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Page 1

Multiple Choice Questions

and Answers

Chapter 1 Getting Started with B) 20×

Clinical Pathology C) 40×
D) 100×
1. Which component of the microscope Answer: B
should be adjusted when evaluating a 4. Which objective lens requires
wet-mount slide? immersion oil?
A) 10× objective A) 4×
B) Stage B) 20×
C) Condenser C) 40×
D) Eyepiece D) 100×
Answer: C Answer: D
2. Where is the iris diaphragm located? 5. True/False: Swinging bucket
A) In the eyepiece centrifuges do not need to be balanced.
B) Above the stage
Answer: False
C) Above the light source
D) In the base 6. In a centrifuge, _______ and _______
Answer: C determine the gravitational force that
a sample is subjected.
3. Which of the following are low power
Answer: Length of rotor arm and
objective lenses?
speed
A) 4×

Clinical Pathology and Laboratory Techniques for Veterinary Technicians, First Edition.
Edited by Anne Barger and Amy MacNeill.
© 2015 John Wiley & Sons, Inc. Published 2015 by John Wiley & Sons, Inc.
Companion Website: www.wiley.com/go/barger/vettechclinpath

1

2 Multiple Choice Questions and Answers
7. Refractive index is:
A) The degree of light refraction
through a liquid.
B) The optical density of water.
C) Not dependent on the amount of
solid in a liquid.
D) Calculated from the density of the
liquid.
Answer: A
8. Which tube is the preferred blood tube
for CBCs in mammals?
A) Serum separator tube (striped-red
and gray topped tube)
B) Heparin tube (green topped tube)
C) EDTA tube (lavender topped tube)
D) Serum tube (red topped tube)
Answer: C
Chapter 2 Hematology
1. Which of the following components of
blood is present in plasma but not in
serum?
A) Albumin
B) Gamma-globulin
C) Hormones
D) Fibrinogen
Answer: D
2. A major crossmatch tests for which of
the following interactions?
A) Patient antibodies that cause donor
RBCs to lyse/agglutinate
B) Donor antibodies that cause
patient RBCs to lyse/agglutinate
C) Patient antibodies that cause
patient RBCs lyse/agglutinate
D) Donor antibodies that cause donor
RBCs lyse/agglutinate
Answer: A
3. True or false. The term for increased
numbers of neutrophil bands is a “left
shift.”
Answer: True.
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4. True or false. If a small blood clot is
present in a purple-topped tube, the
sample can be processed for a CBC
once the clot has been removed.
Answer: False. Blood clots cause
aberrant CBC results. The sample
must be discarded.
5. True or false. Giant platelets are
observed frequently in blood smears of
healthy cats.
Answer: True.
Chapter 3 Hemostasis
1. Which type of blood collection tube
should be used for PT and PTT assays?
A) Blue-topped tube containing
sodium citrate
B) Green-topped tube containing
heparin
C) Purple-topped tube containing
EDTA
D) Red-topped tube containing no
anticoagulant
Answer: A
2. The most common clinical sign
associated with thrombocytopenia is
development of:
A) Aural hematomas
B) Bilateral epistaxis
C) Internal hemorrhage
D) Subcutaneous ecchymoses
Answer: D
3. True or False. Coagulation
abnormalities can lead to extensive
hemorrhaging.
Answer: True. Coagulation
abnormalities can lead to extensive
hemorrhaging.
4. Ingestion of which of the following
pesticides could prolong a patient’s PT
and PTT?
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Multiple Choice Questions and Answers 3

A) Avermectin-based anthelminthic B) Diarrhea

B) Coumarin-based rodenticide C) Hemorrhage
C) Pyrethrin-based insecticide D) Liver failure
D) Triazine-based herbicide Answer: A
Answer: B
5. A refractometer is used to measure:
5. Which of the following facts about A) Electrolytes
anticoagulants is true? B) Enzymes
A) Heparin may cause platelet C) Protein
clumping. D) Lipemia
B) EDTA should not be used to Answer: C
determine a platelet count.
C) No anticoagulant should be used 6. The presence of azotemia can occur
for coagulation testing. with all EXCEPT:
D) Tubes that contain citrate do not A) Dehydration
dilute the blood sample. B) Renal failure
C) Ruptured bladder
Answer: A
D) Psychogenic polydipsia
Answer: D
Chapter 4 Clinical Chemistry 7. Which is commonly seen in patients
with renal failure?
1. Which erroneous result can occur A) Hyperphosphatemia
with EDTA contamination? B) Hyperglobulinemia
A) Hypokalemia C) Elevated ALT
B) Hypocalcemia D) Elevated total bilirubin
C) Hypophosphatemia Answer: A
D) Hyponatremia
8. Which enzyme indicates cholestatic
Answer: B
disease?
2. White, cloudy serum is suggestive of: A) ALT
A) Hemolysis B) ALP
B) Icterus C) SDH
C) Lipemia D) AST
D) Contamination with Answer: B
anticoagulant
9. Which is NOT a pseudofunction test
Answer: C
of the liver?
3. The presence of icteric serum A) Albumin
indicates: B) Cholesterol
A) Elevated total bilirubin C) Sodium
B) Anemia D) Urea
C) Traumatic blood draw Answer: C
D) Increased lipid content
10. Which enzyme is used to evaluate
Answer: A
muscle disease?
4. Hyperglobulinemia can occur with: A) CK
A) Severe inflammation B) ALP
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4 Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

C) Lipase A) They are formed in the distal renal

D) GGT tubule
Answer: A B) WBC casts can indicate
inflammation in the tubule
C) They are tubular in shape
Chapter 5 Urinalysis D) All of the above
Answer: D
1. Turbid urine indicates: 7. Which crystal can be seen in urine
A) Highly concentrated urine from healthy horses?
B) An active sediment A) Calcium oxalate
C) The sample was obtained by B) Calcium carbonate
catheterization C) Ammonium biurate
D) The urine pH is elevated D) Triple phosphate
Answer: B Answer: B
2. The glomerulus is responsible for: 8. Which crystal forms in alkaline urine?
A) Filtration A) Calcium oxalate
B) Resorption of glucose B) Cystine
C) Resorption of water C) Triple phosphate
D) Production of hormones D) Uric acid
Answer: A Answer: C

3. Which technique is preferred for 9. Ethylene glycol toxicity can result in

collection of urine for culture? the formation of this crystal:
A) Manual expression A) Triple phosphate
B) Free Catch B) Ammonium biurate
C) Catheterization C) Cystine
D) Calcium oxalate monohydrate
D) Cystocentesis
Answer: D
Answer: D
4. Which cell lines the bladder?
A) Renal tubular epithelial cells Chapter 6 Parasitology
B) Transitional epithelial cells
C) Squamous epithelial cells 1. A __________ is an individual who is
D) All of the above infested but has no symptoms of
Answer: B disease.
A) Definitive host
5. Increased white blood cells in the urine B) Carrier
indicate: C) Facultative parasite
A) Hemorrhage D) Vector
B) Not significant Answer: B
C) Inflammation
D) Trauma 2. A Hook worm is a:
A) Protozoa
Answer: C
B) Tapeworm
6. Which is true of renal casts? C) Flat worm
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Multiple Choice Questions and Answers 5

D) Round worm 2. Procedure that monitors or improves

Answer: D laboratory performance in all phases
of laboratory testing.
3. Which is an indirect effect of a A) Quality assurance
parasite on the host? B) Quality control
A) Allergic response C) Point of care testing
B) Destruction of tissues D) Repeat criteria
C) Production of toxins Answer: A
D) Inhibition of host tissue growth
3. Which is a cause of analytical error?
Answer: A
A) Improper storage
4. A fecal direct smear is used to identify: B) Lipemia
A) Coccidia C) Incorrect container type
B) Giardia D) Expired reagents
C) Hookworm ova Answer: D
D) Dirofilaria immitis
4. True/False. Bias can be eliminated by
Answer: B calibrating an instrument.
5. How is Dirofilaria immitis Answer: True
transmitted?
5. True/False. A reference interval can be
A) Tick
used interchangeably between
B) Mosquito
different equipment.
C) Fecal-oral
D) Transplacental Answer: False
Answer: B 6. Which can be used to minimize
preanalytical error?
A) Patient samples should be
Chapter 7 Minimizing Laboratory reanalyzed
B) Samples should be appropriately
Errors in Veterinary Practice
labeled
C) Error flags should be evaluated
1. Analytical error occurring in a
D) Instrument QC should be
negative direction is: performed on a regular basis
A) Systematic error
B) Total allowable error Answer: D
C) Random error 7. True/False. The purpose of running
D) Bias controls is to screen for analytic error.
Answer: C Answer: True
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