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Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before
attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & C in the OMR. Part-B of OMR to be left unused
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, clip boards, log tables, slide
rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices ext. except the Admit Card inside the examination
hall / room.
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
4. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
(i) Part-A (01-20) – Contains Twenty (20) multiple choice objective questions which have four (4) options each and
only one correct option. Each question carries +4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and -1 mark will
be deducted for every incorrect answer.
(i) Part-C (01-05) contains Five (05) Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to
9 (both inclusive). Each question carries +4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and NO MARKS will
be deducted for every incorrect answer.
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM2
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM3
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART-A: (Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A force F (iˆ 3ˆj 4K)
ˆ N is applied to a particle having position vector r (3iˆ 2ˆj k)
ˆ m. The
magnitude of torque of the force about origin is
(A) 195 Nm (B) 185 Nm
(C) 20 Nm (D) zero
2. If a particle is projected in a uniform gravitational field with an initial velocity of 10 m/s at an angle of
60 with the horizontal, then the minimum radius of curvature of the trajectory described by the
projectile is (take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 2.0 m (B) 2.5 m
(C) 7.5 m (D) 20 m
3. A uniform disc of moment of inertia 2I rotating about its own axis with an 0
angular speed 0 is kept gently on another uniform disc of moment of inertia
I. The 2nd disc was initially at rest on the surface. The friction losses due to 2I
the motion of two discs, is
13 2 1 2
(A) I0 (B) I0 I
64 3
7 2
(C) I0 (D) no loss
8
4. Kepler's third law of planetary motion when stated for circular orbits, has the form
(v = orbital velocity of a planet and R = distance from the sun)
(A) v R (B) v 1/R
(C) v2 1/R (D) none of the above
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM4
7. An ideal gas is taken through a process where dQ = dU - dW. The specific heat of the ideal gas in
this process is (dQ = heat supplied to the gas, dU = change in internal energy, dW = work done by
gas)
3
(A) Cv (B) Cv + R
2
(C) Cv - R (D) the process is impossible
y(cm)
8. A and B are two wave trains shown in the figure. The ratio of
A 2
intensity of A to that of B is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 8 t(sec)
B 1
t(sec)
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM5
9. P is the junction of two wires A and B. B is made of steel and is thicker while A B
(C)
, (D) ,
10. An infinite number of charges of magnitudes q, q/2, q/4, q/8 and so on are placed along the
circumference of a circle of radius 1 unit with centre as origin. The potential at the origin will be
q q
(A) (B)
20 40
q
(C) (D) infinite
30
O O
V
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM6
14. The plot of characteristic frequency ‘f’ in case of Ky –X-rays, with the atomic number ‘Z’ of an element
may be best represented by :-
(A) (B)
f f
Z→ Z
(C) (D)
f f
Z Z
15. An electron is knocked out from K shell of tungsten atom. P1, P2, P3 are probabilities that an electron
jumps from L, M and N shell to K shell, then which is correct
(A) P1 =P2 = P3 (B) P3 > P2 > P1
(C) P1 = P2 > P3 (D) P1 > P2 > P3
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM7
time curve is
0 2 4 6 t(s)
10
20 20
10 10
2 4 6 t(s) 0 2 4 6 t(s)
20 20
10 10
2 4 6 t(s) 0 2 4 6 t(s)
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM8
This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.
1. The transfer ratio of a transistor is 50. The input resistance of the transistor when used in common
– emitter configuration is 1k. The peak value of the collector AC current for an AC input voltage of
0.01 V peak is k × 100 A. Find k.
t
O 4 8
1
4. In a young’s double slit experiment slits are separated by a distance d and screen is at distance
D, (D >> d) from slit plane. If light source of wavelength ( d) is used, the minimum distance from
D
central point on the screen where intensity is one fourth of the maximum is . Find the value of n.
nd
5. An equiconvex glass lens (a) has focal length f and power P. It is cut into two
symmetrical halves (b) by a plane containing the principal axis. The two pieces
are recombined as shown in figure (c). The power of the new combination is
kP. Find k. (c)
(a) (b)
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM9
SECTION – II :: CHEM
MISTRY
PART-A: (Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Heat of neutralization between HCl and NaOH is –13.7 kcal equiv –1. Heat of neutralization of
H2C2O4 (oxalic acid) with NaOH is –26 kcal mole–1. Hence, heat of dissociation of H2C2O4 as
H2C2O 4 2H C2 O24 , is
(A) 12.3 kcal mole–1 (B) 1.4 kcal mole–1
(C) –39.7 kcal mole–1 (D) –12.3 kcal mole–1
2. If the entropy of vaporisation of liquid is 110 JK-1mol-1 and its enthalpy of vaporisation is
50,000 J mol-1, the boiling point of the liquid is
(A) 354. 5 K (B) 454.1 K
(C) 554.5 K (D) 445.5 K
3. A sample of 100 ml of 0.10 M acid HA (Ka = 1 × 10–5) is titrated with standard 0.10 M KOH.
How many ml of KOH is required to be added when the pH in the titration flask will be 5.00?
(A) 0 ml (B) 10 ml
(C) 100 ml (D) 50 ml
4. What is the pH value at which Mg(OH) 2 begins to precipitate from a solution containing 0.2
M Mg2+ ions? Ksp of Mg(OH)2 is 2 10–13 M3?
(A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 6 (D) 7
5. A radiation of 253.7 nm strikes the surface of a metal and ejected electrons are stopped by
0.24 eV. The work function of the metal is
(A) 2.65 eV (B) 3.65 eV
(C) 4.65 eV (D) 5.65 eV
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM10
9. Ph C C CH3
Hg / H 2
(W )
H2 O
(Major)
(W) is
(A) O (B) O
Ph
Ph CH3
CH3
(C) OH (D) OH
Ph
Ph CH3
CH3
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM11
10. C6 H5
H3C H
alc. KOH
E2
A (major)
Br H
C6 H5
A is
(A H3C C6H5 (B H3C C6H5
) )
H5C6 H H C6H5
(C) H CH3 (D All of the above
)
H5C6 C6H5
(A) (B)
Me OH Me OH
Br H H Br
(C) Either (A) or (B) (D) CH2OH
Br
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM12
12.
(i) O3
(ii) H2O / Zn
(A)
NaOH
(B)
(C) O (D) O O
HO
CH3 CH3
Cl
(C) (D) CH3
Cl
14. CH3
OH
H
H2 O
(F)
Br2 / CCl4
C4H8Br2
CH3
How many structures of ‘F’ are possible?
(A) 2 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 3
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM13
15. O O
CH3 CH3
Clemmensen
reduction
(A) and
Clemmensen
reduction
(B)
OH OH
Hence, products (A) and (B) are, respectively
(A) CH CH
(B) CH3 CH3
3 3
and and
OH OH OH Cl
(C) CH3 CH3
(D) CH3 CH3
and and
Cl Cl Cl OH
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM14
16. The product(s) of the Hofmann exhaustive methylation of the following compound is
(i) 2MeI
(ii) moist Ag2O
(iii)
N
H
(A) (B)
NMe2
(C) (D) All of the above
17. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding the structure of diborane?
(A) B2H6 is dimmer of BH3
(B) The terminal B–H bond is a 2-centred-3-electron bond.
(C) The terminal B–H bond is a 2-centred-2-electron bond.
H
(D) The is a 3-centred-2 electron bond.
bridge B B
18. When these substances are arranged in order of increasing boiling point (lowest B.P. first),
what is the correct order.
(A) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 (B) AsH3 < PH3 < NH3
(C) PH3 < AsH3 < NH3 (D) AsH3 < NH3 < PH3
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM15
F O F F
(A) (B)
Xe Xe
F F F F
F O
F F
(C) Xe O (D) Xe F
F F
F F
20. Which of the following compound have octahedral structure and zero lone pair at central
atom?
(A) XeO4 (B) SF6
(C) XeOF4 (D) XeO2F2
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM16
This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.
2. What is the number of geometrical isomers for the square planar complex [Mabcd] is?
(Where a, b, c and d are monodented ligand)
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM17
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. (p ~ q) (~ p q) is
(A) a tautology (B) a contradiction
(C) both of tautology and a contradiction (D) neither a tautology nor a contradiction
2. The mean and standard deviation of marks of 200 students were 40 and 15 respectively.
Later it was discovered that a score of 40 was wrongly read as 50. The correct standard
deviation is
(A) 39.95 (B) 14.98
(C) 224.5 (D) none of these
3. The first two terms of a geometric progression add up to 12. The sum of third and fourth
terms is 48. If the terms are alternately positive and negative, then
(A) common ratio of G.P. is –2 (B) common ratio of G.P. is –3
(C) sixth term of G.P. is 128 (D) none of these
3 2 1 1 2 1
4. If A , then trace of A is equal to
7 5 2 1 0 4
(A) –25 (B) –21
(C) –15 (D) –11
5. The equation of the plane through the intersection of the planes x + 2y + z – 1 = 0 and
2x + y + 3z – 2 = 0 and perpendicular to the plane x + y + z – 1 = 0 and x + ky + 3z – 1 = 0.
Then the value of k is
5 3
(A) (B)
2 2
5 3
(C) (D)
2 2
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM18
6. Let 1, 1, 2, 3, ..... n – 1 be ‘n’ roots of equation xn + x + = 0 where i j if i j then
the value of 1 2 1 3 1 4 ..... 1 n1 is
(A) n n 1 1n2 (B) n
C2 1n2
(C) n 1n1 (D) 0
7. Mr. X has 5 children, and Mr. Y has 3 children. Of the either children it is known that there
are 5 girls and 3 boys. Then probability that atleast one of the family have only girls as their
children
1 9
(A) (B)
56 56
11 10
(C) (D)
56 56
n
n
8. lim
n
n2 k 2 x 2 , x 0 is equal to
k 1
9. A coin that comes up head with probability p > 0 and tails with probability 1 – p > 0
independently on each flip, is flipped eight times. Suppose the probability of three heads and
1
five tails is equal to of the probability of five heads and three tails. The value of p is
25
5 2
(A) (B)
6 3
1 3
(C) (D)
6 4
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM19
0 2b c
10. If A a
b c is orthogonal matrix, then |abc| is equal to
a b c
1 1
(A) (B)
2 3
1
(C) (D) 1
6
11. The angle between pair of tangents drawn to the curve 7x 2 – 12y2 = 84 from M(1, 2) is
1
(A) 2 tan1 (B) 2 tan–1 2
2
1 1
(C) 2 tan1 tan1 (D) 2 tan–1 3
3 2
x
12. Let f: (0, ) R be a continuous function such that F x t f t dt . If F(x2) = x4 + x5, then
0
12
f r 2 is equal to
r 1
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM20
xdx
14. is equal to
1 x
3
2 2
1 x
(A)
1
n 1 1 x 2 c (B)
2
c
3/2
2 2
3 1 1 x
(C) 2 1 1 x 2 c (D) 2 1 1 x 2 c
9x 1 2 3 4029
16. If f x , then f
x f 2015 f 2015 ..... f 2015 is equal to
9 9 2015
4029
(A) 1007 (B)
2
(C) 2014 (D) 2015
17. If the roots of the equation x2 + mx + n = 0 are cubes of the roots of the equation
x2 + px + q = 0, then
(A) m = p3 + 3pq (B) m = p3 – 3pq
3
m p
(C) m + n = p3 (D)
n q
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM21
1
18. If a , b , c are three vectors with magnitude 2, 3 and 1 respectively and a c . If the
4
following relation holds true for some ( 0), b a 3c , then the value of is
8 8
(A) (B)
3 3
3 3
(C) (D)
8 8
If a, b, c satisfy the equation a b c2 a b2 c 0 and ‘’ is non–real cube root
3 3
19.
of unity, then a, b, c are in
(A) A.P. (B) G.P.
(C) H.P. (D) none of these
x2 y 2
20. The positive slope of tangent to 1 which is normal to (x + 2)2 + (y + 2)2 = 1 is
9 1
8 74 4 31
(A) (B)
10 5
7 50
(C) (D) none of these
5
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JEE Main Mock Test-1X (1920)-(100594.1)-PCM22
This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.
n1
1. If the value of 30 C10 29
C9 28
C8 ..... 20
C0 is equal to Cr then the value of (n – r) is
equal to _____
3. If sin , sin , sin are in A.P. and cos , cos , cos are in G.P. then
cos2 cos2 4cos cos
is equal to _____
1 sin sin
3
3 x k
4. lim is k, then is equal to _____
x 0 2 x 3 x 4 x 8
5. A focal chord of hyperbola 3x2 – 4y2 = 12 intersects the hyperbola at A, B and the hyperbola
8y2 – 6x2 = 12 at C and D. Number of integers in the range of |AC – BD| is _____
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