PHYSICAL SCIENCE

Directions: Read the sentences/paragraphs carefully then select from the given choices the best
response that will complete each sentence or answer each question correctly. Write only the letter of
the correct answer.

I. EARTH SCIENCE

1. Which of these Jovian planets is known as the sideways planet?

a. Jupiter c. Uranus
b. Saturn d. Neptune

2. If Venus is the twin of planet earth, which planet is considered the twin of Neptune?
a. Saturn c. Uranus
b. Jupiter d. Plato

3. An instrument used in analyzing light is called ___________.

a. photometer c. telescope
b. Venus d. Jupiter

4. Which of the planets orbit around the sun in 225 days?

a. Mercury c. Mars
b. Venus d. Jupiter

5. The planets in the solar system ________.

a. have the same surface temperature
b. can support human life
c. revolve around the sun
d. are exactly the same size

6. Full moon occurred last March 27, 2001. When will the next Full moon be seen?
a. April 24, 2001 c. April 26, 2001
b. April 25, 2001 d. April 27, 2001

7. When we look out at the universe, we see ___________.

a. all other planets moving away from us.
b. all other stars moving away from us.
c. all other galaxies moving away from us.
d. all of a, b, c.

8. Which layer of the earth is the hottest?

a. core c. crust
b. mantle d. soil

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9. Which BEST describes the movement of the plates that make up the earth’s surface over millions of
years?
a. They move for millions of years but have now stopped.
b. They stayed the same for millions of years but are now moving.
c. They have been continually moving.
d. They have never moved.

10. How does the Banaue Rice Terraces help the farmers conserve the soil?
a. It increases their harvest every year.
b. It prevents animals from going there.
c. Its ridges prevent water from carrying away the soil.
d. Its ridges make the place beautiful.

11. Which of the following is NOT a mineral?

a. corrundum c. calcite
b. pyrite d. Russian diamond

12. When spaces between the soil and rock particles fill with ground water, the soil or rock is
a. eroded c. saturated
b. weathered d. evaporated

13. Which process is involved in forming soil?

a. faulting c. weathering
b. folding d. volcanic eruption

14.Which is not true about surface water in the North Pole?

a. It is cooler than the water in the equator.
b. It is denser than the water in the equator.
c. It is heated more by the sun.
d. Its molecules move generally slower.

15. Which term best describes what clouds are made of?
a. condensation nuclei c. smoke
b. gas d. water droplets

16. Which of the statements below is not true about air?

a. Air moves from area of high pressure to area of low pressure.
b. The higher the pressure of air the slower it will move.
c. The greater the difference in air pressure between two areas, the stronger is the wind.
d. Cool air is denser and is, therefore, heavier than an equal volume of air.

17. PAGASA reports that the air has a relative humidity equivalent to 65%. What does this mean?
a. The air can accept 35% more water vapor.
b. The maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold is 65%.
c. The minimum amount of water vapor the air can hold is 65%.
d. The air can accept 65% more water vapor.

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18. Of the following processes, which is responsible for getting water into the atmosphere?
a. condensation c. evaporation
b. sublimation d. precipitation

19. What happens when air is heated?

a. It expands and rises c. It remains at sea level
b. It expands and sinks d. It contracts and rises

20. Why do mountain climbers use oxygen equipment at the top of the world’s highest mountains?
a. There is less oxygen in the air at greater heights.
b. There is little nitrogen in the air at greater heights.
c. There is a hole in the ozone layer that causes the reduction in oxygen.
d. There is no air at the top of very high mountains.

21. Which part of the atmosphere filters the ultraviolet rays of the sun?
a. ionosphere c. thermosphere
b. troposphere d. ozone layer

22. In which list are the objects given in order, from the smallest to the largest?
a. solar systems, universe, planet, galaxy.
b. planet, galaxy, solar system, universe.
c. universe, galaxy, planet, solar system.
d. planet, solar system, galaxy, universe.

For questions 23-24

Alpha Centauri, the closest star to us is 4.27 light years away from earth.

23. How far is Alpha Centauri from earth in kilometers?

a. 4.27 km c. 9.46 x 1012 km
b. 3.15 x 107 km d. 4.04 x 1013 km

24. How long will it take the light from Alpha Centauri to reach earth?
a. at an instant c. 4.27 years
b. 1 year d. 8.27 years

25. If Alpha Centauri is visible in the sky tonight (March 30, 2001), when is the light we see emitted by
the star?
a. March 29, 1997 c. January 30, 1997
b. February 28, 1997 d. December 24, 1996

26. A chunk of gold weighs IN. where will it have the greatest weight?
a. On the Moon c. On earth
b. In planet Jupiter d. At Saturn

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For questions 27-28

The weights of four objects on earth are:

A - 50N
B - 100N
C - 150N
D - 200N

27. Which has the greatest weight in Jupiter?

a. A c. C
b. B d. D

28. Which has the greatest mass on Jupiter?

a. A c. C
b. B d. D

29. Which results from the collision of two continental plates?

a. earthquakes c. faults
b. mountains d. all of a, b, c

30. There are sites of moving crustal plates that are destroyed as they plunge into the mantle.
a. ocean trench c. abyssal plains
b. ocean basin d. seamounts

31. Which does not describe a mineral?

a. It is found in nature.
b. It is made up of orderly arrangement of atoms with definite crystal structure.
c. It is inorganic.
d. It can be solid, liquid, or gas.

32. Which of the following contains the greatest amount of water volume on earth?
a. oceans c. groundwater
b. glaciers and ice sheets d. atmosphere

33. Where is air pressure greatest?

a. troposphere c. mesosphere
b. stratosphere d. thermosphere

34. What happens to a given mass of fluid when heat flows into it?
a. Its temperature decreases.
b. Its particles move closer to one another.
c. It becomes less dense.
d. It becomes colder.

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35. Most of the earth’s atmosphere is
a. oxygen c. argon
b. nitrogen d. carbon dioxide

36. What happens to the temperature of the atmosphere within the troposphere as the altitude
increases?
a. It increases. c. It remains the same.
b. It decreases. d. It is fluctuating.

37. If you live in Antartica and convection in the atmosphere stopped, how would the temperature in
your place change?
a. increase c. remains the same
b. decrease d. not enough information

38. a warm air mass comes I contact with a mass of cold surface water. What happens to the surface
water?
a. It gets hotter c. Its temperature remains the same
b. It gets colder d. Its density decreases

39. At which temperature would air hold the most water vapor?
a. 0oC c. 35oC
b. 20oC d. 50oC

40. What happens along a weather front?

a. Warm air rises above cold air.
b. It may begin to rain.
c. High thin clouds are seen.
d. Any of a, b, c may occur.

41. PAGASA reports that tomorrow we shall experience fair weather. What can you expect?
a. No rain throughout the day.
b. With rain throughout the day.
c. With wind about 116 kph.
d. With rain in some portion of the day.

II. APPLIED CHEMISTRY (Analytical)

42. If the proof no. of Ginebra San Miguel is 80, what is its % by volume?
a. 20% c. 80%
b. 40% d. 160%

43. At room temperature, sugar is soluble in water while CCL4 is immiscible in it. Which of the following
factors affects the solubility of the solutes in water?
a. pressure c. particle size
b. temperature d. nature of the solute and solvent

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44. The addition of nonvolatile solute to 150mL water produces a solution that
a. boils above 100oC and freezes above 0oC.
b. boils below 100oC and freezes below 0oC.
c. boils below 100oC and freezes above 0oC.
d. boils above 100oC and freezes below 0oC.

45. What is the molarity of 1.50 M ethanol solution whose density is 0.927 g/mL?
a. 0.01618 c. 1.50 m
b. 1.39 m d. 1.62 m

46. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. A catalyst can lower the activation energy.
b. A catalyst affects only the activation energy of the forward reaction.
c. A catalyst affects only the activation of the reverse reaction.
d. A catalyst is permanently changed after the activation energy its changed.

47. If the equilibrium constant for an equilibrium is greater than 1, which reaction is favored?
a. forward c. both forward and reverse reactions
b. reverse d. cannot be determined

48. Which of the following processes release heat?

a. evaporation of water
b. sublimation of naphthalene
c. expansion of a gas at constant pressure
d. condensation of water vapor in the atmosphere

49. The chemical system: C(g) + O(g) + 61.0 kcal R(g) + Y(g) is at equilibrium. What will happen if the
temperature of the system is raised?
a. The forward reaction is favored.
b. The reverse reaction is favored.
c. Both the forward and reverse reactions are favored.
d. No change will be observed.

50. When an acid reacted completely with a base.

a. only salt is formed
b. a basic salt is formed
c. an acid is formed
d. salt and water are formed

51. Which of the following is known as lye and is used in soap making?
a. NaOH c. NH4OH
b. KOH d. Al(OH)3

52. Which of the following acids is secreted by the gastric glands that line our stomach walls?
a. nitric acid c. carbonic acid
b. hydrochloric acid d. sulfuric acid

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53. Which of the following equations is an example of a oxidation-reduction (redox) reaction?
a. 3Pb +2(aq) + 2PO43-(aq) Pb3(PO4)2(8)
b. HCL + NaOH NaCl + H2O
c. FeS(8) + 2H(aq) Fe +2(aq) + H2S(g)
d. Cu +2(aq) + Zn(8) Cu(8) + Zn +2(aq)

54. The reaction of muriatic acid and magnesium ribbon can be represented by the chemical equation

Mg(8) + 2HCl(aq) MgCl2 + H2(g)

Based from the equation, which of the substances undergoes oxidation?

a. Mg c. Cl+ ions
+
b. H ions d. none of the above

55. Refer to the equations in no. 54. Which of the substances undergoes oxidation?
a. Mg c. Cl+ ions
b. H+ ions d. B and C

56. The anode is the electrode at which reduction occurs. The cathode is the electrode at which
oxidation occurs.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true while the second is false.
d. The first statement is false while the second is true.

57. Which of the following factors affect the rate of dissolution?

a. pressure c. temperature
b. catalyst d. nature of the solute and solvent

58. Geoffrey was tasked to perform an activity on colligative properties of solution. In his experiment, he
obtained the following data:

Mass of Substance X = 56.0 g

Mass of Water = 100.0 g
Boiling Point of Solution = 108oC
Boiling Point of Water = 100oC

What is the experimental molar mass of the solute?

a. 35.84 g/mole c. 116.07 g/mole
b. 71.68 g/mole d. 130.2 g/mole

59. When doing an analysis, stubborn samples are usually dissolved using aqua regia. Aqua regia is a
mixture of
a. hydrochloric acid and nitric acid
b. sulfuric acid and hydrochloric acid
c. hydrofluoric acid and perechloric acid
d. concentrated sulfuric and nitric acid

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60. How many grams of water must be added to 5.00 g of NaCl to be able to prepare a 10.0% by mass
solution?
a. 45.0 g c. 90.0 g
b. 50.0 g d. 100.0 g

61. An increase in temperature will increase the rate of increase because it

a. increases the mass of particles
b. increases the volume of particles
c. increases the velocity of the molecules
d. increases the number of collisions between the particles

62. It will need less time and fuel to cook potatoes if they are reduced to smaller cubes.
The principle behind this is:
a. high temperature shortens cooking time
b. greater surface area hastens cooking time
c. greater number of particles means higher concentration of reactants
d. none of these

63. For the Have process: N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) + heat, how will addition of N2 affect the
equilibrium?
a. no effect
b. the formation of ammonia is favored
c. the decomposition of ammonia is favored
d. the effect cannot be determined.

64. A bee sting contains a base. To neutralize the sting, rub with a solution of baking sod.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true but the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false but the second statement is true.

65. A buffer solution

a. changes pH rapidly with the addition of an acid
b. resists changes in pH with the addition of an acid
c. changes pH only with the addition of a strong base
d. changes pH only with the addition of a weak base

66. Which pH indicates as acid?

a. NaOh c. Al(OH)3
b. Mg(OH)2 d. CaCO3

67. One of the most familiar examples of corrosion is the formation of rust on iron. What substances
must be present for iron to rust?
a. oxygen
b. air and water
c. oxygen and water
d. air and oxygen

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68. The reaction of permanganate ion and oxalic acid produces manganese (II) and carbon dioxide.

MnO4(aq) + H2C2O4(aq) Mn2+(aq) + CO2(g)

How many electrons are gained by manganese ion?

a. 2 c. 10
b. 5 d. 20

69. The loss of electrons by an element during oxidation is signified by a decrease in the element’s
oxidation number. While the gain of electrons by an element during reduction is marked by an
increase in the element’s number.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true while the second is false.
d. The first statement is false while the second is true.

III. APPLIED CHEMISTRY (ORGANIC CHEMISTRY & BIOCHEMISTRY)

70. All of the following compounds contain oxygen in their structures except
a. alcohol c. amine
b. ester d. carboxylic acid

71. CH3OCH3 and CH3CH2OH are examples of

a. chain isomers c. geometric isomers
b. positional isomers d. functional isomers

72. Which of the following is nonpolar?

a. HCL c. HF
b. Br2 d. CH3Cl

73. All of the following belong to the same series except

a. heptane c. hexyne
b. butane d. nonane

74. CH2 = CHCH(CH3)2 is named as

a. 2-methyl -3-butane c. 2-methyl pentene
b. 1-pentene d. 3-methyl butane

75. Which of the following is true of an sp2 hybrid orbital?

a. it has a planar geometry
b. bond angle is 180o
c. it contains 75% p-character
d. there are two unhybridized p orbitals

76. Pi bonds are formed through sideways or parallel overlapping of

a. s-orbitals c. p-orbitals
b. sp hybrid orbitals d. sp2 hybrid orbital

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77. In CH3 – CH = CH – C CH, which carbons have linear geometry?
a. C1 and C2 c. C4 and C5
b. C2 and C3 d. C2 and C4

78. CH3CH2OH CH2 = CH2 + H2O is an example of

a. addition reaction c. ionic
b. nucleophilic d. hydrophilic

79. The condition at which blood sugar exceeds the normal concentration is referred to as
a. hypoglycemia c. diabetes
b. anemia d. hyperglycemia

80. A burning substance smells strongly of sulfur. This substance is most likely
a. hair c. cotton
b. silk d. wool

81. The property of amino acid that is due to the presence of both – NH2 and –COOH groups is referred
to as
a. racemic property c. hydrophobic property
b. asymmetric property d. amphoteric property

82. The most common constituent of fats and oils is

a. ethanol c. glycerol
b. ethylene glycol d. glycerose

83. Which two solvents is coconut oil very soluble?

a. water and alcohol c. ether and alcohol
b. water and ether d. ether and carbon tetrachloride

84. The minimum amount of energy needed for a reaction to occur is called
a. free energy c. activation energy
b. heat energy d. potential energy

85. All of the following are characteristics of an organic compound except

a. covalent bonds c. non-conductor
b. can be solid, liquid, gas d. colorless

86. All carbon atoms in benzene are

a. planar c. sp3 hybridized
b. sp hybridized d. attached as two hydrogen atoms

87. 2-butene and 1-butene are examples of

a. positional isomers c. geometric isomers
b. functional isomers d. chain isomers

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88. Gasoline, an organic fuel is made up of nonpolar molecules. In which of the following sets of solvents
is gasoline most soluble?
a. alcohol, kerosene, and ether
b. alcohol, acetone, and water
c. kerosene, ether, and chloroform
d. kerosene, ether , and carbon tetrachloride

89. To make bread, fresh yeast is mixed with warm sugar solution. The resulting mixture is added to
flour to make a dough. The dough mixture is then placed in a warm place to rise. The rising of the dough
is due to
a. absorption of gas molecules from the air
b. warm place that causes partial baking of the dough
c. production of water vapor from the aerobic respiration by the years
d. production of carbon dioxide gas from the aerobic respiration by the years

90. All of the following are examples of a polysaccharide except

a. cellulose c. glycogen
b. lactose d. starch

91. Hemoglobin is an example of

a. nucleoprotein c. chromoprotein
b. glycoprotein d. lipoprotein

92. Fatty acid A2 CH3(CH2)12COOH, melts at a lower temperature than fatty acid B2 CH3(CH2)14COOH.
Which statements below best explains this?
a. A is less saturated than B
b. A is an oil while B is a solid
c. A exhibits stereoisomerism does not
d. A has lower molecular mass than B

93. When vitamin K is deficient, the time required for the blood to clot is
a. increased c. not affected
b. decreased d. doubled

94. A potato cell was placed in a 5% salt solution. After sometime, the cell was found to be smaller when
examined under the microscope. This observation implies that the salt concentration inside the potato
was
a. more than 5%
b. less than 5%
c. exactly 5%
d. twice the salt concentration of the solution

95. Water helps maintain body temperature because of its

a. being a universal solvent c. low freezing point
b. high density d. doubled high specific heat

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96. Reaction of a fat molecule with sodium hydroxide results in the formation of
a. hard soaps c. zinc soaps
b. soft soaps d. detergents

97. Which of the following is a major component of the protoplasm?

a. carbohydrates c. proteins
b. water d. lipids

IV. APPLIED CHEMISTRY (ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY)

98. Which of these reactions illustrates nitrogen fixation?

a. N2O2 (g) NO3(g) + NO2(g)
b. N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)
c. 2NO(g) + O 2(g) 2NO2(g)
d. 2NO(g) + O 2(g) 2NO2(g) + NO(g)

99. Which of these statements is TRUE about the ozone and the ozone layer?
a. Ozone is an allotrope of oxygen with the chemical formula O2.
b. Ozone exists in the ozone layer of the atmosphere.
c. Ozone is used as coolant in refrigerators and air conditioning units.
d. Ozone in the ozone layer absorbs UV rays of wavelength between 200 and 300.

100. It is the normal process occurring on earth that warms its surface and the lower atmosphere.
a. vaporization of water c. greenhouse effect
b. incomplete combustion d. infrared radiation

101. Carbon dioxide, methane, oxides of nitrogen and CFCs are some of the greenhouse gases. What
characteristics does each of these gases have in common?
a. More sunlight is absorbed by the earth.
b. More infra-red rays is returned by the earth.
c. The dust reflects solar radiation.
d. Dust and ozone react in an exothermic reaction.

102. Which of these is a radioactive indoor air pollutant that has an adverse effect on human health?
a. radon c. carbon monoxide
b. formaldehyde d. carbon dioxide

103. Powerplants are known to emit huge amounts of pollutants to the atmosphere. To regulate and
control such emissions, they are required to install complete engineering devices known as scrubber.
Why?
a. To remove SOx from the smokestack before becoming part of the atmosphere.
b. To remove NOx from the smokestack before becoming part of the atmosphere.
c. To remove NOx from the smokestack before becoming part of the atmosphere.
d. To remove hydrocarbons from the smokestack before becoming part of the atmosphere.

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104. Smog impairs visibility. Smog components also aggravate asthma. Which is NOT an ingredient of
photochemical smog?
a. ozone c. SOx
b. NOx d. CO2

105. Many kinds of aquatic organisms cannot exist in water without an appreciable level of dissolved
oxygen. Which of these factors does NOT affect the solubility of oxygen in water?
a. water temperature c. volume of seawater
b. salt content of water d. partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere

106. Alkalinity helps in determining the ability of a water system to support algal growth and other
aquatic life. What species are directly responsible for the alkalinity in water?
a. bicarbonate, carbonate, oxide
b. bicarbonate, carbonate, hydroxide
c. bicarbonate, ammonia, oxide
d. bicarbonate, carbon dioxide, hydroxide

107. Which of these statements is TRUE regarding the production of methane in water?
a. It consumes oxygen
b. It occurs in the presence of oxygen
c. It is accomplished by aerobic bacteria
d. It removes biological oxygen demand from water

108. Which of these does NOT characterize clay?

a. layered structure
b. surface charge through ion replacement
c. aluminum and silicon oxide components
d. replacement of Si(IV) or Al(III) ions of similar size but lesser charge

109. There are several essential plant nutrients that lead to the eutrophication of a body of water. What
is the plant nutrient that is generally regarded as the culprit of excessive eutrophication and is obtained
from household detergents?
a. nitrogen c. potassium
b. phosphorous d. magnesium

110. Which of these statements is TRUE regarding chromium in water?

a. Chromium (III) is suspected of being carcinogenic.
b. Chromium is NOT an essential trace element.
c. Chromium (III) is less likely to be found in soluble form that is Chromium (VI)
d. The toxicity of Chromium (III) in electroplating wastewaters is decreased by oxidation to
Chromium (VI).

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111. Soil consists of several organic compounds. Humus is one of them. Which of these is TRUE of
humus?
a. layered structure
b. surface charge through ion replacement
c. aluminum and silicon oxide components
d. replacement of Si(IV) or Al(III) ions of similar size but lesser charge

112. Which of these phenomena will eventually make soil more basic?
a. removal of metal cations by roots
b. oxidation of soil pyrite
c. fertilization with ammonium sulfate
d. leaching of soil with carbon dioxide saturated water

113. Plant nutrients are classed as macronutrients and micronutrients. Which of these is a
macronutrient?
a. nitrogen c. sodium
b. manganese d. iron

114. The effect of toxic substances depend on the absorption, distribution and excretion of the
toxicants. What is the main route for the toxicant entrance into the body?
a. skin c. kidney
b. lungs d. gastro-intestinal tract

115. In which art of the body are toxic substances stored?

a. skin c. kidney
b. liver d. liver and kidneys

116. In which part of the body will excretion of toxic substances not take place?
a. kidneys c. lymph node
b. lungs d. biliary system

V. APPLIED CHEMISTRY (PHYSICAL)

117. Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding gases?

a. Gases easily diffuse
b. Gases can be easily compressed
c. Gas particles undergo elastic collisions
d. Gases are composed of particles called atoms

118. If the pressure of the gas is kept constant and the temperature is doubled, then
a. volume is reduced to 1/2 c. volume is doubled
b. volume is reduced to 1/4 d. volume will not change

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119. A given amount of gas occupies a volume of 50 mL at a certain pressure and temperature. The
temperature is doubled and the pressure and temperature. The temperature is doubled and the
pressure is reduced to 1/3 the original pressure. What is the volume of the gas under these new
conditions?
a. 150 mL c. 450 mL
b. 300 mL d. 600 mL

For items 120-122, choose from the following assumptions of the Kinetic Molecular Theory if they explain
or support the situations cited:

a. Gases are made up of very tiny particles called molecules. The molecules are widely
separated from one another by large empty spaces.
b. The molecules move about at high speeds in straight paths but in random directions.
c. The molecules collide with one another and with the walls of the container but exhibit
perfectly elastic collisions.
d. The average kinetic energy of molecules is directly proportional to the Kelvin temperature.
At the same temperature, the molecules of all gases will have the same kinetic energy.

120. Balloons burst after coming out of a cold room into hot sunlight.

121. It is dangerous to smoke near oxygen tanks.

122. Gases have very low density.

123. Given the following equations

(i) Be3N2(s) + 3Cl2(g) 3BeCl2(s) + N2(g) ∆Hf = -897.0kJ

(ii) Bes + Cl2(g) 3BeCl2(8) ∆Hf = -494.0kJ

Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of Be3N2(s) from its elements :

a. -585.3 kJ c. 793.0 kJ
b. 402.9 kJ d. -1391.1 kJ

124. Which correctly describes an exothermic reaction?

a. The products have a lower enthalpy than the reactants.

b. The reactants have a lower enthalpy than the products.
c. The enthalpy of the products is equal to the enthalpy of the reactants.
d. The sum of the enthalpies of the products and reactants is greater than zero.

125. The combustion of hydrazine, a rocket fuel, can be represented by the thermochemical equation.

N2H4(1) + O2(g) N2(g) + 2H2O(1) ∆Hf = -622.0 kJ

How much heat will be liberated by the combustion of 64.1g of hydrazine?

a. -311.2 kJ c. -622.4 kJ
b. -558.3kJ d. -1244.8 kJ

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