- malMAC Creggraphy Coale m (98) Set No. 1 17P/207/17 Question Bookict No, TaN3t (To be filled up y the candidate by biue/ black ball point pen Roll No. ] Rell Ne, (Winte the digits in words) dele sa 22. Sertal No. of OMR Answer Sheet Day and Date pestaarnaonta (Signature of Invigilator INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Use only blue/black ball-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Shest} 1, Within 20 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that t contains ali tae pages in co:rect sequence and that no page/question is missing. In case of faulty Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent /Invigilators immediately 10 obtain fresh Question Booklet 2, Do not bring any loose paper, written or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Carct vuithout its envelope. 3, A separate Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shalt nof be provided. Only the Anewer Sheet will be cuaheated. ay rite vour Roll Number and Serial Nunther of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided abuve 5. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided at the top, and by darkening the circles at the bottom, Also, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places. 6. No overwriting is alowed in the entrive of Roll No., Question Booklet No. and Set No. [if any) on OMR sheet and also Roll No. and OMR Sheet No. on the Question Booklet, 7, Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unfair means. 8. Bach question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you are io record the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle in the corresponding Tow of the Answer Sheet, by ball-point pen as mentioned ia the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Sheet 9. For cach question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet. If you darken more than one circle or darken a circle partiaily, the answer will be treated as incorrect. 10. Note that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. Li you do not wish to attempt a question leave all the circies in the corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero mark 11. For rough work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the end of this Booklet. 12, Deposit only the OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test 13, You ares «permitted to teave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test. 14, Ia candidate attempts te use any form of uniatr means, he/she as the University may determine and impose on him/her. ai be tiable to such punishmen: (refed feet a we amare we fat 0 A] No.of Printed Pages. 402 9,ma | Mae: Greagraphy Cede/¥o.(98) Qolt 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 No. of Questions /a¥ai # Aen : 120 ‘Nime/AWa : 2 Hours AWS Full Marks /quita : 360 Note: 1, (3) (2) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 marlca One mark will be deducted for each incorrect anewer. Zero mark will be awarded tor cach unattempted question. ofantes met a et eet wae sl) webs wer 3 ae ar al oie Tet ae & fee we 3 FT TUT Nets oaeka ve AT Ua Te aml (2) If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct answer, choose the closest one. ae Carts dates oe wel ae Awe ated, a flac al ar a Which one of the following planets docs not have any satellite? (1) Jupiter (2) Venus (3) Neptune (4) Uranus fafetea 4 & fea me ar att sae ae 87 ) Fema (2) Us (3) ar (4) er PTO}17P/207/17 Set No. 1 2. (31) In constitution of the Earth ‘Sima’ forms (1) top layer (2) second layer (3) third layer (4) bottorn layer geal a ae Aare’ Rat ara & Q) ad a (2) fetta ee (3) Tira we (4) arenes eR Which among the following planets has the maximum average density? ()) Venus {2) Jupiter (3) Mars (4) Saturn fe § 8 fee me ar oftaa sacs sified 37 (a) ae (a) senna (9) rt (4) ‘The tidal theory related to origin of Earth owes to (:) Chamberlin and Moulton (2) Hoyle and Lyttleton (3) Russell and Littleton (4) Jeans and Jeffreys eat A aft B avatar sara fart ats & (0) dearer wa thee (2) era ferater (3) a G fafteea (4) Sea Ga Shs Which one of the following planets is nearest to the Sun? (J) Pluto (2) Mercury (3) Jupiter (4) Venus gam a ah a a facm 2? ay =a ae (3) eat a) e 2(31) 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 Which one of the following elements contributes most significantly in composition of crustal rocks? (1) Aluminium — (2) Silicon (3) Oxygen (4) Iron yea ert ft cet a Ge ye fee aca an diner aalfrs 37 (1) wafer (2) fafraia (3) siaetoa (4) ate Monadnocks are formed in which of the following stages of normal cycle of erosion? (1) Initial (2) Young (3) Mature (4) Old AaTens wera oer aw & feifofer i a fe ae HF Attia Har 87 (1) see Q) (3) we (4) a Nappes are associated with (1) faulting {2} folding (3) fluvial action (4) glaciation aa waft a we a (2) ea & (3) 74 fer 3 (4) Rar Gra a ‘Cavern’ is characteristic of {1) glacial topography (2) marine topography {3) karst topography (4) arid topography ‘wren’ fafa @ (1) fear erent A 2) Tat ware F (9) are BRT A (4) YS BeBe 3 (PTO)17P/207/17 Set No. 1 10. at. 1d. 13. 14, (31) Frost action is related to which one of the following types of weathering? (1) Physical (2) Chemical (3) Biological (4) General gm fea fea orary yar oa feed crafts 2? QQ) tf (2) Tar (3) afar (4) are Which one of the following planets has greater volume but low density? (2) Mercury (2) Venus (3) Jupiter (4) Mars frafafiad wat #8 ae ae or TAL a ae aTeT 2? (34 (2) Ue (3) yeeatet (4) FT in the structure of the atmosphere, mesosphere Hes Ueuween (1) thermosphere and exosphere (2) stratosphere and thermosphere (3) troposphere and stratosphere (4) exosphere and ionosphere agra i aca A yest fea ¢ —— mex Hh (1) TUTE Ta sRMVE (2) SrITNSeT Ue TITAS 3) aerned a areT & (4) were GW SEAT & Radio waves are reflected in which one of the following atmospheric layers? {1} Exosphere (2) Troposphere (3) Ionosphere —_(4)_ Stratosphere fata ae Fey argWacta EAT Ha Frent fafatara erate? (1) aera (2) dese 3) SRE (4) aeTET Coriolis force is extremely weak at (1) tropic of Cancer (2) Equator (3) Poles (4) tropic of Capricorn15. 16. 17. (33) 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 witeitta ae arate waste eet @ Q) FF tae Q) Patan (3) we (4) Fak ta Wind deflection is caused by (1) difference in air pressure (2) difference in humidity (9) rotation of Earth (4) Coriolis force aaa 9 face a arm da 2 (l) ay ae Fara (2) argar # orat (3) yal er ate (4) thaifer ae Natural levees are the outcome of the depositional work of (i) wind (2) glaciers (3) rivers (4). groundwater wpe aaa cfr aa § —— sora fear FI () a ® (2) feet a (3) afeat & (4) 4st & Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A} and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below : (A) The thickness of the troposphere is the greatest at the equator. (R) Near the equator insolation is high and convection currents are strong. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A] {2} Both (A) and (R| are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true (R) is false (4) (A) is false (R) is true 5 PTO.)17P/207/17 Set No. 1 1z. 19, 20. 31) wer Fae om Eh wm wt ae (A) ay Gat a TTT (R) HBT A fe en A) A Rem ge 8 ad aR ah: (A) aires Hi aad fagaa bar 7 walfies 21 (8) fagaa ter & fae ane va Woda wet oo (1) (A) sit (R) al ah é = (R), (4) H aA are 2 2) A) sik gy Aa ad 7 Weg AR), a) FH Fa cHEN aE? (3) (4) we 2 (R) THe (4) (A) Waa eR) wR The tropic of cancer in India passes through (1} Nagpur (2) Allahabad (8). Ranchi (4) Lucknow wh tar ne a pant @ (1) ART (2) Ferrerare (3) ta (4) FETS Which one of the following is responsible for movernents of the carth crust and oceurrence of earthquakes? () Terrestrial forces (2) Tectonic forces (3) gravitational forces (4) mountain building forces frefefisa HO ae & Geer Wi yy afer AA fore sree 87 wea (1) site set (2) Serif wer (3) gears at (4) 4a Frstorard ae Salinity in the ocean is depicted by 3} 380: . (1) isonephs (2) ssonyst (8) serine (4) isohatine 621. 22. 23. (at) 17P/207/27 Set No. 1 ager § saver aad art & (1) Sm TAT (2) saretteree GIT (3) ane GMT (4) sneatteTea aAT Mozambique current is a part of (1) South Pacific Ocean (2) North Atlantic Ocean (3) Indian Ocean (4) North Pacific Ocean Referer a we am 2 () aro) sere AER FT (2) sat ae amare ar (3) fee HRTARR (4) Sat vena waren = Which one of the following is the warm current of Atlantic Ocean? (1) Canary current (2) Benguela current (3) Aguihas current (4) Brazilian current Fe 4 @ ah azeite ween Aw mf om 27 (1) 8 ort 2) FET 3) UR AR (4) aE ore Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and ether fabelted as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below + (A} The general movement of the Ocean current in the northern hemisphere is clockwise and in the southern hemisphere is anticlockwise. {R) The Coriolis force is a deflection force that follow Ferrel’s law. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) {2} Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a) (3) {A} is true (R) is false (4) (A) is false (R) ie =~ ~~ 7 Pro}17P/207/17 Set No. 1 24, 2. 26. (31) 2 am Ree 3 we at wer (A) oh at art QR) eT a a Ra ne gz 3 wed oe Gh : (a) sad trang § orgie eral a gore arate ahionad ger set tena arrad tat 21 (B) Belfer aa we Recs wa 8 st See far at gaat wet @ U1) (A) ott @) ae wt EER, (Al A ae mE e (2) (A) AR (R) Sal ES HY (R), (A) MBA we aT e @) ) TAs HY WHA (4) (A) Terr BR) BEB Which one of the following are not pastoral nomads? (uy Pygmies (2) Kazaks (3) Masai (4) Lapps fia # & ats want aeracn at 87 (1) feats (2) =a (3) 7a (4) oe “Kols’ of India and ‘Veddan’ of Sri Lanka belong to which one of the following races? (1) Negro (2) Australoid (3) Mongoloids (4) Negrito at ‘aa’ am Aaa ® Sq’ Aefatea worfeal a a feed alta 27 (1) fat Q\ ates (3) Fier (4) fret ‘The highest percentage of the tribal population (as per Census, 2011) consists of (1) Bhils (ay maaes jo) Santhals (4) Nagas27, 28. 29. 30. (31) 17P/207/17 Set No, 1 serordia sreten ar aster vfttra (semMT 2011 3 aqUR) arate 4) fet arr (2) Gant a (3) tenet gre (4) amet grr Who among the following advanced idea of scientific determinism? (1) Huntington (2) Brunhes (3) Blache (4) Taylor fa 4 a et tate Arama & Rex a amt wee? (1) eféret (2) i (3) cra (4) ter Which one of the following SAARC countries has constitutional provision for 70% of its geographical area under forest? Q) Maldives (2) Afghanistan (3) Nepal (4) Bhutan fs ore te & feel oe site da 70 @ one amd ad 8 wT denies srr 2? () ede (2) aremPRa (3) Fura (4) 4A Japan, a developed country, is almost self-reliant in which one of the following minerals? (1) fron ore (2) Coal (3) Copper (4) Bauxite om, Rie Qe, Arter aPtat Ht & Pa cme anh bp () ae ames (2) ate (3) afar 4) aiaenge Which one of the following countries exports the highest it N Percenta if rice production? He OF Aestoal 1) China (2) Vietnam TT —teacia (4) Myanmar PTO)17P/207/17 Set No. 1 31. 32. 3a. (33) fra asi] wa oA ge aaa Tere w Taifies sft Fratt eT 87 () a (2) Freer (3) wetter (4) aA The concept of quaternary activities was propounded by () C. F. Jones (2) E. Murphy (@) Jean Gottmann (4) Carl ©. Sauer aga fraait i dara sfraes A a of (1) We Ge ra BR (2) $° a8 aa (3) ft meta are (4) aIet silo BTR Grr Which one of the following is a renewable source of energy? [)) Natural gas (2) Crude oil (3) Geothermal energy (4) Coal fea da ah eats sat dane w aia 2? (hy orepras ira (2) ean Fe (3) oanftr Saf 4) ata Which one of the following countries has emerged as the second largest producer (in terms of perccntage) of coffee in the world? (1) Vietnam (2) Brazil (3) Columbia (4) Indonesia fig bat 2 Be AS a fe a fee wa a} soe (afta Ai ee a) ee 4 ars t? () fear (y ate (3) arate (4) Serra 1034. 35. (34) 17P/207/ 17 Set No. 1 Zimmerman’s concept of ‘phantom resource’ refers to (1) minimum use of resources (2) maximum use of resources (8) efficiency-based use of resources (4) miserly use of resources Ret a Gren dane’ Reged a were (i) dare a fem ara 2) ware a se ayait (3) Fane a eact-araita seit (4) deel wr ahh seat Which one of the following steel plants of USA is primarily based on imported raw material? (1) Sparrow Point (2) Detroit (3) Burns Harbor (4) Seattle Fowmots & fie gama ewan 2 ah wqua. sranfia eal are 1 arent 8? (1) ad age (2) Sziee (3) ae ark (4) Pree Which one of the following countries of Asia has the highest percentage of cultivated area under irrigation? (2) China (2) Pakistan (3) India (4) Japan fen fier Sh AS Ft pte Or a ator there Fa BAY ania 87 a (2) are (3) woe 4) aT il PTO)17P/207/17 Set No. 1 37. 38. 39. (31) Which one of the following countries records per hectare highest yield of wheat in the world? (1) China (2) USA (3) France (4) Australia fra Qe tS ata Rea fate at off Bo walfirs sere ater 87 ) ae (2) FouRoe (3) Bia (4) aiegfern Which one of the following is not a major tectonic landiorm? (1) Block mountains {2}, Voleanoes (3) Subsequent stream (4) Basins frofitas & a ats ww age Peedi exempt a a? (1) Fiftes (sete) wea (Q) saree (3) vert ae (4) aa The stream having direction of its flow opposite to that of the original consequent slope is termed (1) obsequent stream (2) consequent stream (3) subsequent stream (4) insequent stream are pr orgertt art & ft eer A vata BF arch wh a ae F ul sernad zt 2) saad eg) Hea A (4) sera F4 During voleanic eruptions deposition of lava in anticlines and synclines of folded mountains accounts for formation of fa) Batholith —-(@) Phacolith (3) Lopotith (4) Laccolith 1241. 42. (31) 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 vargas sam ara igen wet a onafeal Gi ofiefteat A ara} wre & aro Aft dat & Q) Satter (2) Satie (3) atte (4) Safer When two parts of a rock slide in front and one part rides over other the resulting feature is termed (1) lateral fault (2) step fault —(3)_reverse fault (4) normal fault wa ven & Qs) ave ami-cnn fwaad 3 hw we at x ante a wiet 2, at Wornaey fifa arpa at aa & Q) arent iQ) et 3) ge 4) aaa ie The amount and intensity of monsoon rainfall is determined by the frequency of (1) western disturbances (2) dust storms (3) cyclones (4) tropical depression angel ast ft cin wa aint afta et 8 aren gre (1) afer feats & Q) a wa (3) Sear (4) 30m feat ad (cara) & The principle of isostasy based on uniform depth with different density is propounded by (1) Hayford (2) Pratt (3) Joly (4) Airy Fara ore are wo mee we amit AMARA are fea Far men 8 (1) eats ara (2) 32 oa @ ah a (4) wat are 13 ero)17P/207/17 Set No. 1 44. (31) Match List—1 with List—II and choose the correct answer from the code given below : List (Landforms) List—l (Agents of formation) (a) Faulks (i Glacial activity (b} Flood plains (i) Organic activity (c) Coral reefs (ii) Barth movements (d) Moraines liv) Fluvial activity Code (a) be (d) a i @ Gi QQ Gi) vy) oa) 8) (ti) (ai) iv) 4 fy) i) (ii) ai at aBhou a gates Fife aw a Re me Be we sae Gi: ats (eeerpfeai) again (Pato # a) (a) Ut (i) fear fer (b) 7g % Aan (i) Seem fear (co) Jaret fat (ii) H-FaIT (a) Biter (iv) 34 Bat (a) (b) (c} (d) (lj ii) w Gil) Gv) {2) iy) GD @ gO ay GH) BY) i @ «i a 1445. 46. 47, (31) 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 Which one of the following States of India has almost monopoly in production of zine? (1) Tamil Nadu (2) Uttarakhand (3} Rajasthan (4) Andhra Pradesh ana & frefefad di 9 8 fea sen} aren F ane waft 8? (y) aherng (2) RFE (3) Wear (4) SOG The maximum gap between male and female literacy in India (as per 2011 Census} found in the State of (1). Rajasthan (2) Bihar {3} Madhya Pradesh (4) Ula Pradesh vee Hoge wa onfeet mata Foose ora (MTT, 2011 % agar) wer swat & (4) Tara Fp (2) fen a (3) wermea (4) sae ae Which one of the following States of India has the highest percentage of scheduled castes but no tribal population? (1) Himachal Pradesh (2) Punjab (3) West Bangat @) Binar ara & fier omit 8 fred oats aft or afte adler goq saanta sagem we 2? . () fara ee (2) Te (3) Vm ry en 15 70)17P{207/17 Set No. 1 48. 49. 50. (a1) Which one of the foliowing pairs is not correctly matched? Cement Factory State (1) Sikka Gujarat (2) Bela Madhya Pradesh (3) Sironi Rajasthan (4) Dalmiapuram Bihar fer qt # a ata gale adi 2? aie ararT 1 (1) Bear Tet (2) act qe 3) Tat (4) sree feet ‘The lowest per hectare production of wheat is obtained in which one of the following States of India? (1) Uttar Pradcol (2) Haryana (3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Rajasthan aed & PA Teal Ta Parad AL a sh Ro Teage Feta TAT sTeT 7 (ya eet (a) steam (3) FeaNeer (4) TR Mergui Archipelago, which was colonized by Japan for three years (1942-45) is situated along the coast of (1) Myanmar (2) Indonesia (3) Malaysia (4) Singapore51. 52. 53. (31) 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 aig satan, at de af (1942-45) a sr & sift & wo a ow, faa 2 —teT (1) =a (2) were (3) Fara (4) fare Which one of the following Indian Ocean Realm countries accounts for about 98% of its export through Ocean? (1) Kenya (2) South Africa (3) Australia (4) Yemen Fro fee weren @ tina Sei 9 a fae ogy a afte fala aE} oem a am 2? (1) BRM (2) efi ssf (3) ate erat (4) 7A The highest percentage of GDP (in terms of value] in Maldives is obtamed from (1) Manufacturing (2) Agriculture (3) Transport and communication (4) Tourism mierda A weet Ue Fee (Sooo) ar Tea wf CET A ge a) ww dare (1) 3 Patio seit 8 (2) aff a (3) wfaet vd der & (4) tier a Which one of the following is not correctly matched? Country Port (1) Somalia Berbera (2) Yemen Mocha (3) australia Port Elizabeth (4) Sri Lanka Trincomalee 17 (Pro)17P/207/17 Set No. 1 84, 55. 56. a1) fra 4 a why gira ae 2? a are (1) Steere ada (2) oA Arar (3) sitegferar ae eter (4) acter ferarrcti ‘The population density obtained through division of total population of an area by the total agricultural land is termed () agricultural density {2) physiological density (3) arithmetic density [4] economic density fal ae A ga sadn @ ga FR yf a Praia ah oe REE ET Fe He Cy ef@ aaer (2) Fe FRE (3) semfirita eaca (4) anfte ero Of the top ten most populous countries of the world, Asia has fea & wif ca aalfte sagen aa aut ta cfr ae (yy 4 25 (3) 6 4) 7 Which one of the following countries has recently recorded maximum decline in population? (1) France (2) Sweden. (3) Japan. (4) Bulgaria ppafatan tai A 8 PRT re A sete F aaftrore ger iho fer BF (1) 38 Q) AR {3) 778 (a) setter 1857. 58. 59. ey 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 Which one of the following has been declared as the World Population Year? frefafer 4 8 Ba fea oeriea af elie fea aa 8? (1) 1972 (2) 1973 (3) 1974 (4) 1975 Who among the following identified five stages of economic development in the world? (1) Ashley (2) Grass (3) List (4) Rostov Rofeea #2 feat fava i ons fiers & cia eed/aot A eer fea? () ter (2) 7a (3) ferme (4) deta Who ueated imbalanced (econumic) growth as a pre-requisite to econotme development? (1) Hirschman — (2) Perroux (3) Rostov (4) Myrdal fem? oergiem (suite) fz at ontle faara & fem anaes amr? (1) et (2) Fae (3) tetra (4) Ter Who emong the following has not been associated with works in the field of regional development and planning? (1) L. S. Bhat (4) ¥.L. 8. Prakash Rao (3) C. R. Pathak (4) R. L. Singh fer da ah mets fee wd Aten & ds A wd @ weary a arb? (1) We Wo HE (2) to Uo we yar Ta (3) te ako Tem (A ~ me fag 70)17P/207/17 Set No. 1 61. 62. (31) Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R), Select your answer from the codes given below : (A} Uttar Pradesh is the most populous State of India but it is not at the top in terms of development (R] The State is characterized with regional disparities in levels of development. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) {2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true (R) is false {4) (A) is false (R) is true oper Re re Bl wy at get (4) ote ge at amet (a) HA fan oT 2 TS faa me az a wel oe ft: (A) I alli a Neal we 8 (B) aet ae } we A gfe A were fam vet ar 21 (1) (A) oft 0 eet we & wei (R), (A) A we caren 2 (2) (@) aie (Rar wh E seg (A), (A) Ht ae sare ae (3) (A) a 2 (RI Tee (4) (A) wd g (R) FA? Which one of the following is not an indicator of development? (1) Per capite concumption of electricity (2) High literacy rate (| High land productivity (4) High birth-rate 2063. 64. 1 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 fra fata wm feere an dae agi 87 () ff aafts faqa sain (2) 3S we 3) v= yf sre (4) Fa wae Which one of the following is not an Inter-State Regional Plan? {\) South-East Resource Region Plan (2) Royal Seema Plan (9) Western Ghats Plan (4| National Capital Region Plan fe 18 a Uh sraptehies fate ae 87 (1) em-qgi wane oa eho (2) trast then Redox (3) Wah we Rete (4) ag THE az (Gottosme) ator Which one of the following is not used as a variable for measuring Human Development Index? (1) Literacy 2) Per capita GDP (3) Urbanization (4) Life expectancy fe 88 fone wile wes Sra quate area fre wee ee hae ene (1) are (2) Wa sae AoPotto (3) Freer ee 21 To;17P/207/17 Set No. 1 65. 66. 67. Bn Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Rivers Dams (1) Mahanadi Hirakud (2) Damodar Matatila (3) Chamhal Gandhisagar (4) Tapi Kakrapara, fea gai 3 8 ate gata aa 8? ateat af (1) Ferret BiTRe (2) ater meer (3) WRT afer ay ae OTT Which one of the following energy sources contributes maximum to the power sector? Q) Hyder (Q) Nuclear (3) Thermal (4) Wind fra gat ated Fa ata afte eee a anf treed Bar 27 (1) aefla (2) omens (3) ata (4) ay The location of Hindalco at Renukoot (UP} basically owes to its proximity to (1) raw material source (2) vast market {3) abundant power (4) cheap labour feooremt A eRe (owe) % aafeafe ar sya Fro 3 Freeat gy aa Ae % aa (2) faera ara a (3) vada fs 3 (Ay WA 8% 2269. 70. 71. en 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 Which one of the following is the leading producer of coal in India? (1) Jharkhand — (2) Odisha (3) Chhattisgarh (4) West Bengal fier 4 8 ata ort F atqer a oot sees 8? () WReg (2) aifeen (3) adtane (4) vffaq are Which among the following is the most suitable State for location of sugar industry? (1) Uuar Pradesh (2) Bihar (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Madhya Pradesh fer Fa aha Sl sede fl sft a fore wataae arr 27 (l) oe wer (2) faer (3) afierrg (4) Teen Coromondal Coast of India receives its mojor share of rainfall dusing (1) January-February (2) March-May (3) June-Sepiember (4) October-November ariterea az vt asi ar oifiiizy sm ear 8 (1) Hah-wet Fy adoat yf 3) afer 3 (4 wage rae Which one of the following is the mica-mining town of India? (1) Giridih (2) Hazaribagh (3) Kodarma (4) Dhanbad fra 48 ata ra a oe ry ater ae 37 0) fife (2) eater (3) Fen (8) arg 23 PTO)17P/207/17 Set No. 1 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. a) Which one of the following is largest lignite coal producing field in India? (1) Singrauli (2) Neyveli (3) Makum {4) Karanpura fe fa eh ons A Tea fees wae Se BH A? (1) Fame (2) 3h (3) ER a) age ‘The demographic divide in India corresponds with (1p 1911 (2) 1931 {3} 1951 (4) 1971 ana a sais farses da art & i) i911 4 (2) 1931 4 (3) 1951 9 (4) 19712 Which one of the following National Highways does not pass through the National Capital Region? fea meat f @ ath ofe caer aa a we gon? (1) NH-1 (2| NH-4 (3) NHS (4) NH-10 Chhatusgarh was formed as India’s (1) 22nd State {2) 23rd State (3) 25th State (4) 26th State ateng war a ae (\) 228 ost FTF Q) 238 wa wT g) ost tH SF (a) 264 wor eo Bind Valley is a charecteristic feature of Q) Karst topography (2) Arid topography (3) Glacial topography (4) Coasial topography 2477. 78. 79. 80, (34) 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 aie urd om fafire ogi & (}) ae Fae A (2) Ys vara By (3) fear seraa A (4) wa Fara H Scandinavia is a suitable region for development of hydroelectricity due to availability of 1) steep slopes (2) huge lakes (3) great rivers (4) waterfalls shia sefiga fara % fee wH Kym dae, Fras am 2 fae () fa ar ta) fans aie A fo) wah aah A (a) SENET A Which one of the following is a latent {type of) resource? (1) Coal {2) Uranium (3) Mineral oil (4) Sunshine fra a ais we yea dane 2? (1) Ber (2) aia (3) aa aa (4) herr Which one of the following is not under the influence of Mediterranean type of climate? (1) [aly (2) Venezuela (3| Central Chile (4) California fer @ ah wmeremta ama & yaa doa a7 (1) eet (2) Bauer (3) Fea feet (4) tefettfar The largest part of Continental type of climate lies in (1) North America (2) Africa (3) South America, (4) Eurasia 25 ro)17P/207/17 Set No. 1 al. 82. 83. (31) Tega seary a FEA HT oT e () sao oftfter F (2) saber F (3) efaeh ofr F (4) Ben Which one of the following is known as the carbon sink of the Earth? (1) Antarctic Ice Sheet (2) Sahara Desert (3) The Equatorial Rain Forest (4) Taiga Forest fret 3 8 FR geal on ahh fir wer sr 2? (1) srerhfesm fA aI (2) BERT WRT (3) fagadtdla warmer a4 4) ma Which one of the following countries stands second in terms of per hectare yield of rice? (1) China (2) India (3) Indonesia —(4)- Vietnam fs ti 9 8 ath war BoA be ore A eS EH? (1) it (2) Ara (3) serra (4) Praca Detroit (USA) is knowa for its (1) iron and steel industry (2) textile industry (3) automobile industry (4) chemical industry fegige (Goede) SMT Tet 2 (1) ate Gears sea & Fre (a) aa Fain & farm ig) treed sei & FR (4) ware seta & fee 2684. 85. 86. 87, (31) 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 Which one of the following tropical deserts is located in South America? (1) Atacama (2) Thar (3) Kalahari (4) Sonoran Fir sorafeatta meee #8 ata chia) setter a fear 87 (1) stare (2) oe (3) Brerrertt (4) ata Which one of the following is the most important factor in delineation of a planning region? (Q) Physiographic unit (2) Demographic heterogencity (3} Uniformity of problems (4) Functional unity feefeiga 48 @h-ar uw ftom ste & cheer a aad meet aren a? (1) sLesrephe gg (2) aifeshra rear (3) Brent ft wera (4) safer wear P. Sengupta in 1968 proposed regionalization of India based on {I} single-tier (2) two-tier (3) three-tier (4) four-tier tho Gaga A 1968 4 ua ar wei venfee fet (1) Greer (2) Farrer (3) Prete (4) saree Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) und other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below + (A) The delineation of planning regions must always begin with discovery of micro-regions. {R) Micro-regions are easily identifiable, (1) Both (A) and (R} are true and (R} is the correct. explanation of (2} Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (3) (A) is true (R) fs tatoe (4) (A) is false (R) is true (a) explanation of (A) 27 ro}17P/207/17 Set No. 1 88. 89. (31) A mem fee re Si wm a wer (A) Ie BR wT HOT (R) HST fe Mi Ae feu me az 8 we oR GPE () Prise see ar dives eda ag seat A ate & mer Fer aTeTl (B) By eu BTA a gear wT wee 2 (1) (a) ait (Ry at a Bo (R), (4) A BA ATT e (2) (A) afte (ay dat we Bovey (RY, (A) A AA maT ae 8 (3) (a) 88 @ (RY Tee (4) (A) Tet & (R) Bat 2 Which one of the following countries derives the highest percentage of its energy from nuclear power? (1) Sweden (2) Belgium (3) France (4) Germany fie dei 3 a ae at sal at seem site ony ae Bo HTT 8? (1) ete (2) afer (3) sia (a) #th Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? State Town (\) Wisconsin Detroit (2) Texas Houston (9) Washington Seattle sacramento {4} California 28ot. 92, (31) 17P/207/17 Set No. L fit gall F& ay gifts wet 27 Tey 7 (1) rears fete (2) trae Gea (3) aafemres Renee (4) Sferet hh tart If population of an area is increasing at the rate of 2-1 percent per annum, it will double in (1) 37 years (2) 33 years (3) 29 years (4) 28 years RA A soem oR of a oko a ae A a me TA soerft (1) 37 a4 4 (2) 33 af # (3) 29 ad (4) 28 at Which one of the following countries hae the lowest birth-rate in the world? (A) Sweden (2) Italy (3) Monaco (4) Philippines fea i #8 fil some fee @ Pam 87 Q) efida (2) vert (3) tatat (4) Rettig Footloose industries are example of {l) primary activities (2) secondary activities (3) tertiary activities ae (4) quaternary activities 29 Pro,17P/207/17 Set No. 1 We as sehr seen z () wei feat a (2) fies eared ar (3) Ghee Beene =r (4) aad feenait ar 93. Pygmies are inhabitants of (1) Columbia Basin (2) Congo Basin (3) Po Basin (4) Irrawaddy Basin frets Fra & (1) steerer aftr (2) aint afer 3) 9 af & (@) wad afta 94, Which one of the following is not correctly matched? (1) Downs Australia (2) Prairies North America (3) Lanos South America (a) Velds Eurasia fa} a ats gaa ae? () a sateen 2) ata art aff gy arta ezoth atferT a) ee aie (31) #97. (31) 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 Which one of the following is the cold current of Atlantic Ocean? (i) Florida current (2) Aguthas current (3) Benguela curves (4) Brazilian current fe 4 8 at sects aera A Sh oT 2? () eter rr) URE Tg) FET OMT (4) ERT aT . Which one of the following is the leading producer of natural rubber in the world? (1) Thailand (2) Indonesia (3) Malaysia (4) Vietnam fa fa ah Bee ar cnet sigfte ca sere 97 Q) age @) weer (3) Feaferer (4) Raa Which one of the following National Highways passes through Nagpur and Hyderabad? fr ogra Ft ats serge ee Receng vee ToT FF Q) NEL (2) NH-4 (3) NH-7 (4) NH-10 Lavasa, said to be an eco-city, is located in the State of (1) Himachal Pradesh Q) Karnatalea (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Maharashtra Ta, UH Ba WR er, fr 8 3 aa (1) ference sar ¥,. 2). (3) aPremg 4 _. (wee 31 @To)17P/207/17 Set No, 1 99, Match List—I with List—II and choose the correct answer from the code given below : List—I (Thermal Power Station) _—_List—If (State} (a) Ukai (i) Jharkhand (b) Patratu (i) Gujarat {) Pench (ii) Maharashtra {d) Dabhol (iv) Madhya Pradesh Code : @ &) a a) fi) (yi) (2 Ga) Gi) @ (i) 8 i) Gy) 4 @ ww 8 (i) Teta hh 8 Gia ay oer AA AE me | EL TH BIE ahi (a ats ez) ah—o (a4) (a) Berg () areas (b) Tat (i) ta io ii} FETT (a) ite, (iv) WeANeT ee: @ ®& @ qj a Q (wv) (iii), Q @ @ FF Ge) @ 8 a) @ @# @ Oo (a1) 32100. 101.- 102, (31) 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 In which one of the following countries per hectare very high yield of wheat basicaily owes to high technological applications? (1) Brazit (2) Canada (3) Argentina —(4) ‘Netherlands fra dat #8 feel A wt te age sa oe YER: Tet Te & agin & were Belt 87 (1) sister : (2) ret (3) aren (@) Aeevea The bulk of railway coaches in india are manufactured in (1) Punjab and Tamil Nadu (2) Odisha and West Bengal (3) Tamil Nadu and West Bengal (4) West Bengal and Punjab Yea anh feast ar strane Ais et = Q) Fam aang a (2) shfser we afer sirer F (3) aierng te vier ane F (4) WRT de a dare Which one of the following countries of South Asia is most urbanized? (1) India (2) Sri Lanka (3) Bhutan (4) Pakistan afi often & Aer teh tS whe aaifies aati 87 (1) ara (2) eras (3) "grr (4) safeeerer . The highest percentage of tribal population in India is recorded in (t) Jharkhand 2} Mizoram (3) Chbattingneh (4) Nagaland ora a sear Seton #1 wile uo aif 2 gy wees gy PHA (8) fleTy a (4) arts 33 70)17P/207/17 Set No. 1 104, 105. 106, 1) Which one of the following States of India has the highest percentage of area under cultivation as well as production of soyabean? (2) Rajasthan (2) Madhya Pradesh (9) Utter Pradesh (4) Maharashtra wea & fra wed 2a feed cats A go orefa de wer sere SN aT wftra aaa 8? (1) We (2) Haye (3) FR We (4) AER What distinguishes the humid continental climate from the climate of tropical and sub-tropical regions? (1) Cold winters (2) High temperature (3) Heavy rains (4) Frequent droughts and nadhia sear A sen ae autor seat A weary OFT Ba Hee 8 () xia aq (2) Fa a (3) are ast (4) 3-3 RT The urban population of the world is growing faster than its rural population because of (1) high birth-rate in towns (2) low death rate in towns (3) rural-urban migration (4) high death rate in rural areas faa 3 arte arco aren saci & chee vit Bae wh 2, SIT? Q) art fa FA- Q) we a FR Ye (3) Wet Boater aa A ast (4) Tm Sat A va GE 34107. 108. 109. (31) 17P/207 /17 Set No. 1 Which one of the following is known as: the steel capital of the world? (2) Mid-Rhine. Region (2) Pittsburgh Region (3) Rubr-Westphalia Region (4) Moscow-Gorky Region Pe 4 a ae fia A wore court & oF sear aren 27 (1) Fea or (2) Freee Q) Seem ar (4) Brent at Which one of the following is not correctly matched? States Manganese Ore (1) Andhra Pradesh Sofiptrain (2) Karnataka Chitradurg (3) Odisha Balaghat (4) Madhya Pradesh Jhabua fia 3 a ate gies wat a7 I Sirtst sre (1) ara aya (2) arte faagi 6) site EIT (4) Femen agar The Ganga Action Plan was initiated in (1) 1956 (ay) 1976 (3) 1986 (4) 1996 TH BR TT I AY TA a oe (i) 1986 4 (2) 1976 # @) 1986 # (4) 1996 ¥ 35 fra)17P/207/17 Set No. 1 110. Match List—I with List—Il and choose the correct answer fram the code given (34) below > List—I (States) (@) Odisha (b) Maharashtra () Kerala (d) West Bengal Code > @ & qa) ai) Gy iv) 2) Gy) tat) 3 fi) = 68 ® a Gey) (a) @ (ii) (i) i) List (Shipyards) () Garden Reach (i) Hindustan Shipyard (iii) Mazagaon Docks (iv) Cochin Shipyard ah at qed 8 gate Ge wa HS Re we RB ae oe ght: Ar (ama) (a) afer (by ERIE ) a (a) ea aT Re: ® om © a) Gi) Gi) tv) Q 6 (vy) g @ & @ a) a {d) @ Gi (iv) aia (sta) @ me te (i) fegAR Res (ii) Tanta Stee (iv) ate Breas 36111. 11a, 113, 114, (32) 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 Which one of the following is the oldest Department of Geography of the Country? (1) Geography Department, Banaras Hindu University (2) Geography Department, Allahabad University (3) Geography Department, Aligath Muslim University (4) Geography Department, Calcutta University fa 4 8 eh Qe a wae yen pte Sere 87 ()) pike Rear, ah fee, freafioee (2) ire Rae, gerrerar PeeerRrerere ©) Rie fram, aeing gfe fate (4) Gia fem, serra rafeneer When the bottom of a number of faults occurring at a place remains in the same direction, this is termed-as (1) step fault (2) reverse fault (3) thrust fault (4) normal fault 98 8 wa we Us af sist wr as ow A fier Fam, a ak we () ort Ft (a) gem sit (a) ante ier (4) ara sir ~~ Ruhr Industrial Region is located in (1) France (2) Germany (3) tt) Russia wt ohehire da safer 2 ee, (1) sate 2) wih F (3) Reh F (4) ea Who among the following constitute the largest tribal group of India? (1} Gonds (2) ‘Todas (3) Santhals —™a Tharus 37 PT}17P/207/17 Set No, 1 115. 116. 117. (31) fra 3 a aca ar gem saad ah sare 2? (a) tts (2) ar (3) Foret (4) ae Who asserted that ‘man is product of Earth surface’? (1) BE. Huntington (2) G. Taylor (3) Carl 0. Sauer (4) E. C. Semple fem ea ge we fe or qge A aaw e'? (i) do ef (2) tho Ben (3) art who Brat (4) % Ho ara Which one of the following forces is associated with ‘Ferrel's Law’? (1) Frictionel force (2) Centripetal force 13) Coriolis force (4) Pressure gradient force Bra attra #8 att ‘Uta fam! 8 aah 27 (1) wer act (Q) aie wa (3) AR se (4) TH Naa TT Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer ‘rom the codes given below : (A) Growth of urban population in India is not Jeading to increase in the level of urbanization. (R) Rate of growth of urban population in India has not significantly dectined. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2} Both (A} and {R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) {3} (A) is true (Ris Halo" (4) (A) is false (R).is true 38118. 119. (34) 17P/207/17 Set No. 1 3 wert Re Me RL GR BL wer (A) ate BE ST rer (RYH oe A Re Te ti a Ra ay ee o we aR yy: (A) ore 4 anda serie F af, ante & an F afe a wee aa 21 () wee Farha senior tafe a agers wa ae Ret () @) ot) Bef ae Ba Oy, 4) Fwd orem t (2) (a) ait (R) oat we € oq AR), (A) A at wreT aa (3) (A) Fat @ (R) wae (4) (A) Tee @ (R wa When did the world experience its first major energy crises? (1) 1968 (2) 1973 (3) 1978 (4) 1983 Rea? aa ry aga oat dee. ar agua fen? 4) 1968 4 (2) 1973 # (3) 1978 ¥ (4) 1983 zt Mongolo-Dravidian races in India are found in which one of the following areas? (1) West Bengal anc Coastal Odisha (2) Rajasthan and Kashmir Valley {3) Himalayan Region and Assam (4) Gujarat and South-West Madhya Pradesh. witch-giaten satel ane # fee da fe dx Food art 8? (0) wi ne ade sien (2) RT Wa 8 Fe ET SFT rg mae 39 . PTO)17P/207/17 Set No. 1 120. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? States Jron Ore Mines (0) Kerala Kozhikode (2) Karnataka Bellary-Chitradurga (3) Odisha Namagiri Hills (4) Meharashtra, Ratnagiri fer gat 4 a ate gate ad 2? wr oie sree wert (1) et aritetet (2) artea agit-fagt (3) atten aT face (4) FeRTR z want tae 40 DITIBI}H~1133sata & fee fea Ge inet am oye mam TC & Sat PK aaa tet a art agar 8d fae) 1, ae oferm fen % 30 fine & om A 2a a fe ce A ah qe the Bosh a oe go 7 8) cfm age at aA Tn aA gam aera ee-ftes at ta ae we A gut yf wi an al 2. Tia RT frre ver seve & ofits, fra oo we ae i ge es we Fa ee) 3. SNe sem S fen war 1 ed a @ Ag ate 7 a fga BP Gee saree AT Rear anda, deer ame veo tt acai Pm rin 4. SR ogee aerate ar mae ce args woo Ft fratfie wr we fea! Ss. eT Som ye we te & omen sgamie freffis we fed oer AS ea TA Ao wre wet-setl araers oh at wergfaar a mats aor ew eae afae eerie ford 6. to To aie ER SeEME Tem, Te geea tea a ae Mem Cafe aR) cat wea siqenin do ole aie yo one Ya So oh fail? F oeftetert ot onpafn wef) 7 AG A oltads a fdas goo waits dor aed aren ae oH oleae a TT 7 aT B. gery 2 wees ae & an Safepn sot fea 78 ti mate wey & dalere see & fet onvat oer ye at water vie & amr fet re ye wt sera & sam wow Ie Td eed & oa 7 2 TT an er 9. vee te & sah a Sa we a ga Ae at we a aie a ame ae RK ae WS apd wet wo ae Se eT FT eM to, om = fw am oe ee ore ifa see ace A ST wt Bh fe aay fa wer aT Tee Taf Sor aI 2 a aan cfs & ame fea a at Gt @ ant de 21 Re wed ee sw fea HA 1 ep ae & fra we gies TEE & are ae ween sey ye we wT at 12, van} 3a Baa aogroore saws when was Hom wz) 13, ede wee AY A eA wher oe Bane ot at oof a tet 14. HERE ged vhe A anes ee ie een 8 dae Pacer ge Patter ie aa, ont emai