AIIMS 21 Years PHYSICS-1

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1 Units and Measurements
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 8. Velocity of light is equal to [2002]

1. The dimensions of Planck’s constant are [1997] 1
-3 -1 -2 -1 (a) e 0m 0
(b) e0 / m0
(a) [ML T ] (b) [ML T ]
(c) [M 0 L-1T -3 ] (d) [ ML2T -1 ] (c) e 0 / m0 (d) e0 m
2. The dimensional formula of magnetic flux is
9. Using mass (M), length (L), time (T) and current
[1998]
(A) as fundamental quantities, the dimensions
(a) [ML0T -2 A -1 ] (b) [ML2 T -2 A -1 ] of permeability are : [2003]
(c) [ ML2 T -1A 3 ] (d) [ M 0 L-2 T -2 A -2 ] (a) [M–1LT –2A] (b) [ML–2 T–2 A–1 ]
3. The dimensional formula of the constant a in (c) [MLT–2A–2 ] (d) [MLT–1A–1 ]
Vander Waal's gas equation 10. Using mass (M), length (L), time (T) and current
(A) as fundamental quantities, the dimensional
æ a ö formula of permittivity is : [2004]
çè P + 2 ÷ø (V - b) = RT is: [1999]
V (a) [ML–2T2A] (b) [M–1L–3 T4 A2 ]
(a) [ ML4 T - 1 ] (b) [ ML2 T -2 ] (c) [MLT–2A] (d) [ML2T –1A2 ]
11. “Parsec” is the unit of : [2005]
(a) time
(c) [ ML5 T -3 ] (d) [ML5 T -2 ]
(b) distance
4. What is the dimensional formula of gravitational
(c) frequency
constant? [2000]
(d) angular acceleration
(a) [ML2 T - 2 ] (b) [ ML-1T -1 ] 12. Dimensions of electrical resistance are : [2005]
(c) [M -1L3T - 2 ] (d) none of these (a) [ML2 T -3 A -1 ] (b) [ML2 T -3 A -2 ]

5. Which of the following pairs does not have
similar dimensions ? [2001] (c) [ML3 T -3 A -2 ] (d) [ML-1L3 T 3 A 2 ]
(a) tension and surface tension 13. The magnetic moment has dimensions of:[2006]
(b) stress and pressure (a) [LA] (b) [L2A]
(c) Planck’s constant and angular momentum –1
(c) [LT A] (d) [L2T–1A]
(d) angle and strain 14. Which of the following physical quantities do
6. The length and breadth of a metal sheet are not have same dimensions? [2007]
3.124 m and 3.002 m respectively. The area of
(a) pressure and stress
this sheet upto four correct significant figure
is : [2001] (b) tension and surface tension
(a) 9.378 m2 (b) 9.37 m2 (c) strain and angle
(c) 9.378248 m2 (d) 9.3782 m2 (d) energy and work.
7. The dimensions of energy are [2002] 15. What is the dimensions of impedance? [2007]
(a) [ML3T–3] (b) [ML–1T–1] (a) ML2T –3I –2 (b) M –1 L–2 T3 I2
(c) [ML2T–2] (d) [MT–2] (c) ML3T –3I –2 (d) M –1 L–3 T3 I2
EBD_7100
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P-2 Topicwise AIIMS Solved Papers – PHYSICS
16. The speed of light (c), gravitational constant 24. The least count of a stop watch is 0.2 second.
(G) and planck's constant (h) are taken as The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is
fundamental units in a system. The dimensions measured to be 25 second. The percentage error
of time in this new system should be [2008] in the measurement of time will be [2015]
(a) 8% (b) 1.8%
(a) G1/ 2 h1/ 2 c-5 / 2 (b) G -1/ 2 h1/ 2 c1/ 2 (c) 0.8% (d) 0.1%
(c)G1/ 2 h1/ 2 c-3 / 2 (d) G1/ 2 h1/ 2 c1/ 2 25. If e is the charge, V the potential difference, T the
17. Dimensions of coefficient of viscosity is eV
temperature, then the units of are the same
[2010] T
2 –3 –4
as that of [2016]
(a) [MT ] (b) [ML T ]
(a) Planck’s constant
(b) Stefan’s constant
(c) [ML–1T–2] (d) [ML–1T–1] (c) Boltzmann constant
18. Which of the following pair of quantities do not (d) Gravitational constant
have the same dimensions : [2011] 26. If the capacitance of a nanocapacitor is
(a) Potential gradient, electric field measured in terms of a unit ‘u’ made by
(b) Torque, kinetic energy combining the electric charge ‘e’, Bohr radius
(c) Light year, time period ‘a0’, Planck’s constant ‘h’ and speed of light ‘c’
then [2016]
(d) Impedance, reactance 2
e h hc
19. The dimensional formula for torque is : [2011] (a) u = (b) u = 2
a0 e a0
(a) ML2 T–2 (b) ML–1 T –1
(c) L2T –1 (d) M2 T –2 K –1 e2 c e2 a 0
(c) u= (d) u =
20. What is the fractional error in g calculated from ha 0 hc
27. A force F is applied onto a square plate of side
T = 2 p l / g ? Given fraction errors in T and l L. If the percentage error in determining L is 2%
and that in F is 4%, the permissible percentage
are ± x and ± y respectively? [2012]
error in determining the pressure is [2017]
(a) x + y (b) x – y
(a) 2% (b) 4%
(c) 2x + y (d) 2x – y (c) 6% (d) 8%
21. The dimensional formula of farad is [2012]
TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
(a) [M -1L-2 TQ] (b) [M -1L-2T 2Q 2 ]
Directions for (Qs. 28-30) : These questions consist
of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
(c) [M -1L-2 TQ 2 ] (d) [M -1L-2 T 2 Q]
Reason. While answering these questions, you are
22. The density of a cube is measured by measuring required to choose any one of the following five
its mass and length of its sides. If the maximum responses.
error in the measurement of mass and length are (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
4% and 3% respectively, the maximum error in the Reason is a correct explanation of the
the measurement of density will be [2013] Assertion.
(a) 7% (b) 9% (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
(c) 12% (d) 13% Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
23. The dimensions of æç 1 ö÷e0E 2 ( e 0 : permittivity of (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
è 2ø incorrect.
free space, E electric field) are [2014] (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(a) [MLT–1] (b) [ML2T–2] (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
(c) [ML–1T–2] (d) [ML2T–1] correct.
Units and Measurements P-3
28. Assertion : The dimensional formula for relative (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
velocity is same as that of the change in velocity. Reason is not the correct explanation of
Reason : Relative velocity of P w.r.t. Q is the Assertion.
ratio of velocity of P and that of Q. [2002] (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
29. Assertion : Specific gravity of a fluid is a (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
dimensionless quantity. 31. Assertion : When percentage errors in the
Reason : It is the ratio of density of fluid to the measurement of mass and velocity are 1% and
density of water. [2005] 2% respectively, the percentage error in K.E.
is 5%.
30. Assertion : The error in the measurement of
radius of the sphere is 0.3%. The permissible DE Dm 2Dv
Reason : = + [2010]
error in its surface area is 0.6% E m v
Reason : The permissible error is calculated by 32. Assertion : The number of significant figures
depends on the least count of measuring
DA 4 Dr
the formula = [2008] instrument.
A r Reason : Significant figures define the accuracy
Directions for (Qs.31-33) : Each of these questions of measuring instrument. [2016]
contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them 33. Assertion: In the measurement of physical
carefully and answer the question on the basis of quantities direct and indirect methods are used.
following options. You have to select the one that Reason : The accuracy and precision of
best describes the two statements. measuring instruments along with errors in
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and measurements should be taken into account,
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. while expressing the result. [2017]
EBD_7100
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions

MLT -2
1. (d) E = hn, h is Planck’s constant m=
1
A.AT.LT -1
[E] 2 -2 L
ML T
[h] = = = ML2 T -1 [n is no. of turns per unit length]
[ n] T -1
f = MLA -2T -2
2. (b) F = Bqv Þ F = qv
A 1 qq qq
10. (b) F= . 1 2 Þ Î0 = 1 2
F.A MLT L -2 2 4p Î0 r 2 4pFr 2
f= = = ML+2 A -1T -2
qv ATLT -1 AT.AT A2T2
= = M -1L-3 A 2 T 4
a MLT -2 L2 ML3 T -2
3. (d) Here the dimension of will be equal to
V2 11. (b) Parsec is a unit of length on the
astronomical scale. It is the distance of an
a object that will show a parallax of 1" of arc
pressure so = ML-1T - 2
3 2 from opposite side of a baseline (radius)
(L )
equal to the distance between sun and
a = ML5T - 2 earth.
1 parsec = 3.1 ´ 1016 m
G.M.M
4. (c) F= = MLT - 2 V W æ Wö
L2 12. (b) R= = Work = V ´ q Þ V =
I qI çè q ÷ø
MLT -2 L2
G= = M -1L3 T -2 ML2 T -2
M 2 R= = ML2 A - 2 T -3
AT.A
5. (a) Tension will have dimension of force and
surface tension will have dimension of force 13. (b) Magnetic moment of a coil carrying current
per unit length so they have different is,
dimensions. M = I.A
6. (a) Area of metal sheet = 3.124 × 3.002 [A is area of cross section and i is current]
= 9.378248 Dimension of M = AL2
Now, the result must have significant 14. (b) Tension is a force and surface tension is
figures equal to the least of figure being force per unit area hence their dimensions
multiplied, so, Area of metal sheet = 9.378 are not same.
m2 15. (a) Impedance is same as resistance but in ac
7. (c) Torque = Force × distance = Energy circuit
\ Dimension of impedance
= MLT -2 L = ML2T -2
dimension of voltage
=
1 dimension of current
8. (a) Velocity of light, c =
e0m0
[V] [ML2 T -3 I-1 ]
9. (c) B = mni ; F = Bqv = = = [ML2T–3I–2]
[I] I
F 16. (a) Let time, T µ c x G y h z
F = mni qv Þ m =
niqv Þ T = kc x G y h z
Units and Measurements P-5
Taking dimensions on both sides 2

éQ ù éQ ù -1 -2 2 2
0 0 1 -1 x -1 3 -2 y
[M L T ] = [LT ] [M L T ] [ML T ] 2 -1 z 21. (b) [C] = ê ú = ê ú = [M L T Q ]
ë V û ëê W ûú
i.e.,
Mass
[M 0 L0 T1 ] = [M - y + z Lx + 3y + 2z T - x - 2y - z ] 22. (d) Density =
Volume
Equating power of M, L, T on both sides,
we get M Dr DM DL
r= 3 , = +3
-y + z = 0 … (1) L r M L
x + 3y + 2z = 0 … (2) % error in density = % error in Mass + 3

(% error in length) = 4 + 3(3) = 13%
- x - 2y - z = 1 … (3)
æ1ö
23. (c) Here ç ÷e 0 E 2 represents energy per unit
From (1) Þ z = y
è2ø
Adding (2) and (3) Þ y + z = 1 volume
or 2y = 1 [From (1)]
é ML2 T -2 ù
Energy
1 [ e0 ] éE =2ù
=ë û
i.e., y = ë û volume éL ù
3
2 ë û
1 = ML–1T–2
\z = y =
2 0.2
24. (c) ´ 100 = 0.8
Putting these values in (2) we get 25
3 -5 eV W PV
x+ + 1 = 0 or x= 25. (c) = = =R
2 2 T T T
Hence, [T] = [G1/ 2 h1/ 2 c -5 / 2 ] R
and = Boltzmann constant.
N
F 26. (d) Let unit ‘u’ related with e, a0, h and c as
17. (d) Coefficient of viscosity, h = Adv
follows :
[F] = [Force] = MLT–2 dx [u] = [e]a [a0]b [h]c [C]d
[A] = [Area] = L2 Using dimensional method,
é dv ù LT -1 [M–1L–2T+4A+2]
êë dx úû = [Velocity gradient] = = T –1 = [A1T1]a[L]b[ML2T–1]c[LT–1]d
L
[M–1L–2T+4A+2] = [Mc Lb+2c+d Ta–c–d Aa]
MLT -2
\ [h] = 2 -1 = [ML–1 T –1]. a = 2, b = 1, c = – 1, d = – 1
LT
18. (c) Light year has the dimensions of distance e 2 a0
and time period is time. \ u=
hc
19. (a) t = Fr = MLT–2L = ML2T–2
F F
l l 27. (d) As, pressure P = = 2
20. (c) From T = 2p ; g = 4p 2 A L
g T2
DF DL
% Error = ´100 + 2 ´100
D g Dl 2 DT F L
= + = ( y + 2x )
g l T = 4 + 2 × 2 = 8%
EBD_7100
Type B : Assertion Reason Questions DA Dr

But =4 is false.
28. (e) Relative velocity which is vector A r
subtraction of two velocities will also be a 31. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and
vector of the form of velocity so, its Reason is the correct explanation of
dimensional formula will remain unchanged. Assertion.
Relative velocity is measured not by
calculating ratio but by calculating 1 2
Kinetic energy, E = mv .
difference. 2
29. (a) Specific gravity of fluid Differenting both side
density of fluid DE Dm 2 Dv
= = +
density of water E m v
It is a ratio. DE 1 2 5
= +2´ = = 5%
30. (c) Area of the sphere, A = 4 pr 2 E 100 100 100
% error in area = 2 × % error in radius 32. (b) Significant figure refers to the accuracy of
measurement and accuracy of measurment
DA Dr
i.e., ´ 100 = 2 ´ ´ 100 also depends upon the least count of
A r measuring instrument.
= 2 ´ 0.3% = 0.6% 33. (a)
2 Motion in a Straight Line
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 7. A body starting from rest moves along straight
line with a constant acceleration. The variation
1. If a car at rest accelerated uniformly to a speed of speed (v) with distance (s) is represented by
of 144 km/hour in 20 second it covers a distance : the graph : [2003]
(a) 400 m (b) 1440 m [1997]
(c) 2880 m (d) 25 m
v v
2. A ball is dropped from a bridge 122.5 m high.
(a) (b)
After the first ball has fallen for 2 second, a
second ball is thrown straight down after it, what s s
must be the initial velocity of the second ball be,
so that both the balls hit the surface of water at v v
the same time? [1997] (c) (d)
(a) 26.1 m/s (b) 9.8 m/s
(c) 55.5 m/s (d) 49 m/s s s
8. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of
3. A particle is thrown vertically upwards. Its
the following plots represents the speed-time
velocity at half of the height is 10 m/s, then
graph of the ball during its flight if the air
the maximum height attained by it will be :
resistance is not ignored? [2003]
(g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 10 m (b) 20 m [1999]
(c) 15 m (d) 25 m s s
4. A body is released from the top of the tower H (a) (b)
metre high. It takes t second to reach the ground. t t
Where is the body after t/2 second of release ?
(a) at 3H/4 metre from the ground [2000]
(b) at H/2 metre from the ground s s
(c) at H/6 metre from the ground (c) (d)
(d) at H/4 metre from the ground t t
5. A body starts from rest with an acceleration a1. 9. Which of the following velocity-time graphs
After two seconds another body B starts from shows a realistic situation for a body in motion?
rest with an acceleration a2. If they travel equal [2004, 2007]
distances in fifth second after the starts of A,
the ratio a1 : a2 will be equal to : [2001]
v v
(a) 9 : 5 (b) 5 : 7
(c) 5 : 9 (d) 7 : 9 (a) (b)
6. Three different objects m 1 , m 2 and m 3 are
allowed to fall from rest and from the same point t t
O along three different frictionless paths. The
speeds of the three objects, on reaching the
ground, will be in the ratio of [2002] v v
(a) m1 : m2 : m3 (b) 1 : 1 : 1 (c) (d)
1 1 1
(c) m1 : 2m2 : 3m3 (d) : :
m1 m 2 m 3 t t
EBD_7100
10. Two spheres of same size one of mass 2 kg and 16. A ball is thrown upwards. Its height varies with
another of mass 4 kg are dropped simultaneously time as follows :
from the top of Qutab Minar(height = 72m).
When they are 1m above the ground, the two height
(m)
spheres have the same: [2006]
(a) momentum (b) kinetic energy
(c) potential energy (d) acceleration h
11. A particle is thrown vertically upwards with a
velocity of 4ms–1. The ratio of its accelerations time(s)
after 1s and 2s of its motion is [2009] 1 2 5 6
(a) 2 (b) 9.8 If the acceleration due to gravity is 7.5 m/s2,
(c) 1 (d) 4.9 then the height h is : [2011]
12. A body is thrown vertically upwards with a (a) 10 m (b) 15 m
velocity of 19.6 ms–1. The position of the body (c) 20 m (d) 25 m
after 4 s will be [2009] 17. The coordinates of a moving particle at any time
(a) at the highest point t are given by x = a t2 and y = b t2. The speed of
(b) at the mid-point of the line joining the the particle is [2012]
starting point and the highest point
(c) at the starting point (a) 2 t (a + b) (b) 2t (a2 + b2 )
(d) none of the above
13. The position(x) of a particle at any time(t) is (c) 2 t (a 2 - b 2 ) (d) (a 2 + b 2 )
given by [2009] 18. A ball is released from the top of a tower of
x(t) = 4t3 – 3t2 + 2 height h meters. It takes T seconds to reach the
The acceleration and velocity of the particle at
T
any time t = 2 sec are respectively ground. What is the position of the ball at
(a) 16 ms–2 and 22 ms–1 3
second
(b) 42 ms–2 and 36 ms–1
(c) 48 ms–2 and 36 ms–1 8h
(a) meters from the ground [2012]
(d) 12 ms–2 and 25 ms–1 9
14. A stone is projected vertically up from the 7h
bottom of a water tank. Assuming no water (b) meters from the ground
9
resistance it will go up & come down in same h
time but if water drag is present then the time it (c) meters from the ground
9
takes to go up, tup and the time it takes to come
down, tdown are related as [2009] 17 h
(d) meters from the ground
(a) tup > tdown 18
(b) tup = tdown 19. A body starts from rest at time t = 0, the acceleration
time graph is shown in the figure. The maximum
(c) tup < tdown
velocity attained by the body will be [2014]
(d) can not say
Acceleration
15. A student is standing at a distance of 50 metre 2
from the bus. As soon as the bus begins its (m/s ) 10
motion with an acceleration of 1 ms–2, the
student starts running towards the bus with a
uniform velocity u. Assuming the motion to be
along a straight road, the minimum value of u, 11 Time
so that the student is able to catch the bus is (sec.)
(a) 8 ms–1 (b) 5 ms–1 [2010] (a) 110 m/s (b) 55 m/s
(c) 12 ms –1 (d) 10 ms–1 (c) 650 m/s (d) 550 m/s
Motion in a Straight Line P-9
20. Two bodies begin a free fall from the same height 24. Assertion : Retardation is directly opposite to
at a time interval of N s. If vertical separation the velocity.
between the two bodies is 1 after n second from Reason : Retardation is equal to the time rate of
the start of the first body, then n is equal to decrease of speed. [2002]
[2016]
Directions for (Qs.25-28) : Each of these questions
1 contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them
(a) nN (b)
gN carefully and answer the question on the basis of
following options. You have to select the one that
1 N 1 N
(c) + (d) - best describes the two statements.
gN 2 gN 4 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
21. From a balloon moving upwards with a velocity Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
of 12 ms–1, a packet is released when it is at a (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
height of 65 m from the ground. The time taken Reason is not the correct explanation of
by it to reach the ground is (g = 10 ms–2) Assertion.
(a) 5 s (b) 8 s [2017]
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(c) 4 s (d) 7 s
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS 25. Assertion : Two balls of different masses are
Directions for (Qs. 22-24) : These questions consist thrown vertically upward with same speed. They
of two statements, each printed as Assertion and will pass through their point of projection in the
Reason. While answering these questions, you are downward direction with the same speed.
required to choose any one of the following five Reason : The maximum height and downward
responses. velocity attained at the point of projection are
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and independent of the mass of the ball. [2013]
the Reason is a correct explanation of the 26. Assertion : The two bodies of masses M and m
Assertion. (M > m) are allowed to fall from the same height
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but if the air resistance for each be the same then
Reason is not a correct explanation of the both the bodies will reach th e earth
Assertion. simultaneously.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is Reason : For same air resistance, acceleration of
incorrect. both the bodies will be same. [2014]
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. 27. Assertion : In a free fall, weight of a body
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is becomes effectively zero.
correct.
Reason : Acceleration due to gravity acting on
22. Assertion : A body can have acceleration even
a body having free fall is zero. [2014]
if its velocity is zero at a given instant of time.
28. Assertion : Velocity-time graph for an object
Reason : A body is numerically at rest when it
in uniform motion along a straight path is
reverses its direction. [1998]
a straight line parallel to the time axis.
23. Assertion : A body with constant acceleration
always moves along a straight line. Reason : In uniform motion of an object
Reason : A body with constant acceleration may velocity increases as the square of time
not speed up. [1998] elapsed. [2015]
EBD_7100
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions Let H1 be the height after t/2 secs. So
5 distance of fall = H – H1
1. (a) u = 0, v = 144 km/hour = 144 ´ m / sec
18 2
= 40 m/sec 1 ætö
H – H1 = gç ÷
v = u + at 2 è2ø
v - u 40 - 0 1
Þ a= = = 2 m/sec2 Þ H - H1 = gt 2 .......(ii)
t 20 8
1 Dividing (i) and (ii),
\ s = ut + at 2
2
H - H1 1 2 1
1 = ´ =
= ´ 2 ´ (20) 2 = 400 m H 8 1 4
2
3
2. (a) Time taken by the first object to reach the Þ 4H - 4H1 = H Þ H1 = H
ground = t, so 4
5. (c) Distance travelled in fifth second for first
1
122.5 = ut + gt 2 body = distance travelled in 3rd second for
2 second body,
1 S5 = S3
122 .5 = ´ 10 ´ t 2
2
(2t - 1)a
Þ t = 5 sec( approx) St = u +
2
Time to be taken by the second ball to reach 9
the ground = 5 – 2 = 3 sec. S5 = 0 + a1
If u be its initial velocity then, 2
5
1 2 1 S3 = 0 + a 2
122.5 = u ´ 3 + gt = 3u + ´ 10 ´ 9 2
2 2
9 5 a1 5
3u = 122.5 - 45 = 77.5 a1 = a 2 Þ =
u = 26 (approx.) 2 2 a2 9
3. (a) Let maximum height be H
B
From the formula, v 2 = u 2 - 2gs 6. (b)
(10)2 = u 2 - 2gH / 2 = u 2 - gH .......(1)

For attaining maximum height, v = 0
h
0 = u 2 - 2gH Þ u 2 = 2gH
Putting the value of u2 in (1),
100 = 2gH - gH = gH
A C1 C2 C3
100 100
H= = = 10 metre
g 10 For paths BC1, BC 2 & BC 3 the height is
same that is h. The terminal velocity be v
1
4. (a) Applying S = ut + gt 2 for the Ist case then for all cases, v = 2gh
2
1 2 So, all will have same value of terminal
H= gt .......(i) velocity.
2
Motion in a Straight Line P-11
7. (d) v2 = u2 + 2as
m
v2 = 2as as u = 0 14. (c) While moving up & while
The graph between v and s will be of the mg
form of parabola which will be symmetric Fdrag
with respect to v-axis. So curve (d) is the
right answer. Fdrag
8. (d) For a body going in upward direction
moving down
v = u – gt
mg
dv
The slope of the graph, = -g (constant) \ aup > adown
dt
But when we take into account the effect Hence to cover same distance tup < tdown.
of resistance it will have sharper slope. 15. (d) Let the student travels distance s1 in time t
Curve (d) fits into this result. and catches the bus.
9. (b) Time cannot reverse itself or it can only go s1 = ut
forward. In graph (a), (c) & (d) some portion ...(1)
d = 50m s2
of graph has shown time changing in such
a way or time is going from high value to
low value which is not practical. s1
Distance travelled by the bus in time t
Graph (b) is the answer.
10. (d) Since their masses are different they will 1
s2 = 0 + at2
have different momentum, kinetic energy 2
and potential energy. But their acceleration ...(2)
will be same which will be equal to g. The student is able to catch the bus if,
11. (c) We know that the acceleration in a motion s1 = d + s2
under gravity is constant which is 9.8 ms–2. 1
ut = d + 1 × 12
2
9.8 or, 2ut = 2d + t2
Hence, the required ratio will be =1
9.8 or, t2 – 2ut + 2d = 0
12. (c) Clearly the time taken by the particle to Solving the quadratic equation
reach the highest point is given by t = – 2 ± 4u 2 - 8d
v = u – gt
= – 2 ± 2 u 2 - 2d
u - v 19.6 - 0 For t to be real
or, t = =
g 9.8 u ³ 2d
or, t = 2 s. ³ 2 ´ 50 = 10 m/s.
Therefore, the particle will reach at the 16. (b) Velocity at highest point becomes zero
starting point itself after 4 s.
\ 0 = u – at
13. (c) We have x(t) = 4t3 – 3t2 + 2 or u = at
dx = 7.5 × 3.5 = 62.25 m/s
Þ v= = 12t 2 - 6t
dt 1
y1 = u ´ 1 - ´ 7.5 ´ 12
dv 2
and a = = 24t
dt 1
y2 = u ´ 2 - ´ 7.5 ´ 22
\ v at t = 2s is 12(2)2 – 6(2) i.e., 36 ms–1 2
and a at t = 2s is 24 × 2 i.e., 48 ms–2 h = y2 – y1 = 15
EBD_7100
dr Type B : Assertion Reason Questions

17. (b) r = i a t2 + j b t2, v= = i2a t + j2b t
dt 22. (a) When a body is thrown upwards vertically,
at the highest point its velocity becomes
\ Magnitude of v = (4 a 2 t 2 + 4 b 2 t 2 ) zero but gravitational force continues to
act on it so it has acceleration in downward
= 2 t (a 2 + b2 ) direction even at the highest point. So
assertion is true.
1
18. (a) h = gT 2 A body is numerically at rest but it reverses
2 its direction due to acceleration present in
now for t = T/3 second vertical distance it. Reason is true & it supports assertion.
moved is given by 23. (e) In case of circular motion, constant
2 2
acceleration creates circular motion. In
1 æ Tö
h¢ = g ç ÷ Þ h¢ = 1 ´ gT = h circular motion (uniform) the body in
2 è 3ø 2 9 9 motion does not speed up inspite of
acceleration.
h
\ position of ball from ground = h - decrease in velocity
9 24. (a) Retardation =
time
8h
=
9 It acts opposite to velocity.
19. (b) Vi = 0, Vf = Vmax
1
11 25. (a) h = ut - gt 2 and v2 = u2 – 2gh;
DV = area under the curve = 10 ´ = 55 2
2
These equations are independent of mass.
or Vf - Vi = 55 m / s since Vi = 0 26. (d) The force acting on the body of mass M
Vf = 55 m / s are its weight Mg acting vertically
downward and air resistance F acting
Vf = Vmax = 55 m / s vertically upward.
1 2 1 F
20. (c) y1 = gn , y 2 = g ( n - N ) 2 \ Acceration of the body , a = g -
2 2 M
1
\ y1 - y 2 = g[n 2 - (n - N) 2 ] Now M > m, therefore, the body with larger
2
mass will have great acceleration and it
g
Þ 1= (2n - N)N will reach the ground first.
2
27. (d)
[Q y1 - y 2 = 1]
28. (c) In uniform motion the object moves with
1 N uniform velocity, the magnitude of its velocity
Þ n= +
gN 2 at different instance i.e., at t = 0, t =1, sec,
t = 2sec ..... will always be constant. Thus
1 2 velocity-time graph for an object in uniform
21. (a) s = ut + at
2 motion along a straight path is a straight line
–65 = 12t – 5t2 on solving we get, t = 5s parallel to time axis.
3 Motion in a Plane
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 8. Two projectiles are projected with the same
velocity. If one is projected at an angle of 30°
1. Rain is falling vertically downwards with a and the other at 60° to the horizontal, the ratio of
velocity of 3 km/hr. A man walks in the rain with maximum heights reached, is [2001]
a velocity of 4 km/hr. The rain drop will fall on (a) 1 : 3 (b) 2 : 1
the man with a velocity of [1997] (c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
(a) 5 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr
9. A stone tied to a string is rotated with a uniform
(c) 1 km/hr (d) 3 km/hr
speed in a vertical plane . If mass of the stone is
2. A body of mass 5 kg is moving in a circle of
m, the length of the string is r and the linear
radius 1 m with an angular velocity of 2 rad/sec.
Then the centripetal acceleration (in m/s2) will speed of the stone is v, when the stone is at its
be [1998] lowest point, then the tension in the string will
(a) 80 N (b) 30 N be (g = acceleration due to gravity) [2001]
(c) 10 N (d) 20 N mv2 mv2
3. A body is projected at such angle that the (a) + mg (b) - mg
horizontal range is three times the greatest r r
height. The angle of projection is [1998] mv
(a) 42° 8' (b) 53° 7' (c) (d) mg
r
(c) 33° 7' (d) 25° 8'
4. An aeroplane moves 400 m towards the north, 10. At the uppermost point of a projectile, its
300 m towards west and then 1200 m vertically velocity and acceleration are at an angle of
upwards, then its displacement from the initial (a) 180° (b) 90° [2002]
position is [1998] (c) 60° (d) 45°
(a) 1600 m (b) 1800 m 11. If vectors P = aî + aĵ + 3k̂ and Q = aî – 2ˆj – k̂
(c) 1500 m (d) 1300 m
( ) ( )
® ® ® ®
are perpendicular to each other, then the positive
5. The angle between P + Q and P - Q will be value of a is [2002]
(a) 90° only [1999] (a) zero (b) 1
(b) between 0° and 180° (c) 2 (d) 3
(c) 180° only 12. The maximum range of a gun horizontal terrain
(d) none of these is 10 km. If g = 10 m/s2 what must be the muzzle
6. Two equal vectors have a resultant equal to velocity of the shell [2004]
either of them, then the angle between them will (a) 400 m/s (b) 200 m/s
be [2000] (c) 100 m/s (d) 50 m/s
(a) 110° (b) 120° 13. A projectile can have the same range R for two
(c) 60° (d) 150° angles of projection. If t 1 and t2 be the times of
7. A stone tied to the end of a string of 80 cm long, flights in the two cases, then the product of the
is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant two time of flights is proportional to [2006]
speed. If the stone makes 14 revolutions in 25
1 2
sec, then magnitude of acceleration of the same (a) (b) R
will be [2001] R2
(a) 990 cm/sec2 (b) 680 cm/sec2 1
(c) R (d)
(c) 750 cm/sec2 (d) 650 cm/sec2 R
EBD_7100
14. A car travels 6 km towards north at an angle of (a) 10.6 km (b) 9.6 km
45° to the east and then travels distance of 4 km (c) 7.4 km (d) 5.8 km
towards north at an angle 135° to east. How far 20. For ordinary terrestrial experiments, the
is the point from the starting point? What angle observer in an inertial frame in the following
does the straight line joining its initial and final cases is [2010]
position makes with the east? [2008] (a) a child revolving in a giant wheel
-1
(a) 50 km and tan (5) (b) a driver in a sports car moving with a
constant high speed of 200 kmh–1 on a
(b) 10 km and tan -1 ( 5)
straight road
-1
(c) 52 km and tan (5) (c) the pilot of an aeroplane which is taking
(d) -1 off
52 km and tan ( 5)
(d) a cyclist negotiating a sharp curve
15. If two forces of equal magnitudes act
21. For a particle in a uniformly accelerated circular
simultaneously on a body in the east and the
motion [2011]
north directions then [2009]
(a) the body will displace in the north direction (a) velocity is radial and acceleration has both
(b) the body will displace in the east direction radial and transverse components
(c) the body will displace in the north-east (b) velocity is transverse and acceleration has
direction both radial and transverse components
(d) the body will remain at the rest. (c) velocity is radial and acceleration is
16. Two vectors having equal magnitudes of x units transverse only
acting at an angle of 45° have resultant (d) velocity is transverse and acceleration is
radial only
(2 + 2) units. The value of x is [2009] 22. For a given angle of the projectile if the initial
(a) 0 (b) 1 velocity is doubled the range of the projectile
(c) 2 (d) 2 2 becomes [2011]
17. If R and H represent the horizontal range and (a) Half (b) One -fourth
the maximum height achieved by a projectile then (c) Two times (d) Four times
which of the relation exists? [2009] 23. If we can throw a ball upto a maximum height H,
H R the maximum horizontal distance to which we
(a) = 4cot q (b) = 4cot q can throw it is [2011]
R H
H R (a) 2H (b) 2H
(c) = 4 tan q (d) = 4 tan q
R H H
18. The acceleration of a body in a non-uniform (c) H (d)
2
circular motion is 5 ms–2. Which one of the 24. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular
following is correct? [2009] to their vector differences. In that case, the
(a) The radial acceleration and the tangential forces [2012]
accelerations are 3 ms –2 and 4 ms –2 (a) cannot be predicted
respectively. (b) are equal to each other
(b) The radial and the tangential accelerations
(c) are equal to each other in magnitude
are 2 ms–2 and 3 ms–2 respectively.
(d) are not equal to each other in magnitude
(c) The radial and the tangential accelerations
are both 5 ms–2. 25. A projectile can have the same range for two
(d) The radial and the tangential acceleration angles of projection. If h 1 and h 2 are maximum
are 5 ms–2 and 3 ms–2 respectively. heights when the range in the two cases is R,
19. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop with then the relation between R, h 1 and h2 is [2013]
a speed of 150 m/s with its wings banked at (a) R = 4 h1h 2 (b) R = 2 h1h 2
an angle of 12°. The radius of the loop is
(g = 10 m/s2) [2010] (c) R = h1h 2 (d) None of these
Motion in a Plane P-15
26. A projectile thrown with velocity v making angle 31. A boy playing on the roof of a 10 m high building
q with vertical gains maximum height H in the throws a ball with a speed of 10m/s at an angle
time for which the projectile remains in air, the of 30º with the horizontal. How far from the
time period is [2013] throwing point will the ball be at the height of 10
m from the ground ? [2017]
(a) H cos q / g (b) 2 H cos q / g
1 3
[ g = 10m/s2 , sin 30o = , cos 30o = ]
(c) 4H / g (d) 8H / g 2 2
(a) 5 5 (b) 6
27. A bomb is released from a horizontal flying (c) 3 (d) 5 3
aeroplane. The trajectory of bomb is [2013]
(a) a parabola (b) a straight line TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
(c) a circle (d) a hyperbola Directions for (Q. 32) : These questions consist of
28. A stone tied to the end of a string of 1 m long is two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason.
whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant While answering these questions, you are required to
speed. If the stone makes 22 revolution in 44 choose any one of the following five responses.
seconds, what is the magnitude and direction (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
of acceleration of the stone? [2014] the Reason is a correct explanation of the
2 –2 Assertion.
(a) p m s and direction along the radius
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
towards the centre.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(b) p2 m s–2 and direction along the radius Assertion.
away from the centre.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
(c) p2 m s–2 and direction along the tangent incorrect.
to the circle. (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(d) p2/4 m s–2 and direction along the radius (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
towards the centre. correct.
29. Two projectiles are fired from the same point 32. Assertion : If a body is thrown upwards, the
with the same speed at angles of projection 60º distance covered by it in the last second of
and 30º respectively. Which one of the following upward motion is about 5 m irrespective of its
is true? [2014] initial speed
(a) Their maximum height will be same Reason : The distance covered in the last
(b) Their range will be same second of upward motion is equal to that
covered in the first second of downward motion
(c) Their landing velocity will be same when the particle is dropped. [2000]
(d) Their time of flight will be same Directions for (Qs.33-37) : Each of these questions
30. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed ‘v0’ at contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them
an elevation angle of θ . From the same point carefully and answer the question on the basis of
and at the same instant, a person starts running following options. You have to select the one that
best describes the two statements.
'v0 '
with a constant speed to catch the ball. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
2 Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Will the person be able to catch the ball? If yes, (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
what should be the angle of projection θ ? Reason is not the correct explanation of
[2016] Assertion.
(a) No (b) Yes, 30° (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(c) Yes, 60° (d) Yes, 45° (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
EBD_7100
33. Assertion : The driver in a vehicle moving with Reason : The centripetal acceleration in circular
a constant speed on a straight road is an inertial motion is dependent on angular velocity of the
frame of reference. body. [2010]
36. Assertion : Centripetal and centrifugal forces
Reason : A reference frame in which Newton's
cancel each other.
laws of motion are applicable is non-inertial.
Reason : Centrifugal force is a reaction of
[2009]
centripetal force. [2011]
34. Assertion : A tennis ball bounces higher on 37. Assertion : The magnitude of velocity of two
hills than in plains. boats relative to river is same. Both boats start
Reason : Acceleration due to gravity on the hill simultaneously from same point on one bank
is greater than that on the surface of earth. [2009] may reach opposite bank simultaneously
moving along different paths.
35. Assertion : When a particle moves in a circle
Reason : For boats to cross the river in same
with a uniform speed, its velocity and
time. The component of their velocity relative to
acceleration both changes.
river in direction normal to flow should be same.
[2015]
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 5. (b)

A® ®
Q P +Q
D 4 km/h C A
1. (a) ®
4 km/h O P
R –Q
3 km/h
B ® ®
B P–Q
In the figure, CB represents velocity of rain, ur ur
CA represents velocity of the man. To find In the figure OA represents ( P + Q ) , OB
relative velocity of the rain with respect to ur ur
man we add a velocity equal to that of man represents ( P - Q) . It is clear from the
in opposite direction to the velocity of rain. uuur uuur
figure that angle between OA and OB
It has been depicted by line CD. Now rain
has two velocities simultaneously. Their may be between 0° and 180°.
resultatnt, 6. (b) Applying the formula,
R 2 = 4 2 + 32 Þ R = 5 R 2 = P 2 + Q 2 + 2PQ cos a
which gives us the value of relative velocity
P 2 = P 2 + P 2 + 2PP cos a
of rain.
= 2P 2 + 2P 2 cos a = 2P 2 (1 + cos a )
2. (d) Centripetal acceleration = w 2 r = 2 ´ 2 ´ 1
= 4 m/s2 1 a 1
2 2 2
1 + cos a = Þ 2 cos 2 =
u sin 2q u sin q 2 2 2
3. (b) R = 3 H ; R = ;H =
g 2g a 1 a 1
cos 2 = Þ cos = = cos 60°
2 2 2 2 4 2 2
u sin 2q 3u sin q
=
g 2g a
= 60° Þ a = 120°
2 2
3 sin q
2 sin q cos q = 7. (a) Centripetal accn =w2r = (2pn)2× r
2
4 14
tan q = Þ q = 53 °7 ' where frequency, n =
3 25
4. (d) D
\ accn = 4 ´ 22 ´ 22 ´ 14 ´ 14 ´ 80
7 7 25 25
1200 m
300 m
C A = 990 cm / sec 2
8. (a) For maximum height
500 m 400 m
u 2 sin 2 a
H=
2g
B
Here CD is perpendicular to the plane of u 2 sin 2 30° u 2 sin 2 60°
paper. Required distance = BD H1 = ; H2 =
2g 2g
BD 2 = CB 2 + CD 2 = 500 2 + 1200 2
1/ 4
H1 : H 2 = sin 2 30° : sin 2 60° = =1 : 3
BD = 5002 + 12002 = 1300m 3/ 4
EBD_7100
14. (c) Net distance travellel along x-direction,
9. (a)
Sx= 6 cos 45°iˆ - 4cos 45°î
1
= 2´ = 2 km
T 2
N
4 km
m
6k
2 °
mv 135
45°
mg r W E
At the lowest point, as shown in the figure
mv2
both mg and centrifugal force will
r S
act in the same direction so, Net distance travelled along y-direction
S = 6sin 45°ˆj + 4sin 45°ˆj
mv 2 y
T = mg + 1
r = 10 ´ = 5 2 km
2
Velocity \ Net distance travelled from the starting
point,
10. (b)
acceleration
S = Sx 2 + S y 2 = ( 2) 2 + (5 2) 2
As the figure implies, velocity acts in
horizontal direction and acceleration due = 2 + 25 ´ 2 = 52 km
to gravity acts in vertical direction. So, Angle which the resultant makes with the
angle between them is 90°. east direction
uur uur y 5 2
11. (d) If P and Q are perpendicular to each tan q = = or q = tan -1 (5)
ur ur x 2
other then P .Q = 0 r r r
15. (c) The resultant F of two forces F1 and F2
ur
(where vector P = aiˆ + ajˆ + 3kˆ and acting in the east and the north direction
respectively will act in the north- east
Q = aî - 2ˆj - k̂ ) direction as per the parallelogram law of
vector addition.
(aiˆ + ajˆ + 3k)(ai
ˆ ˆ - 2jˆ - k)
ˆ =0
16. (b) Here, P = x units, Q = x units, q = 45°
a 2 - 2a - 3 = 0 Þ (a – 3) (a + 1) = 0
R= (2 + 2) units
a – 3 = 0 Þ a = 3 and a = –1
12. (a) For maximum range We have, R = P 2 + Q2 + 2PQ cos q
u2 x 2 + x 2 + 2.x.x cos 45°
R= Þ u 2 = gR or, R =
g
1
or, (2 + 2) = 2x 2 + 2x 2
u 2 = 16,000 ´10 Þ u = 4 ´ 100 2
u = 400m / sec
= 2x 2 + 2x 2
2R
13. (c) t1t 2 = (It is a formula) or, (2 + 2) = x 2 (2 + 2)
g
t 1t 2 µ R or, (2 + 2) = x (2 + 2) Þ x = 1
r r r
u 2 sin 2q 2u 2 sin q.cos q 24. (c) P = vector sum = A + B
17. (b) R = = r r r
g g Q = vector differences = A - B
u 2 sin 2 q r r
H= Since P and Q are perpendicular
2g r r
\ P.Q=0
H u 2 sin 2 q g r r r r
\ = ´
2 Þ (A + B).(A - B) = 0 Þ A2 = B2
R 2g 2u sin q.cos q
sin q Þ A=B
=
4 cos q u 2 sin 2 q
25. (a) h1 =
R 4 cos q R 2g
Þ = or, = 4cot q
H sin q H
u 2 sin 2 (90 - q) u 2 sin 2q
18. (a) The acceleration of a body in a non- h2 = , R=
uniform circular motion is the resultant of 2g g
the radial and the tangential accelerations. Range R is same for angle q and (90° – q)
If
ar = 3 ms–2 and at = 4 ms–2 u 2 sin 2 q u 2 sin 2 (90 - q)
\ h1h 2 = ´
2g 2g
then, a = a r 2 + a t 2 = (3)2 + (4)2 4 2 2
u (sin q) ´ sin (90 - q)
=
= 9 + 16 = 25 = 5 ms–2 4g 2
19. (a) Using the relation for the radius (r) of loop [Q sin(90 - q) = cos q]
2
v u 4 (sin 2 q) ´ cos 2 q
tan q = =
rg
4g 2
(150)2
or tan 12º = [Q sin 2q = 2sin q cos q]
r ´ 10
2250 u 4 (sin q cos q)2 u 4 (sin 2q)2
or r = = 10.6 × 103 m = 10.6 km. = =
0.2125
20. (b) The car moving with a constant velocity 4g 2 16g2
has no acceleration. Hence, it is an inertial (u 2 sin 2q)2 R2
frame. = =
21. (b) For a uniformly accelerated motion there 16g 2 16
are two acceleration, one along the radius
called radial acceleration and another along or, R2 = 16 h1h2 or R = 4 h1h 2
tangent called tangential acceleration.
v 2 sin 2 (90 - q)
Velocity is directed along the tangent. 26. (d) Max. height = H = .....(i)
2g
u 2 sin 2q
22. (d) R = 2 v sin( 90 - q )
g Time of flight, T = ...(ii)
g
(2u)2 sin 2q
R' = = 4R.
g v
2
u
Vertical
23. (a) H = Þ u 2 = 2gH

2g q
For maximum horizontal distance
u 2 2gH
x max = = = 2H
g g Horizontal
EBD_7100
Type B : Assertion Reason Questions
v cos q 2H
From (i), = ,From (ii),
g g 32. (a) For the distance covered in the last second,
final velocity becomes zero. So if we drop
2H 8H an object with zero velocity it will cover
T= 2 = . the same distance in one second while
g g
going downwards.
27. (a) A parabola Now distance travelled in the later case
28. (a) a r = w2 R
1 2 1
ar = (2p2)2R s = ut + gt = 0 + ´ 10 ´ 1
2 2
2 é 22 ù s = 5m
æ 22 ö
= 4p222R = 4 p 2 çè ÷ (1)
44 ø êëQ v = 44 úû 33. (c) A vehicle moving with constant speed on
a straight road is an inertial frame. Newton’s
dv laws of motion is applicable only in inertial
at = =0
dt frame.
anet = ar = p2 ms–2 and direction along the 34. (c) Suppose that the tennis ball bounces with
radius towards the centre. a velocity u. It will go up, till its velocity
29. (b) Given, u1 = u2 = u, q1 = 60º, q2 = 30º becomes zero. If h is the height up to which
In Ist case, we know that range it rises on the hill, then
u 2 sin 2(60°) u 2 sin 120° u 2 sin( 90° + 30°) (0)2 – u2 = 2(–g')h
R1 = = =
g g g
where g' is acceleration due to gravity on
u 2 (cos 30 ° ) 3u 2 the hill.
= =
g 2g
u2
In IInd case when q 2 = 30° , then \ h=
2g '
u 2 sin 60° u 2 3 Since, the acceleration due to gravity on
R2 = = Þ R1 = R2
g 2g the hill (g') is less than that on earth (effect
(we get same value of ranges). of height), it follows that tennis ball will
30. (c) Yes, the person can catch the ball when bounce higher on hills than in plains.
horizontal velocity is equal to the horizontal 35. (b) In uniform circular motion, the magnitude
component of ball’s velocity, the motion of of velocity and acceleration remains same,
ball will be only in vertical direction w.r.t but due to change in direction of motion,
v the direction of velocity and acceleration
person for that 0 = v 0 cos θ or θ = 60°
2 changes. Also the centripetal acceleration
31. (d) From the figure it is clear that range is is given by a = w2r.
required 36. (d)
u 2 sin 2q (10)2 sin(2 ´ 30°) 37. (a)
R= = =5 3
g 10
Boat 2 v Boat 1
u
v
30° River
Range R V r,g=5m/s
If component of velocities of boat relative
10m
10m
Tower to river is same normal to river flow (as

shown in figure) both boats reach other
bank simultaneously.
Laws of Motion P-21
4 Laws of Motion
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 7. The velocity of a bullet is reduced from 200 m/s
to 100 m/s while travelling through a wooden
1. A molecule of mass m of an ideal gas collides
block of thickness 10 cm. Assuming it to be
with the wall of the vessel with the velocity v
uniform, the retardation will be : [2001]
and returns back with the same velocity. The
change in the linear momentum of the molecule (a) 15´10 4 m / s 2 (b) 10´10 4 m / s 2
will be : [1997]
(a) 4 mv (b) 8 mv (c) 12´10 4 m / s 2 (d) 14.5 m / s 2
(c) 2 mv (d) – 2mv 8. In the given figure, the position-time graph of a
2. If the force on a rocket, moving with a velocity particle of mass 0.1 kg is shown. The impulse at
500 m/s is 400 N, then the rate of combustion of t = 2 sec is : [2005]
the fuel will be : [1997]
(a) 0.8 kg/sec (b) 10.8 kg/sec
(c) 8 kg/sec (d) 1.6 kg/sec 6
3. The rocket engine lift a rocket from the earth, 4
X(m)
because hot gases : [1998] 2
(a) push it against the air with very high
velocity 2 4 6
t (seconds)
(b) push it against the earth with very high
velocity (a) 0.2 kg m sec -1 (b) - 0.2 kg m sec -1
(c) heat up the air which lifts the rocket with
(c) 0.1 kg m sec -1 (d) - 0.4 kg m sec -1
very high velocity
(d) react against rocket and push it up with 9. A person is standing in an elevator. In which
very high velocity situation he finds his weight less ? [2005]
4. A 1 kg particle strikes a wall with a velocity 1 m/s (a) When the elevator moves upward with
at an angle 30° and reflects at the same wall in constant acceleration
0.1 second then the force will be: [1999] (b) When the elevator moves downward with
(a) 30 3 N (b) 0 constant acceleration
(c) When the elevator moves upward with
(c) 40 3 N (d) 10 3 N
uniform velocity
5. A gun fires a bullet of mass 50 g with a velocity
(d) When the elevator moves downward with
of 30 m/s. Due to this, the gun is pushed back
with a velocity of 1 m/s, then the mass of the uniform velocity
gun is : [2001] 10. A person used force (F), shown in the figure to
(a) 1.5 kg (b) 5.5 kg move a load with a constant velocity on a given
surface.
(c) 0.5 kg (d) 3.5 kg
6. When the two surfaces are coated with the
F
lubricant, then they will : [2001]
(a) slide upon each other
(b) stick to each other O X
(c) roll upon each other
(d) none of these L
EBD_7100
Identify the correct surface profile: [2006] 16. A gardener holds a hosepipe through which
(a) (b) water is gushing out at a rate of 4kg s–1 with
speed 2 ms–1. The moment the speed of water is
increased to 3 ms–1, the gardener will experience
L a jerk of : [2011]
L (a) 20 Ns in backward direction
(c) (d) (b) 18 Ns in forward direction
(c) 10 Ns in backward direction
(d) 10 Ns in forward direction
L
17. A 150 g tennis ball coming at a speed of 40 m/s
L
is hit straight back by a bat to a speed of 60 m/s.
11. A man of mass 60 kg records his wt. on a The magnitude of the average force F on the
weighing machine placed inside a lift. The ratio ball, when it is in contact for 5 ms, is : [2011]
of wts. of man recorded when lift ascending up (a) 2500 N (b) 3000 N
with a uniform speed of 2 m/s to when it is (c) 3500 N (d) 4000 N
descending down with a uniform speed of 4 m/s 18. A particle moves in a circle of radius 25 cm at
will be [2007] two revolutions per second. The acceleration of
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 the particle in meter per second2 is [2012]
(c) 2 (d) None of these (a) p2 (b) 8 p2
12. A smooth block is released at rest on a 45° incline (c) 4 p2 (d) 2 p2
and then slides a distance ‘d’. The time taken to 19. On a smooth plane surface (figure) two block A
slide is ‘n’ times as much to slide on rough incline and B are accelerated up by applying a force 15
than on a smooth incline. The coefficient of N on A. If mass of B is twice that of A, the force
friction is [2008] on B is [2012]
1 1
(a) m k = 1- (b) m k = 1- 15 N
2 B
n n2 A
1 1
(c) m s = 1- (d) m s = 1- (a) 30 N (b) 15 N
n2 n2 (c) 10 N (d) 5 N
13. A parachutist after bailing out falls 50 m without 20. Two pulley arrangements of figure given are
friction. When parachute opens, it decelerates identical. The mass of the rope is negligible. In
at 2 m/s2. He reaches the ground with a speed of fig (a), the mass m is lifted by attaching a mass
3 m/s. At what height, did he bail out ? [2008] 2m to the other end of the rope. In fig (b), m is
(a) 182 m (b) 91 m lifted up by pulling the other end of the rope
(c) 111 m (d) 293 m with a constant downward force F = 2mg. The
14. An 80 kg person is parachuting and is acceleration of m in the two cases are respectively
experiencing a downward acceleration of 2.8 [2013]
m/s2. The mass of the parachute is 5 kg. The
upward force on the open parachute is
(Take g = 9.8 m/s2) [2009]
(a) 595 N (b) 675 N
(c) 456 N (d) 925 N
15. When a horse pulls a wagon, the force that
causes the horse to move forward is the force
(a) the ground exerts on it [2010] m 2m m F = 2 mg
(b) it exerts on the ground (a) (b)
(c) the wagon exerts on it (a) 3g, g (b) g/3, g
(d) it exerts on the wagon (c) g/3, 2g (d) g, g/3
Laws of Motion P-23
21. A 3 kg ball strikes a heavy rigid wall with a speed 25. A constant force F = m2g/2 is applied on the
of 10 m/s at an angle of 60º. It gets reflected block of mass m1 as shown in fig. The string
with the same speed and angle as shown here. and the pulley are light and the surface of the
If the ball is in contact with the wall for 0.20s, table is smooth. The acceleration of m1 is [2015]
what is the average force exerted on the ball by
the wall? [2013] m1
F
60º m2
m2g
60º (a) towards right
2 (m1 + m 2 )
m 2g
(b) towards left
(a) 150 N (b) Zero 2 (m1 - m 2 )
(c) 150 3N (d) 300 N m 2g

(c) towards right
22. A mass is hanging on a spring balance which is 2 (m 2 - m1 )
kept in a lift. The lift ascends. The spring balance
m 2g
will show in its readings [2014] (d) towards left
(a) an increase 2 (m 2 - m1 )
(b) a decrease 26. A smooth block is released at rest on a 45° incline
(c) no change and then slides a distance ‘d’. The time taken to
(d) a change depending on its velocity slide is ‘n’ times as much to slide on rough incline
23. A ball of mass 0.5 kg moving with a velocity of 2 than on a smooth incline. The coefficient of
m/sec strikes a wall normally and bounces back friction is [2016]
with the same speed. If the time of contact
between the ball and the wall is one millisecond, 1 1
(a) m k = 1- 2 (b) m k = 1-
the average force exerted by the wall on the ball n n2
is : [2015]
(a) 2000 newton (b) 1000 newton 1 1
(c) m s = 1- (d) m s = 1-
(c) 5000 newton (d) 125 newton n 2
n2
24. A smooth inclined plane is inclined at an angle q
with horizontal. A body starts from rest and slides 27. A hockey player is moving northward and
down the inclined surface. [2015] suddenly turns westward with the same speed
to avoid an opponent. The force that acts on
the player is [2017]
(a) frictional force along westward
h (b) muscles force along southward
(c) frictional force along south-west
q (d) muscle force along south-west
28. The retarding acceleration of 7.35 ms–2 due to
Then the time taken by it to reach the bottom is
frictional force stops the car of mass 400 kg
æ 2h ö æ 2l ö travelling on a road. The coefficient of friction
(a) çç ÷÷ (b) çç ÷÷ between the tyre of the car and the road is
è g ø è g ø
[2017]
1 2h ( 2h ) (a) 0.55 (b) 0.75
(c) (d) sin q
sin q g g (c) 0.70 (d) 0.65
EBD_7100
TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS Directions for (Qs. 34-36) : Each of these questions
contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them
Directions for (Qs. 29-33) : These questions consist carefully and answer the question on the basis of
of two statements, each printed as Assertion and following options. You have to select the one that
Reason. While answering these questions, you are best describes the two statements.
required to choose any one of the following five
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
responses.
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
the Reason is a correct explanation of the (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Assertion. Reason is not the correct explanation of
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Assertion.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
Assertion. (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 34. Assertion : There is a stage when frictional force
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. is not needed at all to provide the necessary
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is centripetal force on a banked road.
correct. Reason : On a banked road, due to its inclination
29. Assertion : On a rainy day it is difficult to drive the vehicle tends to remain inwards without any
a car or bus at high speed. chances of skidding. [2016]
Reason : The value of coefficient of friction is 35. Assertion : Mountain roads rarely go straight
lowered due to wetting of the surface. [1999] up the slope.
30. Assertion : A rocket moves forward by pushing Reason : Slope of mountains are large, therefore
the surrounding air backwards. more chances of vehicle to slip from roads.
Reason : It derives the necessary thrust to move
[2016]
forward according to Newton’s third law of
motion. [2001] 36. Assertion : A man and a block rest on smooth
31. Assertion : The driver in a vehicle moving with horizontal surface. The man holds a rope which
a constant speed on a straight road is in a non- is connected to block. The man cannot move on
inertial frame of reference. the horizontal surface.
Reason : A reference frame in which Newton's
laws of motion are applicable is non-inertial.
[2004]
32. Assertion : Use of ball bearings between two
moving parts of a machine is a common practice. Reason : A man standing at rest on smooth
Reason : Ball bearings reduce vibrations and horizontal surface cannot start walking due to
provide good stability. [2006] absence of friction (The man is only in contact
33. Assertion : Angle of repose is equal to the angle with floor as shown). [2017]
of limiting friction.
Reason : When the body is just at the point of
motion, the force of friction in this stage is called
limiting friction. [2008]
Laws of Motion P-25
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 6. (a) If two surfaces are coated with lubricant
then friction will be reduced so they can
1. (c) Initial momentum = mv slide over each other if one is pushed on
Final momentum = – mv
the other. It is friction which prevents
Change in momentum = mv – (– mv) = 2mv
2. (a) We know that relative motion between two surfaces.
dp d(mv) dm 7. (a) Using the formula, v 2 = u 2 + 2as
Force = = =v
dt dt dt 10
[when v is constant] (100) 2 = ( 200) 2 - 2a ´
In the given case force = 400 N; 100
v = 500 m/sec. 10
2a ´ = (200) - (100) 2 = 300 ´ 100
2
dm 100
We are required to calculate or rate of
dt 3 ´ 105
change of mass of the rocket. a= = 15 ´104 m / sec 2
2
In normal cases, force creates change in 8. (a) Impulse = mu – mv
momentum. Here force is created due to
change in momentum of the rocket by 4
= 0 .1´ - m ´ 0 [v = 0 after two seconds]
emission of fuel (a part of rocket). 2
= 0.2 kg m sec–1
So, dm = force = 400 = 0.8 kg / sec 9. (b) Person will feel his weight less when the
dt v 500
lift goes down with some acceleration.
3. (b) When the rocket gas pushes it against the
earth with high velocity, there is production 10. (a) In figure no. (a) and (c), a constant force
of reaction force which creates lift for the equal to mg sinq is required. After reaching
rocket. the highest point, in case of figure (c), no
4. (d) force is required but in case of figure (a),
v
body travels on its own. So a –ve force is
v cos 30° acting on the body. In this way, figure (a)
30° represents the given F – x curve.
30° 11. (b) Net force of reaction acts on a body in a lift
when it is accelerating. If lift moves up or
down with uniform speed then acceleration
Change in momentum of the ball a = 0, \ weight of man = mg is same in
perpendicular to the wall ascending or descending hence ratio = 1.
= m[v cos q - (-v cos q)] 12. (b) g sin q - mg cos q
= 2mv cos q
nq
= 2 ´1´1´ cos 30° = 2 ´
3
= 3, g si d
2 45° 45°
Rate of change of momentum smooth rough
Change of momentum 3 1
= = = 10 3
time 0.1 d= (g sin q) t1 ,
2
This will be equal to force, so force = 10 3 N 1
5. (a) Applying conservation of momentum d = (g sin q - mg cos q) t 2
2
MV = mv
50 3 2d
M´l = ´ 30 = t1 = ,
1000 2 g sin q
M = 1.5 kg
EBD_7100
2d v 2 (rw) 2
t2 = aC = = = rw2 = r ´ (2p / T ) 2
g sin q - mg cos q r r
According to question, t 2 = nt1 so a c = 0.25 ´ (2 p / 0.5) 2
2d 2d = 16 p2 ´ .25 = 4.0 p 2
n = 19. (c) The acceleration of both the blocks =
g sin q g sin q - mg cos q
15 5
m, applicable here, is kinetic friction as the =
block moves over the inclined plane. 3x x
5
1 æ 1 ö \ Force on B = ´ 2x = 10 N
n= ççQ cos 45° = sin 45° = ÷÷ x
1 - mk è 2ø 20. (b) Let a and a' be the accelerations in both
1 1 cases respectively. Then for fig (a),
n2 = or 1 - m k = 2
1- mk n
1
or m k = 1-
n2
13. (d) v = 2gh = 2 ´ 9.8 ´ 50 = 14 5 a
T T a
v2 - u 2 32 - 980
S= = » 243 m
2´ 2 4
Initially he has fallen 50 m. mg 2mg
\ Total height from where (a)
he bailed out = 244 + 50 = 293 m T – mg = ma … (i)
14. (a) The net upward acceleration is and 2mg – T = 2ma … (ii)
(9.8 – 2.8) = 7 m/sec2 Adding (i) and (ii), we get
Total mass = 80 + 5 = 85 kg mg = 3ma
So, net upward force is
F = 85 × 7 = 595 N g
\a=
15. (a) As per Newton’s third law of motion, when 3
a horse pulls a wagon, the force that causes For fig (b),
the horse to move forward is the force the
ground exerts on it.
dm
16. (a) F = (Dv) = 4(2 + 3) = 20 N.
dt
17. (b) The change in momentum a¢ T¢ T¢ a¢
Dp = m(vf – vi)
= 0.150 (60 – (– 40)] F = 2mg
= 0.150 × 100 = 15 Ns mg
Dp 15 (b)
Thus, F = = = 3 ´ 103 N
Dt 5 ´ 10-3 T' – mg = ma' … (iii)
and 2mg – T' = 0 … (iv)
1 Solving (iii) and (iv)
18. (c) Here T = sec the required centripetal
2 a' = g
acceleration for moving in a circle is g
\ a = and a ' = g
3
Laws of Motion P-27
21. (c) Change in momentum along the wall

q
= mv cos60º – mv cos 60º = 0 sin
g
g cosq
Change in momentum perpendicular to the h
wall g
= mv sin60º – (– mv sin60º)
q
= 2mv sin60º
\ Applied force 25. (a) Let a be the acceleration of mass m2 in the
downward direction. Then
Change in momentum
= T – m2 (g/2) = m1 a ....(i)
Time and m2 g – T = m2 a ....(ii)
2 mv sin 60º Adding eqs. (1) and (2), we get
= (m1 + m2) a = m2g – m2 (g/2) = m2 g/2
0.20
m2 g
2 ´ 3 ´ 10 ´ 3 \a=
= = 50 ´ 3 3 2 (m 1 + m 2 )
2 ´ 0.20 g sin q - mg cos q
26. (b)
= 150 3 newton
d q
in
22. (a) Let acceleration of lift = a and gs d
45° 45°
let reaction at spring balance = R smooth rough
R When surface is When surface is
smooth rough
1
d= (g sin q)t 12 ,
2
1 2
d = (g sin q - mg cos q) t 2
2
mg
2d
Applying Newton’s law t1 = ,
g sin q
R – mg = ma Þ R = m(g + a ) 2d
t2 =
thus net weight increases, so reading of g sin q - mg cos q
spring balance increases.
According to question, t 2 = nt1
mv - (- mv ) 2mv 2 ´ 0.5 ´ 2
23. (a) F= = = 2d 2d
t t 10 -3 n =
g sin q g sin q - mg cos q
= 2 × 103 N m, applicable here, is coefficient of kinetic
24. (c) So by second equation of motion, we get friction as the block moves over the
1
inclined plane.
S = ut + at 2 1
2 n=
here S = l, u = 0, a = g sinq 1- mk
æ 1 ö
2l 2h 1 2h ççQ cos 45° = sin 45° = ÷÷
t= = = è 2ø
a g sin q sin q g
2
1 1
n2 = or 1 - m k = 2
1- mk n
æ hö
çèQ sin q = ÷ø 1
l or m k = 1-
n2
EBD_7100
27. (c) Frictional force is always opposite to the R F

direction of motion
N a
a
sin mg mg cos a
W E mg
S
Angle of repose is defined as the angle of
F
28. (b) As we know, coefficient of friction m = the inclined plane with horizontal such that
N a body placed on it is just begins to slide.
ma a In limiting condition,
Þm= = (a = 7.35 m s–2 given) F = mg sin a and R = mg cos a
mg g
where a–angle of repose.
7.35
\m= = 0.75 F
9.8 So = tan a
R
Type B : Assertion Reason Questions F
\ = ms = tan q = tan a (Q tan q = ms)
29. (a) On a rainy day, the roads are wet. Wetting R
of roads lowers the coefficient of friction or q = a
between the types and the road. Therefore, i.e., angle of friciton = angle of repose.
grip on a road of car reduces and thus 34. (c) The assertion is true for a reason that when
chances of skidding increases. the car is driven at optimum speed. Then
30. (a) A rocket moves forward taking the help of the normal reaction component is enough
reaction force. For that it has to exert a force to provide the centripetal force.
on the surrounding air so that it receives 35. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
reaction force as per Newton’s third law. Reason is the correct explanation of
31. (d) A vehicle moving with constant speed on Assertion.
a straight road is an inertial frame. Newton’s If roads of the mountain were to go straight
laws of motion is applicable only in inertial up, the slope (q) would have been large,
frame. the frictional force (mmg cos q) would be
32. (c) Ball bearing are used to convert sliding small. Due to small friction, wheels of
friction to rolling friction. Sliding friction is vehicle would slip. Also for going up a large
less than rolling friction. slope, a greater power shall be required.
33. (b) The maximum value of static friction up to 36. (d) The man can exert force on block by pulling
which body does not move is called limiting the rope. The tension in rope will make the
friction. man move. Hence Assertion is incorrect.
5 Work, Energy and Power
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 7. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are moving
with equal kinetic energy. Then the ratio of their
1. If a spring extends by x on loading, then energy
linear momentum will be : [1999]
stored by the spring is (if T is the tension in
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
spring and k is spring constant) [1997]
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
2T 2 8. A particle of mass m moving with velocity v
(a) (b)
k collides with a stationary particle of mass 2m.
T2 T2 Then the speed of the system after collision is :
(c) (d) v
2k k (a) 2 v (b) [1999]
2. A bullet is fired form a riffle. If the riffle recoils 2
v
freely, then the kinetic energy of the rifle will be : (c) 3 v (d)
3
(a) same as that of bullet [1998]
9. Which one of the following is true ? [2000]
(b) more than that of bullet
(a) momentum is conserved in all collisions but
(c) less than that of bullet
kinetic energy is conserved in elastic
(d) none of these
collisions
3. A spring 40 mm long is stretched by applying a
(b) momentum is conserved in all collisions but
force. If 10 N force is required to stretch the
not kinetic energy
spring through one mm, then work done in
(c) both momentum and kinetic energy are
stretching the spring through 40 mm is : [1998]
conserved in all collisions
(a) 24 J (b) 8 J
(d) neither momentum nor kinetic energy is
(c) 56 J (d) 64 J
conserved in elastic collisions
4. If the kinetic energy of the body becomes four
10. A ball of mass 10 kg is moving with a velocity of
times of its initial value, then the new momentum
10 m/s. It strikes another ball of mass 5 kg, which
will : [1998]
is moving in the same direction with a velocity
(a) become twice its initial value
of 4 m/s. If the collision is elastic their velocities
(b) remain constant
after collision will be respectively : [2000]
(c) become four times its initial value
(a) 12 m/s, 6 m/s (b) 12 m/s, 25 m/s
(d) become three times its initial value
5. If the water falls from a dam into a turbine wheel (c) 6 m/s, 12 m/s (d) 8 m/s, 20 m/s
19.6 m below (which have both KE + PE), then 11. A bullet of mass 10g leaves a riffle at an initial
the velocity of water at the turbine is : (take g = velocity of 1000 m/sec and strikes the earth at
9.8 m/sec2) [1998] the same level with a velocity of 500 m/sec. The
work in overcoming the resistance of air will be:
(a) 19.6 m/s (b) 39.0 m/s
(c) 98.8 m/s (d) 9.8 m/s (a) 500 J (b) 5000 J [2000]
6. If the force applied is F and the velocity gained (c) 3750 J (d) 475 J
is v, then the power developed is : [1998] 12. A body of mass 5 kg has momentum of 10 kg m/
v sec. When a force of 0.2 N is applied on it for 10
(a) (b) Fv sec, the change in its kinetic energy is [2000]
F
F (a) 4.4 J (b) 3.3 J
(c) Fv 2 (d) (c) 5.5 J (d) 1.1 J
v
EBD_7100
13. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with speed of 20. A particle of mass 10 g is kept on the surface of
36 km/hr is having a collision with a stationary a uniform sphere of mass 100 kg and radius
ball of mass 3 kg. If after collision, both the balls 10 cm. Find the work to be done against the
move together, the loss in kinetic energy due to gravitational force between them to take the
collision is : [2001] particle far away from the sphere (you may take
G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2 / kg2) [2008]
(a) 80 J (b) 40 J –10
(a) 3.33 × 10 J
(c) 60 J (d) 160 J
(b) 13.34 × 10–10 J
14. A force (3iˆ + 4j)
ˆ newton acts on a body and
(c) 6.67 × 10–10 J
displaced it by (3iˆ + 4j)
ˆ metre. The work done
(d) 6.67 × 10–9 J
by the force is : [2001] 21. A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed
(a) 5 J (b) 25 J on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above
(c) 10 J (d) 30 J the free upper end of the spring falls vertically
15. The kinetic energy of a body becomes four times on the spring so that the spring is compressed
its initial value. The new linear momentum will be by a distance d. The net work done in the
(a) eight times of the initial value [2002] process is [2008]
(b) four times of the initial value 1
(a) mg(h + d) - kd 2
(c) twice of the initial value 2
(d) remain as the initial value 1
(b) mg(h - d) - kd 2
16. A block of mass 10 kg is moving in x-direction 2
with a constant speed of 10 m/sec. It is subjected 1
to a retarding force F = – 0.1x joule/metre during (c) mg(h - d) + kd 2
2
its travel from x = 20 metre to x = 30 metre. Its
1
final kinetic energy will be [2005] (d) mg(h + d) + kd2
2
(a) 475 joule (b) 450 joule
22. A shell of mass m moving with velocity v
(c) 275 joule (d) 250 joule suddenly breaks into 2 pieces. The part having
17. When a ball is thrown up vertically with velocity mass m/3 remains stationary. The velocity of
v0 it reaches a maximum height of h. If one wishes other part will be [2009]
to triple the maximum height then the ball should 2 7
be thrown with velocity : [2005] (a) v (b) v
3 5
(a) 3 v0 (b) 3v0 3
(c) v (d) none of these
(c) 9v0 (d) 3/2v0 2
23. A mass of 1 kg is hanging from a spring of spring
18. For inelastic collision between two spherical
constant 1 N/m. If Saroj pulls the mass down by
rigid bodies: [2006] 2m. The work done by Saroj is [2009]
(a) the total kinetic energy is conserved (a) 1 J (b) 2 J
(b) the total potential energy is conserved (c) 3 J (d) 4 J
(c) the linear momentum is not conserved 24. A ball loses 15.0% of its kinetic energy when it
(d) the linear momentum is conserved bounces back from a concrete wall. With what
speed you must throw it vertically down from a
19. If the water falls from a dam into a turbine wheel
height of 12.4 m to have it bounce back to the
19.6 m below, then the velocity of water at the
same height (ignore air resistance)? [2010]
turbines, is (take g = 9.8 m/s2) [2007]
(a) 6.55 m/s (b) 12.0 m/s
(a) 9.8 m/s (b) 19.6 m/s
(c) 8.6 m/s (d) 4.55 m/s
(c) 39.2 m/s (d) 98.0 m/s
Work, Energy and Power P-31
25. Two bodies of masses 0.1 kg and 0.4 kg move (a) 250 J (b) 200 J
towards each other with the velocities 1 m/s and (c) 150 J (d) 10 J
0.1 m/s respectively. After collision they stick 31. Figure shows three forces applied to a trunk that
together. In 10 sec the combined mass travels moves leftward by 3 m over a smooth floor. The
(a) 120 m (b) 0.12 m [2010] force magnitudes are F1 = 5N, F2 = 9N, and F3 =
(c) 12 m (d) 1.2 m 3N. The net work done on the trunk by the three
26. The potential energy of a certain particle is given forces [2017]
1 2
by U = (x - z 2 ). The force on it is : [2011]
2
(a) - xiˆ + zkˆ (b) xiˆ + zkˆ
1 ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ
(c) (xi + zk) (d) (xi - zk)
2 2
27. From a building two balls A and B are thrown (a) 1.50 J (b) 2.40 J
such that A is thrown upwards and B downwards (c) 3.00 J (d) 6.00 J
(both vertically). If vA and vB are their respective
velocities on reaching the ground, then[2012] TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
(a) vA > vB Directions for (Qs. 32-34) : These questions consist
(b) vA = vB of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
(c) vA < vB Reason. While answering these questions, you are
(d) their velocities depend on their masses. required to choose any one of the following five
28. A motor drives a body along a straight line with responses.
a constant force. The power P developed by the (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
motor must vary with time t according to [2012] the Reason is a correct explanation of the
(a) (b) P Assertion.
P (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
t t Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
P P incorrect.
(c) (d) (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
t t (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
29. If the linear momentum is increased by 5%, the correct.
kinetic energy will increase by [2013, 2014] 32. Assertion : In an elastic collision of two billiard
(a) 50% (b) 100% balls, the total kinetic energy is conserved during
(c) 125% (d) 10% the short time of oscillation of the balls (i.e.,
30. Figure here shows the frictional force versus when they are in contact).
displacement for a particle in motion. The loss Reason : Energy spent against friction does not
of kinetic energy in travelling over s = 0 to 20 m follow the law of conservation of energy. [2002]
will be [2015] 33. Assertion : Frictional forces are conservative
f(N) forces.
15
Reason : Potential energy can be associated with
frictional forces. [2005]
10 34. Assertion : A quick collision between two
bodies is more violent than a slow collision; even
5 when the initial and final velocities are identical.
Reason : The momentum is greater in first case.
0 x(m)
0 5 10 20 [2008]
EBD_7100
Directions for (Qs. 35-40) : Each of these questions 37. Assertion : If collision occurs between two
contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them elastic bodies their kinetic energy decreases
carefully and answer the question on the basis of during the time of collision.
following options. You have to select the one that Reason : During collision intermolecular space
best describes the two statements. decreases and hence elastic potential energy
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and increases. [2011]
38. Assertion : The total translational kinetic energy
of all the molecules of a given mass of an ideal
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but gas is 1.5 times the product of its pressure and
Reason is not the correct explanation of its volume.
Assertion. Reason : The molecules of a gas collide with
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. each other and the velocities of the molecules
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. change due to the collision. [2015]
35. Assertion : n small balls each of mass m colliding 39. Assertion : If collision occurs between two
elastically each second on surface with velocity elastic bodies their kinetic energy decreases
during the time of collision.
u. The force experienced by the surface is 2mnu.
Reason : During collision intermolecular space
Reason : On elastic collision, the ball rebounds decreases and hence elastic potential energy
with the same velocity. [2010] increases. [2015]
36. Assertion : A helicopter must necessarily have 40. Assertion : Graph between potential energy of
two propellers. a spring versus the extension or compression
Reason : Two propellers are provided in of the spring is a straight line.
helicopter in order to conserve linear momentum. Reason : Potential energy of a stretched or
[2010] compressed spring, proportional to square of
extension or compression. [2017]
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions p12 2 ´ 4 m E

´ = =1
1 2 2m p 22 E
1. (c) Energy of spring = kx
2 p 1 p 1
12
T =Þ 1 = Þ p1 : p 2 = 1 : 2
T = kx Þ x = p 22 4 p2 2
k 8. (d) Applying conservation of momentum,
2
1 æ Tö 1 T2 mv + 0 = (2m + m)v ' = 3mv'
E = kç ÷ =
2 è kø 2 k
mv v
2. (c) For recoil of riffle, momentum will be v' = =
conserved 3m 3
9. (a) Kinetic energy is not conserved in inelastic
MV = mv collision as some energy is stored as
1 deformation at the point of collision in the
MV 2 form of potential energy. Since no
K.E of riffle 2
= deformation occurs in case of elastic
K.E of bullet 1
mv2 collision so, kinetic energy is conserved.
2
2
But momentum is conserved in both elastic
M æmö m and inelastic collisions as in both the cases,
=
´ç ÷ =
m èMø M no external force is applied on them so, no
As m < M, kinetic energy of riffle < kinetic change in momentum.
energy of bullet. 10. (c) Let their velocities after the collision be v1
3. (b) Force constant, and v2. As we know for elastic collision.
Relative velocity of approach
F 10
k= = = 104 N / m = relative velocity of separation
x 0.001
2
10 – 4 = v2 – v1 Þ 6 = v2 – v1
1 2 1 æ 40 ö Þ v1 = v2 – 6
Work done = kx = ´ 104 ´ ç
2 2 è 1000 ÷ø
Applying conservation of momentum,
1 16 10 ´ 10 + 5 ´ 4 = 10v1 + 5v2
= ´ 104 ´ 4 = 8 joule
2 10 120 = 10v1 + 5v2
p2 120 = 10(v 2 - 6) + 5v2 = 15v 2 - 60
4. (a) E= ; E µ p2
2m
15v2 = 180 Þ v2 = 12 cm/sec,
2
E1 p12 1 æ p1 ö p 1 v1 = 6 cm/sec
= Þ =ç ÷ Þ 1 =
E 2 p2 2 4 è p2 ø p2 2 11. (c) Loss of kinetic energy of bullet
ratio of momentum = 1 : 2 = The work done in over coming air
resistance.
5. (a) v 2 = 2gh = 2 ´ 9.8 ´ 19.6
1 10
= 19.6 m / sec = ´ (10002 - 5002 )
2 1000
Work F.s S 1 1
6. (b) Power = = = F. = F.v. = ´ ´ 1500 ´ 500 = 3750J
Time t t 2 100
7. (d) Relation between momentum and energy is 12. (a) Change in momentum,
p2 p2 p 2 Dp = F.t = 0.2 ´ 10 = 2
E= ; E= 1 ; E= 2 ;
2m 2m 2 ´ 4m
EBD_7100
IIT JEE NEET eBooks: www.cr
10 Now, initial kinetic energy
Initial value of velocity = = 2 m / sec
5 1
= ´10 ´100 = 500 joule
1 2
Initial energy = ´ 5 ´ 2 ´ 2 = 10 J
2 Final kinetic energy = 500 – 25 = 475 joule
Total final momentum = 10 + 2 [Direction of force is opposite to direction
= 12 kg m/sec of motion]
12 1
Final velocity = m/sec 17. (a) mv 0 2 = mgh ................ (i)
5 2
1 12 12 1
Final energy = ´ 5 ´ ´ mv 2 = mg ´ 3h ................ (ii)
2 5 5 2
72 2
= = 14.4J Dividing v = 3; v 2 = 3v 0 2
5 v0
Change in energy = 14.4 – 10 = 4.4 joule
13. (c) Let v be the common velocity. Þ v = 3v 0
Applying conservation of momentum 18. (d) In inelastic collision, linear momentum is
conserved.
2 ´ 10 + 3 ´ 0 = (2 + 3)v 19. (b) v2 – u2 = 2as Þ v2 – 02 = 2 × 9.8 × 19.6
10 ´ 2 (Initial velocity = 0 as water falls from rest)
v= = 4 m / sec
5
Þ v= 2 ´ 9.8 ´ 2 ´ 9.8
[36 km/hour = 10m/sec]
= 2 × 9.8 = 19.6 m/s
1
Initial Energy = ´ 2 ´ (10) 2 + 0 = 100 J GMm
2 20. (c) W=
1 R
Final Energy = ´ 5 ´ 4 ´ 4 = 40 J 6.67 ´10 -11 ´ 100 10
2
W = ´
Loss of energy = 100 – 40 = 60 joule 0.1 1000
uur ur = 6.67 × 10–10 J
14. (b) Work done = F . s
21. (a) Gravitational potential energy of ball gets
= (3iˆ + 4j).(3i
ˆ ˆ + 4j)
ˆ = 9 + 16 = 25 joule
converted into elastic potential energy of
15. (c) The relation between kinetic energy and the spring.
linear momentum is 1 2
2 mg(h + d) = kd
p 2
E= so E µ p 2
2m 1 2
Net work done = mg(h + d) - kd = 0
If energy becomes four times th en 2
momentum will become twice as
pµ E h
16. (a) We know that,
d
Change in kinetic energy
= work done on the object by force
30
Here, work done = ò Fdx = ò 0.1x dx
20 22. (c) m v m/3 m – m/3 = 2m/3
30 v =0 v' = ?
é x2 ù 0.1 2
= 0.1 ê ú = [30 - 202 ] According to momentum conservation.
2
ëê ûú 20 2
2m
= 0.05[900 – 400] = 0.05 × 500 = 25 joule mv = m / 3 ´ 0 + v'
3
3 \ 0.1 × 1 + 0.4 × (–0.1) = (0.1 + 0.4) v

2m
mv = v' v' = v or 01. – 0.04 = 0.5 v,
3 2
0.06
2 v= = 0.12 m/s
2 2
1 ù 0.5
23. (b) Workdone = ò F.dx = ò kx dx = kx 2 ú Hence, distance covered = 0.12 × 10 = 1.2 m.
2 úû
0 0 0
-dU -d æ x 2 - z2 ö
1 26. (a) Fx = =x ç ÷ = -x
= .1.(4 - 0) = 2 J dx dx è 2 ø
2
24. (a) Given: h = 12.4, v = ?
\ v2 = u2 + 2gh -dU -d æ x 2 - z 2 ö
FZ = = ç ÷ =z
i.e., v2 = u2 + 2×9.8×12.4 dt dz è 2 ø
= u2 + 243.04 r
Kinetic energy of the ball when it just hits
\ F = - xiˆ + zkˆ
the wall 27. (b) As the ball moves down from height ‘h’ to
ground the P.E. at height ‘h’ is converted
1 2 1 to K.E. at the ground (Applying Law of
= mv = m (u 2 + 243.04)
2 2 conservation of Energy).
The K.E. of ball after the impact 1
Hence, m v 2 = m Agh A or v A =
(100 - 15) 1 2 A A
= ´ m (u 2 + 243.04)
100 2 2gh ;
85 1
= ´ m (u 2 + 243.04) Similarly, vB = 2 gh or vA = vB
100 2 28. (d) P = F´ v Þ P = F a t
Let v2 be the upward velocity just after the
\ Pµt
collision with the ground.
1 2 85 1
p2
´ m (u 2 + 243.04) 29. (d) As E =
So, mv2 = 2m
2 100 2
85 2 dE æ dp ö
v22 = (u + 243.04) \ = 2 ç ÷ = 2 ´ 5% = 10%
100 E è pø
Now, taking upward motion 30. (a) Loss in K.E = Area under the curve
v = 0, u = v2 r
31. (a) F = –5iˆ + 9cos 60°iˆ + 9sin 60° ˆj - 3 ˆj
\ v2= u2 –2gh 9 9 3ˆ
85 2 = –5iˆ + iˆ + j - 3 ˆj
0= (u + 243.04) - 2 ´ 9.8 ´ 12.4 2 2
100 ˆ
i æ9 3 ö
= - 2 + çè - 3÷ ˆj
85 2 2 ø
u = 36.46 r
100 s = –3i .
ˆ
36.46 ´ 100 é iˆ æ9 3 ö ù
u2 = = 42.89 r
85 W = F .sr = ê - 2 + çè - 3÷ ˆj ú .( -3iˆ)
ø û
ë 2
u = 6.55 m/s = 1.5 J.
25. (d) According to conservation of momentum
m1v1 + m2v2= (m1 + m2) v, Type B : Assertion Reason Questions
where v is common velocity of the two 32. (d) In an elastic collision, no conversion of
bodies. energy, so K.E. remains constant during
m1 = 0.1 kg m2 = 0.4 kg the time of collision. There is no friction
v1 = 1 m/s, v2 = – 0.1 m/s, acting in this case. In case of friction too
EBD_7100
conservation of energy is followed 36. (c) If there were only one propeller in the
provided we take into account all the helicopter, the helicopter itself, would have
transformations there. turned in opposite direction of the direction
33. (d) Frictional force is non-conservative as of propeller due to conservation of angular
work done against frictional force can not momentum. Thus two propeller provides
be stored as potential energy. helicopter a steady movement.
34. (a) In a quick collision, time t is small. 37. (a)
As F × t = constant, therfore, force involved 38. (b) Total translational kinetic energy
is large. I.e., collision is more violent in 3 3
comparison to slow collision . = nRT = PV
2 2
Momentum, p = mv or p µ v In an ideal gas all molecules moving
i.e., momentum is directly proportional to randomly in all direction collide and their
its velocity, so the momentum is greater in velocity changes after collision.
a quicker collision. 39. (a)
35. (a) In elastic collision, kinetic energy remains 1 2
conserved therefore the ball rebounds with 40. (d) Potential energy U = kx i.e. U µ x 2
2
the same velocity. According to Newton’s This is a equation of parabola, so graph
second law between U and x is a parabola not a
F× t = change in linear momentum. straight line.
\ F × 1 = m× n (u + u) Þ F = 2mnu.
System of Particles and Rotational Motion P-37
6
System of Particles and
Rotational Motion
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 7. In an orbital motion, the angular momentum
vector is : [2004]
1. If there is change of angular momentum from 1J (a) along the radius vector
to 5 J in 5 second. Then the torque is : [1997] (b) parallel to the linear momentum
3J 4J (c) in the orbital plane
(a) (b) (d) perpendicular to the orbital plane
5 5
8. A horizontal platform is rotating with uniform
5J angular velocity around the vertical axis passing
(c) (d) none of these
4 through its centre. At some instant of time a
2. If the equation for the displacement of a particle viscous fluid of mass m is dropped at the centre
moving on a circular path is given as and is allowed to spread out and finally fall. The
q = 2 t 3 + 0.5 , angular velocity during this period : [2005]
where q is in radians and t is in second. Then (a) decreases continuously
the angular velocity of the particle after two (b) decreases initially and increases again
second will be : [1998] (c) remains unaltered
(a) 36 rad/sec (b) 8 rad/sec (d) increases continuously
(c) 48 rad/sec (d) 24 rad/sec 9. A solid sphere is rolling on a frictionless surface,
3. The moment of inertia of a regular circular disc shown in figure with a translational velocity v
of mass 0.4 kg and radius 100 cm about an axis m/s. If it is to climb the inclined surface then v
perpendicular to the plane of the disc and should be : [2005]
passing through its centre is: [1999]
v h
(a) 0.2 kg m2 (b) 0.02 kg m2
(c) 0.002 kg m2 (d) 2 kg m2 10
(a) ³ gh (b) ³ 2gh
4. A constant torque of 31.4 Nm is exerted on a 7
pivoted wheel. If the angular acceleration of the 10
(c) 2gh (d) gh
wheel is 4 p rad/sec2, then the moment of inertia 7
will be : [2001] 10. A ladder is leaned against a smooth wall and it
(a) 5.8 kg-m2 (b) 4.5 kg-m2 is allowed to slip on a frictionless floor. Which
(c) 5.6 kg-m2 (d) 2.5 kg-m2 figure represents the track of its centre of mass?
5. The motion of planets in the solar system is an [2005]
example of the conservation of : [2003] (a) (b)
(a) mass
(b) linear momentum
(c) angular momentum
(d) energy
time time
6. The direction of the angular velocity vector
along : (c) (d)
(a) the tangent to the circular path [2004]
(b) the inward radius
(c) the outward radius
(d) the axis of rotation
time time
EBD_7100
11. The moment of inertia of a rod about an axis 14. In the diagram shown below all three rods are of
through its centre and perpendicular to it is equal length L and equal mass M. The system is
1 rotated such that rod B is the axis. What is the
ML2 (where M is the mass and L, the length moment of inertia of the system? [2007]
12
of the rod). The rod is bent in the middle so that A
the two halts make an angle of 60°. The moment B
of inertia of the bent rod about the same axis
would be : [2006] C
2 4
ML
1 1 (a) (b) ML2
(a) ML2 (b) ML2 6 3
48 12
ML2 2
1 ML2 (c) (d) ML2
(c) ML2 (d) 3 3
24 8 3 15. The direction of the angular velocity vector is
12. If a street light of mass M is suspended from the along [2007]
end of a uniform rod of length L in different (a) the tangent to the circular path
possible patterns as shown in figure, then : (b) the inward radius
[2006] (c) the outward radius
Cable (d) the axis of rotation
Cable 16. Four point masses, each of value m, are placed
at the corners of a square ABCD of side l. The
moment of inertia of this system about an axis
passing through A and parallel to BD is
3L
4 (a) 2ml2 (b) 3ml 2 [2008]
(c) 3ml 2 (d) ml2
A B 17. For the given uniform square lamina ABCD,
whose centre is O, [2008]
Cable D F C
(a) IAC < 2 IEF
1 (b) 2IAC < IEF O

2 (c) IAD < 3IEF
C (d) IAC < IEF A E

B
(a) Pattern A is more sturdy 18. A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/s2
(b) Pattern B is more sturdy and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/s. In a
time of 2 s it has rotated through an angle (in
(c) Pattern C is more sturdy
radian) of [2008]
(d) All will have same sturdiness (a) 6 (b) 10
13. If a solid sphere of mass 1 kg and radius 0.1 m (c) 12 (d) 4
rolls without slipping at a uniform velocity of 1 19. The angular speed of a body changes from w1
m/s along a straight line on a horizontal floor, to w2 without applying a torque but due to
the kinetic energy is [2007] changes in moment of inertia. The ratio of radii
7 2 of gyration in two cases is [2009]
(a) J (b) J
5 5 (a) w2 : w1 (b) w2 : w1
7
(c) J (d) 1 J (c) w22 : w12 (d) w32 : w13
10
20. A disc is rolling without slipping on a straight

surface. The ratio of its translational kinetic Q
energy to its total kinetic energy is [2009] C
P
2 1
(a) (b)
3 3
(a) VQ > VC > VP
2 3 (b) VQ < VC < VP
(c) (d)
5 5 1
(c) VQ = VP , VC = VP
21. Two particles of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2), 2
initially at rest, move towards each other under (d) VQ = VC = VP
an inverse square law force of attraction. Pick 26. For the given uniform square lamina ABCD,
out the correct statement about the centre of whose centre is O, [2012]
mass (CM) of the system [2009]
D F C
(a) The CM moves towards m1
(b) The CM moves towards m2
(c) The CM remains at rest
O
(d) The motion of CM is accelerated
22. A wire of mass m and length l is bent in the form
of a circular ring, the moment of inertia of the A B
E
ring about its axis is [2010]
(a) IAC < 2 IEF (b) 2IAC < IEF
æ 1 ö 2 æ 1 ö
(a) ç 8p2 ÷ ml (b) ç 2 ÷ ml 2 (c) IAD < 3IEF (d) IAC < IEF
è ø è 2p ø
27. One quarter sector is cut from a uniform circular
disc of radius R. This sector has mass M. It is
æ 1 ö 2
(c) ç 4p2 ÷ ml (d) ml 2 made to rotate about a line perpendicular to its
è ø plane and passing through the centre of the
23. Which of the following is true about the angular original disc. Its moment of inertia about the axis
momentum of a cylinder down a slope without of rotation is [2013]
slipping : [2011] 1 1
(a) its magnitude changes but the direction (a) mR 2 (b) mR 2
2 4
remains same
1
(b) both magnitude and direction change (c) mR 2 (d) 2mR 2
8
(c) only the direction change
28. A particle is confined to rotate in a circular path
(d) neither change
decreasing linear speed, then which of the
24. A circular disc rotating with frequency f0 = 1.3 following is correct? [2013]
rev/sec comes to a stop in 30 seconds. The r
(a) L (angular momentum) is conserved about
approximate angular acceleration is : [2011]
the centre.
(a) + 0.27 rad/sec2 (b) – 0.27 rad/sec2 r
(b) Only direction of angular momentum L is
(c) + 0.54 rad/sec2 (d) + 0.27 rad/sec2 conserved.
25. A disc is rolling (without slipping) on a (c) It spirals towards the centre.
horizontal surface.C is its centre and Q and P are (d) Its acceleration is towards the centre.
two points equidistant from C. Let Vp, Vq and Vc 29. A flywheel rotates about an axis. Due to friction
be the magnitude of velocities of points P, Q at the axis, it experiences an angular retardation
and C respectively, then [2012] proportional to its angular velocity. If its angular
EBD_7100
velocity falls to half while it makes n rotations, TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
how many more rotations will it make before
coming to rest? [2013] Directions for (Qs. 34-39) : These questions consist
(a) 2n (b) n of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
(c) n/2 (d) n/3 Reason. While answering these questions, you are
30. A wheel is rolling straight on ground without required to choose any one of the following five
slipping. If the axis of the wheel has speed v, the responses.
instantenous velocity of a point P on the rim, (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
defined by angle q, relative to the ground will the Reason is a correct explanation of the
be [2014] Assertion.
æ1 ö Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(a) v cos ç q ÷ P
è2 ø q Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
æ1 ö
(b) 2 v cos ç q ÷ (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
è2 ø (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
(c) v(1 + sin q) correct.
(d) v(1 + cos q) 34. Assertion : Moment of inertia depends on the
31. Consider a thin uniform square sheet made of a axis of rotation and the nature of distribution of
rigid material. If its side is ‘a’ mass m and moment the mass of the body.
of inertia I about one of its diagonals, then Reason : Moment of inertia is the rotational
[2016] inertia of the body. [1997]
35. Assertion : The earth is slowing down and as a
ma 2 ma 2 ma 2 result the moon is coming nearer to it.
(a) I> (b) <I<
12 24 12 Reason : The angular momentum of the earth
2 2 moon system is not conserved. [2003]
ma ma
(c) I = (d) I = 36. Assertion : There are very small sporadic
24 12
32. A small particle of mass m is projected at an angle changes in the speed of rotation of the earth
q with the x-axis with an initial velocity n0 in the Reason : Shifting of large air masses in the
x-y plane as shown in the figure. At a time earth's atmosphere produce a change in the
moment of inertia of the earth causing its speed
n0 sin q of rotation to change. [2004]
t< , the angular momentum of the
g 37. Assertion : For a system of particles under
particle is [2016] central force field, the total angular momentum
2
(a) - mg n 0 t cos q ˆj y is conserved.
ˆ Reason : The torque acting on such a system is
(b) mg n 0t cos q k v0
zero. [2005]
1
(c) - mg n 0 t cos q kˆ
2
38. Assertion : A judo fighter in order to throw his
2 opponent on to the mat tries to initially bend his
1 q opponent and then rotate him around his hip.
(d) mgn0t 2 cos q iˆ
2 x Reason : As the mass of the opponent is brought
33. A solid sphere rolls down two different inclined closer to the fighter’s hip, the force required to
planes of same height, but of different throw the opponent is reduced. [2006]
inclinations. In both cases [2017] 39. Assertion : The velocity of a body at the bottom
(a) speed and time of descent will be same of an inclined plane of given height is more when
(b) speed will be same, but time of descent it slides down the plane, compared to, when it
will be different rolling down the same plane.
(c) speed will be different, but time of descent Reason : In rolling down a body acquires both,
will be same kinetic energy of translation and rotation.
(d) speed and time of descent both are [2008]
different
Directions for (Qs. 40-45) : Each of these questions Reason : If net external force is zero, then
contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them the linear momentum of the system changes.
carefully and answer the question on the basis of [2011]
following options. You have to select the one that 43. Assertion: A rigid disc rolls without slipping on
best describes the two statements. a fixed rough horizontal surface with uniform
angular velocity. Then the acceleration of lowest
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and point on the disc is zero.
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. Reason : For a rigid disc rolling without slipping
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but on a fixed rough horizontal surface, the velocity
Reason is not the correct explanation of of the lowest point on the disc is always zero.
Assertion. [2013]
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 44. Assertion : For the planets orbiting around the
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. sun, angular speed, linear speed and K.E.
40. Assertion : The position of centre of mass of a changes with time, but angular momentum
body depends upon shape and size of the body. remains constant.
Reason : Centre of mass of a body lies always at Reason : No torque is acting on the rotating
the centre of the body. [2009] planet. So its angular momentum is constant.
41. Assertion : If polar ice melts, days will be shorter. [2013]
Reason : Moment of inertia decreases and thus 45. Assertion : Radius of gyration of body is a
angular velocity increases. [2010] constant quantity.
Reason : The radius of gyration of a body
42. Assertion : If no external force acts on a system
about an axis of rotation may be defined as the
of particles, then the centre of mass will not move root mean square distance of the particle from
in any direction. the axis of rotation. [2017]
EBD_7100
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 8. (b) When the fluid spreads out, the moment of
inertia of the system is increased. If we apply
dL DL conservation of angular momentum.
1. (b) Torque = = ,
dt Dt Iw = I1w1
Here DL = 5J - J = 4J As I increases due to water spreading out,
4 the angular velocity decrease.
Dt = 5 sec torque = J When water level falls, I decreases resulting
5
in increased angular velocity.
2. (d) q = 2 t 3 + 0. 5 9. (a) Applying law of conservation of energy
dq for rotating body,
w= = 6t 2 = 6 ´ 22
dt 1 1
= 6 ´ 4 = 24 radian / sec mv 2 + Iw2 = mgh
2 2
3. (a) Moment of inertia of a circular disc
1 1 2 2 v2
1 2 1 2 mv 2 + mr ´ 2 = mgh
= MR = ´ 0.4 ´ 1 ´ 1 = 0.2 kg - m 2 25 r
2 2
4. (d) Torque = Ia v 2 2v 2
+ = gh
[I is moment of inertia and a is angular 2 10
acceleration] 5v 2 + 2v 2 10
= gh Þ v 2 = gh
31.4 = I ´ 4p 10 7
31.4
I= = 2.50 kg-m 2 v³
10
gh
4p 7
5. (c) For any circular motion the angular
10. (a) (0, 2 y)
momentum is conserved as no torque is
acting on it because centripetal force acts
through the point of axis.
6. (d)
w
(0, 0) (2x, 0)
w Let l be the length of ladder and (x, y) be its
Angular velocity is a vector whose centre of mass which is middle point of the
direction is perpendicular to the plane of ladder. From the figure it is clear that,
circular path or axis of rotation. Its direction
l2
has been shown in the figure. (2x)2 + (2y)2 = l 2 Þ x 2 + y 2 =
7. (d) Angular momentum is a vector quantity 4
whose direction is perpendicular to plane of l
.
So, locus of (x, y) is a circle with radius
revolution. It has been shown in the figure. 2
As centre of mass will always go
L downwards. So option (a) is correct.
11. (b)
L
L/2
We know that for a body, moment of inertia 2ο π

15. (d) w = < in magnitude and direction is
M.I = åM r 2 T t
axis of rotation (direction in which q
Now, bending of rod does not alter the
changes with t)
distribution of individual particle, the body n
16. (c)
is made of, so the value of å M r 2 will D C
not change. Hence the changed moment of

1 B
inertia of the body will be ML2 . A
12
12. (a) Torque created due to weight of street light n'
remains same in all the three cases. It is 2
balanced by torque created by tension in æ l ö
I nn ' = 2 ´ mçç ÷÷ + m( 2l) 2
the string. So if t be the torque created by è 2ø
weight of lamp and T be tension in the
= ml 2 + 2 ml 2 = 3ml 2
string and d be perpendicular distance of 17. (d) By the theorem of perpendicular axes,
cable from the axis then, Iz = Ix + Iy or, Iz = 2 Iy
t = T.d (\ Ix = Iy by symmetry of the figure)
Tension will be least for largest d. This is in Iz Iy
pattern A. So Pattern A is more sturdy. D F C
13. (c) When a body rolls over a smooth surface,
it has linear K.E. and rotational K.E.
1 1 Ix
\E= mv 2 ∗ Iϖ 2
2 2
v 2 2
where w = and I = mr for solid sphere. A E B
r 5
1 1 æ 2 2 ö v2 Iz
\ K.E. = mv ∗ ççç mr ÷÷÷ .
2 \ IEF = ... (i)
2 2 è5 ø r2 2
Again, by the same theorem,
1 1 7 7 Iz = IAC + IBD = 2 IAC
= mv 2 ∗ mv 2 = mv 2 = ´1´12
2 5 10 10 (\ IAC = IBD by symmetry of the figure)
7 I
= J \ IAC = z ... (ii)
10 2
14. (a) Moment of inertia of system From (i) and (ii), we get IEF = IAC.
= M.I of A + M.I. of B + M.I of C 18. (b) Given : initial angular speed,
M.I of A = M. T through centre and w0 = 2 rad/s, angular acceleration,
1 a = 3 rad/s2, time, t = 2s
perpendicular to length = ML2
12 From the equation of the angular
1 displacement,
M.I of C = M.I of A = ML2
12 1 1
M.I of B = 0 q = w 0 t + at 2 = 2 ´ 2 + ´ 3 ´ (2) 2
2 2
(moment of mass about an axis passing
through its own position is zero) = 4 + 6 = 10 radians
1 19. (a) I1w1 = I2w2
1 2 1 2 2
\ Total M.I = ML + ML = ML
12 12 6 MK12 w1 = MK 22 w2
EBD_7100
2 Now, form Fig (II), it is clear that the

æ K1 ö w2 K
ç ÷ = Þ 1 = w2 : w1 distance, OP < OC < OQ ÞVP < VC < VQ or
è K2 ø w1 K2 VQ > VC > VP.
1 26. (d) By the theorem of perpendicular axes,
20. (a) TKE = mv 2 Iz = I x + I y or, Iz = 2 Iy
2
1 (Q Ix = Iy by symmetry of the figure)
RKE = Iw 2
2 Z
Y
w = v/R
D F C
TKE 2
Þ =
TKE + RKE 3
21. (c) When no external force acts on the system X
and initially velocity of centre of mass is O
zero and so the centre mass remain at rest.
22. (c) Length of the wire = l.
A E B
Let it is bent in the form of a circular ring of
radius r.
Iz
Thus, radius of the ring \ IEF = ...(i)
2
l
r= Again, by the same theorem
2p
Iz = IAC + IBD = 2 IAC
The moment of inertia of the ring about its
axis, (\ IAC = IBD by symmetry of the figure)
æ l ö
2
l2 Iz
\ IAC = ...(ii)
I = mr2 = m ç ÷ = m ´ 2 2
è 2p ø 4p
From (i) and (ii), we get
æ 1 ö IEF = IAC.
= ç 2 ÷ ml 2.
è 4p ø 27. (a) For complete disc with mass '4M', M.I.
23. (a) As axis of rotation is along the length of about given axis = (4M)(R2/2) = 2 MR2
the cylinder are remain same, but speed Hence, by symmetry, for the given quarter
increases continuously. of the disc
24. (b) Given, w0 = 2pf = 2p × 13. = 2.6p rad/s 1 2
M.I. = 2 MR2 /4 = MR
Using I equation of motion 2
w = w0 + a t 28. (b) Since v is changing (decreasing), L is not
0 = 2.6p + a × 30 conserved in magnitude. Since it is given
that a particle is confined to rotate in a
2.6 p
Þ a= = - 0.27 rad / s2 circular path, it can not have spiral path.
30 Since the particle has two accelerations ac
25. (a) VQ w and at therefore the net acceleration is not
v VCQ towards the centre.
C C
w P v
r r
L ac at
O O
(I) (II)
From Fig. (I), we have OC = r (radius)
Therefore, v = rw The direction of L remains same even
Since, w = constant, therefore v µ r when the speed decreases.
29. (b) a is propotional to w 33. (b) In pure rolling, mechanical energy remains
Let a = kw (Q k is a constant) conserved. Therefore, when heights of
dω dθ dθ inclines are equal, speed of sphere will be
= kω [also = ω Þ dt = ]
dt dt ω same in both the case. But as acceleration
ωdω down the plane, a µ sin q. Therefore,
\ = kω Þ dw = kdq acceleration and time of descent will be
dθ
ω/ 2 different.
Now ò dω = kò dθ Type B : Assertion Reason Questions

ω
34. (b) We know that
0 θ
ω ω
ò dω = k ò dθ Þ - = kθ Þ - = kθ1
2 2 I=
m1r12 + m 2 r2 2 + m 3r3 3 + ..... + m n rn 2
ω/2 0 m1 + m 2 + m 3 + .....
(Q q1 = 2pn) where r1, r2, r3 are distances of mass m1,
\ θ = θ1 or 2pn1 = 2pn m2, m3 etc. from the axis. From the relation
n1 = n it is clear that I depends upon distribution
30. (b) v of the masses and position of axis.
qv So, Assertion is correct.
q We know that,
angular momentum = Iw
Torque = Ia
If we compare these equations with
equations like linear momentum = mv, force
v R = v 2 + v 2 + 2 v 2 cos q = 2 v 2 (1 + cos q) = ma, we find that I represents mass in
angular motion. As mass represents inertia
q
= 2 v cos in linear motion, I represents inertia in
2
angular motion.
31. (d) For a thin uniform square sheet
But assertion and reason are mutually
ma 2 exclusive. So (b) is the answer.
I1 = I2 = I3 = 35. (c) The angular momentum of earth-moon
12
system will be conserved because no
torque is acting on it.
dL
So, t =
I1 dt
dL
If t = 0, = 0 Þ L is constant.
I2 dt
I3 or angular momentum is constant. So
r r r Reason is incorrect.
32. (c) L = m( r ´ v ) So, I1w1 = I2w2
r
L = m éêv0 cos qt iˆ + (v0 sin qt - gt 2 ) ˆj ùú
1 where I1 & I2 are momentia of inertia of
ë 2 û earth and moon & w1 & w2 are their angular
velocities. If earth slows down w, will be
´ éë v0 cos q iˆ + (v0 sin q - gt ) ˆj ùû
decreased. So, I2 will be decreased if we
é 1
ˆ ù take w2 to remain constant.
= mv0 cos qt ê - gt ú k I2= m2r22 where m2 is mass of moon & r2 is
ë 2 û
radius of moon's orbit, r 2 will be reduced to
1
= - mgv0 t cos qkˆ
2
reduce I2. Hence moon will come near to
2 the earth. Hence Assertion is correct.
EBD_7100
I I T J E E N E E T e B o o k s :
36. (a) Along with earth, particles of atmosphere Many objects have a point, a line or a plane
also revolves around the axis of rotation. of symmetry. The centre of mass of such
Now due to change in the constitution of an object then lies at that point, on that
atmosphere there is small change in the total line or in that plane. Also the centre of mass
moment of inertia of the whole system. of an object need not lie within the object,
Applying conservation of an gular like no iron at the centre of mass of a horse
momentum shoe.
Iw = I'w' 41. (a)
If I' changes, there is corresponding change 42. (d)
in the angular velocity of the system. 43. (d) For a disc rolling without slipping on a
37. (a) Under central force field, force acts along horizontal rough surface with uniform
the line joining the bodies so it does not angular velocity, the acceleration of lowest
have rotatory effect i.e., torque is zero.
point of disc is directed vertically upwards
Hence angular momentum is conservative.
and is not zero (Due to translation part of
38. (a) When mass of the opponent is brought
rolling, acceleration of lowest point is zero.
nearby by his moment of inertia gets
Due to rotational part of rolling, the
reduced which makes the operation of
tangential acceleration of lowest point is
rotating him around the hip an easier
exercise. zero and centripetal acceleration is non-zero
39. (b) In sliding down, the entire potential energy and upwards). Hence Assertion is incorrect.
is converted into kinetic energy. While in 44. (a)
rolling down, some part of the potential 45. (d) Radius of gyration of body is not a
energy is converted into kinetic energy of constant quantity. Its value changes with
rotation. Therefore linear velocity acquired the change in location of the axis of
is less. rotation. Radius of gyration of a body
40. (c) The position of centre of mass of a body about a given axis is given as
depends on shape, size and distribution of
r12 + r22 + .....rn2
mass of the body. The centre of mass does K=
not lie necessarily at the centre of the body. n
Gravitation P-47
7 Gravitation
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS at an angle of 50° from the horizontal, then escape
velocity is: [1999]
1. If a mass of a body is M on the earth surface, the (a) 12.8 km/sec (b) 16.2 km/sec
mass of the same body on moon surface will be (c) 11.2 km/sec (d) 11.8 km/sec
M 7. Knowing that the mass of the moon is 1/81 times
(a) M (b) [1997]
6 that of earth and its radius is 1/4 the radius of
(c) zero (d) none of these earth. If the escape velocity at the surface of the
2. The earth rotates about the sun in an elliptical earth is 11.2 km/sec, then the value of escape
orbit as shown in figure. At which point its velocity at the surface of the moon is [2000]
velocity will be maximum? [1997] (a) 2.5 km/sec (b) 0.14 km/sec
B (c) 5 km/sec (d) 8 km/sec
M
8. If the mass of moon is , where M is the mass
A S C 81
of earth, find the distance of the point from the
moon, where gravitational field due to earth and
D moon cancel each other. Given that distance
(a) at C (b) at A
between earth and moon is 60R where R is the
(c) at D (d) at B radius of earth [2000]
3. The ratio of the radii of two planets r1 and r 2 is k. (a) 4 R (b) 8 R
The ratio of acceleration due to gravity on them (c) 2 R (d) 6 R
is r. Then the ratio of the escape velocities from 9. Potential energy of a satellite having mass m
them, will be : [1997] and rotating at a height of 6.4 × 106 m from the
r k earth centre is [2000]
(a) (b) (a) – 0.2 mg Re (b) – 2 mg Re
k r
(c) –0.5 mg Re (d) – mg Re
(c) kr (d) kr
10. The escape velocity from the earth is 11.2 km/
4. The value of acceleration due to gravity, at earth
sec. The escape velocity from a planet having
surface is g. Its value at the centre of the earth,
twice the radius and the same mean density as
which we assume as a sphere of radius R and of
the earth, is : [2001]
uniform mass density, will be : [1997]
(a) 11.2 km/sec (b) 22.4 km/sec
(a) 10 R m/s2 (b) zero
(c) 5 R m/s (d) 20 R m/s2 (c) 15.00 km/sec (d) 5.8 km/sec
11. If v0 be the orbital velocity of a satellite in a
5. Gravitational mass is proportional to the
circular orbit close to the earth’s surface and ve
gravitational : [1998]
is the escape velocity from the earth, then
(a) intensity (b) field
relation between the two is [2002]
(c) force (d) none of these
6. Escape velocity of a body when projected from (a) ve = 2v0 (b) v e = 3v 0
the earth’s surface is 11.2 km/sec. If it is projected (c) ve = v0 2 (c) v0 = ve
EBD_7100
12. Hubble’s law is related with [2002] 20. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady
(a) planetary motion current i. The current is uniformly distributed
(b) speed of galaxy across its cross section. The ratio of the magnetic
(c) black hole field at a/2 and 2a is [2008]
(d) comet (a) 1/2 (b) 1/4
13. The radius of earth is about 6400 km and that of (c) 4 (d) 1
mass is about 3200 km. The mass of the earth is 21. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are initially at
about 10 times of the mass. The object weighs rest at infinite distance apart. They are then
200 N on earth surface, then its weight on the allowed to move towards each other under
surface of mars will be [2002] mutual gravitational attraction. Their relative
(a) 80 N (b) 40 N velocity of approach at a separation distance r
(c) 20 N (d) 8 N between them is [2008]
1/ 2
14. A satellite is launched into a circular orbit of é (m1 - m 2 ) ù
radius R around the earth. While a second (a) ê 2G r ú
ë û
satellite launched into an orbit of radius 1.01R. 1/ 2
é 2G ù
The period of the second satellite is longer than (b) êë r (m1 + m )
2 ú
the first one by approximately : [2002] û
1/ 2
(a) 3.0% (b) 1.5% é r ù
(c) 0.7% (d) 1.0% (c) ê ú
ë 2G(m1m 2 ) û
15. The velocity with which a projectile must be fired
1/ 2
so that it escapes earth's gravitation does not é 2G ù
(d) ê m1m2 ú
depend on : [2003] ë r û
(a) mass of the earth 22. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around
(b) mass of the projectile the earth. The mass of the satellite is very small
(c) radius of the projectile's orbit compared to the mass of the earth. Then
(d) gravitational constant (a) the acceleration of S is always directed
16. The difference in the length of a mean solar day towards the centre of the earth
and a sidereal day is about : [2003] (b) the angular momentum of S about the centre
(a) 1 minute (b) 4 minute of the earth changes in direction, but its
(c) 15 minute (d) 56 minute magnitude remains constant
(c) the total mechanical energy of S varies
17. The condition for a uniform spherical mass m of
periodically with time
radius r to be a black hole is : [G = gravitational
(d) the linear momentum of S remains constant
constant and g = acceleration due to gravity] in magnitude [2010]
[2005] 23. If the earth were to cease rotating about its own
1/ 2 1/ 2 axis. The increase in the value of g in C.G.S.
æ 2Gm ö æ 2gm ö
(a) ç ÷ £c (b) ç ÷ =c system at a place of latitude of 45° will be
è r ø è r ø (a) 2.68 (b) 1.68 [2010]
1/ 2 1/ 2 (c) 3.36 (d) 0.34
æ 2Gm ö æ gm ö 24. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at
(c) ç ÷ ³c (d) ç ÷ ³c
è r ø è r ø a height of 6 R from the earth’s surface (R is the
18. Height of geostationary satellite is [2007] earth’s radius ). What is the period of rotation of
(a) 16000 km (b) 22000 km another satellite at a height of 2.5 R from the
(c) 28000 km (d) 36000 km earth’s surface [2011]
19. The force of gravitation is [2007] (a) 6 2 hours (b) 10 hours
(a) repulsive (b) conservative 5 5
(c) electrostatic (d) non-conservative (c) hours (d) none of the above
3
I I T J E E N E E T e
Gravitation P-49
25. The angular speed of earth in rad/s, so that (c) g1 : g2 = R1r2 : R2r1
bodies on equator may appear weightless is : (d) g1 : g2 = R1r1 : R2r2
[Use g = 10 m/s2 and the radius of earth 30. A body starts from rest from a point distance R0
= 6.4 × 103 km] [2011] from the centre of the earth. The velocity
(a) 1.25 × 10–3 (b) 1.56 × 10–3 acquired by the body when it reaches the surface
(c) 1.25 ×10–1 (d) 1.56 of the earth will be (R represents radius of the
26. Suppose, the acceleration due to gravity at the earth). [2014]
Earth's surface is 10 m s–2 and at the surface of
æ1 1 ö
Mars it is 4.0 m s–2. A 60 kg pasenger goes from (a) 2 G M çç - ÷
÷
è R R 0ø
the Earth to the Mars in a spaceship moving
with a constant velocity. Neglect all other objects æ 1 1ö
in the sky. Which part of figure best represents (b) 2 G M çç - ÷÷
R
è 0 R ø
the weight (net gravitational force) of the
passenger as a function of time? ]2012] æ1 1 ö
(c) G M çç - ÷
÷
Weight è R R 0ø
600 N A æ1 1 ö
(d) 2 G M çç - ÷
÷
è R R0 ø
B 31. The potential energy of a satellite of mass m and
200 N revolving at a height Re above the surface of
C earth where Re = radius of earth, is [2014]
time -m g R e
D t0 (a) – m g Re (b)
2
(a) A (b) B -m g R e -m g R e
(c) (d)
(c) C (d) D 3 4
27. Two masses m1 and m2 (m1 < m2) are released 32. Four similar particles of mass m are orbiting in a
from rest from a finite distance. They start under circle of radius r in the same angular direction
their mutual gravitational attraction – [2012] because of their mutual gravitational attractive
(a) acceleration of m1 is more than that of m2. force. Velocity of a particle is given by [2015]
(b) acceleration of m2 is more than that of m1. m
(c) centre of mass of system will remain at rest
in all the reference frame
(d) total energy of system does not remain m r
m
constant
28. The escape velocity for a body projected
vertically upwards from the surface of earth is
11 km/s. If the body is projected at an angle of
45º with the vertical, the escape velocity will be m
1/ 2
(a) 22 km/s (b) 11 km/s [2013] é GM æ 1 + 2 2 ö ù
(a) ê ç ÷ú
11 êë r è 4 ø úû
(c) km/s (d) 11 2 km/s
2
29. The radii of two planets are respectively R1 and 3
GM
(b)
R2 and their densities are respectively r1 and r
r2. The ratio of the accelerations due to gravity
at their surfaces is [2013] (c)
GM
r
(
1+ 2 2 )
r1 r2 1/ 2
(a) g1 : g 2 = : é 1 GM æ 1 + 2 ö ù
R12 R 22 (d) ê ç ÷ú
(b) g1 : g2 = R1R2 : r1r2 ëê 2 r è 2 ø úû
EBD_7100
33. Taking the gravitational potential at a point infinte (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
distance away as zero, the gravitational potential (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
at a point A is –5 unit. If the gravitational potential correct.
at point infinite distance away is taken as + 10 37. Assertion : A balloon filled with hydrogen will
units, the potential at point A is [2015] g
(a) – 5 unit (b) + 5 unit fall with acceleration of the moon.
6
(c) + 10 unit (d) + 15 unit
Reason : Moon has no atmosphere. [2000]
34. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of
38. Assertion : The length of the day is slowly
a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The
increasing.
a Reason : The dominant effect causing a
gravitational potential at a point situated at
2 slowdown in the rotation of the earth is the
distance from the centre, will be [2016] gravitational pull of other planets in the solar
3GM 2 GM system. [2003]
(a) - (b) - 39. Assertion : An astronaut experience
a a
GM 4 GM weightlessness in a space satellite.
(c) - (d) - Reason : When a body falls freely it does not
a a
experience gravity. [2007]
35. The distance of neptune and saturn from the
Directions for (Qs. 40-43) : Each of these questions
sun is nearly 1013 and 1012 meter respectively.
Assuming that they move in circular orbits, their
carefully and answer the question on the basis of
periodic times will be in the ratio [2016]
(a) 10 (b) 100
(c) 10 10 (d) 1000 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
36. The change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
above the surface of the earth is the same as at a (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
depth ‘d’ below the surface of earth. When both Reason is not the correct explanation of
‘d’ and ‘h’ are much smaller than the radius of Assertion.
earth, then which one of the following is correct? (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
[2017] (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
3h h 40. Assertion : In a free fall, weight of a body
(a) d = (b) d = becomes effectively zero.
2 2
Reason : Acceleration due to gravity acting on
(c) d = h (d) d =2 h a body having free fall is zero. [2011]
TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS 41. Assertion : The escape speed does not depend
on the direction in which the projectile is fired.
Directions for (Qs. 37-39) : These questions consist Reason : Attaining the escape speed is easier if
of two statements, each printed as Assertion and a projectile is fired in the direction the launch
Reason. While answering these questions, you are site is moving as the earth rotates about its axis.
required to choose any one of the following five 42. Assertion : The earth without atmosphere would
responses.
be inhospitably cold.
the Reason is a correct explanation of the Reason : All heat would escape in the absence
Assertion. of atmosphere. [2016]
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but 43. Assertion : Space rocket are usually launched
Reason is not a correct explanation of the in the equatorial line from west to east
Assertion. Reason : The acceleration due to gravity is
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. minimum at the equator. [2017]
Gravitation P-51
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions x = 540R - 9x Þ 10x = 540R

x = 54 R;
1. (a) The mass of a body does not change unless
we withdraw or add some mass to it. So Distance of the point from moon = 60R – 54R = 6R
mass of a body on the surface of moon will -GMm
9. (d) Potential energy of a satellite =
remain unchanged. R
2. (b) When earth rotates around the Sun, the - GM ´ R e m
net torque acting on the body is zero. So, = = -mgR e
R e2
angular momentum will be conserved at all
points. 10. (b) For escape velocity the formula is,
I1w1 = I 2w2 4
2G pR 3r
2GM 3
Þ mv1r1 = mv 2 r2 ve = =
R R
v1r1 = v 2 r2
[r is density of the planet, R is radius.]
At 'A' radius is minimum so, velocity of the
earth will be maximum. 8
= GpR 2r
3. (d) ve = 2gr 3
8
v'e 2g1r1 ve = R Gpr
= = k.r 3
v''e 2g 2 r2 ve µ R
4. (b) The value of acceleration due to gravity at If radius becomes twice, ve will also become
the centre of earth is zero. twice. So new escape velocity
5. (c) Inertial mass is free from gravitational force. = 2 × 11.2 = 22.4 km/sec
It depends upon only mass. Gravitational 11. (c) We know that,
mass is dependent on gravitational force.
v0 = gr & ve = 2gr
6. (c) Escape velocity does not depend on the
direction of throw of object. This is because So, ve = 2v0
gravitational field is a conservative field. 12. (b) Hubble’s law states that speed of a star is
2GM directly proportional to distance from the
7. (a) For escape velocity, ve =
R star i.e.
2GM / 81 4 ´ 2GM 2 GM v µ r Þ v = Hr
v'e = = =
R/4 81R 9 R where H is Hubble’s constant.
2 GM
v'e = ´ 11.2 = 2.5 km / sec 13. (a) We know that g =
9 R2
8. (d) Let at a distance x from the earth, field
G.M /10
equalises each other. So, applying Value of g for Mass =
Newton’s law of gravitation (R / 2) 2
[Radius of mass is 1/2 that of earth]
GM GM / 81
2
= GM 4 2 GM
x (60R - x) 2 = ´ 2 =
10 R 5 R2
1 1
= 2
x2 81(60 R - x ) 2 So, g ' = g
5
1 1 200 ´ 2
Þ = If mg = 200 N, mg ' = = 80 N.
x 9(60R - x ) 5
EBD_7100
I I T J E E N E
14. (b) We know that relation between radius of 19. (b) The work done by force of gravitation does
orbit and time period of revolution is not depend on path taken hence force of
T2 µ R3 gravitation is conservative.
3/2 3/ 2 20. (d) Here, current is uniformly
T ' æ 1.01 ö æ 1 ö distributed across the
=ç ÷ = ç1 + ÷
T è 1 ø è 100 ø cross-section of the wire,
therefore, current enclosed
3 1 3 a/2
= 1+ ´ = 1+ in the amperean path
2 100 200 formed at a distance P1 P2
T' 3 æ aö
-1 = 1 + -1 r1 ç = ÷
T 200 è 2ø
T '- T 3 DT 3 a
= Þ = æ p r2 ö
T 200 T 200 = ç 12 ÷ ´ I , where I is total current
DT 3 ´ 100 è pa ø
´ 100 =
T 200 \ Magnetic field at
% Change in T = 1.5% m0 ´ current enclosed
15. (b) The value of escape velocity for a planet is P1 (B1 ) =
Path
ve = 2gR
æ p r2 ö
It does not depend upon the mass of the m 0 ´ ç 12 ÷ ´ I
body. è pa ø m ´ I r1
= = 0
16. (b) Solar day is the time taken by earth to 2p r1 2p a 2
complete one rotation about its axis with Now, magnetic field at point P2,
respect to sun. Sidereal day is the time taken
m0 I m I
by earth to complete one rotation about its (B2) = . = 0 .
axis with respect to distant star. 2p (2a) 4pa
There is a difference of 4 minutes between B m Ir 4pa
\ Required Ratio = 1 = 0 1 ´
solar day and sidereal day. Solar day is B 2 2 pa 2 m 0 I
longer as earth has to rotate greater angle
a
2 r1 2 ´ 2
to attain same position with respect to sun
due to its own motion (revolution) round = = = 1.
the sun. Its position with respect to distant a a
star remains almost fixed. 21. (b) By applyin g law of conservation of
17. (c) A black hole does not allow light to escape momentum,
its surface. In other words for a black hole m1 v1 - m 2 v 2 = 0 Þ m1v1 = m 2 v 2 … (i)
body escape velocity becomes > velocity Where v1 and v2 are the velocities of masses
of light m1 and m2 at a distance r from each other.
Now for a body of mass m, By conservation of energy,
1/ 2 Change in P.E = change in K.E.
æ 2Gm ö
Escape velocity = ç ÷ . Gm1m 2 1 1
è r ø = m1v12 + m 2 v 22 … (ii)
æ 2Gm ö
1/ 2 r 2 2
So, ç ÷ ³c Solving eqn. (i) and (ii) we get
è r ø
18. (d) The height of geostationary satellites is 2Gm 22 2Gm12
v1 = and v 2 =
æ T 2 R 2g ö÷1/ 3 r(m1 + m 2 ) r(m1 + m 2 )
ç
given by h = çç ÷÷ , R
çè 4ο2 ø÷÷ Relative velocity of approach, vR
T = 24 hr, R = 6.4 × 106m, g = 9.8 m/s2 and 2G

=| v1 | + | v 2 |= (m1 + m 2 )
comes out to be 35930 km. r
Gravitation P-53
22. (a) Force on satellite is always directed towards 1

earth, So, acceleration of satellite S is 26. (c) gµ so we will not get a straight line.
R2
always directed towards centre of earth. Net
torque of this gravitational force F about Also F = 0 at a point where Force due to
centre of earth is zero. Therefore , angular Earth = Force due to Mars
momentum (both in magnitude and 27. (a) Same force acts on both masses
direction) of S about centre of earth is
constant throughout. 1
Hence a µ (F = ma)
Since, the force F is conservative in nature, m
therefore, mechanical energy of satellite In absence of external force (remember
remains constant. Speed of S is maximum mutual gravitational force is an internal
when it is nearest to earth and minimum force for the system) total energy remains
when it is farthest. constant.
S (
28. (b) Since escape velocity v e = 2g R e is )
independent of angle of projection, so it
E F will not change.
29. (d) g µ rR
23. (b) l = 45°; R = 6400 × 103 m R GMm é1 1 ù
30. (b) P.E. = ò dr = -GMm ê - ú
2p R0 r 2
ë R R0 û
w=
24 ´ 60 ´ 60 The K.E. acquired by the body at the
The value of acceleration due to gravity 1 2
with latitude l due to rotation of earth is, surface = m v
2
g' = g – Rw2 cos2 l
g – g' = Rw2 cos2 l 1 2 é1 1 ù
\ mv = -GMm ê - ú
2 2 ë R R0 û
6400 ´103 æ 2 ´ 3.14 ö
= ´ç ÷
2 è 24 ´ 60 ´ 60 ø æ 1 1ö
v = 2G M ç - ÷
6400 ´ 103 ´ 4 ´ 3.14 ´ 3.14 è R0 R ø
= 31. (b) At a height h above the surface of earth
2 ´ 24 ´ 60 ´ 60 ´ 24 ´ 60 ´ 60
the gravitational potential energy of the
= 16.89 × 10–3 m/sec2
particle of mass m is
= 16.89 × 10–1 cm/sec2 GM e m
Uh = -
= 1.68 cm/sec2 Re + h
Where Me & Re are the mass & radius of
r3 earth respectively.
24. (a) T = 2p
GM In this question, since h = Re
2 3
æT ö ær ö æ 6R + R ö
3 GM e m - mgRe
\ ç 1÷ =ç 1÷ =ç =8 So U h = Re = - =
è T2 ø è r2 ø è 2.5R + r ÷ø 2 Re 2
T 24 32. (a) Centripetal force = net gravitational force
T2 = 1 = = 6 2hr
8 8 mv20
= 2Fcos 45° + F1
281 r
25. (a) w' = g/R = 2GM 2 1 Gm 2
6.4 ´ 106 = +
= 1.25 × 10–3 rad/s ( 2r) 2 2 4r 2
EBD_7100
45° 2r T12 T1
V0 \ = (10)3 or = 10 10
2 T2
F T2
F1 F 36. (d) Variation of g with altitude is,
r é 2h ù
g h = g ê1 - ú ;
ë Rû
variation of g with depth is,
é dù
g d = g ê1 - ú
ë Rû
Equating gh and gd, we get d = 2h
mv20 Gm2
= [2 2 + 1] ` Type B : Assertion Reason Questions
r 4r 2
1/2 37. (a) A balloon will not experience any buoyant
æ GM(2 2 + 1ö
Þç ÷ force on the moon because it has no
è 4r ø atmosphere, so it will have free fall under
33. (b) The gravitational potential V at a point gravitational pull of the moon with
distant ‘r’ from a body of mass m is equal
to the amount of work done in moving a acceleration equal to g .
6
unit mass from infinity to that point. 38. (c) The length of the day is slowly increasing
r ur r not due to gravitational pull of other planets
Vr - Vµ = - ò E.dr = -GM (1/ r - 1/ µ ) in the solar system but due to viscous force
µ between the earth and the atmosphere
-GM æ r -dV ö around it. So Assertion is correct but
= çè As E = ÷ Reason is incorrect.
r dr ø
39. (a) When a body falls freely its accelerating
(i) In the first case force is g thus apparent weight of body
- GM = M(g – g) is zero. Hence astronaut falling
when Vµ = 0, Vr = = -5 unit freely in space experiences weightlessness
r
(ii) In the second case Vµ = + 10 unit as its gravitational force is counter balanced
by centripetal force of satellite.
Vr – 10 = – 5 40. (c)
or Vr = + 5 unit 41. (b)
34. (a) Potential at the given point = Potential at 42. (b) In the absence of atmosphere, all the heat
the point due to the shell + Potential due to will escape from earth’s surface which will
the particle make earth in hospitably cold.
GM 2GM 3GM 43. (b) Space rocket are usually launched from
=- - =- west to east to take the advantage of rotation
a a a
of earth.
35. (c) T2 µ R3 (According to Kepler’s law) Also g' = g – w2R cos2 l, at equator l = 0,
T12 µ (1013)3 and T22 µ (1012)3 and so cos l = 1, and g' is least.
Mechanical Properties
8 of Solids
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 8. The adjacent graph shows the extension (Dl) of
a wire of length 1 m suspended from the top of a
1. If S is stress and Y is Young’s modulus of a roof at one end and with a load W connected to
material of wire, then energy stored in the wire the other end. If the cross-sectional area of the
per unit volume is : [1997] wire is 10–6 m2, calculate the Young’s modulus
S of the material of the wire. [2008]
(a) 2S 2 Y (b)
2Y
Dl (x10 -4 m)
2Y 2
S
(c) 2 (d)
S 2Y 4
2. Longitudinal strain is possible in : [1998] 3
(a) Liquid (b) Gases 2
(c) Solid (d) All of these 1
3. Which one of the following affects the elasticity W (N)
of a substance ? [1999] 20 40 60 80
(a) Change in temperature
(a) 2 × 1011 N/m2 (b) 2 × 10–11 N/m2
(b) Hammering and annealing
(c) 3 × 10–12 N/m2 (d) 2 × 10–13 N/m2
(c) Impurity in substance
9. There are two wire of same material and same
(d) All of these
length while the diameter of second wire is two
4. If in a wire of Young’s modulus Y, longitudinal
times the diameter of first wire, then the ratio of
strain X is produced then the potential energy
extension produced in the wires by applying
stored in its unit volume will be : [2001]
same load will be [2013]
(a) 0.5 YX 2 (b) 0.5 Y 2 X (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 4 : 1
(c) 2 YX 2 (d) YX 2 10. Stress vs strain curve for the elastic tissue of
5. According to Hook’s law of elasticity, if the aorta, the large tube (vessel) carrying blood
stress is increased, then the ratio of stress to from the heart, will be : [stress is proportional to
strain : [2001] square of the strain for the elastic tissue of the
(a) becomes zero (b) remains constant aorta] [2015]
(c) decreases (d) increases
6. The bulk modulus of a metal is 1010 N/m2 and
Poisson's ratio 0.20. If average distance between
the molecules is 3Å then the interatomic force (a) (b)
constant : [2002]
(a) 5.4 N/m (b) 7.5 N/m
(c) 7.5 N/m (d) 30 N/m
7. Shear modulus is zero for [2007]
(a) solids (b) liquids (c) (d)
(c) gases (d) liquids and gases
EBD_7100
11. An iron rod of length 2m and cross-sectional Directions for (Qs. 13-15) : Each of these questions
area of 50 mm2 stretched by 0.5 mm, when a contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them
mass of 250 kg is hung from its lower end. Young’s carefully and answer the question on the basis of
modulus of iron rod is [2017] following options. You have to select the one that
(a) 19.6 × 1020 N/m2 (b) 19.6 × 1018 N/m2 best describes the two statements.
(c) 19.6 × 1010 N/m2 (d) 19.6 × 1015 N/m2 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Directions for (Qs. 12) : These questions consist of Reason is not the correct explanation of
two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. Assertion.
While answering these questions, you are required to (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
choose any one of the following five responses. (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
13. Assertion: Strain causes the stress in an elastic body.
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Reason: An elastic rubber is more plastic in
Assertion.
nature. [2014]
14. Assertion: Hollow shaft is found to be stronger
than a solid shaft made of same equal material.
Assertion. Reason: Torque required to produce a given
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is twist in hollow cylinder is greater than that
incorrect. required to twist a solid cylinder of same length
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. and material. [2016]
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is 15. Assertion: Solids are least compressible and
correct. gases are most compressible.
12. Assertion : Stress is the internal force per unit Reason: solids have definite shape and volume
area of a body. but gases do not have either definite shape or
Reason : Rubber is more elastic than steel. definite volume. [2017]
[2002]
Mechanical Properties of Solids P-57
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 9. (d) Q Both wires are same materials so both
1. (d) Energy stored in stretched wire per unit will have same Young’s modulus, and let it
stress F
be Y. Y = = ,
volume =
1
´ stress ´ strain strain A.(ΔL/L)
2 F = applied force
1 S 1 S2 A = area of cross-section of wire
= ´S´ =
2 Y 2 Y Now,
FL FL
2. (c) Longitudinal strain is possible only in Y1 = Y2 Þ ( )( =
solids because only solids can have length A1 DL1 ) (A 2 )(DL 2 )
Since load and length are same for both
which can be stretched by applying force.
3. (d) The elasticity of a material depends upon Þ r12 DL1 = r2 2 DL 2 ,
the temperature of the material. Hammering
& annealing reduces elastic property of a æ DL1 ö æ r2 ö
2
substance. çç ÷÷ = çç ÷÷ = 4 DL1 : DL2 = 4 :1
4. (a) Potential energy stored per unit volume of è DL 2 ø è r1 ø
a wire 10. (a) As stress µ strain 2 hence graph (a)
1 correctly dipicts.
= ´ Stress ´ Strain
2 250 ´ 9.8
-6
1
= Ý´X´X [Stress = Y × X] 11. (c) Y = F / A = 50 ´ 10
2 Dl / l 0.5 ´ 10-3
= 0.5YX 2 2
5. (b) The Ratio of stress to strain is always 250 ´ 9.8 2
= ´ Þ 19.6 ´ 1010 N / m 2
constant. If stress is increased, strain will 50 ´ 10 - 6 0.5 ´ 10 -3
also increase so that their ratio remains
constant. Type B : Assertion Reason Questions
6. (a) Young's modulus, 12. (c) Stress is internal force (restoring force)
Y = 3K(1 - 2s) = 3 × 1010(1 – 2 × 0.2) developed within the body of the object.
= 1.8 × 1010 N/m2 Since it is easier to stretch rubber so it is
\ Interatomic force constant is less stressful and therefore less elastic.
K = Yr = 1.8 × 1010 × 3 × 10-10 = 5.4 N/m 13. (a)
7. (d) Shear modulus is applicable to solids where 14. (a) Torque required to produce a given twist
deforming force causes change in shape in hollow cylinder is greater than solid
of body. For fluids it is not possible since cylinder thus both are correct.
they have no fixed shape. 15. (b) The incompressibility of solids is primarily
F Dl 20 ´1 due to the tight coupling between the
8. (a) Y= = -6 neighbouring atoms. Molecules in gases
A l 10 ´ 10-4
are very poorly coupled to their
= 2 ´ 1011 N / m 2 neighbours.
EBD_7100
Mechanical Properties
9 of Fluids
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
(a) 200 m / s (b) 400 m / s
1. A big drop of radius R is formed by 729 small
drops of water of radius r, then the radius of (c) 500 m / s (d) 800 m / s
each small drop will be : [1997]
7. A spherical drop of water has 1 mm radius. If the
R R
(a) (b) surface tension of water is 70 ´ 10 -3 N / m .
9 900
Then the difference of pressures between inside
R R and outside of the spherical drop is : [2001]
(c) (d)
1800 9000
(a) 140 N / m 2 (b) 140 N/m
2. The work done in splitting a drop of water of 1
mm radius into 106 droplets is (surface tension (c) 35 Nm 2 (d) none of these
of water 72 ×10–3 N/m) : [1998]
8. Bernoulli’s principle is based on the law of
(a) 5.98 ´ 10 -5
J (b) 10.98 ´10 -5 J conservation of : [2001, 2013]
(a) mass
(c) 16.95 ´10 -5 J (d) 8.95 ´10 -5 J
(b) energy
3. The excess pressure inside the first soap bubble
(c) angular momentum
is three times that inside the second bubble then,
the ratio of volume of the first to the second (d) linear momentum
bubble will be : [1998] 9. Scent sprayer is based on [2002]
(a) 1 : 27 (b) 3 : 1 (a) Bernoulli’s theorem
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 9 (b) Archimedes principle
4. The rain drops are in spherical shape due to (c) Charle’s law
[1998] (d) Boyle’s law
(a) surface tension (b) viscosity
10. A soap bubble in vacuum has a radius 3 cm and
(c) residual pressure (d) thrust on drop another soap bubble in vacuum has radius 4 cm.
5. If work done in increasing the size of a soap film If two bubbles coalesce under isothermal
from 10 cm × 6 cm to 60 cm × 11 cm is 2 ´ 10 - 4 J. condition. Then the radius of the new bubble
What is the surface tension ? [2000] will be :
(a) 7 cm (b) 5 cm [2002]
(a) 2 ´10 -8 Nm -1 (b) 2 ´10- 2 Nm -1
(c) 4.5 cm (d) 2.3 cm
(c) 2 ´10- 4 Nm -1 (d) none of these 11. Two small drops of mercury, each of radius R
coalesce to form a single large drop. The radio
6. A hole is made at the bottom of the tank filled
of the total surface energies before and after the
with water (density 1000 kg/m3). If the total
change is : [2003]
pressure at the bottom of the tank is 3 1/3 1/3
atmosphere (1 atmosphere = 105 N/m2), then the (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
velocity of efflux is [2000] (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
Mechanical Properties of Fluids P-59
12. A lead shot of 1 mm diameter falls through a 17. A candle of diameter d is floating on a liquid in a
long column of glycerine. The variation of its cylindrical container of diameter D (D >> d) as
velocity v with distance covered is represented shown in figure. If it is burning at the rate of 2
by : [2003] cm/hour then the top of the candle will : [2005]
v v L
(a) (b)
Distance Distance
covered covered L
d
v v
D
(c) (d)
Distance Distance (a) remain at the same height
covered covered (b) fall at the rate of 1 cm/hour
13. In old age arteries carrying blood in the human
(c) fall at the rate of 2 cm/hour
body become narrow resulting in an increase in
(d) go up at the rate of 1 cm/hour
the blood pressure. This follows from : [2004]
18. A given shaped glass tube having uniform
(a) Pascal' law
cross-section is filled with water and is mounted
(b) Stoke's law
(c) Bernoulli's principle on a rotatable shaft as shown in figure. If the
(d) Archimedes principle tube is rotated with a constant angular velocity
14. A sphere of mass M and radius R is falling in a w
viscous fluid. The terminal velocity attained by then [2005]
the falling object will be proportional to :[2004]
(a) R2 (b) R
(c) 1/R (d) 1/R2 A B
15. For a constant hydraulic stress on an object,
the fractional change in the object’s volume
(DV / V) and its bulk modulus (B) are related
as : [2005]
DV DV 1
(a) µB (b) µ
V V B L 2L
DV
(c) µ B2 (d) DV µ B -2
V V (a) water levels in both sections A and B go
16. The apparent depth of water in cylindrical water up
tank of diameter 2R cm is reducing at the rate of (b) water level in section A goes up and that
x cm/minute when water is being drained out at in B comes down
a constant rate. The amount of water drained in (c) water level in section A comes down and
that in B it goes up
c.c. per minute is : ( n1 = refractive index of air,
(d) water levels remain same in both sections
n 2 = refractive index of water) [2005] 19. By sucking through a straw, a student can reduce
the pressure in his lungs to 750 mm of Hg (density
xpR 2 n1 xpR 2 n 2 = 13.6 gm/cm3). Using the straw, he can drink
(a) (b)
n2 n1 water from a glass upto a maximum depth of :
[2006]
2pRn1 (a) 10 cm (b) 75 cm
(c) (d) pR 2 x
n2 (c) 13.6 cm (d) 1.36 cm
EBD_7100
20. Work of 3.0 × 10–4 joule is required to be done 27. A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a
in increasing the size of a soap film from 10 cm × material of density r1. It is falling through a liquid
6 cm to 10 cm × 11 cm. The surface tension of the of density r1 (r2< r1). Assume that the liquid
film is [2007] applies a viscous force on the ball that is
(a) 5 × 10–2 N/m (b) 3 × 10–2 N/m proportional to the square of its speed v, i.e.,
(c) 1.5 × 10–2 N/m (d) 1.2 × 10–2 N/m Fviscous = –kv2 (k > 0). The terminal speed of the
21. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density ball is [2013]
= 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid
(density = 1.5 kg/m3), find the terminal speed of Vg(r1 – r2 ) Vgr1
(a) (b)
a sphere of silver (density = 10.5 kg/m3) of the k k
same size in the same liquid [2008]
(a) 0.4 m/s (b) 0.133 m/s Vgr1 Vg(r1 – r2 )
(c) (d)
(c) 0.1 m/s (d) 0.2 m/s k k
22. Water is filled in a container upto height of 28. A ring is cut from a platinum tube 8.5 cm internal
3m. A small hole of area ‘A 0 ’ is punched in and 8.7 cm external diameter. It is supported
the wall of the container at a height 52.5 cm horizontally from the pan of a balance, so that it
from the bottom. The cross sectional area of comes in contact with the water in a glass vessel.
the container is A. If A0 /A = 0.1 then v2 is If an extra 3.97. If is required to pull it away from
(where v is the velocity of water coming out water, the surface tension of water is [2013]
of the hole) [2008] (a) 72 dyne cm–1 (b) 70.80 dyne cm–1
(a) 50 m 2 /s2 (b) 50 .5 m 2 /s2 (c) 63.35 dyne cm –1 (d) 60 dyne cm–1
(c) 51 m 2 /s2 (d) 52 m 2 /s2 29. A water tank of height 10m, completely filled
23. A boy has 60 kg weight. He wants to swim in a with water is placed on a level ground. It has
river with the help of a wooden log. If relative two holes one at 3 m and the other at 7 m from its
density of wood is 0.6, what is the minimum base. The water ejecting from [2014]
volume of wooden log? [2010] (a) both the holes will fall at the same spot
(density of river water is 1000 kg/m3) (b) upper hole will fall farther than that from
(a) 0.66 m3 (b) 150 m3 the lower hole
(c) upper hole will fall closer than that from
3 3 3 3
(c) m (d) m the lower hole
1 20 (d) more information is required
24. The work done in blowing a soap bubble of 30. Which of the following relation is true ?[2014]
radius 0.2m, given that the surface tension of
soap solution is 60 × 10–3 N/M is : [2011] 9hY
(a) 3Y = K (1 - s) (b) K=
(a) 24p ×10–4J (b) 24p ×10–4J Y +h
(c) 96p × 10–4J (d) 1.92p ×10–4J 05.Y - h
25. Water rises to a height of 10 cm in capillary tube (c) s = (6K + h)Y (d) s =
h
and mercury falls to a depth of 3.1 cm in the 31. A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top,
same capillary tube. If the density of mercury is floats in water as shown in fig. the distance l
13.6 and the angle of contact for mercury is 135°, and h are shown there. After some time the coin
the approximate ratio of surface tensions of water falls into the water. Then [2014]
and mercury is [2012] Coin
(a) 1 : 0.15 (b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 6 (d) 1.5 : 1
26. The lift of an air plane is based on [2012] l
(a) Torricelli's theorem h
(b) Bernoulli's theorem
(c) Law of gravitation
(d) Conservation of linear momentum.
(a) l decreases and h increases

(a) | 2 P0 Rh + pR 2rgh - 2 RT |
(b) l increases and h decreases
(c) both l and h increases (b) | 2 P0 Rh + Rrgh2 - 2 RT |
(d) both l and h decreases
32. 1 m3 water is brought inside the lake upto 200 (c) | P0 pR2 + Rrgh2 - 2 RT |
metres depth from the surface of the lake. What
(d) | P0 pR 2 + Rrgh2 + 2 RT |
will be change in the volume when the bulk
modulus of elastically of water is 22000 36. A vessel contains oil (density = 0.8 gm/cm3) over
atmosphere? [2015] mercury (denisty = 13.6 gm/cm 3 ). A
3 3
(density of water is 1 × 10 kg/m atmosphere homogeneous sphere floats with half of its
pressure = 105 N/m2 and g = 10 m/s2) volume immersed in mercury and the other half
in oil. The density of the material of the sphere
(a) 8.9 × 10–3 m3 (b) 7.8 × 10–3 m3
in gm/cm3 is [2016]
(c) 9.1 × 10–4 m3 (d) 8.7 × 10–4 m3
(a) 3.3 (b) 6.4
33. The excess of pressure inside a soap bubble is
(c) 7.2 (d) 12.8
twice the excess pressure inside a second soap
bubble. The volume of the first bubble is n times 37. A uniform cylinder of length L and mass M
the volume of the second where n is [2015] having cross-sectional area A is suspended,
with its length vertical, from a fixed point by a
(a) 0.125 (b) 0.250
massless spring such that it is half submerged
(c) 1 (d) 2
in a liquid of density s at equilibrium position.
34. A steel wire is suspended vertically from a rigid The extension x0 of the spring when it is in
support. When loaded with a weight in air, it equilibrium is: [2016]
extends by la and when the weight is immersed
completely in water, the extension is reduced to Mg Mg æ LAs ö
lw. Then the relative density of material of the
(a) (b) ç1 – ÷
k k è M ø
weight is [2016]
Mg æ LAs ö Mg æ LAs ö
la (c) ç1 – ÷ (d) ç1 + ÷
(a) la / lw (b) k è 2M ø k è M ø
la -lw
38. If two glass plates have water between them
(c) l w /(l a - l w ) (d) l w / la and are separated by very small distance (see
35. Water is filled up to a height h in a beaker of figure), it is very difficult to pull them apart. It is
radius R as shown in the figure. The density of because the water in between forms cylindrical
water is r, the surface tension of water is T and surface on the side that gives rise to lower
the atmospheric pressure is P0. Consider a pressure in the water in comparison to
vertical section ABCD of the water column atmosphere. If the radius of the cylindrical
through a diameter of the beaker. The force on surface is R and surface tension of water is T
water on one side of this section by water on then the pressure in water between the plates is
the other side of this section has magnitude lower by [2017]
2R [2016] Cylindrical surface

of water
B
A 2T 4T
(a) (b)
h R R
C
T T
(c) (d)
D 4R R
EBD_7100
TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS Directions for (Qs. 45-49) : Each of these questions
responses. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
the Reason is a correct explanation of the (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Assertion. Reason is not the correct explanation of
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Assertion.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
Assertion. (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is 45. Assertion : A large force is required to draw
incorrect. apart normally two glass plates enclosing a thin
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. water film.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is Reason : Water works as glue and sticks two
correct. glass plates. [2010]
39. Assertion : In a pressure cooker the water is 46. Assertion : Falling raindrops acquire a terminal
brought to boil. The cooker is then remove from velocity.
the stove. Now on removing the lid of the
Reason : A constant force in the direction of
pressure cooker, the water starts boiling against.
motion and a velocity dependent force opposite
Reason : The impurities in water bring down its
to the direction of motion, always result in the
boiling point [2004]
acquisition of terminal velocity. [2011]
40. Assertion : Smaller drops of liquid resist
deforming forces better than the larger drops 47. Assertion : The velocity of flow of a liquid is
Reason : Excess pressure inside a drop is directly smaller when pressure is larger and vice-versa.
proportional to its surface area. [2004] Reason : According to Bernoulli’s theorem, for
41. Assertion : For Reynold’s number Re > 2000, the stream line flow of an ideal liquid, the total
the flow of fluid is turbulent. energy per unit mass remains constant.
Reason : Inertial forces are dominant compared [2013, 14]
to the viscous forces at such high Reynold’s 48. Assertion : The buoyant force on a submerged
numbers. [2005] rigid object can be considered to be acting at
42. Assertion : A thin stainless steel needle can lay the centre of mass of the object.
floating on a still water surface. Reason : For a rigid body a force field distributed
Reason : Any object floats when the buoyancy uniformly through its volume can be considered
force balances the weight of the object [2006] to be acting at the centre of mass of the body.
43. Assertion : Machine parts are jammed in winter. [2015]
Reason : The viscosity of lubricant used
49. Assertion: The pressure of water reduces when
in machine parts increase at low temperatures.
it flows from a narrow pipe to a wider pipe.
[2007]
44. Assertion : A bubble comes from the bottom of Reason: Since for wider pipe area is large, so
a lake to the top. flow of speed is small and pressure also reduces
Reason : Its radius increases. [2008] proportionately. [2017]
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions So, ratio of their volumes is,

1. (a) Equating volume in both cases, 4 3
pr
3 1 = v1 Þ v1 = 1
4 4
pR 3 = 729 ´ pr 3 4 3 v2
pr
v 2 27
3 3 3 2
R3 4. (a) The surface of water tends to contract
3
Þ r = which is known as surface tension. In case
729 of water droplets, the surface tension
R attains minimum value when its shape is
Þ r= spherical. So water droplets are spherical
9 in shape.
2. (d) Radius of new droplet if be r then, 5. (d) Work done
4 4 = Increase in surface area × Surface
106 ´ pr 3 = p ´ (0.001)3 tension
3 3
2(60 ´ 11 - 10 ´ 6) ´ T
2 ´ 10 -4 =
r 3 = 10 -15 Þ r = 10 -5 100 ´ 100
Increase in surface area 2 ´ 10 -4 1
T= = ´ 10 - 2 Nm -1
-5 2 -3 2
= éë 4p ´ (10 ) ´ 10 ùû - éë4p ´ (10 ) ùû
6 2 ´ 6 ´ 10 -2 6
6. (b) We know that velocity of efflux, v = 2gh
= ëé4p ´ 10-4 ûù - ëé4p ´ 10 -6 ûù = 4p 10 -6 [100 - 1] At the bottom of tank pressure is 3
-6 -6
atmosphere. So, total pressure due to water
= 4p ´10 ´ 99 = 4p ´ 10 ´ 99 column
Work done = hrg = 2 ´ 105 ( two atmosphere )
= surface tension × increase in surface area
2 ´ 105 2 ´ 105
-6 -3
= 72 ´ 4 p ´ 99 ´ 10 ´ 10 = 8.95 ´ 10 -5
J Þ gh = = = 2 ´ 10 2
r 10 3
3. (a) Excess pressure in first soap bubble,
4T Þ v = 2 ´ 2 ´ 102 = 400 m / sec
p1 =
r1
.
7. (a)
\ excess pressure inside second bubble,
4T
p2 =
r2
Excess pressure, Dp = 2T
On dividing these, we get r
p1 r2
= 2 ´ 70 ´ 10 -3
= = 140 newton / m 2
p 2 r1 1´ 10 -3
8. (b) Bernoulli’s principle is based on the law of

r1 1
but p1 = 3p2 Þ = conservation of energy. We equate total
r2 3 energy (pressure energy, potential energy
and kinetic energy) of a flowing liquid at
3
ær ö 1 different points flowing under constant
Þ ç 1÷ = pressure difference.
è r2 ø 27
EBD_7100
9. (a) Bernoulli’s theorem states that when there 14. (a) For a falling body in viscous fluid the
is greater speed in liquid, pressure is terminal velocity is related to radius as
reduced. When air is pumped inside the follows.
pipe, the velocity of air inside increases
2 2
which creates low pressure there. The liquid VT = R (r - s)g Þ vT µ R 2
in the basic is then travelled in upward 9h
direction. This is theory of Scent Sprayer. Stress Stress
10. (b) If r1, r2, r be radius of soap bubbles before 15. (b) B= =
Volume strain DV / V
and after the coalesce & p1, p2 and p the
pressure then, applying gas laws equation DV Stress
=
p1V1 + p2 V2 = pV V B
4T 4 3 4T 4 3 4T 4 3 DV 1
´ pr1 + ´ pr2 = ´ pr As stress is constant. So, µ
r1 3 r2 3 r 3 V B
16. (b) If apparent depth = dA and real depth = dR
r12 + r22 = r 2
dR n2 n
= Þ dA = 1 dR
32 + 4 2 = r 2 Þ r = 25 = 5 cm. d A n1 n2
11. (b) Let r be radius of common drop n
Dd A = 1 Dd R .............. (i)
4 3 4 n2
pr = 2 ´ pR 3
3 3 Now , V = pR 2 d R
1
r = (2) 3 R DV = pR 2 Dd R
Surface energy before the coalesce DV
Dd R =
= 2 ´ 4pR 2 T pR 2
Putting it in equation (i),
Surface energy after the coalesce = 4pr 2 T
n 1 DV
Dd A = Þ DV = n 2 pR 2 .x.
2 ´ 4pR 2 T 2R 2 n 2 pR 2 n1
Ratio = =
4pr 2 T 22 / 3 R 2 17. (b) The candle floats on the water with half its
1 2 1 length above and below water level. Let its
length be 10 cm. with 5 cm. below the
2 3 .2 3 23
= = surface and 5 cm. above it. If its length is
2 1 reduced to 8 cm. It will have 4 cm. above
23 water surface. So we see tip going down
12. (a) When a body falls through a viscous liquid, by 1 cm. So rate of fall of tip = 1 cm/hour.
its velocity increases due to gravity but 18. (a) Water level in both A and B will go up. The
after some time its velocity becomes pressure difference thus created will
uniform because of viscous force becoming provide the necessary centripetal force for
equal to the gravitational force. Viscous the water body to rotate around the vertical
force itself is a variable force which axis.
increases as velocity increases, so curve 19. (c) Pressure difference created = 10 mm of Hg
(a) represents the correct alternative.
This must be equal to the pressure of water
13. (c) In old age arteries carrying blood when column being created in the straw. If height
there in narrow arteries pressure is of water column be h
increased. Actually due to narrowness and
other obstruction the velocity of the flow 10
h rg = ´ 13.6 ´ g
of blood gets decreased. This results in 10
increased pressure inside the blood vessel, h × 1 = 13.6 Þ h = 13.6 cm.
according to Bernoulli’s principle.
20. (b) Area increased = (10 × 11) – (10 × 6) cm2 24. (d) W = TDA = T × 2[4pR2]
= 110 – 60 = 50 cm2 = 60 × 10–3 × 8p × (0.2)2
Since film has 2 sides = 1.92 p × 10–4J
\ total increased area = 50 × 2 = 100 cm 2 2s cos q hr
work done = surface tension × increase in 25. (c) h= Þsµ
rrg cos q
surface area
Þ Surface tension s w h w r w cos q m
Þ = ´
Work done s m cos q w h m r m
=
increasein surface area 10 ´ 1 cos 135°
= ´
cos 0° - 3.1 ´ 13.6
3 ´ 10-4 3 ´ 10-4
= = 10 ´ ( -0.707 ) 1
100 cm 2 100 ´ 10 -4 m 2 = »
- 3.1 ´ 13.6 6
= 0.03 N/m = 3 × 10–2 N/m
26. (b) Apply Bernoulli's theorem.
21. (c) 2r 2 (d1 - d 2 )g 27. (a) The condition for terminal speed (vt) is
VT = Weight = Buoyant force + Viscous force
9h
Fv B=Vr2 g
VT2 (10.5 - 1.5) 9
= Þ VT2 = 0.2 ´
0.2 (19.5 - 1.5) 18
\ VT2 = 0.1 m / s
22. (a) The square of the velocity of flux
A
W=Vr 1 g
2.475 m =h
3m
\ Vr1g = Vr2g + kv t2
0.525 m
Vg (r1 - r2 )
\ vt =
2gh k
v2 = 2 28. (a) (2pr1 + 2pr2 )s = mg
æA ö
1- ç 0 ÷
è Aø é 8.7 8. 5 ù
ê2 p ´ 2 + 2p ´ 2 ús = 3.97 ´ 980
ë û
2 ´ 10 ´ 2.475
= = 50 m 2 / s 2
1 - (0.1) 2 Þ s = 72 dyne cm-1
23. (d) Archimedes principle states that 29. (a) Velocity of water from hole
weight of body displaced by liquid A = v1 = 2gh
= upthrust. Velocity of water from hole B
60 × g + V × 0.6 × 103 g = V × 1000 g
= v 2 = 2g(H 0 - h)
60 + 600 V = 1000V
60 = 400 V Time of reaching the ground from hole B
60 3 3 = t1 = 2( H 0 - h ) / g
V= = m Time of reaching the ground from hole A
400 20
where, V is the volume of wooden log. = t 2 = 2h / g
EBD_7100
0.5Y - h 36. (c)

30. (d) Y = 2h(1 + s) Þ s =
h
31. (d) As the block moves up with the fall of coil,
l decreases, similarly h will also decrease Oil
because when the coin is in water, it
displaces water equal to its own volume Mercury
only.
P PV
32. (c) K = \ DV = As the sphere floats in the liquid. Therefore
DV / V K
its weight will be equal to the upthrust force
P = hrg = 200 × 103 × 10 N/m2 on it
K = 22000 atm = 22000 × 105 N/m2
4 3
V = 1m3 Weight of sphere = p R rg … (i)
3
200 ´ 103 ´ 10 ´ 1
DV = = 9.1 ´ 10 - 4 m3 Upthrust due to oil and mercury
5
22000 ´ 10
2 3 2
= pR ´ s oil g + pR3 s Hg g … (ii)
4T 4T 3 3
33. (a) Given, = 2´ or r2 = 2r1
r1 r2 Equating (i) and (ii)
4 3 4 4 4 3 2 2
pr1 = n ´ pr23 = n ´ p(2 r1 )3 pR rg = pR 3 0.8 g + pR 3 + 13.6 g
3 3 3 3 3 3
1 Þ 2r = 0.8 + 13.6 = 14.4 Þ r = 7.2
or n = = 0.125
8
37. (c) From figure, kx 0 + FB = Mg
34. (b) Let V be the volume of the load and r its
relative density
FL VrgL KX0
So, Y = = .....(1)
A la Ala FB
When the load is immersed in the liquid,
then Mg
F¢ L (V r g - V ´1´ g) L ....(2)
Y= = L
Alw Alw kx 0 + s Ag = Mg
2
(Q Now net weight = weight – upthrust) [Q mass = density × volume]
From eqs. (1) and (2), we get
L
r (r - 1) la Þ kx 0 = Mg - s Ag
= or r = 2
la lw (l a - l w )
35. (b) Net force = Average pressure × Area sLAg
Mg -
– T × 2R Þ x0 = 2 = Mg æ1 - LAs ö
ç ÷
k k è 2M ø
æ hö
çè P0 + rg ÷ø (2 Rh) - T 2 R Hence, extension of the spring when it is in
2
Mg æ LAs ö
Þ | 2 P0 Rh + Rrgh 2 - 2 RT | equilibrium is, x 0 = ç1 - ÷
k è 2M ø
T T dv
38. (d) Here excess pressure, Pexcess = r + r F = -hA
1 2 dx
T ær = R ö Þ force required to move the body or

Pexcess = Qç1 ÷
R è r2 = O ø machine increases hence, machines are
fammed.
Type B : Assertion Reason Questions 44. (b) The pressure will be greater at the bottom
than at the top. So the air bubble moves
39. (c) The water starts boiling a second time from the bottom to the top i.e., from higher
because when pressure cooker cools down to lower pressure. Further in coming from
pressure inside gets reduced. Reduced bottom to top, the pressure decreases and
pressure brings down the B.P. of water. The hence volume increases (By Boyle's law,
reduced B.P. makes the water boil a second PV = constant), thus radius also increases.
time.
45. (c) In this case, atmospheric pressure does not
40. (b) Smaller drops have larger excess pressure
comes into it because it acts in all direction.
inside. The excess pressure is related to
The force which is effective in case of
radius as follow
water between two pieces of glass is
4T adhesive force. As, adhesive forces are
p=
r considered that between two different
That is why smaller droplets resist bodies; cohesive forces are internal forces
deforming forces. of a body, resulting from attraction between
41. (a) Reynold number the molecules of it. The attractive force
between water and glass (the glass contain
Inertial force per unit area silicium atoms, negatively charged and
=
Viscous force perunit area water is a polar molecule so that the positive
So for higher value of Reynold’s number, side of water is attached and causes part
inertial force is dominant. of the bound) keep them firmly tovether.
42. (b) Assertion and Reason are correct. But Due to the big surface of the glass slide,
Reason does not explain Assertion. the resultant force is also big. So we have
Explanation of Assertion is that it is the to apply a large force in order to separate
surface tension of the water surface which two glass plates enclosed with water film.
is balancing the weight of the steel needle. 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (c)
43. (a) Viscosity of a liquid decreases with 49. (d) Pressure of water reduces when it comes
increase in temperature and vice versa i.e, from wide pipe to narrow pipe. According
to equation of continuity, av = constant.
1
h= As the water flows from wider tube to
T narrow tube, its velocity increases.
\ at low temperatures viscosity increases According to Bernouli prinicple, where
Þ Viscous drag increases velocity is large pressure is less.
EBD_7100
Thermal Properties
10 of Matter
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 7. On a cold morning, a metal surface on touching
is felt colder than a wooden surface, because
1. If the temperature of a black body increases from the metal has : [1998]
7°C to 287°C, then the rate of emission of (a) low thermal conductivity
radiation energy is: [1997] (b) high thermal conductivity
(a) 8 times (b) 16 times (c) high specific heat
(c) 2 times (d) 4 times (d) low specific heat
2. The radiation from the sun, incident normally at 8. The relative humidity on a day, when partial
pressure of water vapour is 0.012 ×105 pa at 12°C
the surface of the earth is 20 kcal / m 2 min. is (take vapour pressure of water at this
What would have the radiant energy, incident temperature as 0.016 ×105 pa) : [1998]
normally on the earth if the sun had a (a) 70 % (b) 40 %
temperature, twice of the present one ? [1997] (c) 75 % (d) 25 %
9. The absolute zero is the temperature at which :
(a) 80 kcal / m 2 min (b) 320 kcal / m 2 min (a) all substances exist in solid state [1998]
(b) molecular motion ceases
(c) 160 kcal / m 2 min (d) 40 kcal / m 2 min (c) water freezes
3. The thermal conductivity of a rod is 2. What is (d) none of these
10. A quantity of heat required to change the unit
its thermal resistivity ? [1997]
mass of a solid substance to its liquid state, while
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 the temperature remains constant, is known as
(c) 0.25 (d) 2 (a) latent heat of vaporation [1998]
4. The instrument used to measure the temperature (b) latent heat of fusion
of the source from its thermal radiation is : [1997] (c) heat of condensation
(a) hydrometer (b) barometer (d) specific heat
(c) thermopile (d) pyrometer 11. Woolen clothes keep the body warm because
the wool : [1998]
5. The surface temperature of a body is 727°C and
(a) decreases the temperature of the body
that of another body is 327°C. The ratio of total
(b) is a good conductor of heat
energies radiated by them is : [1997] (c) increases the temperature of the body
(a) 625 : 81 (b) 125 : 27 (d) is a bad conductor of heat
(c) 8 : 27 (d) 9 : 25 12. Heat travels through vacuum by : [1998]
6. A Centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers are (a) convection (b) radiation
dipped in boiling water. The water temperature (c) conduction (d) all of these
is lowered until the Fahrenheit thermometer 13. A black body has maximum wavelength lm at
registers a temperature of 140°C. 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at 3000 K
is: [1999]
The fall of the temperature as registered by the
16 3
centigrade thermometer is : [1998] (a) lm (b) lm
81 2
(a) 40° (b) 80°
81 2
(c) 50° (d) 90° (c) lm (d) lm
16 3
Thermal Properties of Matter P-69
14. When a solid is converted into a gas, directly

by heating then this process is known as: [1999]
I T2 I
(a) Sublimation (b) Vaporization (c) (d) T1
(c) Condensation (d) Boiling T1 T2
15. The sun emits a light with maximum wave length l l
510 nm while another star emits a light with 23. Suppose the sun expands so that its radius
maximum wavelength of 350 nm. The ratio of becomes 100 times its present radius and its
surface temperature of sun and the star will be : surface temperature becomes half of its present
(a) 0.68 (b) 2.1 [2000] value. The total energy emitted by it then will
(c) 1.45 (c) 0.46 increase by a factor of : [2004]
16. The real coefficient of volume expansion of (a) 104 (b) 625
glycerine is 0.000597 per°C and linear coefficient (c) 16 (d) 16
of expansion of glass is 0.000009 per °C. Then 24. Three objects colored black, gray and white can
the apparent volume coefficient of expansion of withstand hostile conditions upto 2800°C. These
glycerine is [2000] objects are thrown into a furnace where each of
(a) 0.000558 per °C (b) 0.00057 per °C them attains a temperature of 2000°C. Which
(c) 0.00027 per °C (d) 0.00066 per °C object will glow brightest? [2006]
17. The colour of a star indicates its : [2001] (a) the white object
(a) velocity (b) temperature (b) the black object
(c) size (d) length (c) all glow with equal brightness
18. A black body is heated from 27°C to 127°C. The (d) gray object
ratio of their energies of radiation emitted will 25. A bimetallic strip consists of metals X and Y. It is
be: [2001] mounted rigidly at the base as shown. The metal
(a) 9 : 16 (b) 27 : 64 X has a higher coefficient of expansion
(c) 81 : 256 (d) 3 : 4 compared to that for metal Y. When the bimetallic
19. A black body is at a temperature 300 K. It emits strip is placed in a cold bath: [2006]
energy at a rate, which is proportional to[2002]
(a) (300)4 (b) (300)3 X Y
(c) (300) 2 (d) 300
20. The density of a substance at 0°C is 10 g/cc and
at 100°C, its density is 9.7 g/cc. The coefficient
of linear expansion of the substance is [2002]
(a) 10–2 (b) 10–2 (a) It will bend towards the right
(c) 10 –3 (d) 10–4 (b) It will bend towards the left
21. A black body, at a temperature of 227°C, radiates (c) It will not bend but shrink
heat at a rate of 20 cal m –2 s–1 . When its (d) It will neither bend nor shrink
temperature is raised to 727°C, the heat radiated 26. If the temperature of a black body increases from
by it in cal m–2s–1 will be closest to : [2003] 7°C to 287°C then the rate of energy radiation
(a) 40 (b) 160 increases by [2007]
(c) 320 (d) 640 4
22. Shown below are the black body radiation curves æ 287 ö
(a)çè ÷ (b) 16
at temperatures T1 and T2 (T2 > T1). Which of 7 ø
the following plots is correct? [2003] (c) 4 (d) 2
27. The wavelength of maximum energy released
during an atomic explosion was 2.93 × 10–10 m.
I T2 I The maximum temperature attained must be,
(a) (b) T2
T1 T1 (Weins constant = 2.93 × 10–3 mK) [2010]
l l (a) 5.86 × 107 K (b) 10–13 K
(c) 10–7 K (d) 107 K
EBD_7100
28. If the temperature of the sun were to increase 33. A glass flask of volume 1 litre is fully filled with
from T to 2T and its radius from R to 2R, then the mercury at 0ºC. Both the flask and mercury are
ratio of the radiant energy received on earth to now heated to 100ºC. If the coefficient of volume
what it was previously will be [2014] expansion of mercury is 1.82 × 10 –4 /ºC,
(a) 32 (b) 16 volume coefficient of linear expansion of glass
(c) 4 (d) 64 is 10 × 10–6/ºC, the amount of mercury which is
29. A crystal has a coefficient of expansion 13×10– spilted out is [2015]
7 in one direction and 231 × 10–7 in every
(a) 15.2 ml (b) 17.2 ml
direction at right angles to it. Then the cubical
(c) 19.2 ml (d) 21.2 ml
coefficient of expansion is [2014]
34. Steam is passed into 22 g of water at 20°C . The
(a) 462 × 10–7 (b) 244 × 10–7
(c) 475 × 10–7 (d) 257 × 10–7 mass of water that will be present when the water
30. Two identical rods of copper and iron are coated acquires a temperature of 90°C is (Latent heat of
with wax uniformly. When one end of each is steam is 540 cal/gm) [2016]
kept at temperature of boiling water, the length (a) 24.8 gm (b) 24 gm
upto which wax melts are 8.4 cm amd 4.2 cm, (c) 36.6 gm (d) 30 gm
respectively. If thermal conductivity of copper 35. There rods of the same dimensions have thermal
is 0.92, then thermal conductivity of iron is conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged
(a) 0.23 (b) 0.46 [2015] as shown in fig. with their ends at 100°C, 50°C
(c) 0.115 (d) 0.69 and 20°C. The temperature of their junction is
31. The rate of heat flow through the cross-section
of the rod shown in figure is (T2 > T1 and thermal 50°C [2017]
conductivity of the material of the rod is K) [2015] 2K
100°C 3K q
r1 r2
L
K
T1 T2
Kpr1r2 (T2 - T1 ) 20°C
(a)
L (a) 60° (b) 70°
(c) 50° (d) 35°
Kp(r1 + r2 )2 (T2 - T1 )
(b) 36. A beaker is filled with water at 4°C. At one time
4L the temperature is increased by few degrees
Kp(r1 + r1 ) 2 (T2 - T1 ) above 4°C and at another time it is decreased by
(c) a few degrees below 4°C. One shall observe that:
L
[2017]
Kp(r1 + r1 ) 2 (T2 - T1 ) (a) the level remains constant in each case
(d)
2L (b) in first case water flows while in second
32. The diagram below shows the change in the case its level comes down
length X of a thin uniform wire caused by the (c) in second case water over flows while in
application of str ess F at two different first case its comes down
temperatures T1 and T2. The variation shown (d) water overflows in both the cases
suggests that [2015]
(a) T1 > T2
T2 TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
F
T1 Directions for (Qs. 37-50) : These questions consist
(b) T1 < T2
(c) T2 > T1 Reason. While answering these questions, you are
X required to choose any one of the following five
(d) T1 ³ T2
responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and 45. Assertion : A body that is good radiator is also
the Reason is a correct explanation of the a good absorber of radiation at a given
Assertion. wavelength.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason : According to Kirchhoff’s law the
Reason is not a correct explanation of the absorptivity of a body is equal to its emissivity
Assertion. at a given wavelength. [2005]
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is 46. Assertion : In pressure-temperature (P-T) phase
incorrect. diagram of water, the slope of the melting curve
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. is found to be negative.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is Reason : Ice contracts on melting to water.
correct. [2005]
37. Assertion : The equivalent thermal conductivity 47. Assertion : For higher temperature the peak
of two plates of same thickness in contact is emission wavelength of a blackbody shifts to
less than the smaller value of thermal lower wavelengths.
conductivity. Reason : Peak emission wavelengths of a black
Reason : For two plates of equal thickness in body is proportional to the fourth-power of
contact the equivalent thermal conductivity is temperature. [2005]
given by : [1997] 48. Assertion : Perspiration from human body helps
1 1 1 in cooling the body.
= + Reason : A thin layer of water on the skin
K K1 K 2
enhances its emissivity. [2006]
38. Assertion : Melting of solid causes no change
49. Assertion : A hollow metallic closed container
in internal energy.
maintained at a uniform temperature can act as a
Reason : Latent heat is the heat required to melt
source of black body radiation.
a unit mass of solid. [1998] Reason : All metals act as black bodies. [2007]
39. Assertion: Fahrenheit is the smallest unit 50. Assertion : A brass tumbler feels much colder
measuring temperature. than a wooden tray on a chilly day.
Reason: Fahrenheit was the first temperature Reason : The thermal conductivity of brass is
scale used for measuring temperature. [1999] more than the thermal conductivity of wood.
40. Assertion: Bodies radiate heat at all temperature. [2008]
Reason: Rate of radiation of heat is proportional Directions for (Qs. 51) : Each of these questions
to the fourth power of absolute temperature. contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them
[1999] carefully and answer the question on the basis of
41. Assertion : Woolen clothes keep the body warm following options. You have to select the one that
in winter best describes the two statements.
Reason : Air is a bad conductor of heat. [2002] (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
42. Assertion : Bodies radiate heat at all Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
temperatures. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Reason : Rate of radiation of heat is proportional Reason is not the correct explanation of
to the fourth power of absolute temperature. Assertion.
[2002]
43. Assertion : A tube light emits white light.
Reason : Emission of light in a tube takes place (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
at a very high temperature. [2003] 51. Assertion : Two thin blankets put together are
44. Assertion : It is hotter over the top of a fire than warmer than a single blanket of double the
at the same distance of the sides. thickness.
Reason : Air surrounding the fire conducts more Reason : Thickness increases because of air
heat upwards. [2003] layer enclosed between the two blankets. [2010]
EBD_7100
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 6. (a) From the formula,

1. (b) For black body radiation C F - 32
=
E = sT4 5 9
[E is energy radiated per unit time per unit C 140 - 32 108
area, T is temperature of the body] Þ = =
5 9 9
4 4
E 2 æ T2 ö E 2 æ 273 + 287 ö So, fall of temperature in °C is
=ç ÷ Þ =ç ÷
E1 çè T1 ÷ø E1 è 273 + 7 ø 100 – 60 = 40°C
7. (b) Metal appears cool on touching because
4
æ 560 ö 16 heat flows from body (at higher temperature)
=ç ÷ = Þ E2 = 16E1
è 280 ø 1 to iron (at lower temperature). This can
2. (b) We know that, for a source, emitting energy happen only when metal conducts heat.
E at temperature T Wooden surface does not feel cool as it is
E = s T 4 Þ E1 = s(2T)4 non-conductor of heat.
8. (c) Relative Humidity
E sT 4 1
= = Partial pressure of water vapour
E1 16sT 4 16 =
Vapour pressure of water
Now radiation falling on the earth will be
proportional to radiation being emitted so. 0.012 ´ 10 5 ´ 100 12
E 20 = = ´ 100 = 75%
= 5 16
0.016 ´ 10
E1 X
9. (b) Absolute zero is the temperature at which
Here, X is the radiation falling in the earth molecular motion ceases when vibrational
in the latter case. energy exists.
20 1 10. (b) During fusion of solid into liquid some
=
X 16 energy is used up to transform the state of
Þ X = 20 ´ 16 = 320 kcal / m 2 min matter from solid to liquid. Since it does
not increase the kinetic energy of particles,
1
3. (a) Conductivity = there is no increase in the temperature of
Resistivity the material. So, phase transformation takes
Thermal conductivity = 2 place at constant temperature.
1 11. (d) Wool is a bad conductor of heat. It does
Thermal resistivity = = 0.5 not allow heat to pass on from body to
2
4. (c) Thermopile is a combination of surrounding. So, body is kept warm.
thermocouple which generates electrical 12. (b) The process of convection and conduction
energy when one end is kept at higher requires some medium made of material
temperature with respect to the other end. particle for transmission of heat. In vacuum
It is helpful in measuring the temperature there is no material. So, heat travels in
of a hot and radiating body. vacuum by radiation.
5. (a) We know that 13. (d) Applying Wein’s displacement law,
E = sT4
4
l m T = constant
4
E1 æ T1 ö 727 + 273 ö
=ç ÷ = æç ÷ l1m T1 = l 2m T2
E 2 çè T2 ÷
ø è 327 + 273 ø
4 l m ´ 2000 = l ´ 3000
æ 1000 ö 625
=ç ÷ = 2
è 600 ø 81 l = lm
3
14. (a) Sublimation is conversion of a solid directly Coefficient of linear exapansion

into gas by heat.
g 3 ´ 10-4
15. (a) Applying Wein’s displacement law, a= = = 10-4
l m T = constant 3 3
21. (c) We know that
l'm T2 510 T2
= Þ = E1 T14
l''m T1 350 T1 E = sT 4 Þ =
E 2 T2 4
T2 51 T 35
= Þ 1 = = 0.68 E (727 + 273)4 (1000) 4
T1 35 T2 51 Þ = =
16. (b) Coefficient of volume expan sion of 20 (227 + 273)4 (500)4
glycerine 4
E1 æ 2 ö 16
= 0.000597 per°C =ç ÷ =
Coefficient of volume expansion of glass 20 è 1 ø 1
= 3 × 0.000009 = 0.000027per°C Þ E1 = 20 ´ 16 = 320 cal m–2 s–1
Apparent coefficient of volume expansion 22. (a) From Wein’s displacement law,
= 0.000597 - 0.000027 lmT = constant i.e.
= 0.00057per°C at greater temperature lm will be small lm is
the wavelength of the radiaton having
17. (b) The colour of the star in dicates highest intensity. In figure (a) curve
its temperature. Higher the wavelength representing T2 has lm smaller than that
emitted lower will be its temperature. for T1 so, (a) is the right answer.
This is from Wein’s displacement Law,
lmT = constant. 23. (b) E = sT4 , here, E is energy radiated per
A blue coloured star will have high
temperature than red coloured star. unit area. Total energy emitted = sT 4 ´ A
18. (c) We know that Total energy emitted by sun after
expansion
E = sT4 4
Where E is rate of emission of radiation of æTö
= s ´ ç ÷ ´ 100 ´ 100 A
a body at temperature T. è2ø
E1 = s(27 + 273) 2 [When radius becomes 100 times,
area becomes 1002 times]
E 2 = s(127 + 273)2 1 4
= AsT 4 ´ ´ 100 ´ 100 = 625 ´ sT A
E1 (300) 4 81 16
= = So, total energy emitted is 625 times.
E 2 (400) 4 256
24. (b) Black has greatest emissivity and greatest
19. (a) For black body radiation absorbtivity as compared with other
colours. At 2000°C it will have greatest
E = sT 4 or E µ T 4
emissivity so it will glow brightest.
Rate of emission of energy µ (300) 4 25. (b) As coefficient of thermal expansion of X is
20. (a) The coefficient of volume expansion, more. On cooling, it will shrink more. So
the strip will bend towards the left.
Dr 26. (b) By Stefan's law, energy radiated per sec by
g=
r1 ´ Dt a black body is given by E = AsT4
where A = area of black body, s = Stefan's
r1 - r2 10 - 9.7 constant. For a black body at temperature
= = = 3 ´ 10-4
r1 (T2 - T1 ) 10(100 - 0) T1, E1 = AsT14 , at T2, E2 = AsT4
(Since A,s all same)
EBD_7100
I I T J E E N E E T e B o o k s
4
E 2 T2 100°C
\ <
E1 T14 100°C Water
Steam (H1= m × 540)
æ T2 ÷ö4
ç
Þ E2 = çç ÷÷ E1
çè T ÷ø
1
T2 = 287°C = 287 + 273 = 560 K, [H2= m ×1× (100× 90)]
T1 = 7°C = 7 + 273 = 280 K,
æ 560 ö÷4
\ E2 = ççç ÷ E = 24E1 = 16 E1
è 280 ø÷ 1
90°C
Water
\ Rate of energy radiated increases by
16 times. Heat gained by water (20°C) to raise it's
27. (d) lm × T = b (Wein's displacement Law) temperature upto 90°C = 22 × 1× (90 – 20)
Hence , in equilibrium, heat lost = Heat gain
2.93 ´ 10-3
T= = 107 K Þ m × 540 + m × 1 × (100 – 90)
-10
2.93 ´ 10 = 22 × 1 × (90 – 20)
28. (d) E = σAT 4 Þ m = 2.8 gm
A α R 2 \ Eα R 2 T 4 The net mass of the water present in the
mixture = 22 +2.8 =24.8 gm.
E R 2 T4 dQ DT
\ 2 = 2 2 35. (b) = KA
E1 R12 T14 dt L
put R 2 = 2R, R1 = R æ dQ ö 3KA
For the first rod, ç ÷ = (100 – q)
T2 = 2T, T1 = T è dt ø1 L
æ dQ ö A
E 2 (2R) 2 (2T) 4 Similarly, ç ÷ = 2K (q – 50)
Þ = = 64 è dt ø 2 L
E1 R 2T 4 æ dQ ö A
29. (a) g = a1 + a 2 + a 3 ç dt ÷ = K L (q – 20)
è ø3
= 13 ´ 10 - 7 + 231 ´ 10 - 7 + 231 ´ 10 - 7 æ dQ ö æ dQ ö æ dQ ö
= 475 ´ 10 - 7
Now, ç ÷ =ç ÷ +ç ÷
è dt ø1 è dt ø2 è dt ø3
K1 l12 Þ 3 (100 – q) = 2 (q – 50) + (q – 20)
30. (a) Use K = 2 Þ q = 70°
2 l2 36. (d) water expands on both sides of 4 °C.
31. (a) reff = r1r2 Type B : Assertion Reason Questions
dQ KA(T2 - T 1 ) Kpr1r2 (T2 - T1 ) 37. (a) For equivalent thermal conductivity, the
= =
dt L L relation is
32. (a) When same stress is applied at two 1 1 1
different temperatures, the increase in = + ; If K1 = K 2 = K
K R K1 K 2
length is more at higher temperature. Thus
1 1 1 2 K
T1 > T2. = + = Þ KR =
33. (a) DV = V0 ( g m - g g )DT KR K K K 2
Which is less than K.
= 1[1 .82 ´ 10 -4 - 3 ´ (10 ´ 10 -6 )] 100 If K1 > K 2 suppose K1 = K 2 + x
= 1[1 . 82 ´ 10 - 4 - 0 .3 ´ 10 - 4 )] 100 1 1 1 K + K1
= 15.2 ml = + = 2
K K1 K 2 K1K 2
34. (a) Let m g of steam get condensed into water
1 K2 + K2 + x 2
(By heat loss). This happens in following Þ = Þ K = K 2 + K 2x
two steps. K (K 2 + x)K 2 2K 2 + x
K 22 + K 2 x 45. (c) According to Kirchoff’s law

Now, K 2 - K = K 2 - el
2K 2 + x = El .
al
2K 2 2 + K 2 x - K 2 2 - K 2 x
= Here, E l is emissivity of black body which
( 2K 2 + x )
is constant, so, el µ a l . It means good
K 22
= = positive emitter are good absorber of radiation.
2K 2 + x
46. (a) The slope of melting curve in phase
So, K2 > K, so the value of K is smaller than
diagram is negative for water as due to
K2 and K1.
38. (e) Melting of solid causes change in its increase in temperature vapour, pressure
internal energy. of ice decreases. The Reason is that ice
Latent heat is the heat required to melt one contracts on melting.
unit mass of solid. Option (e) is correct. 47. (c) According to Wein’s displacement law,
39. (e) Here, Assertion is incorrect & Reason is lmT = constant
correct. The temperature difference Naturally, when T increases lm decreases.
between boiling point of water and freezing lm is peak emission wavelength
point of water has been divided into 100 and E = sT4
parts in ºC scale, 180 parts in Fahrenheit Here, E is energy being radiated per unit
scale, 80 parts in Reaumer scale and 212 area per unit time.
parts in Rankine scale. So, Rankine scale is 48. (c) Perspiration envolves exchange of heat
the smallest unit. Assertion is incorrect. from body to surrounding. Water takes heat
Fahrenheit was the first temperature scale from the body and gets converted into
used for measuring temperature. So, the vapour. Hence, body cools down.
Reason is correct. A thin layer of water on the skin will reduce
40. (a) Bodies radiate heat at all temperatures. It is
rather than increase its emissivity. So,
true.
Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
We also know that, E µ T4.
So, Reason is also correct and its explains 49. (d) A perfect black body is one which absorbs
Assertion. all heat radiations (whatever be the
41. (a) Woolen clothes keep the body warm. The wavelength) incident on it. No natural
air trapped in clothes are bad conductor of object is a perfect black body. Best
heat. approximations are lamp black and
42. (e) Bodies radiate heat at all temperature. The platinum black. Fery's black body is a
rate of radiation of heat is proportional to double walled metallic sphere coated with
the fourth power of absolute temperature lamp black on the inside and nickel on
is outside. It has a narrow opening opposite
E = sT4 which is Stefan’s Boltzmann’s law a conical projection inside.
43. (c) In tube light, the gas contains vapour of \ Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
metals. In metallic atoms, electronic 50. (a) Brass is a metal and good conductor. On a
transition occurs due to which light of a cold day, when brass tumbler is touched
particular wavelength is emitted. So heat transfers from our body to brass, since
emission of white light is due to electronic our body looses heat so the tumbler feels
transition and not due to vibration of atoms cold. On the other hand, transfer of heat
as in hot substances. So, Assertion is from our body to wood is slow and less,
correct but Reason is incorrect. hence wooden tray appears warm.
44. (c) It is hotter over the top of a fire. It is because 51. (c) Two thin blankets put together are more
of convection current established over the warm because an insulating layer of air (as
fire. As air warms up, its density decreases air is good insulator of heat) is enclosed
as a result of which it goes up and makes
between two blankets due to which it gives
upper layer of air hot.
more warmness.
The Reason is incorrect.
EBD_7100
11 Thermodynamics
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 2P0 B C

1. A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2.
The amount of work done by the gas is greatest,
when the expansion is : [1998] P
A D
(a) isothermal (b) adiabatic T0
(c) isobaric (d) all of these
2. In an adiabatic process the quantity which
remains constant is: [1999] V0 V 2V0
(a) total heat of system (a) 15% (b) 50% [2004]
(b) temperature (c) 20% (d) 25%
(c) volume 8. When you make ice cubes, the entropy of water
(d) pressure (a) does not change [2006]
3. During the adiabatic expansion of two moles of (b) increases
a gas the internal energy of a gas is found to (c) decreases
decrease by 2 joule. The work done on gas during (d) may either increase or decrease depending
on the process if used
the process will be equal to [2000]
9. In an adiabatic change, the pressure and
(a) – 2 J (b) 3 J temperature of a monoatomic gas are related as
(c) 1 J (d) 2 J P µ TC, where C equals [2007]
4. Which one of the following is not a 2 5
thermodynamical co-ordinate ? [2001] (a) (b)
5 2
(a) V (b) R 3 5
(c) T (d) P (c) (d)
5 3
5. The latent heat of vaporization of water is 2240 10. Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases
J. If the work done in the process of vaporization are placed on a table. Box A contains one mole
of 1g is 168 J, then increase in internal energy is of nitrogen at temperature T 0, while box B
(a) 1940 J (b) 2072 J [2002] contains one mole of helium at temperature
(c) 2240 J (d) 2408 J æ7ö
ç ÷T0 . The boxes are then put into thermal
6. The volume of a gas is reduced adiabatically to è3ø
(1/4) of its volume at 27ºC. If g = 1.4. The new contact with each other, and heat flows between
temperature will be : [2002] them until the gases reach a common final
0.4 0.4 temperature (ignore the heat capacity of boxes).
(a) 300 × (4) K (b) 150 × (4) K
Then, the final temperature of the gases, T f in
(c) 250 × (4)0.4 K (d) none of these
terms of T0 is [2008]
7. N moles of a monoatomic gas is carried round 3 7
the reversible rectangular cycle ABCDA as (a) Tf = T0 (b) Tf = T0
7 3
shown in the diagram. The temperature at A is
3 5
T0. The thermodynamic efficiency of the cycle (c) Tf = T0 (d) Tf = T0
2 2
is :
Thermodynamics P-77
11. The temperature-entropy diagram of a reversible Pf

engine cycle is given in the figure. Its efficiency (d) W = -nRT log
Pi
is [2008] 15. Two moles of a monoatomic ideal gas is confined
T in a container and is heated such that its
temperature increases by 10°C. The approximate
2T0
change in its internal energy is [2011]
(R = 8.31 J/mole-K)
T0 (a) + 250 joules (b) + 350 joules
S (c) – 250 joules (d) + 450 joules
S0 2S0
16. If DQ and DW represent the heat supplied to the
1 1 system and the work done on the system
(a) (b)
4 2 respectively, then the first law of
2 1 thermodynamics can be written as [2013]
(c) (d)
3 3 (a) DQ = DU + DW
12. When a system is taken from a state i to f along (b) DQ = DU – DW
the path iaf (as shown in the figure). Q = 50 cal (c) DQ = DW – DU
and W = 20 cal; along path ibf, Q = 36 cal.[2009] (d) DQ = –DW – DU
a 17. A system goes from A to B via two processes I
f
and II as shown in figure. If DU1 and DU2 are the
P changes in internal energies in the processes I
and II respectively, then [2013, 2014]
p II
i b
V A B
(i) What is W along path ibf ? I
(ii) If W = 13 cal for path fi, what is Q for the
v
path fi ?
(iii) Take Eint, i = 10 cal then what is Eint,f ? (a) relation between DU1 and DU2 can not be
determined
(a) 30, 20, 40 cal (b) 6, – 43, 40 cal
(b) DU1 = DU2
(c) 10, – 20, 30, cal (d) 15, 35, 25 cal
(c) DU1 < DU2
13. The change in the entropy of a 1 mole of an ideal (d) DU1 > DU2
gas which went through an isothermal process 18. Figure below shows two paths that may be taken
from an initial state (P1, V1,T) to the final state
by a gas to go from a state A to a state C.
(P2, V2,T) is equal to [2010]
(a) zero (b) R lnT
P B C
V V 6×104 Pa
(c) R ln 1 (d) R ln 2
V2 V1
14. An ideal gas is subjected to an isothermal
expansion such that its volume changes from Vi 2×104 Pa
A
to Vf and pressure from Pi to Pf. The work done
on the gas is : [2011]
–
2 × 10 3 m3 4 × 10–3 m3
Vf
(a) W = + nRT log V
Vi In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the
V system and in process BC, 100 J of heat is added
(b) W = - nRT log f
Vi to the system. The heat absorbed by the system
P in the process AC will be [2016]
(c) W = nRT log f (a) 500 J (b) 460 J
Pi
(c) 300 J (d) 380 J
EBD_7100
19. The internal energy change in a system that 26. Assertion : Reversible systems are difficult to
has absorbed 2 kcals of heat and done 500 J of find in real world. [2005]
work is [2017] Reason : Most processes are dissipative in
(a) 6400 J (b) 5400 J nature.
(c) 7900 J (d) 8900 J 27. Assertion : Air quickly leaking out of a balloon
20. In a heat engine, the temperature of the source becomes cooler.
and sink are 500 K and 375 K. If the engine Reason : The leaking air undergoes adiabatic
consumes 25 × 105 J per cycle, the work done expansion. [2005]
per cycle is [2017] 28. Assertion : In an isolated system the entropy
(a) 6.25 × 105 J (b) 3 × 105 J increases.
(c) 2.19 × 105J (d) 4 × 104 J Reason : The processes in an isolated system
are adiabatic. [2006]
TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS 29. Assertion : The Carnot cycle is useful in
Directions for (Qs. 29-32) : These questions consist understanding the performance of heat engines.
of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason : The Carnot cycle provides a way of
Reason. While answering these questions, you are determining the maximum possible efficiency
required to choose any one of the following five achievable with reservoirs of given temperatures.
responses. [2006]
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and 30. Assertion : When a glass of hot milk is placed in
the Reason is a correct explanation of the a room and allowed to cool, its entropy decreases.
Assertion. Reason : Allowing hot object to cool does not
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but violate the second law of thermodynamics.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the [2006]
Assertion. 31. Assertion : In free expansion of an ideal gas, the
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. entropy increases.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. Reason : Entropy increases in all natural
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is processes. [2007]
correct. 32. Assertion : The isothermal curves intersect each
21. Assertion : In isothermal process whole of the other at a certain point.
heat supplied to the body is converted into Reason : The isothermal changes takes place
internal energy. rapidly, so the isothermal curves have very little
Reason : According to the first law of slope. [2008]
thermodynamics : [1997] Directions for (Qs. 33-34) : Each of these questions
DQ = DU + pDV contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them
22. Assertion : In adiabatic compression, the carefully and answer the question on the basis of
internal energy and temperature of the system following options. You have to select the one that
get decreased. best describes the two statements.
Reason : The adiabatic compression is a slow (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
process. [2001] Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
23. Assertion : The isothermal curves intersect each (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
other at a certain point. Reason is not the correct explanation of
Reason : The isothermal change takes place Assertion.
slowly, so, the isothermal curves have very little (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
slope. [2001] (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
24. Assertion : When a bottle of cold carbonated 33. Assertion : Adiabatic expansion is always
drink is opened, a slight fog forms around the accompanied by fall in temperature.
opening. Reason : In adiabatic process, volume is
Reason : Adiabatic expansion of the gas causes inversely proportional to temperature.
lowering of temperature and condensation of [2011, 2013, 2014]
water vapours. [2003] 34. Assertion : The heat supplied to a system is
25. Assertion : Thermodynamic process in nature always equal to the increase in its internal energy.
are irreversible. Reason : When a system changes from one
Reason : Dissipative effects cannot be thermal equilibrium to another, some heat is
eliminated. [2004] absorbed by it. [2017]
Thermodynamics P-79
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions = 2P0V0 – P0V0 [Net work done in a cyclic
process is area of the loop]
1. (a) We know that = P0V0
Q = DE + work done by gas
P V
Work done by gas = Q – DE So, efficiency = 0 0 ´ 100 = 50%
Work done by gas is maximum when DE is 2P0 V0
minimum. For Isothermal Change, DE = 0. dQ
8. (c) dS =
So, for isothermal expansion work done is T
maximum. In freezing process dQ is negative so
2. (a) In adiabatic process there is no exchange entropy decreases.
of heat with the surroundings, so total heat 5
of the system remains constant. 9. (b) In adiabatic process, Pg– 1µ Tg where g =
3
3. (a) Gas is expanding at the cost of internal for monoatomic gas \ P µ Tg/(g–1)
energy of the gas. Work done by the
gas is 2 joule. So, work done on the gas g 5/3 5/3 5
\ C= = = =
= – 2 joule. g -1 5 / 3 -1 2 / 3 2
4. (b) R is a constant term. To define a thermo 10. (c) Heat lost by He = Heat gained by N2
dynamic state of a gas we use any two of
n1Cv1 DT1 = n 2 Cv2 DT2
three physical quantities P, V & T. Following
ratio is always constant 3 é7 ù 5
R ê T0 - Tf ú = R [Tf - T0 ]
PV 2 ë3 û 2
= R (constant)
T 7T0 - 3Tf = 5Tf - 5T0
So,if we change P & V, T will automatically
change itself to make the ratio constant. 12
Þ 12T0 = 8Tf Þ Tf = T0
5. (b) We know that for first law of 8
thermodynamics, equation is 3
Q = DE + DW Þ Tf = T0
2
Here, Q = 2240; DE = ? DW =168 11. (d) T
DE = Q - DW = 2240 - 168 = 2072 J
6. (a) For adiabatic change, the equation is
2T0
TV g-1 = constant Q1
Q3
T1V1g-1 = T2 V2 g-1 T0
g-1 Q2
æV ö
(27 + 273)V1g-1 = T2 ç 1 ÷ S
è 4 ø S0 2S0
T2 ´ V1g-1 1 3
300 ´ V1 g-1 = Þ T2 = 300 ´ 4 g-1 Q1 = T0S0 + T0S0 = T0S0
4 g-1 2 2
T2 = 300 ´ 41.4 -1 = 300 ´ 4 0.4 K Q2 = T0(2S0 – S0) = T0S0 and Q 3 = 0
7. (b) Heat absorbed = Work done by gas at W Q1 - Q 2
constant pressure h= =
Q1 Q1
= 2P0 (2V0 - V0 ) = 2P0 V0
Q2 TS 1
Net work done by the gas = 1- = 1- 0 0 =
Q1 3
= Workdone by the gas T0S0 3
– Workdone on the gas 2
EBD_7100
12. (b) For path iaf 17. (b) Change in internal energy do not depend
Q = 50 cal. upon the path followed by the process. It
W = 20 cal. only depends on initial and final states i.e.,
According ot I law of thermodynamics,
dQ = dU + dW DU1 = DU2
or dU = dQ – dW = 50 – 20 = 30 cal. 18. (b) In cyclic process ABCA
(i) For path iaf Qcycle = Wcycle
Q = 36 cal. QAB + QBC + QCA = ar. of DABC
W=?
1
dU = 30 cal (since internal energy depends + 400 + 100 + QC®A = (2 × 10–3) (4 × 104)
only on the initial and final positions of the 2
system). Þ QC ® A = – 460 J
\ W = Q – dU = 36 – 30 = 6 cal. Þ QA ® C = + 460 J
(ii) W = –13 cal. 19. (c) According to first law of thermodynamics
dU = –30 cal.
Q = DU + W
Q= ?
\ Q = dU + W = – 43 cal. DU = Q – W
(iii) Eint, f = Eint, i + DU = 10 cal + 30 cal. = 40 = 2 × 4.2 × 1000 – 500
cal. = 8400 –500
13. (d) Workdone by n moles of a gas when its = 7900 J
volume changes from V1 to V2 is, 20. (a) Here, T1 = 500 K, T2 = 375 K
V Q1 = 25 × 105 J
W = nRT loge 2
V1 T2 375
For, n = 1 \ h = 1- =1- = 0.25
T1 500
V
W = RT 1n 2 W = hQ = 0.25 × 25 × 105 = 6.25 × 105 J
V1
For an isothermal process, DU = 0 Type B : Assertion Reason Questions
\ DQ = DU + W = 0 + RT1n V2 21. (a) DQ = DU + PDV [PV = nRT
V1 DQ = DU + nRDT PDV = nRDT
\ Entropy = D Q V 2 For isothermal change DT = 0
= R1n .
T V1 \ DQ = DU
14. (d) The work done in expansion of gas
V P In other words whole of heat supplied is
W = nRT ln f = nRT ln i converted into internal energy.
Vi Pf
22. (d) Adiabatic compression is a fast process.
The work done on the gas
There is rise in temperature and also
æP ö
= - nRT ln ç f ÷ increase in internal energy.
è Pi ø So, both are false.
3
15. (a) DE = n R D T 23. (e) Isothermal curves have slope which is equal
2
3 P
to . It can be calculated as follows
= 2 × ´ 8.31 ´ 10 = 250 J V
2
16. (b) From FLOT DQ = DU + DW PV = RT
Q Heat supplied to the system so Differentiating,
DQ ® Positive PdV + VdP = 0
and work is done on the system so dP P
DW® Negative - =
dV V
Hence +DQ = DU - DW
Thermodynamics P-81
Now, if they cut each other at certain point, 29. (a) Carnot cycle represents process of an ideal
they will have different slope at the same heat engine which has maximum efficiency
point (for same value of P & V). So, they of conver sion of heat en ergy into
can not cut each other at some point. mechanical energy. So, A is right. The
P efficiency of a Carnot cycle depends only
Reason is true, slope is .
V on the temperature of heat reservoirs is
P source and sink. So, reason is right and
For adiabatic curve slope is g times .
V reason explains assertion.
24. (a) In cold carbonated drink, gas is dissolved 30. (b) A body cools, its entropy decreases as
under pressure, when pressure is released
expansion of gas occurs due to which gas dQ
dS = and dQ is –ve, dS is also –ve.
cools down and temperature falls. T
Condensation of water vapour occurs. R is also true. Second law states that
25. (a) Most of the phenomenon in nature is entropy of the universe increases. Universe
irreversible. A process becomes irreversible includes both system and surroundings. R
in case some energy is converted into heat does not explain A.
energy. This is known as dissipative effect. 31. (c) In free expansion of an ideal gas, work done
When there is dissipative effect, process comes from internal energy of the gas and
becomes irreversible. since randomness increases or Gibbs free
26. (a) In any process some energy is found to be energy increases so we can say entropy
converted into heat (dissipative in nature) increases.
due to which process becomes irreversible.
32. (d) As isothermal processes are very slow and
27. (a) Air cools down due to adiabatic expansion
as air has to do work against external so the different isothermal curves have
pressure at the cost of its internal energy. different slopes, they cannot intersect each
28. (b) In an unisolated system, heat may enter into other.
or escape from the system due to which 33. (c)
entropy may increase or decrease but for 34. (d) According to first law of thermodynamics,
isolated system we do not consider exchange DQ = DU + DW = DU +PDV. If heat is
of heat, so, in this case entropy will always supplied in such a manner that volume does
increase as the process is spontaneous. not change DV = 0,i.e., isochoric process,
An adiabatic process involves no exchange then whole of the heat energy supplied to
of heat. We also define isolated system as the system will increase internal energy
having no exchange of heat with the only. But, in any other process it is not
surrounding so it process in an isolated possible.
system are adibatic.
Also heat may be adsorbed or evolved
The two statements are independently
when state of thermal equilibrium changes.
correct but not co-related.
EBD_7100
12 Kinetic Theory
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 6. N1 molecules of a gas at temperature T1 are

mixed with N2 molecules at temperature T2. The
1. The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule at
resulting temperature of the mixture gas is
27°C is 6.21 × 10–21 J, then its average kinetic
(a) ( 1
energy at 227°C is : [1999] T - T2 )
[2010]
(a) 10.35 × 10–21 J (b) 11.35 × 10–21 J 2
(c) 52.2 × 10–21 J (d) 5.22 × 10–21 J
(b)
( N1T1 - N 2T2 )
2. An ideal gas at 27°C is compressed adiabatically
( N1 + N 2 )
8
to its original volume [TVg–1 = constant] (c)
( N1T1 + N 2T2 )
27
5
( N1 + N 2 )
and g = , then the rise in temperature will be: ì ( N + N 2 ) ïü ì T1 + T2 ü
3 (d) ïí 1 ýí ý
(a) 480°C (b) 450°C [1999] 2
îï þï î 2 þ
(c) 375°C (d) 225°C 7. At what temperature the molecules of nitrogen
3. vrma, vav and vmp are root mean square, average will have the same rms velocity as the molecules
and most probable speeds of molecules of a gas of oxygen at 127° C [2011]
obeying Maxwellian velocity distribution. Which
(a) 457° C (b) 273° C
of the following statements is correct ? [2005]
(c) 350° C (d) 77° C
(a) vrms < vav < vmp (b) vrms > vav > vmp
(c) vmp < vrms < vav (d) vmp > vrms < vav 8. If liquefied oxygen at 1 atmospheric pressure is
heated from 50 K to 300 K by supplying heat at
4. Let v , vrms and vp respectively denote the mean constant rate. The graph of temperature vs time
speed, root mean square speed and most will be [2012]
probable speed of the molecules in an ideal
monoatomic gas at absolute temperature T. The
mass of the molecule is m. Then [2010] T
(a) no molecule can have a speed greater than
(a) (b) T
( 2vrms )
(b) no molecule can have a speed less than t t
vp
( 2)
(c) v < vp < vrms (c) T (d) T
(d) the average kinetic energy of the molecules
3 2 t t
is (mv p ) 9. The figure shows the volume V versus
4
5. Two identical containers A and B with frictionless temperature T graphs for a certain mass of a
pistons contain the ideal gas at the same perfect gas at two constant pressures of P1 and
temperature and the same volume V. The mass P2 . What inference can you draw from the
of the gas in A is mA and in B is mB. The gas in graphs? V P2 [2014]
each cylinder is now allowed to expand
isothermally to the same final volume 2V. The (a) P1 > P2 P1
changes in pressure in A and B are found to be (b) P1 < P2 q2
Dp and 1.5DP respectively. Then [2010] (c) P1 = P2 q1 T
(a) 4mA = 9mB (b) 2mA = 3mB (d) No in ference can be drawn due to
(c) 3mA = 2mB (d) 9mA = 4mB insufficient information.
Kinetic Theory P-83
10. A gas mixture consists of molecules of type 1, 2 14. Assertion : The root mean square and most
and 3, with molar masses m1 > m2 > m3. vrms and probable speeds of the molecules in a gas are
K are the r.m.s. speed and average kinetic energy the same.
of the gases. Which of the following is true?[2015] Reason : The Maxwell distribution for the speed
(a) (v rms ) 1 < (v rms ) 2 < (v rms ) 3 and of molecules in a gas in symmetrical. [2006]
( K )1 = ( K ) 2 = ( K )3 Directions for (Qs. 15-20) : Each of these questions
(b) (v rms ) 1 = (v rms ) 2 = (v rms ) 3 and contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them
( K )1 = ( K ) 2 > ( K )3 following options. You have to select the one that
(c) (v rms ) 1 > (v rms ) 2 > (v rms ) 3 and best describes the two statements.
( K )1 < ( K ) 2 > ( K ) 3 (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(d) (v rms ) 1 > (v rms ) 2 > (v rms ) 3 and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
( K )1 < ( K ) 2 < ( K )3 (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
11. A thermally insulated vessel contains an ideal Reason is not the correct explanation of
gas of molecular mass M and ratio of specific Assertion.
heats g. It is moving with speed v and its suddenly (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
brought to rest. Assuming no heat is lost to the (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
surroundings, its temperature` increases by Cp
( g –1) gMv 2 15. Assertion : The ratio of for an ideal diatomic
(a) Mv 2 K (b) K [2016] Cv
2gR 2R gas is less than that for an ideal monoatomic gas
( g –1) ( g –1) 2 (where Cp and Cv have usual meaning).
(c) Mv 2 K (d) 2( 1) Mv K Reason : The atoms of a monoatomic gas have
2R g+ R
less degrees of freedom as compared to
12. If the root mean square velocity of the molecules molecules of the diatomic gas. [2009]
of hydrogen at NTP is 1.84 km/s. Calculate the 16. Assertion : The total translational kinetic energy
root mean square velocity of oxygen molecule of all the molecules of a given mass of an ideal
at NTP, molecular weight of hydrogen and gas is 1.5 times the product of its pressure and
oxygen are 2 and 32 respectively [2017] its volume.
(a) 1.47 km/sec (b) 0.94 km/s Reason : The molecules of a gas collide with
(c) 1.84 km/s (d) 0.47 km/sec each other and the velocities of the molecules
change due to the collision. [2013]
17. Assertion : Mean free path of a gas molecules
Directions for (Qs. 13-14) : These questions consist varies inversely as density of the gas.
of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason : Mean free path varies inversely as
Reason. While answering these questions, you are pressure of the gas. [ 2014]
required to choose any one of the following five 18. Assertion : At a given temperature the specific
responses. heat of a gas at constant volume is always greater
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and than its specific heat at constant pressure.
the Reason is a correct explanation of the Reason : When a gas is heated at constant
Assertion. volume some extra heat is needed compared to
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but that at constant pressure for doing work in
Reason is not a correct explanation of the expansion. [2015]
Assertion. 19. Assertion : One mole of any substance at any
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. temperature or volume always contains 6.02 × 1023
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. molecules.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is Reason : One mole of a substance always refers
correct. to S.T.P. conditions. [2016]
13. Assertion : For a gas atom the number of 20. Assertion : Air pressure in a car tyre increases
degrees of freedom is 3. during driving.
Cp Reason : Absolute zero temperature is not zero
Reason : =g [2000] energy temperature. [2017]
Cv
EBD_7100
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions and average kinetic energy of a gas

molecule
1. (a) Average kinetic energy of gas molecules
µ Temperature (Absolute) 1 2
Ek = mvrms
2
K.E.(at 227°C) 273 + 227 500 5
= = = 2
K.E.(at 27°C) 273 + 27 300 3 1 æ 3 ö 1 3 3
Ek = m ç v y ÷ = m ´ v 2p = mv 2p
5 ç
2 è 2 ø ÷ 2 2 4
K.E. (227º) =´ 6.21 ´10 - 21 J
3 5. (c) The initial pressure in the two containers
= 10.35 × 10–21 J will be
2. (c) Applying the formula nA RT æ RT ö
PA = = mA ç ÷
T1V1g-1 = T2 V2 g-1
V è MV ø
g -1
T1 æ V2 ö n RT æ RT ö
=ç ÷ PB = B = mB ç ÷
T2 çè V1 ÷ø V è MV ø
5/ 3 - 1
After isothermal expansion, pressure will
æ 27 + 273 ö æ 8 ö g-1 æ 8 ö be
Þ = =ç ÷
çè T2 ÷ø çè 27 ÷ø è 27 ø nA RT æ RT ö
PA' = = mA ç
2 2V è 2 MV ÷ø
´3
300 æ 2ö3 4
or, =ç ÷ = nB RT æ RT ö
T2 è 3 ø 9 PB' = = mB ç ÷
2V è 2MV ø
9 ´ 300
T2 = = 675°K æ RT ö
\ -D PA = PA – PA' = m A ç
4 è 2MV ÷ø
t °C = 675 - 273 = 402°C
Rise in temperature = 402 – 27 = 375°C ' æ RT ö
\ -DPB = PB - PB = mB ç ÷
3kT 2kT è 2 MV ø
3. (b) v rms = ; v mp = But DPA = DP and - DPB = 1.5DP
m m
8kT -DPA 1 -DPB
vav = So, = Þ -DPA =
pm -DPB 1.5 1.5
So, v rms > vav > vmp æ RT ö mB æ RT ö
mA ç ÷= ç ÷
3RT è 2MV ø 1.5 è 2MV ø
4. (d) vrms = 10mB
m or mA =
15
8 RT 2.5RT \ 3mA = 2mB
v= =
pm m
æ3 ö æ3 ö
2 RT 6. (c) çè kT1÷ø ´ N1 + çè kT2 ÷ø ´ N 2
2 2
and v p =
m 3
From these expressions, we can see that = ( N1 + N 2 ) ´ kT
2
v p < v < vrms T1N1+T2N2 = (N1+N2)T
3 N1T1 + N 2T2
Again, vrms = v p \ T=
2 N1 + N 2
Kinetic Theory P-85
7. (d) Rms velocity of gas is 11. (c) As no heat is lost,

1 Loss of kinetic energy = gain of internal
æ RT ö 2 energy of gas
vrms = 1.73 ç ;
è M ÷ø
1 2
M = molecular mass mv = nCV DT
For oxygen, M = 16 × 2, 2
T = 127°C = 127 + 273 = 400 K 1 2 m R
For nitrogen, M = 17 × 2, T = ? Þ mv = × DT
1 1 2 M g –1
Þ 1.73 æç
RT ö 2 æ RT ö 2
÷ = 1.73 ç mv 2 (g –1)
è M øO è M ÷ø N Þ DT = K
2 2
2R
1 1
Þ æç T ÷ = æç T ÷
ö2 ö2 12. (d) (crms )H 2 =1.84 km/s, (crms )O2 = ?
è MøO è MøN
2 2 M H2 = 2, M O2 = 32
M N2 28 Þ Rms velocity,,
Þ TN2 = TO2 = ´ 400
M O2 32 3RT
crms =
M
7
= ´ 400 cH 2 M O2
8 \ =
7 cO 2 M H2
Þ TN2 = ´ 400 = 350K
8 1.84 32
TN2 = 350K – 273K = 77°C Þ = =4
CO2 2
8. (c) Q = mcDT 1.84
Q = mc ( T – T0) ......(i) Þ CO2 = = 0.46 km/s
4
Q = Kt whereas K is heating rate
\ from 50 to boiling temperature, T Type B : Assertion Reason Questions
increases linearly. 13. (b) For a gas atom no. of degree of freedom is
At vaporization, equation is Q = mL 3 because it can have translatory motion in
so, temperature remains constant till three directions, along X-axis, Y-axis, and
vaporisation is complete Z-axis.
After that, again Eqn (i) is followed and Cp
temperature increases linearly = g is also correct but it is not the
Cv
9. (b) Q q1 < q2 Þ tan q1 < tan q2
Reason for Assertion given.
æV ö æV ö 14. (d) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Þç ÷ <ç ÷ 15. (a) If f be the degree of freedom, then the ratio
è T ø1 è T ø 2
Cp 2
V 1 ( = g ) is given by g = 1 + .
from PV = mRT ; µ Cv f
T P For monoatomic gas, f = 3;
æ 1ö æ 1ö
Hence çè P ÷ø < çè P ÷ø Þ P1 > P2 . \ g = 1+
2 5
= = 1.67
1 2 3 3
1 For diatomic gas , f = 5
10. (a) vrms µ Þ (vrms)1 < (vrms)2 < (vrms)3
M 2 7
also in mixture temperature of each gas will \ g = 1+ = = 1.4.
be same, hence kinetic energy also remains 5 5
same. \ gdiatomic < gmonoatomic
EBD_7100
16. (b) Total translational kinetic energy Hence, mean free path varies inversely as
3 3 density of the gas. It can easily proved that
= nRT = PV the mean free path varies directly as the
2 2
temperature and inversely as the pressure
In an ideal gas all molecules moving
of the gas.
randomly in all direction collide and their
18. (a)
velocity changes after collision.
19. (c) The number 6.02 × 1023 is Avogadro’s
17. (a) The mean free path of a gas molecule is the
number and one mole of a substance
averge distance between two successive contains Avogadro’s number of molecules.
collisions. It is represented by l. 20. (b) When a person is driving a car then the
1 kT m temperature of air inside the tyre is
l= and l =
2
2 ps P 2 × ps2 d increased because of motion. From the Gay
Lussac’s law,
Here, s = 0 diameter of molecule and PµT
k = Boltzmann’s constant. Hence, when temperature increases the
Þ l µ 1 / d, l µ T and l µ 1 / P. pressure also increase.
Oscillations P-87
13 Oscillations
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 6. Which one of the following statement is not
correct for a particle executing S.H.M.? [1999]
1. Two identical springs of spring constant k are (a) Acceleration of the particle is minimum at
connected in series and parallel as shown in the mean position
figure. A mass M is suspended from them. (b) Restoring force is always directed towards
a fixed point
(c) Total energy of the particle always remains
the same
(d) Restoring force is maximum at the extreme
position
7. A particle execute simple harmonic motion with
an angular velocity of 3.5 rad/sec and maximum
acceleration 7.5 m/s2 .The amplitude of oscillation
will be: [1999]
(a) 0.53 cm (b) 0.28 m
(c) 0.61 m (d) 0.36 m
M M 8. In arrangement given in figure if the block of
The ratio of their frequencies of vertical mass m is displaced, the frequency is given by:
oscillation will be : [1997] [1999]
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 A B
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
2. If the metal bob of a simple pendulum is replaced k1 k2
by a wodden bob, then its time period will be :
(a) decreased (b) the same [1998] 1 æ k1 + k 2 ö
(c) increased (d) first (c) then (a) (a) n= ç ÷
2p è m ø
3. If the time period of oscillation of mass m
suspended from a spring is 2 sec, the time period
1 æ m ö
of mass 4 m will be : [1998] (b) n= ç ÷
2p çk +k ÷
(a) 2 sec (b) 3 sec è 1 2ø
(c) 4 sec (d) T sec
4. If a simple pendulum oscillates with an amplitude 1 æ m ö
(c) n= ç ÷
of 50 mm and time period of 2 sec then its 2p çk -k ÷
è 1 2ø
maximum velocity is [1998]
(a) 0.6 m/s (b) 0.16 m/s 1 æ k1 - k 2 ö
(c) 0.8 m/s (d) 0.32 m/s (d) n= ç ÷
2p è m ø
5. A horizontal platform with an object placed on it
is executing simple harmonic motion in the 9. A spring is vibrating with frequency under same
mass. If it is cut into two equal pieces and same
vertical direction. The amplitude of oscillation is
mass is suspended then the new frequency will
3.92 × 10–3 m. What should be the least period of
be: [1999]
these oscillations, so that the object is not n
detached from the platform ? [1999] (a) n 2 (b)
(a) 0.145 sec (b) 0.1556 sec 2
n
(c) 0.1256 sec (d) 0.1356 sec (c) (d) n
2
EBD_7100
10. Simple pendulum is executing simple harmonic 14. Which of the following functions represents a
motion with time period T. If the length of the simple harmonic oscillation ? [2005]
pendulum is increased by 21 %, then the increase
(a) sin wt - cos wt (b) sin 2 wt
in the time period of the pendulum of the
increased length is : [2001] (c) sin wt + sin 2wt (d) sin wt - sin 2wt
(a) 22 % (b) 13 % 15. A large horizontal surface moves up and down
(c) 50 % (d) 10 % in S.H.M. with an amplitude of 1 cm. If a mass of
11. The frequency of oscillator of the springs as 10 kg (which is placed on the surface0 is to remain
shown in figure will be : [2001] continuously in contact with it, the maximum
frequency of S.H.M. will be [2007]
1 ( k1 + k 2 ) m (a) 5 Hz (b) 0.5 Hz
(a) (c) 1.5 Hz (d) 10 Hz
2p k 1k 2
k 16. A coin is placed on a horizontal platform which
1 k 1k 2 1 undergoes vertical simple harmonic motion of
(b) angular frequency w. The amplitude of oscillation
2p ( k1 + k 2 ) m
is gradually increased. The coin will leave
1 k k contact with the platform for the first time [2008]
(c) 2 (a) at the mean position of the platform
2p m
g
(b) for an amplitude of 2
k w
(d) 2p
m g2
(c) for an amplitude of
12. Two springs of force constant k and 2k are w2
connected to a mass as shown below : The (d) at the highest position of the platform
frequency of oscillation of the mass is : [2003]
17. The function sin 2 (wt ) represents [2008]
k 2k (a) a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion
m p
with a period
w
(b) a periodic, but not simple harmonic motion
(a) (1 / 2 p) ( k / m) (b) (1 / 2p) ( 2 k / m) 2p
with a period
w
(c) (1 / 2p) (3k / m ) (d) (1 / 2 p) ( m / k ) p
(c) a simple harmonic motion with a period
13. Two springs are connected to a block of mass w
M placed on a frictionless surface as shown 2p
below. If both the springs have a spring constant (d) a simple harmonic motion with a period
w
k, the frequency of oscillation of block is : [2004]
18. A particle of mass is executing oscillations about
the origin on the x-axis. Its potential energy is
V(x) = k | x |3, where k is a positive constant. If the
amplitude of oscillation is a, then its time period
k k T is [2008]
M
1
(a) proportional to
a
(b) proportional to a
1 k 1 k
(a) (b) 3
2p M 2p 2M
(c) independent a 2
1 2k 1 M (d) none of these
(c) (d)
2p M 2p k
Oscillations P-89
19. The average speed of the bob of a simple 25. The circular motion of a particle with constant
pendulum oscillating with a small amplitude A speed is [2012]
and time period T is [2009] (a) periodic but not simple harmonic
(b) simple harmonic but not periodic
4A 2 pA (c) periodic and simple harmonic
(a) (b)
T T (d) neither periodic nor simple harmonic
26. A child swinging on a swing in sitting position,
4 pA 2A
(c) (d) stands up, then the time period of the swing will
T T (a) increase [2012]
20. A pendulum is swinging in an elevator. Its period (b) decrease
will be greatest when the elevator is [2010] (c) remains same
(a) moving upwards at constant speed (d) increases of the child is long and decreases
(b) moving downwards if the child is short
(c) moving downwards at constant speed 27. A point particle of mass 0.1 kg is executing
(d) accelerating downwards S.H.M. of amplitude of 0.1 m. When the particle
21. If A is the area of cross-section of a spring L is passes through the mean position, its kinetic
its length E is the Young's modulus of the material energy is 8 × 10–3 Joule. Obtain the equation of
of the spring then time period and force constant motion of this particle if this initial phase of
of the spring will be respectively: [2010] oscillation is 45º. [2013]
æ pö
EA L (a) y = 0.1sin çè ±4t + ÷ø
(a) T = 2p ,k = 4
ML EA æ pö
(b) y = 0.2sin çè ±4t + ÷ø
1 EA A 4
(b) T= ,k = æ pö
2p ML EL (c) y = 0.1sin çè ±2t + ÷ø
4
(c) 1 EL EA æ pö
T= ,k = (d) y = 0.2 sin çè ±2t + ÷ø
2p MA L 4
28. The bob of a simple pendulum is a spherical
(d) ML EA hollow ball filled with water. A plugged hole near
T = 2p ,k = the bottom of the oscillating bob gets suddenly
EA L
unplugged. During observation, till water is
22. The time period of a seconds pendulum is 2 sec. coming out, the time period of oscillation would
The spherical bob which is empty from inside [2013]
has a mass 50 gram, this now is replaced by (a) first decrease and then increase to the
another solid of same radius but have different original value
mass of 100 gram. The new time period will be (b) first increase and then decrease to the
(a) 2 sec (b) 8 sec [2010] original value
(c) 4 sec (d) 1 sec (c) increase towards a saturation value
23. A particle executes SHM of amplitude 25 cm and (d) remain unchanged
time period 3 s. What is the minimum time é pt ù
required for the particle to move between two 29. y = 2 (cm) sin ê + fú what is the maximum
points 12.5 cm on either side of the mean ë2 û
position? [2010] acceleration of the particle doing the S.H.M.
[2014]
(a) 0.5 s (b) 1.0 s 2
(c) 1.5 s (d) 2.0 s p p
(a) cm/s2 (b) cm/s2
24. The displacement of a particle undergoing SHM 2 2
of time period T is given by x(t) = xmcos (wt + f). p2 p
The particle is at x = – xm at time t = 0. The (c) cm/s2 (d) cm/s2
4 4
particle is at x = + xm when : [2011] 30. Resonance is an example of [2014]
(a) t = 0.25 T (b) t = 0.50 T (a) tuning fork (b) forced vibration
(c) t = 0.75 T (d) t = 1.00 T (c) free vibration (d) damped vibration
EBD_7100
31. Two particles are executing S.H.M. of same 36. Assertion : In simple harmonic motion, the
amplitude and frequency along the same motion is to and fro and periodic
straight line path. They pass each other when Reason : Velocity of the particle
going in opposite directions, each time their
displacement is half of their amplitude. What is ( v) = w k 2 - x 2 (where x is the displacement).
the phase difference between them ? [2015] [2002]
(a) 5 p/6 (b) 2 p/3 37. Assertion : The time-period of pendulum, on a
(c) p/3 (d) p/6 satellite orbiting the earth is infinity.
32. The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended Reason : Time-period of a pendulum is inversely
from a spring of negligible mass is T. If along proportional to g . [2002]
with it another mass M is also suspended, the 38. Assertion : The amplitude of an oscillating
period of oscillation will now be [2016] pendulum decreases gradually with time
(a) T (b) T / 2 Reason : The frequency of the pendulum
(c) 2T (d) 2T decreases with time. [2003]
33. Two, spring P and Q of force constants kp and Directions for (Qs. 39-42) : Each of these questions
æ kp ö contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them
kQ ç kQ = ÷ are stretched by applying forces carefully and answer the question on the basis of
è 2ø
of equal magnitude. If the energy stored in Q is
E, then the energy stored in P is [2016]
(a) E (b) 2 E
(c) E/2 (d) E/4 Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
34. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
in a straight line. In first t s, after starting from Reason is not the correct explanation of
rest, it travels a distance a, and in next t s, it Assertion.
travels 2a in same direction then [2016] (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(a) amplitude of motion is 3a (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(b) time period of oscillations is 8t. 39. Assertion : In SHM, acceleration is always
(c) amplitude of motion is 4a. directed towards the mean position.
(d) time period of oscillations is 6t. Reason : In SHM, the body has to stop
35. The amplitude of a damped oscillator decreases momentary at the extreme position and move
to 0.9 times its original magnitude in 5s. In back to mean position. [2009]
another 10s it will decrease to a times its original 40. Assertion : For a particle performing SHM, its
magnitude, where a equals [2017] speed decreases as it goes away from the mean
(a) 0.7 (b) 0.81 position.
(c) 0.729 (d) 0.6 Reason : In SHM, the acceleration is always
opposite to the velocity of the particle. [2009]
TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS 41. Assertion : Resonance is a special case of
Directions for (Qs. 36-38) : These questions consist forced vibration in which the natural frequency
of two statements, each printed as Assertion and of vibration of the body is the same as the
Reason. While answering these questions, you are impressed frequency of external periodic force
required to choose any one of the following five and the amplitude of forced vibration is
responses. maximum.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason : The amplitude of forced vibrations of
the Reason is a correct explanation of the a body increases with an increase in the
Assertion. frequency of the externally impressed periodic
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but force. [2010]
Reason is not a correct explanation of the 42. Assertion : In simple harmonic motion, the
Assertion. velocity is maximum when the acceleration is
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is minimum.
incorrect. Reason : Displacement and velocity of S.H.M.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. p
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is differ in phase by . [2014]
correct. 2
Oscillations P-91
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions SHM = w2a

2
1. (a) We know that
w 2 a = g Þ æç 2p ö÷ ´ 3.92 ´ 10 -3 = 10
m 1 K è T ø
T = 2p Þ n=
K 2p m
3.92 ´ 10 -3
For a spring mass system. T = 2p = 2 p 3.92 ´ 10 -4
10
In case I if K is the resultant spring constant,
then = 0.1256 secs.
6. (a) For a particle under SHM.
1 1 1 2 k
= + = Þ K= acceleration = w2x
K k k k 2 If x = 0 (at mean position), acceleration = 0
In case II, K = k + k = 2k So, acceleration at the mean position is
If n1 & n2 be frequencies in two cases, then zero.
1 k 1 2k 7. (c) w = 3.5 radian/sec
n1 = ; n2 = ; maximum acceleration of a particle under
2p 2m 2p m
SHM = w2 a where a is amplitude of
n1 1 n 1 oscillation.
Þ = Þ 1 =
n2 4 n2 2 w2a = 7.5 Þ (3.5) 2 a = 7.5
2. (b) The expression of time period
7.5 30
Þ a= Þ = = 0.61 m
l 3.5 ´ 3.5 49
T = 2p
g 8. (a) This is case of spring in series, so
K = k1 + k2
This formula co ntains nothing which
depends upon the nature of material from m
which bob is made of. So time period will T = 2p
(k1 + k 2 )
remain the same.
m m 1 k1 + k 2
3. (c) T = 2p Þ 2 = 2p Þ n(frequency) =
K K 2p m
4m m 1 k
T ' = 2p Þ T ' = 2 ´ 2p 9. (a) For a vibrating spring n =
K K 2p m
T ' = 2 ´ 2 = 4sec Now spring is cut into two pieces, so new
spring constant K' = 2k
4. (b) v = w a 2 - u 2 ; when u = 0, v = vmax.
So, vmax = wa 1 2k
n' = =n 2
[where w is angular velocity and a is amplitude] 2p m
2p 2p 50 l l
vmax.= á = ´ = 0.16 m / sec 10. (d) T = 2p Þ T 2 = 4p 2
T 2 1000 g g
5. (c) The possibility of the object to be
Taking log on both sides,
detached from the platform is at the highest
point when the platform starts going down. 2 log T = log 4p2 + log l - log g ,
If it is less than g then object will not get Differentiating on both sides,
away from the platform. So, maximum
acceleration of platform under SHM is g. 2 1
dT = 0 + dl - 0
From formula, maximum acceleration under T l
EBD_7100
dT 1 dl dT 1 dl é 1 1 ù
= . Þ ´ 100 = . ´ 100 14. (a) sin wt - cos wt = 2 ê sin wt - cos wt ú
T 2 l T 2 l ë 2 2 û
Percent increase in time period
é p p ù
1 = 2 êcos . sin wt - sin cos wt ú
= % increase in length ë 4 4 û
2
= 2 sin(wt - p / 4)
1
= ´ 21 = 10.5% which represents simple harmonic motion.
2
15. (a) Frequency of SHM,
Percent increase in time period @ 10%
1 acceleration 1 a
1 k n= =
11. (b) n= 2p displacement 2p x
2p m
As springs are in parallel, total spring 1 k
constant k of system of spring Þn=
2p m
1 1 1 k + k2
= + = 1 k a k m 1 m
k k1 k 2 k1 k 2 Þ = Þ = Þn=
m x a x 2p x
k1 k 2
k= 1 10 103 10 10
( k1 + k 2 ) n= = =
2p 10-2 2p 2p
1 k1k 2
n= 10 ´ 3.16
2p (k1 + k2 )m = = 5 Hz
2 ´ 3.14
12. (c) For any spring-mass system time period of 16. (b) For block A to move in SHM.
oscillation,
N
m 1 k A
T = 2p Þ n=
k 2p m
In the present case total spring constt. x
mg mean
= k + 2k = 3k. position
1 3k mg – N = mw2x
n=
2p m where x is the distance from mean position
For block to leave contact N = 0
1 k
13. (b) For spring block system, n = g
2p m Þ mg = mw2 x Þ x =
w2
Here two springs are joined in series so,
17. (a) Clearly sin2 wt is a periodic function as
k1k 2 sin wt is periodic with period p / w
total spring constant, k R =
k1 + k 2
k.k k
kR = =
2k 2
1 k 0 p/w 2p /w 3p /w
So, n =
2p 2m
Oscillations P-93
d2y FL
For SHM µ -y E=
dt 2 A.DL
where DL is the extension in the spring.
dy
= 2w sin wt cos wt = w sin 2wt EA DL
dt F= ...(1)
L
d2y Now, according to Hooke's law
= 2w 2 cos 2 wt which is not proporti- F=kDL ...(2)
2
dt where k is the spring constant
onal to –y. Hence it is not in SHM. By comparing (1) and (2)
18. (a) V(x) = k | x |3
EA DL
dV(x) kDL=
since, F = - = -3k | x |2 …(1) L
dx EA
x = a sin (wt) k=
L
This equation always fits to the differential
equation M
Time period, T = 2p
k
d2 x 2
= -w2 x or m d x = -mw 2 x ML
dt 2 dt T = 2p
EA
Þ F = – mw2x …(2)
Equation (1) and (2) give L
22. (a) T = 2p
2
-3k | x | = - mw x 2 g
i.e., time period of a simple pendulum
3kx 3ka depen ds upon effective length and
Þ w= = [sin(wt)]1/ 2
m m acceleration due to gravity, not on mass.
So, T = 2 sec.
1 23. (a) y = r sin w t
Þ wµ a Þ Tµ
a 2p æ 2p ö
12.5 = 25 sin
3
´t çèQ w = ÷ø
æ 2p ö T
19. (a) x = A sin ç t ÷ p 2p
è T ø = t
6 3
T 1
Þ distance covered in time t = =A t = sec = 0.25 sec
4 4
A 4A t' = 2t
Þ average speed = = = 2 × 0.25 = 0.5 sec
T/4 T
for either side
20. (d) Time period of a simple pendulum is given 24. (b) The time taken by particle from left extreme
by to right extreme = 0.5 T.
l l 25. (a) In circular motion of a particle with constant
T = 2p or T µ speed, particle repeats its motion after a
g g
regular interval of time but does not
when the elevator is accelerating oscillate about a fixed point. So, motion of
downwards, the net gravitational particle is periodic but not simple harmonic.
acceleration is (g – a), so, the time period
when elevation is accelerating downwards,
is greatest.
21. (d) According to the formula of Young's
Modulus
EBD_7100
26. (b) T = 2p leff / g ; l eff decreases when the d2y p 2 æ pt ö

acceleration =- sinç + f ÷
child stands up. dt 2 è2 ø
27. (a) The displacement of a particle in S.H.M. is
p2
given by Thus a max =
y = a sin (wt + f) 2
30. (b)
dy
velocity = = wa cos (wt + f) 31. (b) y = a sin (w t + f) ; when y = a/2,
dt a
The velocity is maximum when the particle then = a sin ( w t + f )
2
passes through the mean position i.e.,
1 p 5p
æ dy ö or sin ( w t + f) = = sin or sin
çè ÷ø 2 6 6
dt max = w a So phase of two particles is p/6 and 5 p/6
The kinetic energy at this instant is given radians
by Hence phase difference = (5 p/6) – p/6 = 2 p/3
2
1 æ dy ö 1 m T1 M1
m çè ÷ø = mw2 a2 = 8 × 10–3 joule 32. (d) T = 2 p \ T = M2
2 dt max 2 K 2
1 M2
or × (0.1) w2 × (0.1)2 = 2M
2 T2 = T1 M1 = T 1 M
8 × 10–3
Solving we get w= ±4 T2 = T1 2 = 2 T (where T1 =T)
Substituting the values of a, w and f in the
kp
equation of S.H.M., we get 33. (c) Here, kQ =
y = 0.1 sin (± 4t + p /4) metre. 2
28. (b) Centre of mass of combination of liquid and According to Hooke's law
hollow portion (at position l), first goes \ Fp = –kp xp
down ( to l + D l) and when total water is Fp k p x p
drained out, centre of mass regain its FQ = –kQxQ Þ F = k x
Q Q Q
original position (to l), Fp = FQ [Given]
l xp kQ
T = 2p =
g \ xQ kp ...(i)
\ ‘T’ first increases and then decreases 1 2
to original value. Energy stored in a spring is U = kx
2
Up k p x 2p kp kQ2 1 é kp ù
\ = 2
= ´ = êQ kQ = ú
UQ kQ xQ kQ k 2p 2 ë 2û
c UQ E
Þ Up = = [\ U Q = E ]
2 2
34. (d) As it starts from rest, we have,
æ pt ö x = A cos wt. At t = 0, x = A
29. (b) y = 2 sin ç + f ÷
è 2 ø When t = t, x = A – a and
when t = 2t, x = A – 3a
dy p æ pt ö
velocity of particle = 2 ´ cos ç + f ÷ Þ A – a = A ´ cos ´ wt and ....... (i)
dt 2 è 2 ø A – 3a = A ´ cos ´ 2wt ....... (ii)
Oscillations P-95
As, cos2wt = 2cos2wt – 1, 39. (b) SHM is basically to and fro motion about
2 the mean position. So when the body goes
A - 3a æ A-a ö away from mean position an acceleration
Þ = 2ç ÷ -1
A è A ø always try to return the body towards mean
A - 3a 2 A2 + 2a 2 - 4 Aa - A2 position. As the acceleration in SHM is
\ = always in opposite phase to that of
A A2 displacement. The displacement of the
2 2 2
\ A – 3aA = A + 2a – 4Aa particle in SHM at an instant is directed
\ a2 = 2aA Þ A = 2a away from the mean position then
Now, A – a = A ´ cos ´ wt ..... [From (i)] acceleration at that instant is directed
1 towards the mean position.
Þ cos ´ wt =
2
40. (c) Speed = w A2 - x 2
2p p
\ t = Þ T = 6t as | x | increases Þ speed decreases
T 3
Acceleration is in direction of speed as it
bt
-
2m
comes towards mean position.
35. (c) Q A = A0 e (where, A0 = maximum 41. (c) The amplitude become large when the
amplitude) frequency of the driving force (w) is near
According to the questions, after 5 the natural frequency of oscillation or when
seconds, w ; w0 . This frequency is known as
-
b(5) resonance frequency. Amplitude of
0.9A 0 = A 0 e 2m … (i) oscillation for a forced, damped oscillator
After 10 more seconds, is
b(15) F0 / m
-
…(ii) A=
A = A0 e 2m
(w - w02 ) + (bw / m)2
2
From equations (i) and (ii)

where b is constant related to the strength
A = 0.729 A0
\ a = 0.729 of the resistive force, w0 = k / m is
Type B : Assertion Reason Questions natural frequency of undamped oscillator
( b = 0).
36. (b) SHM is to and fro motion of an object and 42. (b) At the middle point velocity of the particle
it is periodic. under SHM is maximum but acceleration is
v = w k2 - x2
zero since displacement is zero. So Assertion
If x = 0, v has maximum value. At x = k, v is true.
has minimum velocity. Similarly, when x = We know that x = a sin wt ...(1)
– k, v has zero value, all these indicate to & Where x is displacement and a is amplitude.
fro movement. dx
Velocity = = aw cos wt
37. (a) Time period of pendulum in a satellite is dt
infinity. It means it may not oscillate as
æp ö
apparent value of g is zero. So, time period = aw cos( - wt ) = aw sin ç - (- wt )÷
è 2 ø
1 æ pö
being µ µ ¥
g = aw sinç wt + ÷ ...(2)
è 2ø
38. (c) The amplitude of an oscillating pendulum From equation (i) and (ii) it is clear that
decreases with time due to friction of air. In p
absence of air, its frequency and amplitude Velocity is ahead of displacement (x) by
2
will remain constant.
angle.
EBD_7100
14 Waves
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 7. The equation of a travelling wave is

y = 60 cos(1800t - 6x )
1. At which temperature velocity of sound (at 27°C)
doubles? [1997, 2002] where y is in microns, t in second and x in metre.
The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the
(a) 327°C (b) 927°C
velocity of wave propagation is : [1998]
(c) 54°C (d) –123 °C –4 - 6
(a) 3.6 ´ 10 (b) 3.6 ´ 10
2. The wave equation is y = 0.30 sin (314t – 1.57x)
where t, x and y are in second, metre and (c) 3.6 ´ 10 -8 (d) none of these
centimetre respectively. The speed of the wave 8. The waves in which the particles of the medium
is [1997] vibrate in a direction perpendicular to the
(a) 400 m/s (b) 100 m/s direction of wave motion is known as : [1998]
(c) 200 m/s (d) 50 m/s (a) longitudinal waves (b) propagated waves
3. An object producing a pitch of 1200 Hz is moving (c) transverse wave (d) none of these
9. Energy is not carried by which of the following
with a velocity of 50 m/s towards a stationary
wave? [1999]
person. The velocity of sound is 350 m/s. The
(a) Progressive (b) Electromagnetic
frequency of sound heard by the stationary
(c) Transverse (d) Stationary
person is : [1997]
10. If the vibrations of a string are to be increased
(a) 1250 Hz (b) 1050 Hz by a factor of two, then tension in the string
(c) 700 Hz (d) 1400 Hz should be made : [1999]
4. The air column in a pipe which is closed at one (a) Twice (b) Four times
end will be in resonance with a vibrating tuning (c) Eight times (d) Half
fork at a frequency 260 Hz. The length of the air 11. A resonance in air column of length 20 cm
column is : [1997] resonates with a tuning fork of frequency 450
(a) 12.5 cm (b) 35.75 cm Hz. Ignoring end correction, the velocity of
(c) 31.92 cm (d) 62.5 cm sound in air is: [1999]
5. Standing waves are produced in 10 m long (a) 1020 m/s (b) 720 m/s
(c) 620 m/s (d) 820 m/s
stretched string. If the string vibrates in 5
12. A transverse wave passes through a string with
segments and wave velocity is 20 m/s, then its
frequency will be : [1998] the equation : y = 10 sin p (0.02x - 2.00t )
(a) 5 Hz (b) 2 Hz where x is in metre and t in second. The maximum
(c) 10 Hz (d) 2 Hz velocity of the particle in wave motion is :[2000]
6. Newton’s formula for the velocity of sound in (a) 100 m/s (b) 63 m/s
(c) 120 m/s (d) 161 m/s
gas is : [1998]
13. A wave is represented by the equation
P 2 P y = a sin(0.01x - 2t )
(a) v= (b) v=
r 3 r where a and x are in cm and t in second. Velocity
of propagation of the wave is : [2000]
r v=
2P (a) 200 cm/sec (b) 10 cm/sec
(c) v= (d)
P r (c) 25 cm/sec (d) 50 cm/sec
Waves P-97
14. Two cars A and B approach a stationary observer 21. A string in a musical instrument is 50 cm long
from opposite sides as shown in fig. Observer and its fundamental frequency is 800 Hz. If a
hears no beats. If the frequency of the horn of frequency of 1000 Hz is to be produced, then
the car B is 504 Hz, the frequency of horn of car required length of string is [2002]
A will be : (a) 37.5 cm (b) 40 cm
15 m/sec 30 m/sec (c) 50 cm (d) 62.5 cm
22. An earthquake generates both transverse (S)
and longitudinal (P) sound waves in the earth.
The speed of S waves is about 4.5 km/s and that
of P waves about 8.0 km/s. A seismograph
A B
records P and S waves from an earthquake. The
(a) 529.2 Hz (b) 295.2 Hz [2000]
first P wave arrives 4.0 min. before the first S
(c) 440.5 Hz (d) none of these
wave. The epicenter of the earthquake is located
15. The tension in a piano wire is 10 N. The tension
at a distance of about : [2003]
in a piano wire to produce a node of double
frequency is : [2001] (a) 25 km (b) 250 km
(a) 20 N (b) 40 N (c) 2500 km (d) 5000 km
(c) 10 N (d) 120 N 23. An organ pipe closed at one end has
16. Two sound waves have phase difference of 60°, fundamental frequency of 1500 Hz. The maximum
then they will have the path difference of : number of overtones generated by this pipe
l which a normal person can hear is [2004]
(a) 3l (b) [2001] (a) 4 (b) 13
3
(c) 6 (d) 9
l 24. The wave produced by a motor boat sailing in
(c) (d) l
6 water are [2004]
17. A sings with a frequency (n) and B sings with (a) transverse
a frequency 1/8 that of A. If the energy remains (b) longitudinal
the same and the amplitude of A is a, then
(c) longitudinal and transverse
amplitude of B will be : [2001]
(a) 2a (b) 8a (d) stationary
(c) 4a (d) a 25. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose
18. If equation of sound wave is y = 0.0015 crests are 100 m apart and velocity is 25 m/sec.
sin (62.4 x + 316t), then its wavelength will The boat bounces up once in every: [2006]
be [2002] (a) 2500 s (b) 75 s
(a) 2 unit (b) 0.3 unit (c) 4s (d) 0.25 s
(c) 0.1 unit (d) 0.2 unit 26. A stone thrown into still water, creates a circular
19. A siren emitting sound of frequency 800 Hz is wave pattern moving radially outwards. If r is
gong away from a static listener with a speed of the distance measured from the centre of the
30 m/s. Frequency of the sound to be heard by
pattern. the amplitude of the wave aries as :
the listener is (Take velocity of sound = 300 m/s)
(a) 286.5 Hz (b) 481.2 Hz [2002] (a) r–1/2 (b) r–1 [2006]
(c) r –2 (d) r –3/2
(c) 733.3 Hz (d) 644.8 Hz
20. The velocities of sound at the same temperature 27. When a guitar string is sounded with a 440 Hz
in two monoatomic gases of densities r1 and r2 tuning fork, a beat frequency of 5 Hz is heard. If
are v1 and v2 respectively. If r1/r2 = 4, then the the experiment is repeated with a tuning fork of
value of v1/v2 is [2002] 437Hz, the beat frequency is 8 Hz. The string
(a) 4 (b) 2 frequency (Hz) is : [2006]
1 1 (a) 445 (b) 435
(c) (d) (c) 429 (d) 448
2 4
EBD_7100
28. For a wave propagating in a medium, identity 34. The expression y = a sin bx sin w t represents a
the property that is independent of the others: stationary wave. The distance between the
(a) velocity [2006] consecutive nodes is equal to : [2011]
(b) wavelength (a) p/b (b) 2p/b
(c) p/2b (d) 1/b
(c) frequency
35. An open and closed organ pipe have the same
(d) all these depend on each other length. The ratio of pth mode of frequency of
29. A string is stretched between fixed points vibration of two pipes is [2012]
separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have (a) 1 (b) p
resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There
are no other resonant frequencies between these 2p
(c) p (2p + 1) (d)
two. Then, the lowest resonant frequency for ( 2 p - 1)
this string is [2008] 36. When two tuning forks (fork 1 and fork 2) are
(a) 105 Hz (b) 1.05 Hz sounded simultaneously, 4 beats per second are
(c) 1050 Hz (d) 10.5 Hz heard. Now, some tape is attached on the prong
30. A person speaking normally produces a sound of the fork 2. When the tuning forks are sounded
intensity of 40 dB at a distance of 1 m. If the again, 6 beats per second are heard. If the
threshold intensity for reasonable audibility is frequency of fork 1 is 200 Hz, then what was the
original frequency of fork 2? [2012]
20 dB, the maximum distance at which he can be
heard clearly is [2008] (a) 202 Hz (b) 200 Hz
(c) 204 Hz (d) 196 Hz
(a) 4 m (b) 5 m
37. A sound absorber attenuates the sound level
(c) 10 m (d) 20 m
by 20 dB. The intensity decreases by a factor of
31. A wave on a string is travelling and the (a) 100 (b) 1000 [2012]
displacement of particles on it is given by (c) 10000 (d) 10
x = A sin (2t – 0.1 x). Then the wavelength of the
38. A fork of frequency 256 Hz resonates with a
wave is [2009]
closed organ pipe of length 25.4 cm. If the length
(a) 10p (b) 20p of pipe be increased by 2 mm, the number of
(c) (d) 20 beats/sec. will be [2014]
40p
(a) 4 (b) 1
32. A tuning fork of frequency 340 Hz is vibrated
(c) 2 (d) 3
just above the tube of 120 cm height. Water is
poured slowly in the tube. What is the minimum 39. The equation of a progressive wave is
height of water necessary for the resonance? é t x ù
y = 0.02 sin 2p ê -
(speed of sound in air = 340 m/s) [2009] ë 0. 01 0 .30 úû
(a) 45 cm (b) 30 cm
Here x and y are in metre and t is in second. The
(c) 40 cm (d) 25 cm velocity of propagation of the wave is [2014]
33. The velocity of sound in a gas at pressure P and (a) 300 m s–1 (b) 30 m s–1
density d is [2009] (c) 400 m s –1 (d) 40 m s–1
40. Two waves of wavelengths 99 cm and 100 cm
gP P both travelling with velocity 396 m/s are made
(a) v= (b) v=
d gd to interfere. The number of beats produced by
them per second is [2015]
g P 2P (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) v= (d) v=
d d (c) 4 (d) 8
Waves P-99
41. A massless rod of length L is suspended by two 44. A train moving at a speed of 220 ms–1 towards a
identical strings AB and CD of equal length. A stationary object, emits a sound of frequency 1000
block of mass m is suspended from point O such Hz. Some of the sound reaching the object gets
that BO is equal to ‘x’. Further it is observed reflected back to the train as echo. The frequency
that the frequency of 1st harmonic in AB is equal of the echo as detected by the driver of the train
to 2nd harmonic frequency in CD. ‘x’ is is (speed of sound in air is 330 ms–1) [2017]
(a) 3500 Hz (b) 4000 Hz
A C [2016] (c) 5000 Hz (d) 3000 Hz
O Reason. While answering these questions, you are
B D
x L required to choose any one of the following five
m responses.
L 4L Assertion.
(a) (b) (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
5 5
3L L Assertion.
(c) (d)
4 4 (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
42. Two similar open organ pipe of length 50 cm and incorrect.
50.5 cm produce 3 beats per second when (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
sounded together. The velocity of sound in air (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
is [2016] correct.
45. Assertion : Sound travels faster in solids than
(a) 303 m/s (b) 330 m/s
gases.
(c) 151.5 m/s (d) 603 m/s Reason : Solids possess greater density than
43. A whistle S of frequency f revolves in a circle of gases. [2000]
radius R at a constant speed v. What is the ratio
of largest and smallest frequency detected by a wavelength
46. Assertion : Speed of wave =
detector D at rest at a distance 2R from the centre time period
of circle as shown in figure ? Reason : Wavelength is the distance between
(take c as speed of sound) [2016] two nearest particles in phase. [2002]
47. Assertion : When a beetle moves along the sand
within a few tens of centimeters of a sand
scorpion, the scorpion immediately turns
D S towards the beetle and dashes towards it
R
Reason : When a beetle disturbs the sand, it
sends pulses along the sand's surface. One set
2R of pulses is longitudinal while the other set is
transverse. [2003]
æ c + vö æ c + vö 48. Assertion : Sound waves cannot travel in
çè ÷ 2ç
(a)
c - vø
(b) è c - v ÷ø vacuum but light can travel in vacuum.
Reason : Sound waves are longitudinal waves
(c + v) and they can not be polar ised but
(c) 2 (d) electromagentic waves are transverse and they
c 2
can be polarised. [2007]
EBD_7100
49. Assertion : The change in air pressure affects 52. Assertion : A transverse waves are produced
the speed of sound. in a very long string fixed at one end. Only
Reason : The speed of sound in gases is progressive wave is observed near the free end.
proportional to the square of pressure. [2008] Reason : Energy of reflected wave does not
reach the free end. [2013]
Directions for (Qs. 50-56) : Each of these questions 53. Assertion : Doppler formula for sound wave is
contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them symmetric with respect to the speed of source
carefully and answer the question on the basis of and speed of observer.
Reason : Motion of source with respect to
stationary observer is not equivalent to the
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and motion of an observer with respect to stationary
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. source. [2014]
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but 54. Assertion : Two waves moving in a uniform
Reason is not the correct explanation of string having uniform tension cannot have
Assertion. different velocities.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. Reason : Elastic and inertial properties of string
are same for all waves in same string. Moreover
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. speed of wave in a string depends on its elastic
50. Assertion : The pitch of wind instruments rises and inertial properties only. [2015]
and that of string instruments falls as an 55. Assertion : The base of Laplace correction was
orchestra warms up. that exchange of heat between the region of
Reason : When temperature rises, speed of compression and rarefaction in air is negligible.
sound increases but speed of wave in a string Reason : Air is bad conductor of heat and
fixed at both ends decreases. [2009] velocity of sound in air is quite large. [2016]
56. Assertion : The fundemental frequency of an
51. Assertion : For the formation of stationary
open organ pipe increases as the temperature is
waves the medium must be bounded having
increased.
definite boundaries.
Reason : As the temperature increses, the
Reason : In the stationary wave, some particles velocity of sound increases more rapidly than
of the medium remain permanently at rest. [2010] length of the pipe. [2017]
Waves P-101
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions Now, l = 4 m; v = 20 m/sec

From formula
1. (b) Velocity of sound µ T (where T is
v = nl Þ 20 = n ´ 4 Þ n = 5Hz
temperature of body in absolute scale). 6. (a) Newton’s formula for velocity of sound in
v1 T 2v t + 273 gas
= 1 Þ =
v2 T2 v 27 + 273 P
v= where P is pressure & r is
r
t + 273
4= Þ t + 273 = 1200 density of gas.
300
Þ t = 927° C 7. (a) y = 60 cos(1800t - 6x ) , y is in microns.
2. (c) Given equation y = 0.30 sin(314t - 1.57 x) y = 60 cos(1800t - 6 x) ´10 -6
Comparing it with standard equation of dy
wave, v= = particle velocity
dt
y = a sin(wt - kx)
w = 314; k = 1.57 = 60 ´10 - 6 ´1800 sin (1800t - 6x )
w 314 v max = 6 ´ 18 ´10-3

v= Þ v= = 200 m / sec
k 1.57 w
v wave = ; w = 1800; K = 6
3. (d) If n a be the apparent frequency, then k
1800
vs 1200 ´ 350 v wave = = 300
na = n ´ = 6
(vs - v0 ) (350 - 50)
vmax 6 ´18 ´10 -3
1200 ´ 350 =
= = 1400 Hz v wave 300
300
4. (c) For fundamental frequency = 36 ´ 10 - 5 = 3 .6 ´ 10 - 4
8. (c) Transverse waves h ave particles
v l oscillating perpendicular to the direction
n= & = l Þ l = 4l
l 4 of motion of wave. Ripple in the surface of
v 330 water is transverse in nature.
n= Þ 260 =
Direction of oscillation
4l 4l
of particles
330
Þ l= = 0.3173 m
260 ´ 4 P
l = 31.73 cm ~ 31.92 cm (given in option)
5. (a)
Direction of motion of wave
9. (d) Stationary waves do not carry energy with
it as it is stationary or does not change
position.
l
10. (b) We know that, n = 1 T Þ n µ T
There are 5 loops in 10 metre. 2 m
Length of one loop = 2 m If tension is increased four times, the
Length of two loops = 2 × 2 = 4 m frequency will become twice.
EBD_7100
11. (b) Let the air column be closed one.
17. (b) Energy of sound wave = 2p2 n2 a 2 vr
In closed organ pipe for fundamental node
n is frequency and v is velocity of sound;
l r is density of air or any other medium.
of vibration , = 0.2 Þ l = 0.8m,
4
v = nl Now, E1 = 2p2n 2a 2 vr
If we take the frequency of air column to be ænö
2
equal to tuning fork then, E 2 = 2p2 ç ÷ A 2 vr E1 = E 2
è8ø
v = 450 ´ 0.8 = 360 m / sec
n 2 2
If we take the frequency of air column to be 2p 2 n 2 a 2 vr = 2p 2 A vr
twice that of tuning fork then, 64
A2 = 64a2 A = 8a
v = 900 ´ 0.8 = 720 m / sec
18. (c) y = 0.0015 sin (62.8x + 314t)
This matches with alternative (b). Comparing it with the equation
12. (b) The equation of wave y = a sin ( w t + kx)
y = 10 sin p(0.02x - 2t) w = 314, k = 62.8
Particle velocity, 2p 2p
k= = 62.8 Þ l = = 0.1 unit.
dy l 62.8
= 10cos p(0.02x - 2t) ´ p ´ 0.2
dt 19. (c) Since, the source is going away from
= 0.63cos p(0.02x - 2t) v 330
listener n ' = n ´ = 800 ´
Maximum value of velocity = 63 m/sec. v+u (330 + 30)
13. (a) In the wave of the form 330
n ' = 800 ´ = 733.33 Hz
y = sin(wt - kx) 360
20. (c) For velocity of sound in gas
w
Velocity v =
k gP
v=
Here w = 2 ; k = 0.01 r
w 2 [P is pressure and r is density of gas, g is
v= = = 200 cm / sec Cp/Cv]
k 0.01
14. (a) Since, the person hears no beats therefore gP gP
their apparent frequency are the same. Here, v1 = and v 2 =
r1 r2
330 330
So, n ´ = 504 ´ v1 r2 1 1
330 - 15 330 - 30 = = =
v2 r1 4 2
504 ´ 315
n= = 529.2 Hz 21. (b) We know that for frequency of sound in
300
15. (b) For frequency of oscillation of wire. 1 T 1
string the formula is, n = or n =
2l m l
n µ T , Here T is tension in the wire.
In order to increase frequency twice, n1 l 2 800 l
= Þ = 2
tension needs to be made 4 times. So, new n 2 l1 1000 50
tension must be 4 ´10 = 40 N 800
l 2 = 50 ´ = 40 cm
l 1000
16. (c) Path diff. = ´ phase difference
2p 22. (c) Let d be the distance of epicenter.
l p l d
= ´ = Time taken by S-wave =
2p 3 6 4.5
IIT JEE NEET eBooks: www.cr
Waves P-103
d Energy of crest (P.E) = (2pr.dr ´ h ´ r) ´ g ´ h

Time taken by P-wave = Now, as crest spread, this energy E remains
8
constant. So,
d d
Now - = 4 ´ 60 2prdrh 2 rg = E
4.5 8
E
é 10 1 ù
d ê - ú = 4 ´ 60 Þ h= or h µ r -1/ 2
ë 45 8 û 2prdrrg
27. (a) If we decrease the frequency of tuning fork
4 ´ 60 ´ 8 ´ 45
Þ d= no. of beat is increased i.e., difference of
35 frequency is increased. It means unknown
240 ´ 72 17280 frequency is more than 440 Hz.
= = = 2468.5 » 2500 km. So it is 440 + 5 = 445 Hz.
7 7 28. (c) In a medium velocity and wavelength are
23. (c) In an organ pipe only odd harmonics are dependent on refractive index of the
found. So, frequency equal to odd multiple medium but frequency remains unchanged.
of 1500 Hz may be found in this case. v
Maximum audible frequency is 20,000 Hz. 29. (a) Given nv = 315 and ( n + 1) = 420
2l 2l
So, possible frequency are 1500 Hz,
4500 Hz, 7500 Hz, 10500 Hz, 13500 Hz, 16500 n + 1 420
Þ = Þn =3
Hz, 19500 Hz. 19500 Hz will be sixth n 315
overtone as 4500 will be first overtone. v v
24. (c) The waves produced by a motorboat Hence 3 ´ = 315 Þ = 105 Hz
2l 2l
sailing in water are of both transverse and
The lowest resonant frequency is when
longitudinal type. Transverse waves are
n=1
produced on the surface and longitudinal Therefore lowest resonant frequency
waves are produced deep inside the water. = 105 Hz.
25. (c) Wavelength is distance between two crest.
l = 100 m; v = 25 æ Iö
30. (c) We have , b = 10log10 ç I ÷
è ø 0
25
n= Where I0 = threshold intensity of sound
100
1 100 = 10 -12 W / m 2
T= = = 4 sec
n 25 æI ö
i.e., 40 = 10 log10 1 … (i)
çè I ÷ø
26. (a) 0
æI ö
dv and 20 = 10 log10 ç 2 ÷ … (ii)
r è I0 ø
(i) 40 æI ö
Þ = log10 ç 1 ÷
(ii) 20 è I2 ø
æI ö I1 2
2 = log10 ç 1 ÷ or I = 10
è I2 ø 2
h r2 2
\ = 102 (since I µ 1 )
r12 r2
dr
r2 2 = 102 r12 or r2 = 10r1 = 10 ´ 1 = 10m
EBD_7100
31. (b) x = A sin(2t - 0.1x) v

35. (d) For open pipe, n = p
2l
æ 2pt 2p ö v
also x = A sin ç - x÷ For closed pipe n ¢ = ( 2p - 1)
è T l ø 4l
2p n 2p
Þ = 0.1 Þ l = 20p \ =
l n ¢ (2 p - 1)
32. (a) We have v = nl . 36. (d) Frequency of fork 1 = 200 Hz = n 0
v 340m / s No. of beats heard when fork 2 is sounded
or l = = = 1m with fork 1 = Dn = 4
n 340Hz
First resonating length, Now we know that if on loading (attaching
tape) an unknown fork, the beat frequency
l 1 increases (from 4 to 6 in this case) then the
l1 = = m = 25cm
4 4 frequency of the unknown fork 2 is given
Second resonating length, by, n = n 0 - Dn = 200 – 4 = 196 Hz
3l 3 ´1m æI ö
l2 = = = 75cm. 37. (a) We have, L1 = 10log ç 1 ÷
4 4
Third resonating length, è I0 ø
æI ö
5l 5 ´ 1m L2 = 10 log ç 2 ÷
l3 = = = 125cm.
4 4 è I0 ø
So third resonance is not possible since æI ö æI ö
the length of the tube is 120 cm. \ L1 – L2 = 10 log ç 1 ÷ - 10 log ç 2 ÷
\ Minimum height of water necessary for è I0 ø è I0 ø
resonance = 120 – 75 = 45 cm. æI I ö
or, DL = 10 log ç 1 ´ 0 ÷
gRT è I0 I 2 ø
33. (a) v =
M
PV = RT æI ö
or, DL = 10 log ç 1 ÷
M è I2 ø
P = RT
d æI ö
or, 20 = 10 log ç 1 ÷
P RT è I2 ø
=
d M
æI ö
gP or, 2 = log ç 1 ÷
v= è I2 ø
d
34. (a) y = a sin bx sin wt I1
on comparing with standard equation of or, = 102
I2
stationary wave
I1
y = R sin 2px . sin wt, we get or, I2 = .
l 100
Þ Intensity decreases by a factor 100.
2px
= bx , v v
l 38. (c) n 1 = 256 = =
2p 4 l 1 4 ´ 25 .4
\ l= \ v = 256 × 101.6 cm/s
b
The distance between constructive nodes v 256 ´ 101.6
n2 = = = 254 Hz
l 2p / b p 4l2 4 ´ 25.6
= = =
2 2 b No. of beats/sec = n 1 – n2 = 256 – 254 = 2
Waves P-105
Substituting these values in (ii) we get

2p 2p
39. (b) w= and k = 4mg mg
0.01 0.30 ´x = (L - x)
5 5
w 2p 0.30
v= = ´ = 30 m s -1 L
k 0.01 2p Þ 4x = L - x Þ x =
5
40. (c) Velocity of wave v = nl 42. (a) L1 = 50 cm, L2 = 50.5 cm
v as L2 > L1, so n2 < n1
where n = frequency of wave Þ n = For open pipe,
l
v
v 396 n=
n2 = 2 = = 396 Hz 2L
l 2 100 ´ 10-2 n1 – n2 = 3 beats/s
no. of beats = n1 –n2 = 4
41. (a) Frequency of 1st harmonic of AB væ 1 1 ö
\ ç - ÷ =3
2 è L1 L2 ø
1 TAB
= v æ 1 1 ö
2l m \ -
-2 çè 50 50.5 ÷ø = 6
Frequency of 2nd harmonic of CD 10
6 ´ 50 ´ 50.5 ´ 10 -2
1 TCD \ v= = 303 m/s
= 0.5
l m
c
S
A C v
43. (a) D D
l AB l CD = l c S v
=l
2 TAB TCD Largest frequency (f1) Lowest frequency (f2)
O Largest frequency will be detected when

B D the source approaches detector along the
x L–x
line joining and the smallest frequency will
be detected when the source recedes the
m detector along the line joining them
L
æ c ö
Given that the two frequencies are equal. f
f1 çè c - v ÷ø c+v
= =
1 TAB 1 TCD f2 æ c ö c- v
\ = çè ÷f
2l m l m c + vø
44. (c) Frequency of the echo detected by the
TAB
Þ = TCD Þ TAB = 4TCD ....(i) driver of the train is
4 (According to Doppler effect in sound)
For rotational equilibrium of massless rod,
taking torque about point O, æ v + uö
f '=ç f
è v - u ÷ø
TAB ´ x = TCD (L - x ) ....(ii)
where f = original frequency of source of
For translational equilibrium,
sound
TAB + TCD = mg ....(iii) f ¢ = Apparent frequency of source because
mg of the relative motion between source and
On solving, (i) & (iii) we get, TCD = ; observer.
5
4mg æ 330 + 220 ö
f '=ç 1000 = 5000 Hz
\ TAB = è 330 - 220 ÷ø
5
EBD_7100
Type B : Assertion Reason Questions P
remains constant. Hence there is no
45. (b) Sound travels faster in solids than gases. r
It is because the elasticity of solid is more effect of the pressure change on the speed
than that of gases. Solids posses greater of sound.
density than gases. Though density has v
50. (a) Pitch is related to frequency and f =
effect on the velocity of sound in the l
medium as follows 51. (b) For the formation of stationary waves, it is
necessary that the medium should not be
1
vµ unlimited but it should have a boundary.
r The wave propagating in such a medium
In case of solid, its elasticity far exceeds will reflect at the boundary and produce a
that of gas so its effect far exceeds the effect wave of the same kind travelling in the
of density. opposite direction. The position of two
46. (a) Since wavelength is distance between two waves will give rise to a stationary wave.
nearest particles in phase and time period At free end, transverse wave is reflected
is time required by a wave to cover this without change of phase. Hence as
distance. essential requirement for the formation of
stationary wave is that the medium must
wavelength
So speed of wave = be bounded having definite boundaries. In
time period stationary waves, there are certain points
47. (a) When beettle moves along the sand it of the medium, which are permanently at
sends two sets of pulses, one longitudinal rest i.e., their displacement is zero
and the other transverse. Scorpion has the throughout. These points are called nodes.
capacity to intercept the waves. By getting Similarly, there are some other points which
a sense of time interval between receipt of vibrate about their mean position with
these two waves, it can determine the largest amplitude. These points are called
distance of bettle also. antinodes.
48. (b) Longitudinal waves travel or propagate by 52. (a)
compression and rarefaction of the medium 53. (d) Reason is correct, Assertion is incorrect.
particles hence in absence of a medium In doppler for sound wave effect due to
they cannot propagate. observer and source motion are different.
Light waves are made of perpendicular 54. (d) Two waves moving in uniform string with
electric and magnetic field vectors normal uniform tension shall have same speed and
to direction of motion. Hence, they are may be moving in opposite directions.
transverse waves and if plane of vibration Hence both waves may have velocities in
is same for a wave then it is polarised but opposite direction. Hence Assertion is
this is not so for sound waves. incorrect.
49. (d) Speed of sound in cases is independent of 55. (c) Laplace assumed adiabatic process during
sound propagation.
gP v
pressure because v = 56. (a) As f = ; and so with increase in
p 2l
At constant temperature, if P changes then temperature v increases more than l.
r also changes in such a way that the ratio gRT
Also v=
M
15 Electric Charges and Fields
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 7. How many electrons make up a charge of 20 µC.
[2002]
1. A body can be negatively charged by : [1998] (a) 1.25 × 1014 (b) 2.23 × 1014
(a) removing some neutrons from it (c) 3.25 × 1014 (d) 5.25 × 1014
(b) giving excess electrons to it 8. A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm is charged
(c) removing some protons from it with 10 µC. Another uncharged sphere of radius
(d) removing some electrons from it 20 cm is allowed to touch it for some time. After
2. The number of electrons for one coulomb of that if the spheres are separated, then surface
charge are: [1999] density of charges on the spheres will be in the
(a) 6.25 × 10 23 (b) 6.25 × 10 21 ratio of [2002]
(c) 6.25 × 1018 (d) 6.25 × 1019 (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1
3. Let Ea be the electric field due to a dipole in its (c) 1 : 3 (d) 4 : 1
axial plane distant l and Eq be the field in the 9. An electric dipole placed in a non-uniform electric
equatorial plane distant l', then the relation field experiences : [2003]
between Ea and Eq will be : [2000] (a) both, a torque and a net force
(b) only a force but no torque
(a) Ea = 4Eq (b) Eq = 2Ea
(c) only a torque but no net force
(c) Ea = 2Eq (d) Eq = 3Ea
(d) no torque and no net force
4. A particle of mass 2g and charge 1mC is held at 10. Three charges are placed at the vertices of an
a distance of 1m from a fixed charge 1mC. If the equilateral triangle of side 'a' as shown in the
particle is released it will be repelled. The speed following figure. The force experienced by the
of particle when it is at a distance of 10 metre charge placed at the vertex A in a direction normal
from the fixed charge is [2000] to BC is : [2003]
(a) 90 m/s (b) 100 m/s A
(c) 45 m/s (d) 55 m/s +Q
5. What is the electric flux associated with one of
faces of a cube, when a charge (q) is enclosed in
the cube ? [2001]
6q q –Q +Q
(a) (b)
e0 6e 0 B C
q 3q (a) Q2/(4pe0a2) (b) –Q2/(4pe0a2)
(c) 3e (d) e (c) zero (d) Q2/(2pe0a2)
0 0
6. The point charges Q and –2Q are placed at some 11. Shown below is a distribution of charges. The
distance apart. If the electric field at the location flux of electric field due to these charges through
of Q is E. The electric field at the location of Q is the surfaces S is : [2003]
E. The electric field at the location of –2Q will be
(a) 3q/e0 +q –q
3E
(a) - (b) – E [2001] (b) 2q/e0
2
E
(c) q/e0
(c) - (d) -2E (d) zero +q
2
EBD_7100
12. The electric field due to a uniformly charged non- charged to QA and – QB (| QB | > | QA |). The
conducting sphere of radius R as a function of electrical field along a line, (passing through the
the distance from its centre is represented centre) is: [2005]
graphically by [2004]
V
E E (a)
(a) (b)
0 rA rB x
R r R r
E E V
(b)
(c) (d)
R r R r 0 rA rB x
13. In the basic CsCl crystal structure, Cs+ and Cl–
ions are arranged in a bcc configuration as shown
in the figure. The net electrostatic force exerted (c)
V
by the eight Cs+ ions on the Cl– ion is : [2004]
+ +
Cs Cs
0 rA rB x
+
Cs
–
Cl a
V
(d)
+ +
Cs Cs 0 rA rB x
a
16. A particle having charge q and mass m is projected
+ a +
Cs Cs with velocity v = 2 î - 3 ĵ in a uniform electric
2 2 uur
1 4e 1 16e field E = E 0 . ĵ. Change in momentum | D p |
(a) (b)
4pe 0 3a 2 4pe 0 3a 2 during any time interval t is given by : [2005]
(a) qE0 t (b) qE 0 t
1 32e 2
(c)
4pe 0 3a 2
(d) zero (c) qE 0 t (d) zero
m
14. Two infinitely long parallel conducting plates 17. Two parallel large thin metal sheets have equal
having surface charge densities +s and –s surface charge densities (s = 26.4 × 10–12 c/m2)
respectively, are separated by a small distance. of opposite signs. The electric field between
The medium between the plates is vacuum. If e0 these sheets is : [2006]
is the dielectric permittivity of vacuum then the
electric field in the region between the plates is : (a) 1.5 N/C (b) 1.5 ´ 10 -10 N / C
[2005] (c) 3 N/C (d) 3 ´ 10 -10 N / C
(a) 0 volt/m (b) s / 2e 0 volt/m
18. The spatial distribution of the electric field due
(c) s / e0 volt/m (d) 2s / e 0 volt/m to two charges (A, B) is shown in figure. Which
15. Two concentric conducting thin spherical shells one of the following statements is correct ?
A and B having radii rA and rB (rB > rA) are
[2006]
Electric Charges and Fields P-109
22. The electric field at a distance r from the centre

A in the space between two concentric metallic
B spherical shells of radii r1 and r 2 carrying charge
Q1 and Q2 is (r1 < r < r2) [2009]
Q1 + Q 2 Q1 + Q 2
(a) A is +ve and B –ve; |A| > |B| (a) 2 (b)
(b) A is –ve and B +ve; |A| = |B| : 4p Î0 (r1 + r2 ) 4p Î0 r 2
(c) Both are +ve but A > B Q1 Q2
(d) Both are –ve but A > B (c) 2 (d)
4p Î0 r 4p Î0 r 2
19. Three point charges +q, –2q and +q are placed
23. The potential at a point P due to an electric dipole
at point (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and
is 1.8 × 105V. If P is at a distance of 50 cm apart
(x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude
from the centre O of the dipole and if CP makes
and direction of the electric dipole moment
an angle 60° with the positive side of the axial
vector of this charge assembly are [2008]
line of the dipole, what is the moment of the
(a) 2 qa along + y direction dipole? [2010]
(a) 10 C–m (b) 10–3 C –m
(b) 2qa along the line joining points (c) 10–4 C–m (d) 10–5 C–m
(x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0) 24. The figure shows two situations in which a
(c) qa along the line joining points Gaussian cube sits in an electric field. The arrows
(x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0) and values indicate the directions and
magnitudes (in N–m2 /C) of the electric fields.
(d) 2qa along + x direction What is the net charge (in the two situations)
20. A hollow cylinder has charge q C within it. If f is inside the cube? [2011]
the electric flux in unit of voltmeter associated
with the curved surface B, the flux linked with
the plane surface A in unit of voltmeter will be
[2008]
C A
(a) (1) negative (2) positive
(b) (1) negative (2) zero
1æ q ö q (c) (1) positive (2) positive
(a) ç - f÷ (b)
2 è e0 ø 2e 0 (d) (1) positive (2) zero
25. There exists a non-uniform electric field along
q q x-axis as shown in the figure below. The field
(c) (d) -f increases at a uniform rate along +ve x-axis. A
e0 e0
dipole is placed inside the field as shown.
21. Charge q is uniformly distributed over a thin half Which one of the following is correct for the
ring of radius R. The electric field at the centre of dipole? [2012]
the ring is [2008]
q q
(a) 2 2 (b) –q
2p e 0 R 4p e 0 R 2
2
a
q q +q x-axis
(c) 2 (d) 2
4 pe 0 R 2 pe 0 R
EBD_7100
(a) Dipole moves along positive x-axis and 30. The electrostatic potential inside a charged
undergoes a clockwise rotation spherical ball is given by f = ar2 + b where r is
(b) Dipole moves along negative x-axis and the distance from the centre a, b are constants.
undergoes a clockwise rotation Then the charge density inside the ball is [2015]
(c) Dipole moves along positive x-axis and (a) –6ae0r (b) –24pae0
undergoes a anticlockwise rotation (c) –6ae0 (d) –24pae0r
(d) Dipole moves along negative x-axis and 31. An infinitely long solid cylinder of radius R has
undergoes a anticlockwise rotation a uniform volume charge density r. It has a
26. Two point charges +q and –q are held fixed at spherical cavity of radius R/2 with its centre on
(–d, 0) and (d, 0) respectively of a x – y the axis of the cylinder, as shown in the figure.
coordinate system. Then [2013] The magnitude of the electric field at the point P,
(a) the electric field E at all points on the axis which is at a distance 2R from the axis of the
has the same direction 23rR
(b) work has to be done in bringing a test cylinder, is given by the expression . The
16Ke0
charge from ¥ to the orgin value of k is [2016]
(c) electric field at all points on y-axis is along
x-axis
(d) the dipole moment is 2qd along the x-axis
27. A charged particle q is placed at the centre O of
cube of length L (A B C D E F G H). Another
same charge q is placed at a distance L from O.
Then the electric flux through ABCD is [2013]
E F
D
C
O
q q
H
G (a) 6 (b) 5
A (c) 7 (d) 4
B
L
(a) q /4pÎ0L (b) zero 32. An electric dipole of moment P is placed in a
(c) q/2 pÎ0L (d) q/3pÎ0L uniform electric field E such that P points
28. In a medium
r of dielectric constant K, the electric along E . If the dipole is slightly rotated about
field is E . If Î0 is permittivity of the free space, an axis perpendicular to the plane containing
the electric displacement vector is [2014]
r r E and P and passing through the centre of
KE E the dipole, the dipole executes simple harmonic
(a) (b)
Î0 K Î0 motion. Consider I to be the moment of inertia of
r
Î0 E r the dipole about the axis of rotation. What is the
(c) (d) K Î0 E time period of such oscillation? [2016]
K
29. Three charge q, Q and 4q are placed in a straight (a) ( pE / I) (b) 2p ( I / pE)
1
line of length l at points distant 0, and l (c) 2p ( I / 2pE) (d) None of these
2
respectively from one end. In order to make the 33. A hollow insulated conduction sphere is given
net froce on q zero, the charge Q must be equal a positive charge of 10 mC. What will be the
to [2015] electric field at the centre of the sphere if its
(a) –q (b) – 2q radius is 2 m? [2017]
(a) Zero (b) 5 mCm–2
-q
(c) (d) q (c) 20 mCm–2 (d) 8 mCm–2
2
TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS 39. Assertion : Four point charges q1, q2, q3 and q4
are as shown in figure. The flux over the shown
Directions for (Qs. 34-38) : These questions consist Gaussian surface depends only on charges q1
of two statements, each printed as Assertion and and q2.
Reason. While answering these questions, you are q4
responses.
q1
q2
Assertion. Gaussian
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but surface
Reason is not a correct explanation of the q3
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. Reason : Electric field at all points on Gaussian
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. surface depends only on charges q1 and q2.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is [2012]
correct. 40. Assertion : Consider two identical charges
34. Assertion: Electron move away from a region of placed distance 2d apart, along x-axis.
higher potential to a region of lower potential.
Reason: An electron has a negative charge.
[1999]
35. Assertion : A metallic shield in form of a hollow
shell may be built to block an electric field.
Reason : In a hollow spherical shield, the electric
field inside it is zero at every point. [2001] The equilibrium of a positive test charge placed
36. Assertion : Electric lines of force never cross at the point O midway between them is stable
each other. for displacements along the x-axis.
Reason : Electric field at a point superimpose to Reason: Force on test charge is zero. [2013]
give one resultant electric field. [2002]
37. Assertion : The Coulomb force is the dominating 41. Assertion : A deuteron and an a-particle are
force in the universe. placed in an electric field. If F1 and F2 be the
Reason : The Coulomb force is weaker than the forces acting on them and a1 and a2 be their
gravitational force. [2003] accelerations respectively then, a1 = a2.
38. Assertion : In a cavity within a conductor, the Reason : Forces will be same in electric field.
electric field is zero. [2015]
Reason : Charges in a conductor reside only at 42. Assertion : In the absence of an external electric
its surface. [2007] field, the dipole moment per unit volume of a
polar dielectric is zero.
Reason : The dipoles of a polar dielectric are
randomly oriented. [2016]
best describes the two statements. 43. Assertion : The positive charge particle is placed
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and in front of a spherical uncharged conductor. The
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. number of lines of forces terminating on the
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but sphere will be more than those emerging from it.
Reason is not the correct explanation of Reason : The surface charge density at a point
Assertion. on the sphere nearest to the point charge will be
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. negative and maximum in magnitude compared to
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. other points on the sphere. [2017]
EBD_7100
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions Charge q is lying inside the cube. Flux
q
1. (b) A body can be negatively charged by coming out of it = . It is now distributed
Î0
adding some excess electron to it. evenly over six faces. So, flux passing
2. (c) 1 electron carries a charge of through one face
1.6 × 10–19 coulomb. q 1 q
No. of electron in one coulomb = ´ =
Î0 6 6 Î0
1 6. (c) Field at Q is E. So, force on Q = QE
=
1.6 ´10 -19 This force will be applied on –2Q. Also
according to Coulomb’s law. So, field
1019 10
= = ´1018 = 6.25 ´1018. QE E
1.6 1.6 at –2Q is = .
3. (c) We know that for short dipole, –2Q 2
2p 7. (a) Charge on an electron
field at axial point, E a = = 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb
d3
and field at equatorial point, E q =
p 20 ´ 10 -6
No. of electrons required =
d3 1.6 ´ 10 -19
So, Ea = 2Eq
20
4. (a) Potential at 1 m from the charge = ´ 1013 = 1.25 ´ 1014
1. 6
K.10 -6 8. (b) Let the common potential after the touch is
VA = = K ´10 -6
1 V. So, applying conservation of charge
Potential at 10 m from the charge 10 × 10–6 = V × C1 + V × C2
K.10 -6 10 ´ 10 -6
VB = = K ´ 10 -7 V=
10 (C1 + C 2 )
Potential diff.= VA – VB = K(10–6 – 10–7) Charge on first sphere
Its velocity at 10 m is V, then
10 ´ 10-6
1 = C1V = ´ C1
´ mv2 = (VA - VB ) ´ q (C1 + C 2 )
2
Charge on second sphere
1 æ 1ö
´ 2 ´10-3 ´ v 2 = K ´10-6 ç1 - ÷ ´10-3 10 ´ 10-6
2 è 10 ø = C 2V = ´ C2
(C1 + C 2 )
K ´10-9 ´ 9 9
v2 = = K´ ´10-6 Charge densities are,
-3 10
10 ´10
10 ´10-6 ´ C1 10 ´ 10-6 ´ C2
9 = &
= 9 ´ 10 ´ ´10 -6 = 81 × 100
9
(C1 + C2 )4pr12 (C1 + C2 )4pr2 2
10
v = 90 m/sec C1 r22
5. (b) and their ratio = C ´ 2
2 r1
4p Î0 r1 r22
= ´
4p Î0 r2 r12
r 20
= 2 = = 2 :1
r1 10
[Capacity of spherical capacitor = 4pÎ0R]
9. (a) An electric dipole placed in a non-uniform s

electric field experiences a torque and a net Field at P due to plate, A =
2e 0
force. In a uniform field it experiences only
s
torque. Field at P due to plate, B =
2e 0
10. (c) +Q
A Both are acting in the same direction so,
2s s
Total field = =
2e 0 e 0
15. (c) Electric field inside sphere A is zero.
Potential inside is uniform. If we move out
B C of the sphere starting from centre, we find
-Q a +Q
potential dropping to –ve value at the
From the figure it is clear that force on Q surface of B. After that it becomes zero at
due to charges on B and C will be as shown infinity as we take potential at infinity to be
in the figure. Their resultant will be parallel zero.
to BC. So, their component perpendicular 16. (b) Impulse = mv – mu = Change in momentum
to BC will be zero.
= force × time qE0 × t = qE0t
11. (d) Net charge inside the surface is zero. So,
flux through the surface is zero. = Change in momentum
12. (b) Inside a uniformly charged non-conducting 17. (c) Field between two parallel sheet
sphere, charge is uniformly distributed. So, s 26.4 ´ 10 -12
field is there. In such cases electric field is = = =3 N/C
Î0 8.85 ´ 10 -12
directly proportional to the distance from
18. (a) A is positive as electric lines are coming
the centre. Outside the sphere, field is
out of it. B is negative as electric lines are
inversely proportional to (distance)2. So,
entering into it.
graph is as follows 19. (b) The given charge assembly can be
represented using the three co-ordinate axes
r0 x, y and z as shown in figure.
y
E 1
r
Eµ (0, a,0) q A(a, a,0)

Eµ
r2
a
O r = r0
–2q
13. (d) All Cs ions are symmetrically distributed (0, 0,0) O x
around Cl– so, resultant of all the forces a q(a, 0,0)
acting on Cl– will be zero. p
14. (c) s -s
+ - z
The charge –2q is placed at the origin O.
+ -
One +q charge is place at (a, 0, 0) and the
+ P - other +q charge is placed at (0, a, 0). Thus
+ - the system has two dipoles along x-axis and
A B y-axis respectively.
EBD_7100
As the electric dipole moment is directed p/2
from the negative to the positive charge \ Total field at centre = 2 ò dE cos q
hence the resultant dipole moment will be 0
uuur
along OA where co-ordinates of point A p/2
klR cos q 2kl
p/2
are (a, a, 0). The magnitude of each =2 ò R2
dq =
R ò cos qdq
dipolemoment, 0 0
p = qa q q
So, the magnitude of resultant dipole = (since l = )
2
2p Î0 R 2 pR
moment is
Q1 Q1
PR = p 2 + p 2 = (qa) 2 + (qa) 2 22. (c) ò E.dx = Î0 Þ E = 4pr 2 Î
0
= 2 qa
20. (a) Let electric flux linked with surfaces A, B,
and C are fA, fB and fC respectively. v
Thus ftotal = fA + fB + fC
Q fA = fC
q
and f total = Î (From Gauss's Law) 1 p cos q
0 23. (d) V=
4pe0 r 2
q
\ Î = 2f A + f B But fB = f (given) Here, V = 1.8 × 105V, q = 60°,
0
r = 50 × 10–2 = 0.5 m
q
Hence, Î = 2f A + f p cos 60°
0 \ 1.8 ´ 105 = 9 ´ 109 ´
q 1æ q ö (0.5) 2
or Î - f = 2f A or fA = 2 ç Î - f÷
0 è 0 ø 1.8 ´ 105 ´ 0.25 ´ 2
21. (a) or p = = 10–5C–m
+ + + 9 ´ 109
+ + 24. (a) The field lines in 1 are :
+ + (6 + 7)out – (2 + 7+ 15 + 8)in = 19 (in)
+ +
It represents negative charge.
+ +
dq The field lines in 2 are :
+ q + (9 + 5 + 6) out – (7+ 3 + 2) in = 8 (out)
+ C + It represents positive charge.
R 25. (d) The dipole is placed in a non-uniform field,
q therefore a force as well as a couple acts on
it. The force on the negative charge is more
dE
(F µ E) and is directed along negative
dE cos q
x-axis. Thus the dipole moves along
From figure, dl = Rdq
negative x-axis and rotates in an
Charge on dl = lRdq , anticlockwise direction.
where l = linear charge density .
E 1q –q
Electric field at centre due to dl
lRdq
dE = k. 2 a
E
R
We need to consider only the component
dE cos q, as the component dE sin q will +q E2q
cancel out.
26. (c) If we take a point M on the X-axis as shown rR

in the figure, then the net electric field is in E1 = directed towards the +Y
4e 0
X-direction. direction
\ Option (a) is incorrect.
(ii) The electric field created due to the
If we take a point N on Y-axis, we find net
electric field along +X direction. The same spherical negative charge density
will be true for any point on Y-axis. (c) is a rR
correct option. E2 = directed towards th e –Y
96e 0
Wµ0 = q (Vµ - V0 ) = q(0 - 0) = 0 direction.
\ (b) is incorrect. The direction of dipole \ The net electric field is
moment is from –ve to +ve. Therefore (d) is é 23rR ù
1
incorrect. E = E1 - E 2 = ê ú
27. (b) The flux for both the charges exactly cancels ë 16e0 û
6
the effect of each other. 32. (b) The dipole experiences a torque pE sin q
tending to bring itself back in the direction
28. (d) Electric displacement vector, D = eE of field.
Therefore, on being released (i.e. rotated)
As, e = e 0 K \ D = e0K E the dipole oscillates about an axis through
(Fnet )q = 0 its centre of mass and perpendicular to the
29. (a)
field. If I is the moment of inertia of the
Qq 4q 2 dipole about the axis of rotation, then the
Þ k +k =0
2
l2 equation of motion is
ælö
ç ÷ I.d2q/dt2 = – pE sin q
è2ø For small amplitude sin q » q
l/2 l/2
Thus d 2 q / dt 2 = -(pE / I).q = -w 2 q
q Q 4q
1 where w = ( pE / I) .
where k =
4pe0 This is a S.H.M., whose period of oscillation
Þ 4Qq + 4q2 = 0 is T = 2p / w = 2p ( I / pE) .
Þ Q=–q 33. (a) Charge resides on the outer surface of a
df conducting hollow sphere of radius R. We
30. (c) Electric field, E = - = -2ar
dt consider a spherical surface of radius r < R.
q By Gauss theorem
By Gauss's theorem E (4pr 2 ) = ++ +++
e0 ++ +
+ +
+
Þ q = -8pe 0 ar 3 +
+ R
+
+
+ O +
dq dq dr + S +
r= = ´ + r +
dV dr dV + E +
+ +
+ +
æ 1 ö ++ + + +
= (–24pe 0 ar 2 ) ç +
è 4pr 2 ÷ø = –6e 0 a rr 1
31. (a) We suppose that the cavity is filled up by a òsE.ds = e0 ´ char ge enclosed or
positive as well as negative volume charge
1
of r. So the electric field now produced at P E ´ 4 pr 2 = ´0 ÞE =0
e0
is the superposition of two electric fields.
(i) The electric field created due to the i.e., electric field inside a hollow sphere is
zero.
infinitely long solid cylinder is
EBD_7100
Type B : Assertion Reason Questions applied and induced electric fields are equal
and opposite thus the net charge resides
34. (e) Direction of electric field is from region of
on surface only. If any cavity is there inside
high potential to low potential & electron
the conductor, electric field will be zero
or any -ve charged particle will move against
in it.
the field or lower potential to higher
39. (d) Electric field at any point depends on
potential.
presence of all charges.
35. (a) A metallic shield may be used to block an
40. (b) If +ve charge is displaced along x-axis, then
electric field because field inside a metallic
net force will always act in a direction
shield is zero.
opposite to that of displacement and the
36. (b) Electric lines of force never cross each
test charge will always come back to its
other. Electric field at a point add up
original position.
vectorally to give one resultant electric field.
41. (c) qd = e, md = 2mp = 2m
So, they do not have independent existence
at the point of superposition so, electric qa = 2e, ma = 4mp = 4m
lines of force do not cross each other F1 = Fa = eE, F2 = Fa = 2eE ¹ F1
(crossing of electric lines of force at a point
means at a point two fields are having F1 eE
independent existence). Further, a1 = =
2m 2m
37. (d) Gravitational force is the dominating force
in the universe so Assertion is incorrect. F2 2eE eE
and a 2 = = = = a1
Gravitational force is weaker than 2m 4m 2m
Coulombic force so, Reason is incorrect. 42. (a)
38. (a) Net field inside the conductor is zero 43. (d) No. of lines entering the surface = No. of
because by virtue of induced charges, lines leaving the surface.
Electrostatic Potential
16 and Capacitance
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 6. The capacitors C1, C3, C4, C5 have a capacitance
4µF each and C2 has capacitance 10µF. The
1. A condenser of capacitor 50mF is charged to 10 effective capacitance between P and Q will be :
volt, the energy stored is : [1997]
(a) 5 ´ 10 -3 J (b) 2.5 ´ 10 -3 J C4
(c) 3.75 ´ 10 -3 J (d) 1.25 ´ 10 -3 J b d

P Q
2. If the sep aration between the plates of a capacitor a c
C1 C2 C3
is 5 mm, then the area of the plate of a 3F parallel
plate capacitor is : [1998] C5
(a) 4.259 ´ 109 m2 (b) 1.964 ´ 109 m2
(c) 12.81 ´ 109 m2 (d) 1.964 ´ 109 m2 (a) 8 µF (b) 6 µF [2002]
3. Minimum numbers of 8mF and 250 V capacitors (c) 4 µF (d) 2 µF
are used to make a combination of 16mF and 7. A 40 µF capacitor in a defibrillator is charged to
1000V are: [2000] 3000 V. The energy stored in the capacitor is set
(a) 4 (b) 32 through the patient during a pulse of duration 2
(c) 8 (d) 3 ms. The power delivered to the patient is :[2004]
4. An insulated charged sphere of radius 5 cm has (a) 45 kW (b) 90 kW
a potential of 10 V at the surface. The potential (c) 180 kW (d) 360 kW
at the centre will be [2000] 8. Equipotential surfaces associated with an
(a) same as that at 5 cm from the surface electric field which is increasing in magnitude
(b) same as that at 25 cm from the surface along the x-direction are : [2004]
(c) 10 V (a) planes parallel to yz-plane
(d) zero (b) planes parallel to xy-plane
5. Two materials having the dielectric constants (c) planes parallel to xz -plane
K1 and K2 are filled between two parallel plates (d) coaxial cylinders of increasing radii around
of a capacitor, which is shown in figure. The the x-axis
capacity of the capacitor is : [2001] 9. Five capacitors, each of capacitance value C are
connected as shown in the figure. The ratio of
capacitance between P & R, and the capacitance
between P & Q, is : [2006]
K1 K2 P
C C
Ae 0 (K1 ´ K 2 ) Ae 0 ( K 1 - K 2 )
(a) A (b)
d (K1 + K 2 ) d C C
Ae 0 K1K 2 Ae 0 ( K 1 + K 2 ) R S
(c) (d) C
(K1 + K 2 ) d (a) 3 : 1 (b) 5 : 2
(c) 2 : 3 (4) 1: 1
EBD_7100
10. A circle of radius R is drawn with charge + q at 15. Two charges of magnitude + q and – 3q are
the centre. A charge q0 is brought from point B placed 100 cm apart. The distance from + q
to C, then work done is B [2009] between the charges where the electrostatic
q0 potential is zero is : [2011]
(a) positive
(a) 25 cm (b) 50 cm
(b) negative +q (c) 75 cm (d) 80 cm
(c) zero C r
(d) infinite 16. If a dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a
r
11. A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance uniform electric field E , then torque acting on
C. When it is half filled with a dielectric of it is given by [2012]
dielectric constant 5, the percentage increase in r rr r r r
the capacitance will be [2009] (a) t = p.E (b) t = p ´ E
(a) 400% (b) 66.6% r r r r r r
(c) t = p + E (d) t = p - E
(c) 33.3% (d) 200%
12. A capacitor is charged by using a battery which 17. The four capacitors, each of 25 m F are connected
is then disconnected. A dielectric slab is as shown in Fig. The dc voltmeter reads 200 V.
introduced between the plates which results in The charge on each plate of capacitor is [2012]
(a) increase in the potential difference across V
the plates and reduction in stored energy – + – +
but no change in the charge on the plates
(b) decrease in the potential difference across
– + – +
the plates and reduction in the stored
energy but no change in the charge on the
plates
(c) reduction of charge on the plates and
(a) ± 2 ´ 10 -3 C (b) ± 5 ´ 10 -3 C
increase of potential difference across the (c) ± 2 ´ 10 -2 C (d) ± 5 ´ 10 -2 C
plates 18. A network of four capacitors of capacity equal to
(d) increase in stored energy but no change in C1 = C, C2 = 2C, C3 = 3C and C4 = 4C are conducted
potential difference across the plates to a battery as shown in the figure. The ratio of
[2010] the charges on C2 and C4 is [2012]
13. The maximum electric field that can be held in air
without producing ionisation of air is 107 V/m. (a) 4/7
The maximum potential therefore, to which a
conducting sphere of radius 0.10 m can be (b) 3/22
charged in air is [2010]
(a) 109 V (b) 108 V (c) 7/4
(c) 107 V (d) 106 V
14. Three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 are connected as (d) 22/3
shown in the figure to a battery of V volt. If the 19. In a hollow spherical shell, potential (V) changes
capacitor C3 breaks down electrically the change with respect to distance (s) from centre as [2013]
in total charge on the combination of capacitors is (a) (b)
C2 [2010]
V V
C1
V
C3 S S
(c) (d)
(a) (C1 + C2) V [1– C3/(C1 + C2 + C3)]
(b) (C1 + C2) V [1–(C1 + C2)/(C1 + C2 + C3)] V V
(c) (C1 + C2) V [1+ C3/(C1 + C2 + C3)]
(d) (C1 + C2) V [1– C2/(C1 + C2 + C3)] S
S
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance P-119
20. What is the effective capacitance between points TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
X and Y? C1 = 6m F [2014]
(a) 24 mF Directions for (Qs. 24-26) : These questions consist
C3 = 6m F C5 = 20m F C2 = 6m F of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
(b) 18 mF X Y Reason. While answering these questions, you are
A C B D
(c) 12 mF C4 = 6m F required to choose any one of the following five
(d) 6 mF responses.
21. The four capacitors, each of 25 m F are (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
connected as shown in fig. The dc voltmeter the Reason is a correct explanation of the
reads 200 V. The charge on each plate of Assertion.
capacitor is [2015] (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
V
Assertion.
– + – + (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
incorrect.
– + – + (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
correct.
(a) ± 2 ´ 10 -3 C (b) ± 5 ´ 10 -3 C 24. Assertion : If the distance between parallel
(c) ± 2 ´ 10 -2 C (d) ± 5 ´ 10 -2 C plates of a capacitor is halved and dielectric
constant is three times, then the capacitance
22. A charge +q is fixed at each of the points x = x0,
becomes 6 times.
x = 3x0, x = 5x0, .... upto ¥ on X-axis and charge
Reason : Capacity of the capacitor does not
–q is fixed on each of the points x = 2x0, x = 4x0,
depend upon the nature of the material. [1997]
x = 6x0, .... upto ¥ . Here x0 is a positive constant.
25. Assertion : If three capacitors of capacitances
Take the potential at a point due to a charge Q at
C1 < C2 < C3 are connected in parallel then their
Q equivalent capacitance CP > CS.
a distance r from it to be . Then the
4pe 0 r 1 1 1 1
potential at the origin due to above system of
Reason : = + + [2002]
C p C1 C 2 C3
charges will be [2016]
26. Assertion : A parallel plate capacitor is
q connected across battery through a key. A
(a) zero (b)
8pe 0 x 0 log e 2 dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is
introduced between the plates. The energy which
q log e 2 is stored becomes K times. [2008]
(c) infinity (d)
4pe 0 x 0 Reason : The surface density of charge onthe
plate remains constant or unchanged.
23. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a and
b (b>a) are placed concentrically in air. The two
are connected by a copper wire as shown in
figure. Then the equivalent capacitance of the
system is [2017]
ab B
(a) 4pe 0 b (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
b-a A
(b) 4pe 0 (a + b) a (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c) 4pe 0 b
(d) 4pe 0a (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
EBD_7100
27. Assertion : The total charge stored in a 31. Assertion : Charges are given to plates of two
capacitor is zero. plane parallel plate capacitors C1 and C2 (such
Reason : The field just outside the capacitor is that C2 = 2C1) as shown in figure. Then the key
s K is pressed to complete the circuit. Finally the
. (s is the charge density). [2009] net charge on upper plate and net charge the
e0
circuit. Finally the net charge on upper plate and
28. Assertion : The electrostatic force between the net charge on lower plate of capacitor C1 is
plates of a charged isolated capacitor decreases positive.
when dielectric fills whole space between plates. K
Reason : The electric field between the plates of
a charged isolated capacitance increases when
dielectric fills whole space between plates. 2m C 4m C
[2009] C1 C2
29. Assertion : Two concentric charged shells are 4m C 8m C
given. The potential difference between the
shells depends on charge of inner shell.
Reason : In a parallel plate capacitor both plates
always carry equal and opposite charge. [2012]
32. Assertion : For a non-uniformly charged thin
circular ring with net charge is zero, the electric
field at any point on axis of the ring is zero.
Reason : For a non-uniformly charged thin
Reason : Potential due to charge of outer shell circular ring with net charge zero, the electric
remains same at every point inside the sphere. potential at each point on axis of the ring is zero.
[2010] [2015]
30. Assertion : Two equipotential surfaces cannot 33. Assertion : Electric potential and electric
potential energy are different quantities.
cut each other.
Reason : For a system of positive test charge
Reason : Two equipotential surfaces are parallel
and point charge electric potential energy =
to each other. [2011]
electric potential. [2017]
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions So, central capacitor, that is C2 becomes

ineffective. Now equivalent circuit will
become as follows.
1 Q2 1
1. (b) Energy of condenser = = ´ CV 2
2 C 2 C C
1 -3
= ´ 50 ´10 - 6 ´10 ´10 = 2.5 ´ 10 joule
2 P Q
A Î0 A ´ 8.85 ´10 -12 C C
2. (d) C= Þ 3=
d 0.005 Now, two C are in series, their equivalent
capacity
0.015 15 ´ 10 -3 ´ 1012
A= =
8.85 ´ 10 -12 8.85 C2 C C
= = and then two are in parallel
9 2 2C 2 2
= 1.694 ´10 m so their equivalent capacity will be
3. (b) 1000 V C C
= + =C
2 2
So, total capacity = C = 4µF
7. (b) Energy given during this time period
1 1
= CV 2 = ´ 40 ´ 10-6 ´ 3000 ´ 3000
To create 1000 V, we need to combine 4 2 2
capacitors in series. Total capacity = 2 ´ 9 ´ 10 joule
8µF Work 90 ´ 2
becomes = = 2µF . In order to obtain Power = = = 90 ´ 103 W
4 Time 2 ´ 10-3
capacity of 16µF, 8 rows of this combination = 90 kW
will be needed in parallel.
8. (a) Equipotential surface is always
Total capacity = 2µF ´ 8 = 16µF perpendicular to the direction of electric
Total number of capacitor = 4 ´ 8 = 32 field. As the field is along x-direction,
4. (c) We know that in case of hollow sphere equipotential surface must be parallel to
potential at the surface is equal to potential yz-plane.
at the centre. So potential at the centre will 9. (c) In the first case, 3C and 2C are parallel.
be 10 V. Equivalent capacitance is,
Î AK C C 5C
5. (d) Capacity of Ist capacitor, C1 = 0 1 + =
d 3 2 6
Î0 AK 2 In the second case 1C & 4C are parallel.
Capacity of 2nd capacitor, C 2 = C C 5C
d Equivalent capacitance = + =
Both of these capacitors are parallel so, total 1 4 4
Î0 A 5C 4
capacity, C = C1 + C 2 = (K1 + K 2 ) Ratio = ´ = 2:3
d 6 5C
6. (c) The combination forms Wheatstone bridge 10. (c) Circle represents equipotential surface
\ work done around it = 0
C1 C5
as = Î A
C4 C3 11. (b) Initial capacitance = 0
d
EBD_7100
When it is half filled by a dielectric of 14. (a) Equivalent capacitance of circuit,
dielectric constant K, then 1 1 1
K e0 A e A = +
C1 = = 2K 0 Ceq C3 C1 + C2
d /2 d
e 0 A 2e 0 A (Since C1 and C2 are in parallel and which
and C2 = = is in series with C3).
d /2 d
C1 C2 1 C + C2 + C3
ie, = 1
Ceq C3 (C1 + C2 )
C3 (C1 + C2 )
\ Ceq =
C1 + C2 + C3
Since V is the voltage of battery,
charge, q = CeqV
C3 (C1 + C 2 )V
d =
1 1 1 d æ1 ö C1 + C2 + C3
\ C ¢ = C + C = 2e A çè K + 1 ÷ø If the capacitor C3 breaks down, then
1 2 0
effective capacitance,
d æ1 ö 6 d
= ç + 1÷ = C'eq = C1 + C 2
2e0 A è 5 ø 10 e0 A
\ New charge q' =
5e0 A '
C¢ = C eq V = (C1 + C2)V
3d
Hence, % increase in capacitance Change in total charge = q' – q
æ 5 e0 A e0 A ö C (C + C 2 )V
- = (C1 + C 2 )V - 3 1
ç ÷ C1 + C2 + C3
=ç 3 d d ÷ × 100
ç e0 A ÷ é C3 ù
ç ÷ = (C1 + C 2 )V ê1 - ú
è d ø ë C1 + C 2 + C3 û
æ5 ö 2 15. (a) q – 3q
= ç -1÷ ´100 = ´100 = 66.6%
è3 ø 3
12. (b) If a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K 1m
is filled in between the plates of a capacitor Suppose x is the required distance from q,
after charging the capacitor (i.e., after then
removing the connection of battery with 1 é 9 (-3q) ù
the plates of capacitor) the potential + =0
difference between the plates reduces to 4pe0 êë x 1 - x úû
1 1
times and the potential energy of After solving for x, we get x = m
K 4
r
1 16. (b) Given : Dipole moment of the dipole = p
capacitor reduces to times but there is
K ®
no change in the charge on the plates. and uniform electric field = E . We know
13. (d) E = 107 V/m that dipole moment (p) = q.a (where q is the
r = 0.10 m charge and a is dipole length). And when a
®
dipole of dipole moment p is placed in
V
E= ®
r uniform electric field E , then Torque (t) =
Either force × perpendicular distance
10 between the two forces = qaEsinq or
V = Er = 107 ×
100 r r r
t = pE sin q or t = p ´ E (vector form)
V = 106 V
17. (b) Charge on each plate of each capacitor 20. (d)

C1 = 6mF
Q = ±CV = ±25 ´ 106 ´ 200
= ±5 ´ 10 -3 C C3 C5 6mF
X A Y
6mF 20mF C2
18. (b)
C4
C2 C3 C2 C1
6mF
C3 C1 Equivalent circuit
C4
C4
6mF C2
C1 6mF
m
6F
V V 20mF
X C5 m
6F Y
Equivalent capacitance for three capacitors C3 6mF
(C1, C2 & C3) in series is given by 6mF C4
1 1 1 1 C 2C 3 + C 3C1 + C1C 2
= + + =
C eq. C1 C 2 C3 C1C 2C 3
C1 C2
Þ As C = C
3 4
C1C 2 C 3 Hence no charge will flow through 20mF
Ceq. =
C1C2 + C2 C 3 + C 3C1
C1 C2
C(2C)( 3C) 6
Þ Ceq. = = C
C(2C) + (2C)(3C) + (3C) C 11 X Y
Þ Charge on capacitors (C1, C2 & C3)
6C C3 C4
in series = Ceq V = V
11 C'
Charge on capacitor C4 = C4V = 4C V
6C ÞX Y
Charge on C2 V
6 1 3
= 11 = ´ =
Charge on C4 4CV 11 4 22 C''
19. (b) In shell, q charge is uniformly distributed C1 and C2 are in series, also C3 and C4 are in
over its surface, it behaves as a conductor. series.
+ Hence C' = 3 mF, C'' = 3 mF
+ C' and C'' are in parallel hence net
+ q capacitance
R + = C' + C'' = 3 + 3 = 6 mF
+
+ 21. (b) Charge on each plate of each capacitor
+
+ Q = ±CV = ±25 ´ 106 ´ 200
q
V= potential at surface = and = ±5 ´ 10 -3 C
4pe 0 R 22. (d) Potential at origin
q = (V1 + V3 + V5 + .....) – (V2 + V4 + V6 + .....)
inside V =
4pe 0 R
q é 1 1 1 ù
Because of this it behaves as an Þ ê - + .....¥ú
4pe 0 ë x 0 2x 0 3x 0 û
equipotential surface.
EBD_7100
A B
q é 1 1 1 ù
Þ ê1 - 2 + 3 - 4 .....¥ ú + –
4 pe 0 x 0 ë û + –
+ –
q q + –
Þ log e (1 + 1) Þ log e 2 + –
4pe 0 x 0 4pe 0 x 0 E E
+ –
23. (c) All the charge given to inner sphere will + –
pass on to the outer one. So capacitance + –
+ –
that of outer one is 4p Î0 b . + –
D C
Draw a Gaussian surface ABCD as shown.
24. (c) We know that capacity of capacitor is ur
The field E is uniform on faces AD and
directly proportional to dielectric constant BC
and inversely proportional to distance. So, ur ur
the net effect of making distance halved & Ñò
Þ E .ds = 0 yields E = 0 .
making dielectric constant three times will 28. (d) For isolated capacitor Q = constant,
be capacity becoming six times. F = constant.
As nature of the material (dielectric s
But E = , hence E decreases.
constant) is a factor influencing the K Î0
capacity, therefore, Reason is incorrect. \ Assertion is incorrect and Reason is
25. (c) If three capacitors are joined in parallel then correct.
their equivalent capacitor will be less than 29. (a) A
the least value of capacitor so B
Cp > Cs Q Q2
R1 1
1 1 1 1 R2
= + + is incorrect.
C p C1 C 2 C3 1 Q1 + Q2
VA =
26. (c) In the given cases, V = V0 (remains 4 pe 0 R2
constant). 1 æ Q1 Q2 ö
VB = +
1 4 pe 0 çè R1 R2 ÷ø
2
Energy stored inthe capacitor U = CV 1 æ 1 1 ö
2 VB – VA = Q1 ç - ÷
When a dielectric slab of dielectric constant 4pe 0 è R1 R2 ø
K is introduced between the plates of the 30. (c) Two equipotential surfaces are not
necessarily parallel to each other.
condenser, then C ¾¾ ® KC 31. (d) Charge distribution on each surface makes
So energy stored will become K times . both capacitor of same potential difference
Since Q = CV , So Q will become K times hence charge will not flow.
\ Surface charge density 32. (d) For a non-uniformly charged thin circular
ring with net zero charge, electric potential
KQ at each point on its axis is zero. Hence
s' = = Ks 0
A electric field at each point on its axis must
27. (c) Charge stored on the two plates are + Q be perpendicular to the axis. Therefore
and –Q Þ Q + (– Q) = 0 and hence Assertion Assertion is incorrect and Reason is
is correct. The field however, outside the correct.
plates is zero. 33. (c) Potential and potential energy are different
quantities and cannot be equated.
Current Electricity P-125
17 Current Electricity
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS R 2 = 4W
1. A wire of radius r has resistance R. If it is R1 = 2W R 4 = 2W

r A B
stretched to a radius , its resistance will be :
2
[1997]
R 3 = 4W
(a) 16 R (b) 2 R
(c) 4 R (d) zero (a) 4 W (b) 2 W
(c) 8 W (d) 6 W
2. A battery of e.m.f. 20 V and internal resistance
6. Two filaments of same length are connected first
6W is connected to a resistor as shown in figure.
in series then in parallel. For the same amount of
If the current in the circuit is 1 amp, the resistance
main current flowing, the ratio of the heat
of the resistor will be : [1997]
produced is: [1999]
20V (a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 2 : 1
7. Given a current carrying wire of non-uniform
cross-section. Which one of the following is
constant throughout the length of wire ?[2000]
(a) current only
(b) current and drift speed
(c) drift speed only
(a) 14W (b) 16W (d) current, electric field and drift speed
(c) 28W (d) 7W 8. The current in the given circuit is : [2000]
3. The value of current i in the circuit as shown in 10 W 5V
figure is : [1998]
R2= 5W A B
R1= 5W R3= 5W 2V 20 W
3V
(a) 0.3 amp (b) 0.4 amp
(c) 0.1 amp (d) 0.2 amp
R4= 5W 9. Same length of two identical wires are first
connected is series and then in parallel, then the
(a) 1.8 A (b) 0.8 A
amount of heat produced in both the conditions
(c) 0.2 A (d) 1.6 A
are in the ratio : [2000]
4. Electroplating is not provided to be used for
(a) shinning appearance [1998] (a) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1
(b) protection of metal against corrosion (c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
(c) fine finishing to the surface 10. The temperature of the cold junction of a
(d) hardening the metals thermocouple is 0°C and the temperature of the
5. In the given figure, the equivalent resistance hot junction is T°C. The relation for the thermo
between two points A and B will be: [1999] 1
emf is given by; E = AT - BT 2
2
EBD_7100
(when A = 16 and B = 0.08). The temperature of (a) 1.5 A (b) 3.0 A
inversion will be : [2001]
(c) 15 A (d) 300 A
(a) 500°C (b) 460°C
(c) 600°C (d) 400°C 16. The temperature (T) dependence of resistivity
11. The cell has an emf of 2V and the internal (r) of a semi-conductor is represented by :[2004]
resistance of this cell is 0.1W, it is connected to
a resistance of 3.9W. The voltage across the cell
r r
will be : [2001]
(a) (b)
(a) 1.95 V (b) 1.5 V
(c) 2 V (d) 1.8 V
12. The internal resistance of a cell is the resistance of : T T
(a) electrolyte used in the cell [2001]
(b) electrodes of the cell
(c) vessel of the cell r r
(d) none of these (c) (d)
13. An electric bulb marked 40 W and 200V, is used
in a circuit of supply voltage 100V. Now its power
is [2002] T T
(a) 10 W (b) 20 W 17. For ensuring dissipation of same energy in all
(c) 40 W (d) 100 W three resistors (R1, R2, R3) connected as shown
14. A wire of length L is drawn such that its diameter in figure, their values must be related as
is reduced to half of its original diameter. If the [2005]
initial resistance of the wire were 10 W, its new
resistance would be : [2003] R1
(a) 40 W (b) 80 W
(c) 120 W (d) 160 W
15. Eels are able to generate current with biological v R2 R3
cells called electroplaques. The electroplaques
is an eel are arranged in 100 rows, each row
stretching horizontally along the body of the
fish containing 5000 electroplaques. The (a) R1 = R2 = R3
arrangement is suggestively shown below. Each (b) R2 = R3 and R1 = 4R2
electroplaque has an emf of 0.15 V and internal (c) R2 = R3 and R1 = (1/4)R2
resistance of 0.25 W. The water surrounding the (d) R1 = R2 + R3
eel completes a circuit between the head and its
tail. If the water surrounding it has a resistance 18. The voltage of clouds is 4 × 106 volt with respect
of 500 W, the current an eel can produce in water to round. In a lighteing strike lasting 100 m sec,
is about : [2004] a charge of 4 coulombs is delivered to the ground.
0.15V 0.25W The power of lightening strike is : [2006]
+ – + –
(a) 160 MW (b) 80 MW
(c) 20 MW (d) 500 KW
+ – + –
19. Faraday law of electrolysis indirectly shows
100
5000 electroplaques per row rows (a) quantisation of charge [2007]
(b) quantisation of angular momentum
(c) quantisation of current
(d) quantisation of viscosity
+ – + –
20. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an
external resistance R. The internal resistance of
the two sources are R1 and R2 (R2 > R1). If the
500 W
potential difference across the source having (a) 9W (b) 12W

internal resistance R2 is zero, then [2008] (c) 15W (d) 8W
(a) R = R2 – R1 24. The resistance between points A and B is [2009]
(b) R = R2 × (R1 + R2)/(R2 – R1) R R R R
A
(c) R = R1R2/(R2 – R1)
R R R ¥
(d) R = R1R2/(R1 – R2) B
21. In the figure shown, the capacity of the R R R R
condenser C is 2mF. The current in 2W resistance
is [2008]
(a) ( )
3 +1 R (b) ( )
3 –1 R
2W (c) 4R (d) ( 3 + 2) R
25. A potentiometer is connected between A and B
and the balance point is obtained at 203. 6 cm.
3W
2µF When the end of the potentiometer connected
4W
to B is shifted to C, then the balance point is
6V obtained at 24.6 cm. If now the potentiometer be
+ – 2.8W connected between B and C, the balance point
(a) 9A (b) 0.9 A will be at
1 1
(c) A (d) A A B C
9 0.9 (a) 179. 0 cm (b) 197.2 cm [2010]
22. When the key K is passed at t = 0, which of the (c) 212.0 cm (d) 228.0 cm
following statements about the current I in the
resistor AB of the given circuit is ture? [2008] 26. Four wires of the same diameter are connected
in turn between two points, maintained at a
A 1000 W B constant potential difference. Their resistivities
2V K are; r and L (wire 1)., 1.2r and 1.2 L (wire 2), 0.9
r and 0.9L (wire 3) and r and 1.5 L (wire 4). Rank
1 µF C 1000 W
the wires according to the rates at which energy
is dissipated as heat, greatest first [2010]
(a) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2 (b) 4 > 2 > 1 > 3
(a) I = 2 mA at all t (c) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (d) 3 > 1 > 2 > 4
(b) I oscillates between 1 m A and 2 mA
27. The resistance of a galvanometer is 50 W and
(c) I = 1 mA at all t
current required to give full scale deflection is
(d) At t = 0, I = 2mA and with time it goes to 1
100 µA in order to convert it into an ammeter for
mA
reading upto 10 A. It is necessary to put an
23. What is the equivalent resistance across A and
resistance of [2010]
B in the figure shown, if R = 3W? [2009]
(a) 3.5 × 10–4 W (b) 10 × 10–4 W
A B (c) 2.5 × 10–4 W (d) 5 × 10–4 W
28. Two resistances equal at 0° C with temperature
R R coefficient of resistance a1 and a2 joined in series
act as a single resistance in a circuit. The
R temperature coefficient of their single resistance
will be : [2011]
a1a 2
R (a) a1+ a2 (b)
R a1 + a 2
a1 - a 2 a1 + a 2
(c) (d)
2 2
EBD_7100
29. When the power delivered by a 100 volt battery 2V
is 40 watts the equivalent resistance of the circuit + – – +
A
is : [2011]
(a) 100 ohms (b) 250 ohms
(c) 300 ohms (d) 350 ohms
2W
30. The electro-chemical equivalent of a substance
is numerically equal to the mass of the substance
deposited if a current I flows through the V
+ –
electrolyte for 0.25 seconds. The value of I is : (II)
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A [2011]
(a) 2 V in circuit I and 0 V in circuit II
(c) 3 A (d) 4 A
(b) 0 V in both circuits
31. Two wires of same metal have the same length
but their cross sections are in the ratio 3 : 1. (c) 2 V in both circuits
They are joined in series. The resistance of the (d) 0 V in circuit I and 2 V in circuit II
thicker wire is 10 W. The total resistance of the 35. Three copper wires of lengths and cross sectional
combination is [2012] areas are (l, A), (2 l, A/2) and (l/2, 2A). Resistance
(a) 5/2 W (b) 40/3 W is minimum in [2013, 2017]
(c) 40 W (d) 100 W (a) wire of cross-sectional area A/2
32. A constant voltage is applied between the two (b) wire of cross-sectional area A
ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is (c) wire of cross-sectional area 2A
developed in it. The heat developed is double if (d) same in all the three cases
[2012] 36. The effective resistance between points P and
(a) both the length and radius of wire are Q of the electrical circuit shown in the figure is
halved [2013]
(b) both length and radius of wire are doubled
2Rr
(c) the radius of wire is doubled (a)
(d) the length of the wire is doubled R+r 2R 2R
33. In the circuit shown in figure, the 5W resistance 8R ( R + r )
develops 20.00 cal/s due to the current flowing (b) 2R
3R + r
through it. The heat developed in 2W resistance P r
Q
(c) 2r + 4R r
(in cal/s) is [2012] 2R 2R
2R
6W 9W 5R
(d) + 2r
2
l 2W l 37. Find out the value of current through 2W
A C 5W D B resistance for the given circuit [2014]
(a) 23.8 (b) 14.2

(c) 11.9 (d) 7.1 5W 10 W
10 V 20 V
34. For the circuits shown in figures I and II, the
2W
voltmeter reading would be [2012]
2V – + (a) zero (b) 2 A
+ – A (c) 5 A (d) 4 A
38. The cold junction of a thermocouple is
maintained at 10ºC. No thermo e.m.f. is
2W
developed when the hot junction is maintained
at 530ºC. The neutral temperature is [2014]
+
V
– (a) 260ºC (b) 265ºC
(I) (c) 270ºC (d) 520ºC
39. The equivalent resistance between A and B is (a) 1W (b) 2W

A [2015] (c) 3W (d) 4W
R R 44. In the circuit shown, the current in the 1W
resistor is : [2017]
B R 6V P 2W
R R 1W 9V
8R 5R
(a) (b)
5 8 3W W 3W
(a) 0.13 A, from Q to P
3R 7R
(c) (d) (b) 0.13 A, from P to Q
8 8
40. A potentiometer wire, 10 m long, has a resistance (c) 1.3A from P to Q
of 40W. It is connected in series with a resistance (d) 0A
box and a 2 V storage cell. If the potential gradient
along the wire is 0.1 m V/cm, the resistance
unplugged in the box is [2015] Directions for (Qs. 45-50) : These questions consist
(a) 260 W (b) 760 W of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
(c) 960 W (d) 1060 W Reason. While answering these questions, you are
41. A current source drives a current in a coil of required to choose any one of the following five
resistance R1 for a time t. The same source drives responses.
current in another coil of resistance R2 for same (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
time. If heat generated is same, find internal the Reason is a correct explanation of the
resistance of source. [2016] Assertion.
R1R 2 (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
(a) (b) R1 + R 2 Reason is not a correct explanation of the
R1 + R 2
Assertion.
(c) zero (d) R 1R 2 (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
42. Two long conductors, separated by a distance d (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
carry current I1 and I2 in the same direction. They (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
exert a force F on each other. Now the current in correct.
one of them is increased to two times and its 45. Assertion : In a simple battery circuit, the point
direction is reversed. The distance is also of the lowest potential is positive terminal of the
increased to 3d. The new value of the force battery.
between them is [2016] Reason : The current flows towards the point of
2F F the higher potential, as it does in such a circuit
(a) - (b) from the negative to the positive terminal. [2002]
3 3
46. Assertion : A larger dry cell has higher emf.
F
(c) –2 F (d) - Reason : The emf of a dry cell is proportional to
3 its size. [2004]
43. Twelve resistors each of resistance 16 W are 47. Assertion : A current continues to flow in
connected in the circuit as shown. The net superconducting coil even after switch is off.
resistance between AB is [2016] Reason : Superconducting coils show Meissner
effect. [2007]
48. Assertion : Voltmeter is connected in parallel
with the circuit.
Reason : Resistance of a voltmeter is very
large. [2007]
EBD_7100
49. Assertion : Ohm's law is applicable for all
conducting elements.
Reason : Ohm's law is a fundamental law. [2007]
50. Assertion : An electric bulb becomes dim, when
the electric heater in parallel circuit is switched
on.
Reason : Dimness decreases after sometime.
[2008]
carefully and answer the question on the basis of Reason : An ideal voltmeter draws almost no
following options. You have to select the one that current due to very large resistance, and hence
best describes the two statements. (V) and (a) will read zero. [2012]
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and 55. Assertion : Long distance power transmission
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. is done at high voltage.
Reason : At high voltage supply power losses
Assertion. are less. [2014]
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 56. Assertion : When current through a bulb decreases
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. by 0.5%, the glow of bulb decreases by 1%.
51. Assertion : The electric bulbs glows immediately Reason : Glow (Power) which is directly
when switch is on. proportional to square of current. [2015]
Reason : The drift velocity of electrons in a r
metallic wire is very high. [2009] 57. Assertion : The current density J at any point
52. Assertion : In a simple battery circuit, the point in
r ohmic resistor is in direction of electric field
of the lowest potential is negative terminal of E at that point.
the battery. Reason : A point charge when released from
Reason : The current flows towards the point of rest in a region having only electrostatic field
the higher potential, as it does in such a circuit always moves along electric lines of force.
from the negative to the positive terminal.
[2016]
[2010]
53. Assertion : Free electrons always keep on 58. Assertion : Bending a wire does not effect
moving in a conductor even then no magnetic electrical resistance.
force act on them in magnetic field unless a Reason : Resistance of wire is proportional ot
current is passed through it. resistivity of material. [2016]
Reason : The average velocity of free electron is
59. Assertion : Kirchoff¢s junction rule follows from
zero. [2011]
conservation of charge.
54. Assertion : All electric devices shown in the
circuit are ideal. The reading of each of ammeter Reason : Kirchoff¢s loop rule follows from
(a) and voltmeter (V) is zero. conservation of momentum. [2017]
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions

2I2 Rt
Ratio = = 4 :1
1. (a) Let length & cross sectional area of wire be I 2 Rt
l & a respectively. r be the specific
resistance, then 2
7. (a) Current is uniform throughout the wire even
l if it is of non-uniform thickness. This is
R=r
a because charge passing through every
1 cross sectional area per unit time remains
If radius becomes half, area becomes th
4 the same throughout the wire. So, current
or cross sectional area after the stretch remains the same.
a 8. (c) Two batteries are joined with opposite
= . Let its length increases to l'. Since polarity so, total e.m.f. = 5 – 2 = 3V
4
volume remains the same in the process, Total resistance = 10 + 20 = 30W
a 3
la = l'´ Þ l ' = 4l Current = = 0.1A
4 30
Let R' be the resistance of streched wire,
9. (b) P P
4l l
R' = r = 16 ´ r = 16 R
a/4 a V
20
2. (a) = 1 Þ 20 = R + 6 Þ R = 14 W
R +6
3. (b) Three 5W resistors are in series. Their total
resistance = 15W. Now it is in parallel with
5W resistor, so total resistance, V
1 1 1 3+1 4 Let the resistances be r for each wire.
= + = =
R 5 15 15 15 Heat generated = I2(2r) = 2I2r,
15 where I is current through both of them.
R= When they are connected in parallel each
4
I
V 3 3´ 4 will have current = .
\ I= = = = 0.8A 2
R 15 / 4 15 2
4. (d) Electroplating is a process which uses the æIö I 2 rt
=
Heat generated ç ÷ rt ´ 2 =
process of electrolysis to form a thin layer è 2ø 2
of a metal on any other metal. It is not used Ratio of heat generated in two cases
for hardening purpose.
2I 2 rt 4 ´ I 2 rt
6. (d) Two 4W resistors are in parallel so, their = = = 4 :1
total resistance = 2W. Now three 2W I 2 rt I 2 rt
resistors are in series. Their total resistance 2
will be 6 W. 1
10. (d) Since, E = AT - BT 2
7. (b) Let main current be I & let the resistance of 2
each wire be R. 1
E = 16T - 0.08T 2 = 16T - 0.04T2
In the first case heat produced 2
= I2 Rt + I2Rt = 2I2Rt At temperature of inversion, E = 0
In the second case heat produced So, 16T – 0.04T2 = 0 Þ T = 0
2 or 16 - 0.04T = 0
æ Iö I 2 Rt
= ç ÷ Rt ´ 2 = 16
è 2ø 2 T= = 400°C
0.04
EBD_7100
2 2 So, slope of r - T curve is negative & it is

11. (a) Current = = = 0.5 dependent upon T i.e. it is not constant.
3.9 + 0.1 4
Voltage across the cell So, alternative (c) is right choice.
= 2 - 0.5 ´ 0.1 = 2 - 0.05 = 1.95 V 17. (c) Let i1, i2 & i3 be current in R1, R2 & R3.
12. (a) Internal resistance of a cell is the resistance Now, power consumed are same so,
of electrolyte used in the cell. That is why
i12 R1 = i 2 2 R 2 = i32 R 3 .....(i)
when it is heated its conductivity is
increased due to mobility of ions. i1R2 = i3R3 [volt over them are same]
13. (a) Resistance of bulb .....(ii)
Dividing (i) with (ii), i2 = i3 Þ R2 = R3
V 2 200 ´ 200
= = = 1000W i1 = 2i2 [i1 is equally being divided]
P 40
i12
V 2
100 ´ 100 i12 R1 = i 2 2 R 2 = R2
New power = = = 10W . 4
R 1000 R2 = 4R1
14. (d) Let the new length be l1, keeping volume
constant, 18. (a) Energy delivered to the ground = V.Q.
2 6 6
ærö = 4 ´ 10 ´ 4 = 16 ´ 10 joule
pr 2 L = p ç ÷ l1
è2ø 16 ´ 106 16 ´ 106
Þ l 1 = 4L Power = = = 16 ´ 107
time -3
100 ´ 10
rL rl1 = 160 MW
Now, 10 = ; R=
pr 2 2 19. (a) Faraday's law says that amount of
ærö
pç ÷ substance liberated or deposited at an
è 2ø electrode is proportional to quantity of
R r l1 ´ 4 pr 2 4L ´ 4 ´ r 2 16 charge passed through it. Thus, mass µ
= ´ = = charge. Since mass is quantised hence
10 pr 2 rL r2 ´ L 1
R = 160 indirectly charge is quantised.
15. (a) It is an example of mixed arrangement. 2e
20. (a) I =
Total potential = 0.15 × 5000 = 750 V. R + R1 + R 2
Resistance per row = 0.25 × 5000 = 1250 W
R1 R2
There are 100 rows, so I
1250
Total resistance = = 12.5 W
100
It is connected with external resistance of
500W, so
Total resistance = 500 + 12.5 = 512.5 W
750 R
Current = = 1.5 A Pot. difference across second cell
512 .5
16. (c) In a semiconductor when temperature = V = e - IR 2 = 0
increases conductivity increases so 2e
resistivity decreases i.e. e = .R2 = 0
R + R1 + R 2
1
Tµ R + R1 + R 2 - 2R 2 = 0
r
1 R + R1 - R 2 = 0 \ R = R 2 - R1
r T = constant Þ r = K
T 21. (b) At the steady state, the branch containing
1 dr K capacitor will be in effective as no current
dr = -K 2 dT Þ =- 2
T dT T will be flowing through it
IIT JEE NEET eBooks: www.crackjee.xy
2W \ Rf = R'' + R5 + R4 = R + R + 2R/3 = 8R/3,

Since R = 3W
3W
3
I I \ R f = 8 ´ = 8W .
3
6V 2.8 W 24. (a) Let resistance between A and B be r.
+ –
R´r
Since 2W and 3W resistors are in parallel, \ r = 2R +
equivalent resistance, r+R
2´3 R
R'= = 1.2W A
2+3 R r
Total current throgh the battery, R
B
6
I= = 1.5A Þ r = ( 3 + 1)R
1.2 + 2.8
\ Current flowing through 2W resistor 25. (a) e1 = 203.6 ....(i)
e1 – e2 = 24.6 ...(ii)
3
I(2W) = ´ 1.5 = 0.9A (i) - (ii) gives e2 = 179.0 cm
5
22. (d) At time t = 0 i.e., when the capacitor is rL
26. (d) R1= ,
charging, then current through the circuit, A
2 (1.2r)(1.2L) 1.44rL
I= = 2mA R2 = = ,
1000 A A
When capacitor is fully charged, no current (0.9r)(0.9L) 0.81rL
will pass through it. R3 = = ,
A A
Hence current through the circuit
r(1.5L) 1.5rL
2 R4 = =
I= = 1mA A A
2000 \ R3 < R1 < R2 < R4
23. (d) R1 = R2 = R3 = R4 = R5 = R
1
For constant potential, P µ ,
R
R5 R4 \ P3 < P1 < P2 < P4
R3 27. (d) G = 50 W, IG = 100µA, I = 10 A
æ I ö
Shunt, S = ç G ÷ G
R1 R2
è I - IG ø
æ 100 ´ 10 -6 ö
Þ S= ç ÷ ´ 50
è 10 - 100 ´ 10 -6 ø
R ' & R2 are in series
Their equivalent resistance, 10-4
R ' = R1 + R2 = 2R = ´ 50 = 5 × 10–4 W
10
Now R' & R3 in are parallel 28. (d) R1 = R0(1 + a1t) + R0(1 + a2t)
Their equivalent resitance R" is given by
æ a + a2 ö
1
=
1
+
1
=
1
+
1 = 2R 0 ç1 + 1 t÷
è 2 ø
R '' R ' R 3 2R R
1 1+ 2 æ a1 + a 2 ö
= = R '0 çè1 + t÷
ø
R '' 2R 2
Comparing with R = R0 (1+ at)
2R
R '' = a + a2
3 a= 1
R'', R5 & R4 are in series 2
EBD_7100
V2 V2 1 1 1 1 1 1 R+r
29. (b) P= Þ R= \ = + + = + =
R P R PQ 4R 4R 2r 2R 2r 2Rr
30. (d) We have, m = Zq
m 2Rr
Þ R PQ =
or Z= R+r
q
2R A 2R
For q = 1C, Z = m
So, for 1 coulomb of charge, q = i t 2R
r O r
or 1 = i × 0.25 or i = 4 A P Q
31. (c) Resistance of a wire = rl/A. 2R
For the same length and same material, 2R B 2R
R 2 A1 3 If a potential difference is applied across P
= = or, R 2 = 3R1
R1 A 2 1 and Q, there will be no currents in arms AO
The resistance of thick wire, R1 = 10 W and OB. So these resistance will be
The resistance of thin wire = 3R1 = 3 × 10 ineffective.
= 30 W. 2R 2R
Total resistance = 10 + 30 = 40W.
rl r
32. (b) R = 2 P r Q
pr
l r 2R 2R
When l is and radius is , 37. (a) The current in 2W resistor will be zero
2 2
rl4 2rl because it is not a part of any closed loop.
\ R' = =
p2r 2 pr 2
So, R' = 2R. So, heat is doubled according 5W 10 W
to H = I2RT. 10 V 20 V
33. (b) Let I1 be the current throug 5 W resistance, 2W
I2 through (6 + 9) W resistance. Then as per 38. (c) Neutral temperature,
question,
q + q0 530 + 10
I12 ´ 5 = 20 or, I1 = 2A. qn = i = = 270º C.
2 2
Potential difference across C and D = 2 × 5 39. (b) The equivalent circuit can be redrawn as
= 10V R R
10 2 R R
Current I 2 = = A. A· · B º ·
6+9 3 R R
R R 2R
Heat produced per second in 2W R R
2
æ8ö º º º
= I2 R ç ÷ ´ 2 = 14.2cal / s. 2R / 3
è 3ø R 5R / 3
34. (d) In the circuit I, the key is open so current in 5R / 8
the circuit is zero. Therefore the voltmeter 40. (b) Potential gradient along wire
gives 0V reading. In the circuit II, the reading
potential difference along wire
of the voltmeter is 2V. =
length of wire
l
35. (c) R µ ; I ´ 40
A or, 0.1 ´10 -3 = V / cm
So, the resistance of the wire will be 1000
minimum when the area of cross-section is 1
or, Current in wire, I= A
maximum and length is minimum. 400
36. (a) The circuit is symmetrical about axis POQ. 2 1
or, = or R = 800 - 40 = 760 W
Therefore the equivalent circuit is drawn 40 + R 400
41. (d) Let internal resistance of source = R 44. (a) From KVL
Current in coil of resistance – 6 + 3I1 + 1 (Ii – I2) = 0
V
R1 = I1 =
R + R1 6V P 2W
Current in coil of resistance
V
R 2 = I2 = 9V
R + R2
Further, as heat generated is same, so 1W
I12R1t = I22R2t
2 2 3W q 4W
æ V ö æ V ö
or çç ÷÷ R1 = çç ÷÷ R 2 6 = 3 I 1 + I1 – I2
è R + R1 ø è R + R2 ø 4I1 – I2 = 6 ...(1)
Þ R1(R + R2)2 = R2(R + R1)2
– 9 + 2I2 – (I1 – I2) + 3I2 = 0
Þ R2R1 + R1R22 + 2RR1R2
– I1 + 6I2 = 9 ...(2)
= R2R2 + R12R2 + 2RR1R2?
On solving (1) and (2)
Þ R2(R1 – R2) = R1R2(R1 – R2)
I1 = 0.13A
Þ R= R 1R 2 Direction Q to P, since I1 > I2.
æm I ö Alternatively
42. (a) F = ç 0 1 ÷ lI2 When I, = – 2I, and r =3r,,
è 2 pr ø p
3
m 0 - 2I1lI2 V
6V 9V 8
then F' = – 1W 1W
2p.3r
æ m 0 I1I2 l ö æ 2 ö 2 3W 5W 15 W I
=ç ÷ ç - ÷ =- F 8
è 2 pr ø è 3 ø 3
43. (d) d
R
E1 E 2 6 9
+ -
r1 r2 3 5= 3
R Eq = 1 1 =
1 1 8V
+ +
r1 r2 3 5
R
R R
3
R R R
R 8 = 3
R \ I = 15 23 = 0.13A
+1
8
R Considering potential at P as 0V and at Q as
A B x volt, then
R/3 2W
6V O
P
1W
R/3 R/3 9V
A R/3 B
3W 3W Q
3R R
´ 2 x-6 x-0 x+9
3 3 = R = 4W + + =0
Rnet between AB =
3R R 4R 3 1 5
+
3 3
EBD_7100
2 it draws a little lesser current. Consequently,

\ x= the current through the electric bulb
23 recovers.
x-0 2 51. (c) In a conductor there are large number of
\ i= = =0.13A
1 23 free electrons. When we close the circuit,
the electric field is established instantly
From Q to P
with the speed of electromagnetic wave
Type B : Assertion Reason Questions which cause electron drift at every portion
of the circuit. Due to which the current is
45. (d) Positive terminal of a battery is point of set up in the entire circuit instantly. The
highest potential and current flows from current which is set up does not wait for
highest to lowest potential i.e. from +ve to the electrons flow from one end of the
–ve potential. conductor to the another end. It is due to
46. (d) The e.m.f. of a dry cell is dependent upon this r eason, the electric bulb glows
the electrode potential of cathode and immediatly when switch is on.
anode which in turn is dependent upon 52. (c) Positive terminal of a battery is point of
the reaction involved as well as highest potential and current flows from
concentration of the electrolyte. It has highest to lowest potential i.e. from +ve to
nothing to do with size of the cell. –ve potential.
So, both assertion & reason are wrong. 53. (a) In the absence of the electric current, the
47. (b) Current continues to flow in a super free electrons in a conductor are in a state
conducting coil even after switch off of random motion, like molecule in a gas.
because at critical temperature, its Their average velocity is zero. i.e. they do
resistance is zero so there is no hinderance not have any net velocity in a direction. As
to current flow. a result, there is no net magnetic force on
the free electrons in the magnetic field. On
Meissner effect says th at at critical
passing the current, the free electrons ac-
temperature magnetic field inside the
quire drift velocity in a definite direction,
conductor is zero i.e, B = 0 but this does hence magnetic force acts on them, unless
not explain assertion. the field has no perpendicular component.
48. (b) Voltmeter is a galvanometer with high 54. (a)
resistance. It measures potential drop 2
across any part of an electrical circuit. It is æ Pö
55. (a) Power loss = i2R = ç ÷ R
connected in parallel so that it does not è Vø
draw any current itself (due to high [P = Transmitted power]
resistance) an d does not affect net 56. (a) Glow = Power (P) = I2R
resistance of the circuit. dP æ dI ö
49. (c) A conducting device obeys ohm's law when \ = 2 ç ÷ = 2 ´ 0.5 = 1%
P è I ør
the resistance of device is independent of r
the magnitude and polarity of the applied 57. (c) From relation J = s E , the current density
r
potential difference which happens in J at any point in ohmic r resistor is in
metallic conductors. Reason is false as direction of electric field E at that point. In
ohm's law is not true for non-ohmic space having non-uniform electric field,
conductors such as junction diodes etc. charges released from rest may not move
50. (b) The electric power of a heater is more than along ELOF. Hence Assertion is correct
1 while Reason is incorrect.
that of a bulb. As P µ , the resistance of
R I
heater is less than that of the electric bulb. 58. (a) Resistance wire R = r , where r is
A
When a heater connected in parallel to the resistivity of material which does not
bulb is switched on, it draws more current depend on the geometry of wire. Since when
due to its lesser resistance, consequently, wire is bent resistivity, length and area of
the current through the bulb decreases and cross-section do not change, therefore
so it becomes dim. resistance of wire also remain same.
When the heater coil becomes sufficient 59. (c) Kir ch off 's loop rule follows from
hot, its resistance becomes more and hence conservation of energy.
Moving Charges
18 and Magnetism
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 8. A rectangular loop carrying a current i1 , is
situated near a long straight wire carrying a
1. An electron moving with kinetic energy steady current i2. The wire is parallel to one of
6.6 ´10-14 J enters in a magnetic field of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the
4 ´ 10 -3 T at right angles to it. The radius of its loop as shown in the figure. Then the current
circular path will be nearest to : [1997] loop will : [2003]
(a) 100 cm (b) 75 cm
(c) 25 cm (d) 50 cm i1
2. A charged particle enters a magnetic field H with
its initial velocity making an angle of 45° with H. i2
Then the path of the particle will be: [1999]
(a) circle (b) helical
(c) a straight line (d) a circle (a) move away from the wire
3. What should be amount of current through the (b) move towards the wire
ring of radius of 5 cm so that field at the centre (c) remain stationary
equal to the magnetic field of 7 × 10–5 Wb/m2, is (d) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire
(a) 0.28 amp (b) 5.57 amp [2000] 9. The cyclotron frequency of an electrons
(c) 2.8 amp (d) none of these gyrating in a magnetic field of 1 T is
4. A closely wound flat circular coil of 25 turns of approximately :
wire has diameter of 10 cm which carries current (a) 28 MHz (b) 280 MHz [2003]
of 4 amperes, the magnetic field at the centre of (c) 2.8 MHz (d) 28 GHz
a coil will be : [2001] 10. The magnetic moment of current (I) carrying
(a) 1.256 ´ 10 -3 tesla circular coil of radius (r) and number of turns (n)
varies as : [2004]
(b) 1.679 ´ 10 -5 tesla (a) 1/r2 (b) 1/r
(c) 1.512 ´ 10 -5 tesla (c) r (d) r2
(d) 2.28 ´ 10 - 4 tesla 11. A circular coil of radius R carries an electric
5. Cyclotron is used to accelerate : [2001] current. The magnetic field due to the coil at a
(a) positive ion (b) negative ion point on the axis of the coil located at a distance
(c) electron (d) none of these r from the centre of the coil, such that r > > R,
6. The magnetic field at a given point is varies as [2004]
0.5 × 10–5 Wb m–2. This field is to be annulled by (a) 1/r (b) 1/r3/2
magnetic induction at the centre of a circular (c) 1/r2 (d) 1/r3
conducting loop of radius 5.0 cm . The current 12. The magnetic field due to a straight conductor
required to be flown in the loop is nearly[2002] of uniform cross-section of radius a and carrying
(a) 0.2 A (b) 0.4 A a steady current is represented by : [2004]
(c) 4A (d) 40 A
7. An electron is travelling along the x-direction. It
encounters a magnetic field in the y-direction.
B
Its subsequent motion will be : [2002]
(a) straight line along the x-direction (a)
(b) a circle in the xz-plane
(c) a circle in the yz-plane O a r
(d) a circle in the xy-plane
EBD_7100
Ie R IcR
(a) (b)
Ic p Iep
B
pI c Iep
(b) (c) (d)
Ie R IcR
O a 16. What is the magnetic field at a distance R from a
r
coil of radius r carrying current I? [2007]
m0 IR 2 m 0 Ir 2
(a) (b)
B 3 3
2(R 2 + r 2 ) 2 2(R 2 + r 2 ) 2
(c) m0 I m0 I
(c) (d)
O a 2r 2R
r
17. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady
current i. The current is uniformly distributed
across its cross section. The ratio of the
B magnetic field at a/2 and 2a is [2007]
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/4
(d) (c) 4 (d) 1
O 18. In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the
a r
masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated
13. Two parallel beams of positrons moving in the by an electric potential V and then made to
same direction will : [2004] describe semicircular paths of radius R using a
(a) repel each other magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant,
(b) will not interact with each other
(c) attract each other æ charge on the ion ö
the ratio çè ÷ will be
(d) be deflected normal to the plane containing mass of the ion ø
the two beams proportional to [2008]
14. A proton and an a-particle, moving with the same
velocity, enter a uniform magnetic field, acting 1 1
(a) (b)
normal to the plane of their motion. The ratio of R R2
the radii of the circular paths described by the (c) R 2 (d) R
proton and a-particle is : [2004]
19. Two concentric coils each of radius equal to
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 4
2 p cm are placed at right angles to each other. 3
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 16 ampere and 4 ampere are the currents flowing in
15. Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire each coil respectively. The magnetic induction
carry currents Ic and Ie, respectively as shown
in figure. Assuming that these are placed in the in Weber / m 2 at the centre of the coils will be
same plane, the magnetic fields will be zero at
the centre of the loop when the separation H
(m 0 = 4p ´10 - 7 Wb / A.m ) [2008]
is : [2006] (a) 10 -5 (b) 12 ´ 10 -5
wire (c) 7 ´ 10 -5 (d) 5 ´ 10 -5
R Ic 20. The magnetic field due to a square loop of side
a carrying a current I at its centre is [2009]
µ0i µ0i
H (a) (b)
2a 2pa
Ie µ0 i µ0i
(c) (d) 2
Straight 2 pa pa
Moving Charges and Magnetism P-139
21. Electron of mass m and charge q is travelling m0 I 2m 0 I

with a speed along a circular path of radius r at (a) (b)
right angles to a uniform magnetic field of ap ap
intensity B. If the speed of the electron is m0I 2 2 m0 I
doubled and the magnetic field is halved the (c) 2 ap
(d)
ap
resulting path would have a radius [2009]
27. A charged particle moves through a magnetic
(a) 2 r (b) 4 r
field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the
r r (a) velocity remains unchanged [2013]
(c) (d)
4 2 (b) speed of the particle remains unchanged
22. Electron moves at right angles to a magnetic (c) direction of the particle remains unchanged
field of 1.5 × 10–2 tesla with speed of 6 × 107 m/s. (d) acceleration remains unchanged
If the specific charge of the electron is 1.7 × 1011 28. Wires 1 and 2 carrying currents i 1 and i 2
C/kg. The radius of circular path will be [2010] respectively are inclined at an angle q to each
(a) 3.31 cm (b) 4.31cm other. What is the force on a small element dl of
(c) 1.31 cm (d) 2.35 cm wire 2 at a distance of r from wire 1 (as shown in
23. An electron beam passes through a magnetic figure) due to the magnetic field of wire 1?
field of 2 × 10–3 Wb/m2 and an electric field of 1 2 [2013]
1.0 × 104 V/m both acting simultaneously. The
path of electron remains undeviated. The speed i1 r i2
of electron if the electric field is removed, and
the radius of electron path will be respectively q dl
(a) 10 × 106 m/s, 2.43 cm [2011]
(b) 2.5 × 106 m/s, 0.43 cm m0 m0
(c) 5 × 106 m/s, 1.43 cm (a) i1i 2 dl tan q (b) i1i 2 dl sin q
2 pr 2pr
(d) none of these
m0 m0
24. A charged particle is released from rest in a region (c) i1i 2 dl cos q (d) i1i 2 dl sin q
of uniform electric and magnetic fields which are 2 pr 4pr
parallel to each other. The particle will move on a: 29. If we double the radius of a coil keeping the
(a) straight line (b) circle [2011] current through it unchanged, then the magnetic
(c) helix (d) cycloid field at any point at a large distance from the
25. Four wires, each of length 2.0 m, are bent into centre becomes approximately [2014]
four loops P, Q, R and S and then suspended in (a) double (b) three times
a uniform magnetic field. If the same current is (c) four times (d) one-fourth
passed in each, then the torque will be maximum 30. A portion of a conductive wire is bent in the
on the loop [2012] form of a semicircle of radius r as shown below
in fig. At the centre of semicircle, the magnetic
induction will be [2015]
Q S
P R i
r
i
(a) P (b) Q O
(c) R (d) S (a) zero (b) infinite
26. A square coil of side a carries a current I. The μ0 π i μ0 πi
magnetic field at the centre of the coil is[2012] (c) . gauss (d) . tesla
4π r 4π r
31. A coil of circular cross-section having 1000 turns
and 4 cm2 face area is placed with its axis parallel
a to a magnetic field which decreases by 10–2 Wb
O
m–2 in 0.01 s. The e.m.f. induced in the coil is:
(a) 400 mV (b) 200 mV [2017]
(c) 4 mV (d) 0.4 mV
EBD_7100
TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS 36. Assertion : A charge, whether stationary or in
motion produces a magnetic field around it.
Directions for (Qs. 32-35) : These questions consist Reason : Moving charges produce only electric
of two statements, each printed as Assertion and field in the surrounding space. [2009]
Reason. While answering these questions, you are 37. Assertion : A proton and an alpha particle having
required to choose any one of the following five the same kinetic energy are moving in circular
responses. paths in a uniform magnetic field. The radii of
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and their circular paths will be equal.
the Reason is a correct explanation of the Reason : Any two charged particles having
Assertion. equal kinetic energies and entering a region of
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but ur
Reason is not a correct explanation of the uniform magnetic field B in a direction
ur
Assertion. perpendicular to B , will describe circular
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is trajectories of equal radii. [2009]
incorrect. 38. Assertion : If the current in a solenoid is
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. reversed in direction while keeping the same
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is magnitude, the magnetic field energy stored in
correct. the solenoid remains unchanged.
32. Assertion : Cyclotron is a device which is used Reason : Magnetic field energy density is
to accelerate the positive ion. proportional to the magnetic field.[2010, 2017]
Reason : Cyclotron frequency depends upon 39. Assertion : The magnetic field at the centre of
the velocity. [1997] the circular coil in the following figure due to
33. Assertion : Cyclotron does not accelerate the currents I1 and I2 is zero.
electron.
Reason : Mass of the electrons is very small. I1
I I
[2000]
34. Assertion : In electric circuits, wires carrying q
currents in opposite directions are often twisted
together
Reason : If the wires are not twisted together,
the combination of the wires forms a current
loop, the magnetic field generated by the loop I2
might affect adjacent circuits or components. Reason : I1 = I2 implies that the fields due to the
[2008] current I1 and I2 will be balanced. [2013]
35. Assertion : The magnetic field produced by a 40. Assertion : If the current in a solenoid is reversed
current carrying solenoid is independent of its in direction while keeping the same magnitude,
length and cross-sectional area. the magnetic field energy stored in the solenoid
Reason : The magnetic field inside the solenoid decreases.
is uniform. [2008] Reason : Magnetic field energy density is
Directions for (Qs. 36-42) : Each of these questions proportional to square of current. [2015]
contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them 41. Assertion : Free electrons always keep on
carefully and answer the question on the basis of moving in a conductor even then no magnetic
following options. You have to select the one that force act on them in magnetic field unless a
best describes the two statements. current is passed through it.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason : The average velocity of free electron
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. is zero. [2016]
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but 42. Assertion: To convert a galvanometer into an
Reason is not the correct explanation of ammeter a small resistance is connected in
Assertion. parallel with it.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. Reason: The small resistance increases the
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. combined resistance of the combination. [2016]
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions move forward with velocity u cos 45°. Under
both these motions, it will have helical path
1. (d) When a charged particle enters a magnetic
as shown in the figure.
field, its path becomes circular whose
radius can be found out from the relation. 3. (b)
i
mv 2 mv
= Bqv Þ r =
r Bq
1
E= mv2 = 6.6 ´10 -14
2 Magnetic field at the centre of a coil
carrying current.
1 m 2v 2
= 6.6 ´10 -14 µ 0i
2 m B=
2r
Þ m 2 v 2 = 2m ´ 6.6 ´ 10 -14
4p ´ 10 -7 i
mv = 2m ´ 6.6 ´ 10 -14 7 ´ 10 -5 =
2 ´ 5 ´ 10 - 2
= 2 ´ 9.1´ 10 -31 ´ 6.6 ´ 10 -14 70 ´10 -7
i= = 5.57 amp
-31 -14 4p ´ 10 -7
2 ´ 9.1 ´10 ´ 6.6 ´10
r= m0i
4 ´ 10 ´ 1.6 ´10 -19
-3
4. (a) Flux density, B = ń
2r
= 50 cm. approx.
2. (b) 4p ´ 10 -7 ´ 4 ´ 25 4p ´ 10 -7 ´ (100) 2
= =
u sin 45° × × × × × × 2 ´ 5 / 100 10
u× × × × × ×
= 1.256 ´ 10 -3 tesla.
× × × × × H
A 45° 5. (a) Cyclotron is used to accelerate positive
u cos 45° ions. Electron can not be used as its velocity
increases appreciably resulting into its
mass becoming very large. It creates
problem in synchronisation.
6. (b) Fields created at the centre
= 0.5 × 10–5 Wb/m2
Helical Path Due to current in circular loop, field created
At point A, charge is entering in a magnetic m0i
field in which direction of field is shown in in the centre =
2r
the figure. The velocity of particle is u
making an angle of 45° with field. We 4p ´ 10-7 ´ i
resolve it in two directions, one along the = -2
= 0.5 ´ 10-5
2 ´ 5 ´10
field and other perpendicular to it. Since u
sin45° is perpendicular to H, it will create a 0.5 ´ 10 -5 ´ 10 ´ 10 -2 5 35
rotatory effect on the charge. So charge i= = =
-7 4p 88
particle will start rotating with axis along 4p ´ 10
the direction of H. At the same time it will = 0.3980 = 0.4 A
EBD_7100
7. (b) When a charged particle enters a magnetic 11. (d) Magnetic field on the axis of the coil is
field, it experiences a force which is always
directed perpendicular to its direction of 1 pa 2 nix
B=
motion. In that case the path of the charged 4p Î0 (x 2 + a 2 )3/ 2
particle becomes circular and the plane of If x >> a
the circle is perpendicular to the plane
containing the magnetic field and velocity 1 pa 2 ni 1
B= or B µ
vector of the charged particle. 4p Î0 x 3
x3
8. (b) 12. (a) Inside the wire magnetic field will be directly
B C proportional to the distance from the axis.
Outside the wire, field is inversely
proportional to distance.
A D
B 1
Current in A B is same as that current in Bµ r Bµ
r
straight wire so it will be attracted. CD
portion will be repelled. Net force in the
loop will be attractive. Force on BC and O
AD will be opposite to each other so energy r = R0
will cancel out each other.
9. (d) For an electron gyrating in a magnetic field
13. (c) Two parallel beams of positron moving in
2 same direction is equivalent to two current
mv
= Bqv carrying conductor, carrying current in
r
same direction. They will attract each other.
mv v Bq 14. (a) When a charged particle enters a field, it
r= Þ =
Bq r m takes a circular path. The radius of circular
path is given by the relation
2 pr 1 v Bq
T= ; n= = = mv
v T 2pr 2 pm r=
Bq
1 ´ 1.6 ´ 10-19
n= mv
2 ´ p ´ 9.1 ´ 10-31 For proton, r1 =
Bq
1.6 ´ 1012
= = 28 GHz 4m ´ v 2mv
2p ´ 9.1 For a -particle, r2 = =
B ´ 2q Bq
10. (d) Magnetic moment of a coil of radius r
carrying current i is equal to Þ r1 : r2 : :1: 2
M = iAn [A is area of the coil, x is no. of
m 0 Ie
turns] 15. (a) Magnetic field due to straight wire =
2 pH
= nipr 2
m 0 Ic
So, M µ r 2 Magnetic field due to circular wire =
2R
m0 Ie m 0 I c
18. (b) The centripetal force is provided by the
Now = magnetic force.
2 pH 2R
mv2
R Ie i.e., = qvB … (1)
Þ H= R
p Ic
where m = mass of the ion, v = velocity, q =
charge of ion, B = flux density of the
m 0 Ir 2
16. (b) The magnetic field is B = magnetic field.
2(R 2 ∗ r 2 )3 / 2 we have, v = Rw
(see application of Biot-Savart law to v qB
magnetic field at a point along axis of coil) or w = = (From (1))
R m
17. (d) Here, current is uniformly distributed
across the cross-section of the wire, Energy of ion is given by,
therefore, current enclosed in the amperean 1 2 2
1 1 2 q B
E= mv 2 = m(Rw ) 2 = mR
æ aö 2 2 2 m2
path formed at a distance r1 ç = ÷
è 2ø
1 R 2 B2 q 2
or E = … (2)
2 m
If ions are accelerated by electric potential
a/2 V, the energy attained by ions,
E = qV … (3)
P1 P2
From eqns (2) and (3)
1 R 2 B2q 2 æ qö 2V
qV = or çè ÷ø = 2 2
a 2 m m R B
æ p r2 ö æ qö 1
= ç 12 ÷ ´ I , where I is total current i.e., çè ÷ø µ 2 ( If V and B are const.)
m R
è pa ø
19. (d) (1)
\ Magnetic field at
m0 ´ current enclosed
P1 (B1 ) =
Path
(2)
æ p r2 ö
m 0 ´ ç 12 ÷ ´ I
è pa ø m 0 ´ I r1
= =
2p r1 2p a 2 m 0 i1 m ´3
Now, magnetic field at point P2, B1 = = 0
2 ( 2 p) 4p
m0 I m I
(B2) = . = 0 . m 0i 2 m ´4
2p (2a) 4pa B2 = = 0
2 ( 2 p) 4p
B1 m 0 Ir1 4pa
\ Required Ratio = = ´ m0
B 2 2 pa 2 m 0 I B= B12 + B 22 = .5
4p
a
2 r1 2 ´ 2 Þ B = 10 - 7 ´ 5 ´ 10 2
= = = 1.
a a Þ B = 5 ´ 10 - 5 Wb / m 2
EBD_7100
25. (d) For a given perimeter the area of circle is
éµ i ù
20. (d) B = ê 0 (cos 45° - cos135°) ú ´ 4 maximum. So magnetic moment of (S) is
ë 4 pa û greatest.
26. (d) Btotal = 4Bside
µ0i 2
= 45° 45°
pa 2 m0 I é p pù
Btotal = 4 ê sin + sin ú
æa ö 4 4û
µ0 i 2p ç ÷ ë
= 2 è2ø
pa
mv 2 2m 0 I
21. (b) Radius of path is given by r = Bq Btotal =
ap
Here, m and q remain unchanged 27. (b) Magnetic force acts perpendicular to the
r v B v B/2 1 velocity. Hence speed remains constant.
So, 1 = 1 × 2 = × =
r2 v 2 B1 2v B 4 28. (c)
Þ r2 = 4r æ m 0 NI ö 2
22. (d) B = 1.5 × 10–2 T, 29. (c) Baxis = çç ÷÷R
è 2x 3 ø
q = 90°, sin q = 1, v = 6 × 107 m/s,
e B µ R2
= 1.7 × 1011 C/kg So, when radius is doubled, magnetic field
m
becomes four times.
mv 6 ´ 107 30. (d) The straight part will not contribute magnetic
r= = field at the centre of the semicircle because
Be 1.5 ´ 10-2 ´ 1.7 ´ 1011
every element of the straight part will be 0º
= 2.35 × 10–2m = 2.35 cm
or 180º with the line joining the centre and
23. (c) B = 2 × 10–3Wb/m2,
the element
E = 1× 104 V/m2
Due to circular portion, the field is
Since the path of electron remains
undeviated, qvB = qE or 1 m0i m 0 i
=
E 1 ´ 10+4 2 2r 4r
v= = = 0.5 × 107
B 2 ´ 10-3 m0 i
= 5 × 106 m/s Hence total field at O = tesla
4r
If the electricfield is removed, the path of
the charged particle is circular and 31. (a) Given: No. of turns N = 1000
magnetic field provides the necessary Face area, A = 4 cm2 = 4 × 10–4 m2
centripetal force. i.e., Change in magnetic field,
DB = 10–2 wbm–2
mv 2 mv
= Bev Þ r= Time taken, t = 0.01s = 10–2 sec
r Be Emf induced in the coil e = ?
9.1 ´ 10 -31 ´ 5 ´ 10 6 Applying formula,
=
2 ´ 10-3 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19 -d f
Induced emf, e =
= 14.3 × 10–3m = 1.43 cm dt
DB ö
24. (a) E = N æç ÷ A cos q
B è Dt ø
The magnetic force on charged particle is 1000 ´ 10-2 ´ 4 ´ 10 -4
zero. = = 400 mV
10-2
Type B : Assertion Reason Questions field, it also produces a magnetic field,

because moving charges produces
32. (c) Cyclotron is used to accelerate charged
magnetic field in the surrounding space.
particles. So Assertion is correct.
37. (c) The radius of the circular path is given by
We know that time period of a particle
2pr mv 2 mv 2 mK 1
Bqr r= = ; where K = mv 2
T= ; 0
= Bqv 0 Þ v 0 = qB qB 2
v0 r m
Since K and B are the same for the two
2pr 2p
T= ´m = m m
Bqr Bq particles, r µ . Now, the charge of an
q
1 Bq alpha particle is twice that of a proton and
Frequency = =
T 2 pm its mass is four times the mass of a proton,
This does not dpeend upon velocity so m q will be the same for both particles.
Reason is incorrect. Hence, r will be the same for both particles.
33. (c) Cyclotron does not accelerate electron 38. (c)
because mass of electron is very small. It
gets accelerated very appreciably as a I1 2p - q
39. (d) = Þ I1q = I2 (2p - q) ........ (1)
result of which its mass increases. It result I2 q
is mismatch between frequency of a.c. used
and frequency of rotation of electron in the q m 0 I1 2p - q m 0 I 2
Dee’s. So cyclotron stops accelerating B1 = . and B2 = .
2p 2R 2p 2R
electrons after some time.
Using (1), we get B1 = B2.
34. (a) If the wires are twisted together, they can
be formed as a single wire carrying currents
40. (d) Reversing the direction of the current
in opposite directions. In this pattern, in
reverses the direction of the magnetic field.
wires no magnetic field is induced which
However, it has no effect on the magnetic-
does not affect adjacent circuits.
field energy density, which is proportional
35. (b) Magnetic field inside the solenoid at point
to the square of the magnitude of the
P is given by,
magnetic field.
m0 41. (b) In the absence of the electric current, the
B= (2pni)[sin a + sin b]
4p free electrons in a conductor are in a state
where n = no. of turns per unit length of random motion, like molecule in a gas.
Their average velocity is zero. i.e. they do
=N/l
not have any net velocity in a direction. As
Thus it is clear that mangetic field is a result, there is no net magnetic force on
independent of length and cross sectional the free electrons in the magnetic field. On
area. passing the current, the free electrons
Also the magnetic field with in the solenoid acquire drift velocity in a definite direction,
is uniform and parallel to the axis of the hence magnetic force acts on them, unless
solenoid. the field has no perpendicular component.
36. (d) A charge, whether stationary or in motion, 42. (c) An ammeter should have a low resistance
produces an electric field around it. If it is which we get when we connect low
in motion, then in addition to the electric resistance in parallel with galvanometer.
EBD_7100
19 Magnetism and Matter
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (c) The magnetic lines form a closed loop
(d) Magnetic lines of force do not cut each
1. Domain formation is the necessary feature of : other
[1998] 8. Which one of the following are used to express
(a) ferromagnetism (b) diamagnetism intensity of magnetic field in vacuum ? [2000]
(c) paramagnetism (d) all of these (a) oersted (b) tesla
2. The best material for the core of a transformer is (c) gauss (d) none of these
(a) mild steel (b) stainless steel 9. A frog can be levitated in a magnetic field
(c) soft iron (d) hard steel [1998] produced by a current in a vertical solenoid
3. The north pole of a magnet is brought near a placed below the frog. This is possible because
metallic ring. Then the direction of the induced the body of the frog behaves as : [2003]
current in the ring will be: [1999] (a) paramagnetic (b) diamagnetic
(a) Towards north (b) Towards south (c) ferromagnetic (d) antiferromagnetic
(c) Anticlockwise (d) Clockwise 10. Liquid oxygen remains suspended between two
pole forces of a magnet because it is : [2004]
4. Angle of dip is 90° at: [1999]
(a) diamagnetic (b) paramagnetic
(a) Equator (b) Middle point
(c) ferromagnetic (d) antiferromagnetic
(c) Poles (d) None of these
11. The magnetic susceptibility of an ideal
5. What happens, when a magnetic substance is diamagnetic substance is [2007]
heated ? [1999]
(a) –1 (b) 0
(a) It loses its magnetism
(c) +1 (d) ¥
(b) It becomes a strong magnet
12. A magnet makes 40 oscillation per minute at a
(c) Does not effect the magnetism place having magnetic intensity of 0.1 × 10–5
(d) Either (b) and (c) tesla. At another place it takes 2.5 sec to
6. A magnet 10 cm long and having a pole strength complete one oscillation. The value of earth's
2 amp m is deflected through 30° from the horizontal field at that place is [2011]
magnetic meridian. The horizontal component (a) 0.76 × 10–6 tesla (b) 0.18 × 10–6 tesla
of earth’s induction is 0.32 ´10-4 tesla then the (c) 0.09 × 10–6 tesla (d) 0.36 × 10–6 tesla
value of deflecting couple is: [1999] 13. Curie temperature is the temperature above
which [2012]
(a) 32 ´ 10 -7 Nm (b) 16 ´ 10 -7 Nm
(a) a ferromagnetic material becomes
(c) 64 ´ 10 -7 Nm (d) 48 ´ 10 -7 Nm paramagnetic
7. Which one of the following statement is not (b) a paramagnetic material becomes
correct about the magnetic field ? [2000] diamagnetic
(c) a ferromagnetic material becomes
(a) Inside the magnet the lines go from north
diamagnetic
pole to south pole of the magnet
(d) a paramagnetic material becomes
(b) Tangents to the magnetic lines give the
ferromagnetic
direction of the magnetic field
Magnetism and Matter P-147
14. Of the following Fig., the lines of magnetic 19. Imagine rolling a sheet of paper into a cylinder
induction due to a magnet SN, are given by and placing a bar magnet near its end as shown
N N in figure. What can you say about the sign of
r r r
B.dA for every area dA on the surface? [2017]
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
S S (c) No sign
(1) (2) (d) Can be positive or negative
N N
S S responses.
(3) (4) (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(a) 1 (b) 2 [2012] the Reason is a correct explanation of the
(c) 3 (d) 4 Assertion.
15. The materials suitable for making electromagnets (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
should have [2013] Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(a) high retentivity and low coercivity Assertion.
(b) low retentivity and low coercivity (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
(c) high retentivity and high coercivity incorrect.
(d) low retentivity and high coercivity (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
16. Magnetic lines of force due to a bar magnet do (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
not intersect because [2014] correct.
(a) a point always has a single net magnetic 20. Assertion : We cannot think of a magnetic field
field configuration with three poles
(b) the lines have similar charges and so repel Reason : A bar magnet does exert a torque on
each other itself due to its own field. [2002]
(c) the lines always diverge from a single 21. Assertion : In high latitudes one sees colourful
force curtains of light hanging down from high
(d) the lines need magnetic lenses to be made altitudes
to interest Reason : The high energy charged particles from
17. At a temperatur of 30°C, the susceptibility of a the sun are deflected to polar regions by the
ferromagnetic material is found to be c . Its magnetic field of the earth. [2003]
susceptibility at 333°C is [2015] 22. Assertion : The true geographic north direction
(a) c (b) 0.5 c is found by using a compass needle.
(c) 2 c (d) 11.1 c Reason : The magnetic meridian of the earth is
18. Two points A and B are situated at a distance x along the axis of rotation of the earth. [2004]
and 2x respectively from the nearer pole of a 23. Assertion : A disc-shaped magnet is deviated
magnet 2 cm long. The ratio of magnetic field at above a superconducting material that has been
A and B is [2016] cooled by liquid nitrogen.
(a) 4 : 1 exactly (b) 4 : 1 approximately Reason : Superconductors repel a magnet.
(c) 8 : 1 approximately (d) 1 : 1 approximately [2005]
EBD_7100
24. Assertion : Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) 28. Assertion : The ferromagnetic substance do
is a useful diagnostic tool for producing not obey Curie’s law.
images of various parts of human body. Reason : At Curie point a ferromagnetic
Reason : Protons of various tissues of the substance start behaving as a paramagnetic
human body play a role in MRI. [2006] substance. [2011]
25. Assertion : Diamagnetic materials can exhibit 29. Assertion : The ferromagnetic substance do not
magnetism. obey Curie’s law.
Reason : Diamagnetic materials have permanent Reason : At Curie point a ferromagnetic
magnetic dipole moment. [2006] substance start behaving as a paramagnetic
26. Assertion : Ferro-magnetic substances become substance. [2014]
paramegnetic above Curie temp.
30. Assertion : A paramagnetic sample display
Reason : Domains are destroyed at high greater magnetisation (for the same magnetic
temperature. [2007] field) when cooled.
27. Assertion : If a compass needle be kept at
Reason : The magnetisation does not depend
magnetic north pole of the earth the compass
on temperature. [2015]
needle may stay in any direction.
31. Assertion : Electromagnetic are made of soft
Reason : Dip needle will stay vertical at the north
iron.
pole of earth [2008]
Directions for (Qs. 28-33) : Each of these questions Reason : Coercivity of soft iron is small.[2016]
contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them 32. Assertion : The sensitivity of a moving coil
carefully and answer the question on the basis of galvanometer is increased by placing a suitable
following options. You have to select the one that magnetic material as a core inside the coil.
best describes the two statements. Reason : Soft iron has high magnetic
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and permeability and cannot be easily magnetized
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. or demagnetized. [2016]
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but 33. Assertion : The poles of magnet can not be
Reason is not the correct explanation of separated by breaking into two pieces.
Assertion. Reason : The magnetic moment will be reduced
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. to half when a magnet is broken into two equal
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. pieces. [2017]
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 8. (a) Intensity of magnetic field in vacuum is

expressed in oersted in c.g.s. system and
1. (a) In ferromagnetic material atomic magnets
of a substance form domain in which Am -1 in S.I. system. In the formula,
magnetic moment of all the tiny magnets B = µH
are oriented in the same direction. H is known as intensity of magnetic field.
9. (c) The frog will levitate in the magnetic field
due to repulsion. It suggests that the body
Different of frog is acting as ferromagnetic material.
Domains 10. (b) Oxygen is paramagnetic in nature. So if it
will be attracted both by North pole or
South pole. When it is placed exactly
2. (c) Soft iorn provides the best material for the between two magnetic poles, the forces
core of a transformer as its permeability (µ) acting on it due to magnetic poles will be
is very high. Its hysteresis curve is of small equal & opposite. Hence it will remain
area and its coercivity is very low. suspended between them.
3. (c) 11. (a) Magnetic susceptibility c is related to
permeability µ by µ = 1+ 4pcm . For
diamagnetic substances cm is negative and
µ<1 (negative). Ideal diamagnet should
expel all magnetic field lines inside it i.e. cm
< 0 or cm = – 1
When we bring a north pole near a metallic 12. (d) Time period of vibration of a magnet is
ring applying Lenz’s law the ring will behave
I
as north pole so that repulsion occurs. So T = 2p
direction of current induced in it will be MH
anti-clockwise as depicted above. For the same magnet, I and M are constant
4. (c) At poles angle of dip will be 90° because where M = magnetic moment,
earth’s magnetic field will be almost vertical
there. I = moment of inertia of magnet.
5. (a) When a magnetic substance is heated it
loses its magnetic property. It is because 1
Þ Tµ .
all the atomic magnet becomes randomly H
oriented due to heat. First case
10 60 3
6. (a) M = 2´ = 0.2
100 T1 = = = 1.5 sec.
40 2
Value of restoring couple = MH sin f H1 = 0.1 × 10–5T, T2 = 2.5 sec, H2 = ?
= 0.2 ´ 0.32 ´10-4 sin 30° 1.5 H2

Þ =
-4 1 2.5 H1
= 0.2 ´ 0.32 ´ 10 ´ = 32 ´ 10 -7 Nm
2
7. (a) Inside the magnet, lines go from south pole 15 H2
Þ =
to north pole. So, option (a) is correct. 25 10 -6
EBD_7100
2 22. (d) The true geographic north-south direction
æ 3ö -6
Þ H2 = ç ÷ ´ 10 is inclined at an angle with magnetic north-
è 5ø south direction. The angle between them
9
Þ H2 = ´ 10-6 = 0.36 × 10–6T is known as declination. Compass needle
25 gives us direction of north -south
13. (a) (magnetic) direction. Magnetic meridian to
14. (a) As lines of magnetic induction B are pass through magnetic north-south
continuous curves, they run continuously direction. Axis of rotation of the earth gives
through the bar and outside, as shown in us geographic north-south direction. So,
Fig. (1). both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
15. (b) Electro magnet should be amenable to 23. (a) Superconductors are actually diamagnetic
magnetisation and demagnetization in nature so when it is placed above a
\ retentivity should be low and coercivity magnet it will be repelled by magnet or it
should be low. will tend to move from higher field to lower
16. (a) field. This is the principle behind leviation
of a superconducting material above
m0C magnet.
17. (b) According to Curie's law, cm =
T 24. (a) MRI is useful diagnostic tool for producing
where C is Curie constant, T = temperature images of various parts of human body
1 because it makes use of magnetic property
\ cma of spinning proton inside the nucleus.
T
25. (c) Diamagnetic material exhibits magnetism in
c m1 T 273 + 333 606 reverse direction. R is a wrong statement.
= 2 = = =2
c m2 T1 273 + 30 303 Because due to absence of unpaired
electron in diamagnetic material it does not
\ c m2 = c m1 / 2 = 0.5c m = 0.5 c exhibit permanent magnet dipole moment.
1
26. (a) Susceptibility of ferro magnets decreases
(Q cm 1
=c ) with increase of temperature. At a transition
18. (c) Taking distances from the centre of the temperature called Curie temperature they
magnet, pass over to paramagnets. When
temperature is increased, dipoles acquire
3 3
B1 æ x 2 ö æ 2 x + 1 ö kinetic energy and are disoriented, hence
=ç ÷ =ç ÷ = 8 : 1, approximately.
B2 çè x1 ÷ø è x + 1 ø domain internal interaction called exchange
coupling disappears.
19. (b) The field is entering into the surface so 27. (b) The earth has only vertical component of
flux is negative. its magnetic field at the magnetic poles.
Type B : Assertion Reason Questions Since compass needle is only free to rotate
in horizontal plane where H = 0, hence the
20. (d) Magnetic field may be formed with the help compass needle may stay in any direction.
of three poles. A bar magnet does not exert The dip needle rotates in a vertical plane
a torque on itself due to its own field. and angle of dip at poles is 90°. So it will
21. (a) In polar region like north pole and south stand vertical.
pole one sees colourful curtains of light 28. (b) The susceptibility of ferromagnetic
hanging down from light altitude. It results substance decreases with the rise of
from high energy charged particles from temperature in a complicated manner. After
the sun being attracted by the poles of the Curie point in the susceptibility of
earth. In northern hemisphere it is known ferromagnetic substance varies inversely
Aure Boreali’s and in southern hemisphere with its absolute tempearture.
it is known as Aura Australi’s. Ferromagnetic substance obey’s Curie’s
law only above its Curie point.
I I T J E E N E E T e B o o k s
29. (c) The susceptibility of ferromagnetic As the material in electromagnets is

substance decreases with the rise of subjected to cyclic changes (magnification
temperature in a complicated manner. After and demangetisation), the hysteresis loss
Curies point in the susceptibility of of the material must be small. The material
ferromagnetic substance varies inversely should attain high value of I and B with
with its absolute tempearture. low value of magnetising field intensity H.
Ferromagnetic substance obey’s Curie’s As soft iron has small coercivity, so it is a
law only above its Curie point. best choice for this purpose.
32. (c) Sensitivity of galvanometer,
30. (d) A paramagnetic sample display greater
magnetisation when cooled, this is because q tan q = m0 N .
s= ;
at lower temperature, the tendency to i i 2 RBH
disrupt the alignment of dipoles (due to If a magnetic material is placed inside coil
magnetising field) decreases on account of galvanometer, then
of reduced random thermal motion. mr m0 N
s¢ = .
31. (b) Electromagnets are magnets, which can be 2 RBH
turnd on and off by switching the current 33. (b) When a magnet is cut into pieces, each
piece becomes new magnet. M ¢ = ml = M .
on and off.
2 2
EBD_7100
20 Electromagnetic Induction
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 7. A conducting ring of radius 1 metre is placed in

an uniform magnetic field B of 0.01 tesla
1. A coil of copper having 1000 turns is placed in a oscillating with frequency 100 Hz with its plane
magnetic field (B = 4 × 10–5) perpendicular to its at right angle to B. What will be the induced
axis. The cross sectional area of the coil is 0.05 electric field ? [2005]
m2. If it turns through 180° in 0.01 second, then
(a) p volt / m (b) 2 volt / m
the e.m.f. induced in the coil will be ; [1997]
(a) 4 V (b) 0.04 V (c) 10 volt/m (d) 62 volt/m
(c) 0.4 V (d) 0.2 V 8. A magnet is made to oscillate with a particular
2. In a coil of self inductance of 5 henry, the rate of frequency, passing through a coil as shown in
change of current is 2 ampere per second, the figure. The time variation of the magnitude
e.m.f. induced in the coil is : [1997] of emf generated across the coil during on cycle
(a) 5 V (b) – 5V is [2005]
(c) – 10 V (d) 10 V S
3. According to Lenz’s law there is a conversion of: N
(a) momentum (b) collision [1997]
(c) voltage (d) energy
4. A 50 turn circular coil has a radius of 3 cm, it is
kept in a magnetic field acting normal to the area
of the coil. The magnetic field B is increased
from 0.10 T to 0.35 T in 2 milli second, the average
induced emf will be: [1999] V
(a) 177 V (b) 1.77 V
(c) 0.177 V (d) 17.7 V
(a) emf
5. A solenoid is 1.5 m long and its inner diameter is
t
4.0 cm. It has 3 layers of windings of 1000 turns
each and carries a current of 2.0 amperes. The
magnetic flux for a cross-section of the solenoid
is nearly [2000] (b) emf
(a) 4.1´ 10 -5 weber (b) 5.2 ´ 10 -5 weber t
(c) 6.31´10 -3 weber (d) 2.5 ´10 -7 weber

6. The current flows from A to B as shown in figure,
then the direction of the induced current in the (c) emf
t
loop will be : [2001]
(d) emf
A B t
(a) straight line (b) anti-clockwise
(c) clockwise (d) none of these
Electromagnetic Induction P-153
9. A metallic ring is dropped down, keeping its plane 13. Fig represents an area A = 0.5 m2 situated in a
perpendicular to a constant and horizontal uniform magnetic field [2012]
magnetic field. The ring enters the region of
magnetic field at t = 0 and completely emerges
out at t = T sec. The current in the ring varies as B
60
I
(a) [2006]
0 t T
B = 2.0 weber/m2 and making an angle of 60º with
respect to magnetic field. The value of the
I magnetic flux through the area would be equal to
(b)
(a) 2.0 weber (b) 3 weber
0 t T
(c) 3 / 2 weber (d) 0.5 weber
14. A charged particle moves through a magnetic
I field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the
(c) (a) velocity remains unchanged [2013]
0 t (b) speed of the particle remains unchanged
T
(c) direction of the particle remains unchanged
(d) acceleration remains unchanged
15. Wires 1 and 2 carrying currents i 1 and i 2
I
(d) respectively are inclined at an angle q to each
0 other. What is the force on a small element dl of
t T wire 2 at a distance of r from wire 1 (as shown in
10. Which of the following conclusion can be drawn figure) due to the magnetic field of wire 1?
from the result [2010] 2
1
ur ur
Ñò
B.dA = 0
i1 r i2
(a) magnetic field is zero everywhere [2013]
(b) magnetic monopole cannot exist q dl
(c) magnetic lines of force do not intersect each
other m0 m0
(d) a current produces magnetic field (a) i1i 2 dl tan q (b) i1i 2 dl sin q
2 pr 2pr
11. A wheel with ten metallic spokes each 0.50m long
is rotated with a speed of 120 rev/min in a plane m0 m0
(c) i1i 2 dl cos q (d) i1i 2 dl sin q
normal to the earth’ s magnetic field at the place. 2 pr 4pr
If the magnitude of the field is 0.40 G, the induced 16. The flux linked with a coil at any instant 't' is
emf between the axle and the rim of the wheel is given by
equal to [2010] f = 10t2 – 50t + 250. The induced emf at t = 3s is
(a) 1.256 × 10 – 3 V (b) 6.28 × 10 – 4 V (a) –190 V (b) –10 V [2014]
(c) 1.256 × 10 – 4 V (d) 6.28 × 10 – 5 V (c) 10 V (d) 190 V
12. The magnetic flux through a circuit carrying a 17. In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all of the
current of 2.0 A is 0.8 weber. If the current reduces same area A and total resistance R, rotates with
to 1.5 A in 0.1 s, the induced emf be : [2011] frequency w in a magnetic field B. The maximum
(a) 2.0 V (b) 4.0 V value of emf generated in the coil is [2015]
(c) 8.0 V (d) none of the above (a) N.A.B.R.w (b) N.A.B.
(c) N.A.B.R. (d) N.A.B.w
EBD_7100
r
18. In an inductor of self-inductance L = 2 mH, 20. Assertion : An emf E is induced in a closed
current changes with time according to relation loop where magnetic flux is varied. The induced
r
i = t2e–t. At what time emf is zero? (2016) E is not a conservative field.
(a) 4s (b) 3s r r
(c) 2s (d) 1s Reason : The line integral E.d l around the
19. A conducting rod AB moves parallel to X-axis in closed loop is nonzero. [2006]
a uniform magnetic field, pointing in the positive 21. Assertion : An electric motor will have maximum
X-direction. The end A of the rod gets (2017) efficiency when back emf becomes equal to half
Y of applied emf.
Reason : Efficiency of electric motor depends
B only on magnitude of back emf. [2008]
V carefully and answer the question on the basis of
A
X
O (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(a) positively charged
(b) negatively charged
(c) neutral
(d) first positively charged and then negatively
Assertion.
charged
TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Directions for (Qs. 20-21) : These questions consist 22. Assertion : An induced current has a direction
of two statements, each printed as Assertion and such that the magnetic field due to the current
Reason. While answering these questions, you are opposes the change in the magnetic flux that
required to choose any one of the following five induces the current.
responses. Reason : Above statement is in accordance with
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and conservation of energy. [2011]
the Reason is a correct explanation of the 23. Assertion : Lenz's law violates the principle of
Assertion. conservation of energy.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason : Induced emf always opposes the
Reason is not a correct explanation of the change in magnetic flux responsible for its
Assertion. production. [2014]
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is 24. Assertion : Faraday¢s laws are consequence of
incorrect. conservation of energy.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. Reason : In a purely resistive ac circuit, the
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is current legs behind the emf in phase. [2017]
correct.
Electromagnetic Induction P-155
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 6. (c)

1. (c) Flux passing through the coil,
-5 -3
= 1000 ´ 4 ´ 10 = 2 ´ 10 Weber
Change in flux when the coil turns by 180°. A B
-3 -3
Direction of magnetic field due to indicated
= 2 ´10 - (-2 ´10 ) current will be in upward direction passing
through the coil. So, a current in coil will be
Df = 4 ´ 10 -3 induced so that it decreases the flux in the
coil. So, current in the clockwise direction
df 4 ´10 -3 will be induced.
e.m.f. = = = 0.4V
dt 0.01 7. (b) A changing magnetic field gives rise to
electric field as shown in the figure.
di
2. (c) e.m.f. = –L = -5 ´ 2 = -10V
dt
3. (d) Lenz’s law deals with conversion of × × × E
mechanical energy into electromagnetic × × × ×
× × × × ×
energy in case of electromagnetic × × ×
induction. × × × × ×
4. (b) Average flux in the beginning = pr2nB1 × × ×
Average flux in the final = pr2nB2
B
Increase in flux df = pr 2 n(B2 - B1 ) The relation between electric field and
= 3.14 × (0.03)2 × 50 (0.35 – 0.10) changing magnetic field is
df dBA
Ñò
= 314 × 45 × 25 × 10–7 Edl = =
Given time dt = 2 × 10–3 dt dt
df 314 ´ 45 ´ 25 ´ 10-7 pr 2 dB r dB
e=- = 2prE = Þ E=
dt 2 dt
dt 2 ´ 10-3
Here dB = 0.01 – ( – 0 .01) = 0.02
= 1.77 V (approx.)
5. (c) Magnetic flux (f) = nBA T 1
dt = =
where n is number of turns, B is magnetic 2 2 ´ 100
field and A is area
1 0.02 2 ´ 100 ´ 0.02
Given, n = 1000, i = 2 amp r = 0.02 E= ´ = = 2 volt
2 1 2
and l = 1.5 m
2 ´ 100
Magnetic field of solenoid of length l is
8. (a) We know that electromagnetic e.m.f.
m 0i induced,
B=
l df
e= -
m0 niA dt
\f = T
l Initially, df will be positive (during first
4
3 ´ 10-7 ´ 4p ´ (1000)2 ´ 2 ´ p (2 ´ 10 -2 ) 2 time period) then it becomes negative during
f=
1.5 T
= 6.31 × 10–3 Wb the period from to T .
4 2
EBD_7100
T 3T ur ur
During the period to it is again df d(NB.A)
2 4 17. (d) e=- =-
dt dt
T
positive and in the last time it is
4 d
negative. Accordingly sign of emf = -N (BA cos wt ) = NBAw sin wt
dt
produced will be changed. Figure (a) fits
exactly in this change pattern. So this figure Þ e max = NBAw
represents the answer. 18. (c) L = 2mH, i = t2e–t
9. (b) When ring enters the field an emf is
induced due to change in flux. Once with di
E= -L = - L[ - t 2 e - t + 2 te - t ]
the magnetic field, there is no change in dt
flux in the ring so there is no emf. When it when E = 0
emerges out of the field, once again there
–e–t t2 + 2te–t = 0
is a flux change which creates emf in reverse
2t e–t = e–t t2
direction. Graph (b) shows this result.
10. (b) Flux of certain closed surface is zero and t = 2 sec.
so it tells that net magnetic charge is equal 19. (a) According to right hand palm rule, the
to zero. This is possible when there are two Lorentz force on free electrons in the
equal and opposite poles. conductor will be directed towards end B.
Hence, the end A gets positively charged.
Bwl 2
11. (d) e=
2 Type B : Assertion Reason Questions
æ 120 ö 20. (a) Assertion and Reason is correct and
(0.4 ´ 104 ) ´ ç 2 p ´ ÷ ´ (0.5)
2
Reason explains Assertion. According to
è 60 ø
= Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
2
= 0.628 × 10 V – 4 r r df
12. (a) flux corresponds to 2A is = 0.8 weber ò E .d l = - dt
flux corresponds to 1.5 A is = 0.6 weber So, (E) is non-conservative field as in
Df 0.2 conservative field line integral over a closed
| e |= = = 2.0V
Dt 0.1 loop is zero.
13. (d) f = BA cos q = 2.0 ´ 0.5 ´ cos 60º 21. (c) Efficiency of an electric motor is maximum
when the back emf setup in the armature is
2.0 ´ 0.5 half the value of the applied battery emf
= = 0.5 Weber .
2
Pout e Back emf
14. (b) Magnetic force acts perpendicular to the Efficiency, h = = =
Pin E Supply voltage
velocity. Hence speed remains constant.
15. (c) 22. (a)
23. (a) Lenz's law (that the direction of induced
16. (b) f = 10t 2 - 50t + 250
emf is always such as to oppose the change
df that cause it) is direct consequence of the
e=- = - (20 t - 50) law of conservation of energy.
dt
24. (c) In purely resistive circuit, the current and
e t =3 = -10 V emf are in the same phase.
21 Alternating Current
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 7. The coefficient of mutual inductance, when

magnetic flux changes by 2 × 10–2 Wb and
1. An A.C. circuit containing only capacitance, the current changes by 0.01 A is [2002]
current : [1997] (a) 8 henry (b) 4 henry
(a) lags the voltage by 90° (c) 3 henry (d) 2 henry
(b) leads the voltage by 90° 8. In an ideal parallel LC circuit, the capacitor is
(c) remains in phase with voltage charged by connecting it to a D.C. source which
(d) leads the voltage in 180° is then disconnected. The current in the circuit
2. A choke coil has: [1999] (a) becomes zero instantaneously [2003]
(a) Low inductance and low resistance (b) grows monotonically
(b) High inductance and high resistance (c) decays monotonically
(c) Low inductance and high resistance (d) oscillates instantaneously
(d) High inductance and low resistance 9. A capacitor of capacitance 2µF is connected in
3. Turn ratio in a step up transformer is 1 : 2 if a the tank circuit of an oscillator oscillating with a
Lechlanche cell of 1.5 V is connected across the frequency of 1 kHz. If the current flowing in the
input, then the voltage across the output will be circuit is 2 m A, the voltage across the capacitor
(a) 0.1 V (b) 1.5 V [2000] will be : [2003]
(c) 0.75 V (d) zero (a) 0.16 V (b) 0.32 V
4. In the circuit shown below what will be the (c) 79.5 V (d) 159 V
reading of the voltmeter and ammeter ? [2000] 10. A 50 Hz a.c. source of 20 volt is connected across
(Total impedance of circuit Z = 100W) R and C as shown in figure. The voltage across
R is 12 volt. The voltage across C is : [2004]
R C
A
300 V 300 V V
50 Hz
(a) 200 V, 1A
220 V
(b) 800 V, 2A
~
(c) 100 V, 2A (d) 220 V, 2.2 A (a) 8 V
5. In a circuit the coil of a choke : [2001] (b) 16 V
(a) decreases the current (c) 10 V
(b) increases the current (d) not possible to determine unless values of
(c) has high resistance to D. C. circuit R and C are given
(d) no effect with the current 11. In an AC circuit the potential differences across
6. In a circuit, the current lags behind the voltage an inductance and resistance joined in series
by a phase difference of p /2, the circuit will are respectively 16 V and 20 V. The total potential
contain which of the following : [2001] difference of the source is [2007]
(a) only R (b) only C (a) 20.0 V (b) 25.6 V
(c) R and C (d) only L (c) 31.9 V (d) 53.5 V
EBD_7100
12. With the decrease of current in the primary coil 17. In a AC circuit the voltage and current are
from 2 amperes to zero value in 0.01s the emf described
p
generated in the secondary coil is 1000 volts. by V = 200sin æç 319t - ö÷ volts [2010]
The mutual inductance of the two coils is è 6ø
æ pö
(a) 1.25 H (b) 2.50 H [2007] and i = 50sin ç 314t + ÷ mA
(c) 5.00 H (d) 10.00 H è 6ø
13. An AC source of angular frequency w is fed respectively. The average power dissipated in
across a resistor R and a capacitor C in series. the circuit is : [2011]
The current registered is I. If now the (a) 2.5 watts (b) 5.0 watts
frequency of source is changed to w/3 (but (c) 10.0 watts (d) 50.0 watts
maintaining the same voltage), the current in 18. If we decrease the frequency of the applied A.C.
the circuit is found to be halved. Calculate with a purely capacitive load, do (1) the amplitude
the ratio of reactance to resistance at the of Vc and (2) amplitude of Ic increase, decrease
original frequency w [2008] of remain the same. [2011]
(a) (1) increase (2) same
3 2
(a) (b) (b) (1) same (2) increase
5 5 (c) (1) same (2) decrease
(d) (1) decrease (2) same
1 4 19. An inductor coil of inductance L is cut into two
(c) (d)
5 5 equal parts and both the parts are connected in
14. If an AC main supply is given to be 220 V. The parallel. The net inductance is : [2011]
average emf during a positive half cycle will be (a) L (b) L/2
(a) 198 V (b) 220 V [2009] (c) L/4 (d) 2 L.
(c) 240 V (d) 220 2 V 20. The current in resistance R at resonance is
15. A coil has an inductance of 0.7 henry and is R
joined in series with a resistance of 220 W. When
the alternating emf of 220 V at 50 Hz is applied to
it then the phase through which current lags
behind the applied emf and the wattless C
L
component of current in the circuit will be
respectively [2010] ~
(a) 30°, 1 A (b) 45°, 0.5 A V = V0 sin w t
(c) 60°, 1.5 A (d) none of these
(a) zero [2012]
16. An inductor and a resistor in series are
(b) minimum but finite
connected to an A.C. supply of variable
(c) maximum but finite
frequency. As the frequency of the source is
(d) infinite
increased, the phase angle between current and
21. An inductance L having a resistance R is
the potential difference across L will: [2010]
connected to an alternating source of angular
L frequency w. The Quality factor Q of inductance
is [2012]
(a) R/ wL (b) (wL/R)2
~ R (c) (R /wL)1/2 (d) wL/R
22. In an A.C. circuit, the current flowing in
inductance is I = 5 sin (100 t – p/2) amperes and
(a) first increase and then decrease the potential difference is V = 200 sin (100 t)
(b) first decrease and then increase volts. The power consumption is equal to [2013]
(c) go on decreasing (a) 1000 watt (b) 40 watt
(d) go on increasing (c) 20 watt (d) zero
Alternating Current P-159
23. For the circuit shown in the fig., the current a potential difference of 0.1 mV. The values of
through the inductor is 0.9 A while the current the capacitor to produce resonance is (Take
through the condenser is 0.4 A. Then (2013) p2 = 10) [2015]
C (a) 2.5 pF (b) 5.0 pF
(c) 25 pF (d) 50 pF
29. A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive
L reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac
source, of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across
~ the coil, the current in the coil will be [2016]
V = V0 sin wt (a) 4.0 A (b) 8.0 A
(a) current drawn from generator I = 1.13 A 20
(c) A (d) 2.0 A
(b) w = 1/(1.5 L C) 13
(c) I = 0.5 A 30. An ideal coil of 10H is connected in series with a
(d) I = 0.6 A resistance of 5W and a battery of 5V. After 2 sec
24. L, C, R represent physical quantities inductance, the connection is made, the current flowing in
capacitance and resistance respectively. The ampere in the circuit is [2016]
combinations which have the dimensions of (a) (1 – e )–1 (b) (1 – e)
frequency are [2013] (c) e (d) e–1
(a) 1/RC (b) R/L 31. An inductor, a resistor and a capacitor are joined
(c) 1 / LC (d) C/L in series with an AC source. As the frequency of
25. An inductance L having a resistance R is the source is slightly increased from a very low
connected to an alternating source of angular value, the reactance of the [2017]
frequency w. The Quality factor Q of inductance (a) inductor increases
is [2014] (b) resistor increases
(c) capacitor increases
(a) R/ wL (b) (wL/R)2
(d) circuit increases
(c) (R /wL)½ (d) wL/R
26. A step down transformer is connected to 2400 TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
volts line and 80 amperes of current is found to Directions for (Qs. 32-34) : These questions consist
flow in output load. The ratio of the turns in of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
primary and secondary coil is 20 : 1. If transformer Reason. While answering these questions, you are
efficiency is 100%, then the current flowing in required to choose any one of the following five
the primary coil will be [2015] responses.
(a) 1600 amp (b) 20 amp (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(c) 4 amp (d) 1.5 amp the Reason is a correct explanation of the
27. The mutual inductance of a pair of coils, each of Assertion.
N turns, is M henry. If a current of I ampere in (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
one of the coils is brought to zero in t second, Reason is not a correct explanation of the
the emf induced per turn in the other coil, in Assertion.
volt, will be [2015] (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
MI NMI (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(a) (b) (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
t t
correct.
MN MI
(c) (d) 32. Assertion : In series LCR circuit resonance can
It Nt take place.
28. The tuning circuit of a radio receiver has a Reason : Resonance takes place if inductance
resistance of 50W, an inductor of 10 mH and a and capacitive reactances are equal and
variable capacitor. A 1 MHz radio wave produces opposite. [1998]
EBD_7100
33. Assertion : Faraday’s laws are consequences Reason : At high voltage supply power losses
of conservation of energy. are less. [2011, 2013]
Reason : In a purely resistive A.C. circuit, the 38. Assertion : A capacitor blocks direct current in
current lags behind the e.m.f. in phase. [2002] the steady state.
34. Assertion : No power loss associated with pure Reason : The capacitive reactance of the
capacitor in ac circuit. capacitor is inversely proportional to frequency
Reason : No current is flowing in this circuit. f of the source of emf. [2011]
[2007] 39. Assertion : In the purely resistive element of a
Directions for (Qs. 35-41) : Each of these questions series LCR, AC circuit the maximum value of rms
contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them current increases with increase in the angular
carefully and answer the question on the basis of frequency of the applied e.m.f.
following options. You have to select the one that Reason :
2
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and e max æ 1 ö
Imax = , z = R 2 + ç wL - ÷ ,
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. z è wC ø
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but where Imax is the peak current in a cycle.
[2012]
Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 40. Assertion : In the purely resistive element of a
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. series LCR, AC circuit the maximum value of rms
35. Assertion : Ohm’s law cannot be applied to a.c current increases with increase in the angular
circuit. frequency of the applied emf.
Reason : Resistance offered by capacitor for a.c Reason :
source depends upon the frequency of the e max æ 1 ö
2
source. [2009] Imax = , z = R 2 + ç wL - ÷ ,
z è wC ø
36. Assertion : The resistance offered by an
where Imax is the peak current in a cycle.
inductor in a d.c circuit is always constant.
[2016]
Reason : The resistance of inductor in steady 41. Assertion : A laminated core is used in
state is non-zero. [2010] transformers to increase eddy currents.
37. Assertion : Long distance power transmission Reason : The efficiency of a transformer
is done at high voltage. increases with increase in eddy currents. [2017]
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 8. (d) In an LC circuit current oscillates between

maximum and minimum value. So, LC circuit
1. (b) In an a.c. circuit containing resistance only needs oscillations (electrical). It occurs due
voltage & current remain in the same phase. to discharging and charging of capacitor
If circuit contains inductance only, voltage and magnetisation and demagnetisation
remains ahead of curr ent by phase of inductor.
difference of 90°. 9. (a) Here, oscillating frequency
If circuit contains capacitance only, current = 1 kHz = 103 Hz
remains ahead of voltage by a phase 1
difference of 90°. Reactance of capacitor =
wC
2. (d) A choke coil has high inductance and low 1 10 3
resistance so, it is capable of producing = 3 -6
=
2p ´ 10 ´ 2 ´ 10 4p
very high induced e.m.f. which produces
Potential over capacitance
discharge in the tube.
3. (d) A transformer can not step up a d.c. input 1 103 2 7
í = ´ 2 ´ 10 -3 = = = 0.16 V
so output potential here will be zero. No wC 4p 4p 44
potential will be induced in the secondary 2
æ 1 ö
10. (b) E 2 = VR 2 + ç = VR 2 + VC 2
coil. è wC ÷ø
4. (d) Total impedence of the circuit = 100W [Phase difference between VR & VC is 90°]
220 (20)2 = (12)2 + VC2
Current = = 2.2 A
100 Þ VC2 = 400 – 144 = 256
Potential drop over inductance and
Þ V = 16
capacitance is 300 V. As they are in opposite C
phase they will sum up to zero. So whole of 11. (b) In any ac (LR) circuit, total potential is
220 volt (external source) will come over given by V = VR2 ∗ V 2 where VR and VL
the resistance. L
are potential across resistance and
(VL - VC ) 2 + VR 2 = (220) 2 inductance respectively.
As VL = VC so VR = 220 volt
Hence V = (16) 2 ∗ (20) 2 < 256 ∗ 400
5. (a) In a circuit with a.c. source, choke coil which = 25.6 V
is essentially an inductor with h igh 12. (c) The emf induced in secondary is given by
reactance, is used to decrease the current
,MdI æ 2 , 0 ö÷
without loss of energy. No heat is generated e= Þ 1000 = M ççç ÷
so no loss of energy. When we use dt è 0.01 ø÷
resistance to reduce current, there is loss (since current is reduced dI = – ve)
of electrical energy in the form of heat 1000´ 0.01
ÞM= = 5.00 H.
generated. 2
6. (d) If a circuit contains L, voltage leads current 13. (a) At angular frequency w, current through
p RC circuit is given by
by a phase angle of .
2 Vrms Vrms
7. (d) We know that I rms = =
2 2 …(1)
R + XC R + (1/ wC) 2
2
f = Mi
df = Mdi w
When angular frequency is changed to ,
3
df 2 ´ 10 -2 then the current becomes,
M= = = 2 henry
di 1 ´ 10-2
EBD_7100
I rms Vrms Vrms .. . (2) 1 Vc

= = 18. (c) Xc = and ic =
2
æ 1 ö
2
æ 3 ö
2 wc Xc
R2 + R2 + ç
ç æ wö ÷ è wC ø÷ With decrease in frequency, Xc increases
ç èç ø÷ C ÷
è 3 ø and hence ic decreases.
Dividing (i) by (ii) 19. (c) The inductance is proportional to the length
of the coil. So each part will have inductance
R 2 + (3 / wC) 2 L
2= . In parallel their equivalent becomes
R 2 + (1/ wC) 2 2
L1L 2 L
é 1 ö ù
2 2 = .
or 4 ê R 2 + æç ú = R 2 æ 3 ö
+ L1 + L 2 4
è wC ÷ø ú çè ÷
wC ø
ëê û 20. (c) At resonance XL = XC
5 1/ wC 3 Þ R & current is maximum but finite, which
3R 2 = Þ =
w 2 C2 R 5 E
, where E is applied voltage.
is Imax =
XC 3 R
Þ = 21. (d)
R 5
14. (a) Erms = 220 V Potential drop across capacitor or inductor
Q=
E0 Potential drop across R.
\ Erms = Þ E0 = 2 Erms wL
2 =
Average e.m.f over half cycle R
22. (d) Power, P = Ir.m.s. × Vr.m.s. × cos f
2
= E 0 = 0.637 × 1.41 × 220 = 198.15 V In the given problem, the phase difference
p
between voltage and current is p/2. Hence
15. (b) L = 0.7H, R = 220W, E0 = 220V, v = 50 Hz.
This is an L – R circuit P = Ir.m.s. × Vr.m.s. × cos(p/2) = 0.
Phase difference, 23. (c) The current drawn by inductor and
capacitor will be in opposite phase. Hence
X wL 2pvL
tan f = L = = net current drawn from generator
R R R = IL – IC = 0.9 – 0.4 = 0.5 amp.
22 1 1
[XL= 2pvL = 2 × × 50 × 0.7 = 220W] 24. (c) =
7 LC (ML2 T -2 A -2 ) ´ (M -1L-2 T 4 A 2 )
220
= = 1 or, f = 45° 1
220
= = T -1
Wattless component of current T 2
I 1 E0 25. (d)
= I0 sin f = 0 = .
2 2 Z Potential drop across capacitor or inductor
Q=
1 220 1 220 Potential drop across R.
= = .
2 X L2 + R 2 2 2202 + 220 2 wL
=
R
1
= = 0.5 A Ιs n p 80 20
2 26. (c) = ; = or Ι p = 4 amp.
Ιp ns Ιp 1
X
16. (d) tan q = L NMI
R d dI
27. (a) E = ( NMI) Þ E = NM Þ E=
dt dt t
V0i 0 cos f 200 ´ 50 ´ 103 p
17. (a) P = = cos E MI
2 2 3 emf induced per unit turn = =
N t
28. (a) L = 10 mHz = 10–2 Hz 33. (c) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction
f = 1MHz = 106 Hz are consequences of conservation of
1 energy. It involves only transformation of
f= energy into electrical energy.
2p LC
In purely resistive circuit, current and
1
f2 = 2 voltage are in the same phase.
4p LC 34. (c) For a pure capacitor circuit average power
1 1 is given by Pav = EvIv cos (–p/2),
ÞC = =
4p f L 4 ´10 ´10-2 ´1012
2 2
(as f = –p/2)
10 -12 \ EvIv (0) = 0 Þ Pav = 0
= = 2.5 pF thus no power loss occurs. A pure capacitor
4 acts as a block of direct current (d.c) and
29. (a) If w = 50 × 2p then wL = 20W
easy path to a.c since reactance
If w¢ = 100 × 2p then w¢L = 40W
Current flowing in the coil is 1
XC = = ¥ for d.c (f = 0 for d.c). Hence
200 200 200 2pf c
I= = =
Z we can say no d.c. flows but a.c part is
R 2 + (w¢L)2 (30)2 + (40) 2
I = 4A. there hence reason is false.
( )
R 35. (d) Assertion is false and Reason is false.
30. (a) We have, I = - t
Io 1 - e L 36. (d) Resistance offered by an inductor in a d.c.
(When current is in growth in LR circuit) circuit at t = 0 is infinity, which decreases
æ to zero at steady state.
- ´2 ö
æ 5
- tö
R
E 5
= ç1 - e L ÷ = ç1 - e 10 ÷ æ Pö
2
R çè ÷ø 5 çè ÷ø 37. (a) Power loss = I2R = ç ÷ R
è Vø
= (1 – e–1) [P = Transmitted power]
31. (c) The phase angle is given by
38. (a)
w L 2 p ´ 50 ´ 0.21
tan f = = = 5.5 39. (c)
R 12
40. (c)
f = tan -1 5.5 = 80º
41. (d) Large eddy currents are produced in non-
Type B : Assertion Reason Questions laminated iron core of the transformer by
the induced emf, as the resistance of bulk
32. (a) In series resonance circuit, current becomes
iron core is very small. By using thin iron
maximum because total impedence becomes
sheets as core the resistance is increased.
zero. In case of LC circuit,
Laminating the core substantially reduces
1 the eddy currents. Eddy current heats up
Total impedence = wL - =0
wC the core of the transformer. More the eddy
1 1 currents greater is the loss of energy and
Þ wL = Þ w2 =
wC LC the efficiency goes down.
EBD_7100
22 Electromagnetic Waves
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 8. Electromagnetic wave consists of periodically

oscillating electric and magnetic vectors
1. According to Maxwell’s hypothesis, changing (a) in mutually perpendicular planes but
of electric field give rise to : [1998] vibrating with a phase difference of p
(a) magnetic field (b) pressure gradient (b) in mutually perpendicular planes but
(c) charge (d) voltage p
2. Frequency of infrared wave is approximately: vibrating with a phase difference of
2
(a) 1018 Hz (b) 1014 Hz [1999] (c) in randomly oriented planes but vibrating
(c) 109 Hz (d) 1016 Hz in phase
3. Which wavelength of sun is used finally as (d) in mutually perpendicular planes but
electric energy? [2007] vibrating in phase [2017]
(a) Radio waves (b) Infra red waves
(c) Visible light (d) Micro waves TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
4. If the magnetic field of a light wave oscillates Directions for (Qs. 9-10) : These questions consist
parallel to y-axis and is given by By = Bm sin (kz
– wt), the direction of wave travel and the axis
along which the electric vector oscillates is : required to choose any one of the following five
(a) + ve y – axis, z– axis [2011]
responses.
(b) – ve z – axis, x– axis
(c) – ve x – axis, y– axis the Reason is a correct explanation of the
(d) – ve x – axis, z– axis
Assertion.
5. The energy of electromagnetic wave in vacuum
is given by the relation (2013) Reason is not a correct explanation of the
E2 B2 1 1 Assertion.
(a) + (b) e 0 E 2 + µ0 B 2 (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
2e 0 2µ 0 2 2
incorrect.
E 2 + B2 1 B2
(c) (d) e0E 2 + (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
c 2 2µ0 correct.
6. Which of the following are not electromagnetic 9. Assertion : X-ray travel with the speed of light.
waves? [2014] Reason : X-rays are electromagnetic rays. [2001]
(a) cosmic rays (b) g-rays 10. Assertion : Dipole oscillations produce
(c) b-rays (d) X-rays. electromagentic waves.
7. Light wave is travelling
r along y-direction. If the Reason : Accelerated charge produces
corresponding E vector atr any time is along electromagnetic waves. [2007]
the x-axis, the direction of B vector at that time Directions for (Qs. 11-13) : Each of these questions
is along y [2015] contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them
(a) y-axis
(b) x-axis x best describes the two statements.
(c) + z-axis (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(d) – z-axis z Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Electromagnetic Waves P-165
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason : Increase of ozone increases the amount
Reason is not the correct explanation of of ultraviolet radiation on earth. [2014]
Assertion. 12. Assertion : Radio waves can be polarised.
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. Reason : Sound waves in air are longitudinal in
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. nature. [2016]
11. Assertion : Environmental damage has 13. Assertion : Microwaves are better carrier of
increased the amount of ozone in the signals than optical waves.
atmosphere. Reason : Microwaves move faster than optical
waves. [2017]
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 7. (c) Light wave is an electromagnetic wave in

which E and B are at right angles to each
1. (a) Changing of electric field produces other as well as at right angles to the
displacement current which produces direction of wave propagation.
magnetic field. So, changing electric field
8. (d) Electromagnetic wave consists of
produces magnetic field.
periodically oscillating electric and
2. (b) We know that visible light has wavelength magnetic vectors in mutually perpendicular
in the region of 4000Å-7000Å. If we take planes but vibrating in phase.
infrared as approximately having
wavelength of 7000Å then applying nl = c Type B : Assertion Reason Questions
n ´ 7000 ´ 10 -10 = 3 ´ 108 9. (a) All electromagnetic waves have same
speed in vacuum. X-ray is a high energy
3 ´ 108 3 electromagnetic wave.
n= -7
= ´ 1015 Hz
7 ´ 10 7 10. (b) Hertz produced em waves by oscillating
charge between dipolar electric field.
= 4.3 ´ 1014 Hz
A charge moving with non-zero
3. (b) The heating property of Infra red waves is acceleration where both magnetic and
used in solar heater and solar cells. Hence electric field are varying emits em waves
option (b) is correct. but this does not explain assertion.
4. (b) Given By = Bm sin (kz – wt). According to 11. (a) Ozone layer in the stratosphere helps in
this equation the direction of propagation protecting life of organism form ultraviolet
is along z axis. The direction of electric radiation on earth. Ozone layer is depleted
vector must be perpendicular both y and due to of several factors like use of
z-axis. So it is along x-axis. chlorofluoro carbon (CFC) which is the
1 cause of environmental damages.
5. (d) e 0 E 02 is electric energy density.
2 12. (c) Radio waves can be polarised because they
B2 are transverse in nature. Sound waves in
is magnetic energy density. air are longitudinal in nature.
2m 0
1 2 B 20 13. (d) The optical waves used in optical fibre
So, total energy = e E +
2 0 0 2m 0 communication are better carrier of signals
6. (c) b -rays are the beam of fast moving than microwaves. The speed of microwave
and optical wave is the same in vacuum.
electrons.
EBD_7100
23 Ray Optics and Optical

Instruments
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 6. How can the chromatic aberration be corrected
[1997]
1. If two mirrors are kept at 45° to each other and a (a) By providing different suitable curvature
body is placed in the middle then total number to its two surface
of images formed is : [1997] (b) By combining it with another lens of
(a) 7 (b) 8 opposite nature
(c) 14 (d) 4 (c) By reducing its aperture
2. An astronomical telescope of ten fold angular (d) By providing proper polishing of its two
magnification has a length of 44 cm. The focal surfaces
length of the objective is : [1997] 7. When a beam of light from air enters into the
(a) 44 cm (b) 440 cm water, the characteristics of light will not be
(c) 40 cm (d) 4 cm changed, is : [1997]
3. The refractive index of diamond is 2.0, velocity (a) frequency (b) speed
of light in diamond in cm per second is (c) colour (d) amplitude
approximately : [1997] 8. Mirage is a phenomenon due to : [1998]
(a) 1.5 × 1010 (b) 2.0 × 1010 (a) refraction of light
(c) 6 × 1010 (d) 3 × 1010 (b) diffraction of light
4. A cylindrical vessel is filled with water (µ = 4/3) (c) total internal reflection of light
as shown in figure. A coin placed in water at the (d) none of these
bottom appears upto maximum distance of : 9. In an astronomical microscope, the focal length
[1997] of the objective is made : [1998]
(a) shorter than that of the eye piece
(b) greater than that of the eye piece
H
(c) half of the eye piece
(d) equal to that of the eye piece
10. Light appears to travel in a straight line, because
3H (a) its wavelength is very small [1998]
(a) from the surface (b) its velocity is large
4
(c) it is not absorbed by surroundings
H
(b) from the surface (d) it is reflected by surroundings
4
11. Sky appears to be blue in clear atmosphere due
(c) H from the surface
to which property of light : [1999]
H (a) Scattering (b) Polarization
(d) from the surface
2 (c) Diffraction (d) Dispersion
5. The critical angle for the material of a prism is 12. A doctor prescribes spectacles to a patient with
45°and its refracting angle is 30°. A
a combination of a convex lens of focal length
monochromatic ray goes out perpendicular to
the surface of emergence from the prism. Then 40 cm, and concave lens of focal length 25 cm
the angle of incidence on the prism will be : then the power of spectacles will be : [2000]
(a) 60° (b) 75° [1997] (a) – 6.5 D (b) 1.5 D
(c) 45° (d) 30° (c) – 1.5 D (d) – 8.5 D
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments P-167
13. Match the items in list-1 with items in list-II and

collect the correct answers from the codes given
v v
below the lists [2000]
(a) (b)
List-I List-II
u u
I. Myopia A. Bifocal lens
II. Hyper-metropia B. Cylindrical lens
III. Presbyopia C. Concave lens v v
IV. Astigmation D. Convex lens (c) (d)
(a) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B u u
(b) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B 20. An object is immersed in a fluid. In order that the
(c) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C object becomes invisible, it should : [2004]
(d) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D (a) behave as a perfect reflector
(b) absorb all light falling on it
14. When a ray of light enters a glass slab, then
(c) have refractive index one
[2000]
(d) have refractive index exactly matching with
(a) its frequency and wavelength changes that of the surrounding fluid
(b) its frequency does not change 21. Sodium lamps are used in foggy conditions
(c) only frequency changes because : [2004]
(d) its frequency and velocity changes (a) yellow light is scattered less by the fog
15. An equilateral prism is made of a material of particles
refractive index 3 . The angle of minimum (b) yellow light is scattered more by the fog
deviation for the prism is [2000] particles
(c) yellow light is unaffected during its passage
(a) 90° (b) 60°
through the fog
(c) 45° (d) 30° (d) Wavelength of yellow light is the mean of
16. A concave mirror having the focal length 15 cm, the visible part of the spectrum
forms an image having twice of the linear 22. An endoscope is employed by a physician to
dimensions of the object. If the image is virtual, view the internal parts of a body organ. It is
then the position of the object will be : [2001] based on the principle of : [2004]
(a) 7.5 cm (b) 22.5 cm (a) refraction
(c) 40 cm (d) 30 cm (b) reflection
17. Four lenses having the focal length of + 15 cm, (c) total internal reflection
20 cm, +150 cm, and +250 cm respectively are (d) dispersion
provided to make an astronomical telescope. The 23. A telescope has an objective lens of focal length
focal length of the eyepiece to produce the 200 cm and an eye piece with focal length 2 cm.
largest magnification, should be : [2001] If this telescope is used to see a 50 metre tall
(a) + 250 cm (b) + 155 cm building at a distance of 2 km, what is the height
(c) 25 cm (d) + 15 cm of the image of the building formed by the
18. The Cauchy’s dispersion formula is [2002] objective lens? [2005]
(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm
(a) h = A + B l + Cl
2 4
(c) 1 cm (d) 2 cm
(b) µ = A + B l–2 + Cl4 24. In refraction, light waves are bent on passing
(c) µ = A + B l2 + Cl–4 from one medium to the second medium, because,
(d) µ = A + B l–2 + Cl–4 in the second medium: [2006]
19. In an experiment to find the focal length of a (a) the frequency is different
concave mirror, a graph is drawn between the (b) the coefficient of elasticity is different
magnitudes of u and v. The graph looks like : (c) the speed is different
[2003] (d) the amplitude is smaller
EBD_7100
25. 1 wire mesh consisting of very small squares is 36
viewed at a distance of S cm through a (a) (b) 36 7
7
magnifying converging lens of focal length 10
cm, kept close to the eye. The magnification (c) 4 5 (d) 36 5
produced by the lens is: [2006] 32. A fish in an aquarium, 30 cm deep in water can
(a) 5 (b) 8 see a light bulb kept 50 cm above the surface of
(c) 10 (d) 20 water. The fish can also see the image of this
26. A lens is made of flint glass (refractive index bulb in the reflecting bottom surface of the
= 1.5). When the lens is immersed in a liquid of aquarium. Total depth of water is 60 cm. Then
refractive index 1.25, the focal length: [2006] the apparent distance between the two images
seen by the fish is (mw = 4/3) [2009]
(a) increases by a factor of 1.25
760
(b) increases by a factor of 2.5 (a) 140 cm (b) cm
3
(c) increases by a factor of 1.2
280 380
(d) decreases by a factor of 1.2 (c) cm (d) cm
3 3
27. A leaf which contains only green pigments, is
illuminated by a laser light of wavelength 0.6328 33. The focal length of the objective and eye piece
mm. It wound appear to be: [2006] of a telescope are respectively 200 cm and 5 cm.
The maximum magnifying power of the telescope
(a) brown (b) black
will be [2010]
(c) red (d) green
(a) – 100 (b) – 60
28. The focal length of the objective and eye lenses (c) – 48 (d) – 40
of a microscope are 1.6 cm and 2.5 cm respectively.
34. A thin prism P1 with angle 6° and made from
The distance between the two lenses is 21.7 cm.
glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined with
If the final image is formed at infinity, what is the
another thin prism P2 of refractive index 1.72 to
linear magnification? [2007]
produce dispersion without deviation. The angle
(a) 11 (b) 110 of prism P2 will be [2011]
(c) 1.1 (d) 44 (a) 4° 30' (b) 8.5°
29. The camera lens has an aperture of f and the (c) 6.5° (d) none of these
exposure time is (1/60)s. What will be the new 35. The focal length of a converging lens are fV and
exposure time if the aperture become 1.4 f ? fR for violet and red light respectively. Then
1 1 [2012]
(a) (b) [2007]
42 56 (a) fV > fR (b) fV = fR
1 1 (c) fV < fR (d) any of the three is
(c) (d)
72 31 possible depending on the value of the average
30. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical refractive index m
power of – 5 D in air. Its optical power in a liquid 36. A plano-convex lens of focal length 30 cm has
medium with refractive index 1.6 will be [2008] its plane surface silvered. An object is placed 40
(a) – 1D (b) 1 D cm from the lens on the convex side. The
(c) – 25 D (d) 25 D distance of the image from the lens is [2013]
31. A fish looking up through the water sees the (a) 18 cm (b) 24 cm
outside world contained in a circular horizon. If (c) 30 cm (d) 40 cm
4 37. A ray of light passes through four transparent
the refractive index of water is and the fish is media with refractive indices µ1, µ2, µ3 and µ4 as
3
12 cm below the surface, the radius of this circle shown in the figure. The surfaces of all media are
in cm is [2008] parallel. If the emergent ray CD is parallel to the
incident ray AB, we must have [2013]
µ1 µ2 µ3 D 41. An achromatic convergent lens of focal length

20 cms is made of two lenses (in contact) of
µ4 materials having dispersive powers in the ratio
of 1 : 2 and having focal lengths f1 and f2. Which
C of the following is true ? [2015]
B (a) f1 = 10 cms, f2 = –20 cms
A (b) f1 = 20 cms, f2 = 10cms
(a) µ1 = µ2 (b) µ2 = µ3 (c) f1 = –10 cms, f2 = –20 cms
(c) µ3 = µ4 (d) µ4 = µ1 (d) f1 = 20 cms, f2 = –20 cms
38. An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal
42. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed
surface. A ray PQ is incident onto it. For minimum
in water (refractive index 4/3). A light beam
deviation [2014]
incident normally on the face AB is totally
R reflected to reach on the face BC if [2016]
Q S 8 A B
P (a) sin q ³
9 q
2 8
(a) PQ is horizontal (b) < sin q <
3 9
(b) QR is horizontal
(c) RS is horizontal 2
(c) sin q £
(d) Any one will be horizontal 3
39. A light ray is incident perpendicularly to one (d) None of these
face of a 90° prism and is totally internally 43. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence,
reflected at the glass-air interface. If the angle of i, on one face of prism of angle A (assumed to be
reflection is 45°, we conclude that the refractive small) and emerges normally from the opposite
index [2014] face. If the refractive index of the prism is m, the
angle of incidence i, is nearly equal to [2016]
mA
(a) mA (b)
2
A A
(c) (d)
m 2m
44. A green light is incident from the water to the air
- water interface at the critical angle (q). Select
the correct statement. [2017]
(a) The entire spectrum of visible light will
come out of the water at an angle of 90º to
1 the normal.
(a) n> (b) n> 2
2 (b) The spectrum of visible light whose
1 frequency is less than that of green light
(c) n< (d) n < 2
2 will come out to the air medium.
40. A man 160 cm high stands in front of a plane (c) The spectrum of visible light whose
mirror. His eyes are at a height of 150 cm from the frequency is more than that of green light
floor. Then the minimum length of the plane mirror will come out to the air medium.
for him to see his full length image is [2015] (d) The entire spectrum of visible light will
(a) 85 cm (b) 170 cm come out of the water at various angles to
(c) 80 cm (d) 340 cm the normal.
EBD_7100
TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS 50. Assertion: A double convex lens (m = 1.5) has
focal length 10 cm. When the lens is immersed in
Directions for (Qs. 45-61) : These questions consist water (m = 4/3) its focal length becomes 40 cm.
Reason. While answering these questions, you are 1 µ1 - µ m æ 1 1 ö
Reason: = = çç - ÷
÷ [1999]
required to choose any one of the following five f µm è R1 R 2 ø
responses. 51. Assertion : The refractive index of diamond is
the Reason is a correct explanation of the 6 and that of liquid is 3 . If the light travels
Assertion. from diamond to the liquid, it will totally reflected
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but when the angle of incidence is 30°.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the 1
Assertion. Reason : m = , where m is the refractive
sin C
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. index of diamond with respect to liquid [2000]
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. 52. Assertion : The setting sun appears to be red.
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is Reason : Scattering of light is directly
correct. proportional to the wavelength. [2000]
45. Assertion : The colour of the green flower seen
53. Assertion : In a movie, ordinarily 24 frames are
through red glass appears to be dark.
projected per second from one end to the other
Reason : Red glass transmits only red light.
of the complete film.
[1997]
46. Assertion : Newton’s rings are formed in the Reason : The image formed on retina of eye is
reflected system when the space between the sustained upto 1/10 second after the removal of
lens and the glass plate is filled with a liquid of stimulus. [2001]
refracitve index greater than that of glass, the 54. Assertion : Blue colour of sky appears due to
central spot of the pattern is bright. scattering of blue colour.
Reason : This is because the reflection in these Reason : Blue colour has shortest wave length
cases will be from a denser to rarer medium and in visible spectrum. [2001]
the two interfering rays are reflected under similar 55. Assertion : The air bubble shines in water.
conditions. [1998] Reason : Air bubble in water shines due to
47. Assertion : Corpuscular theory fails in explaining refraction of light. [2002]
the velocities of light in air and water. 56. Assertion : The stars twinkle while the planets
Reason : According to corpuscular theory, light do not.
should travel faster in denser medium than in Reason : The stars are much bigger in size than
rarer medium. [1998] the planets. [2003]
48. Assertion : Different colours travel with different 57. Assertion : A red object appears dark in the
speed in vacuum. yellow light.
Reason : Wavelength of light depends on Reason : The red colour is scattered less.[2004]
refractive index of medium. [1998] 58. Assertion : By roughening the surface of a glass
49. Assertion : The maximum refractive index of liquid sheet its transparency can be reduced.
for total internal reflection of the ray passing Reason : Glass sheet with rough surface absorbs
through the prism as shown in figure must be 2 . more light. [2005]
59. Assertion : Diamond glitters brilliantly.
Reason : Diamond does not absorb sunlight.
[2005]
60. Assertion : In optical fibre, the diameter of the
core is kept small.
Reason : This smaller diameter of the core
ensures that the fibre should have incident angle
more than the critical angle required for total
Reason: Here, critical angle is 45° [1999] internal reflection. [2006]
61. Assertion : A concave mirror and convex lens ray, then this ray emerges out of first surface
both have the same focal length in air. When along the previous incident ray. This particle is
they are submerged in water, they will have same called principle of reversibility of light. [2011]
focal length. 66. Assertion : A point object is placed at a distance
Reason : The refractive index of water is smaller of 26 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 26
than the refractive index of air. [2008] cm. The image will not form at infinity.
Directions for (Qs. 62-70) : Each of these questions Reason : For above given system the equation
contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them 1 1 1
carefully and answer the question on the basis of + = gives v = ¥. [2012]
u v f
best describes the two statements. 67. Assertion : If the angle between the two plane
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and mirror is 72° and the object is asymmetrically
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. placed between the two mirrors, then 5 images
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but of the object will be formed. [2012]
Assertion.
62. Assertion : The image of a virtual object due to
a plane mirror is real.
Reason : If the rays seem to be converging at a
point behind a plane mirror, they are reflected
and they actually meet in front of the mirror. Reason : For given system of mirror the total
[2009] number of images formed due to successive
63. Assertion : The formula connecting u, v and f 360° 360°
reflection is equal to either or -1
for a spherical mirror is valid only for mirrors q q
whose sizes are very small compared to their 360°
accordingly as is odd or even respectively..
radii of curvature. q
Reason : Laws of reflection are strictly valid for 68. Assertion: Two convex lenses joined together
plane surfaces, but not for large spherical cannot produce an achromatic combination.
surface. [2009] Reason : The condition for achromatism is
64. Assertion : Position of image approaches focus w1 w2
+ = 0 where symbols have their usual
of a lens, only when object approaches infinity. f1 f 2
Reason : Paraxial rays incident parallel to meaning. [2013]
principal axis intersect at the focus after 69. Assertion: Critical angle is minimum for violet
refraction from lens. [2010] colour.
65. Assertion : There exists two angles of incidence æ1ö
for the same magnitude of deviation (except Reason : Because critical angle qc = sin -1 ç ÷
èmø
minimum deviation) by a prism kept in air. 1
Reason : In a prism kept in air, a ray is incident and m µ . [2014]
l
on first surface and emerges out of second 70. Assertion : Plane mirror may form real image.
surface. Now if another ray is incident on second Reason : Plane mirror forms virtual image, if object
surface (of prism) along the previous emergent is real. [2017]
EBD_7100
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 7. (a) When electromagnetic wave enters into any
other medium, its electric component
360 360 induces dipole in the molecule of the
1. (a) No. of images = -1 = -1 = 7
q 45 medium. These dipoles have oscillating
2. (c) In case of telescope, in normal adjustment, dipole moment and its time period is the
fo same as inducing electric field of incoming
m= = 10 wave. These dipole in turn radiates
fe
electromagnetic wave having same time
and f o + f e = length of tube = 44 period. So, in this phenomenon, time period
or frequency of the wave remains unaltered.
f o = 10 f e 10f e + f e = 44 Þ f e = 4 8. (c) Mirage is a phenomenon in which we see
f o = 10 ´ 4 = 40cm an inverted image of plants and trees on
the surface and it gives the impression that
velocity of light in air
3. (a) m= there is water around the trees. It occurs
velocity of light in diamond due to total internal reflection of light.
9. (b) In astronomical telescope the focal length
3 ´ 1010 cm / sec
2= of objective is larger in comparision.
v 10. (a) Light appears to travel in a straight line
3 because diffraction (or deviation from the
Þ v = ´1010 cm / sec
2 path) is least in light. Diffraction is least
because of small wavelength of light. So
= 1.5 ´ 1010 cm / sec small wave length of light causes the light
4. (b) to travel almost in straight line.
11. (a) Sky appears blue due to scattering of light.
12. (c) For combination of lenses, power
30° 100 100
P = P1 + P2 = - = -1.5D
5. (c) 40 25
A 13. (b) In myopia, we use concave lens. In hyper
metropia we use convex lens. In presbyopia
we use bifocal lens and in astigmatism we
In this case use cylindrical lens.
r + r ' = A Þ r + 0 = 30° Þ r = 30° 14. (b) When an electromagnetic wave enters a
1 1 medium (new), it undergoes change in
m= Þ m= Þ µ= 2 velocity. v = nl
sin C sin 45°
This change in velocity is due to change in
sin A sin A wave-length. The frequency remains
Now, =µÞ = 2
sin r sin 30° constant.
15. (b) A = 60°
1 1
sin A = sin 30°. 2 = ´ 2 = A= 45° æ A + dm ö æ 60° + d m ö
sin ç sin ç
è 2 ÷ø ÷ø
2 2 è 2
6. (b) Chromatic aberration takes place when µ= Þ 3=
sin A sin 30°
white light is used as source. We get a series
2
of images overlapping each other and made
by a lens. By using combination of lenses æ 60° + dm ö 1 3
of opposite nature (convex & concave) we
sin ç
è 2 ÷ø = 3 ´ 2 = 2 = sin 60°
can reduce this aberration. 60° + dm = 120° Þ dm = 120° – 60° = 60°
I I T J E E N E E T e
16. (a) Since, image is virtual v is +ve 20. (d) If the refractive index of the body becomes
f = – 15 cm, u = ?, equal to surrounding liquid, there will not
v be any deviation in the direction of light
m = 2 = v = 2u neither will any light get reflected from its
u
Applying mirror formula surface. So, the object becomes invisible.
1 1 1 21. (a) The higher the wavelength the lesser the
+ = scattering. Yellow light has higher
v u f
wavelength so it is least likely to be
1 1 1 1- 2 1
- =- Þ =- scattered among all colours in the visible
2u u 15 2u 15 region (except red & orange). So this light
1 1 is visible from long distance ever when there
- =- Þ u = 7.5 cm
2u 15 is foggy weather.
or 22. (c) In endoscopy a fine thread of hollow glass
We know that virtual and erect image is tube is send into the body cavity. Light
formed when we place an object within focal from the interior enters the tube & through
length of the mirror. As focal length given = internal reflector comes out at desired angle.
15 cm. So, object distance must be less than These rays are picked up by microscopy to
15 cm out of four given option only one take a view of internal parts.
option is correct. 23. (a) u = – 2000 m, v = ?, f = 200 cm = 2 m
17. (d) In case of astronomical telescope, magni- 1 1 1 1 1 1
- = Þ + =
f v u f v 2000 2
fication = o
fe 1 1 1 1000 - 1 999
For maximum magnification, fe should be = - = =
v 2 2000 2000 2000
least. So, fe should be 15 cm.
18. (d) The Cauchy’s formula is based on the 2000 v 2000 1
v= ; =m= =
relation between wavelength of light and 999 u 999 ´ 2000 999
the refractive index. It is as follows 1
Size of image = ´ 50 ´ 100 cm » 5 cm
B C 999
m =A+ 2
+
l l4 24. (c) Since the speed of light changes in the
second medium, its direction also changes.
1 1 1
19. (c) + = is the formula which relates 1 1 1
v u f 25. (a) Using - =
u & v. v u f
1 1 1 1 1 1
= - + =
u f v v 8 10
Slope of this curve can be found by
1 1 1 4-5 1
1 dv = - = =-
differentiation - du = 0 + v 10 8 40 40
u2 v2 v = –40 cm
2
dv v v 40
Þ =- m= = = 5.
du u2 u 8
dv
is the slope which is negative so either 1 æ1 1 ö
du 26. (b) = (m - 1) ç - ÷
f ç r1 r 2 ÷
curve (c) or curve (a) is right. Now the slope è ø
depends upon the value of u & v i.e. it
keeps changing at every point as per the 1 æ1 1 ö
equation above. So figure (c) is the answer. = (1.5 - 1) ç - ÷
fa ç r1 r 2 ÷
è ø
EBD_7100
1 æ1 1 ö æ ö
= (mg - 1) ç - ÷
ç r1 r 2 ÷ f m ç 1.5 - 1 ÷
fl è ø Dividing (i) by (ii), =ç ÷ =–8
f a ç 1.5 ÷
mg 1.5 6 ç -1 ÷
l
mg = = = è 1.6 ø
ml 1.25 5 m 1
Pa = - 5 = = 1
Þ fa = -
1 æ 6 öæ 1 1 ö æ ö fa fa 5
= ç - 1÷ ç - ÷ = 1ç 1 - 1 ÷
f l è 5 ø çè r1 r 2 ÷ 5ç r ÷ 1 8
ø è 1 r2 ø Þ f m = - 8 ´ f a = -8 ´ - =
5 5
1/ fa 0.5
= m 1.6
1/ fl 1/ 5 Pm = = ´ 5 = 1D
fm 8
fl
Þ = 0.5 ´ 5 = 2.5 1 3
fa 31. (a) sin qc = =
m 4
fl = 2.5 ´ fa
3 3 R
27. (b) 0.6328 µm = 6328Å or tan q c = = =
16 - 9 7 12
This is wave length of Red colour. So this
light will be absorbed by green pigments.
R
The leaf will appear black.
28. (b) In normal adjustment, object lies close to
focus of objective and image is formed at qc qc
12 cm
Ld
infinity, magnification, m = .
fe f0
Where f0 = 1.6 cm, fe = 2.5 cm, d = 21.7 cm,
L = d – f0 = 21.7 – 1.6 = 20.1 cm (approx.) 36
Þ R=cm
21.7 ´ 20.1 436.17 7
Þ m= = = 109.1 ; 110
1.6 ´ 2.5 4 32. (b) Apparent distance of the bulb from the fish
1 d1 = 50µ + 30
29. (d) aperture = f, exposure time sec.
60
1 50 cm
area of aperture = f2, area µ
exposure time
New aperture = 1.4f area = 1.96 f2 30 cm
Ratio of areas = 1.96. Since area of aperture 60 cm
has increased thus exposure time will
decrease in same proportion, i.e., apparent distance of the image
1 1 d2 = 50m + 60 + 30
new time = < sec. \ d1 + d2 = 100m + 120
(60 /1.96) 31
1 æ 1. 5 ö æ 1 1 ö 400 760
30. (b) =ç - 1÷ çç - ÷÷ ...(i) = + 120 = cm
fa è 1 ø è R1 R 2 ø 3 3
= 253.3 cm
1 æ mg öæ 1 1 ö
= çç - 1÷÷ çç - ÷
÷ f0 æ fe ö
fm è mm ø è R1 R 2 ø 33. (c) Magnifying power M = 1+ ÷
f e çè dø
1 æ 1.5 ö æ 1 1 ö ...(ii) Least distance of distinct vision, d = 25cm
=ç - 1÷ ç - ÷
f m è 1.6 ø çè R1 R 2 ÷ø
l
200 æ 5 ö æ 1ö
M= - ç1 + ÷ = -40 ç1 + ÷ B
q
A
5 è 25 ø è 5ø q
R P
æ6ö
= -40 ç ÷ = -48cm.
è5ø
C
34. (a) For dispersion without deviation, the
necessary condition is a
w gh 1. 5
A2 µ -1 (1.54 - 1) 0.54 Now, gm =
w
= = 1.125
=- 1 =- =- gm
4/3
A1 µ2 - 1 (1.72 - 1) 0.72
1 8
0.54 Putting in (i), sin q = =
or, A2 = ´ 6° = 4.5° » 4°30' 1.125 9
0.72 \ sin q should be greater than or equal to
35. (c) Since l R > l V m R < m V 8
æ 1ö æ 1 ö 9
çèQ m µ ÷ø Þ f V < fR çèQ µ (m - 1)÷ø 43. (a) For normally emerge e = 0
l f
Therefore r2 = 0 and r1 = A
36. (b) Snell’s Law for Incident ray’s
37. (d)
1sin i = m sin r1 = msin A
38. (b) For minimum deviation, incident angle is For small angle
equal to emerging angle. i = mA
\ QR is horizontal. 44. (b) For critical angle qc,
39. (b) The incident angle is 45° incident angle >
1
critical angle, i > i c sin qc =
m
\ sin i > sin i c or sin 45 > sin i c For greater wavelength or lesser frequency
1 m is less. So, critical angle would be more.
sin i c = So, they will not suffer reflection and come
n
out at angles less then 90°.
1 1 1
\ sin 45° > or > Þn> 2
n 2 n Type B : Assertion Reason Questions
40. (c) The minimum length of the mirror is half the 45. (a) A green flower absorbs all the light except
length of the man. This can be proved from green coloured light. So when red glass
the fact that Ði = Ðr.
transmits only red light and falls on green
f1 w 1 flower, it absorbs all the light. Therefore,
41. (a) =- 1 =- \ f 2 = -2 f1
f2 w2 2 colour of the green flower becomes dark.
1 1 1 46. (a) Newton’s rings are formed in reflected
As = + system and if the refractive index of the
F f1 f 2
first medium is more than the second
1 1 1 1 medium, there is no reversal of phase in
\ = - = \ f1 = 10 cm
20 f1 2 f1 2 f1 reflected ray so, central fringe remains
f2 = –20 cm bright.
42. (a) The phenomenon of total internal reflection 47. (a) Corpuscular theory fails to explain the
takes place during reflection at P. velocityof light in air and water because it
1 predicted light to have more velocity in
sin q = … (i) denser medium where as the fact is just the
w
gm opposite.
When q is the angle of incidence at P So option (a) is correct.
EBD_7100
48. (e) In vacuum all the colours have same 52. (c) Setting sun appears to be red because red
velocity but their velocity changes when light which has greatest wavelength is least
they enter in a medium. In the medium their scattered and reaches our eyes the most.
velocity changes due to change in their Other wavelength are scattered to the
wavelength. longest extent. So, reason given is wrong.
v = nl 53. (c) The image formed on retina of eye is
If l changes, v also changes for a particular 1
sustained upto th second after removal
colour therefore, different colours have 16
different wavelength (l). of stimulus. So, number of frames to be
49. (a) We know that in case of total internal projected on the screen must be at most 16
reflection, the minimum refractive index is per second.
given by the relation. 54. (a) Blue colour of sky is due to scattering of
1 1 1 blue colour to the maximum extent by dust
µ= = = = 2 particles. Blue colour appears to be coming
sin c sin 45° 1 / 2
from the sky. Blue colour has the least wave-
µ= 2 length.
50. (a) Using the given relation,
1 æ 1.5 - 1 ö æ 1 1 ö
=ç ÷ç - ÷÷
10 è 1 ø çè R 1 R 2 ø
Blue colour
1 æ 1 1 ö B
= 0.5 ç - ÷ ..........(i)
10 è R1 R 2 ø
4
In the second case, m = ;
3 55. (c) Air bubble shines in water due to total
internal reflection from the surface of the
æ 4ö
1. 5 - ÷ æ
1 çç
bubble.
= 3 ÷ ç 1 - 1 ö÷ So, Assertion is correct and Reason is
f ç 4 / 3 ÷ çè R1 R 2 ÷ø .........(ii) incorrect.
ç ÷
è ø 56. (b) Stars twinkle because of changing refractive
Dividing (ii) from (i), index of atmosphere. As the apparent size
f 0.5 4 ´ 0.5 of stars are small, the effect of this change
= = on the direction of rays coming from star is
10 0.5 / 4 0.5 more pronounced.
f = 4 ×10 = 40 cm 57. (b) A red object appears dark in the yellow light
a a
µl = 3, because red object absorbs all the light
51. (e) µd = 6 ,
falling on it except red. The Reason which
l a d l is a fact can not be assigned to the
µ d = ? ; µd ´ µ l ´ µ a = 1
Assertion.
1
6 ´ d µl ´ =1 58. (c) The transparency of rough glass is reduced
3 due to scattering of light.
3 1 59. (b) Diamond glitters brilliantly because of high
d
µl = = ; lµd = 2 refractive index and less critical angle.
6 2 60. (a) Assertion and Reason are correct and
If C be the critical angle, then Reason explains Assertion.
1 1
sin C = =
µ 2
A L
C = 45°. As angle of incidence < 45°, it will
not be internally reflected. So Assertion is
incorrect Reason is correct.
Small diameter core, angle A is larger Hence, refractive index of water is greater
than that of air.
62. (a)
B
Q P
Large diameter core, angle B is smaller. In

the former case ÐA is large so the The image of a real object is virtual while
possibility of this angle becoming greater that of a virtual object (as shown) is real.
than critical angle is more. Hence, the 63. (c) Assertion is correct. Laws of reflection can
chance of internal reflection is more. be applied to any type of surface.
61. (d) If a mirror is placed in a medium other than 64. (b) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct.
air, its focal length does not change as 65. (a) Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
f = R/2. But for the lens, 66. (c)
1 æ 1 1 ö 67. (a)
= ( a n g - 1) ç - ÷ 68. (a)
fg è R1 R 2 ø
69. (b)
1 æ 1 1 ö
and = ( w n g - 1) ç - ÷ 70. (b) Plane mirror may form real image, if object
fw è R1 R 2 ø is virtual.
As wng < ang, hence focal length of lens in
water increase.
The refractive index of water is 4/3 and that O (virtual)
(Real) I
of air is 1
EBD_7100
24 Wave Optics
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 6. A light of intensity I0 passes through a material

of thickness d, then the intensity will be
1. Two waves of intensities I and 4I superimposes. (a) I = I0e–dl (b) I = I0edl [2000]
Then the maximum and minimum intensities are: –ld
(c) I = I0(1 – e ) (d) none of these
(a) 9I and I (b) 3I and I [1997] 7. Light of wavelength 589.3 nm is incident
(c) 9I and 3I (d) 6I and I normally on a slit of width 0.01 mm. The angular
2. On a rainy day, if there is an oil drop on tar road, width of the central diffraction maximum at a
coloured rings are seen around this drop. This distance of 1 m from the slit, is : [2000]
is because of : [1997] (a) 0.68° (b) 0.34°
(a) total internal reflection of light (c) 2.05° (d) none of these
(b) polarisation 8. In an electron microscope the accelerating
(c) diffraction pattern voltage is increased from 20 kV to 80 kV, the
(d) interference pattern produced due to thin resolving power of the microscope will become
films
3. Interference occurs in which of the following R
(a) 2R (b) [2000]
waves? [1999] 2
(a) Transverse (b) Electromagnetic (c) 4R (d) 3R
(c) Longitudinal (d) All of these 9. How does the red shift confirm that the universe
4. In young’s experiment the monochromatic light is expanding ? [2001]
is used to illuminate two slits A and B as shown (a) wavelength of light emitted by galaxies
in figure. Interference fringes are observed on a appears to decrease
screen placed in front of the slits. Now a thin (b) wavelength of light emitted by galaxies
glass plate is placed normally in the path of beam appears to be the same
coming from the slit A, then : [1999, 2004] (c) wavelength of light emitted by galaxies
appears to increase
(d) none of these
A 10. What change occurs, if the monochromatic light
used in Young’s double slit experiment is
replaced by white light ? [2001]
(a) only the central fringe is white and all other
B fringes are observed coloured.
(b) no fringes are observed.
(a) There will be no change in fringe width (c) all the bright fringes become white.
(b) Fringe width will decrease (d) all the bright fringes are coloured between
(c) Fringe width will increase violet and red.
(d) Fringes will disappear 11. Light of wavelength 6000Å is reflected at nearly
5. The ratio of intensities of two waves is 9 : 1. If normal incidence from a soap films of refractive
they superimpose, the ratio of maximum to index 1.4. The least thickness of the film that will
minimum intensity will be : [2000] appear black is : [2002]
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 4 : 9 (a) infinity (b) 200 Å
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 9 (c) 2000 Å (d) 1000 Å
Wave Optics P-179
12. A ray of light is incident on the surface of plate

of glass of refractive index 1.5 at the polarising
angle. The angle of refraction of the ray will be : (a) |E |
(a) 33.7º (b) 43.7º [2002]
(c) 23.7º (d) 53.7º t
13. When a beam of light is used to determine the
position of an object, the maximum accuracy is
achieved if the light is : [2003]
(a) polarised (b) |E |
(b) of longer wavelength
(c) of shorter wavelength t
(d) of high intensity
14. A double slit experiment is performed with light
of wavelength 500 nm. A this film of thickness 2 (c) |E |
µm and refractive index 1.5 is introduced in the
path of the upper beam. The location of the t
central maximum will : [2003]
(a) remain unshifted
(b) shift downward by nearly two fringes
(d) |E |
(c) shift upward by nearly two fringes
(d) shift downward by ten fringes
15. An astronaut is looking down on earth's surface t
from a space shuttle an altitude of 400 km. 20. Two point white dots are 1 mm apart on a black
paper. They are viewed by eye of pupil diameter
Assuming that the astronaut's pupil diameter is
3 mm. Approximately, what is the maximum
5 mm and the wavelength of visible light is 500
distance at which these dots can be resolved by
nm, the astronaut will be able to resolve linear the eye? [Take wavelength of light = 500 nm]
objects of the size of about : [2003] (a) 1 m (b) 5 m [2008]
(a) 0.5 m (b) 5 m (c) 3 m (d) 6 m
(c) 50 m (d) 500 m 21. What happens to fringe width in Young’s double
16. When a compact disc is illuminated by a source slit experiment if it is performed in glycerine
of white light, coloured lines are observed. This instead of air [2009]
is due to : [2004] (a) shrinks (b) disappears
(a) dispersion (b) diffraction (c) unchanged (d) enlarged
(c) interference (d) refraction 22. If a polaroid is kept in the path of an uniformly
17. In case of linearly polarised light, the magnitude unpolarised light, the intensity of the transmitted
of the electric field vector : [2005] light to the intensity of the light when the
(a) does not change with time polaroid was not kept in its path is [2009]
(b) varies periodically with time 1
(a) 1 (b)
(c) increases and decreases linearly with time 2
(d) is parallel to the direction of propagation 1 1
(c) (d)
18. When exposed to sunlight, thin films of oil on 2 2 2
water often exhibit brilliant colours due to the 23. In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width
phenomenon of : [2005] of the slit is made double its original width. Then
(a) interference (b) diffraction the central maximum of the diffraction pattern
(c) dispersion (d) polarisation will become [2009]
19. Which of the following diagrams represents the (a) narrower and fainter
variation of electric field vector with time for a (b) narrower and brighter
(c) broader and fainter
circulatory polarized light? [2006]
(d) broader and brighter
EBD_7100
24. If the source of light used in a Young’s double 29. Two sources of light of wavelengths 2500 Å
slit experiment is changed from red to violet: and 3500 Å are used in Young’s double slit expt.
(a) the fringes will become brighter [2011] simultaneously. Which orders of fringes of two
(b) consecutive fringes will comes closer wavelength patterns coincide? [2013]
(c) the intensity of minima will increase (a) 3rd order of 1st source and 5th of the 2nd
(d) the central fringe- will became a dark fringe (b) 7th order of 1st and 5th order of 2nd
25. Wavelength of light used in an optical instrument (c) 5th order of 1st and 3rd order of 2nd
o o (d) 5th order of 1st and 7th order of 2nd
are l1 = 4000 A and l 2 = 5000 A , then 30. In Young’s double slit experiment, we get 10
ratio of their respective resolving powers fringes in the field of view of monochromatic
(corresponding to l1and l2) is [2012] light of wavelen gth 4000Å. If we use
(a) 16 : 25 (b) 9 : 1 monochromatic light of wavelength 5000Å, then
(c) 4 : 5 (d) 5 : 4 the number of fringes obtained in the same field
26. The correct formula for fringe visibility is of view is [2014]
(a) 8 (b) 10
I max - I min
(a) V= [2012] (c) 40 (d) 50
I max + I min 31. The condition for obtaining secondary maxima
in the diffraction pattern due to single slit is
I max + I min
(b) V= (a) a sin q = nl [2014]
I max - I min
l
(b) a sin q = ( 2n - 1)
I max 2
(c) V= (c) a sin q = ( 2n - 1) l
I min
nl
(d) a sin q =
I min 2
(d) V= 32. The Fraunhoffer ‘diffraction’ pattern of a single
I max slit is formed in the focal plane of a lens of focal
27. In Young’s expt., the distance between two slits length 1 m. The width of slit is 0.3 mm. If third
d minimum is formed at a distance of 5 mm from
is and the distance between the screen and central maximum, then wavelength of light will
3
be [2015]
1 (a) 5000 Å (b) 2500 Å
the slits is 3 D. The number of fringes in m on
3 (c) 7500 Å (d) 8500 Å
the screen, formed by monochromatic light of 33. A parallel beam of monochromatic unpolarised
wavelength 3l, will be [2012] light is incident on a transparent dielectric plate
d d 1
of refractive index . The reflected beam is
(a) (b) 3
9Dl 27 D l
completely polarised. Then the angle of
d d incidence is [2015]
(c) (d) (a) 30º (b) 60º
81 D l Dl
(c) 45º (d) 75º
28. To demonstrate the phenomenon of
34. A single slit Fraunhoffer diffraction pattern is
interference, we require two sources which emit
formed with white light. For what wavelength
radiation of
of light the third secondary maximum in the
(a) nearly the same frequency [2013] diffraction pattern coincides with the second
(b) the same frequency secondary maximum in the pattern for red light
(c) different wavelengths of wavelength 6500 Å? [2016]
(d) the same frequency and having a definite (a) 4400 Å (b) 4100 Å
phase relationship (c) 4642.8 Å (d) 9100 Å
Wave Optics P-181
35. A diffraction pattern is obtained by using beam Reason : It happens due to the interference of
of red. light what will happen, if red light is light reflected from the upper surface of the thin
replced by the blue light? [2017] film. [2002]
(a) Bands disappear. 41. Assertion : At the first glance, the top surface
(b) Bands become broader and farther apart. of the Morpho butterfly's wing appears a
(c) No change will take place. beautiful blue-green. If the wind moves the
(d) Diffraction bands become narrow and colour changes.
crowded together. Reason : Different pigments in the wing reflect
TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS light at different angles. [2004]
42. Assertion : A famous painting was painted by
Directions for (Qs. 36-48) : These questions consist not using brush strokes in the usual manner,
of two statements, each printed as Assertion and but rather a myriad of small colour dots. In this
Reason. While answering these questions, you are painting the colour you see at any given place
required to choose any one of the following five on the painting changes as you move away.
responses.
Reason : The angular separation of adjacent dots
changes with the distance from the painting.
Assertion. [2004]
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but 43. Assertion : The clouds in sky generally appear
Reason is not a correct explanation of the to be whitish.
Assertion. Reason : Diffraction due to clouds is efficient in
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is equal measure at all wavelengths. [2005]
incorrect. 44. Assertion : The resolving power of a telescope
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. is more if the diameter of the objective lens is
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is more.
correct. Reason : Objective lens of large diameter collects
36. Assertion : The colour of the green flower seen more light. [2005]
through red glass appears to be dark.
45. Assertion : Standard optical diffraction gratings
Reason : Red glass transmits only red light.
can not be used for discriminating between X-
[1997]
37. Assertion : In Young’s experiment, the fringe ray wavelengths.
width for dark fringes is different from that for Reason : The grating spacing is not of the order
white fringes. of X-ray wavelengths. [2006]
Reason : In Young’s double slit experiment the 46. Assertion : Goggles have zero power.
fringes are performed with a source of white light, Reason : Radius of curvature of both sides of
then only black and bright fringes are observed. lens is same. [2007]
[2001] 47. Assertion : A white source of light during
38. Assertion : Coloured spectrum is seen when we interference forms only white and black fringes.
look through a muslin cloth. Reason : Width of fringe is inversely
Reason : It is due to the diffraction of white proportional to the wavelength of the light used.
light on passing through fine slits [2002] [2007]
39. Assertion : When tiny circular obstacle is placed
48. Assertion : In Young's double slit experiment
in the path of light from some distance, a bright
spot is seen at the centre of the shadow of the the two slits are at distance d apart. Interference
obstacle. pattern is observed on a screen at distance D
Reason : Destructive interference occurs at the from the slits. At a point onthe screen when it is
centre of the shadow. [2002] directly opposite to one of the slits, a dark fringe
40. Assertion : Thin films such a soap bubble or a is observed. Then, the wavelength of wave is
thin layer of oil on water show beautiful colours proportional to square of distance of two slits
when illuminated by white light. Reason : For a dark fringe intensity is zero. [2008]
EBD_7100
Directions for (Qs. 49-51) : Each of these questions Reason : The fringe width is inversely
contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them proportional to the distance between the two
carefully and answer the question on the basis of slits. [2009]
following options. You have to select the one that 50. Assertion : In Young’s double slit experiment if
best describes the two statements. wavelength of incident monochromatic light is
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and just doubled, number of bright fringe on the
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. screen will increase.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason : Maximum number of bright fringe on
Reason is not the correct explanation of the screen is directly proportional to the
Assertion. wavelength of light used. [2015]
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 51. Assertion : Diffraction takes place for all types
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. of waves mechanical or non-mechanical,
transverse or longitudinal.
49. Assertion : No interference pattern is detected
Reason : Diffraction's effect are perceptible
when two coherent sources are infinitely close
only if wavelength of wave is comparable to
to each other.
dimensions of diffracting device. [2017]
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions maximum intensity 4

=
minimum intensity 1
4 2
1. (a) Ratio of amplitudes = = [Intensity µ (amplitude)2]
1 1 6. (a) When a light passes through a material its
maximum amplitude 2 + 1 3 intensity goes on decreasing. First
= = equation given represents exponentially
minimum amplitude 2 -1 1
2
decreasing intensity. Option (b) and (c)
maximum intensity æ 3 ö 9 represents increasing intensity.
=ç ÷ = 7. (a) In case of diffraction,
minimum intensity è1ø 1
2. (d) When a thin layer of oil floats on the water 2l
Angular width of central fringe =
level, interference takes place between ray a
of light reflected from upper interface and 2 ´ 589.3 ´ 10 -9
from lower interface. Due to interference = = 2 × 589.3 × 10– 4
coloured fringes are formed in oil film. 1´ 10 -5
3. (d) Since, interference occurs both in sound = 1178.6 × 10 –5 rad.
and light waves so it will occur in all the 180
= 1178.6 × 10 – 5 × = 67563 × 10–5
forms of waves given. 11
4. (a) When we put a glass plate in the path of = 0.68°
one of the beams interfering with each other 8. (a) We know that wavelength and accelerating
then there is change of place of fringes on voltage for an electron is related to each
the screen. All the fringes including central other as follows
fringe are shifted. It does not result in 1
change of fringe width. lµ [V is potential applied]
V
I1 9 A 9 3 1
5. (c) = Þ 1 = = and resolving power µ
I2 1 A2 1 1 l
[Here A1 & A2 are amplitudes]
Maximum amplitude = A1 + A2 So, resolving power µ V
Minimum amplitude = A1 – A2 Now, if potential used is increased 4 times,
resolving power will be increased 2 times.
A1 + A 2 4 2
= = So, if resolving power earlier is R. It
A1 - A 2 2 1 becomes 2R.
Wave Optics P-183
9. (c) Red shift means shifting of colours in the higher is the accuracy in vision.
spectrum of a moving star towards the red æ 1ö
end of the spectrum. It happens when the ç Re solving power µ ÷
radiation emitting source goes away from è l ø
the earth. It is due to Doppler’s effect as 14. (c) When we introduce a thin film of some
we observe in case of sound. The apparent thickness in the path of upper beam actually
frequency decreases or wavelength we are increasing the optical path of the
increases for a receding source. upper beam. Now for the same path
10. (a) When we use white light in place of difference lower beam will shift upwards
monochromatic light then only central so that it is elongated so that path
fringe looks white and other fringes of difference remains unchanged.
different colour are observed. It is because 15. (c) The resolving power of an instrument is
central fringe for all the colours are formed lD
given by the formula, 1.22 =
at central point so it becomes white after d
mixing up. As fringes of others colours fall Here, d is aperture of the instrument, D is
at different places we see fringes of all distance of satellite from the earth. Here
colours on the central bright fringe. eye is the optical instrument.
11. (c) A 1.22 ´ 500 ´10-9
R.P = ´ 400 ´1000
B 5 ´10-3
10-2
= 1.22 ´ ´ 4 = 1.22 ´ 40 = 50 m
10-3
t
16. (b) A compact disc contains many fine circular
Soap film
lines on it so it acts as diffraction grating.
When white light falls upon it, it is
Interference occurs between two reflected diffracted as a result of which different
rays A and B. A is reflected from upper colours are diffracted at different angles.
surface and B is reflected from lower We see different colours when we look at it
surface. through different angles.
The path difference between the two 17. (b) In any type of light whether polarised or
l unpolarised, the magnitude of electric field
becomes 2mt + vector always varies periodically with time.
2
Actually the change in electric field vector
3l gives rise to periodically changing magnetic
If it is equal to then destructive
2 field.
interference occurs and we see dark fringes 18. (a) We see spectrum of colours when thin films
from above. So, the equation of oil on water is exposed to sunlight due
l 3l to phenomenon of interference.
2mt + = gives the least value of t for 19. (a) In circularly polarised light the magnitude
2 2
of electric vector remains constant with
which we see dark fringes.
respect to time.
l 6000
2µt = l Þ t = = @ 2000Å 20. (b) y l
2µ 2 ´ 1.4 ³ 1.22
D d
12. (a) If ip be the polarising angle, then yd 10 - 3 ´ 3 ´ 10 - 3
tan ip = µ = 1.5 Þ D£ =
(1.22) l (1.22) ´ 5 ´ 10 - 7
ip = 56.3°
Angle of refraction, r = 90º – ip = 30 » 5m
= 90º – 56.3º = 33.7° 6.1
13. (c) The resolving power of an instrument \ D max = 5m
depends upon the wave length of light Dl
used. The lower the wavelength of light 21. (a) b =
d
EBD_7100
if it be performed in glycerine then a x 0.3 ´10 -3 ´ 5 ´10 -3
l' =l/m or l = =
3f 3 ´1
Dl -7
b' = Since m > 1 = 5 ´ 10 m = 5000 Å.
md 33. (a) When angle of incidence i is equal to angle
So, b' < b (shrinks) of polarisation i.e, then reflected light is
22. (b) The component of the Electric vector of all completely plane-polarised whose
the electric vectors of unpolarised light in vibration is perpendicular to plane of
E incidence.
one direction only = 0
2 ( 2n + 1) l D
34. (c) x =
I 2a
and I µ E 2 Þ I = 0
2 ( 4 + 1) D
For red light, x = ´ 6500Å
l 1 2a
23. (b) sin q = \qµ
d d ( 6 + 1) D ´ lÅ
24. (b) The distance of n th fringe is given by For other light, x =
2a
nD l x is same for each.
yn =
d \ 5 ´ 6500 = 7 ´ l
As l violet < l red, 5
\ fringes will come closer. Þ l = ´ 6500 = 4642.8 Å
25. (d) Resolving power a (1/l). 7
35. (d) When red light is replaced by blue light
(R.P)1 l 2 5 the diffraction bands become narrow and
Hence, = = .
(R.P) 2 l1 4 crowded.
26. (a) Fringe visibility (V) is given by Type B : Assertion Reason Questions
Ι - Ι min
V = max 36. (b)
Ι max + Ι min . 37. (d) In Young’s experiments, fringe width of dark
¢ ¢ and white fringes are equal. If white light is
27. (c) b = l D = 3 l 3 D = 27 l D . used as source, coloured fringes are
d¢ d/3 d
observed representing bright band of
1/ 3 d different colours.
No. of fringes = = .
b 81 l D 38. (a) Porous muslin cloth has holes comparable
28. (d) to the wavelength of light falling on it. So,
29. (b) Let nth fringe of 2500 Å coincide with it get diffracted there forming fringes of
(n – 2)th fringe of 3500Å. different colours. We see it as colour
\ 3500 (n – 2) = 2500 × n spectrum.
1000 n = 7000, n = 7 39. (c) A bright spot is found at the centre of
\ 7th order fringe of 1st source will circular fringe patterns formed due to
coincide with 5th order fringe of 2nd source. diffraction of light at the edge of circular
30. (a) As b µ l obstacles. This bright spot is due to
5 constructive interference there by
\ fringe width becomes times, secondary wavelets.
4
40. (c) Interference in between two rays, one is
4
No, of fringes = ´ 10 = 8 reflected from the upper surface & second
5 from the lower surface.
31. (b)
32. (a) a sin q = nl
ax
= 3l
f
(since q is very small so
sin q » tan q » q = x / f )
Wave Optics P-185
41. (c) The Assertion is correct. When wind where D is diameter of objective and l is
moves the colour of the wing changes. The wavelength of light used.
visible colour of the wing is different from The Reason of this question is incorrect.
its original colour due to interference of 45. (a) For diffraction purpose, target should have
light. Interference occurs between incident size of the order of wavelength of light used.
ray and reflected ray. Due to wind the So, X-ray cannot be used in standard
reflectivity of the upper surface of the wing diffraction grating as target which is
changes (as it is covered by tiny hairs) spacing between the lines in different
which changes the reflected wave. The grating is large as compared with very short
resultant colour due to interference also wavelength of X-rays.
changes. This is the principle behind the 46. (b) Goggles protect from harmful UV light of
change of colour of wings of Morpho sun rays and do not correct sight defects
Butterfly. \ have zero power..
So, (c) is the answer. Both lens of goggles are identical hence
42. (a) We see two closely situated very small dots have same curvature. The Reason does not
separate when their angular separation for explain Assertion.
the viewer is more than that required by 47. (d) A white source of light during interference
Rayleigh’s criterion. will form coloured fringes.
l lD
q R = 1.22 Fringe width is given by b = i.e., it is
d d
Here, d is diameter of eye and l is
wavelength of light seen. directly proportional to wavelength.
If distance between spot is D and L be the 48. (b) When dark fringe is obtained at the point
distance of observer from the painting then, opposite to one of the slits then
D l D S1 P
q= ; So, 1.22 =
L d L
Dd d O
L=
1.22l
If for red light having greater l, the value S2 D
of L will be smaller and for violet colour, S1P = D
this distance is larger. If we move away from 1/ 2
the painting, adjacent red dots become æ d2 ö
indistinguishable before adjacent blue dots and S2 P = D2 + d 2 = D ç1 + 2 ÷
è D ø
do. So, to make two dots distinguishable
we shall have to give distance of the æ d2 ö
observer (L) a minimum value. At a greater = D ç1 + ÷ ( By binomial theorem)
è 2D2 ø
distance colours of adjacent dots blend
together. In this way we can have different Path difference = S2 P - S1P
view of dots by looking at it from different æ d2 ö 2
distance (or changing L). = D ç1 + 2 ÷ - D = d = l
So, both assertion and reason are correct. è 2D ø 2D 2
43. (c) The clouds in the sky appear white as the d2
size of cloud particle is not small enough or l= Þ l µ d2
D
to permit diffraction. So all the wavelength Now, intensity of a dark fringe is zero.
gets reflected and it appears white. 49. (a) When d is negligibly small, fringe width b
44. (a) Th e resolvin g power of a telescope which is proportional to 1/d may become
increases as diameter of objective lens too large. Even a single fringe may occupy
increases. the whole screen. Hence the pattern cannot
D be detected.
Resolving Power = 50. (d) 51. (b)
1.22 l
EBD_7100
25 Dual Nature of
Radiation and Matter
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 7. Light of wavelength 4000 Åis incident on a metal
plate whose work function is 2eV. What is
1. X-ray will not show the phenomenon of :[1997] maximum kinetic energy of emitted
(a) interference photoelectron? [2002]
(b) deflection by electric field (a) 0.5 eV (b) 1.1 eV
(c) diffraction (c) 2.0 eV (d) 1.5 eV
(d) superposition 8. A laser beam is used for carrying out surgery
2. Which one of the following is not dependent on because it [2003]
the intensity of incident photon in a photo- (a) is highly monochromatic
electric experiment ? [1998] (b) is highly coherent
(a) work function of the surface (c) is highly directional
(b) kinetic energy of photo-electron (d) can be sharply focussed
(c) stopping potential 9. A proton is about 1840 times heavier than an
(d) amount of photo-electric current electron. When it is accelerated by a potential
3. The kinetic energy of an electron, which is difference of 1 kV, its kinetic energy will be
accelerated in the potential difference of 100 V, [2003]
is : [1998] (a) 1840 keV (b) 1/1840 keV
(a) 1.6 × 10–10 J (b) 1.6 × 108 J (c) 1keV (d) 920 V
(c) 1.6 × 10–17 J (d) 1.6 × 10–18 J 10. If an electron and a photon propagate in the
4. When cathode rays strike a metal target of high form of waves having the same wavelength, it
melting point with a very high velocity then which implies that they have the same [2003]
of the following are produced ? [1999] (a) energy
(a) g-waves (b) Ultrasonic (b) momentum
(c) X-rays (d) a-rays (c) velocity
5. Particle nature and wave nature of (d) angular momentum
electromagnetic waves and electrons can be 11. Characteristic X-rays are produced due to [2003]
represented by : [2000] (a) transfer of momentum in collision of
(a) photoelectricity and electron microscopy electrons with target atoms
(b) light is refracted and diffracted (b) transition of electrons from higher to lower
(c) X-rays is diffracted, reflected by thick metal electronic orbits of an atom
sheet (c) heating of the target
(d) electrons have small mass, deflected by the (d) transfer of energy in collision of electrons
metal sheet. with atoms in the target.
6. The surface of zone material is radiated in turn 12. A photon of energy 4 eV is incident on a metal
by waves of l = 350 nm and 540 nm respectively. surface whose work function is 2eV. The minimum
The ratio of the stopping potential in the two reverse potential to be applied for stopping the
cases is 2 : 1. The work function of the material is emission of electrons is [2004]
(a) 4.20 eV (b) 0.15 eV [2000] (a) 2V (b) 4V
(c) 2.10 eV (d) 1.05 eV (c) 6V (d) 8V
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter P-187
13. Solid targets of different elements are bombarded 18. The force on a hemisphere of radius 1 cm if a
by highly energetic electron beams. The parallel beam of monochromatic light of
frequency (f) of the characteristic X-rays emitted wavelength 500 nm. falls on it with an intensity
from different targets varies with atomic number of 0.5 W/cm2, striking the curved surface in a
Z as [2005, 2017] direction which is perpendicular to the flat face
of the hemisphere is (assume the collisions to
(a) fµ Z (b) f µ Z2 be perfectly inelastic) [2009]
(c) f µ Z (d) f µ Z3/2 (a) 5.2 × 10–13 N (b) 5.2 × 10–12 N
14. Hard X-rays for the study of fractures in bones (c) 5.22 × 10–9 N (d) zero
should have a minimum wavelength of 1011 m. 19. The energy of a photon of light with wavelength
The accelerating voltage for electrons in X-ray 5000 Å is approximately 2.5 eV. This way the
machine should be [2006] energy of an X-ray photon with wavelength 1 Å
(a) < 124.2 kV would be [2010]
(b) > 124.2 kV 2.5
(a) eV (b) 2.5 × 5000 eV
(c) Between 60 kV and 70 kV (5000) 2
(d) = 100 kV 2.5 2.5
15. In photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected (c) eV (d) eV
2 5000
(5000)
from metals if the incident light has a certain
20. A 15.0 eV photon collides with and ionizes a
minimum [2006]
hydrogen atom. If the atom was originally in the
(a) Wavelength ground state (ionization potential =13.6 eV), what
(b) Frequency . is the kinetic energy of the ejected electron?
(c) Amplitude [2014]
(d) Angle of incidence (a) 1.4 eV (b) 13.6 eV
16. In a photoemissive cell with executing (c) 15.0 eV (d) 28.6 eV
wavelength l, the fastest electron has speed v. 21. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed.
3l The wavelength l of the light falling on the
If the exciting wavelength is changed to , cathode is gradually changed. The plate current
4
the speed of the fastest emitted electron will be I of the photocell varies as follows [2017]
(a) v (3/4)1/2 [2008] I I
1/ 2
æ 4ö
(b) vç ÷
è 3ø (a) (b)
1/ 2
æ 4ö O l O l
(c) less than v ç ÷
è 3ø I I
1/ 2
æ 4ö
(d) greater than v ç ÷
è 3ø (c) (d)
17. The stopping potential doubles when the
O l O l
frequency of the incident light changes from n
3n TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
to . Then the work function of the metal must
2 Directions for (Qs. 22-28) : These questions consist
be [2009]
hn Reason. While answering these questions, you are
(a) (b) hn
2 required to choose any one of the following five
(c) 2hn (d) none of the above responses.
EBD_7100
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Directions for (Qs. 29-34) : Each of these questions
the Reason is a correct explanation of the contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them
Assertion. carefully and answer the question on the basis of
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but following options. You have to select the one that
Reason is not a correct explanation of the best describes the two statements.
Assertion. (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is Reason is not the correct explanation of
correct. Assertion.
22. Assertion : Photosensitivity of a metal is high if (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
its work function is small. (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Reason : Work function = hf0 where f0 is the 29. Assertion : Soft and hard X-rays differ in
threshold frequency. [1997] frequency as well as velocity.
Reason : The penetrating power of hard X–rays
23. Assertion: Kinetic energy of photo electrons is more than the penetrating power of soft
emitted by a photosensitive surface depends
X–rays. [2010]
upon the intensity of incident photon.
30. Assertion : In photoemissive cell inert gas is
Reason: The ejection of electrons from metallic used.
surface is possible with frequency of incident
Reason : Inert gas in the photoemissive cell gives
photon below the threshold frequency. [1999]
greater current. [2010]
24. Assertion : If the speed of charged particle
31. Assertion : When ultraviolet light is incident on
increases both the mass as well as charge
a photocell, its stopping potential is V0 and the
increases.
maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
Reason : If m0 = rest mass and m be mass at is Kmax .When the ultraviolet light is replaced
velocity v then by X-rays, both V0 and Kmax increase.
m0 Reason : Photoelectrons are emitted with speeds
m=
ranging from zero to a maximum value because
v2
1- of the range of frequencies present in the incident
c2 light. [2013]
where c = speed of light. [2000] 32. Assertion : Photoelectric saturation current
25. Assertion : Mass of moving photon varies increases with the increase in frequency of
inversely as the wavelength. incident light.
Reason : Energy of the particle [2000] Reason : Energy of incident photons increases
= mass × (speed of light)2 with increase in frequency and as a result
26. Assertion : Photoelectric effect demonstrates photoelectric current increases. [2015]
the wave nature of light. 33. Assertion : In process of photoelectric emission,
Reason : The number of photoelectrons is all emitted electrons do not have same kinetic
proportional to the frequency of light. [2004] energy.
27. Assertion : The energy (E) and momentum (p) Reason : If radiation falling on photosensitive
of a photon are related by p = E/c. surface of a metal consists of differ ent
Reason : The photon behaves like a particle. wavelength then energy acquired by electrons
[2005] absorbing photons of different wavelengths
28. Assertion : The photoelectrons produced by a shall be different. [2015]
monochromatic light beam incident on a metal 34. Assertion : The phtoelectrons produced by a
surface, have a spread in their kinetic energies. monochromatic light beam incident on a metal
surface have a spread in their kinetic energies.
Reason : The work function of the metal varies Reason : The work function of the metal is its
as a function of depth from the surface. [2006] characteristics property. [2017]
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions æ c ö

hç = f + 2e.V
1. (b) X-rays are electromagnetic wave so it will è 350 ´ 10 -9 ÷ø .......(i)
remain undeflected in electric field. æ c ö
2. (b) The intensity of incident photon hç = f + eV
è 540 ´ 10 -9 ÷ø
......(ii)
determines the no. of electrons being ejected
from the surface. The kinetic energy of the 540 f + 2ev
=
photoelectron is deter mined by the 350 f + eV
frequency of incident photon. Þ 540 f + 540 eV = 350 f + 700 eV
1.227 hc Þ 190 f = 160eV
3. (c) l = and E =
V l
16
h = 6.6 ´ 10–34JS, C = 3 ´ 108m/s f= eV
19
and V = 100 volt.
4. (c) When electrons strike a metal target of high 6.6 ´ 10 -34 ´ 3 ´ 108 19 ´ 2f 27
=f+ = f
-9 16 8
melting point with high velocity, it knocks 350 ´ 10
out inner electrons of the atoms of the
8 6.6 ´ 3 ´ 10 -18
target material. To fill up this vacancy, f= ´
electrons from higher energy level make 27 35
transition to lower level resulting in 8 6.6 ´ 3 ´10-18
emission of radiation. If target material has = ´ eV = 1.05 eV
27 35 ´1.6 ´ 10-19
very high atomic number then the emitted 7. (b) Applying Einstein’s equation,
radiation is X-ray.
1
hn = f + mv2 = f + K.E
2
3 ´ 108
6.6 ´ 10 -34 ´
4000 ´ 10 -10
X – rays = 2 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19 + K.E

6.6 ´ 3
´10 -19 = 3.2 ´ 10-19 + K.E
4
5. (a) In photo electricity, photon is acting as
4.95 ´10-19 = 3.2 ´10-19 + K.E
particles which knocks out electron from
the surface of the metal. In electron K.E = (4.95 - 3.2) ´10 -19
microscopy electron behaves as waves so
we can take image of objects with the help = 1.75 ´ 10 -19 J.
of ray of electrons. 1.75 ´ 10 -19
= eV = 1.1 eV
6. (d) Let the work function be f. 1.6 ´ 10 -19
Einstein’s equation in photo – electricity, 8. (d) A laser beam has great power to be
1 focussed so energy density of radiation is
hn = f + mv 2
2 greatly enhanced which may have cutting
c 1 effect.
h = f + mv 2 = f + eV 9. (c) When a charge q is accelerated by a
l 2
potential difference of V, the energy
1
[ eV = mv2 , V is stopping potential] imparted to it is qV. It does not depend upon
2
EBD_7100
the mass. In the given problem potential 2hc (l 0 - l)
diff = 1kV. Charge on the proton = charge v max =
on electron = 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb. The m ll 0
energy imparted = 1 keV. æ 3l ö
[1eV is equal to energy acquired by an If wavelength is changed to çè ÷ø
4
electron when it is accelerated under
2hc (l 0 - 3l / 4)
potential of 1eV] then v 'max =
10. (b) A photon and electron will have same m l0 (3l / 4)
momentum if their wavelength are equal. v 'max ( l 0 - 3l / 4) ll 0
h = ´
For electron, momentum = . v max 3 l0 - l
l ll
4 0
For photon, momentum
4 (l 0 - 3l / 4)
mc 2 E hn h =
= = = = 3 l0 - l
c c c l
11. (b) When we bombard electrons on a target 4 l 0 - 3l / 4
consisting of heavier atoms, the electron i.e., v 'max = 3
´v´
l0 - l
of inner orbitals of target atoms get knocked
out. So to fill their position, other electrons 4
(Q v max = v) i.e., v 'max > v
from the higher energy orbitals make 3
transition to lower energy orbitals. Its 3
results is emission of X-rays. 17. (a) hn = f + Vs and h n = f + 2Vs
2
12. (a) From Einstein’s equation of photoelectric hn
effect Þ f=
2
1 h
hn = f + mv 2 18. (c) p = of each photon
2 l
hn = f + Ve [V is stopping potential]
6.63 ´ 10 -34
4 eV = 2 eV + Ve = = 1.33 ´ 10-27 kg-m/s
-9
Ve = 2 e volt 500 ´ 10
and no. of photons
V × e = 2 × e × 1 volt
0.5 0.5l
V (Stopping potential) = 2 Volt = / cm 2 = / cm 2
13. (b) From Mosley law, hn hc
f = a (Z – b)2 0.5 ´ 500
= / cm 2
f µ Z2 1240 ´ 1.6 ´10-19
hc hc 6.6 ´ 10 -34 ´ 3 ´ 108 = 1.25 × 1018 photons /cm2
14. (a) = ev Þ v = =
l el 1.6 ´ 10 -19 ´ 10 -11 \ force = 1.25 × 108 × 1.33 × 10–27 × p × 12
33 ´ 3 = 5.22 × 10–9 N
= ´ 10 4 = 12 .375 ´ 10 4 19. (b) Energy of photon
8
= 124 × 103V = 124 kV hc
E=
For minimum wavelength energy is 124 kV l
\ The accelerating voltage should be hc
< 124 kV Þ 2.5 eV = (as l = 5000Å)
15. (b) The incident wave must have a certain 5000 ´ 10 -10
minimum frequency. This is known as Þ hc = 2.5 × 5 × 10–7 eV
threshold frequency. For X-ray photon, c = same, h = constant
16. (d) We have from Einsteins photo electric hc
Þ E=
equation. l x - ray
27. (a) Photon when behaves as a particle carries

2.5 ´ 5 ´ 10-7
= eV E
1 ´ 10-10 momentum equal to .
c
= 2.5 × 5000 eV
28. (a) Electrons being emitted as photoelectrons
20. (a) Conservation of energy requires that the have different velocities. Actually all the
15.0 eV photon energy first provides the electrons do not occupy the same level of
ionization energy to unbind the electron, energy but they occupy continuous band
and then allows any excess energy to and levels. So, electrons being knocked off
become the electron’s kinetic energy. The from different levels come out with different
kinetic energy in this case is 15.0 eV – 13.6 energies.Work function is the energy
eV = 1.4 eV. required to pull the electron out of metal
21. (d) As l is increased, there will be a value of l surface. Naturally electrons on the surface
above which photoelectrons will be cease will require less energy to be pulled out
to come out so photocurrent will become hence will have lesser work function as
zero. Hence (d) is correct answer. compared with those deep inside the metal.
So, assertion and reason are correct and
reason correctly explains the assertion.
22. (b) The photosensitivity of a metal is high 29. (d) Soft and h ard X–rays differ only in
when its work function is small. Work frequency. Soft X–rays have low frequency
function of a metal depends not on the as compared to hard X–rays. But both types
threshold frequency but on the nature of of X–ray travel with speed of light.
the metal. 30. (a) The photoemissive cell contain two
23. (d) Intensity of incident photon decides the electrodes are enclosed in a glass bulb
number of electrons ejected and not the which may be evacuated or contain an inert
gas at low pressure. An inert gas in the cell
kinetic energy.
gives greater current but causes a time lag
Ejection of electron from metallic surface is in the response of the cell to very rapid
possible only when frequency of incident changes of radiation which may make it
photon is more than threshold frequency. unsuitable for some purpose.
24. (e) When speed of particle increases, the mass 31. (c) We know that
increases as eV0 = Kmax = hn – f
where, f is the work function .
m0
m= charge does not alter Hence, as n increases (note that frequency
v2 of X-rays is greater than that of U.V. rays),
1-
c2 both V0 and Kmax increase. So assertion is
h correct.
25. (b) We know that for photon , mv = 32. (d) Photoelectric saturation current is
l
independent of frequency. It only depends
mass varies inversely as the wavelength.
on intensity of light.
For particle E = mc2, E is energy of particle
33. (a) Both statement I and II are true; but even it
if its mass is converted into energy. Both
radiation of single wavelength is incident
are uncorrelated.
on photosensitive surface, electrons of
26. (d) Photoelectric effect demonstrate the different KE will be emitted.
particle nature of light. 34. (b) The kinetic energy of emitted
The number of ph otoelectr ons is photoelectrons varies from zero to a
proportional to the intensity of light. maximum value. Work function depends on
So, (d) is the answer. metal used.
EBD_7100
26 Atoms
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 7. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is
– 13.6 eV. What is the potential energy of the
1. If the electron in hydrogen orbit jumps from third electron in this state ? [2005]
orbit to second orbit, the wavelength of the (a) 0 eV (b) – 27.2 eV
emitted radiation is given by : [1997]
(c) 1 eV (d) 2 eV
R 5 8. In the following diagram, which particle has
(a) l= (b) l=
6 R highest e/m value? [2007]
36 5R A
(c) l= (d) l =
5R 36
2. The radius of hydrogen atom in the first excited B
level is : [1998] C
(a) twice (b) four times D
(c) same (d) half (a) A (b) B
3. In Bohr’s theory, relation between principal (c) C (d) D
quantum number n and radius of orbit r is:[1999] 9. What is the energy of He+ electron in first orbit?
1 (a) 40.8 eV (b) –27.2 eV [2007]
(a) rµ (b) rµn
n2 (c) –54.4 eV (d) –13.6 eV
10. What is the energy of photon whose wavelength
1
(c) rµ (d) r µ n 2 is 6840 Å? [2007]
n (a) 1.81 eV (b) 3.6 eV
4. For an electron in the second orbit of hydrogen, (c) –13.6 eV (d) 12.1 eV
the moment of momentum as per Bohr’s model
11. The ratio of the energy of the photon emitted by
is [2000]
the ka line to that of the kb line is [2009]
h 2h (a) greater than 1 (b) Less than 1
(a) (b)
p p (c) 1 (d) indeterminate
h 12. The angular momentum of an electron in the 2nd
(c) (d) 2ph excited state of a Helium ion (He+) is [2009]
2p
5. The speed of an electron having a wavelength h 2h
of 10–10m is [2002] (a) (b)
6 6
2p 2p
(a) 4.24 × 10 m/s (b) 5.25 × 10 m/s
(c) 6.25 × 106 m/s (d) 7.25 × 106 m/s 3h 4h
(c) (d)
6. We wish to seen inside an atom. Assuming the 2p 2p
atom to have a diameter of 100 pm, this means 13. What is the wavelength of the least energetic
that one must be able to resolve a width of say photon emitted in the Lyman series of the
10 pm. If an electron microscope is used, the hydrogen atom spectrum ? [2011]
minimum electron energy required is about (a) 150 nm (b) 122 nm
(a) 1.5 keV (b) 15 keV [2004] (c) 102 nm (d) 82 nm
(c) 150 keV (d) 1.5 MeV
Atoms P-193
14. The energy of electron in the nth orbit of 18. As an electron makes a transition from an excited
-13.6 state to the ground state of a hydrogen - like
hydrogen atom is expressed as E n = 2 eV.
n atom/ion [2017]
The shortest and longest wavelength of Lyman
(a) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy
series will be [2013]
increases but total energy remains same
(a) 910 Å, 1213 Å (b) 5463 Å, 7858 Å
(b) kinetic energy and total energy decrease
(c) 1315 Å, 1530 Å (d) None of these but potential energy increases
15. Which of the following statements are true
(c) its kinetic energy increases but potential
regarding Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom? [2015]
energy and total energy decrease
(I) Orbiting speed of electron decreases as it
(d) kinetic energy, potential energy and total
shifts to discrete orbits away from the
energy decrease
nucleus
(II) Radii of allowed orbits of electron are TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
proportional to the principal quantum
number Directions for (Qs. 19-21) : These questions consist
(III) Frequency with which electrons orbit
around the nucleus in discrete orbits is
inversely proportional to the cube of required to choose any one of the following five
principal quantum number responses.
(IV) Binding force with which the electron is (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
bound to the nucleus increases as it shifts the Reason is a correct explanation of the
to outer orbits Assertion.
Select correct answer using the codes given (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
below. Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Codes : Assertion.
(a) I and II (b) II and IV (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
incorrect.
(c) I, II and III (d) II, III and IV
16. The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series
for hydrogen atom is equal to that of the second (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
line of Balmer series for a hydrogen like ion. The correct.
atomic number Z of hydrogen like ion is[2016] 19. Assertion: The specific charge of positive rays
(a) 3 (b) 4 is not constant.
(c) 1 (d) 2 Reason: The mass of ions varies with speed.
17. Which one did Rutherford consider to be [1999]
supported by the results of experiments in which 20. Assertion : Bohr had to postulate that the
a-particles were scattered by gold foil? [2017] electrons in stationary orbits around the nucleus
(a) The nucleus of an atom is held together by do not radiate.
forces which are much stronger than
Reason : According to classical physics all
electrical or gravitational forces.
moving electrons radiate. [2003]
(b) The force of repulsion between an atomic
21. Assertion : Balmer series lies inthe visible region
nucleus and an a-particle varies with
distance according to inverse square law. of the electromagnetic spectrum.
(c) a-particles are nuclei of Helium atoms. 1 é1 1 ù
Reason : = R ê 2 - 2 ú , where n = 3, 4, 5
(d) Atoms can exist with a series of discrete l ë2 n û
energy levels [2008]
EBD_7100
Directions for (Qs. 22-25) : Each of these questions 23. Assertion : Between any two given energy
contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them levels, the number of absorption transitions is
carefully and answer the question on the basis of always less than the number of emission
following options. You have to select the one that transitions.
best describes the two statements. Reason : Absorption transitions start from the
lowest energy level only and may end at any
higher energy level. But emission transitions may
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. start from any higher energy level and end at
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but any energy level below it. [2015]
Reason is not the correct explanation of 24. Assertion : In Lyman series, the ratio of minimum
Assertion. 3
and maximum wavelength is .
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 4
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. Reason : Lyman series constitute spectral lines
22. Assertion : In Lyman series, the ratio of minimum corresponding to transition from higher energy
to ground state of hydrogen atom. [2016]
3
and maximum wavelength is . 25. Assertion : Bohr had to postulate that the
4
electrons in stationary orbits around the nucleus
Reason : Lyman series constitute spectral lines do not radiate.
corresponding to transition from higher energy Reason : According to classical physics all
to ground state of hydrogen atom. [2011] moving electrons radiate. [2017]
Atoms P-195
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 1

\ Energy of electron = mv2
1. (c) We know that 2
1 æ 1 1 ö
= Rç - ÷
1 9.1 ´ 10 -31 ´ (7.25 ´ 107 )2
l çn 2 n 2 ÷
è 1 2 ø = ´ = 15 keV
2 1.6 ´ 10-19
1 æ 1 1 ö 7. (b) In case of hydrogen atom
= Rç - ÷ Þ æ 1 1ö
ç Rç - ÷ If –E = ground state energy (Total)
l è2
2
32 ÷ø è 4 9ø E is kinetic energy then –2E is potential
energy.
1 æ9-4ö 5R 36 Here E = 13.6 eV Þ 2E = 27.2 eV
=ç ÷R = Þ l=
l è 36 ø 36 5R So, potential energy = – 27.2 eV
2. (b) Radius of H-atom µ n 2 8. (d) The deflection of a particle along y-axis is
So for excitation from n = 1 to n = 2, radius
Ee x 2
becomes 4 times. electricfield is given by y =
3. (d) Radius of Bohr’s orbit µ n2, where n is 2mv 2
principal quantum no. e
4. (a) The moment of momentum is also known Þ yµ for all other values to be
m
as angular momentum of electron.
We know from Bohr’s theory that in an orbit constant. Since y is maximum for D, hence
it has highest e/m ratio.
h
angular momentum = n. ,13.6Z2
2p 9. (c) E = eV, for He+, Z =2, n = 1 (first
For second orbit n = 2 n2
orbit)
h h ,13.6 ´ 2
So, angular momentum = 2 ´ = is the
2p p \E= = – 54.4 eV
12
answer.
10. (a) Energy of photon
5. (d) We know that De-Broglie wavelength is
h h hc 6.6 ´ 10 -34 ´ 3 ´ 108
mv = Þl= E= =
l mv l 6840 ´ 10 -10
6.6 ´ 10 -34 6.6 ´ 3´10,26

10 -10
= = J
9.1´ 10 -31 ´ v
; 6.84 ´10,7
6.6 ´ 3´10,26
6.6 ´ 10-34 = eV = 1.8 eV
v= -41
= 7.25 ´ 10 6 6.84´10,7 ´1.6 ´10,19
9.1 ´ 10
æ 1 1ö
6. (b) From the de-Broglie equation, 11. (b) DE = E 0 (Z - 1)2 ç - ÷
2 2
h h è n1 n 2 ø
l= =
p mv for k a , n1 = 1, n2 = 2
where l is wavelength, h is plank's constant for kb , n1 = 1, n2 = 3
and p is momentum and v is velocity
so energy of the photon corresponding to
h 6.6 ´ 10 -34
v= = = 7.25 ´ 107 m / s k a line is less than that of kb line.
ml 9.1 ´ 10 -31 ´ 10 -11
EBD_7100
12. (c) Angular momentum in the ground state 20. (b) According to classical physics all moving
h electrons around the nucleus will radiate
= because an accelerated electron in electric
2p
Angular momentum in the first excited state field will radiate e.m. wave. So Reason is
correct. But Reason does not explain the
2h Assertion.
=
2p Bohr's postulates that the electron in
Angular momentum in the second excited stationary orbits do not radiate. His
3h postulate was based not out of compulsion
state =
2p but on the quantum theory. So Assertion
13. (b) The least energy is corresponding to is also correct but Reason does not explain
longest wavelength, which is l = 1216Å. Assertion.
21. (b) Wavelength is Balmer series is,
1 é 1 1 ù 4
14. (a) =Rê 2 - 2ú
Þ l max = » 1213Å
l max ë (1) (2) û 3R 1 é1 1 ù 1 é1 1ù
=Rê 2 - 2ú ; =Rê 2 - 2ú
1 é 1 1ù 1
l ë2 n û l max ë2 3 û
and = R ê 2 - ú Þ l min = » 910Å.
l min ë (1) ¥ û R 36 36
or l max = 5R = = 6563Å
15. (a) Orbital speed varies inversely as the radius 5 ´ 1.097 ´ 107
of the orbit.
é1 1 ù
1 1/ l min = R ê 2 - 2 ú
vµ ë2 ¥ û
n
16. (d) For first line of Lyman series of hydrogen 4 4
or l min = = = 3646Å
R 1.097 ´ 10 7
hc æ1 1 ö
= Rhc ç - ÷ So it lies in the visible region.
l1 è12
22 ø 22. (b)
For second line of Balmer series of 23. (a) Absorption transition
hydrogen like ion
C
hc æ 1 1 ö
= Z2 Rhc ç - ÷
l2 è2 2
42 ø B
By question, l1 = l2
æ1 1 ö 2 æ1 1 ö A
Þ ç - ÷ = Z ç - ÷ or Z = 2
è1 2 ø è 4 16 ø
17. (b) Two possibilities in absorption transition.
ze 2 k ze 2
18. (c) U = –K ; T.E = –
r 2 r
2
k ze
K.E = . Here r decreases
2 r
e Three possibilities in emission transition.
19. (a) The specific charge of positive ray is
m Therefore, absorption transition < emission.
not constant because for differen t 24. (b)
velocities the rest mass of particles change 25. (b) Bohr postulated that electrons in stationary
e orbits around the nucleus do not radiate.
i.e. mass of ions varies with speed. So This is the one of Bohr ’s postulate.
m
will differ. Hence, Reason and Assertion According to this the moving electrons
both are correct and Reason explains radiates only when they go from one orbit
Assertion. to the next lower orbit.
27 Nuclei
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9. Consider the following nuclear reaction

X200 ® A110 + B90 + Energy
1. In the nuclear reaction, there is a conservation of:
If the binding energy per nucleon for X, A and B
(a) momentum (b) mass [1997]
are 7.4 MeV, and 8.2 MeV and 8.2 MeV
(c) energy (d) all of these
respectively, the energy released will be :[2000]
2. If the radioactive decay constant of radium is (a) 90 MeV (b) 110 MeV
1.07 × 10–4 per year. Then its half life period (c) 200 MeV (d) 160 MeV
approximately is equal to : [1998]
10. In each fission of 92U235 releases 200 MeV, how
(a) 5000 years (b) 6500 years many fissions must occur per second to produce
(c) 7000 years (d) 8900 years power of 1 kW ? [2000]
226
3. In 88Ra nucleus there are : [1998] (a) 1.25 × 1018 (b) 3.125 × 1013
(a) 226 protons and 88 electrons (c) 3.2 × 1018 (d) 1.25 × 1013
(b) 138 protons and 88 neutrons 11. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor to
(c) 226 neutrons and 138 electrons (a) slow down the neutrons [2001]
(b) increase the neutrons
(d) 138 neutrons and 88 protons
(c) stop the electrons
4. The activity of radioactive sample is measured
(d) none of these
as 9750 counts per minute at t = 0 and as 975
12. Which one of the following has the highest
counts per minute at t = 5 minutes, the decay
neutrons ratio ? [2001]
constant is approximately : [1998] 235 16
(a) 92U (b) 8O
(a) 0.922 per minute (b) 0.270 per minute
(c) 4 56
(c) 0.461 per minute (d) 0.39 per minute 2He (d) 26Fe
5. The activity of a radioactive sample is 1.6 curie 13. When radioactive substance emits an a-particle,
and its half life is 2.5 days. Then activity after 10 then its position in the periodic table is lowered by
days will be : [1999] [2001]
(a) 0.16 curie (b) 0.8 curie (a) two places (b) three places
(c) 0.1 curie (d) 0.4 curie (c) five places (c) one place
6. Which one of the following is used as a 14. In an atom bomb, the energy is released because
moderator in nuclear reaction ? [1999] of the : [2001]
(a) Uranium (b) Heavy water (a) chain reaction of neutrons and 92U238
(c) Cadmium (d) Plutonium
(b) chain reaction of neutrons and 92U235
7. The reaction responsible for the production of
light energy from the sun will be: [1999] (c) chain reaction of neutrons and 92U236
(a) fission (b) fusion (d) chain reaction of neutrons and 92U240
(c) nuclear (d) none of these 15. A radioactive substance decays to 1/16th of its
8. Half life of a substance is 20 minutes, then the initial activity in 40 days. The half-life of the
time between 33 % decay and 67 % decay will be radioactive substance expressed in days is
(a) 20 minute (b) 40 minute [2000] (a) 2.5 (b) 5 [2003]
(c) 50 minute (d) 10 minute (c) 10 (d) 20
EBD_7100
16. Nuclear fusion is possible [2003] 2v 4v
(a) only between light nuclei (a) (b)
A+4 A+4
(b) only between heavy nuclei 4v 2v
(c) between both light and heavy nuclei (c) (d)
A-4 A-4
(d) only between nuclei which are stable 22. When an electron-positron pair annihilates, the
against b-decay energy released is about [2004]
17. Radioactive nuclei that are injected into a potient (a) 0.8 × 10–13 J (b) 1.6 × 10–13 J
collected at certain sites within its body, (c) 3.2 × 10–13 J (d) 4.8 × 10–13 J
undergoing radioactive decay and emitting 23. A radioactive material has half-life of 10 days.
electromagnetic radiation. These radiations can What fraction of the material would remain after
then be recorded by a detector. This procedure 30 days ? [2005]
provides an important diagnostic tools called (a) 0.5 (b) 0.25
(a) Gamma camera [2003] (c) 0.125 (d) 0.33
(b) CAT can 24. The operation of a nuclear reactor is said to be
(c) Radiotracer technique critical, if the multiplication factor (K) has a value
(d) Gamma ray spectroscopy (a) 1 (b) 1.5 [2006]
18. In a material medium, when a positron meets an (c) 2.1 (d) 2.5
25. 238U has 92 protons and 238 nucleons. It decays
electron both the particles annihilate leading to
the emission of two gamma ray photons. This by emitting an Alpha particle and becomes
process forms the basis of an important (a) 234 (b) 234 [2006]
92 U 90Th
diagnostic procedure called [2003] 237
(c) 235 92 U
(d) 93 Np
(a) MRI (b) PET
26. The fossil bone has a 14C: 12C ratio, which is
(c) CAT (d) SPECT
æ 1ö
19. The dependence of binding energy per nucleon, ç ÷ of that in a living animal bone. If the half-
BN, on the mass number A, is represented by è 16 ø
life time of l4C is 5730 years, then the age of the
[2004] fossil bone is [2006]
(a) 11460 years (b) 17190 years
BN BN
(c) 22920 years (d) 45840 years
27. Which one of the following is a possible nuclear
(a) (b) reaction [2006]
10 4
A=56 A A=124 A (a) ¾®137 N +11 H
5 B+ 2 He ¾
23 1
(b) ¾® 20
11 Na +1 H ¾
4
10 Ne+ 2 He
239 -
BN BN (c) ¾® 239
11 Np ¾ 94 Pu + b +v
(c) (d) ¾®126 C + b - + v
(d) 117 N +11H ¾
A=96 A A=96 A 28. If Alpha, Beta and Gamma rays carry same
momentum, which has the longest wavelength
20. Carbon dating is best suited for determining the (a) Alpha rays [2006]
age of fossils if their age in years is of the order (b) Beta rays
of [2004] (c) Gamma rays
(a) 103 (b) 104 (d) None, all have some wavelength
(c) 105 (d) 106 29. What is the amount of energy released by
21. In nucleus of mass number A, originally at rest, deuterium and tritium fusion? [2007]
emits an a-particle with speed v. The daughter (a) 60.6 eV (b) 123.6 eV
nucleus recoils with a speed : [2004] (c) 17.6 eV (d) 28.3 eV
Nuclei P-199
30. Calculate power output of 92 235

U reactor, if it 37. Radioactive element decays to form a stable
nuclide, then the rate of decay of reactant is
takes 30 days to use up 2 kg of fuel, and if each
[2012]
fission gives 185 MeV of useable energy.
Avogadro's number = 6 × 1023 /mol? [2007] N N
(a) 56.3 MW (b) 60.3 MW
(c) 58.3 MW (d) 54.3 MW (a) (b)
66Cu, 7 t t
31. Starting with a sample of pure of it
8
decays into Zn in 15 minutes. The corresponding N N
half life is [2008]
(a) 15 minutes (b) 10 minutes (c) (d)
1 t t
(c) 7 minutes (d) 5 minutes
2 38. A nuclear reaction is given by [2012]
32. A radioactive material decays by simultaneous A A 0
Z X ® Z+1Y + -1 e + n , represents
emission of two particles with respective half- (a) fission (b) b-decay
lives 1620 and 810 years. The time, in years, after (c) s -decay (d) fusion
which one-fourth of the material reamins is 39. An archaeologist analyses the wood in a
(a) 1080 (b) 2430 [2008] prehistoric structure and finds that C14 (Half life
(c) 3240 (d) 4860 = 5700 years) to C12 is only one-fourth of that
33. If the binding energy per nucleon of a nuclide is found in the cells of buried plants. The age of
high then [2009] the wood is about [2013]
(a) It should be abundantly available in nature (a) 5700 years (b) 2850 years
(b) It will decay instantly (c) 11,400 years (d) 22,800 years
(c) It will have a large disintegration constant 40. A radioactive nuclide is produced at the constant
(d) It will have a small half-life. rate of n per second (say, by bombarding a target
34. Activity of a radioactive sample decreases to with neutrons). The expected number N of nuclei
(l/3)rd of its original value in 3 days. Then, in 9 in existence t seconds after the number is N0 is
days its activity will become [2009] given by [2014]
(a) (1/27) of the original value (a) N = N0e–lt
(b) (1/9) of the original value (b) N = n + N 0e - lt
(c) (1/18) of the original value l
(d) (1/3) of the original value
(c) N = n + æç N 0 - n ö÷ e - l t
35. The half life of a radioactive substance against l è lø
a -decay is 1.2 × 107 s. What is the decay rate
for 4.0 × 1015 atoms of the substance [2010] n æ nö
(d) N= + ç N 0 + ÷ e - lt
(a) 4.6 × 10 12 atoms/s l è lø
(b) 2.3 × 10 11 atoms/s Where l is the decay constant of the sample
(c) 4.6 × 10 10 atoms/s 41. The fossil bone has a 14C : 12C ratio, which is
(d) 2.3 × 10 8 atoms/s é1ù
36. Actinium 231, 231Ac89, emit in succession two ê 16 ú of that in a living animal bone. If the half-
ë û
b-particles, four alphas, one b and one alpha
life of 14C is 5730 years, then the age of the
plus several g rays. What is the resultant isotope:
fossil bone is [2015]
(a) 221 Au79 (b) 211 Au 79 [2011] (a) 11460 years (b) 17190 years
(c) 221 Pb 82 (d) 211 Pb 82 (c) 22920 years (d) 45840 years
EBD_7100
42. Binding energy per nucleon versus mass number 46. Assertion: Separation of isotope is possible
curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y because of the difference in electron numbers of
and Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve. isotope.
The process that would release energy is [2016] Reason: Isotope of an element can be separated
(a) Y ® 2Z by using a mass spectrometer. [1999]
A
47. Assertion: zX undergoes 2a-decays, 2b-decays
(b) W ®X+Z
and 2g-decays and the daughter product is
(c) A–8.
W ® 2Y Z–2X
(d) X®Y+Z Reason : In a-decays the mass number
decreases by 4 and atomic number decreases by
2. In 2b-decays the mass number remains
43. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured unchanged, but atomic number increases by 1
as N0 counts per minute at t = 0 and N0/e counts only. [2001]
per minute at t = 5 minutes. The time (in minutes) 48. Assertion : Radioactive nuclei emit b– particles.
at which the activity reduces to half its value is Reason : Electrons exist inside the nucleus.
[2017] [2003]
5 49. Assertion : Neutrons penetrate mater more
(a) log e 2 / 5 (b)
log e 2 readily as compared to protons.
(c) 5 log 102 (d) 5 loge 2 Reason : Neutrons are slightly more massive
than protons. [2003]
TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS 90
50. Assertion : Sr from the radioactive fall out from
Directions for (Qs. 44-55) : These questions consist a nuclear bomb ends up in the bones of human
of two statements, each printed as Assertion and beings through the milk consumed by them. It
Reason. While answering these questions, you are causes impairment of the production of red blood
required to choose any one of the following five cells.
responses. Reason : The energetic b-particles emitted in the
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and decay of 90Sr damage the bone marrow. [2004]
the Reason is a correct explanation of the 51. Assertion : Energy is released in nuclear fission.
Assertion. Reason : Total binding energy of the fission
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but fragments is larger than the total binding energy
Reason is not a correct explanation of the of the parent nucleus. [2004]
Assertion. 35
52. Assertion : It is not possible to use Cl as the
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. fuel for fusion energy.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. Reason : The binding energy of 35Cl is too
(e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is small. [2005]
correct. 53. Assertion : The binding energy per nucleon, for
44. Assertion : Isobars are the elements having nuclei with atomic mass number A > 100,
same mass number but different atomic number. decreases with A.
Reason : Neutrons and protons are present Reason : The nuclear forces are weak for heavier
inside nucleus. [1997] nuclei. [2006, 2013]
45. Assertion : If the half life of a radioactive 54. Assertion : Cobalt-60 is useful in cancer therapy.
substance is 40 days then 25% substance decay
Reason : Cobalt-60 is a source of g-radiations
in 20 days. [1998]
n
capable of killing cancerous cells. [2006]
Reason : N = N 0 æç ö÷
1 55. Assertion : Heavy water is a better moderator
è2ø than normal water.
time elapsed Reason : Heavy water absorbs neutrons more
where, n =
half life period efficiently than normal water. [2007]
Nuclei P-201
Directions for (Qs. 56-61) : Each of these questions Reason : The mass of b-particle is less than the
contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them mass of a-particle. [2014]
carefully and answer the question on the basis of 59. Assertion : Energy is released when heavy
following options. You have to select the one that nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo
best describes the two statements. fusion and
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason : For heavy nuclei, binding energy per
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. nucleon increases with increasing Z while for light
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but nuclei it decreases with increasing Z. [2015]
Reason is not the correct explanation of 60. Assertion : Energy is released when heavy
Assertion. nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo
(c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. fusion and
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect. Reason : For heavy nuclei, binding energy per
56. Assertion : In a decay process of a nucleus, the nucleon increases with increasing Z while for
mass of products is less than that of the parent. light nuclei it decreases with increasing Z.
Reason : The rest mass energy of the products [2017]
must be less than that of the parent. [2012] 61. Assertion : Between any two given energy
levels, the number of absorption transitions is
57. Assertion : Binding energy (or mass defect) of
always less than the number of emission
hydrogen nucleus is zero.
transitions.
Reason : Hydrogen nucleus contain only one Reason : Absorption transitions start from the
nucleon. [2012] lowest energy level only and may end at any
58. Assertion : The ionising power of b-particle is higher energy level. But emission transitions may
less compared to a-particles but their penetrating start from any higher energy level and end at
power is more. any energy level below it. [2017]
EBD_7100
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 7. (b) Fusion is the reaction responsible for the
production of light energy from the Sun. In
1. (a) In a nuclear reaction, th ere may be
it two hydrogen molecules fuse to form
conversion of some mass into energy. So,
both mass and energy are not conserved. helium.
1 1 4
It is the momentum which is conserved. 1H + 1H —® 2He + Energy
2. (b) l = 1.07 × 10–4 8. (a) When the body is already 33% decayed to
be decayed to a further 33%, it will require a
0.693 period equal to its half life. So achieve level
T1 / 2 = = 6500 years
1.07 ´10 - 4 of decay from 33% to 67% it takes time equal
3. (d) 226 to half life or 20 minutes.
88Ra
Number of protons = 88 9. (d) Energy released = total binding energy of
Number of neutrons = 226 – 88 = 138 A and B less total binding energy of X.
4. (c) We know that = (110 × 8.2 + 90 × 8.2)
– (200 × 7.4) (902 + 738) – 1480
dN = 160 MeV
= lN
dt 10. (b) Let n be number of fission per second
dN0 dN t n × 200 × 106 eV is produced in one second
Now, = lN 0 ; = lN t
dt dt = n × 200 × 106 × 1.6 × 10–19 Joule per second
9750 = lN 0 ; 975 = lN t n ´ 200 ´ 10 6 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
= = 1(given )
N 0 9750 10 10 3
= = Þ N0 = 10N t
Nt 975 1
10 3 1014
We know that n= =
-11 3.2
2 ´ 1.6 ´ 10
Nt = N0e–lt
10
Nt 1 = ´ 1013 = 3.125 ´1013
= e-lt Þ = e -l.5 3.2
N0 10
11. (a) In a nuclear reactor neutrons are needed
10–1 = e–5l for nuclear reactions. The product of
Taking log on both sides, nuclear reaction is also neutrons. But fast
1 neutrons can not induce nuclear reactions.
- 1 = -5l ´ It requires to be slowed down. Fast neutrons
2.303
cannot transfer its energy to the target atom
1
l = ´ 2.303 = 0.461 per minute. effectively due to its high velocity. So, its
5 velocity is reduced. For it we uses heavy
5. (c) After every 2.5 days its activity reduces to water.
half the value,
n
10 12. (a) Neutrons ratio that is determines the
10days = = 4 half lives p
2.5 stability of nucleus. (Here, n is number of
4
æ1ö neutrons and p is number of protons).
Reduced activity = 1.6 ´ ç ÷ Now, n = 235 – 92 = 143
è2ø
p = 92
1
= 1.6 ´ = 0.1 curie 143
16 For 92U235; Neutron ratio = = 1.55
6. (b) Heavy water (D2O) is used as a moderator 92
in nuclear reaction. Which is the highest no. So, 92U235 is most
unstable.
Nuclei P-203
13. (a) When radioactive substance emits an fossil older than this are destroyed due to
a-particle then the atomic number is time factor. The tracks that are built by the
reduced by 2. Naturally its position in rays are destroyed. For fossil earlier then
periodic table will be reduced by 2 places. this, the tracks are so small that it cannot
14. (b) The nuclear reaction taking place in the be measured with accuracy.
atom is as follows 21. (c) Applying law of conservation of momentum
235
+ 0 n1 ¾
¾® MV = mv
92 U
141 Let mass of each proton = m
36 Ba + 56 Kr 92 + 3 0 n1 + Q
Mass of daughter nucleus = (Am – 4m)
Q = 200 MeV.
Mass of a-particle = 4m
The three neutrons generated are capable
of reacting with three atoms individually So, (Am – 4m) V = 4m × v
which leads to chain reaction. 4mv 4v
V= =
15. (c) Let half life = T m(A - 4) A - 4
40 22. (b) When electron-positron pair annihilates the
40 days = Half life
T energy released is due to conversion of
40 mass into energy.
Ratio of substance left = æç 1 ö÷ T Total mass = 2 × 9 × 10–31 kg
è2ø Energy produced
40 = 2 × 9 × 10–31 × (3 × 108)2
4
So, æç 1 ö÷ T = æç 1 ö÷ = 162 ´ 10 -15 = 1.62 ´ 10 -13 J
è2ø è2ø 23. (c) 30 days = 3 halflife
40 40 Fraction of material remained
=4 Þ T= = 10 days 3
T 4 æ1ö 1
16. (a) Nuclear fusion is possible only between = ç ÷ = = 0.125
è2ø 8
light nuclei as they become more stable by 24. (a) The operation of a nuclear reactor is said to
acquiring greater atomic no. be critical if the multiplication factor is
17. (c) In radiotracer technique we trace the rate of production of neutrons
existence of an atom by detecting the k=
rate of loss of neutrons
radiation emitted by it if atom is a
If k > 1 explosion occurs
radioactive one. The case as stated in the
If k < 1 the chain reaction comes to half.
question confirms to it so it is an example
238 234
of radiotracer technique. 25. (b) 92 U ¾¾
® 90 Th + 2 He 4
18. (b) Positron emission tomography (PET) is a p
nuclear medicine medical imaging technique 26. (c) Let be the initial ratio of 14C : 12C. Let it
q
which produces a three dimensional image
are map of functional process in the body. 1 p
is in the fossil. As q remains constant,
The positron annihilates with an electron 16 q
producing a pair of annihilation photons p
p must have reduced to during the
(gama rays) moving in opposite direction 16
period.
19. (a) Binding energy per nucleon is maximum for
atomic number (A) = 56, so figure (a) is p 1 1
= =
correct alternative. q 16 ( 2) 4
20. (b) Carbon dating is best suited for determining No. of half lives required = 4
the age of fossils if their age in years is of Age of fossil = 4 × 5730 = 22920 years
the order of 10, 000 years. This is because 27. (c)
EBD_7100
28. (d) h 0.693 0.693

l= Here l1 = and l 2 =
mv 1620 810
If they have same momentum (mv), they N 1 1 æ 0.693 0.693ö
must have same wave length. = Þ log e = - ç + ÷t
N0 4 4 è 1620 810 ø
2 3 4
29. (c) 1 H ∗ 1 H ¾¾
↑ 2 H ∗ n +17.59 MeV Þ 2.303[ -2 ´ (.3010)]
(Controlled thermonuclear fission reaction)
æ 0.693 0.693ö
30. (c) No. of 235U atoms in 2 kg of fuel = -0.693 ç + ÷t
è 1620 810 ø
6.023≥1023
= ≥ 2000 2 ´ 1620 ´ 810
235 Þ = t = 1080 year.
2430
fission energy per atom = 185 MeV
33. (a) High binding energy per nucleon ensures
\ Energy for 2 kg of fuel very high life of the nuclide. Hence they
6.023≥1026 ≥ 2 should be abundant in nature.
= ≥185MeV 34. (a) R = R0e–lt
235
Energy released 1
Power = Þ = e–l × 3 = e–3l ...(1)
time 3
Let activity in 9 days be R¢. Then
6.023≥1026 ≥ 2≥185≥1.6≥10,13 J R¢
= = e–l × 9 = e–9l e–l × 3 = (e–3l)3
235≥ 30days R0
( Q 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10–13 J, 30 days æ1ö
3
= 30 × 24 × 60 × 60 sec) =ç ÷ , from (1)

è3ø
6.023≥1026 ≥ 2 ≥185≥1.6≥10,13 1 R
\ Power = = Þ R¢ = 0 .
235≥30≥ 24 ≥ 60≥ 60 27 27
dN
3552≥1013 35. (d) We have, = lN
= W dt
235≥3≥ 6≥ 6≥ 24 ≥103 0.693 0.693
l= =
3552≥1010 T 1.2 ´ 107
=
235≥3≥ 6≥ 6≥ 24 dN 0.693
= ´ 4 ´ 1015
3552≥10 4
dt 1.2 ´ 107
= MW = 58.3 MW
235≥18≥ 6≥ 24 = 2.3 × 108 atom/s
7 36. (d) Five alpha and three beta particles results
31. (d) days of Cu decays. 231-5 ´ 4 =211
8 231
AC89 ¾¾
® Pb
3 (89 -5 ´ 2 +3´1) =82
7 1 æ1ö
\ Cu undecayed, N = 1 – = = ç ÷ 37. (c) No. of nuclide at time t is given by
8 8 è2ø N = N0e–lt
\ No. of half lifes = 3
Where N0 = initial nuclide
t 15
n= or 3 = thus this equation is equivalent to y = ae–kx
T T Thus correct graph is
15
Þ half life period, T = = 5 minutes N
3
- dN N
32. (a) = l1N + l 2 N Þ log e = - (l1 + l 2 )t
dt N0
t
where N0 is initial no. of atom
Nuclei P-205
0 –
–1e is known as b particle &
38. (b) n is known Given W = 2Y
as antineutrino. Since in this reaction n is BE of reactants = 120 × 7.5 = 900 MeV
emitted with –1e0 (b– particle or electron), BE of products = 2 × (60 × 8.5) = 1020 MeV.
so it is known as b-decay. 43. (d) N = N0e–lt
t / 5700 Here, t = 5 minutes
C14 1 æ 1 ö
39. (c) = =ç ÷
C12 4 è 2 ø N0
= N 0 × e -5l
t e
Þ = 2 Þ t = 11400 years 1
5700 Þ 5l = 1 , or l= ,
dN 5
40. (c) = n - lN l n2
dt Now, T1/2 = = 5 l n2
l
dN = (n - lN)dt
N t N
dN 1 - ldN
ò n - lN ò
= dt Þ -
l ò n - lN
=t 44. (b) By definition, isobars are elements having
same mass number but different atomic
N0 0 N0
number. Presence of neutron and proton
1
Þ- [log e (n - lN )]NN0 = t inside nucleus has nothing to do with this
l definition.
1é æ n - lN ö ù 45. (e) Half life of radioactive substance is 40 days.
Þ- êlog e ç ú=t
l ëê è n - lN0 ø÷ ûú It means 50% substance decays in 40 days.
During this period rate of decay is on
é æ n - lN 0 öù decrease. So, 25% decay must have taken
Þ lt = êlog e ç ÷ú
ë è n - lN øû place is less than 20 days.
n
n - lN 0 æ1ö time elapsed
e lt = N = N 0 ç ÷ , where n =
n - lN è2ø half life period
n - lN = (n - lN 0 ) e - lt 46. (e) Isotope of an element can be separated by
using a mass spectrometer because
n æn ö
- ç - N 0 ÷ e -lt = N isotopes have different atomic mass.
l èl ø Alternative (e) is correct.
14 1 N 47. (a) The reason given is true. If we test the
C =
41. (c) = authenticity of assertion,
12
C 16 N0
a-decay a- rays
N æ 1ö
n
ZX
A
¾¾¾¾® Z-2 X A- 4 ¾¾¾¾
®
Q N0 = ç ÷
è 2ø A -8 (2b-rays)
Z- 4 X ® Z-2 X A -8
¾¾¾¾¾
n 4 n
1 æ 1ö æ 1ö æ 1ö
Þ = ç ÷ Þ çè ÷ø = çè ÷ø 47. (c) Radioactive nuclei emit b-particles. This
16 è 2 ø 2 2 b-particle comes from the splitting of
or, n = 4 neutron into b-particle and proton.
t 48. (b) Neturon is penetrate more readily as
or =4
T compared to protons because neutrons do
or t = 4 × T = 4 × 5730 = 22920 years not carry any change so there is no
42. (c) Energy is released in a process when total repulsion between nucleus and neutrons.
binding energy (BE) of products is more than So assertion is true reason is also true as
the reactants. By calculations we can see that
mass of neutron is more than proton but
this happens in option (c).
reason does not explain assertion.
EBD_7100
49. (a) RBC of blood are produced in the bone 56. (a)
marrow. The radiation from the radioactive 57. (a)
substances destroys of bone marrow which
result in hampered production of RBC. 58. (b) b-particles, being emitted with very high
50. (a) Total binding energy of fragment nucleus speed compared to a-particles, pass for
is more than total binding energy of parent very little time near the atoms of the medium.
nucleus. Since, binding energy results in So the probability of the atoms being
decrease of total energy. Hence there is great ionised is comparatively less. But due to
decrease in energy fragment nucleus this reason, their loss of energy is very slow
because energy is released in nuclear and they can penetrate the medium through
fission. a sufficient depth.
A ¾
¾® B + E 59. (c) We know that energy is released when
( Parent ) ( Fragment ) ( Energy ) heavy nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei
Energy of B is decrease but the binding undergo fusion. Therefore Assertion is
energy of B is increased due to release of correct.
energy from it. So, reason supports the The Reason is incorrect because for heavy
assertion. nuclei the binding energy per nucleon
51. (a) decreases with increasing Z and for light
52. (c) Since, 35Cl is stable so binding energy is nuclei, B.E/nucleon increases with
high. So it is not capable of disintegration. increasing Z.
53. (a) Binding energy per nucleon decreases with 60. (d) We know that energy is released when
A for nuclei with atomic mass number heavy nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei
A > 100 due to weak nuclear forces. It can undergo fusion. Therefore Assertion is
be explain as : correct.
At short distances, the nuclear force is The Reason is incorrect because for heavy
stronger than the Coulomb force; it can nuclei the binding energy per nucleon
overcome the Coulomb repulsion of decreases with increasing Z and for light
protons inside the nucleus. At typical nuclei, B.E/nucleon increases with
nucleon separation (1.3 fm) it is a very increasing Z.
strong attractive force (104 newtons). 61. (a) Absorption transition
Beyond about 1.3 fm separation, the force
exponentially dies off to zero. However, the C
Coulomb force between protons has a much
larger range and becomes the only B
significant force between protons when
their separation exceeds about (2.5 fm, A
A > 100).
54. (a) Cobalt 60 is radioactive isotope of cobalt. Two possibilities in absorption transition.
g-radiation emitted by it is used in radiation
therapy is cancer as it destroys cancerous
cells.
So, assertion and reason is true and reason
explains assertion.
55. (c) Heavy water has better ability to slow down
neutrons by elastic collision between their
protons and neutrons hence they are better Three possibilities in emission transition.
moderators. Heavy water does not absorb Therefore, absorption transition < emission.
neutrons.
28
Semi-Conductor, Electronics :
Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9. In n-type semiconductor, majority charge carriers
are [1999]
1. In p-type semiconductor major current carriers (a) electrons (b) neutrons
are : [1997] (c) holes (d) protons
(a) negative ions (b) holes 10. In a full wave rectifier circuit operating from 50
(c) electrons (d) all of these Hz mains frequency, what is the fundamental
2. In a diode, when there is a saturation current, frequency in the ripple? [2000]
the plate resistance will be [1997] (a) 50 Hz (b) 100 Hz
(a) data insufficient (c) 70 Hz (d) 25 Hz
(b) zero
(c) some finite quantity 11. A B Q
(d) infinite quantity 0 0 0
3. When the two semiconductors p- and n-type are 0 1 1
brought into contact they form a p-n junction, 1 0 1
which acts like a/an : [1997] 1 1 1
(a) rectifier (b) amplifier
(c) conductor (d) oscillator The truth table given above for which of the
4. The transfer ratio b of a transistor is 50. The following gates is correct [2000]
input resistance of the transistor when used in (a) NAND gate (b) OR gate
the common emitter configuration is 1kW. The (c) AND gate (d) NOT gate
peak value of the collector A.C. current for an 12. The variation of anode current in a triode valve
A.C. input voltage of 0.01 V, is [1998] corresponding to a change in grid potential at
(a) 500 µA (b) 0.25 µA three different values of the plate potential is
(c) 0.01 µA (d) 100 µA shown in th e given figure. The mutual
5. When n-p-n transistor is used as an amplifier, conductance of triode is [2000]
then [1999] I P mA
(a) electrons move from base to collector VP = 100 V
(b) holes move from emitter to base 20 mA
VP = 80 V
(c) electrons move from collector to base 15 mA
(d) holes move from base to emitter VP = 60 V
6. Boolean algebra is essentially based on:[1999] 10 mA
(a) Numbers (b) Symbol
5 mA
(c) Logic (d) Truth
7. A triode valve has an amplification factor of 20 -8 -6 -4 -2
and its plate is given a potential of 300 V. The
- Vg volt Vg volt
grid voltage to reduce the plate current to zero,
is [1999] (a) 5 × 10–3 mho (b) 2.5 × 10–3 mho
–3
(c) 7.5 × 10 mho (d) 9.5 × 10–3 mho
(a) 25 V (b) 15 V
(c) 12 V (d) 10 V 13. Which one of the following is true about the
8. Diode is used as a/an [1999] p-type and n-type semi-conductor ? [2001]
(a) modulator (b) rectifier (a) n-type semi-conductor have holes in
(c) oscillator (d) amplifier majority.
EBD_7100
(b) the concentration of electrons and holes electron-hole pairs is ~1019/m3, the concentration
are equal in both n-type and p -type semi- of electrons in the specimen is [2004]
conductors. (a) 1017/m3 (b) 1015/m3
(c) n-type semi-conductors have free electrons (c) 104/m3 (d) 102 /m3
in majority. 20. Which logic gate is represented by the following
(d) p-type semi-conductor has excess negative combination of logic gates ? [2004]
charge.
14. When added an impurity into the silicon which A
one of the following produces n-type of semi- Y
conductors : [2001] B
(a) iron (b) magnesium (a) OR (b) NAND
(c) aluminium (d) phosphorous (c) AND (d) NOR
15. At 0 K temperature, a p-type semiconductor 21. The voltage gain of the following amplifier is
[2002] [2005]
(a) has equal number of holes and free 100 kW
electrons
(b) has few holes but no free electrons 1 kW
–
(c) has few holes and few free electrons +
(d) does not have any charge carriers Vi – Vo
16. The value of current gain a of a transistor is 10 kW
0.98. The value of b will be [2002]
(a) 490 (b) 4.9
(a) 10 (b) 100
(c) 59 (d) 49
(c) 1000 (d) 9.9
17. To a germanium sample, traces of gallium are
22. Which of the following logic gates is an universal
added as an impurity. The resultant sample would
behave like : [2003] gate ? [2005]
(a) a conductor (a) OR (b) NOT
(b) a p-type semi-conductor (c) AND (d) NAND
(c) an n-type sem-iconductor 23. Consider an n-p-n transistor amplifier in common
(d) an insulator emitter configuration. The current gain of the
18. In the following common emitter configuration transistor is 100. If the collector current changes
an npn transistor with current gain b = 100 is by 1mA, what will be the change in emitter current
used. The output voltage of the amplifier will (a) 1.1 mA (b) 1.01 mA [2005]
be : [2003] (c) 0.01 mA (d) 10 mA
24. In a semi-conducting material the mobilities of
electrons and holes are µe and µh respectively.
Which of the following is true ? [2005]
10kW (a) me > mh (b) me < mh
Vout (c) me = mh (d) me = 0; mh > 0
1kW
1mV 25. When a p-n diode is reverse biased, then [2006]
(a) no current flows
(b) the depletion region is increased
(c) the depletion region is reduced
(a) 10mV (b) 0.1 V (d) the height of the potential barrier is reduced
(c) 1.0 V (d) 10 V 26. An amplifier has a voltage gain Av = 1000. The
19. A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The voltage gain in dB is: [2006]
concentration of acceptor atoms is ~1021 atoms/ (a) 30 dB (b) 60 dB
m3. Given that the intrinsic concentration of (c) 3 dB (d) 20 dB
Semi-Conductor, Electronics : Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits P-209
27. If the highest modulating frequency of the wave (a) 3.12 S/m (b) 2.12 S/m
is 5 kHz, the number of stations that can be (c) 1.12 S/m (d) 4.12 S/m
accomdated in a 150 kHz bandwidth are[2007] 35. An LED (Light Emitting Diode) is constructed
(a) 15 (b) 10 from a p–n junction based on a certain Ga–As–
(c) 5 (d) none of these P semi–conducting material whose energy gap
28. Zener diode acts as a/an [2007] is 1.9 eV. What is the wavelength of the emitted
(a) oscillator (b) regulator light? [2010]
(c) rectifier (d) filter (a) 650 nm (b) 65Å
29. In the half wave rectifier circuit operating from
(c) 800 nm (d) 8000 Å
50 Hz mains frequency, the fundamental
frequency in the ripple would be [2007] 36. In n-p-n transistor circuit the collector current is
(a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz 10 mA. If 90% of the electron reach the collector,
(c) 70.7 Hz (d) 100 Hz then emitter current will be [2010]
30. A transistor is a/an [2007] (a) 1 mA (b) 0.1 mA
(a) chip (b) insulator (c) 2 mA (d) nearly 11 mA
(c) semiconductor (d) metal 37. The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n junction
31. If collector current is 120 mA and base current is diode is [2011]
2 mA and resistance gain is 3, what is power (a) depletion of positive charges near the
gain? junction
(a) 180 (b) 10800 [2007] (b) concentration of positive charges near the
(c) 1.8 (d) 18 junction
32. If in a p-n junction diode, a square input signal (c) depletion of negative charges near the
of 10 V is applied as shown [2008] junction
(d) concentration of positive and negative
5V
charges near the junction
RL 38. Identify the logic operation of the following logic
circuit : [2011]
-5V
Then the output signal across RL will be
10 V
+5V
(a) NAND (b) AND
(a) ` (b)
(c) NOR (d) OR
39. Which represents NAND gate ? [2012]
(c) (d)
-5V (a)
-10 V
33. The input resistance of a common emitter
transistor amplifier, if the output resistance is
500 kW, the current gain a = 0.98 and power gain (b)
is 6.0625 × 106, is [2008]
(a) 198 W (b) 300 W
(c) 100 W (d) 400 W (c)
34. Mobilities of electrons and holes in a sample of
intrinsic Ge at room temperature are 0.35m2/V–s
and 0.18m2/V–s respectively. If the electron and
hole densities are each equal to 2.5×1019/m3, the (d)
Ge conductivity will be [2010]
EBD_7100
40. The real time variation of input signals A and B 45. Truth table for system of four NAND gates as
are as shown below. If the inputs are fed into shown in figure is [2017]
NAND gate, then select the output signal from A
the following. [2012]
A Y
A
B Y
B
t (s) B
A B Y A B Y
Y Y 0 0 0 0 0 0
(a) (b) (a) 0 1 1 (b) 0 1 0
t (s) t (s)
0 2 4 6 8 0 2 4 6 8 1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1
A B Y A B Y
(c) Y (d) Y 0 0 1 0 0 1
t (s) t (s)
0 2 4 6 8 0 2 4 6 8 (c) 0 1 1 (d) 0 1 0
41. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with 1 0 0 1 0 1
(a) positive feedback [2013, 2014] 1 1 0 1 1 1
(b) large gain TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
(c) no feedback
(d) negative feedback
42. Following diagram performs the logic function
of [2006, 2014]
A responses.
Y
B (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(a) XOR gate (b) AND gate
Assertion.
(c) NAND gate (d) OR gate
43. Carbon, Silicon and Germanium atoms have four
valence electrons each. Their valence and
Assertion.
conduction bands are separated by energy band
gaps represented by (E g)C, (E g)Si and (Eg)Ge (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
respectively. Which one of the following (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
relationship is true in their case? [2015] correct.
(a) (Eg)C > (Eg)Si (b) (Eg)C < (Eg)Si 46. Assertion : The resistivity of a semi-conductor
(c) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si (d) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge increases with temperature.
44. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as Reason : The atoms of semi-conductor vibrate
shown in the circuit. The current supplied by with larger amplitude at higher temperatures
the battery is [2017] thereby increasing its resistivity. [2003]
D1 10W 47. Assertion : In a transition the base is made thin.
A B Reason : A thin base makes the transistor stable.
20W
[2004]
D2
C D 48. Assertion : The logic gate NOT can be built
using diode.
5V Reason : The output voltage and the input
E F
(a) 0.75 A (b) 0.5 A voltage of the diode have 180° phase difference.
(c) 0.25 A (d) zero [2005]
49. Assertion : The number of electrons in a p-type (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
silicon semiconductor is less than the number Reason is not the correct explanation of
of electrons in a pure silicon semiconductor at Assertion.
room temperature. (c) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
Reason : It is due to law of mass action. [2005] (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
50. Assertion : In a common emitter transmitter 53. Assertion : NAND or NOR gates are called
amplifier the input current is much less than the digital building blocks.
out put current. Reason : The repeated use of NAND (or NOR)
Reason : The common emitter transistor amplifier gates can produce all the basis or complicated
has very high input impedance. [2005] gates. [2011]
51. Assertion : In common base configuration. the 54. Assertion : A p-n junction with reverse bias can
current gain of the transistor is less than unity.. be used as a photo-diode to measure light
Reason : The collector terminal is reverse biased intensity.
for amplification. [2006] Reason: In a reverse bias condition the current
52. Assertion : The value of current through p-n is small but is more sensitive to changes in
junction in the given figure will be 10 mA. incident light intensity. [2012]
55. Assertion : If the temperature of a semiconductor
+ 5V 300 W +2V
is increased then it’s resistance decreases.
Reason : The energy gap between conduction
Reason : In the above figure, p-side is at higher band and valence band is very small.
potential than n-side. [2008] [2015]
Directions for (Qs. 53-57) : Each of these questions 56. Assertion : A transistor amplifier in common
contains an Assertion followed by Reason. Read them emitter configuration has a low input impedence.
carefully and answer the question on the basis of Reason : The base to emitter region is forward
following options. You have to select the one that biased. [2016]
best describes the two statements. 57. Assertion : Diode lasers are used as optical
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and sources in optical communication.
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. Reason : Diode lasers consume less energy.
[2017]
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions Ic

or 50 = Þ I c = 50 ´10 -5
1. (b) In p-type semiconductor, holes 10 -5
predominates, so, holes are major current = 500 × 10–6
carriers. Ic = 500 mA
DV 5. (a)
Collector
2. (d) Dynamic plate resistance = N P N
DI Ie
Emitter
In case of saturation current, DI = 0 Ic
Plate resistance = ¥ Ib
3. (a) In case of diode (formed by p-n junction) it
acts as rectifier. It means it conducts only The connection in case of n-p-n transistor
in case of forward biasing & not in reverse is shown in the figure. Current is flowing
biasing. from collector to base so electrons will flow
Ic 0.01 in reverse direction i.e., from base to
4. (a) b= Þ Ib = = 10-5 collector.
Ib 1´103 6. (c) Boolean algebra is based on logic.
EBD_7100
Plate potential 17. (b) Gallium is a trivalent atom so, the resultant
7. (b) Amplification factor = 20 = sample will behave as p-type semi-
Grid potential
conductor.
300 300 I
20 = ÞV= = 15V 18. (c) b = c
V 20 Ib
8. (b) In diode, current can flow only in one
direction. In reverse bias it does not work. V V
Here, I c = =
So, it is used as rectifier. 10 ´ 10 3
10 4
9. (a) In n-type semiconductor we add 1´ 10 -3
pentavalent impurities so there is excess of Ib = = 10 - 6 ; b = 100
electrons inside the material. So, majority 10 ´ 10 3
I V
charge carriers are electrons. Now, 100 = c = ´ 10- 6
I b 10 4
10. (b)
V = 100 ´104 ´10-6 = 1 volt .
Frequency = 1 Frequency = 2 19. (a) nenh = ni2
Unrectified wave Rectified wave n e is concentration of electron, n h is
In case of full wave rectification, frequency concentration of holes and n i is
becomes twice. concentration of electron hole pairs in
So, new frequency = 50 ´ 2 = 100Hz intrinsic semi-conductor.
11. (b) Given table represents 'OR' gate. Here nh = 1021, ne = ?, ni = 1019
1021 × ne = 1019 × 1019
12. (b) Mutual conductance
1038
DI p 5 ´ 10-3 ne = = 1017 m -3
= = = 2.5 ´ 10-3 mho 10 21
DVg 2
20. (c) This is a case of AND gate. Input & output
13. (c) n-type semiconductors have free electrons are shown below
in majority p-type semiconductors have A
holes in majority. A A+B
14. (d) Phosphorus which is pentavalent produces y
n-type semiconductor. Here only four B
electrons of phosphorus are used in making B
bonds with silicon crystal. The fifth electron
\ y = A + B = A . B = AB (since
remains free.
15. (d) At 0 K an electron hole pair is formed as all A + B = A.B )
the electrons remain in the valence band. output voltage (Vo )
So we can say that there is no charge carrier 21. (b) Voltage gain =
input voltage(Vi )
at this temperature. From Ohm's law V = iR
I I R 100kW
16. (d) a = c and b = c \ Voltage gain, A v = = = 100
Ie Ib Ri 1kW
[Ic, Ib and Ie are collector, base and emitter 22. (d) NAND gate is considered universal gate.
current] As other gates can be formed from this gate.
DI 1
Ie I 23. (b) 100 = c Þ DI b = mA = 0.01mA
Ie = Ic + Ib Þ =1 + b DI b 100
Ic Ic
DIe = DIc + DI b = 1 + 0.01 = 1.01mA
1 1 a 0.98 24. (a) Mobility of electron is more than that of
=1+ Þ b= =
a b 1 - a 1 - 0.98 holes.
0.98 25. (b) When p-n junction is reverse biased, the
= = 49 depletion region is increased i.e., the
0.02
potential barrier increased.
26. (a) Voltage gain = log 1000 Bel Given 6.0625 ´ 106 = A V ´ b
log 103 = 3Bel = 30 dB [1 Bel = 10 dB]
27. (a) In case of complex audio signals, æ 24.5 ´ 106 ö
=ç ÷ ´ 49
bandwidths (B.W) = 2 × maximum frequency è Ri ø
of modulating signal = 2 × 5 kHz = 10 kHz.
This is B.W for one channel. 24.5 ´ 49
or Ri = = 198 W
Total B.W 6.0625
\ No. of stations =
B.W for each channel 34. (b) Conductivity of Ge
150 kHz s = e (ne me + nh mh )
= = 15 Here ne = nh = 2.5 ×1019 /m3
10 kHz
28. (b) Zener diode is used to supply constant e = 1.6 × 10–19C,
voltage in voltage regulator circuit hence me=0.35m2/V–s, mh =0.18m2/V–s
option (b) is correct. \ s = 1.6 × 10–19
29. (b) In half wave rectifier, negative half of an (2.5 ×1019×0.35+2.5 ×1019×0.18)
a.c. cycle is removed from the sinusoidal = 1.6×10–19×2.5×1019×0.53
pulse, but the time lag between two positive = 2.12 S/m
pulses is same, hence frequency remains 35. (a) The wavelength of emitted light
same as the input (mains) frequency i.e.,
hc
50 Hz. l=
30. (c) As transistor is made of two p-types with Eg
n-type semiconductor in between or two n- where Eg = energy gap of semiconductor
types with p-type in between. = 1.9eV
31. (b) Ic = 120 mA, Ib = 2mA Þ Ie = Ib + Ic = 1.9×1.6×10–19V
(emitter current)
6.6 ´ 10 -34 ´ 3 ´108
Þ Ie = 120 + 2 = 122 mA l= m
1.9 ´ 1.6 ´ 10 -19
Resistance gain = 3
= 6. 5 ×10–7 m
d.c power gain
= 650×10–9 m
= (current gain)2 × resistance gain
= 650 nm
æ I ö2 36. (d) Ic = 10 mA; Ie = Ic + Ib
= çç c ÷÷÷ × resistance gain
ççè I ÷ø If Ic = 90% of Ie,
b
90
æ120 ö÷2 then Ic = ´ Ie
= çç 100
çè 2 ø÷÷
×3
100
Þ Ie = Ic
= (60)2 × 3 = 3600 × 3 = 10800 90
32. (a) The current will flow through RL when the 37. (d) During the formation of a junction diode,
diode is forward biased. holes from p-region diffuse into n-region
33. (a) R0 = 500 kW; a = 0.98 and electrons from n-region diffuse into p-
Power gain = 6.0625 × 106 region. In both cases, when an electrons
R0 meets a hole, they cancel the effect at each
we have, voltage gain A V = b. other and as a result, a thin layer at the
Ri junction becomes free from any of charges
But current gain, carriers. This is called depletion layer. There
a 0.98 is a potential gradient in the depletion layer,
b= = = 49 negative on the p-side, and positive on the
1 - a 1 - 0.98
n-side. The potential difference thus
500 ´ 103 24.5 ´ 106 developed across the junction is called
\ A V = 49 ´ =
Ri Ri potential barrier.
EBD_7100
38. (b) NAND + NAND 48. (d) The diode is unidirectional it allows current
Þ AND to pass through it in a particular direction.
39. (d) NAND is combination of AND gate and It does not change the phase of input signal.
NOT gate. 49. (a) We know that n enh = ni2
40. (b) From input signals, we have,
This formula is based on law of mass action.
A B Output NAND gate
In p-type semiconductor nh > ni
0 0 1
1 0 1 So, ne < ni
0 0 1 50. (c) In an amplifier output current is always more
1 1 0 than input current. Amplifier has low input
0 0 1 impedance.
The output signal is shown at B. 51. (b) For common base, Input is Ic and output is Ie.
41. (a) Ic Ic
42. (b) A Current gain = = which is less
Y
Ie Ic + I b
B X than unity.
Collector terminal is reversed baised to
X = AB
increase the collector current. Both
\ Y = X = AB Assertion and Reason are correct but they
Y = AB by Demorgan theorem are uncorrelated statements.
\ This diagram performs the function of 52. (b) The p-side of the junction diode is at a
AND gate. higher potential than the n-side. So p-n
junction is forward biased. Hence a current
43. (a) Due to strong electronegativity of carbon.
flows through it and is given by
44. (b) Here D1 is in forward bias and D2 is in
reverse bias so, D1 will conduct and D2 will V 5-2
I= = = 10-2 A = 10 mA
not conduct. Thus, no current will flow R 300
through DC. 53. (a) These gates are called digital building
V 5 1 blocks because using these gates only
I= = = A (either NAND or NOR) we can compile all
R 10 2
other gates also (like OR, AND, NOT, XOR).
45. (a)
A
54. (a)
55. (a) In semiconductors the energy gap between
Y2 = A.AB
conduction band and valence band is small
Y = A.AB B.AB (»1 eV). Due to temperature rise, electron in
Y1 = AB
the valence band gain thermal energy and
B may jumpy across the small energy gap, (to
Y3 = B.AB the conduction band). Thus conductivity
By expanding this Boolen expression increases and hence resistance decreases.
Y = A.B + B.A 56. (a) Input impedance of common emitter
configuration.
DVBE
46. (d) The resistivity of semiconductor decreases =
DiB
with increase in temperature as more V
CE = constant
electrons jump into conduction band where DVBE = voltage across base and
increasing its conductivity. emitter (base emitter region is forward
47. (c) In a transistor the base is made thin so that
biased)
base current remains small and we can get
output or collector current. We know that DiB = base current which is order of few
Ic = I e – I b microampere.
Reason is incorrect. 57. (c)
29 Communication Systems
TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 6. For 100% modulation (AM), the useful part of
the total power radiated is [2015]
1. In communication with help of antenna if height
1
is double then the range covered which was (a) of the total power
initially r would become [2007] 2
1
(a) 2r (b) 3r (b) of the total power
3
(c) 4r (d) 5r
1
2. Commun ication on ground is th rough (c) of the total power
4
electromagnetic waves of wavelength [2010]
2
(a) larger than 600 m (d) of the total power
(b) between 200 and 600 m 3
7. For transmission of e.m.wave of audible
(c) between 1 and 5 m
frequency, these waves are superimposed with
(d) between 10–3 and 0.1 waves of [2017]
3. 12 signals each band limited to 5 kHz are to be (a) frequency less than 20 Hz
transmitted by frequency-division multiplexer. If (b) frequency between 20 Hz and 10 KHz
AM-SSB modulation guard band of 1 kHz is used (c) frequency in the audible range
then the bandwidth of multiplexed signal is (d) radio-frequency
[2012]
(a) 101 kHz (b) 99 kHz TYPE B : ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS
(c) 84 kHz (d) 71 kHz Directions for (Qs. 8) : These questions consist of
4. For 100% modulation (AM), the useful part of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason.
the total power radiated is [2013] While answering these questions, you are required to
1 choose any one of the following five responses.
(a) of the total power (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
2
1 Assertion.
(b) of the total power
3 (b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
1 Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(c) of the total power Assertion.
4
2
(d) of the total power (d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
3 (e) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Reason is
5. Sky wave propagation is not possible for correct.
frequencies [2014] 8. Assertion : Optical fibres are used for
(a) equal to 30 MHz telecommunication.
(b) less than 30 MHz Reason : Optical fibres are based on the
(c) greater than 30 MHz phenomenon of total internal reflection. [2007]
(d) None of these
EBD_7100
Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 5. (c) Sky wave propagation is not possible for
frequency > 30 MHz because they are not
1. (a) Range of antenna = r 2hr , h = height of reflected by ionosphere.
antenna,
6. (b) 100% modulation Þ ma = 1
R = radius of earth
if h is doubled i.e., h' = 2h, then new range 2
useful power ma
=
r' = 2h ' r total power radiated 2 + m
a2
Þ r' = 2.2hr = 2 2hr = 2 r 1 1
= =
2. (d) The required wavelength should be from 2 +1 3
10–3m to 0.1m. Þ Useful power
100 1
Þ Ie = ´ 10 mA ; 11.1 mA = ( total power radiated )
90 3
3. (d) Total signal B.W = 12 × 5 = 60 kHz 7. (d) Since radio frequency waves can travel long
11 guard band are required between 12 distances because these waves are of wave
signal length of the order of 100 m and their energy
\ guard bandwidth = 11 × 1 kHz = 11 kHz content is quite large therefore e.m.wave of
\ total bandwidth = 60 + 11 = 71 kHz audible frequency are superimposed with
4. (b) 100% modulation Þ ma = 1 radio frequency waves.
useful power ma 2 Type B : Assertion Reason Questions

=
total power radiated 2 + m 8. (a) Both parts are true but optical fibres are
a2
used for telecommunication because they
1 1 produce the same signal with the same
= =
2 +1 3 intensity at the other end of the optical fibre
Þ Useful power even if fibre is several kilometre long i.e.,
total internal reflection. They have other
1
= ( total power radiated ) advantages like being light weight, flexible,
3 etc.

AIIMS 21 Years PHYSICS-1

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IIT JEE NEET eBooks: www.crackjee.

1 Units and Measurements

TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 8. Velocity of light is equal to [2002]

(c) [M -1L3T - 2 ] (d) none of these (a) [ML2 T -3 A -1 ] (b) [ML2 T -3 A -2 ]

Type A : Multiple Choice Questions

Taking dimensions on both sides 2

x + 3y + 2z = 0 … (2) % error in density = % error in Mass + 3

Type B : Assertion Reason Questions DA Dr

2 Motion in a Straight Line

(10)2 = u 2 - 2gH / 2 = u 2 - gH .......(1)

dr Type B : Assertion Reason Questions

Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 5. (b)

23. (a) H = Þ u 2 = 2gH

Tower to river is same normal to river flow (as

(c) 150 3N (d) 300 N m 2g

21. (c) Change in momentum along the wall

27. (c) Frictional force is always opposite to the R F

5 Work, Energy and Power

Type A : Multiple Choice Questions p12 2 ´ 4 m E

3 \ 0.1 × 1 + 0.4 × (–0.1) = (0.1 + 0.4) v

1 (b) 2IAC < IEF O

C (d) IAC < IEF A E

20. A disc is rolling without slipping on a straight

We know that for a body, moment of inertia 2ο π

not change. Hence the changed moment of

2 Now, form Fig (II), it is clear that the

Now ò dω = kò dθ Type B : Assertion Reason Questions

Type A : Multiple Choice Questions x = 540R - 9x Þ 10x = 540R

T = 24 hr, R = 6.4 × 106m, g = 9.8 m/s2 and 2G

22. (a) Force on satellite is always directed towards 1

(a) l decreases and h increases

2R [2016] Cylindrical surface

Type A : Multiple Choice Questions So, ratio of their volumes is,

8. (b) Bernoulli’s principle is based on the law of

0.5Y - h 36. (c)

T ær = R ö Þ force required to move the body or

14. When a solid is converted into a gas, directly

Type A : Multiple Choice Questions 6. (a) From the formula,

14. (a) Sublimation is conversion of a solid directly Coefficient of linear exapansion

K 22 + K 2 x 45. (c) According to Kirchoff’s law

TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 2P0 B C

11. The temperature-entropy diagram of a reversible Pf

TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 6. N1 molecules of a gas at temperature T1 are

Type A : Multiple Choice Questions and average kinetic energy of a gas

7. (d) Rms velocity of gas is 11. (c) As no heat is lost,

Type A : Multiple Choice Questions SHM = w2a

26. (b) T = 2p leff / g ; l eff decreases when the d2y p 2 æ pt ö

From equations (i) and (ii)

TYPE A : MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 7. The equation of a travelling wave is

Type A : Multiple Choice Questions Now, l = 4 m; v = 20 m/sec

w 314 v max = 6 ´ 18 ´10-3

d Energy of crest (P.E) = (2pr.dr ´ h ´ r) ´ g ´ h

31. (b) x = A sin(2t - 0.1x) v

Substituting these values in (ii) we get

O Largest frequency will be detected when

15 Electric Charges and Fields

22. The electric field at a distance r from the centre

9. (a) An electric dipole placed in a non-uniform s

Eµ (0, a,0) q A(a, a,0)

26. (c) If we take a point M on the X-axis as shown rR

(c) 3.75 ´ 10 -3 J (d) 1.25 ´ 10 -3 J b d

Type A : Multiple Choice Questions So, central capacitor, that is C2 becomes

17. (b) Charge on each plate of each capacitor 20. (d)