IAS - Bio - SB1 - Mark Schemes and Assessments PDF

TOPIC 1: MOLECULES, TRANSPORT AND HEALTH
Chapter 1A: Chemistry for biologists
1 (a) Which of the structures A–D represents a molecule of ribose?

The position of each carbon atom is numbered.
(1)
Your answer
(b) What type of bond is found between the carbon and hydrogen atoms in a
molecule of ribose?
(1)
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(Total for Question 1 = 2 marks)
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2 The structure represents a molecule of maltose.
(a) Name the chemical bond labelled L. The position of each carbon atom is
numbered.
(1)
(b) A molecule of maltose forms when two molecules of α-glucose combine.

What type of chemical reaction results in the formation of a molecule of
maltose?
(1)
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(c) Name the two monomers present in one molecule of the disaccharide
sucrose.
(1)
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3 Starch is a polysaccharide. It is an energy store in plants.
Describe three properties of starch that make it very effective as an energy store
(3)
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4 The diagram represents the structure of a water molecule.
(a) Why is a water molecule described as a polar molecule?
(1)
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(b) Water has a high specific heat capacity.

Explain why this makes water a good habitat for living organisms
(2)
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5 (a) State two ways in which lipids are important for living organisms.
(2)
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(b) The diagram represents a molecule of triglyceride.
Name the chemical bond labelled X.
(1)
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6 (a) Which correctly shows the elements that occur in ALL proteins?
(1)
A C H O Fe
B C H O N
C C H O P
D C H O S
Your answer
(b) Which of the following is a protein?
(1)
A cellulose
B DNA
C glucose
D maltase
Your answer
(c) Explain, with reference to named examples, the importance of globular

proteins to living organisms.
(4)
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TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS
Chapter 1B: Mammalian transport systems
1 Haemoglobin in red blood cells absorbs oxygen. It is a globular protein. The

diagram below shows the structure of a molecule of haemoglobin in aqueous
solution.
(a) How many molecules of oxygen can combine with one molecule of
haemoglobin?
(1)
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(b) What evidence from the diagram indicates that haemoglobin has a
quaternary structure?
(1)
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(c) Name the inorganic ion which is a component of the haem group, shown on
the diagram as H.
(1)
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(d) Using the terms ‘hydrophilic’ and ‘hydrophobic’ and your answer to 1(c),
explain why a molecule of haemoglobin is globular in shape in aqueous
solution.
Hint: this part of the question is synoptic. To help you answer it revisit Topic
1A on protein structure.
(4)
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(e) The diagram below shows the oxygen dissociation curve for adult
haemoglobin.
Explain why the curve is S-shaped.
(3)
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2 The diagram shows the structure of the human heart.
(a) Label the following structures on the diagram:

Right atrium, left ventricle, septum, bicuspid valve, tricuspid valve, aorta.
(3)
(b) On the diagram use solid arrows to show the path of deoxygenated blood
through the heart and use dotted or dashed arrows to show the path of
oxygenated blood through the heart.
(1)
3 Angina is a type of heart disease caused by reduced blood flow in the coronary
arteries. During exercise a person with angina feels pain in the chest and arms.
(a) Explain how reduced blood flow in the coronary artery leads to the
symptoms of angina.
(2)
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(b) The symptoms of angina can be lessened by drugs that dilate the coronary
artery. State two lifestyle changes that can also reduce the symptoms of
angina.
(2)
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(c) A patient has protein in their urine. The doctor suspects that they might have
high blood pressure.
Explain how high blood pressure can lead to protein in the urine.
(2)
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Chapter 1C: Cardiovascular health and risk
1 (a) List four modifiable risk factors for developing cardiovascular disease.
(4)
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(b) List three non-modifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease.
(3)
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(c) State the difference between high density lipoproteins (HDLs) and low
density lipoproteins (LDLs).
(2)
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(d) Explain why having a ratio of HDL/LDL of 4.0 or more may protect people
from cardiovascular disease.
(6)
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2 (a) Why is prevention better than cure for diseases such as cardiovascular
disease and cancer?
(2)
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(b) Discuss why people find it difficult to adopt a healthier lifestyle.
(3)
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TOPIC 2: MEMBRANES, PROTEINS, DNA AND GENE EXPRESSION
Chapter 2A: Membranes and transport
1 Phospholipids are an important component of cell membranes. The

hydrocarbon chains of the fatty acid parts of a phospholipid molecule are
hydrophobic. Its phosphate group is hydrophilic.
(a) Define the meaning of the terms ‘hydrophobic’ and ‘hydrophilic’.
(2)
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(b) Explain how the hydrophobic properties and hydrophilic properties

determine the structure of the bilayer of cell membranes.
(4)
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(c) Describe how the hydrocarbon tails of the fatty acid parts of phospholipid
molecules contribute to the ‘fluidity’ of cell membranes.
(2)
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2 Complete the table to compare active transport, facilitated diffusion, endocytosis
and exocytosis.
(4)
Active Facilitated Bulk transport

Feature
transport diffusion Endocytosis Exocytosis
Into or out of
Direction of movement
cell
Is ATP used? No
Are protein carriers or
Yes No
channels involved?
Density of mitochondria in
High High or low
the cell
3 Explain the function of the ciliated epithelium that lines the trachea and bronchi.
(2)
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4 Discuss how the human lungs are adapted to carry out their function of effective
gaseous exchange.
(6)
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Chapter 2B: Proteins and DNA
1 The figure is a representation of a molecule of tRNA (transfer RNA).
(a) Name the bonds labelled L.
(1)
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(b) Describe the role of the sequence of bases labelled M.
(1)
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(c) Name the sequence of bases labelled N.
(1)
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2 Below is a sequence of bases that is part of a strand of mRNA (messenger

RNA) controlling the sequence of amino acids of a polypeptide.
–GUUAAAUCUUAU–
(a) The base sequence is part of a strand of mRNA and not DNA. How can you
tell?
(1)
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(b) Write the base sequence of the DNA from which the part strand of mRNA
was transcribed.
(1)
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(c) How many amino acids could be encoded by the base sequence? Explain
your answer.
(2)
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3 The information carried in the sequence of bases of all of the genes controlling
protein synthesis is the genetic code. Explain why code is described as:
(a) non-overlapping.
(2)
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(b) universal.
(2)
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4 The following is part of the base sequence of a gene and the amino acids the
sequence encodes.
U U A A U G G C C G A A
↑
Leu Met Ala Glu
(a) Write the sequence following a deletion at ↑.
(1)
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(b) Write the sequence following the insertion of cytosine (C) after ↑.
(1)
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(c) Write the sequence following a substitution at ↑ with cytosine (C).
(1)
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(d) The amino acid sequence downstream of deletion or insertion at ↑ changes.

Explain why.
(3)
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(e) A mutation changes the sequence GCC to GCU, but the sequence of amino
acids does not change.
Name the type of mutation.
(1)
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(f) Explain why the amino acid sequence does not change.
(2)
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Chapter 2C: Gene expression and genetics
1 Explain the meaning of the following terms:

(a) point mutation.
(4)
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(b) whole chromosome mutation.
(3)
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2 (a) Complete the table to show the properties for the different blood groups.
Blood group
Group A Group B Group AB Group O
(phenotype)
Possible
genotypes
Antigens on
surface of
erythrocytes
Antibodies in
blood plasma
(4)
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(b) Two babies are mixed up in hospital.
 Mr X is blood group AB and Mrs X is blood group A.
 Mr and Mrs Y are both blood group A.
 Baby 1 is blood group O.
 Baby 2 is blood group B.
Deduce which baby belongs to which set of parents. Use genetic diagrams
to show how you deduced your answer.
(4)
3 Distinguish between the following pairs of terms:

(a) Autosomes and sex chromosomes.
(2)
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(b) Homogametic and heterogametic.
(2)
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4 Which of the following statements is/are true?
Statement 1: If two alleles of a gene are codominant then both alleles are
expressed in the phenotype.
Statement 2: Recessive alleles are not expressed if a dominant allele is
present.
Statement 3: An organism exhibiting a dominant phenotype may have a
genotype that is homozygous or heterozygous for that
feature/gene.
(1)
A statements 1, 2 and 3
B statements 1 and 3 only
C statements 2 and 3 only
D statements 2 and 3 only
Your answer
(Total for Question 4 = 1 mark)
TOPIC 3: CELL STRUCTURE, REPRODUCTION AND DEVELOPMENT
Chapter 3A: Cell structure
1 The diagram below represents the ultrastructure of part of an animal cell.
(a) Name the organelles labelled X and Y.
(2)
X ............................................................................................................................................
Y.............................................................................................................................................
(b) Define the term ‘ultrastructure’.
(1)
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(c) Explain why the ultrastructure of cells is only visible using the transmission
electron microscope.
(2)
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2 State the functions of the following organelles.

(a) mitochondria
(1)
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(b) lysosomes
(1)
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(c) centrioles
(1)
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3 (a) All of the structures shown in the diagram in question 1 are found in plant
cells, except one. Which structure is not found in plant cells?
(1)
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(b) Name one structure found only in plant cells and not in animal cells.
(1)
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4 (a) Staining specimens of cells improves contrast. Explain the importance of
staining to our understanding of cell structure.
(2)
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(b) Heavy metals are used to stain cells examined in the transmission electron
microscope. Explain why.
(2)
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5 The diagram shows the structure of a bacterial cell.
(a) Name the structures W, X, Y and Z, labelled on the diagram.
(4)
W............................................................................................................................................
X.............................................................................................................................................
Y.............................................................................................................................................
Z.............................................................................................................................................
(b) Which option below correctly shows the structure of Gram positive and
Gram negative bacterial walls and how Gram positive and Gram negative
bacteria respond to Gram staining?
(1)
Gram positive Gram negative
Result with Result with

Wall structure Wall structure
Gram stain Gram stain
thin peptidoglycan with thick peptidoglycan

A violet pink
one membrane and two membranes
thick peptidoglycan thin peptidoglycan

B violet pink
with one membrane with two membranes
thick peptidoglycan thick peptidoglycan

C pink violet
with two membranes with two membranes
thick peptidoglycan thin peptidoglycan

D pink violet
with one membrane with one membrane
Your answer
(c) Which option below correctly names the shapes of the bacteria shown in the
diagram?
(1)
1 2 3 4
A bacilli cocci vibrios spirella
B cocci bacilli spirella vibrios
C bacilli cocci spirella vibrios
D cocci bacilli vibrios spirella
Your answer
Chapter 3B: Mitosis, meiosis and reproduction
1 During the cell cycle of eukaryotic cells, a parent cell divides into two daughter
cells. The process consists of three main stages: interphase, division of the
nucleus and cytokinesis.
(a) Using the information given and your own knowledge, name the two types
of nuclear division in eukaryotic cells.
(2)
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(b) During interphase, the mass of DNA in the parent cell doubles. Identify the
period during interphase when the mass of DNA doubles. Explain how this
doubling happens.
(2)
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(c) (i) Define the term ‘cytokinesis’.

(1)
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(ii) Explain how cytokinesis differs between plant cells and animal cells.
(2)
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2 Diploid human cells carry 46 chromosomes. Write in each box the correct
number of chromosomes for each type of human cell listed.
(3)
white blood cell
red blood cell
egg cell
3 In flowering plants, pollen grains develop inside the pollen sacs of an anther.
The diagram shows the process.
(a) Name the cell labelled X.

(1)
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(b) What is the process Y?

(1)
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(c) Name the nucleus labelled Z.

(1)
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4 The diagram below represents a longitudinal section through the carpel of a
flowering plant.
(a) Name the structures labelled X, Y and Z.

(3)
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(b) Describe the origin and role of enzymes during germination of a pollen grain
and extension of the pollen tube through the style of the carpel to the wall of
the embryo sac.
(4)
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Chapter 3C: Development of organisms
1 The diagram represents the early development of a human embryo to the

blastocyst stage.
(a) X is described as a ball of 16 undifferentiated cells. These cells are also

described as totipotent stem cells.
Explain the meaning of ‘totipotent cells’.
(2)
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(b) Describe the changes in gene expression and protein production when a
cell undergoes specialisation to become differentiated.
(3)
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2 Explain, with reference to named examples, the meaning of the term

‘housekeeping proteins’.
(2)
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3 Siamese cats have dark fur on their ears, noses, tails and paws. Their body fur
is cream coloured. The dark fur is due to the presence of the pigment melanin,
produced from the amino acid tyrosine, catalysed by an enzyme tyrosinase.
Due to a mutation in the gene that codes for tyrosinase, this enzyme only works
at temperatures slightly lower than normal body temperature.
(a) Explain why Siamese cats have dark fur at their tails, paws, ears and noses.
(2)
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(b) Suggest why newborn Siamese kittens are cream all over and only develop
the dark points when they are a few weeks old.
(2)
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4 A gene used to be defined as a length of DNA that codes for a protein.

Discuss why, with new scientific knowledge about gene regulation and RNA
splicing, this definition is no longer accurate.
(4)
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5 How does methylation silence a gene?
(1)
A a methyl group is added to the base cytosine and prevents transcription
B a methyl group is added to the base guanine and prevents translation
C a methyl group is removed from a gene and this prevents transcription
D a methyl group is removed from a histone, preventing a gene on a
chromosome from unwinding
Your answer
6 (a) Discuss the use of induced pluripotent stem cells (iPS cells) in stem cell
medicine.
(3)
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(b) Which of the following statements are true?

1 Some restriction endonucleases cut DNA at specific base sequences.
2 Some restriction endonucleases produce fragments of DNA with sticky
ends.
3 Some restriction endonucleases catalyse insertion of fragments of DNA
into the DNA of another species.
(1)
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Your answer
TOPIC 4: PLANT STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION, BIODIVERSITY AND
CONSERVATION
Chapter 4A: Plant structure and function
1 The structure represents a molecule of β-glucose. A molecule of cellulose

consists of many β-glucose molecules joined together.
(a) Using five molecules of β-glucose, draw part of a molecule of cellulose.

(3)
(b) Explain how the structure of cellulose adapts it to its role as a component of
the wall surrounding a plant cell.
(5)
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2 Cellulose fibres have high tensile strength. About 40% of a plant cell wall
consists of cellulose.
(a) Define the meaning of ‘high tensile strength’.
(1)
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(b) With reference to their molecular structure, explain why cellulose fibres
have high tensile strength.
(3)
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3 The diagram represents the transport of sucrose in the phloem tissue of a plant.
(a) Explain why the water potential at X in the sieve tube is more negative than
in the xylem vessel.
(2)
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(b) With reference to your answer to 3(a), explain why companion cells contain
numerous mitochondria.
(2)
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4 The diagram represents the passage of water from the soil through a plant to
the atmosphere.
(a) Name the processes labelled X and Y on the diagram.

(2)
X ……………………………………………………………………
Y ……………………………………………………………………
(b) The transport of water up the stem depends on cohesion between its
molecules. Explain how.
(2)
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CONSERVATION
Chapter 4B: Classification
1 A species is often defined as a group of individuals with similar characteristics to

each other which can sexually reproduce offspring that are themselves able to
reproduce.
Explain why individuals of the same species have similar characteristics.
(2)
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2 A classification in common use (domain, phylum, class, genus, species, etc.)

places organisms into groups according to the characteristics that the
organisms share as the result of inheritance from a common ancestor. The
groups form a hierarchy.
(a) Explain the meaning of ‘groups form a hierarchy’.
(2)
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(b) Define the term ‘common ancestor’.

(2)
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3 The characteristics of an organism are the result of genes expressing proteins.
Comparing the sequence of bases of genes and the sequence of amino acids of
different proteins can be used to distinguish species and evolutionary
relationships.
(a) Explain how comparing the sequence of bases of genes and the sequence
of amino acids of different proteins helps to determine evolutionary
relationships between species.
(3)
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(b) Explain why using amino acid sequencing is not reliable in identifying
evolutionary relationships between species.
(4)
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4 In the UK, the plant shown in the photograph below is popularly called cuckoo
pint, lords and ladies or jack or parson in the pulpit. Worldwide, biologists call it
by its scientific name Arum maculatum.
(a) What is the system of classification called that identifies an organism using
a particular two-part name?
(1)
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(b) Explain why it would be incorrect to name the plant in the photograph as
arum Maculatum.
(2)
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(c) Explain why biologists call different types of organism each by their
scientific name.
(2)
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(d) Describe how scientists agree to give an organism a particular scientific
name.
(2)
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CONSERVATION
Chapter 4C: Biodiversity and conservation
1 Discuss the similarities and differences between the founder effect and a
population bottleneck.
(4)
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2 In 1908 the mathematician G.H. Hardy and the physician W. Weinberg

concluded independently of one another that the relationship between the
frequencies of alleles of genes and phenotypes in a population does not change
from generation to generation unless disturbed by other factors. In the absence
of disturbing factors, the frequencies are constant and remain in equilibrium.
Natural populations are always affected by disturbing factors. Only large
populations maintained under laboratory conditions can possibly achieve
Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium.
(a) Name three factors affecting large natural populations that disturb the
(3)
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(b) Explain why populations have to be large in order to achieve

(2)
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3 Let p represent the frequency of the dominant allele of a gene controlling fur
colour in a population of cats and let q represent the frequency of the recessive
allele.
Assuming that all the cats of the population carry either or both alleles, then the
total frequency of the alleles controlling fur colour in the population is expressed
as:
p + q = 1 (100% of alleles)
30% of the cat population has black fur. The allele controlling black fur is
recessive to the allele controlling white fur.
(a) (i) Calculate the frequency of each of the alleles in the cat population.
Explain your working.
(3)
Answer ..................................................................................................................................
(ii) For a population of 300 cats, calculate the number that you would
expect to be heterozygous for the gene for fur colour. Give your
answer to the nearest whole number.
(4)
Answer ..................................................................................................................................
(b) In a population of sheep, the proportion of individuals homozygous for the
recessive allele controlling black wool is 4%. Calculate the proportion of the
population you would expect to be heterozygous. Show your working.
Assume Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium.
(4)
Answer ..................................................................................................................................

Chapter 1A: Chemistry for biologists
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

number
1(a) A (1)
1(b) Covalent (1)

number
2(a) 1,4-glycosidic bond (1)
2(b) Condensation (1)
2(c) Glucose and fructose (1)
Question Answer and additional guidance Mark

number
3 A response that refers to three of: (3)
 form compact molecules and take up little space
 physically and chemically inactive so do not interfere with cell functions
 insoluble in water so do not exert osmotic effects
 can be hydrolysed to glucose for use in respiration/to release energy/make ATP
1
number
4(a) It has opposite charge(s) at each end. (1)
4(b)  The presence of hydrogen bonds between the water (2)
molecules means that a lot of heat energy is needed to
separate the water molecules from each other. (1)
 So, the temperature of large bodies of
water/lakes/rivers/oceans remains fairly stable. (1)

number
5(a)  Make up cell membranes (phospholipids). (1) (2)
 Can be stored/energy store. (1)
5(b) Ester (bond) (1)

number
6(a) B (1)
6(b) D (1)
6(c) The response should refer to the following points: (4)
 Complex tertiary structures, some have quaternary structures
 Some miscible in water/some repel water, depends on R groups –
hydrophobic or hydrophilic
 When in water because they are large molecules they form colloids
and hold molecules in position in the cytoplasm
 Important ‘working’ molecules such as enzymes, haemoglobin, some
2
hormones and antibodies
 Enzymes catalyse metabolic reactions, haemoglobin carries oxygen
from lungs to respiring cells, antibodies important for immunity, insulin
regulates blood glucose level
3
Chapter 1B: Mammalian transport systems

number
1(a) 4 (1)
1(b) More than one polypeptide chain. (1)
1(c) Iron (ion)/Fe(2+) (1)
1(d) An explanation that refers to the following: At least one point from each part of the answer (4)
● Hydrophilic side chain is required to gain 4 marks.
● On outside of molecule
● Forms hydrogen bonds with water/attracted to water
and
● Hydrophobic side chains
● Inside/interior of molecule
● Do not form hydrogen bonds with water/repelled by water
1(e) An explanation that refers to three of the following: (3)
● Combination of O2 with (first) haem group is slow
● Changes shape of the haemoglobin molecule
● Shape change facilitates/makes easier the combination of the next
two oxygen molecules with other haem groups
● Last molecule of oxygen takes longer to combine with iron in haem
1
number
2(a) 5 or 6 correct = 3 marks. (3)
3 or 4 correct = 2 marks.
1 or 2 correct = 1 mark.
2(b) Both sides correct for 1 mark. (1)
2
number
3(a) Lack of oxygen to heart muscle (1) (2)
Heart muscle cells have to carry out anaerobic respiration (so
become fatigued) (1)
3(b) Two of: (2)
● Take more exercise
● Lose weight
● Stop smoking
● Reduce alcohol intake
3(c) Damage to blood vessels/tubule walls in nephron/kidney (1) (2)
Large protein molecules can be squeezed out into filtrate/into
urine (1)
3
Chapter 1C: Cardiovascular health and risk
number
1(a) Four of: (4)
 Smoking
 Drinking alcohol
 Diet high in saturated fat
 Being overweight
 Lack of physical exercise
 High blood pressure
1(b) Age (1) Accept gender (3)
Sex (male or female) (1)
Genetic makeup (1)
1(c) LDLs made from saturated fats, cholesterol and protein (1) (2)
HDLs made form unsaturated fat, cholesterol and protein (1)
1(d) Six of: (6)
 HDLs carry cholesterol from body tissues to liver
 Where it may be broken down/excreted (in bile)
 They help remove cholesterol from fatty/atheromatous plaques in
artery walls
 This reduces risk of atherosclerosis, which is a risk factor for
cardiovascular disease
 LDLs bind to cell membranes before being taken into cells
 This can reduce the amount of LDL being removed from blood
 So, increases development of fatty plaques
 And hence risk of cardiovascular disease
1
number
2(a) Two of: (2)
 Cure/treatment is expensive
 Involves patient being off work
 May not always work/patient may not survive
 Other members of the family are affected by illness of the patient
 Adopting healthy lifestyles can reduce risk of more than one
disease/type of disease
 People feel better/less depression, when healthy
2(b) Three of: (3)
 People do not have a good understanding of risk
 They have the attitude ‘it won’t happen to me’
 Smoking and alcohol and sugar are all addictive so difficult to change
behaviour
 People do not want to stop eating food they enjoy
 Many people try but give up (e.g. start taking exercise but then find
excuses not to continue)
 People may think that if they develop CVD it can be easily cured
2
Chapter 2A: Membranes and transport

number
1(a) Hydrophilic: (readily) forms hydrogen bonds with water molecules (1) (2)
Hydrophobic: does not form hydrogen bonds with water (1)
1(b) Phosphate groups attracted to water/hydrophilic, and face outwards (1) Answer should be in logical order to gain 4 (4)
Fatty acid parts repelled by water/hydrophobic, and face inwards (1) marks. Marking points 1 and 2 can be in either
order.
Therefore, phospholipids (1)
Spontaneously form a stable bilayer in water (1)
1(c) A description that refers to two of the following: Answer should be in logical order to gain 2 (2)
● Fatty acid parts/hydrocarbon tails/chains contain double bonds marks. However, they may start with marking
points 2 or 3 and say ‘because of presence of
● Therefore, phospholipid molecules loosely packed double bonds in HC tails’.
● Therefore, membrane is ‘fluid’
1
Question Answer Mark
number
2 (4)
Active Facilitated Bulk transport
Feature
transport diffusion Endocytosis Exocytosis
Into or out Into or out of
Direction of movement Into cell Out of cell
of cell cell
Is ATP used? Yes No Yes Yes
Are protein carriers or
Yes Yes No No
channels involved?
Density of mitochondria
High High or low High High
in the cell
1 mark for each correctly complete column.

number
3 (cilia) move/waft/beat (1) Accept any word that implies they move. (2)
(to) move mucus with dirt/pathogens out of airways (1) Accept other words for dirt and named
examples of pathogens.
2
number
4 An explanation/discussion that refers to: Ignore references to gases having to be in (6)
● Many alveoli give large surface area solution to diffuse as this has been shown to
be incorrect. Oxygen and carbon dioxide
● Thin alveoli walls give short diffusion distance actually diffuse faster when NOT in solution.
● Thin walls of blood capillaries/blood capillaries close to alveoli walls,
gives short diffusion pathway
● Flow of blood maintains steep concentration gradient
● Breathing/flow of air, through lungs maintains steep diffusion gradient
● Moist surfaces of alveoli/surfactant prevent alveoli collapsing/sticking
together, which would reduce surface area for gas exchange
3
Chapter 2B: Proteins and DNA

number
1(a) Hydrogen bonds (1)
1(b) Amino acid binding site (1)
1(c) Anticodon (1)

number
2(a) Contains uracil (U) instead of thymine (DNA). (1)
2(b) –CAATTTAGAATA– (1)
2(c) 4 (1) (2)
Three bases in sequence/triplet of bases/codon encode each amino acid.
(1)

number
3(a) The base of a triplet encoding a particular amino acid (1) (2)
does not encode other amino acids. (1)
3(b) Code is the same (1) (2)
in the cells of (most) living things/organisms. (1)
1
number
4(a) –UUAUGGCCGAA– (1)
4(b) –UUAACUGGCCGAA– (1)
4(c) –UUACUGGCCGAA– (1)
4(d) Sequence of three bases/triplets of bases/codons changes. (1) (3)
Causing frame shift. (1)
Encoding different amino acid. (1)
4(e) Substitution (1)
4(f) Genetic code is degenerate. (1) Accept: only methionine (Met) and tryptophan (2)
Most amino acids encoded by more than one triplet of bases/codon. (1) (Try) encoded by one triplet of bases/codon;
other amino acids encoded by more than one
triplet of bases/codon.
2
Chapter 2C: Gene expression and genetics

number
1(a) A response that refers to: (4)
 A change to the bases/base pairs/base triplets in DNA
May be:
 Substitution of one base (pair) for another
 May lead to a different amino acid being inserted in the protein chain
 Or could be a silent mutation
 Or could lead to no start codon or an early stop codon so no protein or
a truncated protein
 Deletion – one base (pair) completely lost
 Insertion – addition of a base (pair)
 Indels lead to a frameshift/description of effect on the protein
1(b) A response that refers to: (3)
 Loss of a whole chromosome
 Duplication/aneuploidy, e.g. trisomy 21
 Part of a chromosome may become attached to a different
chromosome (and interfere with regulation of expression of genes on
that chromosome)
 Part of a chromosome may become inverted/lost/duplicated
1
number
2(a) (4)
Blood group
Group A Group B Group AB Group O
(phenotype)
Possible
IAIA or IAIO IBIB or IBIO IAIB IOIO
genotypes
Antigens on
surface of A B A and B None
erythrocytes
Antibodies in Anti A and anti
Anti B Anti A None
blood plasma B
(1 mark for each correct column – 4 marks in total)
2
2(b) Baby 1 belongs to Mr and Mrs Y and Baby 2 belongs to Mr and Mrs X. (4)
A B A A A O B O
Genetic diagrams should show that Mr X is I I , Mrs X could be I I or I I , and Baby 2 is I I . This baby inherits the B allele
from Mr X and an O allele from Mrs X; because IB is dominant and IO is recessive the baby’s phenotype will be group B.
Genetic diagram should show that Mr and Mrs Y are both heterozygous with genotype IAIO, and Baby 2 inherits IO from both
parents and is homozygous.
3
number
3(a) Autosomes are the chromosomes that do not play any part in determining (2)
an organism’s sex. (1)
Sex chromosomes contain genes that determine an organism’s sex. (1)
3(b) Homogametic – all gametes have the same sex chromosome/all eggs (2)
have an X chromosome. (1)
Heterogametic – half the gametes have an X chromosome and half have a
Y chromosome/not all gametes have the same sex chromosome. (1)

number
4 B Statement 2 is not correct because recessive (1)
alleles are expressed/make an abnormal
protein, but do not contribute to the phenotype
if a dominant allele is present as there will be
enough functioning/normal protein to prevent
any symptoms.
4
Chapter 3A: Cell structure

number
1(a) X = Golgi (apparatus/body) (1) (2)
Y = rough endoplasmic reticulum/RER (1)
1(b) (Cell) structures visible only in the transmission electron microscope/TEM (1)
1(c) An explanation that refers to two of the following: (2)
−
● Short wavelength/λ of electrons/e
● Increases resolving power/resolution of TEM
● So, can achieve higher magnification while still having a clear image

number
2(a) Oxidation of pyruvate/aerobic stages of respiration/link reaction, Krebs Reject oxidation/breakdown of glucose. (1)
cycle and oxidative phosphorylation/formation of much ATP.
2(b) Contain (digestive) enzymes that, when released, destroy worn out (1)
organelles/ingested pathogens/virus particles.
2(c) ● Their (microtubules) form (star-shaped structure/aster) fibres, forming (1)
the spindle
or
● form spindle fibres
1
number
3(a) Centrioles (1)
3(b) One of: (1)
Chloroplast/cellulose cell wall/plasmodesmata/tonoplast/large permanent
vacuole.

number
4(a) An explanation that refers to two of the following: For first, second and fourth points, accept (2)
● Improves contrast between structures words to this effect.
● Allows structures to be seen one from the other The idea students should convey is that
staining makes it easier to see structures as
● Refractive index of unstained structures similar separate from one another.
● Difficult to see structures one from the other Allow the converse of any of these points.
4(b) An explanation that refers to two of the following: (2)
● Heavy metals (lead/uranium salts) absorb electrons
● The more heavy metal stain absorbed by structure, the fewer
electrons pass through to hit screen/electron capture
device/(photographic) film
● An image is produced contrasting shades of grey, dark → light
2
number
5(a) W = capsule (4)
X = flagellum
Y = plasmids
Z = pili
5(b) B . (1)
5(c) D (1)
3
Chapter 3B: Mitosis, meiosis and reproduction

number
1(a) Mitosis (1) and meiosis (1) Answers can be in any order (2)
1(b) S-phase (1) Accept brief description of DNA replication. (2)
Doubling occurs due to DNA replication (1)
1(c)(i) Cell division (1) (1)
1(c)(ii) Parent plant cell divided by cell plate (1) (2)
Parent animal cell divided by cleavage furrow (1)

number
2 46 (white blood cells) (1) (3)
0 (red blood cells) (1)
23 (egg cells) (1)
1
number
3(a) X = mother cell (1)
3(b) Y = meiosis (1)
3(c) Z = tube nucleus (1)

number
4(a) X = style (1) (3)
Y = ovule (1)
Z = micropyle (1)
4(b) A description that refers to four of the following: (4)
● Pollen tube produces enzymes/pectinase and cellulase
● Enzymes/pectinase and cellulase catalyse hydrolytic reactions that
digest tissues
● Enabling pollen tube to extend/grow through style to micropyle
● Enzymes/pectinase and cellulase catalyse hydrolysis of connective
tissue between cells (pectinase) and cellulase of cell walls (cellulose)
● Products of digestion are a nutrient source for growth of the pollen
tube
2
Chapter 3C: Development of organisms

number
1(a) Able to divide (1) and (2)
differentiate into any kind of cell (1)
1(b) An explanation that refers to three of the following: (3)
● Some genes are silenced/switched off
● So, they will not be expressed
● So, some proteins are not made
● Only the particular proteins needed for that type of cell to function (as
well as housekeeping proteins) are made

number
2 Two of: (2)
● (proteins) found in all cells
● E.g. enzymes involved in metabolic reactions, e.g. respiration
● Proteins in cell membranes/organelles
1
number
3(a) These areas are at a slightly lower temperature than normal body (2)
temperature (1)
So, tyrosinase can catalyse the formation of melanin from tyrosine (1)
3(b) In the uterus all parts of their bodies are normal body temperature/no cooler (2)
areas (1)
As newborns they will be kept warm all over by the mother and each other
(huddling) but as they begin to move around their tails/feet/noses/ears
become cooler/lose heat (1)

number
4 Four of: (4)
● Some genes code for mRNA that is not translated into protein but
instead regulates the expression of other genes
● At transcription pre mRNA is made that contains introns and exons
● Spliceosomes edit out/remove introns
● Different spliceosomes remove different introns
● So, different combinations of exons are left/expressed
● And so, one gene can code for many proteins
2
number
5 A (1)

number
6(a) Three of: (3)
 Can be made by reprogramming adult cells
 No need to use embryonic cells
 Overcomes ethical objections to use of embryo cells
 Not fully totipotent
 May become cancerous as genes used to make them are associated
with cancer development
 Use of embryo stem cells for stem cell medicine is likely to be more
effective
6(b) A (1)
3
TOPIC 4: PLANT STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION, BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
Chapter 4A: Plant structure and function

number
1(a) (3)
Answers should convey the idea that one molecule is rotated through 180° relative to the adjacent molecule.
Accept alternative form of glycosidic bond:
1
1(b) An explanation that refers to five of the following: Structure must relate to function. (5)
● β 1,4-glycosidic linkages (or words to that effect) produce chain-like If only structure or function is described, award
molecules of cellulose a maximum of 2 marks.
● Hydrogen bonding between chains forms microfibrils

● Hydrogen bonding between microfibrils forms fibres
● Chain-like structure of molecule and hydrogen bonding
● Gives fibres high tensile strength/make them difficult to break/pull
apart under tension
● 40% of plant cell wall cellulose
● Mechanical strength of fibres withstands high hydrostatic/turgor/water
pressure in plant cells
● Plant cells turgid/do not burst
● Turgid cells support herbaceous (non-woody) plants upright
● AVP

number
2(a) Difficult to pull apart. (1)
2(b) An explanation that refers to three of the following: (3)
● Hydrogen bonding
● Between chains of β-glucose molecules
● Forming microfibrils
● Forming (cellulose) fibres
2
number
3(a) Sucrose/sugar unloaded from phloem tissue/sieve tubes/into root cells (1) (2)
Increasing solute/sucrose/sugar concentration in root cell (1)
3(b) To produce much ATP, (by aerobic respiration) (1) (2)
To actively load/transport sucrose into sieve tubes (1)

number
4(a) X = transpiration (1) (2)
Y = osmosis (1)
4(b) Transpiration produces ‘pull’ in xylem (vessels) (1) (2)
‘Pull’ is possible because hydrogen bonding between water molecules
gives water molecules cohesion/tensile strength (1)
3
Chapter 4B: Classification

number
1 An explanation that refers to two of the following: (2)
● Share common ancestor
● Therefore, have characteristics/genes/alleles in common
● Enabling them to interbreed and produce fertile offspring

number
2(a) Characteristics unique to/only found in a group (1) (2)
Therefore, characteristics do not overlap (1)
2(b) Ancestral species (group) is the origin of characteristics (1) The idea that students must convey is that the (2)
that descendant species (group) share in common (1) relationship between species/individuals is a
result of shared evolutionary history/phylogeny.
1
number
3(a) Species descended from common ancestor (1) (3)
The more recent the common ancestor, the more gene/DNA sequences
and protein/amino acid sequences descendant species of common
ancestor will share in common (1)
The more sequences (DNA/amino acids) shared in common, the closer the
evolutionary relationships between species (1)
3(b) An answer that refers to four of the following: (4)
● Genetic code is degenerate
● Mutation of a codon encoding a particular amino acid can alter a
codon to another codon encoding the same amino acid
● Then the codon/gene changes
● But amino acid sequence does not
● Therefore, using amino acid sequences to infer/deduce changes in
base/gene sequences during evolution can be unreliable/misses
changes in genes
2
number
4(a) Binomial (system) (1)
4(b) First letter of genus (first) name is upper case/capital (1) (2)
First letter of species (second) name is lower case/small (1)
4(c) An explanation that refers to two of the following: (2)
● Different species sometimes given same common/everyday name
● Scientific name identifies a particular species
● Therefore, the scientific name avoids confusion over what particular
type of organism is referred to
4(d) Experts in naming organisms/taxonomists worldwide meet at conferences (2)
(1)
Exchange ideas/opinions and agree new scientific names on basis of
data/evidence available (1)
3
Chapter 4C: Biodiversity and conservation

number
1 An explanation that refers to four of the following: (4)
● Both involve reduction in population size
● And reduction of genetic variation/loss of some alleles
● Frequency of rare/deleterious alleles may be larger in the resulting
population/gene pool than in original population
● Bottleneck – the change results from a disaster or disease that kills
many in the original population
● Founder effect – a small section of the original population leaves and
sets up a new population

number
2(a) Any three of: (3)
● Selection pressures
● Non-random mating
● Mutations
● Genetic drift
● Migration
2(b) Avoids alleles being lost by chance (1) (2)
due to genetic drift (1)
1
number
3(a)(i) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 (1) Allow working out of p first, and then q. (3)
2
q = 0.3 so q = 0.548 (1)
p + q = 1 so p = 0.452 (1)
3(a)(ii) Number of heterozygotes = 2pq (1) (4)
2pq = 2  0.548  0.452 = 0.495 (1)
Number of cats = 300  0.495 = 148.5 (1)
149 (1)
3(b) Frequency of homozygous recessive genotype q2 = 0.04 (1) (4)
q  0.04 = 0.2 (1)
p = 1 − 0.2 = 0.8 (1)
Substitute into expression from Hardy–Weinberg equation:
2pq = 2  0.8  0.2 = 0.32 or 32% (1)
2

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TOPIC 1: MOLECULES, TRANSPORT AND HEALTH

Chapter 1A: Chemistry for biologists

1 (a) Which of the structures A–D represents a molecule of ribose?

(b) A molecule of maltose forms when two molecules of α-glucose combine.

4 The diagram represents the structure of a water molecule.

(a) Why is a water molecule described as a polar molecule?

(b) Water has a high specific heat capacity.

Name the chemical bond labelled X.

(c) Explain, with reference to named examples, the importance of globular

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

1 Haemoglobin in red blood cells absorbs oxygen. It is a globular protein. The

Explain why the curve is S-shaped.

(a) Label the following structures on the diagram:

(Total for Question 3 = 6 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

(b) List three non-modifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease.

(Total for Question 1 = 15 marks)

(b) Discuss why people find it difficult to adopt a healthier lifestyle.

(Total for Question 2 = 5 marks)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

1 Phospholipids are an important component of cell membranes. The

(b) Explain how the hydrophobic properties and hydrophilic properties

Active Facilitated Bulk transport

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

1 The figure is a representation of a molecule of tRNA (transfer RNA).

(a) Name the bonds labelled L.

(b) Describe the role of the sequence of bases labelled M.

(c) Name the sequence of bases labelled N.

2 Below is a sequence of bases that is part of a strand of mRNA (messenger

(a) Write the sequence following a deletion at ↑.

(c) Write the sequence following a substitution at ↑ with cytosine (C).

(d) The amino acid sequence downstream of deletion or insertion at ↑ changes.

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

1 Explain the meaning of the following terms:

(b) whole chromosome mutation.

(Total for Question 2 = 8 marks)

3 Distinguish between the following pairs of terms:

(b) Homogametic and heterogametic.

(Total for Question 3 = 4 marks)

(Total for Question 4 = 1 mark)

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

1 The diagram below represents the ultrastructure of part of an animal cell.

(a) Name the organelles labelled X and Y.

(b) Define the term ‘ultrastructure’.

2 State the functions of the following organelles.

5 The diagram shows the structure of a bacterial cell.

(a) Name the structures W, X, Y and Z, labelled on the diagram.

Gram positive Gram negative

Result with Result with

thin peptidoglycan with thick peptidoglycan

thick peptidoglycan thin peptidoglycan

thick peptidoglycan thick peptidoglycan

thick peptidoglycan thin peptidoglycan

A bacilli cocci vibrios spirella

B cocci bacilli spirella vibrios

C bacilli cocci spirella vibrios

D cocci bacilli vibrios spirella

TOTAL FOR ASSESSMENT = 20 MARKS

(c) (i) Define the term ‘cytokinesis’.

white blood cell

red blood cell

(a) Name the cell labelled X.

(b) What is the process Y?