Set No. 1 18P/207/21 , = 79 a otal No. of Printed Pages + 48 Question Booklet No si % L] [To be filed up by the candidate by blue/ black ball-point pen} serial No. of OMR Answer Sheet toil No. Wte thedigtts in Words) os. esstsseee (rel 5 tre Code No. and Date - a . (Signature of Invigilator} Use only blue/black ball-point 10. 1 12. 13. 14. Within 30 minutes of the i i contains all the pages i Question Booklet bring j stion Booklet to ensure that is missing. In case of faulty | except the Admit Card. A second OMR Answer Number in the space 30, write the Question plicable) in appropriate provided at the top, Booklet Number, Cen! No overwriting is allowe DMR Answer Sheet and A Any change in the aforesai anfair means. Each question in this Booklet is (2 answers. For each question, you are to ecord the correct option on the OM) by darkening the appropnate circle in the ‘orresponding row of the OMR Answer Sheet, by ball-point pen as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the OMR Answer Sheet: sor each question, darken only one circle on the OMR Answer Sheet. If you darken more than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect. Note that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish to attempt a question, leave all the circles in the corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero mark) For rough work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the end of this Booklet D1 completion of the Test, the Candidate must handover the OMR Answer Sheet to the Invigilator ; the examination room/hall, However, candidates are allowed to take away Text Booklet and copy a OMF Answer Sheet with them. Candidates are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the Test fa candidate attempts to use any form of unfair means, he/she shall be liable to such punishment as the Jniversity may determine and impose on him/her. a safe arama Fete in the entries of Roll No., Question Bookk Roll No. and OMR Answer Sheet Ser niries is to be verified by the Invi No. and Set No. (if any) on No. on the Question Booklet for, otherwise it will be taken asSPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Te a & fau we18P/207/21 Set No. 1 No. of Questions/s¥t &t Hem : 120 Time/B7T ; 2 Hours/W Full Marks/ots ; 360 Note: (1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 marks One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question. aftrefies wel ol ea A Bl yar St) sete wer 3 sie ar 2) wee wed oat fey we aie ar SET wets ogee wer a a ST wm (2) If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct answer, choose the closest one. afe watts defers ot at a & fee win a, at freer ad or a 1, Where are coral reefs mostly found? (1) Tropical region (2) Polar region (3) Temperate region (4) Equatorial region (88) 1 (P.T.O.)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 (88) vara fafa aaftraigra: wel ae sich 8? (1) sorpfeardta 3ea (2) vata seat (3) Bastdter see (4) areata weer Formation of Mid-Atlantic Ridge is a typical example of the process of (A) Convergence (B) Divergence (C) Shear (D) Sea-floor spreading Select the correct answer from the codes given below : Code : (1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C)_—_(3) (B) and (D) (4) (A) and () wa-aaifes Fen % fmt Ft sie faire sae & (A) afc (Pre) =r (8) fase a (C) AH (D) aaa wa & fear ar 4A feu me ez a edt om Git: ¥e: (1) (A) aa (B) (2) (B) TI (C) (3) (B) 44a (D) (4) (A) THT (G) Which one of the following climate types results due to seasonal shifting of the planetary pressure and wind belts? (1) Mediterranean 2) Equatorial (3) West European (4) Hot Desert(88) 18P/207/21 Set No. | frefettad eng wart fa fea a Sera wecta agg wa van ORat & chat vara & are that 3? (1) yearn (2) fagaeta (3) afer aria (4) 30 Feet Where are the Zulus found? (1) Australia (2) South Africa (3) Zambia (4) Uganda 3a set wa oa e7 (1) aigfeen (2) afar onfter (3) safer (4) Fs Which one of the following is a tropical grassland? (1) Veldt (2) Steppes (3) Prarie (4) Llanos Pefatad 4 a ate we sorafteta oa ac 8? (1) as 2) Bt (3) Sua (4) ante The geosynclinal theory of mountain building was propounded by whom? (1) Daly (2) Holmes (3) Kober (4) Suess ada Pato ar gate fergra feed arr vfernfea gar? (1) Set Q) aa (3) tar (4) @a 3 (P70)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 7. Which one of the following is the wind produced geomorphic feature? (1) Rias (2) Hamada (3) Drumlins (4) Sinkhole frafataa # a ata agaha y-arpta car 28? (1) Rare (2) FATS (3) 3a (4) tara 8. Quartzite is formed by the metamorphosis of which of the following? (1) Sandstone (2) Marble (3) Granite (4) Hematite fofafar 4 fea & word 8 ares ara 2? () weet & (2) ara (3) TAR & (4) tarene & 9. Which one of the following is the landform of Karst Region? (1) Ramp Valley (2) Zeugen (3) Arete (4) Blind Valley frafafar #8 ata are ve A erevsft 2? q) to ad (2) sR (3) fet Hea (4) Sa ag 10. Which one of the following is associated with two parallel faults? (1) Strike Valley (2) Hogback (3) Graben (4) Anticlinorium frafafiaa 4 2 ata a gaan veil @ aeafers 27 (1) afeerra ere (2) eit (3) 7a (4) ara (88) 4ll. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. 1 Study the following statements and select the correct answer from the given codes : (i) There is gradual increase in the velocity of the seismic waves at the base of lower crust. (ii) The average density of the rocks of lower crust is greater than that of the upper crustal rocks. (iii) The outer core of the Earth is in molten form (iv) The mantle core boundary is determined by the Moho-discontinuity. Code : (1) (i) and (ii) are correct (2) @) and (ii) are correct (3) (iii) and (iv) are correct (4) (i) and (iii) are correct fra seri an oremes Fife car fea me a a et ae Gfe @ aa: age ye A yatta doit A af a afte gfe act 21 (i) 2a: yge % det a ster sre sae agua stot a afte ear 2 (i) Get ar are over afer staan FU (iv) Get & wae area & sea Fy Str ar Prater wel-saraca gr eat 2 (1) Gi) Gi) WEE 2) G) TH (i) wae (3) (ii) TH (iv) FAR (4) (i) TH Gi) FAB 5 (PT.0.)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 12. 13, 14. 15. (88) Which one of the following planets is known as ‘ringed planet’? (1) Neptune (2) Plato (3) Uranus (4) Saturn frefefiad mei i BRA acre we’ aH a ora ser 2? (1) ae (2) 7 (3) seu (4) a What does create ‘Nunatak’? (1) River (2) Wind (3) Underground water (4) Glacier ‘qaen’ fired ca then 27 (1) 7a (2) 444 (3) yf ster (4) fear “Thermosphere’ lies between which of the following? (1) Troposphere and Stratosphere (2) Mesosphere and Ozonosphere (3| Stratosphere and Mesosphere (4) _Ozonosphere and Ionosphere frfefisa 4 fea & neq ‘ommvee’ flue 8? (1) arwse wa ara (2) Tenge wd sige (3) FRAITTSa WS TEST (4) sisteea wa arse Which one of the following is known as ‘thunder cloud’? (1) Cirro-cumulus cloud (2) Cirro-stratus cloud (3} Cumulo-nimbus cloud (4) Strato-cumulus cloud16. 17. 18. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. frafafaa Fa fea ‘cite ae’ aed a7 (1) vaya are (2) Jam-ert ater (9) smear atest (4) Ret-aareh areet The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone during the South-West monsoon season ir India shifts towards the (1) North (2) East (3) South (4) West ane 4 cfaeh-aftet aiagt ag 4 arqu-soreRacta afar 32 fleas at 2 Q) ws or 2) ge Hat = 3) cam A ak (4) eM AF sik Which air pressure belt is called ‘Horse Latitude’ ? (1) Polar high belts (2) Equatorial low belts (3) Sub-polar low belts (4) Subtropical high belts ah-at ager 82 ‘ona Hare seer 2? (1) gate va Feat (2) fagadta fer tft (3) s3-gaa fr Afar (4) sth ar teat Who among the following introduced the ‘principle of activity’ in Huma Geography? (1) F. Ratzel (2) J. Brunhes (3) Vidal de la Blache (4) R. Hartshorne 7 (P.T.O18P/207/21 Set No. 1 19. 20. 21. (88) frafafiaa 3 8 Pret ara opita 4 ‘frarfteen an fagra’ sented fran? (1) We tera (2) do az (3) STgaet AT SCART (4) 3to erextd Toda tribe in India is mainly found in which State? (1) Uttarakhand (2) Jharkhand (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Rajasthan der sronft Ge: ard & fea asa Fae ard 2? (1) Serres (2) aTeavs (3) area (4) 73ReA Which one of the following is not correctly matched? (1) Congo Basin—Negrito (2) Scandinavia—Nordic (3) Siberia—Alpine (4) Kalahari—Bantu Negros frafefaa 4 a ata gift ae 8? Q) art afta (2) Shfsateen—aifea (3) Agata (4) saree aig, set The concept of Genre de vie (‘distinctive way of life’) was Propounded by (1) E. Reclues (2) Vidal de la Blache (3) Jean Brunhes (4) Patrick Geddes ort ¢ at (‘faire stem waft’) A deer weqa A ae of (1) te Taegan (2) are Za eer ge (3) 3H am am (4) tf fifa ert22. 23. 24. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. 1 Who among the following formulated Concentric Zone Theory of internal structure of urban centres? (1) E. Burgess (2) H. Hoyt (3) E. Ullman (4) C. Harris fefeitaa 4 a Pee arte Sai A ots wan ar wesh da (ste) free ferme fren? (1) $0 afta (2) tae eae (3) ¢o ser (4) tte eta Which one of the following are cold currents? Select the correct answer from the codes given : (a) Brazil Current (b) Humboldt Current (c) Oyashio Current (d) Kuroshio Current Codes : (1) fa) and (b) (2) (a) and (@) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (b) and (a frafafiad 4 8 sta Sat ued ey fee we Ea a aa oa gfe: (a) after em (b) waite ert (c) start ort (@) Fart ea Fe: (1) (a) 72 (b) (2) (a) Tar (a) (3) (b) aat (ce) (4) (b) sen (a) Which one of the following are coral islands? (1) Bermuda (2) Andamans (3) Mauritius —(4)_Nicobars. 9 (P.7.0.)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 25. 26. 27. (88) frfafes 38 ay we ym du 4? (1) 3st (2) SSH (3) ards (4) Ate Agricultural land belongs to which one of the following resource category? (1) Ubiquities (2) Commonalities (3) Rarities (4) Uniquitics: pits yf fafaten dae ae Fa ead crafts 2? (1) wager wife (2) area ere aie (3) fara ate (4) Gra ae What do ‘Furious Fifties’ refer to? (1) Polar wind (2) Monsoon wind (3) Trade wind (4) Westerlies ‘sq vara’ PRP wea aT 2? (1) gaa war (2) sige wat (3) ate var (4) UOT a In Weber’s theory, the location of industry is basically guided by (1) Government Policy (2) Economies of Scale (3) Transportation Cost (4) Labour Cost am & feared a, sam a wera sya: frafia ata 2 (1) aa tft grr (2) YRar wart froma grt (3) oRaga ema gro (4) aa ama eT18P/207/21 Set No. 1 28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the given codes 29. (88) List-I (City) (A) Osaka (B) Hamburg (C) Detroit (D) Pittsburgh Codes : (a) eB © ©) ) (ii) ) (iv) ii) (3) i) Gi) iv) (2) (4) List-II (Industry) () Ship building (i) Textiles (iii) fron and Steel (iv) Automobiles a~ 8 © © (i) (i) (iti) iy) (ii) Gy) i) ad @ qa a wita fe wer fee me Ee a aM oH Gr : WH (7) (A) tera (B) trot (c) gre (0) Rewer Re: 4 8 © Pe ) a 6) i) i) (2) (4) aa (sam) (@) We rater (i) Tea Frater (ii) Hte-zeTTA (iv) Bret -mneat ” 8 © © Gi) (iv ii) (iv) (ii) Who is the author of The Nature of Geography ? (2) R. J. Chorley (4) R. Hartshorne (1) H. H. Barrows (3) Carl Sauer (P.7.0)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 31. 32. (88) RAR aie SHITE H Sa BR? (1) Te Ge at (2) 3Ro Ho witch (3) art area (4) amo weet Who propounded the theory of agricultural location? (1) Von Thinen (2) Weber (3) Philbrick (4) Christaller aft orafeafa ar fergra fret sfinfa fear? (1) ata eta (2) Fa (3) Pref (4) fReter When was the Survey of India set up? wa oie sfear ft car Fa ee? (1) 1792 (2) 1767 (3) 1857 (4) 1947 Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (A) Plantation agriculture is highly developed in South-East Asia. (R) South-East Asia remained under the European rule for long time Codes : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true, (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, (R) is true.33. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. 1 fa a aerr eee 8) um at oifrmas (a) oft Get St ae (R) BBW FR 21 Prafetes ai a adh gw fic : (A) efaoh-qaf after 4 arm pti oraftrs farefer 21 (R) afaeh-qaf ofr ara ama ae aha wee Hower 21 Fe: () Gl ate (R) At ace & ger (a) A Fa TET (R), 21 (2) (A) at (R) SH wer S wey (A) A aE ware (R), AE aI (3) (A) WI @, (R) Wea V1 (4) (A) Tet %, (R) Wea al Which one of the following is not correctly matched? Ship-building Centres (USA) (1) Houston (2) Sparrows Point (3) New Orleans (4) Camden Prafafaa 3 @ ate wal gfe wet a? aia-Ratr aq (qouwoue) (1) Ret (2) Ss wige (3) > safeties (4) ea State Texas Maryland Louisiana Florida 7.0.)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 34. 35. 36. 37. (88) What does ‘population pyramid’ illustrate? (1) Temporal growth of population (2) Spatial distribution of population (3) Age-sex structure of population (4) Occupational structure of population ‘Saaen flute’ ar fafia art 8? (1) Faen A ae af (2) ART a eri faa (3) SAHA AL siig-ferr Teer (4) sree At cara eet Which one of the following rivers is outcome of mainly faulting? (1) Mahanadi (2) Narmada (3) Cauvery (4) Mahi frefefiad afeai # a ata qeaa: vet ar ofera 87 (1) Rerat (2) Hat (3) wad (4) me Which one of the following rock formations is the richest in plant fossils? (1) Cuddapah (2) Siwalik (3) Vindhyan (4) Gondwana frafefiad str agg ata eu start fo aatfies aera 2? (1) 3s (2) Refers (3) fea (4) tiga Who developed the ‘core-periphery mode!’ of regional development? (1) Kuklinski (2) Isard (3) Friedman (4) Richardson38. 39. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. wréfire: rare & ‘Segoe aia’ at fret rata fare? (1) Genterest (2) smgené (3) frst (4) Prager The warm local winds blowing along the Eastern slopes of Rockies are called (1) Foehn {2) Sirocco (3) Chinook (4) Harmattan wa wa & qi cet wae arch write wh ca at aed a (1) Be (2) fertent (3) fers (4) ER As per 2017 data, which one of the fulluwiug developing countries has th lowest infant mortality rate? (1) India (2) Sri Lanka (3) Pakistan (4) Afghanistan 2017 & ates & sHen Frafefad frenetic: Sat Fa freer Arq selec fe 27 (1) et (2) otter (3) TARA (4) seenPrRar ‘The concept of Sustainable Development is based on which of the following? (1) Agenda 21 (2) Basic Need Approach (3) Brunddand Report (4) Human Development Index wad fara Ft deco Aefefsd ta fee m anenita 8? (1) Gist 21 (2) ARNE ora so (3) weet feted (4) ara Rane yaa 15 (P.T.C18P/207/21 Set No. 1 41. 42. 43. (88) Who propounded the Growth Pole Theory? (1] Boudeville (2) Perroux (3) Myrdal (4) Christaller af qa Rrgra fret sfrariaa fe? (1) state (2) ire (3) fea (4) freien Which one of the following is true about Representative Fraction (RF) ? (1) Numerator and denominator are in the same unit. (2) It is an average figure. (3) Numerator represents ground distance. (4) Denominator represents distance on map. vets fra (aoftte) & an a firfeisa 4 at wet e? (1) oer ow a aa EL 2) Fe ates aH a (3) aim aoacia qd Onn FT 2 (4) wari mF ah om a 2) In the global heat budget, what is the proportion of solar energy absorbed directly by the atmosphere? afer sen ae A ayesc gr seat ger A sieht arch Sat wr si fern 3? (1) 44% (2) 64% (3) 20% (4) 6% In Thornthwaite’s scheme of climatic classification, semi-arid type of humidity province is indicated by which symbol? (i) B (2) c (3) E (4) D45. 47. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. 1 aide Al werarq aise ater a org-qon vam ar amg ste fe fe a efter Bat 8? () Bw (2) cat (3) E wer (4) D mt Amravati City is located by which one of the following rivers? (1) Godavari (2) Krishna (3) Cauvery (4) Musi smoadt am frafafad 3 a fa ad we fea 37 (1) Areva (2) on (3) ee (4) at During which of the following periods, the Earth is supposed to have cooled from a hot gaseous state to molten state? (1) Quaternary (2) Triassic (3) Cambrian (4) Pre-Cambrian frafefaa 4G fiw raft A yeh wi eta seme @ flush ef oraen fafa ae 3h ft? (1) mete (2) eanfter (3) faa (4) Baar Which one of the following is associated with exogenetic forces? (1) River erosion (2) Volcanic activity (3) Continent forming movement (4) Faulting frafeftad 4 a ata ara act a arafaa 87 (1) 74 sre (2) sarenqaita fier (3) nergy Fatt dae (4) 33m 17 (P.T.0.)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 48. The following facts are associated with which geographer? (a) He was a German (b) He died in 1859. (c) He wrote the book Kosmos. (1) Ritter (2) Ratzel (3) Humboldt (4) Richthofen frefataa vem fee piece 2 arated 87 (a) aw (b) 37M Gy 1859 4 eI (c) 38h areata are gers feret! (1) fx (2) ta (3) wate (4) frees 49. Talcher coalfield lies in (1) Damodar Valley (2) Mahanadi Valley (3) Son Valley (4) Godavari Valley meet sae aa feat 2 (1) ait era (2) mere) evel (3) a wh (4) Tarad art F 50. Cumulative frequency curve is shown by what? (1) Ogive curve (2) Frequency curve (3) Histogram (4) Pie diagram (88) 1851. 52. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. 1 aed arcane aa fet aufar arn 3? (1) aro aw (2) arearat ax (3) sera (4) v8 ate Which one of the following States of India docs not have maritime boundary? (1) Kerala (2) West Bengal (3) Telangana (4) Maharashtra wna & freafefad osat a a feet aagt atm wet 2? QQ) ae (2) sR eet (3) AT (4) ser Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the given codes : List_l (Project) List-IT (River) (A) Almatti (i) Tapi (8) Idukki (ii) Ravi (C) Ranjit Sagar (ii) Krishna (D) Ukai (iv) Periyar Codes : 4 8 © oO 4 8) © a) Gi) 2 ww i) 8 @ @ @ Mm © @ © w& Wi 19 (P.T.0.)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 aa at qa @ ita Afi an Re me A a AA oe AT: aai-r (shat) (a) ores (8) gat (C) waite ane (0) 38 ge: (a) =«(B) OC) Qa) Gi) iG) 3) @ (ii) (iii) (2) (4) ain (7) (i) aft (i) TH (ii) FO (iv) Rare 4 8 © oO (vy) i) @ 8 w& Gy 53. Which one of the following has the longest international boundary with India? (1) China (1) a (2) wife (2) Pakistan (3) Nepal (4) Bangladesh frafetas #8 fea AL une & arr gad aed sania diet 27 (3) 30H (4) aires 54. The percentage of the Scheduled Tribes is highest in which one of the following States of India? (1) Arunachal Pradesh (3) Meghalaya (2) Mizoram (4) Nagaland una 4? agqgfaa sami A aan a team vitwa fefefaa ced a a fel R? QQ) 30a yest (2) fists (88) (3) Berea (4) ares55. 56. ST. 58. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. Which one of the following ports of India is located on Odisha Coast? (1) Haldia (2) Mumbai (3) Paradeep (4) Vishakhapatnam ora & frofefaa agonal F & ats—ar steer az w ates 8? (1) eee (2) Wad (3) weda (4) Provan Which one of the following has the highest elasticity? (1) Waterways (2) Railways (3) Airways (4) Roadways Prafeed 4 a feat Seam adem vat 27 (1) weet (2) tent (3) agar (4) eeaart Mark the odd out of the following : (1) Raniganj (2) Makum (3) Chandrapur (4) Jharia frafafor 4 a ata ai fafea Fie (1) wits (2) AREA (3) Faqe (4) afm Which one of the following crops has the largest percentage of irrigated area ¢ its net sown area in India? (1) Sugarcane (2) Paddy (3) Wheat (4) Oilseeds sna # frafafaa wat ta fret omnis sat yg wat Bit da a fhe ase sftera watts 87 (1) 7a (2) a (3) 7 (4) dee 21 (PTO18P/207/21 Set No. 1 59. 60. (88) ‘The biggest petro-chemical production centre in India is located at which of he following places? (1) Trombay (2) Jamnagar (3) Ankleshwar (4) Noonmati ara # ager sere ar awe oar Fy Frefetad ea A a wel ow fer 8? (1) ote (2) STATE (3) otReA (4) ard Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the following codes given : (A) West Bengal has very high population density. (R) West Bengal is the main rice producing State of the country. Codes : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true (R) is false. (4) (A) is false (R) is truc 4a a am Rene 81 cH wt ores (a) okt aat a ar (R) BT A fen 21 fee ne Frafafaa eat Ha at or ghe: (a) Vitae det A orden wae aT sate (R) Wear sire Ba HL WAG Baa TH TT ee: (1) (A) oie (R) SF ea F cen (a) A A mare (R), 2) (2) (A) ait (R) Set aca @ veg (A) A we TET [R), FA 2 (3) (A) Fea, (R) TT BI (4) (A) THA 2, (R) FIA 2261. 62. 63. 64 (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. 1 Which one of the following Tiger Reserves of India is located in Mizoram? (1) Buxa (2) Melghat (3) Bhadra (4) Dampha ure St refered are eeonaet (Rod) Fa ste fie F safer 87 (1) ae (2) Ferme (3) sar (4) S37 Which one of the following soil is most suited for tea plantation? (1) Alkaline (2) Alluvial (3) Acidic (4) Regur frofafad #8 shat fii aa ome & fee wats mgH 27 (1) ater (2) aig (3) seta @) Which one of the following rivers flows across all the three ranges of the Himalayas? (1) Sutlej (2) Chenab (3) Jhelum (4) Ravi frefatad aRat Fa ae femea A ai Al Ss an-an aed 8? (1) Aas (2) Pare (3) Ser (4) wa Which one of the following tribes of India belongs to the proto-Australoid race? (1) Inula (2) Santhal (3) Khasi (4) Tharu ona @ frafifaa # a ate sronfe stei-sieetas sont a aaa 3? (1) eer (2) dare (3) ari (4) are 23 (P.7.0.)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 65. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the gil (88) List-I (Region) (A) Karnataka Plateau (B) Pat Plateau (C) Malwa Plateau (D) Northern Circars Codes : (A) 8 © (D) (1) (iv) (iii) Gi) @ (2) (3) Gi) () (iv) Citi) (4) ven codes: List-II (Soil Type) () Regur (ii) Red soil {iii) Laterite soil {iv) Alluvial soil “a 8 | oO (i) fi) Gi) yy (ii) li) i) (iv) ae A ae @ gated Fae on feu me gat a a om afi ater (sea) (A) salem yer (B) We Tar (C) Wea Tae (D) 3a FER Re: 4) 8) © OO) Q) Gy) i) (2) 8 @ 8 & ww 4 24 at (yer wen) fy (ii) eet fae (ii) Aenge fet (iv) Sete Prt (A) 8B) © 0 () (i) it) Gy (i) il)66. 67. 68. 69. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. 1 Which one of the following is a characteristic of an anticyclone? (1) Cloudy weather (2) Strong wind (3) Descending wind (4) Temperature rise frofefiaa 4 a at wirawara #1 fate 2? (1) serge ater (2) tH oT (9) aR cach wr (4) aA fe Which one of the following is not correctly matched? (2) Rajhara~Chandrapur (2) Noamundi-Singhbhum (3) Kemmangundi-Bhadravati (4) Gurumahisani-Keonjhar frofetisd 4 a ate gifera set 8? (i) TR (2) Aargreftrenfa (3) Faryedlagiac (4) eateertaaier Which one of the following is an example of metamorphic rock? (1) Basalt (2) Marble (3) Limestone (4) Sandstone frafatad # a ata woratta wert aT screw 27 (1) Saree (2) Sra (3) a Fer (4) aya TR Which one of the following States of India has not been formed on the basis of linguistic homogeneity? (3) Odisha (2) Maharashtra (3) Sikkim (4) Karnataka 25 (P.E.O.)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 70. 71. 72. (88) una & fafa si a a fea fal ad anew & are ot ad fra 7 2? () aifear (2) FeRTg (3) fate (4) Aiea Which one of the following river valley projects is the joint venture of Andhi Pradesh and Odisha Governments? (1) Mayurakshi (2) Nagarjun Sagar (3) Pochampad (4) Machkund frafefiar ad ut ofeserat aa at ares wd atfem aarh at dqe oor 2 (1) Re (2) amma ar (3) she (4) Fuge Which one of the following is not a part of Homosphere? (1) Mesosphere (2) Thermosphere (3) Stratosphere (4) Troposphere Prafefaa 4 a a wast aT AM ag 8? (1) Fest (2) Tes (3) wRaTSS (4) area Which one of the following is not correctly matched? (1) Bhils-Rajasthan (2) Kadars-Kerala (3) Kukis-Himachal Pradesh (4) Rajis-Uttarakhand Prafafas 4 a staat um gait af 8? (1) ‘eases (2) Senet (3) gFt-ferraa wea (4) Tei-seran, 2673. 74, 75. 76. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. 1 Rudrasagar Development Scheme, approved by Planning Commission in 2012, was launched in which State? (1) Assam (2) Manipur (3) Sikkim (4) Tripura atom omar Ent 2012 4 fig earn fare atom fer uey F amiy A ne of? (1) 3am (2) afirge (3) fafa (4) Aga Which one of the following names is given to the northern half of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge? ()) Dolfin rise (2) Azores rise (3) Challenger rise (4) Telegraph Plateau Hea-xecifen Hea sad ad am at Aefefaa FS fea aa a am wm 27 (1) Stef sat Q) aE gue (3) Ao FUR (4) Seto Far According to population census 2011, which one of the following States of India has the lowest percentage of urban population to its total population? (1) Odisha (2) Himachal Pradesh (3) Jharkhand (4) Rajasthan SAT 2011 % agen, wet & Pefefar wai Fa feed arte oem a ga seen 9 sft fren 8? (1) sf (2) fearra yer (3) aIRaTS (4) TRI Which State of India recorded the negative growth rate of population during 2001-2011 ? (1) Goa (2) Kerala (3) Karnataka (4) Nagaland 27 (P.7.0,)18P/207/21 Set No. | 77. 79. (88) ana % fea wT} 2001-2011 A arate A morens ROT aly aiftea a1? (1) ter (2) Feet (3) Fate (4) Frees Aluminium industry is generally located near the (1) Source of raw material (2) Market (3) Source of power (4) Source of labour walter satt arrara: safes ear @ () ea are Hato & free (2) arm > fee (3) fee & sta & Free (4) a ata & Fae Which one of the following ports has been developed on a lagoon? (1) Kochi (2) Paradwip (3) Mumbai (4) Chennai Arita weal Fa ate Soa wr Raft fee en 27 (1) afer (2) waa (3) Fas (4) a8 In which one of the following positions, the speed of the Earth’s revolution is the highest? (1) Summer Solstice of Northern Hemisphere (2) Winter Solstice of Northern Hemisphere (3) Vernal Equinox (4) Autumnal Equinox 2880. 81. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. 1 Pefetad 4 fra ocean & ged & vier A oft watts ert 27 (1) Jad tend & hy seria (2) sa8 titan & xe aad (3) seat faga (4) were Faye Balanced regional development was a major objective of (1) Third Five-Year Plan (2) Fourth Five-Year Plan (3) Fifth Five-Year Plan (4) Seventh Five-Year Plan argfera weft fara quer wer (1) qa ca-aeia ath ar (2) aqd da-agia dhe ar (3) Stadt ta-adia aise ar (4) aie da-adfa ats ar Who among the following is associated with the concept of ‘areal functional organization’ ? (1) Walter Christaller (2) Alfred Weber (3) A. K. Philbric (4) R. O. Buchanan Aefatenr +e a ‘edie aris ered A dart a ara 87 (1) ateex faretet (2) aes tar (3) Yo %o Freitas (4) So aio FH 29 (P.7.0.)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 82, 83. 84, (88) The planning in which one central authority formulates and executes the plan is called (1) Indicative Planning (2) Imperative Planning (3) Corrective Planning (4) Functional Planning foe Reise a aber at fain Gi raiser oe asta wife gm fen aren 3, 3a (1) faarere Praise (2) serene fate (3) amtearers frat (4) saatars ats Which one of the following is a Siliceous Ooze? (1) Red clay (2) Globigerina (3) Pteropod (4) Diatom frafefaa Hoa sta-ar fafa: wun oH 2? (1) ere after (2) aisha (3) taste (4) raea Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below : {A) Economic development leads to environmental degradation. (R) Conservation implies optimum use of resources, Codes : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, (R) is false. (4) (A) is false, (R) is true. 3085. 86. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. 1 eg aert RE mee] OH BT onRwer (A) SK cat wT sre (RYH ey A fea nar a1 a Re me a A a at oe afi : (A) onfles Brera & aren vatawta aro gar 2) (R) eeerr or ftir sane wr aR se 2] eri (1) (A) sit (R) Sat ace @ aan (a) A aa oreT (R), 21 (2) (A) a(R) SAE wer Seq (A) A aE care (R), AE RI (3) (A) Fa, (R) Tea a (4) (A) 7 2, (R) ATA Which one of the following ocean currents is replaced by El Nino? (1) Antarctic Drift (2) California Current (3) Falkland Current (4) Peru Current frafeiiaa 4 & ata-z wererria ora ue fat gre wien A ah 8? (1) swersfes vere (2) Seether are (3) BrRS oT (4) 3 ara Which one of the following types of population density is obtained by dividing total population with total arable area? (1) Agricultural density (2) Nutritional density (3) Physiological density (4) Rural density 31 (P.T.0.)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 87. 88. 389. (88) feh ay @ qa onion A wae Ga BH ar a ea wa a Fisioter Fa aaea saden sat yan we eat 2? (1) Bh as (2) WHF BA (3) aR war (4) anton wae Karaganda Basin is famous for the mining of which mineral? (1) Coal {2) Bauxite (3) Iron ore (4) Copper wearigt aftr fra afin % scart & fore sft 2? (1) Foret (0) aiearse (3) ate sR (4) aia ‘The core of the Great Himalayas is made up of (1) Quaternary rocks (2) Archaen rocks (3) Dharwar rocks (4) Gondwana rocks wer eee a IS fafa & (1) area stat at (2) anf set grr (3) wrarg wei gra (4) gar tat grt Who amongst the following scholars suggested population potential model for population distribution? (1) J. B. Garnier (2) J. 1. Clarke (3) J. Q. Stewart (4) G. T. Trewartha oo 303 fee fee 3 sagem feo #q Sate five & vfiaR al gent (1) Mo ae mPa (2) Ste sige Feri (3) Ho wo Wiad (4) sto do fravat 3290. 91, 92. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No, 1 Which one of the following is most essential for foot loose industry? (i) Raw material (2) Capital (3) Transport (4) Market We sag sa & fey Peafefed 3 a an satis onan 37 (1) en Art (2) ost (3) sae (4) ara A gradual change in the trend of population growth occurring over a long period of time is known as (1) Demographic dynamics (2) Popnlation explosion (3) Demographic transition (4) Demographic transformation we aa wal Hoon ofa & wie chads At soft at aed & (1) Seif rear (2) Sree feeate (3) sai sao (4) Riff Sore Who amongst the following geographers first attempted to divide the world into natural regions? (1) Alfred Hettner (2) Carl Sauer (3) Vidal de la Blache (4) A. J. Herbertson fraftad i a fea paisa 2 fava at welts vent 9 ferme eel a dye ver fan? (1) seks For (2) ret wet (3) AREA = ot OTT (4) Wo Fo wader 33 (P.T.0)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 93. 94. 95. (88) Who amongst the following gave the dictum : Place > Work > Folk’? (1) Patrick Geddes (2) Cari Ritter (3) Elisee Reclus (4) Arthur Geddes frfataa 4 a feet ‘ear > al > che’ ar ga fear an? (1) tigw ASA (2) He Ae (3) efor tact (4) oa ea As per 2011 population census, which of the following States of India does not have an urban agglomeration of one million or above population? (1) Haryana (2) Odisha (3) Jammu & Kashmir (4) Jharkhand 2011 Sarr & agen, wa & Prafefer wal 7 a fe Gee a ow a ofre san aren ata age ad 2? (1) eftaren (2) 3itfeen (3) 4 ta erie (4) aang Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the given codes : List-I (Forests) List-Il (Trees) (A) Monsoon Forest () Plum and Olive (B) Equatorial Forest (i) Pine and Spruce (C) Mediterranean Forest (iii) Teak and Sal (D) Coniferous Forest (iv) Mahogany and Rosewood Codes : 4 8B) © OD 4 8 © oO a) Gi) (ii) iv) fi) (2) (iv) Gi) Gi) i) (3) Gi) ivy) {ii) (4) (i) Gn) (ii) liv) 3496. 97. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. 1 Aa GL Gis Ae oer he me a a ad ae GAR aa (7) aan (gai) (a) sine a @ IG ig 1B) fegaatate a (i) Tan G BE (C) yarerarrta aa (iii) TATE ware (D) arent a (iv) wa i teas ee: “a 8 © 4 8 © wo Q) Gi) Gi) vy) (2) iv) Gi) Git) Gi) (3) (ii) iv) (ii) (4) tH] (iii) fa) iy The largest producer of steel in the world (2015) is (1) United States of America (2) Japan (3) India (4) China fasa Foor #1 aaa Fe Fey (2015) & (1) Raw Tey sae (2) 37H (3) "ea (4) a Which one of the following is the largest exporter of L.N.G. ? (1) Qatar (2) Iran (3) Saudi Arabia (4) Russia frais 4 @ se qaetecfe at aad aq Bates 2? (1) Fe 2) oF (3) tad ora (4) 3a 35 (P.7.0)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 98. 99. 100. 101. (88) Who propounded the concept of human regions? (1) A. V. Perpillow (QQ) H. J. Fleure (3) C. D. Forde (4) R. E. Dickinson ara sexi At aerccat at fiat sferarfea fee? (1) ve Ao vefiei (2) we Fo Baan (3) the So HS (4) mo $0 feta The Masai tribe is traditionally (1) Pure agrarian (2) Food gatherer (3) Pastoral cultivator (4) Hunter eats atm Hag sranfs & () Ye Fe (2) ren eaerat (3) TYNES IH (4) ora The Great Deccan Highway linking Varanasi with Kanyakumari passes through (Q) Raipur (2) Vijayawada (3) Chennai (4) Hyderabad arent # aengard @ vist aren tz San sent qa 3 Q) Taya (2) fawwargr @ (3) Wag a (4) tara & As per Census of India 2011, which one of the following States has the lowest percentage-share of child population in rural areas? (1) Punjab (2) Kerala (3) Jammu & Kashmir (4) Haryana aia ff SAT 2011 % oye, fratefad wei AA Ree A oomiu ast F frq seem ar sfeea-am fen 2? () re (2) a (3) TU aah (4) ea 36102, 103. (88) 18P/207]21 Set No. 1 Which one of the following places was the centre of the Mongol Cultural Realm? (1) Karakoram (2) Peking (3) Ulan Bator (4) Yarkand Prafafas 4 @ aaa ear wits stephte sews ar ag at? (1) Re (2) tf (3) 3am wh (4) ara Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (A) A three-tier hierarchy of planning regions has often been recognised. (R) A three-tier classification is a necessity of regional planning exercise. Codes : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (3) (A) is true, (R) is false (4) (A) is false, (R) is truc. aR dt ser fu ae 81 cH at araem (a) ott at at are (R) Hoa A en ra arate ecm gd a a at om gh: (a) fase gest & B-side cages owe: ar a art 21 (R) Pets west watt a Beata afer we oraz 21 Re: (1) (A) stk (R) Shi wer 3 ae (A) Mt BS TET AR), 21 (2) (A) 3% (R) Sat wer @ veg (A) Fl a eaTET (R), Fel 21 (3) (A) Wa @, (R) Te 21 (4) (A) Wea @, (R) FeH zl 37 (P.T.0)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 104, 105. 106. (88) When was the post-Independence reorganization of States of India done? ona fo asd er cardatee poles wai fet Ta aT? (1) 1948 (2) 1956 (3) 1961 (4) 1966 Who is the author of the book A Hundred Years of Geography ? (1) W. Bunge (2) R. Hartshorne (3) D. Harvey (4) T. W. Freeman «ede gare off water ere * chat at 8? (1) qo St (2) ame eet (3) to ea 4) de serge tr What is the main reason for Japan becoming the leading industrial nation o world? (1) It has plenty of mineral resources. (2) It possess abundant fossil fuel (3) It is equipped with high technological capability. (4) The Industrial Revolution started there a & fea % apreft stein ag at ar yer wT aM a7 (1) Fae Wa vat aha dare 31 (2) see we ta sar ar args 21 (3) 3aa Te Fa ae aT 21 (4) set siete sift a are eat gt 38107. 108. 109. 110. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. 1 ia one of the following ranges is associated with Mesozoic volcanocity in India? (1) Rajmanal Hills (2) Nilgiri (3) Pir Panjal (4) Aravalli ara 9 fefefaa a a atch doh Sabie sarengel fret a arag 37 (1) Tse watsat (2) ree 3) te we (4) srcaefl Who amongst the following geographers first used the term ‘Pragmatic Possibilism’? (1) C. Ritter (2) G. Taylor (3) J. Brunches (4) G. Tatham Fried 4 8 fea ymca a adver ‘ones aevaar’ aq an seit fe? (1) to te (2) Sto tex (3) to az (4) sho 2a Under the National Population Policy of India, 2000, by which year the population stagnation goal has to be attained? ana A ude sper Aft 2000 & aarit sade fer at wes fee ad ca we wT 8? (1) 2055 (2) 2060 (3) 2065 (4) 2070 Which is the correct sequence of the top States of India, in descending order, in terms of proven coal reserves? (1) Odisha, Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh (2) Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand (3) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh (4) Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha 39 (P.T.0.)115. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. 1 Pefafaa agg armeit #8 ae fq serene Ft on ae 2? (1) Siyeera art (3) afar fee agrarrtia TT (2) atsnfee ort (4) yee are Match List-I with List-I] and select the correct answer from the given codes : List-I (State) (A) Gujarat (B) Maharashtra (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Rajasthan Codes : @ 8B © © a) @ (a) (ii) iv) 3 6) 6) UD) List-II (Atomic Power Plant) () Rawatbhata (i) Narora (iii) Kakrapara (iv) Tarapur a” 8 © Oo *) i) @ @ (i) OG) ail a ain @ wafer Fife cer fee me ge a we TH fC : aa (w=) (a) Jae (B) Ferg (C) 3H eT (0) We ee: (A) B® © oO QQ @ @ Gi) Gv) 8) fi) ww @ 41 etn (wom whee a7) @ waar (i) FT (iii) RTT (iv) Tag ” 8 © O iw) Gi) (iii) (i) fiv) (ii) (P.T.0.}18P/207/21 Set No. 1 111. 112. 113. 114. (88) afta afre steer AR A GB a, ares} see coh ar a ora we wT? (1) atfem, oars, eras, FITET (2) arene, sitfeen, eae, FTES (3) grave, sitfem, ofare, TET (4) mamta, arene, eave, sitfee According to G. T, Trewartha, which one of the following codes denotes the climate of the Ganga Plain? sto Go fnef & agen, frafefer $a gee gz om & Aaa A aa at autat 2? (1) CA‘w (2) CBw (3) Cau (4) ¢ we What is the term used to denote the flat topped terraces made of fine silt in the Kashmir Valley? (1) Doon (2) Karewa (3) Duar (4) Char awit od & adam @ faite aaae aaege ato a Pies acl fee aya uy yam fear stat 8? Q) @ (2) tar @) 7 (4) a Which one of the following rock systems is the main source of coal in India? (1) Gondwana (2) Vindhyan (3) Tertiary (4) Cuddapah una i aad a yer dia Refetar da stra vie ty 27 (1) thearn (2) ferear (3) area (4) yon Which one of the following currents does not belong to Indian Ocean? (1) Aguthas Current (2) Mozambique Current (3) South Indian Ocean Current (4) Benguela Current 4018P/207/21 Set No. 1 116. 117. 118. (88) Which one of the following regions is considered as the place of beginning vegeculture in the world? () North Africa (2) Central Asia (3) South-East Asia (4) Central America frafifaa #8 aaa yen fea Fo desit ar Jqa wet ser are 2? (1) 378 onflar (2) mea ft (0) afer gat eer (4) sea arifter Which one of the following rock formations is the richest in plant fossils? (1) Gondwana (2) Shiwalik (3) Vindhyan (4) Cuddapah frafafas aeraygt # a ate aren staat & salfire acca 27 (1) Tiga (2) Frrenferes (3) fear (4) yer Which one of the following is known as the accelerated stage in Urbanization Curve? (1) First (2) Second (3) Third (4) Fourth frafafica 3 @ feat anteam om A wafa saeco Her om 3? (1) 338 (2) feta (3) aha (4) aad 42119. 120. (88) 18P/207/21 Set No. 1 Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelied as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below : (A) Arunachal Pradesh has vast potential of hydropower production (R) Arunachal Pradesh receives heavy rainfall. Codes : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (4). (3) (A) is truc, (R) is false (1) (A) is false, (R) is truc. A ad ser feu me eH a ofrmer (A) ait aat at arom (a) & eu A Ren oo alah fam gd da wa om gic. (A) sora vee H orefege Serer Al seme amen 2 (R) aera see A art ash att a1 (1) (A) 3% (R) Sei arr & wen (a) A aa TENT (R, 21 (2) (A) 3k (R) At wer @ Weg (A) A ae oTeT (R), FT 21 (3) (A) Fa @, (R) THA 21 (4) (A) Tea 2, (R) Fa ah Which one of the following industrial regions of India has the predominance of metal industries? (1) Ahmedabad-Vadodara (2) Kolkata-Hooghly (3) Chotanagpur (4) Mumbai-Pune 43 (P.T.0.)18P/207/21 Set No. 1 area & freritfar #8 fina stein wee Poor seth A wart og art 8? (1) sterearg-adtar (2) Fraera-ereht (3) Bererg (4) Fee 44 D/8(88)—11SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK we ad & fre we10. 1 12. 13. 14, avaftat & faa fréa SW TATE Aa sHovHOSM. TA & aa pH aaa fie arch ara—cnge 1a a A fardi) a fe orm a aft ye igs 2 ott ad ye a ma MER TP arf) qual aera F-Pt a1 Ze aE ara Fi aa veq—qfermr fies) % 30 fie ome A gal walt afar aie ome a1 Wea wr 2 adem & fais, from wa a8 A qe amma wa Ha ara) MewHesne SRA se A fem wn A) gat aad aS rte a et fag BT) Ze soos TH wa agi fear ard act atowmosmo In-wa a zt rarer fea ara) ait afafeat was orara—gy m7 diefifart ava da @ faulfta cart we Grd) Alotmoste Fw & aM YEW aa a som ones fisiie wre w fee wen aa a get aig we 2) aei—wel arava ael wva—yftcen a mnie Ua ag ws AEM aa Bz aT aT fers tert wy Faas OWE. yer oR aagme den, we-yfer Aen a az den (a ae a) 4a we. Sa Ho AN aMetHosRe St-99 Ao A sfafeal F oof A saala aA e be ilies § arg wh gina ea HRT eT sre Aare ZT wef a asa se ae ws, oy ape se-afear oower wa an aafere oH fra wa Bi weeds ova & dane sav & fare gree Homose Twa $F matin vie & ant fet wd qa at soumosmte THT & wT a w fea a frdat & organ aa a mer wen FP were ah TAL fra a qa moma at) wae a fie qai a ae aph wa Ww ae Se rea arn arin Fae wa vam 2 Poe an ead gm sified sot acer adi or wer 2) afe ama fae wa ar cae ae) oa et @. 0 water he & at fram at qe at ureh aig 21 tH oe wo ypy ws fea arin fat ura-ufia chen A af 3 sa ava ea—nfaay ae 7 =i BR set Te ye aan fan qu ay sam az) ead orn stecHe ste Tetra Thar wafer Hoea Fidiete #1 Bis 2) arerdi cans wat-na Fi aia A mt ama a fen wera Oa 8 we when wae Hare wT AT sala aA ath afe ang aoa when Ho agiaa areata va een a, ft ae favaferenera ain faulfia dz anh ere