1. Which of the following refers to the process of producing the light elements such as Helium?

a. RP Process c. Big Bang Nucleosynthesis

b. Supernova Nucleosynthesis d. Cosmic Ray Spallation
2. Which among the following provides an evidence of the Big Bang Theory?
I. Redshift IV. Abundance of Light Elements
II. Magnetic Field V. Increase in Wavelength
III. Background Radiation VI. Gravitational Wave
a. I, II, II, IV b. I, III, IV, V c. I, III, V, VI d. II, III, IV, V
3. According to the Big Bang Theory, how much time was needed to produce light elements
hydrogen and helium?
a. 7 million years c. 3 minutes
b. 35 minutes d. 5 years
4. What happens when a high mass star runs out its fuel/ energy and becomes empty?
a. It turns into a neutron star.
b. It turns into a white dwarf star.
c. It turns into a black hole.
d. It turns into a red giant star.
5. Which of the following events during the big bang expansion led to nucleosynthesis of helium
– 3 and hydrogen?
a. Temperature decreased below 10 10 K
b. Temperature increased below 10 10 K
c. Temperature remained 10 10 K
d. Temperature continuously increasing until another expansion occurs.
6. Complete the reaction on nucleosynthesis.
a. Helium -4
b. Tritium
c. Deuterium
d. Lithium -7
e.
7. Who concluded that all matter is composed of spherical atoms, which cannot be broken down
into smaller pieces?
a. John Dalton b. Aristotle c. Ernest Rutherford d. Henry Moseley
8. Who proposed that the electrons orbit around the nucleus in set energy levels?
a. John Dalton b. J. J Thompson c. Ernest Rutherford d. Niels Bohr
9. Which postulated proposition of James Chadwick disapproved the existence of neutron?
a. Neutron is situated in the nucleus together with the proton.
b. Neutron is situated outside nucleus together with the electrons.
c. It has the same mass as the proton.
d. It has no electric charge.
10. Who believed that the organs of the body worked alchemically? He proposed that the three
essentials or tria prima, salt, mercury, and sulfur, should be balanced to maintain health. He
used inorganic salts, minerals, and metals to treat illnesses.

a. Aristotle b. Plato c. Paracelsus d. Empedocles

11. Who discovered the negatively charged particles called electron?

a. John Dalton b. J. J Thompson c. Ernest Rutherford d. Niels Bohr

12. Who justified that the atomic number of an element is the number of positive charges in its
nucleus? He developed the use of X-ray in studying the structure of the atom which provided the data
that backed up Rutherford’s structure of the atom.

a. John Dalton b. Aristotle c. Ernest Rutherford d. Henry Moseley

13. Which among the following ideas on ancient Greeks on atoms is incorrect?

a. All matter is made up of tiny, indivisible particles called atoms, which come from the Greek word
atomotico meaning uncuttable.
b. Atoms are homogeneous in nature. They have no internal structures.
c. Atoms come in different shapes and sizes.
d. The atoms are indestructible, impenetrable, and unchangeable.

14- 20.

________ 14. What is the atomic number of the Element?

________ 15. What is the element having a symbol of “Ca”?

________ 16. How many neutrons does it has?

________ 17. How many electron does it have on its 2nd orbit?

________ 18. What is its atomic mass?

________ 19. How many electrons does it have?

________ 20. How many protons does it contain?

21. Which states a correct concept on Dalton’s atomic theory?

a. Atoms can be created or destroyed.
b. Atoms of the same or different elements cannot be combined with each other in a fixed, whole
number ratio.
c. Atoms may combine, separate, or rearrange in chemical reactions.
d. All atoms of a given element are different in properties and masses but differ from another element’s.

22. How did Dalton discovered and listed 20 elements with different symbols and atomic weights?
a. He assumed that the atomic weight of hydrogen was one, and calculated the rest of the elements'
atomic weights based on hydrogen.
b. He assumed that the atomic weight of hydrogen was one, and calculated the rest of the elements'
atomic weights based on helium.
c. He assumed that the atomic weight of helium was one, and calculated the rest of the elements'
atomic weights based on helium.
d. He assumed that the atomic weight of helium was one, and calculated the rest of the elements'
atomic weights based on hydrogen.

23. How would you define electronegativity of atom?

a. Ability of an atom to attract shared protons in a covalent bond.
b. Ability of an atom to attract shared electrons in a covalent bond.
c. It is having dipoles, a positive and a negative end.
d. It is has no dipoles, no positive nor a negative end.

24- 28. Determine if atoms have polar or non- polar bond. Write P if polar or NP if non-polar.

_____ 24. CHF ______ 26. AsF4

_____ 25. CH4 ______ 27. AlMg

28-32 Determine if a molecule is polar or non- polar. Write P if polar or NP if non-polar.

33. Which does not represents London dispersion forces (LDF)?

a. present in all molecules
b. caused by fluctuations in the electron distribution within atoms or molecules
c. weak type of intermolecular forces of attraction
d. Strongest type of intermolecular forces of attraction

34. HCl is a polar molecule. It has partially positive and partially negative ends. It is moderately strong
type of IMFA. Which type of IMFA does HCl has?
a. London dispersion forces (LDF)
b. Dipole-dipole forces
c. Hydrogen bonding
d. Unipole- Dipole forces

35. What dependent properties to IMFA changes the substance from liquid to gas?
a. Solubility b. Viscosity c. Boiling Point d. Surface Tension
36. Electronic devices are components for controlling the flow of electrons or electricity. How can you
say that an electronic device is acting as Inductors?
a. It stores electrical energy temporarily in an electric field.
b. It stores energy on the basis of reactive magnetic flux.
c. It reduces the amount of current and lowers the voltage levels within circuits.
d. Long thin strips of the metal foil with the dielectric material are sandwiched together and then wound
into a tight roll.

37. For an effective collision to happen, which of the following conditions should be met by the
reactants?
a. They must be properly oriented when they collide.
b. They must be energetic enough to surpass the activation energy or the energy barrier.
c. The rate of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the number of collisions between the
reactants.
d. A and B e. B and C

38. In an experiment of which one boils first, fresh water or saltwater, what factor would definitely
affects the rate of reaction?
a. Particle Size b. Concentration c. Temperature d. None of the Above

39. The smaller the particle, the faster the rate of reaction. How can this be possible?

a. Higher kinetic energies means greater frequency of effective collisions.

b. It has larger surface area. The greater the surface area, the more sites of collision there will be.
c. When the concentration is high, more particles are present; therefore, there is a higher frequency of
effective collisions.
d. It has smaller surface area. The lesser the surface area, the more sites of collision there will be.

40. Which can affect the rate of chemical reaction of elements?

a. concentration of reactants b. temperature c. particle size d. Viscosity e. A, B, C f. A, B, D

41. Arrange sequentially the steps on the mechanism of catalyst.

1. Reaction 2. Separation 3. Bonding 4. Decomposition
a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 2, 1, 3 c. 3, 1, 2 d. 4, 3, 2,1

42. What is the homogeneous, highly specific, and efficient biological catalysts? They speed up
biological reactions even at relatively low temperatures within the body.

a. Hormones b. Enzymes c. Reactants d. Energy

43. What is the difference between endothermic and exothermic chemical reaction?

a. Exothermic reactions require energy for it to proceed while endothermic reactions release energy.
b. Endothermic reactions require energy for it to proceed while exothermic reactions release energy.
c. Explosions involve endothermic reactions while exothermic does not.
d. Explosions involve exothermic reactions while endothermic does not.
44. What is the general term given to combustible products of buried organic matter that decayed
under extreme temperature and pressure? This also includes the octanes, natural gas and coals.

a. Biogas b. Fossil Fuels c. Geothermal Energy d. Hydrothermal Energy

45. Geothermal energy refers to the heat produced inside the Earth. How the energy is harnessed?

a. The heat from the water is transferred to another fluid (e.g. isobutane) which evaporates and drives
the turbines to generate electricity.
b. Components are heated and vaporized to steam which drives the turbines and generate electricity.
c. The molten rocks heat the groundwater to steam which drives the turbines to generate electricity.
d. Energy is collected over panels. The collected energy can be stored in batteries or can be directly
converted to electricity.

46. Hydrothermal energy refers to the heat obtained from hot water from hydrothermal vents or
seawater in contact with hot rock beds. How the energy is harnessed?

a. The heat from the water is transferred to another fluid (e.g. isobutane) which evaporates and drives
the turbines to generate electricity.
b. Components are heated and vaporized to steam which drives the turbines and generate electricity.
c. The molten rocks heat the groundwater to steam which drives the turbines to generate electricity.
d. Energy is collected over panels. The collected energy can be stored in batteries or can be directly
converted to electricity.

47. How is light energy converted to electricity?

a. The heat from the water is transferred to another fluid (e.g. isobutane) which evaporates and drives
the turbines to generate electricity.
b. Components are heated and vaporized to steam which drives the turbines and generate electricity.
c. The molten rocks heat the groundwater to steam which drives the turbines to generate electricity.
d. Energy is collected over panels. The collected energy can be stored in batteries or can be directly
converted to electricity.

48. How does a disinfectant such as Green Cross Alcohol becomes an antimicrobial household
product?

a. When these molecules are allowed to escape their containers, they mix with air, and the fragrant
smell spreads.
b. It works by denaturing proteins of microorganisms. When their proteins are damaged, metabolic
processes are disrupted, causing death.
c. It uses chlorine-based to break the chemical bonds of the pigment. The pigment is changed to a
different substance that do not absorb visible light and stained garment appears white again.
d. They form tiny vessels known as micelles that carry away the undesired material.

49. How does an air freshener such as Ambipur becomes a household cleaning product?

a. When these molecules are allowed to escape their containers, they mix with air, and the fragrant
smell spreads.
b. It works by denaturing proteins of microorganisms. When their proteins are damaged, metabolic
processes are disrupted, causing death.
c. It uses chlorine-based to break the chemical bonds of the pigment. The pigment is changed to a
different substance that do not absorb visible light and stained garment appears white again.
d. They form tiny vessels known as micelles that carry away the undesired material.

50. What is the difference between antiperspirant to deodorant?

a. Deodorants control sweat and body odor by preventing sweat to reach the skin surface and by
reducing the bacteria that cause body odor while antiperspirants only contain antimicrobial agents to
prevent body odor, but they do not control sweat.
b. Antiperspirants control sweat and body odor by preventing sweat to reach the skin surface and by
reducing the bacteria that cause body odor while deodorants only contain antimicrobial agents to
prevent body odor, but they do not control sweat.
c. Antiperspirant is a paste or gel used to remove stain and kill the bacteria which cause bad odor.
d. Deodorant is a paste or gel used to remove stain and kill the bacteria which cause bad odor.