NDT4 Coursework cw1-8

Ultrasonic Testing – Coursework
Ultrasonic Testing – Coursework
NDT4
NDT4 - 070219 1 Copyright © TWI Ltd.

UT Coursework 1
UT Coursework 1
1 An ultrasonic longitudinal wave travels in aluminium with a velocity of 635,000 cm/sec

and has a frequency of 2 megahertz. The wavelength of this ultrasonic wave is:
a 6.35 feet.
b 1.33mm.
c 6.35mm.
d 3.17mm.
2 The velocity of a sound wave is primarily dependent on the:
a Pulse length.
b Frequency of the probe.
c Material in which the sound is being transmitted and the mode of vibration.
d None of the above.
3 Angle beam transducers are used to:
a Locate and evaluate discontinuities lying parallel to the surface of the test
specimen.
b Locate and evaluate discontinuities that lie parallel to the sound beam.
c Detect discontinuities that are at 90 to the sound beam.
d Detect discontinuities in immersion testing.
4 The process of comparing an instrument or device with a standard is called:
a Angulation.
b Calibration.
c Attenuation.
d Correlation.
5 Another name for a compression wave is:
a Lamb wave.
b Shear wave.
c Longitudinal wave.
d Transverse wave.
6 A second name for a Rayleigh wave is a:
a Shear wave.
b Longitudinal wave.
c Transverse wave.
d Surface wave.
7 A material used between the face of a search unit and the test surface to permit or
improve the transmission of ultrasonic vibrations from the search unit to the material
being tested is called a:
a Wetting agent.
b Couplant.
c An acoustic transmitter.
d Lubricant.

UT Coursework 1
8 The piezoelectric material in a probe, which vibrates to produce ultrasonic waves, is

called a:
a Backing material.
b Lucite wedge.
c Transducer element or crystal.
d Couplant.
9 Ultrasonic testing of a material where the probe is in direct contact with the material
being tested is:
a Compression wave testing.

b Surface wave testing.
c Angle beam testing.
d All of the above could be performed by contact scanning.
10 An advantage of using lithium sulphate in a search unit is that it:
a Is one of the most efficient generators of ultrasonic energy.

b Is one of the most efficient receivers of ultrasonic energy.
c Is soluble.
d Can withstand high temperatures.
11 The probe shown in Figure 1 is used for
a Surface wave testing.

b Angle beam testing.
c Immersion testing.
d Straight beam testing.
Figure 1
12 Which of the following search units would contain the thinnest transducer element?
a 1MHz search unit.

b 5MHz search unit.
c 15MHz search unit.
d 25MHz search unit.
13 Snell’s law can be used to calculate:
a Refracted angles.
b Acoustic impedance.
c Frequency.
d All of the above.

UT Coursework 1
14 Surface waves can be used to detect defects located:
a Close to or at the surface.

b 1 wavelength below the surface.
c 3 wavelengths below the surface.
d At radii.
15 When an ultrasonic beam passes through the interface formed by the junction of two
dissimilar metals at an angle of incidence of other than 90°, a new angle of sound
travel takes place in the second material due to:
a Attenuation.
b Rarefaction.
c Compression.
d Refraction.
16 Figure 2 illustrates a contact test on an 80mm thick aluminium block; it shows

placement of the probe and the associated A-scan presentation. A single crystal 0
compression probe with a calibrated range of 0-200mm is being used. The block
contains a discontinuity located at 60mm from the front surface.
What does indication A represent?
a The initial pulse.

b The first discontinuity indication.
c The first back surface reflection.
d Mode conversion.
00
A B C D E
Figure 2
17 What does indication B represent in Figure 2?
a Front surface indication.

b First discontinuity indication.
c First back wall reflection.
d None of these.

UT Coursework 1
18 What does indication C represent in Figure 2?
a Second back surface reflection.

b First discontinuity indication.
c Second discontinuity indication.
d First back wall reflection.
19 What does indication D represent in Figure 2?
a First discontinuity indication.

b Second indication of the discontinuity.
c First back surface reflection.
d Second back surface reflection.
20 What does indication E represent in Figure 2?
a First discontinuity indication.

b Second discontinuity indication.
c First back wall reflection.
d Second back wall reflection.
21 Most commercial ultrasonic testing is accomplished using frequencies between:
a 1 and 25 Kilohertz.
b 0.2 and 20 megahertz.
c 1 and 1,000 kilohertz.
d 15 and 100 megahertz.
22 For any given elastic solid which of the following modes of vibration has the greatest
velocity?
a Shear wave.
b Transverse wave.
c Surface wave.
d Longitudinal wave.
23 Sound waves of a frequency beyond the hearing range of the human ear are
referred to as ultrasonic. The highest frequency audible to the human ear is about:
a 20,000 hertz.
b 2 megahertz.
c 2 kilohertz.
d 200 kilohertz.
24 In an A-scan presentation, the horizontal base line represents the:
a Amount of reflected ultrasonic sound energy.

b Distance travelled by the search unit.
c Elapsed time or distance.
25 In an A-scan presentation, the amplitude or height of vertical indications on the

screen represents the:
a Amount of ultrasonic sound energy returning to the search unit.

b Distance travelled by the search unit.
c Thickness of material being treated.
d Elapsed time since the ultrasonic pulse was generated.

UT Coursework 1
26 The decibel is:
a An absolute measurement of sound.

b A logarithmic unit of comparison.
c A unit of energy similar to the joule.
d A unit of pressure similar to the pascal.
27 Various sound modes can be propagated in steel. In order of increasing wavelength

(assume frequency = 5MHz in all cases and neglect Lamb waves) they are:
a Shear compression and surface.

b Surface, shear and compression.
c Compression, shear and surface.
d Compression, surface and shear.

UT Coursework 2
UT Coursework 2
1 The piezo electric crystal element in most probes intended for pulse echo testing is
backed with epoxy resin that contains particles of tungsten – why?
a This material damps crystal vibration to keep the pulse length short.
b This material reflects any sound leaving the back of the crystal forwards thus
increasing pulse energy.
c This material forces the crystal to vibrate at the correct frequency.
d This material stops the electrical connections from vibrating loose.
2 Rayleigh or surface waves have a penetration depth of about:
a 1 wavelength.
b 2 wavelengths.
c ½ wavelength.
d 3mm.
3 Lamb waves are sometimes used in non-destructive testing for long range ultrasonic
inspection and for:
a The detection of flaws (such as lamination) in thin plate material.

b The detection of welding defects in heavy gauge stainless steel construction.
c The detection of fatigue cracks in railway lines.
d Monitoring the propagation of known cracks in steel structures.
4 In A-scan presentation:
a The voltage generated by the timebase generator is applied to the X-plates of the
cathode ray tube.
b The amplified voltage from the received echo pulse is applied to the Y-plates of
the cathode ray tube.
c a and b are both correct.
d Time or distance is displayed on the Y-axis of the cathode ray tube whilst echo
amplitude is displayed on the X-axis of the cathode ray tube.
5 A 5 MHz ultrasonic transducer:
a Emits a pulse of sound 5 million times each second.

b Has a crystal element that has a natural resonant frequency of 5 million cycles
per second.
c Produces a sound beam with a wavelength of 1.19mm.
d Has five 1 MHz crystal elements.
6 For pulse echo testing, which of the following is correct?
a Linearity of the timebase is essential for accurate ultrasonic thickness

measurement and for weld examination.
b Linearity of timebase is essential when performing attenuation measurements
on a large steel forging.
c Linearity of timebase is essential when scanning for laminations in rolled steel
plate.
d Linearity of time base is essential for all pulse echo ultrasonic examinations.

UT Coursework 2
7 The mode of sound propagation where particle motion is parallel to the direction of
wave propagation is:
a Longitudinal.
b Transverse.
c Surface.
d Rayleigh.
8 Mode conversion of compression wave to a surface wave cannot occur at:
a An air steel interface.

b A water steel interface.
c A perspex steel interface.
d None of the above is correct.
9 Mode conversion can occur:
a As sound crosses an interface.

b As sound is reflected at an interface.
c a and b are both correct.
d Only in a liquid.
10 The probe is a 5MHz 10mm diameter single crystal 0° compression probe. The
material is ferritic steel vc = 5930 ms-1. The minimum detectable defect size is
about:
a One wavelength or 1.186mm.

b Two wavelengths or 2.372mm.
c Half a wavelength or 0.593mm.
d Quarter of a wavelength or 0.297mm.
11 The pulse width of a piezo electric transducer as used in pulse echo ultrasonic
testing is primarily determined by:
a The degree of mechanical damping.

b The flaw detector gain setting.
c The pulse repetition frequency.
d The length of the probe lead.
12 A 2MHz and a 4MHz piezo electric ultrasonic probe each produce a pulse of 5 wave
cycles. Which of the following is true?
a The pulse width of the 2 probes is equal.

b The pulse width of the 2MHz probe is double that of the 4MHz probe.
c The pulse width of the 4MHz probe is double that of the 2MHz probe.
d None of the above is true.
13 Which 0° compression probe would you choose to detect large defects as long range
in a casting that has coarse grain structure?
a 20mm diameter, single crystal, 1MHz.

b 10mm diameter, single crystal, 2MHz.
c 10mm diameter, double crystal, 5MHz.
d 20mm diameter, single crystal, 10MHz.

UT Coursework 2
14 The velocity of surface waves is approximately what fraction of that for shear waves
in the same material?
a Two times.
b Four times.
c One-half.
d Nine-tenths.
00
A B CD
Figure 1
15 Figure 1 illustrates immersion testing of a 100mm thick steel block which has a
discontinuity located at 60mm below the front surface. In the CRT display, also
shown, what does signal A represents? (no screen delay used)
a The first front surface indication.

b The initial pulse.
c The first discontinuity indication.
d The first back surface reflection.
16 In Figure 1, indication B represents:

b The initial pulse.
d The first discontinuity reflection.
17 In Figure 1 indication C represents:

b The first discontinuity indication.
d The second front surface indication.
18 In Figure 1, indication D represents:
a The first discontinuity indication.

b The first back surface reflection.
c The second front surface indication.
d The second discontinuity indication.

UT Coursework 2
19 In Figure 1, the distance between indications A and B represents:
a The distance from the front surface of the block to the discontinuity.
b The distance from the front surface of the block to the back surface.
c The water distance from the probe to the block.
20 Under most circumstances, which of the following frequencies would result in the
best resolving power?
a 1MHz.
b 5MHz.
c 10MHz.
d 25MHz.
21 Which of the following materials of the same alloy is most likely to produce the
greatest amount of sound attenuation over a given distance?
a A hand forging.
b A coarse grained casting.
c An extrusion.
d The attenuation is equal in all materials.
22 In contact testing, the entry surface indication is sometimes referred to as:
a The initial pulse.

b The main bang.
c Either a or b.
23 A screen pattern containing a large number of low-level indications (often referred to

as grass) is typically caused by:
a A crack.
b A large inclusion.
c Coarse grained material.
d A gas pocket.
24 A test method employing two separate search units on opposite sides of the material
is called:
a Contact testing.
b Surface wave testing.
c Through-transmission testing.
d Lamb wave testing.
25 The number of complete waves which pass a given point in a given period of time
(usually one second) is usually referred to as the:
a Amplitude of a wave motion.

b Pulse of a wave motion.
c Frequency of a wave motion.
d Wavelength of a wave motion.

UT Coursework 2
26 The boundary between two different materials in contact with each other is called:
a A rarefaction.
b A refractor.
c An interface.
d A marker.
27 When the motion of the particles of a medium is parallel to the direction of

propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a:
a Longitudinal wave.
b Shear wave.
c Surface wave.
d Lamb wave.

UT Coursework 3
UT Coursework 3
1 Any differences in acoustic impedance between adjacent media results in:
a Attenuation.
b Refraction.
c Reflection.
d Absorption.
2 25 million cycles per second, can also be stated as:
a 25kHz.
b 25THz.
c 25MHz.
d 25GHz.
3 Moving a probe over a test surface either manually or automatically is referred to as:
a Scanning.
b Attenuation.
c Angulating.
d Resonating.
4 A term used in ultrasonic inspection to express the rate at which a wave passes through
various substances is:
a Frequency.
b Velocity.
c Wave length.
d Pulse length.
5 When a vertical indication has reached a maximum signal height as viewed on the CRT
of the ultrasonic instrument, the indication is said to have reached its:
a Distance-amplitude height.
b Absorption level.
c Maximum amplitude.
d Limit of resolution.
6 In Figure 2, angle 1 is called the:
a Angle of incidence.
b Angle of reflection.
c Angle of refraction.
d Angle of rarefaction.

UT Coursework 3
Figure 2
9 Which of the following test frequencies would generally provide the best penetration of
coarse-grained steel?
a 1 MHz.
b 25 MHz.
c 50 MHz.
d 15 MHz.
10 An ultrasonic test using a zero degree probe through the thickness of a flat part such
as a plate, should detect:
a Laminar-type flaws with major dimensions parallel to the rolled surface.

b Transverse-type flaws with major dimensions at right angles to the rolled surface.
c Vertical flaws with major dimensions perpendicular to the rolled surface.
11 The angle marked on a shear wave probe by the probe manufacturer is:
a The nominal refracted angle that the probe will produce in ferritic steel.
b The nominal refracted angle that the probe will produce in aluminium.
c The nominal refracted angle that the probe will produce in austenitic steel.
d Any of the above, depending on which material the probe was ordered for.
12 At or just beyond the second critical angle the primary sound mode generated in the
test material is:
a Surface.
b Shear.

UT Coursework 3
c Compression.
d Lamb.
13 At an interface the incident angle in material A is 33 and the sound velocity is
4400 ms-1. The velocity in material B is 4100 ms-1; thus the refracted angle in material
B is:
a 30.5.
b 35.8.
c 28.3.
d 33.9.

UT Coursework 3
14 In general, compared with similar single crystal low frequency probe a single crystal
high frequency probe will have:
a A shorter dead zone.

b Shorter pulse length.
c Better resolution.
d All of the above.
15 The main advantage of a twin crystal probe (compared with a single crystal probe) is:
a Better penetration of highly attenuating material.

b A more uniform sound beam shape.
c Better near surface resolution.
d Shorter pulse length.
16 If the echo height is 20% FSH, what echo height would you expect to see if the
equipment gain is increased by 14 dB?
a 80% FSH.
b 88% FSH.
c 100% FSH.
d 75% FSH.
17 The angle of incidence that corresponds with a 90 angle of refraction is called:
a A primary angle.
b A right angle.
c A critical angle.
d A complementary angle.
18 The frequency of sound produced by a pulse-echo ultrasonic probe (ie the operating
frequency) is primarily controlled by the thickness of the crystal element. Two other
factors have a small secondary effect on operating frequency these are:
a The electrical characteristics of the flaw detector and the type of crystal backing
material used.
b Pulse repetition frequency and the type of couplant used.
c Workpiece material and the type of couplant used.
d Coarse range control setting and the type of couplant used.
19 If density =  and sound velocity = V then acoustic impedance, Z =
a V
b /V
c V/
d 2V
20 Snell’s law is used in ultrasonic testing to:
a Calculate the refracted angle as sound crosses an interface.

b Calculate the length of the near zone.
c Calculate the amounts of sound transmitted and reflected at an interface.
d Calculate the half angle of beam divergence.

UT Coursework 3
21 Sound will transmit most efficiently from the probe into the test material when the
acoustic impedance of the couplant is:
a Intermediate between the acoustic impedance of the probe shoe and that of the
test material.
b Less than that of the probe shoe.
c More than that of the test material.
22 10 dB is approximately the difference between:
a An echo height of 32% FSH & one of 100% FSH.

b An echo height of 10% FSH & one of 32% FSH.
c An echo height of 25% FSH & one of 79% FSH.
d All of the above are approximately 10 dB differences.
23 The velocity of a shear wave in ferritic steel is 3240 ms-1. The velocity of a compression
wave in perspex is 2730 ms-1. If the probe shoe is made from perspex what angle of
incidence is necessary in order to produce a 60 shear wave in the steel?
a This cannot be calculated because the shear wave velocity in perspex is not
known.
b This cannot be calculated because the compression wave velocity in the ferritic
steel is unknown.
c 46.86.
d 43.33.
24 The factors that affect sound velocity in any material are:
a Density and elastic properties.

b Density and molecular structure.
c Yield strength and ultimate tensile strength.
d Density and specific gravity.
25 Refraction is caused by:
a A velocity change as sound waves cross an interface.

b Interference.
c Diffraction.
d Gravitational effects.
26 The velocity of a shear wave in ferritic steel is 3240 ms-1. The velocity of a compression
wave in perspex is 2730 ms-1. For the perspex steel interface the angle of incidence
at which the shear wave has a refracted angle of 90 in the steel is:
a The first critical angle (= 57.4).

b The second critical angle (= 57.4).
c The first critical angle (= 54.7).
d The second critical angle (= 54.7).
27 The time required to perform one complete cycle is called the:
a Period.
b Frequency.
c Wavelength.
d Velocity.

UT Coursework 4
UT Coursework 4
1 Ultrasonic vibrations are generally defined as having a frequency above:
a 5,000 cps.
b 20,000 cps.
c 100,000 cps.
d 1,000,000 cps.
2 Wavelength is defined as:
a The distance a wave travels to the back surface of the specimen.

b The distance a wave form advanced while a particle makes on complete vibration
or orbit.
c The number of cycles produced per second.
d The time required for a wave to reach a certain point in the specimen.
3 A definite relationship exists among the three factors; velocity, frequency and
wavelength. This relationship is expressed by the formula:
a f = v (velocity multiplied by wavelength).

b v =  / f (wavelength divided by frequency).
c f = v / (velocity divided by wavelength).
d  = v – f (velocity minus wavelength).
4 Acoustic impedance is defined as:
a The product of material density and wave velocity.

b The ratio of material density to wave velocity.
c The ratio of wave velocity to sound density.
d The product of wave velocity and frequency.
5 The purpose of a couplant is to:
a Filter undesirable reflections from the specimen.

b Tune transducer to the correct operating frequency.
c Reduce attenuation within the specimen.
d Transmit ultrasonic waves from the transducer to the specimen.
6 A couplant can be:
a Water.
b Oil.
c A plastic material.
d Any of the above.

UT Coursework 4
7 If v1 is the velocity in the first material, v2 is the velocity in the second material, A is
the angle of incidence and B is the angle of refraction the formula correctly relating
these quantities is:
sin(𝐴) 𝑣1
a =
sin(𝐵) 𝑣2
sin(𝐴)
b 𝑣1 = ∙ 𝑣2
sin(𝐵)
𝑣
c sin(𝐴) = 𝑣1 ∙ sin(𝐵)
2
d All of the above are correct.
8 The angle of reflection of an ultrasonic beam is:
a Equal to the angle of incidence.

b Approximately four times the angle of incidence.
c Approximately half the angle of the incidence.
d Equal to the angle of refraction.
9 Longitudinal (compression) waves produce vibrations which are:
a In the same direction as the motion of the sound.

b Perpendicular to the motion of the sound.
c Elliptical.
d Symmetrical.
10 Shear or transverse waves are described as having:
a Particle motion normal (90) to direction of propagation and a velocity

approximately half that of longitudinal waves.
b Exceptionally high sensitivity due to low attenuation resulting from longer
wavelengths when propagating through water.
c A velocity approximately twice that of surface waves in the direction of
propagation.
d Particle motion perpendicular (90) to the direction of propagation and no
attenuation in water.
11 Ultrasonic waves transmitted in fluids such as water are usually:
a Lamb waves.
b Rayleigh waves.
c Shear waves.
d Longitudinal waves.
12 When the angle of incidence for a longitudinal wave exceeds the critical angle:
a Longitudinal wave mode will be at its maximum amplitude in the specimen.

b Longitudinal wave mode will be totally reflected.
c Shear wave mode will be totally reflected.
d Longitudinal wave mode only will be transmitted into the specimen

UT Coursework 4
13 The amount of beam divergence from a quartz crystal is primarily dependent on:
a The type of test.

b The tightness of crystal backing in the search unit.
c The operating frequency and crystal size.
d The pulse length.
14 The perspex insert in the IIW V1 calibration block is equivalent to what thickness of
steel?
a 100mm.
b 50mm.
c 25mm.
d 23mm.
15 Transducers used in the majority of ultrasonic inspections exhibit which effect?
a Magnetostrictive.
b Piezoelectric.
c Electromechanical.
d Thermomechanical.
16 The zone in an ultrasonic beam where fluctuations in sound intensity exist is referred
to as:
a The dead zone.

b The near field.
c The far field.
d The beam axis.
17 If frequency is increased wavelength will:
a Increase.
b Decrease.
c Remain the same but velocity increases.
d Remain the same but velocity decreases.
18 The principle of ultrasonic resonance is commonly used for:
a Locating large discontinuities.

b Locating porosity.
c Measuring the section thickness of thin materials.
19 The primary purpose of reference blocks is:
a To aid the operator in obtaining maximum back reflection.

b To obtain the greatest sensitivity possible from an instrument.
c To obtain a common reproducible reference standard.
d None of the above is correct.
20 The piezo-electric material in the probe:
a Converts electrical energy to mechanical energy.

b Converts mechanical energy to electrical energy.
c Does both a and b.
d Does neither a nor b.

UT Coursework 4
21 The gradual loss of energy as ultrasonic vibrations travel through a material is referred
to as:
a Attention.
b Attendance.
c Attemperation.
d Attenuation.
22 Any condition that causes reflection of ultrasound in pulse echo testing can be referred
to as:
a A dispenser.
b A discontinuity.
c An attenuator.
d A refractor.
23 In what type of ultrasonic inspection are waves transmitted into the test material in the
form of repetitive shock vibrations?
a Pulse-echo testing.
b Continuous wave testing.
c Resonance testing.
24 The angle formed by an ultrasonic wave as it enters a medium of different

characteristics than the one from which it came and a line drawn perpendicular to the
interface between the two media is called:
a The angle of incidence.

b The angle of refraction.
c The angle of rarefaction.
d The angle of reflection.
25 If the crystal diameter is 8mm, the sound velocity is 3130 ms-1 and the sound frequency
is 2 MHz, the length of the near zone is:
a 15.71mm.
b 12.00mm.
c 9.35mm.
d 10.22mm.
26 If k = 1.22, crystal diameter = 10 mm, velocity = 3600 ms -1 and frequency = 4 MHz

the half angle of beam divergence is:
a 8.3.
b 10.3.
c 4.3.
d 6.3.
27 An alternative name for near field or near zone is:
a Fraunhofer zone.
b Fresnel zone.
c Dead zone.
d Restricted zone.

UT Coursework 5
UT Coursework 5
1 If the crystal diameter is 20mm, the sound velocity is 3860 ms -1 and the sound
frequency is 4 MHz, the length of the near zone is:
a 95.4mm.
b 72.0mm.
c 139.2mm.
d 103.6mm.
2 As probe frequency increases:
a The angle of beam divergence increases and the length of the near zone increases.
b The angle of beam divergence decreases and the length of the near zone
increases.
c The angle of beam divergence decreases and the length of the near zone
decreases.
d The angle of beam divergence does not change although the length of the near
zone decreases.
3 Attenuation is generally measured in:
a dB/mm (decibels per millimetre).

b dB (decibels).
c J/m joules per metre.
d Millibars.
4 What is the significance of interference as the word is used in ultrasonic testing?
a Interference is the cause of the sound pressure fluctuations in the near zone.
b Interference is the mechanism by which a piezo electric crystal generates a sound
wave.
c Interference is used as an alternative to ‘scanning restriction’.
d Interference is resistance to probe movement on a rough surface.
5 The sound beam produced by a piezo electric transducer begins to diverge:
a At the end of the dead zone.

b At the end of the near zone.
c At the face of the crystal element.
d At the end of the far zone.
6 If the wavelength is 2mm and the sound velocity is 6000 ms-1 the probe frequency is:
a 3 MHz.
b 30 MHz.
c 0.3 MHz.
d 0.03 MHz.
7 Attenuation of sound in ferritic steel is largely due to:
a Scattering at the grain boundaries.

b Absorption.
c A combination of a and b.
d Losses as sound enters the steel from the probe.

UT Coursework 5
8 The height or amplitude of a signal in A-scan presentation represents:
a The gain setting.

b The amount of sound transmitted.
c The amount of sound reflected.
d The amount of sound lost due to attenuation.
9 Something that transmission testing always requires & which pulse echo testing in
general does not require is:
a The use of a suitable couplant.

b An immersion tank.
c Access to both surfaces of the component.
d A computer to record the results.
10 The bigger the impedance difference at an interface:
a The greater the proportion of the incident sound that will be reflected.
b The smaller the proportion of the incident sound that will be transmitted.
c Both a and b are correct.
d The greater the proportion of the incident sound that will be transmitted.
11 If 99.96% of sound is reflected at an air - steel interface how much sound is reflected
at a steel – air interface?
a The same, 99.96%.

b Only 0.04% will be reflected.
c It’s not possible to say how much will be reflected because the acoustic impedance
difference across the interface is unknown.
d A lot of sound will be transmitted, a lot more than would be transmitted at a steel
– water interface.
12 The size of the reflection from a discontinuity depends on:
a The size of the discontinuity.

b The impedance difference at the discontinuity.
c The orientation of the discontinuity.
d All of the above.
13 Low frequency probes provide:
a Better penetration.
b Better resolution.
c Higher sensitivity.
d All of the above.
14 The angular position of the reflecting surface of a discontinuity with respect to the
entry surface is referred to as:
a The angle of incidence.

b The angle of refraction.
c The orientation of the discontinuity.

UT Coursework 5
15 The phenomenon by which a wave strikes a boundary and changes the direction of its
propagation is referred to as:
a Divergence.
b Rarefaction.
c Angulation.
d Reflection.
16 Which of the following piezoelectric crystals occurs naturally?
a Quartz.
b Lead metaniobate.
c Barium titanate.
d Polarised plastic.
17 In general, which of the following modes of vibration would have the greatest
penetrating power in a coarse-grained material if the frequency of the waves were the
same?
a Longitudinal.
b Shear.
c Transverse.
d All of the above modes would have the same penetrating power.
18 The ratio between the wave speed in one material and the wave speed in a second
material is sometimes called:
a The acoustic impedance of the interface.

b Young's modulus.
c Poisson's ratio.
d The index of refraction (or refractive index).
19 The expansion and contraction of a magnetic material under the influence of a

changing magnetic field is referred to as:
a Piezoelectricity.
b Refraction.
c Magnetostriction.
d Rarefaction.
20 Which factor determines the amount of reflection at the interface of two dissimilar
materials?
a The index of refraction.

b The frequency of the ultrasonic wave.
c Young's modulus.
d The specific acoustic impedance difference.
21 Which of the following can occur when an ultrasonic beam reaches the interface of two
dissimilar materials?
a Reflection.
b Refraction.
c Mode conversion.
d All of the above.

UT Coursework 5
22 When inspecting aluminium by the immersion method using water for a couplant, the
following information is known:
Velocity of sound in water = 1.49 x 105 cm/sec.

Compression wave velocity in aluminium = 6.35 x 105 cm/sec.
Angle of incidence = 5.
The angle of refraction for longitudinal waves is approximately:
a 22.
b 18.
c 26.
d 16.
23 The most efficient sound transmitter of the piezoelectric materials listed below is:
a Lithium sulphate.
b Quartz.
c Barium titanate.
d Lead metaniobate.
24 The most efficient sound receiver of the piezoelectric materials listed below is:
a Lithium sulphate.
b Quartz.
c Barium titanate.
d Lead metaniobate.
25 When a beam of ultrasound strikes an interface between two materials the energy
transmitted across the interface is:
a Equal to the energy reflected from the interface.

b Equal to the energy incidence upon the interface.
c Equal to the difference between incident and reflected energy.
26 For any given material the ratio between shear wave velocity and compression wave
velocity:
a Is less than one.

b Is greater than one.
c Depends on the frequency.
d Depends on the wavelength.
27 The fundamental frequency of quartz crystal is primarily the function of:
a The length of the applied voltage pulse.

b The amplifying characteristics of the pulse amplified in the instrument.
c The thickness of the quartz crystal.

UT Coursework 6
UT Coursework 6
1 The acoustic impedance of a material is:
a Directly proportional to density and inversely proportional to velocity.

b Directly proportional to velocity and inversely proportional to density.
c Inversely proportional to density and velocity.
d Equal to the product of density and velocity.
2 The process of comparing an instrument with a standard is referred to as:
a Angulation.
b Scanning.
c Correcting for distance-amplitude variations.
d Calibration.
3 An electronic component in which a beam of electrons is converted to light when it

hits a fluorescent screen is called:
a A transistor.
b A diode.
c A cathode ray tube.
d A thyristor.
4 In ultrasonic testing a short burst of electrical energy is called:
a A packet.
b A standing wave.
c A lamb wave.
d A pulse.
5 In ultrasonic testing, the time duration of the transmitted pulse is referred to as:
a The pulse length or pulse width.

b The pulse amplitude.
c The pulse shape.
6 With frequency remaining constant the length of the near field will decrease if:
a The probe diameter increases.

b The probe diameter decreases.
c The length of the near field is measured in water rather than steel.
d The couplant is changed from oil to water.
7 Which of the following modes of vibration will produce the shortest wavelength at a
given frequency and in a given material?
a Longitudinal.
b Compression.
c Transverse.
d Rayleigh.

UT Coursework 6
8 In general, shear waves are more sensitive to small discontinuities than longitudinal
waves for a given frequency and in a given material because:
a The wavelength of shear waves is shorter than that of longitudinal.

b Shear waves are not as easily dispersed in the material.
c The direction of particle vibration for shear waves is more sensitive to
discontinuities.
d The wavelength of shear waves is longer than the wavelength of longitudinal
waves.
9 A magnetostrictive transducer or EMAT (electromagnetic acoustic transducer):
a Can be used on ferromagnetic materials only.

b Requires no couplant.
c Generates an ultrasonic wave using an alternating magnetic field.
d All of the above are correct for an EMAT.
10 Focussing of an ultrasonic beam can be achieved by using:
a A suitably curved crystal.

b An acoustic lens.
c Either a or b.
d An acoustic mirror behind the crystal.
11 A compression wave strikes a steel – water interface at an angle. The angle of

refraction in the water will be:
a Greater than the angle of incidence.

b Less than the angle of incidence.
c Equal to the angle of incidence.
d There will be no refracted angle because compression waves can’t transmit across
a steel – water interface.
12 Assume that attenuation is zero and that A-scan presentation is being used. In the
far field of a 20mm diameter ultrasonic probe the echo height from a 3mm flat bottom
hole varies with range as follows:
a It falls by 6 dB for each doubling of range.

b It falls by 12 dB for each doubling of range.
c It falls by 20 dB for each doubling of range.
d None of the above is correct, the echo height cannot be predicted in this way.
13 The velocity of a shear wave in ferritic steel is 3240 ms-1. The velocity of a shear wave
in aluminium is 3030 ms-1. The velocity of a compression wave in perspex is 2730 ms -
1
. Thus a shear wave probe that has a refracted angle of 38 in steel will have what
refracted angle in aluminium?
a 38.
b 35.15.
c 41.17.
d 33.69.
14 The resonant or natural frequency of a piezo electric transducer occurs when:
a The crystal thickness (t) = half of one wavelength () [frequency, f = v/2t].
b The crystal thickness (t) = one wavelength () [frequency, f = v/t].
c The crystal thickness (t) = two wavelengths () [frequency, f = 2v/t].
d The crystal thickness (t) = four wavelengths () [frequency, f = 4v/t].

UT Coursework 6
15 Ghost or phantom echoes, sometimes cause problems in pulse echo ultrasonic testing.
This problem can be overcome by:
a Reducing the pulse repetition frequency (PRF).

b Increasing the pulse repetition frequency (PRF).
c Changing the design of the probe shoe.
d Using glycerine as the couplant.
16 0.5 centimetres per microsecond (0.5 cm/sec) is equal to:
a 5000 m/s.
b 5 km/s.
c 5 mm/sec.
d all of the above.
17 If the sound velocity is 3900 m/s and the frequency is 2 MHz the wavelength is:
a 1.95 mm.
b 2.95 mm.
c 2.05 mm.
d 0.98 mm.
18 The primary function of the couplant used in pulse echo contact ultrasonic testing is
to:
a Reduce reflection at the sound entry surface & improve transmission into the test
material.
b Provide the right conditions for the mode conversion of compression waves to
shear waves.
c Reduce wear of the probe shoe.
d Maximise transfer losses.
𝜃 𝑘∙𝜆
19 When using the equation: 𝑠𝑖𝑛 ( ) =
2 𝐷
What value of k should be used to calculate the extreme edge of the beam?
a 0.56.
b 1.08.
c 1.22.
d 1.48.
20 In materials like perspex the primary cause of ultrasonic attenuation is:
a Scattering.
b Absorption.
c Viscous drag.
21 In C-scan presentation the ultrasonic system generates a defect map on:
a A plan view of the test object.

b A side view of the test object.
c An end view of the test object.
d A three dimensional image of the test object.

UT Coursework 6
22 The main objective of mechanically damping a piezo electric crystal in an ultrasonic

probe is to:
a Increase the working life of the crystal.

b Improve resolution.
c Increase penetration of sound into the test material.
d Ensure that the crystal vibrates in the compression mode only.
23 Particle motion in a Lamb wave (plate wave) is:
a Longitudinal.
b Transverse.
c Elliptical.
d Complex symmetrical or asymmetrical.
24 A broadband ultrasonic probe is:
a One in which the piezo electric element is heavily damped.

b One in which the piezo electric element is only lightly damped.
c One in which the piezo electric element is not damped.
d One that can connect to the internet.
25 Sound pressure on the axis of a sound beam is proportional to 1/R 2 where R is the
range:
a In the near zone.

b In the far zone.
c In both the near zone and the far zone.
d Never, sound pressure is not proportional to 1/R2 in any part of the sound beam
26 Properties of shear or transverse waves used for ultrasonic testing include:
a Particle motion normal to propagation direction and a propagation velocity which

is about half the longitudinal wave velocity in the same material.
b Exceptionally high sensitivity due to low attenuation resulting from longer
wavelengths when propagating through water.
c High coupling efficiency because shear waves are less sensitive to surface
variables when travelling from a coupling liquid to the part.
d None of the above statements apply to shear waves.
27 One of the most common applications of shear waves in ultrasonic tests is:
a Detection of discontinuities in welds tubes and pipe.

b Determination of elastic properties of metallic products.
c Detection of laminar discontinuities in heavy plate.
d Measuring thickness of thin plate.

UT Coursework 7
UT Coursework 7
1 Significant errors in ultrasonic thickness measurement can occur if:
a Test frequency is varying at a constant rate.

b The velocity of propagation deviates substantially from an assumed constant
value for a given material.
c Water is employed as a couplant between the transducer and the part being
measured.
d None of the above should cause errors.
2 A CRT displays 10 backwall echoes from a 25mm thick calibration block, using a
compression probe. The time interval between any two successive echoes is equal to:
a The period of the ultrasound.

b The time for the ultrasonic pulse to travel 25 mm in the block.
c The time for the ultrasonic pulse to travel 50 mm in the block.
d A duration which depends on the time base setting.
3 Compression waves travel fastest in:
a Perspex.
b Steel.
c Aluminium.
d Water.
4 In an ultrasonic instrument, the number of pulses produced in a given period of time

is known as the:
a Pulse length of the instrument.

b Pulse recovery time of the instrument.
c Frequency of the instrument.
d Pulse repetition rate or frequency of the instrument.
5 In a basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instrument: which controls are used to alter the
horizontal position of echo signals?
a The astigmatism and brightness.

b The PRF and delay.
c The delay and range.
d The attenuator and reject.
6 In a basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instrument, the component that produces the voltage
that activates the search unit is called:
a The amplifier.
b The receiver.
c The pulse generator.
d The timebase generator.
7 In a basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instrument, vertical movements of the CRT spot are
produced by the signal from:
a The X-plates.
b The receiver amplifier.
c The timebase generator.
d None of these.

UT Coursework 7
8 Compression-rarefaction waves whose particle displacement is parallel to the direction

of propagation are called:
a Longitudinal waves.
b Shear waves.
c Lamb waves.
d Rayleigh waves.
9 The highest unit stress to which a material may be subjected without causing a
deformation that remains permanent upon release of the stress is referred to as:
a The bending stress.

b The shear modulus.
c The elastic modulus (Young’s modulus).
d The elastic limit.
10 A properly constructed Distance Amplitude Correction curve corrects for:
a The attenuation of ultrasound with range, to provide a constant recording

threshold.
b Beam spread divergence to provide a constant reporting threshold.
c Non-linearity of gain in the flaw detector amplifier.
d Both a and b.
11 Two signals are displayed on the A-scan of a flaw detector. The first signal has an
amplitude of 40% FSH and the second signal is 8 dB higher. What is the approximate
amplitude of the second signal?
a 75% FSH.
b 100% FSH.
c 80% FSH.
d 63% FSH.
12 Defects near to the surface cannot always be detected by single crystal probes.
This is because of :
a The Fraunhofer zone.

b Attenuation.
c The effect of crystal vibration.
d Diffraction.
13 In an inspection a 20% DAC was used. Such a DAC can be drawn by reducing the
reference gain by:
a 8 dB.
b 14 dB.
c 10 dB.
d 12 dB.
14 The near field of a 2 MHz, 15mm diameter, 0 compression wave probe, in mild steel
(vc = 5930 m/s) is approximately:
a 16mm.
b 19mm.
c 23mm.
d 21mm.

UT Coursework 7
15 The second critical angle is:
a The angle of incidence at which the shear wave is refracted at angle of 90.
b The refracted angle of the shear wave when the angle of incidence is 90.
c The angle of incidence at which the compression wave is refracted at an angle of
90.
d The angle at which an ultrasound signal reflects off a back wall.
16 For a 14mm diameter 2 MHz shear wave probe the theoretical angle (the whole angle,
not the half angle) of divergence to the 20 dB edge of the beam (k = 1.08) in steel
(vs = 3240 m/s) is approximately:
a 33.03 degrees.
b 14.36 degrees.
c 17.16 degrees.
d 13.39 degrees.
17 As frequency increases in ultrasonic testing, the angle of beam divergence for a given
crystal diameter:
a Decreases.
b Remains unchanged.
c Increases.
d Varies uniformly through each wavelength.
18 The practical pulse width for ultrasonic testing of welds is generally reckoned to be:
a 20 wave cycles.
b 10 wave cycles.
c 5 wave cycles.
d 1 wave cycle.
19 If the plate is 45mm thick and the shear wave angle is 70 the corner reflection from
a shallow 90 notch on the scanning surface should be detected at a range of:
a 252mm.
b 263mm.
c 235mm.
d 275mm.
20 When examining a butt weld in flat plate with an angle probe, stand-off usually refers
to the:
a Horizontal distance between the centreline of the weld and the index point of the
probe.
b Horizontal distance between the centreline of the weld and the front of the probe.
c Vertical distance between the probe shoe and the scanning surface (gap
scanning).
d Scanning restriction caused by the weld cap.

UT Coursework 7
21 During an ultrasonic test a component is found to have an attenuation factor for 5

MHz compression waves of 0.15 dB/mm of beam path. If the component is 0.05 m
thick flat plate the first backwall echo will be attenuated by:
(neglect beam spread effects)
a 7.5 dB.
b 15 dB.
c 12 dB.
d 30 dB.
22 Which of the following are commonly used as reference reflectors in ultrasonic

examination?
a A 2mm surface notch.

b A 3mm side drilled hole.
c A 3mm flat bottomed hole.
d All of the above.
23 If reporting echo height relative to a 3mm SDH DAC which of the following shear wave
angles would you expect to produce the smallest signal (relative to DAC) from a 90
surface notch?
a 45.
b 60.
c 70.
d I would expect the signal height above DAC to be the same for all shear wave
angles.
24 If reporting echo height relative to a 3mm SDH DAC which of the following shear wave
angles would you expect to produce the biggest signal (relative to DAC) from a 90
surface notch?
a 45.
b 60.
c 70.
d I would expect the signal height above DAC to be the same for all shear wave
angles.
25 A DAC calibration block is constructed from production material. The maximum test
range is 250mm. At that range it takes a gain setting of 42 dB to raise the signal from
a calibration reflector to 20% FSH. The equipment gain is further increased until at a
gain setting of 54 dB grass at maximum test range is displayed at 20 % FSH. This
tells us that:
a The signal to noise ratio at the maximum test range is 12 dB.

b The signal to noise ratio at the maximum test range is -12 dB.
c That material noise is 50% of DAC.
d That material noise is 10% of DAC.
26 Some ultrasonic probes are supplied with a series of curves show the relationship
between range and echo height for theoretical disc shaped reflectors of various sizes.
These curves can be used to set sensitivity or to ‘size’ reflectors based on echo height.
Collectively, these curves are referred to as:
a A DGS or AVG diagram.

b A distance amplitude correction diagram.
c An echodynamic diagram.
d Flat bottom hole equivalent diagram.

UT Coursework 7
27 The reference reflector is a 3mm side drilled hole. After setting the DAC on the
calibration block a 3mm side drilled hole is detected in the workpiece. At reference
sensitivity the echo from the hole is observed to be 4 dB below the DAC. Possible
causes are:
a Transfer losses.
b Attenuation losses.
c Acoustic impedance differences (the hole in the workpiece is full of oil).
d All of the above are possible causes.

UT Coursework 8
UT Coursework 8
1 The echo height from a standard reflector changes with range. Compensating for this
so that defect echoes at all ranges can be judged against a representative standard is
called:
a Distance gain size.

b Distance amplitude correction.
c Attenuation measurement.
d Screen height linearity checking.
2 Assume that attenuation is zero and that A-scan presentation is being used. In the
far field of a 20mm diameter ultrasonic probe the backwall echo height (ie: that from
an infinite reflector) varies with range as follows:
a It falls by 6 dB for each doubling of range.

b It falls by 12 dB for each doubling of range.
c It falls by 20 dB for each doubling of range.
d None of the above is correct, the echo height cannot be predicted in this way.
3 The half angle of beam divergence decreases as:
a The crystal diameter increases and as frequency increases.

b The crystal diameter decreases and as frequency increases.
c The crystal diameter decreases and as frequency decreases.
d The crystal diameter increases and as frequency decreases.
4 A crystal that expands or contracts when an electric charge is applied is called:
a Magnetostrictive.
b Thermo-mechanical.
c Semi-conducting.
d Piezo electric.
5 Which factors need to be considered when setting a maximum rate of probe movement
for an automated ultrasonic inspection?
a The pulse repetition frequency.

b The amplifier response time.
c Both a and b.
d The probe frequency.
6 A mode of sound propagation that does not exist in water is:
a Lamb wave.
b Surface wave.
c Shear wave.
d All of the above.

UT Coursework 8
7 Sound is incident on a perspex – steel interface at an angle of 56. The velocity of a

shear wave in ferritic steel is 3240 ms-1. The velocity of a surface wave in steel is 3000
ms-1. The velocity of a compression wave in perspex is 2730 ms -1. The velocity of a
compression wave in steel is 5930 ms-1. The predominant sound modes produced in
the steel will be:
a Shear and compression.

b Surface and shear.
c Lamb wave and surface wave.
d Surface and compression.
8 In materials such as steel and aluminium the type of sound wave that has the shortest
wavelength (and therefore in theory the highest sensitivity) is:
a A surface wave.
b A shear wave.
c A compression wave.
d A lamb wave.
9 The wavelength of any wave is:
a The distance that the wave front advances in one second.

b The distance moved by a particle on the wave path in one complete wave cycle.
c The distance that the wave front advances in one complete wave cycle.
d Equal to its frequency divided by its velocity (f/v).
10 Standard calibration blocks are used in ultrasonic testing to:
a Calibrate the timebase.

b Construct a distance amplitude correction curve.
c Make the test repeatable.
d Do all of the above.
11 In any material capable of supporting surface waves and shear waves:
a The velocity of the surface wave is always slightly less than

(usually about 90% of) the velocity of the shear wave.
b The velocity of the surface wave is always slightly more than (usually about 108%
of) the velocity of the shear wave.
c a is correct for all materials other than pure aluminium.
d b is correct for all materials other than pure aluminium.
12 The pulse repetition frequency of many portable flaw detectors is adjusted

automatically by:
a The fine range control.

b The coarse range control.
c The coarse gain setting.
d The fine gain setting.

UT Coursework 8
13 Which of the following is likely to cause the least attenuation (dB/mm) of ultrasound?
a An aluminium forging.
b A steel ingot.
c An aluminium casting.
d A steel casting.
14 When plotting an indication using a flaw location slide at a detection range which is
beyond half-skip which of the following assumptions is made?
a That the edges of the beam spread are parallel to the centre of the beam.
b That the back wall of the component is parallel to the inspection surface.
c That the standoff is twice the measured value.
d That the beam spread is symmetrical about its axis.
15 High frequency probes are preferred for thickness measurement because:
a Penetration is less than for a low frequency probe and thickness checks are only
carried out on thin specimens.
b The probes are smaller and the point of inspection can be more accurately
determined.
c Perspex wear shoes can be fitted which limit the damage that would be caused if
they were used for general inspections.
d The wavelength is shorter at high frequencies.
16 The half amplitude technique can be used for sizing the length of a weld defect such
as lack of side wall fusion:
a Under all circumstances.

b Only when 20 dB drop sizing cannot be used.
c If the length of a defect is greater than the beam spread of the probe at the
maximum range of inspection.
d If the length of a defect is greater than the beam spread of the probe at the range
at which the defect was detected.
17 A compression wave enters an aluminium component at right angles to the component

surface. If the source of the compression waves is water, the percentage of ultrasound
transmitted across the water/aluminium interface is
(ZAl = 17; Zwater = 1.5):
a 29.8%.
b 15.4%.
c 70.2%.
d 11.8%.
18 The 20 dB beam spread of an ultrasonic probe is best determined:
a Using a block containing 1.5mm side drilled holes constructed using low
attenuation forged ferritic steel.
b By calculation using Sine(θ/2) = 1.08 /D.
c Using a block containing 1.5mm side drilled holes constructed using high
attenuation cast ferritic steel.
d Using the BS EN 12223 calibration block.

UT Coursework 8
19 In contact testing the dead zone of a probe is:
a An area of the ultrasound beam, near the surface, where the ability of the probe
to detect signals is impaired.
b The barrier between crystal halves in a twin crystal probe.
c The extremities of the beam spread, beyond the 20 dB drop beam spread lines.
d Is another name for the near field.
20 Presentation of data received during a pulse echo ultrasonic test in which time or
distance is displayed on the horizontal or x-axis whilst sound pressure or intensity is
displayed on the vertical or y-axis is known as:
a P-scan presentation.
b A-scan presentation.
c B-scan presentation.
d C-scan presentation.
21 The ability to resolve echoes from adjacent reflectors is strongly affected by:
a The range of detection.

b Operating frequency.
c Pulse repetition frequency.
d The choice of couplant
22 In immersion testing of aluminium, using water as a couplant, the first critical angle
is about: (Aluminium vc = 6350 m/s; vs = 3030 m/s: Water vc = 1490 m/s)
a 8.0.
b 13.6.
c 27.4.
d 56.7.
23 While testing a component, an operator notices a sharp drop in the amplitude of the
backwall echo. This is probably caused by:
a A loss of couplant between the probe and the surface of the component.
b A change in the shape of the component.
c A discontinuity, the reflective face of which, is badly oriented to the beam.
d All of the above are possible explanations.
24 Setting sensitivity level is:
a The care that an operator takes in preparing for a component examination.

b The measurement of surface condition and its effect on the amplitude of a back
wall echo.
c The determination of the size of the smallest indication that can be guaranteed
will be found.
d The setting of a signal amplitude, from a reflector of known size, to a specified
amplitude.
25 The higher the frequency of a transducer the:
a Greater the beam spread and depth of penetration.

b Less the beam spread and the greater the sensitivity and resolution.
c Less the ultrasound beam attenuates, thus increasing penetration.
d Less the sensitivity and the greater the penetration.

UT Coursework 8
26 The choice of a suitable couplant is chiefly affected by:
a The grain structure of the test specimen.

b The geometry or shape of the test specimen.
c The surface condition of the test specimen.
d The size of the test specimen.
27 A test object will resonate whenever the thickness is equal to an odd number of half
wavelengths. The various corresponding resonant frequencies are called:
a Crescendos.
b Harmonics.
c Antinodes.
d Antipodes.

NDT4 Coursework cw1-8

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

NDT4 Coursework cw1-8

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Ultrasonic Testing – Coursework

Ultrasonic Testing – Coursework

NDT4 - 070219 1 Copyright © TWI Ltd.

1 An ultrasonic longitudinal wave travels in aluminium with a velocity of 635,000 cm/sec

2 The velocity of a sound wave is primarily dependent on the:

3 Angle beam transducers are used to:

4 The process of comparing an instrument or device with a standard is called:

5 Another name for a compression wave is:

6 A second name for a Rayleigh wave is a:

NDT4 - 070219 2 Copyright © TWI Ltd.

8 The piezoelectric material in a probe, which vibrates to produce ultrasonic waves, is

a Compression wave testing.

10 An advantage of using lithium sulphate in a search unit is that it:

a Is one of the most efficient generators of ultrasonic energy.

11 The probe shown in Figure 1 is used for

a Surface wave testing.

a 1MHz search unit.

13 Snell’s law can be used to calculate:

NDT4 - 070219 3 Copyright © TWI Ltd.

14 Surface waves can be used to detect defects located:

a Close to or at the surface.

16 Figure 2 illustrates a contact test on an 80mm thick aluminium block; it shows

What does indication A represent?

a The initial pulse.

17 What does indication B represent in Figure 2?

a Front surface indication.

NDT4 - 070219 4 Copyright © TWI Ltd.

18 What does indication C represent in Figure 2?

a Second back surface reflection.

19 What does indication D represent in Figure 2?

a First discontinuity indication.

20 What does indication E represent in Figure 2?

a First discontinuity indication.

21 Most commercial ultrasonic testing is accomplished using frequencies between:

24 In an A-scan presentation, the horizontal base line represents the:

a Amount of reflected ultrasonic sound energy.

25 In an A-scan presentation, the amplitude or height of vertical indications on the

a Amount of ultrasonic sound energy returning to the search unit.

NDT4 - 070219 5 Copyright © TWI Ltd.

26 The decibel is:

a An absolute measurement of sound.

27 Various sound modes can be propagated in steel. In order of increasing wavelength

a Shear compression and surface.

NDT4 - 070219 6 Copyright © TWI Ltd.

2 Rayleigh or surface waves have a penetration depth of about:

a The detection of flaws (such as lamination) in thin plate material.

5 A 5 MHz ultrasonic transducer:

a Emits a pulse of sound 5 million times each second.

6 For pulse echo testing, which of the following is correct?

a Linearity of the timebase is essential for accurate ultrasonic thickness

NDT4 - 070219 7 Copyright © TWI Ltd.

8 Mode conversion of compression wave to a surface wave cannot occur at:

a An air steel interface.

9 Mode conversion can occur:

a As sound crosses an interface.

a One wavelength or 1.186mm.

a The degree of mechanical damping.

a The pulse width of the 2 probes is equal.

a 20mm diameter, single crystal, 1MHz.

NDT4 - 070219 8 Copyright © TWI Ltd.

a The first front surface indication.

16 In Figure 1, indication B represents:

a The first front surface indication.

17 In Figure 1 indication C represents: