 and the density of air is 0.00234 slug/ft3.
a. 100 ft/s b. 177 ft/s c. 350 ft/s d. 1000 ft/s
42. What will be the terminal falling velocity of a particle of diameter 10 microns and of density 1600 kg/m3 settling in
a liquid of density 1000 kg/m3 and viscosity of 0.001 Pa-s?
a. 0.033 mm/s b. 0.00005 m/s c. 1.25 mm/s d. 154 m/s
43. The separation of solid particles into several fractions based upon the settling velocities in a medium is called
a. Settling b. filtration c. flotation d. classification
44. The drag coefficient in hindered settling is _______ free settling.
a. Greater than b. less than c. equal to d. varying
45. An apparatus in which particles settle in a liquid by gravitational or centrifugal force and are removed as a
concentrated slurry.
a. Classifier b. thickener c. elutriator d. agitator
46. If the motion of a particle is impeded by other particles, which will happen when the particles are near each other
even though they are not actually colliding, the process is
a. Free settling b. unhindered settling c. gravity settling d. hindered settling
47. Device in which current of air separates particles with different sedimentation velocities.
a. Agitator b. air elutriator c. classifier d. air conveyor
48. The ratio of drag force per unit area to the product of fluid density and the velocity head is called
a. Buoyancy b. drag coefficient c. friction factor d. shear coefficient
49. At high Reynold’s number
a. Inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant
b. Viscous forces predominate
c. Inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control
d. None of these
50. In continuous thickeners, separation of solid particles can be achieved if the settling velocity of the solid is _____
the velocity of the displaced liquid.
a. Equal to b. less than c. greater than d. none of these