GS SCORE

PRELIMS TEST
SERIES 2017
TEST - 27

Mock 1 Paper 1 and

Paper 2

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Mock - 1 Paper - 1
ANSWERS
1. (d)
Exp: NBAGR is premier institute for
identification, characterization, evaluation,
OR2.
conservation and utilization of livestock
and poultry genetic resources of the
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country. It is located in Karnal, Haryana.
It was established by merging National
Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources and
National Institute of Animal Genetics in
September 1995.
NBAGR Objectives:
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• To conduct systematic surveys to
characterise, evaluate and catalogue
farm livestock and poultry genetic
resources and to establish their National
Data Base.
• To design methodologies for ex situ
conservation and in situ management
and optimal utilization of farm animal
genetic resources.
• To undertake studies on genetic
characterisation using modern biological
techniques such as molecular
cytogenetics, Immunology, DNA
Fingerprinting, RFLP analysis etc.
• To conduct training programmes as
related to evaluation, characterisation
and utilisation of animal genetic
resources.
Answers:
Paper Code: 1 A
E
(a)
Exp: A genetically modified insect is an insect
that has been genetically modified for
various reasons such as agricultural
production, oil production and pest control.
Scientists have moved on from using bed
nets and insecticides to kill malaria-
spreading mosquitoes, to genetically modify
the mosquitoes by inserting a gene that
leads to the production of male offsprings.
Since only females carry the malaria-
causing microorganism, the spread of the
disease is controlled in the short-term while
eventually the whole population gets wiped
out.
Scientists injected a gene from a slime mould
into the mosquito which attached itself to
the X chromosome during sperm-making
process effectively masking the sperms
leading to production of male offsprings.
In response to the Zika virus outbreak,
Brazil's National Biosafety Committee
approved the releases of more genetically
modified Aedes aegypti mosquitos
throughout their country.
3. (a)
Exp: Faster growth may not be always assured
in the usage of compost. That's why we use
chemical fertilizers in the fields.
[1]
4. (a)
Exp: Punjabis are known for celebrating
Baisakhi.
5. (c)
Exp: Earthquake waves are basically of two types
- body waves (P wave and S wave) and
surface waves (love wave and Rayleigh
wave). The P-waves are similar to sound
waves. They travel through gaseous, liquid
and solid materials. P-waves vibrate parallel
to the direction of the wave. This exerts
pressure on the material in the direction of
the propagation. As a result, it creates
density differences in the material leading
to stretching and squeezing of the material.
S-waves arrive at the surface with some
time lag. These are called secondary waves.
OR
An important fact about S-waves is that
they can travel only through solid materials.
The direction of vibrations of S-waves is
perpendicular to the wave direction in the
vertical plane. Hence, they create troughs
and crests in the material through which
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they pass. Surface waves are considered to
be the most damaging waves.
Shadow zone of P wave is smaller than S
wave shadow zone.
6. (a)
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7. (d)
Exp: Rise in imports will increase the supply and
hence fulfill the gap of demand, hence
prices will not rise; whereas rise in exports
can cause inflation.
8. (b)
Exp: It seeks to provide connectivity to un-served
and under-served airports through revival
of existing air-strips and airports etc.
Recently, The Delhi HC issued notices to
the Centre, the AAI and DGCA as the
Federation of Indian Airlines (FAI) sought
a stay on Government notification on levy
of Rs.7, 500 to Rs.8, 500 per flight to create
a regional connectivity fund (RCF).
9. (c)
Exp: Exercises with Foreign Navies:
[ 2 ]
• Malabar-15: India and US have been
regularly participating. Recently included
participation by Japanese Maritime Self
Defence Force (JMSDF).
• Varuna-15: Since 1993 Indo-French Naval
Exercise 'VARUNA'.
• Simbex-15: Singapore India Maritime
Bilateral Exercise alternately in the Bay of
Bengal and in South China Sea.
• Konkan-15: The annual bilateral naval
exercise KONKAN with the Royal Navy,
held in 2015 off the coast of the UK.
• Ausindex-15: Between IN and Royal
Australian Navy (RAN).
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• Slinex-15: First time in 2005 and in 2010,
in 2015 off Sri Lanka.
• Indra-15: Indo - Russia naval exercise
named 'INDRA' is being conducted since
2003.
10. (c)
Exp: Hindustani Sangeet is usually considered
to be a mixture of traditional Hindu musical
concepts and Persian performance practice.
Types of Hindustani Music and its meaning
Dhrupad - Effort from vocal chords and
lungs.
Dhamar - Play of Krishna during holy.
Thumri - Romantic religious literature.
Bhajan - Religious devotional songs.
11. (d)
12. (d)
Exp: The Ministry of Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship (SDE) and Wadhwani
Operating Foundation (WOF) have signed
two Agreements for effectuating an earlier
understanding of jointly developing and
implementing Entrepreneurship and Skill
Development initiatives in the country with
the Pradhan Mantri YUVA Scheme being
the first joint effort in this regard. Pradhan
Mantri YUVA Scheme launched by the
Ministry during November, 2016 aims at
providing online Entrepreneurship
Answers:
 Education to about 15 lakh students across
the country through 3050 Project Institutes
consisting of Institutions of Higher
Learning; Schools; ITIs and
Entrepreneurship Development Centres,
both Government and Private. The online
Entrepreneurship Modules will be duly
supplemented by the class room based
experiential learning activities and
practicums which will be facilitated by
specially trained Faculty of the educational
institutions.
13. (c)
Exp: A group of farmers form a co-operative
society by pooling in their resources
voluntarily for more efficient and profitable
farming. Individual farms remain intact
and farming is a matter of cooperative
initiative.
Co-operative societies help farmers, to
OR 19.
procure all important inputs of farming, sell
the products at the most favourable terms
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and help in processing of quality products
at cheaper rates.
Co-operative movement originated over a
century ago and has been successful in
many western European countries like
Denmark, Netherlands, Belgium, Sweden,
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Italy etc. In Denmark, the movement has
been so successful that practically every
farmer is a member of a co-operative.
Collective farming or the model of Kolkhoz
was introduced in erstwhile Soviet Union
to improve upon the inefficiency of the
previous methods of agriculture and to
boost agricultural production for self-
sufficiency.
14. (c)
15. (d)
16. (b)
Exp: Preventing conflict and sustaining peace
through decent work
17. (b)
Exp: In the leeward side, a decrease in altitude
increase pressure and temperature of air,
thus air gets compressed and warmed.
Answers:
Consequently the relative humidity drops.
This area is called rain shadow zone
18. (c)
Exp: Varying from bank to bank, the micro-
ATM allows for biometric identification (via
Aadhaar), use of debit and RuPay cards,
or the mobile phone number, to access bank
account. The basic transaction types that
are normally supported by a Micro-ATM
are; deposit, withdrawal, fund transfer and
balance enquiry. These ATMs offer an
online interoperable, low-cost payments
platform to everyone in the country. These
also offer a host of features such as e-KYC
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based account opening, account servicing,
remittances, utility payments, account
servicing etc, apart from withdrawal and
deposit facility.
(c)
Exp: NGT is a statutory body under National
Green Tribunal Act 2010. The Tribunal is
not bound by the procedure laid down
under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
but shall be guided by principles of natural
justice.
20. (d)
Exp: Godavari is the second largest river in India
after Ganga. Penna drains into Bay of
Bengal. Koyna dam is situated on Koyna
river , which is a tributary of Krishna river.
21. (d)
Exp: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has retained
the classification of State Bank of India and
ICICI Bank Ltd as Domestic Systemically
Important Banks (D-SIBs) in 2016. SIBs are
big banks of the country that are perceived
"too big to fail". These are critical for the
uninterrupted availability of essential
banking services to the country's real
economy even during crisis.
• There are two types of SIBs: Global SIBs;
the identification is done by BASEL
committee on banking supervision.
Domestic SIBs; by central Bank of the
country.
[3]
• The indicators to be used to assess domestic
systemic importance of the banks are as
follows:
– Size- banks having a size beyond 2% of GDP
is selected in the sample.
– Interconnectedness- in terms of borrowing
and lending from other banks.
– International links.
– Complexity- in terms of cost and time taken
to resolve the issues.
22. (b)
Exp: It is a fund proposed by Ratan P Watal
committee on Digital Payment, from
savings generated from cashless
transactions to expand digital payments in
OR
the country. The main suggestion made by
Committee of chief ministers on digital
payments headed by N Chandarbabu
Naidu is bringing back BCTT (Banking
Cash Transaction Tax) in order to promote
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digital payments in the country. Public
Sector Asset Rehabilitation Agency (PARA)
is an agency suggested by Economic Survey
to deal with twin sheet problems in
Economy. The new name of Department
of Disinvestment in Finance Ministry is
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DIPAM (Department of Investment and
Public Asset Management).
23. (c)
Exp: Tughlaqabad was founded by Giyassuddin
Tughlaq. Fatehpur Sikri was founded by
Akbar.
24. (a)
Exp: In Kheda Satyagraha Gandhji made
Vallabhbhai Patel as the mass leader to
carry on the struggle against the injustice.
25. (d)
Exp: Today there are 8 instruments or
components of Indian money market
especially designed to fulfill the short term
fund requirements of the different
categories of the individuals, institutions or
the firms and the companies: treasury bills,
[ 4 ]
call money market, certificate of deposit,
commercial bills, commercial papers,
mutual funds, repo and reverse repo rate
and cash management bill.
26. (d)
Exp: Role of the Cabinet:
• It is the highest decision making authority
in the politico-administrative system of a
state.
• It is the chief policy formulating body of
the state government.
• It is the supreme executive authority of the
state government.
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• It is the chief coordinator of state
administration.
• It is an advisory body to the governor.
• It is the chief crisis manager and thus deals
with all emergency situations.
• It deals with all major legislative and
financial matters.
• It exercises control over higher
appointments like constitutional
authorities and senior secretariat
administrators.
27. (d)
Exp: CHIEF MINISTERS WHO BECAME
PRIME MINISTERS:
• N. Modi: Chief Minister of Gujarat became
Prime Minister in 2014.
• V.P. Singh: from U.P., became Prime
Minister in the short lived National Front
government (December 1989-November
1990).
• P.V. Narsimha Rao: The first Prime
Minister from South India, who held the
post from 1991-1996, was Chief Minister
of Andhra Pradesh between 1971-1973.
• H.D. Deve Gowda: Chief Minister of
Karnataka when he was chosen to lead the
United Front government in June 1996.
Answers:
• Morarji Desai: Chief Minister of the
erstwhile Bombay State during 1952-56,
Exp: Biopiracy refers to the use of bio-resources
became the first non-Congress Prime
Minister in March 1977.
• Charan Singh: The Chief Minister of the
undivided Uttar Pradesh in 1967-1968 and
again in 1970.
28. (a)
Exp: INSV TRAINI is the sailboat constructed at
Aquarius Shipyard located in Goa. It is fitted
with advanced features such as satellite
communications and Raymarine navigation
suite. It is used for unassisted, non-stop
circumnavigation. It will be mode of
32. (c)
by multinational companies and other
organization without proper authorization
from the countries and concerned people
without giving proper compensation. The
financially rich countries poor in
biodiversity and indigenous knowledge
exploit the underdeveloped nations rich in
biodiversity and indigenous knowledge
related to bio-resources. The exploitation is
done to develop modern commercial
applications and also to save time,
expenditure and energy during their

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commercialization.
transport for first Indian all-woman
circumnavigation of the globe. 33. (d)

29. (c)

Exp: It was set up under Water Act, 1974.

OR Exp: Cultural (25)
1. Agra Fort (1983)

30. (d) 2. Ajanta Caves (1983)

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3. Buddhist Monuments at Sanchi (1989)
Exp: Decrease in temperature will not cause any
harm to the lake. 4. Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park
(2004)
31. (d)
5. Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus (formerly
Exp: The Citizen's Charter does not by itself
Victoria Terminus) (2004)
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create new legal rights, but it surely helps

in enforcing existing rights. It is not 6. Churches and Convents of Goa (1986)
justiciable in nature.
7. Elephanta Caves (1987)
Department of Administrative reforms and 8. Ellora Caves (1983)
Public Grievances is responsible for
coordinating, formulating and 9. Fatehpur Sikri (1986)
operationalising Citizens charters. 10. Great Living Chola Temples (1987)
It also contains penal provisions in the 11. Group of Monuments at Hampi (1986)
event of failure of service delivery.
12. Group of Monuments at Mahabalipuram
It applies to: (1984)
• Constitutional bodies. 13. Group of Monuments at Pattadakal (1987)
• Statutory authorities. 14. Hill Forts of Rajasthan (2013)
• Public-private partnerships. 15. Humayun's Tomb, Delhi (1993)

• NGOs substantially funded by the 16. Khajuraho Group of Monuments (1986)

government and companies that provide
17. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya
services under a statutory obligation. (2002)

Answers: [5]
18. Mountain Railways of India (1999) index are the major currencies being traded
today: U.S. dollar, Japanese yen, euro,
19. Qutb Minar and its Monuments, Delhi
etc.This is also the value that an individual
(1993)
consumer will pay for an imported good at
20. Rani-ki-Vav (the Queen's Stepwell) at the consumer level. This price will include
Patan, Gujarat (2014) any tariffs and transactions costs associated
with importing the good.
21. Red Fort Complex (2007)
36. (c)
22. Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka (2003)
Exp: It is voluntary in nature, but the states can
23. Sun Temple, Konârak (1984) incorporate them in their building bylaws.
24. Taj Mahal (1983) The Building Code is used by local bodies
for framing building bylaws. Builders have
25. The Jantar Mantar, Jaipur (2010) to give a certificate mentioning that the
building has been constructed as per the
Natural (7)
planned design submitted to the local

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1. Great Himalayan National Park bodies.
Conservation Area (2014)
37. (a)
OR
2. Kaziranga National Park (1985)
Exp: Under HRIDAY launched in January, 2015,
3. Keoladeo National Park (1985) heritage related infrastructure development
is being taken up in 12 identified cities at a
4. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary (1985) total cost of Rs.500 cr. Central government
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5. Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National will meet the entire expenditure under the
Parks (1988) scheme. But, the states and local urban
bodies are requested to supplement their
6. Sundarbans National Park (1987) resources for rapid development of heritage
Western Ghats (2012) cities. The development initiatives covered
it includes improvement of water supply,
34. (d) sanitation, drainage, waste management,
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footpaths, approach roads, street lights,

Exp: Deforestation will help in bringing more
land into cultivation and thus will increase
the agricultural expansion.
35. (c)
Exp: The real effective exchange rate (REER) is
the weighted average of a country's
currency relative to an index or basket of
other major currencies adjusted for the
effects of inflation. The weights are
determined by comparing the relative trade
balances, in terms of one country's
currency, with each other country within
the index. This exchange rate is used to
determine an individual country's currency
value relative to the other major currencies
in the index, as adjusted for the effects of
inflation. All currencies within the said
electricity wiring, tourist conveniences,
landscaping and such citizen services. The
12 cities selected for the scheme are Ajmer,
Amritsar, Amravati, Badami, Dwarka,
Gaya, Warangal, Puri, Kanchipuram,
Mathura, Varanasi and Velankanni.
38. (b)
Exp: Granite, gabbro, pegmatite, basalt, volcanic
breccia and tuff are some of the examples
of igneous rocks.
Depending upon the mode of formation,
sedimentary rocks are classified into three
major groups: (i) mechanically formed -
sandstone, conglomerate, limestone, shale,
loess etc. are examples; (ii) rganically
formed- geyserite, chalk, limestone, coal etc.

[ 6 ] Answers:
 are some examples; (iii) chemically formed
- chert, limestone, halite, potash etc. are
some examples.
Gneissoid, syenite, slate, schist, marble,
quartzite etc. are some examples of
metamorphic rocks.
39. (c)
Exp: Rise in sea level is associated with positive
river rejuvenation.
40. (c)
41. (d)
Exp: Inflation tax is not an actual legal tax paid
to a government; instead "inflation tax"
refers to the penalty for holding cash at a
time of high inflation. When the
government prints more money or reduces
OR
interest rates, it floods the market with cash,
which raises inflation in the long run. If an
investor is holding securities, real estate or
other assets, the effect of inflation may be
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negligible. If a person is holding cash,
though, this cash is worth less after
inflation has risen. The degree of decrease
in the value of cash is termed the inflation
tax for the way it punishes people who hold
assets in cash, which tend to be lower- and
middle-class wage earners.
GS
42. (d)
Exp: RKSK programme was launched by the
Union Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare in January 2014 with an aim to
cater and address health and development
needs of the country's adolescents. To guide
the implementation of this programme, the
ministry in collaboration with UNFPA has
developed a National Adolescent Health
Strategy. The strategy focuses on age groups
10-14 years and 15-19 years with universal
coverage. It covers males and females in
school and out of school, in urban and rural,
married and unmarried and vulnerable and
under-served. The Resource Kit has been
developed by United Nations Population
Fund (UNFPA) and Population Foundation
of India (PFI). The kit comprises i) Activity
Book, ii) Bhranti-Kranti Game iii) Question-
Answer Book and iv) Peer Educator Diary.
Answers:
43. (b)
Exp: Corbett National Park is situated in the
foothills of the Sub- Himalayan belt in
Nainital districts of Uttarakhand state in
India. Established in the year 1936 as Hailey
National Park, Corbett has the glory of
being India's oldest and most prestigious
National Park. It is also being honoured as
the place where Project Tiger was first
launched in 1973. Corbett National Park
covers an area of 521 sq. km and together
with the neighboring Sonanadi Wildlife
Sanctuary and Reserve Forest areas, forms
the Corbett Tiger Reserve. Corbett is one of
the richest bird regions of the Country and
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has been declared as an 'Important Bird
Area' (IBA) by Birdlife International.
44. (a)
Exp: statement 1 is correct whereas statement 2
is incorrect as new series will bring better
sync between IIP and GDP data.
At present, we can't really compare WPI
and CPI. This is not only because their
composition of goods is different but more
importantly their base years are very much
different. Similarly, when one looks at the
IIP and GDP numbers, the IIP numbers are
showing negative growth for the
manufacturing sector in 2016-2017 but the
GDP numbers are showing 7.5% growth
in manufacturing. The new series to be
released by end-April will have a new base
year of 2011-12-like it is for the Gross
Domestic Product-for the Index of Industrial
Production (IIP) and Wholesale Price Index
(WPI). Not only will the new series improve
the accuracy of the data, it will also make
it comparable to GDP; in addition by
bringing up the base year the data is a better
reflection of the contemporary economy
including industrial production.
45. (a)
Exp: Certiorari:
In the literal sense, it means 'to be certified'
or 'to be informed'. It is issued by a higher
court to a lower court or tribunal either to
transfer a case pending with the latter to
[7]
 itself or to squash the order of the latter in
a case.
It is issued on the grounds of excess of
jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error
of law. Thus, unlike prohibition, which is
only preventive, certiorari is both
preventive as well as curative.
Till recently, the writ of certiorari could be
issued only against judicial and quasi-
judicial authorities and not against
administrative authorities. However, in
1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the
certiorari can be issued even against
administrative authorities affecting rights
of individuals.
Like prohibition, certiorari is also not
available against legislative bodies and
private individuals or bodies.
OR
46. (b)
Exp: The Indian Parliament cannot be regarded
as a sovereign body as there are 'legal'
restrictions on its authority and jurisdiction.
SC
The factors that limit the sovereignty of
Indian Parliament are:
• Written Nature of the Constitution: The
Constitution is the fundamental law of the
land in our country. It has defined the
authority and jurisdiction of all the three
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organs of the Union government and the
nature of interrelationship between them.
Hence, the Parliament has to operate within
the limits prescribed by the Constitution.
• Federal System of Government: India has a
federal system of government with a
constitutional division of powers between
the Union and the states. Both have to
operate within the spheres allotted to them.
• System of Judicial Review: The adoption of
an independent Judiciary with the power
of judicial review also restricts the
supremacy of our Parliament. Both the
Supreme Court and high courts can declare
the laws enacted by the Parliament as void
and ultra vires (unconstitutional), if they
contravene any provision of the
Constitution.
[ 8 ]
• Fundamental Rights: The authority of the
Parliament is also restricted by the
incorporation of a code of justiciable
fundamental rights under Part III of the
Constitution. Article 13 prohibits the State
from making a law that either takes away
totally or abrogates in part a fundamental
right. Hence, a Parliamentary law that
contravenes the fundamental rights shall
be void.
47. (b)
Exp: Youth Parliament:
The scheme of Youth Parliament was
started on the recommendation of the
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Fourth All India Whips Conference.
Its objectives are:
• To acquaint the younger generations with
practices and procedures of Parliament;
• To imbibe the spirit of discipline and
tolerance cultivating character in the minds
of youth; and
• To inculcate in the student community the
basic values of democracy and to enable
them to acquire a proper perspective on the
functioning of democratic institutions.
The ministry of parliamentary affairs
provides necessary training and
encouragement to the states in introducing
the scheme.
48. (a)
Exp: Option 1 is correct. Option 2 is the objective
of Marginal standing facility. Option 3 is
the objective of SLR.
49. (c)
Exp: Features of the Act of 1861:
It initiated the process of decentralisation
by restoring the legislative powers to the
Bombay and Madras Presidencies.
It empowered the Viceroy to make rules
and orders for the more convenient trans-
action of business in the council.
Answers:
 Features of the Act of 1892
It increased the number of additional (non-
official) members in the Central and
provincial legislative councils, but
maintained the official majority in them.
It increased the functions of legislative
councils and gave them the power of
discussing the budget and addressing
questions to the executive.
50. (c)
51. (c)
Exp: Telemarketing services is an example of BPO
whereas business research is an example
of KPO.
52. (d)
Exp: They clashed at three different regions such
as Marathwada country, Krishna -
OR 58.
Godavari Delta and Tungabhadra Doab.
53. (c)
SC
Exp: Agni V is an intercontinental ballistic
missile with a range of 5,500 to 5,800 km.
It is nuclear capable, with a payload
capacity of 1,500 kg of high-explosive
warhead. Canister-launch system of Agni-
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V missile will give the forces the requisite
operational flexibility. With this system,
ballistic missile can be transported and can
be launched from any place.
54. (b)
Exp: Fohn occurs in Europe and Chinook occurs
in America are dry winds experience on
the leeward side of mountain air descends
this very helpful for agriculture at times of
frost`. Chinook is also called snow eater. It
is known to increase temperature extremely
quickly 35 F in 15mins.
55. (d)
56. (b)
Exp: Sunlight reaches Earth's atmosphere and
is scattered in all directions by all the gases
and particles in the air. Blue light is scattered
in all directions by the tiny molecules of air
in Earth's atmosphere. Blue is scattered
Answers:
more than other colours because it travels
as shorter, smaller waves. This is why we
see a blue sky most of the time.
The ocean is blue because water absorbs
colours in the red part of the light spectrum.
Like a filter, this leaves behind colours in
the blue part of the light spectrum for us to
see. The ocean may also take on green, red,
or other hues as light bounces off of floating
sediments and particles in the water.
57. (c)
Exp: DDT is thus banned first by the US
Government. A worldwide ban on
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agricultural use was formalized under the
Stockholm Convention on Persistent
Organic Pollutants.
(d)
Exp: All are true. C. Rangarajan Committee was
also for poverty estimation. Bibek Debroy
committee was for restructuring Indian
Railways.
59. (b)
Exp: The National Calendar based on the Saka
Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a
normal year of 365 days was adopted from
March 22, 1957 along with the Gregorian
calendar for the following official purposes:
(i) Gazette of India, (ii) news broadcast by
All India Radio, (iii) calendars issued by the
Government of India and (iv) Government
communications addressed to the public.
Dates of the National Calendar have a
permanent correspondence with dates of
the Gregorian calendar, 1 Chaitra falling
on March 22 normally and on March 21 in
leap year.
60. (c)
Exp: Epeirogenic processes involving uplift or
warping of large parts of the earth's crust;
Orogeny is a mountain building process
whereas epeirogeny is continental building
process.
[9]

61. (c)
Exp: Shipkila : Himachal Pradesh
62. (a)
Exp:
63. (a)
OR
Exp: After several European Union states ratified
the agreement in October 2016, there were
enough countries that had ratified the
agreement that produce enough of the
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world's greenhouse gases for the agreement
to enter into force. The agreement went into
effect on 4 November 2016.
64. (a)
Exp: Key differences between WPI & CPI
GS
• Primary use of WPI is to have inflationary
trend in the economy as a whole. However,
CPI is used for adjusting income and
expenditure streams for changes in the cost
of living.
• WPI is based on wholesale prices for
primary articles, administered prices for
fuel items and ex-factory prices for
manufactured products. On the other
hand, CPI is based on retail prices, which
include all distribution costs and taxes.
• Prices for WPI are collected on voluntary
basis while price data for CPI are collected
by investigators by visiting markets.
• CPI covers only consumer goods and
consumer services while WPI covers all
goods including intermediate goods
transacted in the economy.
[10]
• WPI weights primarily based on national
accounts and enterprise survey data and
CPI weights are derived from consumer
expenditure survey data.
65. (d)
Exp: They did not help in transmitting anything
because they themselves did not get effected
by Renaissance. They did not change trade
patter , only monopolised certain items for
few decades only.
66. (a)
Exp: The type of entities which are called shadow
banks elsewhere are known as the non-
banking finance companies (NBFCs) in
India. NBFCs in India can provide lending
E
facility to customers but cannot take
deposits from banks. They are subject to
little regulation from the market, such as
maintaining CRR and SLR, and hence they
cannot access to RBI for funding.
67. (a)
Exp: Cutting the garden into four squares was
generally adopted by Mughals.
68. (d)
Exp: The Act also requires every public authority
to computerize their records for wide
dissemination and to proactively certain
categories of information.
The Act covers the whole of India except
Jammu and Kashmir, where J&K Right to
Information Act is in force.
Centre and state information commissions
are responsible for governing RTI and
Central Information Commission has no
jurisdiction over it.
A person from disadvanced community
who desires to seek some information from
public authority does not require to pay the
fees.
69. (b)
Exp: Rajya Sabha Chairman has recognised a
group of 22 MPs belonging to smaller parties
and certain Independents as a consolidated
bloc - the United Group.
Answers:
 This is only the third time in the history of
Indian Parliament consolidated bloc has
been recognised, the first was in 1983 and
the second in 1990.
The newly recognised bloc will find a place
in the Business Advisory Committee (BAC)
that decides time allotment. Thus, MPs of
bloc will secure more time to speak in House
debates. At present, time allotted to parties
to speak on debates depends entirely on
their strength in the House. Earlier due to
their solitary or numerically lean status,
members of this bloc had as little as three
minutes of speech time.
A grouping of this kind will make it possible
for a party like Sikkim Democratic Front
with a single MP to speak for as much time
70.
as say, a Samajwadi Party with 19 MPs in
Rajya Sabha.
(a)
OR
Exp: Law Commission of India is an executive
SC
body established by an order of the
Government of India. Its major function is
to work for legal reform.
Its membership primarily comprises legal
experts, who are entrusted a mande by the
Government.
GS
The Commission is established for a fixed
tenure and works as an advisory body to
the Ministry of Law and Justice.
71. (a)
Exp: First statement is the correct definition of
GDP deflator. It is better measure of
inflation than CPI and WPI because it
covers all goods and services produced in
the economy. This statement makes the
third statement wrong. Unlike WPI and
CPI the "basket" for the GDP deflator
changes from year to year with people's
consumption and investment patterns.
72. (b)
Exp: The Dedicated Freight Corridor
Corporation of India Limited (DFCCIL) is
a corporation run by the Ministry of
Railways (India) to undertake planning &
Answers:
development, maintenance and operation
of the Dedicated Freight Corridors. Eastern
Dedicated Freight Corridor also covers the
states of Jharkhand and West Bengal.
73. (c)
Exp: Total internal reflection is the phenomenon
which occurs when a propagated wave
strikes a medium boundary at an angle
larger than a particular critical angle with
respect to the normal to the surface. If the
refractive index is lower on the other side
of the boundary and the incident angle is
greater than the critical angle, the wave
cannot pass through and is entirely
E
reflected. The critical angle is the angle of
incidence above which the total internal
reflection occurs. This is particularly
common as an optical phenomenon, where
light waves are involved, but it occurs with
many types of waves, such as
electromagnetic waves in general or sound
waves.
• Light cannot always pass through denser
to rarer medium.
• If the angle of incidence > critical angle, it
leads to total reflection of light.
• Examples : Optical fiber, Mirage effect
(Usually associated with hot deserts).
74. (d)
Exp: MUFA, PUFA and Omega-3 are essentially
the types of healthy fats which a human
body requires in suitable quantity for its
healthy growth.
Monounsaturated Fatty Acids (MUFA) is
considered a form of healthy fat generally
found in vegetable oils, nuts, seeds, olives
etc. MUFA are liquid at room temperature.
Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids (PUFA) are
also other variance of health fats found in
vegetable oils, fish and sea foods etc.
Omega-3 on the other hand is type of PUFA
and considered an essential to have fat. It
can't be metabolized by the body and
necessarily obtained from the food.
[11]
 The significance of healthy fats is in their
ability to keep the body healthy by their
multiple useful functions. They provide
anti-oxidants such as Vitamin-E. Also, the
fatty acids help the body absorbing vital
nutrients from the food. MUFA in
appropriate quantities can also help
prevent and treat diabetes, heart problems,
cancer, obesity etc. Omega-3 is helpful in
proper brain growth and prevention of
many diseases.
75. (d)
Exp: Many varieties of landforms develop by the
action of each of the geomorphic agents
depending upon especially the type and
structure i.e. folds, faults, joints, fractures,
hardness and softness, permeability and
impermeability, etc. There are some other
OR
independent controls like (i) stability of sea
level; (ii) tectonic stability of landmasses; (iii)
climate, which influence the evolution of
landforms.
76. (d)
SC
Exp: It was basically a violent movement
concentrate in major cities of India. It was
a leaderless movement.This was launched
in the aftermath of failure of Cripps
Mission.
77. (c)
GS
Exp: Higher the amount of oxidizable pollutants
higher will be the COD of the water body,
as more amount of oxygen is needed to
oxidize all the pollutants.
78. (b)
Exp: By 2020 India has decided to implement BS-
VI norms by skipping the BS-V norms.
79. (d)
Exp: Direct Sources: Deep Ocean drilling,
Volcanic Eruptions and Indirect Sources:
Mining, meteors, gravitation, magnetic field
and seismic activities.
80. (a)
Exp: Aerosols can be both natural and artificial.
Artificial includes smoke release from the
thermal plants.
[12]
81. (c)
Exp: Amendment in the provisions of the
constitution by Special Majority of
Parliament and Consent of States:
Those provisions of the Constitution which
are related to the federal structure of the
polity can be amended by a special majority
of the Parliament and also with the consent
of half of the state legislatures by a simple
majority. If one or some or all the remaining
states take no action on the bill, it does not
matter; the moment half of the states give
their consent, the formality is completed.
There is no time limit within which the
states should give their consent to the bill.
E
The following provisions can be amended
in this way:
• Election of the President and its manner.
• Extent of the executive power of the Union
and the states.
• Supreme Court and high courts.
• Distribution of legislative powers between
the Union and the states.
• Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
• Representation of states in Parliament.
• Power of Parliament to amend the
Constitution and its procedure.
Admission or establishment of new states
is done by the parliament with the simple
majority.
82. (b)
Exp: A person cannot be a member of both
houses of parliament at the same time. Thus
accordingly to the representation of people
act 1951:
• If sitting member of one house is elected to
the other house, his seat in the first house
becomes vacant
• If a person is elected to two seats in a house,
he should excuse his option for one,
otherwise both seats becomes vacant.
Answers:
• If person is elected to both the houses of
parliament and in default of intimation his
seat in Rajya Sabha becomes vacant.
• Similarly, a person cannot be a member of
both the Parliament and the state legislature
at the same time. If a person is so elected,
his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he
does not resign his seat in the state
legislature within 14 days.
83. (a)
84. (a)
Exp: Top producing states are Odisha,
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and
Karnataka.
India has second largest Mangenese reserve
85.
and hence does not require to import.
(c)
Exp: Canaries Current: North Atlantic Ocean,
OR 88.
Falkland Current: South Atlantic Ocean.
SC
86. (b)
Exp: It is introduced in the Parliament to draw
attention of the House to a definite matter
of urgent public importance, and needs the
support of 50 members to be admitted. As
it interrupts the normal business of the
GS
House, it is regarded as an extraordinary
device.
It involves an element of censure against
the government and hence Rajya Sabha is
not permitted to make use of this device.
The discussion on an adjournment motion
should last for not less than two hours and
thirty minutes.
The right to move a motion for an
adjournment of the business of the House
is subject to the following restrictions:
• It should raise a matter which is definite,
factual, urgent and of public
importance.
• It should not cover more than one matter.
• It should be restricted to a specific matter
of recent occurrence and should not be
framed in general terms.
Answers:
• It should not raise a question of privilege.
• It should not revive discussion on a matter
that has been discussed in the same session.
• It should not deal with any matter that is
under adjudication by court.
• It should not raise any question that can be
raised on a distinct motion.
87. (d)
Exp: It enables service voters, including armed
forces personnel, to cast their vote in
elections through e-postal ballot.
One-way electronic transmission of blank
E
postal ballot would considerably cut short
the delay in receipt of the marked postal
ballot by the Returning Officers on or before
the date fixed for the counting of votes.
(d)
Exp: Onges: Andaman and Nicobar; Toda: Tamil
Nadu
89. (c)
Exp: The call money market is important segment
of the money market where
uncollateralized borrowing and lending of
funds takes place on overnight basis.
Schedule commercial banks (excluding
regional rural banks), cooperative banks
operate in this market as both borrowers
and lenders while DEVELOPMENT Banks
such as LIC, GIC, UTI, IDBI and NABARD
are allowed to operate as only lenders in
this market.
90. (c)
Exp: Phosphates are necessary for the growth
and maintenance of animal and human
bones and teeth while organophosphates
are required for cell division involving
production of nuclear DNA
(deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA
(ribonucleic acid).
Phosphate minerals exist in soluble and
insoluble forms in rocks and soil. Plants
absorb inorganic phosphate salts from soil
and change them into organic phosphate.
[13]
 Animals obtain their phosphate by eating
plants. After death and decay, plants and
animals return phosphates to the soil.
91. (a)
Exp: Some algal blooms are very harmful which
release toxic substances which can lead to
death for many aquatic organism.
92. (c)
Exp: Like the Directive Principles, the
fundamental duties are also non-justiciable.
The Constitution does not provide for their
direct enforcement by the courts. Moreover,
there is not legal sanction against their
violation. However, the Parliament is free
to enforce them by suitable legislation.
Original constitution does not contained the
OR
fundamental duties. They are incorporated
by enacting the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act in 1976 and a new part,
namely, Part IVA was added in the
constitution.
SC
The Fundamental Duties are confined to
citizens only and do not extend to
foreigners.
To protect and improve the environment
and to safeguard forests and wild life is one
GS
of the directive principles of the state policy
and also the fundamental duty.
93. (c)
Exp: Blue carbon is the carbon captured by the
world's oceans and coastal ecosystems. The
carbon captured by living organisms in
oceans is stored in the form of biomass and
sediments from mangroves, salt marshes,
seagrasses and potentially algae. It is stored
carbon in the plants.
Black carbon (BC) is the most strongly light-
absorbing component of particulate matter
(PM), and is formed by the incomplete
combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels, and
biomass. BC is emitted directly into the
atmosphere in the form of fine particles
(PM2.5).
[14]
94. (d)
95. (c)
Exp: The Indira Gandhi International Airport
in Delhi has become Asia-Pacific's only
and one of the world's few airports to
achieve a "carbon neutral" status.
96. (c)
Exp: It was introduced by Jahangir and
popularised by Shahajahan on Taj Mahal.
97. (b)
Exp: The regions where farmers specialise in
vegetables only, the farming is known as
truck farming. The distance of truck farms
E
from the market is governed by the distance
that a truck can cover overnight, hence the
name truck farming
In addition to market gardening, a modern
development in the industrial regions of
Western Europe and North America is
factory farming.
98. (c)
Exp: Ecology is the scientific analysis and study
of interactions among organisms and their
environment. It is an interdisciplinary field
that includes biology, geography, and Earth
science. Ecology includes the study of
interactions organisms have with each
other, other organisms, and with abiotic
components of their environment.
The scientific study of plants and animals
in their relation to each other and their
relation to environment is known as
ecological system.
A terrestrial ecosystem is an ecosystem
found only on landforms. Six primary
terrestrial ecosystems exist: tundra, taiga,
temperate deciduous forest, tropical rain
forest, grassland and desert.
99. (c)
Exp: Both the options are correct. The primary
aim of LAF is to assists banks to adjust to
their day-to-day mismatches in liquidity,
via Repo and Reverse repo operations.
Answers:
100. (b)
Exp: The GEF also serves as financial mechanism
for the following conventions:
Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD),
United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC), UN
Convention to Combat Desertification
(UNCCD), Stockholm Convention on
Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) and
Minamata Convention on Mercury.
Geneva Convention is not related to the
Environment.

E
OR
SC


GS

Answers: [15]
 Paper Code: 1 A

Mock - 1 Paper - 1
Time Allowed: 2 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 200

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1. The National Bureau of Animal Genetic 4. Recently Hindu New Year was celebrated.
Resources (NBAGR) has accorded genetic Which of the following pair(s) related to it is/
recognition to the Kendrapara breed. Which are correct?
of the following statements related to the 1. Odia : Maha Sankranti
National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources
2. Assamese : Rangali Bihu
is/are correct?
3. Kannadigas : Baisakhi
1. It conducts systematic surveys to
characterise, evaluate and catalogue farm Codes:
livestock and poultry genetic resources
(a) 1 and 2
and to establish their National Data Base.
(b) Only 2
2. It designs methodologies for ex situ
conservation and in situ management and (c) Only 3
optimal utilization of farm animal genetic (d) All
resources.
5. Consider the following statements regarding
3. It helps in inventorisation, conservation,
the seismic waves:
improvement and sustainable utilisation
of animal genetic resources of the country. 1. P waves can travel through solids while
S wave can travel though solid, liquid and
Codes: gases.
(a) 1 and 2 2. Shadow zone of P wave is wider than

E
(b) 2 and 3 shadow zone of S waves.
(c) Only 2 3. P wave vibrate in parallel while S wave
OR
vibrate perpendicular to direction of wave
(d) All
propagation.
2. Brazil's National Biosafety Committee has
Codes:
approved the releases of Genetically Modified
Mosquitoes for the control of which of the a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 3
SC

following diseases?
1. Dengue c) Only 3
2. Malaria d) None
3. Zika
6. Which of the following statement correctly
4. Swine Flu define Petrology?
(a) It is science of rocks deals with mineral
GS

Codes:
composition, texture, structure, origin
(a) Only 3
occurrence etc .
(b) 2 and 3
(b) It is science of soils deals with mineral
(c) 1 and 3 composition, texture, structure, origin
(d) 2, 3 and 4 occurrence etc.
(c) It is science that deals with Volcanoes, its
3. Which of the following is/are the
origin, location and causes.
environmental benefits of using compost as
fertilizer? (d) It is science that deals with Earthquake,
its origin, location and causes.
1. It prevents soil erosion.
2. It improves the soil nutrient composition. 7. Which of the following will cause inflation in
3. It increases the water retention capacity. the country?
4. It always leads to faster growth of crops. 1. Monetary easing by RBI
2. Supply side constraints
Codes:
3. Expansionist fiscal policy
(a) 1, 2 and 3
4. Engaging in War
(b) 3 and 4
5. Rise in imports
(c) 2 and 4
(d) All Codes:

2
 (a) 1 and 3 1. It is one of the provinces of Pakistan.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 2. India considers it as part of the undivided
(c) 3 and 5 Jammu and Kashmir, while Pakistan sees
it as a separate from PoK.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. China-Pakistan Economic Corridor
8. Consider the following statements regarding (CPEC) passes through this region.
UDAN scheme of the Ministry of Civil
Aviation: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. It seeks to provide connectivity to tie II (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
and tier III cities through creation of new (c) 2 and 3 (d) All
air-strips and air ports.
2. A Regional Connectivity Fund (RCF) will 12. Consider the following statements regarding
be created to meet the Viability Gap Pradhan Mantri YUVA Scheme:
Funding requirements under the scheme. 1. The Scheme will be solely implemented
by Ministry of Skill Development and
Which of the above statements is/ are correct? Entrepreneurship.
(a) Only 1 2. The Scheme will provide classroom
(b) Only 2 Entrepreneurship Education to about 15
lakh students across the country through

E
(c) Both
ITIs.
(d) None

9. Considering the naval exercise with foreign

navy which of the following exercises is/are
done with UK?
1. Malabar-15
OR Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both
2. Varuna-15 (d) None
SC
3. Konkan-15 13. Considering co-operative farming which of the
4. Simbex-15 following countries are successfully practicing
it?
Select the correct answer using below codes:
1. Denmark
(a) Only 1
2. Netherland
GS

(b) 2 and 3
3. Italy
(c) Only 3
4. Russia
(d) Only 4
Codes:
10 With respect to the Hindustani music,
(a) 1 and 3
consider the following statements:
(b) 2 and 3
1. Dhrupad is related with effort from vocal
chords and lungs. (c) 1, 2 and 3
2. Dhamar is the play of Krishna during (d) All
holy.
14. Which one of the following statement is
3. Thumri is the religious devotional songs. correct related to the industrial location?
Which of the above statements is/are (a) Cheap hydroelectric energy has facilitated
incorrect? the development of textile mill industry
along the Eastern India.
(a) Only 1
(b) Sugar, cotton textiles and vegetable oils
(b) 1 and 2
are footloose industries.
(c) Only 3
(c) Industries have been set up in port towns
(d) None during Britishers due to better
connectivity.
11. Consider the following statements regarding
the Gilgit Baltistan Region: (d) All of the above

3
15. Match the following parliamentary 3. It allows for biometric identification (via
committees: Aadhaar) to access bank account.
A. Business 1. Examines 4. It offers remittances services to the
Advisory public customers.
Committee expenditure
B. Select Committee 2. Examines the Which of the above statements are correct?
budget estimates (a) 1, 2 and 3
C. Estimates 3. Considers a bill (b) 1, 2 and 4
Committee and submits a (c) 1, 3 and 4
report
(d) 2, 3 and 4
D. Public Accounts 4. Prepares time table
Committee for session 19. Consider the following statements related to
the National Green Tribunal:
Codes:
1. NGT is a constitutional body for the cases
A B C D relating to environmental protection and
(a) 1 2 3 4 conservation of forests.
(b) 2 3 4 1 2. The Tribunal is strictly bound by the
(c) 3 1 2 4 procedure laid down under the Code of
(d) 4 3 2 1 Civil Procedure, 1908.

E
3. The Tribunal is mandated to make and
16. Which of the following is the theme of world endeavour for disposal of appeals within
day of Social Justice 2017 celebrated by UN?
OR
6 months of their filing.
(a) Ending poverty, human trafficking and
forced labour. Codes:
(b) Preventing conflict and sustaining peace (a) Only 1
through decent work. (b) 2 and 3
SC

(c) A Just Transition - environmentally (c) Only 3

sustainable economies and societies. (d) All
(d) Social Justice and Decent Life for All.
20. Recently Andhra Pradesh is looking for river
17. Which of the following atmospheric linking project on Godavari and Penna. Which
phenomenon occurs in leeward side of a of the following statements is/are true about
mountain or hill during rainfall? these two rivers?
GS

1. A decrease in altitude decreases pressure. 1. Godavari is the third largest river of India
2. Decrease in altitude increase temperature after Ganga and Indus.
of air. 2. Penna rises from Nandi hills and drains
3. Air gets expanded. into the Arabian sea.
4. The relative humidity increases. 3. Koyna dam is situated on one of the
tributaries of Godavari.
Select the correct answer using the codes
below: Codes:
(a) All (a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (c) Only 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) None
18. With reference to Micro ATM consider the 21. Which of the following statements is/are
following statements: correct regarding Systematically Important
1. It allows deposit making, withdrawal and Banks (SIBs) of India?
balance enquiry facilities. 1. SBI and PNB are the only two banks in
2. Fund transfer is not allowed through India that have been categorized as
Micro-ATMs. domestic SIBs.

4
 2. SIBs are big banks of the country that are Codes:
perceived "too big to fail". (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
3. These are critical for the uninterrupted (c) Both (d) None
availability of essential banking services
to the country's real economy even during 25. With respect to the Indian Financial Market
crisis. which among the following instruments are
designed to fulfill short term funds
Select the correct answer using the code given requirements?
below: 1. Cash Management Bill
(a) Only 1 2. Certificate of Deposit
(b) 1 and 2 3. Call Money Market
(c) 1 and 3 4. Commercial Bills
(d) 2 and 3
Codes:
22. DIPAYAN, sometimes seen in the news, is (a) 1, 2 and 3
related to: (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) It is a fund proposed by Committee of (c) 3 and 4
chief ministers on digital payments to be
utilized to expands digital payments in (d) All

the country.
(b) It is a fund proposed by Watal committee
from savings generated from cashless
transactions to expand digital payments.
(c) It is an agency proposed in Economic
Survey to deal with twin sheets problems
of Indian economy i.e. overleveraged
SC
companies and NPAs with Banks.
(d) It is new name of Department of
disinvestment in finance ministry.
23. Which of the following pair(s) is/are correct?
City Founder
GS
E
26. A smaller body called cabinet is the nucleus
of the council of ministers. It is the real Centre
OR of authority in the state government. In this
regard which of the following statements is/
are true regarding role of the cabinet?
1. It is the highest decision making authority
in the politico-administrative system of a
state.
2. It deals with all major legislative and
financial matters.
3. It is the chief crisis manager and thus
deals with all emergency situations.
4. It supervises the implementation of its

decisions by the council of ministers.

1. Tughalaqabad Mohammad-bin-
Tughlaq Codes:
2. Fatehpur Sikri Shahajahan (a) 1, 2 and 3
3. Siri Allaudin Khalji (b) 1 and 3
4. Firozabad Firoz Shah Tughlaq (c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 27. Which of the following is/are the people who
became Prime Minister after being Chief
(b) 2, 3 and 4 Minister of their respective states?
(c) 3 and 4 1. Narendra Modi
(d) All
2. V. P. Singh
24. Which of the following statements is/are true 3. P. V. Narsimha Rao
about the initial years of political activities by 4. H. D. Deve Gowda
Gandhiji in India? 5. Morarji Desai
1. In Chamaparan Satyagraha Gandhiji led 6. Charan Singh
the movement to relieve the peasants from
the oppression of Indigo planters. Codes:
2. In Kheda Satyagraha Gandhji made J.L. (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Nehru as the mass leader to carry on the
struggle against the injustice. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All

5
28. Which of the following defence equipments
and their salient features is/are correctly
matched?
1. S-400 Missile - It is capable of exo-
atmospheric interception of intermediate-
range ballistic missile warheads in their
terminal phase.
2. Varunastra - It is capable of targeting
quiet and stealthy submarines both in
deep and littoral waters.
3. INSV TRAINI - It is capable of
conducting anti-piracy and rescue
operations in India's Exclusive Economic
Zone.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
32. Which of the following terms associated with
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All
31. Which of the following statements are true
about Citizen's Charters?
1. It is justiciable in nature.
2. Department of Consumer affairs are
responsible for coordinating, formulating
and operationalizing Citizens Charters.
3. It also contains penal provisions in the
event of failure of service delivery.
4. It is not applicable to constitutional bodies.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 3
biotechnology is/are correct?
1. Bioprospecting is the search for biological
resources and accompanying indigenous

E
29. Which of the following statements is/are true
OR
about Central Pollution Control Board?
1. It works under the Ministry of
Environment and was set up under
Environment Protection Act, 1986.
2. It has responsibilities to conduct
SC
knowledge mainly for the purpose of
commercial exploitation.
2. Bioinformatics refers to the use of bio-
resources by multinational companies
without giving proper compensation.
3. Cytogenetics refers to the study of the
structure, function and abnormalities of

monitoring of water and air quality, and human chromosomes.

maintains monitoring data.
3. It is responsible for maintaining national Codes:
standards under a variety of (a) 1 and 2
environmental laws, in consultation with (b) 2 and 3
zonal offices, tribal, and local (c) 1 and 3
governments.
GS

(d) All
Codes: 33. Which of the following mentioned sites are
(a) 1 and 2 recognized as UNESCO World Heritage sites?
(b) Only 2 1. Valley of Flowers National Park.
(c) 2 and 3 2. Churches and Convents of Goa.
(d) None 3. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary.
4. Rani-ki-Vav in Gujarat.
30. Which of the following activities can cause
death of a lake? Codes:
1. Agricultural runoff (a) 1 and 4
2. Industrial Effluents (b) 1, 2 and 3
3. Algal Blooms (c) 1, 2 and 4
4. Decrease in temperature (d) All
Codes: 34 Which of the following is/are the effects of
(a) 1 and 2 deforestation?
(b) 2 and 3 1. Release of carbon from its sink
(c) Only 4 2. Landslide
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Extreme Climate

6
 4. Habitat loss
5. Decline in Agricultural Production
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
35. Consider the following statements related to
the Real Effective Exchange Rate:
1. REER is the weighted average of a
country's currency relative to an index of
other major currencies adjusted for the
effects of inflation.
2. It is the value that an individual consumer
will pay for an imported good at the
consumer level.
2. Central and State governments will meet
the expenditure under the scheme on
sharing basis.
3. One Heritage site will be developed in
every State under the scheme.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All
38. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Igneous Rocks : Granite and Chert
2. Sedimentary Rocks : Chalk and sandstone
3. Metamorphic Rocks : Shale and Marble
Codes:

E
(a) 1 and 2
Which of the above given statements is/are
(b) Only 2
correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both
OR (c) 2 and 3
(d) None

39. Which of the following characteristic features

(d) None is/are associated with negative river
rejuvenation?
SC
36. Government has recently unveiled the revised 1. Rise in Sea level
Building Code, making builders liable for the 2. Entrenched meander
structure's safety. Consider the following 3. Knick point
statements regarding it: 4. River Terraces
1. Builders have to give a certificate of
planned construction as per design Codes:
GS

submitted to state authorities. (a) Only 1

2. It includes sustainability norms like solar (b) 1 and 2
energy utilisation, usage of LED, solid (c) 2, 3 and 4
waste management and rain water (d) All
harvesting.
3. It provides for universal accessibility for 40. Which of the following are the negative
senior citizens and differently abled impacts of large dams?
citizens. 1. They lead to fragmentation of rivers
making it difficult for aquatic fauna to
Which of the above statement is/are correct? migrate, especially for spawning.
(a) Only 1 2. It lead to excessive sedimentation at the
bottom of the reservoir, resulting in rockier
(b) 1 and 2
stream beds and poorer habitats for the
(c) 2 and 3 rivers aquatic life.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. lead to large-scale displacement of local
communities.
37. Which of the following statements is/are 4. They create inter-state water dispute.
correct regarding 'Heritage City Development
and Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY)'? Codes:
1. It aims to preserve and rejuvenate the rich (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
cultural heritage of the country. (c) All (d) 3 and 4

7
41. Consider the following statements regarding
'Inflation Tax':
1. The degree of decrease in the value of
cash, due to flooding of market with cash,
is termed as inflation tax.
2. The maximum effect of inflation tax is on
the people/institution holding securities,
real estate or other assets.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both
(d) None
42. The Union Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare has launched SAATHIYA Resource
Kit and SAATHIYA SALAH mobile app for
adolescents as part of the Rashtriya Kishor
Swasthya Karyakram (RKSK) programme.
Consider the following statements regarding
it:
OR
1. The Resource Kit for Peer Educators
(Saathiyas) has been developed by WHO
and Population Foundation of India (PFI).
2. The ministry has developed a National
Adolescent Health Strategy for age group
SC
15-19 years only with universal coverage.
3. It covers only those females in school and
out of school which are unmarried.
4. 'Saathiya Salah' will charge minimal fee
thus act as cost-effective information
platform for the adolescents.
GS
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) All
(d) None
43. Which of the following statements related to
the Corbett National Park is/are correct?
1. Project Tiger was first launched in this
park.
2. Corbett is one of the richest bird regions
of the Country and has been declared as
an 'Important Bird Area' (IBA) by Birdlife
International.
3. It is located in Himachal Pradesh.
Codes:
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) None (d) All
44. The government will release a new series of
indices to measure two key economic
variables, factory output (IIP) and wholesale
prices (WPI). Which of the following is/are
likely benefit/s of this new series of data?
1. A better comparison between CPI and
WPI will be done.
2. Anomaly between GDP and IIP data will
increase thus will help in better data
collection.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both
(d) None
45. Which of the following statements is/are true
E
regarding writ-certiorari?
1. It is issued by a higher court to a lower
court or tribunal either to transfer a case
pending with the latter to itself or to
squash the order of the latter in a case.
2. It can be issued only against judicial and
quasi-judicial authorities.
3. Unlike Prohibition, Certiorari is both
preventive as well as curative.
4. It is issued only on the grounds of excess
of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All
46. Which of the following factors limits the
sovereignty of Indian Parliament?
1. Written Nature of the Constitution.
2. Federal System of Government.
3. System of Judicial Review.
4. Fundamental Rights.
5. Directive Principles of State Policy.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 5
(d) All
8
47. Which of the following statements is/are true (a) 1 and 2
regarding Youth Parliament? (b) 2 and 3
1. The scheme of Youth Parliament was (c) 1 and 3
started on the recommendation of the (d) 1 and 4
Fourth All India Whips Conference.
2. It aimed to acquaint the younger 50. Which of the following steps will encourage
generations with practices and procedures and facilitate participation of common man
in governance?
of Parliament
1. RTE
3. The Ministry of Youth and Sports affairs
provides necessary training and 2. RTI
encouragement to the states in 3. G2G in e-governnace
introducing the scheme. 4. Social Audit

Codes: Codes:
(a) Only 1 (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4
(d) Only 3

E
(d) All
51. Which of the following statements clearly
48. Which of the following is the objective of 'Base
Rate' in the Indian Economy?
(a) To enhance transparency in lending rates
of banks and enabling better assessment
of transmission of monetary policy.
OR defines the difference between KPO and BPO?
1. Business Processing Outsourcing consists
of back office and front office services
whereas KPO involves the application of
training and expertise to research.
(b) To provide overnight borrowing to
SC
2. KPO focus more on data collection,
commercial banks from RBI, at the interest updating models, patent searchers and
rate 1% higher than the current repo rate. basic data mining
(c) To enable the central banks to control the 3. Telemarketing services is an example of
amount of advances the banks can create. KPO whereas business research is an
(d) To force the banks to have sufficient vault example of BPO.
GS

cash to meet their day-to-day Codes:

requirements.
(a) Only 1
49. Consider the following features of the Act of (b) 2 and 3
1861: (c) 1 and 2
1. It initiated the process of decentralisation (d) All
by restoring the legislative powers to the
Bombay and Madras Presidencies. 52. The conflict between Vijayanagar rulers and
Bahmani Sultans was regular feature. In
2. It increased the number of additional which of the following areas they clashed with
(non-official) members in the Central and each other?
provincial legislative councils, but 1. Chola Rules Areas
maintained the official majority in them.
2. Lower Ganga Plains
3. It empowered the Viceroy to make rules
3. Tungabadra Doab
and orders for the more convenient trans-
action of business in the council. 4. Kathiaward Peninsula

4. It increased the functions of legislative Codes:

councils and gave them the power of (a) 1 and 2
discussing the budget and addressing (b) 2 and 4
questions to the executive.
(c) 3 and 4
Which of the above stated features are correct? (d) Only 3

9
53. What is the advantage of Canisterised version Which of the above statements is/are correct?
of Agni V over other forms? (a) Only 1
(a) The canisterised version of Agni V has (b) 1 and 2
higher range.
(c) 2 and 3
(b) The canisterised version of Agni V is able
(d) All
to carry large conventional warhead.
(c) The canisterised version of Agni V can be 57. Why DDT as a fertilizer is not desirable for
transported and can be launched from being used in agricultural fields?
any place. (a) Its cost is too high which puts economic
(d) All of the above. burden on farmers.
54. Consider the following statements about the (b) It makes the land permanently barren
rain-shadow winds: forever.
1. Chinook occur in European Alps also (c) It enters into the food chain and causes
known as snoweater. cancer.
2. They are known to increase temperature (d) None of these.
extremely quickly.
58. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
3. They help in increasing agriculture matched?
productivity during the frost.
1. Tarapore Committee - Capital Account

E
Which of the above statements are correct? Convertibility.
(a) 1 and 2 2. Tendulkar Committee - Poverty
OR
Estimation.
(b) 2 and 3
3. Urijit Patel Committee - Monetary Policy
(c) 1 and 3
Reforms.
(d) All
4. Kelkar Committee - Revisiting &
55. Which of the following statements is/are true Revitalizing PPP.
SC

about "BHIM" APP?

Codes:
1. It is an App for paving the digital
payments by using the Aadhaar platform. (a) 1 and 2
2. It has the provision for referral bonus (b) 3 and 4
scheme and cashback scheme to ensure (c) 2 and 4
the promotion of digital payments. (d) All
GS

3. It is built over the IMPS infrastructure and

allows instant transfer of money between
any two parties' bank accounts.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All
56. Consider the following statements:
1. Sky looks blue because the molecules in
the air scatter blue light from the sun more
than they scatter red light.
2. The ocean is blue because water absorbs
colours in the red part of the light
spectrum.
3. Red is scattered more than other colours
because it travels as shorter, smaller
waves.
59. Consider the following statements regarding
the national calendar:
1. National calendar is based on Saka era.
2. It was adopted from March 22, 1957.
3. National Calendar is started with January
as its first month.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
60. Consider the following statements regarding
Geomorphic processes:
1. Epeirogenic processes involve mountain
building through severe folding and
affecting long and narrow belts of the
earth's crust.

10
 2. Diastrophism covers the processes of 3. The agreement is not yet ratified by
orogeny, epeirogeny, earthquakes and enough countries to come into effect.
plate tectonics come under.
3. Denudational processes cover all exogenic Codes:
processes. (a) 1 and 2
4. Exogenic processes are powered by kinetic (b) Only 2
energy only. (c) Only 3
(d) All
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 64. Which among the following statements
(b) 1, 2 and 3 correctly describes the difference between CPI
(c) 2 and 3 and WPI?
(d) All 1. Prices for WPI are collected on voluntary
basis while price data for CPI are collected
61. Which of the following passes are correctly by investigators by visiting markets.
matched? 2. CPI covers only goods whereas WPI covers
1. Zojila : J&K both goods and services.
2. Sipkila : Uttarakhand
Codes:

E
3. Nathula : Sikkim
(a) Only 1
4. Bomdila : Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Only 2
Codes:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
OR (c) Both
(d) None

65. Which of the following statements is/are true

(c) 1, 3 and 4
about the Portugese impact on Indian trade
SC
(d) All and society?
62. Which of the following is/are correct 1. They were responsible for transmitting
regarding impact of inflation on saving? science & technology developed in Europe
during Renaissance to India.
1. In short term, higher inflation leads to
increase in saving rate. 2. They entirely changed the trade patterns
of India through strict control over it.
GS

2. In long term, higher inflation depletes the

saving rate in an economy. Codes:
3. In short term, when inflation falls saving (a) Only 1
rate increases.
(b) Only 2
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) Both
below: (d) None
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 66. Which of the followings is/are the feature/s
of Shadow Banks?
(c) None
1. They provide credit and lending facility
(d) All
to customers.
63. Climate Change is an international issue 2. They can access for funding to RBI.
concerning the entire humanity. In this regard 3. They maintain CRR and SLR with RBI.
which of the following statements is/are true 4. They accept demand deposits such as
about the Paris Climate Agreement? Savings and Current accounts.
1. It was adopted at COP-21 under the
United Nations Framework Convention Select the correct answer using the code given
on Climate Change. below:
2. It sets out the INDCs submitted by each (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
signatory countries which is to be revised (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 4
every five years.

11
67. Which of the following is/are the special (a) 1 and 2
feature(s) of the Tughlaq Architecture? (b) 2 and 3
1. Sloping walls i.e barter. (c) 1 and 3
2. Combining arch with lintel & beam. (d) All.
3. Cutting the garden into four squares.
70. Which of the following statements is/are true
Codes: regarding Law Commission of India?
(a) 1 and 2 1. Law Commission of India is an executive
(b) Only 2 body established by an order of the
Government of India.
(c) Only 3
2. Its membership primarily comprises of the
(d) All
judges of Supreme Court and High Court.
68. Which of the following statements are true 3. The Commission is established for a fixed
regarding Right to Information Act? tenure and works as an advisory body.
1. The Act requires every public authority Codes:
to computerise their records for wide
dissemination and to proactively certain (a) 1 and 3
categories of information. (b) Only 2
2. The Act covers the whole of India except (c) 2 and 3

E
Jammu and Kashmir, where J&K Right (d) All
to Information Act is in force.
71. Which among the following statements are
OR
3. Centre and state information commissions
correct regarding GDP deflator?
are responsible for governing RTI and
Central Information Commission has no 1. It is a ratio between GDP at current prices
jurisdiction over it. and GDP at constant prices.
4. A person from disadvantaged community 2. It is a better measure of inflation than
CPI and WPI.
SC

who desires to seek some information from

public authority does not require to pay 3. It covers only goods produced in the
the fees. economy.

Codes: Select the correct answer using the code given

(a) 1, 2 and 3 below:
(a) 1 and 2
GS

(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(d) All (c) 1 and 3
(d) All
69. Recently 22 MPs from small parties,
independents in Rajya Sabha recognized as a 72. Which of the following statements is/are true
consolidated block (United Group). In this about the Dedicated Freight Corridors in
regard which of the following statements are India?
true? 1. These corridors are the responsibility of a
1. This is only for the first time in the history Special Purpose Vehicle under the
of Indian Parliament consolidated bloc has Ministry of Railways.
been recognized. 2. Western Dedicated Freight Corridor runs
2. The newly recognized bloc will find a from Dadri in UP to JLN Port, Mumbai.
place in the Business Advisory Committee 3. Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor covers
(BAC) that decides time allotment. the states of Punjab, Haryana, U.P and
3. A grouping of this kind will make it Bihar only.
possible for a even with single MP to Codes:
speak for as much time as other parties.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
Codes: (c) Only 3 (d) All

12
73. Which of the following statements is/are Codes:
correct related to the light? (a) 1 and 2
1. Light travels faster in air and slow in (b) Only 2
water. (c) Only 3
2. Total Internal reflection occurs when the (d) Only 4
angle of incidence is greater than the
critical angle. 77. Which of the following statements is/are true
about the Chemical Oxygen Demand(COD)?
Select the correct answer using below given
1. A COD test can determine the pollution
codes:
level in a water body.
(a) Only 1
2. A water body containing high levels of
(b) Only 2 oxidizable chemicals will show low COD.
(c) Both 3. It is expressed in SI units i.e milligrams
(d) None per litre(mg/L).

74. Considering the significance of healthy fats Codes:

which of the following are required for (a) Only 1
healthy growth? (b) 2 and 3

E
1. Monounsaturated Fatty Acids (MUFA) (c) 1 and 3
2. Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids (PUFA) (d) All
3. Omega-3

Select the correct answer using below given

codes:
(a) Only 1
OR
78. Which of the following statements is/are true
about BS norms?
1. BS norms in India are in accordance with
the Euro norms of Europe.
(b) 2 and 3 2. By 2020, India will implement BS-V norms
SC
(c) Only 3 all over the country.
(d) All 3. It aims to regulate the output of air
pollutants from internal combustion
75. Which of the following factors control the engines and Spark-ignition engines
evolution of landform apart from geomorphic equipment.
process?
GS

Codes:
1. Stability of sea level
(a) Only 1
2. Tectonic stability of landmass
(b) 1 and 3
3. Type and structure of landforms.
(c) Only 2
4. Climate
(d) All
Codes:
79. Which of the following sources can be used
(a) 1 and 3 to infer about earth's interior?
(b) 2 and 3 1. Meteors
(c) 3 and 4 2. Magnetic field
(d) All 3. Volcanic eruptions
4. Deep Ocean drilling
76. Which of the following statements is/are true
about Quit India Movement? 5. Gravitation field
1. It was purely a non-violent movement 6. Seismic activity
spread across the urban and rural areas.
Codes:
2. It was led by Gandhiji and J L Nehru
(a) 1, 3 and 4
from front.
(b) 1, 2 and 5
3. This was launched in the aftermath of
failure of Cabinet Mission. (c) 4 and 6
4. Gandhiji gave a call for 'Do or Die'. (d) All

13
80. Aerosols are said to have a large impact on
our environment. Which of the following is/
are true about aerosols?
1. By scattering the sunlight back into space,
it decreases the atmospheric temperature.
2. It facilitates the deposition of pollutants
to the surface of the earth as well as to
water bodies which is damaging to the
environment.
3. Aerosols release is always natural in the
environment.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) All
81. Which of the following provisions of the
4. If person is elected to both the houses of
parliament and in default of intimation
his seat in Rajya Sabha becomes vacant.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All
83. Consider the following statements with
reference to the cyclones:
1. Extra-tropical cyclones have cold air at
their core.
2. The tropical cyclones derive their energy
from latent heat of water.
3. Both are formed at low pressure centres
only.

E
Constitution can be amended by a special Which of the following statements is/are
majority of the Parliament and the consent of correct?
OR
half of the state legislature by a simple (a) All
majority? (b) Only 1
1. Distribution of legislative powers between (c) Only 2
the Union and the States.
(d) 1 and 3
2. Power of Parliament to amend the
SC

Constitution and its procedure. 84. Which of the following statements is/are true
3. Admission or establishment of new states. about the presence of Manganese mineral in
4. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule. India?
1. Odisha and Maharashtra are the largest
Codes: producer of manganese in India.
(a) 1 and 2 2. It is used for steel making, paints and
GS

(b) Only 2 insecticides.

(c) 1, 2 and 4 3. Manganese imports cover 80% of India's
(d) All domestic requirements.

82. A person cannot be a member of both houses Codes:

of Parliament at the same time. Thus (a) 1 and 2
accordingly to the representation of people (b) Only 2
act 1951, which of the following statements
(c) 2 and 3
is/are true regarding vacating of seats?
(d) All
1. If sitting member of one house is elected
to the other house, his seat in the first 85. Which of the following Oceanic Currents are
house becomes vacant. correctly matched?
2. If a person is elected to two seats in a 1. Canaries Current : South Atlantic Ocean
house, he should excuse his option for
2. Falkland Current : South Pacific Ocean
one, otherwise both seats becomes vacant.
3. Agulhas Current : Indian Ocean
3. If a person is elected to seat of parliament
and state legislature at the same time then 4. Labrador Current : North Atlantic Ocean
his seat in state legislature becomes
Select the correct code:
vacant.

14
 (a) 1 and 4 89. In the context of call money market, which of
(b) 2 and 3 the following statements is/are correct?
(c) 3 and 4 1. This is Inter-bank money market where
(d) 2 and 4 funds are borrowed and lent on fortnight
basis.
86. Which of the following statements is/are true
regarding Adjournment Motion? 2. Only schedule commercial banks are
allowed to operate in this market.
1. It interrupts the normal business of house.
2. It involves an element of censure against 3. No collateral is required to borrow from
the government and hence Lok Sabha and this market.
Rajya Sabha both are permitted to make
use of this device. Select the correct answer using the code given
3. If it is passed in Lok Sabha, the Council below.
of Minister need not resign from office. (a) Only 1
4. The discussion on an Adjournment (b) 1 and 2
Motion should last for not less than two
(c) 1 and 3
hours and thirty minutes.
(d) All

E
Codes:
(a) 1 and 4 90. Consider the following statements about the
mineral Phosphate:
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All OR 1. Plants absorb organic phosphate salts
from soil.
2. Animals obtain their phosphate by eating
87 Which of the following statements is/are true plants.
regarding E-Postal ballot system for services?
SC
3. Organophosphates are required for cell
1. It enables the service voters except armed
division involving production of nuclear
forces personnel, to cast their vote in
elections through e-postal ballot. DNA & RNA.
2. This two way electronic transmission of
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
blank postal ballot would considerably cut
short the delay in receipt of the marked (a) Only 2
GS

postal ballot by the Returning Officers. (b) 1 and 3

Codes: (c) 2 and 3

(a) Only 1 (d) All
(b) Only 2
91. Which of the following statements is/are true
(c) Both
about Algal Bloom in water bodies?
(d) None
1. Nutrient enrichment and rise in
88. Which of the tribes are correctly matched for temperature can cause algal bloom.
the states they belong? 2. Algal bloom is beneficial for the aquatic
1. Onges: Lakshadweep species as it increases food resource but
2. Bhotia: J&K decreases the quality of water for
3. Saharia: Rajasthan irrigation.
4. Toda: Andhra Pradesh
Codes:
Select the correct code: (a) Only 1
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) None
(d) 2 and 3

15
92. Which of the following statements is/are true 2. Green buildings, solar plants and
regarding Fundamental Duties? rainwater harvesting helps in achieving
1. Like the Directive Principles, the carbon neutral status.
fundamental duties are also non-
Codes:
justiciable in nature.
(a) Only 1
2. Fundamental Duties are applicable to all
persons whether citizen or foreigner. (b) Only 2
3. To protect and improve the environment (c) Both
and to safeguard forests and wildlife is (d) None
one of the fundamental duty.
96. Which of the following statement is correct
Codes: related to the Pietra Dura?
(a) Only 2 (a) These are the running water channels in
the Mughal gardens.
(b) 2 and 3
(b) These are the half dome style of Mughal
(c) 1 and 3
architecture.
(d) All
(c) These are the floral designs made of semi-
93. With reference to the blue carbon, consider precious stones on walls.
the following statements: (d) These are the four pillars at four corners

1. It is stored carbon in the plants.
2. It is captured by the world's oceans and
OR
coastal ecosystems.
3. It is the most strongly light-absorbing
component of particulate matter.
Which of the following statements is/are
SC
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style used in Mughal architectures.
97. The regions where farmers specialise in
vegetables only, and the distance of farms
from the market is governed by the distance
that a vehicle can cover overnight, named as
which of the following?
(a) Floriculture

correct?
(b) Truck farming
(a) Only 1
(c) Factory farming
(b) 2 and 3
(d) Mixed farming
(c) Only 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 98. Consider the following statements with respect
to the term "ecosystem":
GS

94. Various landforms are created by erosion and 1. The scientific study of plants and animals
deposition. Which of the following landforms and their relation to each other and their
is/are related to glacier? relation to environment is known as
1. Arete ecological system.
2. Cirque 2. Biosphere is the part of earth terrestrial
3. Crevasses system.

Select the correct answer using the codes Which of the above statements is/are correct?
below: (a) Only 1
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(b) Only 2 (c) Both
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
(d) All 99. Consider the following statements regarding
the 'Liquidity Adjustment facility':
95. Which of the following statements is/are true
about carbon neutral status? 1. The primary aim of LAF is to assists banks
to adjust to their day-to-day mismatches
1. Carbon neutrality occurs when the net in liquidity.
carbon emissions over an entire year is
2. It helps the RBI in effectively transmitting
zero.
the interest rate signals to the market.

16
 Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2. Presently the GEF is the largest public
(a) Only 1 funder of projects to improve the global
environment.
(b) Only 2
3. GEF serves as financial mechanism to both
(c) Both
UNFCCC and Geneva Convention.
(d) None
Codes:
100. Which of the following statements is/are true
(a) Only 1
about the Global Environmental Facility?
(b) 1 and 2
1. World Bank and Asian Development
Bank are the GEF Agencies responsible (c) Only 3
for managing GEF projects. (d) All

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OR
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

17
 Paper Code: 1 B

Mock - 1 Paper - 2
Time Allowed: 2 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 200

Roll No.:

INSTRUCTIONS

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Directions for question 1 to 3: Read the following
passage and answer the questions that follow. Your
answers to these questions should be based on the
passage only.
Passage I
About two­third of the illiterate adults in the world
are females. As the world works to implement the
goals of Education for All (EFA) and the Millennium
Development Goals (MDG), Women's literacy
occupy a place of importance. The United Nation's
Literacy Decade (UNLD ­ 2003­12) provides a special
focus for enhanced collective endeavors and is a
chance that must not be lost. In his book
"Development as Freedom", Amartya Sen observes
repeatedly that expansion of literacy specially female
literacy, has a positive effect on basic aspirations such
as life expectancy and political voice. It is at this level,
the discrimination is conceived putting a stop to her
Education and Development.
There is a growing sense of momentum and
recognition globally around literacy in general and
Women's Literacy in particular. The global
OR
commitment to overcome illiteracy or reducing the
imbalance between the literates and illiterates is
clearly endorsed by the UN Literacy decade (2003­
2012) and by the report on the World Social Situation
(2005). Governments are engaged and a lot has been
SC
done in this area. The millennium development goals
(MDG) have added an additional spur to action.
Failure to address this illiteracy predicament will
impede the Human Resource Development. Literacy
is both an Indicator and an Instrument of
development, and its attainment is a major factor
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behind accumulation of Human Capital.
Education in general and mass literacy in particular,
is a key contributor to Human Resource Development
and is thus basic to any programme of Social and
Economic progress. The Gender Achievements and
Prospects in Education report (GAP, 2005) quotes
"Illiteracy is a catastrophe for any child, but
particularly devastating for girls. Girls who are
denied education are more vulnerable to poverty,
hunger, violence, abuse, exploitation, trafficking,
HIV/AIDS and other diseases and maternal
mortality. If they become mothers, there is a greater
chance that they will bequeath literacy and poverty
to the next generation."
The neglect of education during colonial times
combined with social distortions had made the quest
for learning a rather difficult task especially for those
belonging to under privileged social groups mainly
SCs/STs and women. The problem of illiteracy was
further aggravated by social constraints, which
inhibit female literacy and educational development
of women. Gender inequality is one of the most
crucial and yet one of the most persistent disparities
in India where differences in female and male literacy
rates are glaring, more so in the rural areas and
among the disadvantaged sections of society. The
growth rate for female literacy in the last decade has
been 3% higher than the growth rate for male literacy
resulting in a decline in the absolute numbers of
illiterate women ­ from 200.7 million in 1991 to 190
million in 2001. Gender differential in education,
however, continues to be high at 21.7%. This can be
attributed to a number of factors ­ lack of access to
schools, lack of toilets and drinking water, parents
feeling insecure about sending girl children, poor
quality of education in government schools, and high
fees charged by the private ones.
According to the Census of India 2001, the female
literacy rate increased from 39.29 per cent in 1991
to 54.16 in 2001 (i.e. by 14.87 percentage points):
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whereas, in case of males it increased from 64.13
percent to 75.85 per cent (i.e. by 11.69 percentage
points) during the same period. It means female
literacy in the last 10 years has grown at a faster
rate then the male literacy rate. This has resulted in
narrowing down of the gender gap in literacy rate
from 24.84 in 1991 to 21.69 percentage points in 2001.
1. According to the passage, what has been the
main reason that has made the quest for
learning a difficult task?
(a) The neglect of education during colonial
times combined with social distortions.
(b) The neglect of education since
independence as this has been the area
where the budget allocation has always
been less.
(c) Only the social distortions that has lead
to learning being a difficult task.
(d) Gender differential in education.
2. According to the passage, what are the main
factors for Gender Differentials in Education?
1. Lack of access to schools.
2. Parents feeling insecure about sending girl
children.
3. Poor quality of education in government
schools.
4. Teacher's lack of interest in teaching the
girl child.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All
2
 3. Failure to address this illiteracy predicament 3. Inclusive growth can only be achieved in
will impede the development of …? India if local, state and national
(a) Human Resource Development. governments work in perfect
(b) The millennium development goals coordination.
(MDG). 4. In order to have growth process inclusive,
(c) The Gender Achievements and Prospects public delivery system requires priority.
in Education.
Which of the statements given above are
(d) World Social Situation. correct?
Directions for question 4 to 8: Read the following (a) 2 and 3
passage and answer the questions that follow. Your
answers to these questions should be based on the (b) 2 and 4
passage only. (c) 3 and 4
Passage II (d) 1 and 2
"Public service delivery is an integral component for 5. According to the passage, good governance
achieving growth oriented governance. Citizen will require:
centricity with the aim of ensuring citizens' welfare
(a) Citizen's welfare and satisfaction.
and satisfaction is critical for any government­local,
state or national­which aims to provide good (b) Education, healthcare, urban and rural

governance. India has an elaborate legal framework
and institutional structures underpinned by the
Constitution­articulated vision of a welfare state and
by implication, provide for creation of a citizen­
centric governance structure. The average citizen is
concerned less with the convolutions of governance
and politics, or the myriad structures and levels of
government departments than with obtaining rapid
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and equitable access to government services, whether
regulatory or developmental or welfare oriented,
preferably at his doorstep. Therefore, stability,
transparency, efficiency and continuity in the
governance systems that the citizens are most
immediately concerned with, is so necessary. That is
why, our priority in India must be to place the citizen
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infrastructure and services and
employment generation.
(c) Stability, transparency, efficiency and
OR continuity in the governance system.
(d) Good public service along with inclusive
and sustainable economic development.
6. Government is duty bound for accelerating
the pace of growth. This can be achieved by:
1. Modernising the economy, ensuring
deregulation, delicensing, etc.
2. By ensuring privatization and making the
system opaque.
3. By making government bare minimum

at the centre of a modern public administration. noticeable.

India is a developing country and there are special 4. By making government more open and
requirements of them. It is through public service accountable.
that inclusive and sustainable economic development
can be achieved. The Government is responsible both Select the correct answer from the code given
for accelerating the pace of growth and also for below:
making the growth process inclusive. The former (a) 1 and 2
calls for economic modernization and liberalisation, (b) 1 and 3
for making government less intrusive and more
(c) 2 and 3
transparent. The latter calls for greater attention
being paid to public service delivery systems, in areas (d) 1 and 4
like education, healthcare urban and rural
7. What essential message does the author wants
infrastructure and services and employment
to convey through the passage?
generation."
(a) Ensuring inclusive growth for the
4. According to the passage: satisfaction of the citizen.
1. The average person is more concerned (b) Ensuring education, healthcare, urban
about the corruption free administration and rural infrastructure.
than anything else. (c) Sustainable development with centrality
2. The Indian Constitution has provided a of the common people.
machinery which enables the goal of a (d) Public service delivery ensuring peoples'
welfare state. satisfaction.
3
 8. According to the passage, the average citizen
is least interested to understand the
hierarchical structure and mystical shape of
government, rather more interested to know
the outcome and quick service delivery. Of
the following, which conveys his feelings?
(a) People are least concerned with long list
of rules and regulations in government
rather they require quick redressal of their
grievances.
(b) People are fed up with the formal
structure and politician's role. In fact they
expect the government machinery to act
fast and ensure speedy justice at their
doorstep.
(c) People have nothing to do with extremely
large structure of the government which
is complicated and difficult to
comprehend. What they require is
enabling governance that should facilitate
all their requirements.
(d) People hardly bother what the rules and
OR
acts say and who are authorities, who
have to act, they are more concerned with
obtaining rapid and equitable services in
a time bound manner.
9. Two positions of a dice are shown below:
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When three (3) dots are at the top, how many
will be at the bottom?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 5
Directions for questions 10 to 13: Answer the
questions on the basis of the information given
below:
Six friends went on a vacation to a hill station. They
are to be accommodated in a row of nine cottages,
numbered 1 to 9 from left. Each of them is assigned
only one Cottage.
Mohan, Tanya and Roma do not want to live in a
cottage at the end of a row. Babu and Mohan must
not have anybody adjacent to their cottages. There
is only an empty cottage between Mohan and Roma.
Chander is adjacent to both Jayanthi and Roma.
Tanya is next to the cottage at the beginning.
10. Who has empty cottages in both sides?
(a) Roma (b) Babu
(c) Mohan (d) Tanya
11. Which cottages are empty?
(a) 1, 6, 8
(b) 1, 5, 8
(c) 4, 5, 6
(d) 5, 6, 8
12. Who is in the third cottage?
(a) Jayanthi (b) Chander
(c) Nobody (d) Roma
13. What is the maximum number of consecutive
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cottages that are occupied?
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 1 (d) 4
14. Four friends P, Q, R and S go to four different
movies ­ Predator, MI­2, True Lies and Tarzan
in four different theatres ­ A, B, C and D. It
is known that:
1. P did not go to A or B nor did he see MI­
2 or True Lies.
2. S went to C but did not watch MI­2 or
Predator.
3. Q did not go to B but watched MI­2
4. R did not watch any movie starting with
letter 'T'.
Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) P went to D and did not watch Predator.
(b) Q went to A and watched MI­2.
(c) R went to B and watched Predator.
(d) S went to C and watched Tarzan.
Directions for question 15 to 18: Read the following
passage and answer the questions that follow. Your
answers to these questions should be based on the
passage only.
Passage III
The bourgeoisie, historically, has played the most
revolutionary part.
The bourgeoisie, wherever it has got the upper hand,
has put an end to all feudal, patriarchal, idyllic
relations. It has pitilessly torn as under the motley
feudal ties that bound man to his ‘natural superiors’,
4
and has left no other nexus between man and man
than naked self­interest, than callous ‘cash
pay­ment’. It has drowned out the most heavenly
ecstasies of religious fervour, of chivalrous
enthusiasm, of philistine sentimentalism, in the icy
water of egotistical calculation. It has resolved
personal worth into exchange value, and in place of
the numberless indefeasible chartered freedoms, has
set up that single, unconscionable freedom—Free
Trade. In one word, for exploitation, veiled by
religious and political illusions, it has substituted
naked, shameless, direct, brutal exploitation.
The bourgeoisie has stripped of its halo every
occupation hitherto honoured and looked up to with
reverent awe. It has converted the physician, the
lawyer, the priest, the poet, the man of science, into
its paid wage labourers. The bourgeoisie has torn
away from the family its sentimental veil, and has
reduced family relations into a mere money relation.
The bourgeoisie cannot exist without constantly
revolutionising the instruments of production, and
thereby the relations of production, and with them
the whole relations of society. Conservation of the
old modes of production in unaltered form, was, on
the contrary, the first condition of existence for all
earlier industrial classes. Constant revolutionising of
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production, uninterrupted disturbance of all social
conditions, everlasting uncertainty and agitation
distinguish the bourgeoise epoch from all earlier
ones. All fixed, fast frozen relations, with their train
of ancient and venerable prejudices and opinions,
are swept away, all new formed ones become
antiquated before they can ossify. All that is solid
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melts into air, all that is holy is profaned, and man is
at last compelled to face with sober senses his real
condition of life and his relations with his kind.
The need of a constantly expanding market for its
products chases the bourgeoisie over the entire
surface of the globe. It must nestle everywhere, settle
everywhere, establish connections everywhere,
15. Which of the assumptions is/are correct as
per the passage?
1. Bourgeoise (capitalist) causes a constant
change in the means and processes of
production.
2. Bourgeoise has altered social relationships.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only Assumption 1 is correct.
(b) Only Assumption 2 is correct.
(c) Both Assumptions 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Neither Assumption 1 nor 2 is correct.
5
16. What is the revolutionary part, which the
author refers to, which the bourgeoise has
played?
(a) It has transferred the social powers from
the serbs to the feudal class.
(b) It has contributed to funding of
revolutions and consequent change of
power.
(c) It has made monetary interest the focal
point of relationship between individuals
and society.
(d) It has brought radical change in the
means of production.
17. Which one of the following is/are correct
interpretations of the views of the author?
1. Free trade has ended the exploitation
earlier carried out in the garb of religious
and political beliefs.
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2. Bourgeoise has brought a degree of
honour to the paid wage labourers as it
OR has freed them from the clutches of
feudalism and guildship, to earn money
directly for themselves.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only Interpretation 1 is correct.
(b) Only Interpretation 2 is correct.
(c) Both Interpretations 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Neither Interpretation 1 nor 2 is correct.
18. Why did the bourgeoise bring about a change
in relations in the society?
1. Bourgeoise had to change the means and
tools of production to cater to the rising
demand of expanding market, thereby
bringing in social changes.
2. Bourgeoise had to break the shackles of
guilds to wrest control over means of
production and the market. This brought
change in social relations.
3. The bourgeoise were resentful of the old
means of production, which did not have
space for them.
4. The bourgeoise value only money and
profit, which ushered in a culture of value
of money over relationships thus changing
the social relations.
Select the correct code:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) Only 4
19. 4 men and 6 boys can do a piece of work in
12 days. 6 men and 15 boys can do the same 7 5 7 5
24. If x = and y = ,
work in 6 days. In how much time can 2 men 7 5 7 5
and 15 boys complete the same work? find x3 + y3.
(a) 16 days (b) 24 days (a) 1962 (b) 1692
(c) 36 days (d) None of these (c) 1269 (d) 2196

20. If m and n are integers and mn is 10. Which
of the following cannot be the value of m +
n?
(a) 29 (b) 25
(c) 52 (d) 50
21. Two brothers Dharma and Bhim have two
sons each. Ram and Laxman are the sons of
Dharma whose ages are in the ratio 9 : 8
respectively. Bharat and Sharat are the sons
of Bhim whose ages are in the ratio of 7 : 6.
After seven years Ram is elder than Sharat by
24 years. Given that the ages of Ram, Laxman,
25. If a person can buy at 20% less than usual
and sell at 10% more than usual his profit
increases by 33% of the usual cost price. Find
the initial profit percentage.
(a) 15%
(b) 30%
(c) 20%
(d) Cannot be determined
26. A 50 litres jar is filled with the finest wine.
There are two measuring jars of 5 litres and
3 litre capacities each without any calibration.
A quantity of 4 litres is to be given to a

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Bharat and Sharat are in A.P. Find the sum customer using the jars. What is the least
of the present ages of Laxman and Bharat? number of operations required to measure
OR
(a) 32 years exactly 4 litres. An operation is said to be
complete every time an amount of wine is
(b) 48 years
transferred from one jar to another.
(c) 120 years
(a) 5 (b) 6
(d) 64 years
(c) 7 (d) 8
SC

22. A certain hostel block has ten times as many

27. Two vessels contain mixtures of water and
rooms as there are floors in it and each floor
milk in the ratio of 3 : 5 and 5 : 3. Find the
contains equal number of single occupancy
ratio in which they should be mixed to obtain
rooms. When 5 persons came to know that
a mixture that has water and milk in the ratio
10% of the rooms in the block were
of 1 : 1.
unoccupied they applied for accommodation
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 3
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and one of them was rejected accommodation

because the block was full after the
accommodation was provided to the other
four. Find the total number of rooms in the
block.
(a) 40 (b) 50
(c) 30 (d) 20
23. Two friends Ram and Rahim started from two
places A and B towards B and A respectively
at 11:40 a.m. The speeds of Ram and Rahim
are in the ratio 3 : 4. They meet at C (in
between A and B) spent some time together
and both started towards their destination at
12:40 p.m. If Ram reached B at 1: 44 p.m.
how much time did they spend together?
(a) 18 minutes
(b) 16 minutes
(c) 12 minutes
(d) Cannot be determined
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
28. 7 coins are thrown simultaneously. What is
the probability of getting more number of
heads than tails?
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/4
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/7
Directions for question 29 to 32: Read the following
passage and answer the questions that follow. Your
answers to these questions should be based on the
passage only.
Passage IV
In democratic systems of governance, media enjoys
a very high status because of its role as a watchdog
over the three pillars of democracy ­ the legislature,
the judiciary and the executive.
The media also plays another important role, that of
an intermediary between the government and the
people. In this role, the media becomes the purveyor
6
of information, facilitator, exposer, aggregator of
people's opinions and people's advocate. It informs
people of the government's good work; it reports on
achievements as well as failings of the public delivery
systems; it analyses social, economic and political
issues; generates and supports debate on
government initiatives and policies; provides
feedback on public perception of an elected
government's performance; and so on. It also helps
non­governmental actors in the society; communicate
with the people and the government. By doing so,
the media acts as an active participant in the
socio­economic development of the nation.
29. Consider the following statements based on
the passage.
1. Media plays a passive role in the growth
of the people in general.
2. Media does help the government by
informing the people about various
achievements of government.
3. Media has become very important also
because it has become a link between the
government and citizens.
Choose the correct answer from following
codes:
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(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
30. What the author means by 'failings of the
public delivery systems'.
1. Poor functioning and supervision of fair
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price shops.
2. Poor municipal services.
3. High level of pollution.
4. Poor railway services.
Choose the correct answer from code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. What is your understanding about the term
'aggregator of people's opinion'?
1. The media collects people's opinion,
compiles it and brings into the notice of
all concerned.
2. The media scans people's opinion and
selectively projects before concerned
authorities.
Choose the correct answer from code given
below:
7
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both (d) None
32. According to passage what is not being done
by media?
(a) It provides an assessment of people's
opinion about policies of government.
(b) It facilitates citizen group's communi­
cation with government functionaries and
with people.
(c) People come to know about various good
works done by government.
(d) Media helps the government in
implementation of its various schemes.
Directions for question 33 to 35: Read the following
passage and answer the questions that follow. Your
answers to these questions should be based on the
passage only.
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Passage V
The word 'informal economy' is rather strongly
OR
embedded in the economic and policy literature
today. Conceived in the course of some ILO studies
(as part of the ILO's World Employment Programme)
in Africa by Hart in 1972, it nevertheless has been
severely criticized by some ­ mainly because till date
there is no clear definition. From the 'informal sector',
we moved to 'informal economy', and soon other
terms such as informal work and informal
employment also emerged.
Strictly speaking each of these have different
interpretations, though obviously are closely related.
And depending on how we define each, statistics
also vary. Yet, despite all these problems and harsh
criticism, the concept has survived. To understand
why, it may be useful to go back to the person who
coined the concept in the first place­Keith Hart, the
economic anthropologist. According to Hart this was
simply a means of giving expression to 'the gap
between my experience there (in Africa) and
anything that my English education had taught me
before'.
Anyone sifting through the vast literature on the
informal economy will be surprised at the various
ways it has been described­'marginal', 'survivalist',
'working poor', 'small capitalist sector', 'dynamic',
'people's economy', 'entrepreneurial' are among the
descriptions. While there are those who highlight the
vulnerability, voicelessness and powerlessness of
those in the informal economy, some others speak of
work in the informal economy as a means to reclaim
some economic power that centralized agents deny
them.
The fact that the informal economy has been used to
describe such varying types of economic activities ­
some stagnant, low productive, what can best be
termed 'underemployment', and some others
profitable and dynamic ­ only means that there exist
within this vast amorphous informal economy
heterogeneous economic activities in terms of income
generating capacities, ownership of work, skills,
work status, productive capacity, links to other
sectors and to the state.
33. What is the thematic highlight of the passage?
(a) The powerlessness of the informal
economy
(b) The informal economy­one word too
many?
(c) ILO studies and the informal economy
(d) Informal employment ­ a myth?
34. With the reference to the passage, consider
the following statements:
1. Only statistics can help us arrive at a
OR
comprehensive definition of the informal
economy.
2. The concept of an informal economy has
been criticized for having no clear
definition.
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Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both (d) None
35. Which of the following has/have not been
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mentioned in relation to the informal
economy?
1. The workers in the informal economy
work for centralized agents.
2. Income generating capacities are uniform
within the informal economy.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both (d) None
Directions for question 36 to 37: Read the following
passage and answer the questions that follow. Your
answers to these questions should be based on the
passage only.
Passage VI
The real clients for any national government tourism
policy initiatives are those who comprise the regional
and local communities across India. Tourists and the
tourism industry are simply the actors.
The tourism industry is very good at spreading the
mantra that tourism will bring major economic
benefits. But how often do those benefits flow back
to the travel company, the hotel chain or the tourism
operator who might be based overseas? What good
are thousands, even millions, of tourists to the
national economy if most of what they spend goes
elsewhere? The host country, or region for an
international event, must provide and maintain
airports, ports, roads and public amenities, sustain
natural and cultural heritage sites, provide water and
sewerage infrastructure for the increased traffic, but
few international visitors rarely stay long in most of
the places they visit. Few in the local community can
identify what benefits are actually captured from the
tourist traffic.
The critical issue for tourism policy development in
India is for the local economy to retain as much
tourism revenue as possible.
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36. What does the author imply by the question
"But how often do those benefits flow back to
the travel company, the hotel chain or the
tourism operator who might be based
overseas?"
1. It is important to understand whether the
economic benefits from tourism benefit the
national economy or not.
2. It is important to understand whether the
tourism industry is sustainable or not.
Select the correct answers using the codes
given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both (d) None
37. Consider the following statements:
1. For countries hosting international events,
people in local communities mostly do not
benefit from the tourist traffic.
2. In the case of international events, the
improved infrastructure does not benefit
local communities in the host country.
With reference to the passage, which of the
above statements is/are valid?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both
(d) None
Directions for question 38 to 41 : Read the following
passage and answer the questions that follow. Your
answers to these questions should be based on the
passage only.
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 Passage VII
When small economic crises crop up repeatedly over
a relatively short period of time, policymakers in each
country may treat each such episode as an
independent event requiring independent action but,
in reality, such 'cluster crises' may be a sign of some
fundamental shift taking place in the global
economy. Hence, faced with cluster crises, it is
important to occasionally step back and take a more
holistic view of the situation. There has been some
research trying to do precisely that.
At one level, it is not difficult to see what is happening.
With rapid globalisation since the end of World War
II, goods and services and also capital have begun
moving much more freely across nations. In addition,
and maybe even more importantly, the advance of
IT has meant that it is possible for people with a
modicum of skills to sit in one country and do work
for another country. In brief, one of the most precious
resources for economic progress, namely skilled
labour, which earlier sat walled in within the
boundaries of their respective nations, has suddenly
become available to needs arising in distant parts of
the world.
What this has meant is that all emerging economies
with a little ability to organise their workspace and
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impart skills to their workers are now capable of
taking advantage of this windfall. As a consequence,
the bottom end of the skilled­labour spectrum in the
US and Europe is now coming under competition
from the top end of the skilled labour band of India,
China, the Philippines, Indonesia, and several other
emerging economies. This has energised large
GS
corporations in rich and poor countries and caused
booms in various regions, like Silicon Valley in the
United States. But this is also causing inequality to
rise in both industrialised nations and emerging
economies. In a recent paper, Spence highlights how
this process is one of the causes of growth and
employment trends, within the US economy,
diverging and inequality rising. And "the major
emerging economies are becoming more competitive
in areas in which the US economy has historically
been dominant, such as the design and manufacture
of semi­conductors, pharmaceuticals, and
information technology services". By the same
argument, the skilled end of the labour markets in
India and China is competing with its counterparts
in industrialised nations and, as a consequence, its
salaries are rising, resulting in growing inequality in
these countries.
There are other domains where these kinds of inter­
country tensions have been building up. Disparities
in savings rates across nations have often led to
9
acrimonious debate and search for first cause. It has
been suggested that China's huge savings rate may
not be entirely because of domestic structural factors
in China but a response to the fact that the savings
rate in the U S dropped sharply between 1960 and
2010.
These adjustments give rise to economic turmoil and
crisis and, in addition, are politically sensitive matters
that can lead to protectionism, which can do more
harm than good. It is important for us to recognise
that none of these structural shifts are caused by the
actions of any one individual or nation. Millions of
little actions and thousands of scientific discoveries
over decades and human inventiveness in general
have given rise to globalisation and we have inherited
the world we have. It is for us to take the givens as
given and use collective bodies such as the G­20 to
ensure that we do not fall victim to protectionism. It
is important to remember that through all this
E
turmoil the global pie is expanding. Hence, by having
effective coordinated action, it is possible to convert
OR
what appears at first as adversity into advantage.
38. The progress in the field of information
technology (IT) helped in the growth of world
economy as
1. IT field attracted skilled manpower and
big investment.
2. IT growth enabled out­sourcing of
services.
3. IT field enabled channelising of skills of
cheaper labour of developing countries in
growing enterprises of developed nation.
Select the correct code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
39. Examine whether the following assertions are
correct as per what is stated in the passage.
1. The growth of IT and availability of
cheaper skilled labour has helped
economies to grow but has also led to rise
of inequality across the economies.
2. The growth of IT and cheap skilled labour
has also given rise to disparities in savings
rates across nations.
Select the correct answer from the following
options:
(a) Only Assertion 1 is correct.
(b) Only Assertion 2 is correct.
(c) Both Assertions l and 2 are correct.
(d) Neither Assertion 1 nor 2 is correct.
40. The objective of the passage is:
(a) To emphasise on the need for taking a
holistic view of problems and issues in a
cluster crises situation
(b) To highlight, how growth of IT and trans­
border movement of skilled labour and
services has helped in growth of economy
as well as created inequalities and other
problems
(c) To emphasise on the need for eschewing
protectionism in the present day world
economy
(d) All of the above
41. Which of the following statements is/are
correct in light of what is stated in the
passage?
1. Cluster crises are a certain sign of some
fundamental shift taking place in the
economy.
2. Post World War II there has been much
freer movement of goods, services and
OR
capital across nations.
3. Due to freer movement of skilled labour,
the bottom end of spectrum of skilled
labour in many developed economies is
facing competition with the bottom end
SC
of spectrum of skilled labour of many
emerging economies.
Select the correct code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
GS
Directions for questions 42 to 44: Questions are
based on the graph below:
Total for all five years = Rs.100 crores.
42. The expenses of which year added to one
fourth the expenses of another year equal the
expenses of each of two other years?
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1
43. In how many years from Year 2 has the
expenditure risen by the around 15%?
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) Insufficient data
44. If in Year 6 the expenses increase at the same
rate as they did from Year 3 to Year 5, what
will be the expenditure in Year 6 (Rs. Crore )?
(a) 28.2 (b) 24.2
(c) 25.2 (d) 23.2
Directions for question 45 to 47: Read the following
passage and answer the questions that follow. Your
answers to these questions should be based on the
passage only.
Passage VIII
MGNREGS is playing the role of a catalyst in the
rural economy. It is playing an important role in the
overall development of the rural area. MGNREGS
addresses itself mainly to working people and their
E
fundamental rights to live with dignity. This is one
of the greatest experiments undertaken by the
Government of India to eradicate rural poverty. It
has provided protection against extreme poverty,
helped in economic independence of women,
reduced crime and child labour in the rural areas.
The socio­ economic conditions of the rural people
has improved to a great extent due to MGNREGS.
The programme has immense potential to provide
better livelihood opportunities to poor rural people,
focuses on poverty alleviation. A notable aspect of
this programme is the participation of large number
of rural women who have sought work under
MGNREGS. The scheme is poised to progress from a
mere wage employment to sustainable development
programme. The success of MGNREGS however, will
depend on people's realization of the Act as a right.
45. Consider the following statements in respect
of above passage.
1. MGNREGS has improved the overall
social security in rural areas.
2. The programme has been able to provide
gender justice.
3. MGNREGS can fully succeed only when
people start using it as a right.
Choose the correct statement from the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
10
46. MGNREGS is playing a role of catalyst in the
rural economy because
1. It has provided employment with dignity.
2. It has empowered the women.
Choose the correct option from code given
below:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both (d) None
47. Of the following which benefit is not coming
out of MGNREGS?
(a) Cases of child labour has been reduced.
(b) It is a right based programme and the
people are fully understanding it.
(c) It has been able to arrest rural poverty.
(d) It has provided livelihood with dignity.
Directions for questions 48 to 50: Answer the
year have to be vaccinated, the maximum
percentage of male children born in the same
year that can be vaccinated is:
(a) 50%
(b) 63%
(c) 37%
(d) Indeterminate
Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the
questions on the basis of the information given
below:
A family consists of 6 members namely A, B, C, D, E
and F. B is the brother­in­law of C's mother. C is
father of F. D is father of A and F is grandson of D.
There are two female members in the family.
51. Who is the mother of C?
(a) B

E
questions on the basis of the information given in (b) E
the line chart. (c) A
The following line chart gives the birth figures (in
hundreds) for a small town called Jiasarai from 1990
to 1998.
OR(d) Cannot be determined

52. Which of the following pairs represents the

female members in the family?
(a) A and E
SC
(b) B and C
(c) C and D
(d) Cannot be determined

53. The members of the family belong to how

many generations?
GS

(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) Three
48. In which year did the birth of female children
(d) Either two or three
decrease from the previous year for the first
time during the given period? 54. D has two children. One is A and who is the
(a) 1991 other one?
(b) 1993 (a) E (b) C
(c) 1994 (c) B (d) F
(d) Indeterminate
55. Two tanks of equal volume contain chemical
49. What is the average annual growth rate of A & B. The first tank contains half as much
female births from 1990 to 1998? A as B. The second tank contains one­ fourth
(a) 140% as much chemical B as A. The mixtures of the
(b) 20% two tanks are mixed in the third tank in the
ratio 3 : 5. What is the ratio of A : B finally?
(c) 15.5%
(a) 4 : 1
(d) 17.5%
(b) 5 : 3
50. If 2500 children (born in the same year) can (c) 4 : 3
be vaccinated in 1996 in Jiasarai and atleast (d) 1 : 5
50% of the female children born in the same
11
Directions for questions 56 to 58: Answer the 59. If Jatin is not sitting opposite Lamba, then
questions on the basis of the information given Francis is sitting next to whom?
below: (a) Faisal
Six friends Arun, Brian, Cory, Dorthy, Eela and Faruq (b) Eram
decided to go on a road trip on three bikes each having (c) Lamba
a rider and a passenger. If Arun is riding then neither
(d) Either Eram or Lamba
Brian nor Eela will sit with him. If Eela is riding then
Cory will sit with him. Faruq sits with Brian and 60. If Francis is not sitting next to Lamba then
Dorthy is a rider.
how many different seating arrangements are
possible?
56. If Arun is riding, then who is his passenger?
(a) Three (b) Five
(a) Faruq (b) Dorthy
(c) Four (d) Six
(c) Cory (d) Eela
61. If Hanif is sitting at one of the corner seats,
57. Who among the following can be the three
then who is sitting opposite him?
Riders?
(a) Arun, Dorthy, Eela (a) Francis (b) Daya
(b) Brian, Eela, Dorthy (c) Ajit (d) Gehna
(c) Cory, Faruq, Arun Directions for questions 62 and 63: Answer the
questions on the basis of the information given
(d) Dorthy, Cory, Arun

E
below:
58. Who among the following sits behind Dorthy Five friends Aruna, Bharti, Catherine, Drishti and
OR
if Arun is riding? Elena drive to a coffee parlor for a meeting. Each of
(a) Eela them arrived by a different car at different times.
(b) Cory Bharti arrived on a car other than Ambassador after
(c) Faruq Drishti has arrived. The person arriving on Limo car
(d) Either Eela or Cory arrived the last. Elena arrived just before the last
SC

Directions for questions 59 to 61: Answer the
questions on the basis of the information given
below:
Twelve friends Ajit, Bose, Castro, Daya, Eram,
Francis, Gehna, Hanif, Ilena, Jatin, Khosla and
Lamba are sitting around rectangular table to have
GS
person and he did not drive a Mercedes car. The
Volkswagen owner arrived just after the Fiat driver
who arrived first. Three people arrived between
Catherine and Aruna.
62. Who arrived in Mercedes car?

dinner. There are 12 chairs around the table (a) Aruna (b) Catherine
numbered from 1 to 12 (see figure) and only one (c) Drishti (d) Bharti
person can sit on one chair (not necessarily in the
same order). Some additional information is given 63. Who arrived the third?
below: (a) Drishti
(b) Bharti
(c) Elena
(d) Cannot be determined

64. If MAJOR is coded as NCMSW then what

will be the code for ATTACK?
(a) ZUUZDL (b) BVWEHQ
(1) Francis is sitting at chair number 1, is
diagonally opposite Castro who is sitting (c) BVWEIQ (d) BVWEIP
opposite Daya.
65. In how many ways can 10 puppies (all look
(2) Eram is sitting opposite Ilena who is the alike) be sold to 6 men, given that every puppy
only person sitting between Bose and must be sold and each man must have at least
Lamba.
one puppy?
(3) Ajit is sitting opposite Khosla who is the
(a) 15 C 5 (b) 9 C 6
only person sitting between Castro and
Jatin. (c) 10 C 6 (d) 9 C 5

12
66. Six sides of a block are coloured Green, Blue,
Red, Yellow, Orange and White in the
following manner.
When Blue is on the top, which colour will be
at the bottom?
(a) Orange (b) Red
(c) White (d) Yellow
Directions for question 67 to 69: Read the following
passage and answer the questions that follow. Your
answers to these questions should be based on the
passage only.
Passage IX
After the next day's competition, I was in second
SC
place. My coach said I was "a dark horse for a
medal". the Russian and Chinese divers had been
heavily favored. At 29, I had been written off by most
people as too old to win. "Maybe you should march
before all your events," Coach joked.
But my next­to­last dive was a disaster and plunged
GS
me into fifth place. I had one final shot at a medal.
As I stood on the platform ready to take my last dive,
I paused a bit longer than usual. The announcement
came over the loudspeaker. "Mary Ellen Clark of the
United States, doing a backward one­and­a­half
somersault with two­and­a­half twists.
I stepped up to the edge of the platform and turned
my back to the water. With a quick prayer and an
incredible sense of lightness, I was airborne, arcing
out over the pool, twisting and tumbling, the
Barcelona skyline flashing by. A micro­instant later,
I ripped into the water. I knew I had nailed the dive.
When I shot back to the surface, Coach O'Brien was
yelling, "Bronze, Mary Ellen, bronze!"
67. "dark horse for medal means" _____ to win:
(a) Likely
(b) Highly likely
(c) Unlikely
(d) Highly unlikely
13
68. Final shot means:
(a) The only chance
(b) The only chance that day
(c) The last chance that day
(d) Last chance in tournament
69. Nailed the dive means:
(a) Hurt in the dive
(b) Broken the diving board
(c) Dived successfully
(d) Dived poorly
Directions for question 70 to 72: Read the following
passage and answer the questions that follow. Your
answers to these questions should be based on the
passage only.
Passage X
E
While we were waiting for the tea to arrive, I sat
down opposite the chimpanzee and lit a cigarette.
To my surprise, he became very excited and held out
OR
his hand across the table to me. Wondering what he
would do, I handed him the cigarette packet. he
opened it, took out a cigarette and put it between
his lips. He then reached out his hand again and I
gave him the matches; to my astonishment, he took
one out of the box, struck it, lit his cigarette and threw
the box down on the table. Lying back in his chair,
he blew out clouds of smoke in the most professional
manner. No one had told me that Chimpanzee
smoked. I wondered rather anxiously what other
undesirable habits he might have which his master
had not warned me about.
Just at that moment, the tea was brought in and the
chimpanzee greeted its appearance with loud hoots
of joy. He watched me carefully while I half­filled
his mug with milk and then added the tea. I had
been told that he had a very sweet tooth so I put in
six large spoons of sugar, an action which he greeted
with grunts of satisfaction. He placed his cigarette
on the table and seized the mug with both hands;
then he stuck out his lower lip very carefully and
dipped it into the tea to make sure it was not too
hot. As it was a little warm, he sat there blowing on
it vigorously until it was cool enough, and then he
drank it all down without stopping once. When he
had drained the last drops, he peered into the mug
and scooped out all the sugar he could with his
forefinger. After that, he tipped the mug up on his
nose and sat with it like that for about five minutes
until the very last of the sugar had trickled down
into his mouth. For a few minutes, he was in a world
of his own, far away from the threat of civilized man.
70. What effect did Durrell's lighting of a cigarette 73. Which of these facets of customer behavior
have on the chimpanzee? It got was not immediately realized by the bank
(a) Surprised managers of the regional bank
(b) Excited (a) Customers don’t enjoy waiting for tellers.
(c) Annoyed (b) Service is not the most important factor
in switching banks.
(d) Angry
(c) Customers only switch banks in extreme
71. The phrase "had a sweet tooth" means situations.
(a) Its tooth tasted sweet (d) Cost reduction is not a tangible benefit.
(b) Loved sweets 74. What is consumer inertia in regards to
(c) Was polite banking?
(d) Was well­mannered (a) Cost of improving service time.
(b) Cost of attracting new customers.
72. By undesirable needs author means
(c) Low motivation of consumers in
(a) Acceptable switching banks.
(b) Unacceptable (d) Increased revenues in regards to new
(c) Expected customers.
(d) Unexpected

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75. Which of these improvements did the reduced
Directions for question 73 to 75: Read the following service time actually provide?
passage and answer the questions that follow. Your
(a) Change easy to explain to customers.
OR
answers to these questions should be based on the
passage only. (b) Helped in attracting new customers.
(c) Impossible for competitors to copy.
Passage XI
(d) Increased profit margins for the bank.
The fact that superior service can generate a
Directions for question 76 to 80: The following bar
competitive advantage for a company does not mean
SC

graph gives the monthly expenditure of a family

that every attempt at improving service will create household and the line graph that follows provides
such an advantage. Investments in service, like those the monthly medical expenses as a percentage of total
in production and distribution, must be balanced monthly expenditure. Observe these two graphs and
against other types of investments on the basis of answer the five questions that follow:
direct, tangible benefits such as cost reduction and
increased revenues. If a company is already
GS

effectively on a par with its competitors because it

provides service that avoids a damaging reputation
and keeps customers from leaving at an unacceptable
rate, then investment in higher service levels may be
wasted, since service is a deciding factor for
customers only in extreme situations. This truth was
not apparent to managers of one regional bank,
which failed to improve its competitive position
despite its investment in reducing the time a customer
had to wait for a teller. The bank managers did not
recognize the level of customer inertia in the
consumer banking industry that arises from the
inconvenience of switching banks. Nor did they
analyze their service improvement to determine
whether it would attract new customers by
producing a new standard of service that would
excite customers or by proving difficult for
competitors to copy. The only merit of the
improvement was that it could easily be described
to customers.

14
76. In how many months, the actual medical 79. If the percentage increment in the total
expenses went down as compared to the medical expenses from August to September
previous month? is same as that from July to August, what
(a) Two (b) Three percentage of total expenditure went into
medical expenses in the month of September?
(c) Four (d) Five
(a) 10%
77. What percentage of total expenditure of first (b) 17.29%
three months put together went into the (c) 22%
medical expenses?
(d) Can't be determined
(a) 15.63% (b) 15.67%
(c) 15% (d) 8.33% 80. The number of people requiring medical
attention in a month is always more than that
78. In which of the months, the actual medical in previous month. If the average monthly
expenditure increased by the largest medical expense per person is least for the
percentage as compared to the previous month of July, what is the minimum possible
month? number of members in the family?
(a) March (b) April (a) Eight (b) Ten
(c) May (d) August (c) Eleven (d) Twelve

E
OR
SC
GS

15
 Paper Code: 1 B

Mock - 1 Paper - 2

E
ANSWERS

1. (a)
Exp: As stated in the Paragraph, "The neglect of
education during colonial times combined
OR the myriad structures and levels of
government departments than with
obtaining rapid and equitable access to
government services, whether regulatory or
with social distortions had made the quest
developmental or welfare oriented,
for learning a rather difficult task especially
SC
preferably at his doorstep."
for those belonging to under privileged
social groups mainly SCs/STs and women". The Constitution has stated the principle
Hence answer is (a) of welfare state and citizen in India are
more concerned with the public service
2. (c) delivery mechanism than the governance
and politics.
3. (a)
GS

Hence answer is (b)

Exp: As stated in the paragraph ­ "Governments
are engaged and a lot has been done in this 5. (a)
area. The millennium development goals
6. (d)
(MDG) have added an additional spur to
action. Failure to address this illiteracy Exp: As stated government should work for
predicament will impede the Human economic modernization and liberalization
Resource Development. Literacy is both an for making government less intrusive and
Indicator and an Instrument of develop­ more transparent and government should
ment, and its attainment is a major factor pay greater attention to enhance public
behind accumulation of Human Capital." service delivery systems to be more
Hence answer is (a) accountable and transparent. Hence
answer is (d)
4. (b)
7. (d)
Exp: As stated in the passage ­ "Constitution
8. (c)
articulated vision of a welfare state and by
implication, provide for creation of a 9. (c)
citizen­ centric governance structure. The
Sol: According to the figure, 1 will be opposite
average citizen is concerned less with the to 2, 3 will be opposite to 4 and 5 will be
convolutions of governance and politics, or opposite to 6.

Answers: [1]
Solution for questions 10 to 13:
M = 32 B
The arrangement is as follows:
1. X 3
Hence 6M + 15B = 6 × B + 15 B = 24B
2. Tanya 2

3. Jayanthi 3
Similary 2M + 15B = 2 × B + 15B = 18 B
4. Chander 2
5. Roma If 24 Boys can complete work in 6 days then
6. X 18 Boys can complete same work in 4.5
days.
7. Mohan
Hence answer is 2 men and 15 boys can
8. X complete work in 4.5 days.
9. Babu
20. (d)

E
10. (c)
Sol: (a) 25 ­ Possibility 20+5=25 and 20*5=100
OR
11. (a)
(b) 29 ­ Possibility 25+4=29 and 25*4= 100
12. (a)
(c) 52 ­ Possibility 50+2 =52 and 50*2= 100
13. (d)
(d) 50 ­ No possibilities
14. (d)
SC

21. (c)
Sol: The table is as follows:
Sol: Let Ram's age = 9x
Name Theatre Movie
Laxman's age = 8x
P D Tarzan
Bharat's age = 7y
Q A MI­2
GS

Sharat's age = 6y
R B Predator
Given 9x – 6y = 24
S C True Lies
15. (c) And as the brothers' ages form an A. P.

16. (c) 9x ­ 8x = 7y ­ 6y

Exp: As stated in the passage ­ "The bourgeoisie x = y ... (2)

has torn away from the family its Solving (1) and (2)
sentimental veil, and has reduced family
relations into a mere money relation". x=8
Hence answer is (c)
Sum of Laxman’s and Bharat’s age
17. (d) = 8x + 7y = 15x
18. (c) = 15 × 8 = 120 years
19. (d) 22. (a)
Sol: (4M + 6B) 12 = (6M + 15B) 6
Sol: As per question 5 students have applied
Solving it gives and one get rejected, this means only 4
rooms were empty. Further as per question

[ 2 ] Answers:
 the emply room is 10% of the total rooms, 3rd  Empty the 3 lt. jar
thus total rooms are 40.
4th  Pour 2 ltrs. from 5 lt. Jar into 3 lt. jar
23. (c)
5th  Fill the 5 lt. jar
Sol: Let t be the time taken by Ram and Rahim
to meet at c. 6th  Pour water from 5 lt. Jar into 3 lt. Jar,

t Ram and tRahim be the time required by them Max. 1 ltrs. Can be transferred.
to travel from c their respective Now the 5 lt. Jar contains 4 ltrs. of wine.
destinations.
27. (a)
Sol: total milk = 3x + 5
Given tRam = 64 min total water = 5x + 3
(3x + 5)/(5x + 3) = 1:1

E
tRahim = tRam × Solving it give 1:1

= 36 minutes

= 48 minutes
OR 28. (c)
Sol: Total outcomes: 2^7
Favorable outcomes:
4 heads ­­> combination of HHHHTTT ­­>
SC
i.e., they travelled from 11:40 a.m. to 12:28
p.m. and they were together from 12:28 7!/(4!*3!)=35 (# of permutation of 7 letters
p.m. to 12:40 p.m. for 12 minutes. out of which 4 H's and 3 T's are identical);

24. (b) 5 heads ­­> combination of HHHHHTT ­­>

7!/(5!*2!)=21;
25. (b)
GS

Sol: Initial cost price = x 6 heads ­­> combination of HHHHHHT ­­>

7!/(6!*1!)=7;
Initial selling price = y
7 heads ­­> combination of HHHHHHH ­­
Profit = y–x > 1;
assumed C.P = 0.8 x P(H>T)=Favorable outcomes/Total
S.P = 1.1 y outcomes = (35 + 21 + 7 + 1)/2^7=1/2.

Profit2 = 1.1 y – 0.8 x 29. (c)

Given P2 = P1 + 0.33 x Exp: Media plays the active role in the growth
of people.
1.1 y – 0.8 x = y – x + 0.33 x
y = 1.3 x 30. (b)

Hence % increase = 30% 31. (a)

26. (b) Exp: Media becomes the purveyor of

information, facilitator, aggregator of
Sol: 1st Fill the 5 lt. Jar public opinion and bring that to notice of
2nd Pour its content into the 3 lt. Jar (2 lt. the government.
Remain in the 5 lt. jar)
32. (d)

Answers: [3]
33. (b) 44. (b)

Exp: As stated in the passage, till date there is Exp: The rate of increase in expenses from year
no clear definition. From the 'informal 3 to year 5 is 10%. So expenditure in year 6
sector', we moved to 'informal economy', = 22 × 1.1 = 24.2 crore.
and soon other terms such as informal work 45. (d)
and informal employment also emerged.
46. (c)
34. (b)
47. (b)
35. (d)
Solution for questions 48 to 50:
36. (a)
The number of female births in any year
37. (a) can be calculated by subtracting the
number of male births from the total
38. (b)
number of births.
39. (a)

E
40. (d)
OR
41. (c)
Exp: Due to freer movement of capital, goods and
services, the bottom end of spectrum of
skilled labour in many developed
economies is facing competition with the
SC

bottom end of spectrum of skilled labour of

many emerging economies not the
movement of skilled labour.
Solution for questions 42 to 44: 48. (b)

42. (c) 49. (d)

GS

50. (b)
1
Sol: 1st year + 3rd year = 4th year = 5th year Solution for questions 51 to 54:
4
(M) Brother (M) Husband (F)
1 B D E
17 + × 20 = 22. Hence Ans. is 2 &
4 Wife Son
Option3. Daughter (M)
Grandson

C
43. (c) A
(F)
Sol: Expenditure 2nd year = 19%
F (F)
Expenditure 4th year = 22%
51. (b)
Net Rise = 3%
52. (a)
3 53. (c)
% Rise = × 100 = 15%
19
54. (b)
Thus in 2 Year
55. (b)

[ 4 ] Answers:
Exp: Ratio of A to B in first and second mixtures 66. (b)
is 1 : 2 and 4 : 1. If we mix 3 liters of first
with 5 liters of second mixture, then ratio 67. (b)
68. (d)
of A to B finally = 69. (c)
70. (b)
= 5 : 3.
71. (b)
56. (c)
72. (b)
57. (b)
73. (b)
58. (a)
74. (c)
Solution for questions 59 to 61:
75. (a)

E
G H E J K C
Solution for questions 76 to 80:
12 11 10 9 8 7

OR January
Fabruary
Total Exp.
50000
50000
Medical Expenses
10000
6000

1 2 3 4 5 6 March 60000 9000

SC

F L I B A D April 75000 9000

59. (c) May 80000 12000
60. (b) June 65000 13000
61. (a) July 40000 10000
GS

Solution for questions 62 and 63: August 55000 11000

A Fiat 76. (a)
D Volkswagen 77. (a)
B Mercedes
25000
E Ambassador Sol: × 100 = 15.625
160000
C Limo 78. (a)
62. (d)
9000  6000
63. (b) Sol:  1
2  100  50%
6000
64. (d)
79. (d)
65. (d)
Sol: Can’t be determined as total medical
Exp: This is similar to distributing 10 similar expenses is not given.
objects to 6 receivers where each receiver
80. (d)
must receive at least one object, which is
given by n­1Cr­1 = 9C5.

Answers: [5]