CLAT Rehearsal

LPTSM-013-10021
Explanation

Section I: English

1. Answer: D
Explanation: 4th line and 5th line of the passage supports the answer.

2. Answer: A
Explanation: 8th line of the passage – “56 seats of the 288, while the BJP won nearly double that figure”.

3. Answer: B
Explanation: 6th line says – “the sena is the BJP’s oldest ally”

4. Answer: C
Explanation: 8th line – 288 seats.

5. Answer: A
Explanation: alliance means union as coalition.

6. Answer: B
Explanation: 2nd para 1st line – “in 2006”

7. Answer: A
Explanation: 7th line 1st para supports the answer.

8. Answer: B
Explanation: 2nd Para 7th line – “his push to end presidential term limit”

9. Answer: C
Explanation: 2nd para 10th line supports the answer.

10. Answer: C
Explanation: Indigenous means native so opposite is foreign.

11. Answer: D
Explanation: 1st para 9th and 10th line supports the answer.

12. Answer: A
Explanation: 11th line says – “an issue resolved by 4 : 1”

13. Answer: C
Explanation: 2nd para 3rd line supports the answer.

14. Answer: A
Explanation: 2nd para 4th line – “the practice of female genital mutilation”

15. Answer: B
Explanation: Discriminatory means prejudice (taking sides).

16. Answer: D
Explanation: 4th line of the passage.
17. Answer: B
Explanation: 2nd para 2nd line.

18. Answer: B
Explanation: last line of passage – “cutting interest rates”.

19. Answer: C
Explanation: 2nd para 7th line.

20. Answer: A
Explanation: optimism – means hopeful so enthusiasm.

21. Answer: B
Explanation: 2nd para 1st line – “the rise was enough for a people reeling”.

22. Answer: A
Explanation: Iran – 2nd para 1st line.

23. Answer: C
Explanation: Inflation has risen to 40% (2nd paragraph 4th line).

24. Answer: A
Explanation: 2nd para 3rd line.

25. Answer: B
Explanation: Plunged – jump/dive so dropped.

26. Answer: A
Explanation: 1st para 4th line.

27. Answer: C
Explanation: 1st para – 10th line “President may dissolve the House six months prior”.

28. Answer: B
Explanation: 1st para 1st line supports the answer.

29. Answer: A
Explanation: 2nd para 3rd line.

30. Answer: B
Explanation: Charisma – means magical effect so answer charm.

Section II: Logical Reasoning

31. Answer: B
Explanation: 1 is the opinion of the author and not of the postmodernists. 2 is correct because
postmodernists offer more than just support to the avant-garde movements so they will definitely agree that
these movements should be supported.
32. Answer: A
Explanation: 1 can be inferred from the line ‘This condition is supposed to affect us all’. 2 can be inferred
from the line ‘They have a distinct way of seeing the world as a whole’. The lines “They have a distinct way
of seeing the world as a whole, and use a get of philosophical ideas that not only support an aesthetic but
also analyze a ‘late capitalist’ cultural condition of postmodernity” do not imply that postmodernism is based
on strong philosophical ideas. Thus, 1 and 2 are correct.

33. Answer: C
Explanation: The author feels that the theory seldom came to empirically testable conclusions. Therefore,
option (c) is correct.
34. Answer: C
Explanation: The argument states that the theory used word play instead of logic which resulted in its
conclusions being empirically untestable. 2 weakens the premise of the argument by stating that word play
is very logical to express ideas that cannot be mentioned directly. Thus, 2 is the correct choice. 1 somewhat
strengthens the argument. 3 is limited to the opinion of a select few about some (not all) sections. Thus,
option (c) is the correct choice.

35. Answer: A
Explanation: Priya presents a valid reasons for her argument by stating the health issues related with low
BMI of skinny models. Loveleen neither weakens this premise nor mitigates the validity of Loveleen’s
argument. Moreover, the validity of an argument is mitigated by weakening its premise, so (b) and (c) are
similar as well as incorrect. Loveleen does not present any fact from real life. Hence, options (b), (c) and (d)
are negated. Loveleen does not approve Priya’s argument but fails to back her disapproval by a valid
reasoning. Thus, option (a) is correct.

36. Answer: A
Explanation: 2 does not follow because we do not know that the BMI of healthy skinny females is more
than or less than 18. 1 follows because the argument says that skinny females that have less than 18 BMI
are likely to suffer from bone loss but 1 says that BMI does not include bone density. So BMI cannot be used
as a criterion for deciding bone health.
37. Answer: B
Explanation: Nihilistic atheists believe that people behave in a morally correct manner because they feel
that a supreme power that can punish or reward them exists. Nihilistic atheists justify the need to behave
with self-interest if no such power exists. They imply that disbelief in the existence of God is sufficient to act
according to our desires as in the absence of a supreme power there is nobody to punish or reward our acts.
Hence, 1 is implicit. 2 is also implicit as moralistic atheists give more value to morals in comparison to that
given by nihilistic atheists. From the discussion in the question, it is fairly clear that moralistic atheists
believe that one behaves in a moral manner not because of expectation of a reward or punishment from
God but because such a behavior is morally correct. They assign value to morals but whether the morality is
the central idea or not is beyond the scope of the given discussion. Thus, 3 is not correct.

38. Answer: A
Explanation: 1 is the opinion expressed by a moralist atheist. Moralist atheist has not provided any
judgment on the opinion of nihilistic atheist. Thus, 2 is beyond the scope of the discussion. 3 is also not
commented upon by the moralistic atheist. Thus, only 1 is correct.
39. Answer: B
Explanation: Nihilistic atheists believe that people behave in a morally correct manner because they feel
that a supreme power that can punish or reward them exists. Nihilistic atheists justify the need to behave
with self-interest if no such power exists. They imply that disbelief in the existence of God is sufficient to act
according to our desires as in the absence of a supreme power there is nobody to punish or reward our acts.
Hence, 1 is implicit. 2 has been explicitly stated twice in the discussion. Thus, it is not an assumption.

40. Answer: C
Explanation: The author has expressed his wariness about the increased dependence on fewer top
earners. 1 is in line with the argument of the author. 2 and 3 are beyond the scope of the argument.

41. Answer: C
Explanation: Both 1 and 2 provided reasons that point out the disadvantages of introducing heavy taxing of
the rich. 3 is a neutral statement that neither supports nor weakens the issue at hand. Thus, option (c) is the
correct choice.

42. Answer: C
Explanation: Refer to the line “For the deconstructor, the relationship of language to reality is not given, or
even reliable. “A deconstructor doubts that language is based on reality. Thus, option (c) which states that
 all language systems are unreliable and are based on the culture of the time they were developed supports
the view point of the deconstructor.

43. Answer: A
Explanation: 1 is contradictory to the opinion of the deconstructor. 2 supports his opinion.

44. Answer: D
Explanation: The logic, expressed in the argument, behind the practice of investing huge sums on making
new films and not on serials is that of demand and supply. Both 1 and 2 suggests reasons to affect the
demand and supply. Thus, both of them strengthen the argument.

45. Answer: D
Explanation: None of the given assumptions is implicit in the argument because no comparison between
the popularity or goodness of old TV shows and new films has been presented. Thus, (a) and (c) are beyond
the scope of the argument. (b) contradicts the spirit of the argument and is thus negated.

46. Answer: C
Explanation: It is unclear whether Prashant is supporting or defending Anita’s argument or not. Moreover,
he neither mentions a flaw in the identity cards nor produces an evidence. So, (a) and (b) are incorrect. (d) is
irrelevant. Prashant states a flaw that makes the usefulness of identity cards questionable. Thus, option (c)
is the most appropriate choice.

47. Answer: D
Explanation: (a) is incorrect because it lacks the main ingredient ‘crimes done by child soldiers during war
times’. (b) is incorrect because Ranjeet does not comment on the issue of age. He raises the issue that child
soldiers who commit crimes during wartime are also victims of the same abuse. (c) becomes vague as it
talks about being actually guilty or not whereas the idea is of prosecuting them or not. (d) captures the point
of issue most effectively as it includes the argument of Rajiv to prosecute child soldiers of war time crimes
and Ranjeet’s idea of such children themselves being victims of the same abuses and deserve help rather
than prosecution.

48. Answer: B
Explanation: Rajiv’s argument is based on the premise that child soldiers are criminals, so they should be
convicted. Ranjeet disapproves his argument and weakens his premise by stating that child soldiers are
themselves victims. Thus, option (b) is correct.

49. Answer: D
Explanation: Beth states that youth should not be treated as criminals and they can be helped by social
work. Judith states that bad behaviour on the part of the youth deserves attention and can be managed by
ASBO. If bad behaviour on the part of youth is not managed and kept under control, it can graduate to the
level of criminality. Thus, option (d) is the correct choice.

50. Answer: A
Explanation: Option (a) highlights the specific advantage and positive role of ASBO in context of the
argument. Option (c) is close but is beyond the scope of the argument.

51. Answer: D
Explanation: Fact 1 is that unemployment of locals has increased. Fact 2 overall employment has
increased. If most of the new jobs have gone to outsiders, then local employment would increase. Option
(d).

52. Answer: C
Explanation: The Labor leader’s claim is that introduction of micro electronics was the cause of
unemployment. The passage states that unemployment was due to organizational change. If option (c) is
correct and organizational change was due to micro electronics, then the job losses were due to the micro
electronics.
53. Answer: C
Explanation: The author states that there are two possibilities for traveling to other star systems: (1) Create
a wormhole or (2) create a ship that can travel at approximately the speed of light. The author rules out the
second possibility and therefore claims that our only hope is creating a wormhole. This is a logical argument.
Question Type: Reasoning strategy
Correct answer: (c) Travelling at the speed of light is impossible, so the author argues for the alternative,
creating a wormhole.

54. Answer: C
Explanation: The squib presents a situation in which two alternatives are considered, and since one is not
feasible, the other is considered the only possible solution.
Question Type: Analogous reasoning
Correct answer: (c) While the squib does not actually perform the chosen action, this choice is closer to the
principle illustrated than any of the others.
(a) Feasibility, not cost, is the issue of the original squib.
(b) There are only two possible options in the original squib.
(d) Feasibility, not preference, is the issue of the original squib.
55. Answer: C
Explanation: The squib presents a debate over whether Jack has enough resources to support himself
indefinitely.
Question Type: Controversy
(a) Neither discusses this possibility.
(b) Only the investment adviser mentions this.
(d) Neither discusses this possibility.

56. Answer: C
Explanation: The investment adviser bases his conclusion on recent stock market trends.
Question Type: Reasoning strategy
Correct answer: C. If Jack had other non-stock resources, then the investment adviser’s conclusion would
be incorrect.
(a) True, but that is the nature of projections.
(b) It is doubtful that the calculations are wrong.
(d) Investment strategy cannot be based on this.

57. Answer: A
Explanations:
A. Correct. This statement properly identifies the flaw in the response. The candy manufacturer does not
answer the question whether adding caffeine to candy bars is designed to make them addictive.
B. Even if the manufacturer did make this assumption, the information is not relevant to the accusation,
which is not concerned with naturally occurring caffeine in cacao beans.
C. The precise amount of caffeine lost in the manufacturing process is not at issue.
D. The manufacturer does not treat the health advocate's argument this way.

58. Answer: C
Explanations:
A. The percentage of people in the city who have a job has no direct bearing on whether the average pay for
jobs citywide is increasing or decreasing.
B. Whether the average pay was low when the mayor took office in comparison to the ten preceding years is
immaterial to the comparison addressed in the argument's conclusion.
C. Correct. This information weakens the argument because it opens up the possibility that the jobs
eliminated had higher average pay than the jobs created during Mayor Delmont's tenure. This in turn would
mean that the average pay was not increasing during Mayor Delmont's tenure.
D. Thus, too, has no bearing on the argument, because we have no information about the average pay for
jobs in those declining industries.
59. Answer: C
Explanations:
A. If the best customers already have all available new product and service information, they are unlikely to
respond to the invitation to visit the booth: this point is a weakness in the plan.
B. Competitors' efforts towards the same goal may hurt Vitacorp's efforts, so this point does not support the
plan.
C. Correct. This statement properly identifies a point supporting the marketing director's plan.
D. The plan simply aims to attract more visitors to Vitacorp's booth to encourage more sales and does not
address the fact that Vitacorp shares its customers with its competitors.

60. Answer: D
Explanations:
A. This is irrelevant to the plan since relevant quarters – fall and summer- are not being compared.
B. Increased advertising should continue to contribute to the plan's success.
C. Even if the qualifying distributors reached only normal levels of sales, there may be other distributors who
will qualify in the fall because they had low sales one year earlier.
D. Correct. This statement properly identifies a flaw in the plan.

Section III: Current Affairs & General Knowledge

61. Answer: D 62. Answer: B 63. Answer: C 64. Answer: A 65. Answer: D 66. Answer: D 67. Answer: B

68. Answer: B 69. Answer: A 70. Answer: B 71. Answer: D 72. Answer: A 73. Answer: B 74. Answer: D

75. Answer: A 76. Answer: A 77. Answer: A 78. Answer: B 79. Answer: D 80. Answer: C 81. Answer: B

82. Answer: B 83. Answer: B 84. Answer: A 85. Answer: A 86. Answer: A 87. Answer: + 88. Answer: B

89. Answer: B 90. Answer: B 91. Answer: D 92. Answer: A 93. Answer: D 94. Answer: A 95. Answer: C

96. Answer: D 97. Answer: A 98. Answer: C 99. Answer: B 100. Answer: A

Section IV: Legal Reasoning

101. Answer: A
Explanation: As is evident from a reading of the passage, author believes that by not carrying out timely
election of local bodies the government has derailed the concept of decentralization. (a) is the only option
consistent with such a recommendation.

102. Answer: D
Explanation: The passage gives all arguments in favour of the local bodies and their importance. (a) (b)
and (c) are specifically against the authors opinion in the passage.

103. Answer: B
Explanation: In above mentioned passage the given provision of law would not apply as nothing in passage
shows that there was occurrence of any kind of separatist or naxal movement. Hence No; the Government
should not have delayed the election of local bodies. (a) and (c) are irrelevant to the passage. (d) starts with
‘yes’ thus contradicts the reasoning of the given question that is would the government be then justified to
not conduct election.

104. Answer: D
Explanation: Question is would the government be then justified to not conduct election under the changed
provision and fact. Answer would be (d) Yes; as per the given question election can be delayed when the
government is facing naxal or any separatist movement. (a) and (c) are irrelevant to the passage.(b) is direct
contradiction to the given question.
105. Answer: D
Explanation: None of the above. (a) The author believes that one of the important aspects of the
amendment is reservation of seats for women not men. This has been referred to as an effort towards
political empowerment of women not men. (b)The author nowhere mentions exclusion of older generation.
(c) The author believes that the Amendments are expected to play a significant not insignificant role in the
formulation of plans for local development and their implementation.

106. Answer: C
Explanation: As the last line in the passage states that the need for sterner fixing of accountability and
instituting checks in the system to avoid any delays in the time ahead is only more urgent. Thus (c). (a) (b)
and (d) are relevant to the passage but irrelevant to the question asked.

107. Answer: B
Explanation: The idea of nightshift for women workforce as an empowering right is not adequately
addressed by the law in its current form. The very essence of the author’s view is that despite the new law
the concern is about the implementation of the law. (a) (c) and (d) are specifically against the authors
opinion in the passage.

108. Answer: C
Explanation: Self Explanatory

109. Answer: B
Explanation: Women Work force is concerned about the implementation of the new law. (a) (c) and (d) are
specifically against the authors opinion in the passage.

110. Answer: B
Explanation: Self Explanatory. (a) (c) and (d) are specifically against the authors opinion in the passage.
The author is concerned about the notification allowing women to work night shifts because:

111. Answer: B
Explanation: The new law would still fall short of safety and equal rights for women workforce as major
concern is implementation of all the rights being provided to women workforce for day/night time work. Also,
the earlier laws about safety, equality and other rights have not been implemented properly. (a) (c) and (d)
are specifically against the opinion in the passage.

112. Answer: C
Explanation: Law is good in principle, it is the implementation for which the women work force is
concerned. (a) (b) and (d) are specifically against the opinion in the passage.
As per the passage which of the following is true with regards to women workforce:

113. Answer: D
Explanation: Self Explanatory. The passage deals with all the concerns mentioned in (a) (b) and (c).

114. Answer: D
Explanation: Major concern of the women workforce is that the existing laws are not be implemented
properly like the rights for daytime workers. How would the rules concerning night time workforce will be
implemented? Thus if it is proved that the all other rights are successfully implemented than the workforce
could have trust in the new law as well. (a) (b) and (c) are irrelevant to the passage.

115. Answer: B

Explanation: The person asking question in the above passage states ‘I think we all agree that there are
parts of it that are good’, but how do we broaden this? Thus, (b). (a) (c) and (d) are specifically against the
passage.

116. Answer: A
Explanation: As Gaurav compares the existing law with new law he is clearly stating that the new law
should have been on the same lines of broader definition of persecution and not on limiting grounds.
117. Answer: D
Explanation: Self Explanatory (a) (b) and (c) are gaurav’s opinion in the passage.

118. Answer: B
Explanation: As per her reply India is bound by international law due to customary law of non refoulment.
(a) is against the reply given by Priya where she clearly states that the new law should be looked at from
larger perspective.
(c) is wrong as priya does state that India has not signed these treatise. (d) is contrary to her opinion.

119. Answer: D
Explanation: The Government can send them back to the country from which they have come if they do not
face any kind of persecution as the international law is only for the protection of persecuted. (d) is more
relevant than (a). (b) and (c) are irrelevant to the passage.
120. Answer: C
Explanation: Yes; as the international law existing provides citizenship to all kind of persecuted people. The
new law should have been made on same lines as she quotes non refoulment law. (a) is contradictory in
itself. (d) is the reasoning given by gaurav and not by priya. (b) is irrelevant to the passage.

121. Answer: A
Explanation: As both are suggesting improvements for the law in question.

122. Answer: B
Explanation: Self Explanatory This option is also more relevant than (a) or (c). (b) is against the stated law.

123. Answer: A
Explanation: As per given question governments are entitled to deport suspected threat to nation. (b) (c)
and (d) are irrelevant to the passage.

124. Answer: B
Explanation: As per passage at present is there a law in India allowing refugee to all kind of persecuted
persons from neighbouring countries?
Yes, In reply to his question Gaurav states look at the legal regime that existed along with the CAA. There is
a 2011 Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) issued by the Home Ministry, which is not yet in the public
domain. And, according to that, anyone who could establish persecution of any form — not just religious, but
also social persecution, caste based and so on, would be entitled to a long term visa in India.
As there is nothing in the passage to show that earlier law is being replaced. Rather it seems the new law is
in addition to earlier law thus (a) cannot be. (c) and (d) are irrelevant to the passage.

125. Answer: A
Explanation: Author states that death penalty as a measure to end sexual violence has completely failed.
Hence,(a) There needs to be better enforcement of law in response to valid questions on justice but death
penalty holds no answers. (b) (c) and (d) are specifically against the authors opinion in the passage.

126. Answer: C
Explanation: It is clearly stated in passage last para that Justice PN. Bhagawati against death penalty in its
actual operation as it is discriminatory for it strikes mostly against the poor and deprived. The reasons
include lack of adequate legal assistance to the marginalised. (d) the reason is incorrect for the question
asked . (a) and (b) are irrelevant to the passage.
127. Answer: B
Explanation: Throughout the passage the author is advocating for abolishing of capital punishment on
various grounds including theory of punishment. Thus the opinion of author would not change even if death
penalty resulted into lesser number of rape cases. Hence, not (a). (b) and (d) are irrelevant to the passage.

128. Answer: D
Explanation: Self Explanatory
 Not (a) The author believes that a comparative study of death row shows that the jurisprudence in this
regard is against and not favorable to the weaker sections.
Not (b) The author believes that Revenge is indeed personalised and emotional form of retribution, which
often does not keeps sight of proportionality.
(c) is specifically against the authors opinion in the passage.

129. Answer: C
Explanation: Throughout the passage the author is advocating for abolishing of capital punishment on
various grounds including theory of punishment. (b) and (d) are irrelevant to the passage. (a) is against the
authors opinion in the passage.
130. Answer: B
Explanation: As per the passage what is theory of punishment: A unified theory of punishment brings
together multiple penal purposes—such as retribution, deterrence and rehabilitation. THoug protection of
society element is not mentioned in this option it is still better option than (c) which has just two elements
mentioned. (a) and (d) are against the theory of punishment.
131. Answer: C
Explanation: During the Punishment the culprit is reformed and afterwards rehabilitated because the author
believes in the theory of punishment which includes both rehabilitation and reform. (a) (b) and (d) are
specifically against the authors opinion in the passage.

132. Answer: D
Explanation: As mentioned by the author that J.S. Verma Committee said that capital punishment is a
regressive step and may not provide deterrence. The committee recommended the life sentence for the
most grievous of crimes. Any criminal who actually thought he would be caught would find the prospect of
life imprisonment to be more deterrent penalty than life imprisonment.
(c) is not the main theme of the passage. (a) and (b) are specifically against the authors opinion in the
passage.

133. Answer: D
Explanation: Very first line of the passage states that a person accused of dowry harassment cannot be
automatically convicted for abetment of suicide, the Supreme Court has held in a judgment. Thus, (a) and
(c) are against the passage. (b) is irrelevant to the passage.

134. Answer: C
Explanation: Self Explanatory

135. Answer: D
Explanation: None of the above as (a) (b) and (c) are irrelevant to the question.

Section V: Quantitative Techniques

136. Answer: C
Explanation: SP by store A = (100-28)/100 * MP = 72% of MP, by B = 82% of MP, by C =
60% of MP
(72+82+60)/3 * MP/100 = 2568
MP = Rs 3600

137. Answer: D
Explanation: Difference in SP = 93% of MP – 84% of MP
9% of MP = 486; MP = 5400
So SP by store C = 76% of 5400 = Rs 4104

138. Answer: C
Explanation: Let x% discount by store B
So [84 + (100-x)]/(2*100) * MP = 3608
And [70 + (100-x)]/(2*100) * MP = 3300
 Put value of (100-x) from 1 equation to another and solve for MP
MP = Rs 4400
So SP by store C = 70/100 * 4400 = Rs 3080

139. Answer: B
Explanation: MP = x
SP by A = 88% of x
CP by A = 100/110 * 88/100 *x = 4x/5
SP by B = 89x/100, so profit of B = 89x/100 – 4x/5 = 9x/100
SP by C = 94x/100, so profit of B = 94x/100 – 4x/5 = 14x/100
Required ratio = 9: 14

140. Answer: C
Explanation: X/18 = 2/3
So discount by A = 12%
88% of MP = 82% of MP + 216
MP = Rs 3600
Let y% discount by store C
[88 – (100-Y)]/100 * MP = 432
MP = Rs 3600
Y = 24%
So SP by C = 76% of 3600 = Rs 2736

For Questions 141 to 145:

Some Notation
I - Income
E - Expenditure
141. Answer: C
Explanation: I maruti/E maruti =0.3
E maruti= 23.58/0.3= 78.6 lakh
142. Answer: C
Explanation: Imaruti(JUN)/Emaruti(JUN) = 0.75
Ihyundaii(MAY)/Ehyundai(MAY) = 1.2
Required Percent = 0.75/1.2*100 =62.5

143. Answer: D
Explanation: Imaruti(JUN)/Emaruti(JUN)=0.75
Imaruti(JUN) = 0.75*64 = 48 lakh
Ihyundai(MAR)/Ehyundai(MAR) = 0.8
Ehyundai = 64/0.8 = 80 lakh
Requared paercent = 48/80*100 = 60

144. Answer: C
Explanation: Imaruti(MAR)/Emaruti(Mar) = 0.5
Emaruti(JUN) = 36/0.5 = 72lakh
Isuzuki(MAR)/Esuzuki(MAR) = 0.25
Esuzuki(MAR) = 27/0.25 = 108 lakh
Ratio = 72/108 = 2/3
= 2:3

145. Answer: A
Explanation: Let the income of hyundai in FEB = X
E(FEB) = X/0.5 = 2X
E(JUN) = X/0.6 = 5X/3
Required percent = 2X/5X/3*100 = 120
146. Answer: B
Explanation: Average = (120 +130 +145+ 165 +185 +200 +220)/7
= 166.42
= Rs. 167lakh.
147. Answer: A
Explanation: Required answer = 877/1165
=75.5%

148. Answer: D
Explanation: To find the answer we have to find the profit in each year.
In 1990=5/20*100=25%
In 1991=5/25*100=20%
In 1992=10/30*100=33.33%
In 1993=10/40*100=25%
In 1994=10/50*100=20%
In 1995=10/60*100=16.66%
From the above table,
In 1992 the profit is maximum.

149. Answer: D
Explanation: To find the answer we have to find the profit in each year.
In 1990=8/102*100=7.8%
In 1991=5/110*100=4.5%
In 1992=10/115*100=8.7%
In 1993=10/125*100=8%
In 1994=5/135*100=3.7%
In 1995=10/140*100=7.14%
From the above table,
In 1992 the expenditure is maximum.

150. Answer: B
Explanation: Profit in 1994 = 60.
Profit in 1995 = 70.
Growth percentage in profit in 1995 over 1994 = (10/60) x 100 = 16.66%
Profit in 1996 will be (16.66% of 70) + 70 = Rs. 82 lakh.