THIRD PERIODICAL TEST IN PHYSICAL SCIENCE

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Direction. Read the following statements carefully. Choose and write the letter of the correct answer on
the space provided before each number.

_____1. Which of the following statement explained the formation of the light elements in the Big Bang theory?
a. The light elements were produced in the Big Bang nucleosynthesis where the temperatures in the early
universe were so high fusion reactions could take place.
b. In Big bang, the universe expanded rapidly and cooled in the process.
c. In Big bang, the temperature needs to high enough for the particles to fuse and not fly apart.
d. All of the above.
_____2. As the universe continued to expand after Big Bang , matter that was initially uniformly distributed began to form lumps.
Which of the following describe the formation of heavier elements during star formation and evolution?
a. Nuclear fusion in stars converts hydrogen into helium in stars
b. the production of nuclei heavier than Hydrogen in stars called Stellar Nucleosynthesis.
c. Successive stages of stellar evolution and supernova
d. All of the above
_____3. Elements higher than Iron cannot be formed through fusion as one has to supply energy for the reaction to take place.
Which of the following describe how elements heavier than Iron are formed?
a. Nuclear Fusion
b. Supernovae – neutron capture reactions takes place
c. Nucleosynthesis
d. Stellar evolution
______4. Robert Boyle challenged the Ancient Greek’s idea about the four elements by saying that
a. There are more than four elements.
b. The basic elements are actually salt, sulphur and mercury.
c. Elements are the simplest substances which do not combine with each other
d. Elements cannot be broken down into simpler substances.
______5. During the Ancient Greek, who gave the idea that all matter is made up of tiny, indivisible particles, or atom?
a. John Dalton c. Neils Bohr
b. Democritus d. J. J. Thomson
______6. John Dalton is regarded as the Father of the Modern atomic theory. Which of the following statement is NOT his
atomic theory?
a. Matter is composed of small indivisible particles called atoms
b. The chemical properties of all atoms of any elements are the same
c. Atoms change their identities in chemical reactions.
d. A compound contains atoms of two or more different elements.
______7. Electron is the negatively charged particle of an element, who discovered Electron?
a. J. J. Thomson
b. Ernest Rutherford
c. Henry Moseley
d. Neils Bohr
______8.Atom is the smallest particle of an element, which of the following is not true about the nuclear model.
a. Proton and Neutron found inside the nucleus of the atom
b. Electron found outside the nucleus of the atom
c. Neutron revolves around the nucleus of the atom
d. Nucleus is the central part of the atom
______9. Atomic number is used to synthesize new elements. What do you call the elements with atomic numbers greater than
92 (Uranium) that discovered in the laboratory using nuclear reactors.
a. Synthesis c. Transuranium
b. Accelerators d. nuclear reactors
______10. The nuclear reactions involved in the synthesis of new element are nuclear fusion and fission? In order to synthesize
a new element, what particles of atom need to change?
a. Proton b. Electron c. Neutron d. Nucleus
______11. Which of the following statements correctly describe Dalton’s contribution to the theory about atoms and elements?
a. All substances are made up of four elements: earth, water, fire and air.
b. The knowledge that the unique characteristics of the atoms of an element is their atomic number.
c. The development of laboratory techniques for separating and analysing substances.
d. The discovery of isotopes
______12. Polar molecules have centers of positive and negative charges that are separate. Which of the following compound
is polar?
a. BeCl2 c. PF5
b. NF3 d. SiH4
______13. Polarity is a state of an atom or a molecule having positive and also negative charges? How is the polarity of a
molecule related to its properties?
a. The polarity of a molecule is related to its properties by the type of bonding
b. The polarity of bonds is caused due to the interaction of the bonds between molecules and
atoms with different electronegativity
c. Polarity is related to its properties by isotopes
d. The polarity of bonds is caused due to the interaction of the bonds between molecules and
atoms with different ionization
______14. Dipole- dipole interaction is one of the types of intermolecular forces that occurs between polar covalent molecules.
Which of the following examples is not dipoles
a. HCl c. CHCl3
b. NH3 d. H2O
______15. Intermolecular forces are forces of attraction that exist between molecules in a compound. What intermolecular
forces are found in Methane (CH4)?
a. Dipole-dipole interaction
b. London dispersion forces
c. Hydrogen Bond
d. Ionic Forces
_______16. London dispersion forces is also known as instantaneous dipole-induced dipole interaction . Which is true about
London Dispersion Forces?
a. They are formed from the distortion of the electron clouds due to the constant motion of
molecules.
b. The interaction is formed when the partial positive end of the molecule is attracted to the partial
negative end of another molecule.
c. It is a strong type of dipole-dipole interaction
d. It occurs between polar molecules.
_______17. Dipole –Dipole interactions result when to two dipolar molecules interact with each other through space. Which of
the following is an example of dipole-dipole interactions?
a. CH4 b. HCl c. F2 d. I2
_______18 Chloroform (CHCl3) occurs between Hydrogen of one molecule and Carbon of another molecule. What type of
intermolecular forces exists in Chloroform?
a. Dipole-dipole
b. London Dispersion Forces
c. Hydrogen Bonding
d. Ionic Bonding
_______19. What types of intermolecular forces are exerted by CH3Cl molecules in the liquid phase?
a. Dipole- dipole forces and hydrogen bonding
b. Hydrogen bonding and ion –dipole forces
c. Dipole-dipole forces and London dispersion forces
d. Hydrogen bonding and London dispersion forces
_______20. How do intermolecular forces affect the properties of molecular covalent substances?
a. The strength of interaction between molecules determine the properties of a substance like its
physical state at a given temperature.
b. The intermolecular forces affect the properties of substance by the type of chemical bond.
c. The intermolecular forces affect the properties of the substance by determining the phase of
matter.
d. None of the above
_______21. Medical implants are devices or tissues that placed inside or in the surface of the body. Which of the following is the
property of medical implants?
a. Corrosion resistance
b. Biocompatibility
c. Bio-adhesion
d. All of the above
_______22. Macromolecules are made up of basic molecular units. Which of the following is not a macromolecule?
a. Protein b. Nucleic acid c. Carbohydrates d. None of the above
_______23. Which is true about the functional groups that affect the structure and function of macromolecules? The functional
groups determine the shapes of macromolecules and this is turn determines their functions and affect the bonds that hold a
macromolecule.
 a. There are only three functional groups
b. All living things do not contain organic macromolecules
c. None of the above
_______24.It plays a key role in all biological processes such as transport and storage of vital substances, coordinated motion,
mechanical support and protection against diseases. Which of the following describes the statement?
a. Proteins b. Lipids c. Nucleic acid d. Carbohydrates
_______25. Proteins vary widely structure, whereas nucleic acid have rather uniform structures. How do you account for this
major difference?
a. Proteins are made up of 20 amino acids while nucleic acids are made of four building blocks
b. Proteins are made of from only one type of monomer while nucleic acids are made of purine and
phosphate group only.
c. Nucleic acids are made of different types of sugar while proteins consist of many types of carboxyl
groups.
d. Nucleic acids contain different number of purine and pyrimidine bases while protein consist of simple and
conjugated proteins
_______26. A student conducted an experiment on the reaction of HCl and zinc strips, an indication that a chemical reaction
occurs is when bubbles start to form. He recorded the time for the reaction to finish and noticed that the reaction time is shorter
at 50 °C rather than at room temperature. Which of the following is the reason why the temperature affects the rate of the
reaction?
a. enthalpies of the reactants and products
b. orientation of the colliding molecules
c. kinetic energies of the colliding molecules
d. size of the colliding molecules
_______27. Which of the following correctly describes how a catalyst affects the rate of a chemical reaction?
a. increasing the average kinetic energy of the reactants.
b. increasing the number of collisions between the reactants.
c. decreasing the energy difference between the reactants and products.
d. providing an alternate reaction pathway with a lower activation energy.
_______28. You have probably seen images of chef preparing a “flaming” dessert or entrée. The flame is usually the result of
the combustion of ethyl alcohol, C2H5OH that has been added to the food.
C2H5OH(l) + O2 (g) CO2(g) + H2O(l)
If 25.0 gram of ethyl alcohol is burned in air (excess oxygen). How many grams of carbon dioxide is produced?
a. 23.9 g b. 47.8 g c. 49.1 g d. 50.0 g
_______29. A tried-and-true introductory chemistry experiment involves heating finely divided copper metal with sulfur to
determine the proportions in which the elements react to form copper (II) sulfide. The excess sulfur required to react with the
copper may be simply boiled away from the reaction container.
Cu(s) + S(s) CuS(s) .
If 1.25 grams of copper is heated with an excess of sulfur, how many grams of sulfur will react?
a. 0.631 g b. 0.982 g c. 40.0 g d. 62.5 g
_______30. Fermentation is a complex chemical process of wine making in which glucose is converted into ethanol and carbon
dioxide: C6H12O6 2C 2H5OH + 2CO2 , starting with 500.4 grams of glucose, what is the maximum amount of ethanol
in grams that can be obtained by the process?
a. 227.9 g b. 255.9 g c. 297.8 g d. 300.2 g
_______31. For many years the recovery of gold involved the treatment by isolation from other substances, using potassium
cyanide: 4Au + 8KCN + O2 + H2O 4KAu(CN) 2 + 4KOH. What is the minimum amount of KCN in moles needed in
order to extract 29.0 grams of gold?
a. 0.294 mol b. 0.396 mol c. 1.20 mol d. 4.78 mol

For items 32-34. The reaction of calcium hydride with water can be used to prepare small quantities of hydrogen gas, as is
done to fill weather-observation balloons.
CaH2(s) + H2O(l) Ca(OH)2(s) + H2(g)
_______32. How many grams of H2(g) result from the reaction of 127 g CaH2(s) with an excess of water?
a. 3.03 g b. 4.03 g c. 6.05 g d. 7.03 g
_______33. How many grams of water are consumed in the reaction of 56.2 g CaH2(s)?
a. 42.0 g b. 48.2 g c. 56.2 g d. 58.0 g
_______34. What mass of CaH2(s) must react with an excess of water to produce 8.12 x 1024 molecules of H2?
a. 566 g b. 413 g c. 356 g d. 283 g
_______35. The food we eat is degraded, or broken down, in our bodies to provide energy for growth and function. A general
overall equation for this very complex process represents the degradation of glucose (C6H12O6) to carbon dioxide (CO2) and
water (H2O): C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO 2 + 6H 2O. If 856 g of C 6H12O6 is consumed by a person over a certain period,
what is the mass of CO2 produced?
a. 4.75 x 103 g b. 3.25 x 103 g c. 2.85 x 103 g d. 1.25 x 103 g
_______36. Solid lithium hydroxide is used in space vehicles to remove the carbon dioxide gas exhaled by astronauts. The
hydroxide reacts with the carbon dioxide to form solid lithium carbonate and liquid water. How many grams of carbon dioxide
can be absorbed by 1.00 g of lithium hydroxide?
a. 0.825 g b. 0.869 g c. 0.919 g d. 1.05 g

For items 37-38. Titanium is a strong, lightweight, corrosion-resistant metal that is used in rockets, aircraft, jet engines, and
bicycle frames. It is prepared by the reaction of titanium(IV) chloride with molten magnesium between 9508°C and 11508°C:
TiCl4(g) + 2Mg(l) Ti( s) + 2MgCl2(l). In a certain industrial operation 3.54 x 107 g of TiCl4 are reacted with 1.13 x 107
g of Mg.
_______37. Which of the following is the theoretical yield of Ti?
a. 1.87 x 105 g b. 2.32 x 105 g c. 7.91 x 106 g d. 8.95 x 106g
6
_______38. What is the percent yield if 7.91 x 10 g of Ti are actually obtained?
a. 75.8% b. 88.4 % c. 90.1% d. 99.2%
For items 39-41. The fizz produced when an Alka-Seltzer tablet is dissolved in water is due to the reaction between sodium
bicarbonate, NaHCO3, and citric acid, H3C6H5O7; 3NaHCO3 (aq) + H3C6H5O7 (aq) 3CO 2(g) + 3H2O(l) + Na3C6H5O7
(aq) . In a certain experiment 1.00 g of sodium bicarbonate and 1.00 g of citric acid are allowed to react.
_______39. Which of the following is the limiting reactant?
a. CO2 b. H2O c. H3C6H5O7 d. NaHCO3
_______40. How many grams of carbon dioxide form?
a. 0.524 g b. 0.832 g c. 0.912 g d. 1.00 g
_______41. How many grams of the excess reactant remain after the limiting reactant is completely consumed?
a. 0.524 g b. 0. 463 g c. 0.238 g d. 0.199 g
_______42. Self-cooling ice packs are often used at football games to put on injuries to stop swelling. The pack contains a small
bag of water surrounded by a larger bag containing a chemical, ammonium nitrate. When the pack is “punched” the chemical
and the water mix and the pack becomes very cold. Why is the reaction endothermic or exothermic?
a. Exothermic, because more energy is released when the bonds in the products are formed than is
used to break the bonds in the reactants.
b. Endothermic, because it takes more energy to break the bonds of the reactants than is released
when the bonds in the products are formed.
c. Endothermic, because the same amount of energy is used to break the bonds of the reactants as is
released when the bonds in the products are formed
d. Exothermic, because the temperature goes down when the energy is added to the reaction to
break the bonds and form products.
_______43. The energy of blowing wind can be harnessed to create electricity. Why is wind considered a renewable energy
source?
a. Wind does not cause destruction of the environment.
b. wind turns the blades of a windmill that creates electricity.
c. Wind provides only a very small amount of electricity to the Philippines.
d. Wind comes from atmospheric conditions that are available indefinitely.
_______44. Which of the following energy transformation occurs in harnessing energy from natural gas?
a. Nuclear energy of the steam is converted to thermal energy of the turbine in the generator.
b. Mechanical energy from the turbine is converted to electric energy.
c. Electric energy from the generator is converted to chemical energy in the power lines.
d. Chemical energy from the generator is converted to electric energy in the power lines.
_______45. The following steps describe the process of generating electricity by burning coal in a power plant. Which of the
following is the correct order of harnessing energy by burning coal?
I. The shaft of the turbine spins an electric generator.
II. The electric power is delivered to the consumer over long-distance power lines.
III. The coal fire converts liquid water to steam.
IV. The steam rotates fanlike blades of a mechanical turbine.
a. III, IV, I, and II b. I, II, III and IV c. IV, II, I and III d. II, III, IV and I
_______46. Which of the following is NOT part of the categories of personal care products?
I. fragrances II. Preservatives III. Tanning products IV. Stabilizers
V. eye make-up VI. Bubble baths VII. pH balance VIII. Baby products
a. II, IV and VIII only b. III, V, and VII only c. I, III and IV only d. II, IV and VII only
_______47. The common bleaching substance found among our household is Zonrox wherein the active ingredient is sodium
hypochlorite. Which of the following is NOT an action of Zonrox bleach?
a. prevents the dirt to attach again to the cloth
b. provides anti-bacterial protection
c. removes disease causing germs and viruses
d. removes tough stain and dirt
_______48. Some individuals with straight hair like to make their hair lightly textured, wavy or curly while those with natural curly
hair want theirs to be straightened. To make the hair curly or straight, it should be treated with a reducing agent thioglycolic acid
and a neutralizer to reverse the effect of the reducing agent. Which of the following will happen when the hair is treated?
a. The keratin absorbs the reducing agent and becomes elastic.
 b. The hair strand dies and the hair root becomes alive.
c. The disulfide linkages are formed in new positions.
d. The disulfide linkages are ruptured.
_______49. Cosmetics are products applied to the body for cleansing, beautifying, promoting attractiveness or altering
appearance. Which of the functional category of cosmetics serves as moisturizers and prevents evaporation?
a. emollients b. emulsifiers c. humectants d. occlusives
_______50. Triethanolamine(TEA) and diethanolamine(DEA) are substances that combine with nitrates to form nitrosamines.
Which of the following is NOT a possible effect of these substances?
a. can cause skin depigmentation
b. cause liver and kidney damage
c. cancer-causing agent
d. toxic to respiratory and immune system

Prepared by:

Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Region III
SCHOOLS DIVISION OF NUEVA ECIJA
Brgy. Rizal, Santa Rosa, Nueva Ecija, 3101
Tel. No. (044) 940-3121

ANSWER KEY

1 A 26 C
2 B 27 D
3 B 28 B
4 A 29 A
5 B 30 B
6 C 31 A
7 A 32 C
8 C 33 B
9 C 34 D
10 A 35 D
11 B 36 C
12 A 37 D
13 B 38 B
14 D 39 D
15 B 40 A
16 A 41 C
17 B 42 B
18 C 43 D
19 C 44 B
20 A 45 A
21 D 46 D
22 D 47 A
23 A 48 C
24 A 49 C
25 A 50 A