Directions: Write the letter of the correct answer in your answer sheet.

COMPETENCY: 1. Describe the parts of the reproductive, nervous, and

endocrine system and their functions.

REMEMBERING
1. What part of the brain controls posture, balance and coordination?
A. Brain stem
B. Cerebellum
C. Cerebrum
D. Lobe
2. Which part of the male reproductive system deposits sperms into the vagina during
mating?
A. penis
B. testes
C. testicle
D. urethra
3. Which of the following is a function of a Urethra?
A. It holds the testes.
B. It carries sperm out of the body.
C. It carries sperm from the testes.
D. It produces sperm cell.
4. During puberty, egg cells start to develop in the ovaries. What serves as the
passageway of eggs from the ovary to the uterus?
A. Fallopian tube
B. Testes
C. Vas deferens
D. Seminal Vesicle
5. Where does fertilization of egg cell normally occur?
A. Ovary
B. Scrotum
C. Uterus
D. Vagina
6. Which gland secretes thick and clear mucus that lubricates and neutralizes any trace
of acidic urine in the urethra?
A. Bulbourethral gland
B. Prostate gland
C. Seminal vesicle
D. Vas deferens
7.. Which of the following are the main divisions of the nervous system?
A. Dendritic and axonal system
B. Peripheral and central nervous system
C. Sensory and motor system
 D. Sympathetic and parasympathetic

8 Which of these produce hormones that regulate metabolism, growth and

development, tissue function, sexual function, reproduction, sleep, and mood, among
other things?
A. Digestive system
B. Endocrine system
C. Nervous system
D. Reproductive system

UNDERSTANDING
9. Which of the following composed the female reproductive system?
A. Baby canal, Oviduct, Prostate, Vagina
B. Clitoris, Fallopian tubes, Ovary, Scrotum
C. Ovaries, Oviduct, Uterus, Vagina
D. Penis, Testis, Uterus, Urethra
10. Which of the following are the main parts of a male reproductive system?
A. Bulbourethral gland, Oviduct, Penis, Uterus,
B. Penis, Testes, Urethra, Vas deferens
C. Penis, Scrotum, Uterus, Vagina
D. Testes, Uterus, Vas deferens
11. What makes up the central nervous system?
A. Brain and spinal cord
B. Combined sensory and motor
C. Cranial and spinal nerve
D. Sympathetic and parasympathetic
12. Which of the following has the role of preparing the body for fight for flight
response during threatening situation?
A. Afferent nervous system
B. Cerebrum
C. Somatic
D. Sympathetic
13.Which part of a neuron normally receives the incoming stimuli?
A. Axon
B. Dendrites
C. Neurotransmitter
D. Outer cell
ANALYSIS:
14. Which of the following is TRUE about the prostate gland?
A. Exists both in male and female body.
B. Neutralizes acidic urine in the urethra.
C. Produces fluid that makes up most of the semen.
D. Produces fluid that is discharged as part of the semen.
 15. Which of the following is the function of a female reproductive system?
I. Produces egg cells.
II. Produces sperm cell.
III. Nurtures the development of a baby.
IV. Provide nourishment to a new individual.
A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II. III and IV
D. I, III and IV
16. Which of the following is NOT true about female reproductive system?
A. Produces female sex cells
B. Receives sperm cells from the male
C. Carries sperm and urine out of the body
D. Nurtures the development for the new individual.
17. What gland takes part to control maturation and male characteristics?
I. Androgen
II. Estrogen
III. Progesterone
IV. Testosterone
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I and IV
18. Elderly people are more likely to develop type 2 diabetes or hyperglycemia. Which
hormone does not function properly?
A. Estrogen
B. Insulin
C. Thymosin
D. Thyroxin
19. Which of the following perform the functions such as heartbeat, breathing, and
blood pressure?

A. Brain stem
B. Cerebellum
C. Cerebrum
D. Spinal cord
20. Which is the main function of the cerebellum?
A. consciousness
 B. homeostasis
C. muscle coordination
D. sense reception

21. Which of the following systems consist of the brain, spinal cord, sensory organs
and all of the nerves that connect these organs with the rest of the body?
A. Digestive system
B. Endocrine system
C. Nervous system
D. Reproductive system
CREATING
22. Choose the process that occurs when the sperm and egg combine to produce an
embryo?
A. Feedback
B. Fertilization
C. Homeostasis
D. Puberty
23. Which of the following is a characteristic of a parasympathetic system?

A. causes the pupil to contract

B. promotes digestion of food
C. retards the heartbeat
D. sweating
24. Which one must do when sexual feeling occur?
A. See a doctor.
B. Consciously choose to act responsibly.
C. Explore the feelings and do what he feels.
D. Go to quite place and talk to a friend what he feels.

EVALUATING

25. Melatonin is a hormone produced in the pineal gland that is used to treat symptoms
of sleep disorders and seasonal affective disorder. Which of the following determines its
function?
A. It increases the production of serotonin.
B. It increases the production of tryptophan.
C. Its peak production is normally in the light.
D. Its peak production is normally at night..
26. Suppose Lino skipped his lunch for the day, how will the hormones (glucagon) from
his pancreas help his body to cope when the blood sugar level drops below normal?
A. It increases his blood sugar level and becomes normal.
B. It decreases his blood sugar level.
 C. It maintains his blood sugar level.
D. It fluctuates his blood sugar level.
27. Suppose Jade ate too many sweets such as candies and chocolates, how will the
hormones (insulin) from her pancreas help her body cope with a possible blood sugar
level rise above normal?
A. It decreases his blood sugar level and becomes normal.
B. It increases his blood sugar level.
C. It maintains his blood sugar level.
D. His blood sugar level will fluctuates.

APPLYING
28.The pituitary gland produces growth hormones. Identify the abnormality if the
pituitary failed to stop producing growth hormones.
A. Dwarfism
B. Gigantism
C. Goiter
D. Kidney failure

COMPETENCY: 2. Explain the role of hormones involved in the female and male
reproductive system.

Remembering
29. Which gland produces sperm and male sex hormone?
A. Bulbourethral gland
B. Oviduct
C. Scrotum
D. Testicles
30. What hormone initiates the maturation of follicle, converts ruptured follicles into
corpus luteum and causes the secretion of progesterone?
A. Follicle stimulating hormone
B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Progesterone
D. Estrogen
31. What gland releases hormone that causes the egg in the ovary to mature?
A. Adrenal gland
B. Pinneal gland
C. Pituitary gland
D. Reproductive gland
32. Which secreted progesterone?
A. Corpus Follicle .
B. Corpus Luteum
C. Graffian Follicle
D. Ovarian Follicle
 33. How long does a regular menstrual cycle last?
A. 8 Days .
B. 18 Days
C. 28 Days
D.38 Day
UNDERSTANDING

34. Which of the given hormone stimulates the contraction of smooth muscle in the
uterus?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone
B. Luteinizing hormone
D. Oxytocin
C. Prolactin
35. What will be the result of strong contractions of the uterine wall that occur before
and during menstruation?
A. Homeostasis .
B. Menstrual Cramps
C Ovulation
D. Pregnancy

CREATING
36. What might happen to the egg cell if it is NOT fertilized?
A. It will remains in the uterus.
B. It will be detached from the uterus
C. It will release a hormone called estrogen.
D. It will move from the oviduct and enters the uterus.

COMPETENCY: Describe the feedback mechanisms involved in regulating

processes in the female reproductive system.
REMEMBERING
37. What do you call the process by which the level of one substance influences the
level of another substance?
A. Equilibrium
B. Feedback Mechanism
C. Fertilization
D. Homeostasis
UNDERSTANDING
38. Which of the following responses is an example of positive feedback?
A. Body temperature rises, stimulating sweat glands to cool the body.
B. During labor, oxytocin causes the uterus to contract, which releases
more oxytocin.
C. Hunger causes the body's metabolism to decrease, which reduces hunger.
D. Blood sugar rises, causing the body to release insulin and lower blood sugar.
ANALYZING
Study the graph below. Answer questions nos.39-42 based from the graph.

39. Between which day(s) ovulation occurs?

A. Seventh to 13th
B. 10th to 12th
C. 13th to 15th
D. 23rd to 27th
40. On which day(s) the uterine lining is least thick?
A. Day 1
B. Day 8
C. Day 11
D. Day 24
41. Which hormone STARTS the ovulation cycle?
A. Estrogen
B. FSH
C. Luteinizing Hormone
D. Progesterone
42. At which phase is progesterone released?
A. Follicular Phase
B. Luteal Phase
C. Menstruation
D. Ovulation
EVALUATING
43. Which of the following BEST explains the importance of studying the
menstrual cycle?
A. To prevent unwanted pregnancy.
B. To help support family planning.
C. To familiarize with the different processes that occurs during
menstruation.
D. To be able to understand the natural changes that occurs in the
ovary and the uterus as essential part of sexual reproduction.

CREATING
44. Examine the following events during the menstrual cycle. Choose the correct
sequence of the events.
I. The ovary itself releases a hormone called estrogen, which
causes the uterine lining to increase in thickness.
II. The pituitary gland releases hormones that cause the egg in the
ovary to mature.
III. The ovary releases an egg on day 14. Assume that no sperm is
present.
IV. The cells of the thickened uterine lining break off and leave the
vagina.
V. The egg moves through the oviduct and enters the uterus.

A V, I, IV, III, II
B. II, I, III, V, IV
C. I, II, III, IV, V
D. V, IV, III, II, I
Applying
45. What might happen to a person whose nervous and endocrine systems fail to
maintain homeostasis?
A. He may encounter various diseases and even death.
B. His metabolic waste becomes greater.
C. His body temperature increases.
D. His blood calcium level drops.
46. How do the nervous and endocrine systems respond to an increase in
environmental temperature to achieve homeostasis?
A. By producing sweat to cool the body temperature.
B. By producing insulin to regulate blood sugar level.
 C. By producing anti- bodies to prevent infection.
D. By producing fluid to prevent dehydration.

COMPETENCY: Describe how the nervous system coordinates and regulates

these feedback mechanisms to maintain homeostasis.
Remembering
47. Which of the following responses is an example of negative feedback?
A. An injury activates platelets, which cling to the injured area and release
chemicals that attract more platelets.
B. Blood pressure increases, causing heart rate to slow and blood pressure
to lower.
C. A baby breastfeeds on its mother's milk, which releases prolactin and leads to
the production of more milk.
D.A ripening apple gives off ethylene, which causes nearby apples to ripen.

Creating
48. Endotherms have receptors in their skin that deliver information to the hypothalamus
of the brain, allowing them to maintain homeostatic body temperature.
Which of the following is most likely to occur when an endotherm is exposed to cold
temperatures?
A. Signals from the hypothalamus will result in increased fat production.
B. Impulses from the hypothalamus will cause vasoconstriction, or
narrowing of the blood vessels, to occur.
C. The hypothalamus will trigger a behavioral response that encourages the
endotherm to seek a warmer area.
D. Vasodilation, or widening of the blood vessels, will be initiated as the
hypothalamus is stimulated.

Analyzing
49. How do the nervous, endocrine, and reproductive systems perform their coordinated
functions such as pregnancy and child birth, menstrual cycle, breastfeeding and sexual
intercourse?
I. Correct balance of sex hormone is required throughout the
pregnancy.
II. The brain commands to nurture the baby through breast feeding.
III. The brain commands the body to perform sexual intercourse.
IV. FSH stimulates ovaries to release progesterone.

A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
 C. II and IV
D. II and III
50. How do you arrange the following feedback mechanism s in the menstrual cycle?
I. FSH stimulates the ovaries to release estrogen.
II. High levels of progesterone inhibit the release of LH.
III. High levels of estrogen prevent the production of FSH.
IV. Estrogen stimulates the release of LH from the pituitary gland to
controls the production of progesterone.
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, III, IV, II
C. IV, I, II, III
D. IV, III, II. I
Evaluating
51. Alterations in feedback mechanisms can result in dire consequences. One such
example of this is type-2 diabetes, in which the cell's ability to regulate blood glucose
levels is affected. Which of the following statements is TRUE of this disease?
A. Diet does not have an impact on the blood glucose levels of type-2
diabetics.
B. Synthetic insulin is not effective in replacing natural insulin in type-2
diabetics.
C. Type-2 diabetics do not experience the normal negative feedback
mechanism of blood glucose levels.
D. Individuals with type-2 diabetes produce excess insulin, which
causes blood glucose levels to increase drastically.

Competency: Explain how protein is made using information from DNA.

Remembering
52. What makes up the DNA?
A. deoxyribose and A, T, C, G
B. deoxyribose and A, U, C, G
C. ribose and A, T, C, G
D. ribose A, U, C, G
53. What molecules involved during transcription process?
A. DNA and mRNA
B. DNA, mRnA and rRNA
C. DNA, amino acid and tRNA
D. DNA, mRNA, amino acids, and tRNA
Understanding
54. Which nitrogenous base pair fit to make base pair?
A. adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine
B. adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine
 C. thymine and guanine; adenine and cytosine
D. adenine and adenine; cytosine and cytosine
55. How are proteins made?
A. They are made by ribosome.
B. They are made by cytoplasm.
C. They are made by nucleus.
D. They are made by cell wall.

Analyzing
56. Why does DNA replicate?
I. To produce a copy of the genetic material that will be transferred to
new cells during meiosis.
II. To produce a copy of the genetic material that will be transferred to
new gametes during mitosis.
III. To produce a copy of genetic material that will be transferred to new
cell during mitosis.
IV. To produce a copy of genetic material that will be transferred to new
gametes during meiosis.
A.I and II
B. I and III
C. III and IV
D.II and IV
57. In what order in the Central Dogma, information normally passed through the
molecules?
A. Protein to DNA to RNA
B. Protein to RNA to DNA
C. DNA to protein to RNA
D. DNA to RNA to protein

Evaluating
58. The following are the process by which DNA replicates? Which is the correct
sequence of the event?
I. The two strands of DNA splits by an enzyme called helicase.
II. The bases attached to each strand and pair up with the free nucleotides
found in the cytoplasm.
III. Two new DNA molecules each with a parent strand and with a new strand
is formed.
IV. The complementary nucleotides are added to each other by DNA
polymerase.
A. I, IV, III, II
B. II, III, I, IV
 C. I, II, IV, III
D. II, III, IV, I

59. Which is the correct sequence in the transcription process?

I. RNA polymerase slides along the DNA strand and links free RNA
nucleotides that pair with the nitrogenous bases of DNA strand.
II. RNA polymerase enzyme binds and opens the DNA molecules
III. The RNA molecules breaks away as the DNA strands rejoin.
IV. The RNA leaves the nucleus and goes to the cytoplasm.
A. I, II, III, IV
B. II. I, III, IV
C. III, IV, II, I
D. IV, III, II, I
Competency: Explain how mutations may cause changes in the structure and function
of a protein.

Remembering
60. What is a chemical alteration of a gene that produces a new allele?
A. mutation
B. genetic drift
C. meiosis
D. directional selection

61. How many chromosomes do a man made of?

A. 46 XY
B. 46 XX
C. 48 XY
D. 48 YY

62. Which of the following abnormalities is described with three copies of chromosome
21?
A. Down syndrome
B. Edward’s syndrome
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome
D. Turner’s syndrome
Understanding
63. What syndrome does a man with enlarged breasts, spare hair on the body and sex
complement as XXY suffer?
A. Down syndrome
B. Edward’s syndrome
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome
D. Turner’s syndrome
64. How does translocation happen between 2 chromosomes involve?
A. Broke apart and attached it to another chromosome.
 B. Broke apart, reversed and reinserted it into the chromosomes.
C. Chromosomes just combine with one another.
D. Chromosomes just broke apart.
Analyzing
65. How will you differentiate deletion from that of inversion?
A. Chromosomes just broke apart
B. Chromosomes just broke apart and transferred chromosomes to
other pair.
C. Chromosomes combined during deletion and breaks during
inversion.
D. In deletion chromosomes just broke apart while in inversion
chromosomes broke apart and reinserted it into other chromosomes.

Evaluating

66. Which of the following statements about mutation is TRUE?

A. Mutations are always harmful

B. Mutations in DNA can be passed on to protein
C. Mutations in a protein can be passed on to DNA
D. Mutations in DNA always affect the phenotype of an organism

Competency: Explain how fossils records, comparative anatomy, and genetic

information provide evidence for evolution

Remembering
67. In what particular layer of rock could a recent fossil be found?
A. bottom layer
B. innermost layer
C. middle layer
D. uppermost layer
68. In which rock do fossils be found?
A. Basalt rocks
B. Igneous rocks
C. Metamorphic rocks
D. Sedimentary rocks
Evaluating
69. Which statement is TRUE about fossil record?
A. It is a record of all living things.
B. It does not support the Theory of Evolution.
C. It provides evidences for history of life on earth.
D. It shows how our climate has remained the same over time.
70. What can you conclude from the fact that so many fossils involve shells, skeleton
and teeth?
A. These parts decay slower.
B. These parts are more like to be buried in ice.
 C. Most organisms on earth have shells, skeleton and teeth.
D. Bacteria and decomposers consume these parts first after animals die.

Applying
71. A student finds a fossil of a fish and concludes that the fossil must be made of
sedimentary rock. What evidence best supports the student’s conclusion?
A. Nearly all fossils form in sedimentary rock.
B. Only marine fossils form in sedimentary rock.
C. Fish fossils only form on the shore in sedimentary rocks.
D. Sedimentary rocks are different colors and fish bones will fossilize well
in this type of rock.
Analysis
72. Carbon14 has a half - life of about 5,000 years. Scientists determine that a recently
discovered fossil has about one half (50%) of the original amount of carbon-14. How old
is this fossil?
A. 1,200 years
B. 2,500 years
C. 5,000 years
D. 10,000 years

Competency: Explain the occurrence of evolution.

Remembering
73. The wing of a butterfly, of a bat, and of a bird are all adapted to flying. Each wing
has a different bone structure and they appear to have evolved independently from one
another. What kind of evolution and structure is shown by the organism?
A. Convergent evolution; analogous structures
B. Convergent evolution; homologous structures
C. Divergent evolution; analogous structures
D. Divergent evolution; homologous structures
74. Which among the different similarities is the best test to show the relatedness of
two organisms?
A. Similarity in counting behavior
B. Similarity in development.
C. Similarity in genomic DNA
D. Similarity in structure

Understanding
75. Starfish looks like a plant but actually it is an animal. In what era does this organism
belong?
A. Cenozoic
B. Mesozoic
C. Paleozoic
D. Precambrian
76. What is the process by which a population becomes better adapted to its biological
and social environment is

A. adaptation
B. genetic drift
C. meiosis
D. mutation
77. Which of the following evidences tells that Zebra and Horse has one common
ancestor which is Pliohippus? .
A. Evolution is convergent
B. Evolution Stops
C. Evolution is divergent
D. Evolution is non stop
78. Which of the following shows a convergent evolution?
A. Bird and Bat
B. Human and Ape
C Lizard and Gecko
D. Zebra and Horse . .
79. In what way does a bird and butterfly wing be similar?
A. Features
B. Function
C. Origin
D. Size

Creating
80. A researcher discovers two populations of birds that are similar. The two
populations live in habitats that are different. What evidence might suggest to the
researcher that the birds belong to different species?
A. Some birds appear to be hybrids of the birds in the two populations.
B. The birds in the two populations have different mating behaviors.
C. Birds in the two populations sometimes feed in different locations.
D. The two populations of birds feed at different times of the day.
Evaluating
81. The bones that make up the forelimbs of monkeys, cats, whales, and birds are
similar. Which of the following statements best supports the evolutionary relationship of
these animals?
A. The animals have different ancestries but have adapted to similar
environments.
B. The animals share a common ancestry but have adapted to
different environments.
C. The animals at one time lived in different environments but now share
an environment.
D. The animals use their forelimbs for identical activities but live in
different environments.
 Analyzing
82. Some snake embryos have small buds resembling limbs. These buds disappear at
later stages of embryo development. What do these findings suggest?
A. Had a parent with limbs
B. Have functional limbs as adults
C. Will have offspring with limbs
D. Evolved from an ancestor that had limbs
83. Suppose a storm kills 70% of the rabbits in a population. Will the remaining rabbit
population be more or less likely to survive an infection of influenza than the original
population?
A. The new population will be more likely survive because the remaining
rabbits are stronger.
B. The new population will be more likely to survive because there will be
more food available per rabbit.
C. The new population will be less likely to survive because there is
less genetic variation among the rabbits.
D. The new population will be less likely to survive because the storm
weakened the rabbits’ immune systems.

84. Which of the following is evidence to support the idea that two different species
might have a common ancestor?

A. Their fossils were discovered in the same location.

B. Many of their genes are the same.
C. Their methods of respiration are alike.
D. They use the same means of locomotion.

85. Bacteria adapt more quickly than elephants to environmental changes. Which best
explains this difference?
A. Bacteria reproduce more rapidly.
B. Individual bacteria grow more steadily.
C. Bacterial populations are more isolated.
D. Individual bacteria have more genes.

Amino Acid Differences Compared with Human Protein A

Species Number of amino acid differences
Dog 41
Gibbon 12
Trout 130
Whale 15
86. According to the chart, which of the following species is most closely related to
humans?
A. Dog
B. Gibbon
C. Trout
D. Whale
Use the cladogram below to answer questions 19 and 20

87. Which of the following characteristics is a derivedtrait of mammals (the mouse and
chimp)?
A. Claws or nails
B. Fur; mammary glands
C. Jaws
D. Lungs

84. Which of the following two animals are most closely related according to the
cladogram?
A. Hagfish and chimp
B. Hagfish and perch
C. Pigeon and chimp
D. Pigeon and lizard
88. Which of the following is the correct sequence of embryonic development?
I. Organogenesis
II, Gastrula
III. Blastula
A. I II III
B. I III II
C. II III I
D.. III II I
89. What similarity can be found on Fishes, Salamanders, Lizards, Birds, Cats and
Humans?
A. They all similar during the first stage of embryonic
development.
B. They belong to the same era of evolution.
C. They belong to the same group.
D. They are all mammals
Applying
90. Some areas of a forest contain rich soil, while in other areas the soil is poor. Plants
of a certain species grow taller in the rich soil than in the poor soil. The taller plants
receive more sunlight and are able to produce more offspring than the shorter plants. If
these offspring grow in rich soil, they are tall, but if they grow in poor soil, they are short.
Which of the following statements best explains why this situation is not an example of
evolution by natural selection?
A. The observed differences in plant height are not due to genetics.
B. The differences in soil conditions do not affect all plants equally.
C. The short plants and tall plants are not isolated enough from each
other.
D. The short plants are not accumulating gene mutations as quickly as the
tall
plants.

91 .A set of fossils is found that shows the change of an ancestral horse to a modern
one. Many transitional forms are found that show the slow change from the ancestor to
modern horse. Which of the following patterns of evolution does this set of fossils
support the most?
A. Convergent Evolution
B. Divergent Evolution
C. Gradualism
D. Punctuated Equilibrium

92. When Charles Darwin traveled to the Galapagos, he observed several species of
finches that resembled one another. He concluded that these species had a common
ancestor and had changed over time to best survive in their environment. What did he
call this theory?
A. Theory of acquired characteristics
B. Theory of descent with modification
C. Theory of inherited
D. Theory of natural selection

Creating
93. The above image shows embryos in a very early stage development of several
vertebrate animals. Which of the following does this best show?
A. A bird is more closely related to a mammal than a reptile
B. Amphibian, reptile, bird, and mammal embryos develop for the same
amount of time
C. Amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals share a common
ancestor
D. Amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals have adapted to a similar
habitat

94. Which statement below proves that embryonic development can be an evidence of
evolution?
A. Embryo is essential to development of an organism.
B. Embryo is an early stage of development.
C. Embryo is the final stage of development.
D. Embryo differentiates different organisms for its classification.
95. Which of the following is NOT accepted reason for preserving biodiversity?
A. Preventing natural evolution.
B. Finding new plants that can supplement the world’s food supply.
C. Increasing the chances of discovering organisms with medicinal value.
D. Isolating unique genetic material so it can be incorporated into existing
crops.
Competency: Explain how species diversity increases the probability adaptation
and survival of organisms in changing environments.
Explain the relationship between population growth and carrying capacity.
Suggest ways to minimize human impact on the environment.
Applying
96. Which of the following would be most effective in slowing the loss of biodiversity?
A. Freezing fertilized eggs of endangered animals in case the species
become extinct in the wild
B. Setting aside small plots of land in a variety of ecosystems, such as
forests, grasslands, and marshes
C. Creating large parks/preserves in biodiversity hotspots
D. Requiring every country to maintain a seed bank
Remembering
97. Which of the following will be the basis of competition among organisms in order
to survive?
A. Clothing
B. Food
C. Shelter
D. Traits
98. An organisms enable to survive and produce an offspring. What do you call
this characteristics?
A. Ability
B. Capacity
C. Fitness
D. Survivor
Understanding
99. Aside from food, what other factors do organisms will compete for to have the place
to live in?
A. Adequate Supply of needs .
B. Accessories of living
C. Environment
D. Space
100. A particular population of eagle is considered endangered. What does this
statement mean?
A. birth rate is exponential
B. birth rate is high than death rate
C. birth rate is low while death rate is high
D. birth rate is unexpected

Analyzing

101. Which will hinder the organisms to survive and reproduce?

A. Organisms with favorable characteristics
B. Organisms with greater number.
C. Organisms with adaptive traits
D. Organisms with greater changes.
102. Population A has different traits over population B in one specific environment.
What does this situation show?
A. Mutation
B. Survival
C. Traits
D. Variation

For no. 71 refer to the graph below.

103. What can you infer about the graph?

 A. The graph shows that an increase in population of the protist P. aurelia causes
a decrease in the population of P. caudatum when they are grown together.
B. The population of P. caudatum decreases while the population of P.
aurelia increases when they are grown together
C. The graph is an example of a density-dependent limiting factor.
D. The graph is an example of a density-independent limiting factor.

Applying
104. Based on the evolution of Giraffe’s long neck, which factor helps the development
of the giraffe?
A. Genes of the Giraffe
B. Environment
C. Mutations of Genes
D. Cross- Breeding Process
105. Cocolisap infestation outbreak has been declared in some Western parts of
Batangas specifically in Lemery. The cocolisap feeds on the sap of the coconut tree and
injects toxic enzymes, resulting in discolored leaves and deformed plant tissues that
retard its growth of coconut tree. This, results in a decrease of the survival rate of
coconut trees. Which of the following factors limit the population of coconut trees?
A. Competition for resources
B. Diseases and parasites
C. Emigration
D. Predation

Creating
106. Isagani breeds rabbits in a cage. After a few generation, he observes that the
rabbits are more aggressive towards each other, the young are less healthy and more
young rabbits die. What do you think will happen to the population of the rabbits?
A. The population will increase.
B. The population will decrease.
C. The population will not be affected.
D. The population will remain the same.
Evaluating
107. Which of the following statements supports the idea that extinction is necessary?
I. To give way to other organisms to develop.
II. To know who is the fittest.
III. To let other organisms evolve and progress. .
IV. To relate to each other.
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
107.

108. How would you preserve coral reefs?

A. Collect corals and sell them.
B. Collect corals as souvenir
C. Make them as jewelries.
D. Promote as an ecotourism destination
109.